(National Talent Search Examination)
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num ber 12. Direction s : (1 to 5) In each question there is a number series with one term missing shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives among the four numbers given under it. That number is1.
2, 30, 6, 20, 12, 12, (?) (1) 26 (2) 22 (3) 20 (4) 24
2.
6, 20, 36, 48, 50, (?), 0 (1) 36 (2) 40 (3) 46 (4) 56
3.
7, 15, 28, 59, 114, (?) (1) 243 (3) 213
(1) ACEGF (3) KMOQP
(2) FHJLK (4) UWYZA
13.
(1) CADGE (3) ECFGI
(2) JHKNL (4) XVYBZ
14.
(1) 6253 (3) 7043
(2) 1881 (4) 8210
questions there Direction Direction s : (15 to 19) In the following questions is a letter series with one term missing shown by (?). Find this term from the four given alternatives. 15.
YANWY, DFMBD, IKNGI, I KNGI, NPMLN, (?), ( ?), XZMVX (1) RUMSR (2) SUNQS (3) UWNSU (4) VUMTV
16.
PEXKW, RFWMU, TGVOS, VHUQQ, XITSO, (?) (?) (1) ZJSUM (2) YJSUZ (3) ZKSVJ (4) JZSTN
17.
AYBZC AYBZC,, DWEXF, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, (?), POQPR (1) MQDRN (2) QMONR (3) MQNRO (4) NQMOR
18.
ZYYZR, ABVUN, (?), BCUTM, XWABT X WABT,, CDTSL (1) YXZAS (2) ZYABT (3) XWYZR (4) YXZAB
19.
deb, ijg, nol, ( ? ), ) , xyv (1) rsp (3) rsq
(2) 233 (4) 223
4.
25, 49, 89, 145, 217, (?) (1) 305 (2) 327 (3) 309 (4) 303
5.
0, 2, 2, 3, 3, 5, 8, 4, 10, (?), 5, 17 (1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 15
Directions Directions : (6 to 10) 10) These questions consists of a
number series which contains a wrong term. This term is given as one of the four alternatives among the four f our numbers given below. The wrong term is6.
7.
89, 78, 86, 80, 85, 82, 83 (1) 83 (2) 82 (3) 86 (4) 78 1, 1, 3, 9, 6, 36, 10, 100, 16, 225 (1) 225 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 9
8.
444, 300, 200, 136, 87, 84, 80 (1) 300 (2) 200 (3) 136 (4) 87
9.
8, 15, 31, 61, 123, 247, 491 (1) 247 (2) 491 (3) 121 (4) 61
10.
11.
Directions : (20 to 23) In each question there are circles.
Certain numbers are given inside/outside the circles according to a particular rule. In each question one of the circle has a (?) mark m ark inside it. Choose the correct answer an swer to fill in the space marked (?) from fr om the given alternatives. alternatives. 5
20.
groups. One set is different from other three in someway. someway. Find out the different set(1) PROQN (2) DFCEG (3) GIFHE (4) KMJLI
3
7 63 9 11 40 6 3
2
(1) 144 (3) 135
3, 6, 24, 30, 63, 72, 122, 132 (1) 132 (2) 30 (3) 122 (4) 72
Directi ons : (11 (11 to 14) Each question consists of four
(2) stp (4) stq
8
21.
12 64 6 9
(1) 102 (3) 162 .
18 7 ? 11 4
(2) 136 (4) 124 12
9
5 75 10 21 ? 12 8
14
(2) 152 (4) 172
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[2] [2]
1
22.
29.
(1) 91 (3) 116
(2) 108 (4) 119 6
3 23.
4
7.50
5 5
2
11.25
3
(1) 10.25 (3) 11.25
?
30
2
6
86
3
2
4 4
3
5
( 1) 6 ( 3) 8
2 2 5
4
3
78
?
2
(2) 7 (4) 9
7
32
?
31
8
25
11
24
9
9
(2) 10.50 (4) 11.50
30.
Directions : (24 (24 to 26) 26) These questions are based on
(1) 50 (3) 47
letter series in which some of the letters are missing. The missing letters are given in the proper sequence in one of the alternatives among the four given under each question. Find out the correct alternatives for each question. 24.
abc – d – bc – d – b – cda (1) bacdc (2) cdabc (3) dacab (4) dccbd
25.
abb — — ab — b — bba — a (1) bbbab (2) babba (3) abaab (4) bbabb
26.
b — a — bab — ab — a (1) baba (3) abab
31.
27.
56
?
0
42
25
27
81
9
11
44
? (2) 16 (4) 55
the questions based on the Dice figures.
(2) babb (4) abba 32.
The number opposite side the face having the no. 4 will be – ( 1) 1 (2) 2 ( 3) 5 (4) 6 4 33.
12
20
(2) 6 (4) 10
91
64
73
84
76
61
25
60
?
(1) 66 (3) 69
2
30
(1) 4 (3) 8
28.
20
( 1) 4 (3) 30
cell is left blank and in the rest of the cells numbers are written which follow some rule. r ule. Get the rule and find out the proper option for the blank cell (?) 72
4
alternative of Direction Direction : (32 (32 to 33) 33) Find out the correct alternative
Direction Direction s : (27 (27 to 31) 31)Out of nine cells of a square one
2
(2) 48 (4) 51
(i)
(ii)
?
(iii)
Three positions of a Dice are shown. In figure (iii) which number will come in place of (?). ( 1) 5 (2) 3 ( 3) 6 (4) 1
(2) 68 (4) 71
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[3] [3]
34.
The following figure is converted into a cube. Its correct shape will be–
(1) 35.
(2)
(3)
(b)
(c)
(1) a only (3) a and c only
2873 : 13212014 : : 10242311 10242311 : (?) (1) 29282423 (2) 28274746 (3) 25272824 (4) 29454430
38.
241214 : 752119 : : 14163234 : (?) (1) 19174139 (2) 20184240 (3) 21194341 (4) 20224244
39.
25224447 : 23204245 :: 11143229 : ( ? ) (1) 13163431 (2) 24214341 (3) 24214346 (4) 13102421
40.
82224: 133133 :: 62022 : (?) (1) 91221 (2) 81312 (3) 153335 (4) 51921
(4)
The following figure is converted into a cube. Its four positions (A), (B), (C) and (D) are shown. On the basis of these select correct alternative.
(a)
37.
Directi ons : (41 to 45) 45) Words in capital letters in
column – I are written in small letters in a code language in column – II. Decode the Language and find out the correct alternative for the given letters in each questions.
(d)
(2) b only (4) a, b, c and d
Direction Direction s : (36 (36 to 40) 40) The following question are based
on the arrangement of numbers in the form f orm of a pyramid. In each question there is some relationship between the two numbers on the left of the (::). The same relationship exists between the two terms in the right of which one is missing. Find the missing are from the given alternatives. 1 2 3 4
tbfw bakp nsvg pdkt rwsx wveos eglt usqwp wpxy pzwoe jqems wprg
42.
Code for letters in the word COST are (1 (1) boqx (2) xqps (3) qost (4) xqnr
43.
Code for letters in the word ULCER are(1) ggwmr (2) teqwp (3) ktegp (4) gteqw
44.
Code for letters in the word SINE are(1) ptkl (2) toka (3) ptok (4) optb
45.
Code for letters in the word ARCH are (1 (1) frsq (2) wfsq (3) wqfp (4) sqfn
26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 49 48 47 46 45 44 43 42 41 40 40 39 38 37
132220 : 211412 : : 222931 : (?) (1) 304345 (2) 302123 (3) 442931 (4) 312022
HERO JOIN LAZY MINE PART SAURY BLUE CIGAR WRIT VIRUS QUACK PIRL
Code for letters in the word TOIL are(1) pxba (2) bpgn (3) bpxg (4) mpxg
10 11 11 12 13 14 15 16
36.
Column–II
41.
9 8 7 6 5
25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17
Column–I
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[4] [4]
46.
A and B are brother. C and D are sisters. A’s son is D’s brother. How is B related to C ? (1) Brother (2) Father (3) Uncle (4) Son
Directions : (54 to 56) In the following questions some
relations are written by particular indicators indicator s as shown belowO = Greater than +
Directions : (47) (47) Read the following information carefully
and answer the questi question on given below -
= Not equal to
A + B means A is the daughter of B;
O = Not greater than
A – B means A is the husband of B;
x
A x B means A is the brother of B. 47.
If P + Q – R, which one of the t he following is true? (1) R is the mother of P (2) R is the sister-in-law of P (3) R is the aunt of P (4) R is the mother-in-law of P
Directions : (48 to 50) Find out the missing one from
the given alternatives. 48.
49.
50.
08 : 28 :: (? ) : 65 (1) 9 (3) 15
(2) 12 (4) 19
35 : 91 :: 189 : ( ? ) (1) 343 (3) 280
(2) 341 (4) 210
25 27
(2)
(3)
23 29
(4) 33
Find out the correct answer for each question. 54.
If p q O r, r, it is possible that (1) p × q × r (2) p × q r (3) p q O r (4) p O q O r
55.
If p q r, it is not possible that (1) p q O r (2) p q r (3) p O q
57.
If your birth day 30th June, 2003 falls on Monday, Monday, on what day of the week does your birth day fall in the year 2005 ? (1) Sunday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
58.
On what day of the week India will celebrate its Republic Day on 26th January, January, 2015 ? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
59.
At what angle are the hands of a clock inclined inclined at 30 minutes past 6 ? (1) 7
1 º 2
(3) 15º (1)
1 2
(2) 11 º (4) 23º
(2) 60.
(3)
(4) p + q × r
If p × q O r, it is not possible that – (1) p q r (2) p × q + r (3) p q O r (4) p O q + r
Directions : (51 (51 to 53) 53) Following four diagrams marked
A, B, C and D are given given as alterna alternativ tives. es. Choose Choose the best suitable al te r na ti ve diagram marked A, B, C and D, the one that represent the best relationship amongest the three given groups.
r
56.
29 31 29
= Not less than = Less than
7 13 19 : :: : (?) 11 17 23
(1)
= Equal to
(4)
51.
Birds, Crows, Cats
52.
Snakes, Land creatures, Water creatures
53.
Males, Nephews, Nieces
A clock is set set right at 10 am. The clock loses 18 minutes in 24 hours. What time will the clock show when the true time is 6 p.m. on the following day ? (1) 5 : 34 p.m (2) 5 : 36 p.m. (3) 5 : 33 p.m. (4) 6 : 30 p.m.
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[5] [5]
Directions Directions : (61 (61 to 64) 64) Two Sets of the figures are
given. One set of Question-figures and another set is of Answer-figures. Question-figures are arranged in a sequence. One figure from the Answer figures is to be selected such that it can be placed after the series of Questionfigures. Find the correct Serial number of the selected Answer-figure. 61.
Directions Directions : (65 (65 to 68) In each of the following questions
four figures are given. One of these figures does not fit with the rest of the figures. Find out that correct serial number.
65.
(1)
Question - Figures
(2)
(3)
(4)
66.
(1)
Answer - Figures
(2)
(3)
(4)
67.
(1) 62.
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Question - Figures 68.
Answer - Figures
Directions Directions : (69 to 72) In the following questions there
(1) 63.
(2)
(3)
is some relationship between the two figures on the left of (: :) the same relationship exists between the two terms on the right, of which one is missing. Find the missing one from the given alternative.
(4)
Question - Figures 69.
Question - Figures
Answer - Figures Answer - Figures Figures
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (1)
64.
(2)
(3)
(4)
Question - Figures 70.
Question - Figures ?
Answer - Figures Figures
Answer - Figures
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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[6] [6]
71.
Question - Figures
75.
Sequence of folding the paper
?
Answer - Figures
72.
X Y Answer-Fi Answer-Figure gure
(1) (2) Question - Figures
(3)
Z
(4) (1) 76.
(2)
(3)
(4)
Sequence of folding the paper
Answer - Figures
(1)
(2)
(3)
X Y Answer-Fi Answer-Figure gure
(4)
Z
Direction : (73 (73 to 76) 76) The following questions are related
to paper cutting. The questions that follow contain a set of three figures X, Y and Z, showing a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. paper. Fig. (Z) shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. These three t hree figures are followed by four answer figures fi gures A, B, C and D (IInd Set) from which you have to choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded from of fig. (Z). 73.
(1)
(2)
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ? (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E
79.
Six students are sitting in a row. K is sitting between V and R. V is sitting next to M. M is sitting next to B who is sitting on the extreme left and Q is sitting next to R. Who are sitting adjacent to V ? (1) R and Q (2) B and M (3) K and R (4) M and K
(4)
(1)
(2)
Z
(3)
(4)
78.
Sequence of folding the paper
X Y Answer - Figures
(3)
X, Y, Y, Z and P are sitting around a circular table and discussing their trades . (i) X, sits opposite to cook (ii) Y, sits right to the barber (iii) The washerman is on the left of the tailor (iv) P, sits opposite Z What are the trades of X and Y ? (1) Tailor and Barber (2) Barber and Cook (3) Tailor and Cook (4) Tailor Tailor and washerman washerma n
Z
(3)
(2)
77.
Sequence of folding the paper
X Y Answer - Figures.
74.
(1)
(4)
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[7] [7]
80.
If 27 3 = 243 5 4 = 80 Then what is the value of 3 7 ? (1) 84 (2) 147 (3) 63 (4) 23
Directions Directions : (81 (81 to 84) 84) The six faces of a cube are
painted in a manner that no two adjacent faces have the same colour. The three colours used in painting are red, blue and green. The cube is then cut into 36 smaller cubes in such a manner that 32 cubes are of one size and the rest of a bigger size and each of the bigger cubes has no red side. Answer the following questions. 81.
How many cubes in all have a red side ? (1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 8 (4) 20
82.
How many cubes in all have only one side coloured ? (1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 0 (4) 8
83.
How many cubes are colured on three sides ? (1) 20 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 0
84.
How many cubes are there which have two or more sides painted? (1) 36 (2) 28 (3) 20 (4) 32
86.
In a coded language SHIFT is written as UFKDV, UFKDV, Then COVET may ma y be written in coded language as(1) EMXCV (2) FNYDU (3) EXCUV (4) EQUDS
87.
If PET = 4 LET = 3 JEY = 2 Then what is the value of XET? (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 8
88.
In a coded language if HOME = 2541, SHOP = 8256, WORK = 9573, then code for SMOKE will be(1) 85431 (2) 84531 (3) 83451 (4) 84351
89.
What will be the number of Hexagonals in the given figure?
(1) 2 (3) 5 90.
85.
In a coded language NUMBER is written as in MFNYVI. Then FIGURE may be written in coded language as(1) ERHFlD (2) URTVSF (3) GJTFSF (4) URTFIV
(2) 4 (4) 6
What will be the number of Parallelograms in
the given figure? (1) 15 (3) 13
(2) 17 (4) 16
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
Ans
3 16
1 17
2 18
1 19
4 20
3 21
2 22
4 23
1 24
3 25
2 26
4 27
3 28
4 29
2 30
1 31
3 32
1 33
4 34
1 35
3 36
2 37
3 38
3 39
1 40
3 41
2 42
1 43
2 44
3 45
2 46
1 47
4 48
4 49
2 50
2 51
4 52
1 53
1 54
3 55
3 56
1 57
4 58
3 59
2 60
3 61
1 62
3 63
2 64
2 65
4 66
1 67
4 68
1 69
4 70
3 71
4 72
2 73
3 74
2 75
Ques.
2 76
1 77
4 78
2 79
3 80
1 81
2 82
4 83
4 84
1 85
2 86
3 87
3 88
4 89
1 90
Ans
4
3
3
4
2
2
4
3
2
4
1
3
2
3
2
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
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[8] [8]
1.
Which is not the unit of Force – (1) Poundal (2) Dyne (3) Joule (4) Newton
11.
The Unit of frequency is – (1) Hertz (2) Joule (3) Ohm (4) Kilo Calorie
2.
The expansion of a sold body depends on – (1) Mass of the solid only (2) Nature of the sold only (3) Temperature Temperature of the solid only (4) Nature and temperature of the solid
12.
The first Astronaut in space was – (1) H. H.G. Wales (2) Neel Armstrong (3) Uri Gagarin (4) Robert Godai
13.
Boiling point of Water is – (1) 273°K (2) 0°K (3) 373°K (4) 100°K
14.
The Process by which a mixture of Sodium Chloride and Ammonium Chloride can be separated, is called – (1) Sublimation (2) Chromatography (3) Evaporation (4) Distillation
15.
The formula of Ammonium Sulphate is – (1) NH4SO4 (2) (NH4)2SO4 (3) NH4(SO4)2 (4) NH4(SO4)3
16.
Isotopes of an element have – (1) Same Physical Properties (2) Different Chemical Properties (3) Different No. of Neutrons (4) Different Atomic Number
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Which country is called the country of Wind mills ? (1) Holland (2) Britain (3) India (4) America Who was the first President of Atomic energy commission in India – (1) Homi Jahangir Bhabha (2) Vikram Sarabhai (3) Prof. M.S. Swaminathan (4) Prof. Meghnad Saha The particles of the medium in the transverse wave move – (1) Circular Motion (form) (2) Oval form (3) in direction of the wave motion (4) Perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion The Lens used in the Camera is – (1) Convex Lens (2) Concave Lens (3) Biconvex Lens (4) Biconcave Lens Velocity of sound is maximum in – (1) W ater (2) Oil (3) Air (4) Iron One Volt is equal to – (1) 1 Joule (2) 1 Newton/Coulomb (3) 1 Joule/Coulomb (4) 1 Coulomb/Newton On a bulb is written 220 Volt and 60 watt. Find out the resistance of the bulb and the value of the current flowing through it. (1) 806.66 ohm / 0.27 ampere (2) 500 ohm / 2 ampere (3) 200 ohm / 4 ampere (2) 100 ohm / 1 ampere The maximum attraction in a magnet is – (1) In he centre (2) On the sides (3) On the poles (4) On the surface
17.
A Brown and bright element “x” “x” when heated in presence of air turns in to black substance “y”. If Hydrogen gas is passed over this heating material again “x” is obtained. “x” and “y” are – (1) Cu & CuO (2) S & SO2 (3) C & CO2 (4) Na & NaH
18.
PH of any neutral solution is – (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 14 (4) 7
19.
A non non metal, which is found in liquid liquid state is – (1) Bromine (2) Iodine (3) Oxygen (4) Carbon
20.
The PH of a solution which turns red litmus Blue will be – (1) 1 (2) 9 (3) 4 (4) 5
21.
Which of the following is correct electronic configuration configuration of Argon – (1) 2, 8 (2) 2, 8, 8 (3) 2, 8, 1 (4) 8, 2, 8
22.
Element “x” which is solid and having high melting point, form a Chloride “x Cl3”. This element “x” would be in which group of Periodic table – (1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Si
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[9] [9]
23.
Methane with the Molecular formula “CH4” has – (1) (1) 4 Co Coval valent ent bond bondss (2) (2) 8 Co Covalen alentt bon bonds ds (3) (3) 6 Co Coval valent ent bond bondss (4) (4) 2 Co Covalen alentt bon bonds ds
34.
The plants in which vegetative propagation is found, are (1) Bryophyllum (2) Sugarcane (3) Rose (4) All of the above
24.
Cell organelle which differentiates plant cell from animal cell is – (1) Cell Membrane (2) Pl Plastids (3) Nucleolus (4) Vacuoles
35.
Which of the following is not a plant hormone (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinin (4) Adrenaline
25.
Blood is a type of connective tissue, which has has – (1) R.B.C. (2) W.B.C. (3) Platlets (4) All of the above
36.
Graph drawn from the equation y = x2 – 3x – 4 will be : (1) Circle (2) Parabola (3) Straight line (4) Hyperbola
26.
Bile Juice is secreted from – (1) Sa Salivary gl glands (2) In Intestinal gl glands (3) Stomach (4) Liver
37.
27.
When acidity in Stomach increases, the medicine generally used is – (1) Sodium bicarbonate (2) Sodium Carbonate (3) Ammonium Carbonate (4) Ammonium bicarbonate
For which values of 'a' and 'b' does d oes the following pair of linear equations have an infinite number of solutions : 2x + 3y = 7, (a – b)x + (a + b)y = 3a + b – 2 (1) a = 5 , b = 1 (2) a = 4, b = 2 (3) a = 1, b = 5 (4) a = 2, b = 4
38.
If b2 – 4ac 0 then the roots of quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is :
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
(1)
Planaria is kept in which group – (1) Coelentrata (2) Platyhelminthes (3) Nematoda (4) Annelida
Dissimilarity found found in Aves and Mammalia is – (1) Warm Blooded Animal (2) Lay eggs (3) Breathe through Lungs (4) Four chambered Heart
(3)
39.
Phloem tissue in plants are responsible for – (1) Transportation Transportation of water (2) Transportation of food (3) Transportation of Amino Acids (4) Transportation of Oxygen
b2 4ac 2a
b 2a
b2 4ac 2a
b 2a
b2 4ac 2a
(4) –
Substances necessary for autotrophic Nutrition are – (1) CO2 and H2O (2) Chlorophyll (3) Sun light (4) All of the above Blood Pressure is measured with an instrument called – (1) Thermometer (2) Stethoscope (3) Sphygmomanometer (4) Clinical Thermometer
b 2a
(2) –
Which of the following is an example of Broyophyte – (1) Moss (2) Fern (3) Pinus (4) Algae
b2 4ac 2a
b 2a
The sum of the third and seventh terms of an A.P. A.P. is 6 and their product is 8, then common difference is : (1) 1 (2) 2 1
1
(3) 2 40.
(4) 4
In a given gi ven figure in trapezium tr apezium ABCD if AB || CD then value of x is : B
A 2
x–2 O
2x+5
5
D
C
29 8
(2)
8 29
(3) 20
(4)
1 20
(1)
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[10]
41.
42.
If points (x, 0), (0, y) and (1, 1) are Collinear then the relation is : (1) x + y = 1 (2) x + y = xy (3) x + y + 1 = 0 (4) x + y+ xy = 0 If sin(A + B) =
3 , cos(A – B) = 2
3 and 2
0 < A + B 90°, if A > B then the value of A and B are : (1) A = 45 45°, B = 15 15° (2) A = 60 60°, B = 30 30° (3) A = 0°, B = 30° (4) A = 30°, B = 0° 43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
Value of
2100 is : 2
(2) 50100 (4) 299
(1) 1 (3) 250 50.
The number of straight line drawn from one point to any other point are : (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
51.
In a given figure PQ || ST, PQR = 110°, RST = 130° then value of QRS is
If the Angle of elevation of sun increases from 0° to 90° then the change in the length of shadow of Tower will be – (1) No changes in length of shadow (2) length of shadow increases (3) length of shadow decreases (4) length of shadow will be zero
T
S P
Q
130°
110° R
(1) 20° (3) 60°
(2) 50° (4) 70°
The perimeter of square and circumference of Circle are equal, the area of square is 121 m2, then the area of circle is : (1) 7 m2 (2) 14 m2 (3) 21 m2 (4) 49 m2
52.
A drinking drinking glass is in the shape of frusturm of a cone of height 14 cm. The diameter of its two circular ends ends are 4 cm and 2 cm. Then the capacity of glass is :
The bisectors of angles of a parallelogram makes a figure which is (1) Rectangle (2) Circle (3) Pentagon (4) Octagon
53.
The chord of maximum length in a circle is called : (1) Radius (2) Arc (3) Diameter (4) Point
54.
Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m. 40 m. and 32 m. is : (1) 96 m2 (2) 384 m2 (3) 43 m2 (4) 192 m2
55.
Curved surface of right circular cylinder is 4.4 m 2 , radius of base is 0.7 m. then the
(1) 102
2 cm3 3
(2) 102
(3) 101
2 cm3 3
(4) 101
1 cm3 3 1 cm3 3
The median and mode of a frequency distribution are 525 and 500 then mean of same frequency distribution is : (1) 75 (2) 107.5 (3) 527.5 (4) 537.5 The author of the book "The Book on games of o f chance" based on probability theory is : (1) J. Cardon (2) R.S. Woodwards (3) P.S. Laplace (4) P. P.D. Pherma Rationalising Rationalising the denominator of
5 3 5
is:
height is (Take = (1) 1 m (3) 3 m
5 (3) 2 ( 3 – 5 ) 5 (4) 2 ( 3 – 5 )
(2) 2 m (4) 4 m
56.
Who built Jantar–Mantar ? (1) Sawai Jaisingh (2) Mirza Raja Jaisingh (3) Raja Mansingh (4) Pratap Singh
57.
Who was the author of "Geet Govind" ? (1) Sarangdhar (2) Jaidev (3) Madhodas (4) Bihari
58.
Kaila Devi Sanctuary is situated in which district? (1) Alwar (2) Dungarpur (3) Karauli (4) Udaipur
5 (1) 2 ( 3 + 5 ) 5 (2) 2 ( 3 + 5 )
22 ) 7
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[11]
59.
Who was mainly responsible for “BangBhang”? (1) Lord Litton (2) Lord Rippon (3) Lord Meuchale (4) Lord Korzen
73.
When was “Indian wildlife Protection Act” implemented ? (1) 1970 (2) 1972 (3) 1974 (4) 1976
60.
In 1913, Dada Saheb Phalke made the movie– movie – (1) Basant (2) Raja Harishchandra (3) Anari (4) Paying guest
74.
Salty Water lake is – (1) Jaisamand lake (3) Didwana lake
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
What is Gilotin ? (1) Mi Mine of Co Coal (3) (3) Dea Death Mac Machi hine ne
(2) Human Settlement (4) (4) Sh Shifting Agriculture
Massai Mara national Park is located in – (1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Sudan (4) Kenya In which country first time the cultivation of opium begin ? (1) Portugal (2) India (3) China (4) Britain Which treaty was imposed on Germany after first world war ? (1) Versailles (2) Paris (3) Vienna (4) London Who opened the first Cricket Crick et Club in India ? (1) Britisher (2) Hindu (3) Jurestreian (4) Muslim
66.
What is “Barkan” ? (1) Name Name of of Sand Sand dune dune (2) Name Name of Vil Villa lage ge (3) Name of Tree (4) Name of Mountain
67.
Which state coast line is called the Malabar ? (1) Gujrat (2) Kerala (3) Rajasthan (4) W est Bengal
68.
Ranthambore is situated in – (1) Rajasthan (2) Arunachal Pradesh (3) Assam (4) Madhya Pradesh
69.
The full form of C.N.G. is – (1) Compound Natural Gas (2) Complex Natural Gas (3) Compound New Gas (4) Compressed Natural Gas
70.
The ore of iron is – (1) Haematite (3) Bauxite
75.
The Rainfall that occurs during winter season is known as – (1) Monsoon (2) Cyclone (3) Mango Shower (4) Mavath
76.
Who is the first Person of India ? (1) Prime Minister (2) President (3) Governor (4) Chief Minister
77.
The Country that is not permanent member of United Nation Organisation is ? (1) Russia (2) Britain (3) China (4) India
78.
“The long walk to freedom” is autobiography of? of? (1) (1) Nel Nelssen Man Mandel dela (2) (2) Mah Mahat atma ma Gan Gandhi dhi (3) Ba Barak Ob Obama (4) (4) Amitabh Bachchan
79.
“Code of conduct” is related to ? (1) War (2) Transportation (3) Cereals (4) Election
80.
Who can seek information from government under “right to information Act” ? (1) Any Citizen (2) Only Government officials (3) Only elected members of Loksabha (4) Only elected members of Vidhan Sabha
81.
How many languages are there under article 8th in the Indian Constitution ? (1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 15
82.
The first nation of the world wor ld which provided adult franchise is – (1) America (2) India (3) Brazil (4) Newzealand
83.
Which of the following Country has adopted the one (single) Party System ? (1) India (2) America (3) Japan (4) China
84.
In which year Indian National Congress was established ? (1) 1889 (2) 1885 (3) 1985 (4) 1905
85.
Out of the following which is not a union territory? (1) Puducherry (2) Chandigarh (3) Goa (4) Daman and Div
(2) Uranium (4) Lignite
71.
Gender ratio in India is – (1) 880/1000 (2) 940/1000 (3) 300/1000 (4) 400/1000
72.
Bhakra-Nangal Project is situated on the River ? (1) Satluj (2) Tungbhadra (3) Damodar (4) Mahi
(2) (2) Rajsamand lake (4) Gapsagar lake
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[12]
86.
When was the “National Rural Employment Gurantee Act” Passed ? (1) 2001 (3) 2005
87.
88.
When is the National Consumer Day celebrated in India ? (1) December, 24 (2) September, 16 (3) March, 8 (4) May, 25
89.
According to Census-2011 Census-2011 the literacy rate of Rajasthan ? (1) 48.34% (2) 54.90% (3) 67.06% (4) 74.04%
90.
In which year did the Economic Liberalisation start in India ? (1) 1991 (2) 1996 (3) 1999 (4) 2004
(2) 2003 (4) 2007
What is GDP ? (1) Gross Daily Production (2) Gross Domestic Production (3) Gross Domestic Power (4) Gross Development Production
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
An s
3 16
4 17
1 18
1 19
4 20
1, 3 21
4 22
3 23
1 24
3 25
1 26
3 27
3 28
1 29
2 30
3 31
1 32
4 33
1 34
2 35
2 36
3 37
1 38
2 39
4 40
4 41
1 42
2 43
1 44
2 45
4 46
3 47
2 48
4 49
4 50
2 51
1 52
4 53
3 54
3 55
2 56
1 57
3, 4 58
4 59
1 60
4 61
1 62
2 63
4 64
4 65
3 66
1 67
3 68
2 69
1 70
1 71
2 72
3 73
4 74
2 75
Ques.
3 76
4 77
2 78
1 79
3 80
1 81
2 82
1 83
4 84
1 85
2 86
1 87
2 88
3 89
4 90
An s
2
4
1
4
1
1
4
4
2
3
3
2
1
3
1
Ques. An s Ques. An s Ques. An s Ques. An s
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Question s (1 to 4) Directions : In each of the questions 1 to 4 some of
9.
(II) : Some pencils are pens.
the letters are missing in the given series with one term missing shown by question mark (?) . This term is one of the alternatives among the four groups of letters given under if find the right alternative. 1.
BEG, DGI, FIK, HKM, (?) (1) JMO (2) KMO (3) JML (4) JNP
2.
KEM, IDL, GCK, (?), CAI (1) ECJ (2) EBK (3) FBJ (4) EBJ
3.
4.
Conclusions (I) : All All books are pens. (II) : Some pens are books. (1) Only conclusion I is true. (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Conclusions I and II both are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true. 10.
(II) : Educated persons prefer small families. Conclusions (I) : All small families are educated.
JCME, LDOG, NEQI, (?) (1) PFSJ (2) PESI (3) PESK (4) PFSK
(II) Some men prefer small families (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Conclusions I and II both are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.
Question s (5 to 8)
5.
Statements (I) : Some men are educated.
ca (?) cab (?) ab (?) (?) bc (?) (1) bccaa (2) accab (3) bacaa (4) abaca
Direction : In each of the questions 5 to 8 some som e of the numbers are missing in the given series with one term missing shown by question mark (?) . This term is one of the alternatives among the four numbers given under it. Find the right alternative.
Statements (I) : Some books are pencils.
11.
Statements (I) : Some hens are cows.
5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, (?) (1) 70 (2) 66 (3) 65 (4) 64
(II) : All cows are horses. Conclusion
6, 25, 62, 123, (?), 341 (1) 216 (2) 214 (3) 215 (4) 217
(I) : Some horses are hens
7.
5, 3, 10, 8, 17, 15, (?), 24 (1) 26 (2) 27 (3) 29 (4) 36
8.
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, (?) (1) 40 (3) 44
(1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Conclusions I and II both are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.
6.
(2) 42 (4) 46
Questions (9 to 11) 11)
Direction : In each of the questions below are given two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly comm only known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically logically follows from the two given statements.
(II) : Some hens are horses
Directions : (12 (12 to 13) 13) Select Select the d iagram that b est represents the given relationsh ip. 12.
Animals, Cows, Cows, Dogs (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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[14]
13.
14.
Students, Students, Children, Animals. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
4 6
6 5
1 4
1 5
21.
The number on oppos opposite ite side of the face having the number 3 will be (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 5
Which of the following Venn Venn diagrams correctly represents cows, horses and animals ?
Questions (22 to 23) 23)
15.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
How many pairs of letters in the word ‘CONTRACTOR’ have as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet ? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) more than 4
Direction : Give answer on the basis of given figure that the different faces are folded in the form f orm of cube.
22.
The number on oppos opposite ite side of the face having the number 4 will will be (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Questio n : (16 to 19)
Direction : In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives are alike in a certain way way but but the rest one is different. Find out the odd one and write correct answer. 16.
(1) AEIF (3) EILJ
(2) CGKH (4) GKOL
17.
(1) XCJP (3) ZGLT
(2) YEKQ (4) AHMV
18.
(1) 150 (3) 200
(2) 165 (4) 250
19.
(1) Coal (3) Diamond
(2) Graphite (4) Gold
23.
The word on opposite side of the face having the word F will be (1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E
Questions (20 to 21) 21)
Direction : Numbers from 1 to 6 are placed on different faces of the disc.
20.
1
3
5
3
The number on oppos opposite ite side of the face having the number 3 will be (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1
Questions (24 to 27) 27)
Direction : Words Wor ds in capital letters in Column I are written in English small letters according to a code language in Column II. Decode the language and find out the correct alternative a lternative for the given word in each question. Column I Column II ONE cdy TWO sgd THREE t sq yy FOUR dztg FIVE zmfy SIX rmh 24.
NET (1) dys (3) tcs
(2) cys (4) csd
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25.
26.
27.
FOX (1) ydh (3) zdh
34.
If the following f ollowing numbers are written in ascending order, the sum of the digits of middle number will be 810, 912 , 910 , 809, 781, 673, 573 (1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 17 (4) 13
(2) dhs (4) zgl
HER HER (1) lgc (3) lgs
(2) qyt (4) glc
35.
How many 3s are there in the following figure series which are just preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 7? 323743 56374638 963518 37242 86395 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
SHE (1) rqy (3) rsy
(2) rcy (4) yet
36.
Which name will come at 3rd place in a telephone directory from the following given names ? (1) AMIT (2) AMINA (3) ALOK (4) ABHIMAN
(II) : Man learns from bitter experience.
37.
(1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.
If 1st October is Sunday, Sunday, then 1st November will be (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Thursday
38.
Which two months in a year have the same calendar ? (1) June, October (2) April, November (3) April, July (4) October, December
39.
If the first day of a leap year is Monday, then what day will be on the last day of that year ? (1) Wednesday (2) Tuesday (3) Thursday (4) Sunday
40.
If 14th September, 2013 is Saturday, Saturday, then what day will be 22nd December, Decem ber, 2014 (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Wednesday
Questions (28 to 30) 30)
Directions : In each of the following questions a statement is given followed by two conclusion I and II. 28.
Statement : Adversity makes a man wise. Conclusions (I) : The poor are wise
29.
Statement Statement : Fortune favours the brave. Conclusions (I) Risk is necessary for success. (II) : Cowards die many times before their death. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusion I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true
30.
Statement Statement : Morning walks are good for health. Conclusions (I) : All healthy people go for morning walks. (II) : Evening walks are harmful (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II are true.
Question (41 to 45)
31.
Ramesh is father of Mohan and Shyam is son of Mohan . What is the relation between Ramesh and Shyam ? (1) Son (2) Brother (3) Grandfather (4) father
41.
32.
B is father of C but C is not son of B. What is the relation of C with B? (1) Sister (2) Brother (3) Daughter (4) Nephew
33.
If 23 52 = 48, then 43 35 = ? (1) 78 (2) 98 (3) 96 (4) 69
Direction : In questions 41 to 45 there are four figures given. One of these does not correlate with the rest of the figures. Find out that figure.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
42.
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[16]
43.
47.
Problem-Figures
x o (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(1)
44.
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer-Fig Answer-Figures ures
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
45.
(1) 48.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Problem-Figures
(4)
Questions (46 to 49) 49)
Direction : In questions 46 to 50 there are two sets of figures. One set contains problem-figures problem-fi gures while the other has answer-figures. There is a sequence according to which the problemfigures are arranged. You have to select one figure from the set se t of answer-figures which can be placed in sequence after the set fo problemfigures. Find out the correct figure. 46.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(3)
(4)
Answer-Fig Answer-Figures ures
Problem-Figures (1) 49.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer-Fig Answer-Figures ures
(2)
Problem-Figures
+
O
P
+
T
P O
T
P
T
T
O O
+ +
P
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer-Fig Answer-Figures ures
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
P
+
P
T
+
O O
T
O
T
O
+
P
T
+
P
(1)
(2)
(3)
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(4)
[17]
Problem-Figures
50.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer-Fig Answer-Figures ures
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
An s
1 16
4 17
1 18
4 19
3 20
2 21
1 22
2 23
4 24
2 25
3 26
3 27
3 28
1 29
3 30
3 31
2 32
2 33
4 34
3 35
3 36
2 37
4 38
2 39
3 40
2 41
1 42
2 43
4 44
4 45
3 47
3 48
3 49
3 50
2
3
3
2
2
2
4
1
2
4
Ques.
3 46
An s
1
3
3
3
3
Ques. An s Ques. An s
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[18]
There are 40 questions in this paper. Each
13.
This is a public place. You You ............ park your car here. (1) must not (2) should not (3) cannot (4) need not
14.
Your sister does not like apples. You ............ send them. (1) must not (2) should not (3) cannot (4) need not
question c arries 1 mark. mark. 1.
Heat ...................... gas. (1) expands (2) expanded (3) expand (4) has expanded
2.
We reached the theatre after the film ............ (1) started (2) starts (3) will start (4) had started
3.
It .......... since yesterday afternoon. (1) rained (2) rain (3) rains (4) has been raining
15.
You have done your work. You You ........ ....... . go home. home . (1) will (2) could (3) may (4) must
4.
I .......... to cinema last night. (1) go (2) went (3) am going (4) shall go
16.
5.
While she .......... the milk boiled over. (1) read (2) has read (3) reads (4) was reading
He has three buildings in Jaipur. He ............ be a rich man. (1) shall (2) should (3) must (4) can
17.
When I was a young man, I ............. run ten miles. (1) should (2) could (3) can (4) might
18.
She said to me, “Wait here till I return,“ She ordered me ......... (1) to wait there till she returned (2) that to wait there till I returned (3) to wait there till I return (4) to wait there till she returns
19.
She said to me “Are you unwell ?” She asked me ............... . (1) if I am unwell (2) if she was unwell (3) if was I unwell (4) if I was unwell
20.
The postman said to her. “I have a letter for you”. The postman told her ........... . (1) that I have a letter for her (2) that she had a letter for her (3) that he has a letter for you (4) that he had a letter for her
21.
Teacher said to Ravi. “W hat is your name ?” Teacher asked Ravi.........? (1) what is his name (2) what his name is (3) what his name was (4) what was his name
6.
7.
I shall wait here untill you ............ ready. (1) would be (2) are (3) are not (4) will be America ............ by Columbus. (1) is discovered discovered (2) will be discovered (3) was discovered (4) is being discovered
8.
Woollen clothes ............. in winter. (1) are worn (2) worn (3) wear (4) have been worn
9.
English ............. all over the world. (1) speak (2) was spoken (3) is spoken (4) has been spoken
10.
11.
12.
Smoking .......... here. (1) is prohibited (3) (3) will ill be be proh prohib ibiited ted
(2) was prohibited (4) (4) proh prohib ibiit
The truck .......... at present. (1) will be loaded (2) is being loaded (3) is loaded (4) was loading ......... you close the window. Please ? (1) Might (2) should (3) would (4) May
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22.
The teacher said to the class. “Do not make a noise.” The teacher told the class .............. . (1) not to made a noise (2) not to make a noise (3) do not make a noise (4) did not make a noise
23.
I apologize .............. my m y misbehaviour. (1) to (2) for (3) about (4) at
24.
Will you go for a walk ............. me ? (1) for (2) by (3) with (4) off
25.
26.
32.
Ten miles ............. not a big journey. journey. (1) are (2) is (3) were (4) have
33.
Your car and mine ...... both at the door. (1) are (2) is (3) was (4) have
34.
The police ......... arrested the thief. (1) have (2) has (3) is (4) were
For Question number 3535- 36, 36, select the word that best expresses expresses the meaning of the given word: 35.
I have complete faith ............ God. (1) to (2) on (3) at (4) in
36.
It is very difficult for her to part .......... her belongings. (1) with (2) from (3) to (4) off Good citizens always abide ......... the law. law. (1) with (2) by (3) of (4) for
28.
Fate smiled ......... him in all his ventures. (1) over (2) at (3) with (4) on
29.
The leaves of the tree ............. in autumn. (1) fall (2) falls (3) fell (4) was fallen
30.
31.
(2) show (4) Impolite
Ruinous (1) fruitful (3) lustrous
(2) successful (4) disastrous
For Question number 37- 38, select the word which means the opposite of the given word : 37.
27.
Modest (1) boast (3) humble
38.
Vague (1) indistinct (3) pleasant
(2) clear (4) profound
Transparent (1) bright (3) colourless
(2) big (4) opaque
For Question number 39- 40, select the word meaning of the given phrasal verbs
These days the number of books ........... increasing in the library. library. (1) is (2) were (3) are (4) was My friends as well as I ............ going to attend the camp. (1) is (2) am (3) are (4) was
39.
Make up for (1) compensate (2) decorate (3) make someone someone quiet quiet (4) fill up up
40.
Set out (1) (1) put put som somet ethi hing ng out out (3) execute
(2) (2) star startt a jour journe neyy (4) continue
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
An A n s
1 16
4 17
4 18
2 19
4 20
2 21
3 22
1 23
3 24
1 25
2 26
3 27
1 28
4 29
3 30
2 32
1 33
4 34
4 35
3 36
2 37
2 38
3 39
4 40
1
2
4
1
1
Ques.
3 31
An A n s
3
2
1
1
3
4
2
4
1
2
Ques. An A n s
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[20]
1.
The velocity-time graph of a body falling from rest under gravity and rebounding from a solid surface is represented by
(1)
t
O
(3)
t
O
2.
3.
(2)
5.
Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of (1) momentum (2) charge (3) angula angularr momentum momentum (4) energy energy
6.
For hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound must be (Given ( Given velocity of sound = 344 m/s) (1) 17.2 m (2) 34.4 m (3) 172 m (4) 344 m
7.
Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of V voltage together dissipates 5 W power. power. If the same resistors are connected in parallel across the same source of voltage V, the power dissipated will be
t
O
(4)
t
O
The gravitational force between two objects of mass 1 kg each, separated by a distance of 1 m in vacuum will be (A) zero
(2) 6.675 × 10 –11N
(3) 13.350 × 10 –11 N
(4) 3.337 × 10 –11 N
The force F is acting on an object of mass m ass m.
A bullet bullet of mass 10 g travelli travelling ng horizontal horizontally ly with –1 a velocity of 160 ms strikes a stationary wooden block and comes to rest in 0.02 s. The distance of penetration of the bullet into the block will be (1) 1.20 m (2) 1.60 m (3) 2.00 m (4) 2.40 m
10.
The correct relation between u, and r for a lens will be (symbols represent traditional meaning)
right side. Work done by the force wil be r
4.
(3) zero
(4) either positive or
(4) 45 W
9.
( F ) of the object is shown by an arrow to the
(2) negative
(3) 40 W
Every hot object emits (1) infrared rays (2) visible rays (3) X-rays (4) ultraviolet rays
The direction of displacement ( r ) and force
(1) positive
(2) 25 W
8.
F
(1) 20 W
negative
(1) r =
The value of current cur rent I and voltage V in the given circuit will be
(3) r =
I
+ 12V –
(1) 2A, 4V (3) 1A, 2V
11. V
(2) 4A, 2V (4) 2A, 1V
2u u – 1 u
(2) r =
(4)
u 2(u – )
1 1 1 = + r u
When a body is immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force that acts on the body will be (1) vertically downwards (2) vertically upwards (3) horizontally right side (4) horizontally left side
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[21]
12.
The distance between the objective lens and the eye-piece of an astronomical telescope t elescope will be f 0
13.
(2) f 0
(3) f 0 + f e
(4) f 0 – f e
Salt made of non-metallic non-m etallic elements only is (1) NaCl (3) AlN
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
f e
(1) f e
20.
At room temperature liquid non-metal is (1) carbon (2) bromine (3) mercury (4) iodine
21.
Neutronless neutral atom is (1) H (3) Na
22.
The action of cleaning of oily dirt by soap is based on (1) solubility in water (2) hydrophilic property (3) hydrophobic property (4) presence of both hydrophilic and hydrophobic groups
23.
(2) Mg2+
(3) Al2+
(4) Al
(2) 9
(3) 12
(4) 15
False statement for second period elements is (1) change in number of electrons produces ions (2) numbers of protons and electrons are equal in neutral atom (3) number of neutrons is less than the number of protons in atoms (4) change in the number of neutrons in atom produces isotopes Which metal cannot displace hydrogen from dijute acids ? (1) Cu
(2) Mg
(3) Zn
(4) Na
( 2) < 7 ( 4) 0
24.
Three crops that contribute maximum to global foodgrain production are (1) Wheat, Rice and Maize (2) Wheat, Rice and Barley (3) Wheat, Maize and Sorghum (4) Rice, Maize and Sorghum
25.
Cell organelle 'Bioplast' was given another name by Benda, which is (1) Ch Chloroplast (2) Mi Mitochondria (3) Ribosome (4) Lysosome
26.
In plants abscisic acid controls (1) (1) gro growt wth h in in sho shoot ot (2) (2) flow flower er form format atiion (3) cell division (4) fall of leaf
27.
The source of energy in any star is (1) Nuclear fission reaction (2) Nuclear fusion reaction (3) Solar energy (4) Fossil fuel
28.
The use of disposable paper-cups is more beneficial over disposable plastic-cups, because (1) it is cheaper (2) it is easily available (3) it can be reused (4) its recycling process has no harmful impact on environment environment
29.
The endosperm of angiosperms is (1) haploid (2) diploid (3) triploid (4) polyploid
30.
The author of the book 'Systema Naturae' is (1) Lamarck (2) Darwin (3) Th Theophrastus (4) (4) Ca Carolus Li Linnaeus
Benzene has .................. number of covalent bonds. (1) 6
pH of soda water is (1) 7 (3) > 7
Adding an alpha particle to nucleu of sodium atom, product will be (1) Na+
Displacement reaction is (1) CaO (s) + H2O(l) Ca(OH)2 (aq) (2) Pb() + CuCl2(aq) PbCl2(aq) + Cu(s) (3) MnO2() + 4HCl(l) MnCl2\(s) + 2H2O(l) + Cl2(g) (4) C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + H2O
(2) NH4Cl (4) MgCl2
By which property are gases and liquids different from solid ? (1) Volume (2) Mass (3) Conductivity (4) Fluidity
(2) He ( 4) K
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[22]
In which of the following animals joined legs are not found ? (1) Palaemon (2) Scorpion (3) Housefly (4) Leech
31.
Which of the following diseases is not related with sexual transmission ? (1) Syphilis (2) Gonorrhoea (3) Allergy (4) AIDS
32.
Which Whic h of the following enzy enzymes mes is related with digestion of protein ? (1) Lipase (2) Pepsin (3) Sucrase (4) Amylase
33.
40.
(1)
41.
42.
35.
Cell organelle that allows certain substances to enter or come out from the cell is (1) Ribosome (2) Plasma membrane (3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body
36.
If x, y, z are positive real numbers and a, b, c
1 1 x
x
c – a
(1) – 1 (3) 1 37.
39.
1 1 x
a – b
x
c – b
+
1 1 x
b – c
x a – c
If 9, a, b, – 6 are in Arithmetic progression, then a + b = (1) 1 (b) 5 (3) 15 (4) 3 If 2 is a root of the equation x 2 + bx + 12 = 0 and the equation x2 + bx + q = 0 has equal roots, then q = (1) 8 (b) – 8 (3) 16 (4) – 16
2 + 1
(1) a 2 b 2 c 2
(2) a 2 b 2 – c 2
(3) c 2 – a 2 – b 2
(4) None of these
From the top of a 7 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 45°. The height of the tower in metre is (1) 7( 3 – 1)
(2) 7 3
(3) 7 +
(4) 7( 3 + 1)
3
44.
The median of first 12 prime numbers is
45.
(2) 0 (4) None of these
(2) 3 (4) 10
(4)
If a cos – b sin = c, then a sin + b cos =
(1) 13 (3) 15 is
2
If the system of equations kx + 3y – (k – 3) = 0, 12 x + ky – k = 0 has infinitely many solutions, then k = (1) 6 ( 2) – 6 (3) 0 (4) None of these.
If 3 is the least prime factor of number a and 7 is the least prime factor of number b, then the least prime factor of a + b is (1) 2 (3) 5
38.
+
2
(2)
43.
are rational numbers, then the value of b – a
2 sin (90° – ), then tan =
2 – 1
(3) 1 –
The structure that connects a bone with muscles is known as (1) Tendon (2) Cartilage (3) Ligament (4) Areolar tissue
34.
If sin – cos =
46.
47.
(2) 14 (4) 17.
A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either of the time is (1)
35 36
(2)
25 36
(3)
1 36
(4)
11 36
If the diameter of a sphere is decreased by 25%, by what percent does its curved surface area decrease? (1) 43.75%
(2) 21.88%
(3) 50%
(4) 25%
In figure, A, B, C and D are four point on a cirlcle. AC and BD intersect at a point E such that BEC = 125° and ECD = 30°. Then BAC = A
D E 125° 30°
B
(1) 95° (3) 85°
C
(2) 110° (4) 105°
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[23]
48.
ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. Ratio of the areas of triangles ABC and BDE is (1) 2 : 1 (3) 4 : 1
49.
55.
equal to
(2) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
50.
(3) 90°
(4) 45°
In figure, ABC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14 cm and a semicircle is drawn with BC as diameter. The area of the shaded region is
C
2
51.
58.
The use of wood was much needed in 1850s to spread the Indian Railway tracks. It was used (1) in in Bu Buildings (2) in Railway wagons (3) in Furniture (4) in Sleepers
59.
The shepherds of Himachal Pradesh are called (1) Gujjar (2) Gaddi (3) Bakarwal (4) Bhotia
52.
60.
The first Indian community comm unity to start playing the game of Cricket was (1) Parsee (2) Christian (3) Marathi (4) Bengalee.
61.
The institution like Indian Parliament that was established after the French Revolution in France was (1) Duma (2) Zollverein (3) (3) Hou House se of of Lord Lordss (4) (4) Na Nation tional al Assem ssembl blyy
53.
62.
The founder of 'Hoa Hao' movement in Vietnam was (1) Confucius (2) Laotse (3) Hu Huynh Ph Pho So So (4) Liang Qichao
54.
63.
In which Conference were international Monetary Fund and World Bank established established ? (1) Brussels (2) Bretton W oods (3) Vienna (4) W ashington
64.
Bombay was a group of how many m any islands in 17th Century ? (1) Seven (2) Nine
(2) 154 cm (4) None of these
The ratio of the volume of a cube to that of a sphere which exactly fits inside the cube is (1) 6 :
(2) : 6
(3) : 12
(4) 12 :
If , are the zeros of polynomial f(x) = x2 – p(x + 1) – c, then ( + 1)( + 1) = (1) c – 1 (2) 1 – c (3) c (4) 1 + c The area of a triangle tri angle is 5 square units. Two of its vertices are (2, 1) and (3 , – 2). The third vertex lies on y = x + 3. The third vertex is
7 3 (1) , 2 2
3 3 (2) – , 2 2
3 13 (3) – , 2 2
7 5 (4) , 2 2
In figure, if QT PR, TQR = 40° and SPR = 30°, then y is P T
30°
( 4) – 1
The great Indians who were influenced by the thoughts of French Revolution were (1) Haider Ali & Tipu Sultan (2) Tipu Sultan & Raja Rammohan Roy (3) Lala Lajpat Rai & Tilak (4) Bahadur Shah Jafar & Laxmibai
2
(1) 98 cm (3) 56 cm2
(c) 1
57.
B
A
( 2) 2
The club which was most successful constituted by th men and women of France, after the Constitutionof 1791 was (1) Li Liberty club (2) Zollverein (3) Jacobin club (4) Eq Equality club
BC = 6 cm. The angle B is (2) 60°
(1) 0
56.
In ABC, AB = 6 3 cm, AC = 12 cm and (1) 120°
(1 + tan + sec ) (1 + cot – cosec ) is
90°
40° Q
y S
R
(1) 70°
(2) 110°
(3) 90°
(4) 80°
(3) Eleven
(4) Five
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[24]
65.
In which text did Jyotiba Phule write about the injustices of Caste system ? (1) Amar Jivan (2) Gulamgiri (3) Indirabad (4) Indralekha.
72.
Where is the national headquart headquarters ers of Software Technology echnol ogy Parks of India ? (1) Bengaluru (2) Chennai (3) New Delhi (4) Pune.
66.
Hill station located in Palani Hills is (1) Panchmarhi (2) Kodaikanal (3) (3) udag udagam aman anda dala lam m (4) (4) Panc Panchg hgan anii
73.
67.
The correct pair amongst the following is (1) Chamba – River Chenab (2) Kanchipuram – River Parvati (3) Nanded – River Godavari (4) Ujjain – River Son
National Highway -7 passes through how many states of India ? (1) 6 ( 2) 5 (3) 8 ( 4) 7
74.
Consider the following statements and choose
68.
the correct option Statement Statement I : Humus content is less in Laterite soils. Statement II : Red laterite soils are suitable sui table for
Match the following column : Co l u m n – I
corps of cashewnut. Statement III : Laterite soils are found in Kerala
Co l u m n – II
(A) Uttarakhand(i) Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary (B) Asam (ii) Periyar Tiger Reserve (C) Rajasthan Rajasthan (iii) Manas Tiger Reserve (D) Kerala (iv) Corbett National Park ABC D (1) iii iv ii i (3) iii i iv ii 69.
70.
71.
and Tamil Nadu. (1) Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement III is false
ABC D
(2) Statement II and Statement III are true, but Statement I is false (3) Statement I and Statement III are true, but
(2) iv ii i iii (4) iv iii i ii
By using code, arrange the following cities of India from south to north : (A) Amritsar (B) Anantapur (C) Alwar (D) Amaravati (1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, D, C, A
(3) D, C, B, A
(4) D, B, A, C
'Mango showers' are (1) Western disturbances in Punjab and Himachal Pradesh (2) Rainfall by north-east trade winds in coastal Tamil Nadu Na du (3) Pre monsoon mo nsoon rains in Kerala and Karnataka (4) Cloud burst in Khasi hills. Consider the following statements : Assertion Asser tion (A) : Manganese Mangan ese is used in the manufacturing of steel. Reason (R) : Nearly 10 kilogram of manganese is needed to make one tonne of steel. Select the correct option from the given alternatives. (1) (A) is true, but (R) is false (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (3) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Statement II is false (4) All the three statements are true. 75.
According to Census 2011, the state having highest density of population is (1) Kerala (2) W est Bengal (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar
76.
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer : List – I
(A) Division of powers among organs of government (B) Division of powers between Centre and States (C) Sharing of powers among different social groups (D) Sharing of powers between two or more than two parties List – II
I. Community goverment II. Coalition government III. Separation of powers IV. IV. Federal government A B C D (1) I II III IV (3) II III IV I
A B
C D
(2) III IV I II (4) IV III II I
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[25]
77.
78.
The organ of government which makes laws is (1) Legislature (2) Executive (3) Judiciary (4) Press.
85.
List –I
(A) Organisation of employees (B) Long term movement (C) Support to common or general interest (D) Political party
1 The institution is which rd reservation for 3
women has been constitutionally given, is (1) Lok Sabha (2) State Legislature (3) Panchayati Raj institution (4) Judiciary 79.
Which right of the t he Constitution of India negates the bonded labour and child labour ? (1) Right to equality (2) Right to liberty (3) Right to religious freedom (4) Right against exploitation.
80.
How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha ? (1) 84 (2) 47 (3) 32 (4) 22
81.
'Maharashtrawadi Gomantak party' is related to which state ? (1) Maharashtra (2) Goa (3) Kerala (4) Andhra Pradesh.
82.
Who was the editor of 'Y ' Young India' magazine? (1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
83.
Which country holds 'Veto Power' in United Nations ? (1) Germany (2) Japan (3) Italy (4) France.
84.
Which state was created on the basis of culture, geography and ethnicity ? (1) Uttarakhand (2) Punjab (3) Gujarat (4) Maharashtra.
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer :
List –II –II
I. Narmada Bachao Bacha o Andolan II. Asom Gana Parishad III. FEDECOR IV. BAMCEF.
86.
AB C D
ABC D
(1) III IV II I (3) IV I III II
(2) I II IV III (4) II III I IV
Which work of the following is an economic activity ? (1) Teacher teaches his son (2) Service rendered by a wife to her sick husband (3) Service to a patient rendered by a nurse (4) Growing vegetables in kitchen garden.
87.
88.
People deposit money in the bank because (A) Get interest (B) Money remains secured (C) Money is used in country's development (D) Value of money increases (1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B, C and D
Which of the following statements are true for National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ? (A) Right to work with guarantee of job (B) 100 days employment in a year (C) Implemented in all theregions of the country (D) Provision of unemployment allowances (1) A, B and C (2) B, C and D (3) A, B and D
89.
(4) A, B, C and D.
Since five years Lalita's father is working in Government school as a teacher. To To purchase goods from a government ration shop which of the following cards should he possess ? (1) BPL card (2) APL card (3) Aadhar ca card (4) Antyodaya ca card.
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[26]
90.
Which of the following statements are true for mid-day meal scheme ? (A) Increase in attendance of children in i n school (B) Improvement in nutrition status of the children (C) Improvement in examination results of the children (D) Increase thein terest towards games in the children. (1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and D (4) C and D
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
Ans
3 16
2 17
3 18
1 19
4 20
1 21
4 22
1 23
2 24
1 25
2 26
3 27
2 28
4 29
4 30
4 31
4 32
3 33
1 34
2 35
1 36
2 37
2 38
1 39
2 40
4 41
2 42
4 43
3 44
4 45
4 46
3 47
2 48
1 49
2 50
3 51
1 52
4 53
3 54
4 55
2 56
4 57
1 58
3 59
2 60
1 61
1 62
3 63
3 64
1 65
1 66
2 67
2 68
4 69
2 70
3 71
2 72
4 73
2 74
1 75
Ques.
4 76
3 77
2 78
1 79
2 80
2 81
3 82
4 83
2 84
3 85
2 86
3 87
1 88
4 89
4 90
Ans
2
1
3
4
1
2
3
4
1
3
3
1
3
2
1
Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans Ques. Ans
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[27]
Direction : In each of the question s 1 to 4 some of the letters are are missing in the given series with one term missing sh own by q uestion mark (?). (?). This term is one or the alternatives among the four gro pus of letters given under it. Find the right alternative. 1.
2.
A, F ,J , M, ? (1) O (3) Q
(2) N (4) P
BD, HJ, NP, NP, ?, ZB ZB (1) QS (3) YC
(2) TV (4) TU
3.
FOX, IQV IQ V, LST, OUR ? (1) RPW (2) RW P (3) QVS (4) SXU
4.
qpo, nml, ? (1) ghf (3) kji
numbers are missing in the given with one term missing m issing shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives among the numbers given under it. Find the right alternative. alternative.
6.
7.
8.
(i) (i) Some Some chal chalks ks are are char charis is.. (ii) Some chairs are tables. Conc Conclu lusi sion onss (i) (i) Some Some chal chalks ks are are tab table less (ii) Some tables are chalks (1) Only conculusion I is true (2) Only conculusion II is true (3) Both conculusion I & II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion c onclusion II is true
11.
Statements : (i) Without rains the crops will not be good (ii) The crops were good Conclusions : (I) There were rains (II) Crops were good due to good fertilizers (1) Only conculusion I is true (2) Only conculusion II is true (3) Both conculusion I & II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion c onclusion II is true
12.
Which of the following Venn Venn diagrams correctly represnts persons, trees and environment ?
(2) ijk (4) hgi
Direction : In each of the question 5 to 8 some of the
5.
10.
65, 48, 64, 49, 63, ? (1) 53 (3) 51
(2) 52 (4) 50
7, 23 , ? , 79, 119 (1) 47 (3) 44
(2) 49 (4) 46
16, 8 ,12 , ?, 105 (1) 6 (3) 24
(2) 30 (4) 35
State tateme ment ntss
(1)
748, 737 ,716 , 685, 644 ? (1) 634 (2) 643 (3) 503 (4) 593
13.
(4)
Literate 3 4 6 5 1 8
7 Employment
(1) 5 (3) 10 15.
(i) A llll rats are cats. (ii) All cats are dogs. Conclusions (i) All All rats are dogs. (ii) some cats ae rats. (1) Only conculusion I is true (2) Only conculusion II is true (3) Both conculusion I & II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(3)
2
Rural
aree given two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements. Statements
(2)
In the above diagram, how many literates are in employment ?
Directi ons : (9 to 11) 11) In each of the questions below
9.
(4)
Which of the following Venn Venn diagrams correctly represnts Jaipur, Rajasthan and India ?
(1)
14.
(3)
(2)
(2) 11 ( 4) 6
In the above above diagram the number number of men who are married and in in service is is : Married 2
3
4
6 7
8 5 Men
(1) 2 (3) 9
( 2) 6 (4) 17
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[28]
Direction : In questions 16 to19 three alternaitves are
16.
17.
18.
(2)110 (4) 250
(1) 28,4 (3) 63,7
(2) 35,5 (4) 56, 8
6
20.
In the given dice the colour of opposite side of the face having blue colour will be :
(2) Green (4) Blue
A C
D
D
F
(i) (ii) (1) E is opposite of A (2) C is opposite of E (3) C is opposite of D (4) F is not oppostie of A
B
3
(d)
5
1
(2) Only B (4) A, B, C and D
26.
In a coded language "Red colour pen = 276". "Geen colour flower = 789" an "White colour pen = 247". Then code for white is : (1) 2 ( 2) 5 (3) 4 ( 4) 7
27.
In a coded language 'NUMBER is written as 'PSOZGP'. Then in the same coded language 'BLOOD' will be written as ? (1) ZJMMB (2) ZNMQB (3) DJQMF (4) DNQQF
W
Y 22.
4
If P =16, NC = 17 and AEO = 21, then what is the value of NEHLA ? (1) 41 (2) 40 (3) 48 (4) 46
R P
2
4
25.
(iii)
figure that the different faces are folded in the from of cube.
5
If in a coded language the word "East" is written as "Fast" and "BAT" is written as "CAT", then in the same coded language "RAT" will be written as : (1) TAP (2) SAT (3) PAT (4) QAT
Direction (22 & 23) : Answer on the basis of given
G
2
(b)
24.
B E
3
(1) Only A (3) Both (A) & (C)
Which alternative is correct in the given figures of dice ?
A
(a)
(c)
Yellow
B
6
6
G Red r e e n
(1) Red (3) Yellow
4
6
(2) Brick (4) colour
Red
5
1
3
(1) Cement (3) sand
Blue eY l l o w
Which alternative is correct in the folowing figurs of dice ?
2
(1) 125 (3) 300
19.
21.
23.
alike in a certain way but the rest one is different. Find out the odd one and write correct answer. (1) ACEGF (2) FHJLK (3) KMOQP (4) UWYZA
Directions : (28 to 30) In each of the following questions
Which figure of cube is not correctly formed in the following figure ? Y G
(1)
W P
B
(2)
P R
B
(3)
P Y
W
( 4)
B
28.
a statement is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements. Statements : All students are boys No boy is dull Conclusions (i) : There is no girl student in the class (ii) : No student is dull (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion c onclusion II is true
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[29]
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
Statements : All poets are intelligent : All singers are intelligent Conclusions : (I) All singers are poet (II) : Some intelligent persons are not signers (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is i s true
39.
If 14 th july of 1995 was Friday, Friday, then what was the day on 30th March of 1994 ? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) W ednesday
40.
If 4 day before today it was Monday, what day will it fall on after 3 days ? (1) Sunday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) W ednesday
Statements : A car is required on rent – an advertisuement Conclusions (i) : All types of vehicles are available on rent (ii) : People will respond to the advertisement (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is i s true
Direction : (41 to 45) In questi ons 41 to 45 there are four fi gures given. One of these does not correlate with the rest of the fig ures. Find Find out that odd figrue.
A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. The son of A is brother of D. Then the relation of B with C is : (1) Husband (2) Brother (3) Uncle (4) Nephew Ram is the brother of Deepak, Sunita is sister of Rajesh, Deepak is the son of Sunita. How is Ram related to Sunita. How is Ram releated to Sunita ? (1) Son (2) Brother (3) Nephew (4) Father If 79 86 = 6897, then the value of 53 47 = (1) 5347 (2) 7435 (3) 2491 (4) 3574 If the numbers 719, 609, 689, 834, 937, 980, 600, 798, 610 are arranged in ascending order, order, then the the multiplicaiton multiplicaiton of difits difits of the mid number is: (1) 96 (2) 9 (3) 17 (4) 63 If P > Q, Q > R and R > S, then P ? S. (1) P > S (2) P = S (3) P < S (4) P S Urmila has 23rd rank from the right and15th rank from the left. Then, how many persons are there in the row ? (1) 37 (2) 38 (3) 9 (4) 8 If 4th day da y of any month was Sunday Sun day,, what will be the day on 27th day of the same month ? (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) W ednesday (4) Saturday If 3rd January, Jan uary, 2004 was Monday, Monday, what will be the day on 5th April, 2004 ? (1) W ednesday (2) Monday (3) Sunday (4) Tuesday
41.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
42. (4)
43. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
44.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
45. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Directi on : (46 & 47) In questions 46 & 47 there are
two sets of figures. One set contains problemfigures while the other has answer-figure. There isa sequence according accordi ng to which the problem-
46.
figures are arranged. You have to select one figure problem-figures. Find the out the corect figure. Problem– figures
Answer – figures
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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[30]
47.
In the following question. three figures showing a sequence of folding a paper are a re given. Which could resemble the figure when the third figure is unfolded ? Problem– figures Answer – figures
49.
Problem– figures =
= =
=
=
Answer – figures figures =
=
=
=
(1)
= (1) 48.
(4)
(3)
(3)
(4)
Choose the correct mirror image of the given problem figure form given four aiternatives.
50.
(2)
(2)
How many triangles are present in the following figure ? A
E
D (1)
F
(2)
(3)
(4)
C
B
(1) 14 (3) 12
(2) 10 (4) 09
ANSWER KEY Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans.
1 1 16 4 31 3 46 2
2 2 17 1 32 1 47 4
3 2 18 3 33 2 48 3
4 3 19 4 34 4 49 3
5 4 20 2 35 1 50 4
6 1 21 3 36 1
7 2 22 4 37 2
8 4 23 2 38 1
9 3 24 2 39 4
10 4 25 2 40 2
11 1 26 3 41 4
12 1 27 3 42 2
13 3 28 3 43 1
14 3 29 4 44 4
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15 2 30 2 45 4
[31]
There are 40 quest ion s in t his p aper. aper. Each Each question c arries 1 mark. mark. 1.
2.
12.
Wait until I tell this story. It .............your hair stand on end. (1) is making (2) will make (3) made (4) are making.
13.
Rajveer wants to work in France so he .............French these days. (1) learn (2) are learning (3) is learning (4) learnt
14.
3.
Reckless driving ..........many accidents. (1) causes (2) cause (3) are causing (4) have caused.
15.
4.
When the burglar broke into the house all the members of the family........the television. television. (1) watched (2) has watched (3) was watching (4) were watching.
16.
5.
Everything is going on well. The Students' Union............ any problem so far. (1) (1) has has not not pres presen ente ted d (2) (2) doe does s not not pres presen entt (3) (3) hav have e not not presen presente ted d (4) do not not pres present ent..
6.
William ..........many great poems on nature. (1) write (2) are writing (3) wrote (4) have written.
7.
No vehicles .................... to park here. (1) is allowed (2) has been allowed (3) is is be being al allowed (4) are al allowed.
8.
A diary...... diar y......... ...... ... to Mary Mar y for her thirte thi rteent enth h birthday last month. (1) is given (2) was given (3) (3) have have been been given iven (4) (4) wil will be giv given. en.
9.
The names of the merit holders............ next week. (1) will be announced (2) is announced (3) have been announced (4) was announced.
10.
11.
The pressure of steam in the engine ..........by this red button. (1) have have been been controlled controlled (2) are controlled (3) is controlled (4) were controlled. The room looks tidy. It......... just now. (1) has been cleaned (2) have been cleaned (3) are cleane cleaned d (4) will will be cleane cleaned. d.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
Rekha has been learning swimming swimming for years. She.......... swim very well now. (1) could (2) can (3) might (4) have to. Ac c or di ng to th e sc h oo l r ul e s, ev er y student........... attend the morning assembly. (1) might (2) must (3) can (4) would. ......you please tell me the way to the airport ? (1) Might (2) Shall (3) Must (4) W ould. " .........I get you a chair?" "Yes, please." (1) Shall (2) Have to (3) Had to (4) Might. I have a lot of new dresses. dresses . You You .........buy ....... ..buy any for me. (1) might not (2) may (3) need not (4) could not. The kings were very rich and ........lead a life of luxury. (1) can (2) may (3) will (4) could. Saroj said to me, "I have no time for you." Saroj told me that (1) I have no time for her (2) she had no time for her (3) I have no time for her (4) she had no time for me. Mohit said to Asha, "Why did you insult my brother ?" Mohit asked Asha (1) why he had insulted her brother (2) why she had insulted his brother (3) why he has insulted her brother (4) why she has insulted his brother. Ashok said to Poonam, "Do you you know how to operate a computer?" Ashok asked Poonam if (1) she knew how to operate a computer (2) he knew how to operate a computer com puter (3) she had known how to operate a computer (4) he had known how to operate a computer. com puter. Rajni said to her brother, "Don't write in my notebooks." Rajni forbade her brother (1) not to write in his notebooks (2) not to write in her notebooks (3) to write in his notebooks (4) to write in her notebooks.
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22.
The teacher said to the boys, "Work hard if you want to get success." The teacher told the boys (1) to work hard if he want to get success (2) to work hard if they wanted to get success (3) to work hard if they want to get success (4) to work hard if he wanted to get success.
23.
Valli was a small girl but she was able to take care ........herself. (1) in (2) on (3) of (4) to.
24.
Which company do you work ........? (1) for (2) after (3) of (4) from.
25.
The poet was sitting in his house all....... himself. (1) between (2) by (3) to (4) of.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
Either Hari or I .............at mistake today. (1) am (2) is (3) are (4) were.
33.
Five years .........a long period to repay the loan. (1) are (2) were (3) has (4) is
34.
Both a book and a computer ..........our good friends. (1) IS (2) are (3) has (4) have. For Question Nos. 35 - 36 select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given word :
35.
36.
Her face was bright .................... happiness. (1) to (2) about (3) for (4) with The Star Club is superior .................... the Golden Club in cricket (1) among (2) at (3) to (4) about. He pushed his way _______ the crowd to the door. (1) on (2) through (3) about (4) under When a group of boys........ sitting under a tree some monkeys came there. (1) are (2) were (3) was (4) is Not only my neighbour but all the members of his family........ honest. (1) is (B) are (3) have (4) was. Earl Early y to to bed bed and and ear early ly to rise rise .... ...... .... .... .... .... ..a a man man healthy, wealthy and wise. (1) make (2) makes (3) were making (4) are making.
Haughtily (1) confidently (3) lovingly
(2) proudly (4) angrily
Hostile (1) unfriendly (2) friendly
(2) politcly (4) kindly.
For Question Nos. 37 - 38 select the word which means the opposite to the given word: 37.
38.
Lamentation (1) sorrow (3) wonder
(2) joy (4) shame
Valour (1) misery (3) pain
(2) suffering (4) cowardice
For Question Nos. 39 - 40 select the meaning of the given phrasal verbs:
Look for (1) in search of (3) to plan for future opinion.
39.
(2) to remember (4) (4) to show show a low
Put off (1) to decline (3) to neglect
40.
(2) to postpone (4) to to refuse
ANSWER KEY Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans.
1 2 16 3 31 2
2 3 17 4 32 1
3 1 18 4 33 4
4 4 19 2 34 2
5 1 20 1 35 2
6 3 21 4 36 1
7 4 22 2 37 2
8 2 23 3 38 4
9 1 24 1 39 1
10 3 25 2 40 2
11 1 26 4
12 2 27 3
13 2 28 2
14 4 29 3
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15 1 30 2
[33]
1.
A person takes time t to go once around a circular path of diameter 2R. The speed () of this person would be (1)
(3) 2.
t 2R
R 2 t
(2)
8.
A
2R t
R
R
R
(4) 2R.t
B
A body of mass 2 kg k g is moving on a smooth floor in straight line with a uniform velocity of 10 m/s. Resultant force acting on the body is (1) 20 N (2) 10 N (3) 2 N (4) zero The S.I. unit of pressure is (1) N. m2 (2) N/m2 (3) m2/N (4) N/m.
4.
The frequency of a source of sound is 50 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in one minute mi nute ? (1) 50 (2) 300 (3) 3000 (4) 30000.
R
R
R
(1) 6 R
( 2)
4R 11
R 11R (4) . 6 4 The far point of a myopic person is 75 cm in front of the eye. The nature and power of the lens rquired to correct the problem, will be (1) convex lens, – 1.33 D (2) concave lens, – 1.33 D (3) concave lens, + 1.33 D (4) convex lens, + 1.33 D.
(3) 9.
3.
5.
The value of equivalent equivalent resistance between the point A and B in the given circuit, will be
10.
An electron enters in a magnetic field at right angle to it as shown in figure. The direction of force acting on the electron will be
A person of mass 50 kg runs up to staircase staircase of 40 steps in 6 sec. If the height of each step is 15 cm, then his power will be (If g = 10 m/s2) (1) 300 W (2) 500 W (3) 600 W (4) 1000 W
Magnetic field
Electron 6.
The focal length of a concave mirror in air is f.
If it is immersed in water n
4 , then the 3
focal length will be (1) f
(3) 7.
(2) 3 f 4
(1) to the left (3) out of th the page 11.
When 1 J of work is done to move a charge of 1 C from one point to another point then the potential difference between two points in a given circuit will be (1) 1 V (2) 4V (3) 8 V (4) zero.
12.
A certain certain household has consumed 200 units units of energy during a month. Its value in joules will be (1) 3.6 × 1010 (2) 7.2 × 1010 (3) 3.6 × 108 (4) 7.2 × 108
13.
On additon of which metal the blue coloured copper sulphate solution turns into colourless solution ? (1) Ag (2) Hg (3) Zn ( 4 ) Au
14.
IUPAC IUPAC name of the first fir st member of homologous series of ketones is (1) Ethanone (2) Propanol (3) Methanone (4) Propanone
4 f 3
(4) 4f.
A student was asked to draw a ray diagram for formation of image by a convex lens for the following positions of the object : (A) between F and 2F (B) at F (C) at 2F (D) between F and optical centre The position for which virtual image can be formed among these is (1) B (2) A (3) C (4) D.
(2) to the right (4) (4) in into the page
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15.
The nature of solution when sodium carbonate is dissolved in water will be (1) acidic (2) basic (3) neutral (4) amphoteric
25.
The hormone present in higher concentration in fruits and seeds is (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
16.
An element elem ent A belongs belong s to third period perio d and second group of periodic table. The number of valence electron / electrons of element A is (1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
26.
The substance essential for photosynthesis photosynthesis is (1) glucose (2) oxygen (3) nitrogen (4) water
27.
In plants the cells necessary for exchange of gases from atmosphere are (1) subsidiary cells (2) bark cells (3) guard cells (4) phloem parenchyma cells
28.
The group of amphibian plants is (1) Funaria, Marchantia (2) Marsilia, Horse-tail (3) Pinus, Cycas (4) Typha, Hydrilla.
29.
The human made m ade synthetic chemical used in refrigerator is (1) LPG (2) CFC (3) CH4 (4) PVC.
30.
The example of an egg laying mammal is (1) Bat (2) W hale (3) Echidna (4) Kangaroo
31.
Which of the following follows a general principle of fooling the immune system by putting particular infection into the body ? (1) AIDS (2) Vaccination (3) Antibiotic (4) Antiseptic
32.
Skeletal muscles are (1) striated and voluntary (2) unstriated and voluntary (3) striated and involuntary (4) unstriated and involuntary involuntary
33.
Sphygmomanometer Sphygmomanometer measures (1) wall pressure (2) blood pressure (3) diffu diffusi sion on press pressur ure e (4) air air pres pressur sure e
34.
Knightia is a fossil of (1) tree trunk (2) invertebrate (3) fish (4) dinosaur skull
35.
The method of mechanical barrier to avoid pregnancy is (1) condoms (2) contraceptive pills (3) (3) sur surgi gica call met metho hods ds (4) (4) ab aborti ortion on
17.
18.
19.
The chemical reaction HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O is an example of (1) neutralization (2) double displacement (3) neutralization and double displacement (4) combination pH of a solution is zero. The nature of this solution is (1) acidic (2) basic (3) neutral (4) amphoteric The difference in number of crystalline water molecules in a molecule of gypsum and a molecule of plaster of Paris is (1)
(3) 20.
21.
22.
23.
5 2
(2) 2
1 2
(4)
3 2
An alkyne has 4 numbers of hydrogen atoms. What will be the number of carbon atoms in it? (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five Number of molecules in 14 g of carbon monoxide is (1) 12.044 × 1023
(2) 6.022 × 1023
(3) 3.011 3.0 11 × 1023
(4) 1.5050 × 1023
The boiling point of a gas is –80°C. This temperature is equivalent to (1) –193 K
(2) 193 K
(3) 353 K
(4) – 353 K
Which of the following fo llowing solutions solutions does not show Tyndall effect ? (1) Milk (2) Starch solution (3) Ink (4) Sugar solution
x The value of c x b
24.
The cell organelle storing substances like starch, oil and proteins is (1) Vacuole (2) Lysosome (3) Plastid (4) Golgi body
36.
equal to (1) 1 (3) 0
1 bc
1
x c ca . a x
1
x a ab . b is x
( 2) – 1 (4) abc.
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[35]
37.
The HCF of any two prime numbers a and b, is (1) a (2) ab (3) b (4) 1
38.
The total two-digit numbers which are divisible by 5, are (1) 17 (2) 18 (2) 19 (4) 20.
39.
If the roots of the equation 2x2 + ax + b = 0 are reciprocals to each other, then the value of b is (1) 1 (2) – 2 (3) 2 (4) 1
40.
If sin (A + B) = cos (A – B), then the value of (A + B) is (1) (3)
41.
42.
43.
4 3 4
(2) (4)
47.
The lengths of two parallel chords of a circle are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at distance 4 cm from the center, then the distance of the other chord from the center is (1) 5 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 2 cm
48.
In the figure fig ure given below, ABC is an equilateral equilater al triangle. D, E, F, G, H and I are the trisector points of the sides as shown. If the side of the triangle ABC is 6 cm, then the area of the regular hexagon DEFGHI is A H
2
I
8
B
49.
The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. It the tower is 30 m high, then the height of the building is (1) 30 m (2) 20 m (3) 15 m (4) 10 m If the system of equations 3x + y = 1, (2k – 1)x + (k – 1)y, = (2k + 1), has no solution, then the value of k is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) – 2 (4) 1.
44.
The mean of the first ten even natural numbers is (1) 10 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 13
45.
A die is thrown twice. The probability of the sum being odd, is 1 2
(2)
F
If sin + sin2 = 1, then the value of cos2 + cos4 is (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0
(1)
G
D
C
E
(1) 3 3 cm2
(2) 4 3 cm2
(3) 5 3 cm2
(4) 6 3 cm2
In the given figure, DBC = 22° and DCB = 78° then BAC is equal to A
D
78° 22°
B
(1) 90° (3) 78° 50.
C
(2) 80° (4) 22°
In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle whose side is 2 3 cm. A circle is drawn which passes through the midpoints D, E and F of its sides. The area of the shaded region is
1 3
1 1 (4) 6 4 If the heights and radii of a cone and a hemisphere are same then the ratio of their volumes is (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
(3)
46.
(1)
1 4 – 3 3 cm2 4
(2)
1 2 – 3 cm2 4
(3)
1 – 3 3 cm 2 4
(4)
1 3 – 3 cm2 4
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51.
52.
If a cylinder of radius 3 cm and height of 10 cm is melted and recast into the shapes of small spheres of diameter 1 cm, then the number of spheres so formed is (1) 135 (2) 270 (3) 540 (4) 1080
59.
Nazi youth group for children below 14 years of age was (1) Strom Troopers (2) Gestapo (3) Jungvolk (4) Ghettoes
60.
'Plant more wheat, wheat will win the war'. The statement is of (1) President Wilson (2) Churchill (3) Tzar Nicholas II (4) Franklin D. Roosevelt
61.
The tactful diplomatic alliance between Sardinia-Piedmont and France was engineered by (1) Mazzini (2) Cavour (3) Garibaldi (4) Victor Emmanuel
62.
The film 'Raja Harishchandra' (1913) was made by (1) Gulzar (2) Basu Bhattacharya (3) Dada Saheb Phalke (4) C. Ramchandran
63.
Which novel is known as the first modern novel of Malayalam ? (1) (1) He Henrie nriettta Templ emple e (2) (2) Par Parik iksh sha a Gur Guru u (3) Chandrakanta (4) In Indulekha
64.
In Trinidad the annual Muharram procession is known as (1) Karvala (2) Hosay (3) Hassan (4) Haidos.
65.
The proposal of 'Non-cooperation Movement' was passed by Congress in the session held at (1) Nagpur (2) Kanpur (3) Amritsar (4) Lucknow
66.
In India Tropic of cancer passes through the state of (1) Bihar (2) Orissa (3) Jharkhand (4) Uttar Pradesh
67.
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer :
The graph of y = p(x) is given below. The number of zeroes of polynomial p(x), is Y
X'
X Y'
(1) 3 (3) 1
(2) 2 (4) 0
53.
The centre of a circle passing through the points (7, - 5), (3, - 7) and (3, 3) is (1) (5, -6) (2) (5, -1) (3) (3, 2) (4) 3, -2)
54.
In the given figure, ODC ~ OBA, BOC = 115° and CDO = 80°. Then OAB is equal to D
C 80° O
115° 80°
A
(1) 80° (3) 45° 55.
(2) 35° (4) 65°
tan 43° tan 45° tan 47° is equal to (1) (3) 1
56.
B
3
(2)
1 3
(4) 2.
The writer of 'The Social Contract' is (1) Rousseau (2) Montesquieu (3) Tilak (4) Mirabeau.
57.
Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated at Waterloo Water loo in (1) 1518a (2) 1815 (3) 1915a (4) 1819
58.
The world's biggest stock exchange 'Wall Street Exchange' is located in (1) France (2) China (3) U.S.A. (4) Japan
L i s t -I
(A) Mt. Everest (B) Kanchenjunga (C) Makalu (D) Dhaulagiri A B (1) iii ii (2) ii i (3) i iii (4) iii i
L i s t -II
(i) 8598 (ii) 8481 (iii) 8848 (iv) 8172 C D iv i iii iv i ii ii iv
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[37]
68.
Which of the following is not tributary of Ganga? (1) Yamuna (2) Satluj (3) Ghaghara (4) Kosi.
69.
In India total forest area as per Forest Report, 2011 is (1) 21.05% (2) 20.06% (3) 22.07% (4) 19.80%
70.
Which state in India has Kaziranga National Park ? (1) Bihar (2) W est Bengal (3) Jharkhand (4) Assam
71.
Which type of resource is solar energy ? (1) Re Replenishable (2) Hu Human-made (3) Biotic (4) Non-recyclable
72.
Hirakud Dam is situated on the river (1) Godavari (2) Tapi (3) Mahanadi (4) Yamuna
73.
Non-food crop is (1) W heat (3) Cotton
(2) Rice (4) Bajra
74.
Which of the following is a non-ferrous mineral? (1) Bauxite (2) Manganese (3) Nickel (4) Cobalt
75.
Seaport of India is (1) Delhi (3) (3) Vish Vishak akha hapa patn tnam am
76.
79.
80.
81.
What is the period of Indian Lok Sabha ? (1) 3 years (2) 5 years (3) 6 years (4) 4 years
82.
Who is the highest formal authority of India ? (1) President (2) Prime Minister (3) Governor (4) Chief Minister
83.
How many seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha ? (1) 84 (2) 41 (3) 32 (4) 47
84.
Which of the th e following rights is reserved under the Constitution of India ? (1) Right to work (2) Right to adequate livehood (3) Right to protect one's culture (4) Right to privacy
85.
What is the literacy rate of women in India ?
(2) Hyderabad (4) (4) Amri Amrits tsar ar
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer : List -I List - II (A) Union of India (i) Prime Minister (B) State (ii) Sarpanch (C) Municipal (iii) Governor (D) (D) Gram Gram Panc Pancha hayyat (iv) (iv) May Mayor A B C D (1) iv i ii iii (2) ii iii iv i (3) i iii iv ii (4) iii iv i ii
77.
The Government body which implements law is (1) Legislature (2) Judiciary (3) Executive (4) Press
78.
Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party ? (1) Kanshiram (2) Sahu Maharaj (3) (3) B. B. R. R. Ambe Ambedk dkar ar (4) (4) Jy Jyotib otiba a Phul Phule. e.
In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is not according to democratic system ? (1) Free and fair elections (2) Dignity of the individual (3) Majority rule (4) Equal treatment before law. law. When did the Constitution of India come into effect ? (1) 9th November, 1946 (2) 15th August, 1947 (3) 26th November, N ovember, 1949 (4) 26th January Jan uary,, 1950
86.
(1) 54% (3) 36%
(2) 76% (4) 60%
Working capital is (1) Computer (3) Building
(2) Generator (4) Raw material
87.
Example of barter exchange is (1) Purchasing wheat with money (2) Purchasing fruits with money (3) purchasing milk with money (4) purchasing sugar with wheat
88.
Consumer Protection Protect ion Act was was enacted in India In dia in (1) 1986
(2) 1982
(3) 1984
(4) 1988
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[38]
89.
Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans. Ques. Ans.
Suitable measure to compare economic development of two countries is (1) Gross Domestic Product (2) Gross National Product (3) Individual income (4) Per capita income
1 2 16 2 31 2 46 1 61 2 76 3
2 4 17 3 32 1 47 3 62 3 77 3
3 2 18 1 33 2 48 4 63 4 78 1
4 3 19 4 34 3 49 2 64 2 79 3
5 2 20 2 35 1 50 1 65 1 80 4
6 1 21 3 36 1 51 3 66 3 81 2
7 4 22 2 37 4 52 1 67 4 82 1
90.
8 3 23 4 38 2 53 4 68 2 83 4
Private sector's major objective is to (1) provide benefits to public (2) provide benefits to government (3) earn profits (4) serve the people.
9 2 24 3 39 3 54 2 69 3 84 3
10 4 25 3 40 1 55 3 70 4 85 1
11 1 26 4 41 3 56 1 71 1 86 4
12 4 27 3 42 4 57 2 72 3 87 4
13 3 28 1 43 1 58 3 73 3 88 1
14 4 29 2 44 2 59 3 74 1 89 4
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15 2 30 3 45 1 60 1 75 3 90 3 [39]
Question s (1 - 4) Direction : In each of the question 1 to 4 some of the
Questi ons (9 - 11) 11) Direction : In each of the questions below are given
letters are missing in the given series with one term missing shown by question mark (?). This terms is one of the alternatives among the four groups grou ps of letters given under it. Find the right alternative. 1. Z, W, S ? (1) P (2) O (3) N (4) Q 9.
two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commnly known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows follows from the two given statements. State tateme ment ntss (i) (i) : All All pen penci cils ls are are pen penss. (ii) : All pens are markers. Conc Concllusi usions ons (I) (I) : All All pen penci cils ls are are mark marker ers. s. (II) : Some pens are pencils. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion c onclusion II is true
10.
Statements
(i) : Some players are singers. (ii) : All singers are tall Conclusions (I) : Some players players are tall (II) : All players are tall. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion c onclusion II is true
11.
Statements
(i) : All stones are diamond. (ii) : Some diamonds are pearl. Conclusions (I) : Some pearl are stone. (II) : All diamonds are pearl. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion c onclusion II is true
12.
Which of the following Venn Venn diagrams correctly represents Doctors, Nurse, Human being
2.
3.
4.
AN, CP, CP, FS, ? (1) IV (3) KX
(2) JW (4) LY
MYZ, LWX, ?, JST (1) KUV (3) HOP
(2) IQR (4) GMN
bdf, hjl ______ , tvx (1) nrp (3) nqr
(2) pnr (4) npr
Question s (5 - 8) Direction : In each of the question 5 to 8 some of the
5.
6.
7.
8.
numbers are missing in the given series with one term missing shown by question mark (?). This terms is one of the alternatives among the four numbers given under it. Find the right alternative. 8, 27, 64, ?, 216, 343. (1) 125 (2) 81 (3) 100 (4) 196 5, 11, 19, ____ 41. (1) 28 (3) 30
(2) 29 (4) 35
120, ? 24, 6, 0. (1) 100 (3) 60
(2) 70 (4) 20
729, 81, 9, 1,
1 1 ,?, . 9 729
13.
(1)
1 27
(2)
1 81
(3)
1 243
(4)
1 486
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following Venn Venn diagrams correctly represents Delhi, India and Asia ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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[40]
Questi ons (14 - 15) 15)
Questi ons (22 - 23) 23)
Give answer on the following Venn diagram
Answer the questions questions on the basis of cube: Direction Direction : Answer 22. A cube of side 6 cm is divided in the cubes of
Teacher 0 5
5
12
20
14
side 2 cm. Then the total number of cubes is : (1) 9 (2) 27 (3) 81 (4) 216
Doctor
17 16
23. Musician
14.
How many persons are related to all three ? (1) 20 (2) 12 (3) 32 (4) 17
15.
How many persons are related to any two ? (1) 32 (2) 34 (3) 43 (4) 27 (1) 1 (3) 5
Questi ons (16 - 19) 19) Direction Direction : In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives alternatives are
16.
alike in a certain way but the rest one is different. Find out the odd and write correct answer. (1) ABNO (2) CDPQ (3) EFRS (4) GHUT (1) 144, 12 (3) 80, 9
(2) 121, 11 (4) 100, 10
18.
(1) Pen (3) Chalk
(2) Pencil (4) Blackboard
19.
(1) Haryana (3) Rajasthan
(2) Gujarat (4) Shimla
20.
In the given dice the opposite side of the 3 face is having which number ?
17.
21.
(1) 3 (3) 1
(2) 4 (4) 6
24.
If in a coded language the word ‘REKHA’ is written as ‘AHKER’ then in the same code language ‘HEMA’ will be written as : (1) AMEH (2) EMAH (3) MAHE (4) EAMH
25.
If in a coded language the word CHILDREN is written as EJKNFTGP then TEACHER will be written as (1) VGCEJTG (2) VGCEJGT (3) VGCJEGT (4) VGCGEJT
26.
27.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6 In the given two positions of a dice, when 2 is below the dice which number is on the dice ?
In the given figure of cube which is opposite face of 3 ?
28.
In a coded language the given alphabets are written in special codes. A B C D E S U V M N 7 9 1 3 4 2 0 6 5 8 Then code 973578 will be : (1) BADMAN (2) BACMAN (3) DUEMAN (4) MANSDE In a coded language ‘RUSTY’ is written as 96872. Then in the same coded language ‘ZXWV’ will be written as : (1) 1354 (2) 1543 (3) 1345 (4) 1534 A is uncle of B, B is daughter of C, C is the wife of D’s son. Then how is A related to D ? (1) Son (2) Brother (3) Father (4) Maternal uncle
(2) 5 (4) 6
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[41]
29.
30.
Ram travels 8 km to south, then moves mo ves to right and travels 6 km and at the end he again moves m oves right and travels 8 km. Then the distance of Ram from initial point is : (1) 6 Km (2) 8 km (3) 10 km (4) 14 km
34.
If the meaning of is ‘+’, is ‘×’, is ‘÷’ and ‘–‘ , the then n the the valu value e of 24 24 6 5 6 14 is: is ‘–‘ (1) 34 (2) 20 (3) 14 (4) 2
Question (31-34 (31-34)) Direction : In questions 31 to 34 there are two sets of
figures, one set contains problem figures while the other has answer -figures. There is a sequence according to which the problem figures are arranged. You have to select an answer - figure which can be added in sequence in the problem-figures .Choose the correct figure.
Direction : In questions 35 to 37 there are four figures
given. One of these does not correlate with the rest of the figures . Find out that odd figure.
35.
36. 31.
.
37.
38.
How many triangles are there in the figure below ?
32.
39.
33.
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10 How many parallelograms are there in the figure below ?
(1) 14 (3) 16
(2) 15 (4) 18
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[42]
Direction Direction : In questions 40 to 42 find the correct mirror
image of the given figure. Question-Figure
Question Quest ions s (45-46 (45-46)) Direction : In the following Questions 45-46 , figures
showing a sequence of folding a paper are given. Which could resemble the figure in the Answer-fi Answer-figures. gures.
Answer-Figures
40. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 45.
41.
46.
42.
47.
43.
The water image of the given figure
Find the number of blocks when the given stack of blocks is separated :
is (1) 3 (3) 5 48.
44.
The water image of the given figure is
(2) 4 (4) 6
In the given figure, the total number of cubes is :
(1) 25 (3) 85
(2) 55 (4) 35
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[43]
49.
In the given figure squares are folded and a cube is formed. Then the number opposite to 2 is :
(1) 1 (3) 5 50.
(2) 3 (4) 6
In the standard die the sum of opposite faces always remains : (1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 5
ANSWER KEY Que.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans.
3
2
1
4
1
2
3
2
3
1
4
4
3
1
2
4
3
4
4
3
Que.
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Ans.
4
2
4
1
2
4
3
2
4
4
1
44
45
2 50
3
43
1 49
4
42
1 48
1
41
3 47
4
Que.
1 46
Ans.
4
3
4
1
2
3
3
2
3
2
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[44]
1.
Earlier Vivek ……………on 17 th floor of a multi-storeyed building. So, he knows how to use a lift. (1) live (2) lived (3 (3) lives (4) is living.
2.
Sonali………………. an English newspaper daily. (1) reads (2) read (3) was reading (4) were reading.
3.
Himani…………………. th this test re recently. (1) pass (2) passed (3) have passed (4) has passed.
4.
Look before you ……………….. (1) leap (2) leapt (3) are leaping (4) leaps.
5.
The senior staff… f…… ……………….bonus by the company last year. (1) is given (2) will be given (3) was given (4) has given.
6.
A lo long bri brid dge…… e…………… ……… …over ver th the vi villa llage rive river r presently. (1) is being built (2) was being built (3) was built (4) will be built.
7.
8.
9.
‘Vande Ma Matram’ song……………..by Bankim kim Chandra Chatterjee. (1) is is be being wr written (2) wa was being written (3) had written (4) was written. Secon cond-h d-hand bo books …………. on on th this fo foot-pat -path h every Sunday. (1) bought and sold (2) is bought and sold (3) are bought and sold (4) will be bought and sold. The The wat watch chma man n sai said d to the the lady lady,, “I “I cann cannot ot stay stay here all the time.” The watchman told t old the lady that…………… all the time. (1) he cannot stay there (2) he could not stay there (3) he could not stay here (4) he cannot stay here.
10.
My siste isterr sai said d to to me me, “Pl “Ple ease ase bri bring ng me a sketch-pen set.” My sister requested me………………. a sketch-pen set. (1) that I should bring her (2) if I bring her (3) to bring her (4) to brought her. her.
11.
The The old old lady lady said said,, “I “I am am goi going on a hol holid iday ay.” .” The old lady said………. on a holiday. (1) (1) that that she she was was goi going ng (2) (2) if she she was was goin going g (3) that I am go going (4) that I was going.
12. 12.
Lenc Lench ho said said to the the pos postt-of offi fice ce cler clerks ks,, “You “You are are a band of cheats.” Lencho blamed the post-office clerks that……… a band of cheats. (1) you are (2) you were (3) they are (4) they were.
13. 13.
It is is a dif diffi ficu cult lt puzz puzzlle. You… ou……… ………… ……… ……. …... also try it. (1) could (2) should (3) shall (4) will.
14. 14.
Smoki Smoking ng is proh prohib ibit ited ed in sc scho hool ols s too too.. Nob Nobod odyy ………..use tobacco products there. (1) may (2) will (3) can (4) could
15.
We ……………love ou our co county. (1) should (2) may (3) will (4) can
16. 16.
Reli Religi gion on help helps s us us kee keep p to to the the righ rightt pat path h in in lif life. e. So, we ………….follow our religion. (1) could (2) may (3) must (4) shall.
17. 17.
A bun bunch ch of grap grapes es…… ………… …… all all tha thatt the the fox fox wanted. (1) is (2) am (3) was (4) were.
18. 18.
Coff Coffee ee and and bis biscu cuit its… s……… ………. …... a refr refres eshi hing ng snack. (1) is (2) was (3) were (4) are.
19. 19.
One One of of the the so soldie ldiers rs… ……… …….. .. woun wounde ded d las lastt nig night ht.. (1) is (2) am (3) was (4) were.
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[45]
20.
A go go o d nu num be ber of of pa p at ie ien ts ts …… ……… … … … diagnosed of Dengue last year. (1) is (2) are (3) was (4) were.
31.
Add a question tag : I sold all my notes, ……………... (1) ain’t I? (2) didn’t I ? (3) did I ? (4) aren’t I ?
21.
‘Have you any sugar ?’ ‘Yes. But I don’t have …………...’ (1) many (2) more (3) much (4) some
32.
Add a question tag: Never betray anyone,…………….. . (1) shall them ? (2) should we ? (3) shall they ? (4) should they ?
22. 22.
The The athl athle etes tes wer were e pre prepa pare red d to to fac face… e…… ……… …….. challenge. (1) a (2) all (3) every (4) several.
33.
to Anil / should / I / back / go (a) (b) (c) (d) (d (e) (1) (1) (c (c)) (b). (b). (e) (e) (d) (d) (a) (a) (2) (2) (b) (b) (c (c)) (d) (d) (e) (e) (a) (a) (3) (3) (a) (a) (b) (b) (d) (d) (c (c)) (e) (e) (4) (4) (d) (d) (b) (b) (c (c)) (e) (e) (a). (a).
23. 23.
I qui quiet etlly wen wentt out out …… ………… ………. ….th the e doo doorr to to see see the snake. (1) into (2) to (3) from (4) through.
34. two dollars / down to / the bargain I he / managed (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) (b (b) (a (a) (c (c) (d (d) (e (e) (2) (2) (d (d) (e (e) (c (c) (b (b) (a (a) (3) (3) (b) (b) (c (c)) (d) (d) (e) (e) (a) (a) (4) (4) (a) (a) (e) (e) (c (c)) (b) (b) (d). (d).
24.
T he he ri ri ch ch ma m a n pr pr om om is is ed ed th th e wa wa r de de n to to pay…………….. pay…………….. the poor girls. (1) in (2) on (3 (3) for (4) of.
25.
26. 26.
27. 27.
28. 28.
29. 29.
30. 30.
W e l iv iv ed ed in in an an an an c es es tr tr al al ho ho u se se ma ma de de ………..limestone.· (1) in (2) of (3) from (4) by. Kisho ishore re was look lookin ing g all all…… ………… ………… …….. for for his his lost ATM ATM card. car d. (1) in (2) near (3) around (4) about The The kin king g lo lost all all his his re resour sourcces…… es……… ……… ……... his his courage helped him regain his kingdom. (1) as (2) and (3) yet (4) so. ……… ………… ………. ….o of al all his his supp suppor orts ts,, he he was was left left all alone in his odd times. (1) Besides (2) Because (3) Despite (4) Instead. Raghu aghu had had bet bette ter… r……… ………… …….. .. at a boa board rdin ing g school. (1) study (2) to study (3) studying· (4) studied. She went went to the the vi villag llage e mar marke ket… t……… ………… ……… …. the necessary commodities . (1) for buy (2) to buy (3) buying (4) to be bought
For Question Nos. 35–36 select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given word: 35. Stifled (1) tough (2) suffocated (3) hard (4) free. 36.
Conceit (1) pride (3) hate
(2) shame (4) JOY·
For Question Nos. 37 - 38 select the word which means the opposite to the given word: 37. Temporary (1) stable (2) fix (3) permanent (4) mobile. 38.
Kindle (1) light (3) put in
(2) put out (4) put up.
For Question Nos. 39 - 40 select the meaning of the given phrasal verbs: 39. Break away (1) escape (2) split (3) en end re relationship (4) (4) st stop wo work rkiing. 40.
41.
Look out (1) check (2) be careful (3) search (4) bring. Put the most suitable word: Can you tell me………… you found my keys? (1) how (2) whose (3) which (4) who.
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[46]
42. 42.
Fill Fill in the the blan blank k wit with h corr correc ectt det deter ermi mine ner: r: .................. student in the class had a book. (1) All (2) Every (3 (3) Neither (4) Few.
43. 43.
Fil Fill in in th the bl blank ank wit with h cor corre recct mod modal al : I……………….. get there on (determination) (1) can (2) may (3) could (4) will
44. 44.
45. 45.
46. 46.
47. 47.
Choo Choose se the the cor corre rect ct Nega Negati tive ve sent senten ence ce of the the given Affirmative sentence: Ram is the cleverest boy in the school. (1) No boy in the school is as clever as Ram. (2) Ram is as clever as other boys. (3) No boy is cleverest in school as Ram is. (4) Ram is cleverest of all.
48. 48.
Fill Fill in the the bla blank nk with ith pro prope perr wor word d fro from m the the options given below: The bus has……………… arrived, now the passengers are getting down. (1) while (2) just (3) Since (4) because
49. 49.
Choo Choose se the the cor corre recct nou noun n for form m of of the the give given n adjective: ‘Pure’ (1) purify (2) purely (3) purification (4) purified
50.
Give sy synonym of of th the gi given wo word: Pious (1) evil (2) holy (3) ill-will (4) vulgar
time.
Use Use the the appr approp opri riat ate e pre prepo posi siti tion on to comp comple lete te the given sentence: When the doctor arrived the patient was lying…………………. the floor. (1) under (2) above (3) on (4) over. She She is is see seeking king admi admiss ssiion …… ………… ……… ……any …any of the management colleges. (1) by (2) at (3) for (4) to. Choo Choose se the the corr correc ectl tly y punc punctu tuat ated ed sent senten ence ce.. (1) hari, latif, ali and I saw an old, lean weak bullock on the road. (2) Hari Latif Ali and I saw an old lean weak bullock on the road. (3) Hari, Latif, Ali and I saw an old, lean, weak bullock on the road. (4) Hari, Latif, Ali and I saw an old lean weak bullock on the road.
ANSWER KEY Que.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans A ns .
2
1
4
1
3
1
4
3
2
3
1
4
2
3
1
3
3
1
3
4
Que.
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Ans A ns .
3
3
4
3
2
3
3
1
1
2
2
2
1
2
2
1
3
2
1
2
Que.
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
Ans A ns .
1
2
4
3
4
3
1
2
3
2
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[47]
1.
A car travels 40 kms at an average speed of 80 km/h and then travels 40 kms at an average speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the car for this 80 km trip is (1) 40 km/h (2) 45 km /h (3) 48 km/h (4) 53 km /h
2.
The term ‘mass’ refers to the same physical concept as (1) weight (2) inertia (3) force (4) acceleration.
3.
A 5.0 kg object is moving horizontally at 6.0 m/s. In order to change its speed to 10.0m/s, the net work done on the object must be (1) 40 J (2) 90 J (3) 160 J (4) 20 J
4.
The momentum of an object at a given instant is independent of its (1) inertia (2) speed (3) velocity (4) acceleration.
5.
The pressure exerted on the ground by a man is greatest when (1) he stands with both feet flat on ground (2) he Stands flat on one foot (3) he stands on the toes of one foot (4) all the above yield the same pressure.
6.
A sound wave has a wavelength of 3.0m. The distance from a compression centre to the adjacent rarefaction centre is : (1) 0.75 m (2) 1.5 m (3) 3.0 m (4) 6.0 m
7.
Of the following, the copper conductor that has the least resistance is (1) thin, long and hot (2) thick, short and cool (3) thick, long and hot (4) thin, short and cool.
8.
9.
Four 20 resistors are connected in series and the combination is connected to a 20 V emf device. The potential potential difference across any one of the resistors is (1) 5V (2) 2V (3) 4V (4) 20V. The magnetic field lines due to an ordinary bar magnet (1) form closed closed curves curves (2) cross one another near the poles (3) are more numerous near the N-pole than near the S-pole. (4) do not exist inside the magnet.
10.
When light travels from medium X to medium Y as shown
(1) both the speed and the frequency fr equency decrease (2) both the speed and the frequency frequenc y increase (3) both the speed and the wavelength decrease (4) both the wavelength and the frequency freq uency are unchanged. 11.
A candle candle C is kept between between two paralle parallell mirrors, mirrors, at a distance 0.2 d from the mirror 1. Here d is the distance between mirrors. Multiple images of the candle appear in both mirrors. How far behind mirror 1 are the nearest two images of the candle in that mirror? (1) 0.2d, 1.8d (2) 0.2d, 2.2d (3) 0.2d, 0.8d (4) 0.2d, 1.2d
12.
For a 1 MW wind energy generator, the minimum land area required for establishment of wind energy farm is about (1) 100 hectares (2) 50 hectares (3) 20 hectares (4) 2 hectares
13.
Milk of magnesia is an example of which type of colloid ? (1) Gel (2) Emulsion (3) Sol (4) Foam
14.
The number of gram moles of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide is (1) 0.001 (2) 0.051 (3) 0.102 (4) 2
15.
Number of valence electrons in Cl atom is (1) 16 (2) 7 (3) 17 (4) 18
16.
Isotopes of an elemen elementt have (1) the same physical properties (2) different chemical properties (3) different number of neutrons (4) different atomic number.
17.
Which of the following hydrocarbons undergoes addition reactions? (1) C 2 H 6
(2) C 3 H 8
(3) C 3 H 6
(4) CH 4
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[48]
18.
19.
20.
Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends t rends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic table ? (1) The elements become less metallic in nature (2) The number of valence electrons increases (3) The atoms lose their electrons electrons more easily (4) The oxides become more acidic, Acetic acid, with the molecular formula CH3 COOH has (1) (1) 8 cov cova alent lent bon bonds (2) (2) 7 cov cova alent lent bon bonds (3) (3) 9 coval covalen entt bond bondss (4) (4) 10 10 co covalent bonds. An elem ent reacts reac ts with oxygen oxyge n to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble s oluble in water. The element is likely to be (1) calcium (2) carbon (3) silicon (4) iron
21.
Metals in the middle of the activity series can be easily extracted from their (1) Carbonates (2) Sulphides (3) Nitrates (4) Oxides
22.
Pb (s )
In plants transport of soluble products in the process of photosynthesis occurs in (1) xylem (2) phloem (3) both of these (4) none of these.
28.
Which among the following hormones is associated with wilting of leaves ? (1 (1) Abscisic acid (2) Gibberellin (3) Cytokinin (4) Auxin.
29.
Seed is modification of (1) ovary (2) ovule (3) thalamus (4) all of these
30.
How many types of muscle tissue are found ? (1) Striated and unstriated (2) Striated and cardiac (3) Cardiac and unstriated (4) Striated, unstriated and cardiac
31.
Which characters are a re present in a vertebrate ? (1) Notochord, triploblastic, coelomate and bilateral symmetry (2) Notochord, diploblastic, coelomate and radial symmetry (3) Notochord, triploblastic, acoelomate and bilateral symmetry (4) Notochord, triploblastic, acoelomate and radial symmetry. symmetry.
32.
Synapse is (1) gap between two muscle cells (2) gap between two bones (3) gap between two neurons (4) gap between muscle and bone.
33.
Regeneration Regeneration is found in (1) tapeworm (2) leech (3) hydra (4) ascaris
CuCl 2 ( au ) PbCl 2(aq ) Cu (s)
The above reaction is an example of a (1) combination reaction (2) neutralization neutralization reaction (3) decomposition reaction (4) displacement reaction 23.
27.
Adding an alpha particle to the nucleus of sodium atom produces which new element ? (1) Mg (2) P (3) Al (4) Ne.
24.
Which among the following cell organelles is able to make its own proteins? (1) Lysosome (2) Golgi apparatus (3) Plastid (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
34.
Which of the following groups constitutes a correct food chain? (1) Grass Rabbit Snake Eagle (2) Grass Goat Fox Lion (3) Goat Grass Elephant Snake (4) Grass Wheat Frog Goat.
25.
Intercalary meristem is present (1) at the base of the t he leaves and both the sides of node (2) in the roots (3) at the tip of the leaves (4) at the shoot apex
35.
Which cell organelle is known as “powerhouse of the cell”? (1) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
26.
Which among the following is an example of fungi? (1) Anabaena (2) Euglena (3) Mycoplasma (4) Agaricus
36.
1
2
2 2 33 ....... 12 2 650 ,
value of 2 2 (1) 1300 (3) 2500
then the
4 2 6 3 ....... 24 2 is (2) 2600 (4) 42250
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[49]
37.
The square root of x b 2 x b 22 ab x a 2 b 2 is (1) x 2a b (3)
38.
39.
(2)
a b 2
x
If the equation ax2 + 2x — 2 = 0 has real and distinct roots, then the value of a is
2
If (x+ 2), is a factor of 2x - 5x + k, then the value of k is (1) 6 (2) –6 (3) 26 (4) –26
(1) a
For which value of p the following pair of linear lin ear equations 3x + py = 7, px + 3y = 15 will have no solutions?
9 (3) 3
41.
45.
a b
3
5 (4) 4
(1)
40.
If the difference of two numbers is 5 and difference of their squares is 300, then sum of the numbers is (1) 1500 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 60
(4) x a b
2
x
44.
(2)
A tower is on a horizontal horizontal plane. The angles of elevation of top of the tower from two points on a line passing through the foot of the tower at distances 49 m and 36 m are 41° and a nd 49°. The height of the tower is (1) 40m (2) 42 m (3) 44m (4) 46 m
(3) a
46.
1
(2) a
2
1
(4) a
2
ab
bc
1 2
is
ca
(1) 1 (3) 3
Sides AB and CD of a quadrilateral. ABCD are extended as in figure. Then a + b is equal to
2
If a + b + c = 0, then the value of
a b2 b c 2 c a 2
47.
1
(2) 2 (4) -3
In the given figure O is the centre of a circle, XY, PQ, AB are tangents of the circle. If XY || PQ, then the value of AOB is A
X
Y
D C
b
A
B
(1) x+2y (3) x+y
48.
80º
cos sin – is equal to 1 – tan cot – 1
(1) sin cos
(2) cos sin
(3) 2 sin
(4)
1 cos sin
O
49.
P
43.
(2) 90° (4) 100°
R
Q
(1) 30° (3) 1400
Q
B
(1) 800 (3) 70°
(2) x-y (4) 2x+y.
In the figure O is the centre of the circle and POR = 80o. Then RQS is
S
P
a
x
42.
O
y
A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability that card is a red ace is (1)
(2) 40° (4) 50o
If every side of a triangle is doubled then t hen a new triangle is formed. The ratio of areas of these two triangles is (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 3
(3) 50.
1
(2)
13 3
(4)
52
1 26 1 2
Value of tan 20 o tan 40 o tan 50 o tan 70 o (1) 0
(2)
1 3
(3)
3
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(4) 1
[50]
51.
Sum of last two terms of an A.P. A.P. is 60. If first term is 11 and common differences 2, then the number of terms in the A.P. A.P. is : (1) 22 (2) 20 (3) 11 (4) 19
61.
Young Italy, a secret society was formed by (1) Metternich (2) Giuseppe Mazzini (3) Bismarck (4) Hitler.
52.
If the difference of circumference and a nd diameter of a circle is 60 cm, then the area of the circle is
62.
The thinker Confucius belonged to the country (1) England (2) America (3) China (4) Japan.
63.
Jallianwalla Bag incident took place on (1) 10 10th April, 19 1919 (2) (2) 13 13th April, 19 1919 (3) 14 14th April, 19 1919 (4) (4) 18 18th April, 19 1919.
64.
Dandi is located in (1) Gujarat (3) Maharashtra
53.
54.
(1) 49 cm 2
(2) 14 cm 2
(3) 196 cm 2
(4)
49 4
cm 2
If the areas of three adjoining faces a cuboid are a2, b2 and c2 respectively respectiv ely,, then the volume of the cuboid is (1) a 2 b 2 c 2
(2) abc
(3) a 3 b 3c 3
(4)
D
A
(1) 3 : 2 (3) 4 : 9
56.
57.
58.
The Great Depression began in (1) 1927 AD (2) 1929 AD (3) 1930 AD (4) 1931 AD
66.
Which island was known as Amindiv whose name was changed in 1973? (1) Lakshadweep (2) Maldives (3) (3) New New Moor Moore e isla island nd (4)C (4)Car ar--Nico Nicoba barr.
67.
Match List — I with List — II correctly and choose the correct code from the following
C O
55.
65.
abc
In the given figure ABCD is a trapezium in which AB||DC AB||DC and AB AB : DC = 3 : 2, The ratio of the areas of AOB and and COD is
L is t
B
(A) Kaveri (B) Godavari (C) Tapi (D) Krishna Code Code : A B (1) i ii (2) iii i (3) ii iii (4) iv iii
(2) 2 : 3 (4) 9 : 4
If the mean of 5, 9, x, 7, 4, y is 7, then relation between x and y is (1) x + y = 42 (2) x + y = 17 (3) x - y = 10 10 (4) x- y = 42. Tithe is (1) religious tax (3) taille tax Who was Rasputin? (1) King (3) Re Revolutionary
(2) implied tax (4) feudal tax.
59.
Who adopted the ‘Scorched Earth Policy’? (1) Portuguese (2) French (3) Dutch (4) German.
60.
Raikas belong to the state of (1) Rajasthan (2) Bihar (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Karnataka
L is t
(i) Nasik (ii) Betul (iii) Brahmagiri (iv) Mahabaleshwar C iii ii i ii
D iv iv iv i
68.
Stalagmite Stalagmite and Stalactite Stalactite caves are located in (1) Mawsynram (2) Cherrapunj C herrapunjii (3) Shimla (4) Jammu and Kashmir
69.
Which state(s) has/have the highest reserved forest ratio ? (A) Kerala (B) West Bengal (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Maharashtra. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (1) only (B) (2) (A) and (D) (3) (A) and (C) (4) all of these
(2) Monk (4) Pr Prime Mi Minister.
The railway line which was to be constructed between Multan and Sukkur was (1) North Valley Railway (2) Indus Valley Railway (3) Southern State Railway Railway (4) West Valley Railway.
(2) Rajasthan (4) Punjab.
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[51]
70.
With reference to water availability per person per year India’s rank in the world is (1) 131st (2) 133rd (3) 137th (4) 157 th
71.
Roof water harvesting system is a compulsory structure in which state ? (1) Bihar (2) Meghalaya (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Karnataka.
72.
Match List — I and List — II and choose the correct code from the following List - I
Find out the wrong explanation of functioning of United Nations (1) Who lands money to governments whan they need it ? International Monetary Fund (I.M.F. )doas so. (2) What happens whan a country attacks another country in an unjust manner ? Tha U.N. Security Council an organ of U.N. is responsible far maintaining peace and security among countries. (3) The weightage of vote of every member of lnternational Monetery Fund is equal. (4) Each parmanant m member ember of Security Council Council has veto power p ower..
79.
Find out the correct explanation : (1) Referendum— Only used for a specific government policy. policy. (2) Coup — A coup is legal system, in which system the government hands over all rights and powers to the military. military. (3) Martial law — A system of rules, that takes effect when a military authority takes control of the normal administration of justice. (4) Communist State — In communist state all political parties have complete liberty to compete for power po wer..
80.
Pay attention on the following points (A) A democratic government is a better government because it is a more accountable form of government. (B) Democracy improves the qualit q uality y of decision making. (C) Democracy provides a method to deal with the differences and conflicts. (D) Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens. Which are the factors involved in comprising Indian democracy ? (1) A and B (2) A and C (3) A, B and C (4) A,B,C and D.
81.
Which among the following statements is a moral reason regarding the. desirability of power sharing? (1) Power sharing is good because it helps to reduce the possibility p ossibility of conflict between social groups. (2) Social conflict often leads to violence and political instability. instability. Hence power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order. (3) Tyranny of the majority is not just oppressive opp ressive for the minority, it often brings ruin to the majority as well, (4) A democratic rule involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise and who have to live with its effects.
L ist –Il
(A) W aler (i) Jharkhand (B) Da Dahiya (ii) Himalayan region (C) Khil (iii) Madhya Pradesh (D) Ku Kuruwa (iv) SE SE. Ra Rajasthan. (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii D-iv (2) A-iv, A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i. 73.
78.
Rubber is related to which type of vegetation? (1) Tundra (2) Tropical rain forest (3) Mountain forest (4) Tropical deciduous forest.
74.
Koderma mines located in Jharkhand is rich in which minerals? (1) Bauxite (2) Mica (3) Iron ore (4) Copper
75.
Which of the following states states is not connected with Hajira-Vijaypur-Jagdishpur pipeline ? (1) (1) M Mad adhy hya a Pra Prade desh sh (2) (2) M Ma ahara harasshtra tra (3) Gujarat (4) Uttar Pradesh
76.
Which among the following is not correctly matched ? (1) (1) Popul opular ar unit unity y — Salvad lvador or Alende ende (2) Solidarnosc or solidarity — Lech Walesa (3) National League for Democracy — Augusto Pinochet (4) Bath party — Saddam Hussein.
77.
Identify the correct order regarding the granting of universal adult franchise (1) Argentina, India, Malaysia, Greece (2) Malaysia, Greece, India, Argentina (3) India, Argentina, Greece, Malaysia (4) Greece, Malaysia, India, Argentina.
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[52]
82.
83.
84.
Let us look at some of the key features of federalism (A) There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government. (B) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction. (C) The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally constitutionally guaranteed. (D) All states in the Indian Union have identical id entical powers. Which facts are correct regarding Indian Federalism (1) B and D (2) A and D (3) A, B and C (4) A, B ,C and D Find the correct sequence of ‘anguages in the ascending order according the proportion of speakers as described in 8th Schedule of the Constitution Constitution of India (1) Hindi, Marathi, Marath i, Telugu, Telugu, Bangla (2) Hindi, Bangla, Telugu, Marathi (3) Hindi, Telugu, Telugu, Bangla, Marathi Mar athi (4) Hindi, Bangla, Marathi, Telugu. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the code
86.
Which one of the following is an activity of the tertiary sector ? (1) Mining (2) Tourism (3) Diary (4) Agriculture.
87.
In which state of India, is Amul Dairy situated? (1) Rajasthan (2) Bihar (3) Gujarat (4) Karnataka.
88.
The ‘National Consumers’ Day’ is celebrated on (1) 24th December (2) (2) 24th November (3) 24 24th Se September (4) (4) 24 24th Oc October.
89.
National income of any country is divided by its total population, we get (1) personal income (2) gross domestic product (3) private income (4) per capita income.
90.
Among the following which is the method to estimate the poverty line? (1) Inve Invest stmen mentt meth method od (2) Incom Income e metho method d (3) Capital method (4) All of th these.
91.
Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) Centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies in front of it whereas that of convex mirror m irror lies behind the mirror. (2) Centre of curvature of a concave mirror lies behind it whereas that of convex mirror lies in front of the mirror. (3) Centres of curvature of both concave and convex mirrors lie in front of the mirror. (4) Centres of curvature of both concave and convex minors lie behind the m irror.
92.
Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCI2 which is solid with a high m elting point. X would belong to the same group of periodic table as (1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) Si
93.
Calculate the number of molecules in 8g O2 (1) 8 x 1023 (2) 6.02 x 1023 (3) 1.51 x 1023 (4) 8
94.
Which of the following is correct for fungi ? (1) Prokaryotic and saprophytic (2) Eukaryotic and autotrophic (3) Prokaryotic and autotrophic (4) Eukaryotic and saprophytic
95.
Iodine is essential for the synthesis of which hormone? (1) Adrenaline (2) Thyroxine (3) Insulin (4) Oxytocin.
List - I
(A) Power is shared among different organs of government such as the legislature, executive and judiciary (B) Power is shared among different social groups power (C) The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government (D) The constitutionalisation of 3rd tier of Indian democratic system. List – II
85.
(i) Community Government (ii) Horizontal distribution (iii) In 1992 (iv) Federalism. Code: (1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the given code List – I
L i s t –II
(A) (A) Unio Union n list list (i) (i) Comp Comput uter er soft softwa ware re (B) State list (ii) Banking (C) Concurrent list (iii) Education (D) Residuary powers (iv) Police. (1) (1) A-ii A-iii, i, B-i B-ii, i, C-i, C-i, D-iv D-iv (2) (2) A-i A-iii, B-ii B-iii, i, C-i C-ivv, D-i D-i (3) A-iii, A-iii, B-i, B-i, C-ii, C-ii, D-iv (4) A-i A-ii, i, B-iv B-iv,, C-i, C-i, D-ii D-iii. i.
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[53]
96.
‘ Oriental Cricket Club’ first Indian Cricket Club
was founded at (1) Madras (3) Kanpur
99.
In which state of India maximum fair price shops are run by the co-operatives? (1) Maharashtra (2) Delhi (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Gujarat.
100.
Informal sources of credit do not include (1) mo moneylenders (2) co cooperatives (3) traders (4) friends.
(2) Bombay (4) Calcutta.
97.
Which of the following is not associated with Coriolis force? (1) Cyclones (2) Ocean currents (3) Pr Prevailing wi winds (4) Je Jet st streams ms..
98.
The local government structure goes right up to the………… level. (1) Village (2) Ward (3) State (4) District.
ANSWER KEY 1 4 21 4 41
2 2 22 4 42
3 3 23 3 43
4 4 24 3 44
5 3 25 1 45
6 2 26
7 2 27
8 1 28
9 1 29
10 3 30
11 1 31
12 4 32
13 3 33
15 2 35
16 3 36
17 3 37
18 3 38
19 1 39
20 1 40
4 46
2 47
1 48
2 49
4 50
2 62 3 82
3 63 2 83
4 64 1 84
1 65 2 85
3 66 1 86
2 67 2 87
1 68 1 88
2 69 4 89
4 70 2 90
3 52 3 72 4 92
3 1, 2 1 53 54 55 2 4 2 73 74 75 2 2 2 93 94 95
2 56 1 76
3 57 2 77
1 58 2 78
3 59 3 79
2 60 1 80
Que.
3 61 2 81
1 51 3 71 3 91
3 96
3 97
3 98
3 4 99 100
Ans. An s.
4
3
2
1
4
2
3
1
4
2
1
2
2
4
4
Que. Ans. An s. Que. Ans. An s. Que. Ans. An s. Que. Ans. An s.
3
14 1 34
4
2
3
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2 [54]
Direction : In cach of the questions 1 to 4 a letter
1.
2.
3.
4.
6.
7.
8.
State tateme ment nts: s: (i) Some Some frui fruits ts are are mang mangoe oes. s. (ii) Some fruits are not guavas. Conclusions : (I) All fruits are mangoes. (II) All mangoes are fruits. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
11.
Statements
(i) No horse is dog. (ii) All dogs are elephants. Conc Concllusi usions ons (I) (I) No No ele eleph phan antt is hors horse. e. (II) Some elephants are dogs. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.
12. 12.
Which Which of the the foll follow owin ing g Ven Venn n dia diagr gra ams cor corre rect ctly ly represents quadrilateral, rectangle and square?
series is given with one term missing shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives among the four groups of letters given under it. Find the right alternative. A, D, G, J, ?. (1) I (2) M (3) X (4) None of these. LO, JQ, HS, ? (1) FU (3) EV
(2) FQ (4) DW.
A, C, F, J, O, ?. (1) P (3) S
(2) T (4) U.
ZXV, TRP, NLJ, ?. (1) HEF (3) EFH
(2) HFD (4) IGE.
Direction : In each of the questions 5 to 8 a number
5.
10. 10.
series is given with one term missing shown by question mark (?). This term is one of the alternatives among the four numbers given under it. Find the right alternative. 121, 144, 169, ? , 225, 256. (1) 196 (2) 296 (3) 220 (4) 222. 5, 10, 20, ?, 80. (1) 35 (3) 45
(2) 40 (4) 50.
4, 8, 9. 27, 16, ? , 25, 125. (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 25 (4) 64. 2, 3, 5, 8, ?, 17. (1) 6 (3) 13
(2) 12 (4) 15.
13. 13.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which Which of the the foll follow owin ing g Ven Venn n dia diagr gra ams cor corre rect ctly ly represents female, mother and doctor ?
(1)
Direction : Questions (9-11) In each of the questions
9.
below two statements and two conclusions numbered I and II are given. You You have to take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly comm only known facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given Statements : (i) All da dancers ar are si singers. (ii) All singers are teachers. Condusions: (I) All dancers are teachers. (II) Some singers are dancers. (1) Only conclusion I is true (2) Only conclusion II is true (3) Both conclusions I and II are true (4) Neither conclusion 1 nor conclusion II is true.
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Questions ( 14 - 15 ) Give answer according to the following Venn diagram :
14.
Total number of teachers is (1) 12 (2) 31 (3) 19 (4) 22.
15. 15.
How How many many arti artist sts s are are ther there e who who are are wri write terr but but not teacher ? (1) 8 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 22
Direction : Questions (22 – 23) Answer the questions on the basis of cube : A cube is painted blue on all faces and it is cut into 64 small cubes of equal size. Now answer the following questions : 22. How many many cube cubes s are are not paint ainte ed on on an any face ? (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 27 (4) 54. 23. 23.
How How many many cube cubes s are are ther there e whi which ch are are pain painte ted d on one face only ? (1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 32.
24. 24.
If in a cod coded ed lang langua uage ge the the word word 'RAM 'RAMES ESH' H' is written as ‘AEHRMS’ then in the same code language 'POET' will be written as (1) EPTO (2) PEOT (3) ETOP (4) OTPE.
25. 25.
If in a code coded d lan langu guag age e the the word word SCHOO CHOOL L is is written as UAJMQJ then PRINCIPLE will be written as (1) RTKPEKRCN (2) NPGLAGNJB (3) RPKLEGRJG (4) RPKLEKRJG.
Direction : In questions 16 to 19 three alternatives are
alike in a certain way but the rest one is different. Find out the rest one is different. Find out the odd one and write correct answer 16.
(1) ABYZ (3) IJQR
(2) EFUV (4) MNOP.
17.
(1) (10)3 (3) 23 × 53
(2) (100)2 10 (4) 2000 – 2
18.
(1) Pacific Ocean (3) Europe
(2) Asia (4) Africa
19.
(1) Nepal (3) Sri Lanka
(2) Pakistan (4) Australia
20. 20.
In the the giv given en die die the the oppo opposi site te side side of the the fac face e3 is having which number ?
(1) 2 (3) 5 21. 21.
27.
'BHICK' will be coded as (1) 06734 (2) 6734 (3) 6743 (4) 06743.
28. 28.
Sail Sailes esh h int intro rodu duce cess Mah Mahip ipal al as the the son son of the the only brother of his father's wife. wif e. How is Mahipal related to Sailesh ? (1) Cousin (2) Son (3) Maternal uncle (4) Son-in-law.
29. 29.
Rame Ramesh sh trav travel els s 3 km to to eas eastt the then n mov moves es to right and travels 5 km and at the end he again moves right and travels 15 km. Then the distance and direction of initial point from Ramesh is (1) 13 km south-west (2) 13 km north-east (3) 12 km north-east (4) 12 km south-east.
(2) 4 (4) 6
The The two two posi positi tion ons s on on a dice dice are are sho shown wn belo below w. If 1 is at the bottom then what will be on the top ?
(1) 2 (3) 4
Questions Questions (26– 27) Following alphabets are written in a special coded language like : BLAC K WHITE 01 234 5 6789 26. 26. Then Then code code 6283 62830 0 will ill be wri written tten as (1) HATCB (2) HATEC (3) HATBC (4) HATCE.
(2) 3 (4) 5
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30.
How ma ma ny ny 5s 5s ar ar e t he her e in th the fo fo llllo wi win g sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately preceded by 7 ? 43657536457357353 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
34.
Direction : Questions (31–34) In questions 31 to 34
there are two sets of figures. One set contains problem-figures while the other has answerfigures. There is a sequence according accor ding to which the problem-figures problem-fig ures are arranged. arrange d. You You have to select an answer-figure which can be added in sequence with the problem-figures. Choose the correct figure.
31.
Direction : Questions (35–38)
In questions 35 to 38 there are four figures given. One of these does not correlate with the rest of the figures. Find out that odd figure. 35.
36.
37. 32.
38.
Direction : Questions (39 – 40)
In questions 39 to 40, find the correct mirror image of the given figures, when mirror is placed on right side of the figure. 33. 39.
40.
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Direction Direction : Questions (41 - 42) In questions 41 and 42
find the correct water image of the given figure.
46.
47. 47.
41.
In the the giv given en figu figure re squa square res s are are fold folded ed and and a cube is formed. Then how will it be seen from the following ?
42.
Direction Direction : Questions (43 - 44) In the following f ollowing Question
figures showing a sequence of folding and cutting a paper are given. Which could resemble the figure in the answer figure ? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
43.
44.
following figure Direction : Questions (45 – 46) In the following there is a question figure, which is embedded one out of four figures. Trace out the correct alternative.
48. 48.
How How man many numb number ers s be betwee tween n 11 11 to to 50 50 are are ther there e which are exactly divisible by 7 but not n ot divisible by 3 ? (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6.
49. 49.
Dete Determ rmin ine e the the numb number er of pent pentag agon ons s in in the the following figure :
(1) 5 (3) 8 50.
(2) 6 (4) 10.
Dete Determ rmiine the the num numbe berr of of tri trian angl gles es in the the following figure :
45. (1) 5 (3) 8
(2) 6 (4) 10.
ANSWER KEY Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans.
1 2 16 4 31 3 46 2
2 1 17 4 32 4 47 3
3 4 18 1 33 1 48 2
4 2 19 4 34 4 49 2
5 1 20 4 35 1 50 4
6 2 21 2 36 3
7 4 22 1 37 3
8 2 23 3 38 4
9 3 24 4 39 2
10 4 25 3 40 2
11 2 26 1 41 4
12 1 27 1 42 2
13 3 28 1 43 4
14 2 29 2 44 1
15 1 30 2 45 2
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Language Comprehensive Test
2.
Why Why we ( India dia ) have not not con conque quered red an any natio tion ? Not grabbed their land and culture ? (1) Because we were a weak nation (2) Because we respect the freedom of others (3) Because we did not respect the freedom of others (4) Because we were a greedy nation.
3.
The The auth author or’’s firs firstt vi vision sion is tha that of free freedo dom. m. What What kind of freedom is it ? (1) It is to live and enjoy freely (2) It is to grab others’ land (3) It is the freedom that we must protect and nurture and build on (4) It is to enforce our way of life.
4.
Wha What is the second vision of th the author ? (1) His second vision is Independence (2) His second vision is to respect others (3) His second vision is to take over on others (4) His second vision for India I ndia is Development.
5.
According to to th the au author wh what sh should we we do do to to stand up to the world ? (1) We must be strong as military and economic powers (2) We must mus t invade others' lands and conquer their minds (3) We must respect the strength of others (4) We must work with great minds.
Subject : English
There are 50 questions in this paper. Each question carries 1 mark. Direction fo r Question No. 1-5 1-5 : Read the passage and answer the questions based on it. I have three visions for India. In 3000 years of our history people from all al l over the world have come and invaded us, captured our lands, conquered our minds. From F rom Alexander Alexander onwards the Greeks, the Turks, the Moguls, the Portuguese, the British, the French, the Dutch, all of them came and looted us, took over o ver what was ours. Yet we have not done this to any other nation. We have not conquered conquere d anyone. We have not grabbed their land, their culture and their history and tried to enforce our way of life on them. Why ? Because we respet the freedom of others. That is why my FIRST VISION is that of FREEDOM. I believe that India got its first vision of this in 1857, when we started the War of Independence. It is this freedom that we must protect and nurture and build on. If we are not free, no one will respect us. We have 10 per cent growth in most areas. Our poverty levels are falling. Our achievements arc being globally recognised today. Yet we lack the self confidence to see ourselves as a developed nation, self-reliant and self assured. Isn't this incorrect ? MY SECOND VISION for India is DEVELOPMENT. For fifty years we have been a developing nation. It is time we see ourselves as a developed nation. We are among top five nations in the world in terms of GDP. I have THIRD VISION India must stand up to the world. Because I believe that unless India stands up to the world, no one will respect us. Only strength respects strength. We must be strong not only as a military power but also as an economic power. power. 1.
In 3000 3000 years ears many many count ountri ries es inv invaded aded Indi India. a. What damage did they do to us ? (1) They gave India freedom (2) They worked for India's development (3) They looted us, took over what was ours (4) They helped us to be strong and powerful.
Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks : 6. May Mayank ank alwa alwayys... s..... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...n .new ewsp spap aper er in the the morning. (1) read (2) reads (3) was reading (4) is reading. 7.
List Listen en!! Som Someo eone ne.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..at at the the doo doorr. (1) is knock ing (2) are knocking (3) knocks (4) knocked.
8.
Kez Kezia's ia's fath father er.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...h .hom ome e just just now now. (1) come (2) came (3) has come (4) had come.
9.
Firs Firstt priz prize e.... ...... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..by by Wand Wanda a las lastt year ear. (1) were won (2) was won (3) are won (4) is won.
10. 10.
A Poem Poem.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...b .by y Rosh Roshan anii now now.. (1) (1) is is bein being g reci recite ted d (2) (2) was being ing repi repite ted d (3) wi will be recited (4) are being recited.
11.
Nati Nation onal al Anth Anthem. em... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..ev ever eryd yday ay in the the prayer assembly. (1) will be sung (2) is sung (3) sang (4) is singing.
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12. 12.
13. 13.
14. 14.
15. 15.
16. 16.
17
18.
19.
20. 20.
Priz Prizes es.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...b .by y the the chie chieff gues guestt in in the the annual function next week. (1) give away (2) has been given away (3) will be given away (4) was given g iven away. away.
23
.... ...... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..kn know owle ledg dge e is is dan dange gero rous us thin thing. g. (1) The little (2) A little (3) The few (4) A few.
24. 24.
Geet Geeta a : Would Would you lend lend me.. me.... .... .... .... .... ...m .mon oney ey ? Deepika : Certainly, I will. (1) many (2) several (3) some (4) much.
25. 25.
The The sna snake ke came came into into the the room room.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...t .the he window. (1) by (2) from (3) at (4) through.
26. 26.
Many Many peop people le died died for for the the sake. sake... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..ttheir heir motherland. (1) of (2) to (3) for (4) from.
27. 27.
What What is is the the time time.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...y .you ourr wat watch ch ? (1) in (2) from (3) by (4) on.
28. 28.
Sham Shambh bhu u is so so rude rude.. .... .... .... .... .... .... ...: .:.. .... nobo nobody dy can can face him publicly. (1) yet (2) as (3) that (4) so.
29. 29.
. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .. .y .y o u l en en d m e o ne ne th th ou ou sa sa n d rupees ? (1) Must (2) May (3) W ould (4) Might.
Chil Childr dren en are are fond fond of. of... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..sw swee eets ts.. (1) to eat (2) eating (3) eat (4) are eating.
30
F at at he he r wa rrn n s h is is ch ch ilil dr dr e en n : I t't' s p oi oi sso o n, n, you...................touch you...................touch it. (1) needn't (2) couldn't (3) can’t (4) mustn't.
.... ...... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ...m .myy ssis iste terr was was was washi hing ng clot clothe hes, s, the ring slipped off her finger. (1) Because (2) W hile (3) Although (4) Therefore.
31.
Add a question tag : Clean India Campaign is growing popular day by day,................ day,................ (1) isn't it ? (2) is it ? (3) wasn't it ? (4) don’t it ?
32.
Add a question tag : Devendra won't take a test..................... (1) shall he ? (2) won't he ? (3) will he ? (4) shan’t he ?
Zame Zameer er said aid to to me, me, "What What are are you you doin doing g ?" ?" Zameer asked me...................doing. (1) what was I (2) what he is (3) that what I was (4) what I was. He sai said, d, "Hur "Hurra rah! h! I hav have e won won the the mat matcch." h." He exclaimed with joy...............the match. (1) if he was won (2) that he had won (3) that he won (4) that he is won. Anja Anjana na said said to her her fat fathe herr, "I "I wan wantt to to buy buy a new new dress." Anjana told her father that................to buy a new dress. (1) he wanted (2) she was wanted (3) she wanted (4) she wants. Ther There e are are clou clouds ds in the the sky sky.. It. It... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..ra rain in today. (1) should (2) may (3) could (4) will.
J ai ai p ra ra k as as h a s w e llll as as hi h i s c ol ol le le ag ag ue ue s .....................determined to achieve the goal this year. (1) am (2) are (3) is (4) were. The The poet poet and and play playwr wrig ight ht.. .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... (1) are dead (2) is dead (3) are dying (4) were dead.
21. 21.
Both Both Jay Jaysr sree ee and and Jy Jyotir otirmay may.. .... .... .... .... .... ...p .pla layying ing badminton now. now. (1) is (2) were (3) was (4) are.
22.
T he he nu n u m be be r of o f f ar ar me me r s u s in in g mo modem technology in agriculture ..................... growing more and more. (1) are (2) was (3) is (4) were.
For Question Nos. 33 -34 select the proper grammatical gram matical arrangement of the given sentences : 33. 33. Belie elievve / do not not / what what / he he say says s / in in (a) (b) (c) (d) ( e) (1) (b (b) (a (a) (e (e) (c (c) (d (d) (2) (2) (c (c) (b (b) (a (a) (e (e) (d (d) (3) (3) (a) (a) (e) (e) (b) (b) (c (c)) (d) (d) (4) (4) (d) (d) (c (c)) (b) (b) (a) (a) (e). (e). 34. 34.
Farm Farmer ers s / Indi Indian an / work work / hard hard / very very (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (1) (b (b) (d (d) (c (c) (a (a| (c (c)) (2) (2) (c (c) (a (a) (b (b) (c (c) (d) (3) (3) (a) (a) (c (c)) (e) (e) (b) (b) (d) (d) (4) (4) (b) (b) (a) (a) (c (c)) (e) (e) (d). (d).
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For Question Nos. 35–36 select the word that best expresses the meaning of the given word : 35. downcast (1) joy (2) sad (3) hopeful (4) hate.
44. 44.
He sat sat in in hi his fav favou oure red d cor corne nerr by by the the fire fire.. In the above sentence 'favoured' functions as a/an (1) Verb (2) Adjective (3) Adverb (4) Noun.
36.
45. 45.
Choo Choose se the the cor corre rect ct Nega Negati tive ve sent senten ence ce of the the given affirmative sentence : December is the coldest month of the year. year. (1) December is as cold as other months (2) No month is coldest of the year as December is (3) No other month of the year is as cold as December (4) None of these.
46. 46.
Which Which of the the fol follo lowi win ng can can be the the app appro ropr pria iate te word for the blank space : On the day of the .................of my new office, I was overwhelmed with a sense of achievement. (1) in inauguration (2) in inaugurate (3) inaugural (4) inaugurator.
47. 47.
Which Which of the the foll follow owin ing g is is corr correc ectl tly y spel spelt: t: (1) Bcautifull (2) Beehive (3) Bihave (4) Childhud.
48
.... ...... .... .... .... .... .... .... .... ..ca can n get get driv drivin ing g lic licen ence ce for for all all vehicles. (1) 16 year year and above above (2) (2) 18 18 yea yearr and and abov above e (3) 15 year year and above above (4) 14 14 year ear and and abo above. ve.
workaholic (1) A person who finds it difficult to stop working (2) A person who does not find it difficult to stop working (3) A person who is least interested in working (4) A person person who works time to time.
For Question Nos. 37– 38 select the word which which means the opposite of the given word : 37. Former (1) recently (2) early (3) lately (4) latter. 38.
All y (1) Enemy (3) Companion
(2) Friend (4) Relative
For Question Nos. 39 – 40 select the meaning of the given phrasal verbs : 39. Taken somebody in (1) abhored by (2) attracted by (3) disliked by (4) let somebody stay in 40.
Give away (1) distribute (3) collect
(2) contribute (4) gather.
41. 41.
The The poe poem m " The The Roa Road d not not Taken aken'' is is wri writt tten en by (1) Coates Kinney (2) Robert Frost (3) W. B. Yeats (4) James Kirkup.
42.
Who Who co compo mposed sed the the poem " A Tiger in in th the Zoo' ? (1) Robert Frost (2) John Berryman (3) Robin Klein (4) Leslie Norris.
43.
He came ‘in' Here ‘in' is (1) Preposition (3) Adverb
For Question Nos. 49–50 sclcct the meaning of the underlined phrases / idioms. 49. 49. The The pol polic ice e caug caught ht him him red red-h -han ande ded. d. (1) in the act of doing something wrong (2) with his hands smeared with blood (3) when his hands were red (4) in the act of painting the hands red. 50. 50.
They They won the the mat match ch by hook hook or by cr croo ook. k. (1) by using all the instruments (2) by using the hooks (3) by using the crooks (4) by any means possible.
(2) Noun (4) Adjective.
ANSWER KEY Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans. Que. Ans.
1 3 16 2 31 1 46 1
2 2 17 3 32 3 47 2
3 3 18 4 33 1 48 2
4 4 19 3 34 4 49 1
5 1 20 2 35 2 50 4
6 2 21 4 36 1
7 1 22 3 37 4
8 2 23 2 38 1
9 2 24 3 39 4
10 1 25 4 40 1
11 2 26 1 41 2
12 3 27 3 42 4
13 4 28 3 43 3
14 3 29 2 44 2
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15 3 30 2 45 3
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Q.1
Q.2
The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration acceleration of 8 m/s2 in the opposite direction to the motion. If the car takes 3 seconds to stop after the application of brakes, the distance it travels during the time will be (1) 30 m (2) 36 m (3) 25 m (4) 40 m A bullet of mass 10 gm moving with 100 m/s is embedded in a block of 1 kg which is initially in rest. The final velocity of the system will be (1) 1 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s (3) 0.5 m/s (4) 2 m /s
Q.3
The magnitude of buoyant force depends on which one of the following properties of fluid? (1) Ma Mass of object (2) Si Size of ob object (3) (3) Den Densi sity ty of liqui iquid d (4) (4) Size ize of cont contai aine ner r
Q.4
The value of 200 units of energy into joules will be (1) 7.20 × 108 J (2) 7.20 × 107 J (3) 72 × 108 J (4) 7.20 × 106 J
Q.5
Q.6
Q.7
Q.8
Q.9
n1 n2 n3 n4 (1) n1 (3) n3
The work required to increase the velocity of a particle particle from 18 km /h to 72 km/h, if mass of particle is 2 kg, is (1) 275 J (2) 225 J (3) 15 J (4) 375 J The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be real, inverted and larger than the object. Where should be the position of the object? (1) At the centre of curvature (2) Between the principal focus and centre of curvature (3) Beyond the centre of curvature (4) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus
(2) n2 (4) n4
Q.10
Which one of the following phenomena is an example of scattering of light? (1) Bending of rod at interface of air and water (2) Twinkling of stars (3) Tyndall effect (4) Mirage in desert during summer
Q.11
An electron enters in a magnetic field at right angles to it, as shown in figure. The direction of force acting on the electron electr on will be Electron
In which of the following media, the speed of sound will be maximum? (1) Glass (2) Ethanol (3) Air (4) Vacuum The weight of a body of mass 15 kg k g on moon is (1) 24.5 N (2) 2.45 N (3) 245 N (4) 0.245 N
The path of ray of light in different media of refractive indices n1, n2, n3 and n4 is shown in figure. The velocity of light will be maximum in the medium whose refractive index is -
Magnetic Mag netic field (1) to the right (3) out of paper
(2) to the left (4) into the paper
Q.12
Three 6 resistors are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a 15 V battery. The current through any one of the resistors will be (1) 2.5 A (2) 2.0 A (3) 5 A (4) 10 A
Q.13
The minimum order of temperature required for nuclear fusion is (1) 1015 K (2) 106 K (3) 103 K (4) 102 K
Q.14
What will be the mass/mass percentage of a solution containing 30 gm of common salt in 200 gm of water ? (1) 3 % (2) 1.2 % (3) 13.04 % (4) 22 %
Q.15
Cheese is an example of o f which type of colloid? (1) Gel (2) Foam (3) Sol (4) Solid sol
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Q.16
Q.17
Q.18
Q.19
Q.20
Q.21
Q.22
Which process is used to separate a mixture of two miscible liquids A & B having boiling points 56ºC and 65ºC respectively ? (1) Distillation (2) Fractional distillation (3) Sublimation (4) Steam distillation
Q.27
In a cell which cell organelle other than t han nucleus contains DNA ? (1) Lysosome (2) Golgi bodies (3) Endoplasmi Endoplasmic c reticul reticulum um (4) Mitochondir Mitoc hondira a
Q.28
Number of valence electrons in Magnesium is (1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 8 (4) 2
Which plant group is called amphibious plants ? (1) Algae (2) Fungi (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridopohyta
Q.29
Total number of atoms in 4 gms of oxygen molecule is (1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 7.52 × 1022 (3) 1.5055 × 1023 (4) 0.0752 × 1023
The tissue which makes the plants hard and stiff is (1) Parenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma (3) Collenchyma (4) Sc Sclerenchyma
Q.30
Which of the following plant hormones induces cell division ? (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) Ethylene (4) Cytok inin
Q.31
The undifferentiated mass of cells in tissue culture is called (1) Tissue (2) Embryo (3) Callus (4) Spore
Q.32
Which metal does not react with oxygen at high temperature ? (1) Mg (2) Al (3) Ag (4) Zn
Amrita Devi Bishnoi of Rajasthan is related with (1) (1) Pla Plant nt cons conserv ervat atio ion n (2) (2) Educ Educat atio ion n (3) Sports (4) Politics
Q.33
Which reagent is able to dissolve gold and platinum ? (1) Nitric acid (2) Aqua-regia (3) (3) Hyd Hydro roch chlo lori ric c aci acid d (4) (4) Sul Sulph phur uric ic acid acid
Which radiation harms ozone layer in the atmosphere ? (1) Ultra Ultravio violet let radia radiation tion (2) Infrare Infrared d radia radiatio tion n (3) Ra Radio ra radiation (4) Re Red ra radiation
Q.34
Which cell organelles is called ‘suicide bags’ ? (1) Centrosome (2) Chromosome (3) Lysosome (4) Mesosome
Q.35
The lining of oesophagus and mouth mou th is covered with which type of tissues ? (1) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Squamous epithelium (3) Columnar epithelium (4) Stratified squamous epithelium
Q.36
Which is the odd one ? (1) Planaria (2) Liver-fluke (3) Ascar is (4) Tape-worm
Number of which among the following is same in Al+3 and F – ? (1) Proton (2) Neutron (3) Atomic mass (4) Electron Which of the following is pH of basic solution ? (1) 7 (2) 4.2 (3) 3.5 (4) 10.2
Q.23
Which metal is most reactive ? (1) Na (2) Ca (3) K (4) Zn
Q.24
Identify X in the following reaction – Hot , conc .
CH3 –CH2 –OH (X) + H2O H 2SO 4
(1) Ethane (3) Ethene Q.25
Q.26
(2) Methane (4) Ethanol
Electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8, 1. Which of the following elements is similar with it in chemical reactivity ? (1) K (2) Cl (3) N (4) Ar Ethanol is made unfit for drinking drink ing by adding (1) Propanol (2) Methanal (3) Methanol (4) Ethanal
Q.37
An egg laying laying mammal is (1) Kangaroo (2) Bat (3) W hale (4) Echidna
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[63]
Q.38
Normal human blood pressure is (1) 80/120 mm of Hg (2) 120/80 mm of Hg (3) 100/80 mm of Hg (4) 80/100 mm of Hg
Q.39
Central Nervous system consists of brain and (1) Spinal cord (2) Spinal nerves (3) Cranial nerves (4) All th the ne nerves
Q.40
Rajasaurus is a fossil of (1) Tree trunk (2) Invertebrate (3) Fish (4) Dinosaur
Q.41
The cube root of x + y + 3x1/3 y 1/3 (x 1/3 + y1/3) is : (1) x + y (2) x1/3 + y1/3 (3) (x + y)1/3 (4) (x + y)3
Q.47
If AP and BP are bisectors of the angle A and angle B of a parallelogr am ABCD, then value of the angle APB is : D
C
P
B
Q.42
Q.43
(1) 0. 465
(2) 0.465
(3) 0.465
(4) 0.4654
3 2
3
(2) –
(4)
2
x° O y°
2 3
B
A
(1) 90° (3) 150° Q.49
2
(2) 120° (4) 180°
In the following figure ACB = 90° and CD AB. If AD =4 cm and BD = 9 cm then the ratio BC : AC is:
3
C
In the equations 3x + 2y = 13xy and 4x – 5y = 2xy. The values of x and y that satisfy the equations are: (1) (2, 3) (2) (3, 2 )
1 1 (3) , 2 3
Q.46
In the following figure O is the centre of circle and ACB = x°, OBA = y° then the value of x° + y° is : C
If (x+ 2 ), is a factor of kx2 – 2 x + 1, then the value of k is :
(3)
Q.45
Q.48
(2) 45° (4) 90°
Expressing 0. 23 + 0.2 3 as a single decimal, we get
(1) –
Q.44
(1) 30° (3) 60°
The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a distance of 9 m and 16 m from the base of the tower and in the same straight line in the same direction with it are complementary. Then height of the tower is : (1) 12 m (2) 15 m (3) 20 m (4) 25 m If sin = p and cos = q then the value of p 2 p 3 2q 3
A
1 1 (4) , 3 2
(1) 3 : 2 (3) 16 : 81
(1) sec (3) cot
(2) cosec (4) tan
(2) 2 : 3 (4) 81 : 16
Q.50
If in a right angled triangle the hypotenuse is to be 1 cm longer than the base and 2 cm longer than the altitude, then the perimeter of the triangle is : (1) 24 cm (2) 20 cm (3) 12 cm (4) 10 cm
Q.51
If the roots of a quadratic equation 2x2 + 3kx + 8 = 0 are equal, the value of k is :
is :
q
B
D
(1) ±
(3) ±
2 3 3 8
(2) ±
(4) ±
3 2 8 3
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Q.52
Q.53
If a = x – y, b = y – z and c = z – x then the value of a3 + b3 + c3 is : (1) 3(x–y)(y – z)(z – x) (2) (x – y)3(y – z)3(z – x) 3 (3) (x + y + z) 3 (4) x3 + y3 + z3
Q.59
If mode of any series is 5 and median is 3 then mean of that series is : (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Q.60
In the following figure of triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD. The ratio of areas of the triangles ABC and BED is :
If tangents PA PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of 110°, then POA is equal to :
A
A
E P
O
D
B
(1) 1 : 4 (3) 4 : 1
B
(1) 65° (3) 45° Q.54
(3)
Q.57
1
(2)
2 1
(4)
4
2
(4)
3 4
If a metallic sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and recast into the shape of a cylinder of radius 3 cm, then the height of the cylinder is : (1) 30 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 35 cm (4) 32 cm
List-II
(i) 1929 (ii) 1919 (iii) 1928 (iv) 1815 Code : A (1) iii (2) iv (3) i (4) ii
) :
(2) 312.5 m2 (4) 302.5 m2
List-I
(A) Napoleon defeated at Waterloo (B) Formation of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (C) Formation of Comintern (D) Lahore Congress
A cow is tied with a rope of le ngth 12 m at a corner of rectangular field of dimensions 25m × 45m. If the length of the rope is increased to 23m, then the additional grassy area in which 7
(Significance)
Match List-I with List-II correctly and choose the correct code from the following :
The first term of an A.P. is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum is 400. Then the fourth term of A.P. A.P. is : (1) 13 (2) 11 (3) 15 (4) 14
(1) 300.5 m2 (3) 315.5 m2 Q.58
Q.62
3
22
Which among the following is not correctly matched in relation to the symbols of the French Revolution? (1) Broken Chains – Being freed (2) Breast plate with eagle – Willingness to make peace (3) Sceptre – Symbo mbol of royal power (4) The winged woman – Personification of the law
3
the cow can graze is (take =
(2) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3
(Attribute)
1
Value of tan25° tan35° tan45° tan55° tan65° is : (1) 0 (2) 1 (3)
Q.56
Q.61
Two coins are tossed once. The probability of getting at least one tail is : (1)
Q.55
(2) 55° (4) 35°
C
Q.63
B ii iii iv iv
C iv ii ii i
D i i iii iii
Find out the correct explanation : (1) Livre : Unit of currency in France, discontinued in 1794 (2) Clergy : Building belonging to community devoted to a religious life (3) Tithe : Tax to be paid directly to the state (4) Taille : A tax levied by the church
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Q.64
In which state of India is Gujranwala situated ? (1) Gujarat (2) Rajasthan (3) Karnataka (4) Punjab
Q.65
Who wrote the novel ‘Godan’ ? (1) Muhammad Basheer (2) Rabindranath Tagore (3) Bhudeb Mukhopadhyay (4) Premchand
Q.66
Who was Charles Dickens ? (1) King (2) Novelist (3) Revolutionary (4) Monk
Q.67
Pay attention on the following points : (A) The Non-cooperation-Khilafat Movement began in January 1921. (B) In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : (1) only (A) (2) only (B) (3) bo both (A) an and (B) (B) (4) none of these
Q.68
Q.69
Q.70
Q.71
Q.72
Q.73
(1) Jhelum River (3) Ravi River
How much is the length of Kaveri River ? (1) 1400 km (2) 1500 km (3) 860 km (4) 760 km
Q.75
Which one of the following is the characteristic of cold weather season in India ? (1) Warm days and Warm nights (2) Cold days and Cold nights (3) Warm days and Cold nights (4) Cold days and Warm nights
Q.76
Match List-I and list-II and choose the correct code from the following : List – I
Approximately how much is land boundary of of India ? (1) 15200 km (2) 7516.6 km (3) 6100 km (4) 2000 km
L i s t – II
(A) Sunderbans (B) Nanda Devi (C) Gulf of Mannar (D) Nilgiris
Where was the Imperial Forest Research Institute established in 1906 ? (1) Dehradun (2) Calcutta (3) Udaipur (4) Bombay
When was the first one-day international cricket match between England and Australia played ? (1) 1971 (2) 1972 (3) 1973 (4) 1974
(2) Chenab River (4) Indus River
Q.74
By which name is the tribe of camel herder called in West Rajasthan ? (1) Bhakar (2) Faal (3) Bugyal (4) Dhandi
Which one of o f the following incidents happened first ? (1) Convocation of Estates General (2) Overthrow of the Jacobin Republic (3) Debates over socialism in Russia (4) Proclamation of the Weimar Republic
What is ‘X’ in the following map m ap ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(i) Uttarakhand (ii) Ta Tamil Nadu (iii) Karnataka (iv) We West Bengal
A
B
C
D
iii ii i iv
ii iii iv i
i iv iii ii
iv i ii iii
Q.77
According Accordin g to the Census 2001, a ‘literate’ ‘literate ’ person is one who (1) can read and write his/her name (2) can read and write in any language (3) knows the three – reading, writing & arithmetic (4) is above 7 years and can read and write any language with understanding
Q.78
As se ser ti ti on on (A (A ) : Black soil has high capacity
to hold moisture. Asser As ser t io n (B) ( B) : Black soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) (3) (A) is true and (R) is false (4) (A) is false and (R) is true
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[66]
Q.79
Match List-I and List-II and choose the correct code from the following : L ist -I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (2) (3) (4) Q.80
Q.81
Choose the correct statement describing the word ‘code of conduct’ : (A) A set of norms norm s and guidelines to be followed foll owed by political parties (B) A set of norms norm s and guidelines to be followed foll owed by candidates in Election (C) Guidelines for Election Commission (D) Compulsory voting for voters (1) A, B, C (2) A, B (3) B, C (4) C, D
Q.86
Which of the following statements properly define the ‘Constitution’ ? (A) Constitution protects the rights of citizens. (B) It determines the functioning of governments. (C) It determines the process of legislation. (D) It decides the name of person p erson who is going to be the President. (1) A, B, D (2) B, C (3) A, B, C (4) B, C, D
Q.87
Which one of the following is the institution, functioning for International law, Security, Social equity and World peace ? (1) International Monetary Fund (2) United Nations Organisation (3) World Bank (4) None of these
Q.88
Who among am ong the following was the pioneer, to abolish caste inequality and establish social harmony ? (1) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan (2) Dadabhai Naoroji (3) W.C. Bonerjee (4) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Q.89
Select the mismatched statement given below: (1) Democracy evolves through public struggles (2) Peaceful and non-violent struggles strengthen democracy (3) Democracy exists only through struggles (4) Freedom of expression is the identity of democracy.
Q.90
With reference to democratic system, which statement does not match ? (1) Democracy and development go together (2) Inequality does not exist under dictatorship (3) Inequalities exist in democracy (4) Democracy provides freedom of expression expression and livelihood.
L ist -II
Extinc t species (i) Nicobar Pigeon Vulnerable species (ii) Asiatic Cheetah Endangered species (iii) Black Buck Endemic sp species (iv) Asiatic Elephant A
B
C
D
iii ii i iv
ii iv iii i
i iii iv ii
iv i ii iii
Based on the data provided which of the following crops is most probably indicated ? Equatorial crop having moist and humid climate, rainfall more than 200 cm, temperature temperatur e above 25ºC, main producer state is Kerala. (1) Coffee (2) Rubber (3) Jute (4) Sugarcane Which of the following cities is not connected with National Highway No. 8 ? (1) Delhi (2) Mumbai (3) Kolka ta (4) Jaipur
Q.82
Nagercoil of Tamil Tamil Nadu is fam ous for (1) Solar Energy (2) W ind Power (3) Thermal Power (4) Tidal Energy
Q.83
Which of the following statements about the relationship of Democracy and Human Rights is/are correct? (A) When there is democracy demo cracy then Rights are certain. (B) Every democratic state gives rights to its citizens. (C) Rights are not necessary neces sary for Democracy Democrac y. (D) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democratic country. (1) A, C, D (2) A, B (3) B, C (4) A, B, D
Q.84
Q.85
Who acts as the Supreme Commander of defence forces of India ? (1) The Chief of Air staff (2) The Chief of Army staff (3) The President of India (4) The Chief of Navy
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Q.91
There are some statements with reference to power sharing in Indian democratic system. Select the irrevelevant statement : (1) Participation of public in general election (2) Activeness of Gram Panchayat (3) Activities of Army (4) We participated in Gram Sabha
Q.96
The accepted average calorie requirements per person per day for rural and urban areas in India are (1) 2400 calories and 2100 calories (2) 2100 calories and 2400 calories (3) 2300 calories and 2000 calories (4) 2000 calories and 2300 calories
Q.92
Homogeneous Society means (1) Similar kind of cultural heritage (2) Exist Caste based differences (3) Absence of community feeling (4) Different kinds of living style of people
Q.97
Annapurna Yojna Yojna was started in which year year ? (1) 1995 (2) 1996 (3) 2000 (4) 2004
Q.98
Human Development Report is published by (1) UNDP (2) UNESCO (3) WHO (4) WTO
Q.99
With development developmen t in India, in production sector, the importance of which sector has increased ? (1) Primary sector (2) Secondary sector (3) Tertiary sector (4) Primary and Secondary sectors
Q.100
Globalisation has enabled which large Indian company to emerge as multinational company ? (1) Tata Motors (2) Infosys (3) Ranbaxy (4) All of these
Q.93
Select the mismatched pair from the following names of organizations : (1) Bhartiya Janta Party, Indian National Congress, Akali Dal (2) Communist Comm unist Party of India, Telugu Desam Party (3) Akhil Bhartiya Vidyarthi Parisad, National Student Union of India (4) Bahujan Samaj Party, Trinamool Congress.
Q.94
Under ‘Green Revolution’ in India to increase the production of wheat and rice which of the following measures were adopted ? (1) High Yielding varieties (2) Chemical fertilizers (3) (3) Irr Irrig igat atio ion n fac facililit itie iess (4) (4) All All of of thes these e
Q.95
For Human Capital Formation investment is done in which of the following ? (1) Education and medical care (2) Education, training and medical care (3) Education and entertainment (4) Medical care and entertainment
ANSWER KEY Que. Ans.
1 2
2 1
3 3
4 1
5 1
6 1
7 4
8 2
9 3
10 3
11 3
12 1
13 2
14 3
15 1
Que.
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
2
4
3
4
4
3
2
3
3
1
3
4
3
4
4
Que.
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
44
45
Ans.
3
1
1
3
4
3
4
2
1
4
2
2
1
3
1
Que.
46
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
Ans.
4
4
1
1
3
4
1
4
4
2
1
4
4
2
3
Que.
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
Ans.
2
2
1
4
4
2
3
4
1
1
1
1
1
4
3
Que.
76
77
78
79
80
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
Ans.
4
4
3
2
2
3
2
4
3
2
3
2
4
3
2
Que.
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
Ans.
3
1
3
4
2
1
3
1
3
4
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[68]
RAJASTHAN_NTSE-STAGE-I RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR:2017 (YEAR:2017-18) -18) MAT Questions (1 – 8) Instruction : In : In each of the Question Nos. 1 to 8 a letter series is given with one term missing shown by question mark ( ? ). This term is one of four alternatives given under it. Find the correct alternative. 1. A, D, I, ? , Y. (1) R 2.
(2) TI
6.
7.
8.
(4) IH.
(3) MNQ
(4) HS.
(2) PQR (4) QRS.
ABCD, BDFH, BDFH, CFIL, ? , EJOT. (2) DHMQ (4) DIKP.
D, H, L, P, T, ? (1) W (2) X
(3) Y
10.
100, 50, 33 (1) 15
11.
1 3
(3) 37
(4) 45.
, 25, 20, ? .
(2) 16
1 3
(3) 17
2 3
(4) 16
2 3
17, 16, 8, ? , – 83. (1) –1
(2) –8
(3) –19
(4) –26.
(2) 103
(3) 121
(4) 169.
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 14.
3, 24, 81, 81, ? , 375, 648. 648. (2) 256
(3) 169
(4) 192.
18.
Statements : (i) Earth is smaller than Moon. (ii) Moon is bigger than Sun. Conclusions : (I) Sun is bigger than Earth. (II) Earth and Sun are eq ual. (1) Only conclusion I follows. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Both conclusions I and 11 follow. (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
19.
Statements : (i) Some houses are vehicles. (ii) Some vehicles are schools. Conclusions : (I) Some houses are schools. (II) Some schools are houses. (1) Only conclusion I follow s. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Both conclusions I and II follow. (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
1, 2, 6, 15, ? , 56. (2) 40
(4) 67.
Statements: (i) : All mangoes are trees. (ii) : All oranges are trees Conclusions Conclusions : (I) : Some mangoes are oranges. (II) All oranges are mangoes. (1) Only conclusion I follow s. (2) Only conclusion II follows. (3) Both conclusions I and II follow. (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
ZYAB, VUEF, RQIJ, ? , JIQR.
(1) 31
(3) 52
17.
(4) U.
(1) NMNM (2) MNMN (3) MNNM (4) NMMN. Questions (9 – 16) Instruction : In : In each of the Question Nos. 9 to 16 a number series is given with one term missing shown by question mark ( ? ). This term is one of the four alternatives given under it. Find the correct alternative. 9.
(2) 50
Questions (17 – 19) Instruction : : Question Nos. 17 to 19 have two statements and two conclusions I and II. You have to assume the given statements as true even if it seems to vary to commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions carefully and decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the two given statements even disregarding commonly known facts.
ABC, EFG, IJK, IJK, ? , UVW.
(1) DGKO (3) DHLP
(4) 225.
1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, ? , 21.
(1) 128
(4) MOQ.
(3) 210
4, 13, 31, 67, ? , 283.
(1) 11 16.
(3) RH
(1) MNO (3) OPQ
14.
(2) 195
49, 64, 56, 57, 63, ? , 70, 43. (1) 64
15.
(3) HG
(2) MOR
13.
(1) 139
YB, WD, WD, UF, ? , QJ. (1) SH
5.
(2) JI
6, 24, 60, 120, ? (1) 180
(4) T.
ACF, GIL, ? , SUX. (1) NPS
4.
(3) N
YX, UT, QP, ML, ? . (1) HI
3.
(2) P
12.
.
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69
20.
21.
22.
Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents France, Europe and Canada ? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
26.
In a coded language 'CALLED' is written as 'DELLAC' and 'TIGER' is written as 'REGIT, then in the same language, 'NORTH' will be written as (1) PQSUK (2) PTTVL (3) HTORN (4) HTRON
27.
In the given question, a statement is followed by two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the following arguments is 'strong' or 'weak’. Statement : High chimneys should be installed in industries. Arguments : (I) Yes, it reduces pollution at ground level. (II) (II ) No, it increases increases pollution in upper atmosphere. (1) Only Argument I is strong. (2) Only Argument II is strong. (3) Both Arguments I and II are s trong. (4) Both Arguments I and II are weak .
28.
Determine the number of rectangles in the following figure :
Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents House, Kitchen and Bathroom ? (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents Uttar Pradesh, Agra and Taj Mahal ?
(1) 7 (1)
23.
24.
25.
(3) 9
(4) 10
(2) 29.
(3)
(2) 8
Determine the number of parallelograms in the following figure :
(4)
If ' < ’ means '–', '>' means '+', '=' means 'x' and '@' means '', then what will be the value of 7 4 < 8 = 3 > 39 @ 3 ? (1) 10 (2) 17 (3) 39 (4) 52 In a coded language, 'ACE' is written as '1925' and 'BIG' is written as '48149', then in the same language, 'DOG’ will be written as (1) 41549 (2) 1622549 (3) 162259 (4) 42249 In a coded language, 'SHOULDER' is written as ’TJSNMAGZ' and 'BOXING’ written as 'RSYCPH', then in the same language, 'HORN' will be written as (1) JSZP (2) JSNS (3) JNZS (4) JZSP
(1) 14
(2) 17
(3) 18
(4) 19
Instruction : : In Questions Nos. 30 to 33, find the correct mirror image of the given figure, when mirror is placed on right side of the figure. 30.
Question Image
Answer Image
31.
Question Image
Answer Image
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70
32. 32.
33.
QUALITY (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Questions (38 – 41) Instruction : In the following Question Nos. 38 to 41, there is a question figure, which is embedded in one of the answer figures. Trace out that correct figure. 38.
247596 (1) 695742
(2)
(3)
(4)
Question figure
Answer figure Question (34 – 37) Instruction : : In Questions Nos. 34 to 37, find the correct water-image of the g iven figure. 34.
35.
39.
FAMILY (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Answer figure
NhRqSy (1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 40.
36.
Question figure
Question figure
Question figure
Answer figure Answer figures
41.
37.
Question figure
Question figure Answer figure
Answer Figure
42.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the answer figures with complete the given matrix figure ?
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43.
Which of the answer figures f igures will complete the given matrix figure ?
Questions (48-55) Instruction : : In Question Nos. 48 to 55, there are two sets of figures. One set contains problem figures while the other has answer figures. There is a sequence according to which the problem figures are arranged. You have to select an answer figure which can be added in sequence with the problem figures. Choose the correct answer figure. 48. Problem Figures
Questions (44 – 47) Instructions : A square transparent sheet with a pattern is folded along the dotted line. Which of the following answer figures is formed after folding the transparent sheet? 44.
(A) (B) Answer figures
(C)
(D)
Transparent sheet (1) 49.
(2)
(3)
(4)
Problem Figures
Answer figures
(A) (B) Answer figures 45.
Answer figures
(1)
(2)
50.
(3)
Transparent Sheet
(1) 47.
(D)
Transparent sheet
(1)
46.
(C)
(4)
(3)
51.
Transparent Sheet
(2)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(C)
(D)
(3)
(4)
(C)
(D)
(3)
(4)
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer figures
Answer figures
(1)
(1)
(4) (4)
(3)
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer figures
Answer figures
(2) (2)
(2)
(4) (1)
(2)
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72
52.
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer figures
(C)
(D)
Questions (57-60) Read the information given below carefully :A is the son of B. B's sister C has a son D and a daughter E. F is maternal uncle of D. Answer Question Nos. 57 to 60 based on this info rmation. Sol.57-60 Sister
B (1) 53.
(2)
(3)
(1)
(2)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(C)
(3)
(1)
(2) (2 )
(C)
(3)
F
+
Son Daughter – + E D
58.
How is E related to F? (1) Sister (2) Daughter (3) Niece (4) Wife
59.
How many nephews does F have ? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
60.
How is B related related to F ? (1) (Brother / Sister) (2) Husband (3) Father (4) Cousin
61.
A, B, C and D are playing playing carro carrom. m. C, A and and D, B are partners. D is to the right of C. C is facing west. Then, B is facing which direction ? (1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West
62.
If South-east' is called 'East', 'North-west' is called 'West', South-west’ is called 'South', ’ then in the same way, ‘North will be called as (1) East (2) North-east (3) North-west (4) West
63.
Which of the following Venn diagrams correctly represents represents Males, Fathers and doctors ?
(D)
(4)
(D)
A fam ily has a man, his wife, their four sons and their wives. Each son has 3 sons and 1 daughter. How many male members are there in the whole family ? (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 17
Brother
How is a related to D ? (1) Cousin (2) Nephew (3) Brother (4) Uncle
(4)
(4)
–
57. (D)
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer figures
56.
(C)
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer figures
55.
A
Problem Figures
(A) (B) Answer figures
54.
Son
(4)
C
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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Questions (64-67) Instruction : Answer Question Question Nos. 64 to 67 based on the diagram given below
If it was Saturday on 17 December, 2002, nd then what was the day on 22 December, 2004? (1) Monday (2) Sunday (3) Friday (4) Tuesday
73.
If number of days are not considered, which two months in a year have same calendar? (1) June, October (2) April, November (3) April, July (4) October, December
74.
If 25 August in a year is Thursday, then number of Mondays in that month is (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
Educated, employed and rural women are represented by (1) D (2) E (3) F (4) G
75.
What does D represent ? (1) Educated rural women (2) Uneducated, Uneducated, unemployed and rural women (3) Educated unemployed women (4) Educated employed women.
If ( + ) stands for ( × ), ( – ) stands for (÷),(× ) stands for ( – ) and (÷ ) stands for ( + ), then value of [ 26 + 72 – 4 × 5 ÷ 2 ] is (1) 108 (2) 465 (3) 471 (4) 488
76.
If A + B > C + D and D + A < B + C, then (1) D > B (2) C > D (3) A > D (4) B > D
77.
Arrange the following following in a meaningful sequence : A = Birth, B = Death, C = Funeral, D = Marriage, E = Education. (1) AEDBC (2) ADECB (3) AEBDC (4) ADEBC
78.
Arrange Arrange the the follow following ing in a meani meaningful ngful sequence sequence : A = Study, B = Service, C = Examination, D = Earning, E = Result. (1) EACDB (2) ABECD (3) ACEBD (4) AECBD
79.
A solid cube of white material is painted black on all its surfaces. If it is cut into 125 smaller cubes of same size, then how many cubes will have two sides painted black ? (1) 32 (2) 36 (3) 42 (4) 40
80.
A cube painted red on all faces is cut into 27 small cubes of equal size. How many cubes are not painted on any face? (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
81.
The four different positions of a die are given below. Which number is on the face opposite to 3 ?
In above figure, triangle shows rural women, rectangle shows unemployed women and circle shows educated women. 64.
65.
66.
Educated, unemployed and rural women are represented by (1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E
67.
Educated unemployed women are represented by (1) B, C (2) D, E (3) E, F (4) G, E
68.
How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there which are completely divisible by 4 and also has 4 as digi d igitt ? (1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 25
69.
70.
71.
th
72.
How many odd numbers are there in the sequence each of which is immediately followed by an odd number ? 51473985726315863852246496 (1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7 An integer is greater gr eater than 3 but less than 8. Also it is is greater than 6 bu t less than 10. This number is equal to (1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
th
th
A has 18 rank in a class of 49 students. What is his rank from the las t? (1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 31 (4) 32
(1) 6
(2) 4
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(3) 2
(4) 5 74
82.
The four different positions of the die are given below. Which number is on the face opposite to 2 ?
(1) 3 83.
84.
86.
(3) D
Men having scooter, TV, laptop but not car are represented by which number ? (1) 4 (2) 7 (3) 11 (4) 12
88.
Men having only car (no other item) are represented by which number ? (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
89.
Men having neither scooter nor car are represented by which number ? (1) 13 only only (2) 2 only (3) 3 only (4) 2,13,3 2,13,3
90.
Men having car and laptop only represented by which number ? (1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 5
91.
As 'circle' is related to its 'circumference', ' circumference', in the same way, 'square' is related to which of the following ? (1) Volume (2) Area (3) Diagonal. (4) Perimeter Perimeter
92.
As 'walking' is related to 'running', in the same way, ‘smiling' is related to which of the following ? (1) feeling (2) weeping (3) laughing (4) watching
93.
As 'college' is related to its its 'student' in the same way, ‘hospital' is related to which of the following ? (1) Doctor (2) Patient (3) Nurse (4) Treatment
(4) 6
How many two-digit numbers can be formed from numbers 2, 5, 6, 8, 7, 1 such that each number has digit 8 always ? (1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12 Determine the number of squares in the following figure
(1) 7 85.
(2) 4
87.
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10
If ‘+’ Stands for ‘×’, ‘–‘ stands for ‘÷’, ‘×’ stands for ‘–’ and ‘÷’ stand for ‘+’, then value (36 4) 8 4 of is 4 8 2 16 1 (1) 8 (2) 12 (3) 0 (4) 4 In a row of students, A is sixth from the left and B is tenth from the right. If there are 8 students between A and B , then total number of students in the row is (1) 23 (2) 24 (3) 25 (4) 26
Instruction : Answer Question Question Nos. 87 to 90 based on the diagram given below
are
Instruction : : In Questions Nos. 94 to 96, there are four figures given in each. One of these figures does not correlate with the rest of the figures. Select that odd figure. 94.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
95.
Circle A represents men having TV, circle B represents men having scooter, circle C represents men having laptop and circle D represents men having car.
(1)
(2)
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(3)
(4)
75
96.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Instruction : : In Question Nos. 97 and 100, three alternatives are alike in a certain way but the rest one is different. Select the odd one. 97.
(1) Radish (3) Pea
(2) Carrot (4) Turnip
98.
(1) 105
(2) 91
(3) 65
(4) 117
99.
(1) OVO
(2) CUU
(3) TTA
(4) AFA
100. 100.
(1) (1) Football (3) Hockey
(2) Carrom (4) Cricket
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RAJASTHAN_NTSE-STAGE-I RAJASTHAN_ NTSE-STAGE-I (YEAR:2017 (YEAR:2017-18) -18) SAT 1.
The inertia of a body depends upon (1) gravitational acceleration (2) centre of gravity of body (3) shape of body (4) mass of bod y.
2.
Velocity-time Velocity-time graph o f a body bod y moving with uniform acceleration is shown in the diagram. The distance travelled by the body in 3 seconds is
(1) 90 m (3) zero 3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Which defect in human eye arises due to the irregularities irregularities in spherical sphe rical shape of cornea ? (1) Cataract (2) Hypermetropia or long sightedness (3) Myopia or short sightedness (4) Astigmatism.
8.
Focal length of a convex lens is +40 cm. The power of this lens will be (1) +4 dioptre (2) + 2-5 dioptre (3) + 40 dioptre (4) +25 dioptre.
9.
Match the electric devices given in Column-A with their symbols shown in Co lumn-B. Column-A Column-B
(2) 45 m (4) 10 m
The distance between two masses is to be halved. The gravitational force between them will be (1) double (2) one-fourth (3) quadruple (4) half Which statement is correct among the following for gravitational acceleration (g) due to earth ? (1) The value of g is equal at poles and equatorial circle (2) The value of g is more nat poles than at equatorial circle (3) The value of g is more at equatorial circle than at poles (4) None of these
(i)
(b) Rheostat
(ii)
(c) Electric cell
(iii)
(d) Plug key
(iv)
Then correct answer is (1) (a) - (iii), (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (2) (a) - (iii), (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (3) (a) - (iii), (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) (4) (a) - (iii), (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) 10.
Which one of the following is not a part of Direct current generator (1) Commutator (2) Sliprings (3) Armature (4) Carbon brushes.
11.
The equivalent resistance of the given circuit between points A and B is
Which waves are used in the device "SONAR'' ? (1) Audible waves (2) Ultrasound waves (3) Infrasound waves (4) Light waves. The speed of a wave is 350 m/s and wavelength is 70 cm. The frequency of wave is (1) 500 Hz (2) 700 Hz (3) 50 Hz (4) 200 Hz.
(a) Voltmeter
(1) 40 12.
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 0.2 .
If 4 joule work is to be done in stretching a spring by 4 cm then spring constant of the spring is 3 4 (1) 5x 10 N/m (2) 5xl0 N/m 3 4 (3) 2 × 10 N/m (4) 2 × 10 N/m
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13.
The electric device which is having more use time and less elec tricity tricity consumption is (1) Incandescent Incandescent Bulb (2) CFL (3) LED (4) Tubelight.
24
Element having largest atomic radius among the following (1) Li (2) Be (3) B (4) C.
25
IUPAC name-of isopentane is (1) 2-ethyl propane (2) Pentane (3) 2-methyl 2-me thyl butane (4) 2,2-di 2,2-dimethyl methyl propane propane
14.
Homogeneous mixture among the following is (1) milk (2) cloud (3) smoke (4) air.
15.
The substance showing sublimation sublimation property among the following is (1) common salt (2) copper sulphate (3) potassium nitrate (4) camphor.
26.
The polymer of acrylonitri acrylon itrile le is (1) Polythene 2) Polyvinyl chloride (3) Polyvinyl cyanide (4) Polystyrene.
16.
Number of molecules present in 32 g o f O2 is 23 23 (1) 6.022 x 10 (2) 3.011 × 10 23 22 (3) 1.51 x 10 (4) 6.022 x 10
27.
The cell organelle discovered by de Duve is (1) Plastid (2) Ribosome (3) Lysosome (4) Centrosome.
17.
Number of neutrons in isotope of hydrogen , tritium tritium is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3.
28.
18.
The formula of chloride of an element A' is XCl3. The formula of its oxide will b e (1) XO2 (2) XO3 (3) X2O3 (4) X3O2.
The examples of hydrophytes are (1) Hydrilla, Calotropis (2) Lotus, Salsola (3) Moss, Lichen (4) Segetaria, Trapa.
29.
Number of male gametes in the growing pollen tube is (1) one (2) two (3) three (4) seven.
30.
The main method of reproduction in Yeast is (1) Budding (2) Sporogenesis (3) Cutting (4) Grafting.
31.
The number of biosphere reserves established in India is (1) 18 (2) 118 (3) 142 (4) 669.
32.
The bark of which which plant is used as medicine medicine ? (1) Aloe vera (2) Terminalia arjuna (3) Curcuma longa (4) Papaver somniferum.
33.
In which year was Indian Space Research Committee changed into Indian Space Research Organisation ? (1) 1965 (2) 1969 (3) 1975 (4) 1981.
34.
Bacterial disease is (1) Dengue (3) Tuberculosis
19.
20.
Molecule containing coordinate covalent bond among the following is (1) H2O (2) HNO3 (3) BaCl2 (4) CaO Concentration of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions in mole/litre for pure water is –7 –7 (1) 1 x 10 (2) 2 x 10 –14 –6 (3) 1 × 10 (4) 1 × 10
21.
The compound used for removal of ac idity in in stomach is (1) NaCl (2) MgCl2 (3) Mg(OH) 2 (4) CaCl2.
22.
The chemical formula of dead burnt plaster is (1) CaSO4.
1
H2O 2 (3) CaSO4.H2O 23.
(2) CaSO4.2H 2O (4) CaSO4.
Which type of catalyst is glycerol in the following reaction? glycerol 2H2O2
glycerol
2H 2O + O2
(1) Positive catalyst (3) Biocatalyst
(2) Negative catalyst (4) Autocatalyst.
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(2) Poliomyelitis Poliomyelitis (4) Chicken pox 78
35.
Honeybee culture is known as (1) Silviculture (2) Apiculturc (3) Sericulture (4) Pisciculture.
36.
Disease caused by deficiency de ficiency of Vitamin-D is (1) Night blindness (2) Beri-beri (3) Scurvy (4) Rickets.
37.
Universal donor blood group is (1) A (2) O (3) AB
38.
46.
5 term of an A.P. is 10 more than its 3rd th th term. What is the difference of its 9 and 6 terms ? (1) 15 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 10
47.
If tan A =
Skeletal muscles are (1) striated and voluntaiy (2) unstriated and voluntaiy (3) striated and involuntary (4) unstriated and involuntary.
Which of the following is not a secondary reproductive organ ? (1) Fallopian tube (2) Uterus (3) Ovaiy (4) Vagina.
(3)
7 5
(4) 4
2
2
3
43.
The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 14. If 18 is subtracted from the number, digits are reversed. Find the num ber. (1) 86 (2) 77 (3) 68 (4) 76
(2) 180°
(3) 120°
3 2
If the roots of (b – c)x + (c – a)x + (a – b) = 0 are real and equal, then which of the following is true? (1) 2b = a + c (2) 2a = b + c (3) 2c = a + b (4) 2b = a – c
50.
For which value of k, a pair of equations x + y – 4 = 0 , 2x + ky – 3 = 0 has no solution ? (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8
51.
The length of the side of a rhombus is 4 cm. If one of the diagonals is equal to the side of rhombus, then the length of other diagonal in cm will be
2
(1)
3 2
(2)
3
(3) 2 3 (4) 4 3
52.
The mean of first seventeen whole numbers is (1) 8 (2) 7.5 (3) 8.5 (4) 18
53.
A cube of edge 1 cm is cut from a corner of a solid cube of edge 5 cm. What is the total surface area of the solid remained ? 2 2 (1) 150 cm (2) 149 cm 2 2 (3) 151 cm (4) 147 cm
In the given figure, AB | | ED and BC | | EF, then the value of ABC + DEF is
(1) 90°
(4)
49.
7 11
If a polynomial x – 4x + x + 2x + 1 is divided by x – 1, then remainder will be (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 9 (4) –1
2 2
2
The multiplication of all prime numbers between 1 and 10 is (1) 105 (2) 945 (3) 210 (4) 1890
2 11
42.
1
(2)
48.
Which of the following is not an irrational number? (2)
2 1 where A is an acute angle then the value of sin A . c os A will be
(3)
40.
(1) 2 5
th
(1) 2 2
Water vascular system is found in (1) Cnidaria (2) Echinodermata (3) Mollusca (4) Annelida.
44.
How many cubic centimetres make 100 kilolitre ? 10 5 8 6 (1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 10 (4) 10
(4) B.
39.
41.
45.
(4) 360°
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54.
In the given figure, chord AB subtends an angle 90° at centre O of the circle having radius 4 cm. Area of the shaded region will be
(1) (4 - 2) cm (3) ( - 8) cm 55.
2
(4) ( - 2) cm
(2) 70°
(3) 5( 3
59.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by choosing from the given code :
2
2
(3) 110°
(4) 40°
(2) 5( 3
1) m
1) m
5 6
(2)
1 6
(3)
2 3
(4)
1 3
The sum of distances from x-axis and y-axis measured from the point (3, 5) will be (1) –1 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 8 2
2
2
If x + 4y + 9z – 4xy – 12yz + 6 xz = 0 then (1) x = 2y – 3z (2) x = y – 3z (3) 2x = y – 3z (4) x = 3y – 2z
List-I
List-II
(A) Magadha (B) Kashi (C) Surasena (D) Gandhara
(i) Mathura (ii) Varanasi (iii) Taxila (iv) Rajgriha
Code :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A
B
C
D
iv i iv ii
iii ii ii iii
ii iii i iv
i iv iii i
62.
In which of the following forts was the coronation of Chhatrapati Shivaji held? (1) Raygarh Fort (2) Kumbhlgarh Fort (3) Pune Fort (4) Surat Fort
63.
The founder of 'Abhinav Bharat' was (1) Chandrashekhar Azad (2) Vasudev Hari Chapekar (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar
64.
Who discovered the water frame ? (1) Henry Cort (2) Richard Archrite (3) James Bridali (4) Jethrotal
65.
When was the Quit India Movement proposal passed ? (1) 8th August, 1942 (2) 8th August, 1941 (3) 8th August, 1940 (4) 15th August, August, 1942
66.
The state of India, where the Kalibanga is situated, is (1) Punjab (2) Rajasthan (3) Gujarat (4) Jammu & Kashmir
67.
Triratna is related to (1) Buddhist philosophy (2) Vedic philosophy (3) Islamic philosophy (4) Jain philosophy ph ilosophy
(4) 3 5 m
A die is thrown once. If the probability of getting a number less than 4 is x and the probability of getting a number greater than 4 is y, then x - y is (1)
58.
61.
The shadow of a tower, when the angle of elevation of the sun is 30° is found to be 10 metre longer than when it was 60°. The height of the tower will be (1) 5 3 m
57.
(2) 4( - 2) cm
Which of the following statements is false for the quadrilateral ABCD ? (1) AB + BC + CD + DA > AC (2) AB + BC + CD + DA > AB + AC (3) AB + BC + CD + DA > AC + BD (4) AB + BC + CD + DA < 2AC
In the given figure, AB = AC, BAC =40°, BE and CD are angle bisectors of B and C respectively. If DOE = x, the value of x is
(1) 140° 56.
2
60.
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80
68.
What is the modern name of Champa ? (1) Malaysia (2) Thailand (3) Vietnam (4) Indonesia
69.
Consider the following points : (A) Raja Rammohan Roy established Vedanta College in Calcutta. (B) Swami Vivekananda wrote a book named Satyartha Prakash. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below: (1) Both (A) and (B) are co rrect (2) Only (A) is correct (3) Only (B) is correct (4) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
In which district of Rajasthan is Amrita Devi Black Deer Sanctuary developed ? (1) Jodhpur (2) Bikaner (3) Barmer (4) Ganganagar
77.
The joint project of Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan states is (1) Bhakhra Nagal Project (2) Mahi Bajaj Sagar P roject (3) Chambal Valley Project (4) Sardar Sarovar Project
78.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below : List-I
Who was the king of Russia at the time of the Russian revolution of 1917 ? (1) Czar Nicholas First (2) Louis 14th (3) Czar Nicholas Second (4) Louis 16th
(A) (B) (C) (D)
List-II
(District) Ajmer Tonk Pali Bundi
(Lake) (i) Sardar Samand (ii) Ana Sagar (iii) Navalakha (iv) Tordi Sagar
Code :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A
B
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
C
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
D
(i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Who was the publisher of Hindu Patriot ? (1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (2) Dayanand Saraswati (3) Lala Lajpat Rai (4) Harishchandra Mukherjee
79.
Which one of the following rivers does not flow on the eastern coastal plain ? (1) Krishna (2) Godavari (3) Narmada (4) Kaveri
The percentage of iron content in magnetite iron-ore is (1) 40 – 50% (2) 50 – 60% (3) 60 – 70% (4) 70 – 80%
80.
The plateau between Bhainsrorgarh and Bijauliya Bijauliya in Rajasthan is k nown as (1) Bhorat (2) Uparmaal (3) Malwa (4) Royalseema
Which one of the following cement city of Rajasthan ? (1) Chittorgarh (2) Bundi (3) Nimbahera (4) Nagaur
81.
Which one of the following is not a Lagoon lake ? (1) Chilika (2) Pulicat (3) Kolleru (4) Dal
The district having lowest population growth rate in Rajasthan du ring 2001-2011 is. (1) Nagaur (2) Bikaner (3) Bhilwara (4) Ganganagar
82.
'Uni Gauge Project by Indian Railway was started in (1) 1982 (2) 1992 (3) 2002 (4) 2012
83.
In which country is direct democracy found ? (1) Italy (2) Japan (3) Switzerland Switzerland (4) India
The duration of summer season according to Indian Meteorological Department is (1) mid-September to m id-December (2) December to February (3) March to mid-June (4) mid-June to m id-September id-September
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81
84.
Who has the right to promulgate an ordinance when the Parliament is not in session ? (1) Supreme Court (2) President (3) Prime Minister (4) Lok Sabha Speaker
93.
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct code from the given code : List-I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
List-II
Nagar Nigam (i) Zilla Pramukh Zilla Parishad (ii) Pradhan Panchayat Samiti Samiti (iii) Sarpanch Gram Panchaya t (iv) Mayor (Mahapoura)
Code : 85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
From whose pleasure does the governor hold office ? (1) Prime Minister (2) Chief Minister Minister (3) President (4) Vice-President What is the maximum age of retirement for judges of Supreme Court ? (1) 62 years (2) 65 years (3) 60 years (4) 70 years The term of the President of India is (1) 4 years (2) 5 years (3) 2 years (4) 3 years On which day was the Constitution of India adopted adopted ? (1) 15th August, 1947 (2) 9th December, 1946 (3) 26th January, 1950 (4) 26th November, 1949 Forced labour is prohibited Fundamental Right of India ? (1) Right to equality (2) Right to freedom (3) Right against Explotation (4) Right to Freedom of Religion
in
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A
B
C
D
(i) (iii) (iv) (iv)
(ii) (i) (iii) (i)
(iii) (ii) (ii) (ii)
(iv) (iv) (i) (iii)
94.
The nation of socialist economy is (1) Japan (2) China (3) France (4) United States of America
95.
The Kharif crop is (1) Wheat (3) Maize
(2) Barley (4) Gram
96.
The function of commercial banks is (1) Issue of currency (2) Credit control (3) Lender of last resort (4) Acceptance of pe ople's deposits
97.
The formula of measuring per capita income is
which
(1) Per capita income =
By which constitutional constitutional amendment Fundamental Duties are added in the Constitution of India ? (1) 42nd (2) 40th (3) 43rd (4) 45th
(2) Per capita income =
Where is the only Cantonment established in Rajasthan at present ? (1) Nasirabad (2) Jaipur (3) Chittorgarh (4) Jodhpur
(4) Per capita income =
(3) Per capita income =
Board
Panchsheel is based on which philosophy ? (1) Buddhist philosophy (2) Jain philosophy (3) Islamic philosophy (4) Hindu philosophy
98.
National National income income Population
Population National National income Total Total consumpti consumption on Population
Population Total consumption consumption
The characteristic of Indian economy is (1) Equality of income (2) Lack of poverty (3) Lack of unemployement (4) Low per capita income
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82
99.
In India the first effort to measure poverty was done by (1) Dadabhai Nao roji (2) D.T. Lakdawala (3) Prof. Robb ins (4) Prof. Keynes.
100.
In India the Consumer Day is celebrated on (1) 2nd October (2) 15th August (3) 24th December (4) 26th January
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NTSE STAGE-1 (MAT) ANSWER KEY 2019 (RAJASTHAN) Ans.
Ques.
Ans.
Ques.
Ques.
Ans.
1
2
26
4
51
4*
76
4
2
4
27
1
52
4
77
1
3
2
28
3
53
3
78
3
4
1
29
3
54
2
79
2
5
3
30
2
55
3
80
1
6
3
31
2
56
4
81
2
7
2
32
3
57
1
82
3
8
4
33
4
58
3
83
3
9
1
34
4
59
3
84
3
10
4
35
1
60
1
85
3
11
3
36
4
61
1
86
2
12
3
37
2
62
3
87
4
13
2
38
1
63
2
88
1
14
1
39
4
64
4
89
4
15
3
40
2
65
2
90
4
16
4
41
1
66
4
91
4
17
4
42
3
67
3
92
3
18
4
43
3
68
1
93
2
19
4
44
1
69
3
94
2
20
3
45
4
70
3
95
4
21
3
46
1
71
4
96
2
22
2
47
1
72
2
97
3
23
2
48
1
73
3
98
1
24
2
49
3
74
3
99
3
25
1
50
2
75
2
100
2
Ques.
Vibrant Academy Academy ( (I) Pvt. Ltd. A-14(A) "
"
Ans.
Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (www.vibrantacademy.com)
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NTSE STAGE-1 (SAT) ANSWER KEY 2019 (RAJASTHAN) Ques.
Ans.
Ques.
Ans.
Ques.
Ans.
Ques.
Ans.
1
4
26
3
51
4
76
1
2
2
27
3
52
1
77
4
3
3
28
4
53
1
78
2
4
2
29
2
54
2
79
3
5
2
30
1
55
3
80
3
6
1
31
1
56
1
81
4
7
4
32
2
57
2
82
2
8
2
33
2
58
4
83
3
9
4
34
3
59
1
84
2
10
2
35
2
60
4
85
3
11
3
36
4
61
3
86
2
12
1
37
2
62
1
87
2
13
3
38
1
63
4
88
4
14
4
39
2
64
2
89
3
15
4
40
3
65
1
90
1
16
1
41
4
66
2
91
1
17
3
42
2
67
1
92
1
18
3
43
1
68
3
93
4
19
2
44
2
69
2
94
2
20
1
45
3
70
3
95
3
21
3
46
1
71
4
96
4
22
4
47
3
72
3
97
1
23
2
48
3
73
2
98
4
24
1
49
1
74
4
99
1
25
3
50
2
75
3
100
3
Vibrant Academy Academy ( (I) Pvt. Ltd. A-14(A) "
"
Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2425408 (www.vibrantacademy.com)
85