WORKSHOP
INTERNATIONAL LANGUAGE CENTER GRADUATE STUDENT ASSOCIATION UNIVERSITAS GADJAH MADA YOGYAKARTA
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LISTENING COMPREHENSION
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PART I LISTENING COMPREHENSION (15 minutes) Part A
Directions For each problem in part A, you will hear a short statement. The statement will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, and you must listen carefully in order to understand what the speaker says. When you hear a statement, read the four sentences in your test book and decide which one is closest in meaning to the statement you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.
1. Question 1 a. Eighty people came to rally b. Forty people came to rally c. One hundred sixty people came to the rally d. One hundred people came to the rally 2. Question 2 a. We are going to meet Fred and Mary at the movies if we had time b. We went to the movies with Fred and Mary, but theatre was closed c. We couldn’t meet Fred and Mary at the movies because we didn’t have any money d. Fred and Mary were supposed to meet us at the movies, but their car broke down 3. Question 3 a. Frank told the contractor to do the work in spite of the cost b. Frank told the contractor what the price too high. c. Frank cannot afford the work on his house d. Frank repaired his own house 4. Question 4 a. I studied last night because I had to. b. I tried to study last night but the material was too hard. c. I couldn’t study last night because I was very tired. d. I studied last night because I was bored. 5. Question 5 a. John was supposed to give the awards at the banquet but he didn’t b. John was given award, but he refused it c. John didn’t go to the banquet. d. John went to awards banquet but He refused to give speech. 6. Question 6 a. Edna goes to the movies every year. b. Edna hasn’t gone to the movie yet this year, but last year she did. c. Edna doesn’t go to the movie unless she has time. d. Edna hasn’t seen a movie for a long time
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7. Question 7 a. He is out of sugar. b. He puts only sugar in his coffee. c. There isn’t enough sugar in his coffee. d. He likes sugar but the coffee he is drinking too much. 8. Question 8 a. Arnold was embarrassed because his date wanted to pay for own meal. b. Arnold had less than $15 c. Arnold didn’t want his date to know how much the food cost. d. Arnold didn’t want to pay for the date’s meal. 9. Question 9 a. George b. George c. George d. George
didn’t have $1000 for the man wanted more than $1000 for the car. agreed to take $1000 for his car thought that $1000 was too much to pay for used car.
10. Question 10 a. Harvey turned around to answer the teacher’s question. b. Harvey is an intelligent student. c. Harvey must have been embarrassed. d. Harvey looked in the red book for the answer to the question. Part B Directions In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks and/or conversations. After each talk or conversation you will be asked some questions. The talks and question will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you. So, you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says. When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which one will be the best answer to the questions you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. 11. Question 11 a. How to transfer to a junior college b. How to find his way around campus c. What courses are required for a literature major d. Who won the campus election 12. Question 12 a. Three b. Five c. Eight d. Ten 13. Question 13 a. American literature b. World literature c. Literary analysis d. Surveying
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14. Question 14 a. In a book b. From a television program c. During a trip that she took d. From a lecture 15. Question 15 a. To communicate with other dolphins b. To recognize objects in the water c. To learn human language d. To express fear 16. Question 16 a. To protect its members b. To save the natural environment c. To honor the memory of John Muir d. To improve San Fransisco’s natural beauty 17. Question 17 a. For less than a year b. Only for a decade c. For more than a century d. For at least two centuries 18. Question 18 a. San Fransisco b. All fifty states c. The Sierra Nevadas d. The eastern United States 19. Question 19 a. Students b. Students c. Students d. Students
signing up for athelic teams going on a tour of a university campus playing various sports attending a university dedication ceremony
20. Question 20 a. Membership on an athletic teams b. Enrolment in an exercise class c. A valid student identification card d. Permission from a faculty member
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VOCABULARY
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PART II VOCABULARY (20 minutes)
A. For questions 1-10, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the text Text 1 There are very good reasons why the air crew always ----1---- passengers that it is strictly forbidden to use cell phones in the cabin of the plane. Modern aircraft depend greatly on radio waves -----2----- numerous functions, such as communication with the control tower, navigation, and regulation of cabin atmosphere. Radio wave -----3----- from a cell phone can seriously disturb these functions. You may not be aware that even when cell phone is on standby it still -------4-------an electromagnetic signals that --------5--------- the cellular network’s computer that the phone is active and can be contacted. This signal becomes stronger when the transmitter at the base terminal station (BTS) communicates with the cell phone to send a voice call or short message (SMS). -------6--------, once the aircraft has taken off and approaches its --------7--------altitude, your cell phone will not work anyway, because the plane is too far from the BTS. --------8--------, the plane moves so fast that once the phone’s cellular network, the phone is no longer within that cell in the range. ------9------- if your cell phone is active, it is continually emitting electromagnetic signals that could seriously disrupt the aviation equipment, thereby endangering the lives of hundreds of passengers. So for your own safety and that of your fellow passengers, you must turn off your cell phone as soon as you enter the plane. If you have a phone in your carry-on luggage, check to make sure that it is turned --------10-------- off. Adapted from Garuda, May 2007
1. (A) remember (B) recall (C) remind (D) evoke 2.
(A) to perform (B) to do (C) to make (D) to conduct
3.
(A) intervention (B) inception (C) intrusin (D) interference
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4.
(A) blows (B) penetrates (C) sends out (D) blinks
5.
(A) notifies (B) announces (C) declares (D) broadcasts
6.
(A) Truly (B) Actually (C) Correctly (D) Rightly
7.
(A) flying (B) floating (C) soaring (D) cruising
8.
(A) Therefore (B) However (C) Furthermore (D) Nevertheless
9.
(A) Yet (B) So (C) Therefore (D) Hence
10. (A) entirely (B) totally (C) completely (D) fully B. For questions 11-20, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best collates (combines) each blank space in the text 11. Salma was so absorbed ___________ reading her book that she didn’t hear me. A. at B. in C. on D. with 12. Uncle Leo _______________ malaria while he was working in Africa. A. suffered c. contracted B. got d. had
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13. Police are _______________ out an investigation into a major theft in a factory in Woodvale. A. carrying c. taking B. bringing d. holding 14. Soldiers were sent in to ________________ order after the uprising. A. refresh B. restore C. evaluate D. progress 15. Although the two stars tried to keep their relationship secret, news of it soon ___________. A. showed up B. popped out C. peeped out D. leaked out 16. Juan __________ a lot of money on travelling. A. pays c. buys B. circulates d. spends 17. The trial starts today but the witnesses will be _______________ in court tomorrow. A. showing up B. existing C. submerging D. appearing 18. Many people find articles about the private lives or film stars _______________ reading. A. forceful B. strong will C. obligatory D. compulsive 19. The driver ______________ serious head injuries in the crash. A. sustained B. seveloped C. contributed D. donated 20. George Arthur Lode, accused of murdering his wife, ______________ on trial today. A. forwarded C. went B. moved D. appeared
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C. For questions 21-30, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best substitutes each underlined word in the text 21. More than 15.000 species of ants have been identified by scientist a. chosen b. grouped c. named d. seen 22. Each grain of wheat contains three basic components: the germ, the endosperm, and the brand a. Admits b. Involves c. Includes d. Implies 23. Peter Roget widely acclaimed for his work in classifying and arranging words and phrases. a. Recommended b. Approved c. Cheered d. Hailed 24. “inky cap” is the name of given to mushroom which give off an inklike liquid after discharging their spores a.loosening b. releasing c. clearing d. delivering 25. William Faulkner is regarded by many as the greatest North American novelist of the twentieth century a. Considered b. Concluded c. Determind d. Distinguished 26. Many nations are still trying to eliminate rabies from their territories a. Leave out b. Cancel c. Separate d. Eradicate
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27. The length of an x-ray wave is incredibly small: less than one ten-millionth of a millimeter. a. Considerably b. Unbelievably c. Notably d. Sufficiently 28. New research suggest a link between nearsightedness and high intelligence a. Connection b. Joint c. Cause d. Effect 29. Many Chinese believe that powdered rhinoceros horn will cure various afflictions a. retard b. heal c. restore d. subdue 30. A deficiency of vitamin D can lead to permanent bone deformities. a. Serious b. Irreparable c. Infinite d. Occasional
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GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE
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PART III GRAMMAR AND STRUCTURE (40 minutes)
A. Sentence Completion For questions 1-20, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the text 1. When friends insist on ___________ expensive gifts, it makes most Americans uncomfortable. A. them to acept B. their accepting C. they accepting D. they accept 2. Based on the premise that light was composed of color, the Impressionists came to the conclusion ___________ not really black. A. which was that shadows B. was shadows which C. were shadows D. that shadows were 3. The Internal Revenue Service ___________ their tax forms by April 15 every year. A. makes all Americans file B. makes all Americans to file C. makes the filing of all Americans D. makes all Americans filing 4. Although one of his ships succeeded in sailing all the way back to Spain past the Cape of Good Hope, Magellan never completed the first circumnavigation of the world, and ___________. A. most of his crew didn’t too B. neither most of his crew did C. neither did most of his crew D. most of his crew didn’t also 5. Weathering ___________ the action whereby surface rock is disintegrated or decomposed. A. it is B. is that C. is D. being
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6. ___________ a teacher in New England, Webster wrote the Dictionary of the American Language. A. It was B. When it was C. When was D. While 7. Tornados, powerful, destructive wind storms, occur most often in the spring when hot winds ______ over flat land encounter heavy, cold air. A. Which to rise B. That rising C. Are rising D. Rising 8. Because kaolin shrinks in firing at a different rate than ordinary clay, _____ when creating pottery using both types of clay. A. special handling is required B. special handling required C. a requirement of special handling D. the required special handling 9. Charlie Parker, __________, was one of the creators of the music style called “bop”. A. a great jazz improviser who B. to improvise great jazz C. a great jazz improviser D. improved great jazz 10. The symptoms of an allergy vary with the causative agent, _______ an allergen, with the part of the body that is affected. A. called which B. is called C. and which is called D. which is called 11. In blank verse ____ of ten syllables, five of which are accented. A. line consists of each B. consists of each line C. each line consists D. it consists of each line 12. ______ a bicameral, or two-chamber, parliament. A. Canada has B. Having Canada C. Because Canada has D. That Canada is having
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13. The recent of a discovery novel by Harried Wilson, Publish in 1859 ____ a landmark in Black American Literature. A. has brought to light B. light to brought has C. brought to light has D. has light to brought 14. _______, the first Black denomination in the United States. A. Richard Allen founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church B. Richard Allen, who founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church C. The African Methodist Episcopal Church founded by Richard Allen D. The foundation of the African Methodist Episcopal Church by Richard Allen 15. Nutritionists _______ goat milk to be rich, nourishing, and readily digested. A. considering B. is considered C. are considered D. consider 16. It costs about sixty dollars to have a tooth _______. A. filling B. to fill C. filled D. fill 17. Not until a student has mastered algebra ______ the principles of geometry, trigonometry, and physics. A. He can begin to understand B. Can he begin to understand C. He begins to understand D. Begins to understand 18. Charlie Parker, __________, was one of the creators of the music style called “bop”. A. a great jazz improviser who B. to improvise great jazz C. a great jazz improviser D. improved great jazz 19. A telephone recording tells callers _______. A. what time the movie starts B. what time starts the movie C. what time does the movie start D. the movie starts what time
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20. ________composed traditionally has been a subject of debate among scholars. A. Were ballads how B. Ballads were how they C. How ballads that were D. How ballads were
B. Cloze Test For questions 21-30, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, dan D which best completes blank spaces Text-1 Spectacular swarms of flying ants ------21-------- a common summer phenomenon. Sometimes people will observe winged ants issuing in large numbers, pushed out by the wingless workers, from a colony established between a sidewalk cracks or in a small mound. Other times only the winged forms will be seen, ------22--------- large numbers around certain prominent points in the landscape. Ants are social insects. The colony is established through the initial efforts of a mated “queen”, --------23----------. Originally winged, after mating she sheds her wings and the no longer used wing muscles are an -------24--------- source of nutrients for her during the early stages of colony development. Very, very few queens successfully survive this period and establish a functional colony. ---------25------------, if the colony makes it through this period it can begin to grow. Wingless, non-sexually mature workers are reared which subsequently help expand the colony. After several years, the colony may be well-established and then some resources are put into rearing reproductive forms. ----------------26--------- the winged ants, some females – the potential future queens – and the majority males. ------------27-------------, usually following by 3-5 days a heavy rain, the winged reproductive forms emerge from the colony in large swarms. Such swarming behavior is usually synchronized by other nearby colonies so large numbers of winged ants suddenly appear. All matings for the species take place often over the course of a single day. The males die and mated females ------------28----------One behavior associated with some ants during mating swarms is “hilltopping”. This refers to their aggregation around prominent points of a landscape where they search for mates. A large tree, chimney of a roof or even ---------29----------- might serve as “action site” for swarming winged ants. My favorite hilltopping site was the top of the US West tower in downtown Denver, which annually is the site for millions of harvester ants to aggregate. Although dramatic, swarming ants ---------30------------- or risk of increased and infestation. Those seen emerging from a colony were always there and are in the process of leaving the colony permanently. Mated females amongst aggregating masses similarly disperse from the area. 21. (A) (B) (C) (D)
is are was were
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22. (A) (B) (C) (D)
aggregate in aggregating aggregating in in aggregation
23. (A) (B) (C) (D)
a mature sexual female a female mature sexually a sexual mature female a sexually mature female
24. (A) (B) (C) (D)
important importance importantly importance of
25. (A) (B) (C) (D)
Furthermore Albeit However Even so
26. (A) (B) (C) (D)
This is These are These were There are
27. (A) (B) (C) (D)
in periodical to be periodical in periodic periodically
28. (A) (B) (C) (D)
dispersed to attempt establishing a new colony disperses to attempt establishing a new colony disperses to attempt established a new colony disperse to attempt establishing a new colony
29. (A) (B) (C) (D)
tractor moving across the plains a tractor moving across the plains tractor moving the plains across a tractor moving the plains across
30. (A) (B) (C) (D)
do not pose no harm pose not harm pose no harm do not pose not harm
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C. Error Identification For questions 31-50, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, dan D which is wrong 31. Jan Addams had already [A] established Hull House in Chicago [B] and began [C] her work in the Women’s Suffrage Movement when she was awarded [D] the Nobel prize for peace. 32. The flag of the original first [A] colonies may or may not have been made [B] by Betsy Ross [C] during the Revolution [D]. 33. The most common [A] form of [B] treatment it [C] is mass inoculation and chlorination of water sources [D]. 34. The [A] Pickerel Frog, native to Southern Canada and the Eastern United States, should be avoided [B] because their [C] skin secretions are lethal to small animals and irritating [D] to humans. 35. Scientists had previously [A] estimated that the Grand Canyon in Arizona is [B] ten million years old; but now, by using [C] a more modern dating method, they agree that the age is closer to six million years [D]. 36. Although
jogging [A] is a good way to lose weight and improve one’s physical
condition, most [B] doctors recommend that the potential jogger begin in a correct manner [C] by geting [D] a complete checkup. 37. Gunpowder, in some ways [A] the most effective [B] of all [C] the explosive materials, were [D] a mixture of potassium nitrate, charcoal, and sulfur. 38. As the demand increases, manufacturers who previously [A] produced only a large, luxury car, is [B] compelled to make [C] a smaller model [D] in order to compete in the market. 39. Factoring [A] is the process of finding [B] two or more expressions whose [C] product is equal as [D] the given expression.
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40. Schizoprenia, a behavioral disorder typified [A] by a fundamental [B] break with reality may be triggered [C] by genetic predisposition, stressful [D], drugs, or infections. 41. Although the Red Cross accepts [A] blood from most donors, the nurses will not leave [B] you give [C] blood if you have just had [D] a cold. 42. The native people of the Americas are called [A] Indians because [B] when Columbus landed in the Bahamas in 1492 [C], he thought that he has reached [D] the East Indies. 43. In ancient times and throughout the Middle Ages, many people [A] believed [B] that the earth [C] is [D] motionless. 44. With his [A] father’s guidance, Mozart begun [B] playing [C] the clavier at the age of three and composing [D] at the age of five. 45. Programs such as [A] Head Start were developed [B] to prepare [C] children from deprived situations to enter school without to experience [D] unusual difficulties. 46. Supersonic transport such [A] the Concorde was never widely accepted [B] in part because [C] of [D] the problems of noise and atmospheric pollution. 47. Sometime [A] ants keep smaller insects [B] that give off honeydew, milking them regularly [C] and even building barns to shelter [D] them. 48. Nitrogen must be combine [A] with another element [B] such as [C] hydrogen or oxygen to be useful [D] in agriculture or industry. 49. In the sixteenth century [A], Francois Vieta, a French mathematician, used [B] the vowels a, i, u, e, o, to represent [C] a [D] unknown number. 50. Vasco da Gama, accompanied by a large crew [A] and a fleet of twenty ships, were [B] trying to establish [C] Portuguese domination in Africa and India [C] during the sixteenth century.
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READING COMPREHENSION
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PART IV READING COMPREHENSION (40 minutes) Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is stated or implied in the text. Text 1 (Question 1-10)
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American jazz is a conglomeration of sounds borrowed form such varied sources as American and African folk music, European classical music, and Christian gospel songs. One of the recognizable characteristics of jazz is its use of improvisation: certain parts of music are written out and played the same way by various performers, and other improvised parts are created spontaneously during a performance and vary widely from performer to performer. The earliest form of jazz was ragtime, lively songs or rags performed on the piano, and the best-known of ragtime performers and composers was Scott Joplin. Born in 1868 to former slaves, Scott Joplin earned his living from a very early age playing the piano in bars along the Mississippi. One of his regular jobs was in the Maple Leaf Club in Sedalia, Missouri. It was there that he began writing more than 500 compositions that was to produce, the most famous of which was “The Maple Leaf Rag.”
(1)
1. This a. b. c. d.
(4)
(10) (11) (14)
passage is about jazz in general and one specific type of jazz the various source of jazz the live of Scoot Joplin the major characteristics of jazz
2. The word “conglomeration” in line 1 could best be replaced by a. Disharmony c. Purity b. Mixture d. Treasure 3. In line 4, the word “improvisation” involves which of following? a. Playing the written parts of the music b. Performing similary to other musicians c. Making up music while playing d. Playing varied selectionof musical compositions 4. According to the passage, ragtime was a. generally performed on a variety of instruments b. the first type of jazz c. extremely soothing and sedate d. performed only at the Maple Leaf Club in Sedalia 5. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage? a. Scoot Joplin was a slave when he was born. b. Scoot Joplin’s parents had been slaves before Scoot was born. c. Scoot Joplin had formerly been a slave, but he no longer was after 1868. d. Scoot Joplin’s parents were slaves when Scott was born.
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6. The word “living” in line 10 could most easily be replaced by a. money b. life-style c. enjoyment d. health 7. The word “regular” in line 11 could best be replaced by a. popular b. steady c. unusual d. boring 8. The word “which” in line 14 refers to a. regular jobs b. the Maple Leaf Club c. Sedalia, Missouri d. 500 compositions 9. The name of Scoot Joplin’s most famous composition probably came from a. the name of a saloon where he performed b. the maple tree near Sedalia home c. the name of the town where he was born d. the school where he learned to play the piano 10. The paragraph following the passage probably discusses a. Sedalia, Missouri b. the Maple Leaf Club c. the numerous compositions of Scott Joplin d. the life of Scoot Joplin
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Text 2 (Question 11-20) The west has been supporting Israel attacks and aggression for so long that it is now time for them to reassess the situation, boarding a ship carrying humanitarian aid in international waters is clearly an act of aggression and a violation of International Law. Sanction should be imposed on Israel by The International Community, let them feel how to live without having access to food, medicine and international support. It is not possible for any country on this globe to live when being cut off from the rest of the world. What can unarmed civilians especially aid workers do to harm Israel? It is clear that the Israelis are paranoid about everything. No wonder they are living on edge, having to be alert every second of the day. Their children and grandchildren will continue to suffer because of the stubborn aggressive stance of their parents and grandparents. Yet, the Israelis brought that on by themselves and they have only themselves to blame for whatever is happening to them. It is time for the Israelis to sit down with the Palestinians and to seriously their differences. To live in peace with their neighbors is not only positive for themselves but also for their children and grandchildren. Violence only creates more violence. I am starting to sympathize with Hamas and Hezbollah. If the Israelis continue their acts of aggression, no country will sympathize with them. They will be isolated and treated like partials. To usurp Palestinians lands and then colonize and mistreat their host is an unjustifiable and criminal act. The international community should take concrete measures and put a stop to Israelis military aggression and acts of violence once and for all.
Line (3)
(8)
(12)
(21)
11. What does the writer want to convey? a. She is against violence among neighboring countries b. She is against Israelis attack on humanitarian ship c. She is against the international community that does not stop violence. d. She against the idea of helping Israelis 12. According to the writer, International Community should a. Impose sanction on Israel b. Fight against Israelis c. Live in peace with their neighbors d. Stop violence in their countries 13. Which of the following is NOT mentioned by the writer, as a sanction to Israelis? a. Giving no access to food supply b. Giving no access to medicine c. Blocking any access to international support d. Stopping giving humanitarian aid. 14. It can be inferred from the text that what happened to Israelis is ... a. The responsibility of International Community b Israelis own fault c. Palestinian's fault d. The responsibility of the United Nation 15. The world "cut off" in line 8could best be replaced by: a. Treated c. Isolated b. Sliced d. Imposed
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16. According to the text, which of the following is TRUE about Israel? a. It violates the community's law b. It isolates neighboring countries c. It imposes sanction on Palestinian d. It colonizes and mistreats Palestine 17. The word "they" in line 14 refers to… a. Palestinians b. Israelis c. Unarmed civilians d. Aid workers 18. The phrase "to usurp" in line 21 is closest in meaning to... a. Colonize b. Wrongfully take c. Unlawfully occupy d. Exploit 19. In which section of the newspaper might the above text appear? a. Letters to editor b. Classified ads c. Headline news d. World in brief 20. Where in the text does the writer mention her strong belief that the world should put the aggression and violence to an end? a. Line 21-24 b. Line 1-4 c. Line 7-8 d. Line 9-12
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Text 3 (Questions 21-30) Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had been largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the revolutionary fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected in the literature of the time, which in turn served to further influence the population. Although not all writers of this period supported the Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers, Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine, were both strongly supportive of that cause. Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother’s newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a simple style of language and common sense augmentation to defend the point of view of the farmer and the Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense practicality and appeal to the common man with his work on Poor Richard’s Almanac from 1733 until 1758. Firmly established in his popular acceptance by the people, Franklin wrote a variety of extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonists’ revolutionary cause against England. Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at the time of the Revolution. His pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in 1776, was a force in encouraging the colonist to declare their independence from England. Then throughout the long and desperate war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from 1776 until 1783) to encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The effectiveness of his writing was probably due to his emotional yet oversimplified depiction of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good and evil.
Line
(3) (4)
(9) (11)
(20)
21. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses a. how literature influences the population b. religious and moral literature c. literature supporting the cause of the American Revolution d. what made Thomas Paine’s literature successful 22. The word “fervor” in line 3 is closest in meaning to ... a. war b. anxiety c. spirit d. action 23. The word “time” in line 3 could best be replaced by ... a. Hour c. Appointment b. Period d. Duration 24. It is implied in the passage that ... a. some writers in the American colonies supported England during the Revolution b. Franklin and Paine were the only writers to influence the Revolution c. because Thomas Paine was an Englishmen, he supported England against the colonies d. authors who supported England did not remain in the colonies during the Revolution
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25. The pronoun “he” in line 9 refers to ... a. Thomas Paine b. Ben Franklin c. Ben Franklin’s brother d. Poor Richard 26. The expression “point of view” in line 11 could best be replaced by ... a. perspective b. sight c. circumstance d. trait 27. According to the passage, the tone of Poor Richard’s Almanac is ... a. pragmatic b. erudite c. theoretical d. scholarly 28. The word “desperate” in line 20 could best be replaced by ... a. unending b. hopeless c. strategic d. combative 29. Where in the passage does the author describe Thomas Paine’s style of writing? a. Line 4-6 b. Line 8-9 c. Line 14-15 d. Line 22-25 30. The purpose of the passage is to ... a. discuss American literature in the first half of the eighteenth century b. give biographical data on two American writers c. explain wich authors supported the Revolution d. describe the literary influence during revolutionary America
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Text 4 (Question 31-40) One of the first principles in advertising is that it is limited in both time and space. Television and radio commercials are usually only 10 to 60 seconds long. Print ads are usually no larger than two pages and usually much smaller. Therefore, an advertisement must do its job quickly; it must get the consumers attention, identify the product and deliver the seller’s messages in a short time or limited space. In order to do this, advertising often breaks the rules of grammar, images and even society. The second basic point is that advertisements usually have two parts; copy and illustrations. Copy refers to the word in the advertisement. These words give the sales message. Illustrations are the picture or photograph. Most ads are a combination of copy and illustrations. The decision about how much copy and illustration to use depends on how the advertiser wants to present the sales messages. Understanding how advertisers make this decision is complex. First we must understand how human being process or work with information because we do not process all kinds of information in the same way. We process some kinds of information in order to understand it. On the other hand, we process other kinds of information emotionally. This means that we use feelings rather than thinking to understand the information. As there are two kinds of mental process, there are also two basic ways of presenting a sales message: intellectually and emotionally. An intellectual presentation uses ideas to get a consumer to buy a product or service. This kind of ads has a lot of copy. The copy explains to the usage and benefit of the product or service. Such ads usually appear in magazine or newspaper where the consumer has unlimited time to process the information. Ads with an intellectual presentation usually have few illustrations. The second way to present a sales message is emotionally. In an emotional presentation, the use of the product is often not the most important sales message. Instead, the advertisement focuses on the buyer's social, psychological or economics needs. An emotional ad may show how the product or service will make the consumer's social life better by increasing their appeal, making them feel more confident or making those people rich. Some of the most effective ads today are ones that use an emotional presentation.
Line
(4) (6)
(12) (14)
(24) (26) (29) (32)
31. What is the best title for the text? a. Basic advertising technique b. The most effective advertising c. Way to present sales massages d. Copy and illustration in advertisement 32. According to the text which of the following is often being neglected by advertisement in order to get its jog gone? a. The selling message b. The limitation of time c. The consumers' attention d. The society's roles 33. It is implied in the text that an intellectual presentation of ads ... a. Appears on television and in the radio more often b. Uses as many illustration as the emotional presentation c. Is less effective compared to the emotional presentation d. Is for consumer who have limited time to process information
34. The word "advertisement" can best be replaced by... a. sales message b. commercial c. copy d. Presentation 35. It can be inferred from the text that most advertisers make ads with... a. A combination of copy and illustration b. Effective because they use intellectual presentation c. Using more copy than illustration d. A presentation of sales massager 36. According to the text, what is the function of the copy? a. It presents the products or service costumers b. It process the information of the product intellectually c. It explains the usage and benefits of the products or service d. It sells the uses and benefits of the products or service 37. Which of the following is not true about emotional presentation? a. The buyer's social, psychological and economics needs are the focuses b. The use of the product is always the most important sales massage c. It shows how the product or services will make the costumers' social life better d. It works more effectively compared to intellectual presentation 38. In the sentence “understanding how advertisers make this decision is complex” (line 12-14), what decision is the writer of the text is referring to? a. How much copy and illustration should be used advertisement b. How the advertiser want to present the sales massages c. How human process or work with all kinds of information d. How human use feelings rather than thinking to understand the information 39. The text is most likely to be read by those who study a. Journalism b. Public communication c. Marketing d. Management 40. Where in the text are the functions of ads being explained? a. Line 4-6 c. Line 26-29 b. Line 24-26 d. Line 29-32
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COMPOSING SKILLS
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PART V COMPOSING SKILLS (30 minutes) In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability to paraphrase or recompose sentences and to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are four parts to this section, with special direction for each part.
A. Number 1-8 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are required to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to the original one. 1. To achieve 300 on AcEPT test is not an easy job. A. An easy job is not to achieve 300 on AcEPT test. B. Not an easy job to achieve 300 on AcEPT test. C. 300 on AcEPT test is not easy job to achieve. D. It is not an easy job to achieve 300 on AcEPT test. 2. Alex has decided not to apply for that position. I translated this application letter into English. A. Alex, who asked me to translate his application letter into English, has decided not to apply for that position. B. Alex, whom I translated his application letter into English, has decided to quit his job. C. Alex, whose application letter I translated into English, has decided to quit his job. D. Alex, I translated his application letter into English has decided to quit his job. 3. Canada is a very interesting place to visit. It is sometimes called the Big Apple. A. To be called the Big Apple, Canada is a very interesting place to visit. B. Canada is sometimes called the Big Apple, it was a very interesting place to visit. C. Canada is a very interesting place to visit because it is sometimes called the Big Apple. D. Canada, sometimes called the Big Apple, is a very interesting place to visit. 4. Although the building was comfortable, it was not chosen by our badminton club as the place for badminton training. A. The building was not chosen by our badminton club as it was comfortable B. Now that the building was comfortable, the badminton club did not choose it as the place for our badminton training. C. Despite its comfort, the building was not chosen by the badminton club as the place for our badminton training. D. Despite its comfort, our badminton club did not choose the building as the place for our badminton training.
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5. Has A. B. C. D.
she enrolled Professor Royyan’s classes? Do you know has she enrolled Professor Royyan’s classes? Do you know if she has enrolled Professor Royyan’s classes? Do you know she has enrolled Professor Royyan’s classes? Do you know Professor Royyan’s classes she has enrolled?
6. Simon Santosa defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round. All his team mates congratulated him. A. Having defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round, all his team mates congratulated him. B. Defeating Lee Chong Wei in the final round, Simon Santosa Congratulated all his team mates. C. Having defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round , Simon Santosa was congratulated by all his team mates. D. To be congratulated bay all his team mates, Simon Santosa defeated Lee Chong Wei in the final round. 7. Had the shop keeper closed the store before we got there? A. Had you closed the store before you got there? B. Had you got there before the shopkeeper closed the store? C. Had the store been closed by the shopkeeper before you got there? D. Had the shopkeeper got there before you closed the store? 8. Gadjah Mada University language Center was inaugurated on Kartini’s day. It has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to study overseas. A. Gadjah Mada University language Center was inaugurated on Kartini’s day, it has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to study overseas. B. Gadjah Mada University language Center has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to study overseas was inaugurated on Kartini’s day. C. Established on Kartini’s day, Gadjah Mada University language Center has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to study overseas. D. It has become the most important institution to help prepare Indonesian students to study overseas. It was inaugurated on Kartini’s day. B. Number 9-16 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of sentence has been identified for you. You are required to find the correct option to replace underlined part 9. The area of Alaska is considerable larger than that of Texas. A. Considerably B. Considering C. Consider D. To consider
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10. Brain growth is partially produced by the stimulate of ganglia during what is known as REM sleep. A. Stimulating B. Stimulation C. Stimulate D. Stimulated 11. Worker bees labor for the good of the hive by collecting food, caring for the young, and to expand the nest. A. Expand B. To be expanded C. Expanding D. Expands 12. Where does a river intersects another river, a city usually is a formed. A. A river does B. Is a river C. A river D. A river is 13. Sharing corporate stocks with employees can be an effective way to promote harmonious, efficiency, and equitability in the workplace. A. To be harmonious B. Be harmonious C. Harmony D. Harmoniously 14. Reptiles must always to avoid extremes of temperature if they are to maintain appropriate body heat. A. Avoiding B. Avoided C. To be avoided D. Avoid 15. The construction of sundials was considered to be an acceptable part of sundial’s educator as late as the seventeenth century. A. Education B. Educating C. Educated D. Educator 16. Jekyll Island has been one of George’s state parks in 1954. A. On B. For C. Since D. Within
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C. Choose the most appropriate and correct sentence 17. A. When Colombus reached the New World, corn was the most widely grown plant in the USA. B. Colombus reached the New World, corn was the most widely grown plant in the USA. C. Colombus reached the New World corn was the most widely grown plant in the USA. D. It is when Colombus reached the New World, corn was the most widely grown plant in the USA. 18. A. Cedar Rapids, is a city in east central Iowa, is the governmental seat of Linn County. B. Cedar Rapids, a city in east central Iowa, the governmental seat of Linn County C. Cedar Rapids, is a city in east central Iowa, the governmental seat of Linn County D. Cedar Rapids, a city in east central Iowa, is the governmental seat of Linn County 19. A. The Hopi people having occupied their desert homeland in northern Arizona for at least one thousand years. B. The Hopi people have occupied their desert homeland in northern Arizona for at least one thousand years. C. The Hopi people who have occupied their desert homeland in northern Arizona for at least one thousand years. D. The Hopi people have been occupied their desert homeland in northern Arizona for at least one thousand years. 20. A. Hillary Clinton is an advocate for children’s rights has been a leading attorney for the past twenty years. B. Hillary Clinton, an advocate for children’s rights has been a leading attorney for the past twenty years. C. Hillary Clinton is an advocate for children’s rights, she has been a leading attorney for the past twenty years. D. Hillary Clinton, an advocate for children’s rights has been a leading attorney for the past twenty years. 21. A. Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior is presented to a grand jury, cannot indict a person B. Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior is presented to a grand jury, it cannot indict a person C. Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior is presented to a grand jury, can it not indict a person D. Unless sufficient evidence of criminal behavior it is presented to a grand jury, it cannot indict a person 22. A. B. C. D.
Because what he said is hard to believe. What he said is hard to believe. It is hard to believe because what he said. Hard to believe what he said.
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23. A. Water polo is a game it requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest. B. Water polo is a game requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest. C. Water polo is a game that it requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest. D. Water polo is a game that requires an ability to accelerate quickly in the water and to endure long periods of swimming without rest. 24. A. Pocahontas, the daughter of Chief Powhatan, she is reputed to have saved John Smith just before his execution. B. Pocahontas, she is the daughter of Chief Powhatan, is reputed to have saved John Smith just before his execution. C. Pocahontas, is the daughter of Chief Powhatan, is reputed to have saved John Smith just before his execution. D. Pocahontas, the daughter of Chief Powhatan, is reputed to have saved John Smith just before his execution. D. Number 25-26 contain jumbled sentences. One of the sentences has been underlined. You are required to choose the next sentence which logically follows the underlined one. 25. (1)The scientific study of clouds began in 1803 when Luke Howard, a British pharmacist and amateur meteorologist, introduced the first system for classifying clouds. (2) It is based on the shape, distribution and altitude of clouds (3) Although many other procedures for cloud classification have been devised over the years, Howard’s system is so simple and effective that it is still in use now (4) Howard used their Latin names to identify them (5) He identified ten different categories A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 26. (1) Synonyms, words that have the same basic meaning, do not always have the same emotional meaning. (2) Similarly, a person wants to be slender but not skinny, and aggressive but not pushy (3) Therefore, you should be careful in choosing words because many so-called synonyms are not really synonymous at all (4) For example, the words stingy and frugal both mean “careful with money” (5) However to call a person stingy is an insult, while the word frugal has a much more positive connotation. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
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E. Number 27-30 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify the correct order to form a good paragraph. 27. (1) The energy that is released by a hurricane in one day exceeds the total energy consumed by human kind throughout the world. (2) These violent storms are often a hundred miles in diameter, and their winds can reach velocities of 75 miles per hour or more. (3) Hurricanes, which are also called cyclones, exert tremendous power. (4) Furthermore, the strong winds and heavy rainfall that accompany them can completely destroy a small town in a couple of hours. A. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3 B. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 C. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 D. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 28. (1) This in turn contributed to an increase in the population in the area. (2) The Egyptian landscape has been changing for centuries. (3) One of the most notable aspects of this transformation is the year-round irrigation of land for agricultural purposes, rather than strict on the annual food. (4) One area which has undergone dramatic change over the last 7.000 years is Nile River basin. A. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 B. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1 C. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 D. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 29. (1) The exercise which involve physical effort such as walking, swimming, bicycling, and jogging is known as active exercise. (2) It includes many physical therapy techniques. (3) Physical training of the human body to improve the way it functions is known as exercise. (4) On the other hand, the exercise which involves a machine or the action of other people is called passive exercise. (5) The exercise can be categorized as either active or passive. A. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4 - 5 B. 3 – 5 – 2 – 4 - 1 C. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 - 5 D. 3 – 5 – 1 – 4 - 2 30. (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
As it lays the eggs, it may or may not fertilize them with sperm from its sperm sac. The female eggs develop into fertile queens, sterile workers, or soldiers. Most of the ants in a colony are workers. A queen ant digs a hole where it lays its eggs and waits until the first ants emerge. Fertilized eggs result in females, while unfertilized eggs produce males. A. 4 – 1 – 5 – 2 - 3 B. 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 - 1 C. 4 – 5 – 2 – 3 – 1 D. 4 – 2 – 1 – 5 – 3
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