MCU-FDT Medical Foundation Department of Family & Community Medicine 1. Usually expressed as the percentage of persons diagnosed as having a specified disease who died as a result of that illness within a given period: A. Incidence rate C. Infection rate B. Attack rate D. Case-fatality rate 2. Ability of the agent to invade and damage tissues of the host indicated by case fatality rate: A. Pathogenic C. Infectivity B. Virulence D. Immunity 3. A person not possessing sufficient resistance against a particular pathogenic agent to prevent contracting infection when exposed to agent: A. Suspect C. Susceptible B. Reservoir D. Resistant 4. The ability of the agent to gain access and adapt to the human host to the extent of finding lodgment and multiplying within the host: A. Infectivity C. Virulence B. Pathogenicity D. Infection 5. Rehabilitation of a stroke patient is what level of prevention: A. Primary C. Tertiary B. Secondary D. None of the above 6. Antibody of the newborns acquired firm the mothers: A. Natural acquired immunity B. Natural acquired passive immunity C. Artificial acquired active immunity D. Artificial acquired passive immunity 7. If all three (3) lines are filled up in the medical certification of death the entry that will be counted in the statistics is: A. Immediate cause C. Underlying antecedent cause B. Intervening antecedent cause D. Other significant conditions 8. This study design is unable to link exposure with disease in particular individuals. Represents average exposure levels. A. Case-control C. Correlational B. Case-series D. Cross-sectional 9. In a cohort study of breast implants and the risks of connective tissue, 48 y/o of the implanted patients are lost to follow-up. A. Selection bias C. Recall bias B. Information bias D. Ecologic fallacy 10. In case-control study of mouthwash use and risk of oral cancers, the cases tend to overreport the use of mouthwash: A. Selection bias C. Recall bias B. Information bias D. Ecologic fallacy 11. Approach used to compare the benefits of 2 alternative pharmacologic treatment for peptic ulcer disease: A. Case-control C. Randomized controlled clinical trial B. Cohort D. Descriptive study
12. The infant mortality rate of a country in a given year is 45.1 per year per 1000 live birth means: A. 45.1 infants died before reaching their first birthday B. 45.1% of all deaths occurred in infants below one year C. 45.1 infants died before reaching their first birthday per 1000 live births D. 45.1 infants per 1000 of the population died 13. What is the proportion of unaffected individuals who will have the disease in two years when there are 1,050 subjects under observation and a total of 750 developed the disease? A. 36% C. 71% B. 100% D. 1.4% 14. Primary heath care is defined as: A. An integral part both of the country’s health system of which it is the nucleus and of the overall socio- and economic development of the community B. The community health C. An exhortation to engage in long term planning D. Intensify health education efforts, particularly among the poorest segment of the population 15. The ongoing collection by government agencies of data relating to events such as births, deaths, marriages, and health and health-0related conditions deemed reportable by local health authorities. A. Descriptive statistics C. Vital statistics B. Analytic statistics D. All 16. Measles vaccine is an example if a : A. Killed vaccine B. Live vaccine
C. Live, attenuated viral vaccine D. Live attenuated bacterial vaccine
17. It is a system of pumps, pipes, devices and other structures for collection of liquid wastes: A. Sewage C. Sewerage B. Sewer D. Waste disposal 18. In the control of schistosomiasis, the drug of choice is: A. Mebendazole C. Praziquantel B. Oxantel pamoate D. Pyrantel pamoate 19. The strategy being implemented by the National Tuberculosis Program (NTP) to address poor treatment compliance problem: A. Provision of free-anti Koch’s medication B. Systematization of drug supply distribution C. Directly observed treatment D. Health education to motivate patient 20. A child was brought to the E.R. after swallowing a metal detarnisher. The cause of poisoning is due to: A. Solanine C. Lead B. Cyanide D. Enterotoxin 21. The usual incidence of a disease in a population is referred to as the: A. Pandemic rate C. Hypodermic rate B. Epidemic rate D. Endemic rate
22. A company wants to put up a water source but the lot is situated near a cemetery. What is the distance required from the cemetery to a water source? A. 20 meters away C. 40 meters away B. 30 meters away D. 50 meters away 23. The hallmark of the Control of Diarrheal Diseases Program is rehydration therapy. The components of ORS for rehydration at home is: A. 1 tsp. salt, 4 tsp., sugar, 1 liter pre-boiled water B. 1 tsp. salt, 8 tsp., sugar, 1 liter pre-boiled water C. 2 tsp. salt, 8 tsp., sugar, 1 liter pre-boiled water D. 2 tsp. sugar, 8 tsp., salt, 1 liter pre-boiled water 24. A tourist was brought to the E.R. due to diarrhea after eating raw oyster. His poisoning is due to: A. Trichinella C. Calcivirus B. Shigellosis D. Clostridium botulinum 25. The best measure to characterize the prognosis of patients with congestive heat failure: A. Incidence rate C. Survival rate B. Case fatality D. Prevalence 26. To account for the placebo effect and to reduce the introduction of bias due to misleading conclusion when the risk factor and disease are related at the population level but not within particular individuals. This is known as: A. Single-blind study C. Double-blind study B. Placebo-controlled trial D. Controlled-parallel trial 27. Ingestion of this solvent can result in permanent blindness due to optic atrophy: A. Ethyl alcohol C. Ethylene alcohol B. Isoprophyl alcohol D. Methyl alcohol 28. This is the ability of the disease agent to give access and adapt to the human host thereby leading to its lodgment and multiplication in the body: A. Antigenicity C. Pathogenecity B. Infectivity D. Virulence 29. The presence of a certain number of immune individuals in a community may after the spread of the disease. This is referred as: A. Vaccine C. Active Immunity B. Attribute risk D. Herd Immunity 30. A student complains of headache and mental confusion after eating potato salad, poisoning is due to: A. Ergotiem C. Gonyaulax B. Solanine D. Muscarin 31. One of the general objectives of Primary Health Care is: A. To train barangay health workers who will serve as interlinks between communities B. To maintain health by promoting optimum standard of living and good health C. To intensify health education efforts among the poorest segment of the population D. To provide low cost but effective remedies for diarrheal diseases and respiratory infection
32. Case Control studies, participants are identified on the basis of : A. Presence of the disease C. The amount of vaccine to be receive B. Their exposure status D. The immunity 33. An experimental screening test for Cytomegalovirus has a sensitivity of 82% and a specificity of 93%. The prevalence of CVM in the population to be screened is estimated to be 3%. The probability that an individual with a positive test result has CVM is: A. 26% C. 82% B. 73% D. 18% 34. Which viral disease can be transmitted through the excreta? A. Cholera C. Typhoid fever B. Bacillary dysentery D. Hepatitis A 35. The serious chronic effect of ultraviolet radiation: A. Conjunctivitis C. Inflammation of cornea B. Erythema of the skin D. Skin cancer 36. This method eliminates almost all pathogens from the effluent: A. Intermittent sand filtration C. Trickling filter B. Contact beds D. Chlorination 37. The process of assigning treatment to patient with equal chance: A. Selection C. Variation B. Randomization D. Factorization 38. Disease associated with living organisms entering the body through ingestion of infected food: A. Food poisoning C. Pasteurization B. Sanitation D. Food borne disease 39. The Philippine TB Program uses this screening method for case finding: A. Chest x-ray C. Sputum culture B. Sputum microscopy D. Sputum gram staining 40. The hallmark of the Control of Diarrheal disease program is: A. Stool examination C. Antibiotic treatment B. Rehydration therapy D. IV Medications 41. The number of a new cases that develop in a population at risk for the disease over a specific period of time: A. Point prevalence C. Incidence B. Relevance D. Persistence 42. Incidence of a disease in a particular population over a specified time period: A. Morbidity rate C. Attack rate B. Mortality rate D. Crude rate 43. The cumulative incidence of the disease when the duration of a disease is short and the observation period covers an entire epidemic: A. Case fatality rate C. Mortality rate B. Attack rate D. Morbidity rate 44. An individual who has contact with or who manifests the risk factor prior to becoming ill: A. Exposed C. Infected B. Inflicted D. Well
45. Test used to assess the statistical significance of the difference between 2 population means in a study based on data obtained from independent samples: A. Chi-square C. T- test B. Regression analysis D. Student T-test 46. Graph primarily intended to portray trend (i.e. change with time of variable): A. Scatter plot C. Line graph B. Histogram D. Frequently distribution 47. The following are elements of reproductive health EXCEPT: A. Family Planning B. Violence Against Women C. Health Services Delivery Mechanisms D. Education and Counseling on Sexuality and sexual Health 48. In a study about people’s attitude toward selling vaginal diaphragms in the supermarket, the first 50 adults who entered the supermarket during the day of data collection were interviewed. The sampling design applicable in this situation is: A. Quota C. Convenience B. Simple random D. Systematic 49. The usual incidence of a disease in a population is referred to as the: A. Pandemic rate C. Hypodermic rate B. Epidemic rate D. Endemic rate 50. The advantages of planning in public health is/are: A. All of these B. There is elimination of duplication of health problems C. There is better distribution of resources D. There is exclusion of unnecessary program 51. A 9 y/o boy consulted a Rural Health Unit because of cough associated with moderate to high grade fever. On P.E. RR=50/min., flaring of the ala nasi, circumoral cyanosis, presence of supraclavicular and intercostals retractions. What is the Airway Respiratory Infection (ARI) classification: A. Severe C. Moderate B. Mild D. Severe with complications 52. What is the reason for an inefficient health care delivery inspite of an adequate physician-population-ratio: A. Maldistribution of physicians B. Physicians migration to foreign countries C. None of these D. Inadequate number of hospitals 53. During what trimester of pregnancy should a vaginal bleeding be reported to a physician: A. Any of these C. First B. Second D. Third 54. Cocaine addiction among pregnant mothers are increasing lately. Infants born from these mothers are at risk to develop: A. Cardiac defects C. Mental deficiencies B. Seizures D. Minor joint and umbilical abnormalities
55. Which among the following is a disadvantage of ground water: A. Does not usually require regular treatment B. Likely to be free from pathogenic organism C. Continuous supply D. It is likely to be hard 56. Which among the following techniques of disease prevention is highly effective against the spread of contact-transmitted disease: A. Closure of secondary transmission B. Treat human sources of infection C. Killing of the agent at the intimate sources D. Increasing the health resistance 57. What unit of the health department received and analyze disease reports and submit or make results available to doctors: A. Consultants in communicable diseases B. Public health staff C. Epidemiology specialists D. Disease intelligence services 58. All of the following statements are TRUE regarding chlorination, EXCEPT: A. It removes all pathogenic organisms from sewage effluent B. Chlorine compound is the most common substance used C. It does not eliminate odors D. It inhibits the deposition of sewage effluent during tank treatment 59. At 100 dependency ratio of 105 can be interpreted as: A. 100 persons are dependent on the 105 people B. the computed value is not representative of the number of dependents to be supported C. 105 persons will be supported by 100 able bodied persons D. there are less number of dependents per 100 persons 60. The following are the important goals/purposes in the development of a public health surveillance system, EXCEPT: A. Detection of epidemics B. Description of treads and the natural history of a health condition C. Detection of rare but fatal conditions D. Evaluation of control and preventive measures 61. The condition wherein there is a loss of normalcy or physiological, psychological or anatomical structural of function is called: A. Disability C. Handicap B. Disease D. Impairment 62. Acute episodes of an asthma are closely associated with the following, EXCEPT: A. Emotional stress C. Caffeinated sodas B. Paracetamol D. Upper respiratory infection 63. The following are the basic health service offered, EXCEPT: A. Social and educational welfare C. Health education B. Environmental sanitation D. Maternal and child health 64. A Hepatitis B virus carrier is a person who is: A. Hepatitis B core antigen positive for 6 months B. Hepatitis B antigen positive for 6 months C. Hepatitis B surface antigen positive for 6 months D. None of those
65. The main goal of health for all of the Primary Health Care Program is: A. Attainment of a level of health that will enable everyone to live on an economically productive and socially satisfying existence B. Enough medicine to be given free C. Sufficient physicians, nurses, midwives in all municipalities D. Nobody will get sick with infectious disease 66. What do you call the appearance/occurrence of a group of disease of the same nature where rate exceeds the expected number: A. Epidemic C. Hyperendemic B. Endemic D. Pandemic 67. Adequate breast milk supply as maintained by: A. Never elevating arms C. Using breast pumps B. Breastfeeding regularly D. Drinking a lot of water 68. Biological filters are also called: A. Rapid sand filter B. Slow sand filter
C. Mechanical filters D. Chemical filters
69. Prevalence is a measure of: A. Cases occurring within an interval B. Old and new cases in the community C. Old cases only D. New cases only 70. Nine families surveyed showed the number of children per family were 4, 3, 5, 3, 5, 6, 1, 3 and 7. The mean, median and mode number of children per family are respectively: A. 2, 3, 4 C. 4.1, 4, 3 B. 3, 4.1, 4 D. 4, 3.2, 2 71. In the calculation of the infant mortality rate, the denominator used is: A. Mid-year population C. Total live births and still births in 1 year B. Population between 0-1 year D. Total live births in one year 72. The following are activities included in the under five clinic program, EXCEPT: A. Medical care C. Growth monitoring B. EPI D. Family planning 73. The following viral disease are transmitted by Aedes aegypti mosquitoes, EXCEPT: A. Chinkungunya C. Yellow fever B. Dengue D. Japanese encephalitis 74. Primary Health Care team in composed of: A. Physicians, dentist and medical technologist B. Health Center physician, nurse, midwife and volunteer health workers C. Family Center physician and private medical practitioner D. Provincial health officer, chief of district hospital and health center physician 75. Which among the following is measured by standard deviation: A. Distribution C. None of these B. Dispersion D. Central tendency 76. A characteristics of a statistical test denoting the probability that the null hypothesis will be rejected if it is indeed false is: A. Pearson correlation C. Spearman correlation B. Power D. Regression analysis
A. B.
77. When does a disease becomes a public health problem? A. When the disease is spread and serious in effect B. When the disease is spread and serious in the effect and it requires organized community effort to minimize or control it C. When the disease is very costly D. When it requires organized community effort to minimize or control it 78. Epidemiology ca be defined as the study of: A. The frequency f causes of death in humans B. The pattern of organizations and financing of the health care C. The distribution and determinants of frequency of disease in human D. The etiology of disease in humans 79. What is the list of drugs that meets the health of the majority created by the Generic Law: A. Essential drug C. Generic B. Therapeutic drug D. Drug formulary 80-83. In preparation for a National Examination, 200 Medical Students completed 100 questions in a practice test. Each student answered between 35 and 59 questions correctly. The arithmetic mean of correct answers was 47 with standard deviation of 4. The number of correct answers per student was distributed normally. 12 24
80. The range of questions correctly answered is: C. 36 D. 65 81. The percentage of students who correctly answered 39-55 questions is about: A. 24% C. 95% B. 68% D. 99%
A. B.
82. The percentage of students who answered at least 51 questions is: 1% C. 5% 2% D. 16%
A. B.
83. The percentage of student who answered less than 39 questions is: 2.5% C. 16% 5% D. 32% 84. A woman, pregnant for the first time is scheduled to have a Tetanus toxoid vaccine. She was given a complete dose of DPT during childhood. The Tetanus toxoid that will be given to her now is considered as: A. TT1 C. TT3 B. TT2 D. TT4 85. A child was given BCG vaccine. This will protect her from contracting: A. Primary Koch’s Infection C. Miliary TB B. TB Meningitis D. All of the above 86. An earmuff is considered as a: A. Decoration B. Fashion accessory
C. Protective equipment D. Disturbance
87. In order to protect children from contracting the mutant strain causing acute flaccid paralysis, the government instituted the program “Patak Kontra.” A. Diphtheria C. Polio B. Pertussis D. Tetanus
88. In order to protect children from contracting the mutant strain causing acute flaccid paralysis, the government instituted the program “Patak Kontra.” C. Diphtheria C. Polio D. Pertussis D. Tetanus 95. In a 3 X 4 contingency table, the number of degrees of freedom is: A. 2 C. 6 B. 4 D. 8 96. A comparison of clinically diagnosed versus autopsy-confirmed gastric and peptic ulcers was performed on 10,000 consecutive deceased patients. 130 had a positive result and has the disease in question; 20 has no ulcer on autopsy findings but was positive on clinical diagnosis; 170 were positive on autopsy but negative clinically, and 9,680 had no disease both clinically and on autopsy. The prevalence of autopsy confirmed gastric and peptic ulcer was closest to: A. 3% C. 87% B. 43% D. 98% 97. The interval between the time of contact and the entry of the agent and onset of illness is known as: A. Incubation period C. Period of communicability B. Latency period D. Period of immunity 98. A descriptive study is useful in: A. Generating hypothesis B. Testing hypothesis
C. Determining association D. Testing intervention
99. This drug converts a sputum (+) patient to sputum (-): A. INH C. PZA B. Ethambutol D. Rifampicin 100. Potable water, sanitary toilet, vector and rodent control is included in: A. Traditional Medicine C. Drug Abuse Control B. Disaster Management D. Environmental Health 101. Communal faucet system or stand posts in a block of households are classified as: A. Level I C. Level III B. Level II D. Level IV 102. The skin slit and multi-drug therapy is used in the control and prevention of: A. Dengue fever C. TB B. Leprosy D. Malaria 103. The occurrence of a temporary increase in any disorder leading to ma significant change in the balance of forces in a given population: A. Endemic C. Sporadic B. Epidemic D. Pandemic spread 104. A positive presumptive test for the presence of coliform group is the formation of: A. Spore C. Sugar B. Gas D. Cytochrome oxidase positive
105. A pediatrician computed the mean weight of his patients for the day and came up with 14.71 kg. This can be interpreted as: A. Fifty percent of patients weighed 14.71 kg. or less and 50% weighed more than 14.7 kg. B. The usual weight of patients that day is 14.7 kg. C. On the average the weight of the patients that day is 14.7 kg. D. Sixty percent of patients weighed 14.71 kg. or less while 40% weighed more than 14.71 kg. 106. When distribution for the data is fairly symmetrical, the most appropriate measure of central tendency to be used is: A. Range C. Median B. Mode D. Mean 107.In Philhealth, a single period of confinement is: A. Confinement for different illness or injury B. Confinement separated from each other by more than 90 days C. Benefits can be availed only if the 45 days allowance is exhausted D. A series or successive confinements for the same illness not separated from each other by more than 90 days 108. A computed sensitivity of 90% means that: A. Ninety percent of persons without disease will be correctly labeled by the test as not diseased B. Ninety percent of the persons with the disease will be detected by the test being used C. Ten percent of persons who have the disease which will not be detected by the test D. Ten percent of healthy people or people without the disease will be incorrectly labeled
