NEET_AIPMT_full Length Practice Paper 03_ezyexams

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NEET (AIPMT) FULL LENGTH PRACTICE PAPER 03

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If A,B & A + B are three non-zero vector. Such that A + B is perpendicular to B then which of one is correct B B (a) A ≥ B (b) A ≥ (c) A > B (d) A> 2 2 ˆ and (iˆ − ˆj − k) ˆ . What is the area of parallelogram whose diagonals are represented by (3iˆ + ˆj + k) (a) 4

3.

PHYSICS

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(b) 3

(c) 2 2

(d) 1

In the formula X = 3YZ 2 , X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction respectively. What are the dimensions of Y in MKSQ system? (Q = charge) (a) [M−3L−1 T 34Q ] (b) [M−3L−2 T 44Q ] A unitless quantity (a) never has a nonzero dimension (c) may have a nonzero dimension

(c) [M 4 L−2 T 44Q ]

41 (d) [M−3L−2 TQ]

(b) always has a nonzero dimension (d) does not exit

Which pair of following quantities has dimensions different from each other? (a) Impulse and linear momentum (b) Plank’s constant and angular momentum (c) Moment of inertia and moment of force (d) Young’s modulus and pressure ⎛1⎞ The dimensions of ⎜⎜⎜ ⎟⎟⎟ ε 0 E 2 ( ε0 : permittivity of free space, E : electric field) is ⎝2⎠

(a) MLT−1

(b) ML2 T−2

(c) ML−1 T−2 (d) ML2 T−1 ⎛ ⎞ Pressure depends on distance as, P = α exp⎜⎜⎜− αz ⎟⎟⎟ , where α , β are constants, z is distance, k is ⎝ kθ ⎠ β Boltzmann’s constant and θ is temperature. The dimension of β are (a) M 0 L0 T 0

(b) M−1L−1 T−1

(c) M 0 L2 T 0

(d) M−1L1 T 2

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What are the dimensions of electrical resistance?

9.

(a) ML2 T−2 I 2 (b) ML2 T−3 I−2 (c) ML2 T−3I 2 (d) ML2 T−2 I−2 An ant is at a corner of a cubical room of side ‘a’. The ant can move with a constant speed u. The minimum time taken to reach the farthest corner of the cube is (a)

10.

11.

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14.

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3a u

3a u

(c)

5a u

(d)

( 2 + 1)a u

A particle is moving in a straight line with initial velocity u and uniform acceleration f. If the sum of the distances travelled in tth and (t + 1) th seconds is 100 cm, then its velocity after t seconds, in cm/s, is (a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 80 A ball is thrown vertically upwards from the ground. It crosses a point at the height of 25 m twice at an interval of 4 secs. The ball was thrown with the velocity of (a) 20 m/sec (b) 25 m/sec (c) 30 m/sec (d) 35 m/sec A parachutist drops freely from an aeroplane for 10 s before the parachute opens out. Then he descends with a net retardation of 2.5 ms -2. If he balls out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g = 10 ms-2, his velocity on reaching the ground will be (a) 2.5 ms-1 (b) 7.5 ms -1 (c) 5 ms -1 (d) 10 ms -1 The velocity of a car moving on a straight road increases linearly according to equation, v = a + bx, where a & b are positive constants. The acceleration in the course of such motion: (x is the displacement) (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Stay constant (d) Becomes zero The position vector of a particle is given r = (t 2− + 4t +6)iˆ (t 2 )j.ˆ The time after which the velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to (a) 1 sec (b) 2 sec (c) 1.5 sec (d) Not possible 

The retardation experienced by a moving motor boat after its engine is cut off is given by: dv = − 3 kv , where k is a + ve constant. If v o is the magnitude of velocity at cut off, the magnitude of dt the velocity at time t after the cut off is (a) vo

16.

(b)

(b) v o 2

(c) v o e−kt

(d)

vo 2vko2 t + 1

A bird flies for 4 seconds with a velocity of |t – 2| m/sec. In a straight line, where t = time in seconds. It covers a distance of (a) 4 m (b) 6 m (c) 8 m (d) None of these Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



The graph shown in the figure shows the velocity v versus time t of a body. Which of the graphs shown in figure represents the corresponding acceleration versus time graphs?

(a)

(b)

(c)

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22.

(d)

A body is projected with a speed u at an angle to the horizontal to have maximum range. At the highest point the speed is u (a) zero (b) u 2 (c) u (d) 2 Ratio of the ranges of the bullets fired from a gun (of constant muzzle speed) at angle θ ,2θ & 4θ is found in the ratio x : 2 : 2, then the value of x will be (Assume same muzzle speed of bullets) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None of these A stone projected at angle ' θ ' with horizontal from the roof of a tall building falls on the ground after three second. Two second after the projection it was again at the level of projection. Then the height of the building is (a) 5 m (b) 25 m (c) 20 m (d) 15 m The vertical height of the projectile at time t is given by y = 4t − t 2 and the horizontal distance covered is given by x = 3t . What is the angle of projection with the horizontal? (a) tan−1 3 (b) tan−1 4 (c) tan−1 4 (d) tan−1 3 5 5 3 4 o A stone projected at an angle of 60 from the ground level strikes at an angle of 30o on the roof of a building of height ‘h’. Then the speed of projection of the stone is (a)

2gh

(b) 6gh

(c)

3gh

(d) gh




A man holding a flag is running in North-East direction with speed 10 m/s. Wind is blowing in east direction with speed 5 2 m/s. Find the direction in which flag will flutter (w.r.t. man) (a) Flag will flutter in south direction (b) Flag will flutter in south-west direction (c) Flag will flutter in west direction (d) Flag will flutter in south-east direction

24.

A particle is projected at angle 60 o with speed 10 3 , from the point ‘A’ as shown in the figure. At the same time the wedge is made to move with 3 towards rightwith as shown the= figure. Then 2). the time afterspeed which10particle will strike wedgeinis (g 10 m/sec

4 sec (d) None of these 3 A lift is moving in upward direction with speed 20 m/s and having acceleration 5 m/s 2 in downward direction. A bolt drops from the ceiling of lift at that moment. Just after the drop, the (a) Velocity of bolt with respect to ground is zero (b) Velocity of bolt with respect to ground is 20 m/s in upward direction (c) Acceleration of bolt with respect to ground is 5 m/s2 (d) None of these (a) 2 sec

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28.

(b) 2 3 sec

(c)

At harbour, a boat isalong standing and wind is blowing a speed 2 m/sec due isto flowing which, the flaga on athe boat flutters north-east. Now the boatatenters in ofto river, which with velocity of 2 m/sec due north. The boat starts with zero velocity relative to the river and its constant acceleration relative to the river is 0.2 m/sec 2 due east. In which direction will the flag flutter at 10 seconds? (a) south-east (b) south-west (c) south 30o of west (d) west A man crosses the river perpendicular to river flow in time t seconds and travels an equal distance down the stream in T seconds. The ratio of man’s speed in still water to the speed of river water will be 2 2 2 2 − 2 − 2 + 2 + 2 (a) t2 T 2 (b) T 2 t 2 (c) t 2 T 2 (d) T 2 t2 t +T T +t t −T T −t A particle is moving in a straight line whose acceleration versus time graph is given. Assume that initial velocity is in the direction of acceleration. Then which of the statement is correct between time t = 0 to t = t o. (a) Velocity first increases then decreases, displacement always increases (b) Velocity and displacement both, first increases and then decreases (c) Displacement increases and velocity decreases (d) Displacement and velocity both always increases




Two boats A and B having same speed relative to river are moving in a river. Boat A moves normal to the river current as observed by an observer moving with velocity of river current. Boat B moves normal to the river as observed by the observer on the ground. (a) To a ground observer boat B moves faster than A (b) To a ground observer boat A moves faster than B (c) To the given moving observer boat B moves faster than A (d) To the given moving observer boat A moves faster than B

30.

A train is standing on a platform, a man inside a compartment of a train drops a stone. At the same instant train starts to move with constant acceleration. The path of the particle as seen by the person who drops the stone is (a) Parabola (b) Straight line for sometime and parabola for the remaining time (c) Straight line (d) Variable path that cannot be defined Equation of straight line is 2x + 3y = 5 . Slope of the straight line is

31.

(a) 32.

3 2

(b)

If tanx .cos2 x then

34.

35.

cos(t 2 ) +c 2

(b)

cos(2x + 3) 2

cos(t 2 ) −c 2

3 2

(d)

2sin 2 x

(c)

− cos(t 2 ) +c 2

(d) cos(t 2 )

∫ ydx will be (b) −

cos(2x + 3) + C (c) − cos(2x + 3) 2

⎡ The area of region between y = sin x and x–axis in the interval ⎢0, ⎢⎣ (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 

36.

(d) −

∫ ydt will be

If y = sin(2x + 3) t hen (a)

2 3

(b) 1 − 2sin 2 x(c) 1

If y = ts in(t 2 )t hen (a)

(c) −

dy will be dx

(a) 1 + 2sin 2 x 33.

2 3

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( d) −2c os(2x + 3) π ⎤⎥ will be 2 ⎥⎦

(d) 1/2

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Given: A = 2iˆ − 3jˆ and B = 5iˆ − 6jˆ . The magnitude of (A + B)i s (a) 120 units (b) 130 units (c) 58 units (d) 65 units 

37.

Two vectors a and b inclined at an angle θ w.r.t each other have a resultant c which makes an angle β with a . If the direction of a and b are interchanged, then the resultant will have the same (a) Magnitude (b) Direction (c) Magnitude as well as direction (d) Neither magnitude nor direction 

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39.

Magnitude of component of 3iˆ − 4jâ long î − ˆj w ill be 5 7 (a) (b) 7 (c) (d) 7 2 2 2 The resultant of two forces acting at an angle 150 o is 100 N and is perpendicular to one of the forces. The other force is 200 (a) 200 N (b) 100 3 N (c) 200 3 N (d) N 3 If a = 3iˆ + 4jˆ and b = 7iˆ + 24jˆ then the vector having the same magnitude as b and same direction as a is (a) 15iˆ + 20jˆ (b) 10iˆ + 20jˆ (c) 20iˆ + 15jˆ (d) 15iˆ + 10jˆ 

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ASSERTION & REASON In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). (A) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (B) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (C) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. (D) If Assertion is false statement but Reason is true. 41.

A

:

If the rectangular components of a force are 8N and 6N, then the magnitude of the force is 10N. 

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44. 45.

R A

: :

R

:

A

:

R

:

A

:

R

:

A

:

R

:

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2

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2

If |A|=|B|= 1 then |A × B| +|A.B| = 1 In a projectile motion, the velocity at its highest point is zero. In a projectile motion from ground to ground projection, the acceleration is g downwards due to which speed of the projectile first decreases then increases to the same value. Three projectiles are moving in different paths in the air. Vertical component of relative velocity between any of the pair does not change with time as long as they are in air. Neglect the effect of air friction. Relative acceleration between any of the pair of projectiles is zero. A particle having negative acceleration will slow down. Direction of the acceleration is not dependent upon direction of the velocity. A particle moves in a straight line with constant acceleration. The average velocity of this particle cannot be zero in any time interval. For a particle moving in straight line with constant acceleration, the average velocity in a u+v time interval is , where u and v are initial and final velocity of the particle of the given 2 time interval.




CHEMISTRY 46.

47.

48.

49.

The values of electronegativity of atoms ionic character of A – B bond is

51.

52.

are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of

(d) NH 3 > NF3 > BF3

Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs, NF33,N O− ,B F3 ,H 3 O+ ,H N 3 (a) [NF3 , NO−3 ] a nd [BF3 , H3O+ ]

(b) [NF3 , HN 3 ] a nd [NO−3 , BF3 ]

(c) [NF3 , H3O+ ]a nd [NO−3 , BF3 ]

(d) [NF3 ,H 3O+ ]a nd [HN 3 ,B F3 ]

The correct order of increasing C − O bond length of CO,C O 23− ,C O 2 is (a) CO 23− < CO 2 < CO

(b) CO 2 < CO 23− < CO

(c) CO < CO 23− < CO 2

(d) CO < CO 2 < CO 23−

In which of the following the central atom does not use (b) OH+3

sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding

(c) NH−2 + 2

(d) NF3 + 2

N 2 and O 2 are converted into monocations N and O respectively. Which is wrong (a) In N 2 , the N − N bond weakens (c) In O 2paramagnetism , decreases

54.

B

(a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III (c) IV < I < III < II (d) IV < II < I < III Which of the following arrangement of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments (a) BF3 > NF3 > NH3 (b) NF3 > BF3 > NH 3

(a) BeF3− 53.

and

(a) 50 % of electrons (b)that 43 % (c) 55.3 % (d) 72.24% The number are paired in oxygen molecule is (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 14 (d) 16 Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment. (I) Toluene (II) m − dichlorobenzene (III) o − dichlorobenzene (IV) p − dichlorobenzene

(c) NH3 > BF3 > NF3 50.

A

(b) In O 2 , the O − O bond order increases (d) N+2 becomes diamagnetic

The common features among the species CN− , CO and NO+ are (a) Bond order three and isoelectronic (b) Bond order three and weak field ligands (c) Bond order two and π-acceptors (d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



56.

Bonds present in CuSO 4 .5H2 O is (a) Electrovalent and covalent (b) Electrovalent and coordinate (c) Electrovalent, covalent and coordinate (d) Covalent and coordinate Which of the following atoms and ions are isoelectronic i.e. have the same number of electrons with the neon atom (a) F− (b) Oxygen atom (c) Mg (d) N−

57.

The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e /m (charge/mass) for (a) e,p,n, α (b) n,p,e, α (c) n,p, α ,e (d) n, α ,p,e

58.

The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiation is (a) 1/4 (b) 4 (c) 1/2 (d) 2 In a Bohr's model of atom when an electron jumps from n = 1 to n = 3 , how much energy will be emitted or absorbed (a) 2.15× 10−11 erg (b) 0.1911× 10−10 erg

59.

60.

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(c) 2.389 × 10−12 erg (d) 0.239 × 10−10 erg The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is −13.6eV . The possible energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits to hydrogen is(are) (a) −3.4eV (b) −4.2eV (c) −6.8eV (d) +6.8eV − The total number of valence electrons in 4.2gm of N 3 ion is ( NA is the Avogadro's number) (a) 1.6NA (b) 3.2N A (c) 2.1NA (d) 4.2N A The frequency of a wave of light is 12 × 1014 s−1 . The wave number associated with this light is (a) 5× 10−7 m ( b) 4 × 10−8 cm−1 (c) 2 × 10−7 m−1 (d) 4 × 10c4 m−1 The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6eV. The energy required to excite the electron in a hydrogen atom from the ground state to the first excited state is (a) 1.69 × 10−20 J ( b) 1.63 × 10−18 J ( c) 1.63× 10 23 J ( d) 1.69 × 10 25 J Suppose 10 –17J of energy is needed by the interior of human eye to see an object. How many photons of green light (λ = 550 nm) are needed to generate this minimum amount of energy? (a) 14 (b) 28 (c) 39 (d) 42 The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63× 10−34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms−1 . Which value is closest to the wavelength in nanometres of a quantum of light with frequency of 8× 1015 s−1 (a) 3× 107 (b) 2 × 10−25 (c) 5 × 10−18 (d) 4 × 101 Which of the following statement is correct with respect to the property of elements with an increase in atomic number in the carbon family (group 14) (a) Atomic size decrease (b) Ionization energy increase (c) Metallic character decrease (d) Stability of +2 oxidation state increase Which of the following oxides is amphoteric in character (a) CaO (b) CO2 (c) SiO2 (d) SnO2 Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



69.

70.

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72.

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74.

Arrange S, O and Se in ascending order of electron affinity (a) O < Se < S (b) Se < O < S (c) S < O < Se (d) S < Se < O In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated against it + 2 + − (a) Al 3+ < Mg < Na < F :Increasingionicsize (b) B < C < N < O : Increasing first ionization enthalpy (c) I < Br < F < Cl : Increasing electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign) (d) Li < Na < K < Rb : I ncreasing metallic radius Strongest acid is (a) Al 2 O 3 (b) MgO (c) Na 2 O (d) CaO Increasing order of electronegativity is (a) Bi < P < S < Cl (b) P < Bi < S < Cl (c) S < Bi < P < Cl (d) Cl < S < Bi < P Which of the following configurations represents atoms of the elements having the highest second ionization energy (a) 1s2 2s 2 2p4 (b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (c) 1s222s 2p6 3s1 (d) 1s222s 2p6 3s 2 The elements which occupy the peaks of ionisation energy curve, are (a) Na, K, Rb,C s (b) Na,Mg,Cl,I (c) Cl, Br, I,F (d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr A sudden large jump between the values of second and third ionisation energies of an element would be associated with the electronic configuration 2

75.

76.

77.

78.

79.

80.

2 6

1

2

2 6

2 1

2

2 6

2 2

2

2 6

2

(a) 1s ,2s p ,3s (b) 1s ,2s p ,3s p (c) 1s ,2s p ,3s p (d) 1s ,2s p ,3s Arrange F, Cl, O, N in the decreasing order of electronegativity (a) O > F > N > Cl (b) F > N > Cl > O (c) Cl > F > N > O (d) F > O > N > Cl Which one of the following pairs of gases contains the same number of molecules (a) 16 g of O 2 and 14 g of N 2 (b) 8 g of O 2 and 22 g of CO 2 (c) 28 g of N 2 and 22 g of CO 2 (d) 32 g of O 2 and 32 g of N 2 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na 2 CO 3 . If 10 ml of this solution is diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant solution (mol. wt. of Na 2 CO 3 =106) (a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M (c) 0.01 M The number of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 is approx.

(d) 10−4

M

(a) 1.2 × 1023 (b) 6 × 1022 (c) 6 × 1023 (d) 12 × 1023 The number of water molecules present in a drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room temperature is (a) 6.023× 1019 (b) 1.084 × 1018 (c) 4.84 × 10 17 (d) 6.023× 10 23 19.7 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. How many atoms of gold were recovered (Au =197) (a) 100 (b) 6.02 × 1023 (c) 6.02 × 1024 (d) 6.02 × 1025 Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



The number of molecules in 16

82.

16 16 × 10 23 (d) × 10 23 6.02 3.0 The molecular weight of hydrogen peroxide is 34. What is the unit of molecular weight (a) g (b) mol (c) gm ol−1 (d) molg −1 The number of electrons in a mole of hydrogen molecule is (a) 3.0 × 10 23

83.

(b) 6.02 × 10 23

23

84.

85.

g of methane is

(c)

23

23

(a) 6.02 × 10 (b) 12.046 × 10 (c) 3.0115× 10 (d) Indefinite Which of the following is Loschmidt number (a) 6 × 1023 (b) 2.69 × 1019 (c) 3× 1023 (d) None of these The total number of gm-molecules of SO 2 Cl 2 in 13.5g of sulphuryl chloride is (a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.4 ASSERTION & REASONING TYPE In the following questions a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). (a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. (b) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. (c) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. (d) If Assertion is false statement but Reason is true.

86.

Assertion : Reason

87.

:

Assertion : Reason

88. 88.

90.

Assertion Reason Assertion Reason

: : : : :

Assertion : Reason

:

The atoms in a covalent molecule are said to share electrons, yet some covalent molecules are polar. In a polar covalent molecule, the shared electrons spend more time on the average near one of the atoms. Pure water obtained from different sources such as, river, well, spring, sea etc. always contains hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio 1 : 8 by mass. A chemical compound always contains elements combined together in same proportion by mass, it was discovered by French chemist, Joseph Proust. The atomic radii of calcium is smaller than sodium. Calcium has a lower nuclear charge than sodium The energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number. The principal quantum number n is a measure of the most probable distance of finding the electron around the nucleus. A resonance hybrid is always more stable than any of its canonical structures. This stability is due to delocalization of electrons.




BOTANY 91.

State the correct naming of the virus components.

A

92.

93.

94.

95.

B

C

D

(a) Head Sheath Collar Tail fibre (b) Head Sheath Collar Hold fast (c) Head Collar Sheath Tail fibre (d) Collar Tail fibre Head Sheath Select the correct combinations or statements w.r.t. characteristics of certain organisms. (A) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas. (B) Nostoc is a filamentous green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen. (C) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose. (D) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and pathogenic to plant as well as animal. (a) A, B, C and D (b) A, B and D (c) C and D (d) A and D A fungus with hyphae containing nuclei from different genomes, the nuclei do not fuse and are without sex organ but produces sexual spore belongs to (a) Phycomycetes (b) Zygomycetes (c) Deuteromycetes (d) Basidiomycetes The sexual reproduction of fungi may occur by means of (a) Sporangiospores, oospores and ascospores. (b) Zoospores, oospores and ascospores (c) Sporangiospores, ascospores and basidiospores (d) Ascospores, oospores and basidiospores. Match the followings Column I

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Morels Smut Bread moulds Imperfect fungi

Column II

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Deuteromycetes Ascomycetes Basidiomycetes Zygomycetes




96.

97.

98.

99.

100.

101.

(a) A ‒ i, B ‒ iii, C ‒ iv,iiD ‒ (b) A ‒ ii, B ‒ iii, C ‒ iv, D ‒ i (c) A ‒ iii, B ‒ ii, C ‒ i,ivD ‒ (d) A ‒ iv, B ‒ i, C ‒ ii, D ‒ iii Which is incorrect for yeast ? (a) Saprophytic fungus (b) Sexual reproduction present (c) Asexual spore is conidia (d) Cause fermentation Cell wall may be absent in (a) Slime moulds (b) Phycomycetes (c) Basidiomycetes (d) Fungi imperfectii Study the diagram given below and mark the correct option. (1) It is two bacterial cell undergoing conjugation (2) It is main mode of reproduction in bacteria (3) It is bacteria undergoing fission (4) It is structure formed by bacterium under unfavorable conditions (a) 1 and 2 is correct (b) 2 and 3 is correct (c) 3 and 4 is correct (d) 1 and 4 is correct The main role of bacteria in carbon cycle is (a) Photosynthesis (b) Chemosynthesis (c) Assimilation of nitrogen (d) Decomposition What is the similarly between bacteria involved in curd making, antibiotic production, nitrogen fixation. (a) All of them are chemoautotroph (b) All of them are hetrotroph (c) All of them are chemosynthetic (d) All of them are flagellated Cyanobacteria differ from bacteria as they (a) Produce oxygen in photosynthesis. (b) Exhibit sort of sexual reproduction. (c) Do not have membrane bound cell organelle. (d) Have circular double stranded DNA. Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



103.

104.

105.

106.

107.

Lichens cannot survive in (a) Area near coal feed power plant (b) In forest (c) Tropical climate (d) Polar climate Maximum metabolic diversity is found in the group (a) Monera (b) Fungi (c) Plantae Classification undergoes constant modification this is due to

(1) evidencesinfrom different sourceof characteristics and evolutionary relationship (2) New Improvement our understanding (3) Dynamic nature of living organism with respect to time (4) Country specific nature of classification. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Cyanobacteria belong to monera because of their (a) Cell structure (b) Blue-green pigment (c) Non-motile nature (d) N2 ‒ fixing ability A bacteriophage is usually _____ virus, while virus which infect plant has _____ as genetic material. (a) dsDNA, ssRNA (b) ssDNA, dsRNA (c) dsDNA, dsRNA (d) ssDNA, ssRNA

OddColumn one out. I (a) Proteins which are arranged in helical or polyhedral geometric forms in virus. (b) Viruses that infect animals do not contain it. (c) In plants, leaf rolling and curling, mosaic and citrus canker are caused by these organisms. (d) Virus contains this as infectious particles. 108. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria on the basis of (a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleoid (c) Ribosome 109.

(d) Animalia

Column II

Capsomeres ssDNA Viruses Genetic material. (d) Cell wall

Which statement depicts incorrect characteristic of Cyandoacteria ? (a) They have chlorophyll a similar to green plants. (b) They are unicellular, colonial or filamentous form (c) Motile specialized cells "heterocysts" are present which can fix atmospheric nitrogen. (d) They form water bloom in polluted water bodies.




How many statements are correct w.r.t crysophytes? (1) They are found in marine environment, fresh water organisms are very rare. (2) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thick overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box. (3) The cell membranes of diatoms are embedded with silica and accumulation of them over billions of years is referred to as "diatomaceous earth". (4) Being brittle and slippery diatomaceous soil is used in polishing, filtration of oils and syrups. (5) Diatoms are the chief "Producers" in the oceans. (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

111.

Which among the following fungi, Sexual reproduction is done by the fusion of two vegetative cells of different strains?

(A) (a) A 112.

(d) All of the above

(b) B

(B) (c) C

(C) (d) Both B & C

Find out the incorrect statement regarding the discoveries of virus. (i) D.J. of Ivanowsky disease tobacco. proposed the term virus and recognized them as causal organism of the mosaic (ii) M.W. Beijerinek found the viruses to be smaller than bacteria because they passed through bacteria ‒ proof filters. (iii) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallized and crystals consist largely of proteins. (a) (i) is incorrect (b) (i) & (ii) are incorrect (c) (i) & (iii) are incorrect (d) All are incorrect

113.

Find the incorrect match (a) (b) (c) (d)

114.

Characteristic

Organism

Decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling. Smut and rust fungi, respectively Extensively used in biochemical and genetic work Parasitic fungi on mustard

Colletotrichum Ustilago and Puccinia Neurospora Rhizopus

He made the srcin of species diversity the central question of evolutionary biology and had given currently accepted definition of a biological species, person was (a) Darwin (b) Mayr (c) Linnaeus (d) Ray Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



116.

On the basis of _____, the protists are grouped as photosynthetic algae, slime moulds and protozoans. (a) Complexity of cell (b) Complexity of organism (c) Mode of nutrition (d) All are correct Which statement is incorrect w.r.t virus ? (a) Viruses are not included in any system of classification. (b) Viruses are non ‒ living but develop living characters like multiplication when enter in suitable host. (c) Ability to undergo mutation and ability to be crystallized are living characteristics of virus. (d) Viruses lack growth and cell division for their multiplication.

117.

Find out the incorrect statement. (a) In phycomycetes, Asexual reproduction is through motile as well as nonmotile spores. (b) In ascomycetes, asexual spores are formed exogenously and called canidia. (c) In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced endogenously, unlike ascomycetes, where ascospores are produced exogenously (d) All are correct

118.

Which of the following statement is false? (a) TMV has a double stranded RNA molecule. (b) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses. (c) Bacteriophage has a double stranded DNA molecule. (d) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.

119.

120.

A _____ contains descriptive information of any one taxon. (a) Museum (b) Monograph (c) Manual

(d) Publication

Which statement (s) is/are not true for five kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker (1969). (A) The main criteria for classification used by him includes cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproductions and phylogenetic relationship. (B) All prokaryotic organism such as bacteria, blue green algae and ferns are grouped together under kingdom Monera. (C) Chlamydomonas, Chlorella and Spirogyra are placed in Algae within plants due to pressure of cell wall. (D) Fungi are placed in a separate kingdom: kingdom fungi. (E) Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in animal kingdom due to lack of cell wall. (a) Only A (b) A, B and D (c) A, D and E (d) B, C and E Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



Which taxonomic aid contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area ? (a) Monograph (b) Flora (c) Key (d) Herbarium

122.

Which one of the following statements about binomial nomenclature is incorrect? (a) The genus name is in capital, while the species epithet is not. (b) The genus and species epithets are both either italicized or underlined. (c) Principle of priority is followed. (d) The genus and species designations always come from Greek or Latin srcins.

123.

The study of biological diversity and evolutionary relationships between living and extinct organisms is most accurately referred to as (a) Taxonomy (b) Cladistics (c) Evolution (d) Systematics

124.

Which group contains order names ? (a) Primata, Diptera, Poales. (c) Musca, Homo, triticum.

125.

126.

127.

(b) Insecta, Mammalia, Sapindales. (d) Hominidae, Muscidae, Poaceae.

How many of the following statement (s) are correct ? (1) Genus comprises a group of related species which has more characters in common in comparison to species. (2) pardus and leo are two different species but both belong to the genus Felis. (3) Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithets representing different organisms. (4) Species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and maximum number of organisms. (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Family is represented by group of related genera. (b) Number of individual keeps on decreasing as we move from kingdom to genus. (c) As we move form species to kingdom number of common characters keeps on decreasing. (d) Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the family Polymoniales mainly based on the floral characters. Find the incorrect option about taxonomic key. (a) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category. (b) Each statement of a key is known as lead. (c) It represents the choice made between two opposite options. (d) Keys are based on similarities among organisms, generally in a pair called couplet. Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



Consider the statements regarding herbarium and select the correct option. (i) Plant specimens are dried pressed and preserved on sheets. (ii) Specimens along with their descriptions on herbarium sheets become a repository for future use. (iii) The largest herbarium of the world is in India. (iv) Plant and animal specimens are always preserved as dry specimens, using preservative solutions (i)

129.

130.

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(a) False True False False (b) True True False False (c) True True True False (d) True False True True Which pair of disease is caused by virus (a) Tetanus. Cholera (b) Whooping cough, AIDS (c) Typhoid, Sleeping sickness (d) Measles, Rabies Which of the following statement is true for mycoplasma ? (a) Presence of cell wall (b) Presence of nucleus (c) Definite shape (d) Can survive without oxygen

Assertion & Reason Each of the question below consists of two statements-an Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the appropriate response as under:

a. b. c. d. 131.

A: R:

132.

A: R:

133.

A R

134.

A R

135.

A: R:

If both A and R are correct and the R is a correct explanation of A. If both A and R are correct but the R is not a correct explanation of A. A is true but R is false Both A and R are False. In living organism growth is intrinsic. Growth is defining feature of living organism. Archaebacteria include the simplest and most primitive group of bacteria. Archaebacteria can face extremes of conditions. : Viroids depend entirely on host enzymes for replication. : Viroids are DNA particles that infect plant cells and use host machinery for replication. : In monera kingdom, cell wall bears unique polymers of amino sugars and amino acids called peptidoglycans. : It is derived from phospholipids. One species is distinguished from other closely related based on distinct morphological differences. Species is group of individuals with fundamental similarities. Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



ZOOLOGY 136.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

Which of the following sets of animals are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical and hermaphrodite (a) Pinctada, Pleurobrachia, Ophiura (b) Pennatula, Doliolium, Chaetopleura (c) Nereis, Hirudinaria, Pheretima (d) Pheretima, Planaria, Taenia Sea anemone is (a) Triploblastic, radially symmetrical animal (b) Diploblastic, radially symmetrical animal (c) Diploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical animal (d) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical animal Common bath sponge is (a) Sycon (b) Spongilla (c) Euspongia (d) Euplectella Which of the following statements regarding Platyhelminthes is correct? (a) Mostly ectoparasites. (b) Exhibit the property of bioluminescence. (c) They are coelomate animals with organ level of organization. (d) Possesses flame cells that help in osmoregulation and excretion. A student was given a specimen to identify on the basis of characteristics given below. i. Metameric segmentation ii. Presence of closed circulatory system. iii. Presence of circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion. Identify the specimen. (a) Prawn (b) Pheretima (c) Wuchereria (d) Ctenoplana Select the incorrect features of Molluscs from the given statements. i. Terrestrial or aquatic animals having cellular system level of organization. ii. Radially symmetrical, acoelomate animals with two germinal layers. iii. A file likedioecious rasping organ called radula is present. iv. Usually and viviparous animals. v. Examples include Pila, Octopus, and Dentalium. (a) i & ii only (b) ii & iv only (c) i, ii, & iv only

(d) All the five statements.




143.

Which of the following animal is bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate? (a) Sycon (b) Aurelia (c) Ctenoplana (d) Ascaris Select the correct match Column I Column II 1. Gregarious pest (a) Hirudinaria 2. Vector (b) Planaria 3. 4. 5.

144.

Oviparous with indirect development Metameres High regeneration capacity

(c) (d) (e)

Pinctada Aedes Locust

1 2 3 4 5 (a) a b c d e (b) c e b d a (c) c a e b d (d) e d c a b In which of the following animal, foot is situated on head? (a) (b)

(c)

(d)




146.

147.

Identify the correct characteristic feature shown by these animals?

(a) Diploblastic body condition (b) Radial symmetry. (c) Asexual reproduction. (d) Presence of mantle. Study the following and identify the incorrect option. i. Parapodia – Lateral appendages of Neries. ii. Hypostome – A central gastrovascular cavity with a double opening. iii. Hooks and suckers – Present in Hirudinaria. iv. Feather like gills – Present in mantle cavity (a space between the hump and mantle). (a) i, ii, & iii only (b) ii & iii only (c) iii & iv only (d) All the four match. Which of the following is a characteristic of Aschelminthes? (a) All species can be characterized as scavengers (b) They have only longitudinal muscles (c) They have a true coelom (d) Many species are diploblastic

148.

149.

How many of the following can be used to distinguish a nematode worm from an annelid worm? 1. type of body cavity 2. number of muscle layers in the body wall 3. presence of segmentation 4. number of embryonic tissue layers 5. shape of worm in cross-sectional view (a) one of these (b) two of these (c) three of these All of the following are regions of an insect except (a) head (b) thorax (c) abdomen

(d) five of these (d) hypostome




Which of the following animal belongs to that phylum in which respiratory organs can be gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system? (a) (b)

(c)

151.

(d)

Select the correct match Column I 1. Water canal system 2. 3. 4. 5.

Column II (a) Sponges

Comb plates Nephridia Jointed appendages Muscular foot

(b) (c) (d) (e). (f). (g). (h). (i).

1 (a) a (b) c (c) b (d) c

2 i a e f

3 h f a d

4 e b d e

Help in swimming Present in Molluscs Characteristics of roundworms A body part of Arthropods Helps in reproduction Platyhelminthes Helps in osmoregulation and excretion Eight ciliated external rows

5 c e i a




Identify the structure/feature which is involved in locomotion. i. Radula ii. Comb plates iii. Cnidoblasts iv. Water vascular system (a) i & iii only (b) ii & iv only (c) i, ii, & iv only

(d) All of the above.

153.

Which of the following statement is incorrect? (a) Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system. (b) In Cnidarians, the arrangement of cells is more complex than poriferans (c) Nereis is monoecious but earthworm and leech are dioecious. (d) Compound eyes are present in the animals which are members of largest phylum

154.

Which of the following describes echinoderms? (a) They have an exoskeleton of hard calcareous ossicles (b) Tubefeet provide motility in most species (c) Digestion occurs completely outside the body of organism (d) They are found in both freshwater and saltwater environment

155.

A stalked, sessile marine organism has several feathery feeding structures surrounding an opening through which food enters. The organism could potentially be a cnidarian, a tube-dwelling worm, a crustacean, or an echinoderm. Which of the following traits, if found in this organism, would allow the greatest certainty of identification? (a) the presence of what seems to be radial symmetry (b) a hard covering made partly of calcium carbonate (c) a digestive system with mouth and anus separate from each other (d) a water vascular system

156.

Which of the following group of animals belong to phylum Mollusca? (a) Sea hare, Chiton, Cuttle fish, Apple snail (b) Locust, Filarial worm, Chiton, Ctenoplana (c) Brittle star, Sea urchin, Apple snail, Squid (d) Brittle star, Sea hare, Cuttle fish, Ctenoplana Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



Which of the following animals are bilaterally symmetrical?

(a) 1 & 2 158.

(b) 2 & 4

Which structure does (a) a sharp beak (c) a radula

(c) 3 & 4

(d) 1 & 3

Pila use to feed on their prey?

(b) an incurrent siphon (d) a mantle cavity

159.

The water vascular system of Asterias (a) functions in locomotion and feeding (b) is bilateral in organization, even though the adult animal is not bilaterally symmetrical (c) moves water through the animal’s body during suspension feeding (d) is analogous to the gastrovascular cavity of flatworms

160.

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Amoebocyte : Transport food to non feeding cells (b) Collar cells : Movement of water and filtering food (c) Osculum : Control of water entry (d) Spicules : Skeletal supporting element

161.

Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Sea fan– Pennatula (b) Sea walnutCtenoplana (c) Tusk shell – Dentallium (d) Brittle star – Ophiura

162.

Which of the following is not a parasite (a) Plasmodium (b) Entamoeba

(c) Trypanosoma

(d) Paramecium




Identify the name of the organism and the phylum to which it belongs.

(a) Roundworm, Aschelminthes (c) Filarial worm, Aschelminthes 164.

165.

Which of the following group includes all parasitic animals (a) Ancylostoma, Apis, Anopheles (b) Taenia, Aedes, Planaria (c) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Fasciola (d) Hirudinaria, Ascaris, Asterias Mark the correct match. Column I 1. Porifera 2. 3. 4. 5.

166.

(b) Hookworm, Platyhelminthes (d) Tapeworm, Platyhelminthes

Cnidaria Arthropoda Echinodermata Aschelminthes

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e.

Column II Sexual reproduction by gamete formation and asexual reproduction by fragmentation Extracellular and intracellular digestion Segmented and coelomate Spiny bodied animals Sexes are separate

1

2

3

4

5

(a) e (b) a (c) b (d) c

b b a b

d c c d

c d e a

a e d e

Which of the following is not the common fundamental feature for animal classification? (a) Germinal layers. (b) Pathway of water transport. (c) Pattern of organization of cells. (d) Serial repetition of the segments. Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



The given figures of animals (A & B) are distinguished on the basis of symmetry. Select the correct option which shows the type of symmetry and its description.

(a) A: Biradial, organisms is divided into unequal halves by any plane though the central axis. (b) B: Bilateral, body is divided into equivalent right and left halves by only one plane. (c) A: Asymmetrical, organisms is not divided into equal halves by any plane though the central axis. (d) B: Radial, in which any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves. 168.

How many of the following are characteristics of at least some members of the phylum Cnidaria? 1. a gastrovascular cavity 2. 3. 4. 5. (a)

169.

a polyp stage a medusa stage cnidocytes a pseudocoelom two of these (b) three of these

(c) four of these

(d) five of these

Which of the following is true of members of the phylum Cnidaria? (a) They are not capable of locomotion because they lack true muscle tissue (b) They have either, or both, of two body forms: mobile polyps and sessile medusae (c) They may use a gastrovascular cavity as a hydrostatic skeleton (d) They are the simplest organisms with a complete alimentary canal (two openings)




The figure given below shows the germinal layers labeled as A, B, C and D. Identify the label showing undifferentiated layer and its location?

(a) A, Between B & C (c) C, Between C & D 171.

Match the basis of classification given in column I with their examples given in column II. Column I Column II Hydra, Adamsia 1. Pseudocoelomates (a) Ctenoplana, Aurelia 2. Diploblastic (b) Ascaris, Wuchereria 3. Cellular level of organization (c) Sycon, Spongilla 4. Radial symmetry (d) Pheretima, Neries 5. Metamerism (e) 1 (a) e (b) c (c) b (d) c

172.

(b) B, Between A & C (d) D, Between A & B

2 b a a b

3 d d c d

4 c b e a

5 a e d e

Identify the correct characteristics of porifera i. Commonly known as sea walnuts. ii. Presence of ostia and collar cells. iii. Exhibit tissue level of organisation. iv. It is the largest phylum of animal kingdom. v. The body is supported by spicules and spongin fibers. vi. Contains cnidocytes which are used for defense, anchorage and capturing of prey. (a) ii, v only (b) i, ii, vi only (c) i, ii, iii, iv only (d) All of these. Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



174.

While sampling marine plankton in a lab, a student encounters large numbers of fertilized eggs. The student rears some of the eggs in the laboratory for further study and finds that the blastopore becomes the mouth. The embryo develops into a trochophore larva and eventually has a true coelom. These eggs probably belonged to a(n) (a) echinoderm (b) mollusk (c) nematode (d) arthropod Refer the following statement and answer the question. ‘Name of phylum “X” is derived from stinging capsules. It exhibit metagenesis containing two body forms in which sessile and cylindrical form is called “Y” and umbrella shaped free swimming form is called “Z”. Identify X, Y, and Z X

175.

Y

Z

(a) Cnidaria Polyp Medusa (b) Cnidaria Medusa Polyp (c) Ctenophora Radula Hypostome (d) Porifera Osculum Radula The figure given below is the characteristic structure of the phylum in which animals are aquatic, free swimming or sessile, mostly marine, radially symmetrical. Identify the phylum and correct function of the structure. (a) Ctenophora; Emission of light. (b) Porifera; Feeding, respiration and excretion. (c) Cnidaria; Anchorage, Defense and food capturing (d) Mollusca; Locomotion, transport of food and respiration. ASSERTION AND REASON (a) If both Assertion & Reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

176. 177. 178.

(b) If Assertion &statement Reason are but reason (c) If both Assertion is true buttrue Reason is false.is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (d) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements. Assertion : In sponges fertilization is always internal and development is always indirect. Reason : In sponges fertilization takes place inside the body and larvae develop from zygote. Assertion : Brittle stars have water vascular system which helps in many day to day activities. Reason : Water vascular system is the distinctive feature of spiny bodied organisms. Assertion : When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism

179.

Reason : Assertion : Reason :

180.

Assertion

:

Reason

:

into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Only diploblastic animals can have radial symmetry. Body surface of Annelids is distinctly marked out into segments or metameres. Metameres are due to presence of longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion. Roundworms may be freeliving, aquatic and terrestrial or parasitic in plants and animals. Roundworms have complete digestive canal with muscular pharynx.

— — — — Click below the link for NEET AIPMT Previous Years Question Papers http://ezyexams.com/aipmt-previous-paper-solution/



ANSWER KEY 1.

(c)

46.

(d)

91.

(a)

136

(d)

2. 3.

(c) (b)

47. 48.

(c) (b)

92. 93.

(d) (d)

137 138

(b) (c)

4. 5.

(a) (c)

49. 50.

(d) (c)

94. 95.

(d) (b)

139 140

(d) (b)

6. 7. 8.

(c) (c) (b)

51. 52. 53.

(d) (a) (d)

96. 97. 98.

(c) (a) (b)

141 142 143

(c) (d) (d)

9. 10. 11.

(c) (c) (c)

54. 55. 56.

(a) (c) (a)

99. 100. 101.

(d) (b) (a)

144 145 146

(c) (d) (b)

12. 13. 14.

(c) (a) (a)

57. 58. 59.

(d) (d) (b)

102. 103. 104.

(a) (a) (a)

147 148 149

(b) (c) (d)

15. 16. 17. 18.

(d) (a) (b) (d)

60. 61. 62. 63.

(a) (a) (d) (b)

105. 106. 107. 108.

(a) (a) (c) (d)

150 151 152 153

(c) (a) (b) (c)

19. 20.

(d) (d)

64. 65.

(b) (d)

109. 110.

(c) (a)

154 155

(b) (d)

21. 22.

(c) (c)

66. 67.

(d) (d)

111. 112.

(b) (b)

156 157

(a) (b)

23. 24.

(a) (a)

68. 69.

(a) (b)

113. 114.

(d) (b)

158 159

(c) (a)

25. 26.

(b) (b)

70. 71.

(a) (a)

115. 116.

(c) (c)

160 161

(c) (a)

27. 28.

(c) (d)

72. 73.

(c) (d)

117. 118.

(c) (a)

162 163

(d) (a)

29.

(b)

74.

(d)

119.

(b)

164

(c)

30. 31.

(c) (c)

75. 76.

(d) (a)

120. 121.

(d) (b)

165 166

(b) (b)

32. 33.

(b) (c)

77. 78.

(b) (a)

122. 123.

(d) (d)

167 168

(b) (c)

34. 35.

(b) (a)

79. 80.

(a) (d)

124. 125.

(a) (d)

169 170

(c) (a)

36. 37. 38. 39.

(b) (a) (c) (a)

81. 82. 83. 84.

(b) (c) (b) (b)

126. 127. 128. 129.

(d) (d) (b) (d)

171 172 173 174

(b) (a) (b) (a)

40. 41. 42.

(a) (b) (d)

85. 86. 87.

(a) (a) (a)

130. 131. 132.

(d) (c) (b)

175 176 177

(c) (a) (b)

43. 44.

(a) (d)

88. 89.

(c) (a)

133. 134.

(c) (c)

178 179

(c) (c)

45.

(d)

90.

(a)

135.

(a)

180

(b)




HINTS & SOLUTIONS 1.

So

A>B

2. 





+ P=A

= Q− B &









A

B





P × Q= (A + × B)− (A 



B)





= − A× B+ ×B A = 2(B × A) 











B ×=A

Area 3.

P×Q

1

2

2

=



=

B× A

=2

î 3 1

ˆj

kˆ

1

=1 −1 = − ⎡⎣ 4ˆj 2 −1 −1

4kˆ ⎤

⎦

2ˆj 2kˆ

2

2

x = 3yz

2

[x] = [y] [z] −1 −22 [x] M LQT 2 [y] = = 2 −2 −2 [z]2 M Q T 6.

1 2

= 7.

ε0 E2 =

T4

energy volume

ML2 T −2 L3

= M −3 L−24Q

= ML−1T −2

αz e− P kθ Now appear as …… αz ∴ is dimensionless kθ P=

α

⎡ dz ⎤ 0 0 0 ⎢k ⎥ − M L T ⎣ 0⎦ ⎡ kθ ⎤ [α ] = ⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎡α⎤ Also [P] = ⎢ ⎥ ⎣β⎦



ezyEXAMS.com ezyEXAMSOLUTION.com [β] =

[α] [P]

=

[k]θ [zP]

dimension of [kθ] is …… of energy ∴ [kθ] = ML2 L−2

∴ 8.

[β]

ML2 L−2

= M 0 L2 T 0 .

LMT −1T −2

v = IR 2

−2

v has the dimension of [work] = MLT [charge] IT

∴

[R] =

[v] [I]

= ML2TI−3

2 −3 −1 I = MLT

−2

9.

on placing back face and bottom face in same plane

A →starting point minimum time 10.

St

=

G

→ final point

5a u

+ St +1 = 100

u+

1 2

2u +

f (2t − +1)+ u

1

+ f[(2t − = 1) 1] 100 2

1

f (2t− + 1 + 2t = 1) 100 2 2u + 2t = 100 u + ft = 50 v = 50 cm/s 11.

Let

hu= t + ⎜⎛ − 1 gt 2 ⎟⎞ ⎝ 2 ⎠ 25 = ut – 5t2 5t2 – ut = 25 = 0 t1, t2 be its roots t1 + t2 = u/5, t 1t2 = 5



ezyEXAMS.com ezyEXAMSOLUTION.com Given, t2 – t1 = 4 sec. (t2 – t1)2 = 16 ⇒ (t2 – t1)2 – 4t1t2 = 16 2

⎛ u ⎞ − 4 × 5 = 16 ⎜5⎟ ⎝ ⎠ 12.

13.

u = 30 m/sec. Distance covered in first 10 sec 1 S1 = (10)(10) 2 = 500 m 2 Remaining height from ground = 2495 – 500 = 1995 m u = gt = 10 × 10 = 100 m/s velocity on reaching the ground v2 = (100)2 + 2(–2.5) × 1995 v2 = 10000 – 9975 = 25 v = 5 m/s. V = a + bx (V increases as x increases) dV dx = b; =V dx dt dV = V⋅b So, acceleration = V dx hence acceleration increases as V increases with x. dr dv r = (t−2 +4t + 6)iˆ =tj2 ˆ = ; v − + (2t 4)iˆ 2t ˆj , a = dt dt 

14.









→

= 2iˆ + 2ˆj

→

a and v are perpendicular If → → a⋅ v = 0 (2iˆ + 2ˆ⋅j) ((2t − + 4)iˆ= 2t ˆj) 0 8t – 8 = 0 t = 1 sec. v

15.

1 11⎡

t

dv

∫ −kv − ∫ dt

⎢

3

v0

1 v2

2 k ⎣ v2

0

= 2kt +

1 v 20

⇒

v=

−

1

⎤ ⎥=t

v 02 ⎦

v0 2 1 + 2vk 0 t

16.

Plotting velocity v against time t, we get Area under the v–t curve gives distance 1 1 Distance = × × 2 +2× × 2= 2 4 m 2 2

17.

Instantaneous, acceleration = slope of v–t graph Hence, obviously, a – t graph will be as shown,




For maximum range, θ = 45º u

At the highest point, v = u cos θ = 19.

2 Range is same for 2θ and 4θ ∴ 2θ + 4θ = 90º ⇒ θ = 15º ∴ Ratio of ranges will be sin 30º : sin 60º : sin 120º 1 2

:

3 2

3

:

2

⇒

2

3

:2:2

20. 2=

2u y

⇒

g

Now, H = −u y t +

uy

= 10 m / s

1

gt 2 2 = –30 + 45 = 15 m

21.

y = 4t – t2, x = 3t dy dx Vy = = − 4 2t, = V=x dt dt ⇒ uvy = =y=t ==0 4, u x v x t = 0 The angle of projection: Vy 4 tan θ = = ⇒ Vx 3

22.

3

4 θ = tan −1 ⎛⎜ ⎞⎟ ⎝3⎠

Let initial and final speeds of stone be u and v ∴ v–2 2gh = u2 …(i) and v cos 30º = u cos 60º …(ii) solving 1 and 2 we get u

23.

3

=

3gh

From given data VM

î + 52

= 52

î

Velocity of man Velocity of wind VW

=5

2 î

The flag will flutter in the direction in which wind is blowing with respect to the man holding the flag.

⇒

VWM VWM

24.

= VW − VM = ( 5 ()2 ˆj −

)

5 2 î5+

2 ˆj

VWM = 52 ˆj = 52 (j−ˆ) This implies direction of wind with respect to man in south. Flag will flutter in south direction. (by Relative Motion) T=

⇒

2u sin 30º

2 × 10 3

g cos 30º

10

=

×=

1 3

2 sec

t = 2 sec.



ezyEXAMS.com ezyEXAMSOLUTION.com 25. 26.

The velocity of an object released in a moving frame is equal to that of the frame as observed from the frame V = 1iˆ + 1jˆ w

V = at V = (0.2) 10 = 2 m/sec. V = 2iˆ + 2ˆj boat

Vwboat Vwboat 17.

= Vw − Vboat = (1iˆ+ 1j) −ˆ +(2iˆ =−2ˆj)−

1iˆ 1jˆ

So, the flag will flutter towards south-west. Let velocity of man in still water be v and that of water with respect to ground be u. Velocity of man perpendicular to river flow with respect to ground

=

v2

− u2

Velocity of man downstream = v + u

− u 2 t = (v + u)T (v − u) t 2 = (v + u) 2 T 2 (v − u)t 2 = (v + u)T 2 v t2 + T2 = u t 2 − T2

As given,

⇒ ⇒ ∴

2

v2 2

28.

It is clear from the figure that acceleration does not change sign, i.e., does not change in direction. Only the ∴ Velocity keeps on increasing Hence displacement also keeps on increasing.

29.

(Moderate) Speed of river is u and speed of boat relative to water is v. Speed of boat B observed from ground

30.

31.

32.

= u 2 + v2 = u2 − v2

Speed of boat B observed from ground From river frame, speed of boat A and B will be same. Relative to the person in the train, acceleration of the stone is ‘g’ downward, a (acceleration of train) backwards. 1 1 According to him : x = at 2 , Y = gt 2 2 2 X a g ⇒ = ⇒ =Y ⇒ x straight line. Y g a y = – 2/3 x + 5/3 dy = −2 / 3 ⇒ dx y = tan x cos2x dy tan x d (cos 2 x) + cos 2 x d (tan x) dx = dx dx = tan x(–2) cos sin x + cos 2x sec2x = 1 – 2 sin2x

33.

Let t2 = y

⇒ 2t = dy ⇒

= ∫⋅ sin = −y ∫ y dt = ∫ t sin(t )dt 2

dy

1

2

2

( cos y)




y = sin(2x + 3)

⇒ 2dx = dt yd +3)dx ∫ x = sin(2x ∫

Let 2x + 3 = t dt

1

2

2

= ∫ sin t = − π /2

35.

cos(2x + 3)

−(= cos(t)) + π /2

∫ sin x dx = [ − cos x ]

0

C

2

=1

0

37.

In first case 2ab θ cos

c = a+2 + b 2 In second case R = a+2 + b 2

2ab θ cos

⇒ c=R →

→

In first case c is at an angle β with horizontal and In second case R is at angle (α – β) with horizontal. AB (3i ⋅ −ˆ ⋅ −4]( î ˆj) 7 Component = = = | B| 2 2 F2 sin 30º = R 

38. 39.

F2

=



100

sin30º F2 = 200 N

=

3iˆ + 4ˆj

15iˆ

×2 + 7=2 +242

20ˆj

40.

Vector

41.

Assertion is false, because direction of velocity is not specified. It is not necessary that when acceleration is negative positive slow down. As when both velocity and acceleration are negative or positive then particle will increase its speed. Reason is true as direction of acceleration is independent of velocity. A particle is projected vertically upwards. In duration of time from projection till T reaches baxk to point of projection, average velocity is zero. Hence statement I is false. Acceleration of each of the projectile = g .

2

3

42.

45.

+4





Relative acceleration a r

−g − g = 0. 






46.

We know that ionic characters = 16[E−A

+E B×] 3.5 − [E A E B ]2

or ionic characters = 72.24% 47.

Configuration of O2 molecule is

[σ(1s) σ2

∗

(1s) 2σ(2s) 2π σ

* (2s) π 2 (2p x ) 2 (2p y ) 2 σ(2p)z

2

π∗ (2p x )1 π∗ (2p y )]1

No. of pair are 7 so total no. of paired electrons are 14. 48.

The correct order of increasing dipole moment is p-dichlorobenzene < Toluene < m-dichlorobenzene < o-dichlorobenzene.

49.

Ammonia molecule is more basic than nitrogen trifluoride and Boron trifluoride because ammonia molecule easily gives lone pair of electron.

50.

[ NF3 and H3O ] are pyramidal while [ NO3 and BF3 ] are planar. Hence answer (c) is correct.

51.

B.O. in CO i.e., : C = O : is 3, that of O = C = O is 2 while that of CO 3

+

−

−

+

2−

increases as the bond order decreases i.e. CO < CO 2

< CO

2− 3

ion is 1.33. Since the bond length

. Thus option (d) is correct.

52.

3 BeF3− does not show sp –hybridization because this compound is not formed.

53.

N +2 has one unpaired electron so it would be paramagnetic.

54.

Each of the species has 14 electron so isoelectronic and shows bond order 3. B.O. =

55.

2

[N

1

6

2

2

− N a ] = [10− =4]=

3.

CuSO4 .5H2 O has electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bonds.

Cu

56.

1

2+

O ⎡ ⎤ ⎢ − ↑ −⎥ ⎢ O − S↓ → O ⎥ .5H 2O . O ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦

F− have the same number of electrons with the neon atom.




e m

0

= =0

for (i) neutron

(ii)

α−

1

(iii) Proton

E = hv = h E1 E2

59.

=

c

λ

4

1

= =1

(iv) electron

58.

2

= = 0.5

particle

1

=

1

= 1837 .

1/1837

i.e. E ∝

1

λ

λ 2 4000 = = 2. λ1 2000

According to Bohr’s model

= 2.179 ×10−11 −

ΔE = E1 − E3

2.179 ×1011 9

8

= × 2.179 ×10−11 = 1.91×10−11 = 0.191×10−10 erg 9

Since electron is going from n

= 1 to n = 3

=−

hence energy is absorbed.

13.6

eV

=

−13.6

= −3.4eV in which n = 2,3, 4 etc.

60.

Values of energy in the excited state

61.

42g of N 3 ions have 16 N A valence electrons 4.2 g of N 3 ion have

=

62.

Frequency

ν = 12 ×1014 s −1 and v 12 ×1014 ν= = = × 4 104 cm−1 c 31× 010

−1

63.

E=

n

2

−

−13.6 = 2 n

4 −

−13.6 −= 4

16 N A 42

× 4.2 = 1.6N A .

velocity of light c = 3 ×10 cms . We know that the wave number 10

3.4 eV

We know that energy required for excitation

ΔE = E2 − E1 =− 3.4 −−

( 13.6) = 10.2 eV




Let the number of photons required be n. nhc

λ n

65.

=

= 10 −17

10

−17

×λ

hc

10

=

c

31× 08

v

8 ×10

λ= =

=

−17

× 550 × 10 −9 = 27.6 ≈ 28 photons −34 × 3 × 10 8

6.626 × 10

15

× 3.75 10−8 = 3.75 ×10−8 ×109 nm = 4 ×101 nm . 2

66.

As we go down the group inertness of ns pair increase hence tendency to exhibit +2 oxidation state increases and that of +4 oxidation state decreases.

67.

CaO is basic; CO2 is acidic; SiO2 is weakly acidic. SnO2 is amphoteric.

68.

Correct order of electron affinity is O < Se < S.

69.

BCNO < < < ; When we move from B to O in a periodic table the first ionisation enthalpy increase due to the attraction of nucleus towards the outer most of electron.

70.

The basic nature of oxide decreases across the period as metallic character decreases. Therefore acidic nature of oxide increases.

71.

Increasing order of electronegativity is Bi
72.

Because for removing second electron, it has to be taken out from stable configuration that needs a large amount of energy.

73.

All the noble gases occupy the peaks of I.E. curve.

74.

1s2 2s 2 p6 3s2 - In III transition e− is to be removed from stable configuration.

75.

Electronegativity increases on going from left to right in a period. Thus electronegativity of F > O > N − %Cl .

76.

16g O 2 has no. of moles

14g N 2 has no. of moles

=

16 32

=

=

14 28

1 2

=

1 2

No. of moles are same, so no. of molecules are same. 77.

Molarity

=

W(gm) ×1000 molecular wt. × V(ml.)

=

2.65 × 1000 106 × 250

= 0.1M



ezyEXAMS.com ezyEXAMSOLUTION.com 10ml of this solution is diluted to 1000 ml N1V1

= N2 V2

10 × 0.1 = 1000 × x x= 78.

0.1× 10 1000

= 0.001M .

44g of CO2 has 2 × 6 × 10 atoms of oxygen 23

4.4g of CO2 has =

79.

Density =

12 ×1023 44

Mass Volume

; 1=

× 4.4 = 1.2 ×1023

g ml

atoms.

or g = ml

0.0018ml = 0.0018gm No. of moles =

∴ 80.

weight

0.0018

Molecular weight

18

No. of water molecules = 6.023 ×10

Amount of gold = 19.7kg

No. of moles

∴

= ×=

=

19700 197

No. of atoms

23

1 10−4

×1×10−4 = 6.023 ×1019 .

= 19.7 ×1000gm =19700gm

= 100

= 100 × 6.023 ×1023 = 6.023 ×1025 atoms. = 6.023 ×1023

81.

16gm of CH 4 = 1mole

84.

The no. of molecules present in 1ml of gas at STP is known as Laschmidt number.

molecules.

22400ml of gas has total no. of molecules

= 6.023 ×1023

1ml of gas has total no. of molecules

85.

Molecular weight of SO2Cl2

Q

=

6.023 ×1023 22400

= 2.69 ×1019 .

= 32+ 32 + × 2 35.5 = 135gm

135 gm of SO2Cl2 = 1gm molecule




∴

13.5gm of SO2Cl2

=

1 135

× 13.5 = 0.1 .

86.

Polarity in covalent bond developed due to shifting of electrons towards one of the bonded atoms.

87.

Pure water always contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio 1: 8 by mass. This is in accordance with the law of constant composition.

88.

Calcium has a higher nuclear charge than sodium.

89.

We know that principal quantum number represent the main energy level or energy shell. Since each energy level is associated with a definite amount of energy, this quantum number determines to a large extent the energy of an electron. It also determines the average distance of an electron around the nucleus. Therefore both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. We know that a resonance hybrid or the actual molecule is always more stable than any of its canonical structures which is also called hypothetical or imaginary structures. This stability is due to delocalization of electrons and is measured in terms of resonance energy or delocalization energy, it is defined as the difference in internal energy of the resonance hybrid and the most stable canonical structure. Therefore both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

90.

BOTANY 91.

This is the diagram of bacteriophage, front part is head which is jointed with sheath by collar. Six tail fibers are associated with sheath.

92.

Nostoc is filamentous blue-green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrates, nitrites and ammonia and use the released energy for their ATP production.

93.

The intermediate phase between two stages (plasmogamy and karyogamy) is known as dikaryophase. It gives rise to secondary mycelium. It has multiple septate hyphae. The septa have spores and hook shaped outgrowths. They are known as clamp connections. Septa mycelia multiply by formation of many spores including uredospores and chlamydospores. In basidia, karyogamy and meiosis occur which leads to the production of basidiospores.

94.

Zoospores, sporangiospores and aplanosporg are asexual spores. An oospore is a thick walled sexual spore that develops from a fertilized oosphere (union of oogonium and antheridium) in fungi and some algae. Ascospores and basidiospore are sexual spores of ascomycertes and basidiomy cetes respectively.

95.

Morels i.e. are Rhizopus member of group. Basidiomycetes a groupdeuteromycetes of smut fungi is and rust fungi. moulds andascomycetes of zygomycetesiswhereas a group called Bread fungi Mucor are members imperfecti.

96.

Yeast is unicellular fungi which do not produces conidia.

97.

Somatic parts of slime moulds are without cell walls. They are surrounded by the cell membrane only.




It is bacteria undergoing binary fission which is main mode of reproduction.

99.

The main role of bacteria in carbon cycle is breakdown of organic compounds. They are termed as Nature's scavengers as they help in preventing the accumulation of dead remains of plants and animals.

100.

All of them are heterotroph.

101.

Autotrophic bacteria do not use water as raw material in the process of food synthesis, so it cannot produce oxygen in photosynthesis.

102.

Lichens cannot survive in highly polluted atmosphere therefore they are called pollution indicators.

103.

Compared to many other organisms, bacteria as a group show the most extensive metabolic diversity. Some of the bacteria are autotrophic. They may be photosynthetic autotrophic or chemosynthetic autotrophic while vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs. Bacteria are the members of kingdom monera.

105.

Cyanobacteria are prokaryotic organisms. All prokaryotes are placed in the kindom monera.

106.

Bacteriophage has a proteinaceous head in which a double stranded DNA is tightly packed. In general, virus that infact plants have single stranded RNA.

107.

Citrus canker is bacterial disease caused by bacteria Xanthomonas citri.

108.

The cell wall in archaebacteria contains pseudomurein and non cellulosic polysaccharides. It lacks peptidoglycans.

109.

Nitrogen in cyanobacteria mainly free occurs in walled specialized called heterocysts. Heterocysts sized, palefixation coloured, non motile, mucilage thick cellscells which are impermeable to oxygen. are large

110.

Diatoms are found in the fresh water as well as in the marine environment. The cell walls of diatoms form two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap box. The cell wall of is embedded with silica and accumulation of them over billion years is referred to as "diatomaceous earth". Being gritty and less slippery, this soil is used in polishing, filtration of oil and syrups.

111.

These are the diagrams of fungi. (a) Mucor

(b) Agaricus

(c) Aspergillus.

They are members of zygomycetes, Basidiomycetes and ascomycetes respectively. Sexual reproduction in them are held by gametangial coupulation in zygomycetes and gametangial contact in ascomycetes. In basidiomycetes sexual reproduction is done by the method somatogamy in which fusion of two hyphal cells of two mating type (+) and ( ‒) occurs. 112.

The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by Pasteur. D.J. Ivanowsky recognised certain microbes as causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco. These were found to be smaller than bacteria because they passed through bacteria proof filters. M.W. Beijerinck demonstrated that the extract of infected plant of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants and called the fluid as Contagium vivum fluidum.

113.

White rust disease on crucifers (mustard) is caused by Albugo candida. Rhizopus is bread / black mould.

114.

Mayr is also known as Darwin of 20th century.




On the basis of mode of nutrition, the protists are grouped as photosynthetic, slime moulds and protozoans.

116.

Ability of viruses to be crystallized is non living characteristic.

117.

In basidiomycetes, basidiospores are produced exogenously, unlike ascomycetes where ascospores are produced endogenously.

118.

TMV has single stranded RNA.

119.

Monograph contains descriptive information of any one taxon.

120.

Ferns are not prokaryotes. They are pteridophytes and eukaryotic. Chlamydomonas and Chlorella were earlier placed in algae due to presence of cell wall but in R.H. Whittakar system of classification it is placed in protista. Paramecium and Amoeba are placed in protista as protozoans.

121.

Taxonomic aids flora and monographs both help in correct identification of organism. Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area while monograph contains information's of any one taxon. Key is based on similarities and dissimilarities and herbarium is store house of collected plants specimens that are dried.

122.

Biological names are generally Latin and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived from Latin irrespective of their srcin.

123.

Systematic takes into account evolutionary relationships between organisms. Therefore, the study of biological diversity and evolutionary the study of biological diversity and evolutionary relationships between living and extinct organisms is most accurately referred to systematic.

124.

Primata, Diptera and Poales are order names of organisms Home sapiens, Musca domestica and Triticum aestivum respectively.

125.

Pardus and Leo are two different species and both belong to the genus Panthera. Genus Felis includes cats.

Same as species is a group of individuals with highest fundamental similarities and minimum number of organisms. 126.

Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the family polynomials mainly bases on the floral characters.

127.

Keys are taxonomic aids for identification of plants and animals based on similarities and dissimilarities among organisms. It is based on contrasting characters generally in a pair called couplet.

128.

Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens only which are dried. Animals do not preserved as dry specimens in herbarium.

129.

Measles and Rabies are diseases caused by virus. Rabies virus belongs to the Rhabdoviridae family which attacks the CNS while measles is caused by a paromyxovirus (RNA virus).

130.

Mycoplasma are organisms that completely lack a cell wall. They are small living cells known and can survive without oxygen. They are pleomorphic and prokaryotic cell therefore no definite shape is found and nucleus or any membrane bound cell organelle is absent.

131.

In living being growth is intrinsic but non-living thing can also grow.




Archae bacteria can survive in extreme condition because of their cell wall structure.

133.

Viroids are naked RNA that infect plant cells and use host machinery for replication.

134.

In kingdom monera, cell wall be unique polymers of amino sygars (N-acytyl glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid) and amino acids, called peptidoglycans but it is not derived from phospholipids.

135.

Species is group of closely related individual with fundamental similarity.

137.

Sea anemone is Adamsia. It is a member of phylum Cnidaria.

138.

Sycon is crown sponge or urn sponge, Spongilla is fresh water sponge, Euplectella is Venus’s flower basket. It

is given as wedding gift in Japan. 139.

Flatworms are free living as well as parasites, these don not show bioluminescence and these are acoelomates.

140.

Pheretima is common Indian earthworm, it is a member of phylum Annelida.

141.

Molluscs are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical coelomate animals with organ-system level of body organisation.

144.

The given figure is of Octopus, it is a member of phylum Mollusca.

146.

Parapodia are extensions of body wall present in many annelids. Gastrovascular cavity has a single opening in cnidarians. Hirudinaria is leech and it doesn’t have hooks.

147.

Circular muscles are absent in roundworms.

150.

These respiratory structures are found in members of phylum Arthropoda.

151.

Echinodermata is exclusively marine phylum and these animals have endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.

155.

Water vascular system is characteristic feature of Echinoderms.

156.

Locust is an arthropod, brittle star and sea urchin are echinoderms and Ctenoplana is a member of phylum Ctenophora.

160.

Osculum is a large aperture which allows the exit of water. Water enters through ostia.

161.

Sea fan is Gorgonia, Sea pen is Pennatula.

162.

Plasmodium causes malaria, Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness and Entamoeba causes intestinal

disorders. 164.

Apis is honey bee. Planaria is free living.



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