Top of Form Question # 1 (Multiple Answer) Antimalarials: dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors A) chloroquine (Aralen) B) chloroguanide C) pyrimethamine (Daraprim) D) trimethoprim (generic) E) primaquine
Question # 2 (Multiple Answer) Characteristics of significant parasitization, i.e. P falciparum: A) vasoconstriction B) hemoglobinuria C) microthrombi formation D) if > 20% of erythrocytes are parasitized, mortality = 50% (P falciparum) Question # 3 (Multiple Answer) One cycle of liver invasion and multiplication: A) P vivax B) P falciparum
C) P. malariae D) P ovale
Question # 4 (Multiple Choice) Factors which determine antimalarial agent efficacy: A) species B) life-cycle stage-dependencies C) both D) neither
Question # 5 (Multiple Choice) Asserting a malarial diagnosis: A) fever/flu-like symptoms in individual returning from travel (or native to) a malarious geographical region B) disease ruled out the patient has taken prophylactic drugs during travel C) both D) neither
Question # 6 (Multiple Answer) Malaria prophylaxis:for regions with chloroquine (Aralen)-resistant P falciparum malaria A) preferred: mefloquine (Lariam) B) alternative #1:doxycycline (Vibramycin, Doryx) C) alternative #2: chloroquine (Aralen) plus proguanil (Paludrine)
Question # 7 (Multiple Answer) Malaria: etiology -A) only arthropod vector-byte to the female anopheline mosquito B) transmission does not occur at < 60 degrees Fahrenheit or at >100 degrees Fahrenheit C) incubation period: typically three-four weeks
Question # 8 (Multiple Answer) Antimalarials: classification based on site of drug action: A) gametocides B) tissue schizonticides C) blood schizonticides, e.g. chloroquine (Aralen), proguanil (Paludrine), pyrimethamine (Daraprim), mefloquine (Lariam), quinine (Quinamm) D) gametocides: primaquine (P falciparum; chloroquine (Aralen) (P vivax, P. malariae, P ovale) Question # 9 (Multiple Answer) Treatment of malaria-all species except chloroquine (Aralen)-resistant P falciparum A) Oral treatment (P falciparum or P. malariae): chloroquine phosphate (Aralen) B) Oral treatment (P vivax or P ovale): chloroquine (Aralen) plus primaquine phosphate C) Parenteral treatment (severe attacks): quinidine gluconate (Quinaglute, Quinalan) followed by oral chloroquine (Aralen) when possible {followed by primaquine if infection is caused by P vivax or P ovalea brace Question # 10 (Multiple Answer) Malaria: objective clinical presentations
A) orthostatic hypotension B) faint scleral icterus C) meningismus D) during paroxysmal phase: high fever (up to 106 degrees Fahrenheit) Question # 11 (Multiple Answer) Malaria: A) about one million deaths per year due to malaria B) most important parasitic infection C) most U.S. cases found in transfusion recipients and intravenous drug users D) increase in incidence secondary to increasing drug- resistance to P falciparum & failure of mosquito eradication programs Question # 12 (Multiple Answer) Major malarial symptoms: A) cold phase-patient complains of chills B) hot phase-associated with high fever, headache, vomiting, nausea, delirium C) defervescence;profuse sweating and sleep D) none of the above
Question # 13 (True/False) Treatment of malaria caused by chloroquine (Aralen)-resistant P falciparum:oral:quinine sulfate and clindamycin (Cleocin)
A) True B) False
Question # 14 (Multiple Answer) Treatment must eliminate parasites from both liver and erythrocytes: A) P falciparum B) P. malariae C) P vivax D) P ovale
Question # 15 (Multiple Choice) Of the plasmodium species causative for human malaria, the one producing most serious complications: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium ovale D) plasmodium falciparum
Question # 16 (Multiple Answer) Concerning definitive malaria diagnosis: A) if thin blood smear is negative, examine thick smear {may be positive than 20%-25% of patients} B) examination of blood smear should be done once approximately seven days after initial visit
C) a critical factor is to determine if patient has falciparum malaria which may be fatal due to high-rate of erythrocyte parasitization Bottom of Form
1. All protozoan pathogens have a ……………… phase. a. cyst b. sexual c. trophozoite d. blood 2. Which species of Trypanosoma is not a human pathogen? a.T.cruzi b. T.rangeli c. T.gambiense d. T. Rhidesiense 3. A malarial infected person by blood transfusion does not have ………… in his body. a. hypnosoite b. trophozoite c. schizont d. gametocyte 4. Rosette in RBC is a specific shape of ………… . a. P.vivax b. P.falciparum c. P.ovale d. P.malariae 5. ……………….. enzymes may be destroyed in infected persons by Giardia lamblia. a. Lipase b. Cytolysin c. Collagenase d. Phosphatase acid 6. What is the pathogenic agent responsible for chiclero ulcer? a. L.tropica b. L.major c. L.mexicana d. L.braziliensis 7. Which disease is related to Winterbottom’s sign? a. Sleeping sickness b. Chagas disease c. Kalaazar d. Toxoplasmosis 8. Which of the following items is more important for differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and Entamoeba dispar? a. Genomic methods b. Inoculation to specific culture media c. Electron microscopic examination d. All items are correct 9. What is the result of exflagellation of Plasmodium? a. Microgamet b. Micrgametocyte c. Macrogamet d.Macrogametocyte 10. Which one is not zoonosis? a. Cryptosporidium parvum b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Balantidium coli d. Toxoplasma gondii 11. Which parasite is related to Oriental sore? a. L.aethiopica b. L.infantum c. L.tropica d. L.donovani 12. Which parasitic form is related to congenital toxoplasmosis? a. Tachyzoite b. Trophozoite c. Oocyst d. Tissue cyst
13. Flask shaped ulcers in human intestine are related to ………………….. . a. Giardiasis b. Cryptosporidiosis c. Cyclosporidiasis d. Amoebiasis 14. Trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii multiply by ……………….. . a. Endodyogeny b. Schizogoni c. Binary fission d. Sporogony 15. All different forms of Toxoplasma gondii can be present in the body of……………….. . a. Cat b. Human c. Mice d. Cow 16. What is the composition of amebic chromatoidal bars? a. Ribonucleoprotein b. Glycogen c. Glycoprotein d. Lipoprotein 17. In which of the following amoeba, it is not possible to see peripheral chromatin in nucleus? a. E.hartmanii b. E.coli c. E.nana d. E.dispar 18. Where is the site of pre-erythrocytic cycle of malaria? a. Anophel b. Paranchymal cells of liver c. Kopfer cells of liver d. spleen 19. ……………parasites in fecal specimens are infective forms of oocysts. a. Cyclospora b. Isospora c. Cryptosporidium d. Toxoplasma 20. Specie identification is not possible, only by microscopic morphology observation of ………. parasites isolated from infected human. a. Entamoeba b. Plasmodium c. Leishmania d. Trypanosoma 21. Entamoeba histolytica primarily invades the …………………… . a. liver b. large large intestine c. small intestine d. lungs 22. An oocyst is found in ……….. and a pseudocyst is found in …….. . a. humans,cats b. cats,humans c. feces,tissue d. tissue,feces 23. A person can aquire toxoplasmosis from …………………… . a. pseudocyst in raw meat b. oocyst in air c. cleaning out the cat litter box d. all of these 24. Malarial anemia is …………………… type. a. megaloblastic b. Microcytic hypochromic c. Normocytic normochromic d. Normoctic hypochrome 25. Which form of leishmania is injected to animal model for lishmanization? a. Epimastigote b. Trypomastigote c. Promastigote d. Amastigote
