EPIDEMIOLOGY, HEALTH STATISTICS & RESEARCH 1. The 95 percent confidence interval for a sample mean value represents: A. The range in which the true population mean is most likely to exist. B. The author’s belief that the presented data are true. C. The range in which 95 percent of the sample values fall. D. A test for statistical significance of the mean value. 2. OF the following statements, which best describes the specificity of a clinical test? A. The proportion of non-diseased individuals who have a negative test B. The proportion of diseased individuals who have a positive test C. The proportion of diseased and non-diseased individuals who are correctly categorized by the test D. The proportion of test-negative individuals who are free of disease Data from clinical studies are reported frequently in the form of “2 by 2” tables. A 2 by 2 table for a hypothetical test is shown below: Test Result Positive Negative
Disease Present 50 30
3. What is the test sensitivity? A. 63 percent B. 29 percent
Disease Absent 20 50
C. 71 percent D. 38 percent
4. What is the positive predictive value? A. 71 percent C. 38 percent B. 47 percent D. 33 percent 5. You have decided to conduct a research project in your office. A number of steps should be taken to assure a successful study. What is the first step you should complete in planning your project? A. Formulate the study question. B. Consult with a statistician. C. Design a form for collecting data. D. Determine the necessary sample size. 6. You have conducted a clinical trial in which you measured blood pressure in the same patients during a control period and after 2 weeks of treatment with an experimental antihypertensive medication. Systolic blood pressure was the characteristic you measured. You now want to determine whether there was a significant difference in the average (mean) systolic blood pressure between the control and treatment periods. Which of the following is the most appropriate statistical procedure for this determination? 7. A. Paired t test C. two sample t test B. Chi-square D. correlation coefficient 8. Experimental studies: A. Are the most effective studies to assess causal relationships. B. Are synonymous with observational studies. C. Require that subjects be randomly assigned to exposure and nonexposure groups at all times. D. Excludes community trials.
1
9. Which of the following statements is true regarding prospective cohort studies? A. They measure the relative risk of developing a disease for an individual with an exposure. B. Individuals are grouped on the basis of their disease status. C. Subject attrition is not a major potential flaw. D. They cannot be used to observe multiple exposures and conditions. E. They are poor in elucidating temporal relationships between exposure and disease. 10. Which of the following statements is true regarding cross-sectional studies? A. They assess exposure and disease status simultaneously. B. They can yield information regarding disease incidence. C. They are more time-consuming to perform than case-control or cohort studies. D. They are an effective design to determine casual relationships. E. They are not an appropriate methodology to draw conclusions from chart databases or census data. 11. Which of the following is an example of cohort studies? A. Men are grouped as to whether or not they have had radioactive exposure; then their existing medical records are evaluated for a diagnosis of lung cancer. B. Women are grouped as to whether or not they have chronic obstructive lung disease; then they are asked about their occupational history. C. Women are given a questionnaire assessing weight and menstrual symptoms. D. A group of elderly veterans are followed for adverse reactions to the flu vaccine. 12. A family physician believes that sterile butterfly stripping is just as effective as suturing with regard to the closure of simple lacerations. To test his theory, he uses sterile butterfly strips to close the next 25 lacerations that he sees in his office. He reports that 96 percent of the lacerations had excellent results. Which of the following statements is true regarding this experiment? A. This is a case-series design. B. This design is an ineffective one for the initial study of the phenomenon. C. It can be assumed that all lacerations were equivalent with regard to location, extent, and mechanism of injury. D. The next phase of study should be a prevalence design. E. Sterile butterfly stripping is at least equivalent to suturing with regard to its ability to attain adequate wound closure. 13. In double-blind randomized clinical trials: A. The distribution of characteristics between the exposure and nonexposure groups is determined by chance. B. The investigator is aware of who is and who is not getting the exposure. C. The subjects are not aware that they are taking part in a research protocol. D. The subjects are permitted to choose whether they want to be in the exposure or non-exposure group.
2
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH, INDUSTRIAL MEDICINE & MEDICAL SOCIOLOGY 14. The following agent/s causing diffuse mottling of the lungs: A. Bagasse C. Silica B. Candida D. TB 15. Substitute/s causing neurological problems: A. Mercury C. Asbestos B. Silica D. Bagasse 16. Pneumoconiosis is caused by: A. Asbestos B. Cotton dust
C. Bagassosis D. Bagasse
17. This mineral dust is incurable and may lead to the development of Tuberculosis: A. Silica C. Cryptococcus B. Histoplasma D. Aspergillosis 18. An important component of an occupational history is: A. temporal relationship of symptoms with work time B. associated symptoms among family members C. family illnesses D. dietary history 19. The most exposed industry to ergonomic problems: A. Manufacturing C. Fishing B. Mining D. Agriculture 20. Threshold limit value – is the time weighted average concentration which nearly all workers can be exposed daily without adverse effect for the following number of work hours/workweek: A. 40-hour workweek C. 48-hour workweek B. 12-hour workday D. 6 hours work shift SANITATION, ENVIRONMENTAL MEDICINE & HUMAN ECOLOGY 21. Considered most dangerous with regards to possible disease spread: A. clinical carrier C. non-immunized B. clinical stage patient D. terminally ill patient 22. This allows organic material to undergo bio and photo degradation, resulting in simple organic molecules that can actually be beneficial to the environment: A. Composting C. Source reduction B. Reuse and recycling D. All of the above 23. An example of an agent-environment interaction is: A. Population of a “carrier” making use of an infected water supply both for drinking and food preparation B. Vitamin C tablets placed in colored bottles C. Fly control program D. Business’s favorite of eating “sushi” in Japanese restaurants 24. What treatment is needed if the bacteriological quality of water is 5,00050,000 coliforms/100 ml? A. Double treatment C. Disinfection B. Look for another source D. Chlorination 25. The most critical step in waste reduction and recycling is: A. Waste segregation C. collection of solid waste B. incineration D. transfer and transport 26. The main objective of solid waste processing is: A. to recover whatever may be reusable 3
B. to provide livelihood for scavengers C. to discover other sources of income D. to minimize bulk of waste to be dumped at sea 27. The most important public health issues addressed by correct waste management: A. Composting of solid waste from laboratories B. Control of vectors of infectious disease C. Eradication of mosquito causing Dengue DC. Improvement of parks and public places FAMILY MEDICINE 28. Biopsychosocial Model focuses on: A. Multifactorial causes of C. Organ system dysfunction illness B. Disease oriented D. Biological orientation 29. The most challenging and rewarding stage for the physician in the Family Illness Trajectory: A. Major therapeutic efforts B. Accuracy of diagnosis C. Early adjustment to possible outcome D. Adjustment to permanency of outcome 30. It is process which encompasses screening for abnormalities, early detection of disorders that can be alleviated, and likewise the prevention of ill-health: A. Family Health Care C. Family Illness Trajectory B. Family Life Cycle D. Family Assessment Tools 31. The nature of illness whose characteristics of experience provide little time for physical and psychological adjustment for family members: A. Acute illness C. Terminal illness B. Chronic illness D. Debilitating illness 32. The most difficult stage of the Family Illness Trajectory for the patient: A. Accuracy of diagnosis B. Adjustment to permanency of outcome C. Major therapeutic efforts D. Early adjustment to possible outcome 33. This household is in the typical case-economically independent subsisting in the first instance from the occupational earnings of the husband-father: A. Nuclear family C. Extended family B. Corporate family D. Blended family 34. An acronym that stands for factors affecting health which can be considered resource and pathology: A. SCREEM C. Family APGAR B. Family Circle D. Family Genogram 35. Component of the Family Genogram that projects the dynamism of family relationships: A. Functional chart C. Family Illness and history B. Family resources D. Pedigree or Family Tree 36. A Genogram using functional symbols: A. depicts relationships B. focuses on the most ill family member C. emphasizes the problem of the patient D. therapeutic interventions 37. The “therapeutic Triangle” in Medicine refers to which of the following? A. Patient/family/health care team B. Patient/family, health care institution, health care team 4
C. Patient/family, friends/extended family, health care team D. Patient, health care team, community 38. What stage of the Family Life Cycle is characterized by parents developing adult type relationships between the grown children and themselves? A. Family with adolescent C. Unattached Young Adult B. Newly married couple D. Family in later life 39. What family process involves ordered sequences of interaction that typify how family functions? A. Family pattern C. Triangulation B. Disengagement D. Enmeshment 40. Which of the following is characteristic of the hospice program? A. available 24 hours a day B. designed for marginalized population C. renders only medical care D. composed of nurse and physician only 41. During the interview process, which of the following will most likely put the patient on the defensive, that is, make the patient feel that his or her problem or behavior must be justified and defended? A. Beginning the question with C. Laundry-list questions “Why?” B. Direct question D. Open-ended questions 42. This is a component of the family health care plan which involves health maintenance for each Family member: A. Preventive C. Therapeutic B. Diagnostic D. Rehabilitative 43. A family meeting should be done in the following situation: A. 16 y/o old female, first pregnancy B. 12 y/o female with acne C. 4 y/o old boy with acute nasopharyngitis D. 30 y/o old male for annual employment physical HEALTH ADMINISTRATION & MANAGEMENT, PUBLIC HEALTH 44. A characteristic of Primary health care that differentiates it from the traditional health delivery system: A. Community participation in the stages of planning B. Assurance of financial backing of the government C. Coverage of the majority of the population E. Drug provision for all indigent patients 45. Fecal occult blood is a screening test for: A. colorectal CA C. Inflammatory bowel disease B. cervical cancer D. hemorrhoids 46. Criteria that justifies doing screening test: A. Can identify patients likely to have the disease at pre-symptomatic stage B. Can identify patients who have the disease at symptomatic stage C. Can identify patients who will not benefit from treatment D. Can identify patients who will not benefit from rehabilitation 47. Which of the health maintenance plan is true for adult patients? A. FBS should be done for obese 40 y/o female with family history of hypertension B. Fecal occult blood is recommended for 50 years old and above C. VDRL/RPR should be done on all males D. Electrocardiogram should be done on all 50 years old and above
5
48. Which of the following statements about chemoprophylaxis is true? A. Low dose aspirin for men 65 years old and above prevents heart disease B. Estrogen with progestin increases the risk of endometrial cancer C. Estrogen replacement therapy decrease the risk of osteoporosis when started in women 40 years old and below D. Chemoprophylaxis is warranted only in younger patients 49. A health promotion measure: A. Utilization of health/medical services B. Use of mosquito repellant C. Vitamin supplementation to increase body resistance D. Isolating patients with infectious diseases 50. A rehabilitation measure: A. Organized feeding program B. Use of iodized salt because of prevalence of goiter C. Teaching to deaf mute children sign language or/and lip reading D. Prescribing eyeglasses to those with initial stage of nearsightedness (myopia) 51. The process of isolating patients with Flu falls under: A. Specific protection C. Disability limitation B. Early diagnosis and D. Health promotion treatment 52. Factors affecting community reaction: A. Previous exposure C. Virulence of agent B. Chance contact D. Volume of agent 53. An epidemic occurs due to: A. Absence of an immune barrier B. Inadequacy of therapeutic measures C. Emergence of a new strain of the disease agent D. Migration of a population group 54. Considered a missed human reservoir of disease: A. Undiagnosed and therefore unreported case of a disease B. Patient wrongly diagnosed because of inadequate laboratory work-up C. Seek medical consultation D. Correctly diagnosed patient but unreported case 55. Increase in life expectancy is mainly due to: A. Decrease in mortality in the younger age groups B. Improvement in health information dissemination C. Better diagnostic facilities D. Discovery of effective drugs 56. Preventive measures are most effective when applied to a person: A. unaffected C. affected symptomatic B. affected asymptomatic D. without complications 57. Mila’s father and mother both have diabetes. She consulted because of polyuria. Which determinant of health is explored in the history? A. Genetic inheritance C. Social factors B. Belief systems D. Nutrition 58. Denotes a non-human carrier of infection’s organisms that can transmit disease directly to humans: A. Vectors C. Plasmodium Sp. B. Rodents D. All of the above
6
59. Step in epidemiological method of investigation include: A. Discovering historical occurrence of diseases B. Formulation of community diagnosis of health and disease C. Estimation of morbidity and mortality rates D. Making critical appraisal of existing information 60. Which statement is TRUE about the Control of Diarrheal disease program? A. Emphasizes home therapy by continued feeding and increase fluid intake B. Aims to eradicate food and water borne diseases C. Targets children under 5 - 7 years old D. Promotes the use of anti-diarrheal drugs as mainstay of treatment 61. In making objectives for health education, the following is important: A. They are worded in terms of learner behavior B. An affective objective requires hands-on experience C. Evaluation clarifies what need to be strengthened D. Instructor ability is important in planning the learning activity. 62. Partnership approach to community health development is among the: A. private sector, government sector and the community B. community and its local government leaders C. international and national agencies D. private and government practitioners 63. The first contact of the community to the health chain, as defined by the PHC system is the: A. village health workers C. hospital personnel B. intermediate level health workers D. barangay captain 64. The health status of a community may be measured or expressed in terms of: A. its statistical indices of morbidity and mortality B. availability of health care services C. availability of public utilities D. utilization of health care services 65. Community planning should start with: A. formation of objectives B. identification of roles and their relationships C. educational analysis D. determination of resources 66. Identifying and prioritizing health problems is part of this planning process: A. situational analysis C. plan investigation B. plan implementation D. plan formulation 67. Best people to identify and prioritize community health problems: A. community residents C. health workers B. social workers D. consultants 68. The initial step in planning for the provision of health and medical care services for a community is to: A. define the health problems C. set the objectives B. determine the projected budge D. decide on what services to provide 69. The gross domestic product adjusted with the net factor income from the rest of the world: A. Gross National Product C. Gross Domestic Product B. Gross Value Added D. Consumer Price Index
7
70. The objectives in the tertiary prevention of non-communicable diseases include the following: A. help the patient function maximally within the restrictions imposed by the disease B. removal of the agent from the environment C. screening D. immunization 71. In computing the cost of illness, the following data are needed: A. Average daily income or wage B. Average days of non-morbid condition C. Average cost of savings D. Number of death 72. Health education involves: A. process of translating knowledge into action B. telling people what to do C. giving lectures about health D. issuing rules and regulations to stop a bad habit 73. The primary objective of health education is to: A. improve health practices B. transfer technology to lay personnel C. impart knowledge D. promote health in general 74. Public health services (national and local) must give emphasis on: A. prevention, promotion and maintenance of health B. treatment of diseases C. rehabilitation of the disabled D. provision of emergency and first aid services 75. The role of government agencies in solving community health problems: A. guide, assist and facilitate community efforts in meeting its needs B identify the problem of the community C. provide funds for the project D. provide comparative statistics 76. In public health, the most frequent problem of scarcity of resources is best met by: A allocate resources according to needs B. transfer of funds C. complete for national funds D. increase manpower training 77. The managerial approach to motivation in health development is: A. to develop a shared responsibility for achieving organizational and individual goals by contributing on the basis of his interest and abilities B. manipulate workers by considerate treatment C. induce workers to perform by giving them high wages D. motivate workers to do overtime work 78. The most effective change in health behavior occurs when: A. the individual incorporates the change into his system of values B. the educator is an attractive figure C. a reward is offered if the change is adopted D. the individual is threatened with punishment if he does not accept the change 79. Evaluation of a health program is necessary in order to: A. determine if other objectives have been attained B. prematurely stop the program implementation C. allocate available resources to another program D. re-assign health manpower to other worthy programs 8
80. The basic indicator most often used to reflect the economic health of a country is: A. infant mortality rate C. migration rate B. infant mortality rate D. population density HEALTH CARE: PHILIPPINE SETTING 81. The most common type of attendant at birth utilized by Filipino women: A. Hilots C. physicians B. Midwives D. nurses 82. Maternal health status of the Philippines is still poor because of the following: A. doctors attend to ¼ of deliveries B. birth rate is relatively low C. maternal death rate is relatively low D. ¾ deliveries are in hospital 83. In the Philippines, the primary factor to consider in the design of the health care delivery system is: A. prevalent diseases C. education of the masses B. population growth D. nutritional requirement 84. Republic Act 7875 is also known as “The National Insurance Act of 1995” covers: A. all Filipino citizens C. government employees only B. private employees only D. unemployed citizens 85. The priority or target group in the National Anti-TB Program as recognized by PHILHEALTH and DOH is: A. sputum positive cases B. sputum negative but with history suggestive of TB C. sputum negative cases but with possible X-ray findings D. sputum negative but with clinical findings suggestive of TB 86. This specifically consists of a core list of drugs approved and authorized by the DOH: A. Essential Drug List C. Positive Drug List B. Generic List D. Prohibited Drug List 87. By tailored procurement of drug by government, it will make available to its own clientele: A. the best drug at least cost C. bulk buying B. the expensive drugs at low cost D. the cheapest drug 88. DOH Office that is responsible for handling matters pertaining to drugs, laboratories, facility and professional licensing is: A. Standards and regulations C. Hospital services B. Management services D. Public Health services 89. DOH’s goal of improving the general health status of the population require: A. Reduce infant/child mortality rate C. Increase total fertility rate B. Decrease life expectancy D. Increase growth rate 90. PHILHEALTH Benefits Package includes: A. Normal Spontaneous Delivery of first two (2) births B. Outpatient psychotherapy and counseling for mental disorder C. Drugs and alcohol abuse and dependency treatment D. Home and rehabilitation services
9
91. The primary aim of decentralization is: A. To increase resource base for primary care, shifting from central to peripheral B. To decrease health center utilization rate C. To give accountability to political authority D. To relegate procurement of drugs and supplies to LGUs 92. Prevention of cancer recurrence and complications falls under what level of prevention of the DOH Cancer Control Program: A. Tertiary C. Primary B. Secondary D. Primordial 93. True of TB in the Philippines: A. DOTS aims to improve treatment compliance B. More common in age group 60 and over C. Three times more common among females than males D. Remains the # 1 leading cause of mortality in the country 94. The most effective control measure for Tuberculosis which is prevalent in the Philippines is: A. Mass BCG vaccination B. “Clean Air” Campaign to eliminate pollution C. Massive nutritional correction and support D. Promotion of chemoprophylaxis for contacts/exposed population 95. Which of following tops the list of major causes of intestinal parasitism in the Philippines: A. Ascaris Lumbricoides C. Capillaria Philippinensis B. Hookworms D. Trichuris Trichiura 96. Which of the following has the highest prevalence of all the risk factors to cardiovascular diseases according to the DOH Cardiovascular Protection Program? A. hypertension C. obesity B . smoking D. stress D. Bereavement must cater to the family members also 97. In 2003, National Nutrition Survey (FNRI) showed that the prevalence of this vitamin and mineral deficiency remains high for: A. Vitamin A & iodine C. Vitamin A & Zinc B. Vitamin B & iron D. Vitamin D & iodine GOVERNMENT PROGRAMS 97. If both parent are Medicare members, the dependent children may claim benefit from membership of: A. Mother B. Both mother and father
C. Father D. One can choose
98. Family planning means: A. Voluntary descisions and C. Legal abortions positive action of couples to have a desired number of children B. Intra-uterine device and pills
D. Knowledge of the different family planning methods
10
99. The major activities undertaken in the maternal and child health program does NOT include A. Immunization of pregnant mothers against measles
C. Promotion of prenatal care
B. Proper pneumonia prevention
D. Monitoring of growth and health status of infants and children
100. In the “Under Five” Program, the best screening procedure for tuberculosis: A. Sputum examination B. Surveillance 101.
C. Tuberculin testing D. Chest x-ray
The prerequisite for any rational drug policy is
A. Availability B. Accessibility
C. Quality assurance D. Affordability
102. Drugs not covered by patent protection and which are labeled solely by their international proprietary name is: A. Complementary drugs B. Essential drugs
C. Generic drugs D. Core drugs
103. PhilHealth gives medical coverage to dependents of members who are: A. parents over 60, children below C. parents over 60, children below 21 18 B. parents over 65, children below D. parents over 65, children of any 21 age 104. Philhealth benefits vary according to the following except: A. Relative unit value of surgery C. Type of hospital B. Actual cost of care D. Type of physician 105. Phil-Health sets standards, guidelines and procedures prior to allowing doctors and hospitals to become part of the NHIP. This process is called: A. evaluation C. recognition B. accreditation D. acceleration 106. The Family Planning program consist of the foloowing EXCEPT: A. Promotion of knowledge on the C. Encouraging legal abortion use of contraceptive devices B. Helping childless couples to bear D. family planning services children 107. The following preventive measures are included in the National TB Control Prgram EXCEPT: A. Giving chemoprophylaxis for C. Early treatment of infective TB those not yet infected cases B. BCG vaccination of eligible D. Health education population
11
108. According to the revised Expanded Program of Immunization, the contraindication/s to immunization is/are: a. Malnourished child c. Diarrhea b. Temperature of 37.5 – 38o d. Convulsions after DPT 109. A greater measure of success of a TB control program could be expected if activities were centered on: a. Wider coverage of BCG immunization b. Development of more effective treatment methods c. Amelloration of the socio-economic status of the general population d. Identification and treatment of early cases 110.
Toxic effects of INH has been reported as: a. Diarrhea c. Chorioretinitis b. Hepatitis d. Extrapyramidal symptoms
111. In an “under six” program the best screening procedure for tuberculosis is: a. Chest x-ray c. Tuberculin test b. Sputum examination for AFB d. B and C only 112.
All are ingredients of Oresol (oral rehydration fluid) EXCEPT: a. Calcium chloride c. Potassium chloride b. Sodium chloride d. Glucose
113.
Routine immunization of children include the following EXCEPT: a. BCG c. Measles b. Thyphoid d. Diphtheria
114. The folowing immunizations are recommended for 3-months old children consulting at an “under six clinic”: a. DPT d. A and B b. Measles vaccine e. A and C c. BCG 115. Immunization is contraindicated among a. Malnourished children c. Children with diarrhea b. Breastfed babies d. Children with prolonged febrile illness 116. Contraindications for administering a live attenuated vaccine include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Acute febrile illness b. Recent administration of immune globulin host c. Immunosuppressive disorder or compromise d. Administration of another live vaccine 117.
BCG vaccination is administered on the right deltoid are a by: a. Intramuscular method c. Intradermal method b. Subcutaneous method d. Scratch method
118.
The recommended WHO schedule for measles vaccination is at: a. Birth c. 3 months b. 6 weeks d. 9months
119. Maternal antibodies convey passive measles immunity to infants probably until age: a. 12 to 15 months c. 3 to 6 months b. 6 to 9 months d. 18 – 24 months 120. The descision to give the rabies vaccine is influenced by any of the following EXCEPT: a. The severity of the bite b. The condition of the animal at the time of exposure c. The part of the body that was bitten d. The condition of the animal 15 days after axposure 12
121. The following are the statements of Policy of the Generic Act of 1988, EXCEPT: a. Promote, encourage, and require the use of generic terminology b. Penalize any violation of the Act c. Emphasize the scientific basis for the use of drugs d. Ensure adequate supply of drugs with generic names 122. The following organizations jointly with the Department of Health are involved in the education drive for the Generics Acts, EXCEPT: a. Department of Finance b. Philippine Information Agency c. Department of Local Governments d. Department of Education, Culture & Sports 123. Which of the folowing would be best reflect the inadequancy of maternity care services in the community? a. Small proprotion of hospital births b. Small proportion of deliveries attended by physicians c. Large proprotion of maternal deaths due to hemorrhage d. None of the above 124.
The leading cause of maternal death in the Philippines is: a. Abortion c. Toxemia of pregnancy b. Infection d. Hemorrhage
125. a. b. c. d. 126.
High risk in maternal mortality are mothers Under 15 years or above 45 years 17 – 20 years 20 – 25 years 30 – 35 yers
The most effective method of contraception is: a. IUD c. Rhythm method b. Pills d. Barrier or condoms
127. a. b. c. d.
This is NOT one of the priority needs of a mother Nutrition promotion and growth surveillance Control of infectious disease including tetanus Maternal care Nutrition supplementation
128.
The target group for tetanus toxoid immunization is: a. Women 12-59 years c. All persons b. Women 15-44 years d. All women regardless of age
129.
At birth a Filipino baby usually weighs: a. 2000 gms c. 3000 gms b. 2500 gms d. 4000 gms
130. a. b. c. d.
Prevention of prematurity can be done by: Promotion of preconceptional care Improvement of obstetrical service Improvement of maternal nutrition Improvement of prenatal care
131. Among the following factors, which has the LEAST influence on the many infants during the first day of life? a. Poor environmental sanitation b. Incompetent attendance at delivery c. Inadequate prenatal care d. Maternal malnutrition 132. Chemotherapeutic agents are applied to the eyes of the newborn to prevent 13
a. Juvenile cataract b. Gonorrhea
c. Syphilis d. Trachoma
PUBLIC HEALTH 133. Long-standing lack of vitamin A is maifested in the form of this ocular lesion: a. Keratomalacia c. Nyctalopia b. Corneal xerosis d. Bitot’s spots 134. If a 6-month old baby is suffering from diarrhea, the following should be told to the mother: a. Stop breast-feeding c. Give “am” and tea only b. Stop the usual food given d. None of these PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION 135. The role of governmental agencies in solving community health problems is to: a. Identify the problem of the community b. Provide funds for the project c. Provide comparative statistics d. Guide, assist, and facilitates community efforts in meeting its needs 136. In public health, the most frequent problem is scarcity of resources. This can be best met by: a. Transfer of funds c. Allocate resources according to needs b. Compete for national funds d. Increase manpower training EPIDEMIOLOGY 137. In writing a research proposal, the formal statement about the most likely outcome of the proposed research falls under: a. Literature review c. Hypothesis b. Methodology d. Objectives 138. The factors that effect the reliability of an instrument are the following EXCEPT: a. Observer variation c. Lack of congruency b. Lack of precision d. Lack of validity 139.
A control or comparison group is necessary in: a. Descriptive studies c. Cross-sectional studies b. Prevalence studies d. Prospective studies
140. The importance of reviewing the available literature related to research problem is a. To prevent duplication of work that has been done before b. It may lead to refine the problem definition c. To find out the authors of these works d. To provide good reasons for others to support the proposed research 141. Among the following demographic characteristics, which does not contribute to high fertility in the Philippines? a. High marriage rate c. Increasing life span b. Young population d. Low median age on marriage 142.
The greatest contributor to population growth in ASIA today is: a. Increased mortality rate c. Decreased birth rate b. Increased birth rate d. Decreased mortality rate
143.
Life expectancy is lower among the a. Married c. Young professionals b. Single d. Separated / divorced 14
144. In the choice of a problem for research, which of the following criteria is the LEAST important? a. Availability of technical and logistic support b. Probability of solving the problem by research c. Probability of acceptance for publication d. Useful applicability of the results 145. Because of its inherent weakness, this method is not utilized in the collection of scientific data: a. Census c. Registration method b. Questionnaire method d. Case record method 146. The following epidemiologic approach may be utilized when the disease being investigated has not been studied yet in the past: a. Descriptive c. Cohort prospective b. Retrospective d. Experimental 147. This type of study can best demonstrate a cause and effect relationship: a. Experimental study c. Analytic study b. Descriptive study d. Cross-sectional 148.
The possibility of cause-effect relationship is difficult to assess in: a. Experimental c. Cohort b. Cross-sectional d. Case-control
149. To determine if there is any relationship between oral contraceptive use and chlamydia infection, an investigator selected a sample of 100 women attending a social hygiene clinic. He then measured the predictor and outcome variables by talking a history of oral contraceptive use and sending a cervical swab to the lab for chlamydia culture. The design of this study is: a. Cohort study c. Case control b. Cross-sectional d. Experimental study 150. a. b. c. d.
What is the first step in the conduct of a clinical trial? Clearly and precisely state the reasons for conducting the trial Clearly define the criteria for selecting the participants Clearly precisely state the objective/s of the trial Make a clear staements of facts governing conduct of the trial of the would be participants
151. The observational study in which subjectys are sampled based on the presence or absence of a risk factor interest, these subjects are followed over the time for the development of a disease outcome: a. Case control study c. Cohort study b. Ecologic study d. Cross-sectional study 152. An investigator wanted to determine if there is a significant difference in the mean systolic blood pressure 10 women before and after oral contraceptive use for 3 months. The appropriate statistical test for significance for this study is: a. Analysis of veriance c. Student t-test b. Chi-square analysis d. Palred t-test 153. a. b. c. d. 154.
In chi-square, one would like to demonstrate that There is a definite cause-effect association There is a significant association among categories There is a significant correlation The number in the 2 x 2 table are diffecrent from one another
The objective of data processing is to facilitate a. Statistical analysis c. Completion of data b. Termination of research d. Summarizing of data
15
155.
Descriptive statistics include the following EXCEPT: a. specific rate c. graphical representation b. measures of dispersion d. tabular presentation
156. The measure that tends to be misleading in the presence of erratic value is a. Mode c. Median b. Mean d. All of the above 157. When distribution is symmetrical, the manner of tendency what should be chosen is: a. Mode c. Mean b. All of these d. Median 158. Randomization is a procedure used for assignments or allocation of subjects to treatment and control groups is experimental studies. Randomization ensures a. That assignments occurs by chance b. That treatment and control groups are alike in all respects expect treatment c. Bias in observation is eliminated d. The placebo effects are eliminated 159. is:
When samples are chosen because they are handy and easy this a. Simple random sampling b. Systematic sampling
c. Haphazard sampling d. Cluster sampling
160. One of these is NOT included in the comprehensive maternal and child health program policies: a. Pregnant women should be given iron tablets during the second and third trimester and throughout the lactation period b. Abnormal pregnancies may be delivered at home by a professionally-trained health worker c. Growth and development of infants and children should be monitored by growth charts and developmental screening devices d. The newborn receive immediate care at birth and breast feeding instuted within 30 minutes after delivery 161. Population density is determined by use of two data. One is total population and the other is: a. Age and sex distribution of the community b. Area of the community c. Income of the community d. Resources in the community 162. a. b. c. d.
Population would become younger if: Both its crude birth rates and crude death rates remain high Its crude birth rates remain high but its crude death rates decline Its crude birth rates decline but its crude death rates remain high Both its crude rates and death rates decline
163. The population pyramid shows the distribution of a population according to: a. Age and sex c. Fertility b. Inflow-outflow equation d. Percentage of births and deaths 164.
The arrangement of the population in space in a given time a. Composition c. Spatal distribution b. Social mobility d. Size
16
POISONING 165. In childhood poisoning, emesis should NOT be induced if the poison is: a. Barbiturates c. Drain cleaner b. Acetaminophen d. INH 166. The following does NOT conform to the 1987 Family Code of the Philippines a. The contracting parties to a marriage maybe of the same gender b. Marriage solemnized by a person not legally authorized to perform marriage are void c. A marriage contracted by any person during the subsistence of a previous marriage shall be null and void d. Mayor can no longer solemnize marriage RATES AND 167. a. b.
RATIO The current priority health problem of the Philippines is: Malnutrition c. Rapid population growth Communicable disease d. All of the above
168. The office that is changed with the function of collecting and reporting of vital health statistics is the: a. Bureau of Census and Statistics c. Health Information Service DOH b. Bureau of Medical Services d. Department of Disease Control 169. This is the measure of mortality which will tell us what the 10 leading causes of death rate are: a. Case fatality rate c. Infant mortality rate b. Cause specific death rate d. Proportionate death rate 170. a. b. c. d.
The purpose of immediate notification of disease is to: Study the natural cause of the disease Update the statistical data Prevent the spread of the disease Study the trend of the disease
OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH 171. One of the following cancers is NOT associated with occupational exposures: a. Breast CA c. Lung CA b. Bladder CA d. Liver CA 172. The conservation of health in relation to work, the working environment and assurance of work efficiency is: a. Industrial hygiene c. Occupational medicine b. Occupational health d. Industrial medicine 173.
Unwanted sound has this physiologic effect on an employee: a. Deafness c. Inefficiency b. Irritation d. Autism
ETHICS 174. The primary objective of the practice of medicine according to the Code of Medical Ethics in the Philippines is: a. Be good citizen c. Be solicitous to patients b. Be a fiend of man d. Service to mankind FAMILY MEDICINE 175. The following are important roles of a family physician: a. Personal physician to each member of the family b. Manages the collective health problems of the family c. Recognizes the effects of illness upon the other family members d. All of the above 17
176. a. b. c. d.
The family life cycle: Depicts the expansion and correction of the family Focuses on major events of developments within a single family Involves a sequence of stressful changes A and B only
177. Measures that the family physician can take to reduce the impact illness on the family are as follows: a. Do not include the family in deciding on the care of the sick b. Inform the family of measures important to the success of treatment c. Watch for change in attitude or negative reaction among family d. A and B only e. B and C only 178. a. b. c. d. e.
The Philippine age structure is considered young. It means A big percentage of the population is made up of the youth More dependents for workers People are retiring young A and B only B and C only
PRIMARY HEALTH CARE 179. The major cause of disabilities in developing countries is: a. Inadequate nutrition c. Accidents b. Infectious disease d. A and B 180. The first contact of the community to the health chain, as defined by the PHC system is the: a. hospital personnel c. intermediate level health b. village health workers d. barangay captain workers 181. The following are true for volunteer community health workers, EXCEPT: a. They establish linkage between government and non-government organization b. They are residents of the community c. they are community-based d. they provide only curative care 182. When a community shares in the responsibility and participates in defining the health and health-related problems in the community, this is known as: a. intrasectoral linkage c. appropriate technology b. community participation d. intersectoral linkage 183. Which of the following is NOT included in the essential health service of Primary Health Care? a. immunization against the major infectious diseases b. provision of essential drugs c. provision of safe water and basic sanitation d. appropriate treatment of all existing diseases 184. Which of the following is in line with the principles of Primary Health Care? a. doctors make all the decisions in a community health program b. free clinics are held in the population c. a barangay health council is established to plan, implement and evaluate community program d. hilots are not allowed to attend deliveries
18
185. Primary Health Care (PHC) refers to a. the first contact of a patient with a professional health care provider b. a sub-system of the health care delivery system c. a type of health care program designed for communities D. an approach to making health care available and accessible to the population 186. A health care system that has the greatest impact on the health of a society, while making the best use of its resources, fulfills which of the following values of social accountability? A. Relevance C. Cost-effectiveness B. Quality D. Equity 187. Parents who are not qualified as legal dependents, indigents or retirees can avail of PhilHeatlth benefits through the: A. Medicare Para Sa Masa C. Sponsored Projects B. Individually-paying program D. Non-paying members 188. A. B. C. D.
An important feature of a Community-Based Health Program is: preset program objectives managed solely by the people’s organization people participation in all stages of development availability of modern health equipment for community
Answer # questions page B 1. An act instituting a national health insurance program for all Filipinos and 386 establishing the Philippines Health Insurance Corporation. A. Republic Act 7719 B. Republic Act 7875 C. Republic Act 7160 D. Republic Act 6675 MPL: 1 C
2
This is also known as Clean Air Act. 389 A. Republic Act 7277 B. Republic Act 7883 C. Republic Act 8749 D. Republic Act 7600 MPL: 1
A
3
House Bill 618 is also known as: 403 A. National Tobacco Control Act B. Rooming-In and Breastfeeding Act C. Generics Act D. National Blood Services Act MPL: 1
D 4 The National Health Insurance Program (NHIP) shall give the highest priority 409 to achieving coverage of the entire population with at least a basic minimum package of health insurance benefits, the guiding principle is: A. Social solidarity B. Equity C. Compulsory coverage D. Universality MPL: 1 C to all
5
Mandates iodization of all food grade salt and making this available 385 communities nationwide. 19
A. Republic Act 8423 B. Republic Act 8976 C. Republic Act 8172 D. Republic Act 7876 MPL: 1 B 6 Children were hospitalized after their mother fed them with poisonous mushroom. The mother was unable to differentiate poisonous from nonpoisonous species. How would you assess the Meffect of her action? A. Directly voluntary B. Indirectly voluntary C. Positively voluntary D. Negatively voluntary MPL: 0.5 B 7 would you
A patient who has emphysema finds it difficult to quit smoking. How assess the morality of the patient’s action? A. Imperfectly voluntary because of impairment of knowledge B. Imperfectly voluntary because of habit C. Perfectly voluntary act D. An act of man not performed without free will MPL: 0.5
A
8
A 9 knowledge
Which among the following is a human act? A. Cheating in class B. Killing by a known schizophrenic C. An accident caused by severely intoxicated person D. Killing of a wife by the husband who caught her in the act of infidelity MPL: 0.25 A superior officer not stopping an evil act of a lower rank officer despite of the same is _________. A. Equally guilty as that of the lower rank officer B. Not guilty of the act C. Guilty but of a lesser degree D. Not morally accountable MPL: 0.5
B 10 disease
Withdrawing food and water in a progressively deteriorating Alzheimer patient. Which principle is being violated? A. Beneficence B. Non-maleficence C. Autonomy D. Justice MPL: 0.5
B
11
Which among the following situations is ethical? A. An HIV positive patient continues to engage in unprotected sex. B. Commercial sex workers are mandated to undergo regular screening for sexually transmitted diseases including AIDS. C. Donating blood for a fee D. The owner of an establishment is doing a research on smoking. He asked all his employees to be part of the study. MPL: 0.25
A 12 A 75-y/o diabetic patient with gangrenous foot refused to be amputated knowing 20
all the risks and benefits. She said she is too old to live without a leg. The doctor agreed. What is your ethical evaluation of the doctor’s decision? A. Right. Patient’s autonomy is respected. B. Wrong. There’s harm to the patient. C. Right. Patient accepted an additional burden. D. Wrong. Patient’s ability to decide is questionable. MPL: 0.5 C 13 violation
A patient told his doctor that he do whatever is best for him. This is not a of the principle of autonomy because of the following reason: A. Accepts an additional burden B. Gives up what is due C. Delegate authority D. Looses right to what is due MPL: 0.25
B
14
Principle that emphasizes the freedom to have children A. Autonomy B. Inviolability of life C. Beneficence D. Stewardship MPL: 1
D
15
The principle of beneficence means A. To do good B. To do good at all times C. To do good without any harm D. To do good with minimal harm MPL: 0.5
D
16
The following are true EXCEPT A. Truth telling of harm overrides confidentiality B. In emergency situation informed consent can be waived C. Unplugging of life-sustaining machines is justifiable if and when they are no longer useful to the dying person D. Clinical research need not involve animal experimentation MPL: 0.25
D 17 repeated
A 70-y/o quadriplegic patient (paralyzed in all 4 limbs) following
strokes requests that no resuscitation be performed if he goes into cardiac arrest. The following would justify a Do Not Resuscitate order EXCEPT A. Resuscitation will cause serious physical and emotional burden B. Resuscitation is against patient’s autonomous wish C. Resuscitation is extraordinary means D. Resuscitation is proportionate means MPL: 0.25 A 18 situation:
The principle of totality is the governing principle in the following A. Plastic surgery and mutilation with due cause B. Voluntary organ donation C. Confinement of mentally against their will D. Conflict of interest MPL: 0.5
B 19 Hospitals cannot be held liable for patients who go home against medical advice because patient A. Gave up what is due B. Lost right to what is due 21
C. Accepted an additional burden D. Delegated authority MPL: 0.5 B 20 monitor
A patient in the ward has renal failure. As a junior intern assigned to
the patient, you noticed that his ‘medication is being given in toxic dose. Which virtue is needed in this situation? A. Integrity B. Courage C. Respect D. Honesty MPL: 1 C 21 Which among the following situations is a nonviolation of the principle of justice? A. Kidneys for transplant are scarce. You decided to buy from indigent patients. B. Allocating more of the government funds to kidney transplant program than to the free immunization program for children under six C. Following a typhoon, health care is given to the victim who will die without an aid D. Compulsory tubal ligation in government hospital MPL: 0.5 B 22 Which among the following patients vying for one available respirator would gain the most from using the respirator? A. Trauma victim with severe brain damage. Only few brainstem functions remain. He is unlikely to recover. B. Patient with infection of the nervous system that rendered him paralyzed from the trunk down. He is, however, progressively improving and is expected to recover. C. Patient with complete and irreversible spinal injury that has left her paralyzed from the neck down. She is able to talk but totally dependent on the respirator. D. Cancer patient undergoing palliative treatment MPL: 0.25 C 23 as to be
A poor patient needing care agrees to enroll in a research study so
admitted in the hospital for free treatment of his medical problem. Was an informed consent obtained in this case? A. Yes. Information is understood by subject. No evidence of constraint on subject’s voluntariness. B. No. Lack of competence C. No. Questionable voluntariness due to subject’s personal circumstance. D. No. Probable incomplete disclosure and deception. MPL: 0.5 B 24 An employee was discovered to be sick during the annual physical examination sponsored by the company. His health would adversely be affected if he continues with his job. He pleads not to tell his employer. What should the physician do? 22
A. Maintain confidentiality at all times B. Break confidentiality for the best interest of the patient C. Break confidentiality for the best interest of innocent third party D. Wait and observe MPL: 0.5 A 25 Which among the following is NOT a condition to stop treatment in a dying patient? A. Life is preserved by ordinary means B. Patient and/or family consents C. Irrefutable evidence that biological death is imminent D. Treatment will not prolong life for any significant time MPL: 0.25 D 26 The type of domestic violence, which is considered to be the most common of elder mistreatment, is called A. Physical abuse B. Material exploitation C. Caregiver neglect D. Emotional abuse MPL: 1 D 27 An elderly patient was noted to have hematoma in the legs. Upon probing, patient claimed he fell from the bed. Caregiver was hesitant to bring him to the hospital for medical management. What will you do? A. Report to authorities B. Perform home safety assessment C. Expand social services D. Assess family functioning MPL: 0.5 B 28 Given a patient who is a victim of partner abuse, the following may be done EXCEPT A. Draw a safety plan B. Do couple counseling C. Refer to mental health professional D. Refer to women’s desk MPL: 0.5 C
29
In cases of sexual assault, the following is recommended: A. Collect clothing and place in plastic bag B. Do a urine pregnancy test C. Give empiric antibiotic treatment for STD D. Insert IUD within 24 hours to prevent pregnancy MPL: 0.25
D
30
Tertiary prevention for those who are victims of violence includes A. Screen for possible violence B. Provide appropriate medical care C. Inform women of their rights D. Refer to local support group and shelter MPL: 1
C 31 Family, as a group of people, is defined in various ways. Which among the following description runs common among the various definitions? A. Related by blood or marriage B. Related by strong affection C. Comprises a permanent household D. Changes through time MPL: 0.25
23
C 32 since their
Tom and Tina have been living with their aunt and grandmother
parents went abroad to work as nurses. What is the type of family structure? A. Nuclear B. Extended C. Single-parent D. Communal MPL: 1 B 33 As parents, Jim and Lora make sure that they spend quality time with their children. They play and do things together with them. What function of the family do they perform? A. Biologic B. Psychologic C. Educational D. Socio-cultural MPL: 0.75 C 34 4. Both
John and Marsha is a family with four children aged 16, 10, 6 and
husband and wife are in their mid-forties. What second order changes can be anticipated in their family life cycle stage? A. Taking on parenting role B. Sharing responsibilities with extended family C. Focusing on marital and career issues D. Keeping communication system open MP: 0.25 B 35 Linda was diagnosed with myoma last 2004. Recently, she developed vaginal bleeding. She was told she needs to undergo hysterectomy. She was subsequently observed to be crying and socially withdrawn. Identify the stage in the illness trajectory. A. Reaction to diagnosis B. Major therapeutic efforts C. Early adjustment to outcome D. Adjustment to permanency of outcome MPL: 1 D
36
Which among the following statements is NOT true? A. For every disease, there is a corresponding impact of illness. B. For illness with acute onset, the family is more prone to a crisis situation. C. For stages 2 & 5 of the illness trajectory, the family will go through the same process of denial, anger, and depression. D. For chronic illness, the family is less prone to stress due to coping through time. MPL: 0.25
A 37 Mrs. D began having difficulty remembering things, missing at time of work, and appearing in public in an untidy state at age of 64 years. Mrs. D was brought to a doctor for consult and was diagnosed to have Alzheimer’s disease. Because 24
Mrs. D’s condition seemed to progress rapidly, the attending physician did a home visit. When he arrived, she found Mrs. D unkempt, bedridden and has lost weight. The daughter who lives with her complained of exhaustion and of getting very little help from her siblings. In assessing the condition of the index patient and the family, the doctor made use of several tools. Which among the following tools and their corresponding indication for use is NOT correct? A. APGAR – assess familial resources B. Genogram – identify alternate caregivers C. SCREEM – assess capacity of family to participate in health care D. Family map – describe family dynamics MPL: 1 D 38 A 42-y/o woman, married with 2 daughters from Masbate revealed a 2-yr. history of breast mass. Physical examination showed a cachectic patient with unilateral multiple beast mass with foul smelling discharge. The patient sought consult with faith healers in their hometown. Her family and relatives firmly believe that it was due to “barang” (witchcraft). She was brought to Manila to consult with another faith healer. She refused to see a doctor, as it would render ineffective the treatment being done to her by the faith healer. Deep in her heart she has given up hope for cure. For a doctor to understand the health beliefs and practices of the family and the index patient, what tool in family assessment should be used? A. Clinical Biographies B. Family Circle C. Ecomap D. SCREEM MPL: 1 C 39 In evaluating the potential crisis once the patient dies, which among the following would help evaluate the degree of disruption in the function of the family? A. Family stressor B. Family developmental stage C. Family role D. Family coping history MPL: 0.25 A
40
What would consists tertiary level of prevention for the family? A. Hospice care B. Counseling C. Health education D. Breast examination MPL: 1 25
A 41 It is essential health care based on practical, scientifically sound and socially acceptable methods of technology made universally accessible to individuals and families in the community and through their full participation and a cost that the community and country can afford to maintain at every stage of their development in the spirit of self reliance and self determination. A. Primary Health Care B. Primary Care C. Secondary Care D. Tertiary Care MPL: 1 C 42 An evaluation or appraisal of present conditions and existing resources is 181 A. Planning B. Assessment C. Situational analysis D. Implementation MPL: 0.25 D
43
Demographic factors in planning includes description of 181 A. Existing health services B. Working health systems C. Socio-economic-environmental conditions D. Age-gender composition and distribution MPL: 1
D
44
Health status evaluation includes the following, except 181 A. Infant mortality rate B. Hospital services utilization C. All of the above D. None of the above MPL: 1
B
45
A gap between what is and what should be 255 A. Idea B. Problem C. Priority D. Condition MPL: 0.25 In the Primary Health Care approach, focus group discussion and 89 assembly are strategies for: A. Appropriate technology B. Networking and linkages C. Establishing support groups D. Community participation MPL: 0.25
D 46 community
B 47 eventually
Working together with the people, learning their language and 189 establishing a herbal-medicinal garden for people consumption is an example of A. Establishing support groups B. Appropriate technology C. Networking and linkages D. Community participation MPL: 0.25
26
C
48
An example of establishing support groups for program continuity 263 A. Committing civic, religious, non-government organizations to actively participate B. Putting up a Botika sa Barangay with the help of the Municipal council C. Creation of an organization of asthmatic patients in the early identification and proper referral of asthmatics D. Consultative meetings with community leaders for the creation of latrines in certain areas MPL: 0.25
B 49 of people:
Among the list, the program that would benefit the greatest number 305 A. Provision of food and drugs B. Accessibility to safe water C. Health education D. Proper waste collection and disposal MPL: 0.25
D at par,
In the course of implementation, when the quality of service is not 344 management should: A. Review established standards B. Reprimand staff concerned C. Measure difference in output D. Modify activities/objectives MPL: 0.33
50
A 51 During an evaluation procedure, complaints against nurses have been recorded 342 and analyzed. In making decisions, management should be reminded of: A. Error of practical significance B. Statistical data as evidence based materials C. Opinions of co-managers and staff D. Generalization based on records at hand MPL: 0.25 D
52
Epidemiology can be defined as the study of: A. The etiology of disease in humans B. The frequency of causes of death in humans C. The determinants of frequency pf disease in humans D. The distribution and determinants of frequency of disease in human populations MPL: 0.25
B 53 The time interval between entry of an infectious agent into a host and the onset symptoms is called A. The communicable period B. The incubation period C. The preinfectious period D. The noncontagious period MPL: 0.25 A
54
Primary prevention may be best undertaken during the period of: A. Pre-pathogenesis B. Pathogenesis C. Resolution or sequelae D. Any of the above MPL: 0.33 27
D 55 In the study of the cause of a disease, the essential difference between an experimental study and an observational study is that in the experimental investigation A. The study is prospective B. The study and control groups are of equal size C. The study and control groups are selected on the basis of history of exposure to the suspected risk factor D. The investigators apply an intervention to influence the outcome of the study, for effective methods of treatment, prevention, or clinical management MPL: 0.25 B 56 The occurrence of a group of illnesses of similar nature at a rate above the expected number is called: A. Hyperendemic B. Epidemic C. Endemic D. Pandemic MPL: 0.5 D 57 To determine whether maternal deficiency of folate is a cause of congenital defects of the neural tube, the mothers of 100 newborns with congenital neural tube defects and 200 newborns without congenital neural tube defects were questioned about intake of multivitamins and folate during pregnancy. What type of study is this? A. Clinical trial B. Cross-sectional C. Cohort D. Case-control MPL: 0.25 A 58 1.35-8.42)
A study revealed an odds ratio of 3.35 (95 % Confidence Interval=
associated with maternal deficiency of folate. If the study described is accurate, which of the following statements is true? A. Results suggest that a baby whose mother had folate deficiency is about 3.35 times as likely to be born with congenital defects of the neural tube as a baby whose mother did not have folate deficiency and the association is significant (p<0.05). B. Results suggest that the odds of giving birth to newborns with congenital defects of the neural tube among mothers with folate deficiency is 3.35 as compared to mothers who do not have folate deficiency and the association is significant (p<0.05). C. Results suggest that the risk of giving birth to newborns with congenital defects of the neural tube among mothers with folate deficiency is 3.35 times as compared to mothers who do not have folate deficiency and the association is significant (p<0.05). D. The results provide no evidence that maternal deficiency of folate is 28
associated with congenital defects of the neural tube in the offspring. MPL: 0.25 Lou Stewells, a pioneer in the study of diarrheal disease, has developed a new diagnostic test for cholera. When his agent is added to the stools, the organisms develop a characteristic ring around them (He calls it the “RingAround-the Cholera” [RAC] test). He performs the test on 100 patients known to have cholera and 100 patients known not to have cholera with the following results: Cholera 91 9 100
(+) RAC test (-) RAC test Total A
59
No Cholera 12 88 100
The sensitivity of RAC test A. 91/[91+9] x100%= 91% B. 88/[9+88]x100%= 91% C. 91/[91+12]x100%= 88% D. 88/[12+88]x100%= 88% MPL: 0.25
During the investigation of an outbreak of food poisoning at a summer camp, food histories were obtained form all campers as indicated in the table below. Consumed Food
D
Food served
Ill
Hamburger Potatoes Ice cream Chicken Lemonade
6 7 8 13 2
60
D 61 divided by
Not Ill 4 3 10 5 8
Specific Attack Rate 6/10 = 60% 7/10 = 70% 8/18 = 44% 13/18 = 72% 2/10 = 20%
Did Not Consume Food Ill 4 2 2 1 4
Not Ill 4 3 2 7 4
Specific Attack Rate 4/8 = 50% 2/5 = 40% 2/4 = 50% 1/8 = 12.5% 4/8 = 50%
The incriminated food item is most likely to be: A. Hamburger B. Potatoes C. Ice cream D. Chicken MPL: 0.25 The number of deaths from a given cause in a specified time period the total deaths in the same time period is: A. Crude death rate B. Indirect death rate C. Case fatality rate D. Proportionate mortality rate MPL: 0.25
A 62 means:
If the infant mortality of a community 68/1000 live births. This A. 68 out of every 1000 babies born alive died during infancy B. 68 babies died before reaching their first birthday C. 68 out of 1000 persons in that community were infant deaths D. 68% of all deaths were infants MPL: 0.25
C 63 The best source of data or distribution according to age, sex and geographical location is: 29
A. Reports of occurrence of notifiable diseases B. Birth certificate C. Census D. Registries of certain disease MPL: 0.5 C
64
Approval of research proposals using human subjects is done by: A. Department chairman B. Research Committee C. Institutional review board D. PRC MPL: 0.5
A 65 Which of the following sampling method is appropriate when a population is not widely spread geographically: A. Random B. Multi-stage C. Stratified D. Systematic MPL: 0.33 A
66
In public health, the rate that are used to measure illness is known
as: A. Morbidity rate B. Natality rate C. Mortality rate D. Specific rate MPL: 0.33 B
68
Which among the following measures fertility: A. Sex ratio B. Crude birth rate C. Maternal mortality rate D. Life expectancy MPL: 0.33
C 69 In the absence of an attending doctor at death, the responsibility of signing the death certificate goes to: A. Closest of kin B. Nurses C. Local Health Officer D. Midwife MPL: 1 A
70
Objectives of the research tell: A. What variables are being considered B. The affirmation of the hypothesis formulated C. When the biostatistician must come in D. How much funds to request MPL: 0.33
C 71 The part which tells the reader what the different parts of the diagram stand for is called: A. Source B. Title C. Legend D. Footnote MPL: 0.5 C
72
The research design is essentially: A. What the researcher will do to answer the research questions B. How the research will collect the data C. Both 30
D. Neither MPL: 0.5 B
73
B 74 needed,
The index that measures the killing power of a disease is: A. Prevalence rate B. Case fatality rate C. Infant mortality rate D. Swaroop’s index MPL: 1 In a small sample in which an immediate knowledge of variation is the measure used is: A. Standard Deviation B. Range C. Variance D. Quartile deviation MPL: 0.33
D 75 and where
Specifying the kind of subjects best suited to the research question to recruit them, is the process of: A. Exclusion criteria B. Sampling C. Randomization D. Selection criteria MPL: 0.5
D
76
The purpose of blinding in data collection is to achieve: A. Accuracy B. Validity C. Precision D. Objectivity MPL: 0.33
A 77 The population pyramid shows the distribution of a population according to: A. Age and sex B. Inflow-outflow equation C. Fertility D. Percentage of births and deaths MPL: 0.5 C 78 population
The computed collective characteristics derived from the entire are called: A. Variables B. Statistic C. Parameters D. Indicators MPL: 0.5
D 79 result is:
The probability that a person has the disease given a positive test A. Negative predictive value of the test B. Sensitivity of the test C. Specificity of the test D. Positive predictive value of the test MPL: 0.5
A 80 patient is:
The disease or condition which directly caused the death of a A. B. C. D.
Immediate cause Underlying cause Intervening, antecedent cause None of the above 31
MPL: 0.33 A
81
B 82 subjects
Confidence limits are calculated using: A. The mean and its standard error B. The mean and the range C. The median and its standard error D. The mean and the range MPL: 0.5 Randomization is a procedure used for assignments or allocation of
to treatment and control groups in experimental studies. Randomization ensures: A. That placebo effects all eliminated B. That treatment and control groups are alike in all respects except treatment C. That observation is eliminated D. That assignment occurs by chance MPL: 0.33 A
83
Post-neonatal mortality has been closely linked to: A. Environmental factors B. Maternal health prior to pregnancy C. Events during delivery D. Maternal health during pregnancy MPL: 0.5
C 85 The branch of science that counts, measures and numerically states fact is: A. Demography B. Medical statistics C. Statistics D. Health statistics MPL: 0.5 B 86 This is the measure of mortality which will tell us what the 10 leading causes of death rate are: A. Case fatality rate B. Cause specific death rate C. Infant mortality rate D. Proportionate death rate MPL: 0.5 A 87 care has
The administrator of a day care center reports that a child under his
just been diagnosed as having meningitis. He is concerned about the other children in the center and wants to know what to do. Which of the following must be known in order that recommendation can be made? A. Number of children in the center B. Prevalence of meningitis in the community C. Age range of the children D. Number of employees in the center MPL: 0.25 D
88
Vaccine Preventable diseases, EXCEPT: 34 A. Hepatitis B B. Tuberculosis C. Diphtheria D. Filariasis MPL: 1
32
A 89 The most common cause of cancer deaths among both men and women in the 86 country is: A. Lung B. Breast C. Liver D. Colo-rectal MPL: 1 C 90
Mosquito-borne disease/s, EXCEPT: 40 A. Malaria B. Dengue C. Tuberculosis D. Filariasis MPL: 1
B
Food-borne and water-borne disease/s, EXCEPT: 59-62 A. Typhoid B. Dengue C. Hepatitis A D. Cholera MPL: 1
91
A 92 Based on IMCI recommendation, a child with pneumonia or dysentery should return for follow up in: A. 2 days B. 5 days C. 14 days D. 30 days MPL: 1 B 93 If a child is seen with pus draining from the ear and discharge is reported for less than 14 days or with ear pain, diagnosis is likely: A. Mastoiditis B. Acute ear infection C. Chronic ear infection D. No ear infection MPL: 1 B 94 and slow
A child having diarrhea was noted to be irritable with sunken eyes return of skin pinch is classified as: A. No dehydration B. Some dehydration C. Severe dehydration D. Very severe dehydration MPL: 1
B 95 An approach whose aim is to improve the performance of the health service delivery system I order to better meet people’s needs, consistent with the basic values of quality, equity, relevance and cost-effectiveness. A. Primary Health Care B. Towards Unity For Health C. Devolution D. Decentralization MPL: 0.5 C
96
Recommended initial work up when suspecting PTB: A. Chest X-ay B. PPD C. Sputum AFB 33
D. Culture MPL: 0.5 B 97 Suspended solid particles which are generated by condensation from gaseous 39 state, generally after volatilization from molten metals: A. Gases B. Fumes C. Mists D. Dust MPL: 0.25 A
98
The most important parameter of drinking water quality is: A. Bacteriological B. Chemical C. Physical D. Organic constituents MPL: 0.33
D
99
Minimata disease is due to: A. Fluoride B. Lead C. Arsenic D. Mercury MPL: 0.33
A 100 A measure to terminate existence of a hazard through destruction with the aid of physical, chemical or biological agent: A. Treatment B. Shielding C. Isolation D. Substitution MPL: 0.5 REFERENCE Philippine Health Care Factbook Vol. 1 References for questions 6-40 Alora, Angeles, BIOETHICS, NTTC-HP, UP-Manila, 1991 Monge, Michael, Ethical Practices in Health & Disease. Manila: Sinag-Tala Publishers, Inc. 1994 Rakel, Robert, Textbook of Family Practice, Philadelphia: W.B. Saunders Company, 2002, pp 71-82 Primer on Primary Health Care PHA202 module, Department of Health Policy and Administration, UP-College of Public Health Readings in Health System Management, 2nd edition Ref. For questions 52-60 MacMahon, B, and Pugh, T, Epidemiology Principles and Methods, 2nd edition Ref for questions 61-87 Mendoza, OM et al, Foundations in Statistical Analysis for the Health Sciences, Manila, DEBS, CPH-UPM, 1997 Simple Multiple Choice: Choose the Single Best Answer Recall: 1. Adequate emergency exit is a provision of: A. fundamental physiologic needs against contagion B. fundamental psychologic needs against accidents
C. protection D. protection 34
Recall 2. Which of the following is a fundamental psychologic needs of man that has to be met by a standard house A. protection from excessive noise C. provision of adequate privacy B. provision of adequate space D. provision of unpolluted environment Recall 3.
Which of the following is considered a special dwelling unit? A. Hotel/Motel C. Seminaries B. Inn D. Dormitories
Recall 4. Which of the following is the considered a most valuable component of refuse? A. fruit peels C. paper B. tin can D. cardboard Recall 5. For urban areas, the most ideal waste disposal system is. A. sanitary pit privy C. sewerage system B. septic tank system D. pour-lush latrine Recall 6. Which of the belongs to the Category II waste disposal unit? A. Cistern flush toilet connected to a sewerage system B. Pour-flush latrine C. Bucket latrine D. Bored hole latrine Recall 7. The most common cardiovascular disease that affect Filipinos is A. Rheumatic Heart disease B. CVA/Stroke C. Ischemic Heart disease D. Hypertensive Heart disease Recall 8. An exercise program to be effective, an optimal level of intensity must be achieved. This is measured in terms of the: A. capacity to push himself to the limits C. ability to endure pain B. maximum heart rate for age D. threshold for exhaustion Recall 9. Which of the following anthropometric measurements is the best indicator of current or recent malnutrition? A. weight for age C. weight for height for age B. height for age D. body mass index
Recall 10. A short-term solution to micronutrient deficiency disorders is: A. food fortification C. tri-media nutrition education B. supplementation D. community food production Analysis 35
11.
Which of the following will not be achieved by a totally successful Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (PPAN)? A. Full fortification of selected Philippine made food items with vitamin A , Iodine, and Iron B. Complete compliance and adoption of the Filipino family to desirable food and feeding practices C. Eradication of all causes of malnutrition in the Philippines D. Assurance of food supply adequacy with augmentation from home and community food production
Recall 12. It is only the female Anopheles mosquito which is involved in the development of Plasmodium specie because A. there are no male Anopheles mosquitoes B. female mosquitoes need a blood meal before they can produce eggs C. male Anopheles have no proboscis D. only the female mosquitoes are attracted to human blood Recall 13. The natural mode of transmission of malaria is by A. co-natal transfusion B. contaminated needles C. inoculation of sporozoites through the mosquito bites D. blood transfusion Recall 14. How many provinces in the country are endemic for malaria? A. 65 of the 78 provinces C. 12 of the 78 provinces B. 40 of the 78 provinces D. 8 of the 78 provinces Recall 15. The Expanded Program of Immunization (EPI) of the government is aimed at reducing the Infant Mortality and Morbidity by decreasing the prevalence of A. tuberculosis, diphtheria, pertussis,tetanus,polio,measles,hepatitis A B. tuberculosis, diphtheria,pertussis,tetanus,polio,measles,hepatitis B C. tuberculosis,diphtheria,tetanus, pertussis,german measles,polio,hepatitis B D. tuberculosis, diphtheria,polio,measles,hepatitis A,tetanus,hepatitis B Recall 16. Which of the following is included in the “extended family”? A. Sister-in-law C. illegitimate child B. Step-parents D. Foster children Recall 17. Which of the following “Stage Critical Tasks” will a “Long Term Marriage” encounter? A. Differentiation from family of origin C. Maintaining couple functioning B. Renegotiating relationship D. Renewing marriage commitment Recall 18. Which of the following family is much more closely knit? A. upper class C. lower class B. lower class D. lowest class
Recall 19. A child experience conflict with practices in the home and school regulations is at what “Stage of Family Life Cycle”? 36
A. The Launching family Couple B. The Family with young children adolescent
C. The Newly Married D. The Family with
Analysis 20. Extension of Coverage of NHIP members includes which of the following A. working mother B. 22 years high school student C. 40 years old congenital cerebral palsy patient D. 63 years old active Police officer Recall 21. Which of the following surgical procedures has the highest RVU? A. Ruptured appendix w/ abscess or generalized peritonitis B. Cholecystectomy w/ exploration of common duct C. Dilation and curettage D. T.A.H.B.S.O Recall 22. Which of the following is a case of NHIP Benefits forfeiture A. Vehicular accident patient confinement in a non-accredited hospitals B. Patient died within the first 24 hours C. Patient was transferred to a better equipped hospital before the first 24 hours of confinement D. Patient was discharge within the first 24 hours of confinement by an accredited hospital Recall 23. One of the responsibilities of the Occupational Medicine Practitioner is to administer: A. Periodic examination exclusively done for high risk groups B. Pre placement examination exclusively done for high risk groups C. Special examination exclusively done for high risk groups D. Efficient record keeping exclusively done for high risk groups Recall 24. Which of the following is considered an Occupational Disease? A. Diabetes mellitus C. Acid peptic disease B. Hypertension D. Pneumoconiosis Recall 25. Which of the following is an intrinsic factor in occupational disease causation ? A. social customs C. organizational set up B. socio-economic class D. disease agents Application 26. Which branch of statistics are you using when you compute for the average age of a sample of 100 medical students? A. descriptive statistics C. estimation of parameter B. inferential statistics D. hypothesis testing Recall 27. An advantage of using secondary data is that: A. data are usually complete. B. accuracy of data is assured. C. relevance of data is not usually a problem. D. data are often available and accessible. Analysis 28. A City Health Officer was notified of 10 cases of what seemed to be like 37
Dengue fever. He wanted to determine if this was a beginning epidemic. Where can he get information on additional cases, if any? A. registries of diseases C. hospital records B. reports of notifiable diseases D. community clinic records Recall 29. An attribute of statistical data which reflects the consistency of data when more than one observation is done is: A. sensitivity C. validity B. specificity D. precision Recall 30. The ability of a diagnostic test to produce results closest to the true value of the measurement is called: A. sensitivity C. validity B. predictability D. precision Recall 31. The normal distribution or Gaussian curve is described as having the following characteristic: A. mean is zero C. standard deviation of +/- 1 B. probability of 0.05 D. mean, median and mode are equal Recall 32. The area under the normal distribution curve representing observations that lie between 2 standard deviations from their mean is equal to A. 68.50% C. 95.00% B. 90.5% D. 99.70% Recall 33. For a distribution that is skewed to the left, the mean would be: A. at the same position as the median C. to the right of the median B. to the left of the median
D. equal to the mode
Recall 34. If the probability that a particular event (A) will occur depends on or is influenced by the prior occurrence of another event (B), that probability is called A. a piori probability C. conditional probability B. empirical probability D. complementary probability Application 35. Which of the following is a nominal variable? A. nutritional status B. outcome of illness temperature
C. serum glucose level D. body
Recall 36. The rationale for the use of the Yate’s correction factor to offset the “no expected values less than 5” is to A. make the chi-square value smaller B. make the p-value smaller C. make the difference between the observed and expected values smaller D. make the confidence interval smaller 38
Recall 37. In a 3 x 4 contingency table, the degree of freedom is A. 2 C. 7 B. 6 D. 12 Recall 38. At the conventional level of significance, an observed difference between 2 proportions is considered significant if: A. p-value is < 0.05 C. chi-square value is >2 B. z-value is > 5 D. confidence interval is > 2SD Recall 39. Which of the following is used to show probable relationship between two quantitative variables? A. Component bar diagram C. Bar graph B. Scatterpoint diagram D. Pictogram Recall 40. Which of the following is an alternative to the pie chart? A. Bar graph C. Frequency Polygon B. Component bar diagram D. Histogram Recall 41. Which of the following is used to portray absolute or relative frequencies, population rates, or other numerical measurement across the categories of a qualitative or a discrete quantitative variable? A. Bar graph C. Frequency polygon B. Line Diagram D. Histogram Recall 42. Which type of data presentation is appropriate if the intention is to show detailed information? A. Textular presentation C. Graphical presentation B. Tabular presentation D. All of the above Recall 43. Which of the following is/are requirement/s for Questionnaire A. it should have sensitivity, specificity, and positive predictive value B. respondents are not expected to know all the answer to the questions C. should be ambiguous D. fairly offensive Recall 44. Secondary data are collected by which of the following methods of data collection? A. review of literature/documents C. inquiry B. survey D. observation Recall 45. Chronologically, which of the following steps in Questionnaire Preparation should be last? A. List the variables to be measured C. Prepare the draft of the question B. Pretest the questionnaire D. Make necessary modification Recall 46. If death occurred within the jurisdiction of the Philippines but the exact place of it’s occurrence cannot be determined, the death shall be registered in the office of the local civil registrar of A. place of burial upon the presentation of a certificate B. victim’s last known address upon the presentation of a certificate C. birthplace of the victim upon the presentation of a certificate D. none of the above 39
Recall 47. Which of the following should be accomplished if a less than 7 months fetus dies 24 hours after birth? A. birth certificate only B. death certificate only C. both birth and death certificates D. both birth and death certificates marked for Statistical Purposes Only Recall 48. The process of obtaining a sample where the probability of inclusion of a unit is not known specified is observed in which of the following sampling methods? A. Simple Random sampling C. Stratified Sampling B. Systematic sampling D. Quota sampling Recall 49. Importance of appropriate determination of sample size include/s: A. the expense ,time and work is increased B. the feasibility of the study in terms of availability of the subject is assured C. the duration of study and estimate of the budget can be extended beyond the estimates. D. the precision of the study is diminished Application 50. An investigator wants to undertake a study involving the incidence of drug abuse among Filipinos, which of the following methods is the most appropriate sampling method to be used? A. Simple Random Sampling C. Systematic Sampling B. Stratified Sampling D. Multistage Sampling Recall 51. Living disease agents that readily die outside the human host require for their successful transmission requires: A. an intermediate host C. a common vehicle B. a vector D. the most direct contact Recall 52. Herd immunity depends on the following factors A. degree to which an affected individual is capable of transmitting the infection B. the length of time during which an individual is infectious C. size and social behaviour of the community D. all of the above Recall 53. Characteristics of passive immunity A. it is temporary B. it usually lasts 6 months in the newborn C. it protects an individual for life D. A and B Recall 54. It is the first stage in the natural history of disease wherein disease has not yet developed although the groundwork has been laid through the presence of factors that favor its occurrence A. Prepathogenesis C. Early clinical stage B. Early Pathogenesis D. Late clinical stage Recall 40
55. The level of prevention that is aimed at intervening before pathological changes have begun during the natural history stage of susceptibility A. Primary prevention C. Tertiary prevention B. Secondary prevention D. none of the above Recall 56. A pattern of disease occurrence in a community where the greater proportion of the cases are subclinical illustrates the A. Interference phenomenon C. Berksonian bias B. Iceberg phenomenon D. Pearl’s fallacy Recall 57. Certain diseases that do not confer immunity affect all age groups but the incidence rates are generally among the very young and the very old because A. they generally are more exposed to such diseases B. they generally have lower general resistance C. they have had no experience with such diseases D. immunization protects them from acquiring the disease Recall 58. Diseases which confers long lasting immunity are highest at A. younger age groups C. older age groups B. middle age groups D. very young and very old age groups Recall 59. The most important personal variable related to disease occurrence is A. age C. marital status B. sex D. socio-economic status Recall 60. Death rates are higher for males than females throughout life and this may be due to the following A. sex-linked inheritance C. differences in hormonal balance B. environment D. all of the above Recall 61. The M:F ratio for Acute Myocardial Infarction mortality declines by age 40 because A. females lost the protective hormones B. females live longer C. more females than males by this age and after D. females seek medical care more than the males Recall 62. The most direct measure of socio-economic status A. occupation C. family income B. family size D. area of residence Recall 63. Observed differences in disease frequency can be due to errors of measurement in which of the following? A. differences in access to medical care C. physiologic differences B. differences in precision of diagnosis D. A and B only Recall 64. In which particular situation will you suspect the disease to be a “place” disease? A. The disease has a high occurrence in the native inhabitants but not among the immigrants. 41
B. The disease has a high occurrence in both the native inhabitants and the migrants to the place. C. The disease will continue to have a high occurrence among the offspring of the native inhabitants who have migrated out of the area. D. The disease has a low occurrence among the native inhabitants and a high occurrence among the migrants. Recall 65. In the Philippines, generally, variation in mortality rates between the cities and the provinces are due to differences in: A. genetic susceptibility of the populations B. exposure to the risk factors C. availability and accessibility of medical care D. accuracy and completeness of diagnosis and reporting Analysis 66. Which of the following can best explain the higher occurrence of breast cancer among the second generation Chinese, Japanese and Mexican migrants than the first generation migrants? A. The second generation migrants lost the protection provided by their genetic make-up. B. The first generation migrants partly retained their traditional habits and practices. C. The second generation migrants were exposed to the risk factors for a longer period of time. D. Breast cancer has a long latency period and therefore, would be expressed more in the second generation migrants. Recall 67. High herd resistance to an infectious disease limits the occurrence of the disease in a community because: A. It prevents exposure of the population to the disease. B. It blocks the transmission of the disease. C. It shortens the transmission time. D. It reduces the chances of death among the cases. Recall 68. Changes in disease frequency usually encompassing several decades are referred to as: A. Periodic trends C. cyclic intrinsic variations B. secular trends D. cyclic extrinsic fluctuations Recall 69. If the line graph of mortality of a particular disease showed an abrupt dip or decrease, this would most likely be due to: A. an increase in herd resistance of the population B. an improvement in diagnostic procedures C. an improvement in treatment modalities D. altered procedures in assigning causes of death Recall 70. Higher patterns of non-infectious diseases during certain seasons are probably due to A. accumulation of susceptibles B. change in the climate facilitating multiplication of disease agent C. change in climate modifying human activities E. change in disease reporting Recall 42
71.
A Case-report is commonly done for A. statistical and registration purposes B. legal purposes C. documenting an interesting medical oddity D. generating hypothesis
Recall 72. Which type of study determines/measures both the exposure or factor and the effect or outcome at the same time? A. Case-report study C. Cross-sectional study B. Case-series study D. Ecological study Analysis 73. Which of the following study is appropriate if an investigator wants to compare the 2 and 5 years survival rates of leukemia if the subjects are randomly given a certain drug X? A. Case Series studies C. Case Control studies B. Cohort studies D. Experimental studies
Analysis 74. Which of the following is most appropriate if the objective of the study is to determine if hypotension increases the chance of fatal outcome in MI patients A. Case Series studies C. Case Control studies B. Cohort studies D. Experimental studies Recall 75. The initial step in the analysis of data in case-control studies is A. determination of the scale of measurement B. assessment of the factor C. computation of the indicators D. assessment of causality Recall 76. The appropriate indicators in Case-control study is A. the frequency/prevalence of the independent variable in both the cases and controls B. the frequency/prevalence of the dependent variable in the exposed and unexposed groups C. the measure of risk of occurrence D. existence of statistical association Recall 77. Statistical association found between a factor and disease could be causal if the association is strong; the strength of association in Casecontrol studies is measured by the A. Relative risk C. Odd’s ratio B. Attributable risk D. Risk ratio Recall 78. Which of the following statements is true about cohort studies? A. They are also called prevalence studies. B. Subjects are chosen on the basis of whether they have the outcome or not. C. They begin with identification of a risk group. D. Actual risk of the outcome cannot be determined using cohort studies. Recall 79. Which is an advantage of a concurrent over a non-concurrent cohort study? A. smaller sample size C. less biases B. shorter follow-up period D. direct measurement of outcome 43
Recall 80. A requirement for validity of cohort studies is that: A. subjects should be representative of target population. B. exposure variable should be randomly distributed between the study groups. C. study groups should be similar in all respects except for the exposure. D. investigator should be blinded to eliminate bias. Recall 81. A variable other than the one under investigation which may be associated with both the factor and the outcome and thus may produce a spurious association is called a/an: A. independent variable C. confounding variable B. dependent variable D. misclassification variable Recall 82. Which of the following is not a requirement of a descriptive study? A. Sample representative of target population B. Controls C. Similarity of comparison groups D. All of the above Recall 83. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the subjects of an Experimental study? A. Sample representative of target population B. well and diseased persons can included in the sample in a trial of preventive measure C. diseased persons can be the study population in a curative trial D. all of the above Recall 84. Which of the following is a strength of Experimental study? A. appropriate for diseases with low or rare occurrence B. can study multiple effect of a single exposure C. allows artificial manipulation of the study factors D. all of the above Recall 85. Which of the following statement is TRUE? A. Blinding aim to eliminate the effects of intervention B. Placebo administration aim to eliminate the effects of unintended factors C. Both blinding and Placebo administration aim to eliminate the effects of intervention D. Both blinding and Placebo administration aim to eliminate the effects of intended factors Recall 86. The strongest of all research study is: A. Uncontrolled Trial B. Parallel Controlled Trial
C. Cross-Over Trial D. Quasi-experiment
Recall 87. In an experimental study, if groups show dissimilarity, adjustments should be done in the: A. Measurement of baseline variable C. measurement of outcome variable B. Application of treatment D. analysis of data Recall 88. Which of the following is most vulnerable to Hawthorne effect? A. Parallel controlled trial C. Uncontrolled trial 44
B. Cross-over trial
D. None of the above
Recall 89. Which of the following trial should be use to determine the effectiveness of a health program? A. Community trial C. Therapeutic trial B. Clinical trial D. Prophylactic trial Recall 90. Dengue is currently occurring in epidemic proportion in several areas in the country because A. the existing strain of the disease agent has become more virulent B. a new strain of the disease agent has been introduced C. of increased opportunities for transmission D. of inadequacy of health services Recall 92. To establish the existence of an outbreak/epidemic, which of the following should be done? A. construct the epidemic curve B. determine the onset of the epidemic C. compare the present incidence with the normal expectancy D. compute and compare the attack rate Recall 93. Reducing or exhausting the susceptibles in the area to prevent new cases from developing would be accomplished if A. they are quarantined B. they are attacked by the disease C. the cases are isolated D. the cases are adequately treated Recall 94. If quarantine is necessary to contain an outbreak/epidemic, who of the following should be quarantined? A. Cases C. contacts B. Carriers
D. suspects
Recall 95. Which type of study is generally utilized in investigating outbreak/epidemics? A. case series C. cohort B. case-control D. interventional Recall 96. The initial step in planning for data collection is: A. Determine the research objectives C. Specify source of data B. Identify the data to be collected appropriate method
D. Choose the
Recall 97. Planning for data collection is based on the: A. research objectives C. number of subjects B. data to be collected D. time for data collection Recall 98. The main consideration in the choice of the method of data collection is the: A. ability of the method to yield measurements or values that is closest to the true value B. availability of resources for data collection C. acceptability of the method to the subjects 45
D. ability of the method to achieve good coverage of the study population Recall 99. The probability that a test will declare positive those who have the disease is: A. sensitivity C. positive predictive value B. specificity D. positive likelihood ratio Recall 100. Characteristic of selection of appropriate and adequate subjects includes: A. A vital stage in any research activity. B. Begins with determination of suitable reference or target population and ends with response of the selected persons to the invitation to join the study. C. It influences the validity of the study. D. All of the above B___1. Adopted children are considered members of: A. Blended family B. Nuclear family C. Extended family D. Consanguineal family B___2. Community interaction and independence are encouraged in this family type: A. Random type family B. Open type family C. Close type family D. Corporate family B___3. This family assessment tool enables the physician to determine family dynamics and family health problems: A. Family Genogram B. APGAR C. SCREEM D. Family Circle A___4. Present day Filipino families have accepted this family phenomenon: A. Husband no longer monopolizes as the bread winner B. Institutionalization of the aged member C. Parenting is restrictive D. Authoritative parents A___5. Family Life Cycle provides the physicians the most important information regarding: A. sequence of stressful events with family’s readjustments to maintain health and viability B. weak points are identified for the physician to strengthen C. bad practices for the physician to correct D. the dominant person in the family is identified for the physician to solely rely on him/her C___6. Considered most challenging stage of the family life cycle : A. Unattached young adult t B. Newly married couple C. Family with young children D. Family with adolescent D___7. This stage of family Life Cycle is characterized by the shifting generational roles: A. Newly married couple B. Family with adolescent 46
C. Launching family D. Family in later years D___8. A time for positive growth and creative exploration for the entire family A. Unattached young adult B. Newly married couple C. Family with young children D. Family with adolescent C__9 . The most important aspect of health promotion among adolescents A. Screening B. Immunization C. Health education D. Counseling
A__10. Almost 50% of pregnant Filipino women are suffering from:: A. anemia B. scurvy C. vitamin deficiency D. lack of iodine C__11 Median urinary iodine level that indicates mild IDD A. < 20 ug/L B. 20-49 ug/L C. 50-99 ug/L D. > 100 ug/L C__12. Daily vitamin A intake of pregnant women should not exceed A. 500 iu/day B. 5,000 iu/day C. 10,000 iu/day D. 20,000 iu/day E. 200,000 iu/day B__13 Most frequently reported debilitating chronic disorder among the elderly: A. asthma B. hypertension C. diabetes mellitus D. arthritis C__14 Triage is done during this phase of the Emergency Medical Services system: A. pre-treatment phase B. preliminary care phase C. definitive care phase at the receiving facility D. recuperation phase A___15. Which of the following is the real primary target of National Immunization Day? A. Poliomyelitis B. Tuberculosis C. Measles D. Diptheria, pertussis, tetanus D___16 The main goal of the country’s CARI program is: A. Early detection of pneumonia cases B. Prompt treatment of Pneumonia cases C. Efficient clinical assessment and management of Pneumonia cases D. Reduction of Pneumonia deaths A__ 17. To lessen mortality from pneumonia, the CARI program endorses: A. early diagnosis of pneumonia cases 47
B. hospital admission of all patients with pneumonia C. giving oral antibiotics to all children with cough and colds D. influenza immunization C___18. With the emergence of cardiovascular as the leading cause of mortality, DOH formulated the National Cardiovascular Disease Prevention and Control Program aimed primarily to: A. identify high risk individuals B. treat all identified cases of cardiovascular disease C. promote healthy lifestyle D. promote the use of indigenous drugs to treat cases D__19. Inaccessibility to health care in the Philippines is mostly due to: A. migration of doctors to other countries B. lack of health centers and barangay health stations C. lack of nurses D. most hospitals, health care facilities and doctors are urban based B___20. Increased prevalence rate is seen in: A. increasing population B. increased survival C. increased incidence D. epidemics B___21. A stage in the Family Life Cycle where parents and grandparents are encountering crisis as well: A. Launching B. Family in later years C. Family with adolescents D. Family with young children A.__22. An example of primary prevention is: A. Measles immunization B. self examination of the breast for tumors C. smoking cessation after a heart attack D. cervical cytology screening B__ 24. Births in the Philippines are registered in the municipality or city : A. where the infant’s parents live B. where the infant was born C. of the parent’s choice D. listed as the family’s permanent residence ‘ C __25. The cause of death coded for the purpose of tabulating mortality statistics is: A. Immediate cause of death B. intermediate cause of death C. underlying cause of death D. antecedent cause of death B__26 . The registration of death in the Philippines as specified by law must be done not later than: A. 24 hours after death B. 48 hours after death C. 2 weeks after death D. 30 days after death C__27. Deaths in the Philippines are registered in the municipality or city:: A. where the deceased was born B. of the person’s usual residence C. where the person died D. listed as the person’s permanent address
48
A__28 Accumulation of this metal in organs and tissues of humans has been linked to brain damage: A. mercury B. aluminum C. lead D. silver B__ 29 This CFC offender is “ozone safe” and does not contain chlorine: A. HCFC (hydrochlorofluorocarbons) B. HFCs (hydrofluorocarbons) C. Hydrocarbons D. Chlorofluorocarbons
B__ .30. Method of food preservation which prevents multiplication of bacteria without destroying them: A. preserving B. refrigeration C. fermentation D. pickling C__31 . Most important test to determine if the water is potentially dangerous: A. physical examination B. biological examination C. bacteriological examination D. chemical examination B___32. The coliform count from a well is 35/100 cc. The treatment required is: A. Rejection of sources B. Standard treatment C. Double treatment D. Triple treatment A___33. Milk is best preserved by this method: A. Sterilization B. Boiling C. Freezing D. Adding sodium benzoate C___34. Of the following devices for excreta disposal, the most dangerous in contaminating ground water is: A. Chemical privy B. Pail system C. Bored hole latrine D. Septic tank B___35 The concentration of which of the following greenhouse gases is affected by deforestation A. Water vapor B. Chlorofluorocarbons C. Methane D. Nitrous oxide B___36. Formation of sticky precipitates of soap with water indicates that the water is: A. Polluted B. Hard C. Contaminated D. Soft 49
D___37. Increase in which of the following in drinking water is associated with Alzheimer’s disease A. Antimony B. Zinc C. Silver D. Aluminum B___38. Dissolved gases and odors in water are removed by: A. Filtration C. Sedimentation B. Aeration D. Coagulation D___39. Chlorination of water is directed towards: A. Bad taste C. Turbidity B. Odor D. Bacteria B___ 40. The recommendedl refuse disposal method for hospital is: A. Dumping B. Incineration C. Recycling D. Composting A___41. The cheapest and most frequently used refuse disposal in the community but can result to water and air pollution is: A. Dumping B. Sanitary landfill C. Incineration] D. Reduction and salvage C__42. The first step in an epidemiologic/outbreak investigation; A. Formulate the hypothesis B. Characterize the epidemic C. Determine the existence of an epidemic D. Implement control methods B__43. The ultimate goal of an epidemiologic investigation: A. To request for international aid B. Institute curative, preventive and control measures to avoid more cases C. Identify administrative and operational problems of a health agency D. To determine discrepancies or gaps in policy implementation A___44. Primary Health Care Concept is: A. meant for people to attain health by being responsible for it B. the provision of all health care services at affordable prices C. meant to give accessible, affordable and available primary, secondary and tertiary care D. a level of care B__45. Direction of personnel and techniques in operation as a component of public health administration is: A. organization B. management C. staffing D. performance evaluation A__46 . Community Diagnosis is usually regarded as: A. situational analysis B. analysis of needs C. health survey D. health program planning C__47. In the model of a Health Care Delivery System, “input” refers to: A. health activities B. health products C. health resources 50
D. feedback A__48. Regulation of importation, manufacture, marketing, and consumer utilization of all drugs refer to: A. quality control B. rational use of drugs C. development of self-reliance in the local pharmaceutical industry D. tailored or targeted procurement of drugs by the government D__49. Control as a component of a health system model is exemplified by: A. immunization programs B. number of fully immunized children C. vaccines and reagents D. immunization protocol C___50. In community health planning, the BEST people to identify and prioritize problems are the: A. Community doctors D. Social worker B. Volunteer health workers E. Nurses/midwives C. Community people themselves C__51. Recognition of each one’s roles and functions in a multidisciplinary team is A. Comprehensive B. Continuous C. Teamwork D. Coordinated B__52. In a planning cycle, analysis of why programs and projects fail is: A. Situational analysis B. Evaluation C. Impact analysis D. planning A__53. With the implementation of the Local Government Code, municipal and city health services are placed under the supervision of the: A. City and municipal mayors B. Doctors of district hospitals B. DOH C. PGH D__54. Which of the following will make a country a priority for international aid? A. IMR of 5/1000 livebirths B. IMR of 15/1000 livebirths C. IMR of 20/1000 livebirths D. IMR of 50/1000 livebirths B__55. The ideal denominator for Maternal Mortality Rate but cannot be used : A. Total livebirths B. Number of pregnant women C. Total births D. Midyear population A__56. Most commonly used index of fertility: A. Crude Birth Rate B. General Fertility Rate C. Age Specific Birth Rate D. Total Fertility Rate C__57. Regarding exposure and outcome a relative risk of 15 for a certain disease means: A. Non causal association B. Beneficial association 51
C. Harmful association D. Definite causal association B__58. Swaroop”s index in an indicator of the following: A. B. C. D.
medical , social and economic condition of the area where it is applied a better chance for longer survival given to a population relative importance of different diseases as cause of death the “killing power” of a disease
B__59. The first line of defense against occupational hazard: A. personal protective equipment B. engineering control C. ergonomics D. good nutrition A__60. For asymptomatic and normotensive elderly, blood pressure monitoring should be: A. Every month B. Every 6 months C. Every year D. Whenever convenient A__61. For high risk elderly women Pap’s smear should be done: A. B. C. D.
Annually Every 2 years Every 3 years Every 5 years
C__62. The earliest reliable predictor of pneumonia in the CARI Program is: A. cyanosis B. chest indrawing C. tachypnea D. lethargy B__63. A. B. C. D.
In the CARI Program a child with productive cough must be given: Antitussives A lot of fluids Expoectorants Antibiotics
C__64. In the CARI Program the diagnosis for a 6-month old child with RR = 60/min, Chest , indrawing, intercostal and subcostal retraction but without cyanosis A. No pneumonia B. Pneumonia C. Severe pneumonia D. Very severe pneumonia A__ 65. The first line of antibiotic regimen under the CARI Program: A. oral Co-trimoxazole B. procaine penicillin C. chloramphenicol D. gentamicin B__66 So that an epidemic of chicken pox will not occur the best measure is: a. quarantine of cases b. isolation of cases c. control of animal reservoir d. surveillance of cases
control
D__67. Success in ORT of a child with diarrhea at home is achieved by: 52
A. B. C. D.
the doctor explaining to the mother/caretaker how it is done having posters on the clinic wall showing how ORT is done a nurse or health worker demonstrating ORT the mother/caretaker practicing giving ORT guided by a health worker
B__68. The main thrust in the control of diarrhea by the DOH: A. environmental sanitation B. oral rehydration therapy with ORESOL C. public education D. immunization A__69. A very early sign of dehydration in a child with diarrhea: A. thirst B. sunken eyes C. increased pulse and breathing rates D. somnolence D__70. Primary reason for inclusion of glucose in oral rehydration solution: A. as a source of calorie B. for palatability C. to increase the nutritive value D. to help in the absorption of sodium B__71. A. proportionate Mortality indicator: A. Age-sex specific death rate B. Swaroop’s index C. Infant Mortality Rate D. Neonatal Mortality Rate B__72. To establish ways to improve the overall health status of communities the best A. B. C. D.
experimental approach to use is: Clinical trial Community trial Therapeutic trial Intervention trial
B__73. The most accurate relative risk is the one established in: A. case-control study B. cohort prospective C. cohort retrospective D. cross-sectional study E. all of the above
B__74. To determine the prevalence of a disease this study design is used A. Descriptive B. Cross sectional C. Case control
D. cohort E. experimental
C__75. A cross-sectional study is not applicable for this purpose: A. determine the magnitude of diseases B. establish baseline data C. study causes of disease D. study rare diseases D__76. Controls in a case-control study are those: A. who will constitute the comparison group B. who will not develop the outcome C. who will not be given the experimental drug D. who do not have the illness being studied 53
C__78. The most important thing to consider in the selection of cases in a casecontrol study: A. B. C. D.
That the cases will definitely show positive exposure That the cases can be interviewed regarding past experiences That the cases satisfy the specific diagnostic criteria That the cases are typical of the patients to be studied
C__79. Not true of cohort studies: A. Investigators still have to wait for the outcome B. Controls are those without exposure or risk factor C. Intervention is given to the exposure group D. Study moves forward with time C__80. Statement/s that describes an experimental study: A. The investigator can only observe occurrence of disease in people under natural setting B. Contrast in outcome between study groups are observed, not created in a controlled way C. The investigator controls conditions under which the study is done D. The investigator observes disease occurrence in people who are grouped on the basis of experience or exposure.
D__81. The study design where the investigator has control over the conditions of the study: A. B. C. D.
cross-sectional case-control cohort experimental
l
D__ 82.Experimental studies are concerned with A. Investigating hypothesis regarding causal association B. Measuring effects on animals of introducing in a controlled way new cures for diseases C. Observing distribution of diseases in population D. Testing hypothesis through direct control over assignment of subjects to study groups
D__ 83. Intervention trial is exemplified by: A. B. C. D.
Simple mastectomy for breast cancer BCG vaccination for prevention of TB Isoniazid for TB prophylaxis Antihypertensive drugs to minimize stroke 54
B__ 84. The probability sampling method that assures adequate representation of minority sub-groups A. Systematic sampling B. Stratified sampling C. Cluster sampling D. Simple random sampling : C__85. Management of infants with diarrhea under the CDD Program A. Rest the stomach by fasting for a day B. Shift from breastfeeding to lactose free formula C. Add vegetable oil to food D. Start co-trimoxazole after 6 episodes of diarrhea D__86. The most effective method to control TB in the Philippines is: A. Isolation of TB patients B. Mass chemoprophylaxis with INH C. Mass chest x-ray and treatment of cases D. Mass BCG vaccination B__ 87.The most common complication associated with BCG vaccination is: convulsion suppurative lymphadenitis encephalitis reactivation of TB B__ 88.The management for an infant who developed a 10 mm red, tender swelling at the BCG site is: A. application of topical antibiotic on the swelling B. assurance of the mother that no treatment is needed C. application of pulverized INH on the swelling D. prophylactic INH at 10 mg/kg/day C__89. Occurrence of a group of illness of similar nature clearly in excess of normal expectancy; A. Holoendemic B. Hyperendemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic C__90 The rate used as an indicator of an outbreak or an epidemic: A. Morbidity rate B. Case fatality rate C. Incidence rate D. Prevalence rate A__91. A graphical presentation of data most useful in locating cases during an epidemic: A. Spot map B. Pictograph C. Scatter diagram D. Histogram C__92. Risk considered due to exposure: A. B. C. D.
relative absolute attributable odd’s ratio
A__93. The one that establishes cause-effect relationship is: A. relative risk B. absolute risk C. attributable risk D. odd’s ratio 55
B__94. Randomized control trial means: A. randomization was used and there is a control group B. randomization was used, there is a control group and conditions are controlled by the investigator C. randomization was used, there is a control group and the study is blinded D. randomization was used, there is a control group, the study is double blinded D__95. Cross-over trial means: A. with separate comparison groups B. with separate control groups C. no control group D. subject and control are the same persons D__96. To encourage community participation, the local doctor should do the following: A. invite people from civic organizations B. refer to specialist if the need arises C. encourage sponsorship of programs D. listen when people relate their problems B__97. In the Philippines, the age range most infected with HIV is: A. 15 – 24 years old B. 25 – 39 years old C. 35 - 44 years old D. 45 – 55 years old B__98. The most important mission of the Department of Health A. Promote healthy lifestyle B. Ensure accessibility and quality of health care C. Reduce morbidity and mortality D. Improve the general health status of the people C__99. Which diagnostic test is constantly reviewed in the National TB program? A. Bronchoscopy B. Chest x-ray C. Sputum culture D. Tuberculin skin test C__100. If a pregnant woman received 3 doses of Tetanus Toxoid she will have an immunity against tetanus for how many years? A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 10 years D. 15 years C__101. The mother of a 5-month old infant claimed that her baby had received complete immunization for his age. One can assume that the baby has already :received: A. BCG and measles vaccine B. BCG, 3 doses of OPV and 1 measles vaccine C. BCG and 2 doses of DPT vaccine D. BCG, 3 doses of OPV, DPT, Hepatitis B vaccine, 1 measle4s vaccine 1. Primary health care as defined in Alma Ata is referred to as: A. first contact between a physician and the patient B. strategy utilizing participatory approach in the provision of basic health services to the people. C. training program on first aid for the people in the communities D. a program of health activities carried out by health professionals
56
2. A characteristics feature of Primary Health Care include one of the following: A. community participation B. infrastructure development and modernization C. emphasis on curative medical care D. training of health professionals 3. People empowerment in primary health care is brought about through this means: A. volunteerism among the target population B. hiring and employment of community health workers C. community organization process D. endorsement from church and political community leaders 4. This type of health program allows maximum room for community participation and empowerment: A. hospital based program B. community oriented health program C. community managed health program D. community-based health program 5. The basic foundation of the community based and managed health program is: A. team approach B. health human rights C. equality and justice D. community organization 6. The main case finding strategy advocated in the National Tuberculosis Program is: A. chest radiography B. sputum microscopy C. DOTS D. Mantoux test 7. Based on the national Malaria control program, the currently recommended principal measure directed against the mosquito vectors in Malaria is: A. biologic vector control B. residual spraying with DDT C. use of chemical impregnated mosquito nets D. sterilization of male mosquitoes 8. The Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses (IMCI) requires the delivery of the following service(s) for a child who visit a physician’s clinic for any health related problems: A. routine immunization B. breastfeeding education for the mother C. proper and adequate nutrition counseling D. all of the above 9. The most cost effective preventive measure for the control of cardiovascular diseases: A. CVD screening using ECG B. environmental cleanliness C. primordial prevention of CVD risk factor D. genetic counseling 10. This is an essential health service that is available, accessible and affordable by the community: A. social care B. preventive medicine C. medical care D. primary health care 11.
The following level of health care does NOT belong to primary level: 57
A. B. C. D.
teacher health guardians emergency hospital rural health unit rural health midwife
12. Which of the following measures has the greatest impact on community health? A. provision of social services B. provision of potable water supply C. immunization D. medical care of the sick 13. The health status of a community may be measured or expressed in terms of: A. availability and utilization of health care services B. availability of public utilities C. its statistical indices of morbidity and mortality D. all of the above 14. Community planning should start with: A. formation of objectives B. identification of roles and their relationships C. educational analysis D. determination of resources 15. The local health department is usually associated with this type of health care planning: A. morbidity planning B. population-based planning C. institution-based planning D. financial planning 16. The prime yardstick of child health level in the community is A. infant and child mortality rate B. number of live births C. number of preschool children D. number of health centers 17. Growth monitoring is important in a primary health care program because it A. tells us how many children are at risk of being malnourished B. affords an occasion for maternal education C. tells us how many children are undernourished in the community D. improves the nutritional status of children in the community 18. Which factor determines the highest use of health care? A. sex B. education C. age D. income 19. The lowest operating unit of the DOH is the: A. emergency hospital B. rural health unit C. barangay health station D. district health office 20. Public health centers do NOT need constant supplies of: A. antidiarrheals B. analgesics C. antipyretics D. antibiotics 58
21. A primary health care team is composed of: A. Office of the Secretary of Health B. Provincial Health Officer and staff C. Municipal Health Unit and staff D. Interdisciplinary composition of community people working to gather under professional supervision 22. The principal and unique strategy of the PHC is: A. empowerment of the people B. holistic health care delivery C. teamwork among health personnel D. socialization of health care 23. Which of the following is NOT included in the essential health service of Primary Health Care? A. immunization against the major infectious disease B. provision of free drugs C. provision of safe water and basic sanitation D. appropriate treatment of all existing diseases 24. Medicare benefits include: A. psychiatry B. surgery C. optometry D. diagnostic tests 25. Under Medicare and most hospitals, the anesthesiologist's fee should NOT exceed _____% of the allowable surgeons' fee: A. 10% B. 30% C. 40% D. 20% 26. The 1995 National Health Insurance Program covers the: A. government employees only B. indigent patients only C. all Filipino citizens D. unemployed citizens 27. BCG vaccine is given according to the Expanded Program on Immunization of the Philippines, at what age? A. 3 months B. 6 months C. at birth D. 9 months 28. Control TB infectivity is best achieved by: A. isolation B. personal hygiene and cleanliness C. prompt specific drug treatment D. education 29. The Department of Health currently recommends the most effective mode of anti-TB treatment by: A. two-week monitoring B. directly observed therapy C. home visits D. health center based follow-up 30. During a diarrhea bout, breastfeeding of this infant should be A. stopped and substitute with a lactose-free formula B. temporarily discontinued C. given more often D. limited
59
31. A program in the control of communicable diarrheal diseases by the Department of Health: A. hydrotherapy B. oresol therapy C. physiotherapy D. use of intravenous fluids 32. Screening of children has been proven cost-effective for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypertension B. iron-deficiency anemia C. vision impairment D. tuberculosis 33. The Civil registry Law includes the registration of A. Births and marriages B. births, sickness and marriages C. births, deaths, marriages D. births, deaths, sicknesses, marriages 34. A 28 day old infant is classified as: A. neonatal mortality B. fetal neonatal mortality C. post-neonatal mortality D. perinatal mortality 35. The denominator in getting the sex ratio in a population is A. number of females B. number of fertile females C. number of fertile males D. number of males 36. An investigator reported three cases of carcinoma of the lungs among workers in a cement plant. This type of study is best described as A. Cohort B. Case series C. Case report D. Case control . 37. The major activities undertaken in the maternal and child health program does NOT include A. Immunization of pregnant mothers against measles B. proper pneumonia prevention C. promotion of prenatal care D. monitoring of growth and health status of infants and children 38. One of the major determinants of the degree to which chance affects the findings in any particular study is A. statistical testing B. sample size C. randomization D. bias 39. Hepatitis B spread is NOT known to occur in A. eating food B. sexual contacts C. household contact D. mother to child transmission in perinatal period 40. What kind of epidemiologic study should be done to determine the cause of an unusual infection? A. experimental studies B. analytic study C. descriptive study D. none of these 60
41. One of the following is NOT descriptive of a young population A. population pyramid with a wide base B. median age of 20-24 years C. crude birth rate greater than 30/1000 D. dependency ratio of 1:1 42. Specific health protection can be carried out by A. Immunization B. chemotherapy C. Health education D. A and B only 43. The Expanded Program on Immunization is concerned with this particular age group: A. Infants below 1 yr, school entrance, and pregnant women B. Infants below 6 mos, pre-schoolers, and pregnant women C. Neonates, pre-schoolers, and post-partum women D. Infants of any age, school children, and pregnant women 44. The recommended age for the start of DPT-OPV immunization under the government EPI is A. 8 weeks B. 10 weeks C. 6 weeks D. 12 weeks 45. An example of artificial active immunity is one that is derived from A. giving of gamma globulin B. vaccination C. actual illness D. transplacental passage of antibodies 46. Controlled studies mean A. An experiment is being done B. There is a comparison group C. the characteristics of the participants are all the same D. a group is not to be given the experimental procedure 47. A study was done to prove that co-trimoxazole is more effective than other drugs in treating respiratory tract infections in ambulatory patients in a community. The suitable control group will receive A. Another drug for respiratory infections B. The standard drug for treating respiratory infections C. another experimental drug for respiratory infection D. a placebo 48. A comparison or control groups is NOT necessary in A. Prospective studies B. Retrospective studies C. experimental studies D. descriptive studies 49. Results are generalized to a comparable population A. Internal validity B. External validity C. bias D. confounders 50. Double blind determination of the exposure and outcome is for the purpose of A. Reducing the effects of losses to follow up B. Reducing the effects of sampling variation C. achieving comparability of cases and controls D. avoiding observer and subject bias
61
51. Describes the distribution of cases by the variables of person, time, and place in order to study and explain acute outbreaks of disease and to develop hypothesis about disease transmission: A. Case control studies B. Analytic studies C. descriptive studies D. Experimental studies 52. Descriptive studies do A. Draw inferences about cause and effect B. Predict outcome C. not have a sample size estimation D. not require a hypothesis 53. The possibility of cause-effect relationship is difficult to assess in A. Experimental B. Cross-sectional C. cohort D. case-control 54. A study comparing the prevalence of hepatitis B infection among government and private hospitals falls under A. Descriptive study B. Cohort study C. case-control D. cross-sectional 55. A well-defined group of people who have had a common experience or exposure who are then followed up for the incidence of new diseases or events is a A. Variable B. Sample C. Case D. Cohort 56. Odds ratio is the measure of analysis commonly used in A. Case report B. Case-control studies C. case series D. cohort studies 57. A study is planned to determine if there are more users of oral contraceptives among patients with thrombophlebitis than among well persons. To achieve the objective, which of the following type of studies is most appropriate? A. Clinical B. Descriptive C. concurrent cohort D. case control 58. In a cohort study of the association of leukemia with x-ray exposure, the relative risk was found to be 3. What does this mean? A. Those with x-ray exposure have threefold probability of developing leukemia B. X-ray exposure protects the person from developing leukemia C. there is no association between leukemia and x-ray exposure D. none of the above 59. Which of the following study designs most appropriately illustrates this case history: “A total of 200 newly diagnosed patients with endometrial cancer are allocated to treatment with either surgical removal alone or surgical removal plus radiation treatment A. Clinical trial B. Case-control study C. case series report 62
D. cohort study 60. The observational study in which subjects are sampled based on the presence or absence of a risk factor of interest. These subjects are followed over time for the development of a disease outcome A. Case-control study B. Ecologic study C. cohort study D. cross-sectional study 61. In qualitative data, the appropriate measure of central tendency is the A. median B. average C. mean D. mode 62. "In a frequency distribution, the value that divides the observed values into two parts is the A. median and mode B. median C. mean D. mode 63. If there is an inherent order or progression among categories, they are said to be measure by: A. numerical scale B. nominal scale C. discrete scale D. ordinal scale 64. To represent the trend over time in crude birth rate and crude death rate in a given province, the best graph to use is a: A. bar B. histogram C. line diagram D. frequency polygon 65. The rate that measures the probability of a person dying in a year regardless of age, sex, race, etc is: A. case fatality rate B. neonatal mortality rate C. crude death rate D. specific death rate 66. The following indices use the midyear population as the denominator, EXCEPT: A. crude birth rate B. measles incidence rate C. crude death rate D. proportionate mortality rate 72. The following is an indirect method of nutritional assessment: A. Weight for height B. Percentage of low birth weight babies C. Height for age D. Measles mortality rate 73. The number of live births reported during a given time interval divided by the estimated number of women in the 15-44 year old group at mid-interval is: A. crude birth rate B. incidence rate C. prevalence rate D. fertility rate 74. This is the most commonly used index of fertility: 63
A. B. C. D. 75.
crude death rate infant mortality rate maternal mortality rate crude birth rate
Turbidity of a given water is due to the: a. radioactive contaminant in water b. total mineral content c. substances in solution d. impurities in suspension
76. Hardness of water is primarily due to: a. calcium and magnesium b. nitrogen content c. iron content d. sulphur content 77. Laws and regulations on Food Sanitation are implemented to protect the public against fraud and deceit. Some of the restraints are the following, EXCEPT: a. misbranding b. sale of damage food c. food adulteration d. adequate food storage 78. Which of the following is the primary objective of food sanitation? a. to ensure the consumption of safe and wholesome food b. to prevent the sale of food which is inferior in value and quality c. to cut down spoilage and wastage of food d. none of the above 79. Excreta disposal is considered to be sanitary if a. there is minimal fecal handling b. it prevents soil and water contamination c. it is accessible and acceptable contamination d. it prevents both soil water contamination and there is minimum fecal handling 80.One of the following is not a domestic sewage: a. sewage coming from industrial operations b. sewage coming from commercial establishments c. sewage coming from households d. sewage coming from offices 81.Sanitary methods of excreta disposal includes the following, EXCEPT: a. bored hole latrine b. septic tank c. aqua privy d. pour flush latrine 82. The most practical and sanitary way to excrete disposal in the rural areas is: a. overhung latrine b. water-sealed toilet c. chemical toilet d. septic toilet 83.A gas produced by the biodegradation of waste is: a. Methane b. oxygen c. carbon monoxide d. carbon dioxide 84.In the most part of the world, vector control is largely through: a. genetic manipulation of vectors 64
b. modifying the environment of vectors c. use of chemical pesticides d. extensive public health education 85.The probability that a person has the disease given a positive test result is: a. negative predictive value of the test b. sensitivity of the test c. specificity of the test d. positive predictive value of the test 86. A physician wants to determine the prevalence of parasitism among school children in an urban area. There is great variability in the economic status in that locality. On one hand, most children in private schools come from affluent families, and on the other hand, most children from public schools come from poor families. The most appropriate type of sampling methodology to use in this situation is: A. simple random sampling C. stratified random sampling B. systematic sampling D. multi-stage sampling 87. Philhealth benefits vary according to the following except: A. Relative unit value of surgery B. Actual cost of care C. Type of hospital D. Type of physician 88. One can be reasonably sure that the hypothesized cause preceded the occurrence of the disease and that disease status did not differentially influence the selection of subjects by study factor level in a: A. Cross-sectional study C. Case-control using prevalent cases B. Cohort study D. Experimental study design 89. The following method of data analysis is most relevant for the cohort study design: A. Prevalence odds ratio B. Prevalence rate C. Odds ratio D. Relative risk 90. This is a sampling method wherein every subject falling within a fixed sampling interval is obtained from a population N which is arranged in some definite way: A. Simple random sampling B. Systematic sampling C. Stratified sampling D. Cluster sampling 91. When a researcher wants to test for the association between two categorical variables, the appropriate statistic to use is: a. Chi square b. T test c. Analysis of variance d. Correlation coefficient 93. The rate that measures the probability of a person dying in a year regardless of age, sex, race, etc is: A. case fatality rate B. neonatal mortality rate C. crude death rate D. specific death rate 94. Which method of collecting data is devoid of observer error and bias? A. Interview B. Self-administered questionnaire C. Observation D. Review of documents 65
95. Used to describe the relative importance of different fatal disease in the population of different age, sex, occupation etc. a. specific death rate b. attack rate c. cause of death rate d. proportionate mortality rate 96. The peculiar feature of a cross sectional study that distinguishes it from other study designs is: A. Information on both the independent and dependent variables are collected simultaneously at the time of the survey B. Information on the independent variable is collected first, after which the subjects are followed up later for assessment of the dependent variable C. Information on the dependent variable is obtained, after which assessment of the independent variable is made D. Information on both the independent and dependent variables are obtained by doing either queries or actual observation 97. The effect of an inadequate sample size for a study is: A. Subjects may not be a random representative of the base population B. There may not be enough subjects that will develop the outcome, in order to detect a difference C. The researcher will not be able to apply the appropriate statistical test for the kind of data available D. The researcher might find an association between independent and dependent variables, even if there actually is none 98. The group most vulnerable to nutritional deficiencies: a. Pregnant women b. Working group c. Adolescents d. Non-lactating mothers 99. The most sanitary source of water is: a. Groundwater b. Rainwater c. Surface water d. Brackish water 100. The primary disinfectant in water treatment: a. Fluorine b. Chlorine c. Aluminum sulfate d. Ferric sulfate SOURCES: Beaglehole, Bonita, Kjellstrom; BASIC EPIDEMIOLOGY STUDENT’S TEXT, World Health Organization, July 1990 Clark, D., MacMahon, B: PREVENTIVE AND COMMUNITY MEDICINE, 2ND ed 1981 DOH Health Programs Manual Gupta, M.; Mahajan, B: TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 3rd ed 2003 Jekel, Elmore & Katz; EPIDEMIOLOGY BIOSTATISTICS AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE, 1996 Kuzma, Bohnenblust; BASIC STATISTICS FOR THE HEALTH SCIENCES 4th ed., McGraw-Hill 2001 66
Last, J; Wallace, R; PUBLIC HEALTH AND PREVENTIVE MEDICINE, 13th ed, 1992 Philhealth Manual Sanchez, Morelos, Baltazar, Peralta; RESEARCH METHODS IN HEALTH AND MEDICINE, Vol. 1 Planning Research (3rd ed.) Philippine Council for Health Research and Development 1996 Jmn/uermpcmexam questions for apmc may 4 2007 1. This is a branch of medicine that deals with provision of comprehensive health care to people regardless of age or sex: A. Public Health B. Community Medicine C. Preventive Medicine D. Family Medicine Answer: D –Proceedings of the Orientation Course in Family Medicine p. 8 3. This is the branch of medicine that deals with the study of the causes, distribution, and control of disease in populations: A. Family Medicine B. Preventive Medicine C. Epidemiology D. Public Health Answer: C – Epidemiology by Leon Gordis p. 2 4. Which of the following is an example of chemoprophylaxis for newborns? A. Varicella vaccine B. Erythromycin ointment C. Folic acid D. BCG Answer: B – Family Medicine Ambulatory Care and Prevention by Mengel et. al p. 736 5. Dr. Hook wants all of his children and their respective families to live with him and his wife until the time of his death. This is an example of what family structure? A. Nuclear B. Extended C C. Single Parent D D. Blended Answer: B – Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine pp. 14-15 6. The stepfather and half-brother of Keanna lives with her and her mother. This is an example of what family structure? A. Nuclear B. Extended C. Single Parent D. Blended Answer: D - Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine pp. 14-15 7. The family life cycle starts with this stage: A. Newly Married Couple B. Family With Young Children C. Unattached Young Adult D. Family With Adolescents Answer C: Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 18 67
8. In the family APGAR, resolve is elicited by A. asking if the family supports the patient in his desire for progress B. looking into patient's desire to openly communicate problems with the family C. Asking if the patient feels loved by family members D. inquiring if the patient is given adequate time by the members of the family Answer D: Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 41 9. Which of the following does not describe the CURRENT state of the Philippine health situation? A. Double burden of disease B. Continuing threat from emerging and resurgent diseases C. Highly centralized health care system D. Large variations in health status across population and socioeconomic groups Answer C: Filipino Report Card on Health, Social Weather Stations Survey 2000 11. A score of 8 on the family APGAR indicates: A. A highly functional family B. A moderately dysfunctional family C. A severely dysfunctional family D. A large, extended family structure Answer A - : Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 41 13. Which of the following parameters are evaluated in SCREEM? A. Entrepreneurial B. Economic C. Resolve D. Mental Answer B - Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 48 14. A dashed line (-------) that connects a male and female couple in the family genogram denotes A. a married couple B. a legally separated couple C. a consanguinous marriage D. live-in partners Answer D - Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 46 16. You should use an 'arrow' symbol in your patient's genogram to signify: A. The index patient B. The head of the family C. Death in the family D. Provider of the family Answer A - Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 36 17. Stage in the illness trajectory experienced by the patient and family members prior to contact with medical care providers A. Onset of illness B B. Impact Phase C C. Major therapeutic efforts D D. Early adjustment to outcomes Answer A - Proceedings of the orientation course in Family Medicine p. 29 18. The most catastrophic form of Cerebrovascular Accident A. Lacunar B. Thromoboembolic 68
C. Hemorrhagic D. Transient ischemic attack Answer C – Harrison Principles of Internal Medicine 14 th ed. P. 2342 19. Chronic bronchitis is a disorder in which productive cough is present in most days A. for at least 2 months of the year, for more than 3 consecutive years B. for at least 3 months of the year, for more than 2 consecutive years C. for at least 2 months of the year, for more than 2 consecutive years D. for at least 3 months of the year, for more than 3 consecutive years Answer B - Harrison Principles of Internal Medicine 14 th ed p. 1451 20. “It measures what is supposed to be measured” refers to:
69
A. Specificity B. Sensitivity Answer D. Epidemiology by Gordis p. 74
C. Validity D. Reliability
21. In Epidemiology, it is defined as the proportion of the true negatives correctly identified by the test. A. Specificity B. Sensitivity C. Validity D. Reliability Answer A. Epidemiology by Gordis p. 59 22. It is one with potentially an infinite number of possible values in any interval. A. Continuous variable B. Bulbous variable C. Categorical variable D. Discrete variable Answer A – Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 5 23. Another name for ranking scale, it has an implicit order relationship. A. Nominal B. Ordinal C. Interval D. Ratio Scales Answer B - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 5 24. The most frequently occurring value in a series of observations: A. Frequency distribution B. Median C. Weighted mean D. Mode Answer D - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 173 25. The highest score minus the lowest score equals the: A. Percentile rank B. Interquartile difference C. Range D. Standard deviation Answer C - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 183 26. The square root of variance: A. Standard deviation B. Interquartile range C. Percentile D. Kurtosis Answer A - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 188 70
27. This measure compares standard deviations between several investigations examining the same variable: A. Coefficient of variation B. Fractional integer C. Frequency distribution D. Quartile deviation Answer A - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 189 28. All of the following are true of the normal distribution EXCEPT: A. It is symmetrical about the mean B. It is completely determined by 2 parameters: the mean and the standard deviation C. It has different values for the mean, median, and the mode D. It has long tapering tails that extend infinitely in either direction without touching the X axis Answer C – Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al pp. 208-209 29. The weight of Filipino babies at birth was measured and found to have a mean of 2500 grams and a standard deviation of 300 grams. Which of the following statements is true? A. 68.5% of the babies would have a weight ranging from 2200 to 2500 grams B. 95% of the babies would have a weight ranging from 1900 to 3100 grams C. 99.7% of Filipino babies would have a weight between 2200 and 2800 grams D. All of the babies measured will have a weight between 2200 and 2500 grams Answer B - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 211 30. Which of the following measures central of tendency will have the highest value in a distribution that is skewed to the left? A. Average B. Mean C. Median D. Mode Answer D - Foundations of statistical analysis for the Health Sciences by Mendoza et. al p. 179 31.First step in a research process a. Introduction b. Research objective c. Hypothesis d. Conceptual definition e. Research problem Answer C- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.33 32.The frequency distribution of the sample mean that is generated by performing repeated sampling and obtaining the mean from each sample is called a. Sampling distribution b. Percentage tabulation c. Frequency tabulation 71
d. None of the above Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.21 33.This refers to a statement about the value of a population parameter which is either rejected or not rejected in hypothesis testing a. Research question b. Null hypothesis c. Alternative hypothesis d. Statistical decision Answer B- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.33 34.The test statistic that is used to compare the proportions of three different groups is a. b. c. d.
z-test t-test Chi-square test Linear regression
Answer C- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.46 35.The process of determining a range of values such that the parameter of interest is included in this range is called a. Interval estimation b. Point estimation c. Hypothesis testing d. Critical region Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.53 37.In hypothesis testing, this refers to the probability of obtaining the observed result or a more extreme one under the null hypothesis a. type I error b. power c. p-value d. type II error Answer C- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.37 38.In a study to compare the efficacy of two drugs, the statement “The proportion of patients that are cured by Drug A is the same as that by Drug B”, is called a a. b. c. d.
Null hypothesis Alternative hypothesis Statistical decision Research synthesis
Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.33 39.The first step in hypothesis testing is a. State the level of significance b. Specify the test statistic c. State the alternative hypothesis d. State the null hypothesis Answer D- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.33 40.Which of the following statements is true about confidence intervals? 72
a.The higher the confidence level, the wider the interval estimate. b.The higher the confidence level, the narrower the interval estimate. c.The confidence level does not affect the width of the confidence interval. d.None of the above Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.25
41.Incidence of a disease in a particular population over a specified time period: a.Morbidity rate C. Attack rate b.Mortality rate D. Crude rate Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.72 42.The cumulative incidence of the disease when the duration of a disease is short and the observation period covers an entire epidemic: a. Case fatality rate C. Mortality rate b.Attack rate D. Morbidity rate Answer B- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.70 43..An individual who has contact with or who manifests the risk factor prior to becoming ill: a.Exposed C. Infected b.Inflicted D. Well Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.72 44.The infant mortality rate of a country in a given year is 45.1 per year per 1000 live birth means: a.45.1 infants died before reaching their first birthday b.45.1% of all deaths occurred in infants below one year c.45.1 infants died before reaching their first birthday per 1000 live births d.45.1 infants per 1000 of the population died Answer A- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.72 45.An extraneous variable is called a. Independent variable b.Confounding variable c.Dependent variable d.Exposure variable Answer B- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.60 46. . Performance of new born screening should be done : A. 24 hours after birth but not more than one week B. 24 hours after birth but not more than five days C. 24 hours after birth but not more than three days D. anytime after birth E. none of the above Ans. C- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 47.The variable assumed to influence the problem a.Independent variable 73
b.Confounding variable c,Dependent variable d.Continuous variable Answer B- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.58 48. Newborn Screening Act of 2004 is also known as: A. RA 9288 B. RA 9388 C. RA 9287 D. RA 9387 Ans. A- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 49.. Penalties imposed in on individuals who violate the clean air act are the following except: A. first offense – one thousand pesos B. second offense – not less than two thousand pesos but not more than four thousand C. third offense – suspension of drivers license D. fourth offense – imprisonment of three months Ans. D- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 50.The assumption of the relation between two variables to be studied a. Introduction b.Research objective c.Hypothesis d.Conceptual definition e. Research problem Answer C- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.33 51. An Act which was design to promote corneal transplantation in the country: A. Corneal Transplant ACT B. Organ Transplantation ACT of 1998 C. Enacted on February 20,1995 D. Enacted on May 20,1995 Ans. C- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 52. A study that describes an interesting or unusual condition in a group of patients A. Case report B. Ecological study C. Cross-sectional study D. Case control study E. Case series Answer E- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.64 53.Recall bias is a common problem in what type of study a. Case report b. Ecological study c. Cross-sectional study d. Case control study e. Cohort study Answer D- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.63 54. A study that establishes the association between risk factor and outcome variable a.Case report b.Ecological study 74
c.Cross-sectional study d.Case control study e.Cohort study Answer E- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.62 55.In epidemiologic studies, the identification of causal factors is based on the experience of a.An individual b.A group of individuals c. Experimentation d. None of the above Answer B- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.68
56.This refers to statistical procedures that allow valid generalization of results from a sample to the population it is supposed to represent a.Statistical Association b.Causal Association c.Descriptive statistics d.Statistical inference Answer d- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.1 57.When one sets of the maximum probability of making an error of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true, he is specifying the a.Critical region b.Statistical test c.Level of Significance d.Power Answer C- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.34 58.In statistical inference, this term refers to the total collection of elements of interest a.Population b.Sample c.Parameter d.Statistic Answer a Answer d- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.1- HighYield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.1 59.This refers to the procedures in assessing evidence from a sample, whether or not the data from the sample supports a hypothesis about a population a.Statistical inference b.Estimation c.Hypothesis testing d.Descriptive statistics Answer c- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.33 60.In a sample of 500 Grade I children examined, 450 were found to have dental caries. The proportion 90% computed by dividing 450 by 500 is an example of a.Population b.Sample 75
c.Parameter d.Statistic e. unskilled workers Answer d- High-Yield Biostatistics by Lippincott Williams& Wilkins p.21 61.“Double burden of disease” means a. While the patient has to suffer the physiologic effects of an illness, he also has to contend with its psychological and economic impact b. While infectious diseases of poverty still abound, degenerative illnesses are on the rise. c. The top causes of morbidity always comes in a pair of related illnesses d. An infectious disease may be aggravated by a concomitant degenerative illness. Ans. B- Annual Report of the Field Health Service Information System pp 113-122 . Sec. Francisco Duque III 64.Which of the following does not describe the CURRENT state of the Philippine health situation? a.Double burden of disease b.Continuing threat from emerging and resurgent diseases c.Highly centralized health care system d.Large variations in health status across population and socioeconomic groups e.Health status generally improving but at a slower rate compared to neighboring Asian countries Ans. C- Annual Report of the Field Health Service Information System pp 113-122 . Sec. Francisco Duque III 65.In relation to the preceding question, which agency takes the principal responsibility for primary health care and service delivery at the community level as accorded by law? a.Local Government Chief Executives (like the Mayor, Governors) b.The Department of Health Secretary c.The President of the Republic d.The Doctors and midwives in the community Ans. D- Annual Report of the Field Health Service Information System pp 113-122 . Sec. Francisco Duque III 66.After infancy, this is the most common cause of disease and deaths for young children, especially below 5 years of age a.Immunizable Infectious disease b.Degenerative diseases c.Emerging diseases like Avian Flu d.Malnutrition Ans. D- Annual Report of the Field Health Service Information System pp 113-122 . Sec. Francisco Duque III 67. RA 7883 is also known as: A. Medical workers benefits and compensation act B. Barangay Health Workers Incentives and Benefits Act of 1995 C. Barangay Health Workers Benefits Act of 2003 D. Voluntary Blood Donation Act of 2002 Ans. B- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 68. Hospital Licensure Act, which requires that all hospitals be licensed is also known as: 76
A. RA 4226 B. RA 2426 C. RA 2264 D. RA 1235 Ans. A- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 69. The National Blood Services Act was enacted into law in: A. 1996 B. 1995 C. 2000 D. 1994 Ans. D- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 70. An Act establishing Philhealth is also known as: A. Philippine Health Insurance Act of 1995 B. National Health Insurance Act of 1995 C. National blood donation Act of 1995 D. Philippine Health Insurance and Benefits Act of 1995 Ans. D- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 71. Traditional and Alternative medicine act of 1997 established this to promote traditional and alternative medicine. A. TAMATH B. PATIHC C. PITAHC D. TAMHC Ans. C- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 72. TAMA was established in: A. June 28, 1997 B. August 28,1996 C. September 30,1998 D. July 28, 1997 Ans. D- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 73. Republic Act 8344 is an amendment to : A. PB 107 B. PB 239 C. PB 701 D. PB 578 Ans. B- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 73. On of the policies of this Act is to protect the consumer from deceptive, unfair and unconscionable sales act and practices. A.RA 7393 B. Consumer Act of the Philippines C. Both D. None of the Above Ans. B- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 74.The level of state involvement is lowest in which policy instrument? a.Auction of property rights b.Information and exhortation c.Subsidy d.Regulations 75. An Act regulating the packaging, use, sale and distribution of tobacco and other related products. A.RA 9211 77
B. PB 9211 C. tobacco protection act of 2003 D. Tobacco Distribution Act of 2002 Ans. A- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 77. The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers, also known as RA 7305 was enacted on: A. April 24,1993 B. March 26, 1992 C. April 24, 1994 D. May 1,1993 Ans. B- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 78. To promote and encourage voluntary blood donation is one of the policies of the: A. Blood Donation Act B. Organ Donation Act C. Blood Services Act D. Organ Services Act Ans. C- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 79. An Act regulating the practice of pharmacy in the Philippines: A. RA 5678 C. RA 5921 B. RA 5932 D. RA 5934 Ans. C- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 80. RA 8344 is also known as: A. National AIDS Prevention Act B. Tobacco Distribution Act C. Act Preventing Hospital Deposits D. Clean Air Act Ans. C - http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 81. Conducting an ocular view of all existing hospitals in the Philippines is one of the duties of the : A. DPWH B. Department of Sanitation C. DOH- Hospital Services D. Hospital Licensure Board Ans. C- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 82. An act to promote, require and ensure the adequate supply, distribution, use and acceptance of drugs and medicines identifies by their generic names. A. Generics Act B. Pharmacy Regulation Act C. AIDS Act D. RA 6665 Ans. A- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 83. An Act prohibiting the sale, distribution and manufacture of counterfeit drugs: A. RA 8302 B. RA 8023 C. RA 8203 D. RA 8032 Ans. A- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 84. The Clean Air Act of 1999 was enacted on: A. June 23, 1998 B. July 28,1999 C. July 27,1999 78
D. July 27,1998 Ans. D- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 86. Included in the mandate of this act is the reporting of HIV/ AIDS positive individuals for the purpose of monitoring AIDS cases in the Philippines: A. HIV monitoring and control act of 1997 B. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 C. Philippine AIDS Control Act of 1998 D. AIDS ACT of 1997 Ans. B- http://www.doh.gov.ph/health_laws.htm 87.When was the Alma Ata declaration initially intended to be achieved? a. Year 1990 b. Year 2000 c. Year 2015 d. Undetermined Ans B -Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 88.When are the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) initially intended to be achieved? a.Year 1990 b.Year 2000 c.Year 2015 d.Undetermined Ans. C-HTTP://www.un.org/millenniumgoals 89.Which of the following is not a direct health-related MDGs? a.Reduce child mortality by two-thirds among children under five b.Improve maternal health by reducing maternal mortality by threequarters c.Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria, and other diseases d.Achieve universal primary education Ans. d-HTTP://www.un.org/millenniumgoals 90.Which of the following is not an MDG? a.Achieve universal primary education b.Promote gender equality and empower women c.Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria, and other diseases d.Achieve Universal health promotion activities Ans. D-HTTP://www.un.org/millenniumgoals 91.Which approach enumerated below emphasizes the need for community participation in achieving betterment for health? a.Primary Care Approach b.Millennium Development Goals c.Primary Health Care approach d.Eradication of Extreme Poverty and Hunger 92.Which approach enumerated below emphasizes the need for investments in health to achieve national development? a.Primary Care Approach b.Millennium Development Goals c.Primary Health Care approach d.Eradication of Extreme Poverty and Hunger Ans. B-HTTP://www.un.org/millenniumgoals
79
93.Jeffrey Sachs, a Harvard-educated economist, authored the document commissioned by the World Health Organization (WHO) that eventually established the global funds. The said funds pooled monetary and various resources together at the global level and earmarked these into Programs and activities targeted to eradicate debilitating diseases, especially in aid of developing countries. What is the title of his document? a.WHO Commission on Macroeconomics and Health b.WHO Commission on Health-related Economics c.Primary Health Care d.The Commission on the Millennium Development Goals Ans. A.-MACROECONOMICS AND HEALTH: INVESTING IN HEALTH FOR ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT by Jeffrey Sachs pp 1-17 Executive Summary 94.The MDGs stipulated reductions in maternal and child mortalities by a fraction of a benchmark value. The MDGs are compared to the situation during which year that served as benchmark? a.1990 c.2015 b.2000 d.undetermined Ans. A.-HTTP://www.un.org/millenniumgoals 95.Which of the following statements is false? a.The document that served as basis for the MDGs showed evidences between the links of disease and poverty. b.The Alma Ata Declaration is obsolete since it should have been achieved in the year 2000. c.The Alma Ata Declaration uses the primary health care approach. d.The Millennium Development Goals is conceptualized behind the idea that better health means better productivity and vice-versa. e.The MDGs push us to achieve better investments for health. Ans B -Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 96.Which of the following is not an essential element of primary health care? a.Immunization b.Essential Medicines c.Maternal Mortality d.Water and Sanitation Ans C -Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 97.Which of the following is not an essential element of primary health care? a.Nutrition and supplemental feeding b.Essential Medicines c.Maternal and Child Health d.Population Control and Management Ans D -Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 98.Which of the following is not an essential element of primary health care? a.Immunization b.Endemic Diseases c.Universal Primary Education d.Curative Care
80
Ans C -Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 99.What year was the Alma Ata Declaration adopted by over 130 WHO Member-States, including the Philippines? a.1958 b.1968 c.1978 d.1988 e.1998
81
Ans C -Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 100.According to the WHO, health is defined as: a..Not merely the absence of disease b.The absence of infirmity c.The complete physical, mental and social well-being of a person d.All of the above e.None of the above Ans D-Health for all beyond 2000: the demise of the Alma-Ata Declaration and Primary Health Care in developing countries; John Hall and Richard Taylor entitled " 1. In what case should a family case conference or meeting be of least help? A. child admitted for LBM and vomiting of three days duration B. Two year old newly diagnosed to have thalassemia, a blood disorder C. Fifty three year old working mother diagnosed with Stage III breast CA D. Forty five year old father with TB who remains symtomatic on the 5 th month of medication 2. The single most difficult time in the entire illness experience is A. onset of illness B. diagnosis of major debilitating or terminal illness C. financial aspects of application of therapy D. adjustment to permanency of outcome 3. Total evaluation of health care involving family relations, social and cultural systems leading to better evaluation of health care A. family life cycle B. family systems theory C. family set-up D. family relationships/parent-child interaction 4. DOH program to control diarrhea is targeted for A. under 5 years of age B. children and pregnant women C. lactating mothers D. 2-14 years old 5. The following are covered by Philhealth except A. legitimate married 19 year old daughter B. thirty year old legally blind man C. sixty five year old mother working at a sari-sari store but depends for most needs on employed forty year old son D. spouse who is not an NHIP member 6. In 1992 all administrative powers were transferred to political units and health managers came under the management of non-health managers. A. centralization B. devolution C. reorganization D. restructuring
7. One of the guiding principles of RA 7875 is universality which refers to A. adequately meeting the needs for personal health services at various stages of a member’s life B. provision to all citizens the mechanism of gaining financial access to health services C. provision of uniform basic benefits D. balancing economical use of resources with quality of care 8. Membership in the NHIP shall take effect A. three days after payment of premiums B. upon enrollment and payment of premiums C. at the time the member gets sick D. one month after enrollment and payment of premiums 9. One of the following characterizes the “essential drug” concept A. should be implemented by those in the government sector B. one could select about 250 essential drugs for 90% of the diseases in the country C. does not allow patients to choose from a list of generic drugs D. discrepancy between availability of drugs and needs of population 10. The following are categories of health services granted to the member or his dependents for in-patient hospital care A. room and board B. fee for privately hired nurse C. personal preventive services D. food supplements 11. Ability of the body to produce antitoxin with diphtheria vaccine A. agent characteristic B. host characteristic C. host-agent characteristic D. agent-environment characteristic 13. Referral to home care program of a diagnosed cancer patient A. primary prevention B. secondary prevention C. tertiary prevention D. primordial prevention 14. The amount of chopped fresh leaves of lagundi for adults is A. two teaspoons B. two tablespoons C. four tablespoons D. six tablespoons 15. One of the following is used as diuretic and anti-urolithiasis agent A. ulasimang bato B. sambong C. yerba Buena D. guava 16. Ampalaya leaves is recommended for A. insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus B. non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus C. non-toxic goiter
D. toxic goiter 17. One of the following medicinal plants contains vinca alkaloids and may be used as an anticancer agent A. adelfa B. aloe vera C. rosas de baybayon D. tawa-tawa 18. When garlic is used to lower cholesterol, it should not be A. broiled B. soaked in vinegar C. fried D. raw 19. Stability of vitamins under refrigeration A. agent-environment interaction B. host-environment interaction C. human host-agent interaction D. agent-host-environment interaction 20. Second line of defense against disease agents A. secretions B. respiratory cilia C. mucous membranes and nails D. lymph glands 21. Per single period of confinement a general practitioner will be paid by the Philhealth A. B. C. D.
500 pesos/day 150 pesos/day 300 pesos/day 200 pesos/day
22. Strategies to control TB in the Philippines except A. B. C. D.
DOTS for all patients Free medicines available for patients in public hospitals only Active participation of private practitioners in NTP NTP reaches out to physicians in private sector
23. Essential elements of primary health care except A. B. C. D.
MCH including EPI Basic sanitation and safe water Provision of food supply Essential drugs available
24.One of the advantages of decentralizing the health system is A. Greater representation of various political, religious, ethnic, and tribal groups in development decision-making. B. Bureaucratic and highly structured nature of the health system facilitates more efficient delivery of services C. Lesser participation of citizens in development planning and management, hence, lesser conflict
D. Greater control of officials in the central office as regards to planning and implementation of programs 25. According to Rule IX of the Magna Carta, a public health worker who is regularly employed under permanent status shall have security of tenure A. But he can be dismissed anytime from work if his boss finds him unsatisfactory for the job B. If he is unjustly dismissed from the service, he/she shall be entitled to reinstatement without loss of seniority rights and payment of back wages/salaries and other benefits C. And can never be terminated from his job D. But is not entitled to benefits and back wages if unjustly dismissed from service 26. Family type that includes stepparents and stepchildren brought about by annulment, separation and remarriage A. B. C. D.
nuclear extended blended communal
27. True of systems concepts of family by Minuchin except A. adapting to change is hallmark of healthy functioning B. symptoms of our member have effect within the family C. repeating interaction patterns regulate behavior of members D. usually there are victims and victimizers in the family 28. Family structure where relationship exists between at least three people and two collude against the other A. B. C. D.
coalition alliance role selection boundaries
29. Enmeshment as family process occurs in the following A. B. C. D.
mother-child subsystem excludes father in parenting third person comes into a two-pair system to diffuse conflict members are overly reactive to stress on one member parents have privacy from children
30. True of family genogram construction except A. B. C. D.
consist of at least three generations firstborn is farthest to the right with sibling following to the left horizontal lines connects children with spouses children connected to parents with vertical lines
31. In APGAR, this measures the satisfaction attained in solving problems by the communicating A. B. C. D.
Affection Resolve Adaptation Partnership
32. A mother who insists to accompany her son enrolling in medicine proper during the routine physical exam in school A. Triangulation B. Coalition C. Disengagement D. Enmeshment
33. A daughter sides with her mother regarding their problem with the father. They accuse the father having another woman A. B. C. D.
coalition disengagement triangulation enmeshment
34. A family with three children ages 9, 10, and 15 living with their grandparents in the city have adopted a 2-year old boy. The family’s APGAR is 3. This family’s function is A. B. C. D.
normal mildly dysfunctional moderately dysfunctional severely dysfunctional
35. Atherosclerotic changes in coronary vessels A. Stage of Susceptibility B. Stage of Presymptomatic disease C. Stage of Clinical disease D. Stage of Disability 36. Measles followed by the development of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis A. Stage of Clinical disease B. Stage of Susceptibility C. Stage of Presymptomatic disease D. Stage of Disability 37. Secondary prevention except A. specific protection B. disability limitation C. prompt treatment D. early diagnosis 38. Health promotion except A. use of immunizations B. genetics C. personality development D. periodic selective examination 39. Levels of preventive measures affecting reaction of the host to the stimulus except A. B. C. D.
specific protection rehabilitation disability limitation early diagnosis and prompt treatment
40. Tertiary prevention except
A. B. C. D.
sheltered workshop half-way homes occupational therapy improvement in working conditions in dusty industries
41. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment in cancer include the following except A. Recruitment and training of specialists B. Self-examination of breast C. Cancer detection centers D. Selective examination 42. Ability to stimulate the host to produce agglutinins, opsonins, antitoxins, etc. A. Pathogenicity B. Virulence C. Antigenicity D. Infectivity 43.Measure of ability of an agent when lodged in the body to set up local or general tissue reaction A. Pathogenicity B. Virulence C. Infectivity D. incubation period 44. The most relevant part of the death certificate because it is the one counted in the statistics since it is the basic condition which began the train of events which led to death A. immediate cause of death B. intervening cause of death C. intermedial cause of death D. underlying antecedent cause 45. Which of the following is true regarding physiologic adjustments in temperature? A. The percent of the body surface wetted with sweat decreases with the need to lose heat until maximum sweating occurs. B. The sweat, which runs off, the body is of great value in removing heat from the body, since heat is lost only when sweat is evaporated. C. If the temperature and humidity are both high, the body may be unable to lose sufficient heat. D. Men do not voluntarily replace the water lost by sweating; the sensation thirst is quite adequate. 46. Relation of high temperature and humidity to physical work A. Muscular work contributes little to the total body heat load than environmental conditions B. Rectal temperature is most closely related to the rate of physical work C. The capacity of a man to work drops off at high temperature because of lack of oxygen supply. D. A marked increase in lactic acid in the blood limits the capacity of man to work at high temperature. 47. If the body is immersed in cold water, rather than cold air A. body temperature falls gradually B. air conducts heat faster than water C. air has a higher specific heat value
D. entire body surface loses more heat to the water 48. This is the 2nd most abundant greenhouse gas: A. nitrous oxide B. CFC’s C. Carbon dioxide D. Methane 49. This is not necessary in the formation of Ozone A. hydrocarbons B. SO2 C. Nitrous oxide D. Sunlight 50. The process of removing or destroying all microbial life of an object A. antisepsis B. sterilization C. disinfection D. antimicrobial 51. Exert their action by injuring plasma membranes A. phenols B. biguanides C. halogens D. alcohols 52. True on halogens as disinfectants except A. Iodine may combine with certain amino acids to inactivate enzymes B. Germicidal action of chlorine is based on the formation of hyperchlorous acid when chlorine is added to water C. Iodine is available as a tincture (combined with an organic molecule). D. Chlorine is used as a disinfectant in gaseous form 53. The following statements are correct regarding surface-active agents except A. Acid anionic detergents are used to clean dairy equipment B. Soaps assists in the removal of microorganisms through scrubbing C. Detergents decrease the surface tension among molecules of a liquid D. Soaps have a wide range of germicidal action 54. True concerning radiation except: A. Microwave can kill microbes indirectly as materials get hot. B. The effects of radiation depend on wavelength and duration C. Ultraviolet radiation has a high degree of penetration and exerts primary by ionizing water D. X-rays exert its effect by forming highly reactive hydroxyl radicals 55. The seven target diseases are: A. measles, polio, pneumonia, tetanus, chicken pox, TB B. diphtheria, mumps, polio, Tb, tetanus, measles C. TB, polio, measles, diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, hep B D. Tetanus, pertussis, tonsillitis, measles, tetanus, TB 56. Extremely low frequency electromagnetic fields can cause brain tumor and this is emitted by A. television sets
B. laser printers C. Xerox machines D. Microwave oven 57. A 20-year-old female in respiratory distress was brought to the emergency room for intentional ingestion of a poisonous substance. Of the following, which is the most appropriate thing to do first. A. B. C. D.
Get a detailed history Maintain vital signs Give antidote Induce vomiting
58. Contamination of food by cockroaches is as example of : A. vehicle-borne transmission B. air-borne transmission C. mechanical transmission D. biological transmission 59. Gas responsible for explosion in garbage dumps: A. carbonic acid gas B. carbon monoxide C. methane D. nitrogen 60. Usual speech frequency is: A. 0 db B. 120 db C. 500 to 2000 Hz D. 20 to 20,000 Hz 61. Most likely to occur during cases of bomb explosions: A. conductive hearing loss B. noise –induced deafness C. sensorineural hearing loss D. temporary threshold shift 62. In storing vaccines, the following should be remembered A. DPT vaccine can be stored in the freezer and thawed B. The diluent should be in the area where the solvent is C. Never keep vaccine in the door of the refrigerator D. If the vaccine stored above or below safe temperature it will not lose its potency if it is for a short period of time only. 63. In transporting vaccine using a vaccine carrier this vaccine should be placed in contact with frozen ice packs A. BCG B. OPV C. DPT D. TT 64.This vaccine is most easily damaged by sunlight A. polio vaccine B. BCG C. DPT D. Tetanus toxoid
65. A fully immunized child has finished A. BCG, 2 DPT, 2 OPV B. BCG, 3 DPT, 3 OPV C. BCG, 3DPT, 3 OPV, Measles D. 3 DPT, 3 OPV, Measles 66. A 21 year old woman is pregnant with her first child, she had had received 2 doses of DPT when she was a child. How many doses does she need so that all infants born to her will be protected? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 67. Normal reaction to BCG vaccination are the following except A. small and tender swelling about 10mm across after 2 weeks B. swelling became small abscess when vaccinated after 2-3 weeks C. formation of scar after about 10 weeks D. acute inflammation reaction appearing 4-2 days of vaccination 68. The separation of infected persons for the period of communicability to prevent transmission of infectious agent to those who are susceptible is A. quarantine B. surveillance C. isolation D. herd immunity 69. The prevention transmission of highly contagious or virulent infection that may be spread by both air and contact is A. strict isolation B. contact isolation C. respiratory isolation D. drainage precaution 70. These diseases are internationally quarantinable diseases and thus are labeled as Diseases Under Surveillance by WHO. A. B. C. D.
plague, cholera, smallpox plague, typhoid fever, cholera leprosy, smallpox, plague malaria, leprosy, smallpox
72. When shellfish is harvested from a contaminated area, it should purge before consumption for approximately: A. 1 day B. 1 week C. 2 weeks D. 2 days 73. One of the neurotoxins found in coal: A. cadmium B. chromium C. manganese D. arsenic
74. The most important test for potability of water. A. taste and odor B. chemicals C. algae, microorganism D. strep coliforms 75. Examples of water-borne diseases EXCEPT : A. amoebiasis B. minimata disease C. poliomyelitis D. schistosomiasis 76. Man is the definitive host in: A. dengue fever B. filiariasis C. malaria D. Rocky mountain spotted fever 77. Rats and other rodents are the reservoir and source of several diseases of man except A. B. C. D.
schistosomiasis salmonellosis dengue hemorrhagic fever plague
78. Which should be first priority in disaster relief? A. Safety of food supply B. Vector control C. Excreta disposal D. Promotion of personal hygiene 79. Early effects of ionizing radiation includes the following except A. anorexia, nausea, vomiting B. marrow syndrome C. sterility D. increase childhood cancer 80. The following are environmental sources of occupational stress except A. excessive noise B. attitudinal problems C. hot/cold fever D. posture 81. The bacterial limits for pasteurized milk and milk products is: A. 100, 000/ml B. 10,000/ml C. 20,000/ml D. 1gm/ml 82. A selective, partial limitation of freedom of movement of contacts, on the basis of known or presumed differences in susceptibility and related to danger of disease transmission. A. B. C. D.
absolute quarantine modified quarantine isolation surveillance
84. What type of sampling technique is used for “Man-in-the-street” surveys and interviews among senior citizens who drop in at a health booth in SM City? A. simple random B. systematic C. haphazard D. cluster 85. What is the ability of a study to demonstrate an association if one exists? A. alpha B. P value C. power D. Type II error 86. In contrast to observational studies, experimental research: A. attempts to describe prevailing trends occurring in a population B. empirically tests a cause-effect relationship among variables C. requires two or more population groups in a study D. identifies risk factors accompanying the independent variable 87. Any of the following may be included as an “exposure” in health research except: A. potential risk factor B. The outcome being studied C. The treatment or therapy D. A health problem 88. The following are impact programs of DOH except A. soil-transmitted helminthes disease control B. rabies control C. malaria control D. environmental health services 89. Type of outbreak where exposure is brief and all cases develop within one incubation period of the disease. A. common source outbreak with intermittent exposure B. common source outbreak with continuous exposure C. point source outbreak D. propagated outbreak 90. A distribution that is negatively skewed hasA. higher frequency on the right B. higher frequency on the left C. a flatter distribution than the normal distribution D. a more peaked distribution than the normal distribution 91. Which has a wider interval? A. 80% confidence interval B. 90% confidence interval C. 95% confidence interval D. 99% confidence interval 92. Aims to reveal the existing gaps in knowledge regarding the problem being studied A. significance of the study B. research question C. review of literature
D. conceptual framework 93. A nominal scale: A. is made up of labeled or named categories with no implied order B. is a ranking scale C. has an ordering of values with one better than the other D. has equal distances between values 94. In a stratified sampling: A. k is determined by dividing the number of items in the sampling frame by the desired sample size B. the population is first divided into relevant subgroups and a random sample is selected from each C. the probability that a subject may be selected is unknown D. the assignment of subjects to treatments is done by using random methods 95. Which is used to test for differences among proportions? A. paired t-test B. B. 2-sample t-test C. ANOVA D. D. Chi-square test 96. An investigator conducts a historical cohort study to explore the relationship between perimenopausal exogenous estrogen use and the risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). A total of 5000 exposed and 5000 unexposed women are enrolled and followed for 15 years for the development of myocardial infarction (MI). A total of 200 estrogen users and 300 nonusers had MIs. What is the relative risk for MI? A. B. C. D.
0.33 0.50 0.67 1.5
97. A study was undertaken to compare results of the surgical treatment of duodenal ulcer. A total of 1,358 patients who met the study criteria were randomly assigned to one of four surgical procedures. The purpose of the randomization was to A. ensure that the double-blind aspect of the study was maintained B. obtain the unbiased distribution of good- and poor-risk patients in all treatment groups C. achieve the same number of patients on each operation D. guarantee that the study group was a representative sample of the general population 98. A newly developed test for diabetes produced positive results in 138 of 150 known diabetics and in 24 of 150 persons known not to have diabetes. What is the sensitivity of the test? A. 84% B. 85.2% C. 88% D. 92%
99. Treatment of a patient with gonorrhoea constitute: A. primary prevention for the patient, secondary prevention for potential contact B. secondary prevention for patient, primary prevention for potential contact C. secondary prevention for patient, tertiary prevention for contact D. tertiary prevention for contact, primary prevention for patient 100. An indirect health impact of climate change: A. heat wave in Europe in 2003 causing more than 20,000 deaths B. respiratory illness due to an increase in ozone C. altered concentration of fungal spores causing respiratory problems D. El Niño events causing dengue outbreaks
