Barti Delhi Cet 2017 Sample Paper Gs and Csat (1)

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

BARTI-DELHI-CET-2017BARTI-DELHI-CET -2017- SAMPLE PAPER DR. BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR RESEARCH AND TRAINING INSTITUTE, PUNE Time Allowed: 2 Hours

Maximum Marks: 200

PAPER - I (GENERAL STUDIES) INSTRUCTIONS 1. 2.

3.

4. 5. 6.

7. 8.

9. 10.

Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages, etc. If so, request for its replacement. You have to enter your seat number on the test booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the test booklet. Seat/Roll numberThis test booklet contains 100 questions .Each question is printed both in English and Hindi. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You have to select the response which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. I n any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question. You have to mark all your responses one by one ONLY on the separate OMR answer sheet provided. Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheet as per instructions contained in your admit card. After you have completed the marking of all your responses (by darkening the response circle completely) on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the OMR answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the test booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE. i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty, as above, to that question. iii. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no penalty for that question. Each questions carry equal marks. Final result of this examination will be declared on our website https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in

मान द स चना का िहद ऩाॊतय तय इस न ऩ तका के ऩछरे ऩ षठ ऩय छऩा िै ूचना ुतका ृषठ

1

2

(a) Korean war took place in 1953 which was followed by cold war pattern of tensions with North Korea favored by communist countries and South Korea favored by US.

1. Which one is wrong?

(a) A key difference of Indian parliamentary system from British parliamentary system is that Indian model incorporates judicial review system.

(b) The 36th parallel divides the two countries and North Korea wants reunification and US – US – North Korea treaty but the same became more elusive since 9/11 attack when Gorge Bush called North Korea, Iran and Iraq as Axis of evil.

(b) Accordingly British parliamentary system incorporates doctrine of absolute parliamentary sovereignty once a law is made. (c) A key difference of US presidential system from Indian parliamentary system is strong separation of powers of legislature and judiciary in US presidential system.

(c) North Korea objects to joint South Korea-US military exercises, placement of nuclear capable B-2 stealth bombers near the border by US and joint Japan-US military exercises after Japanese J apanese right wing PM officially gave up policy of pacifism using the threat of North Korea as the reason while US got irked by the third nuclear test by North Korea recently.

(d) US presidential system incorporates doctrines like legislative oversight and codeterminism to check the drawbacks of extreme separation of power.

(d) The ray of hope since 1998 was sunshine policy of South Korea which which was given by KimDae-Jung called as Mandela of South Korea which went for political and economic engagement with North Korea.

1.

(a)

2.

(b) (a)

(c) (b)

(d)

(c)

2. What is not true of Korean crisis?

3

(d)

4. Which one is wrong regarding assemblies at different points of time?

(a) The Jain texts 6th Century ad Vallabhi in finally compiled Gujarat

(d)

(b) 4th Buddhist 1st Century ad Kashmir Council (c) Sangam Texts 300 to 600 ad Madurai (d) Buddhist text 2 nd bc Patiliputra finally compiled

3. What is not true?

(a) Medulla oblongata is the lower most part of the brain which continues as the spinal chord in the vertebral column and controls involuntary action.

4.

(a)

(b) Spleen, liver and bone marrow are the most affected organs in malaria. (b) (c) Platypus found in Australia is the only mammal who lays eggs and has venom.

(c)

(d) Metastasis is the process through which the cancer cells spread through the blood or lymphatic system to other sites or organs.

(d) 5. What is not true of UCX ?

3.

(a) Universal Commodity Exchange Limited is the next generation national level commodity exchange for derivatives market across all commodity segments.

(a)

(b) Universal Common Stock Exchange Limited is the next generation national level commodity exchange for derivatives market across all commodity segments.

(b)

(c)

(c) It aims to be one of the largest commodity derivatives exchange ensuring price transparency and a robust risk management & 4

surveillance system for facilitating online trading, clearing & settlement operations for the market across the country.

(c) (d)

(d) UCX is headquartered in the financial capital of India, Mumbai.


5. UCX

(a) Subhash Chandra Bose took over command of Azad Hind Fauz from Rash Bihari Bose on 4th July, 1943.

(a) (b) Germany handed over Andaman & Nicobar Islands to Azad Hind government. (c) On 8 April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bomb in the Central assembly.

(b)

(d) Jatin Das died after 63 days of fasting in Lahore jail with Bhagat Singh. (c)

7. (a)

(b)

(d)

(c)

6. Which one is not one of the 6 components of Bharat Nirman?

(a) Irrigation, Roads

(d)

(b) Housing, Water supply (c) Telecommunication connectivity

8. Half life period of a radioactive substance is 60 days. 2 gram of that substance would get reduced to 0.5 gram after:

(d) Rural education 6.

(a) (b) 5

(a) 200 days

(b) 180 days

(c) 120 days

(d) 60 days

(c) Parliament can make any law for whole of India or for a part of India without consent of the states.

8.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(d) Art 24 says that no child below 14 years can be employed in any factory or mines or in any hazardous employment. 10.


(a) (a) Net flow of capital from abroad equals deficit on current account of B.O.P minus retained earnings of foreign controlled companies in India.

(b)

(b) The years from 1966-69 are called tax holidays.

(c)

(c) Minimum support price and procurement price are the same. (d) All of the above.

(d)

9.

(a) 11. What is not true regarding comparison of

powers between US and Indian Supreme Court?

(b)

(a) Original jurisdiction coverage is wider in USA where it covers not only federal cases but also cases relating to naval forces, maritime activities, ambassadors, etc.

(c) (d)


(b) Indian Supreme Court can grant special leave to any appeal against any judgment of any court or tribunal (except emergency) while in USA, Supreme Court has no such plenary power.

(a) Resolution for removal of Vice President can be initiated in any house of the Parliament. (b) Term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year during the proclamation of emergency.

(c) Indian Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction in three matters i.e Constitutional, Criminal and Civil while in USA, there are no such powers.

6

(d) Indian Supreme Court has advisory jurisdiction while in USA, there is no such power.

(c) 2, 3, 1 and 4

11.

1.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

.

2. 3.

(a)

4.

(b)

(a) 1, 2, 4

3

(b) 2, 1, 4

3

(c) 2, 3, 1

4

(d) 1, 2, 3

4

13. Consider the following statements:

(c)

1. Capital adequacy ratio means the ratio that banks have to obtain as capital to risk-weighted assets to protect the depositors. 2. Paid-up capital, statutory reserve, share premium and capital reserve are included in Tier-I capital.

(d)

3. Cash reserve ratio is the ratio of gross deposits of scheduled banks that they keep with them. 12. Arrange in chronological order:

4. Prime lending rate is the interest rate above which the banks do not provide loans to any sector.

1. Bhagat Singh's execution. 2. Lucknow Pact or August Declaration.

Which ones of the above statements are true?

3. Lahore Session with Jawahar Lal Nehru as President. 4. 2nd Round Table Conference. Code –

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 3

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 3 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2 and 3

(d) Only 1, 2 and 4

13.

(b) 2, 1, 4 and 3

7

(b)

1.

(c) 2.

-I (d)

3. 15. Two cups are of the same shape and size, the outer surface of one of the cups is rough & black and the other one is polished brightly. If we pour equal amount of tea in both the cups then which cup of tea will cool quickly?

4.

(a) Rough & black cup (b) Brightly polished cup (a)

1

(c)

1, 2

2 3

(b)

3

(d)

1, 2

4

(c) both will cool in same time 4

(d) Cannot be determined

14. Which one of the following is not true?

15.

(a) Like International Monetary Fund, World Bank also has a 3-Tier structure. (b) India is one of the founder members of the World Bank. (c) It is necessary to be a member of the World Bank for being a member of International Finance Corporation.

(a)

(d) The headquarters of United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is in Paris.

(c)

(b)

(d)

14.

16. Consider the following facts regarding neutrinos and select the right option.

(a)

1. They are not affected by electromagnetic force.

8

2. They are unaffected by the weak sub-atomic forces.

17.

3. They are affected by gravity, but it is very weak on the subatomic scale.

1.

Code –

(a) Only (i) and (ii)

(b) Only (ii) and (iii)

(c) Only (i) and (iii)

(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

2.

3.

16.

1.

(a)

1

2

(b)

2.

(c)

1

3

(d) 1, 2

2

3 3

18. Consider the following statements about article 355 of the constitution of India.

3.

1. It is a less drastic measure than art 356. 2. It has been frequently used. (a)

1

2

(b)

2

3 Which of the above is/are correct?

(c)

1

3

(d) 1, 2

3

17. Consider the following statements about e-government and e-governance.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

18.

1. e-government is an institutional approach to jurisdictional political operations. 2. e-governance is a procedural approach to cooperative administrative relations.

1.

3. e-government is a broader term than egovernance.

2.

Select the correct alternative.

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(a)

1

(b)

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1

2

(d)

9

2 1

2


1. ISBN is a 9 digit format 2. International Standard Serial Numbers (ISSN) identifies periodical publications such as magazines.

(a)

1

2

(b)

(c)

1

3

(d) 1, 2

2

3 3

21. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) URL is often used as a synonym for URI (Uniform Resource Identifier). (b) URL is also known as web address.

19.

(c) URL is a specific numeric string. 1. ISBN

(d) None of these.

2.

(ISSN)

21.

(a) (a)

1

(b)

2 (b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

1

2

(c) 20. Which are true about nuclear force? (d)

1. It is a short range force.

22. Which of the following organizations are statutory?

2. It is a strong force. 3. It is independent of charge. Select the correct option:

(a) Only 1 and 2

1. CBI

2. NDC

3. NIA

4. Election commission

(b) Only 2 and 3 Select the correct option:

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

20.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) All of the above.

1.

22.

2.

1.

3. 10

2.

3.

(a) 1, 2

4.

3

(b) 1

(c)

1, 3

4

(d) 1, 2, 3

4

24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

3

(a) Bora winds blow in winter. (c) 1, 2

4

(d)

(b) Brickfielder winds blow in summer. 23. Which of the following is/are related to use of biomasses as energy source?

1. Biogas obtained from agriculture and human waste.

rotten

(c) Pampero winds blow in summer. (d) Ghibli winds blow in summer.

garbage,

.

2. Bioethanol obtained from fermentation of sugar components of plant material.

(a)

3. Biodiesel obtained from vegetable oils, animal fats or recycled greases used as a diesel additive.

(b) (c) पमपेरो

4. Coalbed methane obtained from forest waste. (d) Code –

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

25. Direction: The following question consists of two statements; one labelled as the „Assertion (A)‟ and the other as „Reason (R)‟. You are to examine these statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

23.

1.

Assertion (A): The lumbering is most advanced and done in large scale in temperate regions.

2.

Reason (R): The wood is soft wood, the lumbering process is well mechanized & that the slippery snow coupled with well developed communication network facilitates transport.

3.

Code –

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

4.

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation. (a)

1, 2

3

(b)

1

(c) A is true but R is false. 11

(d) A is false but R is true. 1. 25. (A)

(R)

2.

(A)

(a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

2 1

2


(R)

1. Periyar is the largest river of Kerala which originates from Annamalai Hills.

देता

(a) A

(b) A

R

2. Most of the rivers of South India flows eastwards with their tributaries. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

R, A

R

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) 1 and 2 Both

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

R, A

(c) A

R

(d) A

R

27.

1.


2. 1. The Mahe river originates from the forests on the western slopes of Wayanad hills. 2. The river Manjra is the major tributary of the Godavari river.

(a)

1

(b)

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(c) 1

2

(d)

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

28. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(c) 1 and 2 Both

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

26. 12

2 1

2

(a) Beyond Dhauladhar range, the mountain ranges bend sharply to the South & spread along Eastern boundary of India called Purvanchal.


(b) The Gondwana land included India, Australia, South Africa, South America & Antarctica.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) 1 and 2 Both

(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

29.

(c) The main cause of rainfall in India is not a result of incoming North Easterly winds to India but the winds moving from Southern Indian ocean blowing in summers.

1.

पी

2.

(d) Mangroves are found in coastal areas influenced by tides like Ganga Bramhaputra Delta. The sundry trees and Royal Bengal Tiger are famous in these areas. 28.

(a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

2

(a) 1

2

30. Which of the following statements is not true?

(b)

(a) UNFCCC Convention is the founding stone of putting in place the institution and processes on climate change.

(c)

(b) Algae is not helpful in water treatment. (c) Doha Summit was a mix bag for India because CBDR got reinserted but the issue of high costs of intellectual properties etc. remained unaddressed.

(d)

(d) The paddy fields are big source of methane production. 29. Consider the following statements:

30.

1. Satpura range is located between the rift valleys of Narmada and Tapti, which is an example of block mountain.

(a)

2. Karbi Anglong in North-East India is not the extension of parts of Indian peninsula. 13

(b)

(d)

(c) CBDR

32. Where is the centre for management and power studies?

(a) Faridabad

(b) Bangaluru

(d)

(c) Mumbai

(d) Gurgaon

31. What is not true about the watershed & watershed development?

32.

(a) The core idea is to retain the water at a place and let it get soaked. (b) The tree vegetation helps in soaking the water while nullah plugs, check dams help in stopping the runaway of water.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

advanced

33. Which one is wrong about the Particulates (a key air pollutant)?

(c) Thus not only aquifers get filled up but also there is a continuous water supply through out the year. The watershed development helps in recharging ground water. It also reduces severity of floods downstream .

(a) The Particulates less than 10 micron size are called Respirable Suspended Particulate matter (RSPM). (b) The particulates reduce the visibility by adsorbing, scattering the sunlight and they affect climate by forming clouds, rain and snow.

(d) The watershed development programme started in 1985.

(a)

(c) The most damaging impact is on lungs of humans by penetrating the lungs and damage lung tissues. It causes diseases like Black lungs (Coal miners), silicosis (from silica) and bronchitis.

(b)

(d) They have impact on humans and materials but not on plants.

31.

33.

(c)

(a) (RSPM)

14

35. Which of the following is not true for inflation?

(b)

(a) Its causal factors include both demand pull and cost push (b) The demand pull factors include increase in population, increase in government expenditure, rise in incomes, black money, change in consumption pattern.

(c)

(c) The cost push factors includes factors like infrastructure bottlenecks which raise factors of production and distribution (d)

(d) The demand pull & cost push do not work together. 35.

34. Which one of the following is not the functions of WTO?

(a) Facilitate the implementation, administration and operation and objectives of GATT.

(a)

(b) Provide a forum for negotiations. (b)

(c) Administers understanding of rules and procedures. (d) Issuing of SDRs.

(c)

34.

(a)

(d)

(b)

36. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?

[

(c)

Composition

Writer

1. Vikramankdev Charita – Sandhyaker Nandi

(d) SDRs

2. Ram Charita –

15

Bilhan

3. Harsh Charita –

Ban Bhatta

Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

.

(a)

1

(b)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

38. Consider the following statements about the „Turk architecture‟:

3

[

(c)

1

3

1. Turks used geometrical as well as vegetative figures along with human and animal figures in decoration of the buildings.

(d)

37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about the 'Mesolithic Culture'?

2. They used door-frames having Aayats of Quran on them for decoration.

1. Mesolithic people used slopes of hills for their settlement and for the burials of their deads.

3. They included many Hindu symbols like Swastik, Lotus, Bell etc. in their building architecture.

2. They produced paddy and Jowar. 3. They were not aware of the use of iron.


4. They used to bury the skeletons of dead bodies in a pit after putting them into a red pot. Code:

(a) Only 1 and 4

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of these

.

16

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d)

1-A

40. Which of the following tribes are found in Kerala State?

(a)

(b)

1. Urali

2. Dafur

3. Lepcha

4. Koli

5. Kharia Code:

(c)

(d)

39. Which of the following statement is wrong about the road transport in India?

(a) In India, Maharashtra has maximum length of roads.

(a) Only 2, 4 and 5

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

40.

(b) National Highway number 8 connects Delhi to Mumbai. (c) National Highway is only about 2% of total length of roads in the country whereas it carries about 48% traffic of total road transport. (d) Jawahar Tunnel is located in National Highway 1A.

(a)

(b)

39.

(c)

(d)

41. Which of the tributary of Beas?

following

1. Parvati

2. Hurla

3. Shingar

4. Tirthan

(a)

(b)

rivers

Code: (c)

देश

(a) Only 1 and 3

(b) Only 2 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

41.

17

are

(a) Yogasan activity (b) A characteristic of temple sculpture (c) A festival (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(d) A form of dramatics

42. The main characteristics of 'Ajanta Painting' is/are:

(a) (b)

1. Use of non mixtured and bright colours.

c)

2. Different postures to express the feelings of different characters.

(d) [

3. Shadow based painting 44. Consider the following statements:

4. Painting of earthly-unearthly objects. 1. Evolution of Devnagiri Script is assumed from Brahmi Script.

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 3

(b) Only 2 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. ‘Kutil Script’ is a changed form of Gupta Script and it is also called ‘Siddhimatrika Script’. 3. Sharda Script developed in Kashmir in 12th century. Which of correct?

(b)

(c)

(d)

43. In Indian culture, "Aashtanika" refers to: 18

above

statement(s)

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

44.

(a)

the

is/are

46. Who founded "Independence for India League"?

1. Jawahar Lal Nehru (a)

2. Subhash Chandra Bose

(b)

3. C.R. Das (c)

(d)

Code:

45. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the development of 'monetary system' in India?

1. Only Ruler's figures were engraved on the Mauryan coins whereas coins issued by Greek rulers had ruler's figures along with their names engraved on them.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

46.

1.

2. Figures engraved on early coins show more Indian impact whereas coins of later time show a large Greek impact.

2. 3.

Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) (c)

45.

(b) (d)

47. In Maharashtra, Jyotiba Phule made much efforts for the upliftment of dalits. Which of the following is/are correct about him?

1.

1. He founded Satyashodhak Samaj in Bombay in 1873. It was an organisation which did not support caste-disparity and untouchability.

2.

2. He established a primary school for education of non Brahmin boys and girls. 3. He wrote a book named 'Ghulam giri'. (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Code:

2

(a) Only 1 and 2

19

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

2.

47.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

1.

49. The Discount and Finance House of India Ltd. was set up to:-

2.

(a) Develop the money market and provide the liquidity to money market instrument. 3.

(b) Develop the capital market and provide the liquidity to capital market instrument.

(a)

(c) Regulate the functioning of Stock Exchange.

(b)

(d) None of the above . (c)

(d) 49.


1. Hindu College, Calcutta was founded by Raja Rammohan Roy with the help of David Hare where vernacular languages were mode of imparting education.

(a)

(b)

2. During the tenure of Governor General Lord Hastings, Adam's report on education was submitted. Which of incorrect?

the

above

statements

(c)

is/are

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d)

50. Who killed police officer Saunders who had ordered lathi charge on Lala Lajpat Roy when he was protesting Simon Commission?

1. Bhagat Singh

1.

हे

2. Chandra Shekhar Azad 3. Rajguru 20

4. Roshan Lal Code:

(a) Only 1, 2 and 4

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

52. Which of the following statements are correct about the Administrative Tribunals in India?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

1. There is a system of establishing administrative tribunals at Centre and State levels. 2. At present, there are 17 benches of Central Administrative Tribunal.

51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

3. The Chairman of Central Administrative Tribunal is a present or retired justice of Supreme Court.

1. Budget can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.

Code:

2. Impeachment Motion against the President can be introduced in any house of the Parliament. 3. The joint session of both houses of the Parliament is presided over by the President. Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) None of these.

को 21

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

53. The First Municipal Corporation in India was established in:

(a) Madras (Present Chennai) (b) Calcutta (Present Kolkata) (c) Allahabad 55. Consider the following statements:

(d) Bombay (Present Mumbai) 1. Such a person can also be appointed as Chief Minister who is not the member of any house of Legislature. But this kind of appointment remains valid upto 6 weeks only.

(a)

2. The Governor can use his discretionary powers in appointment of ministers in the state.

(b) (c)


(d)

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

54. Consider the following statements about the Regional Councils:

55.

1. It is a statutory body.

1.

2. It is spread in 6 regions of the country. 3. Prime Minister is the head of all Regional Councils. 2.


22

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

57.

2


1. Great Indian Bustard is a migratory bird. 2. These are often found in the same habitat as blackbuck. 3. Their habitat is mostly found in hilly region. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

58. Arrange the following in increasing order of threat to the specie:

56.

1. Dugong

2. Emperor Penguin

3. Indian peafowl

4. Asian lion

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) 3, 1, 2, 4

(c) 2, 4, 1, 3

(d) 3, 2, 1, 4

58.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

57. Which of the following are naturally found in India?

1. Flying Squirrel

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. Dodo 59. Which of the following is/are feature(s) of “Dhamra Port” project?

3. Hawksbill sea turtle 4. Dhole Code:

(a) Only 1 and 4

(a)

1. It promotes responsibility.

(b) Only 2 and 3 23

corporate

environmental

2. Conservation of olive ridley turtles. 3. Turtle friendly lighting. Code:

(a) Only 1 (c) Only 1 and 3

(b) Only 2 and 3 (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(d) 1, 2 and 3

59.

61. Which of the following organism does not belong to the class of other three?

(a) Kangaroo

(b) Koala

(c) Tasmanian devil

(d) Anteater

61.

(a)

(b)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(c)

(d)

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about Hangul ?

60. Which of the following are initiatives taken by IUCN in India?

1. Hangul is a deer found in South India.

1. Livelihood and landscapes strategy

2. Dachigam National Park is associated with Hangul.

2. Man and Biosphere Programme 3. Hangul is threatened due to habitat destruction, overgrazing by domestic livestock and poaching.

3. Project Tiger 4. Mangroves for the future

Code:

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 3

(b) Only 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 4

(d) Only 1, 3 and 4

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

62. 60.

24

2. Probiotics are naturally found in our body. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a)

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) 64.

(c)

(d)

63. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical region. 2. Tropical region being warm and humid, has maximum diversity as diversity decreases from equator to poles.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Code: 65. Consider the following statements:

(a) Only 1 (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 1. An aurora can only be seen in mid-latitude region.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Aurora is caused by solar wind and magnetospheric plasma interacting with each other.

63.

3. Aurora can be seen only in Northern Hemisphere. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a)

(b)

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 3

65.

(c)

(d)


1. Curd is an example of probiotic.

25

1. In anaerobic respiration almost similar energy is produced as in aerobic respiration. 2. Anaerobic respiration plays a major role in the global nitrogen, sulphur and carbon cycles. Code:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67.


1. Reptiles are invertebrate animals. 2. Invertebrates have backbone. 3. No. of invertebrated is much more than vertebrates. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct.

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

66.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


1. Outer space is not completely empty. 2. Karman line demarcating earth's atmosphere and the outer space is situated at 100 km. 3. Till today there exists no international framework to regulate the use of outer space. (a)

(c)

Code:

(b)

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 3

(d) Only 2 and 3

(d)

67. Which of the following statement(s) about anaerobic respiration is/are correct?

68.

26

य ु

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 and 5

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4

(d) Only 1, 2 and 5

70.

(a)

(b)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)

(d)

69. Solar power is being increasingly used as a renewable source of energy. Which of the following elements used in the construction of solar cells poses a grave threat?

71. R.B.I enables the banks to settle their interbank claims easily. This function of settlement of Banking transactions reffered as:-

(a) Silicon

(b) Mercury

(a) Conflict management

(c) Cadmium

(d) Titanium

(b) Transactions management (c) Clearing house

69.

(d) Custodian service 71.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

70. Which of the following will turn a litmus paper red?

1. Milk

2. Curd

3. Blood

4. Soap

(b) (c)

(d)

5. Orange juice

72. Which of the following committee report suggested to remove distinction between Plan and Non-Plan expenditure?

Code:

27

(a) Raghuram Ranjan Committee

74. Which among the following can form part of National Income?

(b) Urjit Patel Committee

(a) Intermediate goods

(c) C. Rangarajan Committee

(b) Second Hand sale of car

(d) A.K. Mathur Committee

(c) Imputed Rent of Self occupied house 72.

(d) Negative externalities. 74.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) [

(b)

73. “General high inflation adversely affects an economy”. Which of the following group will not suffer from this adverse affect?

(c)

(d)

(a) Individuals on fixed incomes. 75. A situation where inflation pushes income into higher tax brackets is known as:-

(b) A person who has lent at a fixed rate of interest for long period of time (Creditors).

(a) Fiscal Drag

(b) Fiscal stimulus

(c) A person who has taken loan at a fixed rate for long period of time (Debtor).

(c) Fiscal Neutrality

(d) None of the above.

(d) None of the above.

75.

73.

(a)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

76. Consider the following statements in the context of Tides-Ebbs:

(b)

1. Tide generating capacity of Moon is less than that of Sun. (c)

2. On Saptami and Ashtami day of every month, spring tide occurs. 3. In each place, ebb tide occurs generally twice in a day.

(d)

28

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 3

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

76.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

78. Which type of technology is required for agriculture land use in a country like India where there is inadequacy of land and abundance of labour? (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

1. A technology which could increase the productivity of a specific crop in per unit land. 2. A technology which could increase production of all crops by intensive land use in a farm year.

77. Which of the following conditions are responsible for thermal anomaly?

2. Clean and Cloudless sky.

3. A technology which could minimize the need of labour by making agriculture sector fully mechanised.

3. Hot and humid wind.

Code:

4. Snow covered surface.

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

5. Calm and constant atmosphere.

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Code:

78.

1. Long winter nights.

(a) Only 1, 3 and 5

(b) Only 2, 3 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

77.

29

80. Hybrid nuclear power refers to:

(a) Use of different types of nuclear fuel. (b) Use of nuclear and fossil fuels. (c) Use of fusion and fission both. (d) Use of different stages in a single nuclear power plant. (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) 79. Quantum Dot Display (QLED) has been considered to replace the OLED displays.

(b)

Which of the following are its advantages?

(c)

1. Pure colour (d) 2. Low power consumption 3. Low manufacture cost 81. Dark matter is a hypothetical matter that –

4. Free of all toxic metals Code:

(a) Only 2 and 3

(b) Only 1, 2 and 3

(c) Only 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (QLED)

1. accounts for most of the matter in the universe. 2. Its existence and properties are inferred from its gravitational effects.

OLED

3. It can emit and absorb electromagnetic radiations. Code:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

30

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) All the above.

(R)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) (A)

(R)

(R), (A)

(b) (A)

(R)

(R), (A)

82. Direction: The following question consists of two statements; one labelled as the

(c) (A)

(R)

‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’.

(d) (A)

You are to examine these statements carefully

(R)

and select the answer to these items using the

83. Consider the following statements about "Three Parent Baby":

codes given below: Assertion (A): Reuse of waste water is an

1. US is the primary nation to allow '3 Parent Babies".

important step in water conservation and is a resource rather than waste.

2. The procedure is intended to prevent all genetic diseases.

Reason (R): Reuse of waste water helps in reductions of cost and water pollution.

3. The technique to be used will involve DNA from three person.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and R is correct explanation of (A).

Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not correct explanation of (A).

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 3

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is false.

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) (A) is false but (R) is correct.

(A)

(R)

(A)

31

(a)

(b)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(c)


(d)

1. Tuberculosis is caused by virus. 2. Malaria is caused by bacteria.

86. In which case it was decided that freedom of speech and expression also include freedom of keeping silence?

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) Indira Sawhney vs. Union of India (b) Balaji vs. Mysore State (c) Devasan vs. Union of India (d) Emanuel vs. Kerala State

1. 2.

(a)

1

(b)

2 (a)

(c)

(d) (b)

85. Which of the following provision of the constitution can not be changed by a simple majority?

(c) (d)

(a) Creation of legislative council and its regulation.

87. What is incorrect about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

(b) Creation of cabinet for Union Territories

(a) He audits all the expenditures from the Consolidated Fund and Public Accounts of India along with Contingency Funds and Public Accounts of all the states.

(c) Deciding the Parliamentary privileges. (d) Division of legislative powers between the Union and States.

(b) He audits all the tradings, manufacturing profits and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary accounts of central government and any department of state governments.

(a)

32

(c) He audits all the transactions of central and state governments related to loans, Sinking Funds, deposits, advances, saving accounts, money remittances. 1.

(d) He has an effective control on withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India.

2.

3.

(a)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

89. About which matters Finance Commission presents its recommendations to the President?

(b)

1. Distribution of net income from the taxes to center and sates and allocation of such income to the states according to their parts. 2. About the governing principles of grant-aid to assist the states in their revenue from the Consolidated Fund of India.

(c)

3. To supplement the resources of state Panchayats, methods to enhance the Consolidated Fund of the State.

(d)

Select the correct answer with the help of below mentioned code: 88. On which of the following bases state can restrict the religious freedom of a person through law?

1. Public Order

2. Decency

3. Health Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

33

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Central Bank sells treasury securities to commercial banks.

(a) (b) (c) (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(d)

92. Which component of a nation's Balance of Payments includes the purchase and sale of real and financial assets between nations?

90. If the price of a good is increased then, the demand for its substitute will:

(a) Increase (a) Capital Account (b) Decrease (b) Official Reserve Account (c) Will have no effect (c) Current Account (d) Depends upon market (d) Trade Surplus Account 90.

(a) (b)

(a)

(c)

(b)

(d)

(c)

91. Which among the following is an example of contractionary monetary policy?

(d) 93. Which of the following tax is regressive in nature:

(a) Central Bank lowers the reserve ratio. (b) Central Bank lowers the discount rate. (c) Central Bank increases taxes on house hold income. 34

(a) Income tax

(b) Wealth tax

(c) Value added tax

(d) Corporate tax

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

94. Mercury (Hg) is a heavy metal occurring in several forms and can be toxic. Which among the following are true about it?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


1. Its discharge to open atmosphere can lead to biomagnification and serious health affects.

1. Both CT scan and MRI use ionised radiation.

2. Minamata disease is a neurological syndrome caused by mercury poisoning.

2. In CT, scan, X rays are used. 3. In MRI, radiowaves are used.

3. Elemental mercury is more toxic than compounds of mercury.

Code:

4. Dental Amalgam (used for dental filling) and fluorescent lamps are sources of mercury which seriously affect the health of masses.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Code:

95.

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 3 and 4

(c) Only 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(Hg)

X-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

96. According to Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, which of the following have been identified as primary drivers for biodiversity loss?

1. Invasive species 35

2. Climate change

3. Human intervention 4. Over exploitation 5. Urbanisation Code:

(a)

(b) (d)

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c)

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5


96.

1. The product of photosynthesis is not a protein. 2. Plants which synthesise their food themselves are called saprophytes. Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

98.

(a) (c)

(b)

,

(d)


1. Energy in Gamma rays is more than that of Xrays. 2. Frequency of Gamma rays is more than that of X-rays.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Optical Computing commercialised.

has

now

being

2. Optical Computer requires less power than Electronic Computers.

97.

3. Optical Computers are much faster than Electronic Computer

X-


X-

36

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

100. A Green GDP will include which of the following?

1. Monetised loss of biodiveristy 2. Monetary value of forest 3. Green Investment Code:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

37

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

38


39

जफ तक आऩको िम ऩयण ऩ ुतका खोरने को न िका जाए तफ तक न खोर

BARTI-DELHI-CET-2017-SAMPLE PAPER ऩ ुणे

न ऩ

-

I

साभाम अममन स ूचनाएॉ

ऩया ायब न क ऩड़तार अवम कय र क इसभ कोई फना छऩा पटा मा छ आहद न िो महद ऐसा िै तो इसे िस न ऩ ू टा ि ुतका से फदरने ृषठ ु आ ऩ न लरख न

न

औय

न

अन ुभाॊक

१००

अॊज े ी हदए गए इनभे से एक उय को च अॊकत कयना ुन र जसे आऩ ऊय ऩका ऩय िचाते ि महद आऩको ऐसा रगे क एक से अधक उय िस िै अॊकत ऊय ऊय न

वेशऩ

न ऊय दॊड ऩयाथ वाया ऊय अॊकत i. ii. iii.

दॊड

ऩयाथ ने दॊड

सबी नो के अॊक सभान िै १० ऩया .

अॊकत

ऊय ऊय तमा च ऊय

ऊय ऩया

को अॊकत न

दॊड िोगा ऩयाथ

ऊय

दॊड

िोगा

अॊकत

न

ऊय

न ऊय

ऩयाथ ने ऊय

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BARTI-DELHI-CET-2017-SAMPLE PAPER DR. BABASAHEB AMBEDKAR RESEARCH AND TRAINING INSTITUTE, PUNE Time Allowed: 2 Hours

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PAPER - II (CSAT) INSTRUCTIONS 1. 2.

3.

4. 5. 6.

7. 8.

9. 10.

Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this test booklet does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages, etc. If so, request for its replacement. You have to enter your seat number on the test booklet in the box provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the test booklet. Seat/Roll numberThis test booklet contains 80 questions .Each question is printed both in English and Hindi. Each question comprises four responses (answers). You have to select the response which you want to mark on the answer sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. I n any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each question. You have to mark all your responses one by one ONLY on the separate OMR answer sheet provided. Before you proceed to mark in the answer sheet the response to various items in the test booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the answer sheet as per instructions contained in your admit card. After you have completed the marking of all your responses (by darkening the response circle completely) on the answer sheet and the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator only the OMR answer sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the test booklet. Sheets for rough work are appended in the test booklet at the end. Penalty for wrong answers : THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE EXCEPT FOR QUETIONS FROM 76 TO 80 WHICH DO NOT CARRY ANY PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWER. i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty, as above, to that question. iii. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate; there will be no penalty for that question. Each questions carry equal marks. Final result of this examination will be declared on our website https://barti.maharashtra.gov.in

मान द स ूचना का िहद ऩाॊतय इस न ऩ ुतका के ऩछरे ऩ ृषठ ऩय छऩा िै

1

2

who do not can be classified as non-nationals or members of foreign nations. Such factors certainly shape the politics of nationalism. The nationalism of the Quebecois in Canada, for instance, is based largely on language differences between French-speaking Quebec and the predominantly English-speaking rest of Canada.

Di rections for th e foll owing 34 (Thir ty Four) Questi ons: Read th e fol l owin g 9 passages and answer th e i tems th at f oll ow each passage. Your answers to th ese items shou l d be based on th e passages Only.

PASSAGE – 1

Nationalism is a complex and deeply contested political phenomenon. In the most simple sense, nationalism is the belief that the nation is, or should be, the most basic principle of political organization. But what is a nation? In everyday language, words such as 'nation', 'state', 'country' and even 'race' are often confused or used as if they are interchangeable. The United Nations, for instance, is clearly misnamed, as it is an organization of states, not one of national populations. It is common in international politics to hear references to 'the Americans', 'the Chinese', 'the Russians' and so on, when in fact it is the actions of these people's governments that are being discussed. In the case of UK, there is confusion about whether it should be regarded as a nation or as a state that comprises four separate nations: the English, the Scots, the Welsh and the Northern Irish. The Arab people of North Africa and the Middle East pose very similar problems. For instance, should Egypt, Libya, Iraq and Syria be treated as nations in their own right, or as part of a single and united Arab nation, based on a common language (Arabic), a common religion (Islam), and descent from a common Bedouin tribal past? Such difficulties spring from the fact that all nations comprise a mixture of objective and subjective factors, a blend of cultural and political characteristics. On the most basic level, nations are cultural entities, collections of people bound together by shared values and traditions, in particular a common language, religion and history, and usually occupying the same geographical area. From this point of view the nation can be defined by objective factors: people who satisfy a requisite set of cultural criteria can be said to belong to a nation; those

Nationalist tensions in India invariably arise from religious divisions, examples being the struggle of Sikhs in the Punjab for a separate homeland (Khalistan). Nevertheless, it is impossible to define the nation using objective factors alone. All nations, to a greater or lesser extent, are characterized by cultural heterogeneity, and some to a high degree. The Swiss nation has proved to be enduring and viable despite the use of three major languages (French, German and Italian), as well as a variety of local dialects. Divisions between Catholics and Protestants that has given rise to rival nationalisms in Northern Ireland have been largely irrelevant in mainland UK, and have only marginal significance in countries such as Germany.

चौतीस नौ

छे

3

1. Why the author seems not to be in consonance with the idea of nationalism based on objective factors?

1. Nations are characterized by some cultural heterogenous factor as well. 2. Politics of Nationalism based on objective factors can lead to further divide in the society and nation. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor

1.

4

1.

(c)

2.

(d)

(a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

2 1

2

2. In the context of the passage, the NationsState dichotomy can be understood in which of the following way?

3. Examples of Northern Irish, Arab people of North Africa and Middle East have been used to depict, which of the following?

(a) It is not possible to segregate between the two, as both of them are interchangeable.

(a) To show the anomaly and flawedness involve in Nation-State theory.

(b) „Nation‟ is a cultural identity of people or population, whereas „State‟ refer to a political representation or government of a common population.

(b) To show the striking similarity between these regions and their idea of nationalism. (c) To signify the ambiguous nature of nationalism spread over different geographies.

(c) „Nation‟ refers to a cultural integration of population and „State‟ refers to a government ruling this population.

(d) The problems of nationalism in Northern Irish is totally different than of Northern Africa and Middle East region.

(d) „Nation‟ refers to a population representing common ethnic race and „State‟ refers to a government representing this population.

3.

2.

(a) (a) (b) (b) (c)

5

PASSAGE – 2

(d)

4. Which of the following appropriate for „Nationalism‟?

would

Hegel's idea of freedom is based on the ancient Greek concept that an individual can realise his true personality and freedom only within the state. It needs hardly any mention that this concept of freedom is not in conformity with the one which originated from the theory of natural rights and which characterised the revolutionary era in France. Thus, Hegel argued that man had no inalienable rights and his freedom was a gift of the state. In fact, state in the actualisation of freedom for an individual.

be

1. Language difference among the people derives a different sense of Nationalism. 2. Religious difference in society breeds a different tone of Nationalism among various social religious groups. 3. Linguistic and Religious divisions may not always create a different sense of Nationalism.

Hegel has put forth a positive concept of freedom. According to him, freedom lies in the expansion of one's personality. It enables an individual's natural self rise to one's rational self. He conceived freedom as a social phenomenon. It is made possible by participation in the moral life of the community. For Hegel, freedom is creative. To quote Barker, 'it expresses itself in a series of outward manifestations — first the law, then the rules of inward morality; and finally the whole system of institutions and influence that make for the righteousness in the national state. That system of institution and influences Hegel embraces in the terms of Social Ethics. The state is envisaged in terms of Social Ethics only.' Thus, Hegel came to conclusion that a man living a private life outside the authority of the state was not free because he was chained down to his natural impulses and 'indeterminate subjectivity'. Therefore, freedom lies in obedience to the laws of the state. In fact, what man need is that which is commanded by the state through its laws. The state embodies within itself the Rational and the Ethical. Hence it is obvious that only by rendering ungrudging and willing obedience to the state that an individual can become free and moral.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3

4.

1.

2.

3.

(a)

1

2

(b)

(c)

1

3

(d) 1, 2

2

3 3

Hegel, therefore, has nothing to do with the nation that men are free to make laws and institutions according to their will. According to 6

him, every thing is determined by the working of the sovereign of the universe — Reason. Reason. Therefore freedom can be realised only when we merge our identity in the state which is the embodiment of perfect Reason.

5. Why hegel is of the view that freedom is best achieved with in the purview of law of the state?

1. Man seeks freedom and rationality for self which can be defined within the authority of state very well. 2. Rights cannot be absolute and state possesses the authority to restrict the freedom of an individual. 3. Freedom outside the purview of the state makes man more vulnerable and arbitrary to his free status. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

7

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) All the above.

5.

(b) 1. (c)

(d)

3.

7. Why Hegel is considering state on the Epitome of Reason so that it can define or realize an individual's freedom?

(a)

1

2

(b)

(c)

2

3

(d)

1

1. State carries the responsibility of being rational with in which an individual can be rationalistically free.

3

2. State carries the burden of giving freedom to an individual and can realistically rationalize the limit of freedom.

6. Which of the following can act as a strong argument against Hegel's belief on Freedom?


(a) Laws of the state are not always rational, it can curb individual freedom in the name of perfect reason. reason. (b) Laws of the state are as much impulsive as human behaviour. (c) State can define morality and rationality of society but cannot act upon it. (d) Since, freedom is creative and state should not built boundary to limit it.

(a)

8

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

Colonization refers, on one level, to the emergence of global goods and global brands that have come to dominate economic markets in more and more parts of the world, creating an image of brand uniformity. However, at a deeper level, it also captures the psychological and emotional power that these brands have come to acquire through highly sophisticated marketing and advertising, allowing them to become symbols of freedom, youthfulness, vitality, happiness and so on. It is therefore a manifestation of what Marxists have called commodity fetishism. Consumerism has become one of the key targets of modern anti-corporate criticism, highlighted by Naomi Klein, amongst others, and it has been particularly emphasized by the green green movement. movement.

2 1

2

8. How can we clearly interpret the term „„Social Ethics‟‟ as presented in the passage?

(a) Integration of individual morality with that of state's morality. (b) Social standards of morality from which an individual can limit or expand his freedom. (c) Principle of social morality, followed by law of the state to create a way for an individual's freedom.

In one of the most influential accounts of trends in global consumerism, Benjamin Barber portrayed the emerging world as a „McWorld‟. McWorld is tied together by technology, ecology, communications and commerce, creating a „shimmering scenario of integration and uniformity‟ in which people everywhere are mesmerized by „fast music, fast computers, fast food - with MTV, Mclntosh and McDonald‟s pressing nations into one commercially commercially homogeneous theme park‟. Alongside and reflecting such developments has been the increasing standardization of business organizations and practices, commonly referred to as „McDonaldization‟. Underpinning the emergence of McWorld has been the seemingly relentless spread of materialist values, based on the notion of an intrinsic link between wealth and happiness. For many, these trends have a markedly western, and more specifically American character.

(d) All of the above.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) PASSAGE – PASSAGE – 3 3

Cultural globalization has most commonly been associated with the worldwide advance of a culture of consumer capitalism, sometimes seen as „turbo„turbo-consumerism‟. One aspect of this has been what is called „Coca Colonization‟. Colonization‟. Coca

– 3 3

9

9. In an integrated way, what can be significantly attributed as the key factor of cultural globalization and Coca colonization?

1. Rapid spread of capitalism. 2. Increasing presence of global goods and products. 3. More number of consumers are vying up for global brands. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) 2 and 3 Only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3.

9.

1. 2. 3.

(a)

1

3

(b)

(c)

2

3

(d) 1, 2

2 3

10. With reference to the passage, what can we say about „McDonaldization‟?

1. Increasing materialistic characteristics. 10

2. It‟s more of a western concept but now has been accepted globally.

11.

3. It promotes standardization of global nature for organizations.

(a) (b)


(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 and 3 Only

(c) 1 and 3 Only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3.

(c)

(d)

10. 12. Which of the following is correct about „Commodity Fetishism‟ as per the passage?

1.

1. It is related to freedom of choice. 2.

2. It captures the psyche of a consumer with a particular brand.

3.

(a)


1

(b)

2

3

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. (c)

1

3

(d) 1, 2

3

11. What is the primary motive of author in this passage?

1.

(a) To show the merit and demerits of cultural globalization.

2.

(b) Increasing consumerism.

impact

of

modern

day

(c) Outright rejection of consumerism by Anticorporate critique.

(a)

1

(b)

(d) Increase in Brand uniformity of various global products.

(c) 1

2

(d)

11

One of the most popular characterizations of developmental change, at least among developmental psychologists, has been some variant of the idea that development is defined as “changes in observed behavior across age.” This understanding is certainly a quick and ready pragmatic definition suitable to act as an operational guide to a series of empirical investigations. However, if this understanding were used to broadly give meaning to the domain of inquiry called developmental psychology, some very significant problems would emerge.

PASSAGE – 4

When exploring nature of development the one feature that virtually all agree on is that above all else development is about change. It is common to speak of the development of various art forms, societies, different economic systems, religion, philosophy, science, and so on, and in each case changes that the area goes through are the focus of attention. In developmental psychology, the situation is the same. As a branch of psychology, developmental psychology considers changes in behavior and the processes implied by the behavior such as intending, thinking, perceiving, and feeling. As a developmental psychology, the focus is upon these changes as they occur across the entire life span from conception to death, or within certain periods, such as infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, and the late mature years.

– 4

Although the focus on change is straightforward and non-controversial, major problems arise when considering whether every type of change should be accepted as developmental and, if not, what is the peculiar nature of the change we call developmental. Perhaps, general agreement would occur that the types of behavioral changes that occur when we become fatigued or tired would not be termed developmental change. But what about other changes that are transitory or easily reversed? For example, if someone is struck on the head they may change from a conscious to a nonconscious state; is this developmental change? Or, a pigeon can be trained to peck at a button when a light comes on, and then trained not to peck at the button when the light comes on; is this developmental change? The answers to these and other questions about the nature of developmental change depend to a significant degree on the metatheory that is employed to ground a definition of development.

(implied)

12

change can be attributed as developmental change. (c) Developmental change is observed in all age groups. (d) Study of developmental change helps us to study behaviour of persons. 13.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

14. With reference to the passage, development psychology is the study of ?

1. How human conditions?

behaves

under

certain

2. Change in behaviour under different stages of life. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

13. Which of the following is incorrect about developmental change?

(a) It is a never ending process from genesis to end.

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 Only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14.

(b) Though behavioural change is a developmental change but not all behavioural 13

evolving over millenniums; others have been faster, evolving over centuries, or even decades. Whilst in the past climatic change has been due to natural causes, the past century has seen such rapid changes, and indications of more changes to come, that only a combination of natural and man-induced causes can explain it. So, while climate change is not new, the present pace and scale of it is worrying, to the extent that it now dominates the global political discourse.

1. 2.

(a)

1

(c) 1

2

(b) (d)

2 1

2

The debate has two dimensions: mitigation and adaptation. The mitigation dimension is concerned with looking at how to reduce the human impact on the main drivers of climate change by limiting emissions of greenhouse gases, primarily by reducing our energy consumption or changing the energy mix. The adaptation dimension is concerned with how to deal with the impacts of climate change: those already observed, those predicted to happen with a high degree of certainty, and those more uncertain, but also more frightening impacts that may happen.

15. The author of this passage is raising certain question on which of the following subject?

(a) It is not possible to have a uniformity in behaviour. (b) Behavioural changes are not permanent. (c) Since certain changes are non-permanent, can we still co-relate it with a developmental change. (d) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

For good reasons the political debate has centered on the first aspect, the root cause of the problem. This needs to be the subject of binding global agreements and treaties. The second dimension, the adaptation challenge, has so far taken second place in the debate, including at COP15. The political debate on adaptation has focussed almost entirely on “how much”, i.e. on the level of financial support from rich to poor countries; the “what” and “how” discussion has largely remained in the technical spheres and are not likely to enter into a new treaty.

15.

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (a), (b)

(c)

– 5

PASSAGE – 5

The global climate has been changing since time immemorial, and the inhabitants of the Earth have had to either adapt to these changes, or disappear. Some changes have been slowly 14

16. Which of the following regarding mitigation and dimensions of climate change?

is correct adaptation

1. One is more political in its character than the other one. 2. One is focussed towards the root cause and the other one towards the repercussion of climate change. 3. Both regard climate change as man-made problem. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 3 Only

(b) 2 and 3 Only

(c) 2 Only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3.

16.

1.

2.

3.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 1, 2

3

17. Why climate change is now a matter of grave concern in a global political discourse?

(a) Unlike past, climate change is now a problem inflicted upon by human beings.

15

(b) It is now a more serious threat globally because of rapid change.

18.

(c) Unlike past, climate change impact is now more visible. 1.

(d) All (a), (b) and (c). 17.

2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c)

(d) (a), (b)

(c)

18. With which of the following, author is most likely to agree as far as climate change control initiatives are concerned?

(a)

1, 3

(c)

2

4 3

(b)

2, 3

4

(d)

1, 2

3

19. Suggest the suitable title for the passage?

1. Globally accepted norms to control climate change.

(a) Unfortunate debate on mitigation and adaptation dimension of climate change.

2. By being specific on climate change control targets.

(b) Natural and Man-Made reasons of climate change.

3. By categorically saying how we will control climate change.

(c) Evolving nature of climate change for the past many centuries.

4. By properly funding those countries who cannot afford technology to fight climate change.

(d) Climate Change and its political discourse. 19.


(a) 1, 3 and 4 Only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 Only

(c) 2 and 3 Only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Only

(a)

(b)

16

Forest Rules were formulated in many provinces in an attempt of conservation of wildlife. Further, plans are in progress for developing wireless communication systems for curbing problem of poaching. Other conservation measures include control of cattle grazing in tiger reserves and researching data regarding environmental changes, etc. Moreover, there are various NGOs in different states that are working on the conservation of Indian wildlife.

(c)

(d)

PASSAGE – 6

Conservation of Indian wildlife is required for protecting the endangered species of the country. Conservation of Indian wildlife is also considered as a significant step for promoting wildlife awareness among people. The Government of India has started several natural projects as well as programmes for conservation of Indian wildlife. Some of the prominent conservation projects started by the government are Project Tiger, Jungle Lodges and Nature Camps. These projects are helpful in preserving the natural heritage. At the same time, the conservation projects also encourage ecotourism.

– 6

It is believed that the endangered wild creatures are nature's gifts that help adorn the natural beauty with their distinctive ways of existence. Today, the increasing deforestation as well as negligence has posed a threat to the existence of Indian wildlife. Thus, the conservation projects of Indian have been carried out in order to preserve the rich natural heritage. Project Tiger is one of the most successful efforts of the government undertaken for protecting and preserving the Tiger population. Further, Kaziranga National Park in Assam is a leading example of the effort to save the rare Rhinoceros species; Periyar in Kerala is another effort for preserving the wild Elephants and Dachigam National Park is doing works for saving Hangul or Kashmiri Stag. Conservancy and conservation were terms first used to describe a set of forestry practices. Over time, and with the rarity of key game birds and animals, they acquired a wider meaning. Several 17

1. 2. 3.

(a)

1

2

(c)

2

3

(b) (d) 1, 2

1

3 3

21. With reference to the passage, why government of India has started various wildlife conservation projects all over the country?

(a) To preserve endangered species like Tiger and Rhinoceros. (b) To preserve India‟s rich heritage. (c) To provide more meaningful value to save nature and its species.

20. Which of the following on the basis of passage can be inferred as the sole objective of conservation of Indian wildlife?.

(d) All (a), (b) and (c).

1. It is eyed towards attracting more tourists. 21.

2. It‟s one of the aim was to protect enda ngered species from getting extinct. 3. It helps you and me to know more about wildlife conservation.

(a)


(a) 1 and 2 Only

(b) 1 and 3 Only

(c) 2 and 3 Only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3

(b) (c)

20.

(d) (a), (b)

18

(c)

22. Which of the following can act as one of the valid assumption before starting a wildlife conservation programme in India?

2. Project Tiger

1. Nature can be preserved by human efforts.

4. Birds and animals

2. Nature can be affected dangerously by humans.


3. Wildlife conservation programmes and tough forest rules will solve all the environmental problems in India.

(a) 2, 3 and 4 Only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 Only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 Only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 Only

3. Forest and National Park

23.


(a) 1 and 2 Only

(b) 2 and 3 Only

(c) 1 and 3 Only

(d) All 1, 2 and 3.

1. 2.

22.

3. 4.

1.

(a)

2, 3

4

(b)

1, 3

4

(c)

1, 2

3

(d)

1, 2

4

2. PASSAGE-7

While the idea of race mistakenly implies something fixed and biological, the concept of ethnicity is one that is purely social in meaning. Ethnicity refers to a type of social identity related to 'descent and cultural differences' which become effective or active in certain social contexts. It is a concept that is also closely related to those of nation and 'race', as all three refer to some idea of a class or category of people. Members of ethnic groups may see themselves as culturally distinct from other groups and are seen by them, in return, as different. Several characteristics may serve to distinguish ethnic groups, but the most usual are

3.

(a)

1

2

(b)

(c)

1

3

(d) 1, 2

2

3 3

23. As per passage, which of the following can come under the category of Natural Heritage in India?

1. Indian wildlife 19

language, history or ancestry (real or imagined), religion, and styles of dress or adornment. Ethnic differences are wholly learned, a point that seems self-evident until we remember how often some groups are regarded as 'born to rule' or 'naturally lazy', 'unintelligent', and so on. Indeed, when people use the term 'ethnicity', very often they do so (as with 'race') when referring to ascriptive characteristics such as skin colour, blood ties or place of birth. Yet there is nothing innate about ethnicity; it is a purely social phenomenon that is produced and reproduced over time. What marks out ethnic groups is often the use of 'exclusionary devices', such as the prohibiting of intermarriage, which serve to sharpen and maintain socially constructed boundaries. For many people, ethnicity is central to their individual and group identity, but for others it is irrelevant, and, for still others, ethnicity seems significant only during times of conflict or social unrest. Ethnicity can provide an important thread of continuity with the past and is often kept alive through the practices of cultural traditions. Every year, for instance, the excitement and virtuoso displays of carnival evoke the Caribbean on the streetsof Netting Hill in London and Chapeltown in Leeds, while thirdgeneration Americans of Irish descent may proudly identify themselves as Irish American despite having lived their entire lives in the United States. Although it is maintained within tradition, ethnicity is not static and unchanging. In the case of Irish Americans, it is possible to see how popular customs from Ireland have been maintained but transformed in the context of American society. The boisterous St Patrick's Day parades in many US cities are one example of how Irish heritage has been recast with a distinctly American flair. Similar examples can be found around the globe in cases where populations have mixed to produce ethnically diverse communities. 20


(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 3

(d) All 1, 2 and 3

24.

1.

2.

3.

(a)

1

(c)

3

2

(b)

2

(d) 1, 2

3 3

25. Generally, what is/are the assumptions about Ethnic differences and Ethnic groups among people?

1. People associate Ethnicity with certain kind of language and some special kind of appearance, cultural value etc.

24. In a very simplified manner, how can we differentiate between „Race‟ and „Ethnicity‟?

1. Race according to author, is a biological term whereas Ethnicity is a cultural term.

2. To signify „„Ethnicity‟‟ is a closed bracket condition is not correct. As its true meaning changes with the course of time.

2. Race is a historical connotation whereas Ethnicity generated due to cultural differences.


3. Author integrates the concept of Race and Ethnicity. Thus, differentiation may not be possible.

(a) Only 1

21

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3.

25.

1.

(a)

1

3

(b)

2

(c)

1

2

(d)

2

3

2. 27. What is the central idea of the passage, that the author wants to convey ?

(a) Ethnicity and Race are truly different entities and should not be overlapped. (a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

(b) Notions of Ethnicity built up in the society convey a contrast meaning to what it actually is.

2 1

2

(c) Society is still far away to learn the valuable inputs of Ethnicity.

26. Which of the following act as the „Exclusionary devices‟ mechanism of Ethnicity?

(d) Cultural identification and Ethnicity are Mutually exclusive.

1. Not allowing inter-mingling of people among different cultures.

27.

2. Compromising someone's individual identity over Ethnic identity.

(a)

3. Domination of only one culture in a country. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1 and 3

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 and 2

(d) Only 2 and 3

(b)

26.

(c)

1.

(d)

2. 22

PASSAGE – 8

– 8

The occurrence of recent incidents all over the world have disproved that nationalism is ending in the face of globalization and peoples‟ movements. The fact is that even now people have a strong feeling of nationalism and with this are connected the feelings of tradition, living together and common goals. Though the thoughtful people from the middle class are gradually getting isolated from the feeling of nationalism or at least are understood to be distancing themselves. The movements of labour class or the common people which had been intentionally established on the foundation of nationalism, are now leaning towards nationalism. And the beginning of this war has pushed everyone at all places into the trap of nationalism. This surprising emergence of nationalism, or the reason to look at it in a new form or to know its importance, has given rise to new issues, or has changed the shape of old issues. The old and deep rooted traditions cannot be easily removed or wiped out; in crucial times they rise up and overwhelm the minds of the people. Also, as we have seen often, it is deliberately attempted to incite people to work or to give sacrifices. To a great extent, the old customs have to be accepted and it is also essential to establish new thoughts and new customs. The ideal of nationalism is a profound and strong ideal and it is not correct to say that its time is over or it has lost its importance for the future; but other ideals such as the ideals of globalization and labour class, which are more stable on the foundation of the realities of the present day world, have arisen, and if we want to end the turmoil in the world and want to establish peace, then we will have to bring about harmonization in these diverse ideals, the attraction of nationalism that exists for the conscience of the person, will have to be given regard, even if it involves reducing its perimeter. 23

(b) Nationalism in this era is going to loose its value and would be replaced by other ideologies. (c) Nationalism makes people come together and to fight for the same reason. (d) The feeling of nationalism among the citizens cannot be totally diluted. 28. According to the author, which recent incident can disprove that nationalism is ending?

29.

(a) Increasing in terrorist activity all over the world.

(a)

(b) Increase in cultural exchange programme among students from different universities all over the world.

(b)

(c) Labour class demanding their rights.

(c)

(d) Citizens coming together to save their democratic and political rights.

(d)

28.

30. The author of the above passage is most likely to be a/an: (a)

(a) Nationalist

(b) Idealist

(c) Journalist

(d) Political scientist

(b) 30.

(c) (d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

PASSAGE – 9

How does telepathy operate? According to one theory that has been tentatively suggested to explain telepathy, our minds are separate and mutually insulated only at the conscious level, but at the deepest level of the unconscious we are constantly influencing one another and it is at this level that telepathy takes place. To quote

29. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about nationalism?

(a) Nationalism leads to the more strong foundation of culture and tradition.

24

a classic and some what dramatic example: a woman sitting by a lake sees the figure of a man run toward the lake and throw himself in. A few days later a man commits suicide by throwing himself into the same lake. Presumably, the explanation of the vision is that the man‟s thought while he was contemplating suicide had been telepathically projected onto the scene via the woman‟s mind. In many of the cases recorded, there is delayed action. The telepathically projected thought lingers in the recipient‟s unconscious mind until a suitable state of inattention to the outside world enables it to appear to the conscious mind in a dramatized form- for example, by a hallucinatory voice or vision- by means of the same mechanism that operates in dreams. If phantoms of the living can be created by previously experienced thoughts and emotions of the person whom they represent, the parallel possibility arises that phantoms of the dead are caused by thoughts and emotions that were experienced by the person represented when he or she was alive. In other words, perhaps ghosts may be “Psychic footprints”, a kind of mental „trace‟ left behind by the dead but not involving the presene or even the continued existence of those whom they represent.

– 9

31. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1. Telepathy is an empirical phenomenon. 2. Sometimes, there is a time lag between the telepathic projection and the thought becoming explicit to the receiver. Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 25

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Telepathic projection operates through the mechanism of Dreams.

31.

2. Some forms of telepathic projections become clear only when the mind stops focussing on the physical world.

1.


2.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

33.

(a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

2 1

2 1.

32. What is incorrect regarding the expression, “Ghosts may be psychic footprints”, in context of the passage?

2.

(a) Ghosts don‟t have a physical existence. (b) They are a case of „Telepathic Projection of the Past‟ onto the present. (c) Ghosts are nothing but memories. (d) All are correct. 32.

(a)

1

(b)

(c) 1

2

(d)

2 1

2

34. Choose the correct option according to the passage –

(a) If a person becomes unconscious, he can interact telepathically with another person. (a) (b) There is no life after death. (b) (c)

(c) In most of the cases of telepathic projection such thought appears to the conscious mind in a dramatized form.

(d)

(d) All are incorrect.

33. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

34.

26

(c) 1075

(a)

(d) 850

(

35-37):

(b) A, B, C, D

E

(c)

(d) Direction (Qs. 35-37): Answer these questions based on the figure which represents the flow of natural gas through pipelines across major cities A, B, C, D and E (in suitable units). Assume that supply equals demands.

35. B

(a) 400

(b) 450

(c) 350

(d) 500

36. 35. What is the number of units demanded in B?

(a) 400 (c) 350

E

A

80%

A

(b) 450

(a) 2400

(b) 4500

(c) 2500

(d)

(d) 500 37.

C

225

C

36. If the total demand in E is 80% of the demand in A, what is the demand in A?

(a) 2400

(b) 4500

(c) 2500

(d) None of these.

37. If the number of units demanded in C is 225, what is the value of supply at C?

(a) 875

(a) 875

(b) 1325

(c) 1075

(d) 850

38. If „A‟ means „multiplied by‟, „S‟ means „added to', „D‟ means „subtracted from‟ and „M‟ means „divided by‟, then:

(b) 1325

27

II. There was a worst flood situation ever experienced in the past in most parts of the country.

12 M 3 A 6 S 18 M 3 D 2 = ?

(a) 58

(b) 64

(c) 16

(d) 28

38.

„A‟

„

', „D‟ „

‟

„

‟, „S‟ ‟

41. I. Majority of the employees of the manufacturing company received a hefty bonus at the end of the last financial year.

„ „M‟

II. The manufacturing company has made considerable profit in the last financial year.

:

12 M 3 A 6 S 18 M 3 D 2 = ?

(a) 58

(b) 64

(c) 16

(d) 28

Directions

(Qs.

39 – 41):

( I

Below

in

– 4 1): 39 II

each

questi on, there given two statements I and I I . These statements may be either independent causes or m ay be eff ects of i ndependent causes or a common cause. On e of th ese statements may be the ef f ect of th e other statement. Read both the statements and choose the correct option.

(a) If statement-I is the cause and statement-II is its effect. (b) If statement-II is the cause and statement-I is its effect. (c) If both statements I & II are effects of independent causes.

(a)

I

II

(b)

II

I

(c)

I

II

(d)

I

II

39. I.

40 (d) If both statement I & II are effects of some common causes. 39. I. The bracking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a stiff climb on a hilly road.

II.

II. The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the remaining.

40. I.

40. I. There is an out break of several epidemics in the country.

28

10

II.

(a) Son

(b) Brother

(c) Nephew

(d) Brother-in-law

43. 41. I.

II.

42. Suppose a tree has 20 branches. Each branch has 5 sub-branches. Each sub-branch has 15 leaves. But in five sub-branches leaves were falling at the rate of 5 leaves for a subbranch. 10 sub-branches were cut off due to weather conditions. How many leaves were there in the tree right now?

(a) 1300

(b) 1325

(c) 1375

(d) 1350

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

44. A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the combination of:

(a) a cone and a cylinder. (b) frustum of a cone and a cylinder. (c) a hemisphere and a cylinder. (d) two cylinders.

42. 44.

(a) 10

(b) (c)

(a) 1300

(b) 1325

(c) 1375

(d) 1350

(d) 45. If the selling price of an article is doubled, then its loss percent is converted into equal profit percent. The loss percent on the article is:

43. Danish's sister is the wife of Rakesh. Rakesh is Suman's brother. Rakesh's father is Mahesh. Sanjana is Rakesh's grandmother. Rita is Sanjana's daughter-in-law. Ramesh is Suman's brother's son. How is Ramesh related to Danish?

29

46. A tank has a leak which would empty the completely filled tank in 8 hours. If the tank is full of water and a tap is opened which admits 0.1 litres of water per second in the tank, the leak takes 12 hours to empty the tank. How many litres of water does the tank hold?

(a) 7240

(b) 9210

(c) 7860

(d) 8640

O XO, OY

XOY

48. A cube has six sides each of a different colour. The red side is opposite black. The green side is between red and black. The blue side is adjacent to white and the brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down. The side opposite to brown is.

(a) 7240 (c) 7860

(a) red

(b) black

(c) white

(d) green

(b) 9210 (d) 8640 48.

47. In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle and XO is perpendicular to OY. If the area of the triangle XOY is 32, then the area of the circle is:

30

books in my bag. The maximum points that I can earn are:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c) 22

(d) 23

50.

10

49. Compare both the boxes below. Which number can replace the question mark (?) in the box shown below.

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 7

4, 3, 2

1

49.

(a) 20

(b) 21

(c) 22

(d) 23

(a) 5

(b) 4

51. The number of triangles formed by the 11 points, out of which 5 are collinear in a plane is:

(c) 6

(d) 7

(a) 165

(b) 150

(c) 155

(d) None of these.

50. My bag can carry not more than ten books. I must carry at least one book each of management, mathematics, physics and fiction. Also, for every management book, I must carry two or more fiction books, and for every mathematics, I must carry two or more physics book. I earn 4, 3, 2, and 1 point for each management, mathematics, physics and fiction books respectively, I carry in my bag. I want to maximize the points I can earn by carrying the most appropriate combination of

51.

31

(a) 165

(b) 150

(c) 155

(d)

(b) Only II follows

Directions (Qs. 52 – 54): A statement and two actions are given. Action is a step to be taken for improvement or follow up in regard to the problem mentioned in the statement. On the basis of information given in the statement and assuming that the statement is true, decide which of the given action logically follows:

(c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows

54. Statement: There is an alarming increase in the number of people suffering from malaria in many parts of the city. Course of action:

52. Statement: A huge truck overturned on the middle of the main road and blocked most part of the road, causing a huge traffic jam.

I. The municipal corporation has advised all the government hospitals to store adequate supply of malaria drugs.

Course of action:

II. The municipal corporation has urged people to use mosquito repellents and keep their premises clean.

I. The traffic department should immediately deploy its personnel to divert traffic through other roads. II. The traffic department should immediately send men and equipment to move the truck and clear the road.

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Both I and II follow (d) Neither I nor II follows

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows

(

(c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither I nor II follows

53. Statement: Some workers of the company making diamond jewellery were caught while there were leaving the premises as they were trying to smuggle small pieces of diamonds hidden in their purses. Course of action: I. The management of the company should immediately put on hold all activities in the premises till a full-proof security system is in place.

52.

II. The belongings of all the workers should thoroughly be searched before they leave the premises of the company.

(a) Only I follows 32

:

I.

II.

(a) (b)

I II

(c) (d)

I I

(a)

I

(b)

II

(c) I

II

(d)

I

II

55. A two member committee comprising of one male and one female member is to be constituted out of seven males and five females. Amongst the females, Mrs. X refuses to be a member of the committee in which Mr. Y is taken as member. In how many different ways can the committee be constituted?

II II

53.

(a) 32

(b) 35

(c) 34

(d) 28

55

I.

X Y

II.

(a)

I

(b)

II

(c)

I

(d)

I

54.

:

II II

(a) 32

(b) 35

(c) 34

(d) 28

56. A dice has three faces each with number „1‟, two faces each with number „2‟ and one face with number „3‟. If dice is rolled once, then what is the probability of 3 or 1?

:

I.

II.

33

56.

(a) 676

(b) 364

(c) 156

(d) 283

„1‟ „2‟

59. Find the missing number, if given terms are in arithmetic progression.

„3‟

57. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 20 times of their H.C.F. If one number is 250 and sum of their H.C.F. and L.C.M. is 1050, then find the second number.

(a) 150

(b) 225

(c) 325

(d) 200

(a) 28, 70

(b) 35, 77

(c) 26, 68

(d) 32, 56

59.

57.

(a) 28, 70

(b) 35, 77

(c) 26, 68

(d) 32, 56

60. The average of six consecutive even numbers is 27. What is the difference of product of second and fifth numbers with product of the first and fourth numbers?

(a) 150

(b) 225

(c) 325

(d) 200

58. What is the least number which when divided by 3, 4, 6, 9 and 12 leaves remainder 4 in each case, but when divided by 13 leaves no remainder?

(a) 676

(b) 364

(c) 156

(d) 283

58. 6, 9

(a) 104

(b) 112

(c) 108

(d) Cannot be determined.

60.

3, 4,

(a) 104

(b) 112

(c) 108

(d)

12 Directions (Qs. 61-64): Answer the questions based on the Pie Chart.

34

61.

61. Approximately how many degrees should there be in the angle of the sector for military expenditure?

(a) 312.4

(b) 341.4

(c) 241.4

(d) 212.4

62. What is the ratio of military expenditure to veterans expenditure approximately?

(a) 59:16

(b) 1:10

(c) 54:10

(d) None of these.

(b) Rs 12.9 cr.

(c) Rs 10.8 cr.

(d) Rs 11.12 cr.

(b) Rs 155 cr.

(c) Rs 140 cr.

(d) Rs 145 cr.

(

(c) 241.4

(d) 212.4

(a) 59:16

(b) 1:10

(c) 54:10

(d)

63.

64. If Rs 9 cr. were spent for other, what would have been the total expenditure for that year?

(a) Rs 150 cr.

(b) 341.4

62.

63. If India had a total expenditure of Rs 120 cr., approximately how many crore did it spend on interest on debt?

(a) Rs 8.10 cr.

(a) 312.4

(a) Rs 8.10

(b) Rs 12.9

(c) Rs 10.8

(d) Rs 11.12

64.

: -64)

Rs 120

Rs 9

(a) Rs 150

(b) Rs 155

(c) Rs 140

(d) Rs 145

: Read the following Directions (Qs. 65-67) in for mation car efu ll y and answer the questions given below.

35

(i) J, K, N, A and T are five members of a family.

(ii)

(ii) They have their birth dates from January to May, each member in one of these months.

(iii)

(iii) Each one likes one particular item, for his/her birthday out of Bengali Sweets, chocolates, Pastries, Ice Cream and Dry Fruits.

(iv)

(iv) The one who likes Pastries is born in the month which is exactly middle in the months given.

(v) A (vi) T

(v) A does not-like Ice-cream but brings Chocolates for J in February.

N

(vi) T who is fond of Bengali sweets is born in the next month, immediately after N.

(vii) N

(vii) N does not like Dry fruits or Ice Cream.

65. A

65. What is the choice of A?

(a) Pastries

(b) Dry fruits

(c) Bengali Sweets

(d) None of these

J

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

66. J 66. Which combination of month and item is true for J?

(a) March-Pastries

(a)

(b) February-Pastries

(c)

(c) February-Ice cream

(b) (d)

67. K

(d) None of these. 67. In which month was K born?

(a)

(b)

(a) January

(b) May

(c)

(d)

(c) January or May

(d) None of these.

(

(i) J, K, N, A

Di r ection s (Qs. 68 – 69): Each of the following

questions consists of four problem figures marked A, B, C and D and four answer figure marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select a figure from amongst answer figures. Which will

65-67) :

T 36

continue the series established by the four problem figures?

69.

:

68. Problem Figures:

70. A sequence of numbers begins 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 3 and then repeats this pattern of six numbers for ever. What is the sum of the 135th, 136th and 137th numbers in the sequence?

69. Problem Figures:

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

70.

1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 3 6

135 (

136

137

– 6 9): 68 A, B, C

D (a), (b), (c)

(d)

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

Di r ection s (Qs 71 – 75): Refer to the foll owing data to answer the questi ons that f oll ows:

68.

The result of an exam is given below out of 1000 students who appeared.

:

(i) 658 failed in Physics. (ii) 166 failed in Physics and Chemistry. (iii) 372 failed in Chemistry, 434 failed in Physics and Maths. (iv) 590 failed in Maths, 126 failed in Maths and Chemistry. 37

Assume all students failed in at least one subject. 71. The number of students who failed in all the three subjects is:

(a) 178

(b) 73

(c) 106

(d) 126

71.

72. The number of students who failed in Maths but not in Chemistry is:

(a) 178

(b) 73

(a) 464

(b) 392

(c) 106

(d) 126

(c) 387

(d) 472 72.

73. The number of students who failed in Physics but not in Maths is:

(a) 318

(b) 224

(a) 464

(b) 392

(c) 378

(d) 232

(c) 387

(d) 472

(a) 318

(b) 224

(c) 378

(d) 232

74. The number of students who failed in Chemistry but not in Physics is:

(a) 318

(b) 198

(c) 213

(d) 206

73.

75. The number of students who failed in Physics or Maths but not in Chemistry is:

(a) 558

(b) 718

(c) 628

(d) 692

(

74.

– 7 5): 71

(a) 318

(b) 198

(c) 213

(d) 206

75.

(i) 658, (ii) 166, (iii) 372 (iv) 590

434 126 38

(a) 558

(b) 718

(c) 628

(d) 692

Directions for Q76-80: Given below are five Questions. Each Question describes a situation and is followed by four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose Only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.

company also as they want Dr. Rajendra to resign. Now, what should Dr. Rajendra do in this situation?

(a) He should resign with immediate effect as he was a responsible authority to take care of research and development in the company. (b) He should address the top authority of the company about the accident and suggest them that he is ready for any action.

Attempt all the 5 Questions. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these five items.

(c) He should carefully examine the root cause of the accident and should suggest the company board that these types of research will not be taken later on.

76. A leading newspaper carried out certain reports in which it reveals large scale corruption being going on at the road transport office. The state government based on newspaper reports, has asked the transport commissioner to take appropriate action in this situation. What should be the immediate course of action transport commissioner should follow?

(d) He should ask the company board for a fair enquiry before suspending the research. 78. You are working as an officer on special duty in Home Ministry. A severe cyclone has struck one of the coastal district of India and now you have been appointed as the chief coordinating officer to look after rescue operations. You are not at all aware about the local language and most of the local administration does not understand yours? How will you carry out the rescue operations in this situation?

(a) He should immediately order a preliminary enquiry into this matter. (b) He should create a task force to look into this matter. (c) He should seek more clarification from the newspaper editor before taking any further decision.

(a) You will request home ministry to appoint a personal assistant of yours who knows the local language very well.

(d) He should immediately suspend road transport officer and order him to submit his statement on this issue.

(b) Along with your rescue operations you will adopt the local language as well.

77. Dr. Rajendra is the head of the research and development division of a large chemical multinational company. An accident has just happened in the company‟s laboratory while experimenting about a new research. Few people have been critically injured in this accident. Huge loss has also been incurred upon company because of this accident. There are few resentment voice in the

(c) Before starting rescue operation you will select 2 or 3 persons from local administration who know both the local language and your language as well. (d) You will any how start rescue operations as knowing the local language is not very important at this stage.

39

(d) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

79. Mitesh is a senior manager in an information technology company. He is very jovial and can easily mingle with people but is often known to used offensive remarks involuntarily, and sometimes he treats official matter in a very casual manner. This matter is now in front of Mitesh‟s senior. Now, what should be the most important communication strategy should his senior adopt in this situation?

से

(a) He should inform Mitesh, what other people are thinking about him in the company. (b) He should inform Mitesh that though his personality is charming but he should be careful as sometimes people do not find his attitude in good taste. (c) He should advice Mitesh to change his attitude or he has to face some dire consequences.

76.

(d) He should reprimand him immediately as being offensive to someone is unacceptable. 80. Ratan is a supervisor in the production company. He often shares his day to day work with one of his colleague cum friend on e-mail. One fine day he was showing his displeasure with the company's policy but accidently instead of sending that mail to his colleague, he sent it to the director of the company. What should Ratan do in this situation?

(a)

(b)

(a) He should apologize to the director and should tell him that the mail was not meant for him.

(c)

(b) He should apologize to the director that the mail was not meant for him but he should stand by his grievance. (d)

(c) He should wait till any reply or action is taken by the director.

40

(a) 77.

(b)

(c)

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) (a) 78.

(b)

(c)

41

(d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) (a), (b)

(c)

42


43

Barti Delhi Cet 2017 Sample Paper Gs and Csat (1)

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