Activity 1A - Introduction to EIA Select the most appropriate response to the following questions: 1. Where undertaken, EIA should be used to help determine whether consent is given for development
a. never b. hardly ever
c. often
d. always d. always
2. The primary reason for Environmental Impact Assessment is to
a. mitigate existing environmental impacts of development b. predict the size of impacts of developments
c. describe proposed developments
d. identify d. identify the environmental consequences of development in advance
3. Which of the following statements are false?
a. land use planning systems do the same thing as EIA b. EIA is intended to be a rational and comprehensive assessment
c. EIA c. EIA is costly and time consuming
d. EIA is a process
4. EIA is necessary because?
a. development is bad for the environment
b. there is growing interest interest in sustainability sustainability
c. environmental c. environmental impacts of developments are of public interest
d. none of the above
5. Which environmental principle best reflects the intent of EIA?
a. polluter pays b. prevention is better than cure
c. reduce reuse recycle
d. none of the above
Activity 1B - Introduction to EIA Practice Select the most appropriate response to the following questions: 1. Impacts on which of the following should not be co nsidered in an EIA?
a. Ecological b. Human Health
c. Social
d. Impacts on environmental consultants
2. Which of the elements of the EIA process does the following expression describe?...identifying at an early stage, from all a project's possible impacts, those that are the crucial, significant ones....
a. screening b. scoping
c. baseline description
d. mitigation
3. Which of the elements of the EIA process does the following expression describe?.....narrowing the application of EIA to those projects that may have significant environmental impacts....
a. screening b. scoping
c. baseline description
d. mitigation
4. Which of the elements of the EIA process does the following expression describe?.....establishing the present and future states of the environment in the absence of the project......
a. screening b. scoping
c. baseline description
d. mitigation
5. Which of the following best describes why public involvement is necessary and integral to EIA?
a. Without incorporating stakeholder views EIA cannot be expected to accurately record the impact significance of the project b. Public acceptability is important to ensure that political proponents of the project are re-elected c. The law requires that the public are notified of developments d. The developer who does not undertake public consultation will be able to undertake the project more quickly
Activity 2A - EIA Systems, Policy and Legislation Select the most appropriate response to the following qu estions: 1. An Environmental Statement should examine the potential impacts of a development and present them from
a. the regulator's perspective b. the developer's view
c. an unbiased view, minimising subjectivity
d. the environmental consultant’s view
2. The European Commission wanted to introduce EIA because
a. it would improve environmental conditions across Europe b. it would reduce costs for European businesses c. it would reduce competition amongst European businesses
d. it would reduce competition with international businesses
3. EIA under Directive 97/11 differs from EIA under the US NEPA in that it
a. only relates to programmes b. only deals with effects on humans
c. only relates to private sector developments
d. covers both public and private sector develpments
4. Projects requiring EIA may be subject to consent procedures
a. after the EIA has been carried out b. before the EIA has been carried out
c. whilst the EIA is being carried out
d. at any point in the process
5. Canadian EIA Legislation is distinctive because
a. It was the first to be enacted b. It was the last to be enacted
c. It enshrines the requirement for public participation
d. It is the most comprehensive impact assessment system
Activity 3A - Public Involvement Principles Select the most appropriate response to the following questions: 1. The best way to deal with opposition to development proposals is to
a. ignore it b. involve stakeholders in the process of EIA c. involve objectors once the Environmental Statement is complete
d. commission stakeholders to prepare the Environmental Statement
2. Which statement best summarises public involvement?
a. informing the public about the project b. engaging the public in participating in project impact evaluation
c. engaging the public in promoting the project
d. minimising bad publicity about the project
3. Which statement best summarises the role of negotiation within EIA public involvement processes?
a. Allows different interest groups to resolve disputes and differences by recognising each others viewpoints and values b. Allows two way flow of information between the proponent and the public
c. Allows developer/proponent to avoid bad publicity
d. Allows decision makers to provide permission for the project to proceed
4. The responsibility and cost related to undertaking public consultation and involvement in EIA should fall on
a. the developer b. the local authority
c. the environment agency
d. a range of different statutory agencies
5. Which of the following statements is true?
a. EIA involves a wide range of actors and agencies b. EIA mainly involves developers and the public
c. EIA is largely a matter for developers
d. EIA is mainly an issue affecting developers and regulators
Activity 4A - Screening Basics
Select the most appropriate response to the following questions: 1. What are the key factors whoch must be taken i nto account when determining whether a project requires EIA or not?
a. Size of the project b. Size of the project and sensitivity of the surrounding environment c. Size of the project, sensitivity of the surrounding environment and effect on local communities d. Size of the project, sensitivity of the surrounding environment, effect on local communities and opinion of the developer
2. In some jurisdictions, project size is used as a proxy screening criteria. What is the key problem with this approach?
a. Size matters but its also where it is located that counts b. Projects can in certain cases be split up in order that they fall below the threshold criteria c. Projects may use different processes, technologies or design which vary their impacts irrespective of size d. All of the above
3. Which of the following is never an acceptable outcome of the screening process?
a. A full and comprehensive EIA is required
b. EIA consideration is not required
c. No further level of EIA is required
d. A more limited EIA is required
4. Where a preliminary EIA is carried o ut during screening, which of the following should not be included?
a. A description of the proposal b. Review of the degree of public concern and interest about the proposal
c. A plan for mitigation measures
d. Review of the potential impacts of the proposal and their likely significance
5. Why aren’t all projects subject to EIA?
a. If all projects were subject to EIA, costs would be higher and overall benefits of EIA relatively lower b. If all projects were subject to EIA, costs would be lower and overall benefits of EIA relatively higher c. If all projects were subject to EIA, consultants and practitioners would not be able to cope with demand d. If all projects were subject to EIA, wrong decisions would be made a bout a proportion of these projects
Activity 5A - Scoping Basics Select the most appropriate response to the following questions: 1. Scoping is important to the EIA process because
a. it decides from all the possible impacts which are the potentially significant ones b. it saves the developer money
c. it ensures the environmental effects of the project are all considered in detail
d. it identifies all possible alternatives
2. Which of the following are not required to be included in a scoping report or ToR?
a. an overview of the community that is likely to be affected b. description of the screening process
c. an overview or profile of the proposal and receiving enironment
d. the possible alternatives to the project
3. Best practice scoping requires
a. relevant experience of other similar developments b. using formal scoping techniques
c. a site visit
d. all of the above
4. Which of the following should be included in the scoping study/ToR?
a. the policy and institutional frameworks under which the EIA will be conducted b. problems with data availability
c. spatial amd temporal parameters for detailed studies
d. all of the above
5. Why does the responsibility for scoping vary from case to case?
a. different projects require different determining authorities b. requirements for scoping vary from project to project
c. requirements for scoping vary across different EIA systems
d. scoping intent varies according to the sensitivity of the receiving environment
(is mcq k a b c d sb kr k daikha cross he aata)
Activity 6A - Impact Analysis Basics Select the most appropriate response to the following questions: 1. Which of the following is not a material co nsideration when making impact predictions of environmental damage?
a. the period of time an impact will last for b. the benefits of the project for jobs and the economy
c. the area over which an impact will occur
d. the intensity of environmental damage within the impact zone
2. Which of the following are indirect i mpacts?
a. visual impact of a chimney in a power station project b. impact of mining raw materials for building a new power station
c. predicted noise impact of a new road in operation
d. impact on air quality from trucking supplies of wood to a construction site
3. An impact threshold is best described as:
a. a point at which a small dose increase causes a relatively large response b. a point of maximum or minimum impact
c. a point of no change in the dose-response relationship
d. a point where permanent environmental damage is c aused
4. The dose-response relationship can best be defined as:
a. the relationship between the impact and the effort needed to clean up the environment afterwards b. the relationship between the impact and the response of people to the environmental damage c. the relationship between the amount of impact agent and the resultant change in the environment d. the relationship between the amount of impact agent and the time taken for the change in the environment to take effect
5. Uncertainty is inherent within the impact assessment process, because:
a. it involves predicting the future b. we do not have complete knowledge of the way in which environmental impacts occur c. we do not know what value future generations will ascribe to different aspects of the natural environment d. all of the above
Activity 6B - Impact Characterisation You may need to conduct independent research to answer the following questions, which relate to the assessment of specific types of impacts common in EIA. 1. In what type of impact might you provide impact predictions in terms of Biological Oxygen Demand?
a. water quality b. vibration
c. noise
d. particulates
2. Particulate emissions are:
a. fine dust usually measured by quantity and size in microns, such as PM10 (up to 10 microns)
b. not included in air pollution studies
c. fine dust defined as chemically toxic
d. limited in their impacts to nuisance effects
3. Modelling stack emission pollution predictions invariably requires the following variables:
a. project specifications of predicted emissions b. weather data
c. topographic data
d. all of the above
4. A noise impact is best defined as
a. very loud emissions b. unwanted sound
c. any sound at night
d. intermittent peaks
5. Which of the following statements is most t rue?
a. landscape impact cannot be measured because it is subjective b. landscape impact is a cultural concept
c. landscape impact for a given development is independent of setting
d. landscape impact is only an issue in national parks
(is ka 3 n 4 nae ho raha link open kr k daikh laina ap log khud b (http://sustainabilityresearch.mcgill.ca/documents/EIA%20readings/eia-local/page192.htm) )
Activity 6C - Impact Significance Assessment Select the most appropriate response to the following questions:
1. If the state of knowledge is insufficient to be able to confidently and precisely predict an impact, we should:
a. discount it from consideration b. apply the precautionary principle by assuming the highest likely value
c. apply the precautionary principle by abandoning the project
d. apply the precautionary principle by assuming a nominal value
2. Which best describes the process of extr apolation?
a. inferring within an existing data set b. extending beyond an existing data set
c. drawing a line between two or more data points
d. creating a new data set
3. Which of the following criteria should not contribute to the process of establishing impact significance?
a. likelihood or probability of the impact occurring b. sensitivity of the receiving environment
c. views and values of the public
d. views and values of the developer
4. Which of the following statements is true?
a. magnitude is not relevant in impact assessment b. magnitude is primarily subjective
c. predicting significance involves value judgements about importance
d. predicting significance is objective
5. Which of the following is not a valid explanation of why monetisation is rarely attempted in EIA?
a. because there are problems in ascribing monetary values to many environmental assets b. because many people refuse to put a cash value on a view
c. because we do not know how valuable current environmental assets are to future generations
d. because it would render all developments unprofitable
Activity 7A - Mitigation Basics Please select the most appropriate response from the f ollowing questions:
1. Which of the following require mitigation?
a. significant adverse impacts b. significant positive effects
c. any impacts for which mitigation is possible
d. any impacts which are negative
2. The developer would normally prefer 'acceptance and trade -off' to 'impact reduction by design' because:
a. costs are lower b. environmental benefits are higher
c. it generally has less impact on project design
d. it generally has more effect on project design
3. Tree screening is a common mitigation technique to reduce visual impacts by softening the lines of hard development in a rural landscape. Young trees, however, may die during their early years, thus eliminating the mitigative effect. Tree screening soft landscaping can best be achieved by:
a. Using eucalypts with a high growth rate b. Using high barriers instead of trees c. Making provision for aftercare and replacement
d. Never using tree screening
4. Which of the following general approaches to mitigation is most likely to offer the best environmental option to mitigate for the damage to landscape caused by a proposed 5 year phase of mineral working?
a. Providing screening b. Acceptance and trade-off
c. Impact reduction by re-design
d. Restoration plan and finance
5. One pitfall of construction traffic route mitigation is t hat truck drivers may fail to use the least-impact, approved route. How may this problem best be overcome?
a. Assume that only half of the drivers will use the approved route when carrying out impact assessment b. Recommend signage and temporary road narrowing blocks to ensure the route is followed
c. Require that smaller vehicles are used as this will reduce the impact
d. Require drivers to take half-loads to reduce the impact
(http://sustainability-research.mcgill.ca/documents/EIA%20readings/eia-local/page162.htm) (for mcq 3)
Activity 7B - Mitigation of Specific Impacts Further research may be required to answer the following questions about mitigation of specific impacts.
1. Road noise is often mitigated by the construction of acoustic barriers between t he noise source and the receptor. Which of the fol lowing secondary impacts is most likely to result?
a. Habitat loss
b. Visual amenity loss
c. Increased accidents
d. Increased air pollution from the road
2. To reduce flood risks downstream of a river section which is to be culverted passing through an urban area, the following measure should be considered:
a. Incorporate high friction surfaces in the culvert b. Recommend that the culvert is enlarged
c. Recommend that low friction surfaces be used in the culvert
d. Recommend that culverts are closed during storm events
3. Mitigation is possible through specifying the timing of activities in order to avoid nesting/breeding times for which of the following impacts?
a. Operation of a tidal barrage scheme b. Operation of a pipeline project across an estuary
c. Construction of a pipeline project across an estuary
d. Construction and operation of a hard rock quarry
4. If significant severance to equestrian movements is predicted to occur arising from a new proposed road development, which of the foll owing mitigation options will be most appropriate?
a. Recommend a subway is incorporated, with steps at each side leading under the road b. Recommend a bridge is incorporated, with ramps at each side leading over the road
c. Recommend a level crossing is incorporated
d. Recommend the road is widened to prevent crossing
5. Under what circumstances would a monitoring programme be the most appropriate form of mitigation?
a. Where a known archaeological dig site is located under the proposed project site b. Where a listed building is located on the proposed project site
c. Where there is former evidence of archaeological interest in the area
d. Where a project will not disturb soil or underground structures
Activity 8A. EIA Reporting Basics
Please select the most appropriate response from the following questions:
1. Which of the following elements is/are least appropriate for inclusion in the EIA Report or Environmental Statement (ES)?
a. Assessment methods b. Scoping
c. Cost/benefits for the developer
d. Indirect significant effects
2. Which of the following elements should be r eported within an EIA Report/ES which follows best practice?
a. Alternatives b. Scoping
c. Existing environmental issues on the site
d. All of the above
3. Why should residual impacts be included in the EIA Report/ES?
a. Because it is mandatory in all EIA regulations b. Because they provide key information for the public
c. Because they provide key information for the developer
d. Because otherwise pollution residues will not be considered
4. Which of the following is commonly overlooked yet important for inclusion in the EIA Report/ES?
a. Impact assessment
b. Public consultation
c. Project description
d. Need for the project
5. Which of the following best describes the function of the Environmental Management Plan as part of the EIA report/ES?
a. It describes the baseline environmental impacts b. It describes the environmental impacts of the proposal
c. It describes the actions and auditing procedures r equired
d. It describes the project proposal in detail
Activity 8B - The Non-Technical Summary/Executive Summary Please select the most appropriate answer to the following questions:
1. The primary purpose of the NTS is:
a. To act as a developer’s guide
b. To act as a layperson’s guide
c. To act as an aide memoir
d. To act as a promotional guide
2. Which of the following may be considered to be t echnical terms and therefore not used (or at least explained adequately) in the NTS?
a. Assessment
b. Alternatives
c. dB(A)
d. kg
3. Which of the following EIA aspects should be included within an NTS?
a. Assessment methods b. Scoping
c. Impacts on humans
d. All of the above
4. Which of the following elements should be reported within an NTS which follows best practice?
a. Contact address for the developers b. Illustration showing residual impacts
c. Environmental baseline
d. All of the above
5. Why should the NTS text not make regular r eferences to (or quote from) the main EIA report or Environmental Statement?
a. Because this is against the regulations b. Because the NTS should be a ‘stand -alone’ document
c. Because quotes from the ES may be incorrect
d. Because this is against copyright rules
