ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS – ANTIBIOTICS
1- Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include: a) Inhibit protein synthesis b) Inhibit cell wall synthesis c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information 2- The bacteriostatic effect of sulphametoxazole may be increased by: a) Penicillin b) Sulbactam c) Clavulanic acid d) Tarzobactam e) Trimetroprim 3-Correct statements regarding Penicillin V may include which of the following? I-β-lactamase sensitive antibiotic – acid stable II- Has a short half-life because is rapidly excreted by glomerular filtration III- Probenecid increase penicillin’s activity a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 4- The only antibiotic available as chew able tablet include: a) Penicillin b) Amoxacillin c) Ampicillin d) Erytromycin e) Claritromycin 5- Correct statements regarding Erythromycin ESTOLATE may include: I- Primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and also have activity against some gram-negative bacteria II- It is a macrolid antibiotic very useful as alternative to penicillin for those that have allergy to penicillin antibiotics III- Regular erythromycin is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin estolate a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
6- Penicillin should be administrated 1 hour ho ur before meals or 2 to 3 hours after meals in order to: I- Improve the bioavailability II- Maximize the dissolution rate III- Avoid interaction with calcium ions a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
7-Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Penicillins b) Cephalosporins c) Gentamycin d) Streptomycin e) Sulfonamides
8- Examples of antibiotic that is an acid stable penicillinase resistant include: a) Amoxacillin b) Oxacillin c) Ampicillin d) Carbenicillin e) Penicillin V
9- All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT: a) Penicillin V b) Penicillin G c) Methicillin d) Nafcillin e) Carbenicillin
10-Which of the following are/is correct regarding Tetracycline? I- Inhibit protein synthesis II- May be used in dental works III- Cannot be taken for infants less than 8 years old a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
11- Which of the following describes the mechan ism of action of sulphametoxazole? a) Inhibit protein synthesis b) Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis c) Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites d) Alter the function of cell membrane permeability e) Inhibit translation of genetic information
12- Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT: a) Aminoglycosides b) Tetracycline c) Cephalexin d) Chlorafenicol e) Clindamycin
13- Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins? a) Antacids b) Food c) Probenecid d) Aminoglycosides e) All of the above
14- Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally? a) INH b) PASA c) ASA d) Streptomycin e) Oxacillin 15- Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria include: a) Cloroquine b) Quinine c) Primaquin d) Quinin e) Quinidine 16- Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug? a) Amphotericin B b) Metronidazole c) Grisofulvin d) Nystatin e) Clotrimazole
17- Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include: a) Gentamycin b) Ceftriaxone c) Norfloxacine d) Erythromycin e) Penicillin 18- Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis? a) Sulfametoxazole b) Erythromycin c) Cephalexin d) Tetracycline e) Penicillin 19- Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include: I- Has a half-life of 12hours II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated III- The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 20- Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Gray Babies syndrome? I- Occurs in premature and new born infants when choraphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life II- Due to inability of the infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl transferase deficiency III- Glucoronyl transferase is required to detoxify cloraphenicol a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 21- Correct statements regarding Pellagra include: I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
22- Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents? I- Cefixime II- Ceftriaxone III- Ciprofloxacin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 23- Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents? I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation II- Macrolides antibiotics III- Penicillins a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 24- Viral encephalitis, a CNS infection, may be best be treated by which of the following agents? a) Benzyl penicillin b) Ceftriaxone c) Acyclovir d) Streptomycin e) Vancomycin 25- Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia include: I- Ampicilin combined with aminoglycosides II-Chlaritromycin III- Levofloxacin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 26- Otite extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by: a) Ciprofloxacin eardrop b) Gentamicin eardrop c) Prednisone eardrop d) Levobunolol eardrop e) Saline solution
27- Otite media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by: a) Amoxacillin b) Penicillin V c) Ampicilin d) Amoxacillin clavulanate e) Oxacillin
28- First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include: a) Sulphametoxazole + Trimetroprine b) Amoxacillin clavulanated c) Penicillin procaine d) Erythromycin e) All are very effective in treating UTI
29- Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy? a) Penicillin, amoxacillin, ampicillin and metronidazole b) Chlaritromycin, amoxacillin, omeprazole and metronidazole c) Chlaritromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.
30- Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include: I- Lots of fluids II- Ciprofloxacin III- Metronidazole a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
31- Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by: a) Cephalosporins b) Macrolides c) Aminoglycosides d) Vancomycin e) Penicillin
32- Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include: I- Broad-spectrum penicillins II- Cephalosporins III- Clindamycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 33- Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium with Plasmodium vivax is: a) Quinine b) Pyrimethamine c) Sulfadoxine d) Primaquine e) Quinidine 34- Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient? a) Atovaquone only b) Chloroquine and primaquine c) Quinine and doxacycline d) Mefloquine e) C and D are correct 35- Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include: a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics 36- Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called: a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic b) Bactericidal antibiotic c) Bactericidal antimicrobial d) Bacteriostatic antimicrobial e) Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial 37- Antiviral drugs act in many different d ifferent ways, they can be classified in: a) RNA inhibitors only b) DNA inhibitors only c) RNA and DNA inhibitors d) Protease inhibitors e) All are correct
38- Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) Amoxacillin b) Nafcillin c) Metcillin d) Oxacillin e) All are very narrow spectrum penicillins 39- Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include: a) Amoxacillin b) Ampicillin c) Cloxacillin d) Carbenicillin e) Dicloxacillin 40- Resis Resista tanc ncee is the the majo majorr probl problem em with with penic penicil illi lins ns due to abili ability ty of bact bacter eria ia to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors. inhibitors. Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are: I- Clavulanic acid II- Sulbactam III- Tazobactam a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 41- Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include: I- Bactericidal antimicrobial II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium III- Broad-spectrum agent a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 42- Example of fourth generation cephalosporin include: a) Ceftriaxone b) Cefipime c) Cefixime d) Cefotaxime e) Cefoxitin
43- Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include: a) Inhibit release of tRNA bound to peptyl site after peptide bond formation b) Inhibit peptide bound formation between acylaminoacids bound to the peptyl and acceptor site c) Inhibit stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan d) Inhibit DNA gyrase in the bacteria e) Bind to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular contents 44- Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin? a) Ototoxicity b) Dissulfiran like side effect c) Diarrhea d) Weight gain e) Hallucinations 45- All of the following are narrow spectrum p rotein synthesis inhibitors, EXCEPT: a) Erythromycin b) Azithromycin c) Chlarithromycin d) Tetracycline e) Clindamycin 46- Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline? a) Alteration in gut flora b) Dissulfiran like reactions c) Teeth permanent discoloration d) Fanconi like syndrome e) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis 47- Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics? I- Azithromycin II- Chlarithromycin III- Erythromycin a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 48- Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include: a) Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections b) Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins c) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms d) Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect e) Very safe for children
49- All of the following are examples exa mples of aminoglycosides drugs, EXCEPT: a) Nystatin b) Gentamicin c) Amikacin d) Streptomycin e) Garamycin 50- Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index? a) Macrolide b) Cephalosporins c) Clorafenicol d) Aminoglycosides e) Antifungal agents 51- Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of: a) PABA b) Folic acid c) Vitamin K d) Cyanide e) Nalidixic acid 52- Which of the following best classify metronidazole? a) Antiprotozoa b) Antibiotic c) Antifungal d) Antiviral e) Antimicrobial 53- Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include: I- Isoniazide II- Rifampin III- Ethambutol a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 54- Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole
55- All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT: a) Niclosamide b) Prazinquatel c) Mebendazole d) Dapsone e) Thiabendazole 56- Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent? a) Miconazole b) Clotrimazole c) Amphotericin d) Itraconazole e) Ketoconazole 57- Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following? a) Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular contents b) Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol. c) Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent d) Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain e) Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction. 58- Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment? I- Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadine II- Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir III- Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 59- All of the following are examples exa mples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT a) Cephalexine b) Ofloxacine c) Norfloxacine d) Ciprofloxacine e) Levofloxacine 60- Which of the following conditions is quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used? a) Respiratory tract infections b) Urinary tract infections c) Gastrointestinal tract infections d) Endocarditis e) Cerebral infections
61- Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID? a) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium b) Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium c) Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium d) Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium e) Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium
62- Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment? a) Cardiac dysfunction b) Mental dysfunction c) Hepatitis d) Renal complications e) Discoloration of skin
63- The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin? a) Thiamine b) Pyridoxine c) Folic acid d) Niacin e) Cyanocobalamin
64- All of the following are examples exa mples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT: a) Ampicillin b) Cloxacillin c) Amoxacillin d) Bicampicilin e) All are correct
65- Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV? I- Acyclovir II- Zidovudine III- Stavudine a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct
66- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to: I- Mutation II- Adaptation III- Gene transfer a) I only b) III only c) I and II only d) II and III only e) All are correct 67- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in: a) Virus b) Gram-negative bacterias c) Gram-positive bacterias d) Both gram-positive and negative bacterias e) Plasmodium 68- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to: a) 30s ribosomal subunit only b) 50s ribosomal subunit only c) 70s ribosomal subunit only d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits 69- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Clorafenicol e) Clindamycin 70- Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic? a) Tetracycline b) Aminoglycosides c) Vancomycin d) Clorafenicol e) Clindamycin
CORRECT ANSWERS ANTI-INFECTIVE AGENTS
1- B Comments: Cephalosporin is antibiotics that act by inhibition of bacteria’s cell wall synthesis. 2- E Comments: Trimetropi Trimetropin n is used together together with sulphametox sulphametoxazole azole to avoid resistance resistance and to increase the action of sulphametoxazole. 3- E Comments: Penicillin V is an acid-stable beta-lactamase sensitive antibiotic often used together with probenecid, a beta-lactamase b eta-lactamase inhibitor, to avoid resistance of bacterias. 4- B Comments: Amoxacillin is the only antibiotic available as chewable tablets. 5- C Comments: Erythromycin estolate is a salt type of erythromycin; a macrolide antibiotic that is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin base. 6- A Comments: Penicillins should be administrated in an empty stomach in order to improve its bioavailability. 7- D Comments: Streptomycin is not used in the treatment of meningitis. The main treatment of bacterial meningitis may include penicillins, cephalosporins and vancomycin while viral meningitis is mainly treated by acyclovir IV. 8- B Comments: Oxacillin and cloxacillin are examples of acid-stable penicillanase resistant. 9- B Comments: Penicillin V is an acid-stable penicillanase sensitive. 10- E Comments: Tetracycli Tetracycline ne is broad-spectr broad-spectrum um protein protein synthesis synthesis inhibitors inhibitors that must be avoided in children less than 8 years old due to its irreversible side effects as deposition of the the drug drug in teet teeth h and and bones bones caus causin ing g perma permanen nentt disc discol olor orat atio ion n of teet teeth h and and bad bad structural-formation in children’s teeth.
11- B Comments: Sulpham Sulphameto etoxaz xazole ole act compet competing ing with with PABA PABA for incorp incorpora oratio tion n into into the pathway leading to the synthesis of folic acid. Results in inhibition of folic acid synthesis that is required for synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. 12- C Comments: Cephal Cephalexi exin n is a first first genera generati tion on cephal cephalosp ospori orin n that that acts acts by inhibi inhibitio tion n of bacterial cell wall synthesis. 13- E Comments: Antacids and food interfere with the regular effect of penicillin by decreasing the the bioav bioavai aila labi bili lity ty of penic penicil illi lin n whil whilee prob proben eneci ecid d and and stre strept ptom omyc ycin in incr increas easee the the bioavailability and effectiveness of penicillin when used currently. 14- D Comments: Streptomycin is only available in injectable form because it is not properly absorbed by GIT. 15- A Comments: Cloroquine is the main drug in prophylaxis an d treatment of malaria. 16- B Comments: Metronidazole is antiprotozoa drug acting by breakage of cell DNA. 17- C Comments: Norfloxacine is a quinolone synthetic bactericidal antibiotic that acts by inhibition of DNA gyrase in the bacteria. 18- E Comments: Meningococcal encephalitis is a type of septic meningitis that normally is best treated by penicillins, having Ceftriaxone and vancomycin as alternative treatment. 19- D Comments: Aminoglycosides are inhibitors of protein synthesis characterized for having a very small therapeutic window and for having the relation plasma concentration and half-life not clear, therefore its therapeutic use should be closely monitored to avoid serious side effect. 20- E Comments: Gray Gray Babies Babies syndrome syndrome occurs occurs in premat premature ure and new born born infant infantss when when choraphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life. It happens due to inability of the infant infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl glucoronyl transferase transferase deficiency deficiency that is essential to detoxify cloraphenicol.
21- E Comments: Pellagra is a disease characterized by niacin deficiency and/or failure of body to convert tryptophan to niacin. It is mainly characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia. 22- E Comments: Cefixime 400mg orally as single dose, ceftriaxone 125mg IM as single dose and ciprofloxacin 500mg orally as single dose are the recommended regimens for the treatment of uncomplicated gonorrhea. 23- A Comments: Nosocomial infections are normally hospital developed secondary diseases and may be best treated by third generation cephalosporin or ciprofloxacin. 24- C Comments: Viral encephalitis is mainly caused by HSV-1 and 2 viruses and may be treated by acyclovir IV. 25- E Comments: The treatm treatment ent of pneumon pneumonia ia is based based on the agent agent causat causative ive.. Bacter Bacteria ia pneumonia is mainly treated by the currently used of amoxacillin with aminoglycosides or clarithromycin or levofloxacin. 26- B Comments: Otit Otitee exte extern rnaa also also know known n as swimm wimmer er’s ’s ear ear is mainl ainly y caus caused ed by pseudomonas, staphylococcus or enterobacterias and may be treated by garamycin or gentamycin eardrops. 27- D Comments: Otite media may be caused by caused by S. pneumoniae, H. influenza and M . cataharlis, cataharlis, and may be treated by amoxacillin clavulanated. 28- A Comments: First line treatment of UTI associated with E.coli infected agent is mainly treated by sulphametoxazole and trimetroprim. 29- B Comments: Helicobacter pylori is a GI infection associated with peptic ulcer and gastric canc cancer er that that may may be trea treate ted d by the the “tri “tripl plee ther therap apy y” that that invo involv lves es amox amoxac acil illi lin, n, clarithromycin and omeprazole with or without metronidazole. 30- E Comments: Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication include ciprofloxacin and metronidazole as therapeutic agents and increase the volume of intake fluids as a non-pharmacologic help.
31- D Comments: Vancomycin is the drug of choice in the treatment of pseudomembranous colitis associated with antibiotic use. 32- E Comments: Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include broad-spectrum penicillins, cephalosporins and clindamycin. 33- D Comments: Primaquine is normally used together with Cloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax. 34- E Comments: Treatment of malaria in those patients resistant to Cloroquine is normally done by the currently use of quinine and doxacycline. 35- B Comments: Antibiotics are drugs derivated from natural sources that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth. 36- C Comments: Bactericidal drugs have the capacity to completely kill the bacteria and antimi antimicro crobia biall are drugs drugs deriva derivated ted from from synth syntheti eticc substa substance ncess that that can kill kill or inhibi inhibitt bacterial growth. 37- E Comments: Antiviral drugs are classified as RNA inhibitor, DNA inhibitors, RNA and DNA inhibitors, and protease inhibitors. 38- A Comments: Amoxacillin is a wide spectrum penicillin antibiotic. 39- D Comments: Carben Carbenici icilli llin n is extend extended ed spectr spectrum um penici penicilli llin n often often given given IV for seriou seriouss infections. 40- E Comments: All, clavulanic acid, sulbactam and tazobactam are beta-lactamase inhibitors used together with penicillins sensitive. 41- D Comments: Cephalosporins are bactericidal antibiotics derivated from cephalosporium acremonium. They are broad-spectrum agents and are resistant to many types of betalactamase. They may be classified by first, second, third and fourth generation.
42- B Comments: Cefipime is a fourth generation cephalosporin antibiotic. 43- C Comments: Vancomycin is a bactericidal agent that acts inhibiting stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan. 44- A Comments: Side effects of vancomycin vancomycin may include include ototoxicity ototoxicity,, phlebitis, phlebitis, chills and fever. 45- D Comments: Tetracyclines are broad-spectrum inhibitors of protein synthesis. 46- B Comments: Dissulfiran side effects are characterized by skin rashes, headache, acne, drowsiness, tiredness, impotence and metallic or garlic taste in the mouth therefore is not a side effect of tetracyclines. 47- E Comments: Azithromycin, clarithromycin and erythromycin are examples of macrolides antibiotics. 48- C Comments: Macrolide antibiotics are protein synthesis inhibitors and have no effect on cell wall synthesis inhibition. 49- A Comments: Nystatin Comments: Nystatin is a polyene antifungal drug. 50- D Comments: Aminoglycosides are protein synthesis inhibitor agents characterized by its low therapeutic index. 51- E Comments: Fluoroquinolones are quinolones analog of nalidixic acid. 52- A Comments: Metronidazole is an antiprotozoa agent that acts by breakage of cell DNA. 53- E Comments: Isoni Isoniaz azid idee is the the sing single le most most impor importa tant nt drug drug used used in TB. TB. Rifa Rifamp mpin in is normally used in combination with Isoniazide. Ethambutol is only used in TB treatment given in combination with isoniazide.
54- B Comments: Prazinquatel is an antihelmintic drug used in the treatment of schistosomiase. 55- D Comments: Dapsone is an antimycobacterium drug of choice ch oice in the treatment of leprosy. 56- C Comments: Amphotericin is the polyene antifungal prototype. 57- E Comments: Tylenol and ibuprofen are considered the best drugs in the treatment of side effects caused by antifungal drugs. 58- C Comments: Influenza is a viral disease and must be treated by antiviral agents. 59- C Comments: Cephalexine is a first generation cephalosporin. 60- B Comments: The most common use of quinolone is in the treatment of urinary tract infections. 61- D Comments: Isoniazide act by inhibiting mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium 62- C Comments: Hepatitis may be a grave side effect e ffect associated with isoniazide therapy. 63- B Comments: Isonia Isoniazid zidee is a struct structura urall congene congenerr of pyrido pyridoxine xine-Vi -Vitam tamin in B6, theref therefore ore deficiency of pyridoxine potentate the effects of isoniazide. 64- B Comments: Aminopenicillins are penicillins with amine group on its molecular structure. Cloxacillin does not have an amine group on its molecular structure 65- D Comments: Acyclovir is not used in HIV treatment. 66- E Comments: Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs by mutation, adaptation and/or gene transfer.
67- C Comments: Vancom Vancomyci ycin n is a narrow narrow spectr spectrum um bacteri bactericid cidal al agent agent with with activi activity ty only only against gram-positive bacterias. 68- D Comments: Protein synth nthesis inhibit bitors bind to 50s(Choraphenicol) and 70s (macrolide) ribosomal subunits
30s 30s
(aminogl oglycosi osides),
69- D Comments: Choraphenicol Choraphenicol is a broad-spectrum broad-spectrum antibiotic antibiotic that may cause hematological hematological disorders as side effect including severe impairment of bone marrow. 70- E Comments: Clindamycin is a lincosamide antibiotic that acts by inhibition of bacterial of protein synthesis.
