Bank soal ukp dpkp plus jawab

TEST – ITEM BANK FOR DECK OFFICER AND ENGINEER OFFICER AT OPERATIONAL LEVEL

DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF SEA TRANSPORTATION MINISTRY OF TRANSPORTATION Jl. Medan Merdeka Timur No. 5 Jakarta Phone : 021-3845808 Fax : 021-3456945Email : [email protected] Website : dpkp-kemenhub.org

CONTENTS Acknowledgement................................................................................................. Foreword ............................................................................................................... Preface .................................................................................................................. Contents ................................................................................................................

i ii iii iv

I. PRELIMINARY (PART I) ...................................................................................... A. Background ................................................................................................ B. Basic ........................................................................................................... C. Objective.................................................................................................... D. Scope .........................................................................................................

1 1 2 3 4

II. DECK OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART II) ......................................................... 1. Plan and conduct a passage and determine position ............................... 2. Maintain a safe navigational watch .......................................................... 3. Use of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation ......................... 4. Use of ECDIS to maintain the safety of navigation ................................... 5. Respond to emergencies............................................................................ 6. Respond to a distress signal at sea............................................................ 7. IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and Use the IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and use English in written and oral form ............................................................................................. 8. Transmit and receive information by visual signaling............................... 9. Manoeuvre the ship ................................................................................... 10. Monitor the loading, stowage, securing, care during the voyage and the unloading ..................................................................................... 11. Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks ............................................................................ 12. Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements..................... 13. Maintain seaworthiness of the ship .......................................................... 14. Prevent, control and fight fires on board .................................................. 15. Operate life-saving appliances .................................................................. 16. Apply medical first aid on board ship ........................................................ 17. Monitor compliance with legislative requirements ................................... 18. Application of leadership and teamworking skills ..................................... 19. Contribute to the safety of personnel and ship .........................................

1 1 163 247 351 358 407

iv

438 465 486 522 543 563 638 662 683 704 725 754 762

III. ENGINEER OFFICERS COMPETENCE (PART III) ................................................ 1. Maintain a safe engineering watch .......................................................... 2. Use English in written and oral form ........................................................ 3. Use internal communication systems........................................................ 4. Operate main and auxiliary machinery and associated control systems ...................................................................................................... 5. Operate fuel, lubrication, ballast and other pumping systems and associated control systems ........................................................................ 6. Operate electrical, electronic and control systems ................................... 7. Maintenance and repair of electrical and electronic equipment .............. 8. Appropriate use of hand tools, machine tools and measuring instruments for fabrication and repair on board ...................................... 9. Maintenance and repair of shipboard machinery and equipment ........... 10. Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements..................... 11. Maintain seaworthiness of the ship ........................................................ 12. Monitor compliance with legislative requirements ................................... 13. Application of leadership and teamworking skills.....................................

782 782 855 899

IV. End Chapter ..............................................................................................

1614

v

901 1115 1206 1334 1377 1452 1506 1556 1582 1609

PRELIMINARY

A. Background Since the establishment of the International Maritime Organization (IMO), Human Resource become the most important development of the world shipping industry that have a considerable influence to improve the quality of education and training for seafarers through the provision of international and national requirements. It becomes a matter that can not be negotiable and should get special attention to exam the competence of seafarers as an assessment of the learning process and is used as an accurate attestation of training participants competencies. Required the system and regulations that are sustainable. therefore, The Board of Examination and Assessment for Seafarers (DPKP) as a forum AD-hoc for independent responsible for organizing the exam expertise sefarers in a professional, relevant, valid, reliable, consistent and realistic to develop a system Competence-Base Assessment in facing the challenges of the future that aims to test the competence of seafarers as the evidence that the training participants can make and implement behavior and competencies STCW as Amended in that suit in the realm of domain taxonomy bloom namely Cognitive, Psychomotor and Affective where training participants with the level of the duties, responsibilities and authority to master; 1. What should the training participants know (knowledge) 2. What skills should the training participants can do (ability), and 3. How should the training participants have a taste or a change of attitude as a seafarers (skills). Proficiency exam seafarers is a exam to obtain a certificate of the seafarers for the examinees to write a comprehensive testing methods and practices. Appropriate regulation of the Director General of Sea Transportation No. HK.103 / 4/2 / DGLT2015 on Systems and Procedures Implementation Exam Skills for Seafarers (SISPRO) is as a reference guide in the implementation of assessment system seafarers for the acquisition of knowledge, abilities and skills of training participants.

Computer-Base Assessment (CBA) is a computer-based assessment to evaluate the level of comprehensive knowledge and understanding in form which complies with minimum standard column in STCW as amended. Hopefully, the result in the future it can be apply as on-line assessment expectedly directly be accessed objectively and the implementation can be more effective and efficient. As for problems that can be identified both in the learning process and the testing process competence the basis will be for how seafarers can be generated internationally and nationally so that in the future human resources of sea transportation become entrepreneurs in shipping industry and support the government's vision to make Indonesia as the world Maritime Axis in the face of globalization market.

B. Basic 1. International Maritime Organization Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW) in regulation I / 6 and Code STCW Section A-I /6; 2. Keputusan Presiden Nomor 60 Tahun 1986 tentang Pengesahan International Convention on Standard of Training Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers 1978 sebagaimana telah diubah dengan Amandemen yang terakhir; 3. Undang – Undang Nomor 17 Tahun 2008 tentang Pelayaran (Lembaran Negara tahun 2008 Nomor 64, Tambahan Lembaran Negara Nomor 4849); 4. Undang-undang Nomor 20 Tahun 2003 tentang Sistem Pendidikan Nasional; Evaluasi, Akreditasi dan Sertifikasi; 5. Peraturan Pemerintah Nomor 7 Tahun 2000 tentang Kepelautan; 6. PerMenHub No PM 70 Tahun 2013 tentang Diklat, Sertifikasi, & Dinas Jaga Pelaut; 7. Keputusan Bersama Menteri Perhubungan, Menteri Pendidikan Nasional dan Menteri Tenaga Kerja dan Transmigrasi Nomor KM.41 Tahun 2003, Nomor 5/U/KB/2003, Nomor KEP.208 A/MEN/2003 tentang Sistem Standar Mutu Kepelautan Indonesia; 8. Peraturan Direktur Jenderal Perhubungan Laut No. HK.103/4/2/DJPL-2015 tentang Sistem dan Prosedur Penyelenggaraan Ujian Keahlian Pelaut.

C. Objective Test – Item Bank for Deck Officer and Engineer Officer of Management Level, includes a collection of Test – Item Bank in accordance with specific minimum standard column ot the STCW as amended which can be developed as on-line or off-line assessment with system of computerized random to carry out a written test comprehensively to measure mastery level of learning outcomes for generating the execellent and professional seafarers.

D. Targets The targets are as follows : 1. To stimulate participants spirit of learning 2. To stimulate the instructor and assessors fairness 3. To collect 1000 Test – Item in multiple choice form as necessary

E. Scope 1. Deck Officer at Management Level : a) Plan a voyage and conduct navigation b) Determine position and the accuracy of resultant position fix by any means c) Determine and allow for compass errors d) Coordinate search and rescue operations e) Establish watchkeeping arrangements and procedures f) Maintain safe navigation through the use of information from navigation equipment and systems to assist command decision making

g) Maintain the safety of navigation through the use of ECDIS and associated navigation systems to assist command decision making

h) Forecast weather and oceanographic conditions i) Respond to navigational emergencies j) Manoeuvre and handle a ship in all conditions k) Operate remote controls of propulsion plant and engineering systems and services l) Assess reported defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks and take appropriate action

m) Carriage of dangerous goods

n) Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks o) Control trim, stability and stress p) Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and the protection of the marine environment

q) Maintain safety and security of the ship’s crew and passengers and the operational condition of lifesaving, firefighting and other safety systems

r) Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations s) Use of leadership and managerial t) Organize and manage the provision of medical care on board 2. Engineer Officer at Management Level : a) Manage the operation of propulsion plant b) Plan and schedule operations c) Operation, surveillance, performance assessment and maintaining safety of propulsion plant and auxiliary machinery

d) Manage fuel, lubrication and ballast operations e) Manage operation of electrical and electronic control equipment f)

Manage trouble-shooting, restoration of electrical and electronic control equipment to operating condition

g) Manage safe and effective maintenance and repair procedures h) Detect and identify the cause of machinery malfunctions and correct faults i)

Control trim, stability and stress

j)

Monitor and control compliance with legislative requirements and measures to ensure safety of life at sea, security and protection of the marine environment

k) Maintain safety and security of the vessel, crew and passengers and the operational condition of life-saving, fire-fighting and other safety systems

l)

Develop emergency and damage control plans and handle emergency situations

m) Use leadership and managerial skills

1. Plan and conduct a passage and determine Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan posisi

1.

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian

1

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

2

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

3

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

4

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

5

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

6

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

7

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

8

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time

9

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

10

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

11

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

12

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

13

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

14

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

15

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

16

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

17

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

18

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

19

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

20

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

21

100.

101.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

What charts are used for coasting, pilotage waters and plotting waypoints A. Routeing B. Small scale C. Large scale D. Instructional

102.

Ship's speed through water is measured in A. Knots B. none of the given options C. m/s D. km/hr

103.

How often is a chart catalogue published? A. Twice a year B. Monthly C. Annually D. Weekly

104.

How often are cumulative lists published ? A. Weekly B. Annually C. Monthly D. Twice a year

22

105.

How often are chart corrections published ? A. Meekly B. Monthly C. Yearly D. Annually

106.

How often are nautical almanacs published ? A. Weekly B. Twice in a year C. Annually D. Monthly

107.

Distance on a chart is measured using : A. Latitude scale B. none of the given options C. any uniform scale D. Longitude scale

108.

Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty charts ? A. Chart 5011 B. Chart catalogue C. notice to mariners D. Chart 5022

109.

How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ? A. as s-shaped lines B. as spiral lines C. as straight lines D. curved lines

23

110.

Vessel steaming 000(T) at 20 knots, if the wind is from the north at 10 kts What would the apparent wind to the observer from north be ? A. 2 knots B. 10 knots C. 20 knots D. 30 knots

111.

What region of the earth may not be shown by mercator projection ? A. polar B. subtropical C. eguitorial D. tropical

112.

How are charts corrected ? A. none of the given options B. local warnings & nay warnings received on telex C. from EGC messages D. notices to mariners

113.

Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents : A. guide to port entry B. notice to mariners C. admiralty D. sailing directions

24

114.

How are sailing directions corrected? A. EGC chart 5011 B. information supplied by owners C. regulation update D. From weekly additions subsequent to current annual summary of admiralty notice to mariners

115.

The deposition of material at the bottom or the course by water movement is called: A. dumping B. erosion C. accretion D. collecting

116.

What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called : A. aero-radio beacon B. aero-marine lights C. aero-beacon D. aero lights

117.

A ship resting on the bottom is said to be : A. aground B. afloat C. alongside D. touching the bottom

25

118.

The difference between mean tide level and high or low water is called : A. amplitude of tide B. none of the given options C. tide D. tidal range

119.

What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called? A. Scoriae B. Scour C. Scarp D. Sargasso

120.

Buoy marking the position where a sewer or other pipe discharges into the sea is called: A. Cone buoy B. Outfall buoy C. Spar buoy D. Can buoy

121.

A tidal stream which runs only in one of two directions, with a period of slack water in between is called: A. Flood tide B. All of these. C. Rectilinear stream D. Ebb tide

26

122.

The Buoy used in the main navigable channel usually in a river or running through into a harbour is called: A. starboard hand buoy B. Fairway buoy C. Port hand buoy D. Special mark

123.

Oscillations in the water level which occur in harbours, bays having periods of few minutes or more, the more spectacular ones being caused by abrupt changes in barometric pressure and wind is called: A. Scend B. Seismic sea waves C. Seiche D. Wave

124.

What is a route leading through off shore oil installations called? A. Ship canal B. Ship safety fairway C. Safety zone D. Fairway

125.

A channel dredged or cut dry land or through drying shoals or banks and used as a waterway A. river B. tributary C. channel D. canal

27

126.

The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called A. Open basin B. Offing C. Offshore D. Horizon

127.

What is a danger to navigation, the exact nature of which is not specified or has not been determined, called? A. Observation point B. Obstruction C. Wreck D. to go area

128.

A vessel anchored as a floating aid to navigation from which is exhibited a light which may have any of the characteristics of a lighthouse is called: A. Lighthouse B. Light float C. Lighter D. Light vessel

129.

What is a detached area of any material the depth over which constitutes a danger to surface navigation? A. Shore B. Seashore C. Shelf D. Shoal

28

130.

Where will you find the limits of sailing directions? A. Chart correction log B. Weekly notice to mariners C. Chart catalogue D. Guide to port entry

131.

What is a device fitted to a buoy or beacon used to increase the response of radar transmission called? A. Radar transponder B. Radio beacon C. Radiolarian D. Radar reflector

132.

The highest tidal level which can be predicted to occur under average meteorological conditions and under any combination of astronomical conditions is called: A. high water neaps B. lowest astronomical tide C. high water springs D. highest astronomical tide

133.

When due to some external influence, the bows of a ship unexpectedly deviates from her course, it is said that: A. The ship has taken a sheer B. The ship has deviated from her track C. The ship is carrying on her track D. The ship has taken a turn

29

134.

A loose term applied both to the rising tide and the incoming tidal stream is called: A. flood tide B. flood mark C. flow D. flow channel

135.

An arm of the sea at the mouth of a tidal river usually encumbered with shoals where the tidal effect is influenced by river current is called : A. estuary B. estuary port C. shallow patch D. lake

136.

The amount of drift of a vessel to leeward of the course steered due to the action of wind is called: A. Drift B. Lee tide C. Leeway D. Set

137.

A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling thousands of miles and building up to disastrous proportions on certain shelving beaches are called: A. elephants B. tidal wave C. Tsunamis D. Roaring forties

30

138.

What is the distributed water astern or the water through which the vessel has passed called? A. Both and C B. Wake C. Wash D. Neither nor

139.

The distance a sea wave has traveled to the observer from the locality of the wind that caused it or from the nearest weather shore is called : A. wave period B. Tidal range C. wave height D. Fetch

140.

What is a track shown on a chart, which all or certain vessels are recommended to follow? A. Proposed track B. Hazardous track C. None of the given options D. Recommended track

141.

The condition where the sea and swell approach the ship at right angles is called : A. Seas from any quarter B. Following seas C. Beam seas D. Read seas

31

142.

A signal, usually by radio, for the purpose of checking the errors of chronometers is called A. Radio signal B. Sound signal C. Time signal D. Light signal

143.

The wearing away of the coast by water action is called: A. accretion B. andfall C. deposition D. erosion

144.

AE Conduct Passage progressive wave of meteorological origin which, if its crest arrives at the time of high water, can cause exceptionally high tides is called: A. Storm B. Hurricane C. Storm surge D. Tidal wave

145.

An area wherein fishing craft congregate to fish is called: A. Fish weir B. Fitting out basin C. Fishing ground D. Fishing harbour

32

146.

An area of rocks or corals, detached or not, the depth over which constitutes a danger to surface navigation s called: A. Obstruction B. Reef C. Wreck D. All of these.

147.

A light showing at regular intervals a group of two or more flashes is called: A. occulting light B. group occulting light C. flashing light D. Troup flashing light

148.

A region of completely shallow water strewn with rocks, boulders, corals or obstruction making it unsuitable for anchoring is called: A. foul bottom B. fowl birth C. foul patch D. foul ground

149.

The period between high water and the succeeding low water is called: A. Tidal range B. height of tide C. Falling tide D. rising tide

150.

What is a group flashing light in which the flashes are combined in alternate groups of different numbers of flashes? A. Occulting B. Composite group flashing C. Composite group occurting D. group flashing

33

151.

What is the angular motion of the ship in the fore and aft direction called? A. Pitch B. Roll C. Racking D. Pounding

152.

A radio beacon which transmits two signals in such a way that they are of equal strength on only one bearing is called : A. non-directional radio beacon B. radio beacon C. directional radio beacon D. multi-directional radio beacon

153.

When is the river said to be “in spate”? A. When there is increased rate in current and fall in level in river due to heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters B. When there is reduced rate in current and rise in level in river due to heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters C. When there is increased rate in current and rise in level Cin a river due to heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters D. All of these.

154.

To proceed against the tide stream at such a speed that the vessel remains stationary over the ground is called: A. Heave to B. Stem the tide C. Broach to D. Ride to

34

155.

A passage between two sea areas is called A. Sound B. Runnel C. Channel D. Canal

156.

A Tide which has only one high water and one low water each day; that part of the tide which has one complete osculation in a day, is called : A. double tide B. tidal stream C. diurnal tide D. tidal range

157.

The sea in the vicinity of the coast is called : A. coastline B. coastal plain C. coast D. coastal waters

158.

An area where concrete blocks, hulks, disused car bodies are dumped to provide suitable conditions for Fish to breed in is called: A. Fish stake B. Fish farm C. Fish haven D. Fish pond

159.

What is the hollow between two waves called? A. Wavefront B. Trough C. Crest D. Wavelength

35

160.

Which of these is not an advantage of a mercator chart ? A. Distances are easily measured as scale of latitude= scale of distance B. Bearings and position lines can be easily transferred from one part of the chart to another as parallel of atitudes. C. Polar regions can be represented on a mercator chart D. Shapes of land masses are shown correctly in the immediate neighbourhood of any port.

161.

Where will you find the position for different ports in the world? A. Nautical almanac B. Chart catalogue C. Guide to port Entry D. Reeds distance table

162.

A buoy, the visible portion of which shows an approximately spherical shape is called : A. a spindle buoy B. All of these. C. a spherical buoy D. a spar buoy

163.

A fixed light varied at regular intervals by a group of two or more flashes of greater brilliance is called: A. fixed and group flashing light B. fixed and flashing light C. alternatively flashing light D. just flashing light

36

164.

Currents caused by pressure gradient in the water is called : A. ocean current B. equatorial current C. countercurrent D. gadiant current

165.

Detailed description or representation on a chart or map, of the natural or artificial features of a district is called: A. Botony B. topography C. Oceanography D. Zoology

166.

What is the minimum speed required to keep the vessel under control by means of the rudder called? A. Critical speed B. Speed of advance C. Steerage way D. Stern speed

167.

A radar transponder beacon which emits a characteristic signal when triggered by the emissions of ship's radar is called: A. Radio beacon B. Ramark C. Rayband D. Racon

37

168.

A shoal area in a river, or extending across a river where the depths are less than those upstream or downstream of it is called: A. Bank B. Reef C. Seashore D. Shallow

169.

On a gnomonic chart which of these can be done A. Bearing and position lines can be easily transferred B. Measurement of longitude & distance is easy. C. Thumb line courses appear as straight lines D. Great circle courses can be laid as straight lines

170.

A light showing over a very narrow sector forming a single leading light is called A. search light B. sector light C. directional light D. non-directional light

171.

On which of these areas would you consider that climatological routing to be satisfactory? A. Malacca straits B. North Atlantic C. Gulf of Oman D. Red sea

38

172.

On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how would the wind direction change in the advance of a warm front? A. remain steady B. slowly veer as it is approached C. suddenly year by 90deg D. slowly back as it is approached

173.

What word is used to indicate colour variations in the characteristics of a light? A. Alternating B. Flashing C. Occulting D. Sophase

174.

When correcting charts by applying a block correction, which of the following would be the correct procedure? A. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area of the chart & the block should be pasted B. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area of the chart pasted C. The block should be penciled around when in position and the edges of the block should be pasted before fixing D. The block should be penciled around when in position nd the block should be pasted before fixing

175.

When can a towed log measure speed? A. In all the other options B. When the speed is greater than 5 kts C. When the speed is between 1-5 kts D. When speed is greater than lid

39

176.

On predominant current charts, what is obtained by comparing the number of observations in the predominant sector against the total number of observations and expressed as a percentage? A. Constancy B. Clean resultant C. Occurrence D. Percentage frequency

177.

On a routenig chart, what pastel colour is used to indicate the summer zone? A. light blue B. light green C. light yellow D. light pink

178.

When two position lines are obtained at different times, the position of the ship may be found by transferring the first position line up t the time of taking the bearing of the second position line. What is this called A. three point bearing B. four point bearing C. horizontal sextant angles D. running fix

179.

In which if the following publications will you find general information on ice A. Nories tables B. Guide o port entry C. Mariner's handbook D. ALRS

40

180.

How will it be indicated that the course recorder paper is nearly finished? A. By an audible sound B. By a flashing light on the instrument C. By a colored stripe on the paper D. There is no such indication

181.

What is course allowing for leeway know as? A. leeway B. Ground track C. Set D. Water track

182.

What is the course recorder used for? A. To keep a record of all gyro courses steered during the voyage B. To record the courses of other ships in the vicinity during the voyage C. To find out the set and drift of a vessel D. To find out the course to steer to the next waypoint

183.

Satellite information charts providing information on cloud pattern and cloud thickness are called : A. Change of pressure charts B. Upper air charts C. Hindcast charts D. Elephanalysis charts

184.

The intersection of two or more position lines, which has been obtained at the same time which gives the position of the ship is called : A. Bearing B. Course lines C. Cocked hat D. Fix

41

185.

What is a chart, which is published for the first time called? A. Newly corrected chart B. Newly printed chart C. New edition D. New chart

186.

Which method is not used to obtain a position line : A. Taking a time signal B. An observation of a celestial body giving the position line. C. A transit bearing D. Visual bearing of a terrestrial object

187.

What is a wireless station which emits a beam of waves in one or several definite directions or sectors? A. Directional radio beacon B. Aero beacon C. Direction finder D. Non-directional radio beacon

188.

On a routeing chart what does the direction of the current (arrows) indicate? A. The direction in which the current is flowing B. None of the other options C. A direction perpendicular to the direction of current. D. The direction from where the current is coming

189.

In coastal navigation, What is the horizontal angle between two fixed objects on shore lying approximately at the same distance on either side of a danger to be cleared, outside of which it is considered safe for the ship A. Angle of repose B. Danger angle C. Complementary angle D. Horizontal parallax

42

190.

What is the vertical distance on a given day between the water surface at high and low water called? A. Height of tide B. Range of tides C. Highest astronomical tide D. Lowest astronomical tide.

191.

Ship's speed through water is measured in A. Knots B. none of the given options C. m/s D. km/hr

192.

Where can you find the symbols and abbreviations used on the Admiralty charts ? A. Chart 5011 B. Chart catalogue C. notice to mariners D. Chart 5022

193.

What is the east - west distance between two points called ? A. d’lat B. DMP C. Departure D. D'Iong

194.

How are courses and bearings represented on a mercator chart ? A. as s-shaped lines B. as spiral lines C. as straight lines D. curved lines

43

195.

Vessel steaming 000(T) at 20 knots, if the wind is from the north at 10 kts What would the apparent wind to the observer from north be ? A. 2 knots B. 10 knots C. 20 knots D. 30 knots

196.

What region of the earth may not be shown by mercator projection ? A. polar B. subtropical C. eguitorial D. tropical

197.

How are charts corrected ? A. none of the given options B. local warnings & nay warnings received on telex C. from EGC messages D. notices to mariners

198.

When crossing the 180th meridian on an easterly course: A. retard one day B. advance bytwo days C. do not advance or retard D. advance by one day

199.

Where will you get detailed information on ocean currents : A. guide to port entry B. notice to mariners C. admiralty D. sailing directions

44

200.

How are sailing directions corrected? A. EGC chart 5011 B. information supplied by owners C. regulation update D. From weekly additions subsequent to current annual summary of admiralty notice to mariners

201.

The deposition of material at the bottom or the course by water movement is called: A. dumping B. erosion C. accretion D. collecting

202.

What are lights exhibited as aids to navigation of aircraft called : A. aero-radio beacon B. aero-marine lights C. aero-beacon D. aero lights

203.

A ship resting on the bottom is said to be : A. aground B. afloat C. alongside D. touching the bottom

204.

The difference between mean tide level and high or low water is called : A. amplitude of tide B. none of the given options C. tide D. tidal range

45

205.

The sector/sectors in which a light is visible from seaward is called : A. ray B. loom C. arc of visibility D. brightness

206.

What is the tide of relatively small range occurring near the time of moons quarter known as? A. Astronomical tide B. Spring tide C. Low tide D. Neap tide

207.

A prolonged period during which the tide does HOT rise or fall noticeably is called? A. Stand of the tide B. Tidal effect C. Height of tide D. Tidal range

208.

What is an isolated or comparatively isolated elevation rising at least 1,000 m from the ocean floor and of limited extent across the summit called A. Sea knoll B. All of these. C. Seamount D. Seamark

46

209.

The angular distance on a meridian, measured north or south of the equator is called: A. D'Iong B. D'Iat C. Latitude D. Longitude

210.

What is the clearing of a channel by the action of water called? A. Scoriae B. Scour C. Scarp D. Sargasso

211.

Buoy marking the position where a sewer or other pipe discharges into the sea is called: A. Cone buoy B. Outfall buoy C. Spar buoy D. Can buoy

212.

Which instrument is used for signaling to another ship during the day and night (by light) A. Aldis lamp B. Torch C. Rasthead light D. Radar reflector

47

213.

A tidal stream which runs only in one of two directions, with a period of slack water in between is called: A. Flood tide B. All of these. C. Rectilinear stream D. Ebb tide

214.

The Buoy used in the main navigable channel usually in a river or running through into a harbour is called: A. starboard hand buoy B. Fairway buoy C. Port hand buoy D. Special mark

215.

Oscillations in the water level which occur in harbours, bays having periods of few minutes or more, the more spectacular ones being caused by abrupt changes in barometric pressure and wind is called: A. Scend B. Seismic sea waves C. Seiche D. Wave

216.

What is a route leading through off shore oil installations called? A. Ship canal B. Ship safety fairway C. Safety zone D. Fairway

48

217.

A channel dredged or cut dry land or through drying shoals or banks and used as a waterway A. river B. tributary C. channel D. canal

218.

The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called A. Open basin B. Offing C. Offshore D. Horizon

219.

Turbulences associated with the flow of strong tidal streams over abrupt changes in depth, or with the meeting of tidal streams flowing from different directions is called: A. Over tide B. Tide rips C. Tidal stream D. Tidal surge

220.

The level below which soundings are given on Admiralty charts and above which are given the drying heights of features which are periodically covered and uncovered by the tide is called : A. Chart datum B. LHWS C. MHWS D. MHHWS

49

221.

What are sediments deposited by water in a channel or harbour called? A. Slake B. Skerry C. Slick D. Silt

222.

What type of measurement is time? A. westward B. eastward C. southward D. northward

223.

A port for which tidal data is given in Admiralty tide tables but for which daily predictions are not given is called: A. A secondary port B. Tidal port C. A primary port D. Ion tidal port

224.

The part of the sea distant but visible from the shore or anchorage is called A. Open basin B. Offing C. Offshore D. Horizon

50

225.

Turbulences associated with the flow of strong tidal streams over abrupt changes in depth, or with the meeting of tidal streams flowing from different directions is called: A. Over tide B. Tide rips C. Tidal stream D. Tidal surge

226.

The level below which soundings are given on Admiralty charts and above which are given the drying heights of features which are periodically covered and uncovered by the tide is called : A. Chart datum B. LHWS C. MHWS D. MHHWS

227.

What are sediments deposited by water in a channel or harbour called? A. Slake B. Skerry C. Slick D. Silt

228.

What type of measurement is time? A. westward B. eastward C. southward D. northward

51

229.

A port for which tidal data is given in Admiralty tide tables but for which daily predictions are not given is called: A. A secondary port B. Tidal port C. A primary port D. Ion tidal port

230.

The length of a meridian contained between the equator and that latitude on a mercator chart expressed in minutes of longitude scale is called: A. Difference bet 0 deg and that latitude B. Difference bet 0 deg and that longitude C. Meridional part for that latitude D. Meridional part for that longitude

231.

The open water outside the confines of a harbour is called: A. Sea reach B. Sea room C. Sea-way D. Seaboard

232.

What is a danger to navigation, the exact nature of which is not specified or has not been determined, called? A. Observation point B. Obstruction C. Wreck D. to go area

52

233.

What is a detached area of any material the depth over which constitutes a danger to surface navigation? A. Shore B. Seashore C. Shelf D. Shoal

234.

Where will you find the limits of sailing directions? A. Chart correction log B. Weekly notice to mariners C. Chart catalogue D. Guide to port entry

235.

What is a device fitted to a buoy or beacon used to increase the response of radar transmission called? A. Radar transponder B. Radio beacon C. Radiolarian D. Radar reflector

236.

The highest tidal level which can be predicted to occur under average meteorological conditions and under any combination of astronomical conditions is called: A. high water neaps B. lowest astronomical tide C. high water springs D. highest astronomical tide

53

237.

A line joining points of same height above, or depth below, the datum is called A. Co-range lines B. Contour line C. Iso -gonic lines D. co-tidal lines

238.

What is the official time kept by a country or area called? A. standard time B. Local mean time C. GMT D. local time

239.

A solid structure such as a wall to break the force of wanes protecting a harbour or anchorage is called: A. breakwater B. dam C. breaking sea D. breaker

240.

What is a comparatively narrow passage connecting two seas or two bodies of water called? A. Channel B. Strad C. Canal D. Sound

54

241.

A loose term applied both to the rising tide and the incoming tidal stream is called: A. flood tide B. flood mark C. flow D. flow channel

242.

An arm of the sea at the mouth of a tidal river usually encumbered with shoals where the tidal effect is influenced by river current is called : A. estuary B. estuary port C. shallow patch D. lake

243.

A prominent artificial feature on land such as a tower or church used as an aid to navigation is called: A. Landmark B. Landing stage C. Landlock D. Landslip

244.

The amount of drift of a vessel to leeward of the course steered due to the action of wind is called: A. Drift B. Lee tide C. Leeway D. Set

55

245.

A series of waves caused by a submarine earthquake, often traveling thousands of miles and building up to disastrous proportions on certain shelving beaches are called: A. elephants B. tidal wave C. Tsunamis D. Roaring forties

246.

The higher of two successive high waters where diurnal in equality is present, is called: A. high water change B. high water datum C. high water D. higher high water

247.

What is the distributed water astern or the water through which the vessel has passed called? A. Both and C B. Wake C. Wash D. leither nor

248.

The distance a sea wave has traveled to the observer from the locality of the wind that caused it or from the nearest weather shore is called : A. Wave period B. Tidal range C. Wave height D. Fetch

56

249.

What is a track shown on a chart, which all or certain vessels are recommended to follow? A. Proposed track B. Hazardous track C. None of the given options D. Recommended track

250.

What is the point of minimum tidal range in an amphidromic system called? A. Focal point B. Nodal point C. Point of intersection D. Point of convergence

251.

The height of tide halfway between high and low water is called: A. half tide basin B. mean tide level C. half tide rock D. tidal range

252.

A circular motion in water; horizontal movement in a different direction from that of a general direction of he tidal stream in the vicinity caused by obstructions, such as islands, rocks or by frictional effect of beach? A. local anomaly B. local current C. eddy D. tide rips

57

253.

A signal, usually by radio, for the purpose of checking the errors of chronometers is called A. Radio signal B. Sound signal C. Time signal D. Light signal

254.

The wearing away of the coast by water action is called: A. Accretion B. landfall C. deposition D. erosion

255.

What are identification shapes fitted on the top of beacons and buoys called? A. Marks B. Shapes C. Indicators D. Top marks

256.

An area of rocks or corals, detached or not, the depth over which constitutes a danger to surface navigation s called: A. Obstruction B. Reef C. Wreck D. All of these

58

257.

A light showing at regular intervals a group of two or more flashes is called: A. occulting light B. group occulting light C. flashing light D. Troup flashing light

258.

Heights above chart datum of features which are periodically covered and exposed by rise and fall of tides are called : A. drying soundings B. rise of tide C. drying heights D. tidal rise

259.

A current which does not extend more than 3 m below the surface is called A. Gradient current B. Ocean current C. Coastal current D. Surface curren

260.

A region of completely shallow water strewn with rocks, boulders, corals or obstruction making it unsuitable for anchoring is called: A. foul bottom B. fowl birth C. foul patch D. foul ground

59

261.

The period between high water and the succeeding low water is called: A. Tidal range B. height of tide C. Falling tide D. rising tide

262.

What is a group flashing light in which the flashes are combined in alternate groups of different numbers of flashes? A. Occulting B. Composite group flashing C. Composite group occurting D. group flashing

263.

What is the angular motion of the ship in the fore and aft direction called? A. Pitch B. Roll C. Racking D. Pounding

264.

The period of negligible horizontal water movement when a rectilinear tidal stream is changing direction is called? A. Tide rips B. High water C. Low water D. Slack water

60

234.

A radio beacon which transmits two signals in such a way that they are of equal strength on only one bearing is called : A. non-directional radio beacon B. radio beacon C. directional radio beacon D. multi-directional radio beacon

235.

Occasions when the level of the sea of the sea is lower than the predicted level, it is called: A. Surging tide B. Positive surges C. None of the given options D. Negative surges

236.

When is the river said to be “in spate”? A. When there is increased rate in current and fall in level in river due to heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters B. When there is reduced rate in current and rise in level in river due to heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters C. When there is increased rate in current and rise in level Cin a river due to heavy rain or melted snow in the headwaters D. All of these.

237.

To proceed against the tide stream at such a speed that the vessel remains stationary over the ground is called: A. Heave to B. Stem the tide C. Broach to D. Ride to

61

238.

A passage between two sea areas is called A. Sound B. Runnel C. Channel D. Canal

239.

A light with all durations of day and night equal is called: A. Group occulting B. Flashing light C. Isophase light D. Occulting light

240.

The situation whereby a vessel is carried inadvertently broad side on to the sea when running before it is called: A. pooping B. dragging C. broaching D. drifting

241.

A Tide which has only one high water and one low water each day; that part of the tide which has one complete osculation in a day, is called : A. double tide B. tidal stream C. diurnal tide D. tidal range

62

242.

A local effect, constant in magnitude, superimposed on the earths normal magnetic field is called : A. Magnetic variation B. Earths field C. Abnormal magnetic variation D. Local magnetic anomaly

243.

The sea in the vicinity of the coast is called : A. coastline B. coastal plain C. coast D. coastal waters

244.

Which of these is not an advantage of a mercator chart ? A. Distances are easily measured as scale of latitude= scale of distance B. Bearings and position lines can be easily transferred from one part of the chart to another as parallel of altitudes. C. Polar regions can be represented on a mercator chart D. Shapes of land masses are shown correctly in the immediate neighbourhood of any port.

245.

Where will you find the position for different ports in the world? A. Nautical almanac B. Chart catalogue C. Guide to port Entry D. Reeds distance tables

63

246.

The triangle not uncommonly formed by the intersection of three lines of bearing on the chart are called : A. DR B. point of intersection C. diamond D. cocked hat

247.

A buoy, the visible portion of which shows an approximately spherical shape is called : A. a spindle buoy B. All of these. C. a spherical buoy D. a spar buoy

248.

A fixed light varied at regular intervals by a group of two or more flashes of greater brilliance is called: A. fixed and group flashing light B. fixed and flashing light C. alternatively flashing light D. just flashing light

249.

Currents caused by pressure gradient in the water is called : A. ocean current B. equatorial current C. countercurrent D. gradient current

64

250.

Detailed description or representation on a chart or map, of the natural or artificial features of a district is called: A. Botony B. topography C. Oceanography D. Zoology

251.

What is the minimum speed required to keep the vessel under control by means of the rudder called? A. Critical speed B. Speed of advance C. Steerage way D. Stern speed

252.

A radar transponder beacon which emits a characteristic signal when triggered by the emissions of ship's radar is called: A. Radio beacon B. Ramark C. Rayband D. Racon

253.

A shoal area in a river, or extending across a river where the depths are less than those upstream or downstream of it is called: A. Bank B. Reef C. Seashore D. Shallow

65

254.

On a gnomonic chart which of these can be done A. Bearing and position lines can be easily transferred B. Measurement of longitude & distance is easy. C. Thumb line courses appear as straight lines D. Great circle courses can be laid as straight lines

255.

A light showing over a very narrow sector forming a single leading light is called A. search light B. sector light C. directional light D. non-directional light

256.

The average time interval between moon's transit and the following high water is called: A. Mean sea level B. Mean high water neaps C. Mean high waterlevel D. Mean high water springs

257.

What word is used to indicate colour variations in the characteristics of a light? A. Alternating B. Flashing C. Occulting D. Sophase

66

258.

When correcting charts by applying a block correction, which of the following would be the correct procedure? A. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area of the chart & the block should be pasted B. The block should be penciled around when in position and the pencil area of the chart pasted C. The block should be penciled around when in position and the edges of the block should be pasted before fixing D. The block should be penciled around when in position and the block should be pasted before fixing

259.

When can a towed log measure speed? A. In all the other options B. When the speed is greater than 5 kts C. When the speed is between 1-5 kts D. When speed is greater than lid

260.

On predominant current charts, what is obtained by comparing the number of observations in the predominant sector against the total number of observations and expressed as a percentage? A. Constancy B. Clean resultant C. Occurrence D. Percentage frequency

261.

On a routeing chart, what pastel colour is used to indicate the summer zone? A. light blue B. light green C. light yellow D. light pink

67

262.

When two position lines are obtained at different times, the position of the ship may be found by transferring the first position line up t the time of taking the bearing of the second position line. What is this called A. three point bearing B. four point bearing C. horizontal sextant angles D. running fix

263.

Which book is usually kept by a junior officer, in which are entered speeds, directions and times of engine movements as they are relayed to the engine room while the ship is manouvering? A. Bell book B. None of the other options C. Bridge note book D. Mates log book

264.

In which if the following publications will you find general information on ice A. Nories tables B. Guide o port entry C. Mariner's handbook D. ALRS

265.

How will it be indicated that the course recorder paper is nearly finished? A. By an audible sound B. By a flashing light on the instrument C. By a colored stripe on the paper D. There is no such indication

68

266.

Which of these is used to find the times and heights of high water in offshore areas and at places which lie between secondary ports? A. co-tidal/co-range charts B. routeing charts C. Diamonds marked on the chart D. tidal stream atlas

267.

What is course allowing for leeway know as? A. leeway B. Ground track C. Set D. Water track

268.

For which of these aspects would a navigational chart not be used? A. Laying of bearings B. Great circle sailing C. Large scale plans of harbour approaches D. Polar navigation in higher latitudes

269.

The intersection of two or more position lines, which has been obtained at the same time which gives the position of the ship is called : A. Bearing B. Course lines C. Cocked hat D. Fix

69

270.

What are vector current charts used for? A. To calculate the drift of objects over a long period of time. B. All of these. C. To ascertain the most likely current to be experienced in the area of consideration D. To find out the variability of the ocean current in the region it covers.

271.

A line drawn on a chart on which the ship is known to be is called : A. Clearing line B. Position line C. Course line D. Clearing bearing

272.

What type of routeing would container ships normally opt for? A. All weather route B. Ice free route C. Deep water route D. Climatic route

273.

What is the portion of a circle, defined by limiting bearings if necessary, throughout which a light is visible from seaward known as ? A. Limiting circle B. Arc of visibility C. Range of light D. Arc of the horizon

70

274.

The distance called a vessel continues to travel on a course before responding to a change of helm? A. Tactical diameter B. Transfer C. Drift angle D. Advance

275.

What is a chart, which is published for the first time called? A. Newly corrected chart B. Newly printed chart C. New edition D. New chart

276.

What is the work of computation required in navigating a ship for 24 hrs called? A. Day mark B. flays run C. Days work D. Jays of grace

277.

If you wish to report a depth which is different from the chartered depth, how will you do so? A. Inform the nearest coast guard B. Inform any meteorological office C. Use hydrographic note to inform the hydrographic office D. Inform IMO

71

278.

What term is used to describe newly discovered hazards which have not yet been indicated in the nautical publications ? A. Isolated danger B. Dangerous mark C. New danger D. Danger zone

279.

Which method is not used to obtain a position line : A. Taking a time signal B. An observation of a celestial body giving the position line. C. A transit bearing D. Visual bearing of a terrestrial object

280.

The accuracy of a running fix depends on : A. Speed at which the observation is taken B. time of the day C. accuracy of the estimated run over the ground D. Instruments used in plotting

281.

If a ship is steaming at an engine speed of 12kts in a 3kts current which is setting in the opposite direction then what will the log speed show?^ A. 3 kts B. 9 kts C. 12 kts D. 15 kts

72

282.

What is the difference between the speed of the stream projected by the propeller and the speed of the ship, in relation to a fixed point in the water, clear of the wake called? A. Speed through the water B. Apparent Slip C. Speed over ground D. Engine speed

283.

On a routeing chart what does the direction of the current (arrows) indicate? A. The direction in which the current is flowing B. None of the other options C. A direction perpendicular to the direction of current. D. The direction from where the current is coming

284.

Who issues and publishes the weekly notice to mariners? A. The hydrographic department of the navy B. IMO C. The meterological department D. The World health organization

285.

What information can be obtained from the source data block on the chart? A. Special reference to tidal levels and chartered data B. Special navigational notes on land and sea areas C. Date of publication of the chart D. Dates of survey

286.

Where are you likely to experience the “Trades” A. Atlantic ,pacific and Indian oceans B. Mediterranean C. Straits of Magellan D. Aegean sea

73

287.

The international nautical mile is : A. 1,852 meters B. 1852 meters C. 1,853 meters D. 185 meters

288.

In coastal navigation, What is the horizontal angle between two fixed objects on shore lying approximately at the same distance on either side of a danger to be cleared, outside of which it is considered safe for the ship A. Angle of repose B. Danger angle C. Complementary angle D. Horizontal parallax

289.

What is the course known as after taking into account current and leeway? A. Course to steer to counteract current B. Course to steer to counteract leeway C. Course to steer D. Course made good

265.

What would be considered a good practice when transferring positions from one chart to another? A. Use bearings in distance of a readily unidentifiable object B.Transfer the approximate position C. None of the other options D. By using a tracing sheet

74

266.

The best fix is obtained when the bearing between two objects are: A. 45 degrees apart B. 90 degrees apart C. 180 degrees apart D. 135 degrees apart

267.

Where is the title of the chart printed: TO IPD In some convenient, conspicuous place, where it does not hinder navigation or the use of it A. Where the sea areas are located B. Always at the center of the chart C. Always at the bottom left hand margin D. Always at the bottom left hand margin

268.

The relationship between the actual length of something on the earth and the length by which that thing is shown on the chart is called : A. Calculated scale B. Natural scale C. Variable scale D. Actual scale

269.

Where is the natural scale of the chart is shown? A. Below the title B. At the back of the chart C. Bottom left hand margin D. Top right hand margin

75

270.

What does natural scale of 1/12,500 mean : A. a feature of 1cm length on the earth would be represented by a length of 0.00008 cm. on the chart. B. a feature of 12,500 cms length on the earth would be represented by a length of one cm. on the chart. C. a feature of 1 cm length on the earth would be represented by a length of 12,500cms on the chart D. a feature of 12,500 cms length on the earth would be represented by a length of 12,500cms. on the chart.

271.

How do direction lines appear on a mercator projection? A. As straight lines B. Parabolic C. As curved lines D. Elliptical

272.

How are angles represented on a mercator chart? A. True and equal to the corresponding angles on the earth's surface B. Relative and equal to the corresponding angles on the earth's surface C. True but different from the corresponding angles on the earth's surface D. Relative but different from the corresponding angles on earth's surface

273.

How are the meridians shown on a mercator chart? A. As equidistant parallel lines parallel to the equator B. Not equidistant but perpendicular to the equator C. As equidistant parallel lines perpendicular to the equator D. As equidistant parallel lines but inclined with the equator

76

274.

D'lat = A. d’lat x sec long B. length of d'Iong x sec lat C. length of d'Iat x sec long D. long x sec lat

275.

Where will you find the number of the chart? A. Always outside the left hand margin B. Always outside the right hand margin. C. Below the chart title D. At the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner outside the margin.

276.

Where will you find the list of charts with the title and number for various parts of the world ? A. Chart folio B. Chart catalogue C. Sailing directions D. Chart 5011

277.

Where will you find the date of publication of a chart ? A. At the top, in the middle just outside the margin. B. At the left, in the middle just outside the margin. C. At the right, in the middle just outside the margin. D. At the bottom, in the middle just outside the margin.

77

278.

Where will you find the date of printing? A. Left hand corner outside the margin B. Bottom right hand corner outside the margin. C. Right hand corner outside the margin D. Top right hand corner outside the margin.

279.

If the chart was printed on the the 335th day of 1975, how is this written? A. 3351975 B. 33575 C. 335.75 D. 335.1975

280.

Where are the numbers of small corrections entered ? A. Bottom left hand corner outside the margin B. Right left hand corner outside the margin C. Top left hand corner outside the margin D. Left hand corner outside the margin

281.

Where will you find large corrections and new edition dates? □□□□□□□□ A. These are shown at the bottom right hand corner and top left hand corner outside the margin. B. These are shown below the chart title. C. These are shown near the new edition dates, at the bottom , in the middle, outside the margin. D. These are shown Top right hand corner outside the margin.

78

282.

Sometimes a notice to mariner includes a reproduction of a small area of a chart in which the correction has been carried out. This is cut and pasted in the appropriate position on the chart as part of a small correction. A. Permanent correction B. Chart block C. Tracing D. T & P notice

283.

That does the figures in brackets shown outside the lower right hand border of the chart eg (425.0 x B60.0mm) indicate ? A. plate dimensions B. Latitude and longitude sale C. chart dimensions D. Scale of the chart

284.

List of lights gives A. luminous range of lights B. nominal range C. geographical range of lights D. hone of the other options

285.

Pick out the one which is not an advantage of a leading light? A. Helps in fixing the position of the ship in the channel B. It indicates the safe passage of the ship in a channel C. It helps the navigator in obtaining a homing signal D. It helps the navigator in finding the compass error

79

286.

If the true transit bearings of two leading lights is read off the chart and the compass bearing of the two , when in transit is taken, then the difference between the two bearings so obtained is the: A. variation B. compass error C. deviation D. magnetic bearing

287.

What is used on the chart for the laying off bearing and courses? A. Latitudes B. Compass rose C. Longitude scale D. Latitude scale

288.

The compass roses is printed as two concentric cards. The inner card is: A. on the true north B. compass north C. none of the other options D. on the magnetic meridian

289.

What are sailing directions also known as? A. Pilot books B. Passage planning charts C. Routeing charts D. Guide to port entry

80

290.

When a new supplement to the sailing direction, what is done with the old one? A. The supplement replaces the entire edition B. cancelled C. Used independently of the old one D. Used in conjunction with the old one

291.

TO IPD

If Var = 8W and Dev =411V, What is the compass error ? A. 4W B. 12W C. 4E D. 12E

292.

If var =6E; dev =3W, What is the compass error ? A. 9W B. 3E C. 3W D. 9E

293.

Var = 7W ;Dev = 12E ; What is the compass error ? A. 17E B. 17W C. 5W D. 5E

294.

To convert compass course to magnetic course, it is necessary to apply A. both and B. neither or C. variation D. deviation

81

295.

Compass course 035 ( C ), Deviation 6 E, What is the magnetic course ? A. 029 (M) B. 221 ( M) C. 041 ( M ) D. 209 ( M)

296.

Compass course 185 ( C ), Deviation = 3W, What is the magnetic course ? A. 188 ( M) B. 002 (M ) C. 182 ( M) D. 008 ( M)

297.

To convert magnetic course to true course, it is necessary to apply: A. Deviation B. Both and C. Variation D. Netiher<:Option 1> or

298.

Magnetic course = 050 (M ); Variation = 8E; What is the true course ? A. 042 ( T ) B. 058 ( T) C. 238 ( T ) D. 222 ( T)

299.

True course =310 ( T ), Variation 6 E, What is the magnetic course ? A. 124 (T ) B. 136 ( T) C. 304(T) D. 316 (T)

82

300.

Deviation varies as the : A. Geographical position B. Ship's speed C. Ship's head D. Weather conditions

301.

If ship's head by compass was 045 (C), What is the true course if the variation is 5W? Dev =9.5 W A. 054.5 (T) B. 059.5 (T) C. 030.5 (T) D. 050 (T)

302.

A position line is a part of a: A. Small circle B. All of these. C. Position circle D. Segment

303.

A position line is ........to the azimuth of the body. A. 90deg B. 45deg C. 180deg D. parallel

304.

What is obtained when the difference between the true and calculated ? A. Longitude B. Position line C. Intercept D. Latitude

83

305.

For how long should notice to mariners be retained on board ? A. discard as soon as corrections are completed. B. 5yrs C. 6months D. 2 yrs

306.

What does this figure indicate?

A. Anchor for deep draft B. Anchoring prohibited C. Anchor berth D. Quarantine anchorage

307.

What does this figure indicate?

A. Fish trap B. Shell fish bed C. Fish farm D. Fishing stake

308.

What is this?

A. Raymark B. Radio calling in point, way or reporting point showing direction of vessels movement C. Coast radio station providing range and beating fromstations on request D. Aeronautical radio beacon

84

309.

What does this figure indicate?

A. Pipeline B. Telegraph line C. Power transmission line D. Overhead transporter

310.

On routeing charts how are iceberg limits presented.

311.

A.

letter d

B.

letter c

C.

letter a

D.

letter b

What does this figure indicate?

A. Fish farm B. Fish trap C. Fishing prohibited D. Fish haven

312.

What does this figure indicate?

A. Group quick B. Single Occulting C. Composite group flashing D. Single flashing

85

313.

Give the meaning of.

314.

A.

Special mark

B.

Isolated danger

C.

Fairway buoy

D.

Safe water mark

What does this figure indicate?

A. Eddies B. Kelp C. Overfalls and tide-rips D. Breakers

315.

Give the meaning of.

A. Non directional radio beacon B. Rotating pattern radio beacon C. Coast radio station providing QTG Service D. Directional radio beacon

316.

Give the meaning of.

A.

North cardinal buoy

B.

South cardinal buoy

C.

East cardinal buoy

D.

West cardinal buoy

86

317.

What does this figure indicate?

A.

Rock awash at the level of chart

B.

Historic wreck

C.

Wreck of which the masts only

datum

are visible D. Rock which covers and uncovers

318.

What does this figure indicate?

A. Chimney B. Wind-motor C. Pillar D. Windmill

319.

What does the figure indicate?

A. Ice barrier B. Notice board C. Areas of mobile bottom D. Fresh water spring in sea bed

87

320.

What does the upper figure indicate?

A. Percentage frequency B. Mean resultant C. Strength D. No. of observations

321.

If insufficient observations are made, how is the probable direction of the predominant direction of sea surface current indicated?

A. letter d B. letter c C. letter a D. letter b

322.

Vector current charts. Where is the mean position of observation

A.

At the start of the arrow

B.

¼ the distance from the

start of the arrow C.

At the center of the arrow

D. At the arrow head 323.

Give the meaning of.

A.

None of the given options

B.

Range lights

C.

Lighthouse

D.

Light vessel

88

324.

325.

What does the figure indicate?

A.

Mosque

B.

Spire

C.

Minaret

D.

Pagoda

What does this figure indicate?

326.

A.

Shinto shrine

B.

Minaret

C.

Cathedral

D.

Chapel

What does the figure indicate?

A. None of the other options B. Bottom found at less than 110 fathoms C. No bottom found at 110 fathoms D. Bottom found at 110 fathoms

327.

328.

What is this? A.

Nipa palm

B.

Conifer

C.

Filao

D.

Palm

What does the figure indicate?

A. None of the given options B. Disused submarine pipeline C. Submarine cable D. Submarine pipeline 89

329.

330.

What does this figure indicate?

A.

Signal station

B.

Pilot office

C.

Pilot boarding place

D.

Pilot lookout station

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.2

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 3 - 3.9 mile

miles

331.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 mile

D.

Between 3 - 3.9

miles

90

332.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.Between 46 - 60 minutes B. Between 21 - 30 minutes C. Now or passed D. Between 11 - 20 minutes

333.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.Between 3 - 3.9 miles B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles C. Less than 0.9 miles D. Between 1 - 2 miles

334.

335.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 4 miles

B.

Less than 0.9 miles

C.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

91

336.

337.

338.

339.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Less than 0.9 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 – 3.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

D.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

A.

Starboard bow (Green 15-

B.

End on or nearly end on

C.

Port beam (Red 75-105)

D.

Port quarter (Red 105-

What is the aspect of the target A ?

75)

160)

92

340.

341.

342.

343.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 3 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

D.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

A.

Starboard quarter (Green

B.

Port bow (Red 15-75)

C.

Starboard bow (Green 15-

What is the aspect of the target A ?

105-160)

75) D. Port quarter (Red 105-160)

93

344.

345.

346.

347.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 mile

D.

Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mites

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Less than 0.9 miles

94

348.

349.

350.

351.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

B.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 40 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Between 2 - 4 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Less than 1 mile

C.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

D.

Between 3 - 4 miles

95

352.

353.

354.

355.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Less than 1 mile

C.

Between 2 - 4 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 3 - 4 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 2 - 4 miles

B.

Less than 0.9 miles

C.

More than 4 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

2What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Less than 0.9 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

96

356.

357.

358.

359.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

More than 4 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Between 3 - 4 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target C ? A.

More than 5 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 4 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

B.

Now or Passed

C.

Between 20 - 30 minutes

D.

Between 5 - 15 minutes

30. Which target will have the closest point of approach? A.

Target A

B.

All Equal

C.

Target B

D.

Target C

97

360.

361.

362.

363.

What is the closest point of approach of target C ? A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

More than 3 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 mile

D.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 2 - 4 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target B

B.

Target C

C.

All equal

D.

Target A

What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

B.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Less than 1 mile

98

364.

365.

366.

367.

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target A

B.

All equal

C.

Target B

D.

Target C

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

More than 5 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

More than 5 miles

B.

Between 2 - 4 miles

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Less than 1 mile

What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ? A.Between 11 - 20 minutes B. Between 21 - 30 minutes C. Between 31 - 45 minutes D. Between 0 - 10 minute

99

368.

369.

370.

371.

Which target will have the closest point of approach? A.

Target A

B.

Target C

C.

All equal

D.

Target B

What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 2 - 3 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target B

B.

Target C

C.

All equal

D.

Target A

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 1 - 1.9 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

100

372.

373.

374.

375.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

All equal

C.

Target A

D.

Target C

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Between 3 - 4 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Less than 0.9 mile

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target C

B.

Target B

C.

Target A

D.

All Equal

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

All equal

B.

Target C

C.

Target A

D.

Target B

101

376.

377.

378.

379.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target B

B.

Target A

C.

All Equal

D.

Target C

What is the closest point of approach of target C ? A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 3 - 4 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target C

B.

Target A

C.

Target B

D.

All equal

What is the time to closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

102

380.

What is the aspect of the target C ? A.

Starboard beam. (75-105)

B.

Starboard bow. (Green 15-

C.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

D.

Port beam. (Red 75-105)

75)

381.

If the visibility is 10 miles, what action should be taken ? A.

A broad alteration to port

B.

A substantial reduction of

C.

A

D.

Stand on

speed broad

alteration

to

starboard

382.

383.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target C

B.

Target B

C.

All the same

D.

Target A

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target B

B.

Target F

C.

All the same

D.

Target D

103

384.

385.

386.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target D

B.

Target B

C.

Target C

D.

Target A

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target F

B.

Target D

C.

Target B

D.

Target E

A.

End on or nearly end on

B.

Port beam. (Red 75-105)

C.

Starboard bow. (Green 15-

D.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

What is aspect of the target B ?

75)

387.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target B

B.

Target A

C.

Target F

D.

Target D

104

388.

389.

390.

391.

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

More than 5 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 15 - 30 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

D.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Targat D

B.

Target E

C.

Target C

D.

Target B

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 2 - 3 miles

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Between 1 - 1.9 miles

105

392.

393.

394.

395.

396.

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 2 - 3 miles

C.

Between 4-5 miles

D.

Between 1 -1.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

More than 4 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 3 - 4 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 mites

B.

Less than 1 mile

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Between 2 - 3 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

D.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target C

B.

Target B

C.

Target D

D.

Target A

106

397.

398.

399.

400.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

B.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

C.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

D.

Now or passed

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Between 2 - 3 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Now or passed

D.

Less than 0.9 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target B

B.

Target F

C.

Target C

D.

Target E

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Less than 0.9 mite

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

More than 5 miles

107

401.

402.

403.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

B.

Now or passed

C.

Between 10 - 20 minutes

D.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 3 - 4 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

What is the aspect of the target B ? A.

Port beam. (Red 75-

B.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

C.

Starboard beam (Green

105)

75-105) D. Starboard bow. (Green 15-75)

404.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

B.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

108

405.

406.

407.

408.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

Target E

C.

Target A

D.

Target C

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target C

B.

Target A

C.

Target B

D.

Target D

What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 0.5 - 1.5 miles

B.

More than 5 miles

C.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Now or passed

D.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

109

409.

What is the aspect of the target C ?

A.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

B.

Starboard bow. (Green 15-

C.

End on or nearly end on

D.

Stern or nearly astern

75)

410.

411.

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 - 4 miles

D.

Less than 1 mile

If the visibility is restricted, what action should be taken in this situation ?

A.

A substantial reduction of

B.

A broad alteration to port

C.

A

peed

broad

alteration

of

course to starboard D. Stand on with caution

412.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target A

B.

Target C

C.

Target B

D.

Target D

110

413.

414.

415.

416.

What is the aspect of the target B ?

A.

Starboard bow. (15 - 75)

B.

Port bow. (15 - 75)

C.

End on or nearly end on

D.

Stern or nearly astern

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target A

B.

Target C

C.

Target D

D.

Target B

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Now or passed

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

D.

Now or passed

111

417.

418.

419.

420.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

Target F

C.

Target E

D.

Target D

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Now or passed

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Less than 0.9 mile

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 31 - 46 minutes

B.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

C.

Now or passed

D.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

112

421.

422.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

Target C

C.

Target A

D.

Target D

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

More than 5 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

423.

Where does the auto pilot get its heading information from? A. By manual input B. radar C. G.P.S D. gyro compass

424.

Which of these is an error caused in the CPS system? A. Random errors B. Light effect C. User clock error D. Systematic error

425.

In which of these situations is the autopilot most successfully used? A. When the vessel is not in restricted waters and no manoeuvering is carried out B. When the vessel is in restricted waters and manoeuvering is to be carried out C. When large alterations of course are intended. D. When the speed is less than 5 kts

113

426.

In the G.P.S., Which of the following does the satellite message consist of? A. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, Time difference between signals,atmospheric propagation, almanacs B. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite clock bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs C. Course acquisition code, Phase difference of the signals, satellite clock bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs D. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite lock bias,the time at which a null occurred, almanacs

427.

Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external influence? A. Permanent helm B. Rudder C. Weather D. Counter rudder

428.

Which of these is an error caused in the GPS system? A. Random errors B. Light effect C. User clock error D. Systematic error

429.

In the G.P.S., Which of the following does the satellite message consist of? A. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, Time difference between signals,atmospheric propagation, almanacs B. Course

acquisition

code,

satellite

ephemeris,

satellite

clock

bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs C. Course acquisition code, Phase difference of the signals, satellite clock bias,atmospheric propagation, almanacs D. Course acquisition code, satellite ephemeris, satellite lock bias,the time at which a null occurred, almanacs

430.

What is the accuracy of G.P.S., for a PPS user? A. +/- 100 meters B. +/- 10,000 meters C. +/- 1000 meters D. +/- 5-10 meters

114

431.

What is the positional accuracy within DGPS coverage? A. 1000 metres B. 10,000 metres C. 100 meters D. 10 meters

432.

What is the accuracy of G.P.S., for a SPS user? A. +/- 100 meters B. +/- 5-10 meters C. +/- 10,000 meters D. +/- 1000 meters

433.

In the G.P.S. system, Which are the two services provided by the user segmeny? A. Precise position service & Standard positioning service B. Precise position service & Variable positioning service C. Position plotting service & Variable positioning service D. Precise position service & fixed positioning service

434.

What are radio waves which travel along the earths surface called? A. Sea waves B. Sky waves C. Air waves D. Ground waves

435.

When is the G.P.S. satellite unusable? A. When it's elevation is greater than 9.5 deg B. When its elevation is less than 9.5 deg C. When its elevation is less than 45 deg D. When its elevation is greater than 45 deg

115

436.

In the G.P.S. system, what is the range measured which includes the user clock offset? A. Observed range B. True range C. Calculated range D. Pseudo range

437.

What is the error in GPS is caused when the configuration of the available satellite is not suitable? A. Geometric dilution of precision B. User clock error C. Ionospheric and tropospheric delays of signals D. Satellite clock error

438.

Which are the three segments the GPS segment comprises of? A. Control , Ground and user segments B. Ground , space and user segments C. Control , space and ground segments D. Control , space and user segments

439.

What is a wireless station which emits a beam of waves in one or several definite directions or sectors? A. Directional radio beacon B. Aero beacon C. Direction finder D. Non-directional radio beacon

116

440.

Which are the two most important parameters on which the control segment of the G.P.S. depends on? A. Satellite positional information & Atmospheric propagation data B. Satellite rotational speed & Atmospheric propagation data C. Satellite clock error control & satellite positional information. D. Satellite rotational speed & satellite clock error control

441.

Which of these principles is used to obtain the position of the ship by G.P.S.? A. Ranging B. Difference in tone C. Time difference D. Phase difference

442.

How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?

A. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent fixed shore objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same objects on the chart B. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers C. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course steered. D. By taking the radar bearing of an object when the radar is on a compass stabilised mode and comparing it with the bearing on the chart of the same object

443.

Is the location of the Compass Binnacle critical? A. Yes, for the reasons stated in all of the suggested answers B. Yes, it should be on the fore and aft centreline of the ship C. Yes, it should be away from all electrical power cables D. Yes, it should be sited on a non-metallic base if possible.

117

444.

The compass binnacle on the ship has various specific functions, which of the following answers reflect its most important functions. A. All of the answers provided B. Houses the corrective magnets C. Houses the soft iron correctors D. Provides a non-magnetic housing for the compass

445.

The gyro compass can suffer from a compass error and may need to be allowed for, when steering a course in a dangerous navigational area. What is the probable cause of the error? A. An uncorrected course and speed error. B. Variation C. Compass Deviation D. Fluctuations in the electrical supply to the compass.

446.

What are the main components causing the magnetic compass to require a regular evaluation and compass correction? A. Permanent and induced magnetism in the ships structure B. The change in the position of the magnetic pole causing annual changes in the variation C. Deviation and Variation D. The continual changes of courses steered by the ship

447.

What are the required data inputs into most gyro compasses to reduce any possible compass error? A. Latitude and Speed B. Deviation and Variation C. Maximum helm angle and rolling period D. All of the data in the suggested answers

118

448.

What are the two parts of the magnetic compass error? A. Variation and Deviation B. Permanent and induced magnetism C. The latitude and longitude D. West and East errors

449.

What could be the reason for the magnetic compass to swing through large angles when the ship is rolling in a seaway? A. The heeling error magnets are upside down and/or not in the correct position. B. The error due to deviation is large for that ships heading C. The induced magnetism from the earth's magnetic field is very strong in that area D. The Coefficient B determined by the Compass Corrector at the last drydock was not correctly calculated.

450.

Where can the size of the Magnetic Compass Error be found? A. By taking a transit bearing of two fixed geographical positions and comparing it with the bearing of the same points on the chart B. On the chart in the centre of the compass rose or by reference to the Variation chart, taking into account the annual changes C. By reference to the last entry in the Compass Error Log Book D. By taking the error from the Deviation Table on the bridge

119

451.

Which part of the magnetic compass error changes with a change in the course steered?

A. Deviation B. Variation C. Induced magnetism D. All of the suggested answers

452.

453.

What is the meaning of “H.S. PUMPS” ?

A.

Hele-Shaw pumps

B.

Higgins-Simpson pumps

C.

Hydraulic solenoid pumps

D.

Hydrostatic solenoid pumps

What is the function of the values “PR” fitted between the two after and the two forward cylinders ? A. To act as automatic by-pass valves when the steering gear is stopped B. To be opened to allow emergency steering. C. To act as safety valves to absorb shock and avoid damage D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

454.

When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action ?

A.

As soon as the electric motor is

B.

As soon as point “Z” moves

C.

As soon as the telemotor pump is

started

started D. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge

120

455.

What is part No 3 ?

A. B. C. D.

456.

The rudder The poop The transom The stern

What is the shaft called to which the propeller is fastened ?

A. The main engine shaft B. The intermediate shaft C. The tail shaft D. The stern shaft 457.

How is the propeller fitted on the drive shaft, so as to avoid it from slipping ?

A. it is locked into slots on the drive shaft B. It is bolted on the flange of the drive shaft C. A key is fitted between propeller and drive shaft D. Wires are fitted through the securing holes of shaft and propeller 458.

What part is fitted under the propeller cone ? (Left triangular part of the propeller in the drawing)

A. The propeller nut B. The propeller seal C. The propeller locking bar D. The oil filling pipe 459.

Of what kind commonly named metal is the stern tube lining composed of ?

A. in B. Aluminium brass C. Lead D. White metal

121

460.

How is the stern tube bearing lubricated ?

A.

By the main stern supply

B. C. D.

it turns in an oil bath By grease By graphite

pump

461.

What is the shape of stern tube seals

(forward and aft) ?

A. They are square in form and diagonally cut B. They are round in form and in one piece (0-ring type) C. They are lip seals and in one piece D. They are flat gaskets between flanges

462.

Which are the stern tube bearing parts on this type of stern tube?

A. The cylindrical steel tube aft B. The forward and the aft bearing bushes (liners) C. The cylindrical steel tube with white metal lining and oil bath D. The forward and aft plummer blocks

122

463.

When a command is given to this steering gear, what happens ?

A. The spring "S" will be compressed or elongated B. The “HS” pumps will start pumping C. Point "X" will turn around point "Y", moving "Z" and the control rod D. The valves 'PR" will activate, building up hydraulic pressure

464.

What is the purpose of spring "S" fitted between point "Y" and the Trunion block of the steering gear ?

A. To avoid sudden movements and overload B. To elongate and compress and keep point "Y" in place C. To absorb the clearance of the Trunion with the rod "X-Y" D. Ensuring flexibility by absorbing vibrations and clearances

465.

What is to be checked during a drydocking period to ensure that any upward movement of the rudder will be contained and damage to the steering gear will be avoided ?

A. The pallister bearing clearance B. The upper and lower pintle jumping bar clearances C. The rudder plugs D. The rudder stock carrier bearing clearance

123

466.

Which action of the steering gear pumps is feasible ?

A. Pressure to cylinders A and D, return oil from B and C B. Pressure to cylinders A and B, return oil from C and D C. Pressure to cylinders A and C, return oil from B and D D. Pressure to cylinder A, return oil from D

467.

During normal operations, the command rod ''C" pushes point “Z” and the control rod off centre so that the "HS" pumps start pumping and the settering gear moves. When will it stop moving

A. When the command rod "C" stops moving B. When the command rod ''C" moves in opposite direction C. When the rudder angle indicator corresponds to the command D. When the trunion point "Y" pushes point “Z” back in the centre

468.

This electric circuit is part of the Steering Gear Control System, in which the output is either 1 or 0 as either solenoid 1or 2 is energized. It is an example of what kind of circuit ?

A. Two (2) double resistor circuits balanced by the solenoids B. Two (2) Potentiometers with amplifier relays C. A booster aggregate D. A Wheatstone Bridge

124

469.

The first potentiometer of this electric command system is located on the bridge. what mode of steering will it be given a command ?

By

A. By automatic steering via the gyro B. By hand steering C. By any of these steering methods D. By push button steering 470.

What will the output be to the solenoids of the steering gear depending potentiometers stands if : BRIDGE IIGHER THAN RUDDER = A stand, RUDDER HIGHER THAN BRIDGE = B stand, RUDDER EQUAL TO BRIDGE = O stand ?

A. O-stand = output 0, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1 B. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 1, B-stand = S2 is 1 C. O-stand = S1+S2, A stand = S1, B stand = S2 D. O-stand = output 1, A-stand =S1 is 0, B-stand = S2 is 0 471.

This steering gear telemotor system is drawn in the neutral position, rudder amidship. This means that ………….?

A. neither solenoid “S1" or "S2"is energised B. the double check valves are blocked C. the capacity control is at zero D. pump “P” is not pumping

125

472.

What is the purpose of the double check valves fitted in this telemotor system ?

A. To maintain the set pressure in the system B. To keep the rudder locked in the desired position C. To avoid pipe rupture due to sudden movements D. To avoid oil blockage and stickiness

473.

What is the purpose of the capacity control on the telemotor of a steering gear ?

A. To keep the oil delivery quantity to the telemotor ram constant B. To keep the electric capacity between parameters (absorption) C. To keep the outlet pressure and capacity to react constant D. To keep the oil delivery quantity of the pump constant

474.

Under what circumstances is this steering control system energised / operational?

A. By any of the above B. By hand steering C. By automatic gyro steering D. By push-button steering

126

475.

Mat is the purpose of the 3-way cock part No 7 in the stern tube oil circuit ?

A. To drain the oil from the stern tube and sample B. To remove air from the system C. To fill oil in the system D. To change over from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit

476.

Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level ?

A. To ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal B. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube C. To ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal D. To avoid oil being spilled overboard

477.

In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point? A. Compass NORTH B. Magnetic NORTH C. True east D. True North

478.

The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is A. Magnetic compass error B. Compass error C. Deviation D. Variation

127

479.

Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass error? A. All of these. B. By bearing of the sun C. By a distant object on land D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error

480.

What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the system and they cannot be corrected for by the user? A. Speed and latitude error B. Settling error C. Longitude error D. Ballastic error

481.

In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing? A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to the hull. B. After being at anchor for a long time C. After a long voyage D. After a long stay in port

482.

What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the officer with thevessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic compass? A. Course recorder B. Gyro repeater C. Auto pilot D. Gyro compass

483.

The combination of variation and deviation is known as: A. sextant error B. Gyro compass error C. Magnetic compass error D. position error

484.

In what direction does the axis of the gyro-compass wheel point? A. Compass NORTH B. Magnetic NORTH C. True east D. True North

485.

The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is A. Magnetic compass error B. Compass error C. Deviation D. Variation

128

486.

What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the system and they cannot be corrected for by the user? A. Speed and latitude error B. Settling error C. Longitude error D. Ballastic error

487.

In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing? A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to the hull. B. After being at anchor for a long time C. fter a long voyage D. After a long stay in port

488.

What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the officer with the vessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic compass? A. Course recorder B. Gyro repeater C. Auto pilot D. Gyro compass

489.

What is a hemispherical brass or copper receptacal covered by a glass plate in which the compass card is mounted? A. Compass cover B. Compass card C. Compass chamber D. Compass bowl

129

490.

Which two corrections are necessary for a gyro compass? A. Speed and latitude B. Speed and longitude C. Time and longitude D. Latitude and time

491.

Which are the two properties of a free gyroscope? A. Gyroscopic inertia and precession B. Inherent magnetism and precession C. Inherent magnetism and rigidity in space D. Gyroscopic inertia and inherent magnetism

492.

Quadrantal correctors are: A. fore and aft magnets B. soft iron spheres C. flinders bar D. Thwartship bar magnets

493.

Which are the three errors that are experienced in a gyro compass? A. Time, speed and latitude and longitude errors. B. settling, speed and latitude and longitude errors. C. longitude, speed and latitude and ballastic errors. D. settling, speed and latitude and ballastic errors.

494.

Which of these errors are not adjustable on board? A. error collimation B. side error C. index error D. optical error

130

495.

To name the 32 points of the compass in proper sequence from north through east, south and west back to north is called A. Box wrap B. Swinging the compass C. Box off D. Box the compass

496.

Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external influence? A. Permanent helm B. Rudder C. Weather D. Counter rudder

497.

Which are the two natural forces that a gyrosphere depends on? A. rotational & rotational B. magnetic & electrical C. gravitational & rotational D. magnetic & rotational

498.

When does the off course alarm sound? A. When the difference between the course setting and true course is more than the pre-set limit. B. When the difference between the course setting and gyro heading is equal to the pre-set limit. C. When the difference between the course setting and gyro heading is more than the pre-set limit. D. When the difference between the course setting and true course is equal to the pre-set limit.

499.

The course indicated by a magnetic compass, influencing both variation and deviation is called A. magnetic course B. magnetic course C. Compass course D. true course

131

500.

The combination of variation and deviation is known as: A. sextant error B. Gyro compass error C. Magnetic compass error D. position error

501.

If the var = 2E & dev = 1E, Compass error will be A. 3W B. 1E C. nil D. 3E

502.

The angle between the direction of the place or object and the magnetic meridian is called A. Compass bearing B. Magnetic bearing C. True bearing D. Bearing line

503.

In case of a steering failure which of these would be your first action? A. Stop engines B. Inform ER C. Change over to non-follow up system D. Change over to emergency steering

504.

Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass error? A. All of these. B. By bearing of the sun C. By a distant object on land D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error

132

505.

Where does the auto pilot get its heading information from? A. By manual input B. radar C. G.P.S D. gyro compass

506.

In which of these situations is the autopilot most successfully used? A. When the vessel is not in restricted waters and no manoeuvering is carried out B. When the vessel is in restricted waters and manoeuvering is to be carried out C. When large alterations of course are intended. D. When the speed is less than 5 kts

507.

If the wheel is put to stbd.10, the rudder will also be turned to stbd.10 as long as the wheel is kept on stbd. 10, then in which steering mode is the vessel in? A. Non follow up mode B. Auto C. Both and D. Follow up mode

508.

What input information is required in order to ensure the course recorder to function properly? A. Speed of he vessel and the correct time(clock) B. Input from gyro(repeater) and the correct time(clock) C. Speed of the vessel and Input from gyro(repeater) D. Input from gyro(repeater) and the position of the vessel

509.

What is the course recorder used for? A. To keep a record of all gyro courses steered during the voyage B. To record the courses of other ships in the vicinity during the voyage C. To find out the set and drift of a vessel D. To find out the course to steer to the next waypoint 133

510.

Which log works on the principle that if any conductor cuts through the magnetic field, a small EMF will be induced within itself which is proportional to the speed of movement of the conductor? A. Pressure tube or pitot type log B. Electromagnetic log C. Impeller log D. Doppler log

511.

Which are the three sections that the course recorder paper consist of : A. The time scale, course section and position section. B. The time scale, course section and zone section. C. The speed scale, course section and zone section. D. The time scale, course section and speed scale

512.

The angle between the magnetic north and the true north is A. Magnetic compass error B. Compass error C. Deviation D. Variation

513.

Which of the following methods can be used for determining the compass error? A. All of these. B. By bearing of the sun C. By a distant object on land D. By comparing with a gyro compass which has a known error

514.

What errors in the gyro- compass are caused due to torques within the system and they cannot be corrected for by the user? A. Speed and latitude error B. Settling error C. Longitude error D. Ballastic error

515.

In which of these circumstances would you carry out a compass swing? A. When large structural alterations have occurred to the superstructure or to the hull. B. After being at anchor for a long time C. After a long voyage D. After a long stay in port

134

516.

What is based on the principle of comparing the course to steer set by the officer with the vessels actual course as seen from the gyro or magnetic compass? A. Course recorder B. Gyro repeater C. Auto pilot D. Gyro compass

517.

Which control on the auto pilot is used if there is a constant external influence? A. Permanent helm B. Rudder C. Weather D. Counter rudder

518.

The time taken to put the rudder from 150 on one side to 150 on the other on a fully laden ship running ahead at half speed should be: A. Not more than 120sec B. Not more than 90sec C. Not more than 60sec D. Not more than 65sec

519.

The time required for the main steering gear to put the rudder from 350 on one side to 350 on the other on a fully laden ship, running ahead at maximum service speed under the same conditions is: A. 28 secs B. 45sec C. 60sec D. 30sec

520.

If ship's head by compass was 045 (C), What is the true course if the variation is 5W? Dev =9.5 W A. 054.5 (T) B. 059.5 (T) C. 030.5 (T) D. 050 (T)

135

521.

80. What is a standard compass ? A. A compass that automatically steers the ship. B. A magnetic compass in a binnacle. C. A gyro compass powered by electricity. D. A compass for indicating wind direction found on the mast.

522.

The cause for ice accumulation on the ship is due to freezing of sea spray at the temperature below ………… A. + 2 degree C. B. 0 degree C C. 5 degree C D. 2 degree C

523.

An occluded depression tends to move ……………….. A. slowly. B. fast and irregularly. C. fast. D. slowly and irregularly.

524.

the Beaufort scale, storm force corresponds to wind …………… A. force 6 and above. B. force 10 and above. C. force 12 and above. D. force 8 and above.

525.

On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds to wind …………. A. force 14. B. force 10. C. force 8. D. force 12.

136

526.

Frontal depressions moue in families, each depression following its predecessor but in…………….. A. a slightly lower latitude. B. a slightly higher latitude. C. a much higher latitude. D. the same latitude.

527.

Which of these is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm front" ? A. In advance - continuous rain; during the passage - rain almost or completely stops; in the rear - mainly cloudy and slight rain. B. In advance - drizzle; during the passage - no rain; in the rear - continuous rain. C. In advance - showers; during the passage - thunderstorms / in the rear clear skies D. In advance - no rain; during the passage - continuous rain; in the rear drizzle.

528.

Tropical revolving storms are accompanied by …………………. A. heavy rains sometimes with thunder and lightning. B. dense fog. C. very cold air and sometimes hail D. slight wind and heavy rain.

529.

In what latitude do tropical revolving storms generally originate ? A. 50 to 65 degrees. B. 0 to 25 degrees. C. 25 to 35 degrees. D. 35 to 50 degrees.

137

530.

Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "cold front "? A. In advance - steady; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - fall. B. None of these are correct. C. In advance - fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear - rise continues more slowly. D. In advance - sudden fall; during the passage - sudden rise; in the rear steady.

531.

You are 60 to 120 nautical miles from the centre of a tropical revolving storm. What barometric changes would you expect? A. Slight fall with diurnal variations still in evidence. B. Rapid increase with no sign of diurnal variations. C. A steady slowly dropping pressure D. A marked fall with diurnal changes completely masked

532.

Wind force 10 correspond to wind speed of …………………. A. 56 - 63 knots. B. 48 - 55 knots. C. 34 - 40 knots. D. 28 - 33 knots.

533.

In meteorology, isobars are the lines joining places having the same ….. A. temperature. B. humidity C. iceberg density. D. pressure.

534.

What weather phenomenon can cause a reduction of radar range due to attenuation? A. Mist. B. Rain & snow. C. Fog. D. Rough seas.

138

535.

Which of these are 'low clouds"? A. Mega stratus. B. Altocumulus, altostratus. C. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus. D. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus.

536.

In the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm, a prudent master will first determine which semicircle his ship is in and then set a course to …………. A. heave to B. get away from the dangerous semicircle C. Head for the lee of the nearest land D. The centre of the storm.

537.

You are 10 to 60 nautical miles away from the centre of a tropical revolving storm. What barometric changes would you expect ? A. Rapid Increase. B. Rapid fall. C. No change. D. Slight Increase.

538.

In meteorology, isotherms are the lines joining places having the same………… A. pressure. B. humidity. C. iceberg density. D. temperature.

539.

Which of these are 'Medium clouds’ ? A. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus. B. Nimbostatus, stratus, stratocumulus. C. Cumulonimbus. D. Altocumulus, altostratus.

139

540.

If the vessel is between latitudes 5 - 20 degrees North, the most likely direction of movement of a storm is …………. A. West forth West. B. East South East. C. North East. D. Westerly.

541.

When in the vicinity of a tropical revolving storm it is important to determination in which semicircle the ship is situated. In the northern hemisphere which of these statements is true? A. If the wind is steady you are in the dangerous semicircle. B. If the wind is backing you are in the dangerous semicircle. C. It is not possible to determine if you are in the dangerous semicircle. D. If the wind is veering you are in the dangerous semicircle.

542.

The direction of the centre of the tropical revolving storm may be found by Buys Ballot's law, namely face the wind and ……………… A. the center of the storm will be right behind you about a point on your left. B. the center of the tropical storm will be ahead about a point to the right. C. the centre of the storm is to your left if you are in Northern hemisphere and to your right if you are in Southern hemisphere. D. in the Northern hemisphere the centre of the storm will bear 8 to 12 points to the right.

543.

Which of these are ''high clouds”? A. Cumulonimbus. B. Cirrus, cirrocumulus, cirrostratus. C. Nimbostratus, stratus, stratocumulus. D. Altocumulus, altostratus.

140

544.

What is the common name for hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones ? A. Inter tropical convergence zones. B. Tropical revolving storms. C. Tropical depressions. D. Monsoons.

545.

Trade winds are the general surface wind in which of the following latitudes ? A. 60-90 degrees B. 05-25 degrees C. 00-30 degrees. D. 25-60 degrees.

546.

Which of these is the correct sequence of weather associated with a "cold front"? A. In advance - no rain; during the passage - moderate rain ; in the rear heavy rain. B. In advance - clear skies; during the passage - thunderstorms, often with hail; in the rear - steady drizzle with cloudy skies. C. In advance - usually some rain and perhaps thunder; during the passage rain, often heavy; in the rear - heavy rain for a short period than fair. D. In advance - heavy rain; during the passage - no rain; in the rear - no rain.

547.

If depression has a large warm sector, it has a tendency to ……………. A. weaken. B. remain unchanged. C. deepen. D. move fast.

141

548.

Which of these is correct sequence of visibility associated with a "cold front"? A. In advance - very poor; during the passage - bad; in the rear - moderate. B. In advance - very good; during the passage - moderate in showers; at the rear - usually poor. C. In advance - usually poor; during the passage - first bad than good; in the rear - usually very good except in showers. D. In advance - very good; during the passage - very poor; in the rear moderate.

549.

Which of these is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "warm front"? A. In advance - sharply falling; during the passage - rise and fall ; in the rear - slowly rising. B. In advance - steady; during the passage - steady fall ; in the rear increase. C. In advance - increase; during the passage - steady; in the rear - decrease. D. In advance - steady fall; during the passage - fall ceases ; in the rear little change or slow fall.

550.

In a tropical revolving storm, “The eye” is a small central region of ………..

A. comparatively light winds and little clouds. B. no winds and heavy rain. C. very strong winds and no clouds. D. comparatively strong winds and heavy clouds.

551.

The eye of the tropical revolving storm is an area with light wind but with seas that are …………… A. very high from the East or West. B. very high and confused. C. very high from the North or South. D. moderate and confused.

142

552.

Wind force 5 corresponds to wind speed of …………….. A. 25 - 29 knots. B. 30 - 34 knots. C. 10 - 14 knots. D. 17 - 21 knots.

553.

South Westerlies and Roaring Forties are general surface wind in which of the following latitudes? A. 40 - 60 degrees. B. 60 - 90 degrees. C. 30 - 40 degrees. D. 00 - 30 degrees.

554.

Fast moving high clouds are an indication of ……………. A. rainy weather to come. B. unchanged weather. C. bad weather to come. D. good weather to come.

555.

A falling barometer is an indication of ……………… A. bad weather to come. B. rainy weather to come. C. no change in weather. D. good weather to come.

556.

Your ship is 120 to 500 nautical miles from centre of tropical revolving storm. What barometric changes do would you expect? A. No change in the diurnal variation. B. Rapid fall. C. Slow increase with the diurnal variation still in evidence. D. A slow fall with diurnal variation still in evidence.

143

557.

What is water content of the atmosphere (usually expressed as a percentage) known as? A. Due B. Humidity C. Mist D. Fog

558.

What is the instrument used for measuring humidity of the atmosphere called? A. Barometer B. Humidifier C. Hydrometer D. Psychrometer

559.

What is a region where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of the surrounding regions called? A. High B. Warm front C. Low D. Cold front

560.

If an observer is facing the true wind in the northern hemisphere, where does the Low pressure lie? A. Behind B. Ahead C. To the left D. To the right

144

561.

An instrument used for measuring the velocity of wind is known as A. Barometer B. Hydrometer C. Anemometer D. Tachometer

562.

A sudden rising strong wind, or sudden increase of wind usually immediately followed by a shower of rain snow is called a A. Squall B. Storm C. Tropical cyclone D. Cyclone

563.

A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often associated with a : A. Warn front B. Warm front C. Occluded front D. Cold front

564.

If it is reported that the wind velocity in four areas are in the given options: In which area will the isobars be spaced closest? A. A2 ………20kts B. A4 ……… 10kts C. A3………. 30kts D. A1………. 40kts

565.

In what direction does the wind blow around a cyclonic storm in the northern hemisphere? A. Towards the pole B. Clockwise C. Anti-clockwise D. Towards the equator

145

566.

What weather conditions are likely to result from the movement of warm air mass over a relatively colder sea surface? A. trough B. Rain C. Squally D. fog

567.

What is the quantity of water vapour present in the atmosphere called ? A. Humidity B. Absolute humidity C. Dew point D. Relative humidity

568.

What is rain accompanied with snow called ? A. ice pellets B. hail C. sleet D. snow flakes

569.

When visibility is 1km or less, it is known as: A. neither DO B. fog C. haze D. both

570.

What is also called sea fog ? A. steam fog B. advection fog C. radiation fog D. smog

146

571.

What is smoke + fog called ? A. steam fog B. radiation fog C. advection fog D. smog

572.

What is the clockwise change of direction from which the wind is blowing from called? A. backing B. Veering C. advancing D. retarding

573.

Beaufort wind force 5 corresponds to: A. 28-33 kIs B. 17-21 kts C. 4-6 kts D. 7-10 kts

574.

What is the phenomenon in which a cloud forms a funnel shaped pendant which descends towards the sea and draws up a corresponding hollow column of whirling spray which may form a pillar of water from cloud to sea is called A. A waterspout B. A waterway C. A waterfall D. A waterside

147

575.

The condition where the sea and swell approach the ship at right angles is called: A. Seas from any quarter B. Following seas C. Beam seas D. Read seas

576.

A horizontal movement in the upper layer of the sea caused by wind is called : A. drift current B. none of the given options C. drift D. current

577.

What is the swell encountered in the open ocean called? A. Ground swell B. Low swell C. Ocean swell D. High swell

578.

A Conduct Passage progressive wave of meteorological origin which, if its crest arrives at the time of high water, can cause exceptionally high tides is called: A. Storm B. Hurricane C. Storm surge D. Tidal wave

148

579.

On which of these areas would you consider that climatological routing to be satisfactory? A. Malacca straits B. North Atlantic C. Gulf of Oman D. Red sea

580.

On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how would the wind direction change in the advance of a warm front? A. remain steady B. slowly veer as it is approached C. suddenly year by 90deg D. slowly back as it is approached

581.

When warm air proceeds an occlusion, it is called : A. Upper warm front B. Warm occlusion C. Upper cold front D. Cold occlusion

582.

When the dew point of the air is higher than the sea surface temperature, it is called : A. Sea fog B. Advection fog C. Steam fog D. Zadiation fog

149

583.

Which of these symptoms indicate the approach of an extra tropical cyclone ? A. Increasing wind usually from a direction between east and south in the northern hemisphere and between east and north in the southern hemisphere. B. All of these. C. Falling barometer D. Increasing cirrus clouds which thicken into altostratus (sometimes altocumulus) accompanied by rain.

584.

What is an area of high pressure jutting into areas of low pressure called? A. Trough B. Ridge C. Col D. Anticyclone

585.

Satellite information charts providing information on cloud pattern and cloud thickness are called : A. Change of pressure charts B. Upper air charts C. Hindcast charts D. Elephanalysis charts

586.

Which of these contribute to the formation of a depression ? A. Large difference in pressure between the warm and cold air masses B. Large temperature difference between the warm and cold air masses C. Small temperature difference between the warm and cold air masses D. Small difference in pressure between the warm and cold air masses

150

587.

If the pressure is rising al around the center, or rising on one side more rapidly than it is falling on the other, then the anticyclone is said to be: A. Unchanged B. Stationary C. Weakening D. Intensifying

588.

An the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer, how would the pressure change in the `advance of a warm front? A. Remain constant B. Rise sharply C. Pressure would fall steadily D. Rise slowly

589.

What is a large piece of floating glacier ice, generally showing less than 5m above sea level (normally more than 1m) and normally about 100-300 square meters in area called? A. Growler B. Floe C. Bergy bit D. Brash ice

590.

What is shown in a surface weather analysis? A. Forecast positions of fronts and pressure systems at the surface for projection period of 2 to 5 days. B. Weather patterns based on current synoptic surface observations C. Future weather patterns for either 24hr, 36hr or 72hr outlook for certain regions D. All of these.

151

591.

What are clouds in a patch, layer or sheet form, white or grey or both in colour called? A. Altocumulus clouds B. Nimbostratus C. Cumulus D. Cirrocumulus

592.

Where is the vessel located in a TRS if the wind is Veering in the northern hemisphere? A. Navigable semi- circle B. In the path of the storm C. Dangerous semi-circle D. In the eye

593.

If the vessel is in the dangerous semi-circle of a TRS in the northern hemisphere, what would be the most appropriate action? A. Put the wind on the port Bow and alter course to port as the wind backs B. Put the wind on the port quarter and alter course to starboard as the wind veers C. Put the wind on the stbd. Bow and alter course to starboard as the wind veers D. Put the wind on the stbd. quarter and alter course to port s the wind backs

594.

With a steady westerly wind over the whole region, the fetch at a point 80n.m. to the east of an extensive north to south coastline will be A. 20 n. mile B. 160 n. mile C. 80 n. mile D. 40 n. mile

152

595.

On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would the weather change in the advance of a warm front? A. Cloudy with slight drizzle B. Continuous heavy rain or snow C. Precipitation stops D. Clear skies

596.

On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would the temperature change in the warm sector? A. Fall steadily B. Slowly rise C. Remain steady D. Rise quickly

597.

As a result of the friction of the rotating earth, how are winds deflected in the northern hemisphere? A. Spirally B. Anticlockwise C. Clockwise D. Ellipticalty

598.

What is the wind caused by downward currents of air and peculiar to mountainous districts and high coastline called? A. Anabatic winds B. Westerlies C. Katabatic winds D. Trade winds

153

599.

Which of these conditions indicates the passing of an extratropical cyclone? A. Barometer falls and then becomes steady B. Barometer remains steady C. Barometer becomes steady and then falls D. Barometer becomes steady and then rises

600.

The speed of an occlusion is best assumed A. To be about two thirds of the geostrophic wind speed. B. To be greater than the geostrophic wind speed. C. To be lesser than the geostrophic wind speed. D. To be equal to the geostrophic wind speed.

601.

What instrument is used to measure the dew point A. hydrometer B. pitometer C. psychrometer D. stadimeter

602.

What is an aneroid barometer fitted with a lever which bears a pen, recording upon a revolving drum variations of atmospheric pressure called? A. Gold slide B. Barogram C. Mercurm barometer D. Barograph

603.

On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer what type of clouds will be experienced at the passage of a cold front? A. Low Hs B. Ci , Cs ,As C. Ac & Cu D. Cb of very high vertical extent

154

604.

What is shown on wave analysis charts ? A. Forecast positions of wave system for projection period of 2 to 5 days B. Characteristics of sea waves C. Forecast of the positions of wave systems, normally over a period of 24 hrs D. All of these.

605.

What is found north and south of each tradewind belt ? A. Roaring forties B. Doldrums C. Prevailing westerlies D. Horse latitude

606.

Where do tropical storms generate? A. Always at the equator B. Between latitudes 5 deg to 10 deg N or S of the equator C. Between latitudes 35 deg to 40 deg N or S of the equator D. Between latitudes 45 deg to 50 deg N or S of the equator

607.

An the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer how would the visibility be in the advance of a warm front? A. Poor due to mist or fog B. Poor due to rain C. Very good except in showers D. Very good

608.

What can be obtained from met-route to compare weather and progress along the metroute advised route with that likely to have been experienced iachieued along an appropriate alternative route? A. Hindcast charts B. Routeing summaries C. Voyage analysis D. Customer requirements

155

609.

When should a ship seeking met - routeing request for the same A. On arrival at a port B. On drop of the last outward going pilot C. 48 hrs prior departure D. On departure

610.

When a warm air mass replaces a cold one, the line on which the frontal surface meets the ground is known as a: A. cold sector B. cold front C. warm sector D. warm front

611.

On the passage of a frontal depression over a stationary observer How would the force change in the dry advance of a warm front? A. steady B. increase C. decrease D. squally, with gusting winds

612.

Which are the two horizontal forces acting on any parcel of air? A. The rotational force and the deflecting force B. The pressure gradient and the deflecting force C. None of the other options D. The pressure gradient and the rotational force

613.

What warnings are issued from the country of origin and effect a specific coastal region, in the area of the hazard? A. local warnings B. All of these. C. coastal warnings D. navarea warnings

156

614.

What is the furthest westerly point reached by a tropical storm center called? A. Bar of the storm B. Vortex C. Vertex D. Eye of the storm

615.

What is a heavy mass of cloud rising in the form of mountains, turrets, or anvils, generally surmounted by a sheet or screen of fiberous appearance called? A. Cumulo-nimbus clouds B. Stratus clouds C. Cumulus clouds D. Nimbostratus clouds

616.

A curved line joining all places at which the atmospheric pressure is the same is called? A. Isobar B. Isotherm C. Isotope D. None of the other options

617.

A large elongated zone of irregular typography of the sea flow , categorized by large sea mounts and steep sided or non-symmetrical ridges is called : A. furrow B. fringing reef C. fracture zone D. Freshet

618.

What is the wind which works round against the hands of the clock called? A. Back pressure B. Baffling wind C. Veering wind D. Backing wind 157

619.

What corrections are applied to a mercury barometer? A. Latitude, height and pressure B. Latitude, temperature and pressure C. Latitude, Temperature and height D. Temperature, height and pressure

620.

When wind blows over the surface for a prolonged period, it tends to drag the uppermost layers of the water in that direction. This is called : A. Local currents B. Gradient current C. Surface current D. Wind drift current

621.

Which of these variables is used to determine the height of sea waves? A. Wind speed, latitude and fetch B. Latitude, duration of wind and fetch C. Wind speed, duration of wind and fetch D. Wind speed, duration of the wind and latitude

622.

What is the mean height of the highest 1/3 rd of the range of waves called? A. Wave height B. Wavelength C. Significant wave height D. Wave period

623.

What half of the tropical storm lies to the left part in the northern hemisphere & to the right part in the southern hemisphere? A. Dangerous semi-circle B. Dangerous quadrant C. Trough D. Navigable semi-circle

158

624.

Where will you find formats of 'hydrographic note" A. Admiralty list of radio signals B. Cumulative list of admiralty notice to mariners C. The weekly notice to mariners D. Annual summary of admiralty notice to mariners

625.

Which are the two reasons which cause ocean currents? A. Pressure gradients and coriolis forces B. Wind-drift currents and gradient currents C. Wind-drift currents and pressure gradients D. gradient currents and pressure gradients

626.

What does the upper figure indicate?

A. Percentage frequency of variables winds B. No. of observed calms C. None of the other options D. No. of observations

627.

What is the wind speed of the arrow indicated?

A. 5 kts B. 4 kts C. 3 kts D. 7 kts

159

628.

Assuming a forecast wind of say, 30 kts, with

the

max.

wind

duration

and

maximum fetch, what would be the value of significant wane height.

A. 3 B. 3.9 C. 4.9 D. 4

629.

Mean surface current circulation. Location to be circled...

A. Kuroskio current B. Mocambique current C. Agulhas current D. Gulf Stream

630.

What kind of current is indicated?

A. Upwelling current B. Drift C. Convergent D. Stream

160

631.

What does the lower figure represent?

A. No. of observations B. Mean resultant C. The percentage frequency of currents having a rate of less than ½ knots D. Strongest current experienced

161

1. Maintain a safe navigational watch (Memelihara tugas jaga navigasi secara aman 1.

A ship is being overtaken by another ship while proceeding along a river. What should be the required procedure?

A. The overtaking vessel should request permission from the other ship by sounding two prolonged blasts followed by two short blasts on the whistle or by direct VHF contact. B. The overtaking vessel can overtake but must allow sufficient space to reduce the interaction between the two vessels C. There should be no overtaking in these confined waters D. The overtaking vessel should request permission to overtake from the Port Control VTS

2.

According to rule 13 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, what is the definition of "an overtaking vessel"?

A. When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 22.5 degrees abaft her beam. B. When coming up with another vessel from any direction abaft her beam. C. When coming up with another vessel from a direction more than 45 degrees abaft her beam. D. When the vessel is detected as a radar target or sighted visually in a position directly astern.

163

3.

If whistles are fitted on a vessel at a distance apart

of

more

than

100

metres,

will

manoeuvring and warning signals, as defined by rule 34 of the International regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, be given on one or both whistles?

A. They shall be given on one whistle only. B. They shall be given on both whistles simultaneously. C. They shall first be given on the forward whistle, followed by the after whistle, with a 5 second inetrval in between. D. Manoeuvring signals will be given only on the forward whistle; warning signals will be given on both whistles simultaneously.

4.

Rule

12

of

the

International

Collision

Regulations prescribes the action to be taken by a sailing vessel when meeting another sailing vessel. This depends on the direction of the wind relative to each vessel. In the situation shown here, which sailing vessel (A or B) must keep out of the way of the other?

A. Sailing vessel A must keep out of the way of sailing vessel B. B. Sailing vessel B must keep out of the way of sailing vessel A. C. Both sailing vessels are required to take avoiding action. D. The upwind sailing vessel must keep out of the way of the downwind sailing vessel.

164

5.

The following vessels are all required to make the same sound signal when in or near an area of restricted visibility: a vessel not under command; a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre; a vessel constrained by her draught / a sailing vessel; a vessel engaged in fishing; a vessel engaged in towing or pushing another vessel. What is that signal?

A. One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more than two minutes. B. Two prolonged blasts, followed by one short blast, at intervals of not more than two minutes. C. One prolonged blast at intervals at not more than two minutes. D. One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more than one minute.

165

6.

The lights displayed here indicate that this is one of two types of vessel. What are the two options?

A. A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of tow under 200 metres, towing vessel and tow restricted in their ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway, more than 50 metres in length, or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on. B. A power-driven vessel engaged in towing, more than 50 metres in length, or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, length of tow under 200 metres, seen head-on OR a power-driven vessel underway. Less than 50 metres in length and displaying the second allround white masthead light, seen head-on. C. A vessel engaged in fishing, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre, shooting nets OR a vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of tow under 200 metres, towing vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre, seen head-on. D. A vessel engaged on pilotage duty, engaged in deploying or recovering a pilot, seen head-on or a power-driven vessel underway, lmore than 50 metres in length or less than 50 metres in length and showing the second masthead light, seen head-on.

166

7.

The lights here show those that must be exhibited by a vessel engaged in towing, as per rule 24 of the International Collision Regulations. But how long is the tow behind this vessel?

A. It exceeds 200 metres. B. It is less than 200 metres. C. It is more than 50 metres but less than 200 metres. D. At least 100 metres.

8.

This vessel is encountered at the mouth of a river which leads to your discharge port. What do the various shapes tell you?

A. This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two balls in a vertical line indicate the side on which an obstruction exists; the two diamonds in a vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to pass; the ball / diamond / /ball in a vertical line indiacte that the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. B. This is a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations. The two balls in a vertical line indicate the side on which it is safe to pass; the two diamonds in a vertical line indicate the side on which an obstruction exists; the ball / diamond / ball indicate that the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. C. This is a vessel engaged on port security duties. The two balls in a vertical line indicate that the port is closed; the two diamonds in a vertical line indicate that the port is engaged in mine-clearance operations; the ball / diamond / ball in a vertical line indicate that the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. D. This is a vessel engaged in mine-clearance opetrations. The two balls in a vertical line indicate that it has a sweep mechanism deployed; the two diamonds in a vertical line indicate that the vessel should be given a clearance of at least 1000 metres; the ball / diamond / ball indicate that the vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. 167

9.

This vessel is sighted ahead and slightly to port. What is her situation? What will you do?

A. This vessel is aground. I will navigate with extreme caution given the nature of the hazard. B. This is a vessel engaged in fishing vessel, with her nets fast on an obstruction. I will keep out of the way by rule 18 of the International Collision Regulations. C. This is a vessel aground. She appears to have been headed to starboard of my track and I will therefore alter course to port, passing under her stern. D. This is a vessel not under command at anchor.

10.

What are we seeing here?

A. A sailing vessel less than 20 metres in length, displaying the optional combined lantern in lieu of standard sailing lights, seen head-on. B. A sailing vessel of less than 10 metres in length, displaying the mandatory combined lantern inlieu of sailing lights, seen head-on. C. A sailing vessel, seen from astern, where the edges of her sidelights are both visible. D. A sailing vessel, at anchor.

168

11.

What do the shapes that this vessel is displaying tell us about her?

A. That she is not under command. B. That she is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. C. That she is engaged in towing. D. That she is constrained by her draught.

12.

What is happening here?

A. These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the additional volutary signals for hauling nets. B. These are two vessels engaged in fishing (pair trawling), showing the additional voluntary signals for shooting nets. C. This is a vessel engaged in towing a disabled tow, restricted in its ability to manoeuvre, with a searchlight used to highlight the location of the tow. D. These are two vessels engaged in fishing, using purse-seine gear. The searchlights are simply working lights.

169

13.

What is the colour and characteristic of a "towing light", as defined in the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?

A. Yellow, fixed, seen over an arc of 135 degrees and so arranged as to display 67.5 degrees from right aft on each side of the vessel. B. Amber, all-round, flashing, where it can best be seen. C. White, fixed, displayed as an additional light on the foremast over an arc of 225 degrees, from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on each side of the vessel. D. One of two all-round amber, alternate flashing lights, displayed where they can best be seen.

14.

What is the description for a sidelight, as shown in rule 21 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?

A. A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing an unbroken light over an arc of 112.5 degree, from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the respective side. B. A red, green or yellow lantern, showing an unbroken light over an arc of 112.5 degrees. C. A red light or a green light, with a minimum range, in a vessel of 50 metres or more, of 3 miles. In a vessel of 10 metres or more but less than 50 metres in length, a range of 1 mile. D. A green light on the starboard side and red light on the port side, showing an unbroken light over an arc of 135 degrees, from right ahead to 22.5 degrees abaft the beam on the respective side.

170

15.

What is the situation of this vessel?

A. This vessel is not under command, but is making way through the water. B. This vessel is aground. C. This vessel is not under command and stopped in the water. D. This is a vessel constrained by her draft.

16.

What signal may be given by sound and by light to indicate that a vessel fails to understand the intentions or actions of another vessel, or is in doubt that sufficient action is being taken by the other to avoid collision?

A. Five short and rapid blasts (flashes). B. Five prolonged blasts (flashes). C. Three short and rapid blasts (flashes). D. One prolonged blast (flash), followed by five or more short and rapid blasts (flashes)

171

17.

What type of vessel is this and from what direction are you seeing it?

A. This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150m in the direction of the all-round white light. I am looking at her port side. B. This is a vessel engaged in fishing other than trawling, making way through the water, with outlying gear extending more than 150 metres in the direction of the all-round red light. I am seeing her from astern. C. This is a vessel engaged in pilotage duties at anchor. I am looking at her port side. D. This is a vessel engaged in pilotage operations, deploying or recovering a pilot. I am looking at her port side. 18.

What, by definition in the International Collision Regulations, is a "vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre"?

A. A vessel which from the nature of her work is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel. B. A vessel which through some exceptional circumstance is unable to manoeuvre as required by the Rules and is therefore unable to keep out of the way of another vessel. C. A vessel engaged in underwater work, such as the laying, picking up or servicing of a pipeline, or which is in support of diving operations, performing dredging and mine-clearance or is deploying or recovering a pilot. D. A vessel which because of her draught in relation to the available depth of navigable water is restricted in her ability to deviate from her course and keep out of the way of another vessel. 172

19.

You are approaching a port in a snowstorm. You hear this signal. What kind of vessel is it and what is it doing?

A. It comes from a vessel engaged in pilotage duties and it is making way through the water. B. It comes from a vessel engaged in pilotage duties at anchor, over 100 metres in length. C. It comes from a vessel at anchor, less than 100 metres in length. D. It comes from a vessel restricted in her ability to manoeuvre.

20.

You are close to the entrance to a port in thick fog. You hear the following signal. What does it mean?

A. That there is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres in length. B. That there is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in length. C. That there is a vessel aground in the vicinity. D. That the port is closed. 21.

You are in an area of restricted visibility and hear this signal. It is repeated at two minute intervals. What does it indicate?

A. That there is another vessel nearby, that she is underway, but stopped and making no way through the water. B. That there is another vessel nearby, but that she is at anchor. C. That there are two more vessels nearby. D. That there is another vessel in the vicinity and that she has just altered course to port. 173

22.

You are in an area of restricted visibility, close to a port. You hear this signal. What vessel does it come from and what additional information does the signal provide?

A. A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding the additional signal to give warning of her position. B. A vessel aground, more than 100 metres in length. The additional signal indicates which side the clear water lies on. C. A vessel at anchor, less than 100 metres in length. She is sounding the additional signal top give warning of her position. D. A vessel at anchor, more than 100 metres in length. The additional signal indicates that her cable extends at least 25 metres from her bow.

23.

You are in an area of restricted visibility. You hear this sound signal. What does it mean?

A. That there is a vessel in distress nearby. B. That there is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. C. That there is a vessel aground in the vicinity. D. That there is a vessel engaged in underwater operations in the vicinity. She has divers down. 24.

You are in open water and clear conditions. You are approaching the pilot station when you hear this signal from a vessel ahead of you. What does it signify?

A. That the vessel is operating astern propulsion. B. That the vessel is picking up his pilot. C. That the vessel is altering his course to starboard. D. That the vessel is starting his engine and resuming his passage.

174

25.

You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is sighted directly ahead. The distance is closing slowly. What action will you take under the International Collision Regulations and why?

A. I will keep out of her way. I am the overtaking vessel and am obliged to keep clear under rule 13. B. I will maintain my course and speed.

The other vessel is being

overtaken and is therefore obliged to keep out of the way by rule 13. C. The vessel is on a steady bearing and the distance is closing. I will therefore take avoiding action, altering course to starboard and sounding one short blast under rules 14 and 16. D. This is a vessel engaged in towing and I am seeing the stern light of the tow.

The tug is not however showing any lights indicating she is

restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. I will however display good seamanship and keep out of her way.

26.

You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is sighted on the port bow steady bearing. What kind of vessel is it and what will your action be?

A. This is a sailing vessel underway, seen head-on. It is my responsibility to keep clear under rule 18 and I will take appropriate avoiding action. B. This is a sailing vessel underway. I am the stand-on vessel and will maintain my course and speed under rule 17. C. This is a sailing vessel not making way through the water. There is no risk of collision and I will maintain my course and speed. D. This is a vessel engaged in fishing. It is my responsibility to keep clear under rule 18 and I will alter course to starboard, sounding one short blast.

175

27.

You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. This vessel is sighted wide on the port bow. It's bearing is opening, but its distance is closing rapidly.

Which of the following is a correct

assessment of the situation and the action to be taken?

A. Risk of collision is deemed not to exist and I will maintain my course and speed. I will continue to monitor the situation. B. Risk of collision is deemed to exist and I will make a broad alteration of course to starboard, sounding one short blast.

I will re-assess the

situation when the alteration is carried out. C. Risk of collision is deemed not to to exist. However, to be sure of a safe passing distance, I will reduce my speed to allow the other vessel to pass ahead. D. Risk of collision is a possibility. I will maintain my course and speed for now, but be prepared for an alteration of course to port if the CPA seems to be less than 0.2nm as we draw closer.

28.

You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water.

You observe this vessel, directly

ahead, on a steady bearing, with the distance closing steadily.

What can you tell about this

vessel from the lights it is displaying?

A. This vessel is not under command and is not making way through the water. I cannot tell its aspect. B. This vessel is restricted in its ability to manoeuvre and is stopped in the water. I am seeing it from astern. C. This is a fishing vessel, not making way through the water, with its nets fast upon an obstruction, seen from astern. D. This vessel is aground and is seen from directly ahead.

176

29.

You are on a power-driven vessel underway in open water. You sight these lights on the port bow, on a steady bearing.

The distance is

closing. What are you looking at and what action will you take in compliance with the International

Regulations

for

Preventing

Collision at Sea?

A. This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, less than 50 metres in length, length of tow under 200 metres and the tow, both being restricted in their ability to manoeuvre, seen from the starboard side. Under rule 18, I am required to keep clear and will take appropriate avoiding action. B. This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, more than 50 metres in length or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light and the tow, the combined length of which is under 200 metres. The towing vessel is restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. I am seeing their starboard sides. The bearing is steady and risk of collision therefore exists. I will maintain my course and speed under rule 17. C. This is a power-driven vessel, more than 50 metres in length or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, restricted in her ability to manoeuvre. The sidelight of a second vessel can be seen beyond her. Under rule 18, I am obliged to keep clear of the first vessel and will therefore take appropriate avoiding action. D. This is a power-driven vessel engaged in towing, more than 50 metres in length or less than 50 metres in length and showing a second masthead light, length of tow 200 metres or more, not under command. I will keep clear under rule 27.

177

30.

You are on a sailing vessel, underway in open water. This vessel is sighted on the starboard bow, on a steady bearing and the distance is closing. By the International Regulations for the Preventing Collisions at Sea, what action will you follow?

A. By Rule 18, a power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of a sailing vessel. I will maintain my course and speed, but will continue to monitor situation to ensure the other vessel takes avoiding action. B. Risk of collision is deemed to exist and, as the other vessel is on a steady bearing on my starboard side, I am required to keep out of the way. I will make a broad alteration of course to starboard. C. This vessel is clearly a power-driven vessel and I anticipate that the bearing will therefore close and she will pass ahead at a safe distance. D. Risk of collision is deemed to exist and, as the other vessel is on a steady bearing on my starboard side, I will maintain my course and speed.

178

31.

You are on a tug and are towing an unmanned barge.

You are restricted in your ability to

manoeuvre. The total length of the tow is 219 metres. What daylight signals are required by the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea?

A. A diamond shape, where it can best be seen shall be displayed on the tug and the tow. Three shapes shall also be displayed in a vertical line, the upper and lower being balls and the middle one a diamond. Diamond shape B. A diamond shape, where it can best be seen, on the tug only. Three shapes shall also be displayed, being three balls in a vertical line. C. Three shapes shall be displayed forward on the tug, in a vertical line, the upper and lower being balls and the middle one a diamond. D. Three shapes shall be displayed on the tug, where they can best be seen, in a vertical line, the upper and lower being balls and the middle one a cylinder. The signal flag "T" shall also be flown on the tug. A diamond shall be displayed aft on the tow.

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32.

You are proceeding along a coastal route when you hear this signal. The visibility is severely restricted. What does the signal mean?

A. There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels that they are "running into danger". B. There is a vessel aground in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres in length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels to "navigate with extreme caution". C. There is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is more than 100 metres in length. She is sounding an additional warning signal to approaching vessels, directing them to "keep clear". D. There is a vessel at anchor in the vicinity. She is less than 100 metres in length. She is sounding an additional warning to approaching vessels that they are "running into danger".

33.

You are proceeding along a narrow channel and approaching a bend, on the inside shore of which is a large hill, which obsures your view further up channel.

What sound signal will you make to

indicate your presence to any vessel that is behind the obstructing hill?

A. One prolonged blast. B. One short blast. C. Two prolonged blasts. D. Two short blasts.

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34.

You are proceeding along a narrow channel behind another vessel. You have a higher speed and have signalled your intention to the vessel ahead that you intend to overtake him on his port side. The vessel responds with this sound signal. What does it mean?

A. That the vessel is indicating her agreement with my proposed manoeuvre. B. That the vessel does not agree with my proposed manoeuvre. C. That the vessel suggests I overtake on the starboard side instead. D. This is a signal intended for another vessel or shore station. It is nothing to do with our vessel.

35.

You are proceeding along a narrow channel in front of another vessel, both heading for port. You hear this signal from the vessel behind you. What does it mean?

A. I intend to overtake you on your starboard side. B. I intend to overtake you on your port side. C. I am operating astern propulsion. D. I am faster than you. Get out of the way.

36.

To navigate a ship safely and support the bridge team, it is essential that the passage plan is made A. from berth to berth B. in coastal passages C. pilot station to pilot station D. ocean passages

181

37.

When changes are made in a passage plan, who should be consulted and briefed to ensure the revised plan is understood A. master B. the bridge team on that watch C. the bridge team on each watch D. he OOW

38.

The correct order to follow while planning a passage would be A. plan, appraise, monitor, execute B. appraise, plan, monitor, execute C. plan, monitor, appraise, execute D. plan, monitor, execute, appraise.

39.

In preparing a passage plan the effects of squat must be borne in mind, as under keel clearance gets reduced. Which of these factors will cause the vessel to squat? A. Ice accretion B. Seas on deck C. Wind D. Speed

40.

Which of these are used to steer a ship by keeping a conspicuous object lying ahead of the track? A. A bearing line B. 3 point bearing C. None of the other options D. A clearing bearing

41.

What is a routeing measure aimed at the separation of opposing streams of traffic by establishing traffic lanes called? A. Traffic Lane B. Traffic separation scheme C. Separation Zone D. Recommend route

182

42.

What is the purpose of Ship Reporting Systems? A. To keep a tack of FOC Ships p B. For SAR & prevention of pollution C. To know where ships are plying D. To ensure all ships are complying with regulators

43.

In which Publication can information on ship reporting be found? A. SOPEP Manual B. ALRS C. Ship Routeing D. IAMSAR

44.

In which publication can information on VTS be found? A. Chart Catalogues B. Tide Tables C. ALRS D. Routeing Charts

45.

Who is responsible to ensure that bridge watch manning levels are at all times safe for the prevailing circumstances and conditions? A. Navigating Officer B. Helmsman C. OOW D. Master

46.

From where can the maneuvering characteristics of the vessel be obtained? A. Passage plan B. Ships' particulars C. The wheel house poster D. The deck log book

47.

Duties of the OOW also include one for the following A. People working in the engine room B. None of the other options C. People working on deck D. LSA/FFA maintenance

183

48.

Where should notices be posted when work is being carried out on aerials/sound signaling apparatus A. Cargo Office B. None of the options C. equipment controls D. At the site

49.

Which of the following should not used for collision avoidance? A. Manual Radar potting B. VHF Radio C. Sound/light Signaling D. ARPA

50.

When must the position marked on the navigation chart be erased? A. After the day has elapsed B. Once the vessel is on the next course C. End of the voyage D. Once the vessel is on the next chart

51.

When should operational checks on navigational equipment be carried out? A. at least once during a voyage B. As soon as the vessel arrive and departs from port C. when there has been an equipment failure or power breakdown D. When preparing for sea and prior port entry

52.

How often must manual steering be tested ? A. at least once a watch B. Prior entering confined water/port C. When there has been a steering failure D. At least once in 24hrs

184

53.

How would the OOW be provide with an immediate check as to whether engine orders are being followed? A. Speed log B. Rudder angle indicator C. RPM indicator D. Telegraph

54.

19. Who publishes the chart catalogue? A. HMSO B. Hydrographer to the navy C. MO D. ICS

55.

20. When transiting along the coast it is advisable to use: A. AUS charts B. Charts of the hydrographic office of the relevant country C. US charts D. BA charts

56.

When planning ocean passages, which of these publications are useful? A. Ocean passages of the world B. Guide to port entry C. Ship's routeing D. Tide tables

57.

Where can monthly information on ocean routeing, currents, wind, ice limits and carious meteorological Information be obtained from? A. Ocean passages for the world B. Routeing charts C. Notices to mariners D. Ship's routeing

185

58.

In which publication can characteristics be found? A. Ship's routeing B. ALOL C. Routeing charts D. ALRS

59.

Information obtained from harbour authorities are called: A. ocean warnings B. Local warnings C. Weather broadcasts D. EGC

60.

In which publication will you find information pertaining to the general interest of the Mariner? A. Guide to port entry B. ALRS C. Mariner's handbook D. Notice to Mariners

61.

What is the shortest distance between any two points on a sphere? A. Rhumb line B. Both are the same C. Hone of the other options D. Great circle

62.

Who finally shoulders the responsibility for passage planning? A. Head Office B. Navigating Officer C. Master D. Second officer

186

63.

Areas which the ship cannot go safely are shown by highlighting or crosshatching on a chart - What are these areas called? A. No go areas B. Special areas C. Isolated dangers D. Blind sectors

64.

What is the line drawn on the chart around the no-go areas at a distance such that, any part of the ship being navigated will not pass? A. Coastline B. Closest line of approach C. Clearing line D. Margin of safety

65.

What do you call the area where the ship can safely navigate ? A. Unsafe water B. Restricted water C. Safe water D. Confine water

66.

On what type of charts would you draw coastal and estuarial tracks? A. Large scale charts B. Small scale charts C. Plotting sheets. D. Medium scale charts

67.

What type of courses are laid on a Mercator Chart? A. Magnetic courses B. True courses C. Compass courses D. None of the other options

187

68.

Bearings picked up from a chart are: A. Magnetic bearings B. None of the other options C. compass bearings D. True bearings

69.

Which method is useful in monitoring cross track tendency in both poor and good visibility… A. visual observation B. Parallel indexing C. Taking bearings of objects D. monitor w.r.t a ship in the vicinity

70.

What is a position shown on the chart, where a planned change of status will occur? A. wreck B. special mark C. Waypoint D. no go area

71.

When a ship reaches a point, beyond which it will not be possible to do other than proceed ahead, then, it is called: A. Last waypoint B. cross over point C. Abort point D. termination point

72.

Which of these publications are not used in a passage plan? A. list of lights B. sailing directions C. P & I guidelines D. ALRS

188

73.

At what stage of a passage plan should light for making landfall and primary/secondary position fixing methods be identified? A. Appraisal B. Monitoring stage C. once passage is complete D. At the planning stage

74.

How would you obtain a position line without the actual use of instruments? A. latitude by meridian attitude B. transit bearing of two shore objects C. Longitude by chronometer D. Intercept

75.

Which of these are ideal for a course alteration? A. A beam bearing of a light house B. celestial observation C. Transit bearing of two objects right ahead D. single distance of a light house

76.

How often must compass errors be taken? A. on instructions from the master B. once a day C. once a watch and after each alteration of course D. When deviations are suspected to be high □

77.

What is used to ensure that the ship passes clear of a danger? A. Isolated danger B. position lines C. leading lines D. line of approach

189

78.

What marks are used to ensure that a ship remains in a safe area? A. special water marks B. ODASD C. cardinal marks D. Clearing mark

79.

On which factor does the max. range of a navigational light does not depend ? A. the clarity of the atmosphere B. the observer eyesight C. the intensity of the light D. Height of Eye of observer / height of light

80.

What is the range shown on the chart, beside the light star? A. geographical range B. extreme range C. Nominal range D. Luminous range

81.

When selecting the maximum distance at which a landfall light would be visible, which of the following should be selected? A. greater of the two B. geographical range C. nominal range D. lesser of the two (geographical & nominal range)

82.

Where will you find information on tidal streams? A. tide tables B. tidal stream atlas C. guide to port entry D. ALRS

190

83.

When watchkeepers are inadequately rested, it calls for changes to routine watchkeeping periods. Who is responsible to affect such changes ? A. navigating officer B. master C. watch keeper involved D. all the other watchkeepers

84.

What should be followed to ensure routine tasks are carried out for a proper voyage preparation? A. guidelines B. checklist C. none of the other options D. ISM code

85.

While fixing a ships position how many position lines are required to ensure accuracy? A. none B. three C. two D. one

86.

Who is responsible for the safety of the vessel when pilot is on board? A. Master B. port authorities C. 00W D. Pilot

87.

With which log can you measure sideways motion? A. Doppler log B. none of the other options C. Electromagnetic log D. patent log

191

88.

What is the person who has control of the ship called ? A. donning officer B. Navigating officer C. second officer D. Master

89.

The non-tidal movement of the sea surface due mainly to meteorological, oceanographical and topographical causes is called : A. tide B. leeway C. wind D. current

90.

The horizontal direction of the ship's head at a given moment measured in degrees clockwise from north is called: A. course B. Compass C. heading D. Compass rose

91.

What is a Radar Beacon which transmits when triggered by ship's own Radar transmission called: A. Raymark B. Rayband C. Rainbow D. Racon

92.

The direction that a stream runs towards is called: A. current B. set C. drift D. leeway

192

93.

The times between which, the tide hawing achieved a required height, is safer for a ship to transit a certain area, is called: A. time of high water B. tidal window C. tidal track D. tidal stream

94.

What is the vertical distance between the sea bed and the deepest part of the keel known as : A. depth B. sounding C. draft D. under keel clearance

95.

The point at which the helm must be applied to achieve a required course alteration is called: A. heel-over position B. way-point C. drift-point D. abort-point

96.

Which condition may be inappropriate for an officer in charge of a navigational watch: A. notifying the Master when in doubt as to what action is to be taken in the interest of safety B. continue to be responsible for the safe navigation of the ship despite the presence of the Master on bridge C. leaving the bridge without being properly relieved D. leaving the bridge after being relieved by the Master

97.

How should the changeover from automatic to manual steering be carried out: A. By Helmsman B. Cadet C. Under the supervision of a responsible officer D. Lookout 193

98.

How frequently must the vessel's position be fixed in coastal waters: A. Whenever one feels like B. Whenever one is comfortable to do so C. Whenever a danger is suspected D. At short regular intervals

99.

How should positions be fixed in coastal waters: A. By using maping only on the Radar B. By using more than one position fixing method C. Hone of the other options D. By using only one position fixing method

100.

In restricted visibility which of the following must not be done: A. Sound fog signal B. Proceed at safe speed C. Exhibit navigational lights D. Avoid keeping lookouts

101.

If the OOW is in doubt as to the Pilot's actions or intentions what must he do : A. As the Pilot to leave the bridge B. Avoid taking any action C. Seek clarification from the Pilot , notify the Master and corrective action D. Call Master and wait for him to take action

102.

While maintaining an anchor watch, which of these should be avoided: A. Ensure that inspection rounds are made periodically B. Ensure that an efficient lookout is maintained C. Notify the Master and take necessary steps if ship drags anchor D. Plot the ship's position only when suspected the ship is dragging anchor

103.

Route which is primarily selected for use by ships which because of their draught, may not be able to navigate safely outside such route is called: A. inshore traffic route B. Small craft's route C. Ship's routing D. Deep draught route 194

104.

Which unit is not set on charts to indicate soundings? A. Feet B. Fathoms C. Meters D. Bars

105.

Where on the chart is the unit of depth indicated? A. At the center of the chart B. In the left hand margin of the chart C. In the right hand margin of the chart D. Under the title of the chart

106.

Charts prepared on a very small scale, covering large portions of the globe are called: A. Decca charts B. Loran charts C. Coastal charts D. Ocean charts

107.

Charts drawn on a very large scale and covering a small area is called: A. Loran chart B. Coastal chart C. Plan chart D. Decca chart

108.

Charts used in air navigation but may also be used as an aid to navigation are called: A. Loran charts B. Decca charts C. Plan charts D. Console charts

195

109.

A Passage Planning Routeing charts are published: A. For different months of the year B. For each ocean and for different months of the year C. All oceans on a chart for different months D. For each ocean

110.

How many hours, prior to sailing would it be advisable to test controls? A. on departure B. 2 hours C. 12 hrs D. 24hrs

111.

Who should be aware of the time of testing controls? A. Duty officer B. All of these. C. Master D. Duty engineer

112.

Which of the following would not be included as part of control testing prior departure? A. Testing of ship's cranes B. Check communication between Bridge and Engine control room C. Synchronise clocks D. Testing of engine telegraph and it's auto recorder

113.

When will you make entries in the deck log book: A. The next day B. within a week C. During your watch D. After completing your watch and being fully relived

196

114.

After each watch when fire and safety rounds are carried out by OOW/AB, who should be informed? A. chief engineer B. the bridge C. master D. the engine room

115.

Which of these is not a synoptic hour? A. 0200 B. 1200 C. 1800 D. 0600

116.

What are the duties of a helmsman? A. To steer the ship B. Conn. the ship C. Keep a lookout D. All of these.

117.

A propeller in which the rotation of the blades is from left to right with the ship going ahead and the observer facing forward is called : A. Right-hand propeller B. Twin screw propeller C. Left hand propeller D. Reversible propeller

118.

In case of daylight hours, clear visibility and little traffic, what would be the minimum expected manning level on the bridge? A. One deck watch officer and one seaman B. Two deck watch officer and one seaman C. Three deck watch officer and one seaman D. Only one watch officer on the bridge

197

119.

Which of these errors in DF are caused due to loop siting? A. Quadrantal error B. Land and coast effect C. Night effect D. All of these.

120.

In which of these cases would you consider a watch keeper unfit for duty? A. If he is impaired by fatigue B. If he is not intoxicated C. If he has a bruise on his leg D. If he has a common cold

121.

What is the aim of a routeing system? To …….. A. Comply with the rules and regulations of the government B. Study the market , by finding out the different cargoes carried C. Keep a track of the vessels coming and going D. Provide safe passage for ships through area w/o restricting legitimate rights, practices & taking account of anticipated/existing navigational hazards

122.

Who is responsible for navigating the ship safety? A. Owners B. The OOW under the direction of the master C. The master D. Helms man

123.

Who is responsible for safety of the vessel/when the pilot is on board? A. Master B. owners C. Pilot D. Port authorities

198

124.

In which of these cases must the watch not be handed over? A. When the officer of the watch has reason to believe that the relieving officer is under some disability w/c would prevent him doing duties effectively B. When a manoeuvre is taking place C. Both and :Option 3> D. When the relieving is satisfied that he has complied with the taking over watch procedures

125.

Who represents the master in navigating the vessel safely? A. Pilot B. Only the chief officer □ C. OOW D. Navigating officer

126.

What is a routeing measure comprising a separation point or circular separation point or circular separation zone and a circular traffic lane within defined limits called? A. Roundabout B. Inshore traffic zone C. Precautionary area D. Two-way route

127.

Which of these may be permitted to change over the steering from automatic to manual. A. Helmsman B. OOW C. Look out D. All of these.

199

128.

What does the signal 'YG' mean? A. You appear to be complying with the traffic separation scheme, continue on the same heading B. You are running into danger C. You appear not to be complying with the traffic separation scheme D. You are in a separation zone

129.

Who is responsible to ensure that the watch keeping arrangements are adequate for maintaining a safe navigational watch? A. Duty officer B. Owners C. Master D. Al of these.

130.

How must a member of the bridge team indicate he has understood the tasks and duties assigned to him? A. The team members needs to be supervised and any mistakes corrected immediately B. Each team member is considered responsible so once told to carry out a job, it is understood that the job will be done C. The team members should confirm that they understand the tasks and duties assigned to them D. Report after completing the job

200

131.

How should watches be arranged? A. For the first 12hrs it is normal if watchkeepers are not properly rested, but every effort must be made to do so. B. First watch at commencement of voyage may be exempted but subsequent relieving watches must be sufficiently rested & otherwise fit when going on duty C. It is left to the discretion of the master weather the watchkeeper needs to be rested or not. D. The 1st watch at the commencement of a voyage and the subsequent relieving watches are sufficiently rested and otherwise fit when going on duty

132.

If a helmsman is given an order stbd10, what must he do? A. He must repeat the order before putting the wheel on stbd 10 B. All of the other options are appropriate C. He must put the wheel on stbd 10 and then report D. He must repeat the order , wait for a reconfirmation from the OOW and then put the wheel on stbd 10

133.

99. Which of these jobs can an officer in-charge of a navigational watch undertake? A. Any duty provided there is no traffic B. Assist in painting on the bridge wing C. No duties that would interfere with the safe navigation of the ship D. Any job provided he makes regular checks in between

134.

When should an intended voyage be planned? A. During pilotage B. At least during the course of a voyage C. On sailing D. In advance □

201

135.

Which of these factors must be taken into account when deciding the composition of a navigational watch? A. All of these. B. The weather conditions, visibility and weather there is daylight or darkness C. The proximity of navigational hazards, which may make it necessary for the officer in charge to carry out additional navigational duties. D. Whether the ship is fitted with automatic steering

136.

In which of the following cases would the officer of the watch notify the master? A. If difficulty is experienced in maintaining course B. It restricted visibility is suspected or encountered C. and D. In clear weather, no traffic

137.

When can the officer of watch be the sole look out A. At night B. During the day when master feels it is safe C. In none of the other cases D. In open seas throughout a period of 24hrs

138.

How often would you check the position of the ship? A. When one desires B. Only at one hour intervals C. At sufficient frequent intervals D. When one is a little uncomfortable

139.

When may the OOW use engines? A. when approaching port B. Only after informing the master C. Whenever he needs to D. Only on orders from the master

202

140.

How shall the composition of a watch and number of lookouts be determined? A. There must always be only one officer and look out irrespective of the situation. B. It must always be determined before the voyage commences without any changes C. It should be adequate and appropriate to the prevailing circumstances and conditions □ D. There is no need for lookouts

141.

What type of weather conditions are routeing systems intended for? A. In heavy ice conditions where ice breakers are used B. Neither nor C. They are intended for use during day or night in all weather conditions D. Both and

142.

What should be carried out when the pilot boards the vessel ? A. None of the other options B. Master should hand over the responsibility before leaving the bridge C. Signing of the pilots dues receipt D. Master-pilot information exchange

143.

What should be the basic concern of the person responsible for navigating the ship safety? A. Avoid Collision and stranding B. Avoid VHF communication C. Avoid use of anchors D. Avoid using engines

203

144.

What must the navigating officer do once he has deviated from the planned track? A. Resume original track only when the master says so B. Continue on the new track till the new course is set by the navigating officer C. Resume the original track as soon as possible D. Any of the other options is suitable

145.

With regard to safety and navigational equipment what care must be taken? A. The key points and features only need to be understood B. The equipment must be properly understood and operational conditions must be fully taken into account C. At least the important equipment must be properly understood and operational conditions must be fully taken into account D. Only equipment which the user knows properly must be used

146.

How can good situation awareness be developed amongst the bridge team? A. By making a passage plan and everyone must be made to it before departure. B. By having as many people on the bridge at all times so that more people are aware in case a situation develops. C. Regular briefing prior joining a vessel. D. By making a plan that is well understood, with everyone briefed, with all members supporting each other.

147.

How should ships navigate when they are outside the limits of traffic separation schemes but close to an inshore traffic zone? A. In a direction perpendicular to the traffic zone B. In a direction opposite to that indicated in the zone closest to the ship C. In the same direction indicated in the zone closest to the ship D. In any direction

204

148.

When using two - way routes or two- way deep water routes, which of these is recommended? A. Keeping to the stbd side as far as possible B. All of the other options are practicable C. Keeping to the port side as far as possible D. Remaining at the centre as far as possible

149.

If there is a lookout needed on the bridge, what should be the navigating officers course of action? A. Seek permission from the officer in charge of the crew and only then summon for assistance B. e must ensure assistance is made available by the time the next relieving officer is on the bridge C. He must ensure assistance is immediately made available D. He must ensure assistance is made available before sunset

150.

For what type of vessels is a deep-water route intended for? A. Only ships of over 100000dwt and over B. Any ship can use the route as long as they exhibit proper lights/shapes for the same C. Ships which because of their draught in relation to the available depth of water in the area concerned require the use of such a route D. It is a shorter route provided by the government for transit at an added price

151.

If the master of the vessel is present on the bridge while you are keeping a navigational watch, who would be responsible for the watch? □ A. Lookout B. the master C. the OOW D. Both share the responsibility

205

152.

What type of ships are routeing systems recommended for use? A. All types of ships unless otherwise stated B. Only for those vessels which have difficulty in maneuvering C. Only for large vessels D. For vessels following a convoy

153.

When should a relieving officer take over a watch? A. When the officer being relieved says he has handed over the watch B. Once his vision is fully adjusted to the light C. Both and D. Once he satisfied himself by standing & instructions of master, position, course, speed, draught, tides, currents & navigational situation

154.

If the OOW has any doubt about the pilot's actions, what must he do? A. He should seek clarification from the pilot and if in doubt notify the master and take appropriate action before master arrives B. He should seek clarification from the pilot & if he feels the pilots actions are wrong he should make a report & get it signed by the pilot after pilot

C. He should seek clarification from the pilot and if in doubt notify the master to take appropriate action. D. Inform port control and ask for a change of pilot

155.

On taking over a navigational watch which of the following will you confirm? A. Ships true/estimated position, track, course and speed. B. That the passage plan is complete C. Ships bunkers on board D. That the radar is on

206

156.

Excluding small vessels and where there is no all round view. Which of these would you consider a lookout? A. Men working on deck B. Both and C. Person designated to keep a lookout D. Helmsman

157.

123. When is a vessel required to maintain a lookout ? A. All the time at sea. B. At night and when visibility is reduced. C. From sunset to sunrise. D. When decided bythe Captain.

158.

What is the patent log used for ? A. Indicating distance traveled through the water. B. Indicating wind speed. C. Writing an official record of events on board. D. Indicating ship's time.

159.

With approaching heavy weather, what precautions must be taken with lifeboats? A. Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure. B. Check and tighten all lashings. C. Remove all covers make fast the plug. D. Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters.

207

160.

With approaching heavy weather, name 3 things that must be done on main deck? A. Plug scuppers - throw anything loose on deck overboard - close watertight doors. B. Turn ventilators into wind - switch on power to winches - remove sounding caps. C. Check: all hatches/tank tops are properly secured - all scuppers are clear ventilation pipes closed D. Switch on deck lighting - switch on power to cranes - check all doors are closed and secured.

161.

In preparing for a long passage, what must be done with all the mooring ropes? A. Remove from working areas, store and secure in lockers B. Store on open deck in sheltered place. C. Secure in place on bow and poop deck. D. Moue to the accommodation and secure in the central stores

162.

What signals must a vessel at anchor display? A. Code flag 'a' by day and a red light at night. B. A large black square by day and a flashing white light at night. C. Code flag 'b' by day and a red light at night. D. A black ball hoisted at the bow by day and all around white lights at night.

208

163.

With approaching heavy weather, name three things that must be done with windlass? A. Tighten brakes - cover windlass with canvas - switch on power to windlass B. Open brakes - put windlass in gear - cover windlass with canvas. C. Lash windlass to rails - remove brake handles - switch on power to windlass. D. Tighten brakes-secure cables with wires-take windlass out of gear.

164.

When vessel is at anchor in fog, what is the lookout required to do? A. Keep watch on the bridge using radar and inform the officer of the watch if any vessel appears to be too close. B. Ring anchor bell rapidly every 5 minutes. C. Check the anchor cable at frequent intervals for any sign that the ship may be dragging. D. Make hot drinks for the officer of the watch.

165.

Is the lookout man allowed to leave his post without being relieved? A. No, it is not OK. B. Only for short periods to go to the toilet. C. It depends on the situation D. Yes, it is OK.

209

166.

at is the main duty of the lookout man ? A. To call the master if the officer on watch collapses. B. To assist the officer of the watch in his duties. C. To assist as required with maintenance work. D. To keep alert and report anything seen or heard to the officer of the watch.

167.

What colour are the ship's mast lights? A. Red B. White C. Mixed D. Red and white

168.

What colouris the ship's port or left hand sidelight? A. White B. Yellow C. Green D. Red

169.

What colouris the ship's starboard or right hand sidelight? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green D. White

210

170.

When on bridge lookout duty, what is your first responsibility? A. Clean the bridge B. Be alert, watch and listen C. Serve coffee to the captain D. Seek shelter

171.

When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light sighted at midway between the bow and the starboard beam ? A. Light in middle to starboard B. Light to starboard C. Light 4 points to starboard D. Light sharp to starboard

172.

When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light 22.5 degrees aft of midships on the port side? A. Light astern B. Light four points abaft the port beam C. Light behind on port side D. Light two points abaft the port beam

173.

When a vessel is approaching 'END Or N’, how many side lights would you see? A. Two B. Five C. Three D. Four

211

174.

When a vessel is crossing from port to starboard, what colour sidelight would you see? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. White

175.

When a vessel is crossing from starboard to port, what colour sidelight would you see ? A. Yellow B. Red C. White D. Green

176.

When your vessel is overtaking another, what is the colour of the first light you would see ? A. White B. Green C. Yellow D. Red

177.

How many degrees are there on the rose of a magnetic or gyro compass? A. 420 B. 360 C. 180 D. 270

212

178.

How many points of the compass are there ? A. 36 B. 24 C. 32 D. 40

179.

How many degrees are there in each point of the compass ? A. 12 B. 11.25 C. 15 D. 17.5

180.

How many navigation lights does an ordinary power-driven vessel carry when steaming full ahead? A. 7 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4

181.

What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a masthead light? A. 225 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 210 degrees D. 180 degrees

213

182.

What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a stern light ? A. 135 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 120 degrees D. 150 degrees

183.

When must a vessel place a bridge lookout on duty ? A. At night and in poor visibility B. In poor visibility only C. All day D. At night only

184.

When is a vessel required to maintain a lookout ? A. All the time at sea. B. At night and when visibility is reduced. C. From sunset to sunrise. D. When decided bythe Captain.

185.

What is the patent log used for ? A. Indicating distance traveled through the water. B. Indicating wind speed. C. Writing an official record of events on board. D. Indicating ship's time.

214

186.

With approaching heavy weather, what precautions must be taken with lifeboats ? A. Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure. B. Check and tighten all lashings. C. Remove all covers make fast the plug. D. Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters.

187.

With approaching heavy weather, name 3 things that must be done on main deck ? A. Plug scuppers - throw anything loose on deck overboard - close watertight doors. B. Turn ventilators into wind - switch on power to winches - remove sounding caps. C. Check: all hatches/tank tops are properly secured - all scuppers are clear ventilation pipes closed D. Switch on deck lighting - switch on power to cranes - check all doors are closed and secured.

188.

In preparing for a long passage, what must be done with all the mooring ropes ? A. Remove from working areas, store and secure in lockers B. Store on open deck in sheltered place. C. Secure in place on bow and poop deck. D. Moue to the accommodation and secure in the central stores

215

189.

What signals must a vessel at anchor display ? A. Code flag 'a' by day and a red light at night. B. A large black square by day and a flashing white light at night. C. Code flag 'b' by day and a red light at night. D. A black ball hoisted at the bow by day and all around white lights at night.

190.

When the inboard end of a gangway is resting on the bulwark, what else must be provided ? A. A life buoy with self igniting light. B. A large wooden crate pushed against bulwark. C. A bulwark ladder properly secured and fenced. D. Stanchions.

191.

With approaching heavy weather, name three things that must be done with windlass ? A. Tighten brakes - cover windlass with canvas - switch on power to windlass B. Open brakes - put windlass in gear - cover windlass with canvas. C. Lash windlass to rails - remove brake handles - switch on power to windlass. D. Tighten brakes-secure cables with wires-take windlass out of gear.

216

192.

When vessel is at anchor in fog, what is the lookout required to do? A. Keep watch on the bridge using radar and inform the officer of the watch if any vessel appears to be too close. B. Ring anchor bell rapidly every 5 minutes. C. Check the anchor cable at frequent intervals for any sign that the ship may be dragging. D. Make hot drinks for the officer of the watch.

193.

If this ship was at sea, what would be wrong with this picture ? A. The windlass is not in gear. B. The anchor cable is not clean C. The compression bars are not on the anchor cable. D. There are no covers on the gypsy.

194.

Is the lookout man allowed to leave his post without being relieved ? A. No, it is not OK. B. Only for short periods to go to the toilet. C. It depends on the situation D. Yes, it is OK.

195.

at is the main duty of the lookout man ? A. To call the master if the officer on watch collapses. B. To assist the officer of the watch in his duties. C. To assist as required with maintenance work. D. To keep alert and report anything seen or heard to the officer of the watch.

217

196.

If ordered to steer "east", how many degrees on the compass is it ? A. 045 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 090 degrees

197.

What kind of joining shackle is shown here ?

A. A quick release shackle. B. A lugged shackle. C. A kenter shackle. D. A senhouse shackle.

198.

What is a standard compass ? A. A compass that automatically steers the ship. B. A magnetic compass in a binnacle. C. A gyro compass powered by electricity. D. A compass for indicating wind direction found on the mast.

199.

How would you respond to an order of "steer 045 degrees" from the pilot ? A. Alter course to new heading of 045 degrees. B. Repeat the order then alter course to a new heading of 045 degrees. C. Repeat the order, then alter course until 045 degrees shown on compass, then report "steady on 045 degrees, pilot". D. Turn the wheel until the course is altered by 045 degrees.

218

200.

What is the length of 1 shackle of anchor cable ? A. One tenth of a nautical mile. B. 10 fathoms or 18.5 meters. C. 15 fathoms or 27.5 meters. D. 20 fathoms or 36.5 meters.

201.

Which of these would not need to be done prior to arrival at a berth ? A. Rig the gangway and lower it to about 15cms above the waterline. B. Request power on deck, ensure windlass out of gear with brakes on, run windlass and mooring winch slowly and oil working parts. C. Prepare heaving lines, rope stoppers, chain stoppers, cork or rope fender and ratguards. D. Bring mooring lines out from storage to suitable positions on deck.

202.

What is a gangway used for ? A. To allow safe access to vessel B. For putting over deck cargo to allow access from the accommodation to the forecastle. C. Getting into the vessel's lifeboats or liferafts. D. Loading cargo.

219

203.

Which of the following is not required when a pilot is boarding ? A. A lifeboat swung out on standby. B. A bulwark ladder. C. A heaving line. D. A lifebuoy with light.

204.

In relation the quayside where should the outboard end of gangway rest ? A. Straight out from ship's side across crane tracks. B. In front of the ship's after back spring. C. Right on the edge. D. Clear of cargo working areas and clear of all suspended loads.

205.

Who must supervise the rigging of the pilot ladder and the embarkation/disembarkation of pilot ? A. The AB on watch B. The bosun C. The Captain D. The officer of the watch.

220

206.

How should a pilot ladder 'hang" on ship's side ? A. Flat against ship's side and down to the water's edge. B. Flat against ship's side with lower end of sufficient height above water to allow easy access. C. Flat against ship's side and down just below the waterline. D. At an angle of about 45 degrees towards the stern.

207.

Which of these is an adequate means of access to cargo holds ? A. A mechanical hoist. B. A rope ladder. C. A permanent fitted ladder. D. A long aluminum ladder.

208.

How would you know when 3 shackles of cable have been paid out ? A. By counting the links. B. By locating metal tags. C. By asking the chief mate. D. By locating seizing wire on the link on either side of the joining shackle.

221

209.

How would you respond to an order of 'bard a starboard" from the pilot ? A. Turn the wheel as far as it will go to starboard, then bring the wheel back to midships. B. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel as far as it will go to starboard and report. C. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel as far as it will go to left and report. D. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel to starboard until 25 degrees rudder shown.

210.

Where is the best place onboard to rig a pilot ladder ? A. On deck and as close to midships as possible. B. Near the stern. C. Near the bow. D. From the boat deck.

211.

In relation to weather and sea state, what must a vessel provide when embarking a pilot ? A. That the vessel is head on to sea B. That the pilot ladder is rigged on weather side C. That the pilot ladde is rigged on leeside D. That anchor is ready to let go.

222

212.

When preparing an anchor, what will the bosun do before the vessel arrives at an anchorage ? A. Take the windlass out of gear and hold the anchor on the brake. B. Remove the wire lashings and the cement covers to the chain lockers. C. Hoist the anchoring ball. D. Put power to the windlass and walk the anchor back to just above the water.

213.

What is the primary function of the ship's windlass ? A. Heaving the anchor cable. B. Mooring the ship. C. As an additional winch when required. D. Securing the ship to a tug using the chain.

214.

This vessel is at anchor. What daytime signal must this vessel display ? A. A basket. B. A black cylinder. C. A red and yellow flag. D. A black ball.

215.

In preparing for sea, what must be done with all deck storerooms ? A. Make sure all contents are properly stowed and secured. B. Check with the chief mate or bosun for instructions. C. Lock the doors and post warning notices. D. Lock the doors.

223

216.

When warping or heaving a vessel alongside, how many men are required for each line ? A. Two. B. One. C. Three. D. Four.

217.

How do you secure a fibre rope to bitts ? A. By round turns. B. By a combination of round turns and figure of eights. C. By a bowline knot. D. By a figure eight.

218.

In securing nylon or polyproplene ropes, what must you do ? A. Make two round turns on nearest bitt before making figure of eights. B. Leave the stoppers secured to the mooring ropes. C. Lash the top turns after securing. D. Secure in the same manner as fibre ropes.

219.

Once ship is tied up, what must be put on all mooring lines ? A. Warning notices. B. Self tension winches. C. Extra lashings. D. Rat guards.

224

220.

When boarding a pilot at night, what else must vessel provide ? A. A searchlight or cluster light rigged in such a manner to clearly illuminate the ship side and pilot ladder. B. A flare or intermittent flashing light. C. All of these. D. A strong flashlight with beam directed on pilot ladder.

221.

Beside bow and stern lines, what other lines are used when mooring ? A. Midship lines. B. Back springs. C. Towing springs. D. Gantlines.

222.

How would the helmsman respond to an order "steady” from the pilot ? A. Repeat order and just leave wheel as it is. B. Repeat order and put wheel to midships. C. Repeat order, then apply sufficient wheel to arrest any swing and advise pilot of new course. D. Repeat the order, note the compass course and steady vessel on that course, then report steady on course.

225

223.

How would you respond to an order "starboard ten" ? A. By repeating the order and then executing it. B. By repeating order, turning wheel to starboard until 10 degrees shown on rudder indicator, then reporting "ten degrees starboard, Sir." C. By turning wheel to starboard until 10 degrees is shown on the rudder indicator. D. By turning wheel to the left until 10 degrees shown on rudder indicator.

224.

How would you respond to an order 'midships" ? A. Turn wheel 10 degrees to the left and then return it midships. B. Repeat order and leave wheel where it is. C. Turn the wheel 10 degrees to the right and then return it midships. D. Repeat the order, then bring wheel to midships position and report "wheel amidships, Sir."

225.

When steering by gyro compass, what must a helmsman periodically do ? A. Alter course occasionallyto ensure it is working property. B. Check the gyro compass course against magnetic compass course C. Allow for the rolling of the ship. D. Adjust the speed and latitude settings on the gyro each watch.

226

226.

How do you respond to an order 'bard a port" ? A. Repeat the order then turn wheel to port until 20 degrees shown on the rudder indicator. B. Turn the wheel as far as it will go to port, then bring the wheel back to midships. C. Repeat the order then turn the wheel as far as it will go to port, then report "wheel hard a port, Sir." D. Turn the wheel as far as it will go to the right.

227.

How do you respond to an order 'test steering gear" ? A. Starboard B. By repeating order and turning the wheel hard a port C. By turning wheel a few degrees to port and starboard. D. By repeating order, then turning wheel hard over to port and starboard then back to midships and reporting "Gear in order, Sir."

228.

How do you respond to an order "steer 270 degrees" ? A. Repeat the order then alter course to new heading of 270 degrees. B. Just alter course to new heading of 270 degrees. C. Repeat the order, then alter course and steady vessel on new heading and report "steady on 270 degrees, Sir” D. Turn the wheel until course is altered by 270 degrees.

227

229.

What part of the ship is shown here?

A. A mechanical pilot hoist. B. A pilot ladder. C. A gangway. D. A stairway.

230.

What part is encircled ?

A. The radar scanner. B. The azimuth indicator. C. The radio direction finder. D. The wind speed indicator. 231.

What is the name of the piece of equipment shown in the picture?

A. The windless. B. The capstan. C. A mooring winch. D. The towing gear.

228

232.

What part of this vessel is shown by letter A?

A. A pumproom. B. A stern ramp. C. A pipeline manifold. D. A hatch cover. 233.

How do you respond to an order "steer 10 degrees to port" ?

A. Repeat the order and turn wheel to port until 10 degrees shown on rudder indicator. B. Repeat the order then turn the wheel 10 degrees to port C. Repeat the order, turn the wheel to port and once bow starts swinging ease the wheel steadying the vessel on new course and then report the course. D. Turn the wheel to port until new course appears on compass, then steady ship. 234.

What is this the piece of equipment ? A. A windlass. B. A topping lift. C. A capstan. D. A set of bitts.

229

235.

How do you respond to an order "ease the wheel" ? A. Report the order then turn the wheel slowlytowards midships. B. Repeat the order, then turn the wheel to midships until 5 degrees shown on rudder indicator, then report "wheel eased, Sir." C. Repeat the order, then bring the wheel to midships. D. Repeat the order then turn the wheel until the opposite amount of rudder shown on indicator, then report.

236.

What part of the ship is shown by letter A?

A. A gooseneck. B. A crane topping lift C. A crane pedestal. D. A jib.

237.

What is the aft draft ?

A. 7.5 metres. B. 7 metres 50 centimeters. C. 7 metres 40 centimeters. D. 7 metres 85 centimeters.

230

238.

What is the forward draft ?

A. 7 metres 60 centimeters. B. 7.5 metres. C. 7 metres 65 centimeters. D. 7 metres 70 centimeters.

239.

What signal is being exhibited by this vessel ?

A. A tug restricted in its abitity to maneuver. B. A tug and tow more then 200m. C. A tug not under command. D. A tug constrained by its draft.

240.

How many shackles of cable is indicated here ?

A. 3 shackles. B. 2 shackles. C. 1 shackle. D. 4 shackles.

231

241.

What is the draft ?

A. 8.4m B. 8.5m C. 7.5m D. 7.4m

242.

What is the forward draft ?

A. 7 metres 90 centimeters. B. 7 metres 85 centimeters. C. 7 metres 50 centimeters. D. 8 metres 50 centimeters.

243.

What is a gyro compass ? A. A type of magnetic compass. B. A special compass for emergencies. C. A compass that measures wind direction. D. A compass powered by electricity.

232

244.

What type of boat is in this picture

A. A liferaft. B. A totally enclosed lifeboat. C. An open freefall lifeboat. D. A fast rescue boat. 245.

What are the cardinal points of a compass. A. North East, North West, South East & South West. B. North, South, East and West. C. East and West. D. North and South.

246.

What is the part marked with the square called?

A. A lifeboat catcher. B. A lifeboat fall. C. A lifeboat davit. D. A lifeboat painter.

233

247.

What is the forward draft ?

A.

7

metres

40

centimeters. B. 4 metres. C. 7 metres 4 centimeters. D. 8 metres 4 centimeters.

248.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A.

Echo

B. Bravo C. Mike D. Oscar

249.

What kind of vessel may sound a fog signal consisting of four short blasts ? A. A vessel constrained by her draught B. A vessel being towed C. A vessel engaged on pilotage duty D. A fishing vessel

234

250.

After putting the windlass in gear, what must you do next? A. Start the electrical convertor B. Ring the anchor bell C. Start the windlass D. Open the brake

251.

What colour are the ship's mast lights? A. Red B. White C. Mixed D. Red and white

252.

What colour is the ship's port or left hand sidelight? A. White B. Yellow C. Green D. Red

253.

What colour is the ship's starboard or right hand sidelight? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green D. White

254.

When on bridge lookout duty, what is your first responsibility? A. Clean the bridge B. Be alert, watch and listen C. Serve coffee to the captain 235

D. Seek shelter 255.

When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light sighted at midway between the bow and the starboard beam ? A. Light in middle to starboard B. Light to starboard C. Light 4 points to starboard D. Light sharp to starboard

256.

When on bridge lookout duty, how would you report a light 22.5 degrees aft of midships on the port side? A. Light astern B. Light four points abaft the port beam C. Light behind on port side D. Light two points abaft the port beam

257.

When a vessel is approaching 'END OrN’, how many side lights would you see? A. Two B. Five C. Three D. Four

258.

When a vessel is crossing from port to starboard, what colour sidelight would you see? A. Green B. Red C. Yellow D. White

236

259.

When a vessel is crossing from starboard to port, what colour sidelight would you see ? A. Yellow B. Red C. White D. Green

260.

When your vessel is overtaking another, what is the colour of the first light you would see ? A. White B. Green C. Yellow D. Red

261.

When would you use a fid? A. When splicing a mooring line B. When securing hatch covers C. When mixing paint D. When chipping paint on deck

262.

When joining two ropes, what type of splice do you use? A. A French splice B. A short splice C. A long splice D. An eye splice

237

263.

How many degrees are there on the rose of a magnetic or gyro compass? A. 420 B. 360 C. 180 D. 270

264.

How many points of the compass are there ? A. 36 B. 24 C. 32 D. 40

265.

How many degrees are there in each point of the compass ? A. 12 B. 11.25 C. 15 D. 17.5

266.

How many feet are there in a fathom? A. 6 B. 4 C. 9 D. 12

267.

How many fathoms are there in one shackle or shot of the anchor cable? A. 18 B. 15 C. 20 D. 10

238

268.

How many navigation lights does an ordinary power-driven vessel carry when steaming full ahead? A. 7 B. 5 C. 3 D. 4

269.

What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a masthead light? A. 225 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 210 degrees D. 180 degrees

270.

What is the arc (angle) of visibility of a sternlight ? A. 135 degrees B. 270 degrees C. 120 degrees D. 150 degrees

271.

When must a vessel place a bridge lookout on duty ? A. At night and in poor visibility B. In poor visibility only C. All day D. At night only

239

272.

When told to rig a pilot ladder, which side do you choose? A. the weather side B. Close to the stern C. Either side D. The lee side

273.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Bravo B. Zulu C. Uniform D. Alfa

274.

If a ballast tank has just been emptied, within the last hour, would you still need to test the space for oxygen ? A. No, ballast tanks never need to be tested for oxygen content. B. It is up to the captain or authorized officer. C. Yes, all enclosed spaces should be tested. D. No, in this circumstance the atmosphere would contain tifficient oxygen.

240

275.

What action should be taken immediately in the event of an oil tank spill when loading ? A. Stand by the fire fighting equipment in case of ignition. B. The spilled oil on deck should be recovered and action taken to stop any further spillage. C. Reduced the level in the tank by gravity transfer to a slack tank. D. Notify the terminal and stop loading.

276.

Which deckhands are not permitted to work aloft ? A. All ordinary seamen. B. Cadets or apprentices.. C. Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience D. All of these.

277.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Dangerous when wet. B. Poisonous. C. Chemicals. D. Corrosive.

241

278.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Radioactive. B. Flammable. C. Explosive. D. Dangerous gas.

279.

What does this sign mean ?

A. An oxidizing agent. B. Dangerous when exposed to air. C. Contains oxygen. D. A surface burning fuel.

280.

A container with this warning sign would contain which type of hazard ?

A. Marine pollutant. B. Explosive. C. Toxic. D. Radioactive. 242

281.

What part is shown by letter D ?

A. The gripes. B. The brake. C. The bowsing tackle. D. The fall block. 282.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Compressed air. B. LPG. C. Highly flammable compressed gas. D. Non flammable compressed gas.

283.

What does this sign mean?

A. Emergency signals. B. Rocket line throwing apparatus. C. Survival craft pyrotechnics. D. Rocket parachute flares. 243

284.

When working over ship's side on staging, what other equipment besides a safety harness should be worn? A. A life jacket. B. No other equipment is necessary. C. Waterproof overalls. D. Box type or wrap around goggles.

285.

When must you wear breathing apparatus ? A. When entering a space suspected to be deficient in oxygen. B. When required to go under water. C. When cleaning holds after a grain cargo. D. When spray painting or grit blasting.

286.

When must you wear a safety harness ? A. When at mooring stations. B. When working in lower hold. C. When working aloft or over the side of the ship. D. When opening hatches.

287.

What protective equipment must be issued to each deckhand for everyday use ? A. Safety hat, work gloves, safety shoes. B. Chemical resistant, fire resistant jacket. C. Safety harness, lifeline. D. Breathing apparatus, resuscitators.

244

288.

What is the minimum rest period needed to maintain health and avoid fatigue ? A. Not less than twelve (12) hours a day. B. Not less than six hours in any 24 hour period. C. Not less than ten hours in any 24 hour period. D. Not less than 4 hours a day but not every day of the week.

289.

What is a permit to work ? A. Work orders from the senior officers. B. A complete check on preparedness prior to start of work. C. The recommendations of the ship's safety committee. D. A notification that you are qualified to carry out the work.

290.

What does this sign mean ? A. Start air supply. B. Stream sea anchor. C. Food rations are located here. D. Radio direction finder is operating.

291.

Which of these gasses would carry this sign ?

A. Hydrogen. B. Argon. C. Propane. D. Acetylene.

245

292.

You need to anchor a ship in 80 meters of open water. How much chain should you use ? A. 5 shackles. B. 11 shackles. C. 8 shackles. D. 6 shackles.

293.

When ordered by pilot to 'meet her or check her", how should the helmsman respond ? A. By repeating the order and turning the wheel to midships. B. By repeating the order, then turn wheel not more than 10 degrees against the swing of the ship. C. By repeating the order and turning wheel hard over in opposite direction to arrest swing. D. By repeating the order and calling out the ship's heading.

246

3. Use of radar and ARPA to maintain safety of navigation (Penggunaan radar dan ARPA untuk menjaga keselamatan navigasi)

1.

Which are the four main elements of a radar system?

A. Transmitter, servo link, target,display B. Transmitter, Servo link, antenna , display C. Transmitter, Antenna, receiver, display D. Transmitter, servo link, antenna, target

2.

Which of these factors govern the echo presentation?

A. Characteristics of the display B. All of these. C. Characteristics of the receiver D. Characteristics of the Transmitter 3.

Which of these are the characteristics of the transmitter that govern the echo presentation?

A. Size and shape ; material ; construction ; Height above sea surface B. Type of amplifier and its sensitivity, band w/,amount of cleaning applied to the echo train, limiting/ differentiation applied to video signal pulse

C. Polarization of radiated pulse, width of the apeture, type of apeture, height above sea surface

D. The frequency of transmitted energy ,The peak power of pulse, no. of pulses transmitted per second and the length of the pulse

4.

What determines the number of pulses that strike a target ?

A. The size of the target , Distance from the scanner,Scanner rotational speed B. The size of the target , Distance from the scanner,media through which energy passes

C. The scanner rotational speed, aperture size of the aerial & PRF of the transmitter.

D. The scanner rotational speed, aperture size of the aerial & size of target. 247

5.

What is the vertical angle between the upper and lower edges of the radar beam?

A. Vertical band width B. Vertical beam width C. Horizontal beam width D. Horizontal band width 6.

What should be the performance standards of a radar so that it should function without deterioration in performance when the vessel is rolling or pitching?

A. Upto +/-10deg Rolling or pitching B. Upto +/-20deg Rolling or pitching C. Upto +/-30deg Rolling or pitching D. Upto +/-25deg Rolling or pitching

7.

The number of pulses sent out bythe scanner in one second is called:

A. Pulse repetition frequency B. Pulse length C. Pulsation D. Pulse width 8.

What are 10cm radars called?

A. L band B. X band C. S band D. M band 9.

What are the two main factors that influence the path of travel and energy content of radar energy that has left the scanner ?

A. Pulse repletion frequency & pulse length B. Pulse width and pulse length C. Attenuation and diffraction D. VBW & HBW

248

10.

How is attenuation affected when using waves of shorter wavelength?

A. Attenuation is less B. There is no Attenuation C. Attenuation is always the same D. Attenuation is greater 11.

What is the range discrimination of a radar set of pulse length 60metres?

A. 30 metres B. 20 metres C. 60 metres D. 90 metres 12.

What is the ability of a radar set to clearly distinguish two targets, on the same range and slightly different bearings, as two separate targets on the PPI known as?

A. Maximum range B. Minimum range C. Bearing discrimination D. Range discrimination 13.

What is the value beyond which bearing discrimination should not exceed as per performance standards or navigational radar?

A. 25 degv B. 5.2 deg C. 2.5 deg D. 52 deg 14.

On what factors does the minimum detection range of a radar set depend on?

A. Power of the set, Height of scanner,tlature of targets,Weather effects B. Height of scanner,PRF, Pulse length, VBM C. Anomalous propagation, Sea and awell D. Pulse length, De-ionisation delay,VBW and height of scanner.

249

15.

As per performance standards for navigational radar , what should be the bearing accuracy?

A. plus or minus 1/2 deg B. plus or minus 1deg C. plus or minus 2 1/2 deg D. plus or minus 2 deg 16.

In what type of waveform does the current go from zero to maximum slowly but very steadily?

A. Square waveform B. Direct current waveform C. Saw- tooth wave form D. Spike waveform 17.

Which part of the radar is a high power RF oscillator capable of being switched on and off for short durations at the desired PRF, by the pulses from the modulator?

A. TR cell B. Local oscillator C. Magnetron D. Mixer 18.

As per performance standards for Navigational radar, what are the requirements for a scanner

A. tt should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 30 in relative wind speeds upto 100 kts.

B. It should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 12 in relative wind speeds upto 100 kts.

C. It should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 20 in relative wind speeds upto100 kts.

D. It should rotate at a constant rpm of not less than 40 in relative wind speeds upto 100 kts.

250

19.

Which control on the radar is used to suppress clutter?

A. Gain B. Anti- clutter C. Differentiator D. Tuning 20.

Which of these is also called calibration rings?

A. Expand center B. Variable range marker C. Range ring D. Electronic bearing marker 21.

What is used to control the amplification of echoes received?

A. Gain B. Brilliance C. Differentiator D. Focus 22.

For unstabilized display, if the diametric line of the mechanical cursor is made to pass over a target, then the reading where the line intersects the outer fixed scale is the bearing of the target which is:

A. True bearing B. Magnetic bearing C. Compass bearing D. Relative bearing 23.

Which of these controls is provided to check the overall efficiency of the radar?

A. Centre shift B. Range selector C. Performance monitor D. Pulse length selector

251

24.

How does height above sea level influence the range of detection of a target?

A. Higher objects are sometimes never detected whereas lower objects at same range are always detected.

B. Higher objects are detected at the same distance as lower objects. C. Higher objects are detected at a lesser distance than lower objects. D. Higher objects are detected further away than lower objects. 25.

What type of refraction will be experienced, when a cold breeze blows over a relatively warm sea?

A. Normal refraction B. Sub refraction C. super refraction D. Ducting 26.

What is the name given to unwanted radial lines that sometimes appear on the radar screen?

A. Ranging B. Spoking C. Starring D. Racking 27.

What is used as a portable, plotting device which is clamped on top of the radar screen?

A. Plotting chart B. Plotting sheet C. Radar reflector D. Reflection plotter

252

28.

Which of these glues only a bearing and not a range?

A. Buoy B. Lt vessel C. Ramark D. Racon 29.

In what type of display, the zero of the fixed scale of the PPI represents the true north and the heading marker represents the true course of the ship?

A. Course up display B. North up display C. Head up display D. Both a & b 30.

Which of these is a result of true motion display?

A. CPA and time directly obtained B. CPA and time obtained only by plotting triangle of relative velocities C. All objects move relatively on the PPI D. Course, speed and aspect of any target obtained only by plotting of triangle of relative velocities

31.

Which of these input information is not required to carry out a Trial manoeuuer?

A. A delay B. The proposed position of the target C. The proposed speed D. The proposed course 32.

What is used to warn the observer if any distinguishable target closes to a range or transits a zone chosen by the observer?

A. Collision course warning B. Cpa warnings C. Target lost warning D. Guard rings and zones

253

33.

What can be used on the radar screen to eliminate automatic plotting in selected areas?

A. Predicted areas of danger B. Potential collision points C. Area rejection boundaries D. Guard zones 34.

What can be used to set navigational limits, deleniate danger areas or may be set to assist with parallel ndexing techniques?

A. Potential collision points B. Navigation lines C. Tracking and acquisition limits D. Guard zones 35.

The points at which collision can occur may be defined and depend on two factors. What are they?

A. The size & position of the two ships B. The speed ratio & size of the two ships C. External factors & size of the ship D. The speed ratio & position of the two ships 36.

Which are the two most important input information required to operate the ARPA accurately?

A. Heading and GMT time B. GMT time and speed. C. Speed and heading D. Position and GMT time 37.

What is the typical amount of time an ARPA would take to process and predict data which is stored?

A. 5 to 10 min B. 20 to 30 min C. 1 to 3 min. D. 10 to 20 min

254

38.

As the ship rolls,pitches and yaws the apparent center of its radar echo moues over the full ship's length. What is this called?

A. Glint B. Backlash C. Azimuth quantization error D. Parallax 39.

What indicates the true movement of the target being tracked?

A. Relative vector B. True vector C. Neither nor D. Both and 40.

In which case would it appear that all moving targets being tracked are also on the spot depicting the own ship?

A. True vector B. Neither nor C. Both cases Option 1> and D. Relative vector 41.

How will the position of the collision point be influenced due to incorrect speed input?

A. Collision point will appear on a different heading and correct range. B. Collision point will appear on a different heading and an incorrect range. C. Collision point will still appear on the heading marker and at the correct range. D. Collision point will still appear on the heading marker but at an incorrect range. 42.

When arpas are used and if the speed input is frm a floppier log, then the displayed true tracks would be:

A. sea stabilized B. Neither nor C. ground stabilized D. Both cases Option 1> and

255

43.

If automatic acquisition is provided, how many targets should an ARPA be able to automatically track, process and simultaneously display and continuously update the information on?

A. 2 targets B. 10 targets C. 20 targets D. 5 targets 44.

If manual acquisition is provided, how many targets should an ARPA be able to automaticallytrack, process and simultaneously display and continuously update the information on?

A. 5 targets B. 2 targets C. 20 targets D. 10 targets 45.

What should be the size of the display on which ARPA information is presented?

A. Display diameter should be at least 200 mm B. Display diameter should be at least 250 mm C. Display diameter should be at least 300 mm D. Display diameter should be at least 340 mm 46.

What are the minimum range scales on which the ARPA facilities should be made available?

A. 12 or 16 B. neither nor C. both and D. 3 or 4 47.

After changing range scales on which the ARPA facilities are available or resetting the display, in what period of time should full plotting information be displayed?

A. a period of time not exceeding ten scans B. a period of time not exceeding four scans C. a period of time not exceeding fourteen scans D. a period of time not exceeding twelve scans 256

48.

What is the effect of a radar reflector on a buoy?

A. it strengthens the reflectivity of the target B. is used to provide a unique signal C. it acts as a ramark D. it weakens the reflectivity of the target 49.

When obtaining a fix, which is more accurate?

A. A fix obtained by bearing and range. B. The intersection of the arcs obtained using the ranges from the objects as radii C. a fix obtained by cross bearing D. All of the other options are equally accurate. 50.

What is the rate at which two moving objects approach or separate from each other called?

A. Relative bearing B. Relative movement C. Relative speed D. Relative distance 51.

your vessel , while proceeding north at 15 knots, observed by radar a stationary target, what would be the approximate direction and rate at which the pip would moue on your PPI scope?

A. North at 15 knots B. South at 15 knots C. South at 7 1/2 knots D. Stationary 52.

If your vessel , while proceeding east at 10 knots, observed by radar a vessel proceeding west at 10 knots, what would be the approximate direction and rate at which the pip would moue on your PPI scope?

A. Stationary B. West at 20 knots C. West at 10 knots D. East at 20 knots 257

53.

If your vessel , while proceeding south at 10 knots, observed by radar a vessel proceeding south at 10 knots, what would be the approximate direction and rate at which the pip would moue on your PPI scope?

A. South at tOknots B. Stationary C. South at 20knots D. North at 20knots 54.

Which of these does not limit the effective range of the radar?

A. The PRF B. The signal to noise ratio C. Peak power of the set D. Pulse width 55.

On which of these factors does bearing resolution depend on?

A. VBW B. PRF C. Peak power of the set D. HBW 56.

Which of these range scales would you use in a congested channel?

A. 1 to 6 miles B. 24 miles C. 18miles D. 12 miles 57.

Which of these factors would cause blind sectors on the PPI scope?

A. Too much of vibrations B. Other transmissions taking place at the same time C. beam of radar energy is obstructed by a mast D. scanner speed is a little slower than normal

258

58.

What is the selection of those targets requiring a tracking procedure and the intention of their tracking called?

A. Target predicted motion B. Detection C. Tacking D. Rcquisation 59.

What measures may be taken to minimize dangers from blind spots?

A. Frequent change of PRF from low to high and vice versa and observing results on the screen

B. Frequent change of gain , by increasing or decreasing and observing results on the screen

C. Frequent change of sea clutter by increasing and decreasing and observing results on the screen

D. Frequent tuning of the radar set and observing results on the screen 60.

Which search pattern combines the use of both aircraft and surface units where the surface unit proceeds along the major axis of the search area while the air units plan their advance to match the ships movement?

A. Sector search pattern B. Parallel search pattern C. Expanded square search pattern D. Co-ordinated creeping line search 61.

Who should maintain and control inter ship communication during a search and rescue operation?

A. Nearest coast station B. Co-ordinator surface search C. Ship that first arrives at the site D. Rescue Co-ordination center 62.

Who should conn the vessel at the time of a search and rescue operation?

A. Call for a pilot to do this B. Master C. The second in command (CH. Officer) D. Duty officer 259

63.

The detection range of surface targets is decreased when radar waves touch the earth's surface at a point closer than the standard horizon. What type of refraction is this?

A. sub refraction B. normal refraction C. ducting D. super refraction 64.

Target detection ranges are considerably reduced due to shipboard structures like the Samson posts etc. What are such areas known as?

A. Blind sectors B. Shadow areas C. Blind areas D. Shadow sectors 65.

(Sometimes shipboard obstructions such as masts, funnels etc reflect radar energy and the echo painted on the PPI shows a different direction but the same range. What is this type of echo known as?

A. Indirect echo B. Side lobe echo C. Multiple echo D. Second trace echo 66.

When two tracked targets are very close to each other, the data of one target shifts over to the other target. What is this called?

A. Plotting B. Target swap C. Target loss D. Trial manoeuvre

260

67.

What type of scanner is shown here?

A. Slotted wave guide. B. Parabolic mesh. C. Parabolic plate. D. Cheese.

68.

What does this control on the radar indicate? (see figure)

A. Tuning. B. Anti-clutter. C. Transmitted power monitor. D. Performance monitor.

69.

What is this on the PPI? (see figure)

A. Raymark. B. Clearing bearing. C. Clearing line. D. Racon.

261

70.

What is no.4 ? (see figure)

A. Delay line. B. Power supplies. C. Modulator. D. Magnetron

71.

What type of spurious echoes are these? (see figure)

A. Multiple echoes. B. Side lobe echoes. C. Indirect echoes. D. Second trace echoes.

72.

What does the above diagram indicate? (see figure)

A. USW. B. Range discrimination. C. Minimum range. D. Bearing discrimination.

262

73.

What is this mark? (see figure)

A. Lt vessel B. Racon C. Ramark D. Signal from SART.

74.

What is no.12 ? (see figure)

A. Mixer B. Trace blanking. C. Scanner. D. CRT

263

75.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.2

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 3 - 3.9 mile

miles

76.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 mile

D.

Between 3 - 3.9

miles

77.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 46 - 60

B.

Between 21 - 30

C.

Now or passed

minutes

minutes

D. Between 11 - 20 minutes

264

78.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.Between 3 - 3.9 miles B. Between 2 - 2.9 miles C. Less than 0.9 miles D. Between 1 - 2 miles

79.

80.

81.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 4 miles

B.

Less than 0.9 miles

C.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Less than 0.9 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 – 3.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

265

82.

83.

84.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

D.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

A.

Starboard bow (Green 15-

B.

End on or nearly end on

C.

Port beam (Red 75-105)

D.

Port quarter (Red 105-

What is the aspect of the target A ?

75)

160)

85.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 3 miles

266

86.

87.

88.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

D.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

A.

Starboard quarter (Green

B.

Port bow (Red 15-75)

C.

Starboard bow (Green 15-

What is the aspect of the target A ?

105-160)

75) D. Port quarter (Red 105-160)

267

89.

90.

91.

92.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 mile

D.

Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mites

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 2.1 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Less than 0.9 miles

268

93.

94.

95.

96.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

B.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 40 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Between 2 - 4 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 2.1 - 2.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Less than 1 mile

C.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

D.

Between 3 - 4 miles

269

97.

98.

99.

100.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Less than 1 mile

C.

Between 2 - 4 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 3 - 4 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 2 - 4 miles

B.

Less than 0.9 miles

C.

More than 4 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

2What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Less than 0.9 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

E.

270

101.

102.

103.

104.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

More than 4 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Between 3 - 4 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target C ? A.

More than 5 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 4 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

B.

Now or Passed

C.

Between 20 - 30 minutes

D.

Between 5 - 15 minutes

30. Which target will have the closest point of approach? A.

Target A

B.

All Equal

C.

Target B

D.

Target C

271

105.

106.

107.

108.

What is the closest point of approach of target C ? A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

More than 3 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 mile

D.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Between 2 - 4 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target B

B.

Target C

C.

All equal

D.

Target A

What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

B.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Less than 1 mile

272

109.

110.

111.

112.

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target A

B.

All equal

C.

Target B

D.

Target C

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

More than 5 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

More than 5 miles

B.

Between 2 - 4 miles

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Less than 1 mile

What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ? A.

Between

11

-

20

B.

Between

21

-

30

C.

Between

31

-

45

minutes

minutes

minutes D. Between 0 - 10 minute

273

113.

114.

115.

116.

Which target will have the closest point of approach? A.

Target A

B.

Target C

C.

All equal

D.

Target B

What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 2 - 3 miles

D.

Between 1 - 2 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target B

B.

Target C

C.

All equal

D.

Target A

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 1 - 1.9 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

274

117.

118.

119.

120.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

All equal

C.

Target A

D.

Target C

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Between 4 - 5 miles

B.

Between 3 - 4 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Less than 0.9 mile

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target C

B.

Target B

C.

Target A

D.

All Equal

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

All equal

B.

Target C

C.

Target A

D.

Target B

275

121.

122.

123.

124.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target B

B.

Target A

C.

All Equal

D.

Target C

What is the closest point of approach of target C ? A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 3 - 4 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target C

B.

Target A

C.

Target B

D.

All equal

What is the time to closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

276

125.

What is the aspect of the target C ? A.

Starboard beam. (75-105)

B.

Starboard bow. (Green 15-

C.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

D.

Port beam. (Red 75-105)

75)

126.

If the visibility is 10 miles, what action should be taken ? A.

A broad alteration to port

B.

A substantial reduction of

C.

A

D.

Stand on

speed broad

alteration

to

starboard

127.

128.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target C

B.

Target B

C.

All the same

D.

Target A

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target B

B.

Target F

C.

All the same

D.

Target D

277

129.

130.

131.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target D

B.

Target B

C.

Target C

D.

Target A

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target F

B.

Target D

C.

Target B

D.

Target E

A.

End on or nearly end on

B.

Port beam. (Red 75-105)

C.

Starboard bow. (Green 15-

D.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

What is aspect of the target B ?

75)

132.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target B

B.

Target A

C.

Target F

D.

Target D

E.

278

133.

134.

135.

136.

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

More than 5 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 15 - 30 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

D.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Targat D

B.

Target E

C.

Target C

D.

Target B

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 2 - 3 miles

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Between 1 - 1.9 miles

279

137.

138.

139.

140.

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Less than 0.9 mile

B.

Between 2 - 3 miles

C.

Between 4-5 miles

D.

Between 1 -1.9 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

More than 4 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 1 mile

D.

Between 3 - 4 miles

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 mites

B.

Less than 1 mile

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Between 2 - 3 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

D.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

280

141.

142.

143.

144.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ? A.

Target C

B.

Target B

C.

Target D

D.

Target A

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

B.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

C.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

D.

Now or passed

What is the closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Between 2 - 3 miles

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Now or passed

D.

Less than 0.9 miles

Which target will have the closest point of approach?

A.

Target B

B.

Target F

C.

Target C

D.

Target E

281

145.

146.

147.

148.

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Less than 0.9 mite

B.

Between 4 - 5 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

More than 5 miles

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

B.

Now or passed

C.

Between 10 - 20 minutes

D.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

What is the closest point of approach of target A ? A.

Between 3 - 4 miles

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Less than 0.9 miles

D.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

What is the aspect of the target B ? A.

Port beam. (Red 75-

B.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

C.

Starboard beam (Green

105)

75-105) D. Starboard bow. (Green 15-75)

282

149.

150.

151.

152.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ? A.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

B.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

C.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

Target E

C.

Target A

D.

Target C

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target C

B.

Target A

C.

Target B

D.

Target D

What is the closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 0.5 - 1.5 miles

B.

More than 5 miles

C.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles.

283

153.

154.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target C ?

A.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Now or passed

D.

Between 0 - 10 minutes

A.

Port bow. (Red 15-75)

B.

Starboard bow. (Green 15-

C.

End on or nearly end on

D.

Stern or nearly astern

What is the aspect of the target C ?

75)

155.

156.

What is the closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

Between 3 - 4 miles

D.

Less than 1 mile

If the visibility is restricted, what action should be taken in this situation ?

A.

A substantial reduction of

B.

A broad alteration to port

C.

A

peed

broad

alteration

of

course to starboard D. Stand on with caution

284

157.

158.

159.

160.

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target A

B.

Target C

C.

Target B

D.

Target D

A.

Starboard bow. (15 - 75)

B.

Port bow. (15 - 75)

C.

End on or nearly end on

D.

Stern or nearly astern

What is the aspect of the target B ?

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target A

B.

Target C

C.

Target D

D.

Target B

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 3 - 3.9 miles

B.

Between 2 - 2.9 miles

C.

Between 1 - 2 miles

D.

Now or passed

285

161.

162.

163.

164.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

D.

Now or passed

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

Target F

C.

Target E

D.

Target D

What is the time of closest point of approach of target B ?

A.

Now or passed

B.

Between 31 - 45 minutes

C.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

D.

Between 21 - 30 minutes

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 1 - 2 miles

B.

Now or passed

C.

Between 4 - 5 miles

D.

Less than 0.9 mile

286

165.

166.

167.

What is the time of closest point of approach of target A ?

A.

Between 31 - 46 minutes

B.

Between 46 - 60 minutes

C.

Now or passed

D.

Between 11 - 20 minutes

Which target will have the closest point of approach ?

A.

Target B

B.

Target C

C.

Target A

D.

Target D

What is the closest point of approach of target A ?

168.

A.

Less than 1 mile

B.

Between 1 - 2 miles

C.

More than 5 miles

D.

Between 4 - 5 miles

In the equation d = (t x s) r2, the quantity S is:

A. The speed of the radar waves B. The diameter of the radar screen C. The width of the scanner D. The range scale in use

287

169.

The bright spot which forms the trace or timebase moues across the radar screen at a speed equivalent to:

A. The speed of the radar waves B. Twice the speed of the radar waves C. Half the speed of the radar waves D. A continuously variable speed

170.

The purpose of radar is to enable:

A. The wave-lengths of radio waves to be calculated B. The echoes of targets to be separated C. The speed of radio waves to be measured D. The range and bearing of objects to be obtained

288

171.

Radar uses pulse transmission in order to:

A. avoid interference B. counteract bad weather C. detect close range targets D. Conserve energy

172.

A typical radar pulse length is:

A. 0.05 to 1.25 microseconds B. 10.25 to 15.05 microseconds C. 0.05 to 10.25 microseconds D. 1.23 to 5.03 microseconds

173.

Radar does not transmit continuously because it would:

A. prevent detection of targets B. reduce the life of components C. cause interference to other vessels D. make the equipment get very hot

289

174.

A typical pulse repetition frequency is:

A. 500 to 3000 pulses per second B. 3000 to 6000 pulses per second C. 100 to 500 pulses per second D. 6000 to 8500 pulses per second

175.

Target ranges are obtained from:

A.

the range marker

B. the heading marker C. the bearing marker D. the pulse repetition frequency

176.

Targets echoes appear along a line called the :

A. scanner B. timebase C. heading marker D. centre line

290

177.

To provide accurate target bearings the radar beam must be :

A. wide in the vertical plane B. narrow in the horizontal plane C. narrow in the vertical plane D. wide in the horizontal plane

178.

Accurate target bearings are obtained by:

A. making the radar beam wide horizontally B. synchronizing the radar beam and the trace C. rotating the trace intermittently D. making the radar beam wide vertically

179.

A reference for target bearings is provided by a line on the radar screen called the :

A. heading marker B. timebase C. centre line D. scanner line

291

180.

A complete oscillation of a radio wave is called :

A. The frequency B. A cycle C. The wavelength D.The amplitude

181.

The

horizontal

distance

between

the

adjacent crests of a radio wave is called :

A. the frequency B. the amplitude C. a cycle D. the wavelength

182.

Malt the vertical distance between the crest and the trough of a radio wave is called:

A. The frequency B. The amplitude C. The wavelength D. a cycle

292

183.

The number of cycles of a radio wave which pass a fixed point in a given time is called :

A. The amplitude B. The speed C. The wavelength D. The frequency

184.

A radar with a wavelength of 3.2 cm would have a frequency of about :

A. 9,375 MHz B. 12,450 MHz C. 3,245 MHz D. 6,060 MHz

185.

S-band radar has a wavelength of

A. 12.5 to 12.9 cm B. 5.0 to 5.4 cm C. 3.1 to 3.2 cm D. 9.2 to 10 cm

293

186.

Marine radar wavelengths are measured in

A. megahertz. B. microseconds. C. feet per second. D. centimeters.

187.

Most

commonly

ships'

radars

operate in the :

A. A - band B. X - band C. 0 - band D. S – band

188.

In addition to X - band and S - band radar, another wavelength less commonly used is :

A. F- band B. E - band C. C - band D. D – band

294

189.

The unit which radiates the radar pulse is the:

A. scanner B. receiver C. display D. transmitter

190.

The main component in the display unit is the :

A. scanner B. cathode ray unit C. waueguide D. T/R cell

191.

The main component of the transmitter is the:

A. antenna B. cathode ray tube C. agnetron D. power supply

295

192.

The purpose of the transmitter unit is to : A. conduct the radar pulses to the scanner B. detect the returning radar pulses C. radiate the radar pulses D. generate the radar pulses

193.

The transmitter P.R.F. is determined by the :

A. delay line B. modulator C. magnetron D. trigger unit

194.

Besides initiating the action of the transmitter, the trigger unit also sends a pulse to the:

A. display to start the tirnebase. B. receiver to start the local oscillator. C. scanner to start scanner rotation. D. waveguide to open the T/R. cell.

296

195.

The

transmitted

pulse

length

is

determined by the action of the :

A. trigger unit B. magnetron C. modulator D. delay line

196.

The function of the modulator is to :

A. pass D.C. pulses to the magnetron B. store the energy from the power supplies C. initiate the action of the T:ft cell D. cut off the trigger unit after each pulse

197.

The

transmitted

frequency

is

determined by the design of the :

A. waveguide B. T:R cell C. magnetron D. scanner

297

198.

The magnetron sends the R.F. pulses to the :

A. display unit B. scanner unit C. transmitter unit D. receiver unit

199.

The unit which sends returning ragets echoes to the receiver is the:

A. scanner unit B. transmitter unit C. power supply unit D. display unit

200.

The function of the waueguide is to : A. shape the beam in vertical plane B. generate the R.F. pulses C. conduct pulses to and from the scanner D. block the transmitter during reception

201.

The purpose of the TM cell is to : A. paint the heading marker on the display B. protect the receiver during transmission C. radiate the radar pulses to the targets D. shape the beam in the horizontal plane

298

202.

The commonest type of radar scanner is the :

A. Horizontal slotted waveguide B. lifted parabolic cylinder C. Double cheese D. Single cheese

203.

The display trace is caused to rotate in synchronisation with the scanner by a signal from the :

A. selsyn generator B. heading marker contacts C. scanner motor D. duplexer

204.

Incoming target echoes are detected by the :

A. video amplifier B. I.F. amplifier C. mixer crystal D. local oscillator

299

205.

Signals are converted to a suitable form for the display by the :

A. mixer crystal B. I.F. amplifier C. video amplifier D. local oscillator

206.

The function of the local oscillator is to :

A. convert the target echoes from an AC to a DC signal B. limit the strength of the stronger target echoes C. carry out final amplification of the echoes D. provide a frequency for mixing with the target signals

207.

The purpose of the anodes in the CRT. is to :

A. deflect the electrons to the edge of the screen B. attract the electrons to the screen C. cause the screen to glow when hit by electrons D. focus to a sharp point at the screen

300

208.

The

intermediate

frequency

is

generated by the :

A. selsyn generator B. mixer crystal C. magnetron D. local oscillator

209.

The intensity of the electron beam in the C.R.T. is controlled by:

A. varying the potential on the grid B. passing a current through the deflection coil C. a signal from the time unit D. the action of the first anode

210.

A function of the deflection coils in a C.R.T. is to :

A. focus the electron to a sharp image B. cause the electrons to form the trace C. control the flow D. return the electrons from the screen to the cathode

301

211.

Target echoes are received in the display unit in the form of :

A. a signal from the scanner to the deflection coil B. a pulse from the brightening unit to the cathode C. a current from the final anode to the screen D. an increase potential to the grid

212.

The trace on the display rotates:

A. In synchronization with the scanner B. at half the speed of the scanner C. Independently of the scanner D. at twice the speed of the scanner

213.

The

radar

beamwidth

is

partly

determined by:

A. The rotation speed of the scanner B. The number of slots in the waueguide C. The length of the waueguide D. The size of the magnetron

302

214.

The electrons in the Cathode Ray Tube ( CRT) are attracted :

A. from the cathode to the anodes B. from the anodes to the cathodes C. from the grid to the anodes D. from the grid to the cathode

215.

The brilliance control of a Cathod Ray Tube ( CRT) operates on :

A. the deflection coil B. the anode C. the grid D. the cathode

216.

The purpose of the gain control is to adjust :

A. the amplification of the target echoes B. the sharpness of the display focus C. the brightness of the display control D. the frequency of the local oscillator

303

217.

On

a

radar

display,

this

symbol

identifies the :

A. focus control B. tuning control C. gain control D. brilliance control

218.

The tuning control adjusts:

A. the amplification of target echoes B. the transmitted frequency C. the amplification of power output D. the frequency of the local oscillator

219.

The effect of the anti-sea clutter control is to :

A. reduce the size of all echoes B. reduce the strength of close range echoes C. reduce the strength of all echoes D. reduce the size of close range echoes

304

220.

If the trace is not correctly centered, error may occur when :

A. measuring bearings B. using the gain control C. using the tuning control D. measuring ranges

221.

Echoes from rain can be reduced using the :

A. tuning control B. brilliance control C. differentiator control D. S.T.C. control

222.

Altering the range scale may automatically change the :

A. pulse length B. transmitted frequency C. amplification of echoes D. anti-clutter settings

305

223.

The distance of a target can be measured by using the :

A. Tuning control B. Variable range marker C. S.T.C. control D. range scale switch

224.

An alternative name for the anti-rain clutter control is the :

A. S.T.C. control B. F.T.C. control C. swept gain control D. shift control

225.

On a radar display, this symbol indicates the :

A. range ring brilliance B. range scale switch C. at-labia range marker D. flied range rings r

306

226.

The brilliance control should be adjusted so that :

A. the trace is as bright as possible B. weaker echoes are as strong as possible C. the trace is just barely visible D. weaker echoes are just barely visible

227.

The purpose of the bearing cursor is to :

A. Indicate the direction of true north B. show the course of own ship C. align the heading marker D. measure the bearing of targets

228.

The gain control should be adjusted so that :

A. clutter echoes are showing at maximum strength B. no clutter echoes are showing on the screen C. the screen background has no speckling D. there is a light speckled background on the screen

307

229.

Before taking target bearings, you should check that :

A. the trace is correctly centered B. the Variable Range Marker ( VRM ) is switched on C. the heading marker is switched off D. the gain control is set to zero

230.

This display symbol shown is for :

A. foe motion B. north-up presentation C. relative motion D. lead-up presentation

231.

The effect of the anti-rain clutter control is to : A. reduce the strength of all echoes B. reduce the size of close range echoes C. reduce the size of all echoes D. reduce the strength of close range echoes

308

232.

The display symbol shown here is for:

A. scanner rotating B. the power monitor C. radar standby D. heading marker alignment

233.

This symbol identifies the :

A. range scale control B. heading marker alignment C. centering control D. Scanner rotating

234.

The tuning control is best adjusted by using the :

A. power monitor B. centering contral C. visual tuning indicator D. range scale control

309

235.

The symbol shown here identifies the :

A. head-up presentation B. heading marker alignment control C. range scale control D. north-up presentation

236.

An alternative name for the anti-sea clutter control is the :

A. S.T.C. control B. radar on/off switch C. differentiator D. F.T.C. control

237.

The symbol shown here identifies the :

A. gain control B. bearing cursor C. variable range marker D. heading marker alignment control

310

238.

As distance from the scanner increases, the power of the radar beam :

A. remains constant B. increases slowly C. decreases rapidly D. decreases slowly

239.

Horizontal beamwidth depends mainly on :

A. transmitted power B. scanner width C. waveguide cross-section D. PRF

240.

Vertical beamwidth is determined by:

A. the height of the scanner B. the transmitted wavelength C. the design of the scanner D. the number of slots in the scanner

311

241.

Bearing accuracy depends mainly on :

A. pulse length B. scanner rotation speed C. horizontal beamwidth D. spot size

242.

One cause of bearing error is:

A. inaccuracy of the fixed range ring B. scanner mounted too far forward C. use of an unsuitable Pulse Repetition Frequency ( PRF ) D. misalignment of the centre of the trace on the display

243.

One cause of bearing error is :

A. misalignment of heading marker contacts B. scanner mounted too low C. variable range marker inaccuracy D. misalignment of centre of trace

312

244.

Compared to the visual horizon, the radar horizon is:

A. about 6% nearer B. about 3% further away C. about 3% nearer D. about 6% further away

245.

Maximum radar range depends partly on the:

A. scanner rotation speed B. mixer strength C. size of the spot D. peak power output

246.

A factor in determining a radar maximum range is :

A. receiver sensitivity B. spot size C. heading marker alignment D. inearity of timebase

313

247.

Minimum radar range depends mainly on :

A. vertical beamwidth B. receiver sensitivity C. scanner height D. pulse length

248.

Radar range accuracy should be within :

A. 3.5 % of the range scale in use B. 2.5 % of the range scale in use C. 0.5 % of the range scale in use D. 1.5 % of the range scale in use

249.

Radar range accuracy depends mainly on the :

A. accuracy of the timebase B. receiver sensitivity C. accuracy of fixed range rings D. alignment of centre of trace

314

250.

Which of the following has most effect on the size and shape of small radar targets ?

A. Pulse length B. Scanner height C. Pulse repetition rate D. Scanner rotation speed

251.

Which of the following has the most effect on the definition of a small target on the radar display ?

A. Accuracy of range markers B. Pulse repetition rate C. Horizontal beamwidth D. Scanner rotation speed

252.

Radar range discrimination should not be less than:

A. 25 metres B. 100 metres C. 75 metres D. 50 metres 315

253.

Range discrimination depends mainly on which of the following ?

A. Transmitted frequency B. Scanner rotation speed C. Pulse repetition frequency D. rulse length

254.

Radar bearing discrimination depends mainly on which of the following ?

A. Pulse length B. Transmitted frequency C. Horizontal beamwidth D. Scanner rotation speed

255.

Radar bearing discrimination is the abilityto display separately:

A. two targets on same bearing at same range B. two targets on same bearing at slightly different ranges C. two targets at slightly different range and bearings D. two targets at same range on slightly different bearings

316

256.

The horizontal pattern of a radar beam consist of :

A. one large lobe and smaller side lobes either side B. a number of lobes of similar size C. one lobe D. one small lobe and two larger lobes

257.

Radar bearing discrimination should be within :

A. 2.0 degrees B. 1.5 degrees C. 2.5 degrees D. 1.0 degrees

258.

The vertical beam must be wide enough to allow for the : A. reduction of sea clutter B. rolling and pitching of the ship C. elimination of shadow sectors D. the size of large targets

317

259.

A typical figure for minimum radar range is :

A. 50 metres B. 100 metres C. 25 metres D. 75 metres

260.

The distance of the radar horizon is largely determined by :

A. the amount of cloud cover B. the state of the sea surface C. the width of the scanner D. the downward refraction of radar wanes

261.

Minimum radar range can be increased by:

A. increasing the height of the scanner B. using a wider beamwidth C. an increase in peak power D. using a higher P.R.F.

318

262.

Increase of echo strength with increase of target size is limited by:

A. the cross sectional area of the radar beam B. the transmitted frequency C. the cross section of a target D. the transmitted wavelength

263.

A factor which affects the strength rather than the direction of the reflected radar energy is: A. target size B. target aspect C. target surface texture D. target shape

264.

IA radar target of a certain size is likely to give a stronger echo if it is made of :

A. metal B. fibreglass C. Canvas D. Wood

319

265.

Radar targets glue the strongest echoes if they are :

A. hard and dense B. soft and porous C. made of wood D. poor electrical conductors

266.

A radar target gives the best echo when its relative aspect to the radar scanner is :

A. 45 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 50 degrees D. 30 degrees

267.

The radar target which gives the strongest echo is :

A. a perpendicular cylinder B. a sphere C. a cone on its base D. a perpendicular plane

320

268.

A radar target of is likelyto give the poorest reflection if its shape is :

A. a perpendicular plane B. conical C. cylindrical D. can-shape

269.

The principle of a corner reflector is that it :

A. changes the direction of the beam by 90 degrees B. changes the direction of the beam by180 degrees C. deflects the beam clear of obstructions D. scatters the beam uniformly through 360 degrees

270.

A corner reflector is used to : A. enable the radar to examine shadow areas B. Increase the radar power output C. detect targets below the radar horizon D. Increase the detectability of small targets

321

271.

target with a 'Yough" surface is likely to:

A. give only a very weak echo B. give a good echo at any aspect C. reflect all the energy in one direction D. appear very smooth to a 3 cm radar

272.

A target with a smooth surface will only give a good echo if its aspect relative to the direction of the radar beam is :

A. 90 degrees B. 60 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 30 degrees

273.

Side echoes are caused by reflection from :

A. the surface of the sea B. the side lobes of the radar beam C. the side of your own vessel D. the obstruction in the path of the scanner

322

274.

Side echoes appear on the radar display as :

A. echoes in shadow sectors B. a line of echoes on one bearing C. a symmetrical arc of echoes D. lines radiating from the centre

275.

Then side echoes are displayed, the true target echo will appear :

A. farther than the false echoes B. at the edge of the pattern C. closer than the false echoes D. at the centre of the pattern

276.

Indirect echoes are caused by reflections from :

A. targets on the beam B. targets directly ahead C. obstructions close to the scanner D. the surface of the sea

323

277.

Indirect echoes appear on the display:

A. on the true range, but on a false bearing B. on a false range and bearing C. on the true range and bearing D. on the true bearing, but at a false range

278.

Indirect echoes can be recognized by the fact that they: A. Appear as lines of dots or dashes B. Appear on the arc of a circle C. Appear in shadow sectors D. Appear at twice the true range

279.

Multiple echoes appear on the screen :

A. on the correct range but a false bearing B. on the correct bearing at double the true range C. on a false bearing and range D. on the correct bearing but half the true range

280.

(Image no. 279 )Multiple echoes can be recognised because they appear : A. along a curved line B. at constant range intervals C. around the arc of a circle D. on a false bearing 324

281.

The most

common cause of

radar

interference is :

A. electromagnetic storms or disturbances B. the power of radar transmissions from your our ship C. defective electrical equipment on the ship experiencing interference D. lather radar transmissions on a similar frequency

282.

A radar target in a narrow shadow sector is likelyto be :

A. detected at an increased range B. detected at a reduced range C. not detected at all D. detected at a normal range

283.

Multiple radar echoes are caused by:

A. reflection between own ship and a large close target B. reflection from an obstruction on your own ship C. eflections from the side lobes of the radar beam D. reflections from the surface of the sea

325

284.

If your radar suffers from shadow sectors you should :

A. report the fact to your marine authority B. warn approaching vessels in fog C. determine and record their limits D. consult your operator's manual

285.

The cause of shadow or blind sectors is :

A. rough weather conditions B. side lobes of the radar beam C. obstructions on your own ship D. electromagnetic interference

286.

Super-refraction is likely to cause :

A. inaccuracies in detection ranges B. decreased target detection ranges C. increase target detection ranges D. effect on detection ranges

326

287.

(image no. 286) An effect on radar performance not caused by weather is : A. unwanted echoes B. non-standard propagation C. attenuation D. multiple echoes

288.

(image no 286) Super-refraction is normally caused by: A. disturbances in the upper atmosphere B. warm air over a cool sea surface C. cool air over a warm sea surface D. strong winds

289.

When ducting occurs, the radar beam is :

A. carried for long distances B. affected bythe duration of daylight C. bent upwards D. effected by sunspot activity

290.

Ducting of the radar beam is caused by:

A. mild super-refraction conditions B. extreme sub-refraction conditions C. extreme super-refraction conditions D. mild sub-refraction conditions

327

291.

Second trace echoes appear on the radar display at :

A. false ranges on the correct bearing B. false ranges and bearings C. false bearings at the correct range D. correct ranges and bearings

292.

Sub-refraction commonly occurs where :

A. a warm air layer lies over a cold sea surface B. a cold air layer lies over a warm sea surface C. upper air disturbances are common D. strong winter gales are common

293.

Sub-refraction is likelyto result in :

A. reduced target detection ranges B. no effect on detection ranges C. Increased target detection ranges D. Inaccurate detection range

328

294.

Attenuation of the radar beam is greatest in :

A. thick fog conditions B. strong clutter conditions C. heavy rain conditions D. high clouds conditions

Attenuation is ……..

295.

A. the absorption of radar energy by the atmosphere. B. the reflection of radar energy from precipitation. C. the radiation of radar energy from a power source. D. the scattering of radar energy around a target.

296.

Clutter echoes are not usually caused by ………..

A. hail. B. snow. C. rog. D. Rain

329

297.

Sea clutter is caused by reflections from …………

A. the sides of waves. B. small craft and buoys. C. the blank surface of the sea. D. areas of precipitation.

298.

A weather phenomenon which gives a very distinctive pattern on the display is ……..

A. a cloud formation. B. a smoke or haze conditions. C. a tropical revolving storm. D. sand and dust storms. The radar transceiver must be ……..

299.

A. directly underneath the scanner. B. as close to the power supplies as possible. C. at a safe distance from the magnetic compass. D. on the fore-and-aft line of the vessel. 330

300.

If possible the radar display should be sited ……

A. as close as possible to the compass. B. so that it is on the fore-and-aft line. C. so it can be viewed facing forward. D. as far forward as possible in the ship.

301.

Second trace echoes are more likely to occur when

A. a high P.R.F. is used. B. a long pulse length is used. C. a short pulse length is used. D. a low P.R.F. is used..

302.

The magnetron is sited in the

A. transceiver unit. B. display unit. C. scanner unit. D. power supply unit. 331

303.

To avoid any radiation hazard when a radar is transmitting, you should

A. avoid the proximity of the waueguide. B. keep a safe distance from the magnetron. C. not touch the display high tension circuits. D. keep clear of an operating scanner.

304.

Attenuation is likelyto cause

A. Increased detection ranges. B. reduced detection ranges. C. multiple target echoes. D. shadow or blind sectors.

305.

An operational check you should carry out when a radar set is installed is to

A. measure the frequency of the magnetron. B. check the adjustment of the parallel index. C. check the accuracy of the heading marker. D. measure the duration of pulse length.

332

306.

An

operation

check

required

on

installation is to:

A. measure the frequency of the local oscillator B. determined the length of waveguide C. measure the peak power output D. determined the limits of shadow sectors

307.

A radar log should record :

A. the details of repairs and services carried out B. a listing of radar aids to navigation C. the details of ships' power supplies D. the procedure for regular maintenance routines

308.

Sea clutter echoes appear on the radar screen as :

A. a group of echoes within a shadow sector B. a mass of small echoes around the screen centre C. a mass of small echoes with an irregular shape D. a group of echoes at a constant range

333

309.

Radar maintenance should be carried out in accordance with procedures in the :

A. ship's log B. radar log C. safety manual D. operator's manual 310.

Clutter echoes are often caused by:

A. smoke and haze B. dust storms C. rain D. sand storms

311.

While as vessel is at anchorage, how often should anchor bearings be taken ? A. At least everyfour hours B. At least every hour C. In accordance with local port state rules D. they are only required if the weather is bad

312.

What is the critical time while anchoring in a strong current and narrow channel ? A. When the anchor has been dropped B. When the ship is 'brought-up"to the anchor C. When the ship stops in the water before the anchor is dropped D. When the speed drops below steerage way 334

313.

The requirements for using radar for collision advance are described in : A. International Regulations for Prevention of Collisions at Sea B. Radar Manual Vol. 2 C. Marine Orders Part 21 D. Admiralty List of Radio Signals

314.

Under Rule 5; the radar should be used for keeping a proper lookout :

A. during night-time hours B. when the radio is unserviceable C. whenever it may help D. when the background lights obscure visibility

315.

A vessel fitted with an operational radar must use it under Rule to :

A. ensure compliance with traffic separation schemes B. dentify itself to approaching vessels C. assess the course and speed of other vessels D. help determine safe speed in prevailing conditions 316.

Under Rule 7, proper use of radar to determine risk of collision includes:

A. radar plotting or equivalent systematic observation B. short range scanning for small targets C. use of true motion to determine target movement D. correct use of anti-clutter controls 335

317.

In restricted visibility, risk of collision can best be assessed by:

A. watching the target's radar bearing and range B. listening for the target's sound signals C. posting additional lookouts D. establishing radio communication with the target

318.

Under Rule 19, a vessel must in complying with the rules and:

A. make only small alterations of course B. not alter course for a vessel forward of the beam C. have due regard for restricted visibility D. maintain a continuous radio watch

319.

Rule 19 says that, if you detect another vessel by radar alone, you must:

A. maintain a steady course and speed B. continue to observe the other vessel C. determine if risk of collision exists D. switch to manual steering

336

320.

Under Rule 19, if you get into a close quarters situation with a vessel forward of the beam in restricted risibility, you must :

A. reverse your engine until all way is lost B. post a forward lookout C. activate a second radar, if fitted D. navigate with caution until danger of collision is over local oscillator 321.

On most radar displays the presentation used for collision avoidance is

A. B. unstabilised presentation. C. off-centered presentation. D. true motion. E. relative motion.

322.

Using relative motion display mode, a plot of successive positions of a target at timed intervals enables you to assess:

A. It’s true course B. It’s true speed C. It’s closest point of approach (CPA) D. It’s aspect 337

323.

To establish additional target data other than the Closest Point of Approach on a relative plot, you must …………

A. draw a relative velocitytriangle. B. draw a line perpendicular to the target's track. C. extend the target's relative track. D. plot your own future track.

324.

The information obtained from a radar plot about a target includes the

A. target's future course. B. target's identity. C. target's closest point of approach. D. target's radar type.

A basic radar plot can be used to ………

325.

A. indicate target's most likely action. B. estimate the speed of target C. obtain the rate of change of aspect. D. determine the effect of own ship proposed avoiding action.

338

326.

A radar reflection plotter can be used to :

A. make a quick radar plot B. increase radar detection range C. examine a radar's shadow sector D. identify own ship to a target

327.

A.R.P.A. is an :

A. Automatic Radar Plotting Aid B. Additional Radar Pilotage Assignment C. Actual Radar Position Analyser D. Anti-collision Radar Performance Aid

328.

There is a risk of collision with another vessel if :

A. her bearing is changing and the range is decreasing B. her bearing is changing and the range is increasing C. her bearing is steady and the range is increasing D. her bearing is steady and the range is decreasing

339

329.

A reflection plotter is a radar device which :

A. is mounted in the scanner unit B. is fitted in the transceiver C. fits directly over the display D. is an automatic plotting device

330.

The alteration of own ship's course or

speed required to give a desired Closest Point of Approach (CPA) can be obtained from the:

A. collision rules B. radar tables C. radar plot D. 3 hip's data book

331.

A true motion radar display shows :

A. own ships movement relative to own ship B. a target's actual movement C. a target's movement relative to own ship D. a target stopped at the screen centre

340

332.

Positions obtain by radar :

A. should be used independently of other aids B. should only be used in restricted visibility C. should be checked by other available means D. cannot be relied on for navigation

333.

Radar navigational techniques should :

A. only be used at night B. be practiced in clear visibility C. not be used in bad weather D. only be used in poor visibility

334.

If parts of an adjacent coastline do not show on the radar, one possible reason is the :

A. presence of horizontal radar shadow sectors B. presence of a fault in the scanner unit C. presence of a surface duct D. presence of strong attenuation

341

335.

An aid to identifying land features at long range is:

A. a reflection plotter B. the echo-ranging principle C. a chart with topographic details D. the use of varying pulse lengths

336.

A radar fix at long range from land should

A. be used in preference to other methods. B. not be used for fixing. C. be treated with caution. D. only be used by day.

337.

The preferred method of radar position fixing for greatest accuracy is :

A. taking a radar range and radar bearing B. taking several radar ranges C. taking a radar range and visual bearing D. taking several radar bearings

342

338.

A useful aid to identifying land at long range is :

A. the use of a radar reflector B. parallel indexing techniques C. the vertical shadowing effect D. the calculation of distance to the radar horizon 339.

If the highest part of the coast is not the first target detected, the most likely reason is :

A. that the receiver is incorrectly tune B. the anti-clutter setting is too high C. that the scanner is positioned too low D. the effect of vertical shadowing

340.

The

use

of

radar

ranges

in

preference to radar bearings for position fixing is because :

A. they are easier to take B. they are quicker to take C. suitable targets are easier to find D. they are more accurate

343

341.

The best land target to use for radar ranging is :

A. a low-lying point B. an edge of land C. a cliff face D. a small rock

342.

The best land target to use for a radar bearing is : A. a large headland B. a small isolated feature C. a sloping foreshore D. a coastal indentation

343.

When choosing objects for position fixing by radar ranges you should, if possible, avoid : A. small isolated features B. steep faced features C. sloping land features D. large prominent features

344

344.

A radar presentation feature which can often be used to advantage for position fixing is :

A. relative motion B. beamwidth distortion C. an off-centered display D. an unstabilised presentation

345.

Edges of land should be avoided if possible when position fixing by radar because of :

A. the effect of vertical beamwidth B. the effect of pulse length C. their poor definition D. the difficulty of the identification

346.

The technique of parallel indexing makes use of :

A. a sefsyn generator on the scanner B. a T/R cell in the waveguide C. a rotatable mask mounted on the display and marked with parallel lines D. transistors in parallel in the transceiver 345

347.

The technique used in radar pilotage for continuously monitoring a vessel's position is called :

A. cross indexing B. presentation unstabilisation C. parallel indexing D. presentation stabilization

348.

A radar presentation feature which is useful in radar pilotage is:

A. relative motion B. radar shadow sector determination C. fixed play centre D. true motion

349.

When carrying out a radar pilotage, you should use :

A. ranges of prominent features on the beam B. ranges of prominent features astern C. bearings of prominent features astern D. bearings of prominent features on the beam

346

350.

When using the radar for coastal position fixing the main concern is to :

A. avoid radar shadow effect B. obtain the most accurate fix C. avoid radar interference D. allow for beamwidth distortion

351.

On a radar display, the return from a racon :

A. cannot be seen during hours of darkness B. cannot be seen in a clutter area C. gives a distinctive echo on the display D. is transmitted continuously

352.

The signal from a racon :

A. only provides range data B. enables the beacon to be identified C. does not provide identification D. only provides bearing data

347

353.

One feature of a racon is that it :

A. transmits at fixed time intervals B. transmits on request C. transmits continuously D. must be triggered by a ship's radar

354.

Radar reflectors are fitted to some buoys and small craft in order to :

A. make them better radar targets B. provide positive identification C. avoid mutual radar preference D. obtain more accurate ranges

355.

The most common type of radar reflector used by small craft is

A. the octahedral cluster. B. the pentagonal cluster. C. the racon. D. the Luneberg lens. 348

356.

The principle of a racon is that it :

A. transmits continuously on X band B. transmits at fixed time intervals C. transmits when activated by an operator D. transmits on receipt of ship's radar pulse

357.

The commonest arrangement of radar reflectors for fitting to buoys or beacon is :

A. Octahedral cluster B. Pentagonal cluster C. Luneberg lens D. Corner reflector

358.

In addition to target echoes, the video

amplifier

passes

to

the

display:

A. range and bearing marker signals B. heading marker signals C. scanner synchronization signals D. timebase signals

349

359.

Weaker echoes are concerted to signals of detectable strength by the:

A. mixer crystals B. limiter circuit C. I.F. amplifier D local oscillator

360.

Signals are converted to a suitable form for the display by the :

A. mixer crystal B. amplifier C. video amplifier D. local oscillator

350

4. Use of ECDIS to maintain the safety of navigation (Menggunakan ECDIS untuk menjaga keselamatan navigasi)

1.

A coastal passage or voyage plan should indicate the appropriate methods of determining positions and include which of the following?

2.

A.

All of these suggested answers

B.

Radar ranges and Parallel Indexing

C.

Bearings and ranges from coastal navigational marks

D.

Positions determined by GPS and plotted on the ECDIS

Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS? A.

Yes

B.

No

C.

Only if approved by the Flag State

D.

Only if approved by the owner

3.

Is it necessary to construct a passage plan, (or voyage plan), for transiting a canal or river, when under pilot?

A.

A passage plan is always required, irrespective of the length of the voyage, or if the ship is under pilot

B.

A passage plan is required for all deep sea passages, but not for transiting a canal under pilotage.

C.

A passage plan is required only when there is no pilot on board

D.

A passage plan is required from departure from port to arrival at the pilot station at the destination.

351

4.

Rigging of the Pilot

Ladder

and

embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be supervised by:

A.

A responsible Officer

B.

An experienced AB

C.

The Bosun

D.

The Sen.Off.Deck only

5.

SOLAS (The International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, Chapter 5, deals with the Safety of Navigation and applies to which vessels?

A.

All vessels and on all voyages

B.

The Convention only applies to ships over a certain size

C.

It applies to ships of over a certain size engaged in International Voyages

D.

6.

Over 10 000 dwt

What is the crucial aspect in executing a voyage in a safe and efficient way?

A.

An effective detailed passage plan fully understood and followed by a competent bridge team.

B.

All navigational equipment fully functional.

C.

Bridge equipment effectively operating and being used efficiently

D.

The bridge equipment includes ARPA radar, GPS and ECDIS in full and effective operation 352

7.

What is the main purpose of VTS?

A.

Increase the safety of all ships and the protection of the environment in the vicinity.

B.

Provide local information to all vessels navigating in the area

C.

Improve the scheduling and traffic movement in the area.

D.

Increase safety for ships participating in VTS

8.

When a vessel is transiting a canal with locks and intense bridge activities over many hours, what management issues should the Master consider?

A.

All of these answers

B.

Lack of sleep and fatigue of bridge officers

C.

Fully manned engine room throughout the canal transit

D.

Suitable crew available for lock transits

9.

When handing over the con of a vessel to a pilot, should the Master insist in discussing the passage plan with the pilot while he is there to use his local knowledge and advice on the navigation of the ship?

A.

A passage plan should be discussed between the Master and pilot, when under pilotage in the same way as discussed with the bridge team when deep sea

B.

The passage is well established and known by the pilot and a plan is therefore not necessary 353

C.

A pilot is responsible for the navigation whilst on board and will be very familiar with what is required, therefore discussing the passage plan is not necessary

D.

The pilot would probably consider it unnecessary, be more interested in knowing the ship's characteristics and resist any passage planning discussions with the Master.

10.

When initially setting up the GPS to provide positions for use with paper

A.

Select WGS84 and when plotting on the chart apply the stated corrections.

B.

Select the datum stated on the chart in use

C.

WGS78 and input the corrections stated on the chart into the GPS

D.

WGS84 and plot the readout position directly on the char

11.

When planning a voyage crossing large oceans, which of the following answers would most suitably cover the most critical aspects to be considered when deciding the courses to steer?

A.

The anticipated weather and the need for weather routing. The distances gained by sailing by great circle. The ship's draught and the loadline limits

B.

The anticipated weather with the possibility of encountering ice and the need for weather routing. The prevailing currents and their advantage to improved speeds

354

C.

The passage time to the destination; the anticipated bunkers used and the need to arrive within prescribed schedule

D.

The methods of determine position and avoiding areas of increased traffic density. The limitations of the ships draught and the loadline limits

12.

Which of the following answers would best define the term "risk"?

A.

Risk is a situation involving exposure to danger and includes both identification of the occurrence and the likelihood that it will happen.

B.

Risk is the term to identify a dangerous situation which will affect the ship

C.

Risk is the possibility that a dangerous situation is likely to occur

D.

Risk means something more dangerous than normal is likely to occur

13.

While navigating using a paper chart marked WGS84 the OOW plots the ships position by four different methods and they all give slightly different positions. Which of the following would be considered the most accurate.

A.

Radar ranges from two radar destinctive headlands

B.

GPS set on WGS84 datum

C.

Bearing and distance from a navigation buoy close to the vessel

D.

Gyro compass bearings from two lighthouses

355

14.

Who will have the authority to take charge and make appropriate decisions in the event of a vessel emergency when transiting the Panama Canal?

A.

The Panama Canal Authority

B.

The ship's Master

C.

The ship's company

D.

The Master and Pilot will agree the best course of action to be taken to resolve the emergency situation.

15.

You are a Senior Officer of the Watch on vessel "A" and are passing through the Straits of Gibraltar. The vessel's speed is 18 knots and your vessel is overtaking several other vessels, when the visibility reduces down to about 2 nm. What aspects would you consider when establishing a "safe speed" for your vessel? A.

Deciding safe speed consider: 2 miles visibility; traffic density; manoeuvrability of vessel; effectiveness of navigational equipment (ARPA etc); state of sea and currents and navigational hazards.

B.

Adjust my track to follow Route 1 or 2 illustrated and reduce speed down to half speed, approximately 8 knots

C.

Safe speed should be where the vessel can come to a stop within the visible range

D.

A safe speed is where a vessel can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within an appropriate distance

356

16.

Your vessel is to leave a crowded anchorage making a 180 degrees turn. The ship has a right-handed propeller and there is equal space either side of the ship (as illustrated). What would be the most suitable method to make the turn using as little space as possible?

A.

Rudder hard to port, full astern. After gaining some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead

B.

Full ahead, rudder hard to port

C.

Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard

D.

Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this manoeuvre until the turn has been made.

357

5. Respond to emergencies (Respon terhadap keadaan darurat)

1.

If a distress signal is received on board your ship, what should be the first action that should be taken?

A. Attempt to establish contact with the distressed vessel B. Determine how close your vessel is to the distressed vessel. C. Contact SAR Authorities via nearest coastal Radio station D. Determine if anyone else has heard the distress signal and if your vessel is near the distress.

2.

The Master arrives on the bridge obviously under the influence of alcohol and states he is taking over the "con" of the ship. What actions should the Officer of the Watch (OOW) take in this situation?

A. Attempt to diplomatically avoid taking any actions that would put the ship or crew into danger and call the Chief Officer for assistance. B. Tell the Master you do not think this is a good idea and retain control of the watch. C. Watch the actions made by the Master and if not dangerous, wait until the Master becomes more capable to take control or leaves the bridge D. Tell the Master you consider him incapable of taking over the responsibility of the watch and that he should retire to his cabin and sleep it off.

358

3.

The ship is involved in a collision, what is the immediate action by the Officer of the Watch after the incident has taken place?

A. Sound the General Alarm and stop engines. B. Call the Master and check the position for any immediate dangers. C. Contact the other ship and send the bridge lookout down to start taking soundings D. Stop engines and check over the side for any signs of pollution.

4.

What action should be taken by the Officer of the Watch in the event of fire being reported to the bridge during the 00.00 to 04.00 watch? A. Sound the Fire Alarm B. Call the Master C. Stop engines and inform the engine room D. Send the bridge look-out down to investigate

5.

What actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship's steering gear fails?

A. All of the suggested answers B. Display the NUC signal and consider stopping the engines C. Request the engine room to check the steering gear D. Call the Master and advise him of the situation

359

6.

What can be used to reduce the effect of the state of sea-waves?

A. Vegetable / Fish Oil B. Foam C. Fuel Oil D. Crude Oil

7.

What immediate actions should the Officer of the Watch take when the ship goes aground on an uncharted shoal in the middle of the ocean?

A. Stop engines and call the Master B. Stop engines and immediately request "Full Astern" C. Stop engines and tell the engine room to switch over to high suctions D. Sound the General Alarm and plot the ships position

8.

What special equipment can often provide assistance in locating a survival craft or man overboard and in the water?

A. A SART B. A RACON C. AIS D. A sectored search pattern

360

9.

Which method is used to make a physical connection between a rescue vessel and a wreck?

A. Rocket line B. Heaving line C. Sputnik line D. Cosmos line 10.

In case of a main engine failure what shapes would you exhibit? A. Ball- diamond- ball B. Single diamond C. Two black balls in a vertical line D. A cylinder

11.

What type of message would you broadcast in case of a main engine failure? A. No message is necessary B. Distress C. Urgency D. Safety

12.

Which one of these actions would you give priority in case of a main engine failure? A. Inform agents vessels will possibly be delayed B. Inform charterers C. Inform head office D. Prepare for anchoring if in shallow waters

13.

In case of a steering failure , which one of these would be your next course of action? A. Drop anchors B. Pull all way off by going astern C. Engage emergency steering D. Prepare engines for maneuvering 361

14.

What type of messages contain important navigational or meteorological warnings? A. All of these. B. Safety C. Urgency D. Distress

15.

By using what prefix can a master of a ship make it clear in his message that his own ship is NOT in distress? A. Mayday relay B. Mayday C. Pan-pan D. Securite

16.

In the case of permanent loss of power what message would you send? A. Securite B. All of these. C. Urgency D. Distress

17.

When an emergency is clearly over , how should it be cancelled? A. By broadcasting to the nearest coast station B. By broadcasting to all stations C. By broadcasting to those involved D. There is no need to do any of the above

18.

In case of an emergency on board which signal should be used? A. Ships whistle B. Ships bell C. General alarm D. General emergency alarm signal

362

19.

Who is responsible for ensuring that emergency navigation lights and signaling equipment are in working order and ready for immediate use at all times? A. Owners B. Master C. Managers D. OOW

20.

What important information must a distress alert indicate? A. The mode of transmission B. Neither C nor C. On which frequency the follow up distress message will be transmitted D. Both and

21.

To whom should a distress alert be transmitted to in case of satellite communication? A. Ships in the vicinity B. Head office C. RCC D. Nearest coast station

22.

How often should emergency steering drills be carried out? A. At least every 6 months B. At least every 3 months C. At least every 9 months D. At least every 12 months

23.

What type of message would you transmit if your ship has a collision and there is grave and imminent danger? A. Distress relay B. Urgency message C. Distress alert and message D. Safety message

363

24.

In case of a man overboard (stbd side), which of the following maneouvers would be appropriate? A. Williamson's turn B. Short turn to port C. Short turn to stbd D. Turn on the anchor

25.

Which of these is the wrong action in case of a grounding? A. Reduce draught of the ship B. sound general emergency alarm signal C. sound around the ship D. Broadcast a security message

26.

In case of a man overboard which of these actions would be correct? A. All of these. B. Go crash astern C. Alter course towards the same side the man has fallen D. Alter course towards the opposite side the man has fallen

27.

In case of a man overboard what flag would you hoist? A. Flag "0" B. Hal " R" C. Flag "S" D. Flag "U"

28.

What type of message would you broadcast in case of a man overboard? A. Distress relay B. Safety C. Urgency D. Distress

364

29.

In case your vessel collides with another vessel, which one of the following would be given priority? A. Safety of the environment B. Safety of property C. Any one of the other options D. Safety of life

30.

In case of a fire in port who would be responsible? A. Agent B. The ship C. Head of the shore fire brigade D. Port authorities

31.

In case of an oil pollution which of these would you have for ready reference? A. SOPEP B. M notices dealing with oil pollution C. MARPOL D. MSM

32.

When should one abandon a ship? A. When one feels there is a threat to the ship B. On verbal orders from the master C. On hearing the general emergency alarm signal D. On orders from the owners

33.

In case the ship is listed and the master has passed the order to abandon the ship , which would be the most preferable place to jump from? A. High side B. The ends C. Low side D. Any one of the other options

365

34.

What takes place, when the roll period is equal to the apparent wave period ? A. Pounding B. Broaching C. Synchronism D. Pooping

35.

What can be done when a vessel experiences synchronous rolling during rough weather? A. Alter course B. Maintain course and speed C. Lower the GM of the vessel D. Alter speed

36.

What can be done when a vessel experiences synchronous pitch during rough weather? A. After speed B. Lower GM of the vessel C. Maintain course and speed D. After course

37.

If your vessel is dragging anchor, which of the following would you do? A. Drop your second anchor B. Slip your anchor cable C. Heave your anchor short D. Send out a security message

38.

Which of the following actions would you carry out in case of Abandoning ship. A. Both and B. Sound bilges and tanks C. Order crew members to life boat stations and prepare to launch lifeboats/liferafts D. Broadcast distress alert And message on authority of the master 366

39.

Which of the following actions would you carry out in case of Flooding? A. All of these. B. Close all watertight doors C. Sound bilges and tanks D. Broadcast urgency messages if ships in the vicinity

40.

Which of these are distress signals? A. Flames on a vessel B. A gun or explosive signal fired at intervals of about one minute. C. All of these. D. A continuous sounding with any fog- signaling apparatus

41.

In case of a fire which would be your first action? A. Seal of the area before calling for help B. Raise the alarm before carrying out subsequent actions C. Get help from nearby and proceed to fight the fire D. Attempt to fight the fire independently

42.

Which would be the correct order to fight a fire? A. Find, extinguish, Inform, restrict B. Find , Inform, restrict, extinguish C. Find , restrict, inform, extinguish D. Find , restrict, extinguish, inform

43.

If you receive a distress alert on CH 70 VHF, which of these actions would be a correct course of action? A. Set VHF on ch 16 for voice communication B. Acknowledge using DSC immediately C. Set VHF on ch 70 for voice communication D. Both :Option 1> and

367

44.

What type of an extinguisher would you use if you have an electrical fire? A. Anyone of the above B. Foam C. CO2 D. Soda acid

45.

Which of the following actions would you carry out in case of Search and rescue? A. Both and B. Take bearing of distress message if radio direction finder is fitted C. Close all water tight doors D. Re- transmit distress message

46.

In which of these cases would you transmit a Distress message A. Steering failure B. Both a & b C. Main engine failure D. Flooding

47.

A liferaft must be constructed so that it operates satisfactorily after being dropped in the water from heights of up to: A. 10 metres B. 18 metres C. 20 metres D. 4.5 metres

48.

Where would you find details for your tasks and duties in case of an emergency ? A. In notices posted in messrooms, recreation rooms, etc. B. In notices posted in the crew's cabins. C. In the muster list. D. On posters at the lifeboat station.

368

49.

What is a 'Rescue Sub-Centre (R.S.C.) ? A. A centre for underwater search and rescue operation. B. A unit subordinate to a rescue co-ordinating centre. C. A centre established to assist the main national rescue centre. D. A national search and rescue centre subordinate to an International search and rescue co-ordinating centre.

50.

Which of these requirements regarding lifebuoys corresponds to the SOLAS regulations? A. It must have a mass greater than 2.5 kgs. B. It must have sufficient air. C. If fitted with light or smoke signal, it must have a mass less than 4 kgs. D. It must be constructed of inherently buoyant material.

51.

Which of these requirements regarding abandon ship drills corresponds to the SOLAS regulations? A. All lifeboats shall be lowered during drills. B. For ships on short international voyages, each lifeboat shall be launched and maneuvered in water at least every six months. C. Drills shall be conducted when the ship is in harbour. D. Each lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned crew, and maneuvered in the water at least once every three months.

52.

The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be included ? A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts. B. Correct use of oars and other propulsion equipment for survival crafts. C. Correct use of survival craft facilities in order to survive. D. Correct use of on-board communication equipment.

369

53.

What is a 'Rescue Unit" (RU) ? A. A unit ready for search and rescue operations at sea at anytime of the day. B. A unit composed of trained personnel suitably equipped expeditious search and rescue. C. A unit specializing in search and rescue operations at sea. D. Permanently manned rescue vessel.

54.

The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be included ? A. Correct method of release of survival craft from launching appliances. B. Correct donning of fire protective clothing. C. Correct use of oars in survival crafts. D. Correct method for use of on-board communication system.

55.

What is a HYDROSTATIC RELEASE ? A. A cone like device that is thrown into the sea to keep the lifeboat's bow pointing into the wind B. A piece of wood put through the painter allowing it to be untied even when there is weight on the rope. C. A device that allows an inflatable life raft to be deployed automatically if a ship sinks. D. Securing device on the lifeboat gripes that allows them o be easily unfastened.

56.

What should you do first if you see a man fall overboard ? A. Alert other crewmembers and tryto keep him or the lifebuoy in sight. B. Inform the officer of the watch. C. Release the nearest lifebuoy on the side he has fallen. D. Dive in the sea after him to attempt a rescue.

370

57.

The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be included ? A. Correct use of navigational equipment for survival crafts. B. Correct use of surface to air visual signals by survivors. C. Correct use of ship's line throwing apparatus. D. Correct use of escape routes and other escape methods.

58.

Which of these items has to be included in a distress message ? A. Weather in the immediate vicinity. B. Ship's destination. C. Ship's last port of call. D. Ship's identification.

59.

What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing installations onboard ? A. An automatic release system activated by fire alarms. B. A manual operated release only. C. Any automatic release system. D. An automatic release system activated byfire detectors.

60.

The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be included ? A. Correct method of revival of casualties. B. Correct use of oars and sails for survival crafts. C. Correct boarding, launching and clearing of survival crafts and rescue crafts. D. Correct donning of fire protective clothing.

61.

What information is found on a ship's fire plan ? A. The locations of various fire fighting appliances and equipment. B. The action to take if you heard the fire alarm.. C. The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire. D. The duties of each crew member in case of fire 371

62.

After abandoning ship in a liferaft or lifeboat, which of these should be done as soon as possible? A. The occupants should all take a drink of liquor and then sing songs to keep up their spirits. B. Available rations should be shared out equally among all the occupants. C. All occupants should take a seasickness tablet. D. All money should be collected and held by the leader.

63.

The ships training manual must contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be included ? A. Correct donning of life-jackets. B. Correct use of oars and sails for survival crafts. C. Correct donning of protective clothing. D. Correct use of communication equipment.

64.

In cold climates what should be done by the occupants of a liferaft to provide more insulation ? A. Inflate the floor of the raft. B. Deflate the floor of the raft. C. Rig the emergency heater. D. Close the doors and ventilators.

65.

On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ?

A. A fire hose. B. A fire alarm bell. C. A push button fire alarm. D. A fire detector.

372

66.

On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ? A. A sprinkler head. B. A smoke detector. C. A dry powder nozzle. D. A horn or siren fire alarm

67.

What does this symbol indicate ?

A. A CO2 extinguisher. B. A CO2 detector. C. A CO2 warning horn. D. A CO2 release nozzle.

68.

On a fire plan, what does this symbol mean ? A. A foam monitor. B. A fire main. C. A fire fighting water gun. D. A foam fire extinguisher.

69.

What does this symbol indicate ?

A. A fire equipment locker. B. A fire alarm bell. C. A fire hose reel. D. An automatic fire detector.

373

70.

What would you do if someone's clothes catch fire ? A. Go and find a fire hose. B. Smother the flames with a blanket or jacket. C. Shout for help while getting the first aid kit. D. Telephone the bridge.

71.

How do you direct a fire nozzle under full water pressure ? A. Direct the nozzle slightly upwards. B. Direct the nozzle slowly from side to side. C. Direct the nozzle straight out. D. Direct the nozzle slightly downwards.

72.

What is meant when we say a dressing is sterile ? A. It is waterproof. B. It will not stick to the wound and can be easily replaced. C. It is large enough to cover most wounds. D. It is free from germs.

73.

What action should the watch officer take on being notified of man overboard ? A. Call for a lookout. B. Release the bridge wing buoy, notify master and start slowing down to maneuvering speed. C. Alter course 180 degrees and sound the alarm. D. Alter course hard over on the side the man fell in and nform engine room.

74.

What signal is used to mean "ABANDON SHIP" ? A. A verbal command given bythe master or officer in charge. B. 3 short blasts on the ship's whistle. C. 1 short blast - abandon ship to starboard; 2 short blasts - abandon ship to port. D. 7 short & 1 long blast on the ship's whistle.

374

75.

The ship's training manual must contain instructions and information on the life-saving appliances carried onboard. Which of these duties must also be included ? A. Correct use of sea-anchors (drogues). B. Correct donning of fire protective clothing. C. Correct use of on-board communication equipment. D. Correct use of oars and other propulsion equipment's for survival crafts.

76.

In terms of flashpoint, what defines if a container carrying a flammable liquid must carry this sign ?

A. Required for anyflammable liquid regardless of the flashpoint. B. Required for a flashpoint of 55 degrees C or below. C. Required for a flashpoint of 100 degrees C or above. D. Required for a flashpoint of 80 degrees F and above. 77.

In which order should we place the priorities of survival, from highest to lowest ? A. Location, protection from the environment, water, food. B. Protection from the environment, location, water, food. C. Food, water, location, protection from the environment. D. Water, protection from the environment, food, location.

78.

What is the name of the type of stretcher often found on board? A. The Hart 'moo stretcher. B. The Neil Robertson stretcher. C. The SOLAS stretcher. D. The canvas pole stretcher. 375

79.

What is a Thermal Protective Aid ? A. A portable electric heater. B. A large plastic bag big enough to put a man inside. C. Special clothes that prevent a survivor from loosing heat. D. A chemical compound which when mixed produces light and heat.

80.

Which of these items of clothing would be best at preventing loss of body heat ? A. A vest. B. A woolen hat. C. Thick woolen socks. D. Short pants.

81.

What is an immersion suit ? A. Special clothing that allows the wearer to get close to a fire. B. Special clothing to protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold sea. C. Special clothing that is worn bythe lookout whilst on watch. D. A type of life jacket.

82.

If you had to board your lifeboat which of the following do you think is most important ? A. Carry your important documents such as passport and seaman's book. B. Keep all your belongings packed in a bag. C. Wear as many layers of warm clothing as possible. D. Drink a large cup of hot coffee or hot tea.

83.

What is a Class B fire ? A. A fire involving gases. B. A fire involving solid materials. C. A fire involving liquids or liquefied solids. D. A fire involving metal

376

84.

What type of boat is seen in this picture ?

A. Fast rescue boat. B. An open free fall lifeboat. C. A totally enclosed lifeboat. D. A liferaft.

85.

What is a SART? A. Search And Rescue Transponder. B. Satellite Activated Rescue Telephone. C. Systematic Advised Rescue Tracker. D. Semi Automatic Rescue Transmitter.

86.

When should doors, side scuttles, gangway doors, cargo ports and other openings which are to be kept watertight at sea be closed at the start of the voyage ? A. Before encountering heavy weather. B. Before entering open waters. C. Before leaving the port. D. Before leaving the pilot station.

87.

At least how often should rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvered in the water ? A. Every three months. B. Every month. C. Every two weeks. D. Every week.

377

88.

Which of the following activities will have the best effect in the event of a fire ? A. The chief officer is called. B. All fire fighting teams are organised as soon as possible. C. All possible fire fighting equipment is brought to the scene. D. The extinguishing attempt is started immediately by the Berson who discovers the fire.

89.

What should be done before throwing the life raft overboard ? A. Secure the painter to a strong point. B. Activate the EPIRB. C. Open the fiberglass cover. D. Pull the painter all the way out.

90.

Which of these statements is true ? A. We should bring important documents and personal belongings with us in the liferaft. B. We should only abandon ship when told to by the master or officer in charge. C. If the ship is on fire we have to abandon ship. D. If the emergency alarm is ringing we have to go to the bridge.

91.

What type of fire hose nozzles shall be available aboard ? A. Dual purpose ( jet/spray ) type incorporating shutoff. B. Spray type. C. Dual purpose ( jet/spraytype ). D. Jet type.

378

92.

What alarm signal is sounded by the ship's alarm bells in the case of fire onboard ? A. A series of 5 long rings. B. One long ring followed by seven short rings. C. A series of 5 short rings. D. Continuous ringing of the bell.

93.

What do the letters E.P.I.R.B. stand for ? A. Extremely Powerful Immersed Rescue Boat. B. Enhanced Plotted Information Radio Broadcast. C. Electronic Precision Illuminated Radar Buoy. D. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon.

94.

What are the two satellite systems that use EPIRBS ? A. Cospas Sarsat & Inmarsat. B. Transit & GPS. C. Comsat & Rescuesat. D. Sputnik & Metsat.

95.

Which of these would NOT be a good thing to do after abandoning ship ? A. Activate the EPIRS and SART. B. Sail away from the area of the sinking ship in the direction of the nearest land. C. Stay in the area that the ship sank in. D. Collect all the survival craft together.

96.

Over spoken radio communication, what is the code word used to indicate a distress message ? A. URGENT. B. MAYDAY. C. S.O.S. D. PRIORITY

379

97.

What is the part of the lifeboat indicated by the arrows ?

A. The bowsing in tackle. B. The on-load release. C. The fall. D. The gripe.

98.

What item of safety equipment is shown here ?

A. A float. B. An inflatable life raft. C. A lifebuoy. D. An emergency position indicating radio beacon (EPIRB).

99.

How is a throw-over liferaft usually secured on deck ? A. With a steel wire strop. B. With a heavy object as an anchor. C. With a hydrostatic release unit. D. With an atmospheric release.

380

100.

Which of the following items should be included in each fire drill ? A. Checking the fire wires. B. Checking the operation of watertight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and relevant communication equipment. C. Checking the operation of fire doors. D. Checking closing mechanism for all air ventilators and other openings to accommodation, engine rooms and cargo spaces.

101.

What item of fire extinguishing equipment, usually found in the galley, is particularly effective on fires nuolving hot cooking oil ? A. A fire blanket. B. A water filled extinguisher. C. A bucket of water. D. A fire hose.

102.

Which fixed fire extinguishing medium is most commonly found in machinery spaces like the engine room A. High expansion foam. B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2). C. Water sprinkler system. D. Dry powder.

103.

Wich fire fighting system is the most efficient and with least side effects in the event of a fire in the engine room ? A. The powder extinguishing system. B. The central CO2 extinguishing system. C. The sprinkler extinguishing system. D. If the central foam extinguishing system.

381

104.

Which of these are attached to a lifejacket ? A. A light & a whistle. B. A dye marker & shark repellant. C. Red light and orange smoke distress flares. D. A radar transponder.

105.

What kind of alert message would you broadcast if you have a man overboard ? A. Pan-Pan. B. Mayday. C. Security. D. Mayday relay.

106.

What is the purpose of emergency drills ? A. To get crew to work outside overtime hours. B. To test the emergency equipment and train the crew. C. To fill in the required forms to show port state control inspectors. D. To find out if all the crew are awake.

107.

What should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing the painter to a strong point ? A. Untie the painter from the strong point. B. Inflate the life raft. C. Check that there is nothing in the sea below. D. Open the fiberglass case

382

108.

Ship's whistle and alarm bells sound an alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one long blast. What should you do ? A. Report to the master. B. Report to your department head. C. Go to your lifeboat station. D. Go to your muster station.

109.

Which of these has to be included in an abandon ship drill according to SOLAS regulations ? A. Launching & recovery of a survival craft. B. Maneuvering the lifeboat in the water. C. Starting and operating radio life-saving appliances. D. Checking that life-jackets are correctly donned.

110.

Aside from reducing drift, what other things does the sea anchor on a liferaft do ? A. Keeps the doors pointing into the wind. B. Keeps the doors at right angles to the wind. C. Releases an orange dye marker into the water. D. Allows the EPIRB to send a distress message.

111.

Where on board are these fire risks likely to arise ? Fuel and lubricating oils, hot surfaces, welding and oxyacetylene cutting equipment. A. The engine room. B. The bridge. C. The galley. D. The cargo hold

383

112.

Mere can shore side personal find necessary information on ship's fire control systems in an emergency situation ? A. A copy of the fire control plan is permanently posted in prominently marked locations onboard ships. B. Information is to be given by the owners through the nearest rescue centre. C. From the duty officer. D. A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.

113.

When a fire spreads because of the hot gasses rising and heating other fuel sources, the fire has been spread by A. Conduction. B. Convection. C. Expansion. D. Radiation.

114.

How does heat travel to the earth from the sun ? A. By radiation. B. By conduction. C. By isolation. D. By convection

115.

Which of the following conducts heat well ? A. Paper. B. Steel. C. Styrofoam (Polystyrene). D. Wood.

384

116.

In a mixture of flammable vapour and air, if there is too much vapour and not enough air to support combustion, we say the mixture is A. Too rich. B. Saturated. C. Too lean. D. Over concentrated.

117.

What are the 3 ways that heat can be transmitted ? A. Convection, radiation and concoction. B. Convection, radiation and conduction. C. Thermal, infra red and ultra violet. D. Explosive, electrical and intrinsic

118.

When heat passes from one place to another by direct contact, it is called A. Insulation. B. Convection. C. Radiation. D. Conduction.

119.

Approximately, what is the temperature of a cigarettes burning tip ? A. 5,000 degrees C B. 35 degrees C. C. 500 degrees C. D. 100 degrees C.

385

120.

Mat should first be done before the central gas extinguishing system is used on a fire in the engine room or cargo holds ? A. Stop all fans and engines. B. Close down boilers. C. Close all openings. D. Make sure that the compartment has been evacuated.

121.

What is the main advantage of a davit launched liferaft compared to the throw-over type ? A. It contains more equipment then the throw overboard type. B. It allows the occupants to board without getting wet. C. It is quicker to launch. D. It is stronger then the throw overboard type.

122.

How manyfireman's outfits are required to be carried on tankers ? A. At least four sets. B. At least three sets. C. At least two sets. D. At least one set.

123.

Why is Halon not used much as a fire extinguisher on board vessels ? A. It is harmful to the ozone layer. B. It is not effective on oil fires. C. It damages electrical equipment. D. It is too expensive.

386

124.

In addition to a fire suit, a fireman's outfit also comprises breathing apparatus and fireproof lifeline. According to SOLAS- how many such sets of fireman's outfit are required to be carried by all ships? A. At least three. B. As required bythe ship's administration. C. At least two. D. At least one.

125.

What is a ship's contingency plan ? A. The plan for maintenance and repair of safety equipment. B. The loading plan for hazardous cargo. C. The plan for safety preparedness. D. The plan for the next voyage.

126.

Fuel flowing in a pipe is prone to which of the following ignition sources ? A. Static electricity. B. Friction. C. High pressure action. D. Chemical reaction.

127.

If you were at the entrance to an enclosed space and you lost communication with a crewmember inside, what should you do ? A. Holding your breath, enter the enclosed space to see if can spot the crewman. B. Put on a BA set and enter the enclosed space. C. Raise the alarm with the bridge or other officers in the area. D. Wait for a few minutes in case the crewmember is busy.

128.

What is the most common cause of death after a shipwreck ? A. Starvation. B. Dehydration. C. Hypothermia. D. Burns.

387

129.

In a distress situation, how many times or for how long should the emergency alarm signal be sounded ? A. Until the emergency is over. B. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their respective muster stations. C. 3 minutes. D. 3 times.

130.

Which of the following types of breathing apparatus are most likely found onboard a modern ship ? A. Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus. B. Oxygen Breathing Apparatus. C. Atmospheric Breathing Apparatus. D. Gas Mask type Breathing Apparatus.

131.

Which side of the fire triangle most commonly causes a fire ? A. The introduction of fuel. B. The introduction of air. C. The introduction of heat. D. The introduction of oxygen.

132.

If heat is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ? A. Starving. B. Wetting. C. Cooling D. Smothering.

133.

Fuel is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ? A. Starving. B. Suffocating. C. Smothering. D. Cooling.

388

134.

What unit in the S.I. system is used to measure heat ? A. Degrees F. B. Degrees C. C. Amperes. D. Joules.

135.

Which of the following fuels has the lowest flash point ? A. Kerosene B. Coal C. Diesel fuel D. Candle wax

136.

At what percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is it possible to have a fire ? A. At 100% B. At 21% C. Above 8% D. Below 4%

137.

What is a fire hydrant ? A. A type of automatic smoke detector used on ships. B. A valve on the fire main where fire hoses are connected. C. A type of portable fire extinguisher. D. A fixed nozzle used for filling the engine room with CO2.

138.

Mat fixed and portable fire extinguishers are often found on gas tankers because they are considered to be most effective with burning gas ? A. Dry Powder - Dry Chemical. B. Foam. C. CO2. D. Water.

389

139.

Which of these extinguishers would not be very effective against a Class A fire ? A. A.F.F.F. B. Water. C. Foam. D. Dry Chemical.

140.

On fires involving burning liquids, which of these extinguishers is considered most effective ? A. Foam. B. CO2. C. Dry Powder. D. Water.

141.

Wich of these extinguishing agents is best to use on a fire involving a burning cabin that had been electrically isolated ? A. Carbon dioxide (CO2). B. Water. C. Dry Powder - Dry Chemical. D. Foam.

142.

What setting are these firefighters use on their nozzle ?

A. Spray. B. Fountain. C. Jet. D. Stream. 390

143.

What item of fire fighting equipment is shown here ?

A. A jet spray nozzle. B. A foam extinguisher. C. A foam eductor. D. A fire hydrant. 144.

If oxygen is removed from the fire triangle, what is this called ? A. Starving. B. Smothering. C. Blowing. D. Cooling.

145.

If you abandoned ship by jumping into the sea wearing a lifejacket, what should you do then ? A. Swim vigorously to help maintain bodytemperature. B. Hold on to part of the ship. C. Swim in the direction of the nearest land. D. After getting clear of the ship, float as still as possible.

146.

Where can ships' officers find information about the ships fire protection arrangements, fire detection and xtinguishing equipment ? A. In the wheel house. B. In permanently exhibited fire plans. C. In a special instruction folder at all fire control stations. D. In permanently exhibited muster lists.

391

147.

What does A.F.F.F. stand for ? A. Anti Fire Frothing Foam. B. Aqueous Film Forming Foam. C. Aqueous Fire Fighting Foam D. Active Fire Finishing Foam.

148.

When is the risk of fire greatest ? A. When the vessel is at sea in stormy weather. B. When the vessel is in hot, dry climates. C. When the vessel is in dense traffic situations. D. When the vessel is in port, particularly dry-dock.

149.

What action should be taken first when discovering a fire on board ? A. Go to your emergency muster station. B. Go to your cabin and gather your belongings. C. Look for the nearest fire extinguisher. D. Activate a fire alarm.

150.

What should you do when you hear emergency signals ? A. Report to your muster station. B. Telephone the bridge for advice. C. Put on warm clothes and your lifejacket. D. Ignore the signal unless you have been told there will be drill.

151.

Some cargoes like certain types of coal can heat themselves up to a temperature where they can automatically ignite. What is this process called ? A. Spontaneous combustion. B. Biological heating. C. Nuclear fission. D. Biomass conduction.

392

152.

What is the international signal for 'Than overboard" ? A. Three long blasts followed by three short blasts on the whistle. B. Three long blasts on the whistle. C. Repeated raising and lowering of arms. D. If hree short blasts on the whistle.

153.

Control wich of these portable fire extinguishers are found on the Bridge, in the Radio Room and in the Engine Control Room because they are extremely effective with fires involving lice electrical and electronic equipment ? A. Dry Chemical - Dry Powder. B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2). C. Foam. D. A.F.F.F.

154.

For fire to occur, which of the following sets of elements must be combined A. Heat, fuel and oxygen. B. Air, fuel and oxygen. C. Conduction, convection & radiation. D. Air, earth, and water.

155.

What is the signal to "abandon ship" ? A. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast. B. A verbal command from the master. C. Five short blasts followed by two long blasts. D. Three long blasts followed by three short blasts.

156.

Mich of these fire extinguishing media is preferred to fight a fire in an electric installation (eg. the main switchboard) ? A. Powder. B. Foam. C. Sprinkler. D. Water fog. 393

157.

Which of these fire extinguishing media is most effective against an open oil fire ? A. Powder. B. Foam. C. Water. D. Gas.

158.

Which of the following does NOT need to be done right after a fire drill ? A. Have a debriefing with all members of the safety committee. B. Return all the equipment to its correct place. C. Note any defects in the equipment for repair or replacement. D. Recharge extinguishers and compressed air bottles.

159.

Which of these requirements regarding the launching and recovarrangements for survival crafts corresponds to the SOLAS regulations ? A. Each lifeboat shall be provided with separate appliances that are capable of launching and recovering the lifeboat. B. Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times can observe the survival craft and life boat. C. Different type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival crafts on board the ship. D. Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival crafts during abandonment.

160.

Why is it advisable to board a life raft without getting wet if possible ? A. You might drink sea water which will make you more thirsty. B. Getting wet will increase the bodies insulation against cold. C. You could be attacked by sharks whilst in the water. D. Getting wet will increase the loss of body heat.

394

161.

What is meant by the term "self ignition temperature (S.I.T.) ? A. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they will ignite and keep burning if an external ignition source is applied. B. The lowest temperature where the vapours given off will automatically ignite without the presence of an external ignition source. C. The lowest temperature where enough vapours are given off that they will ignite and then go out if an external ignition source is applied. D. The lowest temperature that a liquid will start giving off vapours.

162.

What is meant by the "flash point" in a liquid fuel ? A. The lowest temperature that a liquid will start giving off vapour. B. The lowest temperature where enough vapour is produced that would ignite and go out when an external ignition source is introduced. C. The lowest temperature where enough vapour is produced that would ignite and keep on burning when an external ignition source is introduced. D. The lowest temperature where vapours produced would automatically ignite without an external ignition source

163.

Is it advisable to jump onto the canopy of the raft ? A. Yes, as tong as from not too great a height as it will save time. B. Yes, as long as you land on the top of the life raft. C. No, as you might injure yourself or someone under the canopy. D. No, as if you fall through the opening you might go hrough the floor of the raft.

164.

You are in a survival craft, after clearing the sinking ship, what should be done to minimize the rate of drift A. Tie the painter to a piece of floating wreckage. B. Stream the sea anchor. C. One survivor should get into the sea and hold on to the grab lines. D. Use the paddles or oars.

395

165.

After throwing a liferaft into the water, what should be done next ? A. Throw a lifebuoy into the water as near to the liferaft as possible. B. Climb down the embarkation ladder and board the life raft. C. Pull the painter all the way out and give it a tug to inflate the liferaft. D. Jump into the water and swim to the case, then hold onto the case.

166.

What percentage of air is made up by oxygen ? A. 78% B. 21% C. 100% D. 4%

167.

If you are in water at a temperature 10 degrees C, wearing only shorts, approximately how long would you be able to survive ? A. About 5 minutes. B. Less then 1 minute. C. About 5 hours. D. About an hour.

168.

If it is necessary to enter the water, how should you jump from the ship ? A. Dive head first with your arms pointing over your head. B. Look down, jump feet first with legs extended and arms out at right angles to your body. C. Fall forwards in order to land on the water chest first with arms straight by your sides. D. Look straight ahead, legs together, jump feet first with arms crossed over your chest.

169.

What is the usual signal for a fire alarm ? A. Slow ringing of alarm bells or gong. B. Verbal notification from the master. C. Five long blasts on ship's whistle. D. Continuous ringing of alarm bells or gong. 396

170.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Keep your hands in the boat. B. Keep warm. C. Secure hatches. D. Heavy objects. 171.

What life saving appliance is indicated here ?

A. A lifejacket. B. A lifeboat. C. A rescue boat. D. A liferaft.

397

172.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Rescue boat crew. B. Emmersion suit. C. Wear warm clothing. D. thermal protective aid.

173.

What life saving appliance would be found near this sign ?

A. A radar transponder beacon. B. A lifeboat radio. C. An Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB). D. A GMDSS receiver.

398

174.

If you noticed that a piece of equipment is broken, what should you do ? A. Try to fix it yourself. B. Pretend that you have not noticed that anything is broken. C. Report it to the officer on watch. D. Get another AB to help you fix it

175.

What does this sign indicate ?

A. A crew messroom. B. A passenger holding area. C. A muster station. D. A lifeboat embarkation point.

176.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Let go lifeboat. B. Secure painter. C. Release gripes. D. Release falls.

399

177.

What would you expect to find near this sign ?

A. Embarkation ladders. B. Escape shute. C. Emergency radio. D. Liferafts.

178.

What kind of liferaft is shown in this sign ?

A. A davit launched tiferaft. B. A liferaft at the bow. C. A disposable life raft. D. A rigid liferaft.

400

179.

What does this sign mean ?

A. This way to emergency exit. B. Embarkation ladder. C. This way down. D. Escape shute. 180.

What distress signal would be located near this sign ?

A. Invoke floats. B. Star shell rockets. C. Hand flares. D. Parachute flares.

401

181.

What part is shown by letter C ?

A. The painter. B. Etowsing Tackle. C. The grablines. D. Leaving lines.

182.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Lower literaft to water. B. Emergency muster station. C. Abandon ship. D. Liferaft ahead.

402

183.

What do the words "spontaneously combustible' mean ? A. When this substance burns it burns completely and does not leave any residue or ash. B. The substance is very difficult to set alight, even when it is very hot. C. The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition. D. When the substance burns it becomes very hot.

184.

The fall block on a lifeboat is capable of on-load release, what does this mean ? A. The lifeboat will automatically float free if the ship sinks. B. The lifeboat can only be released from the falls when it is in the water. C. There is a safety device built into the block that does not let it release until after the other block has been released. D. The lifeboat can be released from the falls before it enters the water.

185.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Automatic release. B. Lifeboat embarkation point. C. Release gripes. D. Lower lifeboat to water.

403

186.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Flammable. B. Radioactive. C. Explosive. D. Dangerous gas.

187.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Release brake. B. Alter course. C. Start engine. D. Lower lifeboat.

404

188.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Radar transponder beacon. B. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB). C. Walkie talkie. D. Survival craft portable radio. 189.

What is attached to the lifebuoy in the sign ?

A. A light and die marker. B. A light and E.P.I.R.B. C. A smoke float and light. D. A smoke float and E.P.I.R.B

405

190.

What does this sign mean ?

A. Proceed to embarkation station. B. Children's lifejacket. C. Put on your lifejacket. D. Life jackets are located to the left. 191.

Under STCW regulations what must each new crew member do before commencing assigned duties ? A. Read all posted noticesfregutations carefully. B. Be familiar with safety procedures. C. Report to the master for signing on the ship's articles. D. Locate his working area and working clothes.

406

6. Respond to a distress signal at sea (Merespon tanda marabahaya di laut) 1.

How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by signal flags?

A. The letter A + three numerals. B. The letter B + three numerals. C. The letter A + three numerals + the letter R or T. D. The letter N + three numerals.

2.

Signals are often used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards a casualty.

This aircraft flies across

your stern, rocking his wings.

What is the

meaning of the signal?

A. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required. B. This is part of a sequence of manoeuvres by which the aircraft will indicate a direction for my vessel to proceed in. C. The aircraft is telling me he does not understand my last message. D. The aircraft is telling me he is preparing to drop supplies or personnel in the water.

3.

Visual signals are used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards a casualty.

The signals shown here are part of a

sequence. What does it indicate?

A. The aircraft is directing a vessel towards the casualty. B. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required.

407

C. The casualty is sighted and will require medical assistance. D. The aircraft is short on fuel and is returning to base.

4.

What does this flag mean?

A. I diver down; keep well clear at slow speed. B. Yes (affirmative). have a C. My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. D. I wish to communicate with you.

5.

What does this signal hoist mean?

A. I require immediate assistance. B. I require medical assistance. C. Do you require assistance? D. Stand by to assist me.

6.

What does this two flag hoist signal indicate?

A. I am in distress and require immediate assistance. B. Keep clear. I have divers down. C. I require medical assistance.

408

D. (On a vessel alongside) You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.

7.

What is the two letter signal, to be used by flags, radiotelephony or radiotelegraphy, meaning "Calling All Ships". A. CQ B. AS C. CA D. TT

8.

What letter is represented by this flag and what is it's meaning when displayed by a vessel in port?

A. P - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea. B. S - I am operating astern propulsion. C. P - I require a pilot. D. W - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea.

9.

You are approaching the port entrance. What do these lights mean?

A. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do so. B. Vessels may proceed - one-way traffic. C. Vessels may proceed - two-way traffic. D. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do 409

so, except that vessels which can safely navigate outside the main channel need not comply with this message.

10.

You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks. You see this flag hoist on a vessel moored on a berth ahead. What does it mean?

A. You should proceed at slow speed when passing me. B. Caution! I have an anchor down. C. My engine is disabled. D. I am about to depart the berth.

11.

Which flag means ? "I have a diver down, keep well clear at slow speed."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 1 D. Flag 3

410

12.

Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me,

I

am

maneuvering

with

difficulty."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

13.

Which flag means ? "I am taking in, or discharging, or carrying dangerous goods."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 1

14.

Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am engaged in pair trawling."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

411

15.

Which flag means ? "My vessel

is

'healthy-and

I

request free pratique."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 1

16.

Which flag means ? "I require a tug. When made by fishing vessels proximity

operating on

in

the

close fishing

grounds, it means: am shooting my nets." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 3

17.

Which flag means ? "You are running into clanger."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1 412

18.

Which flag means ? "Stop carrying out your intentions and watch for my signals."

A. Flag 1 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 3

19.

Which flag means ? "I require assistance."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

20.

Which flag means ? "I am operating

astern

propulsion."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 3

413

21.

Which flag means ? "I wish to communicate with you."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 2

22.

Which flag means ? "I am

disabled.

Communicate with me."

A. Flag 1 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 2

23.

Which flag means ? "I am altering

my

course

to

starboard."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 4

414

24.

Which flag means ?" You should stop your vessel instantly."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 2

25.

Which flag means ? "I am on fire and have dangerous cargo on board, keep well clear of me?'

A. Flag 2 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1 26.

Which flag means? "I have a pilot on board."

A. Flag 4 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 2 D. Flag

415

27.

Which flag means?"' am

altering

my

course to port."

A. Flag 2 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 3

28.

Nhich flag means? "I require a pilot. When made byfishing vessels operating

in

close

proximity on the fishing grounds it means: I am hauling nets." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

416

29.

Which flag means? "My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

30.

Which flag means? "Man overboard."

A. Flag 2 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1 31.

Which

flag

means?

"In

harbour. All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea. At sea, it may be used by fishing vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction." A. Flag 4 B. Flag I C. Flag 3 D. Flag 2 417

32.

Which

flag

means?"'

am

dragging my anchor."

A.

Flag 2

B. Flag 4 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

33.

Which flag means? "I require

a

medical

assistance."

A. Flag 3 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 1

34.

Which flag means? "No ( negative )."

A. Flag 2 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 1 D. Flag 3

418

35.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Charlie B. Juliet C. Lima D. Uniform

36.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Foxtrot B. Charlie C. Golf D. Delta 37.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Hotel B. Kilo C. Echo D. Tango 419

38.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Charlie B. Foxtrot C. Lima D. Alfa

39.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Whisky B. Golf C. Papa D. Yankee 40.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Hotel B. Juliet C. Victor D. Xray

420

41.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Zulu B. Papa C. India D. Mike

42.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Lima B. Juliet C. Romeo D. Bravo 43.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Oscar B. Kilo C. Quebec D. Sierra

421

44.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Echo B. Hotel C. Lima D. Alfa

45.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Mike B. Uniform C. Whisky D. Foxtrot 46.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. November B. Oscar C. India D. Golf 422

47.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Uniform B. Papa C. Yankee D. Oscar 48.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Papa B. Hotel C. Alfa D. Juliet

49.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Quebec B. Oscar C. India D. Victor 423

50.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Romeo B. Zulu C. Tango D. Xray 51.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Whisky B. Sierra C. Lima D. Papa

52.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Golf B. Juliet C. Tango D. Hotel 424

53.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Uniform B. Lima C. November D. Mike

54.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Yankee B. Whisky C. Mike D. Victor

55.

Mat is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Whisky B. Echo C. Elena D. Charlie

425

56.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Oscar B. Yankee C. Yankee D. Xray

57.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Echo B. Oscar C. Yankee D. Foxtrot

58.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Lima B. Foxtrot C. Zulu D. Uniform 426

59.

Which flag group means "Vessel

indicated

reported

as

is

requiring

assistance in lat..long..(or bearing.

from

lace

indicated, distance..)." ?

A. A B. D C. C D. B

60.

Which flag group means "Do not pass too close to me." ?

A. A B. D C. B D. C

427

61.

Mich flag group means You should

proceed

at

slow

speed when passing me or vessels making this signal."

A. A B. B C. D D. C

62.

Which flag group means "I

require

health

clearance" ?

A. A B. C C. B D. D

63.

Nhich flag group means Interrogative

or

the

significance

of

the

previous group should be read as a question" ? A. D B. A C. B D. C

428

64.

Which flag group means "Light

vessel

out

of

position" ?

A. C B. D C. A D. B

65.

Which flag group means I is it not safe to fire a rocker?

A. B B. C C. A D. D

429

66.

Which flag group means " You

appear

not

to

be

complying with the traffic separation scheme ?

A. D B. B C. A D. C

67.

Which flag group means "I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or coordinating a search" ?

A. C B. A C. D D. B

430

68.

Which flag group means "Look-out for a rocketline" ?

A. A B. D C. B D. C

69.

Which flag group means "I am going to communicate with your station by means of the International Code of Signals"

A. A B. B C. C D. D

431

70.

Which flag group means "I am in distress and require immediate assistance ?

A. D B. B C. C D. A

71.

Which flag group means "You should proceed with great caution; Submarines are exercising in this area" ?

A. A B. B C. C D. D

72.

Which flag group means "The groups which follow are from the International Code of Signals"?

A. D B. B C. C D. A

432

73.

Which flag group means "I am calibrating radio direction

finder

or

adjusting compasses" ?

A. A B. C C. D D. B

74.

Which flag group means "The words which follow are in plain language ?

A. A B. D C. B D. C

75.

Which flag group means Have you a doctor " ?

A. C B. B C. A D. D

433

76.

Which flag group means "What is the name or identity signal of your vessel" ?

A. A B. C C. B D. D

77.

Mich flag group means "I am engaged in submarine survey work ( underwater operations }. Keep well clear

of

me

at

slow

speed." ? A. B B. A C. C D. D 78.

Which flag group means "I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel 16" ?

A. D B. B C. C D. A 434

79.

Which flag group means "You should keep away from me or the vessel indicated" ?

A. D B. A C. B D. C

80.

In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged ?

A. Escorting a submerged submarine B. Diving operations C. Minesweeping D. Fishing with purse seine gear

81.

What type of vessel is this?

A. A trawler B. Any type of fishing vessel C. A vessel at anchor D. A vessel not under command

435

82.

What sort of vessel would display this day signal ?

A. A sailing vessel which is aground B. A vessel engaged in underwater demolition work C. A vessel which is in distress and requesting assistance D. A fishing vessel with gear fast to a rock and at anchor

83.

What type of vessel shows these shapes?

A. A tug and tow B. A vessel restricted in ability to manoeuvre C. A vessel not under command D. A tug and tow where the length of tow exceeds 200m

436

84.

Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic surveying ?

A. Day signal A B. Day signal D C. Day signal B D. Day signal C

437

7. IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and Use the IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases and use English in written and oral form (Menggunakan Kalimat Komunikasi Maritim Standar IMO dan menggunakan bahasa Inggris dalam bentuk tulisan dan ucapan)

1.

During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request from the bridge, "How is the chain"? A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe. B. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the ship needs to be moved forward and take the weight off the anchor cable. C. The Master is requesting the Chief Officer to inform the bridge of whether he can determine which way the ship is moving in the water. D. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the vessel is dragging anchor

2.

How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that "It is the tug's wire"?? A. The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast. B. The After Team will send a wire from the poop to the tug and then make it fast. C. The After team will send out the towing spring to the tug to make fast. D. The tug will be ready to receive the towing spring and make it fast.

3.

In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side alongside a jetty?

A. The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Aft Spring is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Aft Spring is indicated by C, in the figure 438

D. The Aft Spring is indicated by D, in the figure

4.

In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which bridge instrument would indicate this depth?

A. Echo Sounder B. Draught Indicator C. Arpa Radar D. GPS

5.

In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the "Bridge"?

A. The Bridge is i Indicated by A, in the figure B. The Bridge is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Bridge is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bridge is indicated by D, in the figure 6.

In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by the "FORWARD SPRING" when mooring the ship?

A. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure B. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by B, in the figure C. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by C, in the figure D. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by A, in the figure 439

7.

In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"?

A. Midships is indicated by B, in the figure B. Midships is indicated by A, in the figure C. Midships is indicated by C, in the figure D. Midships is indicated by D, in the figure

8.

In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship?

A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure

9.

In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"?

A. The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure B. The Stern area is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Stern area is indicated by A, in the figure D. The Stern area is indicated by D, in the figure

440

10.

In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel, when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would be used by a "STERN LINE"?

A. The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Stern Line is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Stern Line is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Stern Line is indicated by D, in the figure

11.

In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"?

A. Astern is indicated by D, in the figure B. Astern is indicated by B, in the figure C. Astern is indicated by C, in the figure D. Astern is indicated by A, in the figure 12.

In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel?

A. Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure B. Breadth is indicated by A, in the figure C. Breadth is indicated by C, in the figure D. Breadth is indicated by D, in the figure 441

13.

In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"?

A. The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure B. The mooring bits are indicated by B, in the figure C. The mooring bits are indicated by C, in the figure D. The mooring bits are indicated by A, in the figure 14.

In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"?

A. The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Windlass is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Windlass is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Windlass is indicated by D, in the figure

15.

In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run?

A. The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow B. The forward head line would normally lead from the bow back towards the stern C. The forward head line would normally lead straight across to the jetty and be as short as possible D. The forward head line is normally the line used by the forward tug. 442

16.

On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter "A"? It is normally raised by one deck above the main deck

A. Fo'c's'le or Forecastle B. Forward bridge C. Poop D. Crows nest

17.

On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel?

A. The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure B. The breadth is indicated by letter A, in the figure C. The breadth is indicated by letter C, in the figure D. The breadth is indicated by letter D, in the figure 18.

On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the ship?

A. Draught is indicated by D, in the figure B. Draught is indicated by B, in the figure C. Draught is indicated by C, in the figure D. Draught is indicated by A, in the figure 443

19.

On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"?

A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure 20.

Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should training in personal survival techniques be given?

A. Before being employed B. During the first week on board C. After joining the ship D. After one period at sea 21.

Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to prospective seafarers?

A. Approved training in survival techniques B. Passport and visa C. Recommendations D. Survival and protective clothing 444

22.

Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental requirement relating to the older ships, which are still in service?

A. The older ships must be in good condition. B. As a result of the new building activities, older ships are no longer required. C. The older ship must be cheaper to run than the new builds. D. The older ships should be scrapped to make way for the new builds. 23.

What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the middle of the ocean? A. The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to the Officer of the Watch B. The lookout must keep a lookout ahead of the vessel and report anything sighted to the Officer of the Watch C. The lookout should remain on the bridge wing to be at hand to deliver messages as required by the Officer of the Watch D. The lookout must standby ready to take the wheel when required by the Officer of the Watch

24.

What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to leave the berth and go to sea? A. Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways B. Help the forward team let go the ropes C. Help the after team let go the ropes D. Standby in the mess room until called to the bridge.

445

25.

What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and unmooring?

A. Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires B. Let Go means to let seafarers go ashore C. Let Go means to leave the ship D. Let Go means to slacken a mooring rope

26.

What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship? A. The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities B. The plan to show the staff requirements at each hatch while the ship is loading cargo C. The plan showing the cargo spaces and their capacity D. A discussion between the shore and ship to plan the procedure for loading cargo

27.

What is a "Fairlead"? A. A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them moving sideward’s and reduces friction and chafing B. A Fairlead is the sounding lead used to sample the seabed C. A Fairlead is the device used to close the cargo holds D. A Fairlead is the safest direction to steam down a fairway

446

28.

What is a mooring line? A. A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship B. A mooring line is a line that is passed through a block C. A mooring line is a small diameter line attached to a large diameter rope D. A mooring line is a line attached to the anchor

29.

What is a ship's "Gangway"? A. A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore B. A Gangway is an interval of time between a change of working gangs, on board C. A Gangway is a vertical ladder used by the pilot to board the ship D. A Gangway is the means of access into the cargo holds

30.

What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to which it was moored? A. Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside. B. Single up is the term used when there is only one single rope left out between the ship and the jetty, when leaving the berth C. Single up is the term used when only one single tug is used to assist the ship in leaving the berth. D. Single up is the term used when a ship leaves the jetty without any assistance from tugs and it is entirely on its own steam.

31.

What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and unmooring?

A. Winch B. Capstan C. Windlass D. Crane 447

32.

What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor? A. A black ball forward where it can best be seen B. Two black balls where they can best be seen C. The national flag flying from the fore mast D. A black ball from main mast amidships

33.

What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship? A. Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits B. Make Fast means to act very quickly C. Make Fast means to avoid eating all meals during the daylight hours. D. Make Fast means to coil up a rope

34.

What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and shore? A. Gangway B. Accommodation ladder C. Bridgeway D. Bulwark

35.

What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main engines? A. Bunkers B. Fuel oil C. Cargo D. Lubricating oil

36.

What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to make a tug fast? A. Towing spring B. Tugs rope C. Tugs wire D. Mooring wire

448

37.

What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture?

A. Survival suit B. Wet suit C. Life suit D. Fluorescent orange suit

38.

What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge? A. The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging in degrees per minute B. The Rate of Turn display shows the turning speed the vessel is swinging in degrees per second C. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the rudder angle applied by the helmsman to turn the ship. D. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the changing angle of the vessel from the meridian

39.

What is the role of a tug in a port?

A. A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor B. A tug provides transport for the port personnel C. A tug is used to assist the fishing boats when they enter the port D. A tug is the normal vessel used by the pilot to board a ship

449

40.

What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"? A. "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship B. "Boat Drill" means an exercise in the safe methods of handling a lifeboat in heavy seas C. "Boat Drill" is an exercise in the practical and safe methods to secure a boat alongside the ship. D. "Boat Drill" is an exercise to launch the lifeboats and move the boats clear of the ship.

41.

What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"? A. Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind B. Lee Side is the Starboard side of the vessel C. Lee Side is the Port side of the vessel D. Lee Side is the side that faces the wind

42.

What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship? A. A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured B. A Bollard is a very heavy rope C. A Bollard is a loop in a rope D. A Bollard is a rope made up of several strands

43.

What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure?

A. Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure B. Ahead is indicated by B, in the figure C. Ahead is indicated by C, in the figure D. Ahead is indicated by D, in the figure

450

44.

When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an order? A. When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to the person who gave it before carrying out the order. B. The response to an order should be to acknowledge that order and then carry out what you were told to do. C. When acting as helmsman and given a helm order you should always say "Yes sir" D. The order needs to be acted upon and this will indicate you understood what was said

45.

When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question "What is the aspect of the other ship"? A. The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship is heading. B. The question is requesting some idea of how far away the other ship is from your own ship C. The question wants to know what type of ship has been sighted D. The question is requesting where on the horizon the other ship was sighted.

46.

When should the lookout report another vessel? A. As soon as it is sighted or heard. B. When the navigation lights can be clearly seen C. When the other vessel is approaching the ship D. When the other vessel is forward of the beam of own ship

451

47.

Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

A. The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Forecastle is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Forecastle is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Forecastle is indicated by D, in the figure

48.

Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"? A. The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into the lifeboats B. The Boat Deck is the deck of a life boat C. The Boat Deck is the deck where access would be made from any boats alongside. D. The Boat Deck is the name of the main deck of the ship or boat.

49.

Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure?

A. The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Capstan is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Capstan is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Capstan is indicated by D, in the figure

452

50.

Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure?

A. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by D, in the figure

51.

Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure?

A. The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure B. The Panama Lead is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Panama Lead is indicated by A, in the figure D. The Panama Lead is indicated by D, in the figure

52.

Which is the "QUAY", in the figure?

A. The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Quay is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Quay is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Quay is indicated by D, in the figure

453

53.

Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure?

A. The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Starboard bow is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Starboard bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Starboard bow is indicated by D, in the figure 54.

Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT BREAST LINE"?

A. The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure B. The Aft Breast Line is A, in the figure C. The Aft Breast Line is C, in the figure D. The Aft Breast Line is D, in the figure

55.

Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous? A. They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves B. They do not look good to the customers C. They show the ship is not efficient D. They are areas which should be cleaned up.

454

56.

With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and the marine environment?

A. Bad management and poorly maintained older ships. B. All ships aged between twenty and thirty years old. C. All old or new ships which are badly managed ships. D. There is no immediate threat to the crew or environment 57.

Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch? A. Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic. B. Never necessary C. No, one lookout is sufficient even in fog D. Every night there should be two lookouts, one on each bridge wing.

58.

In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term "LENGTH OVERALL"?

A. Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure B. Length Overall is indicated by A, in the figure C. Length Overall is indicated by C, in the figure D. Length Overall is indicated by D, in the figure

59.

The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be used when the ship's Officer is verbally talking to whom? A. In circumstances described in all of the answers provided B. When talking between ship and shore personnel C. When giving orders on board with other seafarers D. When talking on the VHF between ships 455

60.

The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the OOW. What does OOW actually stand for? A. Officer of the Watch B. On official watch C. On official watchkeeping D. Operator of the watch

61.

What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure?

A. Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure B. Air draught is indicated by B, in the figure C. Air draught is indicated by A, in the figure D. Air draught is indicated by D, in the figure

62.

What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure?

A. Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure B. Freeboard is indicated by A, in the figure C. Freeboard is indicated by C, in the figure D. Freeboard is indicated by D, in the figure

456

63.

What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure?

A. Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure B. Length overall is indicated by A, in the figure C. Length overall is indicated by C, in the figure D. Length overall is indicated by D, in the figure

64.

What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied to a ship? A. The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same extreme dimensions. B. The coefficient of a Block and Tackle C. The ratio of the waterplane shape of the ship to a rectangle of the same extreme dimensions D. The restriction of a valve in a pipe to the flow of fluid through that pipe

65.

Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome any misunderstanding in communications? A. The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet B. Standard Marine Navigational Vocabulary C. The Oxford Concise Dictionary D. The (ICS) Bridge Procedures Guide

457

66.

Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure?

A. The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure B. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by B, in the figure C. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by C, in the figure D. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by D, in the figure 67.

How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard? A. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard" B. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout once, "Man overboard" C. If I saw a person falling overboard I would run to the Bridge D. If I saw a person falling overboard I would inform the Bosun

68.

Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"? A. Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not important. B. Either can be used anytime C. A large vessel is always called a "ship" and never a "boat" D. A boat can only be used for vessels under 50 metres in length.

69.

What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill for all persons on board the ship?

A. The Muster List B. The Crew List C. The Drill List D. The Duty List 458

70.

What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting? A. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader' B. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Long rung' C. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Wide step' D. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called an 'Ani-twist rung'

71.

What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"? A. Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite side of the ship. B. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to rig another pilot ladder C. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to move the pilot ladder further along nearer to the bow. D. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to change the position of the pilot ladder from the main deck to the fore deck.

72.

What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"? A. Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship B. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to steer away from the ship. C. Let go the tug means: to cut the lines securing the tug to the ship D. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to let go his anchor

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73.

What do you understand by: Bitter end? A. Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the chain locker B. Bitter end means: to the very last moment C. Bitter end means: a foul taste at the end of a meal D. Bitter end means: the toggled end of a lifeboat painter

74.

What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor? A. Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake B. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear C. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear and lower the anchor D. Let go the port anchor means: slacken the port anchor cable

75.

What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder? A. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the accommodation ladder and rig the pilot ladder right next to it B. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway C. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway and rig the pilot ladder forward of the accommodation D. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway and rig the pilot ladder from the gangway

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76.

What do you understand by: Secure the tug?

A. Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug B. Secure the tug means: to let go the tug C. Secure the tug means: to pass a line to the tug D. Secure the tug means: to pick up the tug line

77.

What does the word "pirates" mean? A. Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea B. Pirates are official people who board the ship while in port C. Pirates are special cargo lashings on container ships D. Pirates are another word for helmsmen

78.

What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure?

A. Draught is D, in the figure B. Draught is B, in the figure C. Draught is C, in the figure D. Draught is A, in the figure

79.

What is the meaning of "make fast" A. To secure a rope B. To act quickly C. To avoid all meals D. To coil a rope 461

80.

What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat?

A. Lifeboat drill B. Lifeboat practice C. Lifeboat launching D. Lifeboat exercise

81.

What is the objective of the merchant navy? A. To safely transport goods by sea B. To transport and deliver goods as quickly as possible C. To earn money for the shipowner D. To provide employment for persons who wish to become seafarers

82.

What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals?

A. The crew mess B. The crew restaurant C. The crew restaurant D. The crew café

83.

What is understood by the term "take the helm"? A. Take over the steering of the ship. B. Take over heaving of a rope. C. Take a message to another officer. D. Change the place where the lookout is standing.

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84.

Where is "AFT", in the figure?

A. Aft is A, in the figure B. Aft is B, in the figure C. Aft is C, in the figure D. Aft is D, in the figure

85.

Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure?

A. The Bridge is A, in the figure B. The Bridge is B, in the figure C. The Bridge is C, in the figure D. The Bridge is D, in the figure

86.

Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure?

A. The Forecastle is B, in the figure B. The Forecastle is A, in the figure C. The Forecastle is C, in the figure D. The Forecastle is D, in the figure

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87.

Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure?

A. The Port quarter is D, in the figure B. The Port quarter is B, in the figure C. The Port quarter is A, in the figure D. The Port quarter is C, in the figure

88.

Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure?

A. The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure B. The Starboard quarter is B, in the figure C. The Starboard quarter is A, in the figure D. The Starboard quarter is D, in the figure

89.

Which of these statements is NOT correct ? A. Kerosene is good for cleaning the skin. B. Contact with oil on the skin can cause dermatitis. C. Oil and gasoline on the skin can cause skin cancer. D. Oil can block skin pores and cause rashes.

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8. Transmit and receive information by visual signaling (Mengirim dan menerima informasi dengan isyarat visual) 1.

How can an azimuth or bearing be indicated by signal flags? A. The letter A + three numerals. B. The letter B + three numerals. C. The letter A + three numerals + the letter R or T. D. The letter N + three numerals.

2.

Signals are often used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to direct ships towards a casualty. This aircraft flies across your stern, rocking his wings. What is the meaning of the signal?

A. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required. B. This is part of a sequence of manoeuvres by which the aircraft will indicate a direction for my vessel to proceed in. C. The aircraft is telling me he does not understand my last message. D. The aircraft is telling me he is preparing to drop supplies or personnel in the water.

3.

Visual signals are used by aircraft engaged in search and rescue operations to directships towards a casualty. The signals shown here are part of a sequence. What does it indicate?

A. The aircraft is directing a vessel towards the casualty. B. The assistance of your vessel is no longer required. C. The casualty is sighted and will require medical assistance. D. The aircraft is short on fuel and is returning to base.

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4.

What does this flag mean? A. I diver down; keep well clear at slow speed. B. Yes (affirmative).have a C. My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water. D. I wish to communicate with you.

5.

What does this signal hoist mean? A. I require immediate assistance. B. I require medical assistance. C. Do you require assistance? D. Stand by to assist me.

6.

What does this two flag hoist signal indicate?

A. I am in distress and require immediate assistance. B. Keep clear. I have divers down. C. I require medical assistance. D. (On a vessel alongside) You should proceed at slow speed when passing me.

7.

What is the two letter signal, to be used by flags, radiotelephony or radiotelegraphy, meaning "Calling All Ships". A. CQ B. AS C. CA D. TT

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8.

What letter is represented by this flag and what is it's meaning when displayed by a vessel in port?

A. P - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea. B. S - I am operating astern propulsion. C. P - I require a pilot. D. W - All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea.

9.

You are approaching the port entrance. What do these lights mean? A. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do so. B. Vessels may proceed - one-way traffic. C. Vessels may proceed - two-way traffic. D. A vessel may proceed only when she has received specific orders to do so, except that vessels which can safely navigate outside the main channel need not comply with this message.

10.

You are proceeding up a river, with berths on both banks. You see this flag hoist on a vessel moored on a berth ahead. What does it mean? A. You should proceed at slow speed when passing me. B. Caution! I have an anchor down. C. My engine is disabled. D. I am about to depart the berth.

11.

Which flag means ? "I have a diver down, keep well clear at slow speed." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 1 D. Flag 3 467

12.

Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am maneuvering with difficulty." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

13.

Which flag means ? "I am taking in, or discharging, or carrying dangerous goods." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 1

14.

Which flag means ? "Keep clear of me, I am engaged in pair trawling." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

15.

Which flag means ? "My vessel is 'healthy-and I request free pratique." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 1

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16.

Which flag means ? "I require a tug. When made by fishing vessels operating in close proximity on the fishing grounds, it means: am shooting my nets." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 3

17.

Which flag means ? "You are running into clanger." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

18.

Which flag means ? "Stop carrying out your intentions and watch for my signals." A. Flag 1 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 3

19.

Which flag means ? "I require assistance." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

469

20.

Which flag means ? "I am operating astern propulsion." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 3

21.

Which flag means ? "I wish to communicate with you." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 2

22.

Which flag means ? "I am disabled. Communicate with me." A. Flag 1 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 2

23.

Which flag means ? "I am altering my course to starboard." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 4

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24.

Which flag means ?" You should stop your vessel instantly." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 2

25.

Which flag means ? "I am on fire and have dangerous cargo on board, keep well clear of me?' A. Flag 2 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

26.

Which flag means? "I have a pilot on board." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 2 D. Flag

27.

Which flag means?"' am altering my course to port."

A. Flag 2 B. Flag 1 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 3

471

28.

Nhich flag means? "I require a pilot. When made byfishing vessels operating in close proximity on the fishing grounds it means: I am hauling nets." A. Flag 4 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

29.

Which flag means? "My vessel is stopped and making no way through the water." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 2 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

30.

Which flag means? "Man overboard." A. Flag 2 B. Flag 3 C. Flag 4 D. Flag 1

31.

Which flag means? "In harbour. All persons should report on board as the vessel is about to proceed to sea. At sea, it may be used by fishing vessels to mean: My nets have come fast upon an obstruction." A. Flag 4 B. Flag I C. Flag 3 472

D. Flag 2

32.

Which flag means?"' am dragging my anchor." A. Flag 2 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 3 D. Flag 1

33.

Which flag means? "I require a medical assistance." A. Flag 3 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 2 D. Flag 1

34.

Which flag means? "No ( negative )." A. Flag 2 B. Flag 4 C. Flag 1 D. Flag 3

35.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ?

A. Charlie B. Juliet C. Lima D. Uniform

473

36.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Foxtrot B. Charlie C. Golf D. Delta

37.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Hotel B. Kilo C. Echo D. Tango

38.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Charlie B. Foxtrot C. Lima D. Alfa

39.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Whisky B. Golf C. Papa D. Yankee

474

40.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Hotel B. Juliet C. Victor D. Xray

41.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Zulu B. Papa C. India D. Mike

42.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Lima B. Juliet C. Romeo D. Bravo

43.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Oscar B. Kilo C. Quebec D. Sierra

475

44.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Echo B. Hotel C. Lima D. Alfa

45.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Mike B. Uniform C. Whisky D. Foxtrot

46.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. November B. Oscar C. India D. Golf

47.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Uniform B. Papa C. Yankee D. Oscar

48.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Papa B. Hotel C. Alfa 476

D. Juliet

49.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Quebec B. Oscar C. India D. Victor

50.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Romeo B. Zulu C. Tango D. Xray

51.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Whisky B. Sierra C. Lima D. Papa

52.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Golf B. Juliet C. Tango D. Hotel

53.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Uniform B. Lima C. November D. Mike 477

54.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Yankee B. Whisky C. Mike D. Victor

55.

Mat is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Whisky B. Echo C. Elena D. Charlie

56.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Oscar B. Yankee C. Yankee D. Xray

57.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Echo B. Oscar C. Yankee D. Foxtrot

58.

What is the phonetic word for this flag ? A. Lima B. Foxtrot C. Zulu 478

D. Uniform

59.

Which flag group means "Vessel indicated is reported as requiring assistance in lat..long..(or bearing. from lace indicated, distance..)." ? A. A B. D C. C D. B

60.

Which flag group means "Do not pass too close to me." ? A. A B. D C. B D. C

61.

Mich flag group means You should proceed at slow speed when passing me or vessels making this signal." ? A. A B. B C. D D. C

62.

Which flag group means "I require health clearance" ? A. A B. C C. B D. D

479

63.

Nhich flag group means Interrogative or the significance of the previous group should be read as a question" ? A. D B. A C. B D. C

64.

Which flag group means "Light vessel out of position" ? A. C B. D C. A D. B

65.

Which flag group means I is it not safe to fire a rocker? A. B B. C C. A D. D

66.

Which flag group means " You appear not to be complying with the traffic separation scheme ? A. D B. B C. A D. C

480

67.

Which flag group means "I am ( or vessel indicated is ) in charge or coordinating a search" ? A. C B. A C. D D. B

68.

Which flag group means "Look-out for a rocket-line" ? A. A B. D C. B D. C

69.

Which flag group means "I am going to communicate with your station by means of the International Code of Signals" A. A B. B C. C D. D

70.

Which flag group means "I am in distress and require immediate assistance ? A. D B. B C. C D. A

481

71.

Which flag group means "You should proceed with great caution; Submarines are exercising in this area" ? A. A B. B C. C D. D

72.

Which flag group means "The groups which follow are from the International Code of Signals"?

A. D B. B C. C D. A

73.

Which flag group means "I am calibrating radio direction finder or adjusting compasses" ?

A. A B. C C. D D. B

482

74.

Which flag group means "The words which follow are in plain language ? A. A B. D C. B D. C

75.

Which flag group means Have you a doctor " ? A. C B. B C. A D. D

76.

Which flag group means "What is the name or identity signal of your vessel" ? A. A B. C C. B D. D

77.

Mich flag group means "I am engaged in submarine survey work ( underwater operations }. Keep well clear of me at slow speed." ? A. B B. A C. C D. D

483

78.

Which flag group means "I wish to communicate with you by VHF channel 16" ? A. D B. B C. C D. A

79.

Which flag group means "You should keep away from me or the vessel indicated" ? A. D B. A C. B D. C

80.

In what operations would a ship showing this flag be engaged ? A. Escorting a submerged submarine B. Diving operations C. Minesweeping D. Fishing with purse seine gear

81.

What type of vessel is this? A. A trawler B. Any type of fishing vessel C. A vessel at anchor D. A vessel not under command

484

82.

What sort of vessel would display this day signal ? A. A sailing vessel which is aground B. A vessel engaged in underwater demolition work C. A vessel which is in distress and requesting assistance D. A fishing vessel with gear fast to a rock and at anchor

83.

What type of vessel shows these shapes? A. A tug and tow B. A vessel restricted in ability to manoeuvre C. A vessel not under command D. A tug and tow where the length of tow exceeds 200m

84.

Which is the correct day signal for a vessel engaged in hydrographic surveying ? A. Day signal A B. Day signal D C. Day signal B D. Day signal C

485

9. Manoeuvre the ship (Mengolah gerak kapal) 1. A balanced rudder has some of the rudder area forward of the rudder axis. About how much area should this be to call it a balanced rudder?

A.

It should be about 20%

B.

It should be about 50%

C.

It should be about 5%

D.

It should be about 55%

2. A ship is equipped with a right-handed fixed pitch propeller, which when going from Full Ahead to Full Astern will make the ship sheer to starboard. Can anything be done to reduce this change in heading?

A.

The rudder can be put to Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to the right side of the propeller

B.

The rudder should be kept amidships when going astern and there is little that can be done to reduce the swing to starboard

C.

The rudder should be put Hard to Port to reduce the water flow to the left side of the propeller

D.

The rudder can be put from side to side in a "Rudder Cycling" movement.

486

3. A ship is passing through a narrow channel and keeping to the starboard side of the fairway, as illustrated. What could be expected in this situation?

A.

The ship will suffer bank rejection and the bow will be pushed away from the bank

B.

The ship will suffer ship to shore interaction and the bow will be sucked towards the bank

C.

The ship will be sucked towards the bank and the stern will be pushed away due to ship-to-shore interaction.

D.

The ship's rudder will suffer a lack of effectiveness due to the shallow water, but should not be affected by the bank being close to the bow.

4. A ship is steaming at "Full Ahead" when the engines are changed to "Full Astern". Would this reversal of engines produce the same results in deep water as in shallow water (where the under keel clearance is equal to about half the draught)?

A.

The effectiveness of the rudder and propeller are greatly reduced and therefore the results will be considerably different

B.

The speed will reduce quickly and the transverse thrust will swing the ships head to starboard as the ship slows down.

C.

The reduction in speed and turning effects will vary very little between deep and shallow water.

D.

The shallow water will produce an increase in water velocity and a reduction in pressure. 487

5. A ship normally turns (swings) around a point which is not the centre of gravity. What is this point normally called?

A.

Pivot Point

B.

Centre of Floatation

C.

Centre of Turn

D.

Centre of Buoyancy

6. A ship turns around a point known as the "pivot point". Where is the position of this invisible point when the ship is stopped and "dead" in the water?

A.

At about same position as the centre of gravity of the ship

B.

About one third the ship's length near the stern of the ship

C.

At the Centre of Flotation of the ship

D.

About one third of the ship's length near the bow

488

7. A tug is moving towards the bow of the ship to make fast and is in the vicinity of the ship's shoulder, as illustrated. What specific danger should be considered when making this approach to the bow?

A.

The tug may be turned across the bow of the ship and also suffer a lose of stability with a danger of being turned over if touched by the ship

B.

The positive pressure field at the ships bow may repel the tug and make the connection very difficult to establish

C.

The stern of the tug may be sucked in towards the bow and also suffer a reduction in the positive GM, making it very unstable.

D.

All of the alternative answers

8. How can the effects of Squat be minimized, when a ship is proceeding in shallow water?

A.

Maintain a slow speed just sufficient to maintain steerage

B.

Maintain a speed of about six (6) knots and use minimal rudder when manoeuvring

C.

Decrease the speed and keep the ship to the centre of the channel where the water is probably deepest

D.

Enter the shallow water with a stern trim and proceed at a moderate speed.

489

9. If a ship requires 2 nautical miles to stop in the water from a "crash stop" when proceeding at full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water?

A.

A greater distance

B.

A shorter distance

C.

Similar distance to deep water

D.

About 1.5 nautical miles

10.

On the figure there are four (4) possible definitions of the term "AIR

DRAUGHT" given. Which one is the correct one?

A.

Air draught is given by C on the figure

B.

Air draught is given by B on the figure

C.

Air draught is given by A on the figure

D.

Air draught is given by D on the figure

11.

Ships vary considerably in design and underwater shape, but does

the ship's trim ever have any influence on its steering abilities?

A.

Yes, the ship often steers better if trimmed by the stern

B.

No, the ship will have the same steering ability and is unaffected by trim

C.

Yes, a ship often steers better if trimmed by the bow

D.

Yes, it is usually best to be on an even keel and have no trim at all 490

12.

The engines are going astern and the ship is making sternway of

about 1.5 knots with the rudder hard to starboard. What effect will this have on the ship's progress?

A.

This will give the stern a lift force to starboard

B.

The rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it should be in the amidships position when going astern

C.

This will give the stern a lift force to port

D.

There will be no lift force and the ship will go straight astern

13.

The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think

this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?

A.

No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, this is because the rudder is "stalling" at 35 degrees angle

B.

No, the rudder is most effective at angles between 10 and 20 degrees

C.

Yes, the rudder is most effective at max angle

D.

No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles

491

14.

The rudder is in the hard over position with the propeller stopped

and the ship turning slowly. On a ship with a single fixed pitch right handed propeller and no thrusters, what can be done to make the ship increase the speed of turn without significantly increasing the forward speed of the ship?

A.

Give the engines a short kick ahead

B.

Give full astern on the engines until ship has stopped and then full ahead on the engines with rudder hard over

C.

Give dead slow ahead on the engines and leave the rudder in the hard over position.

D. 15.

Give half astern on the engines as this will increase the rate of turn The ship has a right-handed propeller and is swinging to starboard

when the engines are slow ahead and the rudder is to starboard. The engines are stopped and the rate of swing rapidly slows down. How could the swing to starboard be maintained without the ship making much headway.

A.

Astern on the engines will allow Transverse Thrust to continue the swing

B.

By applying the rudder hard over to starboard and going ahead on the engines.

C.

Transverse Thrust will reduce the swing and therefore a kick ahead is necessary with full starboard helm applied.

D.

The only effective method is by using the bow thruster to push the bow to starboard. 492

16.

The ship has completed a 360 degree turn at full speed in deep

water. The ship is now to repeat the turn at full speed in shallow water. What will be the difference in the turning circle diameter?

A.

The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water

B.

The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water

C.

The turning diameter will be the same for all depths

D.

It will be the same provided the UKC is 25%-50%

17.

The ship is required to be stopped in the water as quickly as

possible, but without major changes to the ship's heading. What is the most effective method to achieve this?

A.

The use of the rudder hard over both sides combined with reducing engine power, a method known as "high frequency rudder cycling"

B.

Put the engine full astern and keep the rudder amidships

C.

Make a complete turn while reducing the engine power.

D.

Make a zig zag manoeuvre while reducing the engine power.

493

18.

The ship is sailing in shallow water with reduced Under Keel

Clearance. If the ship is steaming with the engines at full RPM, what would be the speed in comparison to the speed achieved in deep water?

A.

Slower than deep water

B.

Faster than deep water

C.

The same as deep water

D.

It would be very difficult to maintain full deep sea RPM on the engines and therefore difficult to assess the speed.

19.

The ship is starting to slow down after steaming at full ahead speed.

What will happen to the position of the "pivot point"?

A.

It will move aft as the ship slows down

B.

Same position as when the ship is steaming at full speed ahead

C.

The "pivot point" will move towards the bow of the ship

D.

It will move to the side of the centre line

494

20.

The ship is steaming at Full Ahead when the engines are reversed to

"Full Astern" to stop the ship. The ship has a single, right-handed fixed pitch propeller. What would be the anticipated reaction of the ship, if there is no wind or current?

A.

The ship will probably sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway

B.

The ship will probably continue on a straight course, but lose forward speed.

C.

It is unpredictable and could be any of the other alternative answers.

D.

21.

The ship will probably sheer to port and gradually lose headway.

The ship is to berth alongside a quay in calm conditions of no wind

or current. The ship has a single fixed pitch right handed propeller. Which angle of approach would be considered the most favourable?

A.

No. 2

B.

No. 1

C.

No. 3

D.

The decision should be left to the pilot who is in charge of the manoeuvre.

495

22.

The ship's engine is going astern and the ship is picking up sternway.

The rudder is amidships and the ship has a single, right-handed, fixed pitch propeller. What would be expected to happen?

A.

The ship will probably start to change heading to starboard and stern speed will increase

B.

The ship will probably start to change heading to port and stern speed will increase

C.

The ship will probably go straight astern without a change in heading and the stern speed will increase

D.

The ship will move astern at an increasing speed and the stern start to swing off to starboard

23.

The ship's rudder is full over when the ship's engines are full ahead.

Will the turning effect (lift force) of the rudder be changed when the engine is stopped?

A.

Yes, the lift force will be dramatically reduced when the engines are stopped

B.

Yes, the Lift or turning force will be reduced to about 50% of the original lift force when the engines are stopped

C.

No, the turning force applied by the rudder will be maintained within about 90% of the lift force when going full ahead

D.

No, the lift force is unaffected by the speed of the propeller

496

24.

The vessel is in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If the

engine speed is reduced during the turn, will there be any change in the turning diameter?

A.

Yes, the turning diameter will increase if the speed is reduced.

B.

Yes, the turning diameter will be smaller if the speed is reduced.

C.

No, the turning diameter will not change if the speed is reduced.

D.

No, the turning diameter will only change if the rudder angle is reduced

25.

Two ships are meeting in a restricted channel as illustrated. Which

of the following actions would be the most suitable to take on both vessels as they approach and pass each other?

A.

Slow down if possible without losing steerage and be prepared for prompt application of rudder to counteract any swing as they approach and pass each other.

B.

Maintain speed and a straight course on the starboard side of the channel

C.

Keep as far as possible on the starboard side of the channel and maintain speed to retain effective steerage.

D.

Increase speed slightly to pass each other as quickly as possible and thereby reduce the effects of "ship to ship" interaction.

497

26.

Two ships travelling in opposite directions are to pass each other in a

narrow river, as illustrated. Explain what is likely to happen as they pass each other?

A.

Due to interaction, the bows will repel each other, and then when alongside each other the two ships will be sucked together and finally the sterns will be repelled as they start to pass clear

B.

Due to interaction, the bows will attract each other as they approach, then they will repel each other alongside and as they pass clear, the sterns will be attracted.

C.

As they approach, rudder should be applied quickly to avoid sheering into the path of each other. Then as they are alongside they will be attracted and finally repel each other as they pass clear.

D.

27.

There will be very little effect between the two ships as they pass.

Two vessels are meeting each other in confined waters. What would

be the effects of interaction between the two vessels as they approach each other?

A.

The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other

B.

The bows of the ships will be sucked together

C.

Each vessel will experience an increase in speed

D.

There will be no effects in these circumstances

498

28.

What depth of water would be considered as "Shallow Water" in

relationship to a change of the ships manoeuvring characteristics?

A.

When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 50% of the draught of the ship

B.

When the "Under Keel Clearance" is equal to the draught of the ship

C.

When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than 15% of the draught of the ship.

D.

When the "Under Keel Clearance" is less than a quarter of the draught of the ship.

29.

What is the correct understanding of the term "a ship with good

Directional Stability"?

A.

A ship which when the rudder is left amidships, it will continue on approximately a straight course

B.

A ship which will maintain its course unless large rudder angles are applied.

C.

A ship which when a rudder angle is applied and the ship starts to swing, will continue to swing even after the rudder is returned to amidships

D.

A ship where the amount of positive transverse stability (GM) will vary with the direction of the ship's head.

499

30.

What is the correct understanding of the term "bank effect"? If a ship

was approaching the bank at an angle, what would be the effect on the ship?

A.

The vessel's bow is pushed away from the bank

B.

The vessel's stern is pushed away from the bank

C.

The vessel’s bow is attracted by the bank.

D.

The whole vessel would continue straight towards the bank and would require a large helm order to avoid going aground.

31.

A.

What would be the correct definition of the term "Squat"?

Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance and the possible change of trim of a ship when it moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure.

B.

Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance of a ship when it moves through shallow water due to a reduction in water pressure.

C.

Squat is the loss of effectiveness of the rudder and propeller as a ship moves through shallow water due to the reduction of water pressure.

D.

Squat is the reduction of underkeel clearance due to increase of water flow under the keel and an increase in the water pressure

500

32.

What would be the effects of a ship passing into shallow water?

A.

The ship is less responsive to both rudder and propeller.

B.

There is no noticeable difference in performance of the ship

C.

The speed is not affected, but more rudder is required to steer the ship

D.

The vessel has a tendency to swing to port with a single fixed-pitch right-hand turning propeller.

33.

When a ship is lying at anchor in a tidal area using both forward

anchors, to what particular aspect should the officer of the watch be paying special attention?

A.

When the ship swings to the tide the direction of swing should be controlled to avoid the anchor cables becoming wrapped round each other.

B.

The tension on both cables should be similar, to avoid one dragging and all the weight of the ship remaining on the other anchor only.

C.

The two anchors will restrict the ships swing with the tide and the ship may not lie to the prevailing current and wind

D.

The ship will become controlled by the tide and the wind will not be allowed to have any effect on the direction the ship lies at anchor.

501

34.

Where would the "pivot point" be considered to be located when the

ship is proceeding at full speed ahead and there is no wind or current?

A.

At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow

B.

At amidships

C.

At a position near the stern of the ship

D.

At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the stern

35.

Which of the following answers correctly specify the following most

common rudders?

a) UNBALANCED,

b) BALANCED, c) SEMI-

BALANCED and d) UNDERHUNG BALANCED. i.e. The number in the picture is related to the letter adjacent to the name of the rudder.

A.

1 = a, 2 = b, 3 = c and 4 = d

B.

1 = b, 2 = c, 3 = d and 4 = a

C.

1 = c, 2 = d, 3 = a and 4 = b

D.

1 = d, 2 = a, 3 = b and 4 = c

502

36.

Which of the following hull shapes would normally provide a

directionally stable ship?

A.

A long ship with a narrow beam.

B.

A short ship with a narrow beam

C.

A short ship with a wide beam

D.

A long ship with a wide beam

37.

Which type of vessel suffers from the greatest squat effects?

A.

Vessel with a high Block Coefficient

B.

Vessel with a low Block Coefficient

C.

Vessel with a large length to beam ratio

D.

Vessel with a small length to beam ratio.

38.

Who is responsible for the number and the position of any tugs to be

used during a mooring operation?

A.

The Master, with consideration of the advice of the pilot

B.

The Pilot is fully responsible for the number and use of tugs within the port area

C.

It will be only the wind speed that will determine the required number of tugs and how they are used.

D.

The Port Authority will dictate the tug requirements and their use within the port limits 503

39.

You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance.

Turning the ship around, what space do you need compared to deep water?

A.

Need more space than normal

B.

Need less space than normal

C.

The turning diameter of your ship is the same for all water depths

D.

To port less, to starboard more space

40.

In the above diagram of a ship's turning circle the distance A is

known as:

A.

Tactical Diameter

B.

Stopping Distance

C.

Advance

D.

Transfer

504

41.

In the above diagram of a ship's turning circte the distance 8 is

known as

A.

Diameter of the turn

B.

Transfer

C.

Radius of the turn

D.

Tactical Diameter

42.

In the above diagram of a ship's turning circle point C is known as:

A.

Heading Point

B.

The Foremast

C.

The Pivot Point

D.

Centre of Flotation

43.

The position of the pivot point when making Sternway is

approximately: A.

Amidships

B.

One eight of the length of the ship from the stern

C.

One quarter of the length of the ship from the bow

D.

One quarter of the length of the ship from the stern

505

44.

When a single screw ship with a right handed propeller is stopped in

the water and the engine is put half ahead, transverse thrust effect will: A.

Swing the stern to starboard and the bow to port

B.

Swing the stern to port and the bow to starboard

C.

Have no noticeable effect

D.

Swing the bow and stern to starboard

45.

The graph represents the decrease of speed, against time, on a

100,000 deadweight tanker which was proceeding at full speed of 13.3 knots and at minute 0 the engine was stopped. Is the decrease in speed ore likely to be:

A.

Series 2

B.

None of the other options

C.

Series 1

D.

Series 3

46.

Your ship is on a course of 240° True. A person has fallen overboard

on the port side and after letting go smoke and light floats, in order to carry out a Williamson Turn would you: A.

go hard to port until you are heading 180° True, then hard to starboard until you are on 060° True

B.

go hard to starboard until you are heading 300° True, then hard to port until you are on 060° True

C.

go hard to starboard to 285° True, then hard to port until you are on 060° True

D.

go hard to port until you are heading 195° True, then hard to starboard until you are on 060° True 506

47.

A ship is being turned short round in a tidal stream that is running at

three knots. If turning short round in still water normally takes 12 minutes, what allowance,should be made for the drift of the ship during the turn? A.

12 cables

B.

no allowance

C.

3 cables

D.

6 cables

48.

In a narrow canal, a ship proceeding at half speed ahead swings

towards the port bank of the channel. As the bow approaches the bank, would it initially: A.

be first pulled towards the bank, then rejected away

B.

be pulled towards the bank by bank suction

C.

be unaffected

D.

be rejected away from the bank by the pressure

49.

When operating with conventional screw tugs, what is the function

of the "Gob" or "Gog" rope: A.

to improve the bollard pull of the tug

B.

to secure the tug to the ship

C.

to prevent "girting"

D.

to keep the tug at the correct place on the ship's side when pushing

507

50.

In the diagram B represents the start of a turning circle of power

driven ship in deep water with 20 degrees starboard rudder. If the ship was in shallow water would the turning circle with the same rudder angle be:

A.

B

B.

None of the other options

C.

C

D.

A

51.

What is "ship squat"?

A.

A slight increase in underkeel clearance

B.

A requirement for ships proceeding up river under low bridges

C.

The sinkage and change of trim caused when the ship is proceeding with a small underkeel clearance

D.

52.

Deeper draft caused by operating in fresh rather than salt water

What is the maximum ship speed over the ground recommended for

anchoring a 250,000 deadweight VLCC or similar sized ship? A.

1knot

B.

0.5 knot

C.

1.5 knots

D.

0.25 knot

508

53.

Most large tankers in order to remain safely moored alongside the

berth uses wire ropes fitted on winches. If required extra mooring lines, would a mixture of wires & full-length synthetic fibre ropes be appropriate? A.

Yes, because the extra fibre ropes are easier to handle

B.

Yes, because the fibre ropes are more flexible and complement the wires, adding to the overall effectiveness of the mooring

C.

No, because most fibre ropes of the required breaking strain are large and difficult to handle

D.

No, because the wires would take most of the strain and the fibre ropes practically none

54.

A tug is connected by a line at your bow. Will the bollard pull be the

same at any speed? Choose the most complete answer. A.

No, best use of a tug is made when the ship is going sternway.

B.

No, when the speed exceeds 5 knots the tug will not be of much help.

C.

No, when the speed is increasing, the bollard is also increasing.

D.

Yes, the bollard is the same at any speed.

55.

A ship turns around a point called the “pivot point”. What is the

position of this point when the ship is going astern ? A.

At about 1/4 of ship's length from the stem.

B.

At the stern.

C.

At about 1/4 of ship's length from the stern.

D.

At the midships.

56.

The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in shallow water. How

much rudder lift force remains when the engine is stopped ? A.

About 50%

B.

About 5%

C.

About 10%.

D.

About 80%.

509

57.

Your ship is equipped with a single right-handed fixed propeller.

While steaming full ahead you reverse the engine to stop the ship. How will the ship react? A.

You will stop on 1.5 times the ship's length.

B.

You will sheer to port and stop rather quickly.

C.

You will sheer to starboard and gradually lose headway.

D.

You will continue on a straight course.

58.

You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters.

What should you watch out for? A.

The stern may be pulled towards and the bow may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass.

B.

The change in speed of the other ship.

C.

The bow may be pulled towards and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass.

D.

59.

The change in your underkeel clearance.

How is shallow water effect felt by a vessel ?

A.

The vessel responds very quickly to the rudder.

B.

The vessel has a tendency to turn to port (for a right turning propeller).

C.

The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder.

D.

The vessel has a tendency to turn to starboard (for a left turning propeller).

60.

Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering

ability. What does this mean? A.

It is the way a ship turns when the helm is put to the hard over position.

B.

It is the way a ship responds when moving the helm from hard to port to hard to starboard.

C.

It is the way a ship continues to turn when the helm is put amidship.

D.

It is the way a ship continues to turn after counter-rudder is applied 510

61.

The rudder is hard over, engine full ahead in deep water. How much

rudder lift force remains when the engine is stopped ? A.

About 80%.

B.

About 20%.

C.

About 5%.

D.

About 50%

62.

The rudder is in the hard over position, propeller stopped. The ship

is turning slowly. What can be done to make her turn faster without increasing forward speed ? A.

Give full astern until the ship has stopped, then full ahead again with the rudder hard over.

B.

Give slow ahead.

C.

Give half astern.

D.

Give a kick ahead.

63.

our ship is making sternway of about 1.5 knots, with rudder hard to

starboard. Will this rudder position ave any effect on the ship's behaviour ? Choose the most complete answer. A.

No, the ship will go straight astern.

B.

No, the rudder will have no effect when the ship is making sternway, it should be in midship position when going astern.

C.

Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to port.

D.

Yes, it will give the stern a lift force to starboard.

64.

The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Is the rudder

most effective at this angle ? Choose the most complete answer. A.

No, the most effective rudder angle is about 25 to 30 degrees, because the rudder is “stalling” at 35 degrees angle.

B.

No, the rudder is most effective at small rudder angles, because drag is minimised.

C.

No, the rudder angle is most effective at angles between 10 and 20 degrees, because water flow over the rudder is strongest.

D.

Yes, the rudder is most effective at maximum angle, because water flow over the rudder is strongest. 511

65.

You have made a turning test at full speed in deep water. You are

now going to make one with initial speed, 'low ahead. Do you think the diameter will differ from that of initial full ahead? A.

Yes, it will be much smaller with stow ahead.

B.

The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when starting the turn.

C.

Yes, there will be a large difference in the turning diameter between full and slow ahead.

D.

66.

Yes, it will be much greater with slow ahead.

Overshoot is an expression used when talking about a ship's steering

ability. How can overshoot be determined ? A.

Do a 360 degrees turning circle.

B.

Do a 20/20 degree zigzag manoeuvre.

C.

Do a standing turn.

D.

Do a 540 degrees turning circle.

67.

You are in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce

speed while in the turn, how will the turning diameter change ? A.

The turning diameter will become smaller.

B.

The turning diameter will increase.

C.

The turning diameter will not change.

D.

The change will depend on rudder angle.

68.

Does a ship's trim influence her steering abilities ?

A.

No, a ship will have the same steering ability unaffected by trim.

B.

No, it is usually best to have no trim at all.

C.

Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by bow.

D.

Yes, a ship usually steers better if trimmed by stern.

512

69.

Which of the following is the simplest method of fixing a ship's

position? A.

Visual bearings of terrestrial marks.

B.

Horizontal sextant angles.

C.

Radar range and bearing.

D.

Celestial observation

70.

When connecting a tugboat, what speed do you think is the best for

your vessel to maintain during this operation?

A.

The speed should be less than 5 knots, normally 3 - 5 knots.

B.

A tug may be connected at any convenient speed.

C.

The speed should be more than 7 knots.

D.

Stop the vessel completely before connecting.

71.

What shape of a hull would you say a course unstable ship would

have? A.

A length to beam ratio less than 5.5

B.

A long, slim hull.

C.

A length to beam ratio greater than 5.5

D.

A length to beam ratio less than 7

72.

You are going to leave a crowded anchorage by making a 180

degrees turn. You ship has a right handed propeller and you can turn either way. How can you make the turn using as little space as possible ? A.

Full ahead, rudder hard to port.

B.

Full ahead, rudder hard to starboard.

C.

Rudder hard to port, full astern. After you gain some sternway, rudder hard to starboard and full ahead.

D.

Rudder hard to starboard, full ahead. Rudder hard to port, full astern. Repeating this maneuver until you have made he turn.

513

73.

When a conventional rudder is put hard over it creates a lift force

and a drag force. When the ship has to turn, how much lift force remains if the rudder-angle is decreased to 20 degrees from the hard over position ? A.

About 50%.

B.

About 30%.

C.

About 10%.

D.

About 80%.

74. A.

In ship handling terms, what is meant by "sinkage" ? Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experienced when comparatively heavily loaded both ends.

B.

Sinkage is the deepest draft a vessel obtains aft when moving through the water.

C.

Sinkage is the change of draft experienced when moving through water.

D.

Sinkage is the extra draft a vessel experienced when comparatively heavily loaded amidship.

75.

In which of these vessel types is "sinkage' likely to be most

pronounced ? A.

A vessel with a high block coefficient.

B.

A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.

C.

A supply or anchor handling vessel.

D.

A cargo liner.

76.

How is bank effect felt by a vessel ?

A.

The vessel's stern is pushed away from the nearest bank.

B.

The whole vessel is drawn in parallel to the nearest bank.

C.

The vessel's bow is pushed away from the nearest bank.

D.

The whole vessel is pushed away parallel to the nearest bank.

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77.

Your ship is equipped with a right handed propeller. As you go full

astern from full ahead, the ship is sheering to the starboard. Is there anything you can do to reduce the change in heading? A.

I can swing the rudder from side to side.

B.

Put the rudder hard to port.

C.

Put the rudder hard to starboard.

D.

No

78.

You are meeting another ship in the confined waters. What can

happen as the ships approach each other ? A.

There will be no effect.

B.

Initially the bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other.

C.

Initially the bows of the ships will be pulled together.

D.

Both vessels will be affected by squat.

79.

In ship handling terms, what of these overtaking situations is the

most dangerous ? A.

A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels.

B.

A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels.

C.

A small vessel overtaking a large vessel with a big difference in speed between the two vessels.

D.

A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels.

80.

You have made a turning circle at full speed in deep water. If you

repeat this in shallow water, what will the turning diameter be ? A.

The turning diameter will be increased in shallow water.

B.

The turning diameter will be smaller in shallow water.

C.

The turning diameter will be the same.

D.

It will be the same provided the underkeel clearance is between 25° and 50%.

515

81.

You are on ship A. What would you do before meeting ship B ?

A.

Increase the speed to 8 knots.

B.

Put the engine to full astern.

C.

Increase speed to full ahead.

D.

Stop the engine before meeting and apply engine while meeting/

82.

In which of these vessel types is "squat" likely to be most

pronounced ?

A.

A vessel with a high block coefficient.

B.

A cargo liner.

C.

A supply or anchor handling vessel.

D.

A vessel with a very wide beam compared to length.

83.

With tugs in this position, how would you distribute their power to

moue the ship sideways without yaw? A.

Equal power on both tugs.

B.

Full power on the forward tug, the stern tug should hold back.

C.

Full power on the forward tug, reduce on the aft tug while checking the gyro.

D.

84.

Full power on the aft tug, stop on the forward tug.

You are on a loaded VLCC in shallow water. Is it necessary to keep

speed on the ship in order for her to steer well? A.

Yes, VLCC's steer poorly on low speed in shallow water.

B.

Yes, it is necessary to keep a high speed on the ship to steer well.

C.

No, it is best to reduce to half ahead for the ship to steer ell.

D.

No, VLCC's usually steer better in shallow water on a lower speed than other ships.

85.

How should you minimize the squat effect ?

A.

Decrease the speed.

B.

Do a zig-zag manoeuvre and reduce the speed.

C.

Increase the speed.

D.

Transfer ballast to change the ship's trim. 516

86.

In relation to the squat effect, which of the following statements is

incorrect ? A.

Squat results in a decrease in underkeel clearance.

B.

Squat can be a serious problem for deep draft ships.

C.

Squat results in an increase in ship's draft.

D.

Squat results in a decrease in ship's draft.

87.

You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this

situation ? A.

The stern could be pushed away from the bank.

B.

The bow could be pulled towards the bank.

C.

The stern could be pulled towards the river bank.

D.

The bow could be pushed away from the bank.

88.

Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller and no thrusters.

What can you do to control your ship in this situation ? A.

Increase the speed.

B.

Let go starboard anchor 1 - 1.5 shackles .

C.

Let go port anchor 1 -1.5 shackles.

D.

Give hard starboard rudder.

89.

A vessel's position is best plotted by bearings from …………

A.

fixed known objects on the shore.

B.

the radar of the nearest land.

C.

the radio direction finder.

D.

buoys close at hand.

90.

When using a buoy as an aid to navigation, which of the following

should always be considered? A.

The buoy is nearly always well anchored and can be considered to be in its charted position.

B.

The buoy may not be in its charted position.

C.

If the light is showing its correct characteristic it is in its right 517

position. D.

If no radio navigation warning has been issued concerning the buoy, it can be assumed to be in its correct position.

91.

You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 To underkeel clearance.

Coming full astern from full ahead , how will your course change compared with deep water ?

A.

Large change at first then changing slightly.

B.

The heading will not change.

C.

The heading will change only slightly.

D.

The heading will most likely change by a large amount.

92.

What would you say about a ship which is course unstable ?

A.

She will require large rudder angles to maintain course.

B.

When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering.

C.

When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn long after the rudder is returned to amidships.

D.

When you put rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a straight course.

93.

You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much

change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this? A.

Make a complete turning circle.

B.

Put the engines full astern.

C.

Do a zigzag manoeuvre.

D.

Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine speed.

94.

What shape of hull does a course stable ship usually have?

A.

A long, slim hull.

B.

A shod, wide hull.

C.

A long, wide hull.

D.

A shod, slim hull.

518

95.

A ship turns around a point called the 'pivot point". What is the

position of this point when the ship is stopped in the water ? A.

At the ship's centre of gravity.

B.

Outside of the ship's centre line.

C.

Near the ship's stern.

D.

Near the ship's bow.

96.

What will be the stopping distance of your ship when proceeding

with 8 knots and reversing to full astern? A.

2000m.

B.

Check the information posted on the bridge.

C.

800m.

D.

8 ship lengths.

97.

You are drifting with a loaded VLCC in open sea. Can you do

anything to change your direction and rate of drift ? A.

No.

B.

You can apply rudder.

C.

You can change the angle of heel.

D.

You can trim the ship by the stem.

98.

You are on a VLCC and are approaching shallow water with an

underkeel clearance of 15%. What speed should you have when entering and when should you slow down ? A.

About 6-7 knots, slow down 30 minutes before entering.

B.

About 10 knots, slow down 15 minutes before entering.

C.

Reduce to slow or less in due time before entering.

D.

Maintain normal sea-speed, no need to slow down.

519

99.

You are on a power driven vessel when you suddenly run into a fog

bank. What action would you take ? A.

Call the master and wait for him to arrive before taking any action.

B.

Reduce speed to slow ahead and call the master.

C.

As the radar is clear, proceed as normal for the time being as the fog may lift up.

D.

Commence sounding the fog signals, call a lookout and call the master.

100.

What is most noticeable about a ship with good course keeping

stability ? A.

She will maintain course until large rudder angles are applied.

B.

When you apply rudder, she will take time before answering.

C.

When you apply rudder, she will continue to turn for sometime after the rudder is put amidships.

D.

When you put rudder amidships, she will quickly return to a straight course.

101.

When will we notice the effect of shallow water?

A.

When your underkeel clearance is 50% or less.

B.

When your underkeel clearance is 10% or less.

C.

When your underkeel clearance is 15% or less.

D.

When your underkeel clearance is 75% or less.

102.

You are sailing in shallow water, with 15 % underkeel clearance.

How will your stopping distance and turning circle change compared with deep water ? A.

Stopping distance & turning circle will remain the same.

B.

Stopping distance shorter & turning circle smaller.

C.

Stopping distance longer & turning circle larger.

D.

Stopping distance same & turning circle larger.

520

103.

In which direction will the bow of a vessel move, with a single fixed

pitch right-handed propeller which is turning astern ? A.

Forwards

B.

Backwards.

C.

To starboard.

D.

To port.

104.

You are in the confined waters. Is there any danger in this situation

if you should loose engine power ? A.

You will drift to port but rather slowly.

B.

You will sheer to starboard rather quickly with possible consequence of grounding.

C.

You will loose headway, but there should be no immediate danger.

D.

You will sheer to port.

105.

Your engine is going astern and you pickup sternway. The rudder is

midships and you are operating on a single, right-handed fixed screw. How will your ship react? A.

You will go straight astern.

B.

You will change heading to starboard.

C.

Your stern will be pushed to starboard.

D.

You will change heading to port.

106.

A ship turns around a point called the “pivot point”. What is the

position of this point when the ship is at full sea speed ? A.

At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the stern.

B.

Amidships.

C.

At the stern.

D.

At about 1/4 of the ship's length from the bow.

521

107.

You are berthed with a steady offshore beam wind of 30 knots. This

wind suddenly increases to 60 knots. When this happens, the force pushing the vessel off the berth will be …….. A.

Quadrupled.

B.

Tripled.

C.

Doubled.

D.

Quintipled.

108.

Which of these is NOT a synthetic fibre ?

A.

Propylene.

B.

Nylon

C.

Polythene

D.

Polypropylene

522

10.

1.

Monitor the loading, stowage, securing, care during the voyage and the unloading (Memantau kegiatan pemuatan, penyusunan, pengikatan dan pemeliharaan muatan selama pelayaran, dan pembongkaran muatan)

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian 522

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

523

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

524

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

525

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

526

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

527

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

528

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

529

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time

530

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

531

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

532

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

533

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

534

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

535

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

536

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

537

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

538

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

539

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

540

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

541

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

100.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

542

11.

1.

Inspect and report defects and damage to cargo spaces, hatch covers and ballast tanks (Memeriksa dan melaporkan cacat, kerusakan pada ruang muat, tutup palka dan tangki tolak bara)

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian 543

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

544

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

545

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

546

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

547

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

548

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

549

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

550

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

551

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

552

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

553

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases

554

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles

555

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

556

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

557

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

558

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

559

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

560

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

561

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

100.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

562

12.

Ensure compliance with pollution prevention requirements (Menjamin pemenuhan persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran)

1. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to record machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record:

A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil. B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank. C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank. D. Purification of HFO.

2.

Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in this connection?

A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both. B. Oil fitting equipment only. C. Sludge separating tank. D. Oily-water separating equipment only.

563

3.

Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage?

A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. D. There isn’t any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special areas

4.

For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard?

A. Three years B. Six months C. Two years D. Four years

564

5.

If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do?

A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water B. Absorb the oil for easy removal C. Remove the oil from the water D. Contain the oil within a small area

6.

In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90)

A. Qualified Individual B. Emergency response team C. The Master D. The shipowner

7.

In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?

A. Not permissible any where. B. 100 n.m. from shore line. C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL). D. In coastal waters.

565

8.

Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?

A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues D. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues

9.

MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection?

A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment. B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering equipment without calling the bridge. C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge directly overboard. D. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.

566

10.

MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant Administration.

certified by the

During discharge, while vessel

is

awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take? A. Stop discharge. B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type. C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding water. D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not yet in force.

11.

MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of these materials?

A. This is prohibited B. 3 miles C. 12 miles D. 25 miles

567

12.

MARPOL - Annex V.

Disposal of garbage. Your

vessel in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal? A. 12 miles B. This is prohibited C. 3 miles D. 25 miles

13.

Most minor oilspills are caused by:

A. Human error B. Equipment failure C. Major casualties D. Unforeseeable circumstances

568

14.

New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to:

A. 30 litters per nautical mile B. 25 litters per nautical mile C. 20 litters per nautical mile D. 10 litters per nautical mile

15.

Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date B. Only initial reports to be logged C. Only verbal reports for documentation D. Only communication with USCG

16.

Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90):

A. Once a month B. Once a week C. Once a year D. Once every six months

569

17.

Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?

A. 15 ppm B. 100 ppm C. 30 ppm D. 60 ppm/n.m

18.

Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?

A. Plugging the scuppers B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents C. Closing the lids on the vents D. Plugging the sounding pipes

19.

The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of oil C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged

570

20.

What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?

A. All the other alternatives B. Spilling C. Leaking D. Dumping

21.

What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1?

A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 % D. There isn’t any definition on clean ballast

22.

What is the best way to avoid pollution from smalloilspills aboard a ship?

A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship B. Rig an oil boom around the ship C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill D. Have sawdust ready for use

571

23.

What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oilspill on the water?

A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's side D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

24.

What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?

A. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E D. None of the mentioned

25.

What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics?

A. Discharge to a shore facility only B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

572

26.

What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room?

A. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with. B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills. C. Whatever paint is available. D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.

27.

When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which following priority sequences to be considered:

A. Stop pumps - report - clean up? B. Clean up - report - stop pumps? C. Report - stop pumps - clean up? D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

28.

Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated

shore

connection

(MARPOL-

connection) for discharging of sewage ?

A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

573

29.

Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US water pollution laws?

A. All of the mentioned B. Garbage C. Hazardous substances D. Oil

30.

Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard?

A. 15 PPM B. 100 PPM C. 50 PPM D. 0 PPM

31.

Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill B. It is not covered by the pollution law C. It does little harm to marine life D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

574

32.

Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?

A. To avoid pollution. B. To relieve the master. C. To inform the authorities. D. To restrict pollution.

33.

You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard?

A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

34.

You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ?

A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

575

35.

You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be?

A. This is prohibited B. 3 nautical miles off the coast C. 12 nautical miles off the coast D. 25 nautical miles off the coast 36.

You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and:

A. Notify the US Coast Guard B. Begin clean up operations C. Leave the area D. Notify the Corps of Engineers

37.

The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas unless, with exemption of processed engine room bilge water, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ? A. II, IV, V, VII, VIII B. I, IV, V, VIII, IX C. I, IV, VI, VII, IX D. II, III, V, VIII, IX

576

38.

The oil record book for machinery space operations shall be completed on a tank to tank basis whenever which of these operations take place ?

A. III, IV,VI, VII B. I, II, III, VII C. I, II, IV, V D. II, IV, V, VI

39.

Amongst other things, Part 1 of the Oil Record Book shows which of these ? A. Period over which the IOPP certificate is valid B. Period from …………. To ………….. C. Operational procedures and remarks D. Master's name as well of the person relieving him against date

40.

Which of these items must be recorded in the Oil Record Book Part I, concerning the disposal of oil residues (Sludges) ?

A. II, III, IV B. I, II, VI C. I, Ill, VI D. I, II 577

41.

Which of these items concerning non-automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?

A. I, Ill, VI B. III, IV,V C. II, III D. II, VI 42.

Which of these items concerning the operation of machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?

A. III, VI,

VII

B. II, III, V, VII C. II, V, VI D. II, IV, VI, VII

578

43.

Which of these items concerning automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?

A. I, II, V, VI B. I, IV, V, VII C. II, IV, VI, VII D. II, Ill, V, VII 44.

Mat entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space operations) about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control system ? A. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was stopped B. The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and the ppm of the affluent discharged C. The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again and the reason for failure D. The time when the system was started and the time when it was stopped and the ppm of the effluent discharged

579

45.

Which of these items concerning accidental or other exceptional discharges of oil must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ?

A. I, II, V,VII B. I, II, III, V C. I, III, IV,VI D. I, II, V, VI 46.

Handling fuel oils without proper care can lead to A. Overflow, pollution and gas formation. B. Gassing up, asphyxia and explosion. C. Fire or overflow. D. Explosion, fire and pollution.

47.

Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that……should personalty supervise all bunkering operations. A. The 2nd engineer B. The master C. The chief engineer D. A responsible person

48.

Bunkering procedures for all ships require that communication should be maintained with the shorelbarge staff in charge of the transfer ? A. Continuous B. Intermittent C. Frequent D. Occasional 580

49.

Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch be informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because …… A. The bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put on stand-by. B. Appropriate precautions have to betaken by the deck department C. The time needs to be recorded exactly. D. The is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.

50.

During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because A. The oily water separator filters were found dirty. B. The sludge tank was found full level. C. The engine room bilges were found dirty. D. The engineroombilgelineswerefounddirty.

51.

During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because A. An oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator. B. Oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors. C. An oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump. D. Lubricating oil was transferred in port.

52.

What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge? A. 600ppm B. 1000ppm C. 100ppm D. 50ppm 581

53.

What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A. 0ppm B. 25ppm C. 50ppm D. l5ppm

54.

Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A. Only in a case of emergency. B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out. C. When proceeding Full Ahead. D. During the hours of darkness.

55.

What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level? A. A visible alarm. B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge C. An audible alarm. D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

56.

What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess? A. Safety Construction certificate. B. IOPP certificate C. MCA pollution certificate. D. Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate

582

57.

What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book? A. Record fuel consumption. B. Record quantity of fuel onboard. C. Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges. D. Record oily bilge levels.

58.

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that………. A. The tanker is within a Special Area. B. The tanker is not within a Special Area C. The tanker is within a Designated Zone D. The tanker is not within a Designated Zone

59.

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that………… A. The tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land. B. The tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land. C. The tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. D. The tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.

60.

Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that ………. A. The tanker is en route. B. The tanker is in ballast condition. C. The tanker is tank cleaning. D. The tanker is loaded.

583

61.

For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than ……..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. A. 1/25000 B. 1/100000 C. 1/15000 D. 1/50000

62.

The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed… A. 120 litres per nautical mile B. 100 litres per nautical mile C. 75 litres per nautical mile D. 30 litres per nautical mile

63.

For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed ….. of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. A. 1/10000 B. 1/15000 C. 1/25000 D. 1/30000

64.

What is the meaning of the term "Combination Carrier " ? A. A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in parcels B. A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example Palm Oil Tanks C. A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example reefer-container, log-bulk etc. D. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

584

65.

According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ? A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products D. Any grade of crude oil

66.

30. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ? A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm C. A mixture with any oil content D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm

67.

Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ? A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals C. Yes D. No

68.

According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ? A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers

585

69.

Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ? A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals B. No, it is not C. Yes, it is D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

70.

According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ? A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June 1976 B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995 C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979 D. All of these.

71.

What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to Marpol ? A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered during the time of discharge by the ship D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600

586

72.

What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ? A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions and in view of traffic special prevention is required C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at anytime D. A sea area where in view of its particular dense traffic no overboarddischarged of any oily mixture is allowed

73.

What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ? A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings or other oily mixtures

74.

Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol ? A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines. B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface. C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea. D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below 587

75.

Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ? A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast

76.

In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on its building contract would read…………… A. After 1st January 1981. B. After 31st of December 1980. C. After 1st June 1982. D. After 1st June 1979.

77.

Marpol defines Crude Oil as …………. A. Aliquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed. B. Liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions ere added. C. A non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which C neither distillate fractions were removed nor added. D. A liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally whether treated or not irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added.

588

78.

Every oil tanker of …..

tons gross tonnage and above and every other

ship of tons gross tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys. A. 500,1000 B. 400, 700 C. 150, 400 D. 250, 500 79.

The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include ………… A. Acomplete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks. B. A complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil tittering and separating systems. C. Acomplete survey of all piping. D. Acomplete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.

80.

Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not to exceed………….. A. Two and a half years. B. Three years. C. Two years. D. Five years.

589

81.

At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this survey called ? A. The Annual survey B. The Special survey C. The Intermediate survey D. The Midterm survey

82.

Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its equipment remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these inspections called ? A. Annual Inspections B. Unscheduled inspections C. Obligatory inspections D. Special surveys

83.

If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it effect unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ? A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period

84.

Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ? A. Approved ship's officers B. Port-State Control Inspectors C. Coast Guard Inspectors D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by Administrations

590

85.

Who may carry out Marpol Inspections ? A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors. B. All of these. C. Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations. D. Coast Guard officers.

86.

What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under Marpol ? A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals B. Hydrocarbons in any form C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities. D. Oils and fuels

87.

What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol ? A. Dumping or disposal from the ship B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship D. Any release how ever caused

88.

What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ? A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances B. The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture

591

89.

Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be….. A. Adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs. B. Imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation occurs. C. Imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution. D. In all cases most severe.

90.

To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol occurs ? A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with Marpol Protocol 1. B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration. C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or managers. D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book.

91.

A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as… A. Aproduct / chemical carrier B. A crude oil I product carrier C. Aproduct carrier D. Acrude oil tanker

92.

A new oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW may be designated as a

……

A. Product carrier B. Crude oil / product carrier C. Crude oil tanker D. Petrochemical / product carrier 592

93.

A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate. A. Crude oil 1 product carrier B. Crude oil tanker C. Product carrier D. Petrochemical tanker

94.

New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt NOT fitted with SBT and PL should be designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate. A. Crude oil tanker B. Crude oil / product carrier C. Petrochemical tanker D. Product carrier

95.

Stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT may be designed as a …………….on the IOPP certificate. A. Crude oil /product carrier B. Product oil carrier C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker D. Crude oil tanker

96.

How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate ? A. As a product carrier B. As a crude oil tanker C. As a crude oil / product carrier D. As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker

593

97.

For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ? A. Product carrier B. Crude oil tanker C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker D. Crude oil / product carrier

98.

For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW system, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ? A. Product carrier B. Crude Oil / product carrier C. Crude oil tanker D. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

99.

Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibited except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted ? A. An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment B. Interface oily water detector C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system

100.

When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ? A. Any one of these B. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction C. If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment or arrangements without sanction D. If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction without sanction 594

101.

When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception ? A. Improvement in ships construction B. The direct replacement of equipment and fittings C. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does not deviate from Marpol requirements D. Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is

approved by the

Administration 102.

What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out as specified ? A. The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is carried out, the stringency will depend on the duration of the elapsed time B. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding to the requisite survey is to be carried out . C. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3 months overdue D. The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an

unscheduled inspection

is to be carried out by the Port State inspection of the country of call 103.

Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ? A. Segregated ballast tanks B. 15 ppm oil filtering equipment C. Double hulls D. A slop tank arrangement

595

104.

An oil tanker is prohibited from discharging oily mixtures into the sea except when certain conditions are satisfied. Which of the conditions mentioned here must be satisfied ?

A. II,

III,

VII,

IX,

B. II, III, VIII, IX,

X,

XII

C. II,

IV

,

VI,

D. I,

IV,

V,

VII,

105.

V,

X,

XI

VIII,

X,

XII

VIII,

X,

XII

A ship other than tanker of 000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannot discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ? A. II, IV, VIII B. II, V, VII C. II, III,VI D. I, IV, VI

596

106.

What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a special area ? A. 100 ppm B. 50 ppm C. less than 15 ppm D. 15 ppm

107.

Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ? A. Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm B. Not allowed at all C. Oil dispersants are allowed D. Dillutants are allowed

108.

Ships other than tankers of less than z100grt cannot discharge oil or oily mixtures while within a special area, except for the discharge of processed bilge water. To do this which of these conditions must be satisfied ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

IX

B. II,

V,

VI,

IX

C. I,

Ill,

VI,

VIII

D. I,

IV,

VII,

VIII

597

109.

Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to issues of safety at sea ? A. They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift same in case of emergencies. B. They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life at sea. C. They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing oil in the water D. They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.

110.

The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items in this list? A. I, IV B. IV, V C. II, V D. III, VI

111.

Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception ? A. Damage to ship and equipment due operational error B. Crew

negligence

C. Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could probably result D. Collision or groundings 598

112.

It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of these conditions?

A. II

IV

V

B. I,

II,

V

C. I,

III

D. III, IV

113.

For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements ?

A. I,

Ill,

IV,

VI

B. I,

II,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

IV.

VII

D. I,

IV,

V,

VII

599

114.

New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise ?

A. IV, V B. II,

V

C. III, V D. II,

115.

V

For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be Included ? A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams. C. Segregated ballast tanks only D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks

116.

Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ? A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted

600

117.

If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating with COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which provisions will apply ? A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey is required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures required. B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the crude oil trade D. The COW system needs to be blanked

118.

If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ? A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply B. The requirements for SBT do not apply C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

119.

Hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ? A. The requirement for SET does not apply B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

601

120.

One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is e

quipped with…….

A. Acrude oil washing system. B. Two separate slop tanks. C. Segregated ballast tanks and PL. D. An oil content meter.

121.

The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed ? A. The oil record book B. The bill of lading C. The charter party D. The ship's IOPP certificate

122.

Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ? A. II,

IV

V

B. I,

II,

VI

C. II,

V,

VI

D. III, IV

VI

602

123.

What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ? A. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of grounding or collision B. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers C. To reduce the bending moments on tankers D. To reduce the shear forces on tankers

124.

For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, which of these items apply ?

125.

A. III, V

VI,

VIII

B. I,

II,

VI,

VIII

C. II,

IV,

VI,

VII

D. I,

III,

VI,

VII

Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception ? A. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats B. For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted and weather conditions are deteriorating C. If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled with ballast if stability requires this D. In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships 603

126.

Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the Fore Peak Tank ? A. Only tugs B. No, not on any vessel C. Only fishing vessels D. Only tug boats and fishing vessels

127.

Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than ….. % of the tank capacity. A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1

128.

In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ? A. Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks. B. Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metre C. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities. D. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation filter.

129.

At least two slop tanks are required for…….. A. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above. B. New oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above. C. New and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt. D. New oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.

604

130.

Which of these are the requirements for an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System ?

131.

A. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI,

VII

B. I,

II

III,

V,

VI,

VII,

VIII

C. I,

II,

III,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII,

D. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII,

VIII

VIII, IX

An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is required on board. This manual must mention all operations and …….. A. Instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged. B. Shall be approved by the Administration. C. All automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by the Administration. D. Shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to ensure that no oil can be discharged except in compliance with regulations

605

132.

No oil discharge monitoring equipment is to be fitted on tankers if trading in specific areas or within 50 miles from the nearest land provided that which of these items apply ?

A. I,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VIII

B. I,

II,

III,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VII

D. I,

II,

Ill,

V,

VII

133.

Under Marpol, any ship of 10,000 tons gross and above shall be fitted with which of these items of equipment for oily-water separation and oily mixture discharges ? A. I B. Ill C. II D. IV

606

134.

Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment for engine bilge discharge. A. 100 ppm B. 15 ppm C. 30 ppm D. 150 ppm

135.

Which of these design requirements must be met by oil filtering equipment fitted on ships of 10,000 grt and above ?

136.

A. II,

Ill,

V,

VII

B. I,

Ill,

VI,

VII

C. I.

III,

V,

VI

D. I,

II,

III,

IV

Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or may it be part of the ship's official Log Book ? A. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but must contain the required information. B. It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified. C. It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but must contain all required information. D. It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified. 607

137.

In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what ? A. The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged B. The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge C. The report of the accident indicating precautions D. The amount discharged and the reasons for it

138.

Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book without delay and…..….. A. The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be countersigned by the Master. B. The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by the Master. C. When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or in charge during the time of the operation. D. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be signed by the Master.

139.

Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board ? A. At a place where it is readily available B. In the ship's office C. On the bridge D. I the Master's cabin

608

140.

Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ? A. A Notary Public B. The Master C. The Officers of the Flag State D. Port Authorities

141.

Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshore platforms for which type or types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ? A. Type, I, Ill and IV B. Type I only C. Type IV only D. Type I and Type IV

142.

Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ? A. Roofers Flux B. Blending Stocks C. Straight run residue D. Solvent

609

143.

Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I ? A. Clarified B. Road Oil C. Automotive D. Spindle oil

144.

The following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol AnnexI? A. Reformates B. Polymer fuel C. Flashed feed stock D. Alkylates fuel

145.

Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol AnnexI? A. Fuel oil No 1 D B. Fuel oil No 1 C. Fuel oil No 4 D. Fuel oil No 2

146.

The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges). What information is recorded in this chapter ? A. The location and capacity of the sludge tanks B. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge tanks C. The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open deck sludge connection D. The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements 610

147.

The Record of Construction and Equipment for ships other than tanker contains information in Chapter II about oil discharge from the machinery space and fuel tanks. Which of these item are included ?

148.

A. II,

Ill,

IV,

VI,

VII

B. I.

II,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI,

C. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI,

VII

D. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VII

VII

If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of

…….or more, the regulations of Annex I for

oil tankers applies. A. 100 T B. 400 T C. 500 cubic metres D. 200 cubic metres

611

149.

There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with pollution caused by A. I = Oil,

……..

II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III = Harmful packaged

substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution. B. I = Garbage,

II = Air pollution,

Ill = Sewage, IV = Harmful

packaged substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil. C. I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage. D. I= Oil, II = Sewage,

Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged

substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution. 150.

Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with …… A. The construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers B. The pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor discharge of cargo residues C. The labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages D. The handling and discharge of garbage

151.

Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage ? A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must be installed on board C. Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is on board D. The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and have stingent regulations

612

152.

How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations ? A. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be complied with B. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with C. They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention D. National regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must be complied with

153.

Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet in force, but a number of countries (example USA) have adapted it and have stringent regulations. The regulations concern which of these items ?

154.

A. II,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI

B. I,

II,

IV,

VI,

VIII

C. I,

Ill,

V,

VII,

VIII

D. I,

II,

Ill,

V,

VII

Which of these waters are the Special Areas as defined by Marpol Annex V ?

613

155.

A. I,

II,

III,

IV,

VI,

VIII,

X,

XIII

B. I,

II,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII,

X,

XIII

C. I,

III,

IV,

V,

VII,

IX,

X,

XIII

D. I,

II,

IV,

V,

VIII,

X,

XII,

XIII

According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception ? A. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore B. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore C. Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond 12 miles offshore D. Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore

156.

Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters………. A. You cannot throw plastics overboard. B. You cannot throw anything overboard. C. You cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float overboard. D. You cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unless ground to less than 25 mm.

614

157.

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that float

…….

A. Maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore. B. May not be thrown overboard at anytime. C. May be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore. D. May be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore. 158.

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than ………in size. A. 5mm B. 10mm C. 30 mm D. 25 mm

159.

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics…. A. Cannot be thrown overboard at anytime B. Cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore C. Cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore D. Cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore

160.

Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown overboard outside ……. miles offshore. A. 3 B. 25 C. 12 D. 10

615

161.

Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the type of garbage which can be thrown overboard at a given distance offshore. Is this universally accepted ? A. Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions B. Yes, accepted by all states and regions C. Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage D. Yes, except dunnage

162.

Outside special areas there are three ways of disposing of garbage produced on board ships. From this list, choose the 3 ways ?

163.

A. II,

Ill,

V

B. I,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

IV

D. I,

III,

VI

Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ? A. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts are needed to reduce them B. Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard C. Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools D. Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which the new crew member must become familiar

616

164.

How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crew member know clearly what is expected of him ? A. By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the weak spots which may cause pollution B. By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on the personal responsibilities and duties of the trainee C. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpol concerning pollution of the seas D. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers as well as cargo)

165.

For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that ….. A. Aquite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew member for the first week on board B. The Master puts up a rigid discipline. C. The trainees have an adequate background in pollution control D. It is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations

617

166.

Which of these items should be included in an on board pollution prevention training program?

A. I.

III,

V,

VI

B. I,

IV,

VI,

VII

C. I,

II,

V,

VII

D. II,

Ill,

IV,

VI

167.

Which of these items can help make on board pollution prevention training effective ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VIII

B. I,

II,

IV,

V,

IX

C. I,

Ill,

V,

VII,

IX

D. I,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII

618

168.

To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions ? A. I,

III,

V

B. I,

II,

III

C. II,

IV,

VI

D. I,

II,

V

169.

Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships may lead to a pollution incident ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI

C. I,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII

D. II,

IV,

V,

VII,

VIII

619

170.

Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and transfer procedures should be available on board in a place where they can be easily seen and used. Where on board? A. Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room OR near the fuel oil transfer pumps B. Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds C. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers emergency shut off valves OR in the cargo — control room D. Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in the emergency headquarters

171.

There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankers because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this a notice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ? A. FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST B. START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION C. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP D. START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED

620

172.

Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided if prompt action and careful preparation for containment is carried out. Which three of these items are vital ?

173.

A. I,

II,

IV

B. I,

III,

IV

C. I,

III,

V

D. II,

IV,

V

In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspected to make sure that…….. A. The fastenings are not worn. B. The coating is intact. C. They have not developed cracks or holes. D. They are correctly fitting

621

174.

Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I.

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI

C. I,

II,

Ill,

VI,

VII

D. I,

Ill,

V,

VI,

VII

175.

Topping off procedures during oil cargo loading or bunkering is a most critical operation. Which fire of these precautions or actions must be taken ?

A. I,

II,

III,

V,

VIII

B. II,

IV,

VI,

VII,

VIII

C. I,

Ill,

V,

VI,

VII

D. II,

III,

V,

VI,

VIII

622

176.

Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading and bunkering. Which one of these is not true ?

A. III - is not true B. II - is not true C. V - is not true D. I- is not true

177.

During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because

……..

A. No electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted. B. No instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted. C. No pollution placards were posted. D. No up to date deck port log was kept.

623

178.

These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong ?

A. Item VII - does not belong B. Item VI - does not belong C. Item II - does not belong D. Item V - does not belong

179.

An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to record machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record:

A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil. B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank. C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank. D. Purification of HFO.

624

180.

Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in this connection?

A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both. B. Oil fitting equipment only. C. Sludge separating tank. D. Oily-water separating equipment only.

181.

Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage?

A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. D. There isn’t any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special areas

625

182.

For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard?

A. Three years B. Six months C. Two years D. Four years

183.

If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do?

A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water B. Absorb the oil for easy removal C. Remove the oil from the water D. Contain the oil within a small area

184.

In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90)

A. Qualified Individual B. Emergency response team C. The Master D. The shipowner

626

185.

In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?

A. Not permissible any where. B. 100 n.m. from shore line. C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL). D. In coastal waters.

186.

Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues?

A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues D. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues

627

187.

MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection?

A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment. B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering equipment without calling the bridge. C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge directly overboard. D. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.

188.

MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take? A. Stop discharge. B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type. C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding water. D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not yet in force.

628

189.

MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of these materials?

A. This is prohibited B. 3 miles C. 12 miles D. 25 miles

190.

MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal? A. 12 miles B. This is prohibited C. 3 miles D. 25 miles

191.

Most minor oilspills are caused by:

A. Human error B. Equipment failure C. Major casualties D. Unforeseeable circumstances

629

192.

New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to:

A. 30 litters per nautical mile B. 25 litters per nautical mile C. 20 litters per nautical mile D. 10 litters per nautical mile

193.

Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90)

A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date B. Only initial reports to be logged C. Only verbal reports for documentation D. Only communication with USCG

194.

Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90):

A. Once a month B. Once a week C. Once a year D. Once every six months

630

195.

Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?

A. 15 ppm B. 100 ppm C. 30 ppm D. 60 ppm/n.m

196.

Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?

A. Plugging the scuppers B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents C. Closing the lids on the vents D. Plugging the sounding pipes

197.

The OPA-90 notification requirement is:

A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding 10 gallons of oil C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged 631

198.

What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations?

A. All the other alternatives B. Spilling C. Leaking D. Dumping

199.

What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1?

A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 % D. There isn’t any definition on clean ballast

200.

What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oilspills aboard a ship?

A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship B. Rig an oil boom around the ship C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill D. Have sawdust ready for use

632

201.

What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oilspill on the water?

A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oil-spill C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's side D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

202.

What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?

A. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E D. None of the mentioned

203.

What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics?

A. Discharge to a shore facility only B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

633

204.

What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room?

A. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with. B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills. C. Whatever paint is available. D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.

205.

When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority sequences to be considered:

A. Stop pumps - report - clean up? B. Clean up - report - stop pumps? C. Report - stop pumps - clean up? D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

206.

Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOLconnection) for discharging of sewage ?

A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

634

207.

Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US water pollution laws?

A. All of the mentioned B. Garbage C. Hazardous substances D. Oil

208.

Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard?

A. 15 PPM B. 100 PPM C. 50 PPM D. 0 PPM

209.

Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill?

A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill B. It is not covered by the pollution law C. It does little harm to marine life D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

635

210.

Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?

A. To avoid pollution. B. To relieve the master. C. To inform the authorities. D. To restrict pollution.

211.

You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard?

A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

212.

You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ?

A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings 636

213.

You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be? A. This is prohibited B. 3 nautical miles off the coast C. 12 nautical miles off the coast D. 25 nautical miles off the coast

214.

You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and:

A. Notify the US Coast Guard B. Begin clean up operations C. Leave the area D. Notify the Corps of Engineers

637

13.

1.

Maintain seaworthiness of the ship A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class notation: A. Ro-Ro B. Tanker C. Container D. Bulk Carrier

2.

The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is: A. Five B. Four C. Six D. Three

3.

The transverse curve of the deck is called: A. Camber B. Rake C. Flare D. Tumble home

4.

Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the: A. Inside of the Plating B. Inside of the Ceiling C. Inside of the Frames D. Outside of the Plating

5.

The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called: A. A Ballast Tank B. A Cofferdam C. A Deep Tank D. An Escape Trunk

638

6.

The longitudinal curve of the deck is called: A. Rise of floor B. Sheer C. Rake D. Freeboard

7.

The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from the bottom is: A. 0.25 h B. 0.5 h C. 0.1 h D. 0.33 h

8.

Istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called" A. Racking B. Pounding C. Heaving D. Slamming

9.

Panting stresses are most severe: A. Between the Bulkheads B. Forward C. Aft D. Amidships

10.

The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is: A. In ballast, beam sea B. Loaded, head sea C. In ballast, head sea D. Loaded, beam sea

639

11.

Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of: A. Side Girders B. Deck Girders C. Stringers D. Bulkheads

12.

The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist: A. Panting & Racking B. Water Pressure C. Hogging & Sagging D. Panting & Pounding

13.

The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to resist: A. Sagging B. Pounding C. Hogging D. Racking

14.

A vessel in the condition shown in Figure will be:

A. Twisting B. Racking C. Sagging D. Hogging

640

15.

A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's: A. Hydrostatic Information B. Layout C. Construction Sequence D. Tank Capacities

16.

The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a: A. Knee B. Gusset C. Bracket D. Stiffener

17.

A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a: A. Flat Plate Keel B. Box Keel C. Bar Keel D. Duct Keel

18.

The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the: A. Sheer Strake B. Stealer Plate C. Garboard Strake D. Stringer Plate

641

19.

The athwartships cross section structure shown in the given Figure is a:

A. Flat Plate Keel B. Duct Keel C. Box Keel D. Bar Keel

20.

When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in: A. Torsion B. Compression C. Sheer D. Tension

21.

The Figure shows a:

A. Strut B. Bulwark Stanchion C. Siffener D. Stay

22.

A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a: A. Construction Drawing B. Sheer Profile C. Body Plan D. Shell Expansion Plan

642

23.

In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is:

A. A Flat Bar B. An Offset Bulb C. A Tee D. An Angle

24.

A vertically welded shell joint is called a: A. Lap B. Joint C. Seam D. Butt

25.

In the Figure shown, the items marked 6 are:

A. Knees B. Webs C. Chocks D. Bilge Brackets

643

26.

To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be constructed with approved: A. Drains B. Scuppers C. Baffles D. Sills

27.

Water is drained from an exposed deck by: A. Drain Valves B. Discharge Pipes C. Side Scuttles D. Freeing Ports

28.

Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by: A. Stays B. Chocks C. Brackets D. Cleats

29.

The type of framing shown in the drawing of this ship cross section is:

A. Combination B. Longitudinal C. Transverse D. Web

644

30.

In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by fitting:

A. Deck Girders B. Stringers C. Web Frames D. Pillars

31.

The type of weld shown in Figure is a:

A. Vee Butt B. Fillet C. Butt D. Lap

32.

Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist: A. Panting B. Pounding C. Racking D. Hogging

645

33. The item of structure numbered 9 in the given Figure is a:

A. Deck Plate B. Panting Stringer C. Foundation Plate D. floor Plate

34.

A perforated flat is part of the structure in the: A. Double Bottom B. Deck House C. Fore Hold D. Fore Peak

35.

The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is called a: A. Mooring B. Scupper C. Hawser D. Spurling

646

36.

The item of structure numbered 10 in the Figure given is a:

A. Bracket B. Bow Chock C. Breast Hook D. Diamond Plate

37.

The item of structure numbered 11 in the given Figure is a:

A. Floor Plate B. Nash Plate C. Web D. Bulkhead

38.

The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a: A. Frame B. Beam C. Stringer D. Seel Plate

647

39.

The type of rudder in the Figure is:

A. Semi-balanced B. Unbalanced C. Spade D. Balanced

40.

The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a: A. Coupling B. Gudgeon C. Bolt D. Pin

41.

The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the: A. Transom Floor B. After Peak Bulkhead C. Steering Flat D. Vibration Post

42.

The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the: A. Winter Draught B. Statutory Freeboard C. Depth D. Summer Draught

648

43.

The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the: A. Tropical Allowance B. Bock Water Allowance C. Fresh Water Allowance D. Summer Allowance

44.

The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the: A. Fresh Water Allowance B. Freeboard C. Winter Draught D. Summer Draught

45.

The steel section shown here will be used to construct a:

A. Steering Flat B. Bulkhead C. Tank Top D. Hatch Cover

46.

In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will move in one revolution of the shaft is the: A. Slip B. Diameter C. Pitch D. Circumference

649

47.

When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be: A. Small B. Zero C. Large D. Negative

48.

The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is called: A. Buoyancy B. Negative Buoyancy C. Reserve Buoyancy D. Lost Buoyancy

49.

A stiff vessel will have a GM which is: A. Large B. Small C. Zero D. Negative

50.

Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the: A. Waterline to the Keel B. Top of the Bulwarks to the Waterline C. Main Deck to the Keel D. Main Deck to the Waterline

51.

A GZ curve is used to determine: A. Stability B. Deadweight C. Displacement D. Buoyancy

650

52.

The weight a vessel can carry is called the: A. Deadweight B. Gross Tonnage C. Registered Tonnage D. Load Displacement

53.

The horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity acting on a vessel when heeled by wind or waves is called the: A. KM B. KG C. Righting Lever D. Metacentric Height

54.

Panting stresses are most severe: A. Forward B. Between the Bulkheads C. Aft D. Amidships

55.

The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from the bottom is: A. 0.5 h B. 0.33 h C. 0.1 h D. 0.25 h

56.

The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist: A. Panting & Racking B. Water Pressure C. Hogging & Sagging D. Panting & Pounding

651

57.

Distortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called: A. Heaving B. Racking C. Pounding D. Slamming

58.

The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is: A. In ballast, beam sea B. Loaded, beam sea C. In ballast, head sea D. Loaded, head sea

59.

Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of: A. Side Girders B. Deck Girders C. Stringers D. Bulkheads

60.

A vessel in the condition shown here is:

A. Sagging B. Hogging C. Twisting D. Racking

652

61.

The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to resist: A. Hogging B. Pounding C. Racking D. Sagging

62.

The transverse curve of the deck is called: A. Rake B. Tumble home C. Flare D. Camber

63.

The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is: A. Six B. Five C. Three D. Four

64.

Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the: A. Outside of the Plating B. Inside of the

Plating

C. Inside of the Frames D. Inside of the Ceiling

65.

The longitudinal curve of the deck is called: A. Freeboard B. Rake C. Sheer D. Rise of Floor

653

66.

A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class notation: A. Container B. Bulk Carrier C. Ro-Ro D. Tanker

67.

The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called: A. A Ballast Tank B. A Cofferdam C. A Deep Tank D. In Escape Trunk

68.

The type of weld shown here is a:

A. Lap B. Fillet C. Butt D. Vee Butt

654

69.

The athwartships cross section structure shown here is a:

A. Box Keel B. Duct Keel C. Flat Plate Keel D. Bar Keel

70.

A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a: A. Body Plan B. Shell Expansion Plan C. Construction Drawing D. Sheer Profile

71.

He item marked 5 is a:

A. Frame B. Bracket C. Beam Knee D. Beam

655

72.

This drawing shows a:

A. Strut B. Bulwark Stanchion C. Stiffener D. Stay

73.

Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist: A. Hogging B. Pounding C. Panting D. Racking

74.

The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the: A. Stealer Plate B. Sheer Strake C. Garboard Strake D. Stringer Plate

75.

A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's: A. Layout B. Construction Sequence C. Hydrostatic Information D. Tank Capacities

656

76.

In the figure, the items marked 6 are:

A. Bilge Brackets B. Chocks C. Webs D. Knees

77.

A vertically welded shell joint is called a: A. Seam B. Butt C. Joint D. Lap

78.

The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a: A. Gusset B. Knee C. Stiffener D. Bracket

79.

A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a: A. Flat Plate Keel B. Box Keel C. Duct Keel D. Bar Keel

657

80.

To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be constructed with approved: A. Sills B. Baffles C. Drains D. Scuppers

81.

In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by Fitting: A. Stringers B. Web Frames C. Deck Girders D. Pillars

82.

When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in: A. Torsion B. Sheer C. Compression D. Tension

83.

Water is drained from an exposed deck by: A. Discharge Pipes B. Freeing Ports C. Drain Values D. Side Scuttles

84.

Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by. A. Brackets B. Cleats C. Chocks D. Stays

658

85.

The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the: A. Winter Draught B. Summer Draught C. Freeboard D. Fresh Water Allowance

86.

The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the: A. Fresh Water Allowance B. Dock Water Allowance C. Summer Allowance D. Tropical Allowance

87.

The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the: A. Statutory Freeboard B. Winter Draught C. Depth D. Summer Draught

88.

The item of structure numbered 12 is a:

A. Stern Post B. Boss Plate C. Stern Frame D. Stern Bearing

659

89.

The item of structure numbered 11 is a:

A. Web B. Floor Plate C. Wash Plate D. Bulkhead

90.

A perforated flat is part of the structure in the: A. Fore Hold B. Fore Peak C. Deck House D. Double Bottom

91.

The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a: A. Gudgeon B. Pin C. Bolt D. Coupling

92.

The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the: A. Transom Floor B. After Peak Bulkhead C. Vibration Post D. Steering Flat

660

93.

The item of structure numbered 10 is a: A. Diamond Plate B. Bracket C. Breast Hook D. Bow Chock

94.

The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a: A. Keel Plate B. Stringer C. Beam D. Frame

95.

The item of the structure numbered 9 is a:

A. Foundation Plate B. Deck Plate C. Floor Plate D. Panting Stringer

661

14.

1.

Prevent, control and fight fires on board (Pencegahan, pengendalian dan pemadaman kebakaran di atas kapal)

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian

662

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

663

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

664

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

665

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

666

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

667

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

668

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

669

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

670

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

671

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

672

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases 673

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

674

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian 675

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

676

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

677

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

678

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

679

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

680

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

681

100.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

682

15.

1.

Operate life-saving appliances (Mengoperasikan alat-alat keselamatan)

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian 683

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

684

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

685

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

686

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

687

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

688

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

689

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

690

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time

691

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

692

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

693

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

694

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

695

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

696

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

697

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

698

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

699

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

700

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

701

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

702

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

100.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

703

16.

1.

Apply medical first aid on board ship (Memberikan pertolongan pertama medis di kapal)

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian 704

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

705

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

706

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

707

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

708

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

709

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

710

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

711

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

712

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

713

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

714

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases

715

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles 716

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter 717

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

718

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

719

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

720

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

721

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

722

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

723

100.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

724

17.

1.

Monitor compliance with legislative requirements (Memantau sesuai dengan persyaratan-persyaratan peraturan yang berlaku) Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or “The Company” ? A. The Bareboat Charterer B. The Manager C. Could be any of these D. The Owner

2.

What is meant by a "Safety Management system" ? A. A documented shipboard system which lists each and every know shipboard hazard to safety, health and environment. B. The implementation on board ship of emergency response training by documented training methods. C. A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on board ship. D. A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to implement the company safety and environment protection policy.

3.

Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity ? A. A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement B. Lack of comfort leading to health risks C. A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking. D. Not conforming with safe working practices which may ead to accidents

4.

What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code ? A. A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life. B. A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge oil, chemicals or toxic substances from the ship C. A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master is diminished D. A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of ship or personnel or to the Environment 725

5.

The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things include …………. A. continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection B. hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training of its shipboard personnel C. conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke free passages on board D. holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into the water every week

6.

The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things provide for ………… A. supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition date B. safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment C. shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the required qualifications D. safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and parkas

7.

Safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things establish ………….. A. sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for joint departmental use and consultation in case of emergency B. a cooperative and informative atmosphere on board C. safeguards against all identified risks D. a dictatorial regime on board

726

8.

The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things, that applicable codes, guidelines and standards recommended by …………..are taken into account. A. Classification Societies B. maritime industry organisations C. the IMO, and Flag-State administrations D. All of these.

9.

The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place ……………… A. that that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board. B. compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations. C. that all Marpol requirements are complied with. D. that Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.

10.

All the requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through ………………….. A. videos and books B. training by qualified instructors C. regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel D. written procedures and work instruction

11.

All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following information: ……………. A. All of these. B. the provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and procedures for internal audits and management review. C. the defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and amongst shore and shipboard personnel. D. the procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provisions of the Code.

727

12.

The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement and maintain a system which includes the following :…………….. A. maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required Letters of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship. B. contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities. C. a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment. D. safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chief engineers 3) office staff Home telephone numbers.

13.

Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the objectives of the ISM code willbe achieved. A. circulation of informative guidelines B. company regulations C. a safety and environmental policy D. company newsletters

14.

Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy A. known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers. B. known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew. C. known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based as well as shore based. D. known by all ships officers.

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15.

The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be …………..standards required by the ISMcode ? A. set above B. asubstrtute for C. set below D. deviating from

16.

A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the standards of the ISM code, should be ………….. A. totally disregarded since not enforceable. B. erased as far as excessive standards are concerned. C. encouraged and supported. D. discouraged.

17.

It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's ………… which forms an integral part of the Safety Management System ? A. legal policy objectives B. ethics and environment objectives C. safety management objectives D. trading policy objectives

18.

Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company who ………..the ship. A. Has chartered B. Owns C. Has mortgaged D. Has assumed responsibility for the operation of

729

19.

Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship related activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance ? A. Yes, it is allowed B. No, it is not longer allowed C. Yes, only for manning D. Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance

20.

Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued ? A. Only one DOC can be issued to the Company B. One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the the manning company only C. One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor D. One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for the maintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for manning.

21.

Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted…….. A. remains the responsibility of the Company B. becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor C. becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor D. is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand

22.

Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied that the company is in control of …………… A. the subcontractors' personnel and resources. B. all activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been subcontracted. C. the subcontractors' insurance system. D. the financial portfolio of the subcontractors.

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23.

Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ? A. By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and Officers Messroom. B. By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships C. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention activities for each functional area D. By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility and command flow chart

24.

Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to carry out his functions ? A. All of these. B. Freedom to travel worldwide at will C. An executive salary and a company car D. Adequate resources and shore based support

25.

Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should include…………. A. monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of each ship B. having overall control over all company departmental heads C. being a member of the Board of the Company D. final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities

26.

Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ? A. A master certificate B. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code C. Twenty years seagoing experience D. A university degree

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27.

Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ? A. Every 2 to 3 months B. May be necessary C. Is not required at all D. Frequent lengthy stays on board are required

28.

Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety and Environmental Policy on board ? A. The senior Officer's B. The Designated Person's C. The Master's D. The entire crew's

29.

Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company A. By the state of cleanliness on board B. By judging the moral of the officers and crew on board C. Through interviewing officers and crew D. By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator

30.

Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental policy on board ? A. The Master B. The Company's shore based and shipboard management C. All ships officers D. The senior officers

732

31.

Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental protection policy ? A. Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have to pay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy B. Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the implementation as well as encouraging reception of ownership C. Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboard personnel D. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the heavy fines to be paid for Pollution

32.

How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the SEP policy and how could their perception of ownership be encouraged ? A. Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to participate in the continuous development of the objectives of the SEP B. By distribution of Nature, Health &Wealth or the like magazines and by asking them to open a savings account C. By encouraging then to join Green Peace or any other environmental group D. By the Company's monthly newsletter

33.

Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy and should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple manner. How is this to be done ? A. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples B. Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatherings to officers and crew C. By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice D. By calling the ship's compliment together and give short orders in clear English

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34.

It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually verifythis on board ? A. The Designated Person B. The Master C. The Master and Officers D. The Chief Engineer

35.

What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed ? A. By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer assigned as input controller B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own Safety Work Book C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities cof crew members D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master

36.

It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and reporting its deficiencies to ……….. A. the shore based management B. the classification society C. the Flag state authorities D. the Port state control of the next port of call

37.

The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include any deficiencies and may include

…………..

A. a list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the Company. B. a list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are to be promoted C. proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS. D. the officer's and crew's appraisal reports

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38.

Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation he should ………… A. inform the P & I club. B. make note in the log book of this deficiency. C. correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the official log book. D. inform the Company.

39.

When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to the Company ? A. Prior to change of command B. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews C. Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board D. Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year

40.

Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system ? A. The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge of implementing the SMS B. The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to be repeated in the SMS C. The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of the vessel D. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship contains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority

41.

Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies ……………. A. In case of oil spill clean-ups B. In normal circumstances C. In both normal and extreme circumstances D. In emergency and extreme circumstances

735

42.

It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding responsibility and authority as required ………….. A. by the Company's Main Policy Objective B. by the SOLAS Convention C. by the International Association of Classification Societies D. by the Ship owners Trust Fund

43.

The Company must be sure that the Master is ……………. A. a safety and environmental protection licensed person. B. a person in good standing with the P & I club association. C. properly qualified for command. D. not blacklisted by the U.S. Coast Guard or any other Port state control.

44.

Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by ………….. A. interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental awareness. B. drug and alcohol test. C. confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention. D. medical examination.

45.

The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating to safety and environmental protection by …………….. A. having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets B. including such requirements in operating instructions. C. reminding him time to time. D. having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.

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46.

To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of them by the Safety Management System ………..should be described. A. the vessel's safety equipment B. safety and environmental protection hazards C. job responsibilities D. the ship's voyage and cargo details

47.

The Master is to be fully conversant with the Company's SMS and should be informed of all requirements through formal meetings with the ………….. A. Shore management. B. Senior Classification Society surveyors. C. P & I club representatives. D. Port state inspectors.

48.

Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their duties safely. Support from the Company includes …………… A. Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port. B. Having diver inspections carried out at least every 6 months. C. Maintaining the required compliment and onboard expertise D. Having the ship drydocked every 30 months.

49.

The Master must be given the necessary support so that he can perform his duties safely. If the Master reports deficiencies in the SMS, the company should …………… A. make financial assistance available to the Master to

correct

the

deficiencies. B. call in outside contractors to look at these deficiencies and rectify/repair the same. C. respond to identified deficiencies in the SMS. D. reward the Master for his diligence.

737

50.

Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ……….with which the Company should be familiar. A. the shipping business B. National and International requirements C. the manpower industry D. crew management responsibilities

51.

The Company should have a system in place for firstly ………….personnel, especially if obtainedthrough a manning agent. A. briefing B. joining and offsigning C. dismissing D. selecting

52.

To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult ………… A. since there is usually insufficient time for a thorough medical check up. B. since seaman have the tendency to hide illness. C. since there are no International or National standards. D. since medical certificates cannot be verified.

53.

The Company should establish procedures to ensure that personnel transferred to new

assignments related to safety and environment

protection are given familiarisation training. What are defined as new assignments ? A. Another ship B. A different job C. Promotion D. All of these.

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54.

Instructions which are essential must be identified, documented and given to newly assigned personnel prior sailing. What are "essential instructions" A. The role in the shipboard organization, dayworker or watchkeeper, which watch assigned to. B. SMS manual extracts, the safety manual to be read by each incoming crewmember C. Those that clearly define the crew members role within the SMS and insure that they are prepared prior taking up their duties on board D. Allotting crew cabin, linen, towels, instruction as to use of messrooms and bathrooms

55.

Familiarization for personnel transferred or on new assignments could be accomplished by ………….. A. Visual aids such as manuals, operating instructions and videos. B. Observing overlap while vessel in port. C. All of these. D. On board training in a supernumerary capacity.

56.

The choice and level of detail to assist familiarization to new or newly assigned crew members will depend on ……….. A. The age of the seaman and the number of years worked sea. B. The rank of the newly assigned crewmember. C. The intelligence quotient of the newly assigned crewmember. D. The individual experience with the new assignment and job responsibilities.

57.

If individuals require essential familiarisation prior to sailing …………… A. It will be the Master's duty to assess as such and initiate a training program. B. They should serve a full contract of at least ten months in a lower rank prior to take up the new position. C. Then the company should identify such requirements and develop an appropriate plan. D. They cannot take shipboard duty at all until they prove themselves qualified for the job.

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58.

The Company should ensure that all personnel involved in the SMS have an adequate understanding of relevant rules, regulations, codes and guidelines. How could such information be communicated ? A. Trough written instructions B. Described in the job responsibilities C. Formal discussions with company representatives D. All of these.

59.

The Company should identify the individual(s) having the responsibility to define training needs appropriate for specific tasks, taking into account ………….. A. previous training, experience and required proficiency in operation of the ship. B. All of these. C. familiarity with new equipment, familiarity with equipment when transferred to different type vessel. D. drills for emergencies, results of internal auditing.

60.

The Company should establish procedures for the ship's personnel to receive relevant information on the SMS and the amount of documentation should be determined by ………………. A. whatever is necessary to ensure that all appropriate shipboard personnel understand their respective roles. B. the type of vessel and the trading pattern. C. the requirements of the Charterers. D. the size of the Company

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61.

Under SMS sufficient instructions in a suitable language need to be verified, as well as ensuring an understanding of them by the crew. How can this be verified ? A. The crew must be proficient in their own national language and have basic understanding of the language in use on board B. The crew is to be recruited in English speaking countries or will have to pass and examination C. Videos on the correct pronunciation of English need to be available on board D. By witnessing an exercise

62.

Concerning the ability of the ship's personnel to communicate effectively in the execution of their duties related to the SMS, documented evidence must be available …………. A. on the medical examination of each crewmember. B. on the ability of each crewmember to read and write in English. C. on the procedures required for effective communication and what verification is carried out on board. D. on the educational level of each crewmember.

63.

When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety and pollution prevention as primary objective, the focus is on ………… A. prevention. B. finance. C. economy. D. response to accident

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64.

Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as a primary objective and should include amongst other things ………….. A. methods to tower the lifeboats. B. efficiency of the propulsion machinery. C. measures to mitigate identified risks. D. accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.

65.

Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations it is expected that the Company has identified risks associated with ………..

A. the carriage of liquid oil cargoes in bulk B. drugs and alcohol misuse C. the shipping industry’s cost structure D. the particular type of vessel and its trade.

66.

Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment ? A. Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering B. Cargo shifting, collision, explosion C. Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing D. Fire, flooding, grounding

67.

The Company should establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to ………..emergencyshipboard operations. A. potential B. assumed C. occuring D. theoretical

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68.

A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable for use onboard the particular type ship being operated including the duties and responsibilities of the crewmembers and ………….. A. the methods of rescue available. B. shipboard communication methods available. C. the ways of combating a worst case scenario. D. the methods of reporting casualties to the Authorities.

69.

In addition to routine drills prescribed in International and National regulations, drills should also include ……….. A. diving exercises under the ship. B. boat drills at sea. C. emergency situations such as identified potential emergency shipboard situations. D. Fire drills in port.

70.

The scope of drills should exercise the company's ashore and on board personnel and develop familiarity with a particular emergency. Documented evidence of drills should exist which demonstrate ……….. A. that the Company has been able to respond effectively. B. that all shore staff, office staff and subcontractors, manning agents and repair outfits were effectively involved . C. that the ships staff has followed the correct procedures in notifying the shore staff. D. that all the kinds of drills were carried out.

71.

The Company should have available shoresideorganisational structure, resources means and procedures for communications and equipment for responding to a shipboard emergency. This means that ……….. A. a very large communications network is required. B. the office is to be staffed by Emergency Response Teams 24 hours a day. C. the Company needs offices spread out over the globe. D. a 24-hour contact has to be available.

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72.

The SMS should include procedures ensuring that ……..are reported to the company, investigatedand analysed with the objective of improving safety and pollution prevention ? A. cargo operations and ballast operations B. illness and injury C. crew changes D. non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations

73.

The Company should have ……….for responding to non-conformities identified from internal audits andduring routine operation of the ship A. procedures B. printed labels C. a toll free telephone number D. inventory cards

74.

The Company should establish procedures to ensure that the ship is maintained in conformity

with the provisions of the relevant rules and

regulations and with …………. A. the by-laws of the relevant P & I club. B. the approval of the London Salvage Association. C. the cooperation of the Master. D. any additional requirements which may be established by Company.

75.

objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established maintenance requirements inclusive ………… A. of a computerised planned maintenance system. B. of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines. C. of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines and verification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel. D. of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and engine departments up to date.

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76.

Under the SMS as part of shipboard responsibilities, there should be routine inspections of …………… A. all crews belongings, luggage and items stowed in crew cabins. B. the accommodation. C. all machinery and ships equipment in use. D. machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.

77.

Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are “Non-Conformities" A. Damage B. Any one these C. Deficiencies D. Defects, malfunctioning

78.

The Company should have procedures established for corrective action. Corrective actions involves solutions which ………….. A. punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other action afterwards. B. investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s) involved. C. may reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity. D. guaranty that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity.

79.

The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment and technical systems of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous operations. Once identifi A. these items are checked at least once a week by the Master. B. tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability. C. a rigid maintenance program is to be established for this equipment D. it must be ensured that each and every component of these systems and equipment is carried as spare on board.

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80.

The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all documents which are relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that:1) …….. 2) ………

3) …

A. Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviews the documents 3) the Masterimplements the contents of documents. B. Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents are to be reviewed by the Master 3) Documents are to be kept safe. C. Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents are authorised by the Classification Society 3) Documents are authorised by P & I Club. D. Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed and approved by authorised personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removed prompt. 81.

The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the A. Ship Management Manual B. Safety Management Manual C. Ship Maintenance Manual D. Shipboard Instruction Manual

82.

The Company should carry out ………..to verify whether safety and pollution preventionactivitiescomply with the Shipboard Management System ? A. inspections by third party consultants B. drydock Inspections C. external safety audits D. internal safety audits

83.

SMS Management reviews should be initiated at least by …………. A. analysis

and

investigation

of

accidents,

results

obtained

due

implementation of SMS. B. changes in the market strategy, social and environmental conditions. C. Any of these D. recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdated SMS in the light of new rules/ regulations brought in force.

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84.

Personnel carrying out audits should be……… the areas being audited. A. very conversant B. familiarised with C. independent of D. experts in

85.

A ………should be issued for every Company complying with the requirements of the ISM code by the Administration, or by the Organisationrecognised by the Administration . A. Safety Management Certificate B. International Shipmanagement Certificate C. Document of Compliance D. Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate

86.

When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate in accordance with the approved SMS, a …….... should be issued to the ship by the Administration or organization recognised by it. A. Safety Management Certificate B. Certificate of Responsibility C. Document of Compliance D. Credibility Certificate

87.

The Company should ensure that each ship is manned with ………… seafarers in accordance withnational and international requirements. A. intelligent and healthy B. safety conscious and diligent C. qualified, certified and medically fit D. Drug and alcohol abstaining

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88.

Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM Code A. To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related requisitions requested by the ship B. To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships between the Authorities and the ship's staff C. To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all matters concerning safety and environmental protection to the management D. To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the company and those on board

89.

What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code ? A. The international code for transporting of cargoes safety on board ships as regulated by Marpol Annex III B. An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO C. The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices D. The International Ship Management Association's code For navigational safety

90.

Under ISM, which methods can the master use to implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy? A. Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules B. At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and the workload on the ship, as well as weather conditions C. As defined and documented by the Company D. He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and the shipboard safety committee

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91.

If the subject is subject to manning control, which documentation must the master have at hand? A. Master's record and Documentation file. B. Master's record. C. The employment agreements and Reports on Seamen duly signed and stamped by a public supervisory authority. D. The sea service books.

92.

Is a repairman not comprised by the specification of crew under obligation to public supervision of maritime service? A. Yes, if engaged by the owner. B. Yes, in any circumstances. C. Yes, if no collective wages agreement applies to the employment relationship. D. Not in any circumstances.

93.

What can be the result of public supervision of maritime service of seafarers? A. It could be any of the alternatives listed. B. Approval with stamping and signing of the employment agreement and report on seamen. C. Approval with some remaks about terms to be adjusted. D. Refusal with report to the Maritime Directorate.

94.

What is supervision of maritime service of seafarers? A. Control by the master/employer and public supervisory authority that the requirements of law or agreement concerning the employee's service on board are satisfied. B. The master's/employer's control C. The interview by the employer/master of the seafarer prior to service. D. A formality: The signing and stamping of employment agreement and report on seamen by the consulate.

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95.

Which entries shall the master make in the sea service book or record of service in connection with supervision of maritime service? A. Entries regarding the seafarer's service time, vacation days due etc. B. Information about the seafarer's certificates, if any. C. Entries, by example, that the seafarer has been left behind, been dismissed etc. D. Entries concerning military service.

96.

Who is responsible for implementation of working environment work on board? A. Both master and shipping company. B. Shipping company. C. Master. D. Government.

97.

What is the purpose of baselines under the law of the sea? A. The determination of baselines is used for the measuring of the internal waters of coastal States B. The determination of baselines is instrumental to the establishment of all maritime zones, since they constitute the starting point for measuring the breadth of each zone C. The determination of baselines is instrumental to the safe navigation of vessels on the high seas D. Baselines are drawn only in cases of maritime delimitation between opposing State before an international court or tribunal

750

98.

Which is a 'rock' under the UN Convention of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)? A. Rocks are the islands that are less than 10 square miles B. Rocks are the islands that do not have any maritime zone C. Rocks are the islands which cannot sustain human habitation or economic life of their own and according to article 121 (3) have no Exclusive Economic Zone or continental shelf. D. Rocks are the small islands that can sustain human habitation

99.

When coastal States do enforce their criminal jurisdiction over foreign vessels in their ports? A. Port States generally do not enforce their criminal jurisdiction over crimes that do not infringe their customs laws or disrupt peace and public order. B. Port States enforce their jurisdiction in all cases of delinquent vessels C. Port States enforce their jurisdiction only in respect of very serious crimes, such as drug trafficking D. Port States are not entitled to enforce their jurisdiction over any foreign vessel

100.

What kind of passage does qualify as 'innocent passage'? A. Innocent passage is the passage that does not involve any criminal activity B. A vessel's passage is considered 'innocent' where it is not prejudicial to the peace, good order or security of the coastal State C. Innocent passage concerns only vessels of the same nationality with the coastal State D. Innocent passage concerns only the passage of merchant vessels and not of warships

751

101.

What is the function of the contiguous zone? A. The contiguous zone functions as security zone of the coastal State B. The contiguous zone is a zone, in which the coastal State may explore and exploit its mineral resources C. The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State is permitted to prevent and punish infringements of customs, fiscal, immigration or sanitary laws D. The contiguous zone is a zone in which the coastal State safeguards its archaeological and historical objects

102.

What kind of rights do coastal States enjoy over their continental shelf? A. The coastal State enjoy ipso facto and ab initio sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose of exploring it and exploiting its natural resources B. The coastal State may exercise sovereign rights over its continental shelf only upon its declaration C. The coastal State exercise sovereign rights over its continental shelf for the purpose of exploiting its fishing resources D. The coastal State may exercise only limited rights over its continental shelf and only upon the consent of its neighbouring States

103.

Do third States enjoy any fishing rights within the Exclusive Economic Zone of another State? A. When the coastal State cannot harvest the 'total allowable catch', the coastal State is to give other State access to that surplus with priority to be given to developing and land-locked States B. Third States may never have access to fisheries within another State's EEZ C. The coastal State is to give access to fisheries within its EEZ only to neighbouring States D. Third States are free to fish within another EEZ, except from certain designated areas

752

104.

Which State exercises jurisdiction over vessels on the high seas? A. All States may exercise jurisdiction over foreign vessels on the high seas B. States may exercise jurisdiction over foreign vessels on the high seas only in cases of criminal activity that concerns them C. The flag State is to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels on the high seas, with the exception of specific cases, such as piracy D. The flag State is the only State to exercise exclusive jurisdiction over its vessels on the high seas with no exception

105.

When does an illegal act of violence on the high seas fall short of qualifying as piracy? A. When it is committed against a public vessel of another State B. When it is committed for 'private ends' C. When it is committed by a warship even when its crew has mutinied and taken control of the ship D. When it is not committed against another vessel and when it is not committed for 'private ends'

106.

What is the 'equitable result' in the law and practice of maritime delimitation? A. It is the only method of delimitation that international courts and tribunals follow B. An equitable result is what a judge or the arbitrator would decide ex aequo et bono, i.e. upon their discretion and in light of what they consider as fair and equitable in a delimitation case C. It is the end result that all delimitations of areas of continental shelf and EEZ should achieve, after, however, drawing a provisional 'equidistance line' and adjusting the zone in the light of the relevant circumstances and the proportionality test. D. Achieving an equitable result is an old method of delimitation which is currently not applicable

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18.

Application of leadership and teamworking skills (Melaksanakan keterampilan tentang kepemimpinan dan kerjasama) It is the Master's responsibility to ensure that:

1.

A. Concerned personnel carry out the on-board traing progamme effectively. B. All information reagrding the onboard training is given to the ship manager. C. All personnel participate in the training at the same time. D. Safety equipment is not used during the training.

Master of every ship must provide:

2.

A. A link between the shipboard training officer and the company training officer ashore. B. Facilities to conduct training whenever required by the training officer. C. Proper rest to the crew after each training programme. D. The training during crews working hours only.

3.

Onboard training should be organised in such a way that:

A. It is an integral part of the overall training plan. B. It does not contravene with the rest hours of the crew. C. Each crew member is trained individually. D. None of the above. 754

4.

The majority of convensions adopted under the auspices of IMO fall into which of the three main categories:

A. Maritime Safety, Prevention of Marine pollution, Liability and compensation. B. Maritime Safety, STCW, Maritime Security. C. Safety, Terrorism, ILO. D. There are no conentions that fall under IMO.

5.

To maintain good relationship among the crew on board a vessel, one must be:

A. Understanding, Co-operative, and have respect from both sides. B. Strict and authoritative while giving orders. C. Polite and diplomatic while talking to crew members. D. Give authority to others.

6.

Why is it important to have good relationship onboard a vessel?

A. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew. B. It will prevent accidents from happening. C. It encourages crew to extend their contract. D. Crew comes to know each others problems.

755

7.

Why is it important to make weekly/routine rounds in the accomodation areas?

A. To ensure that cabins and common spaces are maintained in a clean, safe and hygienic condition. B. To search for any contraband goods hidden on board. C. It is a requirement as per flag state. D. To check for alcohol in cabins.

8.

Which of the Following is not a Type of Team? A. Cross Functional B. Virtual C. Problem Solving D. Individual

9.

Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development. A. Storming, Warming, Norming and Performing B. Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing C. Storming, Norming, Practicing and Adjourning D. Starting, Norming, Performing and Adjourning

10.

Which of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork? A. More ideas may be generated B. More resources are available C. More time is taken to perform the tasks D. More networking opportunities

756

11.

Which of these is an Advantage of Teamwork? A. Conflict may occur B. Compromises may not be best option C. Cost may be increased due to extra resources D. Can provide Support

12.

What Individual or Group Behaviours might lead to an effective Team? A. Self Interest verses Group Interest B. Lack of boundaries C. ill-defined roles D. Able to listen to feedback

13.

When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying effective team decision making? A. Two people always seem to make the decisions B. Decision reached by voting or by consensus C. Silence implies acceptance D. The loudest member always decides

14.

To be an effective communicator in a team A. Never Praise your team mates B. Never Judge your team mates C. Never Listen by yourself D. Never Respond to your team mates

15.

The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes: A. Reinforcing Individualism B. Taking one’s time C. Quality Management D. Assimilating Diversity

16.

To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to 757

A. Check their Fair Work Act Award B. Train them in one task at a time C. Monitor their individual performance D. Reward and motivate them 17.

To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to A. Actively stick to company procedures B. Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness C. Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions D. Actively avoid introducing too many diverse ideas as it may create confusion

18.

Groupthink is used to describe A. The positive aspects that accur when a group works together. B. Group dinamics that can interfere with group decision-making processes and can produce disastrous results. C. When group members have in-jokes and give each other knowing glances. D. When group members are on the same wavelength and complete each others sentences.

19.

Research on working in pairs, teams, or in groups has shown that. A. Collaborations are never productive B. Teamwork is never as good as working alone C. Group problem solving tasks always dilute original ideas D. Collaborations can be productive

20.

The subject of minority influence refers to? A. When the group votes by minority rules instead of majority rules B. When the minority opinion in not able to sway the majority opinion C. When one person in a group influences the other members in the group D. When the group members only influence one member in the group

21.

Who are free riders ? 758

A. People who report social loafers B. People who volunteer to give others ride home in situations of potential drunk driving C. Those who do not put forth effort on a task, but reap the benefits of a group D. People who voice their opinions despite the unpopularity of their views

22.

Minority influence can A. Never sway the majority of the group members to the other point of view B. Steer other goup members who hold the majorityview over to the minority point of view C. Decrease creativity D. Able to listen to feedback

23.

When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying effective team decision making? A. Two people always seem to make the decisions B. Decision reached by voting or by consensus C. Silence implies acceptance D. The loudest member always decides

24.

To be an effective communicator in a team A. Never Praise your team mates B. Never Judge your team mates C. Never Listen by yourself D. Never Respond to your team mates

25.

The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes: A. Reinforcing Individualism B. Taking one’s time C. Quality Management D. Assimilating Diversity

26.

To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to :

759

A. Check their Fair Work Act Award B. Train them in one task at a time C. Monitor their individual performance D. Reward and motivate them

27.

To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to A. Actively stick to company procedures B. Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness C. Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions D. Actively avoid introducing too many diverse ideas as it may create confusion

28.

One finding of the risky shift effect is........ A. That group decisions are often risker when groupthink sets in. B. That individual decisions are often risker than group decisions. C. That individuals help less when others are around. D. That group decisions can encourage more exreme decisions than the person would have made in the first place.

29.

It is through ............. that group members can be inspired, motivated and guided to be successful and productive. A. Fellowship B. Sportsmanship C. Coercion D. Leadership

30.

Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standard and organization ? A. Task leadership B. Social leadership C. Semantic leadership D. Transformational leadership

31.

If immersed in a group that gives a person a sense of anonymity, a 760

persocould A. Alter their social indentity to meet the expectations of others B. Unleash inhibitions because of deindividuation C. Become inhibited because of social comparsion D. Accept resposibility for their actions

32.

The transformational leadership style A. Encourages group members to transform themselves into better people B. Strives to change the group members opinions by showing them a better way to think C. Changes opinions and attitudes without changing behaviors D. Encourages and inspires group members to go above and beyond selfish interests and do what is the best for the common good of the group as a whole

33.

Social comparasion theory is offered as one explanation for ........................ A. Group polarization B. Pluralistic ignorance C. Summation polarity D. Group adhesion

761

19.

1.

Contribute to the safety of personnel and ship (Keterlibatan dengan keselamatan pelayar dan kapal)

What charts are used for plotting Great circle courses. A. Gnomonic B. Routeing C. Passage planning D. Instructional

2.

What is a chronometer used for? Indicating A. LMT B. SMT C. GMT D. CST

3.

A circle whose plane pass through the center of the sphere is called? A. Great circle B. Latitude C. Longitude D. Small circle

4.

If the angle at the pole between the observer's meridian and the hour circle passing through a heavenly body • s called: A. Local hour angle B. Greenwich hour angle C. Sidereal hour angle D. Tight ascension

5.

What is the line roughly following the 180th meridian called ? A. The date line B. Equator C. Rhumb line D. Greenwich meridian 762

6.

What is the angle of depression which the direction of sight to the visible horizon makes with the plane of the true horizon called ? A. dip B. height of eye C. index error D. error of parallax

7.

When using great circle sailing the saving is the most when : A. at the equator B. the course is E-W ,nearer to the poles C. the course is ti-S D. the course is one of the inter-cardinal headings

8.

Which of these atmospheric layers is closest to the earth? A. Mesosphere B. Troposphere C. Stratosphere D. Ionosphere

9.

What is the true shape of the earth? A. a perfect sphere B. rectangle C. an oblate spheroid D. square

10.

The time of position at which a planet is farthest to the sun is called : A. aphelion B. perihelion C. apogee D. perigee

11.

What is the extent of zone zero? A. from 0 deg to 7.5 deg E B. from 7 deg E to 7 deg W from Greenwich C. From 7.5 deg E to 7.5 deg W from Greenwich D. From 0 deg to 7.5 deg W 763

12.

The length of one minute of arc, measured along the equator is called: A. geographical mile B. sea mile C. none of the given options D. statue mile

13.

As the altitude increases, what happens to Parallax in altitude? A. Reduces B. Remains constant C. Always zero D. Increases

14.

Great circles passing through the observer's zenith and nadir are called: A. Observer's Principle vertical B. Vertical circles C. Observer's Prime vertical D. Small circles

15.

The point at which the ecliptic crosses the equinox is called the: A. solstical point B. first point of aries C. first point of libra D. celestial pole

16.

To calculate amplitude ,Sin amp = A. sin late x cos dec B. sin dec x cos lat C. sin lat x sec dec D. sin dec x sec lat

764

17.

Longitudinal zones of the earth’s surface, each 15deg in extent, measured eastward and westward from longitude 0 deg are called: A. Time zones B. Zone time C. Separation zones D. Fixed zones

18.

An horizon produced by bubble gyro or mercury trough to allow measurement of altitude of celestial bodies is called : A. apparent horizon B. sensible horizon C. artificial horizon D. visible horizon

19.

the arc of a vertical circle through a body or the angle at the center of the earth contained between the observer’s zenith and the centre of the body is called: A. Attitude of the celestial body B. Declination of the celestial body C. True zenith distance of the celestial body D. Calculated zenith distance

20.

If sailing on a great circle track, which of the following is correct? A. The vessel will after course frequently depending on her position and bearing to destination B. The vessel sails on the same course through out C. The initial and final course will always be the same what ever the intermediate course is D. None of the other options

21.

Right ascension is measured: A. Westward from aries B. Westward from Greenwich C. Eastwards from aries D. Wrestward from the observer 765

22.

What is the term applied when the longitudes of the sun and the moon differ by 90 deg.? A. Quadrature B. Conjunction C. Opposition D. None of the given options

23.

The angle at the centre of the body contained between the observer at the earth's surface and the center of the earth, when the body is on the observer's sensible horizon is called? A. Parallax in attitude B. True attitude C. Horizontal parallax of a celestial body. D. Apparent altitude

24.

What is the inclination between the orbit of the moon and the ecliptic ? A. 4 1/5 deg B. 5 1/4 deg C. 1 4/5 deg D. 1 5/4 deg

25.

Semi great circles on the celestial sphere, joining the celestial poles are called A. both and C B. celestial meridians C. meridians D. neither nor

26.

If we consider the lower limb, then semi-diameter correction is: A. multiplied B. subtracted C. there is no correction D. added

766

27.

What is the imaginary body assumed to moue along the equinoxial at a constant rate equal to the average rate of motion of the true sun on the ecliptic called? A. Mean sun B. True sun C. Apparent sun D. All of these.

28.

What are planets which are closer to the sun called? A. Inferior planets B. Small planets C. Large planets D. Superior planets

29.

What type of motion do planets have around the sun? A. retrograde B. direct C. southward D. northward

30.

Can apparent solar day be used for measuring time? A. no B. only for the period when the sun and moon are in conjunction C. yes D. only for the period when sun and moon are in opposition

31.

A That type of planets can never be in opposition with the sun? A. Superior planets B. Small planets C. Inferior planets D. Large planets

767

32.

What is the internal in time between two successive meridian passages called? A. A minute B. An hour C. A day D. A second

33.

The period of the day between the time when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon and sunrise, or between the time of sunset and that when the Sun's center is 6 deg. below the horizon is called : A. nautical twilight B. civil twilight C. astronomical twilight D. sunrise

34.

Every day a star rises, sets, culminates: A. 4 min later B. 4 min. earlier C. 10 min later D. 40 min earlier

35.

When light reflected and scattered by the upper atmosphere when the sun is below the horizon, it is called: A. sunrise B. moon rise C. sunset D. twilight

36.

In which case is augmentation necessary: A. Sun B. Stars C. Moon D. Planets

768

37.

The arc of the rational horizon or the angle at the observer's zenith contained between the observer's prime vertical and the vertical circle passing through that body when the body is on the observer's rational horizon is A. Amplitude B. Horizontal sextant angle C. Vertical sextant angle D. Azimuth

38.

What is the circle of the celestial sphere on which a heavenly body appears to moue daily across the sky From east to west, rising in the east and setting in the west called? A. Diurnal motion B. Diurnal inequality C. Diurnal circle D. Diurnal arc

39.

The period of time taken by the moon to complete one revolution of 360deg around the earth is called? A. Rotational period of the moon B. Revolutionary period of the moon C. Synodic period of the moon D. Sidereal period of the moon

40.

What is the diameter about which the earth rotates? A. Axis B. Prime meridian C. None of the other options D. Equator

41.

What is the westerly hour angle of the first point of Aries measured from the observer's meridian called? A. Greenwich sidereal time B. Local mean time C. Local sidereal time D. Greenwich apparent time 769

42.

What is the angle at the center of the earth contained between the center of the sun and the center of that body? A. Elongation of a celestial body B. Attitude of a celestial body C. Horizontal parallax D. parallax in attitude

43.

Line joining a place of equal magnetic variation is called: A. Isothermic line B. Isobaric line C. Isogonic line D. isobathic line

44.

When two bodies are on the same side of the earth and the centers of the three bodies are in one line, then the bodies are said to be A. in opposition B. in Perihelion C. in Aphelion D. in conjunction

45.

What is the observation of a celestial body taken to ascertain the latitude shortly before and after it has crossed the meridian? A. Longitude by chronometer B. Ex-meridian altitude C. Intercept D. Latitude by meridian altitude

46.

The geographical mean between two latitudes is called: A. Mean latitude B. Middle latitude C. Both and D. Neither nor

770

47.

The angle between the meridian and the vertical circle passing though a celestial body is called: A. azimuth B. true bearing C. amplitude D. relative bearing

48.

The horizontal plane to which heights, depths or levels are referred is called: A. Datum B. Calibration point C. Date line D. Danger line

49.

How do planets moue when they are closer to the sun as compared to when they are further away from the sun? A. Do not moue B. Constant rate C. Faster D. Slower

50.

When is a body said to be circumpolar? A. Latitude + declination is greater than or equal to 90 B. Observer's latitude & body's declination are of the same name. C. Neither nor D. Both and

51.

How would a straight line on the globe look like other than when it is E-W at 0 deg? A. partly curved and partly straight B. straight C. neither nor D. curved

771

52.

To which of these does semi diameter correction not apply: A. both and B. sun C. stars D. coon

53.

Latitude scale is obtained as: A. long scale x cosec fat B. long scale x cos lat C. long. Scale x sec lat D. long scale x sin lat

54.

At the first point of aries and first point of libra, the sun's declination is A. 23 deg B. 12 deg C. 0 deg D. 23.5 deg

55.

At the horizon, refraction: A. Is moderate B. Does not exist C. Is maximum D. Is minimum

56.

Refraction correction must always be: A. Divided B. Added C. Subtracted D. Multiplie

772

57.

What is the interval in time between two successive meridian passages of the true sun over the same meridian? A. Mean solar day B. Sidereal day C. none of the other options D. Apparent solar day

58.

As height of eye increases, Dip: A. increases B. remains constant C. doubles D. decreases

59.

Which of these is an inferior planet? A. Mercury B. Uranus C. Jupiter D. Saturn

60.

What are the points where the moons orbit intersect the ecliptic called? A. 1 st point of aries B. 1 st point of libra C. Nodes D. Antinodes

61.

How many time zones are there? A. 36 B. 24 C. 48 D. 12

773

62.

At the horizon refraction is = A. 0 min B. 1min C. 34 min D. 16min

63.

The small circle on the earth's surface bounding the observer's view at sea is called: A. Observer's sensible horizon B. None of the other options C. Observer's visible horizon D. Observer's rational horizon

64.

What is the average distance of the sun from the earth? A. 9,300 million miles B. 930million miles C. 93 million miles D. 9.3 million miles

65.

The Prime meridian is at: A. 80 deg long B. 90 deg long C. 45 deg long D. 0 deg long.

66.

Augmentation at the horizon is A. 0.1 B. 0.3 C. 0.2 D. 0

774

67.

The angle at the observer contained between the plane of the sensible horizon and the direction of his visible horizon is called: A. ht of eye B. Sextant altitude C. dip D. Apparent altituden

68.

What is the maximum declination of the sun? A. 26 deg N or S B. 26 deg 23.7min N or S C. 23 deg 26.7min N or S D. 23 deg N or S

69.

A great circle on the earth's surface which passes through the terrestrial poles is known as A. latitude B. equator C. equinoxial D. meridian

70.

Which of these is a morning and evening star? A. Venus B. Mars C. Saturn D. Jupiter

71.

Either of the two points at which the sun crosses the equator is called : A. zenith B. first point of aries C. equinox D. first point of libra

775

72.

What is a combination of great circle and parallel sailing known as? A. Plane sailing B. Composite sailing C. Parallel track sailing D. Rhumb line sailing

73.

Where can the correction for altitude of celestial bodies be obtained from? A. Sight reduction tables B. Nautical alamanac C. Tide tables D. Reeds distance table

74.

What does the term culmination mean? A. The greatest and least altitudes of a celestial body when crossing the meridian B. When the celestial body is about to set C. When the celestial body just starts rising D. Max declination of a celestial body

75.

What is total correction tabulated against? A. Observed attitude B. True altitude C. Sextant altitude D. Apparent attitude

76.

What is the day gained in crossing the 180deg meridian when sailing westward called? A. Antipodean day B. Astronomical day C. Solar day D. Sidereal day

776

77.

When the index mirror is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant, it is called: A. Index error B. error of perpendicularity C. side error D. error of collimation

78.

A chronometer is said to be loosing if : A. if it is slow one day and less slow next day B. it is fast one day and more fast the next day C. if it is slow one day and fast the next day. D. it is correct on GMT one day and is slow next day

79.

What should be the correct position of the sun when checking compass error by amplitude? A. Centre of the body should be on the rational horizon of the observer B. Centre of the body should be on the visible horizon of the observer C. Any one of the other options. D. Centre of the body should be on the celestial horizon of the observer

80.

When the axis of the telescope is not parallel to the plane f the sextant, it is called A. index error B. error of collimation C. side error D. error of perpendicularity

81.

What instrument is used for taking bearings of celestial bodies/objects? A. Reflection plotter B. Cursor C. Sextant D. Azimuth circle

777

82.

What is the apparent increase in the semi-diameter of the moon called? A. Refraction B. Augmentation C. Horizontal parallax D. Parallax

83.

The angle subtended at the observer's eye by the horizontal distance between two objects is known as : A. angle of inclination B. Angle of repose C. Vertical sextant angler D. Horizontal sextant angle

84.

What is the relation between azimuth and attitude in higher latitudes? A. Any change in attitude will change the azimuth by the same amount. B. A small change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth C. A large change in altitude results in a large change in azimuth D. A small change in altitude results in a small change in Dazimuth

85.

What is the phenomenon when the sun has reached it's maximum north declination and all northern latitudes will experience the longest day and shortest night and vise -versa in the southern hemisphere? A. Winter solstice B. Vernal equinox C. Autumnal equinox D. Summer solstice

86.

Once Index error is applied to the sextant altitude, it is called A. Apparent altitude B. True altitude C. True zenith distance D. Observed altitude

778

87.

In taking a vertical sextant angle to determine the distance of an object, where would you find the height of the object : A. from the chart B. chart 5011 C. from the chart catalogue D. guide to port entry

88.

What is obtained by working out a long by chron of sun ? A. position of the observer B. observer's latitude C. observer's longitude0 D. none of the other options

89.

When the horizon glass is not perpendicular to the plane of the sextant , it is called : A. side error B. index error C. error of collimation D. error of perpendicularity

90.

When the position of the vessel is determined by the courses and distances run, including set and drift of known currents, independently of celestial observations or terrestrial bearings, it is called : A. DR B. EP C. Plot D. Fix

91.

On which day does a solar eclipse occur? A. Full moon day B. Neither nor C. Both new and full moon day D. New moon day

779

92.

For lunar eclipse to occur, what should be the position of the sun and the moon? A. Neither nor B. Sun and moon must be in opposition C. Sun and moon must be in conjunction D. It is possible in both cases. Both and

93.

What is pelorus used for? A. For assessing visibility B. For identifying stars C. Taking bearings D. For ascertaining the signal strength of radio waves

94.

Which of these celestial bodies is principally responsible for tides? A. Moon B. Comets C. Stars D. Planets

95.

If an observer is in the surrounding area where only the penumbra reaches, the observer will only see a part of the sun covered , in this case, what kind of an eclipse will he be experiencing? A. Annular solar eclipse B. Total solar eclipse C. Partial lunar eclipse D. Partial solar eclipse

96.

Where can the correction for parallex be obtained from? A. Nautical tables B. Reeds distance table C. Nautical alamanac D. Sight reduction tables

780

97.

When the index mirror and the horizon glass are not exactly parallel to each other, it is called : A. side error B. error of collimation C. index error D. error of perpendicularity

98.

In a sextant, what is the mirror mounted on the upper end of the index bar, perpendicular to the plane of the limb called? A. Horizon glass B. Index glass C. Horizon shade D. Index shade

99.

What is the index nor?

A. 3'40" B. 4'40" C. 40" D. 5'40"

100.

For H.E 8.6 what is the correction (Dip)

A.

5.2

B.

5.1

C.

5.25

D.

5.15

781

DPKP

1. Melaksanakan tugas jaga permesinan dengan aman (Maintain a safe engineering watch) 1.

Before leaving the machinery spaces of a UMS vessel after routine watchkeeping rounds in the evening, the duty engineer inspects the doors to Fuel Oil Treatment rooms which are covered by a fixed fire fighting installation. For what purpose does he do this? A. To make sure that they are properly closed with the self closing device so that any fire is contained and the extinguishing medium can be released without delay. B. To tie them open with a rope to prevent the heat from building up inside, and making it uncomfortable to work. C. Wedge them open with an arrangement which allows them to be closed quickly in the event of a fire.quickly. D. Remove the auto closing device so they remain in whatever position they were.

2.

Before leaving the machinery spaces of a UMS vessel whose engine room is protected by a fixed CO2 installation, should the duty engineer: A. Ensure all doors are in closed position. B. Lock all of the entry exit doors to prevent entry by unauthorised personnel. C. Hook the main entry/exit doors in the open position to speed up entry in the event of an alarm. D. Leave the doors in whatever position they are in.

782

DPKP

3.

Crewmen are carrying out maintenance work in the engine room on overtime. The work does not affect machinery operation. At the end of normal working hours, what should the Engineer on Duty do? A. Continue with manual operated engine room until the maintenance work is finished. B. Switch to UMS-mode and leave the engine room as normal. C. Switch to UMS-modeand inform the crewmen not to touch any of the machinery. D. Leave the engine room after asking the crewmen to switch to UMS once they have finished working

4.

During a routine check of one of the auxiliary engines in an UMS operated engine room, a minor leakage on a high pressure fuel pipe is observed. What would be the appropriate action and/or precaution to be taken? (Assume normal operation; 2 gen sets operating and 1 on standby) A. Inform the Chief Engineer and the Bridge. Change over to manual mode, switch over generators and repair the fault before returning to UMS mode. B. Change the operation to the third generator set, leaving the original set as stand-by until it can be repaired the next day.. C. Continue in UMS mode but have a motorman on watch for the rest of the night, especially instructed to watch the engine and clean up the leakage D. Place a drip tray in position to collect the leakage and continue in UMS mode.

783

DPKP

5.

During an unmanned period on a UMS vessel the "low water level" alarm for the jacket cooling water system expansion tank activates. What action would you take as duty engineer? A. Answer the alarm, top up the tank and check the system for leakage before resuming unmanned operation. B. Answer the alarm and adjust the alarm set point for the water level in the expansion tank before resuming unmanned operation. C. Answer the alarm then block the alarm function for later action and resume unmanned operation. D. Answer the alarm then block the alarm and change to manned engineroom condition.

6.

During UMS rounds at night during a sea passage the duty engineer discovers the main engine lube oil pump starter "chattering" loudly. What is the correct action to be taken? A. Switch over to the other pump and inform the CE of the noise immediately. Keep engine room manned.] B. Call the electrician and inform him of the noise and ask him to put it at the top of the next day's job list. Continue UMS operation.. C. Switch over to the other pump and leave the starter until the next morning. Continue UMS oeration. D. Keep engine room manned so that the starter can be checked regularly to see if it gets worse.

7.

If the oil content high alarm is actuated on an automatic oily water separator what should the resulting action be? A. Overboard discharge valve should close automatically. B. The oil outlet valve opens automatically. C. Overboard discharge valve should be shut manually by the duty engineer. D. The sludge pump should stop automatically.

784

DPKP

8.

In accordance with SOLAS and other international regulations, certain important machinery functions, such as operation and control of the steering gear and propulsion machinery, must be tested at specified times. When should these tests be carried out? A. Prior to arrival and departure from port and following maintenance. B. Only following maintenance. C. Only following drydock. D. Only at stand by engines.

9.

Is it necessary to cool the samples taken from a diesel engine cooling water system before carrying out tests to determine the concentration of treatment chemicals? A. Yes, the samples should be cooled to approximately 25 C. B. No, the test should be carried out at system temperature. C. Yes, the samples should be cooled to approximately 50 C. D. No, the samples should be heated to approximately 95 C.

10. The bilge holding tank level is being reduced by discharging through the OWS. What action should be taken when the oil/water interface in the holding tank is reached? A. Stop the OWS and pump the oil to the incinerator tank. B. Stop the OWS and pump the oil to a bunker tank. C. Continue pumping the contents of the holding tank through the OWS. D. Bypass the OWS and discharge the remaining contents of the holding tank overboard.

11. The duty engineer notices that there is full flow through overflow line observation glass to the fuel oil overflow tank. What action should be taken? A. Stop all F.O. transfers and other fuel operations immediately and check all fuel tank levels. B. Check the levels in all the fuel oil tanks. C. Get a crewman to sound the overflow tank at frequent intervals and report to the duty engineer when it is nearly full. D. Start the fuel oil transfer pump to pump out the overflow tank.

785

DPKP

12. What action should the Duty Engineer take when entering an UMS-mode operated engine room due to an alarm or due to a scheduled routine check? A. Notify the Bridge and switch the UMS selector switch to manual mode and engage the "dead man alarm" B. Switch the UMS selector switch to manual mode only C. Leave the UMS selector switch in UMS-mode D. Answer the alarm or carry out the check and then leave the engine room.

13. What would be the most likely cause of a smell of "rotten eggs" in the upper casing of the engine room? A. A leak of exhaust gas from a boiler or diesel engine exhaust. B. Fresh water evaparator malfunction. C. Failure of the ship's refrigeration system. D. Open or leaking acetylene bottle.

14. Why is it necessary to carry out routine tests of the water in a diesel engine cooling water system? A. To check that the correct concentration of corrosion inhibitors are maintained. B. To check for leakage in the cooling water system. C. To check that the O-ring seals are in good condition. D. To check for the presence of contaminants in the system.

15. After an engine following start up it is discovered that the start air pipe to one of the cylinders is hotter than normal. What is the likely cause of this problem? A. The air start valve for the cylinder is leaking or stuck open. B. The main air start automatic valve has not closed properly. C. The air start line flame trap for the cylinder is burning inside. D. The air start compressor cooling has failed.

786

DPKP

16. After cleaning some machinery components at sea, the engine watch rating is instructed to dispose the small amount of dirty diesel oil which is left. How should the dirty oil be disposed? A. Put it straight into the dirty oil tank for incineration at the next opportunity. B. Pour it into the engine room bilge so that it can be pumped through the oily water separator. C. Take it on deck and throw it overboard. D. Pour it into the diesel oil storage tank through the sounding pipe.

17. An engine room rating is assisting the duty engineer during a period of UMS operation. After completing the tasks they leave the engine room which is returned to UMS mode. The rating realises that an oil tank filling valve has been left open. What action should be taken? A. Inform the duty engineer immediately so that the engine room can be re-entered and the valve can be shut. B. Re-enter the engine room straight away and shut the valve. C. Inform another crewmember that he is going back into the engine room to close the valve. D. Just leave the valve open as it is unsafe to enter the engine room alone. The high alarm will sound to notify the engineer when the tank is full.

18. During bilge pumping operations the pump suction gauge indicates a high vacuum. What is the most likely cause of the high vacuum reading? A. A blocked bilge suction strainer. B. A hole in the suction line. C. Broken suction gauge. D. Leaking pump gland.

787

DPKP

19. How can water hammer be avoided when operating the valves and pumps in a cooling water system? A. Operate valves slowly B. Start pump with closed valves C. Start the pump with open valves D. Operate valves quickly

20. The engine rating on watch finds the level of the diesel engine jacket water header tank well below normal. After topping up the tank and checking around the engine, a leak is found. What action should be taken? A. Try and quickly stop the leak and then inform the engineer on watch of what has happened. B. Leave the filling valve open a little bit to make up for the leakage. C. Check the tank and top it up more frequently. D. Put a bucket under the leak and refill the header tank with the water that collects in the bucket to save water.

21. The engine room rating has been assisting with ballast operations during a period of engine room watch duty. Ballast operations have stopped for a couple of hours while stores are being taken. What action should the rating take during this break in operations? A. Stop all of the ballast pumps and close all of the ballast valves as soon as operations are stopped. Ballast lines should always be closed except when they are being used. B. Just keep the pumps running and the valves for the ballast tanks open to save time when operations are restarted. The tanks will just overflow through the air vents. C. Just stop the pumps and close the pump suction and discharge valves. Leave the valves for the ballast tanks open to save time later. D. Shut the valves for the ballast tanks but keep the pumps running and discharging overboard to save time later.

788

DPKP

22. What action should be taken if it is noticed a quantity of oil on the engine room tank top? A. Notify the duty engineer and try and find the cause of the leakage so that it can be stopped and the oil cleaned up. B. Apply foam to the tank top to minimise any risk of fire. C. Start the fire pump and wash the oil into the bilges. D. Open the overboard valve and start the bilge pump.

23. What is the main difference between a stuffing box gland and a mechanical seal on a centrifugal pump? A. If packing fails the pump can be kept running by tightening the glands, but if a mechanical seal fails it must be renewed to stop the leakage B. Packed stuffing box glands are subject to wear but mechanical seals are not C. Packed stuffing box glands must be cooled by liquid, but mechanical seals do not require any cooling D. The sealing surface of a mechanical seal is usually parallel to the shaft, but sealing surface of a packed gland is perpendicular to the shaft

24. What is the main purpose of a heat exchanger in a cooling water system? A. To transfer heat from one fluid to another B. To maintain a steady pressure in the system C. To reduce engine room temperature D. To reduce water turbulence

25. What is the normal indication that an oil filter is becoming blocked? A. The pressure drop across the filter. B. Low pressure in the system. C. Visual inspection of the filter elements. D. High temperature of the oil.

789

DPKP

26. What is the normal maximum oil content permitted for machinery space bilge overboard discharge via OWS equipment? A. 15 ppm B. 100 ppm C. 50 ppm D. Zero ppm

27. What should be the first indication the engine room watchkeepers get that there is oil or water leakage in the engine room? A. They should see it on the tank top or in the bilge well during regular inspections. B. Bilge alarm should sound C. A low level alarm should sound for one of the oil or water tanks. D. They should hear the bilge pump start up automatically.

28. What term is used to describe a fresh water cooling system which contains a seawater cooled common freshwater cooler and which meets the cooling requirements for all the engine room machinery? A. A central cooling system B. A low temperature freshwater system C. A common cooling system D. A high temperature freshwater system

29. What would be the most probable cause of an increase in cooling water temperature for all cylinders of a diesel engine? A. Fouling of the jacket water cooler. B. Fouling of the lubricating oil cooler. C. Low level in the header tank for the jacket system. D. Fouling of the charge air cooler.

790

DPKP

30. What would be the most probable cause of high temperature readings for the bearings in a diesel engine? A. Lubricating oil pressure too low. B. Charge air pressure too low. C. Water in the fuel oil. D. Jacket cooling water temperature too high.

31. What would you do if you are told to operate a piece of mechanical equipment which you are not familiar with? A. Seek advice from your superior before attempting to operate it. B. Ensure that all safety guards and devices are disconnected. C. Try and guess how the equipment should be operated. D. Ignore the request to operate the equipment.

32. Which of the following pump types will normally require a separate means of priming? A. Centrifugal pump B. Screw pump C. Gear pump D. Reciprocating pump

33. Which of the following statements regarding a centrifugal pump is correct? A. It is important that the rotation direction is correct to avoid dry running. B. A centrifugal pump is always fitted in a vertical position. C. A centrifugal pump is always self priming. D. Under normal operation the fluid being pumped discharges from the centre of the impeller.

791

DPKP

34. Which statement is true in relation to the operating parameters for a marine diesel engine? A. The normal temperature of the lub oil after the cooler is approximately 45 C. B. The jacket cooling water enters the engine at the cylinder cover at approximately 70 C and exits at the bottom of the cylinder liner. C. The minimum scavenge air temperature is 60 C to avoid condensate forming in the charge air cooler D. The normal temperature of the lub oil after the cooler is approximately 65 C.

35. While assisting the watchkeeper with routine cleaning of the fuel oil separator the watch rating is requested to clean the plate stack. Which one is the preferred method for this task? A. Soak the plates in a suitable solvent until all of the dirt has loosened off and wipe clean with rags. B. With the plate stack in position fill the purifier bowl with clean diesel oil and quickly switch it on and off to wash the plates. C. Soak the dirty plates in a solvent for an hour and then stand them on the engine room deck to drain off. D. Scrape the plates as clean as possible with a packing knife and then wash them with a high pressure water hose.

36. While on watch, an engine room rating notices a leak from the gland of a running seawater pump. What action should be taken? A. Inform the engineer officer of the watch so that the pump can be changed over and the gland can be repacked. B. Remove the pump guard and tighten up the gland while the pump is still running to see that the leak stops. C. Change over the pumps and tell his relief at the end of the watch. D. Place some jointing in way of the leak to direct the water 792

DPKP

into the bilge to stop it being sprayed around by the rotating shaft.

37. While trying to deballast a double bottom tank problems are encountered getting suction on the ballast pump, a centrifugal pump mounted above the tank top. What action can be taken to solve the problem? A. Prime the pump with seawater from the main inlet valve. B. Disconect the manometer pipe to get rid of an air pocket . C. Close the discharge valve. D. Repeatedly start and stop the pump until it gets suction.

38. Why is it important that all the system valves are closed after completing bilge or ballast pumping operations? A. To avoid accidental intake of water into the engine room in case of valve or pipeline failure. B. To make sure the valves do not seize in the open position. C. To keep the pump housing full of fluid. D. It isn't important how the valves are left after pumping operations are completed.

39. Which is the most fundamental part of shipboard duties and takes priority over all other duties A. Maintenance B. Emergency drills C. Cargo surveillance D. Watch keeping

40. On discovering an out break of fire in the engine room what action would you take? A. Sound the fire alarm and then tackle the fire. B. Attempt to tackle the fire. C. Shut down vent fans and all vent flaps. D. Inform the bridge watch keeper.

793

DPKP

41. What is the most important connection with the deck department for the chief engineer? A. The ships speed and consumption B. Maintenance of all cargo gear C. Maintenance of all safety appliances D. Knowledge of all sailing and cargo plans

42. When should you make sure that loose gear in machinery space is secured? A. Mien you are warned bythe bridge of bad weather B. At all times C. After completion of every job D. Prior to leaving port

43. Vahat condition should the fire main be in when at sea? A. Pressurised at all times. B. All pump and isolating values closed. C. Sea suction and fire main discharge values open ready to pressurise the main when pump is started. D. Drained and empty to prevent leakage at hydrants.

44. When taking ouer the watch as duty engineer, before inspecting the plant condition, what would you check? A. The fire alarm monitoring equipment B. The log book entries from the previous watch C. The engine room bilges D. The Chief Engineer's standing orders and special instructions

45. If when in port there is an urgent need to pump bilge water from the vessel, what would you do? A. Pump the bilges only to a shore or barge reception facility. B. Pump the bilges over the sides via the oily water separator C. Pump the bilges only during night time D. Pump bilges in a dirty oil tank or sludge tank and note in logbook

794

DPKP

46. Why should care be exercised when using portable CO2 extinguishers? A. Not suitable for use on all fires B. In confined spaces the atmosphere could overcome the operator. C. The force of the discharge could spread the fire. D. Limited capacity of the extinguisher.

47. considered your relieving engineer unfit to take over what should you do? A. Hand over the watch and inform the Chief Engineer. B. Inform the Chief Engineer. C. Refuse to hand over the watch and inform the Chief Engineer. D. Hand over the watch and inform the Bridge watch keeper.

48. In the case of a serious engine malfunction what would be your course of action? A. Attempt to rectify the fault B. Inform the bridge watch keeper before taking any action. C. Stop the engine immediately and investigate the cause. D. Slow down the engine and attempt to rectify the fault.

49. Which of the following should you carry out before discharging a fixed fire fighting installation into the machinery space? A. Ensure all personnel are out of the space and accounted For. B. Shut down any running machinery and close all quick closing fuel values. C. Keep captain informed of the situation at all times. D. Securely close all doors, vent flaps and shut down vent fans.

50. What in the most important aspect of communication with the Bridge. A. Executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge B. Operation of fire fighting and life saving equipment C. Ballasting operations, cargo hold bilge pumping D. Executing of orders from the bridge

795

DPKP

51. What is the meaning of 'H.S. pumps'? A. Higgins-Simpson pumps B. High Suction pumps C. Hydrostatic solenoid pumps D. Hele-Shaw pumps

52. Onboard ship which piece of equipment removes water from fuel and lubricating oil ? A. A bilge pump. B. An evaporator. C. A purifier. D. An oily water separator. 53. Bilges must always be pumped to the sea via… A. the oil mist detector. B. the centrifugal purifier. C. the forecastle head. D. the oily water separator.

54. Main air compressors on motorships supply air to which of the following ? A. Control room blowers B. Main and auxiliary diesel engines C. Turbochargers D. Fresh air ventilators.

55.

Compressed air to power air operated tools is supplied by which of the following ? A. Boilers. B. Working air compressors. C. Centrifugal pumps. D. Pneupress tanks.

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DPKP

56.

The main lubricating oil pumps would supply

………

A. lubricating oil to the main engine. B. salt water to the main engine. C. lubricating oil to the air compressors. D. fuel oil to the main engine.

57.

Onboard ship an evaporator performs which one of the following functions ? A. It treats raw sewage by biological degradation. B. It dries compressed air after leaving the air compressor. C. It desalinates sea water to make fresh water. D. It supplies fresh water to the accommodation from the engine room.

58.

Centrifugal purifiers are used to remove………. A. oil from bilge water. B. small amounts of water from oil. C. dirt from accommodation air. D. dirt and water from compressed air lines.

59.

In the engine room a pressure vessel half full of air and half of water that supplies water to the accommodation is called

…….

A. a fresh water tank. B. a mains water supply. C. an evaporator. D. apneupress or hydrophore tank.

60.

On a modern ship the main engine lubricating oil is cooled by which of the following ? A. Refrigeration circuit. B. Air flowing over a radiator. C. Main engine cooling water. D. Sea water in a tubular heat exchanger.

797

DPKP

61. Auxiliary diesel engines on motorships supply………. A. electricity for use onboard. B. lubricating oil for use in the main engine. C. electricity for use ashore. D. fresh water for drinking.

62. In an auxiliary diesel engine the connecting rod would join which of the following items ? A. Piston and crankshaft. B. Camshaft and exhaust value. C. Crankshaft and crosshead bearing. D. Piston and crosshead bearing.

63. A Bourdon Tube is used to assist the measurement of which of the following ? A. Light. B. Temperature. C. Pressure. D. Length. 64. The ship's steering gear uses …………… A. hydraulic power to turn the propeller. B. hydraulic power to turn the rudder. C. hydraulic power to drive the bow thruster. D. compressed air to turn the rudder. 65. The abbreviation L.O. stands for………. A. Left Out. B. Lock Out. C. Lubricating Oil. D. Lower Outer main engine.

798

DPKP

66. Controllable or variable pitch propellers are ……… A. propellers whose blades are adjustable. B. propellers that act as a rudder. C. used to supply fresh water to condensers. D. the rotary part of a centrifugal pump. 67. Bimetallic strips can be used to measure……… A. pressure B. flow C. temperature D. length 68. Pressure can be measured by a……… A. liquid in glass thermometer. B. flowmeter. C. Bourdon tube. D. bimetal strip.

69. Propellers used to assist the berthing of a ship by pushing it sideways are called ……….. A. fixed pitch thrusters. B. steerable propellers. C. bow and stern thrusters. D. controllable pitch main propellers. 70. Pneupress tanks supply……….. A. water for the fire main. B. compressed air to power hand tools. C. water to the accommodation. D. water for the evaporator.

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DPKP

71. Plate or tubular heat exchangers are used for which of the following ? A.

Cooling the fresh main engine cooling water.

B.

Heating steam while still in the boiler.

C.

Cooling the water for the fire main.

D.

Heating the galley range.

72. Auxiliary boilers found on motor ships are mostly …… A.

used to supply electrical power for the ship.

B.

fire or smoke tube type.

C.

used to supply electrical power.

D.

used to start the main engine.

73. Engine room piping colour coded yellow carries which of the following ? A.

Compressed air.

B.

Lubricating oil.

C.

Fresh water.

D.

Seawater.

74. Which of the following is the correct name for a void space between two tanks carrying different liquids ? A.

A drain tank.

B.

A cofferdam.

C.

A deep tank.

D.

A bilge.

75. Temperature can be measured by a …….. A.

liquid in glass thermometer.

B.

Bourdon tube.

C.

ruler.

D.

manometer.

800

DPKP

76. On a boiler the main steam outlet is called

………

A. the blow down valve. B. the air vent. C. the feed check value. D. the main stop value.

77. Which of the following materials would be most suitable for flange jointing of pipework carrying lubricating oil ? A. Metal. B. Paper. C. Reinforced compressed fibre. D. Compressed fibre.

78. Turbocharging an engine is the operation which forces extra air into the following ? A. A compressor driven from the exhaust gases. B. A steam driven turbine. C. An air compressor. D. A compressor driven from the crankshaft.

79. What is supported by the main shaft bearings ? A. The turbocharger. B. The propeller shaft. C. The camshaft. D. The ventilation shaft.

80. Engine clutches are used with which type of main engine ? A. Low pressure steam turbines. B. Medium speed engines. C. High pressure steam turbines. D. Slow speed engines.

801

DPKP

81. Superheated steam is used ……… A. to provide power for conventional steam turbines. B. to keep gas turbine engines warm. C. to provide heat for the accommodation. D. to start diesel engines.

82. During the 4-stroke cycle of a diesel engine, which of the following is true ? A. Fuel is injected immediately after the exhaust stroke. B. Air is drawn into the cylinder during the induction stroke. C. The compression stroke is the power stroke. D. The exhaust stroke comes immediately before the power stroke.

83. Which of the following is true of large two stroke slow speed engines ? A. They have a special bearing called a crosshead bearing. B. They only run at 400 - 500 r.p.m. C. They are of the trunk piston type. D. They are not turbo-charged.

84. Oily water separators perform which of the following ? A. They make sure that no oil is pumped overboard. B. They clean engine scavenges. C. They remove the water from the fuel before it is burnt. D. They make sure that no raw sewage is pumped overboard. 85. Turbines on steamships are powered by……….. A. saturated steam. B. superheated steam. C. compressed air. D. water.

802

DPKP

86. Main lubricating oil pumps supply…….. A. lost oil back to the settling tank. B. lubricating oil to the main engine. C. fresh high temperature water to the main engine. D. lubricating oil to evaporator.

87. The type of main engine known as a trunk piston type engine is usually which of the following ? A.

A gas turbine engine.

B.

A medium speed diesel engine.

C.

A steam engine.

D.

A slow speed diesel engine.

88. Which of the following statements is true about positive displacement pumps ? A.

They are not self priming pumps.

B.

They are driven by compressed air.

C.

They are used where lower capacities and speeds are required.

D.

They are never used onboard ship.

89. Which of the following types of main propulsion units is the slowest turning ? A.

H.P. steam turbines.

B.

L.P. steam turbines.

C.

Cross head 2 stroke diesel engines.

D.

Medium speed trunk piston types.

90. Modern high pressure water tube boilers have which of the following: A.

small and compact in size and are inefficient.

B.

water in the tubes and are roof fired.

C.

the capability to power the diesel engines.

D.

water on the outside of the tubes with the burners at the bottom.

803

DPKP

91. The boiler part known as the feed check valve, performs which of the following functions ? A.

It protects the boiler from the effects of over-pressure.

B.

It has final control over the water entering the boiler.

C.

It controls the amount of fuel entering the boiler.

D.

It controls the steam leaving the boiler.

92. In a marine diesel engine, which of the following slides up and down inside the cylinder liner ? A.

The connecting rod.

B.

The piston.

C.

The crankshaft.

D.

The camshaft.

93. A boiler fitting known as a gauge glass, is used for which of the following reasons ? A.

To indicate fuel flow.

B.

To measure the water flow to the boiler.

C.

To allow the easy reading of the pressure gauge.

D.

To indicate water level.

94. Which of the following statements regarding steam turbines is NOT true ? A.

From the H.P. turbine the steam then goes to the condenser.

B.

The H.P. turbine is smaller than the L.P. turbine.

C.

The H.P. turbine receives the steam before the L.P. turbine.

D.

The H.P. turbine is a faster rotating machine than a diesel engine.

95. Centrifugal purifiers are used on board ship ………. A.

remove all the dirt and water from fuel and lubricating oil.

B.

can replace washing machines.

C.

to clean fresh water before it is supplied for drinking.

D.

to ensure compressed air is clean before it is used.

804

DPKP

96. The condenser in a steam plant is where……. A.

Low pressure steam is produced.

B.

electricity is supplied.

C.

water is turned into steam.

D.

steam is turned back into water.

97. In a modern steam turbine, steam is prevented from leaking along the shaft by ………… A.

a labyrinth seal.

B.

high temperature packing.

C.

the inlet nozzle.

D.

the blading.

98. An air compressor driven by the exhaust gases is called A.

an induced draught fan.

B.

a forced draught fan.

C.

a super charger.

D.

a turbo-charger.

99. Marine diesel engines are which type of engines ? A.

Steam powered.

B.

Compression ignition engines.

C.

Spark ignition engines.

D.

Gas powered.

100. Boiler feed water is water……… A.

mixed with fuel oil and burnt as waste oil.

B.

used to cool steam turbines.

C.

taken from the condenser and fed back to the boiler.

D.

used to cool steam back into water.

805

DPKP

101. The term 'compression ignition engine defines……. A.

a diesel engine.

B.

a steam turbine.

C.

a petrol engine.

D.

a steam engine.

102. Which of the following is NOT a boiler mounting ? A.

Air vent.

B.

Blow down valves.

C.

Burner air flaps.

D.

Gauge glass.

103. Which of the following types of pump needs priming every time it is used ? A.

A reciprocating pump.

B.

A gear type pump.

C.

A scroll type pump.

D.

A centrifugal pump.

104. Indicate which of the following main propulsion engines has the fastest rotation speed ? A.

Medium speed diesel engines.

B.

Steam reciprocating engines.

C.

Slow speed diesel engines.

D.

Steam turbines.

105. A compression ignition engine describes which of the following types ? A.

Diesel engines.

B.

Steam turbine engine.

C.

Petrol engines.

D.

Gas turbine engines.

806

DPKP

106. Indicate which of the following main propulsion engines is the largest ? A.

Medium speed diesel engines.

B.

Slow speed diesel engines.

C.

High speed diesel engines.

D.

Steam turbines.

107. Which of the following applies to main medium speed engines ? A.

They are fast engines requiring reduction gearing before driving the propeller

shaft. B.

They supply compressed air to drive high-speed engines.

C.

They are never used to power ships.

D.

They are usually two stroke engines.

108. During the four stroke cycle, which of the following is true ? A.

The exhaust stroke takes place immediately after the power stroke.

B.

After the exhaust stroke the next cycle begins with the compression of the

gases. C.

Injection of fuel takes place at the end of the power stroke.

D.

The injection of the fuel is immediately after the induction stroke.

109. Saturated steam is produced …….. A.

to heat fuel in tanks or to heat ace

B.

to start diesel engines.

C.

to power turbo alternators.

D.

to power steam turbines.

110. Distilled water taken from the condenser and pumped back to the boiler is called………… A.

condenser water.

B.

feed water.

C.

fresh water.

D.

evaporated water.

807

DPKP

111. Which part of a marine diesel engine can be inspected through the crankcase doors ? A.

The piston crown.

B.

The inlet valve.

C.

The exhaust valve.

D.

The bottom end

112. Positive displacement pumps are……. A.

driven by compressed air.

B.

notself priming pumps.

C.

self priming pumps.

D.

used for pumping “large" capacities.

113. Modern cross head marine diesel engines are …… A.

never used as direct drive engines.

B.

very small and compact.

C.

fitted with many small cylinders.

D.

large 2-stroke slow speed engines.

114. Fuel and lubricating oil is cleaned before it is used by which of the following ? A.

Oily water separators.

B.

Centrifugal pumps.

C.

Centrifugal purifiers.

D.

Evaporators.

115. In a marine diesel engine, the piston runs up and down inside which of these ? A.

The cylinder aperture.

B.

The cylinder conductor.

C.

The cylinder facing.

D.

The cylinder liner.

808

DPKP

116. Superheated steam is steam………. A.

that can be used for heating the accommodation.

B.

that is mixed with water vapour.

C.

that has been condensed.

D.

that has been heated until it is "dry”.

117. The bilges in a ship are…………. A.

the floor plates at the bottom of the engine room.

B.

another name for sludge tanks.

C.

the division bulkheads in an engine room.

D.

the lowest part of the ship capturing dirty water from leaks.

118. Modern high pressure boilers produce which of the following ? A.

Fresh water for drinking.

B.

Feed water.

C.

Saturated steam.

D.

Superheated steam.

119. Which type of pump would be most suitable for pumping large quantities such as oil cargoes ? A.

Reciprocating pumps.

B.

Centrifugal pumps.

C.

Gear pumps.

D.

Screw pumps.

120. Which of the following removes the oil from bilge water before the water can be pumped overboard? A.

Oily water separators.

B.

Oil fitters.

C.

Evaporators.

D.

Purifiers.

809

DPKP

121. High pressure steam turbines are……. A.

larger than low pressure turbines.

B.

powered by feed water.

C.

smaller than low pressure turbines.

D.

directly coupled to the propeller shaft.

122. On a boiler, the value fitted to protect the boiler from the effects of over pressure is called……………….. A.

the blow down valve.

B.

the safety valve.

C.

the feed check valve.

D.

the main stop valve.

123. A boiler mounting is………… A.

the boiler burner.

B.

the bed plate on which the boiler is mounted.

C.

equipment external to the boiler.

D.

the various values and fittings attached to the pressure part of the boiler.

124. The connecting rod on a cross-head diesel engine is attached to which of the following ? A.

Cross-head bearing and crankshaft.

B.

Piston and crankshaft.

C.

Cylinder head and exhaust valve.

D.

Piston and cross-head bearing.

125. Rubber jointing is used for the flanges of pipework when which of the following is carried ? A.

Rater

B.

Corrosive chemicals.

C.

Oil.

D.

Superheated steam.

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DPKP

126. In a steam plant, the steam turns to water in … A.

the turbo-feed pump.

B.

the condenser.

C.

the boiler.

D.

the L.P. turbine.

127. Safety values are fitted to boilers to…….. A.

safety blow water from the boiler to reduce the impurities.

B.

protect the boiler from the effects of over pressure.

C.

allow the steam from the boiler to the turbine.

D.

cut off the fuel when the boiler is up to pressure.

128. Fresh water on board a modern ship is produced by which of the following? A.

Alternators.

B.

Pneupress tanks.

C.

Purifiers.

D.

Evaporators.

129. In which part of a refrigeration circuit is the low temperature produced ? A.

The compressor.

B.

The receiver.

C.

The evaporator.

D.

The condenser.

130. With regard to pumps in general which of the following is true? A.

Older type material packing is superior to the modern mechanical counterpart.

B.

Bilge pumps do not suffer considerable wear.

C.

Main lubricating oil pumps would only normally have to be opened for survey.

D.

Corrosion of sea water pumps never happens during the life of the pump.

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DPKP

131. Before dismantling any equipment, first make sure that it is…….. A.

well greased.

B.

thoroughly clean on the outside.

C.

well painted.

D.

topped up with oil.

132. Which of the following is true when maintaining air compressors ? A.

Air filters are changed every day.

B.

Suction and discharge valves have to be changed frequently for good performance of the compressor.

C.

Regular changing of the suction and discharge valves is not necessary.

D.

The lubricating oil is not changed during the life time of the compressor.

133. Maintenance to a diesel engine's jacket cooling water system consists of ……. A.

replacement of the water every month.

B.

topping up the header tank only.

C.

chemical analysis and treatment at regular intervals.

D.

nothing during the life time of the engine.

134. When cleaning or overhauling purifiers, which of the following applies ? A.

The water supply should be left on during the whole operation.

B.

The inside must only be cleaned with lubricating oil.

C.

The discharge ports must be blocked before cleaning.

D.

The separation discs must be kept in their correct order.

135. Most pumps on modern ships are driven by which of the following ? A.

Steam turbines.

B.

Electric motors.

C.

The main engine.

D.

Small diesel engines.

812

DPKP

136. Which of the following is the preferred method of storing large ''O" rings ? A.

Laid flat between boards and labeled.

B.

Laid across convenient pipe work.

C.

Hung in a set position in the stores.

D.

Hung from a hook in the stores.

137. Which of the following arrives in drums as well as in bulk ? A.

Lubricating oil.

B.

Fuel oil.

C.

Fresh water.

D.

Diesel oil.

138. Bell or wad punches are used for which of the following duties ? A.

Cutting round holes in sheet metal.

B.

Making round holes in wood.

C.

Cutting round holes in packing.

D.

Cutting round holes in jointing.

139. Flange joints or gaskets made from metal would be used in which of the following places ? A.

Water pump casings.

B.

Engine exhaust flanges.

C.

Hot water system pipe flanges.

D.

Lubricating oil value casing flanges.

140. Which of the following concerning auxiliary boilers is not true ? A.

They all have at least 2 safety valves.

B.

It is essential that the feed water is completely pure.

C.

They are fitted with gauge glasses to enable a check on the water level.

D.

The steam they generate is not usually superheated.

813

DPKP

141. With regard to the fuel system of a diesel engine which of the following applies ? A.

The h.p. fuel pump needs no maintenance during the life of the engine.

B.

The fuel injectors need checking and adjusting at regular intervals.

C.

After a short period the injectors are replaced and the old ones thrown away.

D.

The injectors never need attention during the life of the engine.

142. Rotary vane and 4 Ram are two types of…….. A.

diesel generators.

B.

purifiers.

C.

steering gear.

D.

air compressors.

143. Oily water separators are used in which one of the following situations ? A.

To separate oil and water from refrigeration gas in the refrigeration cycle.

B.

As part of the bilge pump system.

C.

To separate water from lubricating oil.

D.

To separate oil and water from compressed air systems.

144. Working air compressors supply which one of the following ? A.

Compressed air at 7 bar for powering hand tools such as needle guns.

B.

Compressed air at 30 bar for starting diesel engines.

C.

Compressed air at 7 bar for starting diesel engines.

D.

Compressed air at 30 bar for powering hand tools such as needle guns.

145. The majority of auxiliary engines on modern ships are……. A.

large two stroke diesel engines.

B.

gas turbines.

C.

four stroke diesel engines.

D.

steam turbines

814

DPKP

146. Propellers that have adjustable blades are called ……. A.

controllable pitch propellers.

B.

rotating propellers.

C.

fixed pitch propellers.

D.

adjustable propellers.

147. Fresh water on board ship is produced by which of the following ? A.

Refrigeration plants.

B.

Centrifugal purifiers.

C.

Oil-water separators.

D.

Evaporators.

148. Bow and stern thrusters are ……….. A.

propellers that force the ship sideways when docking.

B.

deflectors which thrust the bow or stern into the water

C.

another name for bulbous bows.

D.

rudders at the fore and aft ends of the ship.

149. Temperature can be measured with the aid of which of the following ? A.

Bourdon tubes.

B.

Bimetallic strips.

C.

Vent-meters.

D.

Venturie.

150. In an engine room, pipework coloured green carries which of the following ? A.

Fresh water for main engine cooling.

B.

Fresh water for drinking.

C.

Sea water.

D.

Lubricating oil.

815

DPKP

151. Air for the starting of diesel engines is supplied by which of the following ? A.

Working air compressors.

B.

Engine room fans.

C.

Main air compressors.

D.

Turbo blowers.

152. In auxiliary diesel engines timing of the poppet value opening and closing is accomplished by……………. A.

the crankshaft.

B.

the camshaft.

C.

the pushrods.

D.

the pistons.

153. Various valves and fittings attached to the pressure parts of the boiler are called the “boiler ………… A.

attachments".

B.

fittings".

C.

mountings".

D.

controls".

154. Diesel engine exhaust flanges will have joints made from ……… A.

rubber.

B.

metal.

C.

compressedfibre.

D.

paper.

155. The person in charge of the day to day running of the engine room is most often………… A.

the chief engineer.

B.

thewatchkeeping engineer.

C.

the second engineer.

D.

the junior engineer. 816

DPKP

156. Regarding feed water, which of the following statements is NOT true ? A.

it is fresh water.

B.

Feed water in H.P. boilers is normally pumped with a single stage centrifugal pump.

C.

Steam turns to feed water in the condenser.

D.

It is turned into steam in the boiler.

157. In the modern cross-head type diesel engine, the main purpose of the piston rod stuffing box is…………. A.

to keep the piston rod straight.

B.

to prolong the life of the piston rings.

C.

to protect the cross head bearing.

D.

to reduce the risk of scavenge fires.

158. Which of the following statements regarding main boilers is NOT true ? A.

The burners could be at the top firing down.

B.

The superheated steam pressure could be as much as 60 bar.

C.

The feed water need not be very pure.

D.

At least two safety valves will be fitted.

159. The engine log is kept for which of the following reasons ? A.

Because it is a tradition.

B.

To keep the engineer officers fully employed.

C.

To record that continuous routine checks are made.

D.

To keep the chief engineer happy.

160. To ensure a continuous routine check of the machinery, which of the following is carried out ? A.

The watchkeeper reports to the chief engineer every hour.

B.

A verbal report is made to the chief engineer after the working day.

C.

The engineering watchkeeper is trusted to carry out this task without recording the fact.

D.

An official document called the engine room log is completed at regular intervals. 817

DPKP

161. Ship's bunkers are ………….. A.

the stores that arrive on board when a ship is newly built.

B.

the fuel and lubricating oil used for the operation of the ship.

C.

another name for the ship's beds.

D.

a name to describe the spare gear held onboard.

162. Name the type of shut off value that has a wedge which slides up and down ? A.

A gate valve.

B.

A safety valve.

C.

A globe valve.

D.

A non-return valve.

163. On modern ships, which type of pump would be used for supplying lubricating oil to the main engine ? A.

A scroll type positive displacement pump.

B.

A small gear type positive displacement pump.

C.

An axial flow pump.

D.

A large centrifugal pump.

164. The part of the value which stops leakage around the value spindle is called A.

the bridge piece.

B.

the spigot.

C.

the body.

D.

the stuffing box.

165. The collective name for fuel oil and lubricating oil ordered for the running of the ship is…… A.

Ballast.

B.

Supplies.

C.

Fuel.

D.

Bunkers.

818

DPKP

166. For good reliable service from air compressors which of the following needs to be changed on a regular basis ? A.

Lubricating oil.

B.

Piston rings.

C.

Lubricating oil filter.

D.

Suction and discharge valves.

167. Which of the following regarding separation discs is true? A.

They are only found on diesel engines.

B.

Separation discs are stationary when in operation.

C.

They are found in air compressors.

D.

They form part of a purifier and should be kept in the correct order.

168. What is shown in this picture ?

A. A generator B. A fresh water generator C. A pump with an electric moto D. A compressor with an electric motor

169. On a ship operating the U.M.S. system, entry into the engine room would only be under which of the following conditions ? A.

During the clay, on your own, without permission.

B.

When a blue light is flashing and a klaxon is sounding.

C.

During the day, with another person, without special permission.

D.

At night without permission.

819

DPKP

170. The oil lubrication schedule ……. A.

describes what type of oil goes where.

B.

can be found near the generators.

C.

describes when machinery has to be oiled.

D.

can be found on the side of each drum of oil.

171. A non-return value can be identified from an ordinary value by A.

an arrow on the body of the valve.

B.

its flanges.

C.

its spindle.

D.

its handle.

……..

172. The name given to the material placed in a valve stuffing box is……. A.

sealant.

B.

jointing.

C.

plastic.

D.

packing.

173. When taking on fuel which of the following does not apply ? A.

The flexible pipelines should be watched during the operation.

B.

Fuel tank air vents should be blocked off.

C.

There should be efficient two-way communication between the ship and the

fuel tender. D.

Scuppers in the immediate area of pipelines on deck should be plugged.

174. A watchkeeping engineer normally works in the engine room for which of the following periods ? A.

12 hours on 12 hours off.

B.

4 hours on 8 hours off.

C.

For 24 hours in every 72 hours.

D.

Has every weekend off.

820

DPKP

175. Which of the following is carried out every day on main boilers to keep them running efficiently ? A. Cooling down then starting up again. B. Blowing the soot from the tubes. C. Draining the water out. D. Changing to a lighter grade of fuel.

176. Which of the following best describes the hydraulic steering gear pump? A. It is a constant speed variable delivery pump. B. The pump is of the centrifugal type. C. It is a variable speed constant delivery pump. D. It is not driven by electric motor.

177. Before beginning maintenance on a value, what is the first action you should take ? A. Isolate the valve. B. Vent the valve. C. Remove the packing from the value gland. D. Slack off the flange bolts.

178. An arrow on the body of a value means which of the following ? A. The direction to turn the handle when opening. B. Which way to remove the valve when overhauling it. C. The direction to escape the engine room. D. That the valve is a non-return valve.

179. Which of the following diesel engine components require the most frequent maintenance? A. Cylinder heads. B. Inlet valves. C. Lubricating oil filters. D. Exhaust valves.

821

DPKP

180. Which of the following would not normally form part of the chief engineer's duties? A. Keeping the machinery survey sheets up to date. B. Engaging outside contractors to carry out work in the engineroom. C. Seeing that planned maintenance schedules are kept up to date. D. Ordering the lubricating oil from the company.

181. Indicate which of following systems needs regular chemical analysis and treatment ? A. The jacket cooling water system. B. The bilge water system. C. The purification system. D. The fuel oil system.

182. What action should you take during your watch if you find that more water than usual has collected in the bilge wells ? A. Pump the bilges overboard with the emergency bilge pump B. Pump the bilges overboard with the bilge pump C. Ask permission to pump the bilges via the 15 ppm oily water separator D. Pump the bilges into the bilge collecting tank

183. Which preparations are required with regards to the PISTONS and CYLINDER LINERS of a diesel engine prior to manoevring for departure ? A. Close safety valve, put out turning gear, open air bottles B. Preheat cylinders and pistons, turn engine, turn cylinder lubricators. C. Open starting air, start booster pump, start stern tube pump D. Open indicator cocks, close safety value, turn lubricators

184. What should be observed when you make a lubrication check of the engine forced lubrication oil system ? A. The condition of the oil in the sump tank bytest kit B. Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train C. The level in the oil sump tank correct D. That the oil pressure on the top position manometer is

correct

822

DPKP

185. What would you do if the engine OIL MIST DETECTOR alarm goes off indicating abnormal oil vapour in the crankcase ? A. Stop engine at once and open crankcase doors to ventVapour B. Slow down then stop engine and cool down for at least hatf an hour C. Feel all crankcase doors and camshaft bloc for hot spot D. investigate the oil pressure under slow down condition f engine

186. What important check should be carried out every watch and should be intensified if you suspect that a piston ring might be broken in order to avoid scavenge fire ? A. The exhaust gas temperature B. The cylinder lubrication C. The scavenge drain flow through D. listen to the cylinder for noise

187. When taking over the engine room watch, you should verify that the steering gear is …. A. operational and the ship is on course. B. well ventilated. C. not running in overload or not overheating. D. vibration free operating without oil leaks and that the unit 's well reased and lubricated.

188. When taking over the engine room watch you should verify that the pallister bearing carrying the rudder stock

…..

A. has no jumping clearance. B. has no axial clearance. C. is well greased and that no water ingress is noticeable. D. has sufficient clearance on the gland packing and is not scoring the liner or the seat plate.

823

DPKP

189. When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the stern tube oil gravity tanks……… A. contain oil as marked to ensure that there is no oil loss via the stern tube. B. are changed-over from high to low or vice versa as required. C. are at the required temperature and if hot, more water should be added to the stern tube. D. contain sufficient oil to maintain level during your watch.

190. When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the stern tube seal ……… A. is supplied with cooling fresh water. B. is not leaking. C. is supplied with cooling sea water. D. has not shifted inside the liner.

191. When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the stern tube shaft is ... A. not twisted. B. exactly "hand warm ". C. not vibrating and not running hot.. D. not running hot.

192. When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft……… A. is at engine room temperature. B. is polished and that the polishing mats are in place. C. is adequately greased. D. is vibration free.

824

DPKP

193. When taking over the engine room watch you should ensure that the intermediate shaft bearings are…….. A. not running hot, the cooling water is not blocked and the oil is not dirty. B. at the desired temperature, that adequate oil is flowing and that cooling water supply is on C. not hot or making any unusual noise and that the cooling water valve is open. D. not overheating and that no white metal is spotted.

194. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the main engine thrust bearing? A. The lubrication oil pressure, the torque and the horsepower B. The cooling water supply pressure and the temperature C. The lubrication oil inlet pressure and the lubrication oil outlet temperature D. The torsional vibrations and the temperature

195. When taking over the engine room watch, you should check that the engine room supply fans…… A. are well greased. B. are not overheating. C. are running vibration and noise free. D. are covered by dirt screens.

196. en taking over the engine room watch you should check that the engine room fans intake grids or filters……… A. are secured by wire mesh. B. are properly bolted in place. C. are free of dirt or obstacles. D. are cleaned with oil and grease remover.

825

DPKP

197. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the engine room workshop when no one is working there ? A. That all lockers are closed, that workshop is locked and the lights switched off B. That the fire alarm is switched off and that the electric power is switched off C. The fire alarm is switched on, the electric power to equipment switched off and any gas bottle values are — closed D. That the lights are switched off and the values of the n welding gas bottles are closed

198. When taking over the engine room watch, what are you to check and verify concerning the bilges and any accumulated water ? A. Check dryness of bilges, water in accumulation tank (bilge tank) and verify whether bilges were pumped B. Check from where the water or oil is originating and when the bilges were last pumped C. Check accumulation source and piping and check when bilges were last pump D. The amount of water in the bilges, the Chief Engineer's standing orders and check for any accumulation and its source

199. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational heavy fuel oil purifier ? A. The flow-through capacity, the temperature on the inlet, the bearing temperature and the Ferodo coupling B. The Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperature, the crankcase oil level, the pump bearing temperature and the setting of the timers C. The attached fuel pump bearings, the fuel back pressure, the inlet temperature and the suction strainer D. The water seal (tank), the crankcase oil level ,the flow-through capacity, the fuel inlet temperature, the overflow pipe and the back pressure

826

DPKP

200. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the heavy fuel supply to machinery and boilers ? A. That the settling tanks and the daily tanks are full B. That the settling tanks and daily tanks are at least for 75 % full C. The temperatures of the settling tanks and daily tanks D. The daily and settling tank levels, the purifier line-up and throughput, in order to ensure at least sufficient fuel supply to last your watch

201. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the heavy fuel oil daily and settling tanks besides the supply capacity ? A. Compare the remote gauging system with tape sounding readings, drain the moisture off B. Air supply to the quick closing values, the tank vent screens, the remote or distance gauging system C. Verify the temperatures, check the tank vent screens, unclog the distance reading system D. The tank temperatures, drain the collected water off and verify if the quantity of the later is not abnormal

202. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the operational lubricating oil purifier ? A. Check the Ferodo coupling, the bearing temperatures, the inlet temperature and the back pressure B. Check whether throughput is minimum, check the overflow pipe, check whether the alarm is activated C. Check the setting of the timers, check the inlet temperature, the back pressure, the bearing temperatures D. Check whether throughput is on maximum, check the water seal, check the overflow/water flow off pipe, check inlet temperature and back pressure

827

DPKP

203. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the main engine sump level ? A. The sump should be not less that 90 %full capacity. Check if the last watch has added oil B. The sump should be at least for 85 %full C. Observe that the tank will not near the 60 % level during your watch, if not request Chief Engineer to fill the tank to 85% D. Check the level in the sump, that no abnormal drop has occurred during the previous watches and check if change in trim has occurred

204. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on all engine room fresh water expansion tanks ? A. That the automatic filling or float systems are in good operational order. B. That the levels of the tanks are normal and verify whether the previous watch had to fill the tanks excessively e.g. indicating system leaks C. That the chemical concentration of the water is correct D. That the temperatures are normal and the tanks are not steaming up

205. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the hot well of the condensate/feedwater system ? A. Whether the cooling water supply is sufficient and that the level is satisfactory B. Whether the heating coil is in operation and that the automatic filling valve is working to satisfaction C. Whether the filters are cleaned and that the chemical concentration of the water is correct D. Whether on level, that no abnormal consumption is occurring and that there is no steaming up

828

DPKP

206. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the running auxiliary diesel(s)? A. The lubrication of all components including tappets, lub. oil consumption; pressure and temperatures of systems; check for leakages B. The bearing alignment, the governor speed, the lub. oil temperature, the sump tank level and consumption and the tappet clearance C. The tappet clearance, the fuel pump timing, the rocker arm lubrication, the sump tank level and oil consumption D. The fuel oil consumption, the lub oil consumption, all pressures and temperatures

207. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check in the first place concerning the auxiliary diesels and electric power supply ? A. That the diesels are exactly sharing 50 % of the total load if two are running in parallel or ld of the load with three in parallel B. That the load is normal, any other power requirements are in the Chief Engineer's standing orders, number of diesels running in parallel C. That the voltage, the kVA, the kVAR, the amperage and the excitation load are acceptabl D. That none of the diesels is running at more than 70 % of the load, if so, an additional diesel to be put in parallel

208. When two auxiliary diesels are running in parallel during your engine room watch, what should you periodically check ? A. That both diesels have exactly a 50% share of the active load in kWatt B. That both diesels have the same voltage and the same frequency C. That both diesels have the same load in kWatt, same reactive load in kVAR, same amperage D. That both diesels are running at the same speed

829

DPKP

209. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify concerning the sea cooling water supply System ? A. The cleanliness of the filters and the correct sea chests A are in operation B. The sea water temperature and the sea water pressure C. The suction pressure and the discharge pressures D. The cooling water system line setting and the sea water pressures to the different components

210. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the main engine turbochargers? A. The tachometer coupling, the cooling water pressure, the nozzle ring pressure and the diffuser pressure B. Abnormal vibrations, lub oil pump pressures, nozzle ring temperatures, cooling water pressures and the RPM C. The blower filter pressure drop, the oil sump temperatures, the cooling water outlet temperature, RPM, the oil sump levels, vibrations and oil flow D. Differential pressure over intake filter, the tachometer connection, the oil sump and oil flow

211. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the operational boilers when the exhaust gas boiler alone is providing the heat supply ? A. The soot blowers, the economiser and the boiler furnace B. The boiler water circulating pumps, the feedwater pumps and the feedwater temperature C. The economiser and superheater temperatures and the steam pressure D. The boiler drum (parallel boiler) water level, the steam pressure and the exhaust gas change over flap position or coil percentage used

830

DPKP

212. When taking over the engine room watch, what particulars should you check initially concerning the starting air system (25 to 30 kg/cm2) to the main engine when the vessel is under way ? A. That both supply air tanks are filled to at least 28 kg/cm2 and that air supply to the main engine is open at sea B. That both supply air tanks are filled to at least 25 kg/cm2 C. That air supply to the main engine is open at sea D. That the compressors are in working condition

213. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check on the oil fired boiler if this is in operation ? A. Furnace temperature, uptake gas temperature and smoke indicator B. Feedwater temperature, steam pressure, water level, fuel pressure and CO2 content of uptake gases C. Feedwater temperature, fuel oil pressure, CO2 content of uptake gases and flame brightness D. Steam pressure, water level, flame brightness, cleanliness of the photocell glass plus fuel temperature and pressure

214. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the main compressed air system ? A. That the branch lines to the working and instrument air are correctly opened and at the desired pressure of 7.5 kg/cm2 B. That the non-return values from compressors to bottles are correctly set C. That the valves to the deck air fore and after are open D. That the air compressors are in a state of readiness with oil level in the crankcase correct and air bottles are drained

831

DPKP

215. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check concerning the fresh water generator ? A. The vacuum percentage and the sea water temperature B. All of the other options, plus the fresh water production in the last 4 hours C. The difference between sea water inlet and outlet on the condenser and the fresh water inlet and outlet on the evaporator D. The sea water feed supply pressure, the eductor pressure, the fresh water level in the collector and fresh water pump back pressure

216. During your watch in the engine room, you should be aware of the general condition of piping. What kind of deficiencies should you be looking for ? A. Piping leaking at the flange gaskets or dresser couplings B. Any one of these C. Vibrating pipes, or piping which has became loose from its fastening D. Leaking or weeping on the welding seams, piping which has developed cracks or holes

217. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you check for on all running centrifugal pumps ? A. The discharge pressure and power absorption B. The suction pressure C. Vibrations, if any and tightness of the shaft seal D. AII of these.

218. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you look for on all running gear type or worm wheel type pumps ? A. Free movement of the by-pass valve B. The pressure relief valve setting C. Vibration free operation and tightness on the shaft D. The pump casing temperature

832

DPKP

219. What in particular should you observe about all piston type pumps operating when taking over the engine room watch ? A. Greasing/lubricating of the drive shaft (crank arm and gear) B. Operating and freeness of sniffing valves C. All of these. D. Vacuum and pressure on the pump

220. When taking over the engine room watch, which main engine components should you check physically when the vessel is under way ? A. The foundation bolts tightness and pre-stress, the tie-rod tightness, the camshaft alignment B. The crankcase internals, main bearings and crankpin bearings the connecting rods and crosshead bearings with attached lub oil pumps C. The pistons, cylinder liners and the cylinder heads D. The piping connections of fuel, oil, water and air, the governor with linkage to the fuel pumps, the telescopic piping and the crankcase door tightnes

221. When taking over the engine room watch, what should you verify on the electrical main switch board ? A. The power supplying alternator, voltage, amperage, power supply, frequency. B. The voltage and amperage delivered to the power consumers, the condition of the transformers, the non-essential consumers C. The setting of the non-essential consumer trip system, the setting of the overload system, the actual power as percentage of total capacity available D. Power Generation, power distribution inclusive secondary circuit, any unusual power consumer switched on/off, earth faults main and secondary systems

833

DPKP

222. When you make a visit to the emergency diesel generator during your engine room watch, what should you be on the look out for ? A. That the steam heater or electrical heater in the emergency diesel room is switched on B. That the battery charger is not accidentally kept in ON position, that the door of the generator room is always closed behind you C. Radiator fresh water level, oil level in sump tank, preheating temperature of cylinders, charging level of batteries, diesel in stand-by mode. D. That the voltage and the frequency displayed on the emergency switch board is the same as on the main Switch board

223. During your watch you notice that the salinity of the fresh water produced by the fresh water generator has gone up together with the output. You notice too that sea water temperature has dropped. What should you do ? A. Increase the opening on the vacuum breaking valve B. Increase the flow to the eductors C. Throttle the sea water flow to the condenser D. Throttle the fresh water flow to the evaporator

224. If the oil flows out on the heavy liquid (water) side of a purifier, the most likely reason is …….. A. that the revolution of the bowl has slowed and the electric motor is in overload. B. that the operating water for the bowl has been turned off the containing tank is empty. C. that the gravity disc inside diameter is too big, or that the oil temperature has dropped, increasing the density of the oil. D. that the amount of closing water for the bowl is insufficient.

834

DPKP

225. If the oil flows from to the sludge outlet on an oil purifier , the most likely reason for this is……… A. that the bowl has not been closed completely, or there is a fault in main seal ring, pilot value or water supply for the closing bowl. B. that defects have developed in the vertical shaft parts or otherwise that the rubber plate has hardened. C. that the relief value of the gear-type supply pump is working. D. that air is being sucked into the suction piping of the lub oil pump.

226. When water is found mixed in the light liquid (oil) outlet of an oil purifier, the most likely reason is …….. A. water in the gear case. B. excessive supply of sealing water, feed rate too high and water outlet of oil clogged. C. defects in the horizontal shaft parts. D. hat the relief value of the oil supply attached pump has been fastened extensively. causing overload.

227. If the electric motor on an oil purifier is found working in overload or tripping, the most likely reason is………. A. that the discharge pressure on the light liquid outlet is set too high, or the oil temperature has dropped. B. that there are defects in driving system, clutch or bearings, or the relief value of the supply pump has been fastened. C. that the amount of sealing water is insufficient or the sealing water timer is wrongly adjustment. D. that the rubber plate has hardened causing excessive supply of sealing water.

835

DPKP

228. When abnormal vibrations or sounds are noticed from an oil purifier, the most likely cause is…………. A. that the oil seal for the horizontal shaft is worn or damaged. B. that the gravity disc is the wrong size and/or oil inlet temperature is too low. C. that the water outlet of the bowl is blocked causing imbalance in the purifier bowl. D. the bowl has failed causing contact with non-rotating pails or defects in horizontal or vertical shaft parts have occurred.

229. If during your engine room watch you hear the boiler level alarm sound and you notice low water level, but the feedwater pressure to be normal, what should you do first ? A. Shut the boiler main steam stop value B. Shut-off the steam heating to the tank consumers C. Open the by-pass feedwater check valves D. Start another feedwater pump

230. If during your engine room watch the steam supply or steam pressure should fall for some reason, what should you check first ? A. The hotwell level B. The viscosity of the heavy fuel oil to consumers C. The boiler water level D. The fuel oil and lub oil purifiers

231. If during your engine room watch, without any previous warning or alarm, the oil fired boiler trips due to "flame failure", what should you check first ? A. The cleanliness of the photocell B. The boiler water level C. The fuel oil temperature D. The fuel oil pressure

836

DPKP

232. Before starting soot blowing operations on boilers, you should ensure that…….. A. the boiler is manually fired. B. the safety values are set correctly. C. the bridge is informed. D. he boiler water level is at maximum. 233. The main danger of feeding cold feedwater into a boiler is ……….. A. that can cause implosions. B. that it causes dangerous steam pressure drops. C. that it causes oxygen depletion in the feedwater filling line. D. hat it causes stress in the vicinity of the inlet piping as well as corrosion.

234. Before raising steam in a boiler, you should ensure that

………..

A. the steam main stop value is open. B. thefeedwater check values are open. C. the air vent cock is open. D. the boiler water circulation values are open.

235. If there is a very sudden and large increase in steam consumption, how will the boiler water level behave ? A. It will increase drastically B. It will at first rise suddenly, then drop drastically. C. It will drop drastically D. It will at first drop suddenly, then increase drastically

236. After a total black-out with an automatic power supply system, what is the correct sequence for restarting the essential pumps once the power is restored ? A. Jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector ON pump, Tub oil pump, main sea water pump B. Main lub oil pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, injector CW pump, main sea water pump. C. Injector CW pump, main sea water pump, jacket and piston CV/ pump D. Main sea water pump, jacket CW pump, piston CW pump, b oil pump, injector CV/ pump 837

DPKP

237. The most effective way to check the gas tightness of a starting air value on a diesel engine is which is running is………. A. by simply touching the air intake pipe. B. by inspection of the starting air pilot values. C. by taking compression diagrams of the engine. D. y checking the vents of the main starting air value. 238. On all ships it is possible to cool the propulsion machinery directly by the…….. A. after peak cooling water. B. rain fire pump. C. ballast pump. D. salt water pump (main sea water pump).

239. Experience and feedback shows that excessive oil losses in an engine installation are most frequently caused by

……..

A. malfunctioning of the values during the cleaning of the fitters of the lubricating oil system. B. By any one or all of these reasons C. excessive oil in the cylinder and burning it during the combustion cycle (defective piston/scraper rings). D. losses in oil coolers.

240. What should you do if the engine alarm oil mist detector goes off indicating abnormal oil vapour being generated in the crankcase ? A. Feel all crankcase doors and camshaft block for hot spots. B. Slow down, stop the engine and cool down for at least half an hour. C. Investigate the oil pressure under slow down condition of engine. D. Stop engine at once and open crankcase doors to vent vapour.

838

DPKP

241. What checks would you routinely carry out on the tank measuring systems indicated here ?

A. Measure total tank height/ ullage from tank top with tape B. Check free movement of float and wire of float reading C. All of the other options and compare different measuring systems D. Drain the sight glass and re-check the level

242. During manoeuvring with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors ?

A. No 1 and No 2 compressor on MANUAL B. One compressor on AUTO CONTROL, the other on MANUAL C. Both compressors LOCALY started D. No 1 and No 2 compressors on AUTO CONTROL

839

DPKP

243. If the auxiliary seawater pump "AS" fails, which pump should be used to cool the condensers ?

A. Sea Water Pump(s) 'MS" B. Fire Pump 'FP " C. Hydrophore Pump 'HP" D. General Service Pump 'GSP"

244. If the reefer condenser pump 'PP" fails, by which pump should you use to supply cooling water to these reefer condensers ?

A. Auxiliary SW PUMP "AS" B. General Service Pump ''GSP" C. Fire Pump “FP” D. Any of the above

840

DPKP

245. If the auxiliary condenser is not in use for any operation at sea, using which pump should the atmospheric and dumping condensers be cooled ?

A. The Fire Pump “FP" B. By the Main Seawater Pump “MS" C. The General Service Pump "GSP" D. The Reefer Condenser pump “PP"

246. You are the Third Engineer and you are Engineer on Watch. If both the Chief Engineer and the Second Engineer are present in the E.R. who is responsible in the E.R. ? A. Yourself alone. B. The Second Engineer C. The Chief Engineer D. The Chief engineer and yourself

247. When should you make sure that spares, stores, tools and other equipment in the engine room are "SEA FAST'? A. At all times B. Prior to leaving port C. When you are warned by the bridge of bad weather D. After completion of every job

841

DPKP

248. If you are duty engineer and you are to hand over the watch to another engineer but you are suspicious that he is incapacitated in anyway, what shall you do ? A. You hand over the watch but phone the engine room later to check B. You tell the rating on watch to keep an eye open C. You turn over the watch but inform the Chief Engineer D. You do not turn over the watch and inform the Chief Engineer

249. When taking over the watch as duty engineer, before inspecting the plant condition, what shall you check ? A. The engine room bilges B. The fire alarm monitoring equipment C. The Chief Engineer's standing orders and special instructions D. The log book entries from the previous watch

250. Whilst taking over of the watch, besides verifying standing orders and the actual condition of the plant, tank levels and operations, what other important matter should you verify ? A. That work that is being performed in the engine room B. That the bilges of all wells pumped C. What is the firefighting equipment in state of readiness D. Where are the leakages in pipes, tanks and equipment

251. If the engineer coming on watch finds, upon examining the log book, that it does not agrees with his own observations; what action shall he take ? A. Take over the watch but explain to the Chief Engineer later B. Make a note to that effect in the log book immediately C. Not take over the watch and call the Chief Engineer D. Insist that the previous records are altered

842

DPKP

252. In case of any irregularity or failure of machinery or equipment which could effect the vessel's speed or steering, what is the first action to be taken by the duty engineer ? A. Inform the Chief Engineer B. Inform the bridge C. Avert such failure or limit its consequences D. Shut down the equipment and inform the bridge 253. In port the relieving watch engineer shall be informed of the …….? A. bilge pumping arrangements. B. if the fire main line is pressurised. C. any expected custom inspections. D. any restrictions due port regulations and shore communications

254. If fire is detected in the engine room the duty engineer shall immediately inform the bridge and very briefly give the following important information: A. whether to abandon the ship or not. B. the size of the fire - big, small or medium. C. exact location, class of fire, restrictions to vessels operation. D. if the emergency fire pumps has already been started.

255. What is the possible problem if the exhaust temperature increases in one cylinder only ?

A. The cooling water pressure in fresh water system is low B. The fuel valve needs overhaul C. The main engine RPM is too high D. The purifier is not working efficiently

843

DPKP

256. What is likely the reason if the exhaust temperature is increasing in all cylinders ?

A. A cracked liner B. Rising scavenging air temperature C. Broken piston ring D. A faulty fuel valve

257. What does a decreasing scavenging air temperature means ?

A. A decrease in air volume B. An increase in air volume C. A dirty turbine wheel D. A rising air temperature in the air cooler

844

DPKP

258. What does a pressure drop across the air cooler indicate ?

A. reduced cooling water flow B. Increased engine room temperature C. Fouling of the cooling water system D. Fouling of air side

259. Exhaust temperature increasing on all cylinders indicates:

A. the exhaust system is fouled B. the scavenging ports are fouled C. the air system is fouled D. any of above

845

DPKP

260. Should water be circulated through the main engine during a port stay, and if so why ?

A. No, as the temperature of the engine itself should not be allowed to go too high. B. Yes, as the engine has to be ready to start at anytime. C. Yes, as the temperature of the engine itself should not be allowed to go too low. D. No, as this would result in extra water consumption.

261. A revolution counter reads 69,985 at 8 a.m.. At 11 a.m. the clock was advanced 17 min. and at noon counter tads 87,316. what was the average rpm during the 8-12 o'clock watch ? A. 156.2 rpm B. 135 .6 rpm C. 77.71 rpm D. 78,1210 rpm

262. What are you to observe when inspecting the steering gear during your watch ? A. No abnormal noise or vibrations. Normal power absorption B. The greasing of trunion and Pallister bearing C. All of these. D. The oil level in the oil tank, see that there is no oil leakage.

846

DPKP

263. Suppose that during your watch the air-conditioning compressor cuts-out because of high discharge pressure, what are you going to check immediately ?

A Whether the accommodation fan has tripped B That there is sufficient cooling water to the condenser C The level of the receiver, to see if the Freon has escaped D Whether there is ice formation on the evaporating unit ?

264. Suppose you are notified that it is getting hot in the accommodation. 'There's something wrong with the A/C". What do you check immediately ?

A. If suction and discharge pressure on compressor are normal B. If the lubrication oil pressure is normal C. If there is Freon in receiver, fan and evaporating unit D. If the aircon compressor is still running

847

DPKP

265. When should the recirculation of air from the accommodation be set to 100 % and the fresh air intake totally closed ? A. During cargo operations or cargo transfer in port or at sea B. When outside temperature is more than 30 degree C C. When outside temperature is more than 36 degree C D. When vessel is moored at an oil refinery

266. 84. If the stand-by indicating light is energised on the control panel of this boiler burner, what does it indicates ?

A. That the burner is safely secured in place B. That the pilot burner is in operation C. That the fuel is circulating and at the temperature ready to fire D. That boiler is ready to be fired without existing alarm condition

267. What is the function of the 'toiler Firing Switch" fitted on the control panel of this boiler burner?

A. To put boiler from stand-by mode to tiring mode and operate B. To isolate the electric power to the control panel C. To fire the boiler on manual in emergency D. To isolate the power to the boiler fuel pumps 848

DPKP

268. The firing or the flame indicating light on the control panel of this boiler burner control panel shows that…….? A. Fuel is admitted to the main burner B. the pilot burner has fired C. the boiler is in normal operational firing mode D. ignition is taking place

269. The flame failure lamp on the control panel of this boiler burner will illuminate when…………….?

A. the flame is dark due incorrect fuel/air ratio B. Any of the above C. the flame is being smothered by water in the fuel D. the pilot burner fails to fire the main burner

270. What is the purpose of the restart button which you will find fitted to the control panel of this boiler's burner ? A. To be pressed after the burner has swung back after cleaning B. To be pressed after flame failure. C. To be pressed after the forced draught fan trips ? D. To be pressed after low water cut-out

849

DPKP

271. Which of the following conditions is a lock-out condition which will consequently illuminate the lock-out Indicating lamp fitted to the control panel of the boiler burner light up ?

A. Any of the above B. Low fuel oil pressure C. Low water level D. Burner swung in open position

272. If you fire the boiler and it misfires repeatedly, indicating flame failure, what are you going to check first ?

A. The fuel oil pressure and temperature adjustment B. The ignitor rods, clean the ignitor tips if necessary C. The photocell and compare flame in sight glass "G" D. The boiler water level is full to the correct level

850

DPKP

273. What will happen if the sea water cooling pump which cools the atmospheric condenser stops ?

A. All of these. B. Overpressure will built-up in the condenser C. Steam will blow from the air vent D. the hot well will steam up

274. When skimming-off, which value will you fully open at first and close as last, whilst you will operate the other value throttled ?

A. The inner valve open first, the outer valve close as last B. The outer valve open first and the inner value close as last C. The outer valve open first and close as last after operation D. The inner valve open first full and close as last after operation

275. How do you carry out skimming operations ?

A. Blow the water down until steam gushes out ? B. When the boiler is in operational , prior to start up C. Four to five repeated blows of about 5 seconds each D. Slowly with feedwater pumps stopped

851

DPKP

276. After resuming its normal purification after completing automatic de-sludging you frequently experience a High Temperature Alarm, what remedy could you use to avoid recurrence?

A. Fit or adjust (increase) time delay on the High Temperature Alarm B. Lower the set point of the oil temperature. C. Decrease purifier throughput D. Increase purifier throughput

277. In which machinery can you not add oil when running ? A.

Air compressors or refrigerant compressors

B.

Steering machinery or stern tube header tanks

C.

Main Engine or Auxiliary Diesels

D.

Hydraulic power packs

278. Which is the most fundamental part of shipboard duties and takes priority over all other duties A. Watchkeeping B. Emergency drills C. Cargo surveillance D. Maintenance

852

DPKP

279. At what times during the sea voyage is the main engine in state of readiness for manoeuvring ? A. In shallow waters B. At all times C. By reduced visibility D. In all emergency situations

280. If the Jacket Cooling Water expansion tank level drops rapidly, what does this indicate ?

A. There is a leakage in external piping B. There is a leakage in the Jacket Cooling Water Cooler C. There is an internal leakage on the engine D. Any of the above

281. If the jacket cooling water expansion tank level drops rapidly, what is this an indication of ? A. There is a leak in the jacket cooling water cooler. B. Any of these. C. There is an internal leak in the engine. D. There is a leakage in external piping.

282. 100. When all preparations to ensure that the main engine is operational prior to departure, what will be the final test to be carried out ? A. Open air to engine, drain air bottles, blow indicator cocks. B. Put out the turning gear and turn the lubricators. C. Close safety values, blow indicator cocks, fill air bottles. D. Blow indicator cocks, test reversing of engine, short firing kick. 853

DPKP

283. Which important check is to be carried out every watch and should be intensified if you suspect that a piston ring might be broken in order to avoid scavenge fire ? A. The scavenge drain flow trough. B. The cylinder lubrication. C. The exhaust gas temperature. D. Overhear the cylinder for noise.

284. On resuming normal purification after automatic de-sludging you frequently experience a high temperature alarm. What will you do to avoid reoccurrence ? A. Fit or adjust (increase) time delay on the high temperature alarm. B. Increase capacity through the purifier. C. Decrease capacity through the purifier. D. Lower the set point of the oil temperature.

285. Why blow the engine before a start (slow turning on air) ? A. To be sure that water has not collected in the fire cylinders. B. To be sure that no parts are loose, or that the engine is blocked from rotation. C. To get fresh air into cylinders ensuring a safe start of the engine. D. To be sure that all indicator cocks are closed and there is no passage into the combustion chamber.

854

DPKP

2. MenggunakanbahasaInggrisdalambentuktulisandanucapan. (Use English inwritten and oralform)

1.

How would you alert others onboard if you saw a person falling overboard? A. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout repeatedly, "Man overboard" B. If I saw a person falling overboard I would shout once, "Man overboard" C. If I saw a person falling overboard I would run to the Bridge D. If I saw a person falling overboard I would inform the Bosun

2.

Is it always possible to use the word "ship" instead of the word "boat"? A. Normally a small vessel is called a "boat" rather than a "ship", otherwise it is not important. B. Either can be used anytime C. A large vessel is always called a "ship" and never a "boat" D. A boat can only be used for vessels under 50 metres in length.

3.

What are the lists called that give the position and task during a lifeboat drill for all persons on board the ship? A. The Muster List B. The Crew List C. The Drill List D. The Duty List

855

DPKP

4.

What do you call the wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents the ladder from twisting? A. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Spreader' B. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Long rung' C. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called a 'Wide step' D. The wide rung on a pilot ladder that prevents it from twisting is called an 'Ani-twist rung'

5.

What do you understand by the order: "Move the pilot ladder to the other side"? A. Move the pilot ladder to the other side, means: to shift the pilot ladder to the opposite side of the ship. B. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to rig another pilot ladder C. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to move the pilot ladder further along nearer to the bow. D. Move the pilot ladder to the other side means: to change the position of the pilot ladder from the main deck to the fore deck.

6.

What do you understand by the term: "Let go the tug"? A. Let go the tug means: to cast off the lines that secure the tug to the ship B. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to steer away from the ship. C. Let go the tug means: to cut the lines securing the tug to the ship D. Let go the tug means: to tell the tug master to let go his anchor.

856

DPKP

7.

What do you understand by: Bitter end? A. Bitter end means: the end link of an anchor cable that is secured within the chain locker B. Bitter end means: to the very last moment C. Bitter end means: a foul taste at the end of a meal D. Bitter end means: the toggled end of a lifeboat painter

8.

What do you understand by: Let go the port anchor? A. Let go the port anchor means: open the port windlass brake B. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear C. Let go the port anchor means: put the port windlass brake in gear and lower the anchor D. Let go the port anchor means: slacken the port anchor cable

9.

What do you understand by: Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder? A. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the accommodation ladder and rig the pilot ladder right next to it B. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway C. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway and rig the pilot ladder forward of the accommodation D. Rig the accommodation ladder in combination with the pilot ladder means: lower the gangway and rig the pilot ladder from the gangway

10.

What do you understand by: Secure the tug? A. Secure the tug means: to make fast the tug B. Secure the tug means: to let go the tug C. Secure the tug means: to pass a line to the tug D. Secure the tug means: to pick up the tug line

857

DPKP

11.

What does the word "pirates" mean? A. Pirates are persons who attempt to board and take over a ship at sea B. Pirates are official people who board the ship while in port C. Pirates are special cargo lashings on container ships D. Pirates are another word for helmsmen

12.

What is "DRAUGHT", in the figure? A. Draught is D, in the figure B. Draught is B, in the figure C. Draught is C, in the figure D. Draught is A, in the figure

13.

What is the meaning of "make fast" A. To secure a rope B. To act quickly C. To avoid all meals D. To coil a rope

14.

What is the normal term used for the regular training of how to launch the lifeboat? A. Lifeboat drill B. Lifeboat practice C. Lifeboat launching D. Lifeboat exercise

15.

What is the objective of the merchant navy? A. To safely transport goods by sea B. To transport and deliver goods as quickly as possible C. To earn money for the shipowner D. To provide employment for persons who wish to become seafarers

858

DPKP

16.

What is the room often called where the crew eat their meals? A. The crew mess B. The crew restaurant C. The crew restaurant D. The crew café

17.

What is understood by the term "take the helm"? A. Take over the steering of the ship. B. Take over heaving of a rope. C. Take a message to another officer. D. Change the place where the lookout is standing.

18.

Where is "AFT", in the figure? A. Aft is A, in the figure B. Aft is B, in the figure C. Aft is C, in the figure D. Aft is D, in the figure

19.

Where is the "BRIDGE", in the figure? A. The Bridge is A, in the figure B. The Bridge is B, in the figure C. The Bridge is C, in the figure D. The Bridge is D, in the figure

20.

Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure? A. The Forecastle is B, in the figure B. The Forecastle is A, in the figure C. The Forecastle is C, in the figure D. The Forecastle is D, in the figure

859

DPKP

21.

Where is the "PORT QUARTER", in the figure? A. The Port quarter is D, in the figure B. The Port quarter is B, in the figure C. The Port quarter is A, in the figure D. The Port quarter is C, in the figure

22.

Which is the "STARBOARD QUARTER", in the figure? A. The Starboard quarter is C, in the figure B. The Starboard quarter is B, in the figure C. The Starboard quarter is A, in the figure D. The Starboard quarter is D, in the figure

23. Read this text and answer the question: To whom should training in personal survival techniques be given? A. To all seafarers. B. To officers only. C. To all ratings. D. To deck hands mainly.

24.

Select from the options given the statement that best describes the main duties of an engine room rating who is part of an engine room watch? A. Engine room ratings forming part of an engine room watch should assist in efficient and safe watchkeeping routines. B. Engine room ratings forming part of an engine room watch should verify that the operational parameters of all items of machinery conform to manufacturers' instructions. C. Engine room ratings forming part of an engine room watch should make the tea for the Engineers. D. Engine room ratings forming part of an engine room watch should only clean the engine room floor plates.

860

DPKP

25.

What action should be taken by the engine room rating if a piece of machinery is not functioning properly? A. If machinery does not function properly the duty Engineer should be informed immediately so that plans for further action can be made. B. If machinery does not function properly, it should be stopped and serviced immediately. C. If machinery does not function properly it should be immediately stopped every time. D. If machinery does not function properly, the Chief Engineer should be called out immediately.

26.

What has the cadet been ordered to do? A. The Cadet has been ordered to paint the evaporator using a paint brush B. The Cadet has been ordered to help the Bo's'un sandblast the poop deck C. The Cadet has been ordered to test the steering gear D. The Cadet has been ordered to to dismantle the evaporator

27.

What is a hydraulic hand pump usually used for? A. A hydraulic hand pump is usually used to tighten Gnuts B. A hydraulic hand pump is usually used to steer the ship from the Emergency position C. A hydraulic hand pump is usually used to slacken the windlass brake D. A hydraulic hand pump is usually used in an emergency to open the hatch covers

861

DPKP

28.

What is the correct name of the equipment shown in the illustration? A. Pedestal drill B. File C. Chisel D. Shaping machine

29.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Turbocharger B. Crankshaft C. Air cooler D. Cylinder head

30.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Connecting rod B. Main bearing C. Push rod D. Rocker Arm

31.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Piston rod B. Push rod C. Connecting rod D. Crankshaft

32.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Camshaft B. Crankcase relief valve C. Push rod D. Crankshaft

862

DPKP

33.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Piston B. Cylinder liner C. Exhaust valve D. Main bearing

34.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Crosshead B. Liner C. Connecting rod D. Bottom end bearing

35.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Crankshaft B. Camshaft C. Push rod D. Connecting rod

36.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Exhaust valve B. Air starting valve C. Air inlet valve D. Fuel injector

37.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Exhaust valve B. Cylinder relief valve C. Cylinder head D. Air inlet valve

863

DPKP

38.

What is the correct name of the part highlighted in the illustration? A. Fuel injector B. Cylinder relief valve C. Cylinder air start valve D. Cylinder lubricator

39.

What is the correct name of the tool in the illustration? A. Monkey wrench B. Chisel C. Pliers D. Padlock

40.

What is the correct name of the tool shown in the illustration? A. Water Pump Pliers B. Padlock C. Adjustable wrench D. Flexible pipe

41.

What is the correct name of the tool shown in the illustration? A. Flat file B. Pliers C. Chisel D. Grinding machine

42.

What is the correct name of the tool shown in the illustration? A. Adjustable wrench B. Open end wrench C. Pliers D. Chisel

864

DPKP

43.

What should the cadet be aware of when using a needle gun? A. The Cadet should be aware of the dangers associated with using a needle gun B. The Cadet should be aware that there could be a leak in the airline of a needle gun C. The Cadet should be aware that the valve of a needle gun is not to be opened before starting to descale rust D. The Cadet should be aware of the thickness of the needle gun valve

44.

What should the Fitter be asked to do? A. The Fitter should be asked to check the level of hydraulic oil in the header tank B. The Fitter should be asked to drain hydraulic oil into the sea C. The Fitter should be asked to stack empty oil drums on the forecastle D. The Fitter should be asked to dispose of empty oil drums into the sea

45.

What will happen when the ship arrives in Rotterdam? A. The ship will receive fuel and diesel oil bunkers B. The main engine will be tested C. The anchor will be tested D. The navigation lights will be tested

46.

What will the cadet expect to find in the engine room store? A. The Cadet will expect to find machinery spare parts in the engine room store B. The Cadet will expect to find the spare anchor in the engine room store C. The Cadet will expect to find the spare propeller in the engine room store D. The Cadet will expect to find the emergency steering gear in the engine room store

865

DPKP

47.

What will the cadet find in the maintenance manual? A. The Cadet will find a lubricating chart in the maintenance manual B. The Cadet will find grease in the maintenance manual C. The Cadet will find grease nipples in the maintenance manual D. The Cadet will find machinery spare parts in the maintenance manual

48. Why did the Second Engineer wish to make a monthly allotment? A. The Second Engineer wished to make an allotment because he was married B. The Second Engineer wished to make an allotment because he was unmarried C. The Second Engineer wished to make an allotment because he wanted to become acquainted with the other officer D. The Second Engineer wished to make an allotment because he was tired and wanted to rest in his cabin

49. With reference to engine room operations, what does the term "Stand By" mean? A. "Stand By" means that the engineers should be ready to respond to bridge requirements. B. "Stand By" means that someone should stand close to the watch-keeping engineer C. "Stand By" means that one should continue with ones' work D. "Stand By" means that someone is relieved of his duties

866

DPKP

50. Select the option which best describes the primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer? A. The primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer is to maintain constant surveillance of the main engine and auxiliary machinery B. The primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer is to maintain constant surveillance of the steering gear C. The primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer is to maintain the ship's speed D. The primary duty of a watch-keeping engineer is to ensure that machinery spaces are properly manned

51.

Under what circumstances may a watch-keeping engineer normally undertake other, non-watchkeeping duties? A. When they have been properly relieved of their watchkeeping duties. B. When the machinery controls are in engine room control mode. C. When the ship is operating with a manned engine room. D. When the engine room is on standby.

52.

What action should be taken by the watchkeeping engineer if the running machinery is operating at slightly high temperature but everything else appears ok? A. It should be brought to the attention of the Chief Engineer so that remedial action can be decided upon. B. It should be stopped and serviced immediately C. It should be left running until the fault develops further. D. It should be shutdown temporarily, allowed to cool down and then be restarted.

867

DPKP

53.

What does the Chief Officer want the First Engineer to do? A. The Chief Officer wants the First Engineer to empty the starboard bilge in No. 5 hold B. The Chief Officer wants the First Engineer to empty No. 2 side tank C. The Chief Officer wants the First Engineer to put the hydraulic hand pump in bilge No. 5 D. The Chief Officer wants the First Engineer to lower the port lifeboat

54.

What does the term "Dead Ship" mean? A. "Dead Ship" means that the machinery and boilers are inoperational due to lack of electrical power B. "Dead Ship" means that the ship is aground C. "Dead Ship" means that auxiliary machinery is not operational D. "Dead Ship" means that the ship cannot make way through the water

55.

What would the First Engineer require? A. The First Engineer would require an inspection of the heating coils B. The First Engineer would require the Fitter to check the carbon dioxide fire-fighting equipment C. The First Engineer would require cleaning of the feed water tank D. The First Engineer would require the Chief Officer to keep him advised of bilge soundings

868

DPKP

56.

When should the watch-keeping engineer inform the bridge that the main engine is ready for manoeuvring? A. Once the engine is properly prepared and tested and the engine room is correctly manned B. When the ship's course needs to be altered. C. When engine room staff are working aloft. D. Three or four hours before heavy weather is expected.

57.

Which of the options given is one of the main responsibilities of a watch-keeping engineer? A. To inform the Chief Engineer of any situations that cannot be controlled during the watch B. To by-pass, adjust and isolate all machinery under his supervision. C. To ensure that all engine room ratings take off their work shoes in the control room. D. To immediately inform the Master of all events that occur during the watch.

58.

Which of the options represents the best action to take when an item of machinery, which normally operates in automatic mode, is operated in 'manual' mode? A. Monitor the operation of the machinery on a frequent basis. B. Have someone permanently stationed at the machine in case of an operational problem. C. Keep

the

Chief

Engineer

informed

of

machines

performance on an hourly basis. D. Change over all other machinery to manual mode of operation.

869

DPKP

59.

Why did he study the contract in detail before signing it? Why did he study the contract in detail before signing it? A. He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted to know his duties B. He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted to know when he could return home C. He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted to be put ashore for medical treatment D. He studied the contract in detail before signing it because he wanted to improve his English language skills

60.

Why did the new Cadet want to go to the messroom? A. The new Cadet wanted to go to the messroom to become acquainted with the officers B. The new Cadet wanted to go to the messroom to get some rest C. The new Cadet wanted to go to the messroom to check that his papers were in order D. The new Cadet wanted to go to the messroom to sign the Articles of Agreement

61.

During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request from the bridge, "How is the chain"? A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe. B. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the ship needs to be moved forward and take the weight off the anchor cable. C. The Master is requesting the Chief Officer to inform the bridge of whether he can determine which way the ship is moving in the water. D. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the vessel is dragging anchor 870

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62.

Ho should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that "It is the tug's wire"?? A. The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast. B. The After Team will send a wire from the poop to the tug and then make it fast. C. The After team will send out the towing spring to the tug to make fast. D. The tug will be ready to receive the towing spring and make it fast.

63.

In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side alongside a jetty? A. The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Aft Spring is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Aft Spring is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Aft Spring is indicated by D, in the figure

64.

In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which bridge instrument would indicate this depth? A. Echo Sounder B. Draught Indicator C. Arpa Radar D. GPS

65.

In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the "Bridge"? A. The Bridge is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Bridge is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Bridge is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bridge is indicated by D, in the figure

871

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66.

In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by the "FORWARD SPRING" when mooring the ship? A. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure B. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by B, in the figure C. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by C, in the figure D. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by A, in the figure

67.

In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"? A. Midships is indicated by B, in the figure B. Midships is indicated by A, in the figure C. Midships is indicated by C, in the figure D. Midships is indicated by D, in the figure

68.

In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship? A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure

69.

In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"? A. The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure B. The Stern area is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Stern area is indicated by A, in the figure D. The Stern area is indicated by D, in the figure

872

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70.

In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel, when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would be used by a "STERN LINE"? A. The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Stern Line is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Stern Line is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Stern Line is indicated by D, in the figure

71.

In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"? A. Astern is indicated by D, in the figure B. Astern is indicated by B, in the figure C. Astern is indicated by C, in the figure D. Astern is indicated by A, in the figure

72.

In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel? A. Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure B. Breadth is indicated by A, in the figure C. Breadth is indicated by C, in the figure D. Breadth is indicated by D, in the figure

73.

In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"? A. The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure B. The mooring bits are indicated by B, in the figure C. The mooring bits are indicated by C, in the figure D. The mooring bits are indicated by A, in the figure

74.

In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"? A. The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Windlass is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Windlass is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Windlass is indicated by D, in the figure

873

DPKP

75.

In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run? A. The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow B. The forward head line would normally lead from the bow back towards the stern C. The forward head line would normally lead straight across to the jetty and be as short as possible D. The forward head line is normally the line used by the forward tug.

76.

On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter "A"? It is normally raised by one deck above the main deck A. Fo'c's'le or Forecastle B. Forward bridge C. Poop D. Crows nest

77.

On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel? A. The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure B. The breadth is indicated by letter A, in the figure C. The breadth is indicated by letter C, in the figure D. The breadth is indicated by letter D, in the figure

78.

On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the ship? A. Draught is indicated by D, in the figure B. Draught is indicated by B, in the figure C. Draught is indicated by C, in the figure D. Draught is indicated by A, in the figure

874

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79.

On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"? A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure

80.

Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should training in personal survival techniques be given? A. Before being employed B. During the first week on board C. After joining the ship D. After one period at sea

81.

Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to prospective seafarers? A. Approved training in survival techniques B. Passport and visa C. Recommendations D. Survival and protective clothing

82.

Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental requirement relating to the older ships, which are still in service? A. The older ships must be in good condition. B. As a result of the new building activities, older ships are no longer required. C. The older ship must be cheaper to run than the new builds. D. The older ships should be scrapped to make way for the new builds.

875

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83.

What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the middle of the ocean? A. The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to the Officer of the Watch B. The lookout must keep a lookout ahead of the vessel and report anything sighted to the Officer of the Watch C. The lookout should remain on the bridge wing to be at hand to deliver messages as required by the Officer of the Watch D. The lookout must standby ready to take the wheel when required by the Officer of the Watch

84.

What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to leave the berth and go to sea? A. Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways B. Help the forward team let go the ropes C. Help the after team let go the ropes D. Standby in the mess room until called to the bridge.

85.

What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and unmooring? A. Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires B. Let Go means to let seafarers go ashore C. Let Go means to leave the ship D. Let Go means to slacken a mooring rope

86.

What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship? A. The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities B. The plan to show the staff requirements at each hatch while the ship is loading cargo C. The plan showing the cargo spaces and their capacity D. A discussion between the shore and ship to plan the 876

DPKP

procedure for loading cargo

87.

What is a "Fairlead"? A. A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them moving sideward’s and reduces friction and chafing B. A Fairlead is the sounding lead used to sample the seabed C. A Fairlead is the device used to close the cargo holds D. A Fairlead is the safest direction to steam down a fairway

88.

What is a mooring line? A. A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship B. A mooring line is a line that is passed through a block C. A mooring line is a small diameter line attached to a large diameter rope D. A mooring line is a line attached to the anchor

89.

What is a ship's "Gangway"? A. A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore B. A Gangway is an interval of time between a change of working gangs, on board C. A Gangway is a vertical ladder used by the pilot to board the ship D. A Gangway is the means of access into the cargo holds

90.

What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to which it was moored? A. Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside. B. Single up is the term used when there is only one single rope left out between the ship and the jetty, when leaving the berth C. Single up is the term used when only one single tug is used to assist the ship in leaving the berth. D. Single up is the term used when a ship leaves the jetty without any 877

DPKP

assistance from tugs and it is entirely on its own steam.

91.

What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and unmooring? A. Winch B. Capstan C. Windlass D. Crane

92.

What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor? A. A black ball forward where it can best be seen B. Two black balls where they can best be seen C. The national flag flying from the fore mast D. A black ball from main mast amidships

93.

What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship? A. Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits B. Make Fast means to act very quickly C. Make Fast means to avoid eating all meals during the daylight hours. D. Make Fast means to coil up a rope

94.

What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and shore? A. Gangway B. Accommodation ladder C. Bridgeway D. Bulwark

95.

What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main engines? A. Bunkers B. Fuel oil C. Cargo D. Lubricating oil

878

DPKP

96.

What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to make a tug fast? A. Towing spring B. Tugs rope C. Tugs wire D. Mooring wire

97.

What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture? A. Survival suit B. Wet suit C. Life suit D. Fluorescent orange suit

98.

What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge? A. The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging in degrees per minute B. The Rate of Turn display shows the turning speed the vessel is swinging in degrees per second C. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the rudder angle applied by the helmsman to turn the ship. D. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the changing angle of the vessel from the meridian

99.

What is the role of a tug in a port? A. A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor B. A tug provides transport for the port personnel C. A tug is used to assist the fishing boats when they enter the port D. A tug is the normal vessel used by the pilot to board a ship

879

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100. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"? A. "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship B. "Boat Drill" means an exercise in the safe methods of handling a lifeboat in heavy seas C. "Boat Drill" is an exercise in the practical and safe methods to secure a boat alongside the ship. D. "Boat Drill" is an exercise to launch the lifeboats and move the boats clear of the ship.

101. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"? A. Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind B. Lee Side is the Starboard side of the vessel C. Lee Side is the Port side of the vessel D. Lee Side is the side that faces the wind

102. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship? A. A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured B. A Bollard is a very heavy rope C. A Bollard is a loop in a rope D. A Bollard is a rope made up of several strands

103. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure? A. Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure B. Ahead is indicated by B, in the figure C. Ahead is indicated by C, in the figure D. Ahead is indicated by D, in the figure

880

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104. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an order? A. When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to the person who gave it before carrying out the order. B. The response to an order should be to acknowledge that order and then carry out what you were told to do. C. When acting as helmsman and given a helm order you should always say "Yes sir" D. The order needs to be acted upon and this will indicate you understood what was said

105. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question "What is the aspect of the other ship"? A. The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship is heading. B. The question is requesting some idea of how far away the other ship is from your own ship C. The question wants to know what type of ship has been sighted D. The question is requesting where on the horizon the other ship was sighted.

106. When should the lookout report another vessel? A. As soon as it is sighted or heard. B. When the navigation lights can be clearly seen C. When the other vessel is approaching the ship D. When the other vessel is forward of the beam of own ship

107. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure? A. The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Forecastle is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Forecastle is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Forecastle is indicated by D, in the figure

881

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108. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"? A. The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into the lifeboats B. The Boat Deck is the deck of a life boat C. The Boat Deck is the deck where access would be made from any boats alongside. D. The Boat Deck is the name of the main deck of the ship or boat.

109. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure? A. The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Capstan is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Capstan is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Capstan is indicated by D, in the figure

110. Which is the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure? A. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by D, in the figure

111. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure? A. The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure B. The Panama Lead is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Panama Lead is indicated by A, in the figure D. The Panama Lead is indicated by D, in the figure

112. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure? A. The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Quay is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Quay is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Quay is indicated by D, in the figure

882

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113. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure? A. The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Starboard bow is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Starboard bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Starboard bow is indicated by D, in the figure

114. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT BREAST LINE"? A. The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure B. The Aft Breast Line is A, in the figure C. The Aft Breast Line is C, in the figure D. The Aft Breast Line is D, in the figure

115. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous? A. They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves B. They do not look good to the customers C. They show the ship is not efficient D. They are areas which should be cleaned up.

116. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and the marine environment? A. Bad management and poorly maintained older ships. B. All ships aged between twenty and thirty years old. C. All old or new ships which are badly managed ships. D. There is no immediate threat to the crew or environment

117. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch? A. Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic. B. Never necessary C. No, one lookout is sufficient even in fog D. Every night there should be two lookouts, one on each bridge wing.

883

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118. In the figure, which letter gives the correct understanding of the term "LENGTH OVERALL"? A. Length Overall is indicated by B, in the figure B. Length Overall is indicated by A, in the figure C. Length Overall is indicated by C, in the figure D. Length Overall is indicated by D, in the figure

119. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases are recommended to be used when the ship's Officer is verbally talking to whom? A. In circumstances described in all of the answers provided B. When talking between ship and shore personnel C. When giving orders on board with other seafarers D. When talking on the VHF between ships

120. The Second Officer, when on watch on the bridge, is often referred to as the OOW. What does OOW actually stand for? A. Officer of the Watch B. On official watch C. On official watchkeeping D. Operator of the watch

121. What is "AIR DRAUGHT", in the figure? A. Air draught is indicated by C, in the figure B. Air draught is indicated by B, in the figure C. Air draught is indicated by A, in the figure D. Air draught is indicated by D, in the figure

122. What is "FREEBOARD", in the figure? A. Freeboard is indicated by B, in the figure B. Freeboard is indicated by A, in the figure C. Freeboard is indicated by C, in the figure D. Freeboard is indicated by D, in the figure

884

DPKP

123. What is "LENGHT OVERALL", in the figure? A. Length overall is indicated by B, in the figure B. Length overall is indicated by A, in the figure C. Length overall is indicated by C, in the figure D. Length overall is indicated by D, in the figure

124. What is the correct understanding of the term "Block Coefficient" as applied to a ship? A. The comparison of the underwater shape of the ship, to a rectangular block of the same extreme dimensions. B. The coefficient of a Block and Tackle C. The ratio of the waterplane shape of the ship to a rectangle of the same extreme dimensions D. The restriction of a valve in a pipe to the flow of fluid through that pipe

125. Which approved publication should be used by a seafarer to help overcome any misunderstanding in communications? A. The (IMO) Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) booklet B. Standard Marine Navigational Vocabulary C. The Oxford Concise Dictionary D. The (ICS) Bridge Procedures Guide

126. Which is the "CENTRE LINE", in the figure? A. The Fore and aft Centreline is indicated by A, in the figure B. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by B, in the figure C. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by C, in the figure D. The fore and aft Centreline is indicated by D, in the figure

885

DPKP

127. During the anchoring procedure, what would the 2nd Officer understand by the following request from the bridge, "How is the chain"? A. The bridge would like to know the direction of the anchor cable from the hawse pipe. B. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the ship needs to be moved forward and take the weight off the anchor cable. C. The Master is requesting the Chief Officer to inform the bridge of whether he can determine which way the ship is moving in the water. D. The Master is asking the Chief Officer whether the vessel is dragging anchor

128. How should the tug be secured to the ship, when the bridge tells the poop that "It is the tug's wire"?? A. The tug will send a wire to the ship for making fast. B. The After Team will send a wire from the poop to the tug and then make it fast. C. The After team will send out the towing spring to the tug to make fast. D. The tug will be ready to receive the towing spring and make it fast.

129. In the diagram which line would be the "AFT SPRING", if the vessel was port side alongside a jetty? A. The Aft Spring is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Aft Spring is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Aft Spring is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Aft Spring is indicated by D, in the figure

130. In the diagram, the depth of water under the keel is indicated by the letter "C". Which bridge instrument would indicate this depth? A. Echo Sounder B. Draught Indicator C. Arpa Radar D. GPS

886

DPKP

131. In the diagram, which arrow is pointing at the position known as the "Bridge"? A. The Bridge is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Bridge is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Bridge is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bridge is indicated by D, in the figure

132. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the "bits" which would probably be used by the "FORWARD SPRING" when mooring the ship? A. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by D, in the figure B. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by B, in the figure C. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by C, in the figure D. The bits for the Forward Spring is indicated by A, in the figure

133. In the diagram, which letter is indicating the position "MIDSHIPS"? A. Midships is indicated by B, in the figure B. Midships is indicated by A, in the figure C. Midships is indicated by C, in the figure D. Midships is indicated by D, in the figure

134. In the diagram, which letter is pointing at the area known as the "BOW" of the ship? A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure

135. In the diagram, which letter is pointing to the area of the ship known as the "STERN"? A. The Stern area is indicated by C, in the figure B. The Stern area is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Stern area is indicated by A, in the figure D. The Stern area is indicated by D, in the figure

887

DPKP

136. In the figure is shown the direction of possible mooring lines from the stern of a vessel, when moored port side alongside a jetty. Which letter shows the direction which would be used by a "STERN LINE"? A. The Stern Line is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Stern Line is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Stern Line is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Stern Line is indicated by D, in the figure

137. In the figure, which arrow indicates the direction "ASTERN"? A. Astern is indicated by D, in the figure B. Astern is indicated by B, in the figure C. Astern is indicated by C, in the figure D. Astern is indicated by A, in the figure 138. In the figure, which letter indicates the "BREADTH” of the vessel? A. Breadth is indicated by B, in the figure B. Breadth is indicated by A, in the figure C. Breadth is indicated by C, in the figure D. Breadth is indicated by D, in the figure

139. In the figure, which letter indicates what is known as "mooring bits"? A. The mooring bits are indicated by D, in the figure B. The mooring bits are indicated by B, in the figure C. The mooring bits are indicated by C, in the figure D. The mooring bits are indicated by A, in the figure

140. In the figure, which letter indicates which item is the "WINDLASS"? A. The Windlass is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Windlass is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Windlass is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Windlass is indicated by D, in the figure

888

DPKP

141. In which direction would the "FORWARD HEAD LINE" normally run? A. The forward head line would normally lead forward from the bow B. The forward head line would normally lead from the bow back towards the stern C. The forward head line would normally lead straight across to the jetty and be as short as possible D. The forward head line is normally the line used by the forward tug.

142. On the diagram, what is the area at the forward end of the vessel shown by the letter "A"? It is normally raised by one deck above the main deck A. Fo'c's'le or Forecastle B. Forward bridge C. Poop D. Crows nest

143. On the diagram, which arrowed line is indicating the "Breadth" of the vessel? A. The breadth is indicated by letter B, in the figure B. The breadth is indicated by letter A, in the figure C. The breadth is indicated by letter C, in the figure D. The breadth is indicated by letter D, in the figure

144. On the diagram, which letter indicates what is meant by the word "DRAUGHT" of the ship? A. Draught is indicated by D, in the figure B. Draught is indicated by B, in the figure C. Draught is indicated by C, in the figure D. Draught is indicated by A, in the figure

145. On the diagram, which letter is indicating the "BOW"? A. The Bow is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Bow is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Bow is indicated by D, in the figure 889

DPKP

146. Read the text in the diagram and answer the following question: When should training in personal survival techniques be given? A. Before being employed B. During the first week on board C. After joining the ship D. After one period at sea

147. Read the text in the diagram and answer this question: What should be given to prospective seafarers? A. Approved training in survival techniques B. Passport and visa C. Recommendations D. Survival and protective clothing

148. Read the text in the picture before answering the question. What is the fundamental requirement relating to the older ships, which are still in service? A. The older ships must be in good condition. B. As a result of the new building activities, older ships are no longer required. C. The older ship must be cheaper to run than the new builds. D. The older ships should be scrapped to make way for the new builds.

149. What are the duties of the bridge lookout during the night, when the vessel is in the middle of the ocean? A. The lookout must keep a lookout all-round the ship and report anything sighted, or heard, to the Officer of the Watch B. The lookout must keep a lookout ahead of the vessel and report anything sighted to the Officer of the Watch C. The lookout should remain on the bridge wing to be at hand to deliver messages as required by the Officer of the Watch D. The lookout must standby ready to take the wheel when required by the Officer of the Watch 890

DPKP

150. What could the wheelman be asked to do, to help in the preparations to leave the berth and go to sea? A. Test the steering by putting the wheel hard over both ways B. Help the forward team let go the ropes C. Help the after team let go the ropes D. Standby in the mess room until called to the bridge.

151. What do you understand by the term "Let Go" when applied to mooring and unmooring? A. Let Go means to cast off the mooring ropes and wires B. Let Go means to let seafarers go ashore C. Let Go means to leave the ship D. Let Go means to slacken a mooring rope

152. What is a "cargo plan", when applied to a ship? A. The plan indicating where cargo is to be loaded and in what quantities B. The plan to show the staff requirements at each hatch while the ship is loading cargo C. The plan showing the cargo spaces and their capacity D. A discussion between the shore and ship to plan the procedure for loading cargo

153. What is a "Fairlead"? A. A Fairlead is a special device through which is passed ropes or wires to stop them moving sideward’s and reduces friction and chafing B. A Fairlead is the sounding lead used to sample the seabed C. A Fairlead is the device used to close the cargo holds D. A Fairlead is the safest direction to steam down a fairway

891

DPKP

154. What is a mooring line? a. A mooring line is a thick rope used to moor the ship b. A mooring line is a line that is passed through a block c. A mooring line is a small diameter line attached to a large diameter rope d. A mooring line is a line attached to the anchor

155. What is a ship's "Gangway"? a. A Gangway is a portable means of access between the ship and the shore b. A Gangway is an interval of time between a change of working gangs, on board c. A Gangway is a vertical ladder used by the pilot to board the ship d. A Gangway is the means of access into the cargo holds

156. What is meant by the term "Single up" when a vessel is preparing to leave the jetty to which it was moored? A. Single up is the term used to describe the process of letting go most of the moorings lines and just leaving sufficient lines to stay safely alongside. B. Single up is the term used when there is only one single rope left out between the ship and the jetty, when leaving the berth C. Single up is the term used when only one single tug is used to assist the ship in leaving the berth. D. Single up is the term used when a ship leaves the jetty without any assistance from tugs and it is entirely on its own steam.

157. What is name of the machine shown, used to heave on the ropes during mooring and unmooring? A. Winch B. Capstan C. Windlass D. Crane

892

DPKP

158. What is the daytime signal to be shown when the vessel is at anchor? A. A black ball forward where it can best be seen B. Two black balls where they can best be seen C. The national flag flying from the fore mast D. A black ball from main mast amidships

159. What is the meaning of the term "Make Fast", when mooring the ship? A. Make Fast means secure the ropes to the bits B. Make Fast means to act very quickly C. Make Fast means to avoid eating all meals during the daylight hours. D. Make Fast means to coil up a rope

160. What is the name of the portable walkway or access between ship and shore? A. Gangway B. Accommodation ladder C. Bridgeway D. Bulwark

161. What is the normal name given to the fuel oil used for the ship's main engines? A. Bunkers B. Fuel oil C. Cargo D. Lubricating oil

162. What is the normal name of the special wire/rope on board the ship used to make a tug fast? A. Towing spring B. Tugs rope C. Tugs wire D. Mooring wire

893

DPKP

163. What is the normal name of the waterproof suit shown in the picture? A. Survival suit B. Wet suit C. Life suit D. Fluorescent orange suit

164. What is the output shown on the "Rate of Turn" display fitted on the bridge? A. The Rate of Turn indicator displays the rate the ship is swinging in degrees per minute B. The Rate of Turn display shows the turning speed the vessel is swinging in degrees per second C. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the rudder angle applied by the helmsman to turn the ship. D. The Rate of Turn indicator shows the changing angle of the vessel from the meridian

165. What is the role of a tug in a port? A. A tug assists the ships to moor and unmoor B. A tug provides transport for the port personnel C. A tug is used to assist the fishing boats when they enter the port D. A tug is the normal vessel used by the pilot to board a ship

166. What is understood by the term "Boat Drill"? A. "Boat Drill" means the practical training in the various aspects of getting all the people onboard safely off the ship, in the event of abandoning ship B. "Boat Drill" means an exercise in the safe methods of handling a lifeboat in heavy seas C. "Boat Drill" is an exercise in the practical and safe methods to secure a boat alongside the ship. D. "Boat Drill" is an exercise to launch the lifeboats and move the boats clear of the ship.

894

DPKP

167. What is understood by the term, "The Lee Side"? A. Lee Side is the side that faces away from the wind B. Lee Side is the Starboard side of the vessel C. Lee Side is the Port side of the vessel D. Lee Side is the side that faces the wind

168. What is understood by the word "Bollard", when mooring a ship? A. A Bollard is a thick steel post to which mooring lines are secured B. A Bollard is a very heavy rope C. A Bollard is a loop in a rope D. A Bollard is a rope made up of several strands

169. What letter indicates the direction "AHEAD", in the figure? A. Ahead is indicated by A, in the figure B. Ahead is indicated by B, in the figure C. Ahead is indicated by C, in the figure D. Ahead is indicated by D, in the figure

170. When acting as helmsman, what should be the method of responding to an order? A. When receiving an order, the order should be repeated back to the person who gave it before carrying out the order. B. The response to an order should be to acknowledge that order and then carry out what you were told to do. C. When acting as helmsman and given a helm order you should always say "Yes sir" D. The order needs to be acted upon and this will indicate you understood what was said

895

DPKP

171. When keeping a lookout, what would be the correct understanding of the question "What is the aspect of the other ship"? A. The question is requesting some indication of the direction the other ship is heading. B. The question is requesting some idea of how far away the other ship is from your own ship C. The question wants to know what type of ship has been sighted D. The question is requesting where on the horizon the other ship was sighted.

172. When should the lookout report another vessel? A. As soon as it is sighted or heard. B. When the navigation lights can be clearly seen C. When the other vessel is approaching the ship D. When the other vessel is forward of the beam of own ship

173. Where is the "FORECASTLE", in the figure? A. The Forecastle is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Forecastle is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Forecastle is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Forecastle is indicated by D, in the figure

174. Where on a ship is the deck known as the "Boat Deck"? A. The Boat Deck is the deck from which persons embark into the lifeboats B. The Boat Deck is the deck of a life boat C. The Boat Deck is the deck where access would be made from any boats alongside. D. The Boat Deck is the name of the main deck of the ship or boat.

175. Which is the "CAPSTAN", in the figure? A. The Capstan is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Capstan is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Capstan is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Capstan is indicated by D, in the figure 896

DPKP

176. Whichis the "MOORING BUOY", in the figure? A. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by B, in the figure B. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by A, in the figure C. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Mooring Buoy is indicated by D, in the figure

177. Which is the "PANAMA LEAD", in the figure? A. The Panama Lead is indicated by C, in the figure B. The Panama Lead is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Panama Lead is indicated by A, in the figure D. The Panama Lead is indicated by D, in the figure

178. Which is the "QUAY", in the figure? A. The Quay is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Quay is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Quay is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Quay is indicated by D, in the figure

179. Which is the "STARBOARD BOW", in the figure? A. The Starboard bow is indicated by A, in the figure B. The Starboard bow is indicated by B, in the figure C. The Starboard bow is indicated by C, in the figure D. The Starboard bow is indicated by D, in the figure

180. Which of the mooring lines shown in the figure is known as the "AFT BREAST LINE"? A. The Aft Breast Line is B, in the figure B. The Aft Breast Line is A, in the figure C. The Aft Breast Line is C, in the figure D. The Aft Breast Line is D, in the figure.

897

DPKP

181. Why could dirty and oily areas of the deck be dangerous? A. They may cause people to slip over and hurt themselves B. They do not look good to the customers C. They show the ship is not efficient D. They are areas which should be cleaned up.

182. With reference to the text in the frame: what is stated as a threat to lives at sea and the marine environment? A. Bad management and poorly maintained older ships. B. All ships aged between twenty and thirty years old. C. All old or new ships which are badly managed ships. D. There is no immediate threat to the crew or environment

183. Would there ever be the need for two lookouts on the Bridge watch? A. Yes, possibly when there is dense fog and heavy traffic. B. Never necessary C. No, one lookout is sufficient even in fog D. Every night there should be two lookouts, one on each bridge wing.

898

DPKP

3. Use internal communication systems

1. Melaksanakan tugas jaga permesinan dengan aman(Maintain a safe engineering watch) 2. Menggunakan bahasa Inggris dalam bentuk tulisan dan ucapan. (Use English inwritten and oralform) 3. Menggunakan sistem internalcommunicationsystems)

komunikasi

internal

(Use

4. Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang terkait (Operate main andauxiliary machineryand associatedcontrol systems) 5. Mengoperasikan pompa bahan bakar, pelumas, tolak bara (ballast) dan sistem pompa-pompa lainnya dan sistem-sistem kontrol yang terkait. (Operate fuel,lubrication, ballastand other pumpingsystems andassociated controlsystems) 6. Mengoperasikan sistem listrik, sistem elektronik kontrol (Operate electrical,electronic andcontrol systems) 7. Perawatan dan perbaikan peralatan listrik dan (Maintenance andrepair of electricaland electronicequipment)

dan

sistem

elektronik

8. Menggunakan secara tepat, peralatan tenaga tangan, peralatan tenaga mesin alat-alat ukur untuk fabrikasi dan perbaikan di atas kapal. (Appropriate use ofhand tools, machinetools and measuringinstruments forfabrication andrepair on board) 9. Perawatan dan perbaikan permesinan dan peralatan (Maintenance andrepair of shipboardmachinery andequipment)

kapal

10. Menjamin dipenuhinya persyaratan-persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran. (Ensure compliancewith pollution preventionrequirements)

899

DPKP 11. Menjaga kelaik-lautan kapal (Maintainseaworthiness ofthe ship) 12. Memantau kepatuhan terhadap persyaratan-persyaratan ketentuan. (Monitorcompliance withlegislativerequirements) 13. Menerapkan keterampilan kepemimpinan dan kerja sama kelompok (Application ofleadership andteamworking skills)

900

DPKP

4. Mengoperasikan mesin induk dan mesin bantu dan sistem kontrol yang terkait (Operate main andauxiliary machineryand associatedcontrol systems) 1.

A ship has a medium speed engine and a controllable pitch propeller propulsion system. What would the propeller pitch normally have to be at to allow starting of the engine? A. Zero B. 25 % ahead C. 10 % ahead D. 25 % astern

2.

After water-washing the turbocharger exhaust side it starts to vibrate even though it was operating normally prior to the washing procedure. What is the most likely cause of this problem? A. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned B. Water drain for washing system is blocked allowing water to build up in the turbine casing. C. The foundation bolts for the turbocharger are loose. D. The turbocharger bearings are worn out.

3.

Choose the option which most accurately completes the following statement. The expansion tank in a closed cooling water system is designed to maintain a positive head on the system and also to…… A. Allow for changes in water volume due to temperature variation (expansion) B. Reduce the water temperature C. Reduce the water turbulence D. Provide an air cushion

901

DPKP

4.

How is the effective delivery stroke of a helix type fuel pump for a diesel engine controlled to increase or decrease the quantity of fuel delivered? A. Rotation of the plunger by the fuel rack from the governor signal. B. The fuel rail pressure relief valve setting. C. The fuel injector setting. D. The fuel booster pump delivery pressure.

5.

How is the temperature of the high temperature circuit of a central cooling system normally controlled? A. By mixing with water from the low temperature circuit. B. By controlling the bypass of flow for the central coolers. C. By increasing the flow rate through the main engine cooling circuit D. By controlling the flow through the fresh water evaporator heating circuit.

6.

In a diesel engine lubrication system the circulating pump normally takes suction from the oil sump tank. Where would the oil normally pass to directly after the pump? A. Lube oil cooler. B. Main thrust bearing. C. The engine bearings. D. The lub oil purifier.

7.

The exhaust gas temperatures of all cylinders of a diesel engine are seen to be high. Select, from the options given, the most likely cause of this. A. Poor fuel oil quality. B. High wear rate in one of the fuel injection pumps. C. One of the fuel cams is worn. D. Insufficient cooling of the main bearings.

902

DPKP

8.

The level in a diesel engine lubricating oil sump has increased noticably during operation without any new oil being added. What action would you take? A. Stop the engine and check for a fuel or water leak. B. Continue normal operation. C. Drain some oil from the engine to reduce the level. D. Reduce the engine load and check for a fuel or water leak.

9.

The lubricating oil in the bearing housing at the turbine end of a turbocharger gets very dirty after only a few hours in service. What is the most likely reason for this happening? A. Damaged rotor shaft sealing bushes allowing exhaust gas to leak into the bearing housing. B. The wrong type of lubricating oil has been used. C. The lubricating oil filling connection screw cap is missing. D. The turbine end bearing is badly worn.

10.

The main engine turbocharger speed has increased during the night while operating in UMS mode. From the options given, what is the most likely cause of this? A. The engine load has increased due to external factors such as current and wind. B. The engine is operating on a different grade of fuel. C. The engine load has reduced due to external factors such as current and wind. D. The governor signal has been overridden by the bridge.

11.

What could be the most likely reason for an increase in the viscosity of a diesel engine lubricating oil during operation? A. Fuel oil leakage into the lub oil system. B. Worn bearing shells. C. Water-leakage into the lub oil system. D. Increased lub oil temperature.

903

DPKP

12.

What could cause diesel engine lubricating oil to appear cloudy with a slightly "milky" colour? A. Water contamination of the system. B. Fuel contamination of the system. C. High temperature of the oil. D. Oxidation of the oil.

13.

What is likely to be the cause of black smoke from a diesel engine exhaust seen at the funnel? A. Incomplete combustion of the fuel. B. Too much combustion air. C. Water in the fuel. D. Engine is burning some lubricating oil.

14.

What is the purpose of an oil mist detector, OMD, as fitted to a diesel engine? A. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown of any potentially explosive atmosphere in the crankcase. B. To check the efficiency of the crankcase extractor fan. C. To detect scavenge air leakages from the piston rod stuffing box. D. To detect and give an alarm and slowdown in the event of a crankcase explosion.

15.

What is the purpose of diesel engine cylinder head safety valve? A. To indicate and relieve excessive high pressure in the cylinder to protect the engine frombeing damaged. B. To allow adjustment of the cylinder pressure to a safe working pressure. C. To shut down the engine in the event of an unsafe operating condition. D. To shut off the fuel to a the cylinder in the event of a high pressure fuel pipe leak.

904

DPKP

16.

What is the recommended range for the pH-value for the water in a diesel engine cooling system engine cooling water be maintained? A. Between 7 and 10. B. Between 5 and 7. C. Above 10 D. Below 5.

17.

What would be the most probable cause of light, smoky exhaust from a diesel engine? A. Water carry over from charge air cooler to engine cylinders. B. Fouling of the charge air cooler. C. Air in the fuel oil system. D. The engine is overloaded.

18.

What would be the most probable cause of the exhaust gas temperature from one cylinder of a diesel engine being lower than normal? A. The opening pressure for the injection valve for the cylinder is set too high. B. There is air in the fuel oil system. C. The intake filter for turbo charger is partly fouled. D. The camshaft chain is too slack.

19.

When should adjustments to the fuel injection valve spring tension be made? A. Only on the fuel injection valve test rig. B. During

engine

operation

when

cylinder

exhaust

temperatures need to be balanced. C. During engine operation when cylinder maximum pressures need to be balanced. D. During engine operation when fuel timing to individual cylinders needs to be adjusted.

905

DPKP

20.

Which of the following options would be the cause of a low exhaust temperature in one cylinder of a diesel engine? A. Faulty fuel injection valve. B. Faulty turbocharger. C. Poor quality fuel. D. Charge air cooler fouled on air side.

21.

Which of the given options characterizes a 2-stroke diesel engine ? A. A 2 stroke engine completes a full cycle every revolution. B. A 2 stroke engine always has 2 or more turbochargers. C. A 2 stroke engine has an air inlet valve in the cylinder cover. D. The piston always has a short skirt.

22.

Which would be the most suitable point in the system to obtain a representative of diesel engine lubricating oil for analysis? A. From the lubricating system pipeline on the discharge side of the circulating pump. B. From the lubricating oil filter drain. C. From the lubricating oil cooler drain. D. From the lubricating oil purifier outlet.

23.

Why are duplex filters usually employed in the lubricating oil system of an auxiliary diesel engine? A. Changing of the filter element can be carried out without interrupting engine operation. B. It gives better filtration of the oil. C. The pressure drop is half that of a single filter unit. D. Filter blockage will not occur.

906

DPKP

24.

Why is it necessary to have routine testing of diesel engine cooling water systems? A. To ensure that the recommended levels of treatment chemicals are maintained at all times. B. To detect water leakage from the system. C. It is not really necessary to test diesel engine cooling water systems. D. To check for oil contamination of the system.

25.

With reference to diesel engine ancillary system operation, which one of the given statements is true? A. The normal jacket water temperature before the jacket water cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C. B. The normal scavenge air temperature after the charge air cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C. C. The normal temperature of the lubricating oil before the lub oil cooler is approximately 80 to 90 C. D. The normal temperature of heavy fuel oil after the fuel oil heater is approximately 80 to 90 C.

26.

With reference to non-VIT diesel engine high pressure fuel pumps that have helix control, how is the timing of fuel injection normally adjusted? A. By raising or lowering the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel. B. By rotating the pump plunger relative to the pump barrel. C. By changing the governor output signal. D. By changing the opening pressure setting for the fuel injection valves.

907

DPKP

27.

In a circuit diagram of a simple hydraulic circuit, which of the alternatives does the following symbol indicate? A. Double check valve. B. Throttle valve. C. Pressure relief valve. D. Directional control valve.

28.

A piston ring set for a trunk piston engine often includes a slotted ring tensioned by an internal spring. What is the purpose of this type of piston ring? A. It is an oil control ring. B. It is the lowest compression ring. C. It is a ring to seal the crankcase from the combustion chamber. D. It is the firing ring.

29.

During the cycle of a four stroke diesel engine there is a load reversal on the bottom end bearing when the load transfers from the upper part of the bearing to the lower part. What is the main cause of this load reversal on a modern, turbocharged, medium speed diesel engine? A. The lack of gas load to oppose the inertial forces generated during the exhaust stroke. B. The suction effect on the piston during the air intake (induction) stroke. C. The inertial forces generated during the upward strokes of the piston (compression and exhaust strokes). D. The light alloy materials used for the piston skirt.

908

DPKP

30.

During the normal operating cycle of a diesel engine there are side thrusts generated by the piston as it moves up and down the cylinder due to the changing angle of the connecting rod. How are these side thrusts accommodated in a trunk piston engine? A. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame by the piston skirt in way of the gudgeon pin. B. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame by the piston rings. C. The side thrust is transmitted to the cylinder liner and the engine frame by the piston crown. D. The side thrust is transmitted to the engine frame by the crosshead bearing.

31.

Many modern medium and high speed diesel engines operate at very high power ratings resulting in relatively high bearing loads. In order to accommodate these loads the bearings are required to have a high load carrying capacity. What kind of bearings are normally used for main and bottom end purposes to achieve this? A. Thin steel shells lined with aluminium tin alloys. B. Thick white metal types with the white metal cast into the keeps to give extra fatigue strength. C. Thin steel shells with a thin white metal lining. D. Thin steel shells with a copper lead lining and a running in overlay.

909

DPKP

32.

Some main propulsion medium speed engine installations operate with a hydraulic oil type fluid coupling between the engine and the reduction gearbox instead of a mechanical clutch. With this type of installation a separate flexible coupling is not normally fitted. Why is a separate flexible coupling usually omitted from this type of installation? A. The hydraulic fluid in the coupling isolates the gearbox from the engine vibrations. B. There is insufficient room to fit a flexible coupling between the engine and gearbox when a fluid coupling is fitted. C. There is natural slippage between the drive and driven parts of the fluid coupling and a flexible coupling would prevent this slippage. D. There are no engine torque variations in the drive when a fluid coupling is used so a flexible coupling is not required.

33.

The majority of medium speed main propulsion installations incorporate a reduction gearbox between the engine and the propeller shaft. Why is this arrangement usually required? A. So that the propeller operates in a relatively efficient speed range. B. So that the engine can be more easily reversed. C. So that the engine can be coupled to a controllable pitch propeller. D. So that the engine can also drive a shaft alternator.

910

DPKP

34.

The peak pressure (maximum cylinder pressure) is often taken as an indicator of medium speed engine performance along with other parameters. What would be a typical peak pressure for a modern, highly rated, medium speed diesel engine? A. 140 to 180 bar B. 80 to 100 bar C. 14 to 18 bar D. 10 to 12 bar

35.

The Total Base Number (TBN) is important as a measure of neutralizing ability of a diesel engine lubricating oil against strong acids formed during combustion. What action should be taken if the results from an oil analysis show that the TBN of the lubricating oil has reduced slightly? A. Freshen up the system by draining of some of the oil and adding a quantity of fresh oil. B. Purify the system oil in a centrifuge. C. Take another lub oil sample and send it for analysis. D. Pump the oil to a renovating tank and allow any contaminants to settle out and refill the system with new oil.

36.

What is the reason for fitting 'Rotocaps' to the cylinder head valves of some 4stroke diesel engines? A. To extend the service life of the valves by giving even heat and wear distribution. B. To rotate the inlet valves during operation to improve air turbulence in the cylinder. C. To help clear the cylinder of exhaust gas by spinning the exhaust valves during opening. D. To prevent seizure of the cylinder head valves by keeping the valve spindles clean.

911

DPKP

37.

When operating a propulsion installation consisting of medium speed diesel engines driving a controllable pitch propeller it is possible to operate the combination of engine speed and propeller pitch in a number of different ways. What would be the main reason for operating with constant speed and variable pitch? A. To allow constant speed operation of a shaft generator while the engine load changes with pitch variation. B. To obtain maximum propeller efficiency over the load range of the engine. C. To allow the engine to be operated with a load sensing governor instead of a speed sensing governor. D. To allow rapid load change and thrust reversal when manoeuvring.

38.

Which of the given statements is true in relation to the features and operation of a 4 stroke diesel engine ? A. The camshaft rotates with half the RPM of the crankshaft in a 4 stroke engine. B. A 4 stroke engine has an ignition towards the end of every upward stroke of the piston. C. A 4 stroke engine always has scavenge ports near the bottom of the cylinder liner. D. 4 stroke engines are not required to have crankcase relief valves fitted.

39.

Which symptoms would indicate piston blow-by when operating a 4 stroke trunk piston type engine ? A. Increased pressure in the crankcase and smoke at the crankcase vent. B. Increased pressure in the air inlet manifold. C. Increased temperature in the inlet air manifold on the engine. D. Smoke and sparks from the scavenge manifold drains.

912

DPKP

40.

A slow speed diesel engine is fitted with a slow turning facility. How would the slow turning normally be set to operate? A. It should automatically operate before the normal start sequence following an engine stopped period of more than 20 to 30 minutes when manoeuvring. B. It should automatically operate before every normal start sequence. C. It should automatically operate every 20 minutes when the engine is stopped during manoeuvring. D. It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes.

41.

It should be manually operated before the normal start sequence following an engine stopped period of more than 10 minutes. In the event of a severe scavenge fire, which of the following is most likely to be seriously damaged? A. Piston rod and stuffing box. B. Exhaust valve. C. Piston crown. D. Crosshead bearing.

42.

Large slow speed diesel engines are usually of the crosshead type and have various arrangements to deliver lubricating oil directly to the crosshead bearings and guides to ensure adequate lubrication. Why are the crosshead bearings considered differently to the other bearing in this type of engine in respect of lubrication requirements? A. The running surfaces oscillate relative to each other during operation rather than rotate and therefore full film hydrodynamic lubrication is not possible. B. The lubricating oil has further to travel to the crosshead bearing and so a separate arrangement is necessary C. The crosshead bearing is more heavily loaded than other bearings in the engine so requires more oil to keep it cool. D. The crosshead bearing is closer to the engine cylinder and therefore runs hotter. 913

DPKP

43.

Many large 2 stroke marine diesel engines are equipped with an auxiliary scavenge air blower. What is the purpose of this equipment? A. To provide combustion air at start up, during manouevring and low load running when the turbocharger delivery is insufficient. B. To assist the main turbochargers in supplying combustion air when on full load. C. To allow full load running when the main turbocharger is defective.. D. To help cool the engine after it has been stopped.

44.

Many large slow speed diesel engines operating on heavy fuel oil have a fuel injection system which features Variable Injection Timing. How does this affect engine operation? A. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over part of the load range. B. VIT improves engine operation by automatically controlling the start of fuel injection when it detects a poor quality fuel. C. VIT increases engine efficiency by automatically maintaining the maximum cylinder pressure over the entire load range. D. VIT allows the ship's engineers to alter the injection timing for each load setting with a simple single adjustment of the fuel rack.

914

DPKP

45.

any modern large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion operate with a so called constant pressure turbocharging system. What is meant by constant pressure when used to describe such a turbocharging system? A. Pressure variations at the turbocharger inlet are damped out due to the large volume of the exhaust receiver and the short lengths of pipe from individual cylinders. B. Pressure variations in the scavenge air supply are avoided by supplementing the air supply with air from the auxiliary blowers so keeping a constant pressure across the load and speed range. C. The exhaust pipes from groups of three cylinders are joined together before entry into the turbocharger so that the exhaust pulses from each cylinder cancel each other giving a constant inlet pressure. D. The exhaust gas pressure is maintained constant by using a bypass waste gate to dump excess pressure at high engine loads.

46.

Modern large slow speed diesel engines operate with very efficient turbochargers. This has resulted in much later opening of the exhaust valve as less energy is needed to drive the turbocharger giving exhaust timing which is almost symmetrical about bottom dead centre. How has this affected the reversing operation of the engines? A. Only the fuel and starting air timing needs to be changed to reverse the engine. B. It has no effect and the reversing requirements of the engine are still the same. C. The engine can be reversed by simply repositioning the main camshaft. D. Only the air start distributor has to be repositioned prior to reversing the engine.

915

DPKP

47.

Modern slow speed, two stroke diesel engines often have locating pins or pegs to keep the piston rings in a fixed position. Why is this arrangement used? A. It avoids the risk of the ends of the piston rings being forced out by the gas pressure and catching on the scavenge ports. B. The piston rings are more difficult to lubricate because of the slow operating speeds and will wear more quickly if they are allowed to rotate. C. The piston ring gaps can be kept in line to control the gas pressure on each of the rings. D. It ensures the rings cannot be mixed up and that they are fitted in the correct order on the piston.

48.

The majority of large slow speed diesel engines used for main propulsion purposes are direct drive to a fixed pitch propeller? What is the main reason for this arrangement? A. A fixed pitch propeller can operate with reasonable efficiency at the same sort of speed as the engine. B. Controllable pitch propellers cannot be used with large slow speed diesel engines which can be reversed. C. The amount of power that needs to be transmitted would overload a gearbox. D. There is usually only one engine sin this arrangement and so clutches are not required.

49.

What is one of the main features of the cylinder lubricating oil used in large 2 stroke marine diesel engines which normally operate on heavy fuel oil? A. It is strongly alkaline. B. It is strongly acidic. C. It is neutral with a pH value of 7. D. It is a pure mineral oil without any special additives.

916

DPKP

50.

What is the main reason for sometimes having a separate forced lubrication system for the camshaft on large cross head engines? A. To prevent any fuel leakage from the high pressure fuel pumps contaminating the oil in the main lubrication system. B. Because the camshaft system uses a different grade oil from that used in the main lubrication system. C. To prevent the camshaft system being contaminated with any water leaking into the main lubrication system from faulty cylinder liner seals. D. Because the camshaft lubrication system has a lower pressure than the main lubrication system.

51.

Why is it important to check the timing of diesel engine cylinder oil lubricators? A. To ensure cylinder lubricating oil enters the cylinders when the piston is in the required position. B. To ensure the correct amount of cylinder lubricating oil is fed into the cylinders. C. To avoid excess pressure in the cylinder lubrication system. D. To ensure the piston is not covering the lubrication points and blocking the flow of cylinder lubricating oil into the cylinder.

52.

Boiler water tests on a low pressure steam boiler show the chloride content to be 50 ppm. What action should be taken if any? A. No action is necessary. B. Increase the dosage of treatment chemicals. C. Blow down the boiler and reduce the dosage of treatment chemicals. D. Shut down the boiler and drain the water out before filling with fresh feed water.

917

DPKP

53.

Feed check valves for the main and auxiliary boilers are normally of the double shut off type with one screw lift valve and one screw down non-return valve. What is the main function of the non-return valve? A. To prevent the steam and water in the boiler from discharging out through the feed line if the feed line fractures or a joint in the line blows. B. To allow overhaul of the screw lift valve when the non-return valve is shut and the boiler is steaming. C. To prevent back pressure on the boiler feed pump.. D. To allow fine tuning of feed water flow to the boiler.

54.

From the statements given in the answer options, choose the one which is most accurate in relation to the operation of water-tube boiler and fire-tube boilers. A. Water-tube boilers are more efficient and generally contain less water than fire tube boilers. They are prone to major damage when run dry during operation. B. A firetube boiler has a much better capability to work at higher steam pressure. C. A watertube boiler can tolerate a short period of time without any water when the burner is operating. D. A firetube boiler does not require a non-return valve in the feedwater line.

55.

How often should boiler water tests be carried out on a steam boiler? A. Every day. B. Every week. C. Every hour. D. Every hour.

918

DPKP

56.

Tests on the water in a low pressure boiler show the chloride level is 500 ppm. What action should be taken? A. Blow down boiler and check the condenser for leakage. B. Increase dosage of treatment chemicals. C. Increase feed water temperature. D. Decrease dosage of treatment chemicals.

57.

Under what load condition would sootblowing of the boiler tubes be most beneficial? A. When the boiler is firing on high rate. B. When the boiler burner is off. C. When the boiler is firing on low rate. D. When the boiler is firing on medium rate.

58.

What action is required if boiler water tests confirm a pH value of less than 9? A. Increase

the

dosage

of

alkalinity

treatment

chemicals until the pH value is back within normal range. B. Blowdown the boiler and refill with good feedwater. C. No action is required. D. Reduce the dosage of alkalinity treatment chemicals until the pH is back within normal range.

59.

What action should be taken if the boiler water tests show that the pH-value in the boiler water is slightly over 11.5? A. Blowdown the boiler and decrease the dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals. B. No action is required this is the normal level. C. Blowdown the boiler and Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment chemicals. D. Raise the boiler water level above normal to dilute the contents. 919

DPKP

60.

What is an effective means of measuring the total dissolved solids in boiler water? A. Conductivity test. B. Alkalinity test. C. Chloride test. D. pH test

61.

What is the correct range for the pH-value for the water in an oil fired steam boiler? A. 9 - 11. B. 4.5 - 7. C. Below 4.5 D. 7 – 9

62.

What is the main problem associated with oil in a steam boiler water system? A. It forms an insulating film on heat transfer surfaces with the risk of overheating. B. It causes corrosion of steel in the boiler. C. It increases scale deposits in the boiler. D. It causes the gauge glasses to become dirty preventing the operator from seeing the water level.

63.

What is the main purpose of having a deaerator in a boiler feed water system? A. To remove oxygen and other dissolved gases from the feed water. B. To provide a dosage point for feed water treatment. C. To reduce the total dissolved solids in the feed water. D. To act as the primary feed heater.

920

DPKP

64.

What is the main purpose of the superheater vent valve on a high pressure steam boiler? A. To ensure a flow of steam through the superheater when raising steam pressure or when the boiler is not on-line. B. To remove air from the superheater. C. To remove water from the superheater. D. To control the superheater pressure during operation.

65.

What is the potential effect on a steam boiler of having calcium based compounds present in boiler water and proper water treatment is not carried out? A. It will cause corrosion and scale deposits in the boiler. B. It will form passive layers on the metal surfaces in the boiler. C. It will reduce the TDS in the boiler. D. No negative effects are likely.

66.

What is the purpose of a scum valve often fitted to a steam boiler? A. To allow removal of any oil or impurities which collect on the surface of the water in the boiler steam drum. B. To allow removal impurities from the boiler feedwater C. To allow removal of sludge and mud which may collect in the bottom of the boiler water drum. D. To allow removal of oil from the surface of the feed water tank.

67.

What is the purpose of an economiser as often fitted in a steam boiler plant? A. To heat the feed-water B. To desuperheat the steam C. To heat the fuel oil D. To heat the combustion air.

921

DPKP

68.

What is the purpose of refractory linings in an oil fired steam boiler furnace? A. To prevent excessive furnace heat losses and protect tubes and other fittings from overheating. B. To give added strength to the furnace. C. To support the steam drum. D. To ignite the burner during automatic operation.

69.

What is the purpose of the flame scanner or 'magic eye' fitted to the burner unit of oil or gas fired steam boilers? A. To check that the flame is present during start up or normal operation of the burner; if not then fuel is shut off automatically. B. To check the colour of the flame. C. To control the combustion air supply to the boiler. D. To check the colour of the exhaust gas from the furnace.

70.

What temperature should a water sample be at before carrying out boiler water tests? A. At room temperature. B. As hot as possible. C. It makes no difference. D. At less than room temperature.

71.

What would be the effect of a faulty steam trap on a fuel oil heater causing condensate to build up in the heat exchanger? A. Reduced heating capacity of the heater. B. An increase in fuel oil temperature. C. Excess pressure on the shell of the heat exchanger. D. Low water level in the boiler.

922

DPKP

72.

Where should a sample for boiler water test purposes be taken from? A. From the boiler water space. B. From the boiler steam space. C. From the boiler feed system. D. From the blowdown line.

73.

Which part is the spindle house ? A. Number 4 B. Number 1 C. Number 2 D. Number 3

74.

Which part is the exhaust gas receiver ? A. Number 8 B. Number 7 C. Number 6 D. Number 1

75.

Which part is the exhaust valve ? A. Number 1 B. Number 2 C. Number 4 D. Number 6

76.

What is part number 3 ? A. The air chamber B. The combustion center C. The piston glider D. The combustion chamber

923

DPKP

77.

What is part number 5 ? A. The air cooler B. The air filter C. The air receiver D. The scavenging air box

78.

What is part number 8 called ? A. The cooler inlet B. The air filter C. The air box D. The air cooler

79.

Which part is the turbine wheel ? A. Number 4 B. Number 8 C. Number 7 D. Number 9

80.

Which part is the auxiliary fan ? A. Number 10 B. Number 7 C. Number 9 D. Number 6

81.

That is part number 11 ? A. The blower B. The turbine outlet C. The turbine wheel D. The blower ring

924

DPKP

82.

The turbine wheel number 9 is made to rotate by: A. pressured air supplied by blower number 10 B. exhausts coming from the combustion chamber C. any of the above D. inlet air coming from the inlet filter

83.

What liquid is used to clean the turbo charger of a large low speed main engine? (high speed air side, half speed gas side) A. Oil B. A chemical mixture of oil and water C. A chemical mixture of acid and water D. Water

84.

The force tending to twist the material such as the force on a shaft is called: A. tensile stress. B. torsional stress. C. bending stress. D. compressive stress.

85.

What is the purpose of counterbore in a cylinder ? A. To prevent the piston ring from wearing a shoulder in the cylinder B. To facilitate piston overhaul C. To distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface D. To have good an effective combustion

86.

Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing in a current of air which provides clean air for the next compression stroke is called ………. A. cycle. B. scavenging. C. expansion. D. compression.

925

DPKP

87.

The last stroke of two-stroke diesel engine is called the ……… A. air stroke. B. compression stroke. C. power stroke. D. ignition stroke.

88.

If the cooling water temperature goes below its recommended value, what can happen ? A. Condensation of sulphuric acid on the cylinder walls B. The fuel pumps may be clogged C. Condensation of lubricating oil on the cylinder walls D. The engine cannot be started again

89.

If the cooling water temperature exceeds its recommended value, what can happen ? A. The blower will slow down B. A less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls C. The expansion tank will be emptied D. Too much lubricating oil film will form on the cylinder walls which will create black exhaust smoke

90.

Which mode of automatic temperature control is used for this Jacket Cooling Water system ? A. Keeping outlet temperature constant by regulating on the outlet B. Keeping outlet temperature constant by regulating on the inlet C. Keeping inlet temperature constant by regulating on the inlet D. Keeping inlet temperature constant by regulating on the outlet

926

DPKP

91.

What is item "J “ ? A. The Piston Cooling Water Pump B. The Sea Water Cooling Pump C. A Water Strainer D. The Jacket Cooling Water Pump

92.

What kind of Jacket Cooling water system is shown here ? A. A forced circuit B. None of the above C. A free closed circuit D. An open circuit

93.

What absorbs the impact of the up-and-down movement of the piston telescopic pipes in this water flow system ?

For No. 21 -

A. The air cushion in the buffer tank B. The construction of the buffer tank C. The up and downward movement of the indicating flaps D. The expansion tank

94.

If the system pressure is 3.5 kglcm2, what will be the pressure in the buffer vessels ? A. Fluctuating around 3.5 kg/cm2 B. Lower than 3.5 kg/cm2. C. Exactly the same, 3.5kg/cm2 D. Higher than 3.5 kg/cm2.

927

DPKP

95.

Why there an indicating flap 'IF" (shown with arrow up and arrow down) fitted on the outlet of the piston water buffer tank ? A. To indicate that buffer air and water flow are in order. B. To indicate if the pump mis-running C. To indicate that the engine is running D. To indicate that the buffer air in the system is in order.

96.

What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops ? A. The level will at first decrease but increases again. B. Nothing will happen C. The level will increase D. The level will decrease.

97.

How are the crosshead bearings supplied with lubricating oil ?

A. Via the main bearing, crankshaft, bottom end bearing and connecting rod B. Direct from the lub oil main line C. Independently D. From the camshaft lub oil line

928

DPKP

98.

How is the gear train lubricated ?

A. Via the crankshaft B. Via the camshaft system C. Direct from the common lub oil circuit D. By its own independent lub oil circuit

99.

Flow is the thrust bearing lubricated ?

A. Via the camshaft B. By its own independent supply system C. Via the crankshaft D. Direct via the main lub oil line

929

DPKP

100. Which of the following components is NOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line ?

A. The gear train B. The trust bearing C. The crosshead D. The main bearings

101. What is the function of the value PR close to the lubrication oil pump ?

A. To keep the oil temperature constant B. To absorb pump vibrations C. To keep the oil pressure constant D. To act as a high pressure safety valve

930

DPKP 102. What type of pump is the pump “P" ?

A. A vane pump B. A gear or worm wheel pump C. A piston pump D. A centrifugal pump

103. What type of scavenge air system is applied to this diesel engine ?

A. Compounded scavenging B. None of the above C. Uniflow scavenging D. Loop scavenging

104. When does the exhaust valve 'EV" open ?

A. None of the above B. When the piston moves upward C. At the end of the working stroke D. When the piston is at bottom dead point

931

DPKP

105. Which type of exhaust manifold feeds this turbocharger ?

A. Split type B. Booster type C. Impulse type D. Constant pressure type

106. What is the function of drain valve “D" ?

A. To drain hydrocarbons and avoid explosion B. To drain the oil from the manifold C. To release the air when the engine is stopped D. To drain the moisture from the manifold

107. Which thermometer always indicates the highest temperature in the turbocharger?

A. TE6 B. TE C. TE1 D. TEB

932

DPKP

108. What do you think would be a reasonable scavenge air pressure for this engine running at full speed? A. 7.0 kg/cm2 B. 25 kg/cm2 C. 1.25 kg/cm2 D. 0.25 kg/cm2

109. What might be a reasonable value for the scavenge air temperature of this diesel running at full speed ? A. 45 degrees C B. 420 degrees C C. 75 degrees C D. 28 degrees C

110. Under normal running conditions, what pressure is the air entering the exhaust gas turbocharger “EGT" ?

A. Under high pressure B. Under a vacuum C. Under atmospheric pressure D. Under slight overpressure

933

DPKP

111. In what part shown on this scavenge air schematic diagram is heat converted into mechanical power?

A. In the main engine B. In part 2, the turboblower C. In part 1, the exhaust gas turbine D. In part 5, the scavenge air blower

112. The scavenge air compressed in the turboblower is cooled down in the scavenge air cooler (item 3) under…….

A. constant pressure (Isobaric condition) B. constant volume (Isochoric condition) C. isothermic condition D. adiabatic condition

934

DPKP

113. In which part indicated on this scavenge air schematic is mechanical power converted to thermal power ?

A. In the exhaust gas boiler B. In the main engine C. In the exhaust gas turbine (no 1) D. In the turboblower and scavenge air blower (no 2 and no 5) 114. In an “impulse type" exhaust gas turbocharger, the exhaust gases of the main engine ………?

A. are led to two or three sections of the exhaust gas manifold B. are entering into a spacious exhaust gas manifold C. are driving only one single turbocharger D. are led in pipe groups directly and separately to the turbocharger

935

DPKP

115. On which unit of the scavenge air system is an automatic drain fitted ?

A. On the turbo blower B. On the exhaust gas boiler C. On the scavenge air manifold D. On the scavenge air blower

116. Why can the temperature of the scavenge air after the scavenge air cooler not be lowered below a given temperature and why has the temperature to be regulated above this value ?

A. To avoid condensate and water entering the engine B. To avoid misfiring and starting problems C. To avoid cracking of the cylinder liner D. To maintain the thermal efficiency of the diesel

936

DPKP

117. In a constant pressure type turbocharger the exhaust gas enters the turbo charger via …………..?

A. a separate manifold for each turbocharger B. the grids of the common exhaust gas manifold C. the grids of two or more exhaust piping groups D. nozzles on each individual exhaust pipe

118. For a turbo charger is running at full speed, what would be a usual oil sump temperature on the turbine side ?

A. 45 to 50 degrees C B. 72 to 82 degrees C C. 35 to 45 degrees C D. 55 to 65 degrees C

937

DPKP

119. When you read a crankshaft deflection figure and the + sign is indicated, for example +4, this means that……

A. the crankwebs have closed in by 4/100 mm B. the main bearing on one side is 4/100 mm greater than the other C. the crankpin location is 4/100 mm out of centre D. the crankwebs have opened up by 4/100 mm

120. What are the two most important factors influencing the crankshaft deflection readings ?

A. Condition of ballast tanks and temperature of engine B. Bedplate alignment and condition of after peak C. Ballast tank condition and bedplate alignment D. bearing wear and bedplate alignment

938

DPKP

121. What are the steps to be taken, in what order, to stabilise the governor of a diesel engine after overhaul ? A. Set integrating to MAX. than adjust speed P and differential D B. Adjust speed P, then integrate, next differentiating, from 0 C. Integrating and differentiating MAX, set speed from 0 upwards D. Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MIN, adjust speed upward

122. What is the purpose of a safety valve fitted in the cylinder cover of a diesel engine ? A. To release gas from the cylinder by operating turning gear B. To open in port so the engine cannot be started C. To release excessive gas pressure from the cylinder D. To drain off water and condensate from the cylinder

123. What force makes a safety value of a diesel engine open ? A. The exhaust gas pressure B. The starting air pressure admitted in the cylinder C. The fuel pressure to the cylinder head D. The pressure inside the combustion space

124. At which moment exactly does the safety value of a diesel engine opens ? A. When the gas pressure in the engine exceeds the spring pressure B. When fuel was retained previously in the cylinder C. When too much starting air is admitted D. At top dead point of the cylinder by max firing pressure

939

DPKP

125. In which stage of its working process is this two-stroke diesel engine ? A. Gas expanding B. Compressing C. Scavenging D. Firing

126. What type of engine is shown here ? A. A two stroke diesel with piston underside scavenging B. A two stroke diesel with spiral scavenging C. A two stroke diesel with uniflow scavenging D. A two stroke diesel with loop scavenging

127. If you are taking crankshaft deflections, for which position will you list the reading which was last taken if the engine turns counterclockwise ? Right is PS, left is SB. A. Zero B. S C. P D. TS

128. What is the structural lay-out of this diesel engine ? A. Separate bedplate, columns, cylinder block for each cylinder B. Foundation, one-piece motor block C. Separate bedplate, one part crankcase and cylinder block D. One unit foundation and bedplate, separate cylinder block

129. From which type of diesel engine is this running gear ? A. A four stroke air cooled diesel engine B. A two stroke crosshead type diesel engine C. A four stroke oil cooled piston diesel engine D. A two stroke trunk type diesel engine

940

DPKP

130. A piston of this type is composed of the following main parts: A. piston body, piston flange, piston crown B. piston crown, piston body, piston rings C. piston crown, piston rod, piston skirt, intermediate piece D. piston, piston rings, telescopic piping

131. What would you call the assembly fitted on the piston rod, which fits into a flange on top of the crankcase block opening through which the piston rod moues in order to secure tightness ? A. The piston rod stuffing box B. The crankcase sealing assembly C. The piston underside values D. The scavenging air value box

132. During normal operation, the telescopic piping of this diesel engine's piston are sliding up and down into …….. A. compressed air vessels. B. telescopic buffer vessels. C. piston cooling water piping. D. the crankcase cooling space.

133. What should you inspect and measure on the piston crown, when overhauling this main engine piston ? A. The scavenge and exhaust ports, the piston/ring grooves B. Cylinder liner wear, ring groove clearance, piston rod ovality C. The rubbing bands, the oil and the carbon, stuffing box D. Ovality, burning marks and pitting, piston ring/groove clearance

941

DPKP

134. What is the purpose of the starting value fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine ? A. To allow air from the main air bottle to enter the cylinder directly B. To block the fuel and air supply unless in “START" position C. To allow starting air of 25 kg/cm2 into the cylinder if applicable D. To activate the main air starting value fitted on the engine

135. At what moment will the cylinder head starting air valve, shown here, open and allow 25 kg/cm2 to flow into the cylinder ? A. When the control air on top is vented by the starting cam B. When control air is supplied to the top connection C. When the main starting air is opened from the bottle D. When 25 kg/cm2 air is supplied on top by manoeuvring

136. How is the air-tightness of the sliding piston (moved by control air pressure and spring) ensured in starting air values of this type ? A. Teflon seats are fitted B. Labyrinth seals are fitted C. O-ring seals are fitted D. Piston rings are fitted

137. What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out on the main engine prior to manoeuvering with regard to the starting air system ? A. See that the cyl starting valve is moving by air hose connection B. Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spann C. Open up the main and cyl head starting valve and clean pistons D. Grease the valves by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture

942

DPKP

138. How are starting air values made gas tight in the cylinder heads of diesel engines? A. They are screwed into the cylinder head and asbestos sealed B. A copper gasket is fitted C. By face to face, hydraulic pressure applied. D. Teflon or Viton seal rings are fitted

139. What kind of scavenging is shown on the top left drawing ?

A. Cross scavenging B. Transversal scavenging C. Loop scavenging D. Single valve uniflow

140. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top centre drawing ?

A. Cross scavenging B. Four-way uniflow C. Transversal D. Loop scavenging

141. What kind of diesel scavenging system is shown on the top right drawing ?

A. Loop scavenging B. Traverse scavenging C. Uniflow scavenging D. Cross scavenging

943

DPKP

142. What kind of scavenging system is shown on the bottom left drawing ? A. Loop scavenging B. Cross scavenging C. Transverse scavenging D. Uniflow scavenging

143. What kind of scavenge air system is shown on the right bottom drawing ? A. Unitlow scavenging B. Loop scavenging C. Balanced scavenging D. Cross scavenging

144. Loop scavenging, cross scavenging and traverse scavenging are called ………… scavenging, as opposed to UNIFLOW scavenging. A. REVERSE FLOW B. INVERSE FLOW C. MULTIFLOW D. DIVERSE FLOW

145. How is it ensured that the flow of the scavenge air is directed symmetrically through the cylinder ? A. By the uniflow system B. By the reverse system C. By the scavenge port shape D. By the turbocharger

944

DPKP

146. What common name is given for this type of fuel pump ? A. Bosh type fuel pump B. Rotating plunger type fuel pump C. Plunger type fuel pump D. M.A.N. type fuel pump

147. What determines the amount of fuel pumped per stroke with this fuel pump ? A. The setting of suction and overflow valve B. The lifting height of the plunger C. The setting of the overflow valve D. The rotating angle of the plunger in the barrel

148. How is the timing adjusted on this type fuel pump ? A. By the fuel cam setting B. By the plunger rotation C. By the suction valve setting D. By the delivery valve setting

945

DPKP

149. The fuel delivery pipe between fuel pump and injector, is shown here as a red interrupted line. For "UMS " classed vessel, how is this pipe best described ? A. It is manufactured of high tensile steel and has to have thermal insulation fitted B. It needs to be a shielded pipe so that in case of rupture the fuel leakage can be contained and the alarm sounded C. It is manufactured from Austenit Steel and has flame/smoke detectors fitted in the vicinity D. It must be provided with sensors so that the corresponding fuel pump cuts out in case of rupture

150. What is the mechanism that moves the injection needle upwards in the injector and causes the injector to spray fuel under pressure into the cylinder ? A. The balance pressure obtained by the injector spring B. The mechanical force of the fuel cam C. The hydraulic pressure in the fuel line D. The lifting pressure of the pump plunger 151. If you want to obtain a higher lift-off pressure in the injector, you can……. A. tension the fuel pump spring more. B. tension the injector spring more. C. adjust the fuel pump cam to advance. D. adjust the fuel oil cam to retard.

946

DPKP 152. The engine to which this fuel pump is fitted is ……..

A. a main engine with controllable-pitch propeller. B. an auxiliary engine fuelled by heavy fuel oil and driving an alternator. C. main engine with direct coupled shaft and propeller. D. an auxiliary engine fuelled by diesel oil driving an alternator.

153. The upward movement caused by the fuel cam is transferred to the plunger via the ………… on the pump. A. barrel B. plunger spring C. roller D. cam lever

154. The injector seen in the drawing is best described as ….

type injector.

A. forced circulation B. a heavy fuel oil C. a diesel oil D. a water cooled

947

DPKP

155. The end of the pumping action of this fuel pump is determined by the position of the……… A. fuel cam B. suction valve C. overflow valve D. pipe plunger

156. As an engine runs the position of the crankshaft changes constantly with respect to the engine bedplate. Distortions need to be measured and are called ……..

A. crankshaft distortion readings. B. crankshaft misalignment calibrations. C. crankshaft deflection measurements.. D. Any of these answers.

157. What is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head known as when the piston is at bottom dead center ? A. Any of these B. The stroke C. The compression clearance D. The combustion clearance

948

DPKP

158. In an engine operation, what is the effect called that describes the unstable operation of the governor that will not maintain a steady state condition ? A. Stability B. Sensitivity C. Deadbeat D. Hunting

159. In a diesel engine using a constant stroke fuel pump, to increase the firing pressure or maximum pressure in the cylinder the fuel pump plunger is adjusted by.. A. changing plungers. B. lowering the plunger. C. lifting the plunger. D. cleaning and lubricating the plunger.

160. When a new cylinder liner is fitted to a 2-stroke engine, which of the following steps should be taken ? I. Increase the cylinder oil flow. II. Reduce the cylinder load. III. Reduce the oil flow. A. I, II and lII B. I and II C. II and III D. I and III

161. When checking the tightness of nuts and bolts during a the quickest and most effective method is…… A. checking the tightness using torque spanners. B. checking the stress on the locking plates or split pins. C. checking bold clearances with feeler gauges. D. tapping the nuts and bolts with a hammer.

949

DPKP

162. If you get a heavy scavenging air fire, which of these parts is likely to take the most serious damage? A. The exhaust valve. B. The piston. C. The crosshead bearing. D. The stuffing box. 163. In diesel engines, cylinder lubrication has the primary function of …. A. cooling the piston which would otherwise overheat and ensure that the carbon between the piston rings is cleared away. B. ensuring that cylinder liner and piston are well oiled so that they will not overheat. C. flushing the carbon residue from the piston skirt and wash it down into the scavenge space. D. forming a film between liner and rings acting as a sealing barrier to prevent the escape of combustion gases, at same time reduce friction of parts.

164. Broken piston rings on diesel engines, if not visibly broken, can be identified because ……. A. the piston skirts show marks of burned oil. B. the ring or groove clearances have worn in excess. C. the piston crowns have developed hot spots and burning arks over the surface. D. they are darker in colour and lack elasticity when pushed towards the inside of their grooves.

165. Fire in the scavenging chambers of diesel engines may be caused by combustion of carbon deposits accumulated over an extended period due to…….. A. locked stuffing box drain piping or worn stuffing box ear rings or sealing rings. B. slow combustion caused by poor injection. C. excessive lubrication of the cylinder liner. D. wrong grade fuel oils used for extended period in the engine.

950

DPKP 166. Diesel Engine crankcase oil mist detectors are designed to analyse…. A. the temperature of the bearings in the crankcase. B. the temperature of the oil in the crankcase. C. the concentration of oil vapours in the crankcase. D. fire risk in the crankcase. 167. The direction of flow of cooling water in an engine is always……. A. from left to right. B. from bottom to top. C. from right to left. D. from top to bottom.

168. Which part of a diesel engine keeps the engine speed constant regardless of the engine load ? A. The manoeuvring controller B. The vibration damper C. The flywheel D. The governor 169. Automatic shutdown of the main diesel engine always acts on the……. A. manoeuvring disc. B. fuel supply. C. control air supply. D. governor.

170. Putting additives into diesel engines cooling water is primary designed to prevent…. A. freezing. B. leakages. C. scaling. D. overheating.

951

DPKP

171. In the Main Engine sea water circuit why are the Lub Oil and the Scavenge air coolers fitted in front of the jacket and piston water coolers ?

A. The Scavenge air and Lub Oil coolers have by-pass valves fitted B. For no particular reason C. They need more cooling water D. The Lub Oil and Scavenge air temperatures are lower

172. Pressure in the combustion chamber can be reduced by: A. a burnt piston top B. a leaking exhaust valve C. All of these. D. a piston ring failure

173. Temperature in the combustion chamber will be reduced by: A. not using the auxiliary fan B. a defective fuel valve C. lubrication low pressure D. a low air pressure

952

DPKP

174. Which part is the fresh water cooler ?

A. Number 6 B. Number 7 C. Number 1 D. Number 4

175. What is part number 5 ?

A. A double valve B. A controllable thermostat C. A thermostat D. A three way valve

176. What part is the de-airating tank ?

A. Number 4 B. Number 7 C. Number 1 D. Number 6

953

DPKP

177. Pipe number 8 is connected to the salt water cooling system. Why ? A. To back flush the cooling water system B. For use in an emergency only C. Any of the above D. To operate the cooling system with salt water during cleaning of the fresh water generator

178. What is the purpose of part number 6 ? A. To prevent accumulation of air in the cooling system B. To prevent an increase in water pressure C. To measure difference of pressure before and after the cooler D. To be an extra expansion tank

179. What is the purpose of the expansion tank ? A. To act as a spare tank in case the pressure is dropping B. To take up the difference of water volume with changes of temperature C. To store extra water D. To take up the difference of water pressure with changes of temperature

180. Which of the following is a record of the pressure existing in the cylinder at vacuum positions of the piston throughout the engine cycle ? A. An Indicator diagram B. a Cycle diagram C. A Timing diagram D. A Temperature diagram

954

DPKP

181. To find the indicated power developed in the cylinder the indicator card is used to determine the…….. A. mean effective pressure. B. compression pressure. C. mean height of the diagram. D. bring pressure.

182. How is the exhaust gas turbocharger cooled in relation to the engine ? A. In tandem with the cylinders. B. In series with the cylinders. C. In parallel with the cylinders. D. In line with the cylinders.

183. The revolutions on the turbocharger have increased during the night with unmanned engine. This is be cause by ……… A. the wind and current holding the vessel back. B. the wind and current being favourable. C. poor combustion due to malfunction of fuel valves. D. the viscosity of the fuel being high.

184. Which of the following is the distance between the piston and the cylinder head when the piston is at bottom dead center ? A. Compression clearance B. Combustion clearance C. Cylinder clearance D. Any of these

185. An engine's fuel pump supplies fuel in excess of the fuel consumed and this excess fuel is returned to the pump suction via the …. A. non-return valve. B. fuel rack. C. pressure regulating valve. D. plunger.

955

DPKP

186. Failed O-rings on a 2 stage air compressor cylinder liner have resulted in a water leak. Where is the leaking water most likely to go when the compressor is operating? A.

Into the crankcase and mix with the lube oil.

B.

Into the LP cylinder.

C.

Into the HP cylinder.

D.

Into the intercooler.

187. For which duties are gear and screw pumps normally employed? A.

Fuel and lubricating oil services.

B.

Jacket cooling water circulation for diesel engines.

C.

Bilge pumping.

D.

Main sea water circulation systems.

188. From the options given, select the conditions that you would expect to give best separation results from a centrifuge operating as a purifier. A.

High temperature and low flow rate.

B.

High flow rate and low temperature.

C.

High flow rate and high temperature.

D.

Low flow rate and low temperature.

189. How is the condenser cooling water flow regulating valve automatically controlled in a vapour compression refrigeration system? A.

By the compressor discharge pressure.

B.

By the temperature in the refrigerated room.

C.

By the quantity of refrigerant in the system.

D.

By the temperature of the refrigerant after the evaporator.

190. How is the condenser in a fresh water evaporator normally cooled? A.

With seawater

B.

With distillate

C.

With air

D.

With brine

956

DPKP

191. How often should an oxygen analyser instrument for the inert gas system be calibrated? A. Prior to every plant start-up following a shut down of 8 hours or more. B. Every time the plant is shut-down C. At regular intervals D. On Chief Officers order

192. In a low pressure auxiliary boiler, what would be considered to be the maximum allowable chloride level of the boiler water? A. 300 PPM. B. 600 PPM. C. 1000 PPM. D. 50 PPM.

193. In a low pressure, auxiliary boiler, water tests show that the p-alkalinity is 50 ppm CaCO3. What action should be taken? A. Increase the dosage of boiler water treatment. B. Blow down the boiler and reduce dosage of boiler water treatment. C. No action is necessary because this is a normal reading.. D. Reduce dosage of boiler water treatment.

194. In a purifier assuming the separating temperature is correct, what is the probable cause of the processed oil containing water? A. The gravity disc is too small and/or the flow rate is too high B. The gravity disc is too large C. The throughput is too low D. The back pressure at the clean oil outlet is too high

957

DPKP

195. The amp-load for an electric motor driving a centrifugal pump has gradually reduced over a period of service. The pump is still supplying water but at a reduced pressure and flow. Which of the alternatives given is the probable reason for this? A. The pump impeller and wear rings have worn. B. The pump is running at a lower speed due to a short circuit in the electric motor. C. The pump has suction from a number of sources at the same time. D. The suction strainer element has been removed so the pump is more efficient.

196. What action should be taken if a purifier starts to vibrate heavily during normal operations? A. Stop the purifier immediately. Check the machine for fouling or mechanical damage. Donot restart until cause is identified and fault rectified. B. Stop the purifier and then restart it C. Change the flow rate. D. Leave the purifier running and check it again after its next scheduled sludge cycle.

197. What action should be taken if the heat transfer capacity of a heat exchanger operating as a lubricating oil cooler is reducing? A. The heat transfer surfaces should be cleaned. B. Increase the cooling water pressure. C. Decrease the lubricating oil flowrate. D. Increase the lubricating oil flowrate.

198. What cooling medium is normally used to cool the condenser of a fresh water generator? A. Seawater B. Distillate (Freshwater) C. Air D. Brine

958

DPKP

199. What effect does an increased oil feed flow rate have on the performance of a centrifuge operating as a purifier? A. Separating efficiency is reduced. B. Separating efficiency is increased, more water is removed. C. Separating efficiency is unchanged. D. Separating efficiency is increased, more solids are removed.

200. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a centrifugal pump? A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve. B. By throttling of the pump suction valve. C. By adjusting the pump relief valve. D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

201. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system? A. Liquid at high pressure. B. Vapour at high pressure. C. Liquid at low pressure. D. Vapour at low pressure.

202. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board ship? A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea water. B. It is a simple system with minimum control requirements. C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties. D. It does not require any seawater.

959

DPKP

203. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh water in a central cooling system? A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers. B. Insufficient cooling water treatment. C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the turbochargers. D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.

204. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator? A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned. B. High fuel oil temperature. C. Broken water seal. D. Drive clutch slipping.

205. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a centrifugal pump when it is running? A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation. B. Water hammer in the pump casing. C. Fluid friction in the suction line. D. Pump suction valve fully open.

206. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit? A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the evaporator. B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor. C. To control the cargo hold temperature. D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.

960

DPKP

207. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration compressor? A. The same as the suction pressure. B. The same as the discharge pressure. C. The same as the atmospheric pressure. D. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.

208. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor discharge of an air conditioning system? A. + 85 ° C B. + 5 ° C C. -10 ° C D. + 40 ° C

209. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil throughput rate is too great? A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to discharge from the water outlet. B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will be lost. C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil outlet. D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.

210. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a centrifuge in order to ensure good separation? A. 95 - 98 Celsius. B. 85 - 88 Celsius C. 75 - 78 Celsius. D. 105 - 108 Celsius.

961

DPKP

211. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil based lubricating oil in a centrifuge? A. 65 -85 C. B. 45 - 65 C. C. 85 - 105 C. D. < 45 C.

212. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a refrigeration compressor? A. + 1.0 bar B. - 0.5 bar C. + 5.0 bar D. + 10 bar

213. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low pressure auxiliary boiler? A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3. B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3. C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3. D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.

214. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the discharge valve closed for an extended period of time? A. The pump will eventually overheat. B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to the bilge. C. The electric motor will eventually overheat. D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

962

DPKP

215. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling water flow through the condenser? A. Increased delivery pressure B. Reduced delivery pressure C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line. D. reduced suction pressure

216. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement, what is the purpose of the clarifier? A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal. B. To stabilise the feed temperature. C. To increase the overall throughput rate. D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

217. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning system evaporator icing up? A. Too low suction pressure. B. Too high discharge pressure. C. Low sea water temperature. D. High sea water temperature..

218. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air compressors? A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage piston. B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston. C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage. D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from each stage is equal.

963

DPKP

219. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger during operation? A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for both fluids. B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid. C. Pressure drop for cooling water. D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

220. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator? A. Chromates are poisonous. B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water generators. C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh water generator. D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any cooling water system.

221. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors? A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase when the compressor is stopped. B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil.. C. To boil off any water from condensation in the crankcase. D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing.

222. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems? A. To prevent biological growth in the system. B. To prevent corrosion of the system C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system. D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.

964

DPKP

223. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system? A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central cooling system in the event of seal failure. B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat exchanger. D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

224. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is the difference between a purifier and a clarifier. A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil, whereas in a purifier both solids and water are removed from the oil B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil. D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

225. What is the correct method to be used to obtain a reduced output from a centrifugal pump? A. By throttling of the pump discharge valve. B. By throttling of the pump suction valve. C. By adjusting the pump relief valve. D. By opening the pump recirculation line.

226. What is the expected state of the refrigerant immediately before the expansion valve in a vapour - compression refrigeration system? A. Liquid at high pressure. B. Vapour at high pressure. C. Liquid at low pressure. D. Vapour at low pressure.

965

DPKP

227. What is the main advantage of having a central cooling system fitted on board ship? A. It should require less maintenance than a conventional system using only sea water. B. It is a simple system with minimum control requirements. C. Only one heat exchanger is needed for all cooling duties. D. It does not require any seawater.

228. What is the most likely cause of an increase in the chloride content of the fresh water in a central cooling system? A. Leakage of sea water from the central coolers. B. Insufficient cooling water treatment. C. Exhaust gas leakage into the freshwater at the turbochargers. D. Leakage from an oil cooler into the fresh water system.

229. What is the most likely cause of the clean oil outlet pressure being higher than normal when operating a centrifuge as a fuel oil separator? A. Valve in the outlet line incorrectly positioned. B. High fuel oil temperature. C. Broken water seal. D. Drive clutch slipping.

230. What is the most likely reason for vibration and noise at the suction side of a centrifugal pump when it is running? A. Collapsing vapour bubbles due to cavitation. B. Water hammer in the pump casing. C. Fluid friction in the suction line. D. Pump suction valve fully open.

966

DPKP

231. What is the purpose of an expansion valve in a refrigeration system circuit? A. To control the flow rate of liquid refrigerant to the evaporator. B. To control the suction pressure at the compressor. C. To control the cargo hold temperature. D. To control the cooling water temperature through the condenser.

232. What pressure is present in the crankcase of a vapour compression refrigeration compressor? A. The same as the suction pressure. B. The same as the discharge pressure. C. The same as the atmospheric pressure. D. The same as the lubricating oil pressure.

233. What refrigerant temperature would you expect to find at the compressor discharge of an air conditioning system? A. + 85 ° C B. + 5 ° C C. -10 ° C D. + 40 ° C

234. What will happen with the oil water interface in the purifier bowl if the dirty oil throughput rate is too great? A. The interface will move outwards allowing oil to discharge from the water outlet. B. The bowl will be forced open and the interface will be lost. C. The interface will move inwards allowing water to discharge through the oil outlet. D. The throughput rate has no effect on the interface.

967

DPKP

235. What would be a typical oil feed temperature for purifying heavy fuel oil in a centrifuge in order to ensure good separation? A. 95 - 98 Celsius. B. 85 - 88 Celsius C. 75 - 78 Celsius. D. 105 - 108 Celsius.

236. What would be a typical separating temperature range for purifying mineral oil based lubricating oil in a centrifuge? A. 65 -85 C. B. 45 - 65 C. C. 85 - 105 C. D. < 45 C.

237. What would be a typical setting for the low lubricating pressure trip for a refrigeration compressor? A. + 1.0 bar B. - 0.5 bar C. + 5.0 bar D. + 10 bar

238. What would be considered as an acceptable range for the p-alkalinity in a low pressure auxiliary boiler? A. 100 - 300 ppm CaCO3. B. 0 - 100 ppm CaCO3. C. 300 - 600 ppm CaCO3. D. 600 - 1000 ppm CaCO3.

968

DPKP

239. What would be the consequence of operating a centrifugal pump with the discharge valve closed for an extended period of time? A. The pump will eventually overheat. B. The pump relief valve will open and discharge to the bilge. C. The electric motor will eventually overheat. D. The electrical motor overload will eventually trip.

240. What would be the main effect on a refrigeration system of insufficient cooling water flow through the condenser? A. Increased delivery pressure B. Reduced delivery pressure C. Increased icing up of the compressor suction line. D. reduced suction pressure

241. When operating two centrifuges in series, in a purifier and clarifier arrangement, what is the purpose of the clarifier? A. To improve the efficiency of solids removal. B. To stabilise the feed temperature. C. To increase the overall throughput rate. D. To improve the efficiency of water removal.

242. Which of the following conditions could be the cause of an air conditioning system evaporator icing up? A. Too low suction pressure. B. Too high discharge pressure. C. Low sea water temperature. D. High sea water temperature..

969

DPKP

243. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to two stage air compressors? A. The smallest diameter piston is the second stage piston. B. The largest diameter piston is the second stage piston. C. A greater mass of air is delivered by the first stage than the second stage. D. The pistons for both stages are the same diameter so that air delivery from each stage is equal.

244. Which parameters are required in order to evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger during operation? A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops for both fluids. B. Inlet and outlet temperatures for either fluid. C. Pressure drop for cooling water. D. Outlet temperatures for both fluids

245. Why are Chromate Based Cooling Water Treatments not allowed when the cooling system is connected to a fresh water generator? A. Chromates are poisonous. B. Chromates react with the materials used in fresh water generators. C. Chromates increases the chloride level in the fresh water generator. D. Chromate based cooling water treatments are not allowed to be used in any cooling water system.

246. Why are crankcase heaters fitted to some refrigeration system compressors? A. To prevent refrigerant condensing in the crankcase when the compressor is stopped. B. To control the viscosity of the lubricating oil.. C. To boil off any water from condensation in the crankcase. D. To prevent ice from forming on the compressor casing. 970

DPKP

247. Why are hypochlorite based treatments used on some sea water cooling systems? A. To prevent biological growth in the system. B. To prevent corrosion of the system C. To increase the heat transfer capacity of the system. D. To reduce sediment build up in the system.

248. Why is it preferable to have the sea water pressure lower than the fresh water pressure in a sea water cooled heat exchanger for a central cooling system? A. Prevent seawater contaminaton of the central cooling system in the event of seal failure. B. To reduce any scale deposits on seawater side C. To reduce erosion of the seawater side of the heat exchanger. D. To minimise the load on the seawater pump motor.

249. With reference to using centrifuges for cleaning fuel and lubricating oil what is the difference between a purifier and a clarifier. A. In a clarifier only solids are removed from the oil, whereas in a purifier both solids and water are removed from the oil B. There is no difference, both use centrifugal force C. Purifiers are used when only solids are present in the oil. D. Clarifiers are used when water is present in the oil.

250. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence of activities ? A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8 971

DPKP

sec: the power is restored

251. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator is by….. A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or deficiencies. B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is available in port. C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board. D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

252. In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ? A. In the rotor B. In the sliprings C. In the stator D. In the excitatory

253. How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ? A. By the excitation current in the rotor B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard C. By the excitation current in the stator D. By the alternator speed

254. The reason why two-stage starting air compressors are used in preference to single stage compression is that ......... A. the temperature developed by single stage compression would be too high. B. the starting air current of a single stage compressor would be too high. C. the power absorption by single stage compression would be too high. D. the friction in a single stage compressor would be too high.

972

DPKP

255. In what kind of machinery do you find this type of valve fitted ?

A. Main engine scavenge air manifold B. Air compressors cylinder heads C. Auxiliary diesel crankcase doors D. Ventilation air ducts

256. Which kind of cooling water system is used with this compressor ?

A. Free flow fresh water cooling B. Forced sea water cooling C. Open free flow sea water cooling D. Forced fresh water cooling

257. What is the indication of the inlet of the cooling water in position "I" of both cylinders ? A. Water inlet of cylinders B. Water inlet of cylinders/intercoolers C. Water inlet of aftercoolers D. Water inlet of Intercoolers

973

DPKP

258. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0 kg/cm2. What class of compressor could this be ? A. An instrument air compressor. B. A service air compressor. C. A starting air compressor. D. A working air compressor.

259. What are the units marked "C" fitted on both cylinders ? A. Aftercoolers B. Cooling water vessels C. Intercoolers D. Cylinder blocks

260. When is manual by-pass valve of this compressor cooler ''CW" operated ? A. During normal running to keep the temperature constant B. In cold climates to avoid moisture C. When the compressor is new/overhauled with new rings D. When the compressor is started to allow for temperature rise

261. This drawing indicates the timing of the unloader and drains of a compressor. After how many seconds will the compressor pump at full capacity ? A. Somewhere between 7 and 14 seconds B. 12 seconds C. 14 seconds D. 7 seconds

974

DPKP

262. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain valves closed ? A. So the pumping action can blow the drains through B. To prevent the compressor fromtripping C. To avoid the safety valves blowing D. To avoid air blowing in the bilges

263. Why is it necessary to start a compressor with the drains open ? A. To get rid of all the dirt inside B. To avoid overloading C. To hear that it is delivering pressure D. To blow clear the inevitable moisture of

264. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way ? A. It keeps the suctions valves closed B. it keeps the delivery valvesclosed C. It keeps the suction valves open D. It keeps the delivery valves open

265. What is the function of item "PC" ? A. Pressure Container admitting air to air bottle B. Piston

Controller

activating

compressor piston movement C. Pressure Controller activating 3-way valve solenoid D. Pressure

Container

activating

automatic pressure release valve

975

DPKP

266. What is item "U" how does it act on item "S" ? A. Item "U" is the unloader lifting the compressor suction valve B. Item "U" is the upper pressure limit valve activating the solenoid C. Item "U" is the activator for the safety release valve D. Item "U" is the uplifter of the air bottle's safety valve.

267. What would be the pressure in the air bottle which activates the "PC" and "S" connecting the unloader line with c and a? A. Between 6.5 and 8.5 kg/cm2 B. Between 8.5 and 9.35 kg/cm2 C. Between 0 and 8.5 kg/cm2 D. Between 8.5 and 10.0 kg/cm2

268. What is the purpose of the stuffing box in this combined piston compressor assembly ? A. All of these. B. To prevent oil from being pumped up to the pumping piston C. As sealing between pumping cylinder and guide cylinder D. To keep the air of the pumping space separated from the guide

269. In this oil-free compressor, of what material are the piston rings of the pumping piston "P" made? A. Ribbed alloy B. Chromium C. Slotted chromium D. Carbon

976

DPKP

270. Which main compressor is normally used to top up the main air bottles ?

For No. 17 - 26

A. Main air compressor No 1 B. Main air compressor No 1 or No 2 C. Main air compressor No 2 D. Main air compressor No 1 and No 2

271. During vessel manoeuvring, which Main Air Bottles are used ? A. No 1 and No 2 Main Air Bottle B. No 1 or No 2 Main Air Bottle C. No 1 Main Air Bottle D. No 2 Main Air Bottle

272. What are items "NR "fitted after the compressors. A. Demisters B. Oil separators C. Check valves D. safety valves

977

DPKP

273. What kind of filling valves are fitted on all the air bottles ? A. High pressure butterfly valves B. High pressure remote-control valves C. High pressure gate valves D. High pressure S.D. check valves

274. What is item "M" fitted in the discharge line of the Instrument Air Compressor (I.A.C.) ? A. A moisture separator B. A drain valve C. An oil separator D. An automatic drain valve

275. What is the primary purpose of drain valves "D" fitted on all air bottles ? A. To remove excessive oil from the bottle B. To remove water and condensate from the bottle C. To remove dirt from the bottle D. To blow the bottles empty if required

276. Which of the appendages listed below is NOT usually fitted on a compressed air bottle ? A. A manometer B. A drain valve C. A thermometer D. A safety valve

277. What is item "A.D." in the main air supply line from the Instrument Air Bottle ? A. An air dryer B. An air drain C. An air safety discharge valve D. An air pressure safety device

978

DPKP

278. What are items "CP" fitted in the Working Air and Instrument Air supply lines ? A. Pressure capacity vessels B. Pressure relief units C. Condensate pots D. Constant pressure vessels

279. Suppose you find that the safety valve of the Working Air Bottle blows off at a pressure in excess of 8.5 g/cm2. Which of the causes listed below is not a possible cause for this lifting of the safety valve ? A. Insufficient air consumption by the working air consumers B. Compressor unloader is stuck in loading position C. Pressure reducing valve from main air bottle defective or stuck D. Setting of cut-in / cut-out pressostat wrongly adjusted or defective

280. What is part No 3 of this valve ?

A. A suction/discharge plate disc B. A valve flexible disc C. A feather spring plate D. A disc connecting plate

281. How do you to make valve air tight during overhaul?

A. By lapping and polishing valve disc 4 and seat plate 5 B. By fitting O-rings on seat plate 5 C. By fitting cupper gaskets to the valve body D. By machining the seat of valve disc 4 and seat plate 5

979

DPKP

282. What will happen if the seat plate 5 is grinded too much so that the distance of the value disc 4 in open position increases ? Same applies for the suction as well as for the delivery valve.

A. The thermodynamic efficiency decreases B. The maximum output pressure decreases C. All of these. D. The compression ratio decreases

283. How is the value shown here made air tight in the cylinder head of the compressor ?

A. Face to face polished in the cylinder head seat B. An 0-ring of perbunan is fitted between valve and seat C. A flat Teflon or Viton gasket is fitted D. A copper gasket is fitted

980

DPKP

284. In which kind of compressor is this type of piston assemble fitted A. Refrigeration compressor B. Service air compressor C. CO2 compressor D. Oil-free instrument air compressor

285. How is this type valve kept in place in the cylinder head of an air compressor ?

A. It is pressed down on seating by a pressure bolt in the cylinder head B. It is fitted in a valve housing which is bolted by a flange onto the cylinder head C. It is screwed into the value space of the cylinder head D. It is kept in place by a collar flange, bolted on the cylinder head

981

DPKP

286. Why is a heavy flywheel (item number 7) required on this starting air compressor ? A. To accelerate evenly when starting B. To absorb the large torsional forces (2 cylinder) C. To

avoid

stalling

when

drain

and

unloaders close D. To absorb the vibrations due to high speed (900 - 720 RPM)

287. How are the cylinder liners and piston rings of main air compressors usually lubricated ? A. Ho lubrication is required B. By splash lubrication C. By an oil wick D. By a small lubricator drop by drop via the suction valve

288. In which machinery can you not add oil when running? A. Air compressors or refrigerant compressors B. Hydraulic power packs C. Main Engine or Auxiliary Diesels D. Steering machinery or stern tube header tanks

289. When would the high sea suction values be used? A. When the ship is in shallow water B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea C. When the ship is in ballast condition D. When the ship is in polluted waters

982

DPKP

290. Can leaking stern tube seals be replaced when the vessel is afloat and if yes, how? A. Yes, ballast the ship until the stern tube is clear of the water B. Yes, but only the forward seal can be replaced C. No, they can only be replaced in dry-dock D. Yes, with divers working under water whilst the forward seal is blanked

291. How is stern tube wear down measured when in dry-dock? A. By blade feelers inserted in the after seal B. By a poker gauge, inserted in the plugm above the stern boss tube C. By measuring the lift on the shaft D. By blade feelers inserted in the forward bush from the engine roo

292. What is the purpose of the 3-way cock sited in the lowest point of the stern tube oil circuit? A. To change from main to forward stern tube sealing circuit B. To drain or sample the oil from the stern tube bearing C. To remove air from the system D. To fill oil in the system

293. Why is the stern tube header tank fitted above the sea water level? A. To avoid sea water entering the stern tube B. Ensure lubrication of the forward stern tube seal C. Ensure lubrication of the after stern tube seal D. To prevent bilge water entering the stern tube

294. What type of strainer is used in a turbine lub oil system to remove metallic particles? A. A Metal edge strainer B. A Fuller's earth strainer C. A Magnetic basket strainer D. A Simplex strainer

983

DPKP

295. What is the steering system oil tank within the steering pedestal? A. Header tank for the auto pilot control system B. Main hydraulic system header tank C. Lubrication tank for the steering gear linkage D. Reservoir for the telemotor system

296. What type of filling value is fitted on all air bottles? A. High pressure S.D. check values B. High pressure remote-control values C. High pressure gate values D. High pressure butterfly value

297. What regular maintenance is required on the burner? A. Cleaning and resetting of the air register B. Overhauling of the shut-off valves C. Renewing of the electrodes D. Cleaning of the burner tips

298. What is the first action when flashing up a boiler? A. Start up the water feed pump B. Clean the burner nozzle C. Purge furnace with air D. Power the oil pressure

299. What is the effect if the fuel oil temperature is too low? A. Flame impingement and refractory damage B. Blocking of fuel filters C. Fuel delivery pump cutting out D. Flame failure

984

DPKP

300. What is the most dangerous effect of water in fuel? A. Damage to furnace refractory B. Loss of boiler efficiency C. Extinguishing of burner flame D. Poor combustion

301. What purpose is the settling tank? A. To settle out sludge B. To settle out all impurities C. To settle out water D. To settle out suspended solids

302. What is the function of a Viscotherm? A. Controlling fuel pressure and temperature B. To control viscosity by altering temperature C. To regulate the fuel pressure D. To control the fuel temperature

303. What is the most damaging fuel contaminant? A. Plater B. Sludge C. Bacterial growth D. Suspended solids

304. What are gauze element filters designed to remove? A. Fine non-metallic solids B. Water and sludge C. Metallic particles D. Coarse solids

985

DPKP

305. What could be the purpose of checking the fuel pump spill position? A. To check the position the fuel pump ceases delivery. B. To check the tightness of the pump delivery value. C. To check the amount of fuel the pump will deliver.° D. To check the start point of injection

306. How does the fuel pump rack adjust the fuel delivery? A. By altering the length of time the fuel pump roller contacts the cam B. By increasing the delivery pressure C. By altering the opening and closing of the delivery valve D. By altering the effective stroke of the plunger

307. What is the required temperature in the ship's fish room? A. From -15 to -20 deg. C. B. From -5 to -10 deg. C. C. From 0 to -5 deg. C. D. Below -25 deg. C.

308. How are boiler tubes secured in the end plates? A. Screwed B. Expanded C. Screwed collar on the outside of the plate D. Welded

309. What is the most damaging on riveted mountings? A. Rusting of the rivet heads B. Raising steam too quickly C. Chloride levels too high D. Leakage through the rivets

986

DPKP

310. What condition would necessitate blowing down the boiler? A. Water level too high B. PH reading below 7 ppm C. Steam pressure too high D. Chloride readings too high

311. Why are some boiler tubes not plain cylindrical? A. To reduce scale formation. B. To facilitate gas flow. C. To glue a greater heating area. D. For extra strength

312. What test is used in boilers to detect leaks after structural repairs? A. A hydrostatic test B. A penetrant dye crack test C. An efficiencytest D. Air pressure test

313. What is the term for the weakening of boiler steel, as the result of inner crystalline cracking? A. Caustic embrittlement. B. Exposure stress. C. Corrosion. D. Alkaline stress.

314. What dailytest should be carried out on boiler water? A. Chloride0 B. Sludge C. Dissolved nitrogen^ D. Dissolved oxygen°

987

DPKP

315. What is the most dangerous effect of scale build up in the water space? A. Flame impingement on the furnace walls B. Overheating and deformation of furnace C. Damage to feed water values D. Loss of boiler efficiency

316. What is the test to determine the discharge capacity of boiler safety values? A. Safety value adjustment test. B. Steam stop test. C. Pop test. D. Accumulation test.

317. Why are cylindrical boiler end plates of dished shape? A. Increased water capacity B. Stronger than flat plates C. Easier access to manhole doors D. Better accommodates the furnace

318. What mountings must be tested daily on steaming boilers? A. Water level indicators B. Main feed water check values C. Safety value easing gear D. Boiler blow down values

319. What material is the boiler shell constructed from? A. High tensile steel B. Good quality low carbon steel^ C. High grade Molybdenum steel^ D. High carbon steel

988

DPKP

320. What is the usual pressure adjustment method on safety values? A. Machineable adjustment rings B. Removable shim packs C. Different rate springs D. Set bolt and locknut

321. What is the purpose of the scum values? A. Draining the boiler water to the bilge B. Removal of scum from boiler water surface C. Removal of scum from feed tank water D. Removal of scum from drains observation tank

322. What best describes the "easing gear"? A. Manual lifting arrangement of safety valves B. Feed control unit C. Remote operation of stop valves D. Reduction gearing to facilitate opening of main stop valves

323. What term is used to describe access holes to the boiler drum? A. Manholes B. Furnace inspection panels C. Access spaces D. Inspection holes

324. What mountings must be dismantled for inspection during survey? A. Feed water check valves B. Safety values C. Gauge glass & value components D. AIl boiler mountings

989

DPKP

325. What is "simmer" in a safety value? A. A metallic hammering noise B. A hissing sound indicating that a safety value is leaking C. A failure of a safety value to re-seat D. Initial leakage before the safety value opens

326. What is the purpose of air release valves on boiler shell? A. To vent the boiler when shut down.0 B. To expel air when filling the boiler. C. To expel air when raising steam.0 D. To check when steam is being produced.

327. How is "water hammer" best avoided in steam lines? A. Leave main stops and line values open when shutting down the boiler B. Ensure lines are drained and open valves slowly C. Open line valves as quickly as possible D. Fully open main stops and line valves when raising steam

328. What controls feed water delivery? A. Water level control of feed water inlet value B. Steam demand C. Water level control of feed pump D. Feed water tank level

329. What is the function of the Low Level alarm? A. Sound low level alarm B. Sound alarm and shut down boiler burner C. Reduce the oil supply to the boiler burner D. Increase the feed water supply

990

DPKP

330. If the gauge glass indicates no water level what is your first action? A. Check the feed tank water level B. Shut off all the burners C. Blow down the gauge glass D. Check the operation of the feed pump

331. What action would you take if Chloride readings are too high? A. Add more chemical to the feed water B. Drain and refill the feed water tank C. Increase frequency of testing D. Blow down the boiler regularly until readings are acceptable

332. What action should you take in the case of an uptake fire? A. Shut off burners, shut down fans and close off air supply B. Operate soot blowers to extinguish fire C. Shut down burners but maintain fans to clear fire D. Increase air supply to burn fire out

333. What percentage CO2 in the flue gases would indicate correct combustion? A. 5% B. 20% C. 7% D. 13%

334. A hydrazine test is conducted on boiler water to check for: A. Sulphates B. Nitrates C. Phosphates D. Excess oxygen

991

DPKP

335. What is the most likely source of Chloride contamination? A. Fuel heater B. Feed water tank C. Accommodation heating D. Trains cooler

336. What is the possible consequence of too high a water level in the boiler? A. Insufficient steam generation B. Feed pump cutting out C. Boiler shutting down D. Carry-over of the boiler water

337. When testing for chlorides what does the test indicate? A. Total dissolved solids present in the water B. Phosphate present in the water C. Alkalinity level D. Solids in the water from sea contamination

338. What damage could be caused by raising steam too quickly? A. Overpressure of the shell B. Lifting the safety values C. Damage to refractory D. Excess soot deposits

339. What term is used for unequal distribution of burner spray in the furnace? A. Combustion air imbalance B. Unequal firing C. Furnace distortion D. Flame impingement

992

DPKP

340. What would your first action be if the feed pump stopped? A. Shut the main stop valves B. Check the gauge glass readings C. Change over to the auxiliary feed pump D. Shut down the boiler burners

341. Is it possible to blow down a steaming boiler? A. No, this should never be carried out B. Yes but steam pressure should be maintained C. Yes but never allow the level to disappear from the gauge glass D. Only in an extreme emergency

342. How is temperature controlled in a steam oil heater? A. Steam inlet value throttled B. Oil flow increased C. Steam supply pressure reduced D. Steam outlet value throttled

343. Why is a by-pass fitted onto the cooling water of the charge air cooler? A. To prevent overcooling of the charge air B. To prevent the air temperature going too high C. To allow increased Jacket water flow to the water spaces D. To maintain the jacket water temperature

344. What precaution must be observed when fitting new anodes? A. PTFE tape applied to the plug threads to enable easy removal B. Ensure the anode is as close as possible to the tube plate C. Ensure no damage is caused to the exterior surface of the anode. D. Ensure good, clean contact is made between anode and cooler body

993

DPKP

345. How is temperature controlled in a jacket water heat exchanger? A. Jacket water bypassing the heat exchanger B. Regulating the sea water inlet value C. Seawater bypassing the heat exchanger D. Regulating the sea water outlet value

346. What could be the effect of excess steam or reduced oil flow in an oil heater ? A. Carbon formation B. Deformation C. Corrosion D. Fitting

347. What is the plate material used in sea- water, plate heat exchangers? A. Stainless steel B. Bronze C. Cupro Nickel D. Titanium

348. Why are anodes fitted to the seawater side of heat exchangers? A. To afford corrosion protection to the heat exchanger B. To prevent the formation of marine growth in the water spaces C. To afford corrosion protection for the system pipes and values D. To prevent scaling of the tubes and tube plates

349. What is the main advantage of plate heat exchangers? A. Require less maintenance B. Easier to clean C. More efficient and take up less space D. Cheaper to install

994

DPKP

350. How is the quality of the distilled water from a fresh water generator improved? A. Decreasing the jacket water flow to the evaporator B. Decreasing the seawater feed to the evaporator C. Slowing down the output of the evaporator D. Increasing the shell vacuum

351. What is the required salinity of the fresh water produced as drinking water onboard? A. Below 50 ppm B. Below 7 ppm C. Below 2 ppm D. Below 20 ppm

352. What liquid is present in the collecting point at the bottom of the evaporator? A. Brine B. Fresh water C. Sea water D. Ejector water

353. What is the maximum salinity for water produced by a fresh water generator when it is to be used in water ube medium pressure boilers? A. 20 ppm B. 15 ppm C. 7 ppm D. 2 ppm

354. How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator ? A. By the condensing effect in the condenser B. By the vapour ejector driven bythe ejector pump C. By pumping or ejecting out the brine D. By the differential temperature of fresh and sea water

995

DPKP

355. Why is a baffle plate fitted between evaporator and condenser? A. To maintain vacuum inside the shell. B. To prevent carry over of brine C. To maintain the evaporator temperature D. To cool the vapour

356. What is the main advantage of vacuum production of FW? A. Low cost of distillation equipment B. Utilizes waste heat from the main engine C. Less possibility of contamination D. Simpler to operate

357. What precaution is necessary before starting the distillate pump? A. The vacuum in the evaporator is still minimum B. The discharge valve of the pump is shut C. The pump is primed via the priming line D. Water is visible in the sight glass of the condenser

358. How far from the coast is it permitted to use Low-pressure evaporation to produce drinking water? A. 20 miles B. 30 miles C. 5 miles D. 12 miles

359. Why is it necessaryto produce fresh water from seawater? A. To save cost B. To ensure purity C. To make use of waste engine heat D. Limited shipboard storage.

996

DPKP

360. What factors influence the vacuum inside the shell of a fresh water generator? A. The temperature of the sea water cooling the condenser B. The pressure of the ejector water on the vacuum ejector C. All of these. D. The temperature of the fresh water heating the evaporator

361. In a single stage air compressor what is the maximum practical delivery pressure? A. 15 bar B. 7 bar C. 3 bar D. 10 bar

362. What is the purpose of the automatic unloading value? A. Unload the compressor at working air pressure B. Avoid high starting current on the motor C. Avoid the first stage relief values lifting when starting D. Prevent damage to the values when starting

363. In the case of air-cooled compressors what form does the cooler take? A. Horizontal box section pipes B. Finned circular pipes C. Honeycombed radiator D. Vertical flattened pipes

364. What material are cylinder blocks and covers normally constructed from? A. Fabricated steel B. Cast steel C. Cast iron D. Gunmetal

997

DPKP

365. What type of values are normally found in air compressors? A. Plate or disc values B. Poppet values C. Piston controlled ports D. Slide values

366. Why is the presence of oil particularly dangerous in starting air lines? A. It could affect the operation of the relief valves B. The high oxygen content makes it very explosive C. It may cause sticking of the air start values D. It may carbon up and choke the lines

367. What shutdown device might be fitted on air compressors? A. High air pressure B. Low first stage pressure C. High delivery temperature D. Over speed

368. Which is the correct sequence after starting the compressor. A. Drain value closes and then unloader deactivates B. Drain closes and unloader deactivates together C. Drain value only operates on shutdown D. Unloader deactivates then drain value closes

369. What service is most suitable for the use of rotary compressors? A. High pressure, tow volume B. Low pressure, high volume C. High pressure, high volume D. Low pressure, low volume

998

DPKP

370. Where would you find a rotary compressor in the engine room? A. Diesel engine charge air compressor B. Starting air compressor C. Control air compressor D. Emergency air compressor

371. What slows the rudder movement when the requested position is reached? A. The steering wheel transmitter B. The rudder control receiver unit C. The hunting gear feedback signal D. The rudder telemotor control

372. In a conventional rudder system when will least power be required to move the rudder ? A. With vessel moving astern B. Vessel full ahead at service speed C. With the vessel stationary D. With vessel moving slowly ahead

373. What happens if the rudder is moved in a heavy sea? A. The tetemotor pump prevents movement by increasing the hydraulic pressure B. The main pressure relief valves lift C. The over pressure is absorbed by system accumulators D. The hydraulic motor absorbs the shock

374. What is a telemotor system? A. Hydraulic actuation of steering rams B. Steering gear feedback system C. Transfer of steering signals from wheel to steering gear D. Hand actuation of steering gear

999

DPKP

375. In a hydraulic telemotor system what does wheel movement provide? A. Movement of the transmitter electric motor B. Movement of the transmitter pistons C. Transmits electrical signal to the hydraulic actuator valves D. Direct control of the main hydraulic pumps

376. What is the purpose of Hunting Gear? A. Limits the speed of the rudder movement B. To transmit hydraulic pressure C. Provides feedback to the pump control D. To control hydraulic motor swash plate movement

377. In an electrically controlled hydraulic system what do the electrical controls replace? A. Rudder feedback signal B. Hydraulic control values C. Hydraulic telemotor system D. The hunting gear

378. What does the telemotor receiver unit control? A. Hydraulic operating pressure B. Speed of rudder movement C. Hydraulic control valve D. Main steering motor control voltage

379. What is meant by radial vane type steering system? A. Telemotor is vane type operation B. Hydraulic actuation is onto vanes mounted onto Budderstock C. Steering is via rotating propulsion unit D. Hydraulic pumps are vane type pumps

1000

DPKP

380. When will the Hele-Shaw pump commence pumping action? A. As soon as the electric motor is started B. As soon as the pilot system is started on the bridge C. As soon as a signal is received from the telemotor receiver D. As soon as the telemotor pump is started

381. Upon what is the movement of the rudder dependant, when a helm order is given? A. The degree of opening of the hydraulic bypass valve B. On the distance the hydraulic control lever is moved by the floating link C. On the adjustment of the feedback rod connection D. On the hydraulic pressure setting of the relief valves

382. What is the function of the relief values fitted between main hydraulic cylinders? A. To be opened to allow emergency steering B. To act as automatic by-pass values when the steering gear is stopped C. To act as safety values to absorb shock and avoid damage D. To return any excess oil back to the suction of the pump

383. When would both steering gear motors be run together? A. When at anchor in a confined anchorage B. In the tropics to overcome the lowering of the oil viscosity C. When manoeuvring in confined areas D. When on passage to minimise wear

384. In a single motor electrical steering system what supplies the main steering motor? A. Mains electrical supply B. Electrical supplyfrom a local motor!generator C. Hydraulic power delivered bythe main steering motors D. Hydraulic power pack

1001

DPKP

385. Mat does wheel movement control in an electric steering system? A. Hydraulic transmitter B. The electrical balance of the wheel and steering motor fheostats^ C. Current supplied directlyto the electric steering motor D. Current to the steering gear motortgenerator

386. Which of the following is a system for controlling the steering electrically? A. Graduated stepper motors B. Ward Leonard System C. Compass repeater motors D. AC-DC rectification

387. In tankers an alternate hydraulic oil supply must be automatically connected within what time? A. 2 minutes B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 45 seconds

388. What provides power to hydraulic emergency steering system A. Accumulators in the hydraulic system B. Battery power to the entire steering system C. Emergency generator running main hydraulic pumps D. Manual operation of main pumps

389. What would be the most likely cause of high compressor discharge pressure? A. Failure of the expansion value B. Inadequate condenser cooling C. Overcooling of the evaporator return D. Ice formation on the evaporator coils

1002

DPKP

390. Which is the least harmful of these refrigerants? A. Freon 12 B. Ammonia C. Freon 22 D. Carbon Dioxide

391. What could cause frost on the discharge side of the expansion value? A. Insufficient condenser cooling B. Chamber temperature too low C. The expansion value being dirty or iced up D. Air in the refrigerant system

392. Why should refrig. compressor oil be stored in small capacity drums? A. Ease of stowage B. Only small quantities are required C. Refrigerator oil is hygroscopic and should not be stored in part full drums D. Ease of handling

393. What would be fitted to relieve excess compressor pressure? A. Pressure relief value to atmosphere.0 B. Pressure relief value to suction line. C. Bursting disc to condenser inlet. D. Bursting disc to compressor suction.^

394. How is an air conditioning compressor normally unloaded? A. By throttling the discharge values B. By throttling the suction values C. By holding open the suction values D. By holding open the discharge values

1003

DPKP

395. What kind of metal must never be allowed to come in contact with freon liquid or freon gas and why? A. Copper, it has a harmful effect on the freon B. Iron, it will be rapidly wasted by the freon C. Aluminium, it dissolves in contact with freon D. Chromium, it will overheat

396. What is the function of the expansion valve? A. To increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant B. To reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant C. To regulate flow and reduce the pressure of refrigerant to the evaporator D. To allow the expansion of the high-pressure gas before the condenser

397. What is the function of the low-pressure cut-out fitted on the compressor suction line. A. Cut-out/cut-in device, no reset required B. Low-pressure shutdown with manual reset C. To prevent over pressure of the evaporator D. Safety shutdown device with manual reset

398. What is the function of the HP cutout fitted on the compressor discharge line? A. High-pressure shutdown with manual reset B. High pressure cut out with auto cut-in C. By-pass device cutting out the expansion value D. High-pressure alarm device only

399. What is the function of the oil differential pressure switch? A. To indicate oil is returning from the oil separator B. As warningicut out due to oil foaming C. High temperature alarm D. As a low lub oil pressure shutdown

1004

DPKP

400. What effect has the solenoid stop valve? A. lectrically shuts down the compressor B. Operates the stop value on the compressor discharge line C. Stops the refrigerant from entering the evaporator D. Shuts off the refrigerant on the compressor suction line

401. What is the correct S. G. for brine used as a secondary refrigerant? A. 1.05 B. 1.5 C. 1.25 D. 1.1

402. What determines the brine S.G. required? A. Capacity of refrigerant compressors B. Type of primary refrigerant in use C. Carrying temperature of the cargo D. Amount of brine in circulation

403. What is the required temperature in the ship's vegetable room? A. From +4 to +6 degree C B. From +3 to -3 degree C C. From 0 to +4 degree C D. From +8 to +12 degree C

404. What is the most usual cause of a restriction at the expansion value? A. Moisture in the system B. Insufficient gas charge C. Dirt in the system D. Blockage in the filter/drier unit

1005

DPKP

405. What does the sight glass indicate? A. Operation of the expansion value B. Adequate refrigerant charge C. Condition of the filter drier unit D. Condition of the condenser

406. Where is the fitter/drier unit fitted? A. At the evaporator inlet B. Between expansion value and evaporator C. On the compressor discharge line D. Between condenser and expansion value

407. What is the state of refrigerant leaving the evaporator? A. Low-pressure liquid B. High pressure gasiliquid mixture C. Gas at high pressure D. Gas at low pressure

408. What is the state of the refrigerant flowing from the condenser ? A. High pressure liquid B. High-pressure gas C. Low pressure liquid D. Gas liguid mixture at evaporator pressure

409. Where is the temperature of the refrigerant highest? A. At the expansion value B. At the compressor discharge C. At the compressor suction D. At the condenser outlet

1006

DPKP

410. When starting a compressor, why is it necessary for the unloader to be activated before the drain values are closed? A. To avoid the safety valves blowing B. To avoid air blowing in the bilges C. So the pumping action can blow the drains through D. To prevent the compressor from tripping

411. On what part of the compressor does the unloader act and in what way? A. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES open B. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES open C. It keeps the DELIVERY VALVES closed D. It keeps the SUCTION VALVES closed

412. Suppose the delivery air pressure of this compressor is 30.0bar.Which compressor could this be? A. A starting air compressor B. An instrument air compressor C. A service air compressor D. A working air compressor

413. What is part number 3 called ? A. The primary pump B. The purifier C. The clarifier pump D. the secondary pump

1007

DPKP

414. What is shown here ? A. A common suction mesh strainer B. A Fuel Oil pressure line filter C. A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter D. A centrifugal filter

415. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ? A. The clamp on top of the fitter cover B. The fitter's gasket C. The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp D. The vacuum created in the filter

416. What type of filter is shown here ? A. A magnetic fitter B. A cartridge type pressure line fitter C. A suction wire mesh fitter D. A rotating fitter

1008

DPKP

417. What is the correct parts description list of this pressurised filter ? A. 1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing B. I = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed cartridge, 3 = Filter body C. I = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body D. I = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body

418. How is pump '4" driven from the purifier ?

A. By being directly attached to the gears of the purifier crankcase B. By electric motor C. By replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase D. By lf-belt

1009

DPKP 419. What is item 'F’ ?

A. A fuel shut-off solenoid B. A normal mesh filter/strainer C. A fine filter D. A flow meter

420. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier (Tin) ?

A. 70 degree C B. 75 degree C C. 95 degree C D. 85 degree C

1010

DPKP

421. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor is transferred by …………. to the purifier

A. a magnetic coupling B. Friction pads C. a rotating coupling D. the bowl spindle

422. What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?

A. A plate battery heat exchanger B. A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger C. A finned bank block heat exchanger D. A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger

1011

DPKP

423. If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess steam supply or sufficient oil flow could cause excessive …………... in the heater.

A. deformation B. corrosion C. carbon formation D. pitting

424. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?

A. Marine diesel B. Gas oil C. Distillate diesel D. Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)

1012

DPKP 425. What are items ‘F’ ?

A. Filters B. Flow controllers C. Flow meters D. Fast shut-off values

426. What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?

A. To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use B. As supply source of the system oil C. To collect the system oil in use D. All of these.

1013

DPKP

427. What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

A. A heavy fuel oil system B. A blend fuel oil system C. A marine diesel oil system D. A gas oil system 428. What is the component marked ‘BUC’ ?

A. The Blend Unit Caforifier B. The Base Unit Calorifier C. The Basic Unit Controller D. The Blend Unit Controller

1014

DPKP

429. Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?

A. The diesel oil and heavyfuel oil booster pumps B. The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater C. All of these. D. The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender

430. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?

A. In unit H B. In units DP and FP C. In unit BUC D. In unit BU

1015

DPKP 431. What are the components marked 'M’ ?

A. Manometers B. Magnetic shut-off values C. Flow meters D. Microprocessors 432. What are the components marked ‘F’ ?

A. Fuel pumps B. Flow meters C. Fuel heaters D. Fuel filters

1016

DPKP

433. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.

A. The blending unit controller BUC B. The HFO daily tank C. The blending unit BU D. The unit H

434. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?

A. To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains B. To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils C. To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes D. To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intend for purification

1017

DPKP

435. In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ? A. In bilge piping B. In fuel oil piping C. In sea water piping D. In starting air piping

436. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change the ………………. A. friction pad linings. B. gravity disc. C. purifier ball bearings. D. O-rings and seal set of the bowl. 437. The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ……………… A. Sall bearings worn out. B. the wrong gravity disc. C. dirt between purifier plates. D. water seal broken. 438. When the density of purified oil has increased, you should ………….. A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter. B. Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter. C. Decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter. D. Increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc diameter.

1018

DPKP

439. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the required revolutions ? A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the starting current. B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast C. The purifier will make a humming noise D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase

440. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling, assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because …………….. A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated. B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing explosion within the purifier. C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor, various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great. D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces to act, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.

441. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be taken? A. Order the specific bowl spare part B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only 442. The starting/accelerating current of a purifier is ……………% of the normal operating current. A. 100 B. 150 C. 50 D. 250

1019

DPKP

443. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen correctly, in general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals too short give bad efficiency, intervals too long ………… A. will atso give bad efficiency. B. may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt. C. will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge. D. may result in water seal depletion.

444. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil purifiers should be….. hours. A. 4 to 5 B. 2 to 4 C. 6 to 8 D. 6 to 9

445. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………. hours. A. 1 to 2 B. 6 to 8 C. 4 to 6 D. 2 to 4

446. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 180 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………hours. A. 3 to 5 B. 2 to 3 C. 4 to 6 D. 6 to 8

1020

DPKP

447. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be………hours. A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 3

448. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at……….hours. A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 6

449. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a purifier are……….. A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity. B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content. C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate. D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.

450. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The purifying operation is……… A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is called a two-phase operation. B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation. C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water, oil, dirt). D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called a two-phase operation.

1021

DPKP

451. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The clarifying operation refers to……….. A. the single phase liquid-liquid operation (water from oil). B. The 2 phase liquid-solid operation, separating dirt from oil. C. the 3 phase liquid-liquid-solid operation, separating light from heavy liquids, as well as solids from light as from heavy liquids. D. The 2 phase solid-liquid operation, separating dirt from water and oil.

452. The usual mode of series operation of two heavy fuel oil purifiers refers to……………. A. two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence to second purifier, at half the feed rate of the required quantity. B. two identical purifiers being used as well for heavy fuel oil as for diesel oil, by changing line system and gravity discs. C. two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, the second in line as clarifier with same throughput. D. two identical machines being put separately from settling ank to dailytank at half the feed rate of the required quantity.

453. If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (its throughput) has reduced, the most likely reason for this is A. that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containing tank is empty or shut-off. B. that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor is operating in overload. C. that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect or the heater is blocked. D. that the capacity of gear pump has fallen, the pump's 'elief valve has opened, a leaking suction pipe or suction liter is clogged.

1022

DPKP

454. Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ? A. Area 3 B. Area 1 C. Area 6 D. Area 4

455. What is part number 2 called ? A. The bowl hood B. The paring disc C. The distributor D. The chamber

456. Which part is the paring disc used for removing water ? A. Part 3 B. Part 2 C. Part 4 D. Part 6

1023

DPKP

457. What is part number 3 called ? A. The paring disc operating water B. The paring disc for processed oil C. Slots holding a space D. the spring support

458. What is part number 5 called ? A. The bowl stack B. The disc stack C. The paring disc D. The disk holder

459. The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it………….. A. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures. B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel. C. is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine. D. eflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.

460. The relief values in a fuel oil service system discharge to either the service pump suction or to the…………. A. simplex fuel oil strainer. B. recirculating line. C. slop retention tanks. D. settling tanks. 1024

DPKP

461. What is part number one called ?

A. The service tank B. The expansion tank C. The settlement tank D. The drainage tank

462. Which part is the heater ?

A. Number 4 B. Number 2 C. Number 3 D. Number 1

1025

DPKP

463. Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers ?

A. None B. 2 C. 1 D. Both 1 and 2

464. Where is the separation carried out ? A. At the bottom of the separator B. At the corner end number 3 C. Between the discs number 5 D. Below discs number 1

1026

DPKP 465. What is item ‘V’ ?

A. A fine fitter B. A blow-trough steam value C. An automatic stop value D. A viscometer 466. What is item 'M’ ?

A. The magnetic shut-off valve B. The magnetic filter C. The fuel flow Meter D. The manometer

1027

DPKP 467. What is the function of valve ‘PR’ in this fuel circuit ?

A. A constant pressure regulating valve B. A fuel drain value in case of engine shut-down C. A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop D. A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature 468. What are the parts marked ‘F’ ?

A. Automatic fitters B. Fine filters C. A combination of these or any of the these D. Magnetic filters

1028

DPKP

469. Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer ''T" ?

A. Temperature remains constant by same fuel pump viscosity. B. Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used C. Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used D. None of the above

470. What do you call the tanks in which heauyfuel oil is stored on board ?

A. Heavy fuel oil tanks B. Heavy fuel oil settling tanks C. Heavy fuel oil daily tanks D. Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks

1029

DPKP

471. What do you call the gate valves 'MP", 'MS", "AP", AS located on deck ?

A. Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves B. Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves C. Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves D. Heavy fuel oil tank valves

472. How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ?

A. Via own pumps “P1” and “P2” to transfer pump 'Tp". B. Via main bunker value “B.V” to transfer pump "Tp". C. Via suction value “S”, the transfer pump, to discharge value “D” D. Via own pumps “P1” and “P2”, the main bunker value “BV” to value “D”

1030

DPKP 473. What is the name and function of the gate value “BV” ?

A. Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks B. Main bunker value, separates bunker manifold from engine room C. Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank D. Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold

474. How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external temperature drops below it's pour point ?

A. By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank B. By circulating it with the transfer pump C. By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered D. By heating the oil with steam uia steam coils or steam banks

1031

DPKP

475. Which value in the engine room must be kept closed if no bunker operations or transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ?

A. Value “D” B. Value "BV" C. The settling tank value D. Value “S”

476. If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control value CC, what other action must you take ?

A. Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier B. Throttle steam to the HFO service tank C. Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV D. Drain the service tank at shorter intervals

1032

DPKP

477. What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P ?

A. A centrifugal pump B. A vane pump C. A piston pump D. A gear pump or worm pump

478. When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0.87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?

A. 85 degree C B. 30 degree C C. 40 degree C D. 60 degree C

1033

DPKP

479. What is the idealtemperature to maintain the Diesel Oil Daily Tank and how is this achieved ?

A. 65 degree C, by application of steam heating B. 65 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank C. 45 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank D. 45 degree C, by application of steam heating

480. What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank ?

A. A Main Engine system oil reserve tank B. A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil C. An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil D. A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine

1034

DPKP

481. What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected the lubrication oil purifiers have in common?

A. They all contain wasted oils B. They all contain the same grade of oil C. They all contain in-service oils D. They all contain extremely dirty oils

482. Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is running M.E.L.O. sump tank to M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 is now to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is not possible ?

A. M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank B. Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank C. M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank D. M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank

1035

DPKP

483. Where and how would you take sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump tank ?

A. In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank B. At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump C. After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running D. from the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps

484. Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle is completed and the urification of the oil restarts ?

A. The oil high pressure alarm B. The water seal alarm C. The oil high temperature alarm D. The overflow alarm

1036

DPKP

485. What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on this fitter ?

A. To take samples of the liquid. B. To drain the dirt out of the filter basket C. To drain the filter before cleaning D. To drain out the collected water

486. How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram refilled ?

A. They are refilled once per day B. They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier C. They are refilled twice a week D. They are refilled only when required.

1037

DPKP

487. What would be the temperature of the oil in the settling tank (item number 3) shown in this fuel oil arrangement ?

A. 60 to 80 degree C B. 30 to 45 degree C C. Above 80 degree C D. 45 to 60 degree C

488. What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangement drawing ?

A. A booster pump B. A fuel transfer pump C. A. heater D. A fuel strainer

1038

DPKP

489. What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

A. fuel oil ball fitter B. A fuel oil booster pump C. A fuel oil transfer pump D. A fuel oil purifier

490. At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

A. Full B. Between 2/3 and 3/4 full C. Between 1/2 and 3/4 full D. Variable, depending time of the day

1039

DPKP

491. Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement shown here ?

A. Settling to settling, Daily to Dairy tank B. Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank C. Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank D. Dally to Settling, Settling to Settling tank

492. What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank ? A. 50 to 60 degree C B. 60 to 75 degree C C. 40 to 50 degree C D. 80 to 90 degree C

493. Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank ?

A. A remote tank gauging system B. Quick closing shut-off values (remote operated) C. A drain value (Spring loaded) D. A thermometer

1040

DPKP

494. Which of the following alarms on UMS operation are not necessarily provided on the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO)

A. Daily tank high Level B. Daily tank low temperature C. Daily tank high temperature D. Daily tank low level

495. What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil? A. The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity B. The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity C. The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity D. The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity

496. The dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of this separation bowl, where will the clean oil be found ?

A. Between item 2 and item 4 B. Item 3 in the bowl C. Item 4 in the bowl D. Item 2 in the bowl

1041

DPKP

497. What liquid substance is present in chamber 2 of this oil- water separator ?

A. Clean oil B. Dirty oil C. Water D. Oil-water mixture

498. If a dirty oilyiwater mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where will the dirt settle ?

A. On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3 B. With the liquid item 3 C. With the liquid item 2 D. On the bottom item 4

1042

DPKP

499. Where will the dirt collect which is separated from the oily water mixture in this Sharpies separator, shown left ?

A. On the oil/water separation plate B. Near separating plate flushed off with water C. On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl D. On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl

500. Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?

A. On the cylindrical surface of the bowl B. In between the discs C. On the bottom of the bowl D. On the top separation plate between oil and water

1043

DPKP

501. The Disc type oil separator can usually separate water from oil when processing oils between which density ranges ? A. 0.87 to 0.95 B. 0.84to 0.945 C. 0.845 to 0.965 D. 0.78 to 0.98

502. If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect ? A. Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier B. The purifier will overflow oil on the water side C. The high temperature alarm will activate D. No oil will be pumped through the purifier

503. When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve “D” ?

A. At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation B. Twice a day C. As required D. Every 4 hours 1044

DPKP

504. What is pipe No 1 ? A. The lub oil outlet B. The lub oil inlet C. The salt water inlet D. the salt water outlet

505. What is component No 5 ? A. The tub oil inlet B. The fresh water purger C. The oil purging valve D. The Sediment drain

506. What is part No 4 ? A. The saltwater cooling element B. The inspection ladder C. The lubrication tubes D. The copper tubes

1045

DPKP

507. What is Part No 7 ? A. The sea water drain value B. The sediment tapping value C. The water temperature gauge D. The high pressure Lub oil inlet

508. What is component number 5 ? A. The lub oil inlet B. The drain for sediments C. The oil purging value or lub oil vent D. The fresh water purger

509. What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ?

A. To act as purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks B. To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel Lub. oils C. To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse D. To keep auxiliary diesel Lub. Oils fresh 1046

DPKP 510. What kind of pump is pump “P” ?

A.

A piston pump

B.

A gear or worm wheel pump

C.

A centrifugal pump

D.

A vane pump

511. What is part number 4 ?

A.

A set screw

B.

A holder

C.

A pressure adjuster

D.

A screw fitter

1047

DPKP

512. What is part number 5 ? A.

The pump shaft

B.

The motor shaft

C.

The pressure outlet

D.

An air seal

513. What is part number 6 ? A. An outlet B. A rotator screw C. A plug D. A pump connector screw

514. Which of the parts is the pump shaft ? A. Number 1 B. Number 2 C. Number 4 D. Number 5

1048

DPKP

515. What are items ''S" ancl what is their purpose ?

A. Suction valves to pump the wells B. Suction boxes to retain priming water C. Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping D. Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system

516. If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of the following actions would you take ?

A.

All of these.

B.

Prime the pump with sea water

C.

Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed

D.

Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking

1049

DPKP

517. How does the filter help in segregating water and dirt ?

A. Due to regeneration B. Due to molecular friction C. Due to gravitational force D. Due to centrifugal force

518. In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass or bull's eye ? A. Lube oil pump discharge lines B. Tank overflow lines C. Fresh water return piping and condensate line D. Sea water lines to overboard

519. What is the component shown here ?

A. A Screw compressor B. A Piston pump C. A Centrifugal pump D. A Rotor Screw pump 1050

DPKP

520. What is part number one in this drawing ?

A.

A sealing

B.

A ball bearing

C.

An end piece

D.

A shaft

521. What is part number two in this drawing ?

A.

A cam shaft

B.

A connecting rod

C.

A center piece

D.

A pump shaft

1051

DPKP

522. What is part number three in this drawing ?

A. The gland packing B. A bearing C. A gland house D. A cooling pipie

523. What is part number four in this drawing ?

A. A rotor B. A cooling pipe C. An air duct D. A connecting rod

1052

DPKP

524. What is part number five in this drawing ?

A. A bearing holder B. A sealer C. An end piece D. An air relief valve

525. Which of the indicated parts is the pump rotor ? A. No 1 B. No 4 C. No 2 D. No 3

526. What is part NO 3 ? A. The impeller B. The shaft rotator C. The expander D. The propeller

1053

DPKP

527. What are the two main parts in this drawing ? A. A steam motor and a pump B. A centrifugal pump and an electric motor C. A compressor and an electric motor D. An electric motor and a screw pump

528. What type of pump is connected to the electrical motor in this drawing ? A. A Compressor pump B. A Screw pump C. A Centrifugal pump D. A Piston pump

529. What is the component shown in this drawin A. A Centrifugal pump B. A Screw pump C. A Centrifugal compressor D. A Reefer compressor

1054

DPKP

530. Which is the inlet ?

A. D B. A C. C D. B

531. Which is the outlet?

A. A B. D C. C D. B

1055

DPKP

532. What is the component shown here ? A. An Injector B. An Ejector C. A Constructor D. A Defector

533. What is part number four ?

A. An air duct B. A connecting rod C. A cooling pipe D. A rotor

534. What is part number flue ?

A. A bearing holder B. An air relief value C. A sealer D. An end piece

1056

DPKP

535. Which way will fluid pass through this value ?

A. In both directions B. From B to A C. From A to C D. From A to B

536. What is item '5" ?

A. The automatic 15 ppm shut-down value B. The sea suction value of the pump C. A shut-off value D. A mesh type strainer

1057

DPKP

537. Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ?

A. 1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body B. 1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing C. 1= Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body D. 1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body

538. What are items No 2 and do 6 called ? A. Water throwing seals B. Impeller wear rings C. Bearing sleeves D. Fixed restraining rings

1058

DPKP

539. This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ?

A. The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output B. The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload C. The housing will be attacked by cavitation D. The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur

540. What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ?

A. Self priming, single stage, high speed B. Single stage, high speed C. Floating, self balancing, single stage D. Multi-stage, medium speed

1059

DPKP

541. What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ? A. About 2300 RPM B. About 870 RPM C. About 1720 RPM D. About 1150 RPM

542. When are the high sea chests used ?

A. When the ship is in shallow water B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea C. When the ship is in polluted waters D. When the ship is in ballast condition

1060

DPKP

543. What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ?

A. Perforated plate fitters B. Mesh wire filters C. all flush filters D. Backflow filters

544. What is the purpose of the spring loaded value, item WA fitted to this pump ?

A. It is a bleed-off valve B. It is a capacity control valve C. It is a shock damper D. It is a safety valve

1061

DPKP

545. How can the capacity of this pump be controlled and how is this done ?

A. By adjusting the internal pressure by spring loaded valve item No 4 B. By fitting an orifice in the discharge line C. By throttling the suction valve D. By throttling the discharge valve and reducing spring load item No 4

546. If you have to pump oil which is below normal temperature for a while through this type pump (initial cold oil in the line) what precaution will you take prior starting the pump ?

A. Startistop the pump frequently B. Dpen the first spring loaded value first (release spring Dressure) C. Throttle the suction value D. Bleed off from the manometer suctionfdischarge connection

1062

DPKP

547. What are items No 6 on this pump ? The axial plummer pads A. The shaft plates B. The thrust plates C. The rear bearings D. The thrust collar

548. What is part do 'I of this pump ? A. A self lubricating oil tight thrust collar B. A stuffing box packing unit C. A metallic type mechanical seal D. A spring loaded oil tight front thrust assembly

549. If we mention worm wheels or a worm wheel set, we distinguish between ……………. of the pump.

A. the rounded and the bellow gear B. the drive shaft year and the idle shaft gear C. the tangential year and the straight shaft year D. the long shaft year and the stub shaft year

1063

DPKP

550. What would you rate the capacity of this type of pump ? A. 150 to 250 m3/hour B. 15 to 25 m3/hour C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour D. 10 to 15 m3/hour

551. What is item No 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?

A. The pump coupling unit B. The pump driving arrangement C. The intermediate shaft assembly D. The pump shafting system

552. What is item No 4 on this pump assembly ? A. The reinforcement frame B. The pump top casing assembly C. The motor stool D. The outer casing

1064

DPKP

553. How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing (impeller mouth fitting in bottom casing ring) adjusted ? A. By

adjusting

distance/height

by

screwed connection 2 on shaft B. By fitting shims on pump impeller C. By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft D. By fitting shims in coupled part item No 2 on shaft

554. Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No 3 ? A. Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal B. Shaft sleeve and ball bearing C. Mechanical seal and ball bearing D. Mechanical seal, 0-ring and water thrower

555. If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ? A. Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange B. Remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly C. Remove motor stool with motor and intermediate shaft complete. D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out D pump assembly

1065

DPKP

556. When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you should start the pump with ………… A. the suction value closed. B. throttled discharge valves. C. the discharge valve closed. D. throttled suction valve.

557. If the performance of a centrifugal pump deteriorates over time (tons/hour x height in metres) it is usually due to ……………. A. condition of the pump housing. B. excessive wear between impeller and mouth ring. C. condition of the ball bearing. D. cavitation of the impeller.

558. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why ? A. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity B. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence

1066

DPKP 559. Centrifugal pumps are installed in circuits where the liquids …………. A. have a moderate to high temperature. B. are highly viscous. C. have a high air content. D. are not excessively viscous. 560. Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ……………. A. have a high air content. B. have to be pumped to elevated heights. C. are mixed with solids. D. are mixed with fuel or oil.

561. If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that it is correctly assembled and no parts are touching, the reason is…………………

A. misalignment of the shaft B. obstruction on the discharge side C. the pump is not bled off properly D. insufficient liquid supply to the pump

1067

DPKP

562. When assembling an Endless Screw Pump you have to obtain the correct AXIAL and RADIAL play between its shafts, if not ………. A. the pump will run hot and seize B. wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress C. the bearings will disintegrate after a short time D. the shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations

563. Why is it necessary for centrifugal pumps which can be remotely started and have a discharge head over 10 metres (for example the fire pump) to have a nonreturn valve fitted at pump level? A. To avoid the discharge piping from bursting when started B. To avoid an air lock settling in the pump C. To avoid the pump tripping on overload when started D. To avoid loss of suction when starting

564. If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on its inner seat, what is the minimum fixed lift height ? A. 10 mm B. 15 mm C. 20 mm D. 12.5 mm.

1068

DPKP

565. What is the purpose of screw cap (1) in the picture ? A. To adjust initial lift height to about 8 to 10 mm B. To adjust the lift to 25% of the diameter C. To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging D. To manually close the valve

566. What are items 'W' ? A. Ballast water tanks B. Cargo hold bilge wells C. Side water tanks D. Hold deep wells

567. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells ? A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room B. Because

they

are

inaccessible when cargo is loaded C. Because they might be damaged

during

loading

and discharging D. Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges

1069

DPKP

568. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or cargo operations ? A. There is no covering B. By perforated plating C. By sack cloth D. By steel plates bolted on

569. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room bulkhead ? A. Auto-closing valves B. Bilge gate valves C. Non-return screw down valves D. Manifold valves

570. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast Pump ?

A. 140 m3/hour x 30 metres B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres C. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres D. 410 m3/hour x 20 metres 1070

DPKP

571. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore Pump ?

A. 5 m3/hour x 25 metres B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres C. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres D. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres

572. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ? A. A vane pump B. A piston pump C. A gear pump D. A worm wheel pump

573. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by ……………. A. an air seal line from the compressed airline. B. a water seal line to the packing gland. C. a special packing in the stuffing box. D. the vacuum in the pump suction.

1071

DPKP

574.

What is this component called ? A. A Two way valve B. A Dynamic valve C. A Triple flushing valve D. A lion return value

575.

Which way does the fluid pass through the valve ? A. Neither direction B. From 13 to A C. From A to B D. Either direction

576.

What is part No 1 ? A. A Seal Blade B. A Glide Bearing C. A Shaft protector D. A Mechanical seal

1072

DPKP

577. What is part No 2 ? A. A key B. A shaft correction unit C. A balancer D. An adjuster

578. What is the purpose of part do 2 ? A. To clean the bearing B. To indicate the shaft distance C. To adjust the pressure D. To align the impeller with the pump shaft

579.

What is part No 4 ? A. The screw fitter B. The holder C. The set screw D. The pressure adjuster

1073

DPKP

580. What is part do 5 ? A. The pump shaft B. The air seal C. The pressure outlet D. The motor shaft

581. What is part 110 6 ? A. The plug B. The rotator screw C. The outlet D. The pump connector screw

582. Which part is the key for the pump shaft ? A. No 3 B. No 5 C. No 2 D. No 1

1074

DPKP

583. Which part is the mechanical seal ? A. No 2 B. No 6 C. No 1 D. No 3

584. What is part No 3 ?

A. The holder B. The wear ring C. The spring washer D. The mechanical seal

585.

What is the purpose of Part No 4 ?

A. To support the shaft B. To hold the impeller and connect the motor C. To prevent liquid moving upward D. To support for the impeller

1075

DPKP

586.

What is Part No 6 ? A. The spring support B. The washer C. The connector D. The wear ring

587.

What is Part No 1 called ?

A. The Ejector B. The Diffusor C. The Nozzle D. The Sprayer

588.

Which part is the diffusor ?

A. Part 4 B. Part 2 C. Part 1 D. Part 3

589.

What is Part No 5 called ? A. The Mixer B. The Gas Adjuster C. The Set Screw D. The Flange Ring

1076

DPKP

590. What is Part No 3 called ? A. The 0 Ring B. The Ring holder C. The Nozzle D. The Ejector bearing

591. What are items do 2 of this pump ? A. The driven end bearings B. Shaft collars C. The rear end bearings D. The driver and the driven gears of the worm wheels

592. What are items "V" ? A. Vacuum suction boxes B. Straight bilge gate valves C. Vacuum flap valves D. Non-return screw down valves

593. What type of value is shown here ? A. A check valve B. A screw-down valve C. A gate valve D. A non-return valve

1077

DPKP

594. Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if : 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 = Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 = Pneumatic gauging. ? A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 5

595. What is part number 4 ? A. A set screw B. A holder C. A pressure adjuster D. A screw fitter

596. What is part number 5 ? A. The pump shaft B. The motor shaft C. The pressure outlet D. An air seal

1078

DPKP

597. What is part number 6 ? A. An outlet B. A rotator screw C. A plug D. A pump connector screw

598. Which of the parts is the pump shaft ? A. Number 1 B. Number 2 C. Number 4 D. Number 5

599. What are items ''S" ancl what is their purpose ?

.

A. Suction valves to pump the wells B. Suction boxes to retain priming water C. Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping D. Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system

1079

DPKP

600.

If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of the following actions would you take ?

601.

A.

All of these.

B.

Prime the pump with sea water

C.

Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed

D.

Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking

How does the filter help in segregating water and dirt ?

A.

Due to regeneration

B.

Due to molecular friction

C.

Due to gravitational force

D.

Due to centrifugal force

1080

DPKP

602.

In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass or bull's eye ?

603.

604.

A.

Lube oil pump discharge lines

B.

Tank overflow lines

C.

Fresh water return piping and condensate line

D.

Sea water lines to overboard

What is the component shown here ?

A.

A Screw compressor

B.

A Piston pump

C.

A Centrifugal pump

D.

A Rotor Screw pump

What is part number one in this drawing ?

A.

A sealing

B.

A ball bearing

C.

An end piece

D.

A shaft

1081

DPKP

605. What is part number two in this drawing ?

A. A cam shaft B. A connecting rod C. A center piece D. A pump shaft

606. What is part number three in this drawing ?

A. The gland packing B. A bearing C. A gland house D. A cooling pipie

607. What is part number four in this drawing ?

A. A rotor B. A cooling pipe C. An air duct D. A connecting rod

1082

DPKP

608. What is part number five in this drawing ?

A. A bearing holder B. A sealer C. An end piece D. An air relief valve

609. Which of the indicated parts is the pump rotor ?

A. No 1 B. No 4 C. No 2 D. No 3

610. What is part NO 3 ? A. The impeller B. The shaft rotator C. The expander D. The propeller

1083

DPKP

611. What are the two main parts in this drawing ? A. A steam motor and a pump B. A centrifugal pump and an electric motor C. A compressor and an electric motor D. An electric motor and a screw pump

612. What type of pump is connected to the electrical motor in this drawing ? A. A Compressor pump B. A Screw pump C. A Centrifugal pump D. A Piston pump

613. What is the component shown in this drawing ?

A. A Centrifugal pump B. A Screw pump C. A Centrifugal compressor D. A Reefer compressor

1084

DPKP

614. Which is the inlet ?

A. D B. A C. C D. B

615. Which is the outlet?

A. A B. D C. C D. B

616. What is the component shown here ? A. An Injector B. An Ejector C. A Constructor D. A Defector

1085

DPKP

617. What is part number four ? A. An air duct B. A connecting rod C. A cooling pipe D. A rotor

618. What is part number flue ? A. A bearing holder B. An air relief value C. A sealer D. An end piece

619. Which way will fluid pass through this value ?

A. In both directions B. From B to A C. From A to C D. From A to B

1086

DPKP

620. What is item '5" ?

A. The automatic 15 ppm shut-down value B. The sea suction value of the pump C. A shut-off value D. A mesh type strainer

621. Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ?

A. 1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body B. 1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing C. 1= Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body D. 1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body

1087

DPKP

622. What are items No 2 and do 6 called ? A. Water throwing seals B. Impeller wear rings C. Bearing sleeves D. Fixed restraining rings

623. This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ?

A. The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output B. The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload C. The housing will be attacked by cavitation D. The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur

1088

DPKP

624. What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ? A. Self priming, single stage, high speed B. Single stage, high speed C. Floating, self balancing, single stage D. Multi-stage, medium speed

625. What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ? A. About 2300 RPM B. About 870 RPM C. About 1720 RPM D. About 1150 RPM

626. When are the high sea chests used ?

A. When the ship is in shallow water B. When the ship is deeply laden at sea C. When the ship is in polluted waters D. When the ship is in ballast condition

1089

DPKP

627. What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ?

A. Perforated plate fitters B. Mesh wire filters C. all flush filters D. Backflow filters

628. What is the purpose of the spring loaded value, item WA fitted to this pump ?

A. It is a bleed-off valve B. It is a capacity control valve C. It is a shock damper D. It is a safety valve

1090

DPKP

629. How can the capacity of this pump be controlled and how is this done ?

A. By adjusting the internal pressure by spring loaded valve item No 4 B. By fitting an orifice in the discharge line C. By throttling the suction valve D. By throttling the discharge valve and reducing spring load item No 4

630. If you have to pump oil which is below normal temperature for a while through this type pump (initial cold oil in the line) what precaution will you take prior starting the pump ? A. Startistop the pump frequently B. Dpen the first spring loaded value

first

(release

spring

Dressure) C. Throttle the suction value D. Bleed off from the manometer suctionfdischarge connection

631. What are items No 6 on this pump ? a. The axial plummer pads b. The shaft plates c. The thrust plates d. The rear bearings

1091

DPKP

632. What is part do 'I of this pump ?

A. A self lubricating oil tight thrust collar B. A stuffing box packing unit C. A metallic type mechanical seal D. A spring loaded oil tight front thrust assembly

633. If we mention worm wheels or a worm wheel set, we distinguish between ……………. of the pump. A. the rounded and the bellow gear B. the drive shaft year and the idle shaft gear C. the tangential year and the straight shaft year D. the long shaft year and the stub shaft year

634. What would you rate the capacity of this type of pump ? A. 150 to 250 m3/hour B. 15 to 25 m3/hour C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour D. 10 to 15 m3/hour

1092

DPKP

635. What is item No 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?

A. The pump coupling unit B. The pump driving arrangement C. The intermediate shaft assembly D. The pump shafting system

636. What is item No 4 on this pump assembly ? A. The reinforcement frame B. The pump top casing assembly C. The motor stool D. The outer casing

637. How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing (impeller mouth fitting in bottom casing ring) adjusted ?

A. By adjusting distance/height by screwed connection 2 on shaft B. By fitting shims on pump impeller C. By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft D. By fitting shims in coupled part item No 2 on shaft

1093

DPKP

638. Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No 3 ? A. Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal B. Shaft sleeve and ball bearing C. Mechanical seal and ball bearing D. Mechanical seal, 0-ring and water thrower

639. If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ? A. Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange B. Remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly C. Remove motor stool with motor and

intermediate

shaft

complete. D. Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out D pump assembly

640. When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you should start the pump with ………… A.

the suction value closed.

B.

throttled discharge valves.

C.

the discharge valve closed.

D.

throttled suction valve.

1094

DPKP

641. If the performance of a centrifugal pump deteriorates over time (tons/hour x height in metres) it is usually due to ……………. A.

condition of the pump housing.

B.

excessive wear between impeller and mouth ring.

C.

condition of the ball bearing.

D.

cavitation of the impeller.

642. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why ?

A.

The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity

B.

The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence

C.

The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller

D.

The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence

643. Centrifugal pumps are installed in circuits where the liquids …………. A. have a moderate to high temperature. B. are highly viscous. C. have a high air content. D. are not excessively viscous.

1095

DPKP 644. Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ……………. A. have a high air content. B. have to be pumped to elevated heights. C. are mixed with solids. D. are mixed with fuel or oil.

645. If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that it is correctly assembled and no parts are touching, the reason is………………… A. misalignment of the shaft B. obstruction on the discharge side C. the pump is not bled off properly D. insufficient liquid supply to the pump

646. When assembling an Endless Screw Pump you have to obtain the correct AXIAL and RADIAL play between its shafts, if not ………. A. the pump will run hot and seize B. wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress C. the bearings will disintegrate after a short time D. the shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations

1096

DPKP

647. Why is it necessary for centrifugal pumps which can be remotely started and have a discharge head over 10 metres (for example the fire pump) to have a nonreturn valve fitted at pump level? A. To avoid the discharge piping from bursting when started B. To avoid an air lock settling in the pump C. To avoid the pump tripping on overload when started D. To avoid loss of suction when starting

648. If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on its inner seat, what is the minimum fixed lift height ? A. 10 mm B. 15 mm C. 20 mm D. 12.5 mm

649. What is the purpose of screw cap (1) in the picture ? A. To adjust initial lift height to about 8 to 10 mm B. To adjust the lift to 25% of the diameter C. To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging D. To manually close the valve

650. What are items 'W' ? A. Ballast water tanks B. Cargo hold bilge wells C. Side water tanks D. Hold deep wells

1097

DPKP

651. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells ?

A. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room B. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded C. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging D. Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges

652. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or cargo operations ? A. There is no covering B. By perforated plating C. By sack cloth D. By steel plates bolted on

653. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room bulkhead ?

A. Auto-closing valves B. Bilge gate valves C. Non-return

screw

down

valves D. Manifold valves

1098

DPKP

654. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast Pump ?

A. 140 m3/hour x 30 metres B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres C. 110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres D. 410 m3/hour x 20 metres

655. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore Pump ?

A. 5 m3/hour x 25 metres B. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres C. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres D. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres

1099

DPKP

656. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?

A. A vane pump B. A piston pump C. A gear pump D. A worm wheel pump

657. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by ……………. A. an air seal line from the compressed airline. B. a water seal line to the packing gland. C. a special packing in the stuffing box. D. the vacuum in the pump suction.

658. What is this component called ?

A. A Two way valve B. A Dynamic valve C. A Triple flushing valve D. A lion return value

1100

DPKP

659. Which way does the fluid pass through the valve ? A.

Neither direction

B.

From 13 to A

C.

From A to B

D.

Either direction

660. What is part No 1 ? A. A Seal Blade B. A Glide Bearing C. A Shaft protector D. A Mechanical seal

661. What is part No 2 ? A. A key B. A shaft correction unit C. A balancer D. An adjuster

1101

DPKP

662. What is the purpose of part do 2 ? A. To clean the bearing B. To indicate the shaft distance C. To adjust the pressure D. To align the impeller with the pump shaft

663. What is part No 4 ? A. The screw fitter B. The holder C. The set screw D. The pressure adjuster

664. What is part do 5 ? A. The pump shaft B. The air seal C. The pressure outlet D. The motor shaft

665. What is part 110 6 ? A. The plug B. The rotator screw C. The outlet D. The pump connector screw

1102

DPKP

666. Which part is the key for the pump shaft ? A. No 3 B. No 5 C. No 2 D. No 1

667. Which part is the mechanical seal ? A. No 2 B. No 6 C. No 1 D. No 3

668. What is part No 3 ? A. The holder B. The wear ring C. The spring washer D. The mechanical seal

1103

DPKP

669. What is the purpose of Part No 4 ?

A. To support the shaft B. To hold the impeller and connect the motor C. To prevent liquid moving upward D. To support for the impeller

670. What is Part No 6 ?

A.

The spring support

B.

The washer

C.

The connector

D.

The wear ring

A.

The Ejector

B.

The Diffusor

C.

The Nozzle

D.

The Sprayer

671. What is Part No 1 called ?

1104

DPKP

672. Which part is the diffusor ? A.

Part 4

B.

Part 2

C.

Part 1

D.

Part 3

673. What is Part No 5 called ? A. The Mixer B. The Gas Adjuster C. The Set Screw D. The Flange Ring

674. What is Part No 3 called ?

A. The 0 Ring B. The Ring holder C. The Nozzle D. The Ejector bearing

1105

DPKP

675. What are items do 2 of this pump ?

A. The driven end bearings B. Shaft collars C. The rear end bearings D. The driver and the driven gears of the worm wheels

676. What are items "V" ?

A. Vacuum suction boxes B. Straight bilge gate valves C. Vacuum flap valves D. Non-return screw down valves

1106

DPKP

677. What type of value is shown here ? A. A check valve B. A screw-down valve C. A gate valve D. A non-return valve

678. Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if : 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 = Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 = Pneumatic gauging. ? A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 5

679. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump? A. Bilge empty B. Discharge value closed. C. Pump impeller choked. D. Suction strainer blocked.

680. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump? A. Bylining an orifice in the discharge line B. By throttling the suction value C. By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value D. By throttling the discharge value

1107

DPKP

681. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented? A. Special packing in the stuffing box. B. An air seal line from the compressed airline. C. The air pump fitted to the pump D. A water seal line to the packing gland

682. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the domestic fresh water system? A. 20 m3/hour x 25 metres B. 0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres C. 40 m3/hour x 55 metres D. 5 m3/hour x 50 metres

683. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump? A. Fuel oil transfer B. Boiler feed pump C. Hydraulic winch power pack D. Bilge and ballast

684. at would you rate the capacity of this type of pump? A. 10 to 15 m3/hour B. 50 to 250 m3/hour C. 5 to 7.5 m3/hour D. 15 to 25 m3/hour

685. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable? A. Engine cooling water circulating. B. Engine lub oil pressure supply. C. Bilge pumping D. Boiler feed water supply.

1108

DPKP

686. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium? A. Liquids mixed with solids. B. Pumping liquids against a high head pressure. C. Liquids having high air content. D. Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.

687. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components? A. The rounded and the bellow gear. B. The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear. C. The driving and driven shaft gears D. The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.

688. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for? A. Where liquids are not excessively viscous. B. Where the liquid has a high temperature. C. Where liquids are extremely viscous. D. Where there is a high air content.

689. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient axial or radial clearance? A. The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations. B. The pump will not pump. C. Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress. D. The pump will not deliver correct pressure.

690. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the initial load? A. Suction and discharge valves closed. B. The discharge value closed. C. The suction value closed. D. The suction value throttled.

1109

DPKP

691. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance deteriorating over time? A. Cavitation of the impeller. B. Wear of the pump housing. C. Near of the gland neck bush. D. Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

692. would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil? A. Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve. B. Throttle the suction value C. Start/stop the pump frequently D. Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.

693. what is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump? A. Malfunction of the electrical motor B. Tank being transferred into is full. C. Pump no longer pumping liquid. D. Malfunction of the pump.

694. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands? A. Mechanical shaft seal. B. Preformed lip seals C. Carbon sealing rings. D. Soft gland packing.

695. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid? A. The valve is easier to open. B. There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings. C. There is less restriction to flow in this direction. D. With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.

1110

DPKP

696. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines? A. Solid copper joints. B. Wire reinforced asbestos joints. C. Preformed neoprene joints D. General purpose asbestos joints.

697. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts? A. Sliding securing mounts. B. Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion. C. Fitting of steel bellows pieces. D. Sliding section of piping.

698. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit? A. In starting air piping B. In fuel oil piping C. In bilge piping D. In sea water piping

699. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve? A. Hydraulic ring main supply system. B. Fuel oil system. C. Engine jacket water cooling system. D. Engine lub oil system.

700. How does a 'quick closing' value operate? A. The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically. B. An independent mechanism closes the value. C. The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close. D. A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.

1111

DPKP

701. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted? A. Bilge suction valves B. Fuel tank valves C. Ballast tank valves D. Fire main isolating valves

702. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high suction? A. Check suction strainers and valves. B. Open sea suction value to prime pump C. Clean the oiliwater separator. D. Inspect pump internals for wear

703. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells? A. They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells. B. Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging C. Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room. D. Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded

704. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them? A. By perforated plating B. There is no covering C. By steel grid plates bolted in place D. By very fine mesh grids

705. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead? A. Non-return screw down valves B. Screw lift valves C. Butterfly valves D. Gate valves

1112

DPKP

706. What is the purpose of a cofferdam? A. To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids. B. As a watertight barrier. C. As an emergency storage space for bilge water. D. As a collection space for leaking pipe work

707. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be not moving, what would you check first? A. Whether the value is dirty. B. If there is excess pressure on the value. C. Check that the value is not broken. D. Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.

708. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP REDUNDANCY. What does this mean? A. A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately B. All pumps in the engine room are duplicated C. Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit. D. All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility

709. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking? A. Ship's sanitary system. B. Ballast pumps. C. Circulating fore or aft peak tanks. D. Circulating fresh water tanks.

710. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections separated? A. Neoprene lip seals B. Machineable sealing rings. C. Labyrinth seals. D. Mechanical garter spring seals.

1113

DPKP

711. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why? A. The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence. B. The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity. C. The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller. D. The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence

712. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room? A. To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running B. To isolate the pump for repairs. C. In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room D. To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck.

713. What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is correct? A. Insufficient liquid supply to the pump B. Obstruction on the discharge side C. The pump is not bled off properly D. Misalignment of the shaft

714. When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find that the oil has emulsified or that the level of oil has dropped. The most likely reason is…………… A. that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken. B. the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring. C. that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in overload. D. that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontal shaft.

1114

DPKP 5.

Mengoperasikan pompabahan bakar, pelumas, tolak bara

(ballast) dan system pompa-pompa lainnya dan sistem-sistem kontrol

yang

terkait.

(Operate fuel,lubrication, ballastand other

pumpingsystems andassociated controlsystems)

1. What is part number 4 ? A.

A set screw

B.

A holder

C.

A pressure adjuster

D.

A screw fitter

2. What is part number 5 ? A.

The pump shaft

B.

The motor shaft

C.

The pressure outlet

D.

An air seal

3. What is part number 6 ? A.

An outlet

B.

A rotator screw

C.

A plug

D.

A pump connector screw

1115

DPKP

4. Which of the parts is the pump shaft ?

A.

Number 1

B.

Number 2

C.

Number 4

D.

Number 5

5. What are items ''S" ancl what is their purpose ?

A.

Suction valves to pump the wells

B.

Suction boxes to retain priming water

C.

Elephant shoe to facilitate bilge pumping

D.

Strainers to stop dirt from entering the bilge system

1116

DPKP

6. If you find it difficult to obtain suction whilst pumping bilge well "A" which of the following actions would you take ?

A.

All of these.

B.

Prime the pump with sea water

C.

Check that bilge well values "B","C" and '9" are properly closed

D.

Check that strainer cover of well "A" is not leaking

7. How does the filter help in segregating water and dirt ?

A.

Due to regeneration

B.

Due to molecular friction

C.

Due to gravitational force

D.

Due to centrifugal force

1117

DPKP

8. In which pipe lines would you expect to find an illuminated sight glass or bull's eye ? A.

Lube oil pump discharge lines

B.

Tank overflow lines

C.

Fresh water return piping and condensate line

D.

Sea water lines to overboard

9. What is the component shown here ? A.

A Screw compressor

B.

A Piston pump

C.

A Centrifugal pump

D.

A Rotor Screw pump

10. What is part number one in this drawing ?

A.

A sealing

B.

A ball bearing

C.

An end piece

D.

A shaft.

1118

DPKP

11. What is part number two in this drawing ?

A.

A cam shaft

B.

A connecting rod

C.

A center piece

D.

A pump shaft

12. What is part number three in this drawing ?

A.

The gland packing

B.

A bearing

C.

A gland house

D.

A cooling pipie

1119

DPKP

13. What is part number four in this drawing ?

A.

A rotor

B.

A cooling pipe

C.

An air duct

D.

A connecting rod

14. What is part number five in this drawing ?

A.

A bearing holder

B.

A sealer

C.

An end piece

D.

An air relief valve

1120

DPKP

15. Which of the indicated parts is the pump rotor ?

A.

No 1

B.

No 4

C.

No 2

D.

No 3

16. What is part NO 3 ? A.

The impeller

B.

The shaft rotator

C.

The expander

D.

The propeller

17. What are the two main parts in this drawing ? A.

A steam motor and a pump

B.

A centrifugal pump and an electric motor

C.

A compressor and an electric motor

D.

An electric motor and a screw pump

1121

DPKP

18. What type of pump is connected to the electrical motor in this drawing ? A.

A Compressor pump

B.

A Screw pump

C.

A Centrifugal pump

D.

A Piston pump

.

19. What is the component shown in this drawing ?

A.

A Centrifugal pump

B.

A Screw pump

C.

A Centrifugal compressor

D.

A Reefer compressor

1122

DPKP

20. Which is the inlet ?

A.

D

B.

A

C.

C

D.

B

21. Which is the outlet?

A.

A

B.

D

C.

C

D.

B

1123

DPKP

22. What is the component shown here ?

A.

An Injector

B.

An Ejector

C.

A Constructor

D.

A Defector

23. What is part number four ?

A.

An air duct

B.

A connecting rod

C.

A cooling pipe

D.

A rotor

1124

DPKP

24. What is part number flue ?

A.

A bearing holder

B.

An air relief value

C.

A sealer

D.

An end piece

25. Which way will fluid pass through this value ?

A.

In both directions

B.

From B to A

C.

From A to C

D.

From A to B

1125

DPKP

26. What is item '5" ?

A.

The automatic 15 ppm shut-down value

B.

The sea suction value of the pump

C.

A shut-off value

D.

A mesh type strainer

27. Which is the correct parts description list of this suction filter ?

A.

1 = Filter cover, 2 = Filter mesh element, 3 = Filter body

B.

1 = Body cover, 2 = Cartridge, 3 = Cartridge housing

C.

1= Top sealing plate, 2 = Filter element, 3 = Cast Iron body

D.

1 = Top cover , 2 = Filter, 3 = Cast steel pressure body

1126

DPKP

28. What are items No 2 and do 6 called ?

A

Water throwing seals

B

Impeller wear rings

C

Bearing sleeves

D

Fixed restraining rings

29. This in terms of overall pump performance, what is the most important negative effect if an impeller wear ring (No 6) is worn excessively ?

A.

The pumping efficiency deteriorates, less output

B.

The pump will absorb excessive power, motor overload

C.

The housing will be attacked by cavitation

D.

The pump starts vibrating, bearing damage will occur

1127

DPKP

30. What type of centrifugal pump is shown here ?

A.

Self priming, single stage, high speed

B.

Single stage, high speed

C.

Floating, self balancing, single stage

D.

Multi-stage, medium speed

31. What do you think would be the RPM of the electric motor driving this pump (Frequency on board is 60 Hz) ?

A.

About 2300 RPM

B.

About 870 RPM

C.

About 1720 RPM

D.

About 1150 RPM

1128

DPKP

32. When are the high sea chests used ?

A.

When the ship is in shallow water

B.

When the ship is deeply laden at sea

C.

When the ship is in polluted waters

D.

When the ship is in ballast condition

33. What type of filters are fitted to the high and low sea chest suction lines ?

A.

Perforated plate fitters

B.

Mesh wire filters

C.

all flush filters

D.

Backflow filters

1129

DPKP

34. What is the purpose of the spring loaded value, item WA fitted to this pump ?

A.

It is a bleed-off valve

B.

It is a capacity control valve

C.

It is a shock damper

D.

It is a safety valve

35. How can the capacity of this pump be controlled and how is this done ?

A.

By adjusting the internal pressure by spring loaded valve item No 4

B.

By fitting an orifice in the discharge line

C.

By throttling the suction valve

D.

By throttling the discharge valve and reducing spring load item No 4

1130

DPKP

36. If you have to pump oil which is below normal temperature for a while through this type pump (initial cold oil in the line) what precaution will you take prior starting the pump ?

A.

Startistop the pump frequently

B.

Dpen the first spring loaded value first (release spring Dressure)

C.

Throttle the suction value

D.

Bleed off from the manometer suctionfdischarge connection

37. What are items No 6 on this pump ?

A.

The axial plummer pads

B.

The shaft plates

C.

The thrust plates

D.

The rear bearings

1131

DPKP

38. What is part do 'I of this pump ?

A.

A self lubricating oil tight thrust collar

B.

A stuffing box packing unit

C.

A metallic type mechanical seal

D.

A spring loaded oil tight front thrust assembly

39. If we mention worm wheels or a worm wheel set, we distinguish between ……………. of the pump.

A.

the rounded and the bellow gear

B.

the drive shaft year and the idle shaft gear

C.

the tangential year and the straight shaft year

D.

the long shaft year and the stub shaft year

1132

DPKP

40. What would you rate the capacity of this type of pump ?

A.

150 to 250 m3/hour

B.

15 to 25 m3/hour

C.

5 to 7.5 m3/hour

D.

10 to 15 m3/hour

41. What is item No 1 of this type of pump lay-out ?

A.

The pump coupling unit

B.

The pump driving arrangement

C.

The intermediate shaft assembly

D.

The pump shafting system

1133

DPKP

42. What is item No 4 on this pump assembly ?

A.

The reinforcement frame

B.

The pump top casing assembly

C.

The motor stool

D.

The outer casing

43. How is the vertical clearance of the impeller in this pump casing (impeller mouth fitting in bottom casing ring) adjusted ?

A.

By adjusting distance/height by screwed connection 2 on shaft

B.

By fitting shims on pump impeller

C.

By fitting shims between motor shaft and intermediate shaft

D.

By fitting shims in coupled part item No 2 on shaft

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DPKP

44. Which pump parts are fitted in shaft assembly part No 3 ?

A.

Shaft sleeve and mechanical seal

B.

Shaft sleeve and ball bearing

C.

Mechanical seal and ball bearing

D.

Mechanical seal, 0-ring and water thrower

45. If you need to replace the mechanical seal on this pump, which parts would you dismantle and remove in order to give access to the seal ?

A.

Remove motor and intermediate shaft, remove shaft flange

B.

Remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly

C.

Remove motor stool with motor and intermediate shaft complete.

D.

Remove intermediate shaft and shaft flange, take out D pump assembly

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DPKP

46. When starting a centrifugal pump, in order to reduce the initial power surge, you should start the pump with …………

A.

the suction value closed.

B.

throttled discharge valves.

C.

the discharge valve closed.

D.

throttled suction valve.

47. If the performance of a centrifugal pump deteriorates over time (tons/hour x height in metres) it is usually due to …………….

A.

condition of the pump housing.

B.

excessive wear between impeller and mouth ring.

C.

condition of the ball bearing.

D.

cavitation of the impeller.

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DPKP

48. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why ?

A.

The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity

B.

The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence

C.

The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller

D.

The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence

49. Centrifugal pumps are installed in circuits where the liquids …………. A.

have a moderate to high temperature.

B.

are highly viscous.

C.

have a high air content.

D.

are not excessively viscous.

50. Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ……………. A.

have a high air content.

B.

have to be pumped to elevated heights.

C.

are mixed with solids.

D.

are mixed with fuel or oil.

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DPKP

51. If it is noted after overhaul that the pump bearings overheat and it is verified that it is correctly assembled and no parts are touching, the reason is…………………

A.

misalignment of the shaft

B.

obstruction on the discharge side

C.

the pump is not bled off properly

D.

insufficient liquid supply to the pump

52. When assembling an Endless Screw Pump you have to obtain the correct AXIAL and RADIAL play between its shafts, if not ……….

A.

the pump will run hot and seize

B.

wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress

C.

the bearings will disintegrate after a short time

D.

the shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations

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DPKP

53. Why is it necessary for centrifugal pumps which can be remotely started and have a discharge head over 10 metres (for example the fire pump) to have a nonreturn valve fitted at pump level? A.

To avoid the discharge piping from bursting when started

B.

To avoid an air lock settling in the pump

C.

To avoid the pump tripping on overload when started

D.

To avoid loss of suction when starting

54. If the diameter of this valve is 60 mm on its inner seat, what is the minimum fixed lift height ?

A.

10 mm

B.

15 mm

C.

20 mm

D.

12.5 mm

55. What is the purpose of screw cap (1) in the picture ?

A.

To adjust initial lift height to about 8 to 10 mm

B.

To adjust the lift to 25% of the diameter

C.

To adjust the valve down if it is heard banging

D.

To manually close the valve 1139

DPKP

56. What are items 'W' ?

A.

Ballast water tanks

B.

Cargo hold bilge wells

C.

Side water tanks

D.

Hold deep wells

57. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells ?

A.

Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room

B.

Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded

C.

Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging

D.

Because the engineers are in charge of pumping the bilges

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DPKP

58. How are bilge wells 'W' covered to stop solids entering during cargo carriage or cargo operations ?

A.

There is no covering

B.

By perforated plating

C.

By sack cloth

D.

By steel plates bolted on

59. What type of valves are fitted to cargo bilge lines in front of the Engine Room bulkhead ?

A.

Auto-closing valves

B.

Bilge gate valves

C.

Non-return screw down valves

D.

Manifold valves

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DPKP

60. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which pump is the Fire and Ballast Pump ?

A.

140 m3/hour x 30 metres

B.

40 m3/hour x 55 metres

C.

110/410 m3/hour x 70/35 metres

D.

410 m3/hour x 20 metres

61. Here are some capacities of sea water pumps. Which one is the Fresh Water HydrophorePump ?

A.

5 m3/hour x 25 metres

B.

40 m3/hour x 55 metres

C.

5 m3/hour x 50 metres

D.

0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres

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DPKP

62. What type of pump do you think is used for the purpose shown here ?

A.

A vane pump

B.

A piston pump

C.

A gear pump

D.

A worm wheel pump

63. Air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented by ……………. A.

an air seal line from the compressed airline.

B.

a water seal line to the packing gland.

C.

a special packing in the stuffing box.

D.

the vacuum in the pump suction.

64. What is this component called ?

A.

A Two way valve

B.

A Dynamic valve

C.

A Triple flushing valve

D.

A lion return value

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DPKP

65. Which way does the fluid pass through the valve ?

A

Neither direction

B

From 13 to A

C

From A to B

D

Either direction

66. What is part No 1 ?

A.

A Seal Blade

B.

A Glide Bearing

C.

A Shaft protector

D.

A Mechanical seal

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DPKP

67. What is part No 2 ?

A.

A key

B.

A shaft correction unit

C.

A balancer

D.

An adjuster

68. What is the purpose of part do 2 ?

A.

To clean the bearing

B.

To indicate the shaft distance

C.

To adjust the pressure

D.

To align the impeller with the pump shaft

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DPKP

69. What is part No 4 ?

A.

The screw fitter

B.

The holder

C.

The set screw

D.

The pressure adjuster

70. What is part do 5 ?

A.

The pump shaft

B.

The air seal

C.

The pressure outlet

D.

The motor shaft

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DPKP

71. What is part 110 6 ?

A.

The plug

B.

The rotator screw

C.

The outlet

D.

The pump connector screw

72. Which part is the key for the pump shaft ?

A.

No 3

B.

No 5

C.

No 2

D.

No 1

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DPKP

73. Which part is the mechanical seal ?

A.

No 2

B.

No 6

C.

No 1

D.

No 3

74. What is part No 3 ?

A.

The holder

B.

The wear ring

C.

The spring washer

D.

The mechanical seal

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DPKP

75. What is the purpose of Part No 4 ?

A.

To support the shaft

B.

To hold the impeller and connect the motor

C.

To prevent liquid moving upward

D.

To support for the impeller

76. What is Part No 6 ?

A.

The spring support

B.

The washer

C.

The connector

D.

The wear ring

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DPKP

77. What is Part No 1 called ?

A.

The Ejector

B.

The Diffusor

C.

The Nozzle

D.

The Sprayer

78. Which part is the diffusor ?

A.

Part 4

B.

Part 2

C.

Part 1

D.

Part 3

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DPKP

79. What is Part No 5 called ?

A.

The Mixer

B.

The Gas Adjuster

C.

The Set Screw

D.

The Flange Ring

80. What is Part No 3 called ?

A.

The 0 Ring

B.

The Ring holder

C.

The Nozzle

D.

The Ejector bearing

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DPKP

81. What are items do 2 of this pump ?

A.

The driven end bearings

B.

Shaft collars

C.

The rear end bearings

D.

The driver and the driven gears of the worm wheels

82. What are items "V" ?

A.

Vacuum suction boxes

B.

Straight bilge gate valves

C.

Vacuum flap valves

D.

Non-return screw down valves

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DPKP

83. What type of value is shown here ?

A.

A check valve

B.

A screw-down valve

C.

A gate valve

D.

A non-return valve

84. Which types of tank gauging are fitted here, if : 1 = Float reading on the tank, 2 = Measure tape reading, 3 = Sight glass reading, 4 = Distance reading, 5 = Pneumatic gauging. ?

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1, 3 and 5

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2, 3 and 5

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DPKP

85. What is part number 3 called ?

A.

The primary pump

B.

The purifier

C.

The clarifier pump

D.

the secondary pump

86. What is shown here ?

A.

A common suction mesh strainer

B.

A Fuel Oil pressure line filter

C.

A Lubricating Oil pressure line filter

D.

A centrifugal filter

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DPKP

87. What ensures the tightness of the filter cover (1) to the fitter body (3) ?

A.

The clamp on top of the fitter cover

B.

The fitter's gasket

C.

The gasket pressed down by the filter cover's clamp

D.

The vacuum created in the filter

88. What type of filter is shown here ?

A.

A magnetic fitter

B.

A cartridge type pressure line fitter

C.

A suction wire mesh fitter

D.

A rotating fitter

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DPKP

89. What is the correct parts description list of this pressurisedfilter ?

A.

1 = Top plate, 2 = Mesh cloth, 3 = Housing

B.

I = Filter cover, 2 = Ribbed cartridge, 3 = Filter body

C.

I = Filter top, 2 = Filter cloth, 3 = Housing body

D.

I = Top cover, 2 = Element, 3 = Cast body

90. How is pump '4" driven from the purifier ?

A.

By being directly attached to the gears of the purifier crankcase

B.

By electric motor

C.

By replaceable sheer pins from the purifier crankcase

D.

By lf-belt

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DPKP

91. What is item 'F’ ?

A.

A fuel shut-off solenoid

B.

A normal mesh filter/strainer

C.

A fine filter

D.

A flow meter

92. What is the usual inlet temperature of Main Engine lubricating oil to the purifier (Tin) ?

A.

70 degree C

B.

75 degree C

C.

95 degree C

D.

85 degree C

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DPKP

93. When you start a purifier it takes several minutes to accelerate to full speed since the power from the electric motor is transferred by …………. to the purifier

A.

a magnetic coupling

B.

Friction pads

C.

a rotating coupling

D.

the bowl spindle

94. What kind of heat exchanger is drawn here ?

A.

A plate battery heat exchanger

B.

A double flow or loop flow tube heat exchanger

C.

A finned bank block heat exchanger

D.

A single flow pipe tube heat exchanger

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DPKP

95. If the heated medium of this heater is oil and the heating medium is steam, excess steam supply or sufficient oil flow could cause excessive …………... in the heater.

A.

deformation

B.

corrosion

C.

carbon formation

D.

pitting

96. What grade of fuel does the temperature of the daily tank suggest is in use ?

A.

Marine diesel

B.

Gas oil

C.

Distillate diesel

D.

Intermediate or heavy fuel oil (1500 - 3500 sec redwood 1)

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DPKP

97. What are items ‘F’ ?

A.

Filters

B.

Flow controllers

C.

Flow meters

D.

Fast shut-off values

98. What is the function of the lubrication oil sump tank ?

A.

To act as as buffer tank of the system oil in use

B.

As supply source of the system oil

C.

To collect the system oil in use

D.

All of these.

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DPKP

99. What kind of fuel oil system is shown here ?

A.

A heavy fuel oil system

B.

A blend fuel oil system

C.

A marine diesel oil system

D.

A gas oil system

100. What is the component marked ‘BUC’ ?

A.

The Blend Unit Caforifier

B.

The Base Unit Calorifier

C.

The Basic Unit Controller

D.

The Blend Unit Controller

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DPKP

101. Over which components does the Blending Unit Controller act in order to blend fuel of the required viscosity?

A.

The diesel oil and heavyfuel oil booster pumps

B.

The steam inlet and return by-pass valves of the fuel heater

C.

All of these.

D.

The diesel oil and fuel oil inlet valves of the blender

102. Where does the blending of fuels take place in this system ?

A.

In unit H

B.

In units DP and FP

C.

In unit BUC

D.

In unit BU

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DPKP

103. What are the components marked 'M’ ?

A.

Manometers

B.

Magnetic shut-off values

C.

Flow meters

D.

Microprocessors

104. What are the components marked ‘F’ ?

A.

Fuel pumps

B.

Flow meters

C.

Fuel heaters

D.

Fuel filters

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DPKP

105. Which part of this system is usually heated to 65 degree C ? Study the picture.

A.

The blending unit controller BUC

B.

The HFO daily tank

C.

The blending unit BU

D.

The unit H

106. What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil tank ?

A.

To act as collecting tank from Main Engine scavenge drains

B.

To act as a collecting tank for all non-reusable oils

C.

To act as a drain tank of the piston rod stuffing boxes

D.

To act as collecting tank for dirty oil from the Main Engine intend for purification

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DPKP

107. In what kind of piping would you find this type of filter ? A. In bilge piping B. In fuel oil piping C. In sea water piping D. In starting air piping

108. If when you start up a purifier it does not come up to the desired revolutions, or it takes too long a time to come up to the required revolutions, you should change the ………………. A. friction pad linings. B. gravity disc. C. purifier ball bearings. D. O-rings and seal set of the bowl. 109. The most common reason for overflow on purifiers is ……………… A. Sall bearings worn out. B. the wrong gravity disc. C. dirt between purifier plates. D. water seal broken. 110. When the density of purified oil has increased, you should ………….. A. Increase the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter. B. Decrease the temperature and increase the gravity disc inside diameter. C. Decrease the temperature and decrease the gravity disc inside diameter. D. Increase the temperature and decrease the gravity disc diameter.

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DPKP

111. During start up of a purifier, how will you notice when the bowl has reached the required revolutions ? A. The starting amperage will drop sharply to normal (1/3 to 1/4) from the starting current. B. The crankcase rotating indicator will turn fast C. The purifier will make a humming noise D. The vibrations on the purifier will increase

112. Caution must be taken when handling purifiers since errors can cause great danger. Handle with due caution is required in operation, dismantling, assembling, inspection, maintenance. This is because …………….. A. oils and fuels cause fire and explosion when handled carelessly. This danger is increase because the fuels and oils fed to purifiers is heated. B. static electricity may be generated if parts are wrongly assembled causing explosion within the purifier. C. danger of electrocution from the electric power supply to driving motor, various control solenoids and other required operational controls is great. D. purifier bowls revolve at very high speed causing great centrifugal forces to act, careless handling causes danger of disintegration.

113. If some part of a purifier bowl assembly is defective, what action should be taken ? A. Order the specific bowl spare part B. Have it repaired on board if it can be done C. Sent it to a qualified workshop for repair D. Contact the makers for guidance and act on their advise only 114. The starting/accelerating current of a purifier is ……………% of the normal operating current. A. 100 B. 150 C. 50 D. 250

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DPKP

115. The time interval for automatic sludge discharge from purifiers must be chosen correctly, in general the more frequent the interval, the better, however intervals too short give bad efficiency, intervals too long ………… A. will atso give bad efficiency. B. may result in overflowing of the purifier due to clogging with dirt. C. will result in difficult desludging due to adhesion of sludge. D. may result in water seal depletion.

116. As a rule of the thumb, the time interval set for automatic desludging of diesel oil purifiers should be….. hours. A. 4 to 5 B. 2 to 4 C. 6 to 8 D. 6 to 9

117. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 380 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………. hours. A. I to 2 B. 6 to 8 C. 4 to 6 D. 2 to 4

118. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of 180 cSt heavy fuel oil purifiers should be………hours. A. 3 to 5 B. 2 to 3 C. 4 to 6 D. 6 to 8

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DPKP

119. As a rule of the thumb, time interval set for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers used on crosshead type engine sumps should be………hours. A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 3

120. As a rule of the thumb, time interval for automatic desludging of lubricating oil purifiers fitted on sumps of trunk-type engines should be set at……….hours. A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 6

121. The factors which determine the selection of the size of gravity disc for a purifier are……….. A. the oil temperature, the sludge content and the specific gravity. B. the bowl speed, the oil temperature and water content. C. the specific gravity of the oil, the oil temperature and the feed rate. D. the oil temperature, the water and sludge content and the specific gravity.

122. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The purifying operation is……… A. the separation of solids from oils with the use of a water barrier seal and is called a two-phase operation. B. the separation of solids from liquids and is called a single phase operation. C. a 3-phase separating operation of light liquid, heavy liquid and solids (water, oil, dirt). D. the separation of light liquids from heavy liquids, (oil from ater) and is called a two-phase operation.

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DPKP

123. Oil purifiers can be used for purifying as well as for clarifying operations. The clarifying operation refers to……….. A. the single phase liquid-liquid operation (water from oil). B. The 2 phase liquid-solid operation, separating dirt from oil. C. the 3 phase liquid-liquid-solid operation, separating light from heavy liquids, as well as solids from light as from heavy liquids. D. The 2 phase solid-liquid operation, separating dirt from water and oil.

124. The usual mode of series operation of two heavy fuel oil purifiers refers to……………. A. two identical machines being put from settling tank to 1st purifier, hence to second purifier, at half the feed rate of the required quantity. B. two identical purifiers being used as well for heavy fuel oil as for diesel oil, by changing line system and gravity discs. C. two identical machines being operated in series, the first as purifier, the second in line as clarifier with same throughput. D. two identical machines being put separately from settling ank to dailytank at half the feed rate of the required quantity.

125. If you find that the feed rate of an oil purifier (its throughput) has reduced, the most likely reason for this is A. that the amount of sealing water of the bowl is insufficient or the containing tank is empty or shut-off. B. that the revolution speed of the bowl has slowed or the electric motor is operating in overload. C. that the wrong type of gravity disc is fitted, the oil temperature is incorrect or the heater is blocked. D. that the capacity of gear pump has fallen, the pump's 'elief valve has opened, a leaking suction pipe or suction liter is clogged.

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DPKP

126. When inspecting purifier crankcase oil you find that the oil has emulsified or that the level of oil has dropped. The most likely reason is…………… A. that the safety joint of the oil pump is broken. B. the bowl is leaking water on the main seal ring. C. that the bowl revolutions have dropped and the purifier is working in overload. D. that water is leaking in or oil is leaking out via the oil seal of the horizontal shaft.

127. Where is the inlet for the unclean oil ?

A.

Area 3

B.

Area 1

C.

Area 6

D.

Area 4

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DPKP

128. What is part number 2 called ?

A.

The bowl hood

B.

The paring disc

C.

The distributor

D.

The chamber

129. Which part is the paring disc used for removing water ?

A.

Part 3

B.

Part 2

C.

Part 4

D.

Part 6

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DPKP

130. What is part number 3 called ?

A.

The paring disc operating water

B.

The paring disc for processed oil

C.

Slots holding a space

D.

the spring support

131. What is part number 5 called ?

A.

The bowl stack

B.

The disc stack

C.

The paring disc

D.

The disk holder

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DPKP

132. The ash content of a fuel oil is significant because it………….. A. is useful for determining proper atomization temperatures. B. indicates the quantity of energy released by burning a unit amount of the fuel. C. is non-combustible and remains partly in the engine. D. eflects the overall thermal efficiency of the fuel oil service system.

133. The relief values in a fuel oil service system discharge to either the service pump suction or to the…………. A. simplex fuel oil strainer. B. recirculating line. C. slop retention tanks. D. settling tanks.

134. What is part number one called ?

A.

The service tank

B.

The expansion tank

C.

The settlement tank

D.

The drainage tank

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DPKP

135. Which part is the heater ?

A.

Number 4

B.

Number 2

C.

Number 3

D.

Number 1

136. Which of the two drawings shows two series connected purifiers ?

A.

None

B.

2

C.

1

D.

Both 1 and 2

1174

DPKP

137. Where is the separation carried out ?

A.

At the bottom of the separator

B.

At the corner end number 3

C.

Between the discs number 5

D.

Below discs number 1

138. What is item ‘V’ ?

A.

A fine fitter

B.

A blow-trough steam value

C.

An automatic stop value

D.

A viscometer

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DPKP

139. What is item 'M’ ?

A.

The magnetic shut-off valve

B.

The magnetic filter

C.

The fuel flow Meter

D.

The manometer

140. What is the function of valve ‘PR’ in this fuel circuit ?

A.

A constant pressure regulating valve

B.

A fuel drain value in case of engine shut-down

C.

A safety blow-off valve in case of Emergency Stop

D.

A de-gassing/HP gas release by very high fuel temperature

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DPKP

141. What are the parts marked ‘F’ ?

A.

Automatic fitters

B.

Fine filters

C.

A combination of these or any of the these

D.

Magnetic filters

142. Fuel of 180 cst is in use on board. Fuel of 380 cst is now being bunkered. How will this affect the reading of thermometer ''T" ?

A.

Temperature remains constant by same fuel pump viscosity.

B.

Temperature will decrease when 380 cst fuel is used

C.

Temperature will increase when 380 cst fuel is used

D.

None of the above

1177

DPKP

143. What do you call the tanks in which heauyfuel oil is stored on board ?

A.

Heavy fuel oil tanks

B.

Heavy fuel oil settling tanks

C.

Heavy fuel oil daily tanks

D.

Heavy fuel oil bunker tanks

144. What do you call the gate valves 'MP", 'MS", "AP", AS located on deck ?

A.

Heavy fuel oil manifold bunker valves

B.

Heavy fuel oil main bunker valves

C.

Heavy fuel oil shut-off valves

D.

Heavy fuel oil tank valves

1178

DPKP

145. How is heavy fuel oil from the deeptank transferred to the bunker ?

A.

Via own pumps “P1” and “P2” to transfer pump 'Tp".

B.

Via main bunker value “B.V” to transfer pump "Tp".

C.

Via suction value “S”, the transfer pump, to discharge value “D”

D.

Via own pumps “P1” and “P2”, the main bunker value “BV” to value “D”

146. What is the name and function of the gate value “BV” ?

A.

Main bunker valve, separates double bottom tanks

B.

Main bunker value, separates bunker manifold from engine room

C.

Bunker valve, separates bunker manifold from deeptank

D.

Bunker valve, separates suction and discharge manifold

1179

DPKP

147. How is the free flow of HFO in the bunker tanks maintained when the external temperature drops below it's pour point ?

A.

By transferring it on time to the HFO settling tank

B.

By circulating it with the transfer pump

C.

By always ensuring that warm oil is bunkered

D.

By heating the oil with steam uia steam coils or steam banks

148. Which value in the engine room must be kept closed if no bunker operations or transfer from the deep tanks are taking place ?

A.

Value “D”

B.

Value "BV"

C.

The settling tank value

D.

Value “S”

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DPKP

149. If you increase fuel flow to the purifier using capacity control value CC, what other action must you take ?

A.

Increase the flow from the settling tank to the purifier

B.

Throttle steam to the HFO service tank

C.

Adjust back pressure with back pressure valve BPV

D.

Drain the service tank at shorter intervals

150. What type of pump is the HFO purifier feed pump P ?

A.

A centrifugal pump

B.

A vane pump

C.

A piston pump

D.

A gear pump or worm pump

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DPKP

151. When using marine diesel oil with a density of about 0.87, what would be the inlet temperature of the fuel to the purifier ?

A.

85 degree C

B.

30 degree C

C.

40 degree C

D.

60 degree C

152. What is the ideal temperature to maintain the Diesel Oil Daily Tank and how is this achieved ?

A.

65 degree C, by application of steam heating

B.

65 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank

C.

45 degree C, by circulating the fuel with the purifier tank

D.

45 degree C, by application of steam heating

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DPKP

153. What description best fits the Main Engine Lub. Oil sump tank ?

A.

A Main Engine system oil reserve tank

B.

A collecting and buffer tank of the Main Engine system oil

C.

An overflow tank of the Main Engine system oil

D.

A collecting tank for main engine dirty oil used by the Main Engine

154. What do all the lubrication oil tanks that are connected the lubrication oil purifiers have in common?

A.

They all contain wasted oils

B.

They all contain the same grade of oil

C.

They all contain in-service oils

D.

They all contain extremely dirty oils

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DPKP

155. Suppose Lubrication Oil Purifier No 2 is running M.E.L.O. sump tank to M.E.L.O. sump tank. Lubrication Oil Purifier No 1 is now to be set up for the other tank purification, which set up is not possible ?

A.

M.E. Dirty Oil Tank to Dirty Oil tank

B.

Aux Diesel Renovating Tank to Renovating tank

C.

M.E. Dirty Oil tank to Lub. Oil sump tank

D.

M.E. Lub Oil sump tank to Dirty Oil Tank

156. Where and how would you take sample of the oil from the Main Engine sump tank ?

A.

In port when engine is stopped taken directly from the sump tank

B.

At the sample cock on delivery side of the M.E. Lub Oil Pump

C.

After the purifier when running sump to sump and M.E. running

D.

from the suction filter drain of the M.E. Lub Oil Pumps

1184

DPKP

157. Which of the following alarms may sound after the automatic de-sludging cycle is completed and the urification of the oil restarts ?

A.

The oil high pressure alarm

B.

The water seal alarm

C.

The oil high temperature alarm

D.

The overflow alarm

158. What is the purpose of the drain cock (3) on this fitter ?

A.

To take samples of the liquid.

B.

To drain the dirt out of the filter basket

C.

To drain the filter before cleaning

D.

To drain out the collected water

1185

DPKP

159. How frequently are the tanks (item number 3) of this fuel oil schematic diagram refilled ?

A.

They are refilled once per day

B.

They are constantly refilled by the fuel purifier

C.

They are refilled twice a week

D.

They are refilled only when required.

160. What would be the temperature of the oil in the settling tank (item number 3) shown in this fuel oil arrangement ?

A.

60 to 80 degree C

B.

30 to 45 degree C

C.

Above 80 degree C

D.

45 to 60 degree C

1186

DPKP

161. What is item number 4 of this fuel oil arrangement drawing ?

A.

A booster pump

B.

A fuel transfer pump

C.

A. heater

D.

A fuel strainer

162. What is item number 5 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

A.

fuel oil ball fitter

B.

A fuel oil booster pump

C.

A fuel oil transfer pump

D.

A fuel oil purifier

1187

DPKP

163. At sea, what should be the level in tank number 2 of this fuel arrangement schematic drawing ?

A.

Full

B.

Between 2/3 and 3/4 full

C.

Between 1/2 and 3/4 full

D.

Variable, depending time of the day

164. Which of the following system set-ups are possible using the fuel arrangement shown here ?

A.

Settling to settling, Daily to Dairy tank

B.

Settling to Daily, Settling to Settling tank

C.

Settling to Daily, Daily to Daily tank

D.

Dally to Settling, Settling to Settling tank

1188

DPKP

165. What is the usual temperature of a fuel oil (HFO) daily tank ? A.

50 to 60 degree C

B.

60 to 75 degree C

C.

40 to 50 degree C

D.

80 to 90 degree C

166. Which of the following are not necessarily fitted on a HFO settling tank ?

A.

A remote tank gauging system

B.

Quick closing shut-off values (remote operated)

C.

A drain value (Spring loaded)

D.

A thermometer

167. Which of the following alarms on UMS operation are not necessarily provided on the Fuel Oil Daily Tank (HFO)

A.

Daily tank high Level

B.

Daily tank low temperature

C.

Daily tank high temperature

D.

Daily tank low level

1189

DPKP

168. What is the effect of temperature on the specific gravity of a fuel oil? A.

The lower the temperature the higher the specific gravity

B.

The higher the temperature the higher the specific gravity

C.

The lower the temperature the lower the specific gravity

D.

The higher the temperature the lower the specific gravity

169. The dirty oily water mixture fills chamber 1 of this separation bowl, where will the clean oil be found ?

A.

Between item 2 and item 4

B.

Item 3 in the bowl

C.

Item 4 in the bowl

D.

Item 2 in the bowl

170. What liquid substance is present in chamber 2 of this oil- water separator ? A.

Clean oil

B.

Dirty oil

C.

Water

D.

Oil-water mixture

1190

DPKP

171. If a dirty oilyiwater mixture is entering chamber item 1 of this separator, where will the dirt settle ?

A.

On the separation plate between liquids 2 and 3

B.

With the liquid item 3

C.

With the liquid item 2

D.

On the bottom item 4

172. Where will the dirt collect which is separated from the oily water mixture in this Sharpies separator, shown left ?

A.

On the oil/water separation plate

B.

Near separating plate flushed off with water

C.

On the inner mantle of the cylindrical bowl

D.

On the bottom of the cylindrical bowl

1191

DPKP

173. Where will the dirt collect from the oily water mixture if separated by the centrifugal disc type separator, shown right ?

A.

On the cylindrical surface of the bowl

B.

In between the discs

C.

On the bottom of the bowl

D.

On the top separation plate between oil and water

174. The Disc type oil separator can usually separate water from oil when processing oils between which density ranges ? A.

0.87 to 0.95

B.

0.84to 0.945

C.

0.845 to 0.965

D.

0.78 to 0.98

1192

DPKP

175. If insufficient water sealing is present (blue colour) in the bowl of this separator, what will be the effect ?

A.

Insufficient oil will be pumped through the purifier

B.

The purifier will overflow oil on the water side

C.

The high temperature alarm will activate

D.

No oil will be pumped through the purifier

176. When in UMS mode of engine room operation, at what intervals should the HFO daily tank be drained via valve “D” ?

A.

At 08.00hr and 17.00hr as well in last evening round prior UMS operation

B.

Twice a day

C.

As required

D.

Every 4 hours

1193

DPKP

177. What is pipe No 1 ? A.

The lub oil outlet

B.

The lub oil inlet

C.

The salt water inlet

D.

the salt water outlet

178. What is component No 5 ?

A.

The tub oil inlet

B.

The fresh water purger

C.

The oil purging valve

D.

The Sediment drain

1194

DPKP

179. What is part No 4 ?

A.

The saltwater cooling element

B.

The inspection ladder

C.

The lubrication tubes

D.

The copper tubes

180. What is Part No 7 ?

A.

The sea water drain value

B.

The sediment tapping value

C.

The water temperature gauge

D.

The high pressure Lub oil inlet

1195

DPKP

181. What is component number 5 ?

A.

The lub oil inlet

B.

The drain for sediments

C.

The oil purging value or lub oil vent

D.

The fresh water purger

182. What is the purpose of the auxiliary diesel renovating lubrication oil tank ?

A.

To act as purification stand-by tank for the auxiliary diesel sump tanks

B.

To act as a collecting tank for non-reusable auxiliary diesel Lub. oils

C.

To collect used auxiliary diesel lubrication oil and purify it for reuse

D.

To keep auxiliary diesel Lub. Oils fresh

1196

DPKP

183. What kind of pump is pump “P” ?

A.

A piston pump

B.

A gear or worm wheel pump

C.

A centrifugal pump

D.

A vane pump

184. What would loss of vacuum indicate on a bilge pump? A.

Bilge empty

B.

Discharge value closed.

C.

Pump impeller choked.

D.

Suction strainer blocked.

185. What is the usual method of reducing delivery pressure on a gear pump? A.

Bylining an orifice in the discharge line

B.

By throttling the suction value

C.

By adjusting the internal spring loaded pressure relief value

D.

By throttling the discharge value

186. Flow is air leakage into the packing gland of a condensate pump is prevented? A.

Special packing in the stuffing box.

B.

An air seal line from the compressed airline.

C.

The air pump fitted to the pump

D.

A water seal line to the packing gland

1197

DPKP

187. From the following pump capacities, which would be most suitable for the domestic fresh water system? A.

20 m3/hour x 25 metres

B.

0.5 m3/hour x 40 metres

C.

40 m3/hour x 55 metres

D.

5 m3/hour x 50 metres

189. Where what be the most likely service for a multi stage centrifugal pump? A.

Fuel oil transfer

B.

Boiler feed pump

C.

Hydraulic winch power pack

D.

Bilge and ballast

190. at would you rate the capacity of this type of pump? A.

10 to 15 m3/hour

B.

50 to 250 m3/hour

C.

5 to 7.5 m3/hour

D.

15 to 25 m3/hour

191. For which service would a gear pump be most suitable? A.

Engine cooling water circulating.

B.

Engine lub oil pressure supply.

C.

Bilge pumping

D.

Boiler feed water supply.

192. Reciprocating pumps are most suited to pumping which medium? A.

Liquids mixed with solids.

B.

Pumping liquids against a high head pressure.

C.

Liquids having high air content.

D.

Transferring liquids at very high flow rates.

1198

DPKP

193. Worm and worm wheel distinguish between what pump components? A.

The rounded and the bellow gear.

B.

The tangential gear and the straight shaft gear.

C.

The driving and driven shaft gears

D.

The long shaft gear and the stub shaft gear.

194. What service are centrifugal pumps most suitable for? A.

Where liquids are not excessively viscous.

B.

Where the liquid has a high temperature.

C.

Where liquids are extremely viscous.

D.

Where there is a high air content.

195. When assembling an 'Endless Screw"type pump what results from insufficient axial or radial clearance? A.

The shaft seal will loosen due to vibrations.

B.

The pump will not pump.

C.

Wear down and shaft deformation will be caused due friction stress.

D.

The pump will not deliver correct pressure.

196. When starting a centrifugal pump what condition would be adopted to reduce the initial load? A.

Suction and discharge valves closed.

B.

The discharge value closed.

C.

The suction value closed.

D.

The suction value throttled.

197. What would be the main reason for a centrifugal pump's performance deteriorating over time? A.

Cavitation of the impeller.

B.

Wear of the pump housing.

C.

Near of the gland neck bush.

D.

Excessive wear between impeller and wear ring.

1199

DPKP

198. would you do on first starting a gear if pumping cold oil? A.

Ease off the spring loaded pressure relief valve.

B.

Throttle the suction value

C.

Start/stop the pump frequently

D.

Start the pump with values closed and gradually open.

199. what is the most obvious reason for drop in electrical load on a ballast pump? A.

Malfunction of the electrical motor

B.

Tank being transferred into is full.

C.

Pump no longer pumping liquid.

D.

Malfunction of the pump.

200. What is the most commonly used packing for value glands? A.

Mechanical shaft seal.

B.

Preformed lip seals

C.

Carbon sealing rings.

D.

Soft gland packing.

201. Why does the fluid pass through the value from beneath the value lid? A.

The valve is easier to open.

B.

There is less scouring of the value seat at partial openings.

C.

There is less restriction to flow in this direction.

D.

With the value closed the delivery pressure is isolated from the gland.

202. What jointing material is used on engine exhausts or superheated steam lines? A.

Solid copper joints.

B.

Wire reinforced asbestos joints.

C.

Preformed neoprene joints

D.

General purpose asbestos joints.

1200

DPKP

203. How is expansion allowed for in large diesel engine exhausts? A.

Sliding securing mounts.

B.

Selection of materials and construction to minimize expansion.

C.

Fitting of steel bellows pieces.

D.

Sliding section of piping.

204. Where would you find a duplex fitter unit? A.

In starting air piping

B.

In fuel oil piping

C.

In bilge piping

D.

In sea water piping

205. Where would you find a thermostatic control valve? A.

Hydraulic ring main supply system.

B.

Fuel oil system.

C.

Engine jacket water cooling system.

D.

Engine lub oil system.

206. How does a 'quick closing' value operate? A.

The value can only be opened and closed hydraulically.

B.

An independent mechanism closes the value.

C.

The value bridge is collapsed remotely allowing the value o close.

D.

A retaining collar is released allowing the value to close.

207. Where would you always find Screw Down Non-Return valves fitted? A.

Bilge suction valves

B.

Fuel tank valves

C.

Ballast tank valves

D.

Fire main isolating valves

1201

DPKP

208. What is the first check if difficulty is encountered with pumping bilges and high suction? A.

Check suction strainers and valves.

B.

Open sea suction value to prime pump

C.

Clean the oiliwater separator.

D.

Inspect pump internals for wear

209. Why are conventional strainers not fitted in the cargo hold bilge wells? A.

They would restrict the pumping of bilge wells.

B.

Because they might be damaged during loading and discharging

C.

Because the cargo holds are cleaner than the engine room.

D.

Because they are inaccessible when cargo is loaded

210. How are cargo hold bilge wells covered to prevent solids from entering them? A.

By perforated plating

B.

There is no covering

C.

By steel grid plates bolted in place

D.

By very fine mesh grids

211. What type of valve is fitted to cargo bilge lines at the Engine Room bulkhead? A.

Non-return screw down valves

B.

Screw lift valves

C.

Butterfly valves

D.

Gate valves

212. What is the purpose of a cofferdam? A.

To provide a barrier space between tanks containing different liquids.

B.

As a watertight barrier.

C.

As an emergency storage space for bilge water.

D.

As a collection space for leaking pipe work

1202

DPKP

213. If the value wheel of an extended spindle value is free, but the value seems to be not moving, what would you check first? A.

Whether the value is dirty.

B.

If there is excess pressure on the value.

C.

Check that the value is not broken.

D.

Check to see if the value spindle is being turned.

214. According to regulations, on board ships it is necessaryto have PUMP REDUNDANCY. What does this mean? A.

A stand-by pump must be available for each pump separately

B.

All pumps in the engine room are duplicated

C.

Two identical pumps must be fitted for each circuit.

D.

All essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility

215. What generator cooling is sometimes used in dry-docking? A.

Ship's sanitary system.

B.

Ballast pumps.

C.

Circulating fore or aft peak tanks.

D.

Circulating fresh water tanks.

216. In a centrifugal general service pump how are suction and discharge sections separated? A.

Neoprene lip seals

B.

Machineable sealing rings.

C.

Labyrinth seals.

D.

Mechanical garter spring seals.

217. If a serious cavitation problem is experienced effecting the pump casing and impeller badly, the shape and design of which pump part could be altered and why? A.

The shape of the mouth ring to extend it and avoid turbulence.

B.

The shape of the impeller to decrease capacity.

C.

The shape of the inlet piping to smooth the flow into the impeller.

D.

The shape of the outlet pipe to dampen turbulence 1203

DPKP

218. Why is an isolating value fitted on the fire main from the engine room? A.

To maintain pressure on the fire main with the pump not running

B.

To isolate the pump for repairs.

C.

In case there is a fire restricted to the engine room

D.

To isolate the engine room and enable the emergency fire pump to supply the deck.

219.What could cause overheating after pump overhaul, it is verified that assembly is correct? A.

Insufficient liquid supply to the pump

B.

Obstruction on the discharge side

C.

The pump is not bled off properly

D.

Misalignment of the shaft

220. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge? A.

600ppm

B.

1000ppm

C.

100ppm

D.

50ppm

221. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A.

0ppm

B.

25ppm

C.

50ppm

D.

l5ppm

222. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A.

Only in a case of emergency.

B.

If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out.

C.

When proceeding Full Ahead.

D.

During the hours of darkness.

1204

DPKP

223. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level? A.

A visible alarm.

B.

The discharge is dumped to the bilge

C.

An audible alarm.

D.

The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

224. What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess? A.

Safety Construction certificate.

B.

IOPP certificate

C.

MCA pollution certificate.

D.

Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate

225. What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book? A.

Record fuel consumption.

B.

Record quantity of fuel onboard.

C.

Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.

D.

Record oily bilge levels.

1205

DPKP 6. Mengoperasikan sistem listrik, sistem elektronik dan sistem kontrol (Operate electrical,electronic andcontrol systems) 1.

An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as conductance G (Siemens). Which of the formulas A to D expresses the conductance for this circuit? A. G = 1 / R B. G = 2 R C. G = I / R D. G = R * V

2.

In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer? A. A transducer that converts a known electric current to a pressure proportional to the current. B. A transducer that increases a pressure signal which is too low to give the desired effect. C. A transducer that is inverting a pressure signal. D. A transducer that converts a pressure to a proportional electric signal.

3.

Measuring instruments must be routinely calibrated. What is the meant by instrument calibration? A. Comparing input and output values against a documented standard B. Comparing two instruments of the same type C. Adjusting size to fit process connection D. Turning gauge too an easy reading position

4.

Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature coefficient thermistor will typically have A. Relatively non linear characteristic B. Relatively linear characteristic C. Inaccurate measurement D. Variable reliability

1206

DPKP

5.

This block diagram illustrates an elementary control system. What is the common name for this type of system? A. Closed loop feed back system B. Open loop feed back system C. Feed forward system D. Scmitt trigger

6.

Transducers are devices which translate the value of one measured value into diferent measurement units (for instance units of temperature to millivlots). What is the meant by the “Range” of a transducer? A. The

difference

between

possible

maximum

and

minimum

measurement B. The maximum output signal C. The type of measurement D. The maximum length of the connecting leads

7.

What is a ZENER BARRIER? A. A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsic safety in installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas. B. A zener barrier is a device which limits the current drawn byan induction motor. C. A zener barrier is a diode bridge used in rectifiers. D. A zener barrier is a device that allows the current to pass only one direction.

8.

What is the resistance value of this resistor: A. 10 M ohm B. 230 k ohm C. 2,3 k ohm D. 68 k ohm

1207

DPKP

9.

10.

What type of component does this graphical symbol illustrate? A.

Pressure-reducing regulator.

B.

Pressure relief valve

C.

Pressure switch

D.

Flow controller

What will be the probable outcome, if the amplification is set too high on a temperature controller?

11.

12.

13.

A.

The process will oscillate and get out of control

B.

Nothing

C.

The process response will be very slow

D.

The set-point will change

Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? A.

Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console

B.

Pressure instument, installed locally

C.

Pressure relief valve, self-contained

D.

PH analyzer

Which of the following instruments is normally part of a control-loop? A.

Transducer

B.

Indicator

C.

Plotter

D.

Gauge

Which of the following systems will include a D/P transmitter in the control-loop A.

Pressure

B.

Temperature

C.

Smoke indication

D.

Oil mist

1208

DPKP

14.

Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the correct location A. The control system is depending on the best possible process signal B. It is important to have easy access to the transmitter for maintenance C. It must be easy to observe for troubleshooting D. Can be installed anywhere in the piping system

15.

A resistor has three red bands. If they all carry information about resistance value as opposed to tolerance, what is the indicated resistance?

16.

A.

2200 ohm

B.

22 ohm

C.

222 ohm

D.

220 ohm

A thermistor may be used to measure temperature. Which of the following descriptions most accurately describes this device?

17.

A.

Temp sensitive semi-conductor

B.

Junction of two dissimilar metals

C.

Capacitance probe

D.

Platinium wire resistor

During routine checking of alarm functions of main and auxiliary equipment, some setpoints are cancelled due to a mistake.

What is the

appropriate routine to ensure correct setpoints are set? A. Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in question for correct values. B. Ask your colleague if he remembers the correct setpoint C. Check from previous records for correct values D. Select a setpoint based on present condition allowing for a reasonable safety margin.

1209

DPKP

18.

In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that all cabling should be separated from non-intrinsically safe equipment, and (where colour coding is relied upon) to be of a special colour. What colour is that?

19.

A.

Blue

B.

Green/yellow

C.

Red

D.

Orange

In measurement systems there is often a need to specify performance characteristics. One such characteristic may be referred to as 'dead band'. What is the definition of DEAD BAND? A. The change needed in the input signal to produce a change in the output signal. B. The change in the output signal produced by a certain change in the input signal. C. The largest difference in the output signal for the same change in the input signal. D. A missing electrical signal with no output.

20.

In measurement systems, which of the listed sensors is suitable for physical displacement?

21.

A.

Strain gauge

B.

Thermocouple

C.

Thermistor

D.

Pt 500

In terms of electronic hardware, what is the meaning of the abbreviation PCB? A.

Printed Circuit Board

B.

Power Control Bridge

C.

Positive Colour Board

D.

Positive Current Biased

1210

DPKP

22.

In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is a digital signal? A. A signal with discrete levels such as 0 = "low" and 1 = "High" B. A signal indicating Revolutions per minute (RPM) C. A signal used by multimeters to measure resistance. D. The reading of a multimeter when indicating voltage, current or resistance.

23.

It is common practice to connect a resistor over an alarm contact (see diagram) in many applications. Why is this connection used? A. To monitor the cable/wires for break. B. To avoid sparks on the contacts when opening and closing. C. To stabilise power consumption. D. Enable measuring the total resistance of the circuit.

24.

Measurement and transmission of electronic values may be in the form of digital or analogue signals. What is an analogue signal?

25.

26.

A.

A continually variable electric signal.

B.

A measure of electric current or voltage

C.

A measure of voltage using an oscilloscope.

D.

A stable electric signal.

P = U x I x Root of 3) x cos (fi) A.

Formula 1

B.

Formula 2

C.

Formula 3

D.

Formula 4

What is the formula for I ?

PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or 4 wires. What is the reason for this? A.

Higher measuring accuracy.

B.

Higher mechanical strength of the cable.

C.

Because of power-consumption.

D.

For fault indication.

1211

DPKP

27.

Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if they are modulated. There are several ways to modulate a carrier. Which modulating method is illustrated here?

28.

A.

Amplitude modulation (AM)

B.

Frequency modulation (FM)

C.

Pulse-width modulation (PWM)

D.

Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

Some areas of ships require that any electrical equipment used must be intrinsically safe. What is meant by being intrinsically safe?

29.

A.

Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?

B.

Electric wiring executed by approved manufacture?

C.

Any electrical product, being water resistant?

D.

Explosion proof product having a special wiring system?

Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does it mean?

30.

A.

Intrinsically safe.

B.

Explosion proof.

C.

Internally explosion proof.

D.

Not safe in gas dangerous area.

The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H, connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the two inductors. A.

L(S) =

4H

B.

L(S) = 18 H

C.

L(S) = 1,5 H

D.

L(S) = 0,667H

1212

DPKP

31.

The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular

electronic

component and a typical operating characteristic for the same. Which component?

32.

A.

Transistor

B.

Tunnel diode

C.

Thyristor

D.

Zener diode

The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component and a typical operating characteristic for the same component. Which component?

33.

A.

Triac

B.

Zener diode

C.

Tunnel diode

D.

Field effect transistor

The physical size of a resistor is an indicator of what aspect of it's specification?

34.

A.

Power dissipation capability

B.

Total resistance

C.

Resistivity

D.

Tolerance

The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA. What is the span of the output signal? A.

16 mA

B.

20 mA

C.

24 mA

D.

4 mA

1213

DPKP

35.

Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the following descriptions explains the principle of operation of a thermocouple? A. A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a small voltage. B. A semi-conductor device that exhibits a negative coefficient of resistance with temperature. C. A resistance device that exhibits a positive coefficient of resistance with temperature. D. A quartz crystal that changes its resonant frequency with temperature.

36.

This circuit is widely used for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the diagrams is correct for the out- put voltage when the input voltage is sineshaped as shown?

37.

A.

Figure 1

B.

Figure 2

C.

Figure 3

D.

Figure 4

This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 µF and C(2) = 12 µF, in series. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two capacitors.

38.

A.

C(S) = 4 µF

B.

C(S) =2µF

C.

C(S)=1,5µF

D.

C(S) =18µF

This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm , connected in series. Calculate the equivalent resistance R(S) . A.

R(S) =18 ohm

B.

R(S) = 4 ohm

C.

R(S) = 72 ohm

D.

R(S) =1,5 ohm

1214

DPKP

39.

This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm, connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent value R(S) of the two resistances.

40.

A.

R(S)= 4 ohm

B.

R(S) =18 ohm

C.

R(S)=2ohm

D.

R(S) =1,5 ohm

This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate perform?

41.

42.

43.

A.

NOR gate

B.

NAND gate

C.

OR gate

D.

AND gate

This graphical symbol is a logic gate with truth table. Which gate? A.

OR

B.

AND

C.

NOR

D.

NAND

This is the graphical symbol and truth table for a logic gate. Which gate? A.

NOR

B.

NAND

C.

OR

D.

AND

This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which colour code should be marked on the rings (assume ring d is the tolerance ring)? A.

a. blue b. grey c. orange

B.

a. black b. red

C.

a. violet b. green

D.

a. red

c. orange c. yellow

b. black c. yellow

1215

DPKP

44.

Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric pressure.

What is the common name pressures measured relative to

atmospheric pressure?

45.

A.

Gauge pressure

B.

Atmospheric pressure

C.

Absolute pressure

D.

Pressure drop

Use Kirchoff's voltage law and Ohm's law to calculate the voltage V2 across the resistance R2.

46.

47.

A.

4,5V

B.

0,75V

C.

6V

D.

2V

What can be measured by means of a manometer? A.

Pressure

B.

Strain

C.

Temperature

D.

Motion

What function is this operational amplifier circuit performing? A.

Inverting amplifier

B.

Non-inverting amplifier

C.

Integrator

D.

Differentiator

1216

DPKP

48.

What is the difference between a PRESSURE SWITCH and a PRESSURE TRANSMITTER, if any? A. The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change between open and closed position.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric signal. B. There is no difference. C. The pressure switch gives out an analogue signal depending

on

the

switch

setting.The

pressure

transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the pressure. D. The pressure switch gives out a digital signal dependent on pressure and temperature.The pressure transmitter converts a pressure signal to a digital signal.

49.

What is the main difference between a THERMOSTAT and a TEMPERATURE TRANSMITTER, if any? A. The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or closed) depending on the temperature/setting. The temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal to an electric signal. B. There is no difference. C. The thermostat gives out an analogue signal depending on the switch setting. The temperature transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the temperature. D. The temperature transmitter is a digital component while the thermostat is an analogue component.

1217

DPKP

50.

51.

What type of signal output is derived from a NiCr/Ni thermocouple? A.

mV.

B.

Ohm.

C.

mA.

D.

Watt

When a diode is used to convert AC to DC, it is usually referred to as which of the following?

52.

A.

Rectifier

B.

Controller

C.

Alternator

D.

Regulator

When measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the name of the sensing device is:

53.

A.

Pressure diaphragm

B.

Float

C.

Capacitance probe

D.

Positive displacement tube

When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and ZERO. Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done. A.

First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then Zero should be rechecked.

B.

First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After that Span setting should be checked again.

C.

First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. Then do not adjust anything.

D.

The order of adjustment is of no importance.

1218

DPKP

54.

When calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the procedure ?

55.

A.

Adjustment of Zero-point

B.

Adjustment of span

C.

Adjustment of range

D.

Adjustment of linearity

When calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in the procedure?

56.

A.

Check linearity

B.

Adjustment of span

C.

Adjustment of range

D.

Adjustment of Zero-point

When measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of the sensing device is?

57.

58.

A.

Orifice plate

B.

Float

C.

Turbine rotor

D.

Positive displacement rotor

Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate? A.

Resistance temperature sensor

B.

Potentiometer

C.

Thermocouple

D.

Triac

Which device does this graphical symbol illustrate? A.

Remote level controller with indicator

B.

Local level controller with indicator

C.

Level switch for centre-tank

D.

Low carbon incinerator

1219

DPKP

59.

60.

61.

62.

63.

Which diagram is the symbol for a THYRISTOR? A.

Figure 2.

B.

Figure 1.

C.

Figure 3:

D.

Figure 4.

Which electronic component does this graphical symbol illustrate? A.

Bipolar transistor

B.

Silicon controlled rectifier

C.

Diode

D.

Field Effect Transistor

Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent: A.

Resistor, 3300 ohms

B.

Electric heater, 3.3 kilowatts

C.

Capacitor, 3.3 Uf

D.

Inductive reactor, 3.3 kH

Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent? A.

Capacitor

B.

Transformer

C.

Resistance

D.

Temperature sensor

Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent? A.

Potentiometer, 10 kilo-ohms

B.

Variable electrical heater, 10 kilo-watts

C.

Auto transformer,10kVA

D.

Variable inductive reactor

1220

DPKP

64.

65.

66.

Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent? A.

Transistor

B.

Silicon controlled rectifier

C.

Diode

D.

Tunnel diode

Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating: A.

Zener diode

B.

Transistor

C.

Silicon controlled rectifier

D.

Triac

Which electronic component or system of components does this graphical symbol illustrate ?

67.

A.

Inverter

B.

Battery charger

C.

Low pass filter

D.

Auto transformer

Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical symbol illustrating:

68.

A.

Operational amplifier

B.

Electronic counter

C.

Flip-flop

D.

Cathode ray tube

Which function is this operational amplifier performing? A.

Non-inverting amplifier

B.

Inverting amplifier

C.

Integrator

D.

Differentiator

1221

DPKP

69.

70.

Which of the 4 alternatives shows the symbol for a PNP transistor? A.

Figure 2.

B.

Figure 1.

C.

Figure 3.

D.

Figure 4.

Which of the following detectors is commonly used for sensing if a watertight steel door is closed or open?

71.

A.

Proximity switch

B.

Synchro

C.

Strain gauge

D.

Transducer

Which of the following detectors would you choose for measuring the torque of a steel shaft?

72.

A.

Strain gauge

B.

Ultrasonic gauge

C.

Synchro

D.

Pyrometer

Which of the following letter combinations represents a flow indicating controller on a process and instrumentation diagram

73.

A.

FIC

B.

LIR

C.

FLO

D.

FIR

Which of the following letter combinations represents a temperature controller on a process and instrumentation diagram? A.

TC

B.

TIC

C.

PIC

D.

FIC

1222

DPKP

74.

75.

Which type temperature sensors are shown on the picture? A.

Resistance sensors

B.

Thermocouple sensors

C.

Thermistors type NTC

D.

Thermistor type PTC

A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following combination of items mounted on the rotor: A. 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field winding B. 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding C. 1 phase excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main field winding D. Excitation field winding/main field winding

76.

A second alternator has just been synchronized

onto the main

switchboard, and it is necessary to equally share the load between the "running" and incoming alternators. What should be done first? A. Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and reduce the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the switchboard B. Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on the front of the switchboard C. Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming alternator and increase the governor speed controller of the alternator already on the switchboard D. Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and check the voltage and speed adjustments before trying again

1223

DPKP

77.

After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar loading are respectively transferred by the following controls: A. Speed governor and voltage regulator B. Current regulator and voltage regulator C. Voltage regulator and synchroscope D. Speed governor and load power factor

78.

Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output: A. Reactive load (kVAR) B. Active load (kW) C. Frequency D. None of the mentioned alternatives

79.

Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short circuited or disconnected in order to: A. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components from high voltage tester B. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from being damaged C. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the automatic voltage regulator causing false regulation when generator restarts D. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator during insulation testing

1224

DPKP

80.

Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken. The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is: A. 1 000 000 Ohms B. 10 Ohms C. 1000 Ohms D. 10 000 Ohms

81.

Consider generator 1 and 2 to be initially working in parallel. If primemover 2 suffers a total fuel loss what is the likely outcome? A. No.2 generator trips on reverse power B. Generator set 2 trips on reverse speed C. No.1 machine overloads and trips out on overspeed D. No.1 machine overspeeds and trips out on overload

82.

Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then: A. Completely lose its share of the load causing the auxiliary engine to speed up B. Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased current C. Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very high reactive load (kVAR) D. Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit breaker

1225

DPKP

83.

During regular inspection of alternator windings it is found that windings are always covered with a heavy oil film coming from the atmosphere surrounding the auxiliary engine. After cleaning with an approved solvent, what should be done? A. Improve material of intake air filters B. Take no additional action C. Blank off intake air filters D. Reinsulate the windings after each cleaning

84.

Electrical generators must provide electrical power at a steady, regulated voltage. Automatic voltage regulators are used to control the output voltage of alternators at varying load conditions, by which of the alternative actions shown below? A. Varying the excitation field strength by regulating excitation voltage/current B. Regulating the voltage signal to the engine governor to regulate the speed to the desired load condition C. Supplying variable current to compounding and no load transformers in the alternator stator winding circuit D. All of the mentioned alternatives

85.

For ideal synchronising as the incomer circuit breaker contacts make, the phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage should be: A.

0°

B.

30° behind

C.

90° lag

D.

30° ahead

1226

DPKP

86.

Generators must be synchronised before they can operate in parallel. During synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly "fast" compared to the bus bar frequency. This is to ensure that the:

87.

A.

Incoming machine picks up as a generator

B.

Most rapid synchronising action is achieved

C.

Incomers reverse power trip is tested

D.

Incomer picks up as a motor

Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is controlled by: A. The diesel speed and excitation current. B. The internal volt drop and the load current. C. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current. D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

88.

Great care must be taken when manually paralleling two or more alternators. At which point would you engage the main circuit breaker of the incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators? A. With the pointer of the synchroscope moving slowly clockwise and almost at 0° (12 O'clock) or both synchronizing lamps dark (off) B. With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any position and both synchronizing lamps bright (on) C. With the pointer of the synchroscope rotating fast and both synchronizing lamps flashing on and off D. With the pointer of the synchroscope stopped at 0 (12 O'clock) or both synchronising lights bright

1227

DPKP

89.

If the A.C. line current in a generator stator is doubled, the heating effect in the stator windings will:

90.

A.

Quadruple

B.

Remain about the same.

C.

Half.

D.

Double.

It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power (kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor will run:

91.

A.

Hotter due to increased current

B.

Slower due to increased current

C.

Faster due to increased voltage

D.

Cooler due to increased speed

Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be performed to check: A. Its readiness to perform as specified. B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency firedrills. C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics. D. Its

compliance

with

the

shipbuilder's

recommendations.

92.

Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to the same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and frequency are respectively adjusted by: A. AVR and speed governor B. Voltmeter and frequency meter C. Speed governor and load power factor controller D. Synchroscope and speed governor

1228

DPKP

93.

The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c. generator is controlled by: A. The prime mover speed and excitation current. B. The internal volt drop and the load current. C. The prime mover and load current. D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

94.

The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by: A. The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage regulator and the prime mover B. Independent battery supply with the AVR C. Independent power supply and rectifier unit D. The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier

95.

The speed of ship's generator is regulated by the governor. A 10% reduction in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely consequence for all motors powered from this generator is to: A. Reduce motor speed by about 10%’ B. Increase motor power by about 10% C. Increase motor speed by about 10% D. Reduce motor volt drop by about 10%

96.

The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are: A. Voltmeter and synchroscope B. kW meter and frequency meter C. Amp-meter and volt-meter D. Synchroscope and kVar-meter

1229

DPKP

97.

Two alternators are operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, but then one of them trips without any warning. What is the first action that should be taken? A. Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to the switchboard B. Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator C. Restart and connect the tripped alternator immediately D. Start and connect the emergency alternator

98.

Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the emergency switchboard is supplied from: A. The main generating plant. B. Emergency batteries C. An emergency battery charger. D. A compressed air driven generator.

99.

What determines the power factor of an alternator when it is connected singularly to the switchboard? A. The load connected to the switchboard B. The generated voltage and AVR setting C. The excitation voltage D. Number of pairs of pole coils in the excitation winding

100. What is the purpose of the alternator reverse power trip? A. To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being supplied power from other parallel alternator and thus being damaged B. To prevent parallel operation if the excitation field voltage is reversed C. To prevent the alternator from being paralleled if it is out of phase with the main switchboard D. To give automatic disconnection of the circuit breaker when you are taking the alternator off the switchboard

1230

DPKP

101. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are evenly shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and reactive loads, which side of the vector diagram (power triangle) shown represents the reactive load? A.

(Y)

B.

(X)

C.

Either (X) or (Y)

D.

None of the mentioned alternatives

102. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard and the generator is AVR controlled, what will the output voltage do? A. Initially rise, then reset to the set value. B. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action. C. Initially fall, then reset to the set value. D. Remain approximately constant, due to governor action.

103. When manually paralleling two alternators the pointer of the synchroscope may slowly stop rotating and remain stopped in one position before the circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate: A. The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the main switchboard B. The synchroscope is not functioning properly and should be checked C. The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as that of the main switchboard D. The incoming alternator is in phase with the switchboard, but the frequency is not the same

1231

DPKP

104. When paralleling two alternators they must have: A. Equal number of phases, phase sequence and frequency B. Same number of phases, phase rotation and power rating C. Same phase rotation and voltage rating D. Same frequency, voltage and power factor

105. When unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load in order to avoid: A. Undue overspeeding. B. Undue overload on the switchboard. C. Undue overcurrent D. Undue temperature rise.

106. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an emergencygenerator? A. Steering gear and engine room alarm system B. Engine room lighting and bow thruster C. Galley and air conditioning D. Sound powered telephone system

107. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected. The first step is to: A. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped B. Make sure the load is evenly shared C. Trip the main circuit breaker D. Increase the frequency on the switchboard

108. In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max & min voltage tolerance? A. 85% - 120% B. 90% - 110% C. 75% - 125% D. 70% - 130% 1232

DPKP

109. Where is a generator's Reverse Power protection relay fitted? A. Between the generator and the consumers B. Between the breaker and the consumers C. Between the generator and the bus bars D. Between the breaker connecting bars

110. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 448 Volt. What is the phase voltage? A. 311.13 Volt B. 440 Volt C. 220 Volt D. 254.33 Volt

111. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the line current? A. 73.32 Amps B. 127 Amps C. 219.97 Amps D. 153.52 Amps

112. The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200 kVAR. What is the Power Factor? A. 0.864 B. 0.832 C. 0.799 D. 0.766

113. What can happen with only one generator on load when several large fans are started at the same time? A. The fans will not start B. The preferential trips will operate C. The generator engine may fail D. The generator engine may trip on over speed

1233

DPKP

114. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse Trip Relay operates? A. 3 - 5 seconds B. 5 - 7 seconds C. 1 - 3 seconds D. 7 - 8 seconds

115. For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is the device usually set? A. 125% B. 110 % C. 120 % D. 115%

116. With large load change what maintains steady voltage? A. Automatic voltage regulator &flywheel B. Governor & automatic voltage regulator C. Automatic voltage regulator D. Flywheel & governor

117. How is the power output of an alternator controlled? A. By the excitation current in the stator B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard C. By the excitation current in the rotor D. By the alternator speed

118. Fan alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs does this alternator have? A. Two B. Four C. Eight D. Six

1234

DPKP

119. The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to what? A. The speed of the alternator B. The output voltage and the output current of the alternator C. The output voltage of the alternator D. The output current of the alternator

120. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel? A. Voltage equal, frequency equal, frequency in phase B. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency C. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal D. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase

121. Two generators are running in parallel. One is delivering 300 Amps more than the other. What is the best course of action? A. Adjust the speed of one generator B. Adjust the speed of both generators C. Replace the AVR of the generator which has the highest current output D. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level

122. How is the excitation current transmitted to the rotor? A. Generated from within the rotor B. Via slip rings and brushes C. Via the tacho generator D. Via a commutator and brushes

123. Why are alternator poles fabricated in laminated form? A. Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents B. Prevent distortion due to temperature variation C. For ease of manufacture D. Makes adjustment of stator weight easier

1235

DPKP

124. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100 ° Celsius? A. The insulation is likelyto be severely damaged B. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand more than 500 °Celsius C. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor life span formula D. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of humidity

125. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system? A. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth C. The opposite line fuse will trip due overload D. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips

126. What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition to providing a watertight seal? A. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable B. To provide a gas tight seal C. To allow minor sliding movements of the cable D. As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement

127. What do wire size numbers indicate?(e.g. sizes 10,12 etc.) A. Wire outside diameter in millimetres B. Mre section in square millimetres C. Progressive numbering in Amps D. Retrogressive numbering in " AWG"

128. If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length cable of same material with dia.0.75 mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm? A. 25 metres B. 30 metres C. 15 metres D. 20 metres 1236

DPKP

129. What is a Clamp meter used for? A. To measure cable resistance B. To measure current in a single cable C. To measure cable voltage D. To measure current in a three phase cable

130. Except when used as bus-bars, which conductor number (AWG), or larger should always be stranded? A. No12 AWG B. No 10 AWG C. No 6 AWG D. No 8 AWG

131. Which of the following is not a requirement for the Navigation light distribution board? A. Location on the Bridge B. Always supplied from batteries C. Audible and visual lamp failure alarm D. Double pole switch.

132. In a fluorescent lamp what is used to improve the power factor? A. Capacitor B. Thyristor C. Mercury gas D. Coil

133. In incandescent lights what is the filament constructed from? A. Chromium B. Tungsten C. Nickel D. Carbon

1237

DPKP

134. What is the danger of fitting too high wattage lamps in flameproof fittings? A. Internal heat generated will damage the fitting B. Increase in surface heat of fitting C. Seal could be damaged by extra heat D. Extra power could overload the cable

135. When two masthead lights are fitted what is the required relationship between them? A. Frd must be at least 2 metres higher than the aft.0 B. Both must be at the same leue1.0 C. Frd must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the aft. D. Aft must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the frd.

136. What gases are present in the modern incandescent lamp? A. Argon and Nitrogen B. Neon and Nitrogen C. Vacuum D. Argon and neon

137. Why is a ballast resistor fitted in fluorescent lamps? A. Stabilize current and power B. Performs all of these functions C. Pre heat the electrodes D. Provide high starting voltage

138. In an incandescent lamp how much of the energy is converted to light? A. 20% B. 40% C. 80% D. 60%

1238

DPKP

139. In internal alleyways what is the light spacing regulation? A. Lights spaced at 2 X alleyway height B. Lights spaced at 1.5 X alleyway height C. Lights spaced every 2.5 metres D. Lights spaced every 2 metres

140. Which of the following is a requirement for the Navigation lighting Distribution board? A. Fuse located on the main switchboard B. Alarm must sound in the engine room C. Indicator lamps must be in series with the navigation light D. An alternate supply must be available

141. What is the unit of lighting intensity? A. Lambert B. Angstrom C. Lumen D. candela

142. What is the purpose of the reverse power trip fitted to an AC alternator? A. To prevent voltage drop B. To prevent cycle fluctuation C. To prevent the alternator being run as a motor D. To protect the diesel engine in case of overload

143. Why must each voltage system have its own earth fault lamps? A. To accurately locate the earth fault B. To make tracing the earth easier C. Earth faults are not transmitted through the transformers D. In case of failure of one set

1239

DPKP

144. What is the purpose of the preference load tripping system? A. Re-connect essential equipment after a blackout B. Disconnect essential equipment before a short circuit can cause damage C. To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload D. To trip the generator before the overload damages the engine

145. What is most likely cause of an earth indication? A. A switched off motor has developed a short circuit B. A deck fitting has been affected by seawater C. Emergency generator, which is on stand-by, has been C splashed with seawater D. Earth fault on the navigation lights

146. When both a fuse and breaker are used on one circuit, when will the fuse blow? A. A very high short circuit current

a

B. An earth fault C. Continuous moderately high over-current D. A break in the motor winding

147. What is the wire made from in an HRC fuse? A. Silver B. Tungsten C. Platinum D. Nickel

148. Why must a stationary generator not be connected to live bus-bars? A. The alternator will be short-circuited B. Because the alternator will attempt to run as a motor C. The breaker will be damaged D. The alternator already connected will come off the board

1240

DPKP

149. What is the purpose of thermistors fitted to motor windings? A. Short circuit protection B. Prevent high starting current C. Prevent over-speeding D. Protect from overheating

150. What will be the most likely equipment to be disconnected by the preferential trip? A. General Seruice pump B. Galley C. Seawater circulating pumps D. Steering pumps

151. What prevents a stationary alternator from being connected to live bus-bars? A. Reverse power trip B. Low cycle trip C. No volt trip D.Overload trip

152. How will an earth fault be noticed in an insulated distribution system? A. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow B. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow C. The voltage will drop D. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

153. In the formula e = B I ØSin . What does sin represent? A. Instantaneous rotational velocity B. Average rotational velocity C. Maximum rotational velocity D. Cycles/second

1241

DPKP

154. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the line current? A. 153.52 Amps B. 127 Amps C. 73.32 Amps D. 219.97 Amps

155. The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What is the phase current? A. 48.44 Amps B. 22.72 Amps C. 16.18 Amps D. 18.00 Amps

156. What term describes the effective value of an alternating current? A. RMS B. Peak C. Mean D. Average

157. Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in parallel? A. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not B. No common earth is available C. Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA D. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship

158. In the formula e = B I ØSin. What does 'e' represent? A. Instantaneous voltage B. RMS voltage C. Average voltage D. Maximum voltage

1242

DPKP

159. For value 0 - max in the AC sin wave how far does the rotating vector (phasor) travel? A. 180 deg B. 270 deg C. 360 deg D. 90 deg

160. In the AC sin wave what is periodic time? A. Time for zero to max voltage B. Cycles/second C. Time for zero to zero voltage D. Time for one complete cycle

161. What is the amplitude of the AC sin wave? A. Phasor value B. Cycle length C. Cycles/second D. Peak value

162. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt. What is the phase voltage? A. 220 Volt B. 311.13 Volt C. 440 Volt D. 54.33 Volt

163. How does the RMS voltage compare to peak voltage? A. 0.707 of peak value B. 0.805 of peak value C. 0.666 of peak value D. 0.777 of peak value

1243

DPKP

164. Which is true in a Star-connected 3-phase motor? A. The line current is equal to the phase current B. The phase voltage is higher than the line uoltage^ C. The phase current is higher than the line current D. The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage

165. In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5 Amps. What is the load current of the generator? A. 95 Amps B. 100 Amps C. 105 Amps D. 110 Amps

166. When a DC generator is short circuited, how is the output voltage affected? A. Increases to max B. Falls to zero C. Remains constant D. Drops slightly

167. What units is the output of DC generators rated in? A. HP B. KW C. KVA D. KwA

168. Why are interpoles fitted to DC generators? A. To counter field distortion B. To prevent shaft magnetism C. To prevent burning of the brushes D. To enable the same size generator to carry more load

1244

DPKP

169. DC generator is short circuited, what limits the short circuit current A. There is no iirnit B. The generator's internal resistance (ER) C. When the cables start melting D. The mechanical size of the switch

170. In a series wound generator what is the connection between field and armature currents? A. Parallel connection B. No connection C. Shunt connected D. Series connected

171. If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable, which alternator breaker trip will operate? A. The high/low frequency trip B. The overload trip C. The reverse current trip D. The short circuit protection

172. Which area of the DC generator requires the most maintenance? A. Bearings B. Switchboard breaker C. Commutator and brushes D. Main field windings

173. The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by: A. A tripped bus circuit breaker B. Failure of the exciter generator C. The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated D. Excessive prime mover speed

1245

DPKP

174. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase alternator? A. Two B. Six C. Three D. Four

175. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of an alternator? A. Cooled down to ambient temperature B. Cooled down to hand-warm C. Hot after stopping D. Running

176. What danger is associated with excess shaft magnetism? A. Arcing at commutator B. Failure of the generator to self excite C. Insulation breakdown D.Damage to bearing surfaces

177. In DC generators what effect can be caused by 'armature reaction'? A. Arcing at the brushes B. Breakdown of the mica insulation C. Voltage variation D. Inability of the generator to carryfull load

178. The commutator of a DC generator is examined and is found to have a smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would you take? A. Clean the commutator with emery cloth until the colour changes to clean metal B. Change the brush springs C. None D. Change the brushes

1246

DPKP

179. Why are Arc chutes fitted in circuit breakers? A. To extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation B. To isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over C. To control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc D. To confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling

180. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil? A. To smother the arc B. Acts as insulation C. All of these. D. To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc

181. The governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main breaker ? A. The under voltage trip B. The reverse current trip C. The overload trip D. The highilow frequency trip

182. What problem can arise from auto starting electric equipment? A. Overload the generator prime mover B. Trip preferential trips C. Trip reverse power trip D. Over speeds the generator prime mover

183. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, what corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again? A. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings B. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80° C and change bearings C. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings

1247

DPKP

184. How is the direction of a three-phase induction motor reversed? A. Change the capacitor connection to another line B. Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals C. Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST D. Reverse the polarity of the armature

185. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of a motor or alternator? A. Running B. Cooled down to hand-warm C. Hot after stopping D. Cooled down to ambient temperature

186. What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting' for large AC motors? A. Line resistance starter B. Any of the given options C. Star-Delta motor starter D. Auto transformer

187. The maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type? A. 55 degree C B. I80 degree C C. 45 degree C D. 105 degree C

188. What is the result if a motor is run at a frequency higher than its designed operating frequency A. It will run faster and overspeed B. It will run slower with too high a current C. It will run slower and at too high a voltage D. It will run faster and be overloaded

1248

DPKP

189. An unidentified feeder supplies three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "? A. 120 Amps B. 235 Amps C. 350 Amps D. 175 Amps

190. In an emergency, what would be the lowest acceptable insulation resistance readings? A. 0.5 Meg Ohm B. 5.0 Meg Ohm C. 1.0 Meg Ohm D. 10.0 Meg Ohm

191. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault? A. 20 Amps B. 2400 Amps C. 240 Amps D. 0 Amps

192. Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test? A. Megger test each phase to phase separately B. All of these. C. Megger test each phase separately to earth D. Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase

193. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault? A. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test) B. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter) C. By carrying out a Megger test D. By carrying out a Phase balance test

1249

DPKP

194. How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current? A. 5 - 7 times B. 3 - 5 times C. 7 - 9 times D. 2 - 3 times

195. How much higher than full load current is motor starting current when starting direct on-line? A. 12 to 15 times B. 9 to 12 times C. 5 to 7 times D. 2 to 3 times

196. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault? A. By carrying out a Megger test B. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test) C. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter) D. By carrying out a Phase balance test

197. What could cause sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor? A. Wrong types of brushes B. Any of the other options C. The strength of the field D. Current overload

198. What can cause etched or burned bands on the contact faces of brushes in a DC motor? A. High mica segments B. Copper

drag on the commutator

C. Brushes improperly positioned D. Copper

embedded in the brushes

1250

DPKP

199. What units measure counter electromotive force or back EMF? A. Volts B. Ohms C. Ampere D. Farads

200. Which of the following groups of motors are all DC motors? A. Shunt, series and compound B. Induction and synchronous C. Synchronous and compound D. Series and induction

201. A DC series motor is used to operate a pump driven with a belt, what happens if the belt breaks? A. The motor will continue to run at its original speed B. The motor will stop C. The motor will slow down D. The motor will over speed and run out of control

202. Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do? A. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started B. Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor C. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor D. All of these.

203. How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system? A. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow B. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage C. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance D. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

1251

DPKP

204. When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, what test voltage should you ensure that the Instrument indicates? A. 250 volts B. 1000 volts C. 750 volts D. 500 volts

205. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCB' S circuit breakers? A. 5 - 8 Megohm B. 4 - 6 Megohm C. 1 - 3 Megohm D. 7 - 10 Megohm

206. What may happen if a Megger tester is used to measure the insulation in a circuit containing electronic components? A. The wrong internal resistance maybe shown B. The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will consume C. The connections between components will show a high r. insulation value D. The components in the circuit may be destroyed

207. When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor? A. 'Menthe motor has been warmed up 5°C above normal operating temperature B. When the motor has been carefully cleaned C. When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature D. When the motor has cooled down after use

208. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water what corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again? A. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80°C and change bearings B. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp C. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings 1252

DPKP

209. Why hould an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible? A. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull B. It may damage the monitoring instruments C. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow D. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be withdrawn

210. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working? A. By lowering the alternator voltage B. By raising the generator frequency C. By lowering the generator frequency D. By raising the alternator voltage

211. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault? A. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter) B. By carrying out a Megger test C. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test) D. By carrying out a Phase balance test

212. What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter? A. Between 200 and 500 Volts B. Between 400 and 500 Volts C. Between 200 and 300 Volts D. Between 500 and 800 Volts

213. Nhat will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system? A. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth C. The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload D. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip

1253

DPKP

214. Which conductor would produce the greatest inductance? A. Plain coiled B. Coiled multi strand C. Coiled with copper core D. Coiled with iron core

215. In a non-reactive circuit which statement applies? A. Impedance is equal to resistance B. Impedance is greater than resistance C. Impedance is less than resistance D. Impedance is zero

216. What is the unit for inductance? A. Weber B. Farad C. Henry D. Coulomb

217. What produces an induced E.M.F.? A. Change in vottage. B. Change in current. C. Change in resistance. D. Change in flux linkage.

218. What is impedance? A. Induction of an electrical circuit B. Resistance provided by the cable in an electrical circuit C. Total resistance in an electrical circuit D. Induced E.M.F. of a circuit

1254

DPKP

219. Which statement is true for induced E.M.F.? A. Is a function of resistance B. Always assists change in current C. Always resists change in current D. Always equal to the current

220. In a purely resistive circuit what is the phase difference between vottage and current? A. 180 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 0 degrees D. 45 degrees

221. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as? A. RMS voltage B. Power factor C. Angle of phase difference D. Circuit inductance

222. On an electrical drawing what symbol represents impedance? A. Z B. I C. R D. L

223. What units is impedance expressed in? A. Weber B. Ohm C. Farad D. Henry

1255

DPKP

224. nduced E.M.F. is out of phase with current by what degree? A. 60 degrees B. 90 degrees C. 180 degrees D. 0 degrees

225. On an electrical drawing what symbol represents Inductance? A. F B. L C. R D. I 226. If the outlet temperature “Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during normal sea speed the inlet temperature “Tin” is 62 degree C, what would 'Tin" show during engine slow down ?

A. Inlet temperature “Tin" will fluctuate B. Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease C. Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller D. Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase

1256

DPKP

227. What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ?

A. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet B. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet C. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet D. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet 228. What is the component marked “W” ?

A. A WAX by-pass temperature controller B. A water strainer C. A manual 3-way water by-pass valve D. A water by-pass buffer

1257

DPKP

229. For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control is used ?

A. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet B. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet C. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet D. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet

230. What part of a pneumatic control system is this ?

A. A differentiator assembly B. An amplifier C. An integrator assembly D. A nozzle/flapper assembly

1258

DPKP

231. In this nozzle/flapper assembly (part of a pneumatic control system) at what distance away from the nozzle oes the flapper need to be mooed in order not to have any influence on the HEW (nozzle back pressure) ?

A.

h = 0.25 D

B.

h=D

C.

h = 0.4 D

D.

h = 0.5 D

232. What is the meaning of the pressure indicated by NBP on this nozzle/flapper assembly ?

A.

Nozzle Balance Pressure

B.

Nominal Balance Pressure

C.

Normal Basic Pressure

D.

Nozzle Back Pressure

233. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a pneumatic nozzle/Flapper ) assembly ?

A.

Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP)

B.

The flapper is broken or distorted

C.

Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle

D.

The nozzle is worn out 1259

DPKP

234. If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h = 0, what will the reading of NBP become ?

A.

3 psi

B.

0 psi

C.

20 psi

D.

15 psi

235. This characteristic shows that only linear part a-b can be used. This means that the normal effective travel the flapper is only …… for the full measuring range.

A.

0.05 mm

B.

mm

C.

0.10 mm

D.

0.005 mm

1260

DPKP

236. As we can use only the linear part of the characteristic, this shows that the flapper can only travel 0.01 mm, therefore DELTA psi obtained can only be less than 1 psi. Can we use the flapper nozzle system ?

A.

Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified

B.

No , the flapper system will gives erratic readings

C.

No, the nozzle/flapper assembly needs modification

D.

Yes, but the valves need a servo booster

237. The proportional linear signal for a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly is only less than 1 psi for 0.01 mm flapper travel. How do we make use of this signal ?

A.

By using a regulator on the servo of the pneumatic valve

B.

By sending it to a Pneumatic Amplifier

C.

By changing the diameter of the Pneumatic valve actuator

D.

By sending the signal to another flapper/nozzle

1261

DPKP

238. What pneumatic control device is shown here ?

A.

A pneumatic controller

B.

A pneumatic amplifier

C.

A pneumatic flapper / nozzle assembly

D.

A pneumatic booster aggregate

239. On which part of the Pneumatic Amplifier is the nozzle back pressure of the nozzles / flapper (NBP) acting ?

A.

On spring S

B.

On valve V

C.

On ball valve B

D.

On membrane M

1262

DPKP

240. By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly controlled ?

A.

spring tension in S

B.

By the restriction R

C.

By the stand of the valves V and B

D.

By slight fluctuation of supply pressure

241. What is the function of ball value B in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier?

A.

To counteract the pressure on the membrane M , decrease Pu

B.

To push the atmospheric vent close, increase Pu

C.

To push the membrane back in place after each movement

D.

Opening port of 20 psi supply air access

1263

DPKP

242. What is the function of value V in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier?

A.

To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere

B.

To push spring S open via the ball B

C.

To allow stabilising feedback pressure on the membrane

D.

To transmit the pressure Pu to the membrane

243. What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

It would increase the output pressure Pu

B.

It will not have any effect

C.

It would decrease the output pressure Pu

D.

It will destabilise the amplifier

1264

DPKP

244. These characteristics show Pu in relation to flapper distance and LISP of a pneumatic nozzle flapper and transmitter; thus with the smallest distance movements it fluctuates sharply. What is the result and the remedy ?

A.

Unsteady operation .Springs are to be fitted on all moving parts

B.

Tendency to open. Fit elongated flappers in output

C.

Unsteady operation. Bellows are to be fitted in pneumatic lines.

D.

Tendency to close. Fit by pass nozzle to amplifier

245. This an actual lay-out drawing of a pneumaticblock. Where is the 20 psi supply air admitted ?

A.

At air passage item 15

B.

At air passage item 13

C.

At air passage item 12

D.

At air passage item 14 1265

DPKP

246. Where is the output pressure Pu taken from this pneumatic amplifier shown here ?

A.

Air passage 15

B.

Air passage 13

C.

Air passage 14

D.

Air passage 12

247. Via which air passage is the nozzle back pressure from the nozzle/Flapper admitted for this pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

Air passage 14

B.

Air passage 15

C.

Air passage 13

D.

Air passage 12 1266

DPKP

248. Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic transmitter?

A.

Air passage 13

B.

Air passage 14

C.

Air passage 12

D.

Air passage 15

249. What is item No 3 shown of this pneumatic amplifier?

A.

Nozzle flappers

B.

Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve

C.

Ball valve securing blades

D.

Retaining plates for the ball valve

1267

DPKP

250. Flow can the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier be initially adjusted ?

A.

By screw item 10

B.

By screw item 1

C.

By screw item 11

D.

By screw item 4

251. Which important pneumatic control accessory is shown here ?

A.

A transmitter

B.

An nozzle /flapper assembly

C.

A pressure regulator

D.

An amplifier

1268

DPKP

252. What is part No 4 shown in this drawing of a pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

The output air compartment

B.

The air supply compartment

C.

The exhaust or vent compartment

D.

The nozzle back pressure supply compartment

253. For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring blade of this pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially

B.

To control the rate of amplification response

C.

To control the nozzle back pressure

D.

To adjust the valve stem distance

1269

DPKP

254. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

Diaphragma No 7 bursts

B.

Valve stem No 6 defective

C.

Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.

D.

Gasket No 8 blown

255. This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control engineering. It is.........

A.

a pneumatic transmitter assembly

B.

a totaliser or summator unit

C.

a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier

D.

a pneumatic basic controller unit

1270

DPKP

256. These small pneumatic pipes are connected to the different parts of pneumatic system so they can be easily dismantled, using ............ ?

A.

clamps with bellow packing

B.

plugs and O-rings

C.

sleeves and copper gaskets

D.

retainer springs and silicon

257. Which part shown here is the nozzle in this pneumatic assembly ?

A.

Part No 2

B.

Part No 4

C.

Part No 3

D.

Part No 5

1271

DPKP

258. What will be the existing pneumatic pressure in connecting pipe item 110 6 from flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

Between 0 and 20 psi

B.

20 psi

C.

Between 3 and 15 psi

D.

Between 2 and 2.75 psi

259. Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is removed. Where is this filter fitted ?

A.

In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4

B.

In air connecting line, plug No 5

C.

In front of the nozzle item No 2

D.

In the main supply line to each individual instrument

1272

DPKP

260. What is the output pressure of this pneumatic amplifier ?

A.

15 to 25 psi

B.

7 to 15 psi

C.

3 to 20 psi

D.

3 to 15 psi

261. What is the amplification factor (K) of a pneumatic amplifier

A.

K=4

B.

K = 12

C.

K = 16

D.

K = 20

1273

DPKP

262. What important periodical maintenance checks are required on nozzle/flapper assemblies of pneumatic instruments ?

A.

Exchange packings on the nozzle and flapper

B.

Exchange of nozzle and flapper

C.

Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper

D.

Redrilling of the nozzle

263. What is the correct name of item No 2 shown here ?

A.

Flapper nozzle

B.

Connecting plug

C.

Filter plug

D.

Restrictor nozzle

1274

DPKP

264. What pneumatic device is shown here ?

A.

A feedback controller

B.

A feedback amplifier

C.

A proportional controller

D.

A proportional transmitter

265. What is the name of the bellow P, which indicates its purpose ?

A.

Equalising bellow

B.

Lifting bellow

C.

Feedback bellow

D.

Absorbing bellow

1275

DPKP

266. If the length of "a" is equal to the length of "b" what will be the proportional band "PB" of this pneumatic controller ?

A.

0%

B.

50%

C.

100%

D.

25%

267. With what part is the degree of feedback controlled on this pneumatic Proportional Controller ? E.

By lengths of arms "a" and 'b" (shifting of amplifier)

F.

By "desired valve" input

G.

By the spring tension

H.

By the bellow

268. If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and the level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will be open for ...

A.

25%

B.

50%

C.

100%

D.

75% 1276

DPKP

269. I the input flow Q1 increases to Q1' and level L increases to L' what will initially happen ?

A.

The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P

B.

The output pressure Pu will increase proportionally to L'

C.

The proportional band PB will change

D.

The amplification factor K will change

270. What do you call the pneumatic mode of operating of the pneumatic controlled valve V2 ?

A.

Positive activation

B.

Negative activation

C.

Air to Close

D.

Air to Open

1277

DPKP

271. If we shift the nozzle / flapper assembly to the left so that the length of "a" is half of length "b", to what level will L' rise before it stabilizes ?

A.

Half the height from Level L

B.

Four times the height from level L

C.

Twice the height from level L

D.

1/4th the height from level L

272. What is the level difference between L and L' called in this process ?

A.

The offset

B.

The range

C.

The amplification

D.

The span

1278

DPKP

273. This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If PB = 100 % is the graph shown in "a". What is the graph of PB = 50 % ?

A.

Graph b

B.

Graph d

C.

Graph e

D.

Graph f

274. This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If P8 = 100 % is the graph shown in "a ". What is the amplification factor and the proportional band represented by graph "I" ?

A.

Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive

B.

Amplification 50 %, Proportional Band 100 %

C.

Amplification infinitive, Proportional band 0

D.

Proportional band 50 %, amplification 100 %

1279

DPKP

275. Graph "d" of this characteristic showing output pressure Pu of a controller effecting valve lift, represents ZERO proportional band over INFINITIVE amplification. How does the system works ?

A.

It works with intolerable offsets

B.

It works with maximum range offsets

C.

It does not regulate the level at all

D.

It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL

276. If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller ?

A.

9 psi

B.

6 psi

C.

12 psi

D.

3 psi

1280

DPKP

277. If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW temperature transmitter and thePu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the temperature setting from 75 to 72 degree C what happens tosigj the Pu ?

A.

It will increase above 9 psi

B.

It will increase to 20 psi

C.

It will decrease to 0 psi

D.

It will decrease below 9 psi

278. Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Su (set value or desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?

A.

Between 0 and 15 psi

B.

Between 0 and 20 psi

C.

Between 2 and 2.75 psi

D.

Between 3 and 15 psi

1281

DPKP

279. Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this pneumatic P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the output pressure ?

A.

2 psi

B.

3 psi

C.

6 psi

D.

0 psi

280. Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If variation on the input is 1psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed in psi ?

A.

2 psi

B.

1 psi

C.

6 psi

D.

4 psi

1282

DPKP

281. What would be the variation of output on this pneumatic controller if Proportional B and PB = infinity, by varying the input as shown here ?

A.

Infinity, full open, full close control system

B.

No response, nil

C.

1 psi

D.

Between 3 and 15 psi

282. Suppose the Proportional Band of this pneumatic controller is increased to 500 % and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation ?

A.

5 psi

B.

0.5 psi

C.

0.2 psi

D.

1 psi

1283

DPKP

283. This characteristic shows output pressure of a pneumatic controller controlling water level. The level is fluctuating. What is wrong with the setting of the controller.?

A.

The amplification is too small

B.

The range is too large

C.

The proportional band is too small

D.

The span is too narrow

284. Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system. Suppose the Proportional and is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it ?

A.

500%

B.

50%

C.

100%

D.

20% 1284

DPKP

285. In this electrical amplifier drawing, what takes the place of the flapper/nozzle unit used by the pneumatic control unit with amplifier ?

A.

R2

B.

U2

C.

U1

D.

R1

286. What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

A.

Resistance R2

B.

Voltage U1

C.

Voltage U2

D.

Resistance R1

1285

DPKP

287. What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

A.

Voltage U2

B.

Voltage U1

C.

Resistor R2

D.

Resistor R1

288. What control equipment drawing is shown here ?

A.

An electric pressure transmitter system

B.

An electric P-controller

C.

An electric differentiating amplifier

D.

An electric temperature measurement scanner

289. The working pressures used by pneumatic control components are between 3 and 15 psi. What are the equivalent currents used by electric control equipment ? A.

Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA

B.

Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA

C.

Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA

D.

Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 mA 1286

DPKP

290. What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the top articulated line shown here)

A.

A measuring line

B.

A process line

C.

An instrument line

D.

A steering line

291. What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ? (the second line from top shown here)

A.

A pneumatic line

B.

A steering line

C.

An instrument line

D.

A measuring line

1287

DPKP

292. What does a non-articulated full line indicate in an automation schematic drawing ? (the third line from top shown here)

A.

A pneumatic steering line

B.

An electric steering line

C.

An instrument line

D.

A measuring line

293. What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle) indicate in an automation schematic diagram ?

A.

A controller

B.

An indicator

C.

A transmitter

D.

An instrument

1288

DPKP

294. What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a horizontal line through it of the drawing indicated an automation schematic diagram ?

A.

An electronic instrument

B.

An instrument fitted in a central panel

C.

An instrument fitted in the main control console

D.

A pneumatic instrument

295. What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing

A.

First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering

B.

First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling

C.

First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function

D.

First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function

1289

DPKP

296. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing ?

A.

A thermometer

B.

A temperature transmitter

C.

A temperature controller

D.

A manometer

297. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might befitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top centre drawing ?

A.

A limit control swicth

B.

A line capacitor

C.

A level controller

D.

A Low Pressure cut-out

1290

DPKP

298. What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the left bottom ?

A.

A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close

B.

An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open

C.

An electric motor driven control valve

D.

A pneumatic control valve, air to close

299. What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System shown here ?

For No. 74

A.

Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve

B.

Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve

C.

Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve

D.

Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve

1291

DPKP

300. Which are the parameters that steer the level control automatic system of the boiler shown here?

A.

Feed valve and feed by-pass valve

B.

The level controller

C.

Water level and steam consumption

D.

The level transmitter

301. The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass values are...........

A.

electronic controlled values working in tandem

B.

pneumatic controlled values working in opposition.

C.

electronic controlled values working in opposition.

D.

pneumatic controlled values working in reverse.

1292

DPKP

302. This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is called the .....

A.

set point.

B.

set level.

C.

measured value.

D.

proportional point.

303. Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float is pushed up by the water to level L'. The value of level L' is called the ......

A.

increased value.

B.

actual value.

C.

level value.

D.

measured value.

1293

DPKP

304. The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value (level L') is called.........

A.

the differential value.

B.

the inclination.

C.

the measuring fault.

D.

the offset.

305. Here 'S' is the support point in the middle of pivoting arm 'AB'. For a given increase in water level the valve is opened by the same distance, therefore the amplification is 1. What will happen if b = 2 x a ?

A.

The water will drop twice as fast in the tank

B.

The valve will open twice the distance of the increased level

C.

The amplification is increased by 50 %

D.

The process will not longer working

1294

DPKP

306. In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor Valve 'R'. In the electrical equivalent ......

A.

the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.

B.

the current increases over time.

C.

the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.

D.

the capacitor allows Voltage built up over the resistor.

307. In these integrator circuits the air flow through the restrictor and the current through the resistance......... A.

remains constant

B.

is negative

C.

decreases with time

D.

increases with time.

308. What is the difference in function between these electrical and the pneumatic integrators ? A.

The pneumatic integrator is slower

B.

They work in opposite directions

C.

The electric integrator is slower

D.

None

1295

DPKP

309. The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the corresponding output the right of....

E.

A

a pure integrator

F.

B

a pure differentiator

G.

C

a proportional integrating controller

H.

D

a proportional controller

310. Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills up with air ?

A.

They have both the same function

B.

The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator

C.

They perform opposite functions

D.

The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator

1296

DPKP

311. This drawing shows which kind of pneumatic controller ?

A.

A proportional controller

B.

A proportional integrating-differential controller

C.

A proportional differentiating controller

D.

A proportional integrating controller

312. These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a controller. What characteristics are shown ?

A.

The controller response output characteristics

B.

The PI characteristics

C.

The integrator characteristics

D.

The integrator differential characteristics

1297

DPKP

313. For which type of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?

A.

A pressure indicating controller

B.

A pneumatic indicating controller

C.

A proportional integrating controller

D.

A PI differentiating controller

314. The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential pressure signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a...........

A.

oriface plate

B.

a right-angled nozzle system

C.

nozzle system

D.

capillary tube

1298

DPKP

315. Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe as measured over the wring flange the output signal should be sent to a................

A. root extractor. B. equaliser. C. summator. D. balancing valve.

316. To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic temperature transmitter fitted ?

A.

Channel 10

B.

Channel 5

C.

Bellow 8

D.

Channel 8

317. What is item Ho.; of this pneumatic temperature transmitter ?

A.

The range control setting

B.

The equaliser block

C.

The pneumatic amplifier

D.

The compensator

1299

DPKP

318. Which is the fitter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ?

A.

Item No 3

B.

Item no 2

C.

Item No 4

D.

Item No 1

319. On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ?

A.

Part No 2

B.

Part No 4

C.

Part No 3

D.

Part No 1

1300

DPKP

320. What is part 110 11 on this transmitter drawing ?

A.

The feedback bellow

B.

The balance arm tensioner

C.

The transmitter bellow

D.

The regulating bellow

321. Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ?

A.

Part No 9

B.

Part No 7

C.

Part No 8

D.

Part No 10

1301

DPKP

322. On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process (steam,oil,water) act ?

A.

Item No 1

B.

Item No 3

C.

Item No 2

D.

Item No 4

323. The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set by adjusting or tensioning.......

A.

part No 10.

B.

part No 9.

C.

part No 15.

D.

part No 11.

324. From this drawing of a pneumatic pressure transmitter, what is the Proportional Band setting ? A.

Proportional Band more than 100 %, amplification K less than 1

B.

Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1

C.

Proportional Band = 100 %, amplification K = 1

D.

Proportional Band 0%, amplification infinitive

1302

DPKP

325. For which type of controller are these the input (left) and the response (right) characteristics ?

A.

A pneumatic integrator

B.

A pressure integrating controller

C.

A pneumatic inverter

D.

A proportional integrating controller

326. In this drawing, the triangle marked "A" represents.......

A.

an ampere-differential transmitter

B.

a current converter

C.

an operational amplifier

D.

an analog converter

1303

DPKP

327. Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional integrating controller ?

A.

R2

B.

Rf

C.

R1

D.

R3

328. Fitting a restriction RI in the supply to the proportional feedback of this PID controller ensures that for an initial small variation on the input, the initial response on the output will be .....

A.

proportional

B.

zero

C.

very weak

D.

strong

1304

DPKP

329. For which control instrument are these the input (left) and the output or response (right) characteristics ?

A.

A pressure controlling data register

B.

A pneumatic differentiating controller

C.

A pressure differentiator

D.

A proportional differentiating controller

330. For this PID controller to act only as a P (proportional) controller, what should be the arrangement of restricting values R1 and R2 ?

A.

R1 fully open, R2 fully open

B.

R1 closed, R2 fully open

C.

R1 closed, R2 closed

D.

R1 fully open, R2 closed

1305

DPKP

331. which kind of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?

A.

A proportional indicating differentiator

B.

A proportional integrating-differentiating controller

C.

A pressure indicating controller

D.

A pneumatic differential summator

332. In the output characteristics (right) of this controller, which response lines are clearly shown ?

A.

The proportional, integration and differentiation

B.

The proportional, variation and integration

C.

The output, variation and differentiation

D.

The proportional output, offset and integration

1306

DPKP

333. How is the differentiating action of this PID controller obtained ?

A.

By C and RL

B.

By C and RL

C.

By C and R3

D.

By C and R2

334. Where would you find this instrument on board a ship ?

A.

Near the Fuel, oil or water piping

B.

In the Boiler Control Panel

C.

In the Engine Control Room

D.

In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel

1307

DPKP

335. How is the zero setting of this temperature transmitter adjusted ?

A.

By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3

B.

By item No 3

C.

By item No 2

D.

By item No 1

336. How is the range of this instrument adjusted ?

A.

With item No 3

B.

With item No 2

C.

With item No 1

D.

With items 1, 2 and 3.

1308

DPKP

337. This is a.....

A.

temperature calibration system.

B.

Wheatstone bridge.

C.

temperature compensation system.

D.

rectifier bridge.

338. The three conductor system used by Wheatstone Bridge lay-outs is intended to provide........

A.

balancing of the bridge by very high or very low temperatures.

B.

conversion of an electrical signal into a pneumatic signal.

C.

compensation for changing conductor resistance by changing temperature.

D.

zero setting at all times by variable resistances to be measured.

1309

DPKP

339. The function of this measuring system is to..........

A.

convert a digital signal into a pressure.

B.

convert Field Effect Transistor readings into a temperature reading.

C.

convert Wheatstone Bridge readings into remote pressure readings.

D.

convert an electric temperature measurement into a pneumatic signal.

340. The resistance characteristic of Platinum is linear. The resistance characteristic of Nickel is non-linear. How can the characteristic of Nickel be made linear ?

A.

By fitting a compensation cable

B.

By fitting another resistance in parallel

C.

By using a three-wire system Wheatstone Bridge

D.

By fitting another resistance in series

1310

DPKP

341. Item No 2 of this Wheatstone Bridge is

..........

A.

the thermal resistance fed by the output of amplifier A

B.

the field balance indicating field wire of amplifier output

C.

the field wire fed by amplifier A

D.

the feed-back coil fed by amplifier

342. The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero ?

A.

Because of the copper (Cu) calibration wiring connected to C and D.

B.

Because A and B couples are opposed.

C.

Because the connections in A and B and in C and D are opposed

D.

Because of the second balancing couple B.

1311

DPKP

343. Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and have as characteristics that............

A.

between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple exists.

B.

the current is calibrated by a compensation system.

C.

thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are compensated for.

D.

minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated n

for

by

a

regulator/compensator.

344. Control valves in a controlled process can be either pneumatic, electrically or hydraulically operated. What of medium is used to control this valve ? When is it used ?

A.

Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required

B.

Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required

C.

Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required

D.

Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required.

1312

DPKP

345. The two valves shown on the left of this picture are called flat valves and give a high throughput for a small lift in height. They are mostly used for.......

A.

self correcting flow valve, by changing pressures in the system the throughput the same.

B.

a stop (zero flow) valve.

C.

open - close regulation.

D.

process stability, for a certain percentage in lift changes the throughput by the same percentage.

346. The two valves shown in the centre of the drawing are.....

A.

pear shaped valves

B.

flat top valves

C.

egui-percentage valves

D.

linear valves

347. The two valves shown at the right of the picture are .........type valves.

A.

linear

B.

egui-percentage

C.

flat shaped

D.

stop flow 1313

DPKP

348. The two valves on the left of this picture are ......, the two valves on the right are ...... valves.

A.

flat top, linear

B.

linear, curved

C.

linear, equi-percentage

D.

pear shaped, equi-percentage

349. The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted will be ......

A.

air to open (bottom connection).

B.

pressure to open (positive manometer reading).

C.

vacuum to open (negative manometer reading).

D.

air to close (top connection).

1314

DPKP

350. This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two value motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working ranges. This is called ...... control.

A.

feedback

B.

separated range

C.

diverted

D.

split range

351. The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of part .....

( .......) is to be inbalance with the force of the controller pressure

which acts on part....... (........).

A.

9 (spring), 18 (membrane)

B.

4 (relays), 12 (membrane)

C.

9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)

D.

12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)

1315

DPKP

352. Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ?

A.

Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure

B.

Because of the variation of the output capacity

C.

Because of the characteristic of the spring

D.

Because of the variation on the output pressure

353. A pressure reducing value works according to the principle of balance of forces, in this case theforce P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of the.......

A.

the ball valve

B.

inlet pressure P1

C.

the membrane spring

D.

the ball value spring

1316

DPKP

354. The manometer with scale indication shown here is fitted in the .....line of a controller or valve positioner which supplies a pneumatic valve motor with "Pressure to......" function.

A.

input, "Close"

B.

output, "Open "

C.

input, " Open "

D.

supply, " Close "

355. This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ?

A.

The LSU's

B.

The CPU

C.

The MAD

D.

The LAD'S

356. Which port of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from instruments and transducers ? A.

The CPU

B.

The TWM

C.

The LSU'e

D.

The MAD

1317

DPKP

357. If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU will......... A. activate the LAD in operation and its visible and audible alarm will set off. B. activate the MAD (main Alarm Display) and Visible and alarms will be activated. C. activate the TWM (Type Writer Monitor) and print out the obtained error value, measuring point number and time. D. activates all of these.

358. The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow, level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and digital tranducers. What is a digital transducer ?

A.

A digital transducer gives a continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV

B.

A Digital Transducer gives a direct "on " or "off "signal and involve logic transducers

C.

A digital transducer works on AC voltage

D.

A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog tranducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi

1318

DPKP

359. The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest analysis. This is called......

A.

wear down and maintenance scheduling.

B.

trend analysis and maintenance prediction.

C.

material fatigue and maintenance scheduling.

D.

wear down and breakdown prediction.

1319

DPKP

360. If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate this fault is by...........

A.

checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.

B.

checking the input voltage.

C.

checking the fuses.

D.

calling the electrician.

361. On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the range ?

A.

With item No 7

B.

With item No 5

C.

With item No 1

D.

With item No 2

362. How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure transmitter? A.

By item No 5

B.

By item No 7

C.

By item No 2

D.

By item No 1 1320

DPKP

363. In an automated engine the center from which the ship's engine room is controlled is called: A.

the control plant station (CPS).

B.

the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).

C.

the power plant station control station (PPCS).

D.

the engineering control room (ECR).

364. In automation, RTD & CV stands for: A.

resistance temperature drop & control event.

B.

return time delay.

C.

resistance temperature detector and control valve.

D.

None of these.

365. The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature, pressure etc. is called: A.

the demand display unit.

B.

the scanning unit.

C.

the loop back system.

D.

the comparing unit.

366. A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of....... A.

impulse

B.

digital

C.

analog

D.

binary

type output signals ?

1321

DPKP

367. The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the steering gear. What moves this potentiometer ?

A.

The telemotor

B.

The rudder angle indicator

C.

The rudder position via the trunion connection

D.

The eccentric pushrod on the HELE-SHAW pump

368. What is part No 1 ?

A.

The Differentiator

B.

The Pressure knob

C.

The Measuring scale

D.

The Adjusting knob

1322

DPKP

369. What is Part No 5 ?

A.

The Pressure bearing

B.

The Spring holder

C.

The Differential adjusting nut

D.

The Pressure adjuster

370. What will be the binary output at E ?

A.

1

B.

0

C.

11

D.

10

1323

DPKP

371. Indicate the correct characteristic of the amplifier "A".

A.

A frequency range less than 1 kHz

B.

A voltage gain greater than 100,000

C.

An input impedance lower than 1,000 Ohm

D.

An output impedance greater than 10,000 Ohm

372. What is this symbol ?

A.

A binary flip-flop

B.

A binary register

C.

A digital amplifier

D.

A differential trigger

1324

DPKP

373. What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here ?

A.

Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet

B.

Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet

C.

Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet.

D.

Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet

374. Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier. What takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit in the electrical equivalent ?

A.

Voltage U2

B.

Voltage U1

C.

Resistor R1

D.

Resistor R2

1325

DPKP

375. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the following is a feasible sequence of activities ? A.

Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored

B.

Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored

C.

Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored

D.

Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8 sec: the power is restored

376. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator is by….. A.

starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any leakages or deficiencies.

B.

causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is available in port.

C.

by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main switch board.

D.

switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

377. In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ? A.

In the rotor

B.

In the sliprings

C.

In the stator

D.

In the excitatory

378. How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ? A.

By the excitation current in the rotor

B.

By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard

C.

By the excitation current in the stator

D.

By the alternator speed

1326

DPKP

379. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately excited three-phase alternator ? A.

Three

B.

Two

C.

Six

D.

Four

380. If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has this alternator got… A.

Four

B.

Two

C.

Eight

D.

Six

381. The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportional to… A.

the output voltage and the output current of the alternator

B.

the speed of the alternator

C.

the output voltage of the alternator

D.

the output current of the alternator

382. When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each alternator (10/AR) ? A.

The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator

B.

The temperature of the windings due to load distribution

C.

The power throttle of the driving units

D.

The excitation current

383. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel ? A.

Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal

B.

Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase

C.

Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase

D.

Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency

1327

DPKP

384. Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main switch breaker will trip the alternator if a major cabled line should fail to the distributors and the insulation should break through ? A.

The reverse current trip

B.

The high/low frequency trip

C.

The short circuit protection

D.

The under voltage relay

385. If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will trip the main Switch breaker ? A.

The overload trip

B.

The reverse current trip

C.

The high/low frequency trip

D.

the under voltage/over voltage trip

386. What happens to the terminal voltage of a generator when it supplies a leading power factor load ? A.

It falls

B.

It fluctuates

C.

It rises

D.

It remains steady

387. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt. What is the phase voltage ? A.

220 Volt

B.

440 Volt

C.

311.13 Volt

D.

254.33 Volt

1328

DPKP

388. The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 Volt. What is the equivalent line to line voltage ? A.

147 Volt

B.

440 Volt

C.

230 Volt

D.

254.34 Volt

389. Two 3 phase 4160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load of the system is 1050 kW with power factor 0.75 lagging. If alternator Ho 1 is carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging ..... A.

the Power Factor of alternator 110 2 is lagging 0.7064

B.

the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.6914

C.

the Power Factor of alternator lbco 2 is lagging 0.658

D.

the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.7352

390. Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3 phase, 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A s 60 kW, 90% power factor and the load of B is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load ? A.

458.8 Amps

B.

429.8 Amps

C.

472.8 Amps

D.

416.8 Amps

391. It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What are the circumstances for this to occur ? A.

Where three generators are running in parallel.

B.

Where two generators are running in parallel.

C.

Any of the above but the alternator in question has lost prime mover input.

D.

Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs

1329

DPKP

392. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system is working ? A.

By lowering the generator frequency

B.

By rising the generator frequency

C.

By rising the alternator voltage

D.

By lowering the alternator voltage

393. What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit as generator circuit breaker ? A.

It trips the alternator by under voltage

B.

It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage

C.

All of these.

D.

It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage

394. If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails to operate, what back-up safety device will activate ? A.

The over speed trip

B.

The preferential trip

C.

The under voltage trip

D.

The low frequency trip

395. A generator's Reverse Power protection relay is fitted between ... A.

the breaker and the consumers.

B.

the breaker connecting bars.

C.

the generator and the bus bars.

D.

the generator and the consumers

396. The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting ? A.

0.5 - 1%

B.

6 - 7%

C.

2 - 3%

D.

4 - 6%

1330

DPKP

397. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse Trip Relay operates ? A.

1 - 2 seconds

B.

3 - 5 seconds

C.

5 - 7 seconds

D.

7 - 8 seconds

398. If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse Power Relays pick up setting be ? A.

10 - 15 %

B.

5 -10 %

C.

5 -12 %

D.

8 - 10 %

399. How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ? A.

By fitting a voltmeter over one phase

B.

By fitting lamps crossed over two phases

C.

By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases

D.

By fitting lamps over the three phases

400. What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time ? A.

The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise

B.

The lights may be a dimmed a little

C.

Nothing special

D.

The generator may trip on overload

401. Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps more than the second generator. What is the best course of action ? A.

Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level

B.

Adjust the speed of both generators

C.

Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output

D.

Adjust the speed of one generator 1331

DPKP

402. When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit breaker be closed ? A.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 11 o'clock position

B.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11 o'clock position

C.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o'clock position

D.

When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o'clock position

403. Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars ? A.

Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate

B.

Because the bus bars will be short circuited

C.

Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor

D.

Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage

404. The voltage in an 60Hz AC generator is adjusted by: A.

the number of series conductors

B.

the speed of the engine of the generator

C.

the magnetic field strength

D.

the number of poles

405. What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in parallel ? A.

To cut in generators automatically as they are needed

B.

To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators

C.

To divide the reactive current equally between the generators

D.

To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load

406. The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by: A.

A tripped bus circuit breaker

B.

Failure of the exciter

C.

Excessive prime mover speed

D.

The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated

1332

DPKP

407. What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with other generators? A.

Switch off all connected loads

B.

Remove the load from the generator to be stopped

C.

Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line

D.

Trip off the generator from the switchboard

408. What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel generator ? A.

To maintain good load sharing

B.

To prevent over speeding

C.

To prevent the generator running as a motor

D.

To prevent main circuit overload

409. Why is synchronization required when two diesel generators are due to be connected to each other ? A.

If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after generators have been connected.

B.

If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime mover and the generator can be damaged.

C.

Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.

D.

The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is carried out.

410. What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it supplies a lagging power actor load, example induction motors ? A.

The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt

B.

The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt

C.

The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt

D.

The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt

1333

DPKP 7. Perawatan dan perbaikan peralatan listrik dan elektronik (Maintenance andrepair of electricaland electronicequipment) 1. A 3-phase induction motor is rated at 200 A Full loadline current. Its initial direct- on-line starting current will be approximately:

2.

A.

1000 A

B.

100 A

C.

5000 A

D.

200 A

A delta connected 3-phase A.C. induction motor is running normally at its rated current of 150 A when a single phasing fault (open circuit) occurs in one line. The likely outcome will be: A.

Line currents: 0 A, 180 A, 180 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.

B.

Line currents: 0 A, 150 A, 300 A. Trip condition: trip on overload.

C.

Line currents: 75 A, 75 A, 75 A. Trip condition: no trip but speed falls.

D.

Line currents: 150 A,150A,150 A. Trip condition: fuses blow on short circuit.

3.

A motor is protected by a thermal overcurrent relay. After tripping on overload it will not be possible to reset the overcurrent relay immediately because the: A.

Bimetallic strips need time to cool down

B.

Starter isolator automatically applies an interlock.

C.

Oil dash-pot has to be reset.

D.

Line contactor spring has to be reset

1334

DPKP

4.

A ships 3 - phase a.c. electrical supply system has 440 V and 220 V sections. The effect of a single short circuit fault to earth on a 220 V line will cause which of the following earth lamp indications: A.

In 440 V section: all lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: Two lamps bright one lamp dark.

B.

In 440 V section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 V section: One lamp dim.

C.

In 440 V section: One lamp dim. In 220 V section: One lamp dim.

D.

In 440 section: All lamps equally bright. In 220 section: All lamps dark.

5.

After main power is restored (following a blackout), a timed sequential restart of motor-driven auxiliaries is necessary to avoid: A.

Generator

overload

due

to

many

motors

starting

at

simultaneously

6.

B.

Overloading creating earth faults

C.

Overvoltage due to current surges

D.

Over-frequency due to overspeed of generator

An earth fault exists on the blue line of a 100 A bilge pump circuit. A second earth fault occurs on the yellow line of a 10 A ventilation fan circuit. Both systems are supplied from the ship's 440V supply. The likely outcome is that: A.

A short circuit occurs between earth faults and the ventilation fan fuse blows

B.

An open circuit occurs between earth fault and both motors trip out

C.

Both motors trip out on overload

D.

A short circuit occurs between earth fault and the bilge pump fuse blows

1335

DPKP

7.

An electrical power emergency source in a ship is required because: A. It satisfies the SOLAS (and other) requirements for ship safety B. The ship's total load can be shared between main and emergency generators C. The main diesel generator(s) can be taken out of service for overhaul or repair D. It satisfies the need to be environmentally "friendly"

8.

Check-synchroniser equipment is often installed to: A. Prevent manual synchronising outside permitted limits B. Permit faster paralleling of generators C. Allow auto-synchronising to take place D. Ensure fair equal sharing between generators

9.

For two generators running in parallel, their share of additional load (kW) will be determined by the: A. Governor droop settings on each prime mover B. Voltage droop setting on each AVR C. The power factor of the additional load D. The temperature difference between the generator rotors

10.

In terms of electrical units, what is Hz the abbreviation for? A. Frequency in Cycles per second B. Revolution per minute C. Frequency in Direct Current (DC) D. Measure for Resistance

1336

DPKP

11.

Resistance thermometers are often installed in a thermo-well. Will it matter to the accuracy of the measurement how you install a resistance element in a thermo-well? A.

Wrong installation will result in a major deviation in measurement

12.

B.

Will have a minor influence on the measurement

C.

Will only result in mechanical problems

D.

No influence at all

Salinometers are often used to monitor water supplies.The most common type of sensing device they use is:

13.

A.

Electrodes

B.

Strain gauge

C.

Capacitance probe

D.

Inductor capsule

The correct time to synchronise is usually taken to be when the synchroscope reaches the "5 to 12" position and is rotating slowly clockwise. This to allow for:

14.

A.

Circuit breaker operating time

B.

Synchroscope pointer time lag

C.

Synchroscope error

D.

Generator phase difference error

The earth lamps in a 3-phase system indicate as follows: Red= bright Yellow= dark

Blue= dim . Which fault condition shown as red -

yellow - blue is correct? A.

no fault - hard earth - light earth

B.

light earth - no fault - hard earth

C.

hard earth - light earth - no fault

D.

light earth - hard earth - no fault

1337

DPKP

15.

16.

The function of the fuses in a motor starter circuit is to provide: A.

Short circuit protection.

B.

Overload protection.

C.

Undervoltage protection.

D.

Over load protection.

The insulation resistance (IR) to earth of a new galley hot-plate is measured to be 30 Mohm. When three identical hot-plates on the same supply are tested together their combined IR will be:

17.

A.

10 Mohm

B.

30 Mohm

C.

3 Mohm

D.

90 Mohm

When maintenance work is to be carried out on an electric motor driving a centrifugal water pump with automatic start, should you; A.

In conjunction with the senior watchkeeper and electrician, isolate valves, electrical supply, automatics and post 'Do not operate' signs before commencing work.

B.

Set in local control, isolate the suction and delivery valves then commence work.

C.

Isolate the suction and delivery valves then inform the electrician that you are starting work.

D.

Ascertain from the senior watchkeeper if it is okay to startwork, isolate the valves then commence work.

18.

A ship has an electrical system rated at 690 Volts. Which voltage level is this? A.

Low voltage.

B.

High voltage.

C.

Medium voltage.

D.

Intermediate voltage.

1338

DPKP

19.

High Voltage (HV) cables are smaller than low voltage cables for a given power rating. Why is this? A.

The HV cable carries a smaller current and therefore requires less copper.

B.

The HV cable uses higher quality copper conductors and therefore requires them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.

C.

The HV cable uses Aluminium conductors and therefore requires them to be a smaller cross-sectional area.

D.

20.

The HV cable has a thinner wall of special insulation material.

On finding a person apparently unconscious in a High Voltage switch room, which of the following should be done? A.

Raise alarm, identify means of isolation and apply before approaching victim.

B.

Trip all breakers and approach victim.

C.

Check if the victim is in contact with live parts and if not apply first aid.

D.

Raise alarm then drag the victim clear so that they cannot reach live parts while receiving aid.

21.

Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell ozone. This is likely to indicate which of the following?

22.

A.

Arcing at badly connected bus bars

B.

Transformer overload

C.

Vacuum circuit breaker problems

D.

Air circuit breaker problems

Personnel in a high voltage switchroom smell rotten eggs. What may this indicate? A.

Problems with a gas (SF6) circuit breaker

B.

Burning of insulation

C.

Problems with a vacuum circuit breaker

D.

Arcing at badly coupled bus bars 1339

DPKP

23.

The recognised definition of High Voltage equipment is anything that operates at over which of the following levels?

24.

A.

1000Volts ac or 1500Volts dc.

B.

1000Volts ac or 750Volts dc.

C.

33,000Volts ac or dc.

D.

440Volts ac or dc.

Which of the following voltage levels would be regarded as high voltage likely to be found on a ship?

25.

A.

6.6Kv

B.

690V

C.

660kV

D.

220V

Which of the following alternatives summarise the benefits of using high voltage on ships?

26.

A.

Smaller conductors, machines and switchgear

B.

Smaller conductors, insulators and transformers

C.

More efficient transformers and electrical machines

D.

Smaller cables and better power factors

Which of the following options may be used as a brief summary of how to safely make high voltage equipment accessible? A. Disconnect, isolate, earth (ground) B. Shed load, isolate. Earth (ground) C. Disconnect, earth (ground), isolate D. Shed load, Earth (ground), disconnect, isolate

1340

DPKP

27.

A deadweight tester is used to check and calibrate a pressure gauge. The tester consists of a hydraulic pump and a hydraulic chamber and balance weight system. After completing the calibration of the pressure gauge the hydraulic pressure should be relieved before removing the weights. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this requirement. A. To protect the piston in the hydraulic system from possible impact damage as it may reach the end of its stroke. B. To protect the pressure gauge from a surge in pressure as the weights are removed. C. To protect the hydraulic balance system from a pressure surge as the weights are removed. D. To protect the hydraulic pump from a pressure surge as the weights are removed.

28.

A power card taken from a diesel engine cylinder using a mechanical indicator has a flat top. Which of the possible actions given in the options is most likely to correct this irregularity on the power card? A. Change the indicator spring for one with a higher rating. B. Lengthen the cord for the indicator drum drive. C. Shorten the cord for the indicator drum drive. D. Lubricate the indicator piston and cylinder.

29.

A pressure gauge of the bourdon tube type is reading incorrectly and shows 2 bar when the pressure in the system is zero. There is no spare available. Which of the options would be the best temporary remedy for this situation? A. Use a deadweight tester to mark a new scale on the gauge throughout the working range. B. Subtract 2 bar from the gauge reading when checking the pressure. C. Remove the indicator needle and reposition it to read zero when the system is unpressurised. D. Bend the bourdon tube so that a zero reading is obtained when the 1341

DPKP

system is unpressurised.

30.

A standard outside micrometer requires regular maintenance, including calibration, in order to ensure accuracy of measurement. How is the accuracy of this type of instrument normally checked? Select the answer from the options given. A. By measuring a standard gauge block or rod at a common temperature. B. By trying a go/no go gauge between the micrometer

anvil

and

maximum

opening

at

spindle a

at

common

temperature. C. By checking the distance between micrometer anvil and spindle with an inside vernier gauge. D. By checking the distance between the micrometer anvil and spindle with an inside micrometer.

31.

As part of the regular maintenance for a paramagnetic oxygen analyser used for measuring the oxygen content of exhaust gas it is important to keep the sample line filter as clean as possible. Why is this necessary with this type of instrument? A. Pressure variations in the sample chamber can cause errors so restrictions must be kept to a minimum. B. A high flow rate is required in order to deflect the sensing element. C. The filter may rupture due to the high pressures generated by the sample pump. D. The pressure drop across the filter may damage the sampling pump.

1342

DPKP

32.

Compressed air for instrument and control purposes needs to be of high quality. In order to condition the air filter modules are usually fitted to remove the contaminants. If there is evidence of oil carry over to the final elements in the instrumentation air system what is the most likely cause? A. The coalescer module is saturated and requires renewal. B. The drier section of the module needs to be regenerated. C. The particle removal module is choked. D. The air compressor piston rings need to be renewed.

33.

Vibration analysis is often used as a conditioning monitoring tool onboard ship as part of the approved planned maintenance system. Many vibration measuring instruments are fitted with a harmonic filter/analyser. How would these filters normally be used during vibration measurement on a centrifugal pump? A. To isolate a single frequency of vibration associated with one of the pumps components. B. To sum up all the harmonics of a base frequency to give total vibration for all of

the

pump's

components

simultaneously. C. To block out any noise or vibration from the surrounding engine room. D. To generate an audible sound signal at the same frequency and amplitude as the vibration.

1343

DPKP

34.

When checking the zero point on a combustible gas indicator that is to be used to detect hydrocarbon gases in an empty cargo tank which method should be used from the options given? A. Pass fresh air through the sample chamber. B. Pass oxygen gas through the sample chamber C. Pass methane gas through the sample chamber. D. Pass carbon monoxide gas through the sample chamber.

35.

Which of the methods given in the options should be used as part of the check of the accuracy of a liquid filled thermometer used in the cold rooms of the ships provisions stores? A. Immerse the thermometer in a mixture of distilled water and ice made from distilled water to check the zero reading. B. Place the thermometer in a hole drilled into a block of ice to check the zero reading. C. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading matches the thermostat setting when the liquid line valve closes. D. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading when the refrigeration compressor cuts out.

36.

Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test a remote reading temperature gauge for the auxiliary boiler exhaust gas? A. Check the resistance change in the sensor over a known temperature range against the resistance values in the product sheet. B. Place the sensor in a test tank of water fitted with a heater element and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different temperatures. C. Place the sensor in a test tank of oil fitted with a heater element and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different temperatures. D. Fit a spare temperature gauge and see if the readings are the same.

1344

DPKP

37.

Which of the methods given in the options will give the most accurate test of the accuracy of a bourdon tube type pressure gauge with a range of 0 to 20 bar? A. Check the gauge on a deadweight tester. B. Compare it with the reading from a similar gauge connected to the same pressure source. C. Use the fuel injector test pump to check the readings against the test rig master gauge. D. Check the readings against the output gauge from a pressure regulator by connecting it to a regulated test supply.

38.

With reference to the installation of pressure gauges for steam systems. Complete the following statement from the options given. To protect a bourdon tube type pressure gauge which is to be fitted to a steam line it should …. A. ..be fitted with a siphon loop between it and the steam pipe. B. ..have its casing filled with water. C. ..be fitted directly to the steam pipe. D. ..be fitted to the steam pipe using a flexible hose.

39.

A simple level control for a water tank consists of a horizontal lever with a float at one end and a filling valve at the other. The lever is provided with an adjustable pivot positioned between the valve and the float. How will the 'offset' in the system be affected under changing demand conditions if the pivot is moved closer to the filling valve? A. It will increase the offset across the demand range. B. It will increase the offset on high demand but reduce it on low demand. C. It will reduce the offset throughout the demand range. D. It will reduce the offset on low demand but increase it during high demand.

1345

DPKP

40.

A vapour compression refrigeration system is usually fitted with a number of devices to give protection and control of the system. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test the high pressure cut out during routine maintenance and checking of the system? A. Gradually shut in the condenser cooling water valve or the condenser refrigerant inlet valve while closely monitoring the compressor discharge pressure. B. Charge the system with refrigerant until the high pressure cut out operates. C. Manually close each of the evaporator coils by switching off the electrical supply to the liquid line solenoid shut off valves and monitor the condenser pressure. D. Close the condenser outlet valve and closely monitor the condenser pressure.

41.

During maintenance of a pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve the diaphragm is found to be split. Select, from the options given, a suitable material to use to make a temporary replacement if there is no spare diaphragm available. A. Natural rubber sheet of approximately the same thickness and elasticity as the original diaphragm material. B. Natural rubber sheet of greater thickness and lower elasticity as the original diaphragm material. C. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of approximately the same thickness but less elasticity than the original diaphragm material. D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of smaller thickness but similar strength as the original diaphragm material.

1346

DPKP

42.

During maintenance work on a compensated mechanical hydraulic governor air is drawn in to the hydraulic circuit after draining and flushing out the unit. Which of the actions given in the options is most likely to assist in the removal of the air from the system? A. With the governor in operation open the compensation needle valve to introduce instability and disturb the engine load to make the governor hunt. B. Drain the governor again and slowly refill with fresh oil. C. With the governor in operation close the compensation needle valve and disturb the load to make the engine hunt. D. Overfill the governor with fresh oil to force all of the air out.

43.

Following replacement of a diesel alternator governor the machine is test run on load. It is found that as the load is gradually increased the voltage and the frequency gradually fall to an unacceptable level. The governor is a mechanical hydraulic type. Select from the options given the correct adjustment to make to correct the situation. A. The governor droop should be reduced. B. The governor droop should be increased. C. The governor load limit should be reduced. D. The governor load limit should be increased.

44.

The refrigeration system for the ships provisions consists of a number of cold rooms served by a central refrigeration system. The evaporator coils for the vegetable room are found to be frosting up even though the room is down to temperature and the liquid line valve has closed. Select, from the options given, the automatic control component which is likely to be malfunctioning and so cause this condition. A. Back pressure control valve. B. Thermostatic expansion valve for the meat room. C. The low pressure cut out for the compressor. D. The liquid line valve for the flour room.

1347

DPKP

45.

The Ziegler-Nichols method is used in control engineering when setting up the system. Which of the system components given in the options would this method be applied to during initial set up? A. PID controller for tuning. B. Valve and actuator to set the span of travel. C. Valve positioner to optimise speed of operation. D. Sensing unit to set the range.

46.

What could be the cause of a refrigeration compressor running continuously even though normal temperatures for the cold rooms have been reached? A. Low-pressure cut-out is stuck in closed position. B. The differential pressure switch for the lubricating oil pressure cut-out is stuck in the closed position. C. High-pressure cut-out is stuck in open position. D. Solenoid valve before the expansion valve stuck in closed position.

47.

With the set point at the actual desired value, a temperature control system is giving an unacceptably large offset (difference between set point and measured value) on high load resulting in a low system temperature. Which of the actions given in the options should be taken to reduce this effect and therefore achieve closer control of the temperature? A. Reduce the width of the proportional band for the controller. B. Increase the width of the proportional band for the controller. C. Increase the set point to a value above the actual desired value D. Crack open the manual bypass valve for the control valve.

1348

DPKP

48.

What is the electrical function of the pressostat shown here ?

A. Pressure to open contact B. Pressure to cross-connect contact C. Pressure to close contact D. Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how it is connected

49.

What are items F indicating in this starting box drawing ?

A. The front switch B. The phase terminals C. The fuses D. The front connectors

1349

DPKP

50.

51.

What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram ?

A.

Any of the above

B.

A level switch

C.

A pressostat

D.

A thermostat

When will the left hand lamp 'L' illuminate ? (Assume there is no defect in the installation)

A.

When the engine is stopped

B.

When the main breaker is switched on

C.

When the engine is running

D.

When an overload/trip occurs

1350

DPKP

52.

53.

What are items 'E' in this starting circuit diagram ?

A.

An overload relay /stop button

B.

A short-circuit trip

C.

A low voltage relay

D.

A reverse current trip

What are the items marked 'PM' in this electric starter diagram ?

A.

Start push buttons

B.

Start position switches

C.

Stop position switches

D.

Stop push buttons

1351

DPKP

54.

55.

What are the items 'PP' indicated in this electric starting diagram ?

A.

Stop push buttons

B.

Start push buttons

C.

Stop relays

D.

Start relays

What does item 'C' indicate in this electrical starting circuit ?

A.

The overload

B.

The auxiliary contactor

C.

The main contactor

D.

A thermal relay

1352

DPKP

56.

What does item 'RT' represent in this schematic electrical starting diagram ?

57.

A.

The overload relay

B.

The signalling relay

C.

The time relay

D.

The measuring relay

What are the electric power suppliers on board this ship ?

A.

440 Vott and 220 Volt

B.

Electric motors and lighting circuits

C.

4 x alternators, 2 x transformers

D.

12 Main Diesels, I Emergency Diesel, 1 Turbo alternator

1353

DPKP

58.

59.

What is the meaning of item 'CP' in this ship's electric plant diagram ?

A.

Control panel

B.

Main switchboard

C.

Switch panel

D.

Control room

What does item 'CE' stands for in this ship's electric plant drawing ?

A. Control equipment power B. Emergency Switchboard C. Central emergency station D. Common energy lighting distributor

1354

DPKP

60.

Where is the shore power supply line to be connected to supply this ship's electric plant ?

61.

A.

On TT

B.

On CE

C.

On CP

D.

On T

What are the items 'CD' shown in this ship's electric plant diagram ?

A.

Distribution panels

B.

Control desks

C.

Transformers

D.

Starting boxes

1355

DPKP

62.

What possibilities exist to supply power via direct connection to the Emergency Switchboard.

63.

A.

1) Supply by shore power. 2) Supply by Main switchboard

B.

1) Supply by Main Switchboard 2) Supply by Emergency Diesel

C.

1) Supply by Shore Power. 2) Supply by Main Switchboard

D.

1) Supply by main diesel engines 2) Supply by Emergency Diesel

What are items 'T' shown in this ships electric plant schematic diagram?

A.

Terminal boxes

B.

Transit line connector units

C.

Thyristor boosters

D.

Transformers

1356

DPKP

64.

The Main as well as the Emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is...........

65.

A.

fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers.

B.

fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes.

C.

monitored and supplied via distributors.

D.

generated as distributed.

In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water, which corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again ? A.

Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp.

B.

Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and revarnish windings.

C.

Wash with fresh water, heat to 80 degree C and change bearings and re-varnish windings.

D.

66.

Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and revarnish windings.

A breakdown in insulation between a motor winding and the motor frame is called .... A.

a winding breakdown.

B.

a short circuit.

C.

an insulation breakdown.

D.

an earth.

1357

DPKP

67.

A six-pole asynchronous motor is connected to a power supply with a frequency of 50 Hz. If the rotor bar frequency is 2.3 Hz, what will be the speed of the motor ?

68.

A.

972 RPM

B.

954 RPM

C.

912 RPM

D.

928 RPM

A six pole asynchronous motor is fed from a 60 Hz circuit and has a slip of 5 %. What is the motor speed ?

69.

A.

1140 RPM

B.

1560 RPM

C.

960 RPM

D.

1720 RPM

Which are the two requirements to make electricity generation possible? A.

Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux

B.

Presence of magnetic flux, relative motion between conductor and flux.

70.

C.

Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate

D.

Current to induce flux, rotary movement

A star connected induction motor operates on 220 V with power factor 0.7 and efficiency of 82 %. Its output is 8 HP. What is the phase, current and voltage ? A.

I phase is 27.3 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.

B.

I phase is 15.8 Ampere, phase voltage is 220 Volt.

C.

I phase is 12.8 Ampere , phase voltage is 220 Volt.

D.

I phase is 22.7 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 Volt.

1358

DPKP

71.

A 3-phase 60 cycle motor delivers 50 HP to a pump (shaft output). What is the torque if the RPM is 1176 RPM ?

72.

73.

A.

275 pound feet

B.

223 pound-feet

C.

250 pound feet

D.

175 pound feet

In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil ? A.

To smother the arc

B.

To acts as insulation

C.

To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc

D.

All of these.

Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devices for quenching arcs in air because they......

74.

75.

A.

isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over

B.

confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling

C.

control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc

D.

extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation

In the worst case, an electric shock of as low as 15 milli-amps will ...... A.

be fatal.

B.

be totally harmless.

C.

give you a faint shock.

D.

burn your skin.

What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system ? A.

No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth

B.

The system will be in overload and both line fuse trip.

C.

The opposite line fuse will trip due overload

D.

The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.

1359

DPKP

76.

What information would you find on the name plate of any electric motor A.

Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, A speed, impedance

B.

Voltage, current, kWatt, frequency, phases, speed,

C.

Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity

D.

Maker, voltage, full load current, power, frequency, phases, speed RPM

77.

What information would you find on the name plate of any industrial transformer.

78.

A.

Polarity marking, kVA, impedance, voltages, maker

B.

kVAR rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity

C.

Power, current, horsepower, ampere

D.

Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance

A single phase motor has a full load current of 28 A. What will be the rating of the branch fuses?

79.

A.

112 Amps

B.

56 Amps

C.

63 Amps

D.

34 Amps

Three motors with full toad currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each are fed by an unidentified

feeder. What is the minimum size of the

motor feeder current carrying capacity ? A.

Approx 134 Amps

B.

Approx 175 Amps

C.

Approx 235 Amps

D.

Approx 350 Amps

1360

DPKP

80.

split-phase motor is an in uses the motor to rotate. motor where the are produced by that

81.

82.

A.

the main and the auxiliary windings

B.

the shunt and the series windings

C.

the three stator windings

D.

two permanent magnets

How many watts are there in one horse power ? A.

860 Watts

B.

720 Watts

C.

760 Watts

D.

746 Watts

At what percentage of the motor name plate rating can a thermal overload relay be safely set for continuously rated motors with service factor 1.15 ?

83.

A.

180 %

B.

115 %

C.

VW %

D.

165%

What should be the minimum current carrying capacity of branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor ?

84.

A.

140 % of the full motor name plate rating

B.

125 % of the full load current name plate rating

C.

200 % of the full motor name plate rating

D.

110 % of the full motor name plate rating

What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting' for large AC motors ? A.

Line resistance starter

B.

Star-Delta motor starter

C.

Any of the above

D.

Auto transformer 1361

DPKP

85.

86.

A clamp meter is usually in practice a A.

Volt meter.

B.

Ammeter

C.

Resistance meter.

D.

Galvanometer.

Direct-online starting of motors will subject them to starting currents which are higher than Their full load (name plate) current ?

87.

88.

A.

5 to 7 times

B.

9 to 12 times

C.

12 to 15 times

D.

2 to 3 times

In a Star-connected 3-phase motor A.

the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage

B.

the line current is equal to the Phase current

C.

the line voltage equal to the phase voltage

D.

the phase current higher than the line current

The line to line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What is the phase current ?

89.

A.

22.72 Amps

B.

48.44 Amps

C.

16.18 Amps

D.

28.00 Amps

Megger test readings of a motor or alternator are ideally done when the machine is A.

cooled down to hand-warm.

B.

hot after stopping.

C.

running.

D.

cooled down to environment temperature.

1362

DPKP

90.

When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, make sure that the instrument indicates a test voltage of

91.

A.

250 volts

B.

500 volts

C.

750 volts

D.

1000 volts

In an emergency insulation resistance readings lower than normal can be acceptable, but what would the allowable minimum be ?

92.

A.

0.5 Meg Ohm

B.

1.0 Meg Ohm

C.

10.0 Meg Ohm

D.

5.0 Meg Ohm

What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation

93.

A.

80 degree C

B.

45 degree C

C.

105 degree C

D.

55 degree C

Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test ?

94.

A.

Conduct drop (mini-Volt)test on each phase

B.

All of these.

C.

Megger test each phase to phase separately

D.

Megger test each phase separately to earth

Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in parallel ? A.

No common earth is available

B.

Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship

C.

Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA

D.

The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not 1363

DPKP

95.

When an electric motor is operated at a higher frequency, it will run and it may be operating

96.

A.

faster in overload

B.

slower at too high a voltage

C.

faster at overspeed

D.

slower with too high a current.

Typically, how many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting current ?

97.

98.

A.

3 - 5 times

B.

2 - 3 times

C.

5 - 7 times

D.

7- 9 times

If a fault has occurred (shorted, earthed) an electric motor, you should A.

replace two fuses if only two are found blown.

B.

replace all three fuses, blown or not.

C.

replace one fuse if only one is found blown.

D.

not replace the fuses if they are not blown.

What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuit breaker with regard to short circuit protection ?

99.

A.

Its very high speed breaking operation

B.

It is less dangerous since there are no arcs

C.

The broken fuse is easier to locate

D.

It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts

For an overload of 25 % of the full rated current how long compared to tripping a circuit breaker would a use take to blow ? A.

Very much longer

B.

Lesser

C.

Longer

D.

No difference

1364

DPKP

100. For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total rated current is he device usually set ? A.

115 %

B.

125 %

C.

110 %

D.

120 %

101. What voltages are accredited standard secondary voltages for voltage transformers. ? A.

380 Volt and 220 Volt

B.

230 Volt and 120 Volt

C.

240 Volt and 220 Volt

D.

220 Volt and 110 Volt

102. Current transformers supply ampere meters and the current operated coils of instruments with a standard current of either A.

2 or 1 Amps.

B.

5 or 1 Amps.

C.

20 or 5 milli-amps.

D.

20 or 5 Amps.

103. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCI3' S circuit breakers ? A.

7 - 10 Megaohm

B.

5 - 8 Megaohm

C.

4 - 6 Megaohm

D.

I. 3 Megaohm

104. What is the purpose of the cable gland besides that it is designed to provide a watertight seal ? A.

To provide a gas tight seal

B.

To allow minor sliding movements of the cable

C.

To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable

D.

As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement. 1365

DPKP

105. Between which points on this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp is the STARTER fitted

A.

Between points 3 and 4

B.

Between points 9 and 1

C.

Between points 7 and 8

D.

Between points 5 and 6

106. In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, through which points is the electric current absorbed by the lamp during NORMAL operation (lighting) ?

A.

Through points 7 and 8

B.

Through points 3 and 4

C.

Through points 5 and 6

D.

Through points 3 and 8

1366

DPKP

107. What is item No 11 called, shown here in this fluorescent lamp assembly ?

A.

The starting box or switching box

B.

The lamp body or lamp box

C.

The base

D.

The lamp fitting or holder

108. How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system? A.

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage

B.

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow

C.

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

D.

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

109. What is the purpose of a preference load tripping system ? A.

To trip a generator if the load becomes too large

B.

To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload

C.

To disconnect important equipment before a short circuit can cause damage

D.

To re-connect essential equipment after a black out

1367

DPKP

110. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault? A.

By carrying our a Phase balance test

B.

By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)

C.

By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)

D.

By carrying out a Megger test

111. What is a Clamp meter used for ? A.

To measure current in a single cable

B.

To measure moisture content in a cable

C.

To measure current in a three phase cable

D.

To measure cable temperature

112. When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor ? A.

When the motor has been warmed up 5 degrees C above operating temperature

B.

When the motor has been carefully cleaned

C.

When the motor has cooled down after use

D.

When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature

113. How is the direction of rotation changed in an asynchronous motor? A.

By switching all three connections on the motor terminal

B.

By reversing the frequency

C.

By switching two of the three connections on the motor terminal

D.

The direction of rotation cannot be changed

114. A current clamp meter is clipped around a cable supplying a balanced three phase motor working at full Load. The motor is rated to consume 100 A. What will the meter show A.

100 Amps

B.

110 Amps

C.

33.3 Amps

D.

0 Amps

1368

DPKP

115. A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called 'insulated neutral" type. What does this means? A.

The system is totally insulated from the ship's 22011 distribution system

B.

The system does not have a neutral point

C.

The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull

D.

The system's zero voltage point is connected to the frame of the generator

116. The ship's insulation meter indicates a low resistance in the electrical distribution system, advise the possible cause. A.

The emergency generator which is currently on stand-by has been splashed with salt water

B.

The TV aerial in the mess room has short circuited

C.

The armature of a switched off AC motor has short circuited

D.

A connection box has been filled with salt water

117. What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the generator main bus-bars? A.

To prevent bus-bar overload

B.

To measure the generator output voltage

C.

To measure the temperature of the bus-bar

D.

To measure the generator output current

118. That will happen if the connections between an ammeter and an instrument transformer located

on the nerator main bus-bars are

disconnected ? A.

Nothing will happen

B.

The ammeter will go to zero

C.

The ammeter will go to maximum

D.

The ammeter will go to zero and the instrument transformer will quickly become over heated

1369

DPKP

119. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100 degrees C ? A.

The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor life span formula

B.

The insulation is likely to be severely damaged

C.

Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures of more than 500 degrees Celsius

D.

The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of humidity

120. What is the purpose of a "Melte "starter ? A.

To reduce the start time for an AC motor

B.

To reduce the starting current in large AC motors

C.

To start either a 0 or an V connected motor

D.

To regulate large AC motors

121. What may happen if a megger insulation tester is used to measure the insulation in an electronic circuit? A.

The wrong internal resistance may be shown

B.

The megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will consume

C.

The components in the circuit may be destroyed

D.

The connections between components will show a high insulation value

122. What is the purpose of a Tachogenerator ? A.

To measure the relation between impedance and frequency

B.

To measure the direction of shaft rotation

C.

To measure impedance

D.

To measure revolutions per minute (RPM)

1370

DPKP

123. What would be the correct setting of the current relay for a three phase induction motor ? A.

At 10% below the rated current

B.

At 200% of the rated current

C.

At the rated current

D.

At 5-15% over the rated current

124. The commutator of a DC motor is examined and is found to have a smooth appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would you take ? A.

Change the brushes

B.

None

C.

Change the brush springs

D.

Clean the commutator with a emery cloth until the colour changes to clean metal

125. The specific gravity of the cells in a lead acid battery for the emergency generator is found to be 1250. What action would you take? A.

Clean the terminals

B.

Add new acid

C.

110 action is required

D.

Top up with water

126. A motor controlled by thyristors is to be tested. What precautions would you take ? A.

Disconnect all cables to the motor

B.

Remove all printed circuit cards from the control system and megger test

C.

Test the motor in the manual manner using a megger

D.

Use an 'AVO' meter instead of a 'Megger' for the test

1371

DPKP

127. A boiler burner fails each time it is started with failure indicated as flame failure". Indicate the most possible reason. A.

The flame cell is dirty

B.

The electrode cables have the wrong output voltage

C.

The fuel oil temperature is too high

D.

The fan blades of the fan motor are dirty

128. The engine room high level bilge alarm keeps sounding every few minutes even though the bilge is empty. Nat action would you take ? A.

Change the setting on the alarm printed circuit board

B.

Disconnect the alarm and see if it helps

C.

Check the function of the level switch and the printed circuit board for this alarm group

D.

Start the bilge pump

129. An electrical three phase motor connected to a pump repeatedly trips on the "over current" relay, What action would you take ? A.

Cool down the motor with an electrical fan

B.

Stop the motor and check the electrical and mechanical function

C.

Increase the current setting on the "over current" relay

D.

Replace the "over current" relay

130. Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible? A.

A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow

B.

It may damage the monitoring instruments

C.

The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate maybe withdrawn

D.

There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull

1372

DPKP

131. What type of probe is most suitable to measure the main engine exhaust temperature? A.

A NiCr/NiAl -type K (Thermocouple) probe

B.

A mercury thermometer probe

C.

A PT100 (Platinum wire resistance) probe

D.

A T802 (Thermistor) probe

132. What type of electrolyte is used in a nickel cadmium battery? A.

Dilute hydrochloric acid

B.

Dilute sulphuric acid

C.

Distilled water

D.

Potassium hydroxide solution

133. A six pole 50Hz three phase induction motor has a full load at 950 rpm. What will the speed become at half load? A.

1900 rpm

B.

475 rpm

C.

975 rpm

D.

1000 rpm

134. A flat lead acid battery can be revived by: A.

Adding distilled water.

B.

Filling with dilute sulphuric acid and trickle charging.

C.

Trickle charging.

D.

Adding 'battery restorer".

135. Sulphation in a lead acid battery occurs as a result of: A.

Incomplete charging.

B.

Fast charging.

C.

Heavy discharging.

D.

Lack of trickle charging.

1373

DPKP

136. What safety protection measure should be taken when connecting a multimeter to an unknown voltage source ? A.

Set the muttimeter to DC and highest voltage range

B.

Set the multimeter to AC

C.

Set the multimeter to AC and highest voltage range

D.

Set the multimeter to DC

137. Many maintenance on an motor what should you do ? A.

Switch off the main switch for the motor

B.

Siang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be started

C.

Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor

D.

All of these.

138. Sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor may be caused by A.

the wrong types of brushes

B.

current overload

C.

any of the above

D.

the strength of the field

1374

DPKP

139. In this schematic diagram of a fluorescent lamp, in what location is the BALLAST fitted, if (1) and (2) are the upptyterminals ?

A

Between points 7 and 8

B

Between points 5 and 6

C

Between points 9 and 1

D

Between points 3 and 4

140. What do items C represent in this starter diagram ?

A.

Overloads

B.

Contacts

C.

Transformers

D.

Relays

1375

DPKP

141. The breakdown in insulation between one or more windings or one or more coils inside an electric motor is called A.

an insulation breakdown.

B.

an earth.

C.

a short circuit.

D.

a winding break.

142. If open circuit and interruption of current continuity occur in the windings of an electric motor it is called… A.

an earth fault.

B.

a winding break.

C.

an insulation breakdown.

D.

a short circuit.

1376

DPKP 8. Menggunakan secara tepat, peralatan tenaga tangan, peralatan tenaga mesin alat-alat ukur untuk fabrikasi dan perbaikan di atas kapal. (Appropriate use ofhand tools, machinetools and measuringinstruments forfabrication andrepair on board) 1. When using an ohmmeter to find a short circuit, which meter reading indicates the fault?

2.

3.

4.

A.

Zero

B.

Infinity

C.

100 megohm

D.

1 megohm

What is a multi meter used for? A.

To measure voltage and current

B.

To measure voltage and resistance

C.

To measure voltage, resistance and current

D.

To measure resistance

What kind of device measures pressure and converts it to an electrical signal? A.

A transducer

B.

A transceiver

C.

A transponder

D.

A transformer

Which measuring device should always be connected in series with a circuit? A.

Ammeter

B.

Voltmeter

C.

Ohmmeter

D.

Wattmeter

1377

DPKP

5.

6.

A Wheatstone Bridge is a precision instrument used mostly to measure: A.

Inductance

B.

Amperage

C.

Resistance

D.

Capacitance

What are ideal conditions for taking insulation test readings of a motor or alternator? A.

Hot after stopping

B.

Running

C.

Cooled down to ambient temperature

D.

Cooled down to hand-warm

7. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the line current? A.

73.32 Amps

B.

127 Amps

C.

153.52 Ams

D.

219.97 Amps

8. What would a clamp type ampere meter read if clipped around a 3-core cable known to carry 100 Amps to a 3-phase electric motor? A.

0 Amps

B.

300 Amps

C.

33.33 Amps

D.

100 Amps

9. voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistance reads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor needs to be put in series to increase its range to 150 volts? A.

7500 Ohm

B.

70000 Ohm

C.

165000 Ohm

D.

35000 Ohm

1378

DPKP

10. What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter? A.

Between 400 and 500 Volts

B.

Between 1,000 and 10,000 Volts

C.

Between 500 and 1000 Volts

D.

Between 200 and 300 Volts

11. Which of the following would you expect to find at the main switchboard A.

Suitable extinguisher.

B.

Insulated rubber matting.

C.

Insulated grab rails.

D.

All of these.

12. In one complete cycle of a single phase of alternating current how often is the voltage at zero? A.

Three times

B.

Once

C.

Heuer

D.

Twice

13. At maximum voltage what angle is the conductor cutting the magnetic field? A.

90 degrees

B.

180 degrees

C.

45 degrees

D.

0 degrees

14. What determines the output voltage of an AC alternator? A.

lumber of rotor windings

B.

lumber of poles

C.

RPM of the prime mover

D.

Strength of magnetic field

1379

DPKP

15. In one cycle of 3-phase AC how often is voltage at peak value? A.

Three times

B.

Six times

C.

Always

D.

twice

16. How is a Voltmeter connected in a circuit? A.

In series

B.

In series with a resistance

C.

In parallel, combined with a resistance

D.

In parallel

17. How is an Ammeter connected in a circuit? A.

In parallel

B.

In series

C.

In series with a resistance

D.

In parallel with a resistance

18. Flow can a Voltmeter measure a variety of voltage values? A.

By connecting a shunt in parallel

B.

By connecting a capacitor in series

C.

By connecting a capacitor in parallel

D.

By connecting a shunt in series

19. Flow can an Ammeter measure a variety of current values? A.

By connecting a capacitor in parallel

B.

By connecting a shunt in series

C.

By connecting a capacitor in series

D.

By connecting a shunt in parallel

1380

DPKP

20. Why is the battery maintenance of such Importance? A.

The batteries are the fast resort back-up system

B.

They are an item of survey equipment

C.

To ensure there is a continuity of supply to the navigation lights

D.

To comply with the planned maintenance requirements

21. Using lead/acid batteries what is the minimum number of cells required to produce 24V? A.

16

B.

24

C.

12

D.

6

22. What is the electrolyte in a conventional leadracid battery? A.

Dilute Hydrochloric acid

B.

Distilled water

C.

Dilute Sulphuric acid

D.

Potassium hydroxide

23. What is the danger of naked lights in the battery locker? A.

React with the gases to form a toxic mixture

B.

May damage the battery casings

C.

The batteries give off hydrogen sulphide making the air explosive

D.

The batteries give off highlyflammable hydrogen gas

24. What would be the S.G. of a fully charged battery? A.

1.28

B.

1.36

C.

1.2

D.

1.12

1381

DPKP

25. The size of any electrical conductor should be such that the voltage drop at full load will not exceed what percentage? A.

1%

B.

3%

C.

2%

D.

5%

26. Line to line uottage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 Volt. What is the

phase cottage?

A.

220 Volt

B.

311.13 Volt

C.

254.33 Volt

D.

440 Volt

27. If a 100 metre length of 1.25 mm dia. wire has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length of the same wire of 0.75 mm dia. will have a resistance of 25 Ohm? A.

35 metres

B.

25 metres

C.

20 metres

D.

30 metres

28. Which of the following four materials is the best electrical conductor? A.

Steel

B.

Brass

C.

Copper

D.

Silver

29. What would be the correct setting of the current relayfor a three phase induction motor? A.

At 100% of the rated current

B.

At 33-50% of the rated current

C.

At 5-15% over the rated current

D.

At the rated current

1382

DPKP

30. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault? A.

0 Amps

B.

240 Amps

C.

20 Amps

D.

400 Amps

31. A ship's electrical system is usually the so-called "closed insulation"type. What does this mean? A.

The system is totally insulated from the ship's hull

B.

The system does not have a neutral point

C.

The system is totally insulated from the ship's 220 V distribution system

D.

The system's zero voltage point is connected to the 'tame of the generator

32. Flow will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system? A.

The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow

B.

The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage

C.

The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

D.

The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

33. the worst case what would be the effect a 25 milli-amps electric shock? A.

Could be fatal

B.

Give a mild shock

C.

Burn the skin

D.

Totally harmless

34. What is the purpose of an instrument transformer installed on the main bus bars? A.

To measure the generator output current

B.

To measure the earth leakage

C.

To prevent bus-bar overload

D.

To measure the generator output voltage

1383

DPKP

35. In a three-phase system why is a resistor fitted in series with the earth detection lights? A.

To limit the earth current

B.

To provide an easier path for the earth current

C.

To protect the earth lights

D.

To lower the voltage at the earth lights

36. Why should an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible? A.

The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be -nualid

B.

There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull

C.

A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow

D.

it may damage the monitoring instruments

37. What is required to generate 60Hertz using a slow speed prime mover? A.

Gearbox to increase the generator speed.

B.

Increased number of poles.

C.

Greater excitation current.

D.

reduced number of poles.

38. What is the main disadvantage with main shaft driven alternators? A.

Limited power output

B.

Engine speed variation

C.

Low speed limits voltage output

D.

Only available at sea

39. Which of these materials can be used to insulate magnetic flux? A.

Porcelain

B.

Ceramic

C.

Rubber

D.

lone of the other options

1384

DPKP

40. What causes the EMF variation in an AC alternator? A.

Velocity of conductor cutting flux

B.

Changing polarity

C.

Flux density

D.

Component of velocity at 90"to flux

41. What law states that induced EMF always opposes the change producing it ? A.

Lenz

B.

Coulomb

C.

Fleming

D.

faraday

42. What governs induced EMF in a conductor? A.

Magnetic strength

B.

Rate of cutting flux

C.

Flux density

D.

Rate of change of magnetic flux

43. What law determines the direction of induced EMF? A.

Faraday

B.

Lenz

C.

Fleming

D.

Weber

44. In what situation is Induced OAF given bythe formula e=Blv? A.

When a single conductor cuts a magnetic field in a straight line

B.

When a conductor is rotated between opposing magnets

C.

When a conductor rotates in a magnetic field

D.

When a magnet is rotated in a coiled conductor

1385

DPKP

45. What are valence electrons? A.

Positively charged electrons

B.

Contained in the nucleus

C.

Outer orbiting electrons

D.

Orbiting electrons

46. When is an atom considered to be a positiuely charged ion? A.

When electrons are gained

B.

When electrons are lost

C.

When it has positive electrons

D.

When it has positive protons

47. What do good insulators have in common? A.

Large number of electrons

B.

Positive electrons

C.

Stable atomic structure

D.

Negative nucleus

48. What determines cycles per second in an AC alternator? A.

No of conductors

B.

Generator speed and number of poles

C.

Generator speed

D.

lumber of poles

49. What determines the speed in a squirrel cage AC motor? A.

The cycles/second

B.

The supply current

C.

The number of poles

D.

Cycles/second and number of poles

1386

DPKP

50. In an alternator what controls the generated Voltage? A.

Excitation current.

B.

Number of poles.

C.

Generator speed.

D.

Size of the stator windings.

51. In a DC generator where is the current generated? A.

In the commutator

B.

In the field windings

C.

In the shunt windings

D.

In the armature windings

52. In a 'shunt' DC motor how are the pole windings connected? A.

Both parallel and in series

B.

In parallel with the armature

C.

In series with the armature

D.

reparately from the armature output

53. When will the resistance in a wire decrease? A.

When the applied voltage decreases

B.

When the length of the wire increases

C.

When the temperature of the wire increases

D.

When the cross-sectional area of the wire increases

54. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds 100 degrees Celsius? A.

Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand temperatures of more than 500 degrees Celsius

B.

The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of humidity

C.

The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor life span formula

D.

The insulation is likely to be severely damaged

1387

DPKP

55. Why do ships normally use an AC insulated neutral distribution system? A.

It limits fault current

B.

It reduces cable size

C.

An earth failure on one phase will not cause protective devices like fuses and circuit breakers to trip

D.

It reduces switchgear ratings

56. How would you test the insulation on an AC motor? A.

By carrying out a Phase balance test

B.

By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)

C.

By carrying out a Megger test

D.

By carrying out a Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)

57. What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type? A.

105 degree C

B.

80 degree C

C.

55 degree C

D.

115 degree C

58. What is the continuity resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 Volt? A.

24.2 Ohm

B.

44 Ohm

C.

11 Ohm

D.

9.09 Ohm

59. What is the unit of magnetic flux? A.

Henry

B.

Weber

C.

Coulomb

D.

Farad

1388

DPKP

60. Which of the following is the most suitable for use as a magnet? A.

Stainless steel

B.

Copper

C.

Soft iron

D.

Nickel

61. In an alternator what effect does increasing the excitation have? A.

Decreases the voltage produced

B.

Increases the cycles/second of the current

C.

Increases the amperage produced

D.

Increases the voltage produced in the conductor

62. Using Fleming's Right Hand Rule what does the thumb indicate? A.

Direction of the magnetic flux

B.

Direction of movement of the conductor

C.

Direction of the excitation current

D.

Direction of current in the conductor

63. lf magnet pole faces are 3cm X 4cm and have flux density of 0.417T, what is the flux? A.

0.5mWb

B.

0.55mWb

C.

0.4mWb

D.

0.7mWb

64. With reference to a magnet what is Hysteresis? A.

Permeability of the magnet material

B.

Reluctance of magnetic material

C.

Magnetic strength in relation to current

D.

Lag of flux compared to field strength

1389

DPKP

65. Vibration testing is an integral part of what type of maintenance? A.

Planned maintenance

B.

Intrinsic surveillance

C.

Condition monitoring

D.

Breakdown maintenance

66. A Wheatstone Bridge is used to measure an unknown resistance in relation to what? A.

Kirchoffis Laws

B.

A voltage drop

C.

A known resistance

D.

A current imbalance

67. Which law states that the sum of the p.d.s is equal to the sum of the E.M.F.s? A.

Ohm's Law

B.

Coulomb's Law

C.

Kirchoffs Voltage Law

D.

Lenz' Law

68. In series connected resistors what remains constant? A.

Current.

B.

Resistance.

C.

Voltage.

D.

Reactance.

69. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the circuit current? A.

3A

B.

9A

C.

2A

D.

6A

1390

DPKP

70. Which law states that the sum of currents arriving at a junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving the 'unction? A.

Kirchoffs Current Law

B.

Faradays Law

C.

Ohm's Law

D.

Lenz' Law

71. In parallel connected resistors what remains constant? A.

Impedance

B.

Reactance

C.

Current

D.

Voltage

72. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the effective resistance? A.

90 ohm

B.

20 ohm

C.

60 ohm

D.

4.50 ohm

73. Two resistors of 60 ohm & 30 ohm are connected in parallel across an EMF of 12V, what is the current in each resistor? A.

3A & 6A

B.

2A & 4A

C.

0.66A & 1.33A

D.

1A & 2A

74. If the effective resistance of a circuit is 8 ohm and current from source is 1.5A what is the E.M.F.? A.

24V

B.

6V

C.

12V

D.

9V

1391

DPKP

75. Which law governs the relationship between potential difference and current? A.

Coulomb's law

B.

Lenz' law

C.

Ohm's law

D.

Kirchoffs current law

76. Voltage multiplied by current equals what? A.

Power

B.

Reactance

C.

Efficiency

D.

Resistance

77. If a p.d. of 24V exists across a 150 resistor what is the current? A.

3.6 amps

B.

I.6 amps

C.

0.6 amps

D.

1.2 amps

78. What happens to the current if the resistance of a circuit doubles while the applied voltage remains constant. A.

Halved

B.

Quadrupled

C.

Doubled

D.

Remains the same

79. What happens in a circuit when the voltage remains constant and the resistance increases? A.

The current decreases

B.

The current increases by the square of the increase in resistance

C.

The current remains the same

D.

The current increases

1392

DPKP

80. An electrical heater is marked 220 V, 4400W. What is the resistance of the heater? A.

220 Ohm

B.

22 Ohm

C.

11 Ohm

D.

110 Ohm

81. Why must both primary and secondary windings have independent earth leakage detection? A.

There is no electrical connection between the two

B.

To accurately locate the earth

C.

To allow for different leakage current levels

D.

Because of the difference in Voltages

82. What is the advantage of a delta-star wound transformer? A.

Allows an earthed primary winding

B.

Allows an earthed secondary winding

C.

Allows cycle changing

D.

Can transform higher loads

83. Which one of the following devices uses the principle of electromagnetic induction? A.

A rheostat

B.

A variable capacitor

C.

A transformer

D.

A transistor

84. What is power? A.

Amount of work done

B.

Capacityfor doing work

C.

Generated current

D.

Rate of energy dissipation

1393

DPKP

85. If a 2kW heater is on for four hours, how much energy is used? A.

36.6mJ

B.

24mJ

C.

28.8mJ

D.

40mJ

86. What is energy? A.

Amount of work done

B.

Capacityto carry out work

C.

Transfer of power

D.

Rate of doing work

87. Flow much energy is dissipated when a 2A current is passed through a 50 ohm resistor for 3 minutes? A.

36kJ

B.

33.3kJ

C.

30kJ

D.

24kJ

88. What is the unit for energy? A.

Joule

B.

Watt

C.

Coulomb

D.

Ohm

89. What is the unit for power? A.

Coulomb

B.

Watt

C.

Joule

D.

Ohm

1394

DPKP

90. A patch is to be bonded to a 100 mm diameter sea water line. To avoid contact with the skin, what should be done? A.

use gloves, use stirrer, take care opening tins and use safety goggles.

B.

use gloves, do not smoke,use barrier cream and use safety goggles.

C.

use gloves, use brush use barrier cream and use safety goggles.

D.

se gloves, ensure below flash point of material, use brush and use safety goggles.

91. In the following, which letter gives advantages only for adhesive bonding? A.

Heeds good surfaces/no protruding parts

B.

4Veight reduction/may join thin sheet

C.

Toxic hazardstreduced galvanic action

D.

Poor electrical conductivity/may act as an insulator

92. For a repair to a low pressure water line, a propriety wrap repair tape is to be used. What is its useable life? A.

9 to 10 minutes

B.

4 to 6 minutes

C.

2 to 3 minutes

D.

11 to 14 minutes

93. A component with a working temperature of 325°C is to be joined using epoxy resin. Which of the following is suitable? A.

Epoxy nitrile

B.

Epoxy silicone

C.

Epoxy phenolic

D.

Phenolic nitrile

1395

DPKP

94. When bonding together two metal components, in which sequence should this be carried out? A.

Clean and roughing surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to surfaces and Clamp together.

B.

Clamp together, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to edges and remove surplus.

C.

Clean and roughing surfaces, Add activator to epoxy resin, Apply to surfaces and Clamp together only when tacky.

D.

Add activator to epoxy resin, Clamp together, Apply to edges and Allow to cure

95. A method of joining two plastics together is by solvent welding. Describe this process? A.

A high frequency current is applied to clamps at the join

B.

Adhesive is applied and dissolves the plastic material being joined

C.

Application of a thin film of adhesive to joining surfaces

D.

A heating tool is applied with pressure to required join

96. Thermoplastic type adhesives soften when subject to heat, are fusible and soluble. They are not suitable for? A.

Aluminium

B.

Leather

C.

Wood

D.

Fabrics

97. In which process would a hacksaw be used? A.

Removing burrs

B.

Shaping

C.

Cutting threads

D.

Cutting off

1396

DPKP

98. Which table best describes the all hard hacksaw blade? A

Rigid Cuts thick sections Best for straight cuts Easily broken if misused

B.

Easily broken if misused Cuts thick sections Best for straight cuts Elexible

C.

Rigid Cuts thin sections Best for straight cuts Not easily broken if misused

D.

Rigid Cuts thin sections Best for straight cuts Not easily broken if misused

99. Which table best describes the flexible hacksaw blade? A.

Only teeth hardened Easily broken if misused Has a long life Reasonably non-rigid

B.

Only teeth hardened Easily broken if misused Reasonably non-rigid Overheats unless liquid cooled

C.

Only teeth hardened Reasonably non-rigid Overheats unless liquid cooled Has a long life

D.

Only teeth hardened Reasonably non-rigid Not easily broken 1397

DPKP

Has a long life

100. A blind hole in a valve casing requires to be tapped 12 rnm. Which tap(s) would be used? A.

Second and plug

B.

Taper, second and plug

C.

Plug

D.

Taper and plug

101. When starting to tap a hole, how is the process checked for perpendicularity? A.

By try square

B.

By straight edge

C.

By spirit level

D.

By sighting

103. What dictates the size of drill hole required prior to cutting an internal thread? A.

The thread pitch

B.

The outside diameter

C.

The thread form

D.

The core diameter

104. What is significant about the spring-back hacksaw blade? A.

It can be bent into a circle over its length.

B.

It is only suitable for use in a power saw.

C.

It is only available with a large tooth pitch.

D.

It is a compromise between the flexible and all-hard blade.

105. The engine room workshop carries different types of hacksaw blades. Which blade should be used to cut sheet metal? A.

Tooth pitch = 6/cm

B.

Tooth pitch = 8/cm

C.

Tooth pitch =14/cm

D.

Tooth pitch = 10/cm

1398

DPKP

106. When fitting a blade into a hacksaw, which direction should the teeth be pointing relative to the handle? A.

Towards

B.

Towards if blade is fitted at 90. to normal

C.

Towards if blade is fitted at 180. to normal

D.

Away

107. Which one of the following is used to finish off a component? A.

File

B.

Chisel

C.

Scraper

D.

Orin

108. What general name is given to files which remove maximum metal in the shortest time? A.

Double cut

B.

Single cut

C.

Bastard

D.

craw file

109. What general name is given to files used for finishing? A.

Smooth

B.

Draw file

C.

Single cut

D.

Second cut

1399

DPKP

110. In readiness for use, a good scraper would have its cutting edges? A.

Ground Oil stoned Lightly tempered

B.

Polished Sand stoned Lightly tempered

C.

Honed Sand stoned Highly tempered

D.

Ground Oil stoned Highly tempered

111. white metal lined bearing is to be fitted on to a shaft. Which combination would be used? A.

Use a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.

B.

Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

C.

Use a flat scraper with engineer's blue on bearing.

D.

U se a half-round scraper with engineer's blue on shaft.

112. Chisels are used ………… A.

To finish off a machined workpiece.

B.

Anywhere when workpiece cannot be fitted in a suitable machine too.

C.

Only on ferrous metals.

D.

Only on non-ferrous metals

1400

DPKP

113. A chisel is refurbished and requires the cutting end to be tempered after hardening. How is this achieved? A.

Heat to 250.C Quench in water

B.

Heat to 280.C Quench in oil

C.

Heat to 260.C Quench in water

D.

Heat to 230.C Quench in oil.

114. A flat chisel requires tempering; which temperature and colour is correct for this process? A.

80°C purple

B.

250°C light brown

C.

240°C dark straw

D.

260°C dark brown

115. When tempering a cold chisel, at which part of the chisel is the flame directed? A.

The beginning of the tapered portion

B.

The cutting edge

C.

The hammer end

D.

Mid-way

1401

DPKP

116. When tempering use is made of the microscopic oxide film formed on the surface, in what sequence does change occur? A.

Purple Straw Brown Blue

B.

Straw Purple Blue Brown

C.

Brown Purple Blue Straw

D.

Straw Brown Purple Blue

117. When out of use temporarily, how should the workshop plate be stored? A.

Wiped with an oiled rag.

B.

Covered with a cloth sheet.

C.

Covered with grease.

D.

Covered with a wooden cover.

118. What special care does an engineers dividers need : A.

Keep oiled

B.

Keep screw thread clean

C.

Protect points when not in use

D.

Always use same leg in centre pop

1402

DPKP

119. Given a set of odd-leg calipers and a small cork, what use is the cork? A.

Cork has the same properties as silica gel and prevents corrosion.

B.

Cork is a sales gimmick.

C.

Cork is to protect the point.

D.

Cork is used as centre when marking out.

120. A centre punch has a 60° point for? A.

Accurate marking

B.

Ease to see

C.

Use as scriber

D.

Long life

121. A 90° tentre punch is specifically designed to? A.

To scribe

B.

Pop mark for drilling

C.

Give long life

D.

Act as a pin punch

122. A scriber should NOT be used for marking out? A.

When material is copper

B.

When material is to be bent

C.

When material is plastic

D.

When material is to be hot worked

123. What toot would be used to mark off the centre line shown : A.

Odd leg calliper

B.

Straight edge and scriber

C.

Height gauge

D.

Divider

1403

DPKP

124. Which set of equipment is required to mark out the keyway of a 30 mm diameter shaft? A.

Polish flat bar Slip gauges Scriber Engineer's square

B.

Dial gauge Vee block Dividers Vernier protractor

C.

Porthole glass Slip gauges Scriber Dividers

D.

Surface plate Vee block Vernier height gauge Dividers

125. Which of the following effects could be reduced if hand powered tools were used? A.

Fatigue Loss of concentration Accidents Inaccurate work

B.

Over familiar Use of safety glasses Tiredness Personal injury

C.

Distraction Use of hard hat Cramp Eye strain

D.

Injury to hands Tools correctly sharpened 1404

DPKP

Loss of concentration Fatigue

126. ldentify the powered hand tool in No.1 ?

A.

Drill

B.

Grinder

C.

Input wrench

D.

Screwdriver

127. Identify the powered hand tool No. 2 ?

A.

Input wrench

B.

Screwdriver

C.

Drill

D.

Grinder

128. The drawing of an engine mechanism component gives some surfaces as angles. How would these angles be marked out? A.

With a vernier protractor

B.

With odd leg callipers

C.

With dividers

D.

With a steel rule

1405

DPKP

129. The sketch shows the two scales of a Vernier caliper. What degree of accuracy will a measurement have?

A.

0.02

B.

0.03

C.

0.01

D.

0.04

130. The Vernier protractor gives an angular accuracy of? A.

4 minutes of angle

B.

2 minutes of angle

C.

7 minutes of angle

D.

5 minutes of angle

131. The speed and feed for the 20 mm diameter reamer would be? A.

25% less

B.

75% less

C.

Same as drill

D.

50% less

132. A plastic cover for an instrument requires four 12 mm diameter holes to be drilled. What is the best method? A.

Slow helix drill, 90° point and wood backing.

B.

Jobbing drill 120'' point.

C.

Jobbing drill 120° point and wood backing.

D.

Jobbing drill 90° point and wood backing.

1406

DPKP

133. After sharpening a twist drill, which points are most important to check? A.

Flute length Face of drill Ensure no rough grinding marks Lip length

B.

Web size Rake angle Flank condition Point angle

C.

Land Overall length Chisel edge Helix angle

D.

Clearance angle Chisel edge angle Point angle Lip length

134. The diagram shows four types of socket head screws. Identify the socket shoulder screw.

A.

No.3

B.

No.4

C.

No.2

D.

No.1

1407

DPKP

135. The diagram shows four types of machine screws. Identify the cheese head screw.

A.

No.4

B.

No.1

C.

No.3

D.

No.2

136. When fitting new bottom ends to a small diesel engine, the bottom end bolts have no locking devices. Which of the following should be fitted. A.

Split pins

B.

Taper pins

C.

Parallel pins

D.

Bifurcated taper pins

137. An auxiliary diesel Engine cylinder head value guide is shown. Which are the correct guide dimensions for the nominal sizes shown? A.

00 : 27.00

B.

12.00: 27.04 11.96: 26.96

C.

11.92: 27.05 11.81: 27.04

D.

11.65: 27.21 11.60: 27.23

1408

DPKP

138. For the square pyramid float component shown, which is the correct development?

A.

No.2

B.

No.4

C.

No.1

D.

No.3

139. Which of the following sizes is used conveniently and what is its use? A.

Limit of size

B.

Actual size

C.

Nominal size

D.

Basic size

140. A repair to a compressor requires a plate of the form illustrated to be designed. Which illustration is dimensioned to be the correct standard.

A.

No.2

B.

No.4

C.

No.3

D.

No.1 1409

DPKP

141. Vee blocks are precision equipment. What is specific about their purchase? A.

Always supplied singularly.

B.

Always guaranteed.

C.

Always supplied with slip gauges.

D.

Aways supplied in pairs.

142. A frustrum of a hexagonal pyramid is shown. Which drawing goes to the left of the figure in third angle projection?

A.

No.1

B.

No.4

C.

No.3

D.

No.2

143. Dimensions are read from the bottom of the drawing but if this is not possible what is the next choice? A.

Turn drawing clockwise reading from RH side

B.

Turn drawing clockwise 45. reading from RH side.

C.

Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from LH side

D.

Turn drawing anti-clockwise reading from RH side.

1410

DPKP

144. During inspection of a large slow speed diesel engine, how would bottom end bearings be described and what materials would they be lined with? A.

Thick walled

B.

Wrapped bushes

C.

Direct lined

D.

Solid insert liner

145. When using third angle projection, viewing the component from x, which drawing will be above the front elevation?

A.

C

B.

B

C.

D

D.

A

146. What type of ball- bearing is shown in the illustration? A.

Shallow groove

B.

Deep groove

C.

Two-way thrust

D.

Heavy duty

1411

DPKP

147. In the system of limits and fits shown, on what basis has the drawing been made?

A.

Clearance fits

B.

Interference fits

C.

Hole bases fits

D.

Shaft basis fits

148. The square to round section shown requires a template. What forms the triangular base line from which the true lengths are obtained?

A.

ax ab

B.

a2 ab

C.

a1 a2

D.

ab a1

1412

DPKP

149. Which of the four bearings shown is located?

A.

No.1

B.

No.4

C.

No.3

D.

No.2

150. The engine room workshop has a bench shear. What is the maximum thickness of mild steel it will cut? A.

1 mm

B.

5 mm

C.

3 mm

D.

7 rnm

151. What is the system called which glues explicit instructions on drawings which cannot be misinterpreted? A.

Tolerances

B.

Geometrical tolerancing

C.

Cumulative effect

D.

Limits and fits

1413

DPKP

152. Looking at the drawing, can this component be made?

A.

No - material is not given

B.

Yes

C.

No - relevant dimensions are not given

D.

No - scale is not given

153. For a particular long shaft, which could be subject to some angular alignment, which bearing would be most suitable? A.

No.2

B.

No.4

C.

No.1

D.

No.3

154. The ventilation trunk shown goes from square to round section. What does its development look like? A.

No.3

B.

No.4

C.

No.2

D.

No.1

1414

DPKP

155. In the method of datum dimensioning (sometimes known as parallel dimensioning), what is the advantage over conventional dimensioning? A.

Improves positional accuracy

B.

Makes machining easier

C.

Reduces the marking out time

D.

Ignores conventions

156. In service, a pump shaft becomes overheated. What effect will this have on the ballbearing? A.

The lubricating oil will burn.

B.

The outer ring will contract.

C.

The inner ring will expand.

D.

The individual balls will distort.

157. What is the difference between a guillotine and a shear machine? A.

Blade length

B.

Hand operated

C.

Plate thickness

D.

Power operated

158. ln the sketches, which drawing is incomplete?

A.

No.3

B.

No.4

C.

No.1

D.

No.2

1415

DPKP

159. If a view is projected in a direction which is not horizontal or vertical, what name is given to the view? A.

An elevated view

B.

An isometric view

C.

An auxiliary view

D.

A pictorial view

160. What does the geometrical tolerancing shown in the drawing refer to?

A.

Flatness

B.

Cylindricity

C.

Roundness

D.

Squareness

161. Perspex is an example of a thermoplastic, How is this best heated prior to bending? A.

Hot air stream

B.

Heat in boiling water

C.

Heat in oven

D.

Flame heat

162. What is the softening temperature for PVC? A.

115°C

B.

100°C

C.

105°C

D.

110°C 1416

DPKP

163. What would be necessaryto prevent damage, toxic fumes and combustion when heating plastics? A.

Do not use a naked flame

B.

Only use a paraffin heater

C.

Only use a candle

D.

Only use an acetylene heater

164. Sketch shows the rollers for a pyramid rolling machine. Which is the idler and what is its direction?

A.

No.4

B.

No.2

C.

No.1

D.

No.3

165. Sketch shows the configuration of a pinch bending roll. How does this operate?

A.

Roller No. 3 rises

B.

Roller No.1 is lower

C.

Roller No. 2 rises

D.

Rollers No. 2 and No. 3 rise 1417

DPKP

166. How does the brake press differ from the other forming machines? A.

Uses male and female formers

B.

Can pierce only

C.

Uses rollers

D.

Can crop only

167. it is required to make a drip tray. What machine would be used? A.

Nibbler

B.

Rolling machine

C.

Hand operated folding machine

D.

Powered brake press

168. What is the plate thickness limit for hand-operated folding machines? A.

4.0 mm

B.

3.0 mm

C.

3.5 mm

D.

2.5 mm

169. What effect will an undersized vee width have on the form produced? A.

Inside bend may be polished

B.

Inside bend may fracture

C.

Outside bend may fracture

D.

Outside bend may be scuffed

170. Mild steel plate 2 mm thick bent in vees would produce an approximate inside bend radius of? A.

2.5 mm

B.

1.0 mm

C.

1.5 mm

D.

2.0 mm

1418

DPKP

171. For the cover shown, what length of plate is required?

A.

350.2 mm

B.

345.1 mm

C.

343.7 mm

D.

348.4 mm

172. What is the greatest danger when working with sheet metal? A.

Space to manoeuvre is usually restricting

B.

Plate is too large

C.

Plate is too heavy

D.

Edges are sharp

173. Which is the preferred table to be checked to ensure a sound weld is produced during an arc welding Process? A.

Arc length Electrode angle Ambient temperature Relative humidity

B.

Electrode Arc length Ambient temperature

C.

Arc length Welding current Electrode angle Relative humidity

D.

Electrode Arc length 1419

DPKP

Welding current Electrode angle

174. Which table would give the best checklist following an arc welding process, checking for: A.

Slag inclusion Fusion Undercutting Contour

B.

Undercutting Surface pin holes Fusion Continuous weld

C.

Fusion Undercutting Surface pin holes Excessive spatter

D.

Fusion Undercutting Slag inclusion Excessive spatter

175. What is the limiting factor of a visual inspection of a weld? A.

Gives an indication only

B.

Will not indicate blow holes

C.

There is none

D.

Will not show if penetration is correct

176. Which examination reveals pin holes, slag inclusion and lack of fusion? A.

Visually

B.

Fluorescent penetrant

C.

Dye penetrant

D.

Macroscopic

1420

DPKP

177. A crankcase weld requires detailed inspection while on passage. How would this be carried out? A.

By magnetic particle

B.

By x-ray

C.

Visually

D.

By dye penetrant

178. Which of the tables of defects would lead to porosity in a welded joint? A.

Wrong electrode angle. Incorrect joint set up. Speed of travel too fast. Welding current too low.

B.

Welding current too low. Speed of travel too fast. Incorrect electrode manipulation. Dirty parent metal.

C.

Welding current too high. Incorrect root gap. Incorrect electrode size. Dirty parent metal.

D.

Damp electrode coating. Damaged electrode coating. Too long an arc. Incorrect starting.

179. All mechanical cutting devices have the same basic features. These are? A.

Two moving blades

B.

One moving blade

C.

One fixed blade

D.

One moving and one fixed blade

1421

DPKP

180. Which material is difficult to weld due to porosity? A.

Cast iron

B.

Low carbon steel

C.

High carbon steel

D.

Medium carbon steel

181. In electric arc welding, what use is the electrode covering? A.

Allows damp electrodes to be used Gives a stable arc Reduces slag inclusion Reduces Porosity

B.

Controls the metallurgical properties Assists penetration Tolerates poor welding Reduces splatter

C.

Gives a variable arc Reduces splatter Tolerates poor welding Assists multi-runs

D.

It provides a gas shield Reduces splatter Gives a stable arc Controls the metallurgical properties

182. Which system of welding uses a shield of Argon and a non-consumable electrode? A.

Metal inert gas

B.

Tungsten inert gas

C.

Gas metal arc

D.

Manual metal arc

1422

DPKP

183. In the following gas flame temperatures, which is the oxyacetylene? A.

2770°C

B.

2820°C

C.

3200°C

D.

1880°C

184. Principles of Gas Welding -An acetylene cylinder is packed with charcoal and charged with acetone. At 15 bar it will absorb its own volume ? A.

375 times

B.

425 times

C.

275 times

D.

325 times

185. If a gas pressure gauge is over-pressured and bursts, what feature minimizes damage? A.

A bursting disc

B.

The hoses rupture

C.

A relief value

D.

The flexible back

186. How does a two-stage pressure regulator give precise control? A.

Second stage only adjustable

B.

First stage only adjustable

C.

Both stages unadjustable

D.

Both stages adjustable

187. Why is a high pressure blow pipe unsuitable for use in a low pressure system? A.

Oxygen pressure differs

B.

Gas pressures must be equal

C.

Acetylene pressure differs

D.

Nozzle sizes are different

1423

DPKP

188. Hoses are easily damaged and require special care for long life, but what are they reinforced with? A.

Wire

B.

Cotton

C.

Canvas

D.

Nylon

189. The safety features for a welded acetylene gas cylinder are? A.

Gas loaded relief values

B.

Fusible plugs

C.

Bursting discs

D.

Spring load relief value

190. Which correctly identifies a full acetylene cylinder ? A.

170 bar right hand thread black colour

B.

15 bar left hand thread maroon colour

C.

170 bar right hand thread blue colour

D.

7.5 bar left hand thread red colour

191. What device is fitted to prevent component gases mixing in hoses? A.

Stop value

B.

Hose check value

C.

Relief vale

D.

By-pass value

192. For a particular welding arrangement, the decision is to use a manifold system. Why would this be chosen? A.

Cost - two cylinders cheaper than one

B.

Using large bore nozzles

C.

Long time span of welding0

D.

Discharge rate too high from single bottle

1424

DPKP

193. A flashback arrester has been triggered. Which is the correct sequence to follow after this event? A.

Ascertain cause of activation Check equipment Open up flashback arrester Clean, if necessary

B.

Ascertain cause of activation Clean, if necessary Check equipment Open up flashback arrester

C.

Check equipment Open up flashback arrester Clean, if necessary Ascertain cause of activation

D.

Clean, if necessary Check equipment Open up flashback arrester Ascertain cause of activation

194. What is significant about a flat square? A.

Its material

B.

Its calibration

C.

Its size

D.

Its squareness

195. A 1.3 m long slot is to be marked off on the floor plate but only a 300 mm straight edge is available. How is this overcome? A.

By a piece of tape

B.

By a piece of wood

C.

By chalk line

D.

By a cardboard template

1425

DPKP

196. What is a trammel used for? A.

Marking off pipes

B.

Scribing large circles

C.

Cutting out joints

D.

Instead of dividers

197. When gas welding, which is the most likely cause of a serious accident? A.

Distraction

B.

Leaving torch on floor

C.

Not extinguishing when finished

D.

Touching hot metal

198. When welding at a bench, which list of equipment would be used? A.

Leather gloves Leather apron Welding helmet Safety Boots

B.

Leather gloves Leather apron Boiler suit Breathing apparatus

C.

Leather gloves Leather apron Safety boots Boiler suit

D.

Leather gloves Boiler suit Safety boots Welding helmet

1426

DPKP

199. Welding fumes can be dangerous. When welding in the workshop how is welding rendered safe? A.

By extractor welding gun

B.

By ventilation

C.

By extraction

D.

By respirator

200. When self-secured joints are to be made, which tool is most useful? A.

Press

B.

Rubber headed hammer

C.

Folder

D.

Tin snips

201. To make a single grooved seam from 1 mm plate, in what order would the following operations be carried out? A.

Set to thickness A Hook together Fold Flatten

B.

Fold Hook together Flatten Set to thickness

C.

Fold Set to thickness Hook together Flatten

D.

Flatten Set to thickness Fold Hook together

1427

DPKP

202. The sketch shows a partially completed knocked up joint made from 0.5 mm plate. Which direction of ending completes the joint?

A.

No.1

B.

No.3

C.

No.4

D.

No.2

203. What may be done to improve the finished appearance of a self-secured joint? A.

Fit edging wire

B.

Caulk

C.

Burnish

D.

Solder

204. During a plasma cutting process the workpiece was not totally penetrated. What would be the most likely problem? A.

Current is too high

B.

Speed of cut too high

C.

Metal is too thin

D.

Speed of cut too low

205. What condition must exist in order to cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture? A.

Slow temperature rise

B.

Low velocity jet

C.

Rapid oxidation

D.

Slow oxidation

1428

DPKP

206. Which of the materials listed can be cut using an oxygen fuel gas mixture? A.

Stainless steel

B.

Mild steel

C.

Bronze

D.

Cast iron

207. Which gas is not commonly used as a fuel when cutting steel plate? A.

Propane

B.

Natural gas

C.

Acetylene

D.

Hlelium

208. Sketch shows a gas cutting blowpipe. What is control No. 1 used for?

A.

Mixing gases

B.

Pre-heat oxygen

C.

Acetylene control

D.

Cutting oxygen

209. What is the effect of low pressure cutting oxygen? A.

Melt will not be blown out

B.

Combustion will not occur

C.

Cut will be ragged at edges

D.

Melting point will not be reached

1429

DPKP

210. Which column gives the correct factors for a clean cut edge preparation? A.

Flame adjustment. Speed of travel. Oversized nozzle. Pressure.

B.

Flame adjustment. Angle of nozzle to plate. Undersized nozzle. Polished surface.

C.

Flame adjustment. Speed of travel. Angle of nozzle to plate. Polished surface.

D.

Flame adjustment. Speed of travel. Distance between plate and nozzle. Pressure.

211. When gas cutting a mild steel plate, what does the size of nozzle used depend upon? A.

Gases used

B.

Gases remaining in cylinder

C.

Thickness of plate

D.

Impurities in material

212. Which system uses a tungsten electrode, causing an arc between itself and the metal to be cut? A.

Molten arc cutting

B.

Arc cutting

C.

Plasma arc cutting

D.

Plastic arc cutting

1430

DPKP

213. What is shown in No. 1 ?

A.

Spade guide

B.

Radius bar

C.

Small circle guide

D.

Roller guide

214. What is the attachment shown in No. 2 ?

A.

Spade guide

B.

Radius bar

C.

Roller guide

D.

Small circle guide

1431

DPKP

215. If two pieces of metal are welded together while laying in the same plane, this is known as? A.

Corner weld

B.

A butt weld

C.

Lap weld

D.

Fillet weld

216. Prior to welding, plate edges are prepared to? A.

Give economical use of filler

B.

Allow maximum penetration of filler

C.

Give a flat surface to filler

D.

Allow filler to flow

217. Plates of less than 6 mm thickness (T) have no edge preparation but what ratio of (T) is the gap? A.

T/2

B.

T/4

C.

T/6

D.

T/1

218. What feature of a good weld is indicated by No.4 ?

A.

Good spot welding

B.

Backing bar has been used

C.

Blend with parent metal

D.

Contour even and regular

1432

DPKP

219. Thick plates require a multi-run weld. Which type of runs are used?

A.

No.4

B.

No.3

C.

No.2

D.

No.1

220. When two pieces of metal at right- angles are welded together, what weld is used? A.

Lap

B.

Fillet

C.

Bevel

D.

Butt

221. For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

A.

ab

B.

ac

C.

de

D.

ad 1433

DPKP

222. For the fillet weld shown, what is the throat length?

A.

ae

B.

af

C.

db

D.

ad

223. Figures show welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No. 1 ?

A.

Single V

B.

Double U

C.

Double V

D.

None

1434

DPKP

224. Figure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.2 ?

A.

Double U

B.

Single bevel

C.

Double V

D.

Double bevel

225. Figure shows welded tee joints. What preparation is required for No.3 ?

A.

Single U

B.

Double bevel

C.

Single bevel

D.

Double U

1435

DPKP

226. A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm steel plate. What edge preparation is required for No.2 ?

A.

Double U

B.

Double bevel closed corner

C.

Single bevel Closed corner

D.

None

227. A short box girder is fabricated from 18 mm thick steel plate. What edge preparation is necessary for No.3 ?

A.

Double bevel

B.

Single bevel

C.

Single U

D.

None

1436

DPKP

228. A short box girder is fabricated from 8 mm thick steel plate. What edge preparation is required for No.1 ?

A.

Double bevel 45°

B.

Single bevel 60°

C.

Double bevel 60°

D.

Single bevel 45°

229. "Which of the following is a non-identifiable hazard? A.

Motor v-belts

B.

Worn spanner

C.

The tailshaft

D.

Grease on floor plates

230. How is the emergency stop button indented on workshop machinery, for example, the lathe? A.

Large round head with light emitting diode insert.

B.

Large round head painted red.

C.

Large round head painted yellow.

D.

Large round head painted green

231. When shaping a chisel on a grinding machine, what would probably cause fingers contacting the grinding heel? A.

Using too much force

B.

Wrong grade of wheel

C.

Tool rest clearance excessive

D.

Wheel speed low

1437

DPKP

232. Twist drills can be sharpened with the aid of which of the following ? A.

A file.

B.

A wire brush.

C.

A pistol drill.

D.

The bench grinder.

234. The tool used for scoring lines on metal surfaces is called a ............. A.

a pin punch.

B.

a centre punch.

C.

a scriber.

D.

a hammer.

235. A hammer with one flat end to its head and one half round end is called ...... A.

a ball pane hammer.

B.

a half round hammer.

C.

a claw hammer.

D.

a chipping hammer.

236. The file known as a "bastard" file is which of the following ? A.

One that is extremely smooth.

B.

One having an edge with no teeth.

C.

One having a side rounded so it is half round.

D.

One that is rough and flat.

237. The part of a hand drill which holds the drill bit is called ... A.

the handle.

B.

the chuck key.

C.

the spindle.

D.

the chuck.

1438

DPKP

238. The tool used for marking out a circle on steel is called... A.

oddleg calipers.

B.

a pair of dividers.

C.

outside calipers.

D.

inside calipers.

239. A tool used to mark the centre for a twist drill is called... A.

a centre punch

B.

a pin punch

C.

a scriber

D.

a pair of dividers

240. Die nuts are used for which of the following ? A.

Cleaning an existing thread.

B.

Cutting a thread on a round bar.

C.

Holding and turning dies.

D.

Cutting a new thread in a hole.

241. The part of the centre lathe which holds the cutting tool is called .... A.

the compound slide.

B.

the tool post.

C.

the tailstock.

D.

the saddle.

242. Spanners which have one end as a ring spanner and the other end an open ended spanner are called........ A.

half open ended spanners.

B.

combination spanners.

C.

socket spanners.

D.

half ring spanners.

1439

DPKP

243. After using hand or power tools, they should be.... A.

returned to the workshop bench.

B.

returned to the duty engineer.

C.

left beside the job for use next time.

D.

returned to their allotted stowage position.

244. Side cutters are used..... A.

to cut the side of metal.

B.

to hold cold metal

C.

to cut electrical wiring.

D.

to hold metal while it is being cut.

245. A hacksaw blade is placed in the body of the hacksaw with the teeth facing ........ A.

Down and towards the handle.

B.

Up and towards the front.

C.

Up and towards the handle.

D.

Down and towards the front.

246. The diameter of a hole in a piece of metal can best be measured using........... A.

outside calipers

B.

an engineer's square

C.

feeler gauges

D.

inside calipers

247. A tool should be used......... A.

with regard to the correct shape of its handle.

B.

for at least 2 different functions.

C.

only for the function for which it was designed.

D.

for a variety of functions according to circumstances.

1440

DPKP

248. A machine tool used for reducing the diameter of a round bar is called ...... A.

a milling machine

B.

a pillar drill.

C.

a centre lathe.

D.

a bench grinder.

249. The diameter of round bar is best measured with the aid of... A.

an engineer's square.

B.

feeler gauges.

C.

inside calipers.

D.

outside calipers.

250. In a set of thread taps the plug tap has .... A.

a slight taper at its end.

B.

no thread at all.

C.

the full thread to the end.

D.

larger taper at its end.

251. Drilling a hole with a drill in the end of a piece of round bar is best carried out using which of the following ? A.

A shaping machine

B.

A pillar drill.

C.

A milling machine.

D.

A centre lathe.

252. Which of the following spanners is best to use in most cases ? A.

A pair of stillsons.

B.

The correct size ring spanner.

C.

A parallel jaw adjustable spanner.

D.

The correct size open-ended spanner.

1441

DPKP

253. What type of screw is number 2 ?

A.

A hexagon head screw

B.

A round head screw

C.

A cheese head screw

D.

A countersunk screw

254. What type of screw is number 3 ?

A.

A hexagon head screw

B.

A fillister head screw

C.

A countersunk screw

D.

A button head screw

255. What type of screw is number 4 ?

A.

A round head screw

B.

A countersunk screw

C.

A hexagon head screw

D.

A cheese head screw

1442

DPKP

256. What rigging device is shown at the bottom ?

A.

A strop

B.

A double eye wire strop

C.

A wire sling

D.

A double loop wire

257. What is shown top right ?

A.

An eye bolt

B.

A strop bolt

C.

A connecting bolt

D.

A shackle bolt

258. What kind of tool is shown top right and what is its purpose ?

A.

Traverse cut chisel /To break bolts and nuts

B.

Cross cut chisel To chisel grooved profiles in metal

C.

Seam cut chisel / To remove welds and protruding objects

D.

Sharp cut chisel/For inside piping cutting 1443

DPKP

259. Before leaving the engine room workshop, you are to ensure that... A.

the entrance to the shop is secured by padlock.

B.

all tools are in place, power tool supply is off, all is sea fast.

C.

the inventory of all parts used is filled up.

D.

the lighting is switched off.

260. What is the device shown in the centre of the picture ?

A.

A U-connector

B.

A connecting bolt

C.

A shackle

D.

A bend connector

261. What do you call the device shown on the right side of the picture ?

A.

An eye lifter

B.

An elongated bolt lifter

C.

An elongated eye bolt

D.

An elongated eye lifter

1444

DPKP

262. What is the measuring device shown top right ?

A.

A microcalipre

B.

A clamp metre

C.

A stress meter

D.

A micrometer

263. What is shown top left ?

A.

strop connection

B.

A loop welding

C.

A chainblock clamp

D.

An overhead bulkhead eye

264. What is the tool shown top left called ?

A.

A carpenter's ball hammer

B.

A ball pen hammer

C.

A ball head hammer

D.

A carpenter's hammer

1445

DPKP

265. What kind of hammers are shown bottom left and right side ?

A.

Lead hammers

B.

Plastic hammers

C.

Recoil-less hammers

D.

Assemblers hammers

266. What kind of hammer is shown top left and for what is it used ?

A.

Bell hammer /To knock split pins in place

B.

Lead hammer / For heavy hammering of frozen nuts and bolts

C.

Aluminium hammer / For testing tightness of motor covers

D.

Plastic or Teflon hammer. / For light assembly work

267. What kind of hammer is shown bottom left and for what is it used ?

A.

A common hammer / All purpose engineer's work

B.

A curved hammer / Used for hammering and removing rust

C.

A claw hammer / For carpentry and wood work, nail removal.

D.

A carpenter's hammer I Used for all purpose work on deck 1446

DPKP

268. What kind of hammer is shown right side and for what is it used ?

A.

Heavy hammer/ For use on large size forged ring spanners

B.

Striking hammer / To loosen or fastening torque rings

C.

Moker hammer / To loosen or fastened cylinder head nuts

D.

Sledge hammer/ For all-purpose grudgingly and powerful hammering

269. What kind of hammer is shown at the top and for what is it used ?

A.

A brick hammer /For hammering plates and steel

B.

A fitter's hammer/For general use

C.

A blacksmith's hammer / General purpose

D.

A descaling hammer f For descaling heavy rust

270. What kind of hammer is shown at the bottom ?

A.

A scale remover

B.

A deckhand hammer

C.

A chipping hammer

D.

A double edge hammer 1447

DPKP

271. What kind of tool is shown top right ?

A.

An adjustable pipe spanner

B.

An adjustable wrench

C.

A shifter

D.

A pocket spanner

272. What is the tool shown top left and for what is it used ?

A.

Centre punch. / To mark a point on metal

B.

Drivel / To push small pins out of their fastening

C.

Pointed chisel / To chisel a tracing groove

D.

Dopper punch. / To chisel a small hole trough metal sheets

1448

DPKP

273. What is shown on the left side of the picture ?

A.

A cylinder head lifter

B.

A triple hook chain lifter

C.

A cylinder liner pulling chain

D.

An oil drum lifting chain

274. What is shown on the right of the picture ?

A.

A lifting block

B.

A rattle chain

C.

A chain block

D.

A chain lifter

1449

DPKP

275. What do you call the measuring device shown top centre ?

A.

A workshop compass found in any workshop, any profession

B.

A plane level compass

C.

A metal worker's compass, with spring tension adjustable by screw

D.

A ship's compass used only on board ship

276. What kind of tool is shown bottom centre ?

A.

A pipe cutting tool

B.

A pipe bending tool

C.

A pipe flating tool

D.

A pipe fitting tool

1450

DPKP

277. What is the purpose of the tool shown bottom right ?

A.

To extract bushes and gears from shafts

B.

To extract ball bearings, roller bearings or needle bearings

C.

To extract pulleys and sleeves from shafts

D.

All of these.

278. If you are an engine room rating, what basic technical knowledge must you posses as far as tools and equipment are concerned ? A.

Be able to operate the drilling machine

B.

Be able to operate the milling machine

C.

Be able to identify and select the proper tool for each job

D.

Be able to operate the gas welding equipment

1451

DPKP 9. Perawatan dan perbaikan permesinan dan peralatan (Maintenance andrepair of shipboardmachinery andequipment) 1. What could cause engine oil to turn a “milky” colour ?

kapal

A. Overheating. B. Water contamination. C. The oil is old. D. Fuel contamination.

2.

You have a cylinder liner with 6 outlet holes for cylinder lubrication, how many clogged holes can you tolerate ? A. 3 B. 2 C. 0 D. 1

3.

What do you consider as the most important task after piston work ? A. Patching up destroyed paintwork on the crankcase doors. B. Starting the engine to see that it rotates. C. Starting the auxiliary blower to ventilate the scavenging belt, the cylinder liners, to ensure that the engine has sufficient fresh air to start. D. A search inside the crankcase for tools and rags.

4.

A clogged or dirty lubrication oil filter can best be detected by

….

A. a decrease in oil viscosity. B. the pressure drop across the filter. C. high tube oil temperature. D. visual inspection of the filter elements.

5.

What can happen with lubrication oil cooled pistons if you stop the lubricating oil pump immediately after you stop the engine? A. Overheating of the piston and oil coke deposits in the cooling chambers. B. You preserve the oil sealings in the piston. C. The oil flashpoint will change. D. Nothing will happen. 1452

DPKP

6.

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that the viscosity is low. What will you do ? A. Clean the system and change the oil. B. Start to purify the oil. C. Decrease the lubrication oil temperature. D. Increase the lubrication oil temperature.

7.

Why is the tightening of the time chain important ? A. To avoid wear down of chain and chain wheel tooth and a potential breakdown. B. To get the right timing on the chain. C. To reduce the noise level. D. To reduce vibration in the chain.

8.

You have checked the oil viscosity in an auxiliary engine with the viscosity test kit. The result shows that he viscosity is high. What will you do ? A. Decrease the cooling water temperature for the oil. B. Increase the cooling temperature for the oil. C. Clean the system and change the oil. D. Increase the lubrication oil pressure.

9.

How is the opening pressure (setpoint) adjusted in a fuel injector valve ? A. By spring. B. By length of stroke. C. By oil pressure. D. By camshaft regulation.

10.

If you have a fuel injector nozzle with 10 holes, how many clogged holes are acceptable ? A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 0

1453

DPKP

11.

Why do main engine makers recommend grinding the valve spindle sealing surface with a half degree difference to the valve seat ? A. To improve sealing surface between value and seat during operation of engine. B. To for heat expansion. C. To minimize heat transfer between seat and housing. D. To avoid sticking between value and seat during high load operation.

12.

Why is important to check the timing on the cylinder oil lubricators ? A. To avoid excess lubrication. B. To avoid high temperature in the combustion chamber. C. To get the oil into the cylinder when the piston is in the right position. D. To get the right amount of oil into the cylinder.

13.

You are experiencing large hunting in the fresh water cooling system. What is the reason ? A. The fresh water-circulating pump is worn out. B. The cooling water temperature is too low. C. You have a cracked liner, or cover. D. The expansion tank is empty.

14.

You have installed a new bearing in the main engine. What is the necessary action to take during the running in period ? A. No action is required to be taken. B. Stop after 30 minutes running and hand feel the bearing. C. Allowance must be made for a running in period with reduced speed and careful temperature monitoring. D. Allow for one hour running with appropriate temperature monitoring of the bearing

1454

DPKP

15.

You are having a blow-by on the main engine, but due to circumstances, it is impossible to stop and do a to overhaul. What is the correct action to take ? A. No action is necessary. B. Increase cylinder oil consumption. C. Reduce speed temporarily and increase cylinder oil consumption. D. Reduce speed.

16.

During operation of the main engine, the exhaust temperature increases on one of the cylinders. The turbocharger starts surging and smoke is coming from the inlet air filter. What is the probable cause? A. High back pressure in the exhaust system. B. Turbocharger failure. C. Scavenge box fire. D. Fuel valve stuck in open position.

17.

When carrying out piston overhaul, why it is important to clean the ring grooves properly ? A. To make sure gas pressure can enter freely on top of and behind the piston ring . B. That the piston ring can moue freely in the grooves. C. To make the ring fit in the groove. D. All rings must be changed to make a perfect sealing.

18.

Inspection of the crank bearing shows the bearing shell was black and hard with patches of black incrustations which had worn grooves in the journal. What could be the cause ? A. Water in the lubricating oil during service. B. The wrong casting of bearing shell. C. Bearing shell service time exceeded. D. Dirt the lubricating oil.

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19.

If you are going to enter the engine's crankcase, how should you secure the engine after you have closed the main starting air valve? A. Close absolutely all valves on the starting air bottle. B. Keep a man posted in the control room to watch that nobody tries to start the engine C. Close the instrument air supply. D. Engage the turning gear on the engine.

20. What will the effect be if a fuel injector value is dripping after the injection is finished ? A. Damage to piston & liner. B. Greater output of the engine. C. Better combustion. D. Less carbonizing.

21. A leak from the gland of a centrifugal pump is found to be excessive. The correct procedure is .... A. lighten the gland as much as possible until the leakage stops. B. re-pack the stuffing box loosely with the correct size packingat the earliest opportunity. C. fit over size packing to the stuffing box. D. pump out the bilge well to which it is draining regularly.

22. A turbo charger is running at full speed. What would be a possible oil sump bath temperature on the turbine side ? A. 72 to 82 degrees C. B. 35 to 45 degrees C. C. 45 to 50 degrees C. D. 55 to 65 degrees C.

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23. For a low pressure boiler, testing shows the water chloride level to be 500 PPM. What action would you take ? A. Blow down boiler and check condenser for leakage. B. Increase dosage. C. No action needed. D. Decrease dosage.

24. The timing of the engine is delayed and the exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger ? A. Cause surging of turbocharger. B. Cause decreased turbocharger revolutions. C. Cause higher air and gas temperatures after turbocharger. D. Cause increased turbocharger revolutions.

25. The plate heat exchanger is separated for cleaning, what should you do if the plates are thick with scale or other organic material ? A. Use wire-brush or metal scraper to clean the plates. B. Change the plates. C. Put the plates in water with cleaning chemicals. Use soft brush or high pressure cleaner with care. D. Use high pressure cleaner with abrasives.

26. You notice the sump level in an engine has increased and no new oil has been added. What action would you take ? A. Reduce the load and look for fuel or water leak. B. Drain some oil from the engine. C. Leave it alone. D. Stop the engine and look for fuel or water leak.

27. When opening a plate cooler for cleaning, how should the bolts be removed ? A. One by one, anti-clockwise. B. One by one, clockwise. C. Fully slacken and remove middle bolts first, then top and then bottom ones. D. Fully slacken and remove top ones first, then middle and then the bottom 1457

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ones.

28. when an overhaul of a compressor is completed and the compressor is going to be started for a test run, it is important to……….. A. check maximum pressure of the capacity on run-up. B. check that an open discharge line exists all the way to the pressure bott C. check that all consumptions are closed during the test run. D. check the direction of rotation.

29. What steps are to be taken in chronological order to stabilise a governor of a diesel engine after overhaul ? A. Set integrating to MAX, than adjust speed (P) and differential D. B. Set integrating to MAX, differentiating to MITI, adjust speed (P) upward. C. Adjust speed (P) setting, than integrating next differentiating from 0. D. Set integrating and differentiating to MAX, set speed (P) 0 upwards.

30. If oil is found in the boiler water, what action would you take other than isolating the leak ? A. Dose the coagulant and blow down the boiler. B. No action needed. C. Blow down the boiler. D. Dose the coagulant.

31. On the air compressor's crankcase there is a small value that lets off pressure. What should be done if the value is letting of pressure and oil moisture ? A. Block off the valve. B. Increase the flow of cooling water. C. Overhaul the compressor unit. D. Check the clearance in the bearing.

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32. How often should greasing of pump bearings take place ? A. Every Week. B. Every day. C. As specified in the vessel's PMS. D. Every month.

33. What will you do if the plate exchanger leaks after cleaning and is back in service? A. Dismantle exchanger and check or renew packings. B. Close the valves. C. Tighten more. D. Reduce pressure.

34. Why is it important to follow a maintenance schedule for purifiers ? A. To prevent serious damage to main components. B. To improve the purifier's efficiency. C. To comply with company regulations. D. The only maintenance necessary is cleaning of the bowl.

35. What will you do if a purifier starts to vibrate, or has heavy vibrations? A. Try to increase the flow. B. Stop the purifier immediately. C. Check the vibration alarm. D. Try to decrease the flow.

36. How do you test the probes for the 15 ppm monitor ? A. By immersing in oil. B. It is only necessary to clean them. C. By immersing in oil and water. D. They have to be changed, testing is not possible.

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37. Adjusting the spring tension on the fuel values during operation is recommended to achieve ……………. A. exhaust temperatures in line (equal temperatures). B. equal cylinder pressures. C. improved fuel atomizing. D. improved fuel flow.

38. Most engine makers recommend a change of cylinder head gaskets each time a piston overhaul is carried out. Why ? A. To avoid heat transfer to the cylinder head. B. To increase consumption of parts so they can make more money. C. To be granted a proper sealing with new gasket. D. To obtain a proper sealing and correct distance between piston and cover in TDC position.

39. When adjusting the value clearance between the rocker arm and pushrod, the cams on the camshaft for each cylinder should be……….. A. 90 degrees before TOG. B. 90 degrees after TOG. C. negative. D. positive. 40. The lapping a value and value seat means…………….. A. adjusting the overlapping of the inlet and exhaust valves. B. repairing by welding. C. grinding the valve against the value seat to obtain a uniform sealing surfac D. machining the value in a lathe machine.

41. Mat will you do if the heat transfer capacity is dropping and we know that flow and heat energy corresponds to specifications ? A. Try to increase the flow. B. Use the "cleaning in place arrangement. C. Add some more plates to the exchanger. D. Increase the flow pressure 1460

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42. At what interval should boiler water testing take place ? A. very eight hours. B. very week. C. very fortnight. D. every day.

43. What should be observed when you make a lubricating check of the crankcase gear forced lubrication oil system ? A. The level in the oil sump tank. B. The oil pressure on the top position manometer. C. Uniform oil flow from bearings, top ends, guides, gear train. D. The condition of the oil in the sump tank using a test kit.

44. Which very important maintenance activity should you carry out on pre-tensioning hydraulic tools to avoid trouble during work on the engines and to ensure safe operations on board ? A. Replace the 0-rings of the tool components regularly, in particular replace after frequent use. B. Renew the hydraulic oil after every use. C. Clean the hydraulic filter. D. Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals and hat the oil is clean.

45. Why is it important to slow down the main engine RPM while water washing the turbocharger ? A. To protect rotor blades from damage. B. To protect the bearings. C. To protect the exhaust gas economizer. D. To protect the blower side.

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46. Your vessel is entering a tropical area and high humidity is expected. What should you do to avoid condensation in the main engine's air cooler ? A. Reduce speed. B. Increase scavenging air temperature to above dew point. C. Decrease the air temperature so proper draining can be achieved from the air cooler. D. Operate the engine with slightly open drain cocks, scavenging to get rid of water.

47. Which of the following components is HOT directly lubricated by the lubricating inlet supply line ? A. The gear train. B. The main bearings. C. The thrust bearing. D. The crosshead.

48. How is the trust bearing lubricated ? A. By its own independent supply system. B. Direct via the main lubrication oil line. C. Via the crankshaft. D. Via the camshaft.

49. How is the gear train lubricated ? A. Via the crankshaft. B. Via the camshaft system. C. Direct by the common lubricating oil circuit. D. By its own independent lubricating oil circuit.

50. From where should a boiler water sample be taken for testing ? A. Any place where possible. B. From the water space. C. From the drain cock. D. Frorn the steam space.

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51. What kind of periodic activity needs to be carried out prior to main engine manoeuvring with regards to the starting air system ? A. Check if the valves are moving freely with a torque spanner. B. Open up the main and cylinder head starting value and clean the pistons. C. Grease the values by grease cup or grease gun, drain moisture. D. See that the cylinder starting value is moving by air hose connection.

52. The timing of the engine is delayed. The exhaust temperatures are high. How would you expect this to affect the turbocharger ? A. Higher air and gas temperature after turbocharger. B. Increased turbocharger revolutions. C. Surging of the turbocharger. D. Decreased turbocharger revolutions.

53. What are the two most important factors influencing the outcome of crankshaft deflection readings? A. Ballast tank condition, bedplate alignment. B. Bedplate alignment, condition of after peak. C. Bearing wear and bedplate alignment. D. Condition of ballast tanks, temperature of engine.

54. What is the meaning of the term "value clearance" ? A. The clearance between rocker arm and camshaft pushrod. B. The clearance between rocker arm and camshaft in either warm or cold state. C. The clearance between rocker arm and value pushrod. D. The clearance between value spindle disc and seat.

55. With full load on the main engine, the RPM of the turbocharger is too low. What may be the cause? A. Dirty nozzle ring. B. The diffuser ring is damaged. C. Exhaust temperatures on the main engine are too high. D. The lubricating oil pump is malfunctioning.

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56. If you want to obtain a higher spray-off pressure on the injector, what should you do ? A. Tension the fuel pump spring more. B. Adjust the fuel oil cam to retard. C. Tension the injector spring more. D. Adjust the fuel pump cam to advance.

57. The blower air delivery to the turbocharger is not sufficient. What is the cause ? A. Air temperature in engine room is too high. B. Dirty scavenge duct. C. Clogged air inlet filter. D. Fooling water temperature is too high.

58. After water washing the turbocharger exhaust side, the blower starts to vibrate. What has happened? A. The foundation bolts for the blower unit are loose. B. The rotor blades are damaged or the blades are not properly cleaned. C. The inlet filer is partly clogged. D. The water drain for washing system is clogged.

59. With full load on the main engine, the turbocharger tachometer reads - too low RPM. Why ? A. Damaged connection between pick-up and tachometer unit. B. Pick up tachometer is wrongly adjusted. C. Pick up is not connected to turbocharger. D. Turbocharger needs to be cleaned/overhauled.

60. You have a problem with vibration in the turbocharger. What might be the cause? A. The turbine rotor is not balanced. B. Worn out turbocharger bearings. C. The lubricating oil needs to be changed. D. Dirty air inlet filter.

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61. How is the set pressure (opening pressure) of the safety value on cylinder head of a diesel engine to be adjusted ? A. By adjusting the lift height of the spindle. B. By fitting distance washers. C. By adjusting the distance of the value cone. D. By adjusting the spring pressure.

62. linear position of the crankshaft in a running engine changes constantly and this distortion needs to be measured. What is it called ? A. Any of these. B. Crankshaft distortion reading. C. Crankshaft deflection measurement. D. Crankshaft misalignment calibration.

63. After boiler inspections and surveys, what is the final test carried out by the surveyor in order to accredit the safety values and boiler mountings ? A. Check the condition of valves and valve seats. B. Check the valves for corrosion. C. Check safety valve blow off at required overpressure. D. Check the valve spindles for cracks.

64. The lubricating oil on the exhaust side of the turbine blower gets dirty after only a few hours in service. What can the reason be ? A. The oil is mixed with salt water. B. Exhaust gas leaking into the oil chamber. C. Worn out bearing turbine side. D. The wrong type of oil used.

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65. The water cooling space on the turbocharger is damaged and you have no spares. The cooling water must be closed. What steps would you take to ensure least possible damage ? A. Dismantle the rotor and assemble the sealing plate. B. Run the engine at lower speed. C. Cool the turbocharger by means of air. D. Make no modifications, but tell the duty engineer to pay special attention for abnormalities.

66. The turbocharger (constant pressure) is making ''whoofing" noises. What might be the cause ? A. One or more leaking exhaust valves. B. A faulty turbocharger bearing. C. Heavy seas from astern. D. A strong counter current.

67. Paint spraying has been carried out in the engine room while the engine was running and the turbocharger was not protected. This could cause which of the following ? A. Higher than normal scavenging air pressure. B. Lower than normal revolutions on the turbocharger. C. Higher then normal exhaust gas temperatures. D. Higher than normal revolutions on the turbocharger.

68. Which of these could cause a problem with surging in the turbocharger ? A. Dirty scavenging air cooler on the air side. B. Dirty rotor blades and nozzle ring. C. Lubrication oil pump is malfunctioning. D. Worn bearings on the turbocharger.

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69. After how many hours would you consider changing the turbocharger bearings, even though all appears to be normal ? A. 12000 hours. B. 30000 hours. C. 4000 hours. D. 25000 hours.

70. Which important maintenance activity should you carry out on pre-tensioning hydraulic tools to ensure their continuous safe use ?

A. Clean the hydraulic filter B. Replace the 0-rings of the tool components regularly, replacing particularly after frequent use C. Renew the hydraulic oil after every use D. Check that there are no metallic parts in the internals or in the oil

71. In what kind of machinery would this type of gland packing never be used ? A. Fuel oil or Lub. oil piping B. Steam equipment C. Sea water or freshwater pumping equipment D. Refrigerating installations

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72. Where are you most likely to find this kind of value fitted ?

A. On refrigerating machinery B. On sea chests C. In diesel engine starting air lines D. Before and after filters

73. What kind of valve is this ?

A. A worm wheel operated gate valve B. A manually operated butterfly valve C. A gear operated gate valve D. A gear operated butterfly valve

74. Where is this type of valve usually found ?

A. In piping of low pressure and tow B. In piping of high pressure and large flow C. In piping with large flow but low pressure D. In piping of high pressure but limited flow

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75. How is the soot which will accumulate between the finned piping of an exhaust gas boiler removed?

A. By high pressure water jet washing at 3000 psi B. By sand blasting in the drydock C. Soot blowing at sea, water washing in port D. By chemical cleaning with pump in port

76. What would you do if water was found leaking at sea from the exhaust gas boiler and it is found to be from a leaking finned tube pipe from the steam generating unit ?

A. Put the entire steam generating bank out of commission. B. Put the exhaust gas boiler out of commission. C. Plug the section; bank D. Plug the pipe

77. What are parts 1 and 4 and what ensures the seal between them ? A. Part 1 = valve plate, part 4= cast body, a sea B. Part 1 = top cover, part 4 = valve casing, a jointing C. Part 1 = valve cover, part 4 = valve body, a gasket D. Part 1 = top plate, part 4 = casing, an O-ring

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78. What is this unit called ?

A. A stuffing box gland packing B. A flexible type rotating packing assembly C. A segmented seal unit D. A box type packing unit

79.

If you find a leak on one of the tubes of this heater, what should you do ? A. Weld the tube tight B. Machine plugs and weld in place. C. Put the heater out of commission D. Machine plugs and plug the tube by hammering the plugs into position

80.

On a reciprocating pump piston, the rings are made of material with low elastic limit such as hard rubber, Bakelite etc. In order to be able to fit them in the piston grooves you will need to…….. A. put them on top of the boiler casing to warm up. B. apply grease or vaseline to slide the rings on. C. heat them in boiling water for 20 to 30 minutes . D. use a special sliding tool.

81.

How is the sealing ring (2) fitted on the butterfly valve plate ?

A. It sits in a grooved bolted-on section B. It is bolted on and secured by wiring C. It is glued on a separate removable ring D. It kept in place by a retaining ring secured by countersunks

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82.

All the ferrous components of a ship will sustain strong corrosive action in the presence of…… A. turbulent water. B. acid waters. C. steam D. alkaline waters.

83.

What is the most important item of maintenance required to ensure maximum flow of air conditioned air to the accommodation ?

A. Clean the sea water side of the condenser every 2 months B. Ensure always that there is sufficient Freon in the receiver C. Clean the central air conditioning fan unit's intake suction filters D. Verify and top-up the oil level of the compressor.

84.

A bilge strainer is blocking up during bilge pumping operations which is causing delays as the pump frequently loses suction and has to be primed. What action should be taken to remedy the situation? A. Clean the strainer more frequently and clean out the bilge well at the first opportunity. B. Remove the strainer plate from the housing to avoid blockage and loss of suction. C. Remove the strainer plate and drill larger holes in it and replace it in the housing to avoid blockages. D. Use a portable pump to avoid blockage of the strainer.

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85.

A centrifugal pump gland has been repacked following overhaul of the pump. What is the correct method to ensure the pump shaft does not overheat when the pump is operating? A. Gradually tighten the gland follower with the pump running until leakage at the gland stops. B. Tighten the gland to half way travel of the gland follower. C. Tighten the gland follower as much as possible and then slacken it back again by one turn of the gland nuts. D. Gradually tighten the gland follower with the pump running until the leakage is just a small steady flow.

86.

A new gasket has been fitted to the manhole cover of a ballast tank. Which of the options given would be suitable to test that the new gasket is correctly fitte A. Carry out a hose test on the manhole cover. B. Carry out an air pressure test on the ballast tank. C. Fill the tank with water until it overflows through the air vent. D. Fill the tank with water up to capacity.

87.

A new joint is needed for a steam condensate drain line. What is the most suitable jointing material to use? A. Plain fibre jointing B. Wire reinforced fibre jointing C. Cork jointing D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion

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88.

A pump cover is sealed using a paper gasket which is damaged during overhaul. There are no spare gaskets available. How should the casing be sealed when reassembling the pump? A. Make a new gasket from old chart paper or other similar material of the same thickness as the original gasket. B. Run a bead of silicon around the outside of the joint after fitting the cover. C. Re-use the old gasket. D. Put a thick layer of jointing compound on the face of the cover and tighten the cover until the compound squeezes out.

89.

A seawater pipe is holed due to corrosion causing frequent bilge alarms. Which of the given temporary repair methods would be the preferred option to remedy the problem until the pipe can be replaced? A. Cover all of the affected area with fibre glass tape and resin/fibre glass mixture. B. Cover the hole with rubber insertion held in place with a jubilee clip. C. Drive a steel taper pin into the hole to seal it. D. Wrap duct tape around the pipe in way of the hole.

90.

A small electric motor needs to be taken to the bottom plates for fitting to a domestic water pump. It is only just too heavy to be manually carried so is to be lowered using the engine room crane. Which of the options given would be a suitable strop to use for the operation? A. Any certified strop which has a safe working load greater than the weight of the motor. B. Any strop which looks big enough to carry the load. C. A wire strop which is rated for twice the required load but is out of certification. D. Any piece of rope will do as the motor is only just too heavy to carry.

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91.

A spare cylinder head for the generator needs to be lifted from its storage cradle to the generator flat. Because of its location the engine room crane cannot be positioned directly above it. What method should be used to bring the cylinder head into position? A. Rig chain blocks to lift the cylinder head from its cradle and then transfer it gradually over to the crane hook by working the chain blocks. B. Attach the crane hook to the lifting gear for the cylinder head and drag it across the deck until it is directly under the crane. C. Use a block and tackle to drag the head across to a position beneath the crane. D. Use crow bars to lever the cylinder cover across the deck until it is in position below the crane.

92.

A threaded hole is to be formed in a steel plate using a tap and wrench. When drilling the hole which of the options best describes the required drill size? A. The drill should be a smaller size than the diameter of the tap. B. The drill should be the same size as the diameter of the tap. C. The drill should be a bigger size than the diameter of the tap. D. The drill should be the same size at the diameter of the bolt that is to be fitted into the hole.

93.

An electric motor is to be aligned to a pump by inserting shims under the motor feet. Which tool would be used to check that the alignment is correct by measurement of the gap between the coupling faces? A. A set of feeler gauges. B. A go/no go gauge C. An inside micrometer. D. An inside vernier caliper

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94.

An engine room rating is assisting in the maintenance of some of the valves on the low pressure steam range. Which packing material, from the options given, would be the best choice for repacking the gland of a low pressure steam valve? A. Graphite fibre packing. B. Greasy cotton packing. C. Lead covered cotton packing. D. PTFE rope packing.

95.

An engine room rating is given the task of retightening the flanges of a pipe that has been replaced in the engine room. Which of the following tightening procedures should be followed? A. Gradually tighten all of the bolts working diagonally across and around the flange. B. Start with the top bolt and fully tighten each in turn moving clockwise around the flange. C. Start with the bottom bolt and partially tighten each bolt in turn working counter-clockwise around the flange. Repeat to fully tighten. D. Fully tighten each bolt in turn and work diagonally across and around the flanges.

96.

An engine room rating notices that the guard on a running pump is hanging loose due to a missing bolt on the support bracket and it is catching the shaft coupling. What is the best action to take as a repair method? A. Inform the watchkeeper so that the pump can be stopped and a new bolt can be fitted to permanently fix the guard in place. B. Fasten the guard back in place with a piece of rope with the pump running as a temporary repair. C. Place a sheet of metal in front of the guard to deflect any parts that may fly off as a temporary repair. D. Try and fit a new bolt while the pump is running to permanently fix the guard in place.

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97.

During maintenance work at sea an engine room rating is moving a heavy component to the workshop using a chain block attached to an overhead trolley on a rail. Part way through the operation the rating is asked by the engineer to go immediately to the store for some equipment. What should the rating do? A. Continue with the moving operation until the component is properly secured in the workshop before going to the store for the equipment. B. Immediately land the component on the deck but leave the chain block attached and go and collect the equipment from the store. C. Leave the component suspended from the chain block and go and collect the equipment from the store. D. Immediately land the component on the deck and secure it to a hand rail stanchion and go and get the equipment from the store.

98.

During maintenance work in the engine room an access ladder and platform have been removed to allow work to be carried out on a pipe. When breaking for lunch what action should be taken to make the worksite safe? A. Close off the area with rope or tape and put out warning signs that work is in progress. B. Loosely refit the platform and ladder. C. Refit the access ladder and platform securely and remove it again after lunch. D. Leave one man to carry on working on his own and to warn anyone entering the engineroom that work is ongoing.

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99.

Dring maintenance work on a fuel tank the engine room ratings are removing scale in preparation for re-coating. One of the ratings suddenly notices the smell of fumes even though the atmosphere had been satisfactorily tested before the work started. What action should the ratings take? A. Leave the tank immediately and have the atmosphere retested. B. Ask for another fan to be switched on to increase the ventilation in the tank. C. Put on breathing apparatus and carry on with the task. D. Stop work until the smell disappears and then carry on removing the scale.

100. During overhaul of a hydraulic pump a large number of small components are removed. Where should these components be kept so that they are not lost? A. They should be placed in a clean box or tin and covered over. B. They should be placed inside the pump casing. C. They should be kept in a boiler suit pocket. D. They should be placed in the pump save all.

101. During overhaul of a purifier the engine room rating is instructed to drain and clean the gearbox on the machine. Which of the materials given in the options is the best one for wiping up the remaining oil in the gearbox after draining the oil? A. Clean, lint free cotton rags. B. Clean cotton waste. C. Used paper towels from the wash room. D. Used dish cloths from the galley.

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102. During overhaul of some plate type compressor valves the engine room rating is asked to clean the valve plates and seat. Some of the valve plates are heavily marked. What action should be taken? A. Discard the defective valve plates and replace them with new spares. B. Use coarse grinding paste to remove the marks from the valve plates as quickly as possible. C. Skim the valve plates in the lathe to remove all of the marks. D. Dress the valve plates up using a portable grinder.

103. Following maintenance work on an air compressor the engine room rating is asked to put the tools away. It is noticed that an allen key is missing from the set. What action should be taken? A. Inform the engineer in case it has been left inside the compressor when it was closed up. B. Assume it has fallen in the bilge and look for it when the bilges have been pumped. C. Make a note in the log book so the other engine room staff know it is missing. D. Get another one from the store to make up a full set again.

104. Following repair and refitting of the seawater pipe for the fresh water generator feed line the rating notices that one of the flange joints is leaking. What action should be taken? A. Check the bolts are correctly tightened before informing the engineer so that the flange faces can be cleaned and re-jointed if necessary. B. Use a spanner with an extension pipe to try and stop the leak by tightening the flange bolts as much as possible. C. Use a hammer and flogging spanner to try and stop the leak by tightening the flange bolts as much as possible. D. Shut off the water and apply silicon or other sealing compound to the outer edge of the flange joint.

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105. Hot work is to be carried out close to a smoke detector in the engine room. What precautions should be taken? A. Notify Deck Officer and Engineer Officer in charge. The loop for the smoke detector should be isolated while work is done and normal precautions for hot work taken including permit to work. B. No special precautions except for having a watch man and a fire extinguisher available. C. Notify deck officer in charge that a fire alarm may occur. D. Disconnect or cover up the smoke detector.

106. Most maintenance and repair tasks carried out onboard ship require a permit to work which will include a full risk assessment. Where would an engine room rating find out about the precautions that are required for a particular task? A. Ships Safety Management Manual (ISM Code procedures) B. Code of Safe Working Practices (COSWP) C. Chief Engineer’s standing orders. D. Engine room log book.

107. One of the tubes in a seawater cooled condenser is leaking due to being holed half way along its length. What is the most appropriate onboard repair method to be used from the options given? A. Blank off the leaking tube at both ends using suitably tapered brass plugs. B. Blank off the leaking tube at both ends with steel screw plugs after cutting an internal thread using a suitable tap. C. Roll both ends of the leaking tube using a tube expanding tool. D. Blank off the leaking tube by brazing a cap to each end of the tube.

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108. Personal protection equipment appropriate to the task should be worn during work in the engine room. Which of the tasks requires that safety goggles should always be worn? A. When you are working with power tools or chemicals. B. When you are filling in the engine room log book. C. When you are welding. D. When you are tidying up in the engine room workshop.

109. Tab washers are often fitted to bolted assemblies to prevent the nuts and bolts slackening. For an assembly where the nuts are positioned at the top select the option which describes the correct method of locating the tab washers. A. Bend the inner tab up against one flat of the nut and the other tab down over the edge of the component. B. Bend the outer tap up against one flat of the nut and leave the other tab flat against the component. C. Bend both tabs up against opposite flats of the nut. D. Bend the outer tap down over the edge of the component and leave the other tab flat against the component.

110. The threads on the drain plug for the bronze end cover of a sea water cooled heat exchanger have been badly damaged during maintenance. There is no spare brass plug available. What is the best solution for repairing the heat exchanger? A. Make a new brass plug on the lathe to fit the drain hole. B. Use a steel plug with the same thread as the original to replace it. C. Hammer in a wooden tapered plug as a temporary repair. D. Wrap the threads in thread tape and coat it with jointing compound before refitting it.

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111. Welding and burning are two operations which give the highest risk of a fire on board ship. Which of the following safety precautions may be regarded as the most important in order to minimise this particular risk? A. The area where the welding is to take place and adjacent spaces to be cleaned and all unnecessary materials and objects to be removed. B. Only holders of a welding certificate should be allowed to carry out welding or burning on board ships. C. Electric welding plants should be controlled by a responsible engineer before use. D. Only use electrodes from a well known manufacturer.

112. What is meant by the term 'lapping in' in relation to diesel engine cylinder cover valves? A. Grinding the valve against the valve seat, usually manually, to obtain a uniform sealing surface across the seat. B. Repair of the valve by welding stellite onto the seat. C. The period of overlap when the inlet and exhaust valves for a cylinder are open together. D. Machining the valve and seat to achieve a differential seat angle.

113. What is the main reason for using a ring spanner to tighten the brass nuts on the cover studs of a pump casing? A. It will minimise the risk of slipping off the nut or damaging the nuts. B. It will allow the nuts to be tightened correctly. C. It can be adjusted to the exact size of the nut. D. The nuts can be tightened more with this type of spanner.

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114. What is the most suitable type of packing for a shaft gland of a pump used for seawater duties? A. Greasy cotton packing. B. Mica impregnated cotton packing. C. Lead covered hemp packing. D. PTFE rope packing.

115. What kind of safety equipment should be used when operating a grinding wheel? A. Goggles and shield B. Goggles C. Shield D. Welding mask

116. What type of heat exchanger is shown in the illustration? A. Plate B. Shell and tube C. Evaporative D. Bundle and stack

117. What would be the likely cause if the shaft of a centrifugal pump shows excessive wear in way of the stuffing box? A. Over tightening of the gland packing. B. Incorrect material used in construction of the shaft. C. The discharge pressure of the pump is too high. D. Wrong direction of rotation of the pump.

118. When refitting the bolts into a flange on a steam line how should the bolts be prepared so that they can be easily removed next time maintenance is required? A. Coat the threads in graphite based grease. B. Coat the threads in general purpose grease. C. Fit the bolts dry with a spring washer. D. Apply thread tape to the bolt threads.

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119. When working at height onboard ships what is the most important safety precaution that should be taken? A. Wear a safety harness securely attached to ship's structure. B. Keep all the tools required for the work in a bucket. C. Lash the bottom of the ladder to a fixed point. D. Wear a safety helmet and goggles.

120. Which cleaning agents are suitable for use in machinery space when considering the effect on the function of the oily water separator? A. Only non-emulsifying cleaning agents with self splitting emulsifiers are suitable. B. Any kind of cleaning agent is suitable. C. An emulsification type cleaning agent is suitable. D. None should be used as all cleaning agents affect the function of an OWS.

121. Which of the following tools can be safely sharpened using a pedestal grinder? A. Steel drill bit B. Hacksaw blade C. Brass chisel D. Wooden wedge

122. Which of the options given is most likely to result in overheating of a ball bearing fitted to a pump shaft? A. Completely filling the bearing with grease. B. Partly filling the bearing with grease. C. Running the pump at full capacity. D. Fitting a sealed bearing that cannot be greased

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123. Which tool in the options given is the best one for cutting a new external thread on the end of a steel pipe? A. Split dies B. Die nut C. Tap D. Thread chaser

124. Which tool would be best suited for cutting a piece of angle iron? A. Hacksaw. B. Tenon saw. C. Rip saw. D. Crosscut saw.

125. Which tool would be used to produce accurately sized bolt holes in a steel flange? A. A reamer. B. A twist drill. C. A hole punch. D. A centre drill.

126. Which type of pump is shown in the illustration? A. A centrifugal pump. B. A gear pump. C. A scroll pump. D. A reciprocating pump.

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127. While getting tools ready and preparing for overhaul work on the main engine the engine room rating notices that the electrical extension is damaged. A small section of the cables outer insulation is split although the inner insulation appears ok. What action should the rating take? A. Label the damaged extension as unfit for use and return it to the store for testing and get a replacement extension. B. Carry on using the extension after wrapping insulation tape over the damaged section as it is only minor damage. C. Just use the extension as it is since the damage is only to the outer insulation and the inner insulation appears ok. D. Cut off the end of the cable including the damaged section and refit the plug to the end of the remaining cable before using the extension.

128. Why are zinc anodes sometimes fitted in the seawater side of heat exchangers? A. To protect against corrosion B. To reduce salinity C. To prevent scaling D. To prevent accumulation of marine growth

129. A centrifugal pump is to be reassembled following overhaul and it is discovered that there are no spare gaskets for the pump housing. From the options given select the best alternative material to make a gasket from. A. Thick paper (chart paper). B. Cork gasket. C. Reinforced pilot packing. D. Thick rubber gasket.

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130. A centrifugal pump, which has been running normally and under optimum conditions, is due for maintenance according to the planned maintenance schedule. Which of the following components will most likely need to be renewed to ensure incident free running through to the next scheduled maintenance? A. Ball bearings on the shaft and the wear rings for the pump housing or impeller. B. The shaft and guide bushes. C. The impeller and retaining nut. D. The shaft coupling and bolts.

131. A mechanical seal, consisting of carbon and ceramic seal rings, is to be fitted to a cetrifugal pump shaft. What is the most likely result of not being extremely carefull when fitting this type of seal? A. The seal rings are brittle and can be easily chipped or damaged. B. The seal rings are hard and may score the pump shaft. C. The spring and bellows for the seal can be easily damaged. D. The rubber O rings for the seal can be easily damaged.

132. An auxiliary engine is fitted with a duplex type lubricating oil filter. The in-use element requires changing. What procedure should be used to fit the new element? A. With the engine running, change over to the other filter after priming it and replace the dirty element after checking there is no pressure on dirty filter housing. B. With the engine running, position the changeover cock so that both filters are in use to reduce the pressure before opening dirty filter cover and changing the filter element. C. The engine must be stopped to fit a clean filter element. D. With the engine running, shut off the filter inlet and quickly fit the new filter element

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133. Choose the option which is most likely to result in erosion of the tubes in a heat exchanger. A. Cooling water velocity too high. B. Cooling water temperature too high. C. Cooling water pressure too high. D. Rate of heat transfer too high.

134. During reassembly of a plate type heat exchanger following cleaning, the plate stack is normally compressed to a recommended thickness when tightening the tie bolts. Why is this recommended thickness given? A. To prevent serious damages to the plates. B. It is only a recommendation and is not really important. C. To prevent distorting the backing plates. D. To prevent overstressing the tie bolts.

135. If a refrigeration system contains air, how would you remove it from the system? A. Pump the system down to the condenser, continue cooling water flow until the condenser is at the same temperature as the cooling water and vent off the air from the top of the condenser. B. Pump the system down to the evaporator and keep the fan running until the evaporator is at ambient temperature and vent off the air from the top of the evaporator. C. Stop the compressor and vent the air from the crankcase. D. Stop the compressor and undo a pipe coupling at the highest point in the system to vent off the air.

136. In a refrigeration system what is the most likely cause of the compressor suction pressure being too low and causing the compressor to short cycle? A. System undercharged with refrigerant B. System overcharged with refrigerant. C. Insufficient cooling water flow through the condenser. D. Expansion valve stuck open.

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137. The packed gland on a centrifugal pump is leaking even though the gland has been 'nipped up'. What is the correct action to take to stop the leakage? A. Re-pack the stuffing box loosely with the correct size packing at the earliest opportunity. B. Fit an extra ring of oversize packing to the stuffing box at the earliest opportunity. C. Tighten up the gland as much as possible until the leakage stops. D. Ensure the bilge well to which the leakage is draining is regularly pumped out.

138. What action would you take if the performance of a plate type heat exchanger was falling off even though flow rates and pressures of the primary and secondary fluids were normal? A. Clean the heat exchanger. B. Iincrease the flow of both fluids. C. Add some more plates to the exchanger. D. Increase the pressure of both fluids.

139. What information is required to evaluate the condition of a heat exchanger during operation? A. Inlet and outlet temperatures and pressure drops across the heat exchanger for both fluids. B. Inlet and outlet temperatures of the cooling water C. Pressure drop for both fluids D. Inlet and outlet temperatures for the fluid being cooled

140. What is the best method to use to remove heavy scale and fouling from the plates of a heat exchanger? A. Soak the plates in a recommended cleaning solution and then use a soft brush or pressure cleaner. B. Use high-pressure cleaner with abrasive additives. C. Use wire-brush, metal scrapers and chipping guns. D. Renew the plates. 1488

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141. What would you suspect has happened if the lubricating oil for an air compressor has a milky white appearance? A. Water contamination of the oil. B. Air contamination of the oil. C. Oil temperature has been too high. D. Wrong grade of oil has been used.

142. Why is it necessary to use the vacuum pump after a major overhaul of a refrigeration system? A. To remove any air and water from the system in order to prevent problems during operation. B. To create a vacuum to help speed up refrigerant recharging of the system. C. To remove any lubricating oil from the system pipework. D. To check the condition of the various seals in the system

143. During replacement of the diesel engine cylinder cover following maintenance some manufacturers recommend that different torques are applied to some of the cylinder cover stud nuts. Select the option which is most likely to be the reason for this? A. Temperature variations across the cylinder cover result in uneven thermal loads on the studs. B. Pressure variations in the cylinder result in uneven mechanical loads on the cylinder cover studs. C. The last of the cylinder cover stud nuts need to be tightened more to even out the load on the cylinder cover gasket. D. The cylinder cover stud nuts that are most awkward to get at are always tightened more in case they become loose during engine operation.

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144. For a Nitrite - Borate based cooling water treatment system, what would be considered to be the normal nitrite concentration limits for a correctly dosed system? A. 1500-3000 ppm Nitrite. B. 0-1500 ppm Nitrite. C. 3000-4500 ppm Nitrite. D. 4500-6000 ppm Nitrite.

145. How do we recognize a leaking fuel injection valve during testing? A. The pressure falls off on the pressure gauge when trying to hold the pressure in the injector below normal opening set pressure. B. The injector does not open at the normal opening set pressure. C. The injector opens before normal opening set pressure. D. Fuel oil leaks out of the joint between the nozzle and the injector body.

146. How often should water testing of a diesel engine cooling water system be carried out to check treatment levels and water condition during normal engine operation? A. Once a week. B. Once a day. C. It doesn't matter as water condition for diesel engine cooling systems is not important. D. Once a month.

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147. Some engine manufacturers recommend that water washing of the compressor side of a diesel engine turbocharger using chemical cleaners is no longer carried out. Why is water washing no longer considered good practice? A. It can cause fouling of the charge air cooler with wet sludge lodging between the fins. B. It uses too much water as the chemicals have to be flushed through. C. It leads to corrosion of the compressor casing and parts. D. The chemicals are too expensive.

148. What is meant by the term 'feel over sequence' as applied to diesel engine operation following replacement of a crankshaft bearing? A. Stopping the engine to check the bearing temperature after a short period of operation and repeating this procedure at increasing running intervals. B. Stop the engine after 2 hours running to check the bearing temperature by running the hand over it. C. Running the engine at low load and gradually increasing the load over a period of 12 hours. D. Using the hand to feel for any loose fastenings or sharp edges before starting the engine.

149. What is the main purpose for taking diesel engine crankshaft deflections? A. To check for weardown of the main bearings. B. To check that the shafting is in a straight line. C. To check for weardown of the bottom end bearings. D. To allow calculation of the load on each of the bearings.

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150. What is the main reason for routine testing of the cooling water in a diesel engine cooling system? A. To ensure that the correct levels of chemical treatment are maintained at all times B. To detect the presence of contaminants in the water C. To detect dissolved oxygen in the water D. To measure the pH - value of the water

151. What is the most important task after carrying out any major overhaul on a diesel engine? A. a thorough check inside the engine to make sure all tools and cleaning rags have been removed. B. Start the engine to check the direction of rotation. C. Start the auxiliary blower to ventilate the engine so that it has sufficient fresh air for starting. D. Repair any damaged paint work on the engine.

152. What precautions should be taken, in addition to shutting the main air start valve, if work is to be carried out inside the main diesel engine crankcase? A. Engage the turning gear and put a notice at each engine control position. B. Engage the turning gear and close every valve on the starting air receivers. C. Engage the turning gear, stop the starting air compressors and drain the air receivers. D. Keep a man posted in the control room to stop anyone who tries to start the engine.

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153. Why do diesel engine manufacurers usually recommend that all of the gaskets are renewed when refitting a cylinder cover? A. To minimise risk of gas leakage and ensure correct clearance between piston and cylinder cover. B. It will guarantee a good seal even if the sealing faces are damaged. C. To increase the consumption of parts so they can make more money D. To avoid the need to clean the sealing faces.

154. Why do some diesel engine manufacturers recommend machining the valve spindle sealing surface with a half degree difference to the valve seat angle? A. To improve valve sealing by compensating for pressure and temperature effects on the valve during engine operation.. B. To improve valve sealing by compensating for expansion of the valve during high temperature operation. C. To improve valve sealing by increasing contact force by reducing contact area between valve and seat. D. To minimize heat transfer between valve and valve seatz

155. A simple level control for a water tank consists of a horizontal lever with a float at one end and a filling valve at the other. The lever is provided with an adjustable pivot positioned between the valve and the float. How will the 'offset' in the system be affected under changing demand conditions if the pivot is moved closer to the filling valve? A. It will increase the offset across the demand range. B. It will increase the offset on high demand but reduce it on low demand. C. It will reduce the offset throughout the demand range. D. It will reduce the offset on low demand but increase it during high demand.

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156. A vapour compression refrigeration system is usually fitted with a number of devices to give protection and control of the system. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test the high pressure cut out during routine maintenance and checking of the system? A. Gradually shut in the condenser cooling water valve or the condenser refrigerant inlet valve while closely monitoring the compressor discharge pressure. B. Charge the system with refrigerant until the high pressure cut out operates. C. Manually close each of the evaporator coils by switching off the electrical supply to the liquid line solenoid shut off valves and monitor the condenser pressure. D. Close the condenser outlet valve and closely monitor the condenser pressure.

157. During maintenance of a pneumatically operated, diaphragm actuated control valve the diaphragm is found to be split. Select, from the options given, a suitable material to use to make a temporary replacement if there is no spare diaphragm available. A. Natural rubber sheet of approximately the same thickness and elasticity as the original diaphragm material. B. Natural rubber sheet of greater thickness and lower elasticity as the original diaphragm material. C. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of approximately the same thickness but less elasticity than the original diaphragm material. D. Cotton reinforced rubber insertion sheet of smaller thickness but similar strength as the original diaphragm material.

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158. During maintenance work on a compensated mechanical hydraulic governor air is drawn in to the hydraulic circuit after draining and flushing out the unit. Which of the actions given in the options is most likely to assist in the removal of the air from the system? A. With the governor in operation open the compensation needle valve to introduce instability and disturb the engine load to make the governor hunt. B. Drain the governor again and slowly refill with fresh oil. C. With the governor in operation close the compensation needle valve and disturb the load to make the engine hunt. D. Overfill the governor with fresh oil to force all of the air out.

159. Following replacement of a diesel alternator governor the machine is test run on load. It is found that as the load is gradually increased the voltage and the frequency gradually fall to an unacceptable level. The governor is a mechanical hydraulic type. Select from the options given the correct adjustment to make to correct the situation. A. The governor droop should be reduced. B. The governor droop should be increased. C. The governor load limit should be reduced. D. The governor load limit should be increased.

160. The refrigeration system for the ships provisions consists of a number of cold rooms served by a central refrigeration system. The evaporator coils for the vegetable room are found to be frosting up even though the room is down to temperature and the liquid line valve has closed. Select, from the options given, the automatic control component which is likely to be malfunctioning and so cause this condition. A. Back pressure control valve. B. Thermostatic expansion valve for the meat room. C. The low pressure cut out for the compressor. D. The liquid line valve for the flour room.

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161. The Ziegler-Nichols method is used in control engineering when setting up the system. Which of the system components given in the options would this method be applied to during initial set up? A. PID controller for tuning. B. Valve and actuator to set the span of travel. C. Valve positioner to optimise speed of operation. D. Sensing unit to set the range.

162. What could be the cause of a refrigeration compressor running continuously even though normal temperatures for the cold rooms have been reached? A. Low-pressure cut-out is stuck in closed position. B. The differential pressure switch for the lubricating oil pressure cut-out is stuck in the closed position. C. High-pressure cut-out is stuck in open position. D. Solenoid valve before the expansion valve stuck in closed position.

163. With the set point at the actual desired value, a temperature control system is giving an unacceptably large offset (difference between set point and measured value) on high load resulting in a low system temperature. Which of the actions given in the options should be taken to reduce this effect and therefore achieve closer control of the temperature? A. Reduce the width of the proportional band for the controller. B. Increase the width of the proportional band for the controller. C. Increase the set point to a value above the actual desired value D. Crack open the manual bypass valve for the control valve.

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164. A deadweight tester is used to check and calibrate a pressure gauge. The tester consists of a hydraulic pump and a hydraulic chamber and balance weight system. After completing the calibration of the pressure gauge the hydraulic pressure should be relieved before removing the weights. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this requirement. A. To protect the piston in the hydraulic system from possible impact damage as it may reach the end of its stroke. B. To protect the pressure gauge from a surge in pressure as the weights are removed. C. To protect the hydraulic balance system from a pressure surge as the weights are removed. D. To protect the hydraulic pump from a pressure surge as the weights are removed.

165. A power card taken from a diesel engine cylinder using a mechanical indicator has a flat top. Which of the possible actions given in the options is most likely to correct this irregularity on the power card? A. Change the indicator spring for one with a higher rating. B. Lengthen the cord for the indicator drum drive. C. Shorten the cord for the indicator drum drive. D. Lubricate the indicator piston and cylinder.

166. A pressure gauge of the bourdon tube type is reading incorrectly and shows 2 bar when the pressure in the system is zero. There is no spare available. Which of the options would be the best temporary remedy for this situation? A. Use a deadweight tester to mark a new scale on the gauge throughout the working range. B. Subtract 2 bar from the gauge reading when checking the pressure. C. Remove the indicator needle and reposition it to read zero when the system is unpressurised. D. Bend the bourdon tube so that a zero reading is 1497

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obtained when the system is unpressurised.

167. A standard outside micrometer requires regular maintenance, including calibration, in order to ensure accuracy of measurement. How is the accuracy of this type of instrument normally checked? Select the answer from the options given. A. By measuring a standard gauge block or rod at a common temperature. B. By trying a go/no go gauge between the micrometer anvil and spindle at maximum opening at a common temperature. C. By checking the distance between micrometer anvil and spindle with an inside vernier gauge. D. By checking the distance between the micrometer anvil and spindle with an inside micrometer.

168. As part of the regular maintenance for a paramagnetic oxygen analyser used for measuring the oxygen content of exhaust gas it is important to keep the sample line filter as clean as possible. Why is this necessary with this type of instrument? A. Pressure variations in the sample chamber can cause errors so restrictions must be kept to a minimum. B. A high flow rate is required in order to deflect the sensing element. C. The filter may rupture due to the high pressures generated by the sample pump. D. The pressure drop across the filter may damage the sampling pump.

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169. Compressed air for instrument and control purposes needs to be of high quality. In order to condition the air filter modules are usually fitted to remove the contaminants. If there is evidence of oil carry over to the final elements in the instrumentation air system what is the most likely cause? A. The coalescer module is saturated and requires renewal. B. The drier section of the module needs to be regenerated. C. The particle removal module is choked. D. The air compressor piston rings need to be renewed.

170. Vibration analysis is often used as a conditioning monitoring tool onboard ship as part of the approved planned maintenance system. Many vibration measuring instruments are fitted with a harmonic filter/analyser. How would these filters normally be used during vibration measurement on a centrifugal pump? A. To isolate a single frequency of vibration associated with one of the pumps components. B. To sum up all the harmonics of a base frequency to give total vibration for all of the pump's components simultaneously. C. To block out any noise or vibration from the surrounding engine room. D. To generate an audible sound signal at the same frequency and amplitude as the vibration.

171. When checking the zero point on a combustible gas indicator that is to be used to detect hydrocarbon gases in an empty cargo tank which method should be used from the options given? A. Pass fresh air through the sample chamber. B. Pass oxygen gas through the sample chamber C. Pass methane gas through the sample chamber. D. Pass carbon monoxide gas through the sample chamber.

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172. Wich of the methods given in the options should be used as part of the check of the accuracy of a liquid filled thermometer used in the cold rooms of the ships provisions stores? A. Immerse the thermometer in a mixture of distilled water and ice made from distilled water to check the zero reading. B. Place the thermometer in a hole drilled into a block of ice to check the zero reading. C. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading matches the thermostat setting when the liquid line valve closes. D. Place the thermometer in the meat room and check the reading when the refrigeration compressor cuts out.

173. Which of the methods given in the options should be used to test a remote reading temperature gauge for the auxiliary boiler exhaust gas? A. Check the resistance change in the sensor over a known temperature range against the resistance values in the product sheet. B. Place the sensor in a test tank of water fitted with a heater element and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different temperatures. C. Place the sensor in a test tank of oil fitted with a heater element and thermometer and check the temperature gauge at different temperatures. D. Fit a spare temperature gauge and see if the readings are the same.

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174. Which of the methods given in the options will give the most accurate test of the accuracy of a bourdon tube type pressure gauge with a range of 0 to 20 bar? A. Check the gauge on a deadweight tester. B. Compare it with the reading from a similar gauge connected to the same pressure source. C. Use the fuel injector test pump to check the readings against the test rig master gauge. D. Check the readings against the output gauge from a pressure regulator by connecting it to a regulated test supply.

175. With reference to the installation of pressure gauges for steam systems. Complete the following statement from the options given. To protect a bourdon tube type pressure gauge which is to be fitted to a steam line it should …. A. ..be fitted with a siphon loop between it and the steam pipe. B. ..have its casing filled with water. C. ..be fitted directly to the steam pipe. D. ..be fitted to the steam pipe using a flexible hose

176. A tank containing hydrocarbon residues requires manual cleaning by use of shovels, scrapers etc. Which of the following is the correct procedure to follow? A. Open and ventilate the tank, test oxygen content, have someone standing by with rescue equipment, complete a permit to work and a tank entry permit and then commence work. B. Open and ventilate the tank, have someone standing by outside the tank and then commence work. C. Open the tank, provide ventilation and then commence work immediately. D. Open the tank , have someone standing by outside the tank and commence working.

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177. Every person onboard ship has a responsibility for safety and security. General house-keeping rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the most important onboard a tanker? A. Never carry lighters or matches on the tank deck. B. Always use the handrails when going up or down ladders. C. Always wear safety shoes on deck.. D. Always use gloves when operating portable grinders and chipping machines.

178. If the oxygen content in an enclosed space is less than 20% and a non-essential routine inspection of the space is due which of the following is the correct course of action? A. Postpone the inspection until the correct oxygen content can be achieved. B. Wear breathing apparatus while carrying out the inspection. C. Carry out the inspection as quickly as possible. D. Release oxygen into the space from an oxygen cylinder.

179. On a UMS vessel gas welding operations in the work shop are to be stopped for a lunch break. Which of the following actions should be carried out prior to taking the break? A. The main supply valves in the deck storage are closed and checks made that no fire risk exists prior to switching on the fire alarm system and going to UMSmode. B. The local acetylene/oxygen valve in the work shop is closed prior to switching to UMS-mode C. No precautions are necessary for a short break in operations. D. One of the ratings is left "on watch" during the lunch break. 1502

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180. Sounding pipes in the engine room are normally fitted with deadweight cocks and screw caps. Which of the following statements is correct? A. Caps and cocks should be closed at all times, except when sounding tanks, to prevent ingress of water or oil into the engine room in case of tank bottom damage or overflow. B. Caps should be placed on top of sounding pipes to keep the engine room tidy. C. Deadweight cocks should be fastened in the open position to save time when sounding the tanks. D. It does not matter where the cocks/caps are unless the tank is in use.

181. Under what circumstances would you remove guards and safety devices from machinery? A. During overhaul and maintenance procedures. B. When the safety devices keep stopping the machinery C. To allow the shaft to be seen to confirm the machine is running. D. When they are rattling and vibrating.

182. What action is required if the crankcase relief valve on an air compressor is operating and emitting an air and oil mixture? A. Overhaul the compressor unit. B. Increase the lift pressure of the relief valve. C. Place a drip can beneath the valve to collect any escaping oil. D. Increase the flow of cooling water to the compressor and intercooler.

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183. What action should you take if you have a flash-back during gas welding? A. Close the regulator valves immediately, oxygen first. B. Run for your life. C. Use a portable fire extinguisher. D. Cool the bottles down with water.

184. What is generally considered as the minimum safe time period before opening a crankcase door after the oil mist detector alarm has activated and the engine has been stopped? A. After at least 20 minutes B. After at least 1 hour C. After at least 5 minutes D. After at least 10 minutes

185. What precautions should be taken for the deck covering in a steering gear room where hydraulic oil is in use? A. Coat the deck with non slip paint and use duck boards provided with drainage. B. Cover the deck with sawdust. C. Cover the deck with sand. D. No special precautions are required.

186. What should you do if you are in the engine room and the alarm for "CO2 release into the engine room" sounds? A. Leave the engine room immediately. B. Start the fire pump. C. Immediately go for the nearest fire extinguisher. D. Wait to make sure that the CO2-system is discharging into the engine room before leaving.

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187. When the engine room crane is to be utilised for lifting or lowering a piece of equipment to the lower decks through access hatches designed specifically for the purpose, there are certain measures that should be taken. What are they? A. Securely rope off the area around open hatches and post notices at the site. B. Post a notice in the engine control room. C. Post a notice at the crane controls. D. Put some black and yellow tape on the deck close to the open hatch.

188. When using portable ladders during work activities onboard a ship what precautions should be taken. A. Secure the ladder top and bottom and have a shipmate standing by while you are working on the ladder. B. Prop the ladder against a suitable pipe and have a shipmate hold the ladder while you are working on it. C. Just secure the top of the ladder once you reach the top. D. Use a safety belt/harness and secure it to the ladder.

189. Which of the following pump types could be damaged if the discharge valve is closed before the motor is stopped? A. Gear pump B. Propeller pump C. Centrifugal pump D. Turbine pump

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190. Which preparations and precautions are necessary before "hot work" commences onboard ship? A. Follow all ISM procedures relating to hot work including permit to work and hotwork permit requirements. B. Notify all persons onboard at least 24 hours in advance of the work commencing. C. Just inform the Chief Engineer that the work is going to be carried out D. Sound the general alarm before commencing work.

191. Why may wearing sweat rags slung round your neck when working in the machinery spaces be hazardous? A. The rags may be caught by running machinery or power tools. B. The rags may be soaked with oil and catch fire. C. The rags may cause sweat rash. D. The rags may cause you to get too hot and faint.

192. Why should engine and boiler rooms be kept clean and any oil spillage cleaned up immediately? A. To reduce risk of fire and the risk of slipping. B. To avoid being fined by the port state control. C. To prevent oil spillage from damaging deck paint coatings. D. To reduce the premium to be paid to the insurance company.

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10. Menjamin dipenuhinya persyaratan-persyaratan pencegahan pencemaran. (Ensure compliancewith pollution preventionrequirements) 1. The discharge of oily mixtures is not allowed within special areas unless, with exemption of processed engine room bilge water, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ? A. II, IV, V, VII, VIII B. I, IV, V, VIII, IX C. I, IV, VI, VII, IX D. II, III, V, VIII, IX

2. The oil record book for machinery space operations shall be completed on a tank to tank basis whenever which of these operations take place ? A. III, IV, VI, VII B. I, II, III, VII C. I, II, IV, V D. II, IV, V, VI

3. Amongst other things, Part 1 of the Oil Record Book shows which of these ? A. Period over which the IOPP certificate is valid B. Period from …………. To ………….. C. Operational procedures and remarks D. Master's name as well of the person relieving him against date

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4. Which of these items must be recorded in the Oil Record Book -Part I, concerning the disposal of oil residues (Sludges) ? A. II, III, IV B. I, II, VI C. I, Ill, VI D. I, II

5. Which of these items concerning non-automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ? A. I, Ill, VI B. III, IV,

V

C. II, III D. II, VI

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6. Which of these items concerning the operation of machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ? A. III, VI, VII B. II, III, V, VII C. II, V, VI D. II, IV, VI, VII

7. Which of these items concerning automatic discharge overboard of bilge water from machinery spaces must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ? A. I, II, V, VI B. I, IV, V, VII C. II, IV, VI, VII D. II, Ill, V, VII

8. Mat entries must be made in the Oil Record Book - Part I (machinery space operations) about the condition of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control system ? A. The time when the system was started and the time when the system was stopped B. The time when the system was started and stopped, the ships speed and the ppm of the affluent discharged C. The time of system failure, the time that it was made operational again and the reason for failure D. The time when the system was started and the time when it was stopped and the ppm of the effluent discharged 1508

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9. Which of these items concerning accidental or other exceptional discharges of oil must be recorded in the Oil Record Book - Part I ? A. I, II, V,

VII

B. I, II, III, V C. I, III, IV,VI D. I, II, V, VI

10. Handling fuel oils without proper care can lead to A. overflow, pollution and gas formation. B. gassing up, asphyxia and explosion. C. fire or overflow. D. explosion, fire and pollution. 11. Basic procedures for bunkering operations on all ships require that……should personalty supervise all bunkering operations. A. the 2nd engineer B. the master C. the chief engineer D. a responsible person

12. Bunkering procedures for all ships require that communication should be maintained with the shorelbarge staff in charge of the transfer ? A. continuous B. intermittent C. frequent D. occasional

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DPKP

13. Bunkering procedures on all ships require that the deck officer on watch be informed prior to the starting of bunkering. This is because …… A. the bunkering flag has to be hoisted and the oil spill recovery team put on stand-by. B. appropriate precautions have to betaken by the deck department C. the time needs to be recorded exactly. D. The is responsible for all communication with the shore or barge.

14. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because A. the oily water separator filters were found dirty. B. the sludge tank was found full level. C. the engine room bilges were found dirty. D. The engineroombilgelineswerefounddirty.

15. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because A. an oil film was found in the overboard discharge pipe of the oily bilge water separator. B. oil was found leaking from the main/auxiliary engines crankcase doors. C. an oily mixture was found in the internals of the bilge pump. D. lubricating oil was transferred in port.

16. What maximum oil content must oiliwater separators generally discharge? A. 600ppm B. 1000ppm C. 100ppm D. 50ppm

17. What maximum oil content may be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A. 0ppm B. 25ppm C. 50ppm D. l5ppm 1510

DPKP

18. Under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged overboard in 'Special Areas'? A. Only in a case of emergency. B. If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out. C. When proceeding Full Ahead. D. During the hours of darkness.

19. What happens if the separator oil content exceeds the equipment allowable level? A. A visible alarm. B. The discharge is dumped to the bilge C. An audible alarm. D. The pump is stopped and an alarm sounds.

20. What pollution certification must deep-sea vessels possess? A. Safety Construction certificate. B. IOPP certificate C. MCA pollution certificate. D. Lloyd's Machinery survey certificate

21. What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book? A. Record fuel consumption. B. Record quantity of fuel onboard. C. Record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges. D. Record oily bilge levels.

22. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that………. A. the tanker is within a Special Area. B. the tanker is not within a Special Area C. the tanker is within a Designated Zone D. the tanker is not within a Designated Zone

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23. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for an oil tanker is that………… A. the tanker is more than 50 nautical mites from the nearest land. B. the tanker is more than 25 nautical miles from the nearest land. C. the tanker is more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest land. D. the tanker is more than 100 nautical miles from the nearest land.

24. Any discharge of oil into the sea is prohibited except when some conditions are satisfied. One of these conditions for a tanker is that ………. A. the tanker is en route. B. the tanker is in ballast condition. C. the tanker is tank cleaning. D. the tanker is loaded.

25. For existing tankers the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea should be no more than ……..of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. A. 1/25000 B. 1/100000 C. 1/15000 D. 1/50000 26. The instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content of a tanker shall not exceed… A. 120 litres per nautical mile B. 100 litres per nautical mile C. 75 litres per nautical mile D. 30 litres per nautical mile

27. For new tankers, the total quantity of oil discharged into the sea shall not exceed ….. of the total quantity of the particular cargo of which the residue formed part. A. 1/10000 B. 1/15000 C. 1/25000 D. 1/30000 1512

DPKP

28. What is the meaning of the term "Combination Carrier " ? A. A ship designed to carry either oil products or crude oil in bulk or in parcels B. A cargo ship that has product oil tanks, example Palm Oil Tanks C. A general term for vessels carrying more than one kind of cargo, example reefer-container, log-bulk etc. D. A ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

29. According to Marpol, what does the term "oil "mean ? A. Petroleum in any form including crude oil, fuel oil, sludge oil, oil refuse and refined products B. Any grade of crude oil or fuel oil C. Any grade of crude oil, fuel oil or refined products D. Any grade of crude oil

30. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oily mixture " ? A. A mixture with oil content above 100 ppm B. A mixture with oil content above 50 ppm C. A mixture with any oil content D. A mixture with oil content above 15 ppm

31. Under Marpol, can a chemical tanker be considered an oil tanker ? A. Yes, when it is carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk B. Yes, when it is carrying petrochemicals C. Yes D. No

32. According to Marpol, what is the meaning of the term "oil fuel" ? A. A cargo of Heavy Fuel Oil , Intermediate Fuel or Diesel Oil B. A cargo of refined oil with flashpoint above 60 degree C C. Any oil used on board in connection with the propulsion and auxiliary machinery D. A cargo of refined oil for combustible purpose in thermal machinery or boilers

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33. Does the definition of an "oil tanker "applies to a gas carrier ? A. Yes, when carrying chemicals or petrochemicals B. No, it is not C. Yes, it is D. Yes, when carrying a cargo or part cargo of oil in bulk

34. According to Marpol, what does the term "new ship" mean ? A. A ship for which the keel was laid or was in any similar stage of construction after 30 June 1976 B. A ship for which the building contract was placed after 31 December 1995 C. A ship which was delivered after 31 December 1979 D. All of these.

35. What does the 'instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content "mean according to Marpol ? A. The total quantity of oil discharged at any moment B. The rate of oil discharge in litres per hour at any instant divided by the speed of the ship in knots at the same instant C. The total quantity of oil discharged divided by the mileage covered during the time of discharge by the ship D. The total rate of oil discharged per hour divided by 3600

36. What is the best description of a "special area" as defined by Marpol ? A. An area with a particular traffic characteristics where extra precautions are required B. A sea area where for recognised oceanographical and ecological conditions and in view of traffic special prevention is required C. An ecological endangered area where no oil mixture is to be discharged at anytime D. A sea area where in view of its particular dense traffic no overboarddischarged of any oily mixture is allowed

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DPKP

37. What is the meaning of "slop tank" as defined by Marpol ? A. A tank used for tank cleaning provided with heating coils B. The two most aftward fitted wing tanks or the most aftward fated centre tank C. Any tank where slops or sludges are collected D. A tank specifically designed for the collection of tank D drainings, washings or other oily mixtures

38. Which description given below is nearest to the description of clean ballast as defined by Marpol ? A. Its oil content is no more than 100 ppm and it will not produce visible traces on the shore lines. B. Its oil content is NIL and consequently would not leave any traces upon the surface of the water or emulsion beneath the water surface. C. Its oil content is no more than 50 ppm and will not produce visible traces on adjoining shorelines, nor emulsion in the sea. D. If discharged from a ship stationary in clean calm water on a clear day will not produce visible traces of oil on the water surface nor emulsion below

39. Which answer is nearest to the Marpol description of segregated ballast ? A. The clean ballast water which can only be pumped via segregated lines by the clean ballast pump B. Ballast water that cannot be pumped through cargo oil piping and for which cargo pumps cannot be used C. The ballast carried in the clean ballast tank via the segregated ballast pump D. The ballast water introduced in a tank which is completely separated from cargo or fuel oil system and permanently allocated to ballast

40. In order for a tanker to be called a "new oil tanker "according to Marpol, the date on its building contract would read…………… A. after 1st January 1981. B. after 31st of December 1980. C. after 1st June 1982. D. after 1st June 1979.

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DPKP

41. Marpol defines Crude Oil as

………….

A. a liquid hydrocarbon from which certain distillate fractions were removed. B. liquid hydrocarbon to which certain distillate fractions ere added. C. a non-treated liquid hydrocarbon mixture from which C neither distillate fractions were removed nor added. D. a liquid hydrocarbon mixture occurring naturally whether treated or not irrespective of whether distillate fractions were removed or added. 42. Every oil tanker of ….. tons gross tonnage and above and every other ship of tons gross tonnage and above shall be subject to Marpol (IOPP) surveys. A. 500,1000 B. 400, 700 C. 150, 400 D. 250, 500

43. The initial Marpol (10PP) survey carried out before a ship enters service in order to ensure compliance with the applicable regulations shall include

…………

A. a complete survey of all wing tanks, centre tanks, stop tanks. B. a complete survey of the associate pumping and piping systems, including oil-discharging monitoring system, oil tittering and separating systems. C. a complete survey of all piping. D. a complete survey of its structure, equipment, fittings, systems arrangements and materials in so far as the ship is covered by this Annex.

44. Periodical Marpol surveys are to be carried out at intervals as specified by the administration. These intervals are not to exceed………….. A. two and a half years. B. three years. C. two years. D. five years.

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45. At least one survey must to be carried out during the validity of the IOPP certificate. This shall ensure that the equipment, pumps and piping systems including ODME are in order. What is this survey called ? A. The Annual survey B. The Special survey C. The Intermediate survey D. The Midterm survey

46. Marpol permits additional inspections in order to ensure that the ship and its equipment remain in all respects satisfactory for service. What are these inspections called ? A. Annual Inspections B. Unscheduled inspections C. Obligatory inspections D. Special surveys

47. If Mandatory annual surveys are established by the Administration, how will it effect unscheduled Inspections carried out according to Marpol ? A. The unscheduled inspections shall no longer be obligatory B. Only one unscheduled inspection per year is required C. Unscheduled inspections are required once every two years D. Two unscheduled inspections are required during a 5-year period

48. Who may carry out MARPOL surveys ? A. Approved ship's officers B. Port-State Control Inspectors C. Coast Guard Inspectors D. Surveyors nominated by Administrations or organisations recognised by Administrations

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DPKP

49. Who may carry out Marpol Inspections ? A. Officers authorised by the Government having jurisdiction over the port in which the ship is located, generally referred to as Port State Inspectors. B. All of these. C. Surveyors nominated by recognised organisations. D. Coast Guard officers. 50. What is the meaning of a “harmful substance" under Marpol ? A. Petroleum products and petrochemicals B. Hydrocarbons in any form C. Any substance creating harm to health and life or able to damage amenities. D. Oils and fuels

51. What does "discharge" means in relation to harmful substances as defined by Marpol ? A. Dumping or disposal from the ship B. Spilling, leaking or escape from the ship C. Pumping, emptying or emitting from a ship D. Any release how ever caused

52. What is the meaning of an incident" according to Marpol ? A. The actual discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances B. B

The probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture

C. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance or effluents containing such substances D. The actual or probable discharge into the sea of oil or of an oily mixture 53. Penalties under the Law for violation of Marpol requirements shall be….. A. adequate in severity to discourage violations and shall be equally severe irrespective of where the violation occurs. B. imposed by all countries, the severity depends on where the violation occurs. C. imposed to warn against the global problem of pollution. D. in all cases most severe. 1518

DPKP

54. To what administrative matter must you comply with if an incident under Marpol occurs ? A. A report shall be made without delay to the fullest extent in accordance with Marpol Protocol 1. B. A report of the incident is to be made to the vessel's Administration. C. You are to write a full report of the incident to the vessels owners or managers. D. You are to note this incident in the Log Book. 55. A new oil tanker of less than 20,000 tons deadweight may be designated as… A. a product / chemical carrier B. a crude oil I product carrier C. a product carrier D. a crude oil tanker

56. Anew oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight and above which satisfy the requirements for Segregated Ballast Tanks with Protective location as well as COW may be designated as a …… A. product carrier B. crude oil / product carrier C. crude oil tanker D. petrochemical / product carrier

57. A new oil tanker of 20,000 tons or above satisfying the requirements SBT and PL, but not fitted with COW should be designated as a …..….on the IOPP certificate. A. crude oil 1 product carrier B. crude oil tanker C. product carrier D. petrochemical tanker

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DPKP

58. New oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above but less than 30,000 tons dwt NOT fitted with SBT and PL should be designated as a …….on the IOPP certificate. A. crude oil tanker B. crude oil / product carrier C. petrochemical tanker D. product carrier

59. stew oil tankers of 70,000 dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT may be designed as a …………….on the IOPP certificate. A. crude oil /product carrier B. product oil carrier C. crude oil / petrochemical tanker D. crude oil tanker

60. How would existing oil tankers of less than 40,000 tons dwt be designated on the IOPP certificate ? A. As a product carrier B. As a crude oil tanker C. As a crude oil / product carrier D. As a crude oil / petrochemical tanker

61. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above satisfying the requirements of SBT, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ? A. Product carrier B. Crude oil tanker C. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker D. Crude oil / product carrier

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DPKP

62. For existing tankers of 40,000 tons dwt and above fitted only with a COW system, what should their designation be on the IOPP certificate ? A. Product carrier B. Crude Oil / product carrier C. Crude oil tanker D. Crude oil / petrochemical tanker

63. Discharge of oily mixtures from machinery space bilges of tankers are prohibited except when, amongst other requirements, which of the following equipment is fitted ? A. An Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment B. Interface oily water detector C. A 50 ppm Bilge Water Separator with alarm system D. A 15 ppm oily bilge water separator with alarm system

64. When shall the IOPP Certificate cease to be valid ? A. Any one of these B. If significant alterations have taken place to materials without sanction C. If significant alterations have taken place for fittings, equipment or arrangements without sanction D. If significant alterations have taken place in the ships construction without sanction

65. When alterations to ships construction, equipment, materials , fittings or arrangements are carried out without sanction the IOPP certificate ceases to be valid. What is the exception ? A. Improvement in ships construction B. The direct replacement of equipment and fittings C. Modification of arrangements as long as purpose and ay-out does not deviate from Marpol requirements D. Replacement of monitoring equipment as long as it is

approved by the

Administration

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DPKP

66. What are the consequences if an IOPP intermediate survey is not carried out as specified ? A. The IOPP certificate remains valid, but when the overdue survey is carried out, the stringency will depend on the duration of the elapsed time B. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid and a survey corresponding to the requisite survey is to be carried out . C. The IOPP certificate shall cease to be valid when the C survey is 3 months overdue D. The IOPP certificate remains valid, however an

unscheduled inspection is

to be carried out by the Port State inspection of the country of call

67. Amongst other requirements, what kind of arrangement is required for a tanker in order to be allowed to discharge oily mixtures into the sea ? A. Segregated ballast tanks B. 15 ppm oil filtering equipment C. Double hulls D. A slop tank arrangement

68. An oil tanker is prohibited from discharging oily mixtures into the sea except when certain conditions are satisfied. Which of the conditions mentioned here must be satisfied ?

A. II,

III,

V,

VII,

IX,

X,

XI

B. II, III, VIII, IX,

X,

XII

C. II,

IV

,

VI,

VIII,

X,

XII

D. I,

IV,

V,

VII,

VIII,

X,

XII 1522

DPKP

69. A ship other than tanker of 000grt and above, but less than 10,0000, cannot discharge oily mixtures from machinery spaces, unless certain conditions are satisfied. Which of these conditions must be satisfied ?

A. II, IV, VIII B. II, V, VII C. II, III,

VI

D. I, IV, VI

70. What is the oil content of a mixture which may be discharged into the sea when the ship is not in a special area ? A. 100 ppm B. 50 ppm C. less than 15 ppm D. 15 ppm

71. Is it permitted to introduce dillutants or to apply other chemical treatment to oily mixtures prior to discharge these into the sea ? A. Concentration of chemicals only 100 ppm B. Not allowed at all C. Oil dispersants are allowed D. Dillutants are allowed

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DPKP

72. Ships other than tankers of less than z100grt cannot discharge oil or oilymixtures while within a special area, except for the discharge of processed bilge water. To do this which of these conditions must be satisfied ? A. II,

IV,

V,

IX

B. II,

V,

VI,

IX

C. I,

Ill,

VI,

VIII

D. I,

IV,

VII,

VIII

73. Are the Marpol regulations governing discharge of oily mixtures applicable to issues of safety at sea ? A. They remain in force, only Government Organisations can decide to lift same in case of emergencies. B. They are not applicable when oil is released for the purpose of securing the safety of a ship or saving life at sea. C. They do not apply when life can be saved at sea at the cost of releasing oil in the water D. They remain in force at all times, they help promote safety as well.

74. The Marpol regulations prohibit discharges oil mixtures at sea. The regulations will not apply if the discharge is the result of damage arising from which items in this list ? A. I, IV B. IV, V C. II, V D. III, VI

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DPKP

75. Marpol regulations prohibit oily mixture discharges at sea. The regulations do not apply if the discharge is the result of damage to the ship or its equipment. What is the exception ? A. Damage to ship and equipment due operational error B. Crew negligence C. Intent to cause damage, or recklessly and with knowledge that damage could probably result D. Collision or groundings

76. It is possible to discharge substances containing oil, approved by the Administration, (eg. oil dispersants) for the purpose of combating specific pollution incidents, into the sea. Under which of these conditions ? A. II

IV

V

B. I,

II,

V

C. I,

III

D. III,

IV

77. For new tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above, the capacity of the segregated ballast tanks shall be such hat, at any part of the voyage, the ships draught and trim meet which of these requirements ? A. I,

Ill,

IV,

VI

B. I,

II,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

IV.

VII

D. I,

IV,

V,

VII

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DPKP

78. New tankers of 20,000 dwt and above shall in no case carry ballast water in cargo tanks, except when which of these circumstances arise ?

A. IV, V B. II,

V

C. III,

V

D. II,

V

79. For the purpose of determining the capacity of the clean ballast tanks in tankers, which tanks may be Included ? A. Cofferdams as well as segregated ballast tanks B. Segregated ballast tanks, fore and after peak tanks as well as cofferdams. C. Segregated ballast tanks only D. Fore and after peak tanks as well as segregated ballast tanks

80. Under which conditions are Fore Peak tanks, After Peak tanks and cofferdams allowed to be included in the total capacity determination of Cars for tankers ? A. Provided the protective location of the tanks is ensured B. Provided they are to be connected with permanent piping to the ballast water system C. Provided an oily separating system of 15 ppm is to be fitted on board D. Provided oil discharge monitoring equipment with automatic stop when 15 ppm level is exceeded is to be fitted

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DPKP

81. If a tanker with separate independent piping and pumps for CBT and operating with COW is to change its designation to product carrier and vice versa, which provisions will apply ? A. Two IOPP certificates are issued, only one valid at the time. No survey is required prior switching trades. Manual for both procedures required. B. The tanker needs to be surveyed each time its switches trade C. Crude oil is not allowed to be carried in tanks designated CBT in the crude oil trade D. The COW system needs to be blanked

82.If an oil tanker is used for the storage of oil and its machinery modified to immobilise the ship, what are the requirements for SOT, COT, PL and COW ? A. The requirements for SBT, PL and CBT do not apply B. The requirements for SBT do not apply C. The requirements for SBT and PL do not apply D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

83. hi an oil tanker is used to receive dirty ballast from oil tankers, what are the requirements for SBT, CBT, PL and COW ? A. The requirement for SET does not apply B. The requirements for SBT, PI and CET do not apply C. The requirement for SBT and PL do not apply D. The requirements for SBT, PL, CBT and COW do not apply

84. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with……. A. a crude oil washing system. B. two separate slop tanks. C. segregated ballast tanks and PL. D. an oil content meter.

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DPKP

85. The regulations for existing tankers for SBT, CBT and COW shall not apply if the tanker is engaged in specific trades provided reception facilities are existing in ports. What document is to be endorsed ? A. The oil record book B. The bill of lading C. The charter party D. The ship's IOPP certificate

86. Existing oil tankers which complies at all times with SBT draught and trim requirements without the use of ballast water, may be considered to comply with SBT requirements in full provided which of these items apply ?

A. II,

IV

V

B. I,

II,

VI

C. II,

V,

VI

D. III,

IV

VI

87. What is the purpose of Regulation 13 E - Rules for Protective Location of Segregated Ballast Tanks on Oil Tankers ? A. To provide a measure of protection against oil outflow in event of grounding or collision B. To facilitate trim and draught corrective operations on tankers C. To reduce the bending moments on tankers D. To reduce the shear forces on tankers

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DPKP

88. For Protective Location of Segregated ballast tanks, which of these items apply ? A. III,

V

VI,

VIII

B. I,

II,

VI,

VIII

C. II,

IV,

VI,

VII

D. I,

III,

VI,

VII

89. Regulation 14 of Marpol states that no ballast water shall be carried in any fuel oil tank. What is the exception ? A. Ships with special nature of trade which stay for long time at sea, for example: tugs, fishing boats B. For exceptional long voyages, when the ships bunkers are depleted and weather conditions are deteriorating C. If the double bottom fuel tank is ruptures, the fuel tank may be filled with ballast if stability requires this D. In case of voyage repairs being carried out on board ships

90. Under Marpol, can a ship carry oil in the Fore Peak Tank ? A. Only tugs B. No, not on any vessel C. Only fishing vessels D. Only tug boats and fishing vessels

91. Under Marpol, slop tanks shall have the capacity to retain the slop generated by tank washings, oil and dirty ballast residues. Their total capacity shall not be less than ….. % of the tank capacity. A. 2.5 B. 5 C. 3 D. 1

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DPKP

92. In an existing tanker, which tanks can be designated as slop tanks ? A. Any tank provided with adequate means for collecting dirty ballast residue and tank washings from the cargo tanks. B. Any tank separated form the ships' side by a distance of at least 3 metres C. Any tank fitted with overboard discharge facilities. D. Any tank closed to the atmosphere and fitted with an oily water separation filter. 93. At least two slop tanks are required for…….. A. new oil tankers of 20,000 tons dwt and above. B. new oil tankers of 70,000 tons dwt and above. C. new and existing oil tankers above 150,000 tons dwt. D. new oil tankers of 4.0,000 tons dwt and above.

94. Which of these are the requirements for an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System ?

A. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI,

VII

B. I,

II

III,

V,

VI,

VII,

VIII

C. I,

II,

III,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII,

D. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII,

VIII

VIII, IX

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DPKP

95. An Instruction Manual for Oil Retention and Oil Discharge Monitoring is required on board. This manual must mention all operations and …….. A. instructions to ensure that at no time oil shall be discharged. B. shall be approved by the Administration. C. all automatic operations. The manual shall be approved by the Administration. D. shall be approved by the Administration. It must contain instructions to ensure that no oil can be discharged except in compliance with regulations

96. No oil discharge monitoring equipment is to be fitted on tankers if trading in specific areas or within 50 miles from the nearest land provided that which of these items apply ?

A. I,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VIII

B. I,

II,

III,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VII

D. I,

II,

Ill,

V,

VII

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DPKP

97. Under Marpol, any ship of 10,000 tons gross and above shall be fitted with which of these items of equipment for oily-water separation and oily mixture discharges ? A. I B. Ill C. II D. IV

98. Any ship of 400 tons gross and above but less than 10000 tons, which does not carry ballast water in fuel oil tanks shall be fitted with a …….oil filtering equipment for engine bilge discharge. A. 100 ppm B. 15 ppm C. 30 ppm D. 150 ppm

99. Which of these design requirements must be met by oil filtering equipment fitted on ships of 10,000 grt and above ?

A. II,

Ill,

V,

VII

B. I,

Ill,

VI,

VII

C. I.

III,

V,

VI

D. I,

II,

III,

IV

1532

DPKP

100. Must the ship's Oil Record Book (part I or part II) be of Standard Format and/or may it be part of the ship's official Log Book ? A. It may be part of the ships official Log, its format is not standard but must contain the required information. B. It is no part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified. C. It is not part of the ship's official Log, its format is not standard but must contain all required information. D. It may be part of the ship's Log, its format is Standard as specified.

101. In the event of accidental or exceptional discharges (for example allowed discharge in order to save life), a statement shall be made in the oil record book explaining what ? A. The amount and the specifications of the oil discharged B. The circumstances of and the reasons for the discharge C. The report of the accident indicating precautions D. The amount discharged and the reasons for it

102. Each operation as specified by regulations must be noted in the oil record book without delay and…..….. A. The Chief Officer is to sign when the operations are completed and be countersigned by the Master. B. The entries match operations completed after which it is signed by the Master. C. When the operations are completed will be signed by the Officer or in charge during the time of the operation. D. Will be signed by the Officer or Officers in charge of the operation and each completed page will be signed by the Master.

103. Where is the Oil Record Book to be kept on board ? A. At a place where it is readily available B. In the ship's office C. On the bridge D. I the Master's cabin

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DPKP

104. Who can certified true copies of Oil Record Books ? A. A Notary Public B. The Master C. The Officers of the Flag State D. Port Authorities

105. Of the four categories of discharges associated with the operation of offshore platforms for which type or types is Marpol 73.(03 applicable ?

A. Type, I, Ill and IV B. Type I only C. Type IV only D. Type I and Type IV

106. Which of the following oils is not an asphalt solution ? A. Roofers Flux B. Blending Stocks C. Straight run residue D. Solvent

107. Which of the following products is not listed under "oils" in Appendix I of Marpol Annex I ? A. Clarified B. Road Oil C. Automotive D. Spindle oil

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DPKP

108. the following products is not listed as "gasoline blending stock" in Appendix I of Marpol AnnexI? A. Reformates B. Polymer fuel C. Flashed feed stock D. Alkylates fuel

109. Which of the following products is not listed under "gasolines" in Appendix I of Marpol AnnexI? A. Fuel oil No 1 D B. Fuel oil No 1 C. Fuel oil No 4 D. Fuel oil No 2

110. The Record of Construction and Equipment, has a chapter about Tanks for Oil Residues (Sludges). What information is recorded in this chapter ? A. The location and capacity of the sludge tanks B. The total tank capacity in m3 and the means for disposal of oil residue in addition to the provision of sludge tanks C. The number and capacity of sludge tanks and means of connection to open deck sludge connection D. The capacity of the sludge tanks and the pumping arrangements

111. The Record of Construction and Equipment for ships other than tanker contains information in Chapter II about oil discharge from the machinery space and fuel tanks. Which of these item are included ? A. II,

Ill,

IV,

VI,

VII

B. I.

II,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI,

C. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI,

VII

D. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VII

VII

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DPKP

112. If ships other than tankers have spaces constructed and utilised to carry oil in bulk of a capacity of

……. or more, the regulations of Annex I for oil tankers

applies. A. 100 T B. 400 T C. 500 cubic metres D. 200 cubic metres

113. There are 6 annexes to MARPOL 73R8 (Annex Ito VI). They dealing with pollution caused by A. I = Oil,

……..

II = Noxious liquid in bulk, III

=

Harmful

packaged

substances, IV = Sewage, V = Garbage, VI = Air pollution. B. I = Garbage, II = Air pollution,

Ill = Sewage, IV = Harmful packaged

substances, V = Noxious liquid in bulk, VI = Oil. C. I = Sewage, II = Noxious liquids in bulk, Ill = Oil, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Air pollution, VI = Garbage. D. I= Oil, II = Sewage, Ill = Garbage, IV = Harmful packaged substances, V = Noxious liquids in bulk, VI = Air pollution.

114. Annex II of Marpol 73/78 deals mainly with

……

A. the construction, ballast procedures, category of ballast and the operational procedures of petroleum tankers B. the pollution hazards from chemical tankers and their arrangementsfor discharge of cargo residues C. the labeling and packaging of harmful substances carried as packages D. the handling and discharge of garbage

1536

DPKP

115. Annex IV of Marpol, deals with Sewage. How does it affect shipboard operations concerning processing and treatment of sewage ? A. Only a collecting tank is required for all countries for the time being B. It is required by the United States only and an approved sewage plant must be installed on board C. Discharge is for the time being allowed anywhere as long a sewage plant is on board D. The regulations are not yet universally in force, but a number of countries have adapted them and have stingent regulations

116. How do the requirements of Marpol stand in relation to national or port regulations ? A. Only Japan and the United States have additional regulations to be complied with B. Only Australia has additional regulations to be complied with C. They are the same for any country which has ratified the Marpol convention D. national regulations in the ports visited may be more tingent and must be complied with

117. Marpol Annex IV concerning sewage is not yet in force, but a number of countries (example USA) have adapted it and have stringent regulations. The regulations concern which of these items ?

A. II,

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI

B. I,

II,

IV,

VI,

VIII

C. I,

Ill,

V,

VII,

VIII

D. I,

II,

Ill,

V,

VII 1537

DPKP

118. Which of these waters are the Special Areas as defined by Marpol Annex V ? A. I,

II,

III,

IV,

VI,

VIII,

X,

XIII

B. I,

II,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII,

X,

XIII

C. I,

III,

IV,

V,

VII,

IX,

X,

XIII

D. I,

II,

IV,

V,

VIII,

X,

XII,

XIII

119. According to Annex V of Marpol , no garbage can be thrown overboard inside the Special Areas. Which is the exception ? A. Paper, metal and glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore B. Glass ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 25 miles offshore C. Comminuted (ground up) food waste may be thrown overboard beyond 12 miles offshore D. Paper ground up to less than 25 mm beyond 12 miles offshore

120. Marpol garbage disposal regulations outside Special Areas specify that within 3 miles from the nearest land and in all inland waters………. A. you cannot throw plastics overboard. B. you cannot throw anything overboard. C. you cannot throw plastics, dunnage, lining and packing materials that float overboard. D. you cannot throw paper, crockery, rags, glass metal or food overboard unless ground to less than 25 mm.

121. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that dunnage, lining and packing materials that float

…….

A. maybe thrown overboard outside 3 miles offshore. B. may not be thrown overboard at anytime. C. may be thrown overboard outside 12 miles offshore. D. may be thrown overboard outside 25 miles offshore.

1538

DPKP

122. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, rags, metal , glass and food may be thrown overboard within 3 to 12 miles offshore, provided it is ground to less than

………in size.

A. 5mm B. 10mm C. 30 mm D. 25 mm 123. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that plastics…. A. cannot be thrown overboard at anytime B. cannot be thrown overboard within 12 miles offshore C. cannot be thrown overboard within 3 miles offshore D. cannot be thrown overboard within 25 miles offshore

124. Garbage disposal regulations outside special areas specify that paper, crockery, glass, metal, food and rags, bigger in size than 25 mm may only be thrown overboard outside ……. miles offshore. A. 3 B. 25 C. 12 D. 10

125. Marpol Annex V garbage disposal regulations outside special Areas specify the type of garbage which can be thrown overboard at a given distance offshore. Is this universally accepted ? A. Yes, except food, some countries have restrictions B. Yes, accepted by all states and regions C. Regional or state variations can further restrict the disposal of garbage D. Yes, except dunnage

1539

DPKP

126. Outside special areas there are three ways of disposing of garbage produced on board ships. From this list, choose the 3 ways ?

A. II,

Ill,

V

B. I,

IV,

V

C. I,

II,

IV

D. I,

III,

VI

127. Why is on board training important in relation to pollution prevention ? A. Because pollution related incidents are on the increase and all efforts are needed to reduce them B. Because many schools and training facilities are considered sub-standard C. Because MARPOL is not compulsory taught in nautical schools D. Because each ship has her own characteristics and equipment with which the new crew member must become familiar

128. How can an on board pollution prevention training program help the new crew member know clearly what is expected of him ? A. By teaching and pointing out to the new crew members which are the weak spots which may cause pollution B. By composing a realistic training program with special emphasis on the personal responsibilities and duties of the trainee C. By teaching the new crew member the requirements of Marpol concerning pollution of the seas D. By teaching him the risks of oil transferring operations (bunkers as well as cargo)

1540

DPKP

129. For on board pollution prevention training to work, it is important that

…..

A. a quite considerate amount of time is spent with the incoming new crew member for the first week on board B. the Master puts up a rigid discipline. C. the trainees have an adequate background in pollution control D. it is continuous and stresses safe, pollution free operations

130. Which of these items should be included in an on board pollution prevention training program?

A. I.

III,

V,

VI

B. I,

IV,

VI,

VII

C. I,

II,

V,

VII

D. II,

Ill,

IV,

VI

131. Which of these items can help make on board

pollution

prevention

training

effective ? A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VIII

B. I,

II,

IV,

V,

IX

C. I,

Ill,

V,

VII,

IX

D. I,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII

1541

DPKP

132. To prevent pollution you should look at how the operations that may lead to pollution are conducted on board of your ship and ask yourself 3 questions. What are these questions ?

A. I,

III,

V

B. I,

II,

III

C. II,

IV,

VI

D. I,

II,

V

133. Pick the flue operations, from this list, which when conducted on cargo ships may lead to a pollution incident ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I,

II,

Ill,

IV,

VI

C. I,

III,

V,

VII,

VIII

D. II,

IV,

V,

VII,

VIII

1542

DPKP

134. Permanently posted information and procedures concerning bunkering and transfer procedures should be available on board in a place where they can be easily seen and used. Where on board? A. Either on the bunker manifold values OR in the engine control room OR near the fuel oil transfer pumps B. Either on the bridge OR on deck, OR by the manifolds C. Either in the alleyways near the main entrance OR near the bunkers emergency shut off valves OR in the cargo — control room D. Either in the engine control room OR near the fuel transfer pumps OR in the emergency headquarters

135. There is potential for pollution when starting taking ballast on non-SBT tankers because oil may backflow into the sea via the sea chests. In order to prevent this a notice should be placed on the ballast pump. Which one ? A. FLUSH PIPING THROUGH PRIOR TO TAKING BALLAST B. START PUMP BEFORE OPENING SEA SUCTION C. ENSURE PIPING IS CLEANED PRIOR STARTING PUMP D. START PUMP WITH DISCHARGE VALVES CLOSED

136. Containment is critical when oil has spilled on deck. Pollution can be avoided if prompt action and careful preparation for containment is carried out. Which three of these items are vital ?

A. I,

II,

IV

B. I,

III,

IV

C. I,

III,

V

D. II,

IV,

V

1543

DPKP

137. In order to contain oil spills Gutter Bars (Fish Plates) should be regularly inspected to make sure that…….. A. the fastenings are not worn. B. the coating is intact. C. they have not developed cracks or holes. D. they are correctly fitting

138. Tank overflows while loading oil cargo or bunkering are one of the most common cases of oil pollution. Which flue of these items are the main preventive measures against tank overflow ?

A. II,

IV,

V,

VI,

VII

B. I.

Ill,

IV,

V,

VI

C. I,

II,

Ill,

VI,

VII

D. I,

Ill,

V,

VI,

VII

1544

DPKP

139. Topping off procedures during oil cargo loading or bunkering is a most critical operation. Which fire of these precautions or actions must be taken ?

A. I,

II,

III,

V,

VIII

B. II,

IV,

VI,

VII,

VIII

C. I,

Ill,

V,

VI,

VII

D. II,

III,

V,

VI,

VIII

140. Here are FIVE items concerning topping off procedures during oil cargo loading and bunkering. Which one of these is not true ?

A.

III - is not true

B.

II - is not true

C.

V - is not true

D.

I- is not true 1545

DPKP

141. During Marpol inspections by port state control inspectors ships have been detained because

……..

A. no electrical drawing of the oily bilge separator alarm was posted. B. no instructions to operate the oily bilge water separator were posted. C. no pollution placards were posted. D. no up to date deck port log was kept.

142. These items are standard inspection items for Marpol as given in guidelines to inspectors and surveyors. Which item does not belong ?

A. Item VII - does not belong B. Item VI - does not belong C. Item II - does not belong D. item V - does not belong

1546

DPKP

143. An Oil Record Book, Part 1,shall be provided to every ship of 400 tons gross tonnage and above to record machinery space operations.Out of below mentioned operations, it is compulsory to record: A. Bunkering of bulk lubricating oil. B. Transfer of oil from settling - to daytank. C. Discharge of water from Aft, Peak Tank. D. Purification of HFO.

144. Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of equipment is required in this connection? A. Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both. B. Oil fitting equipment only. C. Sludge separating tank. D. Oily-water separating equipment only.

145. Are there any restrictions about how much sludge we can pump overboard on the sea voyage? A. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. B. Maximum is 60 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/30000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. C. Maximum is 30 litre pr nautical mile and total is 1/10000 part of full cargo on the ballast voyage. D. There isn’t any restrictions of pumping sludge from ships outside special areas

146. For how long time must the printout from the Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) be retained onboard? A. Three years B. Six months C. Two years D. Four years 1547

DPKP

147. If you use chemicals for cleaning up an oil-spill on the water, what would the chemicals do? A. Disperse or dissolve the oil into the water B. Absorb the oil for easy removal C. Remove the oil from the water D. Contain the oil within a small area

148. In case of a pollution in US waters, who shall notify the cleaning up contractor (OPA-90) A. Qualified Individual B. Emergency response team C. The Master D. The shipowner

149. In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal? A. Not permissible any where. B. 100 n.m. from shore line. C. In specially designated areas (ref. MARPOL). D. In coastal waters.

150. Is there any special area under MARPOL where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues? A. There are special areas where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues B. There are 3 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues C. There are 4 special areas: the Baltic Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Red Sea and Black Sea where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues D. There isn’t any special area where it is forbidden to pump out any sludge or oil residues

1548

DPKP

151. MARPOL - Annex I. Your vessel sailed from Bahrain heading for Singapore. 2 days after departure, you would like to empty your machinery space bilges. What will be the correct procedures in this connection? A. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge overboard through oily water separating and filtering equipment. B. Discharge overboard through oily-water separating and filtering equipment without calling the bridge. C. Call the bridge and request for position and permission to discharge directly overboard. D. Wait till after darkness and discharge in most convenient way.

152. MARPOL - Annex IV. Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant

certified by the Administration.

During discharge, while vessel

is

awaiting pilot off Cape Henry, USA, the surrounding water is iscoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take? A. Stop discharge. B. Continue discharge since the treatment plant is of an approved type. C. Reduce discharge rate in order to have less discolouration of surrounding water. D. Continue discharge since Annex IV of MARPOL is internationally not yet in force.

153. MARPOL - Annex V.

Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After

unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. Is this prohibited, if not, what will be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of these materials? A. This is prohibited B. 3 miles C. 12 miles D. 25 miles

1549

DPKP

154. MARPOL - Annex V. Disposal of garbage. Your vessel is in the Red Sea (Special Area) and the Chief Cook is requesting to have some food waste burned in the incinerator. Due to problems with incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal? A. 12 miles B. This is prohibited C. 3 miles D. 25 miles

155. Most minor oilspills are caused by: A. Human error B. Equipment failure C. Major casualties D. Unforeseeable circumstances

156. New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was changed to: A. 30 litters per nautical mile B. 25 litters per nautical mile C. 20 litters per nautical mile D. 10 litters per nautical mile

157. Notification logging procedures .(OPA-90) A. Every report or message must be logged including time and date B. Only initial reports to be logged C. Only verbal reports for documentation D. Only communication with USCG

1550

DPKP

158. Shipboard Emergency Drills must be carried out at least (OPA-90): A. Once a month B. Once a week C. Once a year D. Once every six months

159. Ships of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and more, shall be fitted with oil filtering equipment, complying with Reg.14 (7) of MARPOL for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum oil content of oily-water mixture to pass through the filter? A. 15 ppm B. 100 ppm C. 30 ppm D. 60 ppm/n.m

160. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what? A. Plugging the scuppers B. Driving wooden plugs into the vents C. Closing the lids on the vents D. Plugging the sounding pipes

161. The OPA-90 notification requirement is: A. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of any spill, or threat of a spill B. Notify as soon as you have knowledge of a spill exceeding

10

gallons of oil C. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be responsible D. Notify only if you mean that own vessel might be tracked and charged

1551

DPKP

162. What does the term DISCHARGE mean, as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations? A. All the other alternatives B. Spilling C. Leaking D. Dumping

163. What is definition on clean ballast as per MARPOL Annex 1? A. Ballast with an oil content of less than 15 ppm B. Ballast with an oil content of less than 45 ppm C. Ballast with an oil content of less than 1 % D. There isn’t any definition on clean ballast

164. What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship? A. Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship B. Rig an oil boom around the ship C. Have dispersing chemicals ready for use in case of oil-spill D. Have sawdust ready for use

165. What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water? A. The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water B. The water gets a white colour, which makes it easy to detect the oilspill C. It is difficult to apply the chemicals if the oil drifts away from the ship's side D. It is difficult to apply chemicals if there is any wind

166. What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ? A. To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations B. To prove that the O.D.M.E. system has been used C. To prove fault conditions in the O.D.M.E D. None of the mentioned 1552

DPKP

167. What should you do with the ashes from your vessels incinerator which had burned garbage containing plastics? A. Discharge to a shore facility only B. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 25 miles offshore C. Discharge at sea providing you are more than 12 miles offshore D. Discharge at sea providing you are not in any river or estuary

168. What would be the preferred colour to use when maintaining the paint on shell, plating, structure and bottom/tanktopp in the engine room? A. White or light grey to ensure all minor spills and leakages are noticed and dealt with. B. Dark brown/red colour to camuflage any minor leakages and oil spills. C. Whatever paint is available. D. The same colour as machinery and equipment.

169. When a pollution incident occurs there is a plan for actions to be undertaken. State which of following priority sequences to be considered: A. Stop pumps - report - clean up? B. Clean up - report - stop pumps? C. Report - stop pumps - clean up? D. Stop pumps - clean up - report?

170. Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging of sewage ? A. 4 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3

1553

DPKP

171. Which of the following would be considered pollution, when discharged overboard, under the US water pollution laws? A. All of the mentioned B. Garbage C. Hazardous substances D. Oil

172. Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard? A. 15 PPM B. 100 PPM C. 50 PPM D. 0 PPM

173. Which statement(s) is true of a gasoline spill? A. It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill B. It is not covered by the pollution law C. It does little harm to marine life D. It will sink more rapidly than crude oil

174. Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation? A. To avoid pollution. B. To relieve the master. C. To inform the authorities. D. To restrict pollution.

175. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard? A. No, food waste can not be dumped overboard B. Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard C. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings D. Yes, the food waste can be dumped if it is ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

1554

DPKP

176. You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ? A. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings B. No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard C. Yes, glass bottles can be dumped overboard D. Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 50 mm openings

177. You are onboard a vessel off the West African coast. You want to dump a mixture of food waste, glass bottles and floating packing materials. Is this allowed? and if so, how far off the coast would you have to be? A. This is prohibited B. 3 nautical miles off the coast C. 12 nautical miles off the coast D. 25 nautical miles off the coast

178. You are taking fuel on your vessel in the US when you notice oil on the water around your vessel. You are to stop taking fuel and: A. Notify the US Coast Guard B. Begin clean up operations C. Leave the area D. Notify the Corps of Engineers

1555

DPKP 11. 1.

Menjagakelaik-lautankapal (Maintainseaworthiness ofthe ship) A stiff vessel will have a GM which is: A. Large* B. negative C. Small D. Zero

2.

When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be: A. Zero* B. Large C. Small D. Negative

3.

The weight a vessel can carry is called the: A. Registered Tonnage B. Deadweight* C. Load Displacement D. Gross Tonnage

4.

A GZ curve is used to determine: A. Buoyancy B. Stability* C. Displacement D. Deadweight

5.

A sudden rising strong wind, or sudden increase of wind usually immediately followed by a shower of rain snow is called a A. Squall* B. Storm C. Tropical cyclone D. Cyclone

1556

DPKP

6.

A squall line of sharp changes of wind, is very often associated with a : A. Warn front B. Warm front C. Occluded front D. Cold front*

7.

A ship moving through heavy seas is affected by the water pressure at the bows causing an effect known as "Panting". What structure in the forward region of the ship combats the effects of Panting?

A. Panting beams and stringers B. Collision bulkhead and deck C. Centreline bulkhead D. Double bottom tanks and floors

8.

From which locations is it normally possible to close watertight doors? A. Watertight doors can be closed adjacent to the door and remotely from bridge and also one emergency remote control station B. Watertight doors can be closed from the bridge and an alarm sounds at the door C. Watertight doors can be closed locally and also a remote control station within the accommodation D. A watertight door can only be closed by a control adjacent to the door

1557

DPKP

9.

How can an approximate value of the initial transverse Metacentric Height (GM) be found from the Curve of Statical Stability (GZ curve)? A. Drawing a tangent to the curve through the origin and erecting a perpendicular through the angle of heel of 57.3 degrees B. The value in metres from the X axis of the point where the curve changes from concave to convex shape. C. Drawing a tangent from the highest point of the curve to the X axis and measuring it in metres D. It is impossible to establish the GM value from the curve of righting levers (GZ)

10. What are the ideal conditions required to satisfactorily conduct an Inclining Experiment? A. All of the suggested answers B. Moorings slack, head wind, minimum people on board C. All derricks lowered and no moving items on deck and in store rooms D. Minimum ballast and bunkers on board and all tanks pressed up.

11. What can be done to minimize the reduction of GM due to free surface? A. Reduce the number of slack tanks. B. Load liquids into only one tank at a time C. Close all watertight doors. D. Load fluids only into tanks with transverse subdivision bulkheads

1558

DPKP

12. What is the anticipated rolling period of a ship with a large initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) and would there be any associated dangers to consider? A. Short sharp period of roll associated with breaking lashings and shifting cargo B. Long slow roll and no particular hazards C. Short period of roll, but a very stable ship and no associated dangers D. Long period of roll with free surface effects at a maximum.

13. What is the correct understanding of the tem "Angle of Loll" when applied to ships stability? A. The angle the ship will lie when the ship has a negative GM B. The angle the ship will lie when it has suffered a shift of cargo. C. The maximum angle to which the ship rolls when rolling in a seaway. D. The angle of heel which the ship must reach before suffering progressive flooding through deck ventilators.

14. What is the correct understanding of the term "Bending moments" when applied to ships? A. The longitudinal Bending Moment at any section within the ship is the total moments tending to alter the longitudinal shape of the ship B. The Bending Moments of a ship are the forces acting on the ship causing it to hog and sag. C. The longitudinal Bending Moments are the forces between empty and full compartments causing the ship to bend and change shape D. All of the suggested answers

1559

DPKP

15. What is the minimum Initial Transverse Metacentric Height (GM) allowed under the International Load Line Rules? A. 0.15 metres B. 2.5 metres C. 0.5 metres D. 0,1 metre

16. When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which position can the centre of gravity of the weight be considered to act? A. From the head of the derrick or crane B. From the centre of the weight lifted C. From the position on the deck from which the weight was lifted D. From a position on the deck at the base of the derrick or crane

17. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class notation: A. Ro-Ro B. Tanker C. Container D. Bulk Carrier

18. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is: A. Five B. Four C. Six D. Three

1560

DPKP

19. The transverse curve of the deck is called: A. Camber B. Rake C. Flare D. Tumble home

20. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the: A. Inside of the Plating B. Inside of the Ceiling C. Inside of the Frames D. Outside of the Plating

21. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called: A. A Ballast Tank B. A Cofferdam C. A Deep Tank D. An Escape Trunk

22. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called: A. Rise of floor B. Sheer C. Rake D. Freeboard

23. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from the bottom is: A. 0.25 h B. 0.5 h C. 0.1 h D. 0.33 h

1561

DPKP

24. istortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called" A. Racking B. Pounding C. Heaving D. Slamming

25. Panting stresses are most severe: A. Between the Bulkheads B. Forward C. Aft D. Amidships

26. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is: A. In ballast, beam sea B. Loaded, head sea C. In ballast, head sea D. Loaded, beam sea

27. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of: A. Side Girders B. Deck Girders C. Stringers D. Bulkheads

28. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist: A. Panting & Racking B. Water Pressure C. Hogging & Sagging D. Panting & Pounding

1562

DPKP

29. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to resist: A. Sagging B. Pounding C. Hogging D. Racking

30. A vessel in the condition shown in Figure will be: A. Twisting B. Racking C. Sagging D. Hogging

31. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's: A. Hydrostatic Information B. Layout C. Construction Sequence D. Tank Capacities

32. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a ? A. Knee B. Gusset C. Bracket D. Stiffener

33. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a: A. Flat Plate Keel B. Box Keel C. Bar Keel D. Duct Keel

1563

DPKP

34. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the: A. Sheer Strake B. Stealer Plate C. Garboard Strake D. Stringer Plate

35. The athwartships cross section structure shown in the given Figure is a:

A. Flat Plate Keel B. Duct Keel C. Box Keel D. Bar Keel

36. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in: A. Torsion B. Compression C. Sheer D. Tension

37. The Figure shows a: A. Strut B. Bulwark Stanchion C. stiffener D. stay

38. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a: A. Construction Drawing B. Sheer Profile C. Body Plan D. Shell Expansion Plan 1564

DPKP

39. In Figure shown, the section marked 4 is: A. A Flat Bar B. An Offset Bulb C. A Tee D. An Angle

40. A vertically welded shell joint is called a: A. Lap B. Joint C. Seam D. Butt

41. In the Figure shown, the items marked 6 are:

A. Knees B. Webs C. Chocks D. Bilge Brackets

42. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be constructed with approved: A. Drains B. Scuppers C. Baffles D. Sills

43. Water is drained from an exposed deck by: A. Drain Valves B. Discharge Pipes C. Side Scuttles D. Freeing Ports 1565

DPKP

44. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by: A. Stays B. Chocks C. Brackets D. Cleats

45. The type of framing shown in the drawing of this ship cross section is:

A. Combination B. Longitudinal C. Transverse D. Web

46. In a longitudinally framed vessel transverse strength is maintained by fitting: A. Deck Girders B. Stringers C. Web Frames D. Pillars

47. The type of weld shown in Figure is a: A. Vee Butt B. Fillet C. Butt D. Lap

1566

DPKP

48. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist: A. Panting B. Pounding C. Racking D. hogging

49. The item of structure numbered 9 in the given Figure is a:

A. Deck Plate B. Panting Stringer C. Foundation Plate D. floor Plate

50. 50. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the: A. Double Bottom B. Deck House C. Fore Hold D. ForePeak

51. 51. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is called a: A. Mooring B. Scupper C. Hawser D. Spurling

1567

DPKP

52. The item of structure numbered 10 in the Figure given is a:

A. Bracket B. Bow Chock C. Breast Hook D. Diamond Plate

53. The item of structure numbered 11 in the given Figure is a:

A. Floor Plate B. Nash Plate C. Web D. Bulkhead

54. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a: A. Frame B. Beam C. Stringer D. Seel Plate

1568

DPKP

55. The type of rudder in the Figure is A. Semi-balanced B. Unbalanced C. Spade D. Balanced

56. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a: A. Coupling B. Gudgeon C. Bolt D. Pin

57. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the: A. Transom Floor B. After Peak Bulkhead C. Steering Flat D. Vibration Post

58. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the: A. Winter Draught B. Statutory Freeboard C. Depth D. Summer Draught

59. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the: A. Tropical Allowance B. Bock Water Allowance C. Fresh Water Allowance D. Summer Allowance

1569

DPKP

60. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the: A. Fresh Water Allowance B. Freeboard C. Winter Draught D. Summer Draught

61. Gross tonnage is defined as: A. Earning Capacity B. Light Displacement C. Load Displacement D. Internal Capacity

62. Stacked containers are prevented from moving in the hold by: A. Girders B. Portable Beams C. Cell Guides D. Wire Lashings

63. The steel section shown here will be used to construct a:

A. Steering Flat B. Bulkhead C. Tank Top D. Hatch Cover

64. In ideal conditions, the forward distance a propeller will move in one revolution of the shaft is the: A. Slip B. Diameter C. Pitch D. Circumference 1570

DPKP

65. When a vessel is in neutral equilibrium, the GM will be: A. Small B. Zero C. Large D. Negative

66. The intact volume of a vessel above the waterline is called: A. Buoyancy B. Negative Buoyancy C. Reserve Buoyancy D. Lost Buoyancy

67. A stiff vessel will have a GM which is: A. Large B. Small C. Zero D. Negative

68. Freeboard is the vertical distance measured from the: A. Waterline to the Keel B. Top of the Bulwarks to the Waterline C. Main Deck to the Keel D. Main Deck to the Waterline

69. A GZ curve is used to determine: A. Stability B. Deadweight C. Displacement D. Buoyancy

1571

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70. The weight a vessel can carry is called the: A. Deadweight B. Gross Tonnage C. Registered Tonnage D. Load Displacement

71. The horizontal distance between the forces of Buoyancy and Gravity acting on a vessel when heeled by wind or waves is called the: A. KM B. KG C. Righting Lever D. Metacentric Height

72. Panting stresses are most severe: A. Forward B. Between the Bulkheads C. Aft D. Amidships

73. The centre of pressure, on a bulkhead flooded on one side to a depth, h. measured from the bottom is: A. 0.5 h B. 0.33 h C. 0.1 h D. 0.25 h

74. The vessels structure foreside the collision bulkhead is stiffened to resist: A. Panting & Racking B. Water Pressure C. Hogging & Sagging D. Panting & Pounding

1572

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75. Distortion of a vessels structure caused by rolling is called: A. Heaving B. Racking C. Pounding D. Slamming

76. The condition in which the greatest pounding stresses are liable to occur is: A. In ballast, beam sea B. Loaded, beam sea C. In ballast, head sea D. Loaded, head sea

77. Racking stresses can be reduced by fitting a good system of: A. Side Girders B. Deck Girders C. Stringers D. Bulkheads

78. A vessel in the condition shown here is: A. Sagging B. Hogging C. Twisting D. Racking

79. The connection of frames and beams at deck level between the bulkheads is designed to resist: A. Hogging B. Pounding C. Racking D. Sagging

1573

DPKP

80. The transverse curve of the deck is called: A. Rake B. Tumble home C. Flare D. Camber

81. The minimum number of transverse bulkheads required for a vessel with machinery aft is: A. Six B. Five C. Three D. Four

82. Moulded beam is the measurement taken to the: A. Outside of the Plating B. Inside of the Plating C. Inside of the Frames D. Inside of the Ceiling

83. The longitudinal curve of the deck is called: A. Freeboard B. Rake C. Sheer D. Rise of Floor

84. A vessel constructed without bulkheads on the main cargo deck will be assigned the class notation: A. Container B. Bulk Carrier C. Ro-Ro D. Tanker

1574

DPKP

85. The void space between a cargo tank and the machinery space of a crude tanker is called: A. A Ballast Tank B. A Cofferdam C. A Deep Tank D. In Escape Trunk

86. The type of weld shown here is a: A. Lap B. Fillet C. Butt D. Vee Butt

87. The athwartships cross section structure shown here is a:

A. Box Keel B. Duct Keel C. Flat Plate Keel D. Bar Keel

88. A drawing used to identify individual strakes and plates is called a: A. Body Plan B. Shell Expansion Plan C. Construction Drawing D. Sheer Profile

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DPKP

89. The item marked 5 is a: A. Frame B. Bracket C. Beam Knee D. Beam

90. This drawing shows a:

A. Strut B. Bulwark Stanchion C. Stiffener D. Stay

91. Additional bottom stiffening is required immediately aft side of the collision bulkhead to resist: A. Hogging B. Pounding C. Panting D. Racking

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DPKP

92. The uppermost continuous hull plating is called the: A. Stealer Plate B. Sheer Strake C. Garboard Strake D. Srtringer Plate

93. A General Arrangement drawing gives details of a vessel's: A. Layout B. Construction Sequence C. Hydrostatic Information D. Tank Capacities

94. In the figure, the items marked 6 are:

A. Bilge Brackets B. Chocks C. Webs D. Knees

95. A vertically welded shell joint is called a: A. Seam B. Butt C. Joint D. Lap

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DPKP

96. The connecting plate between a side frame and a transverse deck beam is called a: A.

Gusset

B.

Knee

C.

Stiffener

D.

Bracket

97. A keel structure constructed to allow piping to run through it is called a: A.

Flat Plate Keel

B.

Box Keel

C.

Duct Keel

D.

Bar Keel

98. To prevent water entering the space below, door openings on the weather deck should be constructed with approved: A.

Sills

B.

Baffles

C.

Drains

D.

Scuppers

99. In a longitudinallyframed vessel transverse strength is maintained by Fitting: A.

Stringers

B.

Web Frames

C.

Deck Girders

D.

Pillars

100. When a vessel is hogging the keel will be in: A.

Torsion

B.

Sheer

C.

Compression

D.

Tension

1578

DPKP

101. Water is drained from an exposed deck by: A.

Discharge Pipes

B.

Freeing Ports

C.

Drain Values

D.

Side Scuttles

102. Bulkhead stiffeners are attached to the tank top by. A.

Brackets

B.

Cleats

C.

Chocks

D.

Stays

103. The Dock Water Allowance is calculated as a proportion of the: A.

Winter Draught

B.

Summer Draught

C.

Freeboard

D.

Fresh Water Allowance

104. The vertical distance top to top between the load line marks S and F is the: A.

Fresh Water Allowance

B.

Dock Water Allowance

C.

Summer Allowance

D.

Tropical Allowance

105. The vertical distance measured from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the: A.

Statutory Freeboard

B.

Winter Draught

C.

Depth

D.

Summer Draught

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DPKP

106. The item of structure numbered 12 is a: A.

Stern Post

B.

Boss Plate

C.

Stern Frame

D.

Stern Bearing

107. The item of structure numbered 11 is a: A.

Web

B.

Floor Plate

C.

Wash Plate

D.

Bulkhead

108. A perforated flat is part of the structure in the: A.

Fore Hold

B.

ForePeak

C.

Deck House

D.

Double Bottom

109. The hinge on which a rudder turns is called a: A.

Gudgeon

B.

Pin

C.

Bolt

D.

Coupling

110. The pipe which directs the anchor cable from the windlass to the chain locker is called a: A.

Scupper

B.

Hawser

C.

Spurling

D.

Mooring

1580

DPKP

111. The top of a stern frame is connected to the vessel's structure at the: A.

Transom Floor

B.

After Peak Bulkhead

C.

Vibration Post

D.

Steering Flat

112. The item of structure numbered 10 is a: A.

Diamond Plate

B.

Bracket

C.

Breast Hook

D.

Bow Chock

113. The lower end of the stem bar is attached to a: A.

Keel Plate

B.

Stringer

C.

Beam

D.

Frame

114. The item of the structure numbered 9 is a: A.

Foundation Plate

B.

Deck Plate

C.

Floor Plate

D.

Panting Stringer

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DPKP

12.

Memantau kepatuhan terhadap persyaratan - persyaratan ketentuan. (Monitorcompliance with legislative requirements)

1. Under the ISM Code, what is understood by the Shipping Company or “The Company” ? A. The Bareboat Charterer B. The Manager C. Could be any of these D. The Owner

2. What is meant by a "Safety Management system" ? A. A documented shipboard system which lists each and every know shipboard hazard to safety, health and environment. B. The implementation on board ship of emergency response training by documented training methods. C. A system which eliminates all causes for accidents or near misses on board ship. D. A structured and documented system enabling personnel on board to implement the company safety and environment protection policy.

3. Under the ISM code, what is meant by a non-conformity ? A. A situation which indicates the non-fulfillment of a specific requirement B. Lack of comfort leading to health risks C. A situation where safety awareness or safety equipment is lacking. D. Not conforming with safe working practices which may ead to accidents

4. What is meant by a major non-conformity under the ISM code ? A. A fire or explosion hazard or any hazard which poses a threat to life. B. A serious threat to the environment due to the discharge oil, chemicals or toxic substances from the ship C. A total lack of discipline on board whereby the authority of the master is diminished D. A deviation from the ISM code which poses a serious threat to safety of ship or personnel or to the Environment

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DPKP

5. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things include …………. A. Continuous improvement of safety management skills of personnel including preparing for emergencies related to safety and environmental protection B. Hiring of outside training companies to conduct on-board safety training of its shipboard personnel C. Conducting a campaign on board against smoking and introduce smoke free passages on board D. Holding life boat drills on alternate lifeboats where boats are lowered into the water every week

6. The safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things provide for ………… A. Supply of all safety equipment within one month of requisition date B. Safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment C. Shipboard trainers hired from outside the Company who have the required qualifications D. Safety working shoes, winter underwear, safety torches and parkas

7. Safety management objectives of the Company should amongst other things establish………….. A. Sources of information concerning operational pollution prevention for joint departmental use and consultation in case of emergency B. A cooperative and informative atmosphere on board C. Safeguards against all identified risks D. A dictatorial regime on board

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DPKP

8. The SMS (Safety Management System) should ensure, amongst other things, that applicable codes, guidelines and standards recommended by …………..are taken into account. A. Classification Societies B. Maritime industry organisations C. The IMO, and Flag-State administrations D. All of these. 9. The Safety Management System should ensure in the first place ……………….. A. That that the life saving appliances are well maintained on board. B. Compliance with mandatory Rules and Regulations. C. That all Marpol requirements are complied with. D. That Boat and Emergency Station Bills are posted.

10. All the requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through ………………….. A. Videos and books B. Training by qualified instructors C. Regular on board inspections by the Company's shore based personnel D. Written procedures and work instructions

11. All requirements of the ISM code are to ensure that safe practices are taken into account in ship operation through written procedures. These requirements include the following information: ……………. A. All of these. B. The provisions to prepare for and respond to emergency situations and procedures for internal audits and management review. C. The defined levels of authority and lines of communication between and amongst shore and shipboard personnel. D. The procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provisions of the Code.

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DPKP

12. The functional requirements for a Safety Management System is to develop, implement and maintain a system which includes the following :…………….. A. 1) maintain a correspondence system ship/shore 2) issue the required Letters of Instruction (Fleet Letters) to the ship. B. 1) contact addresses and telephone numbers of Port-State Control of countries visited 2) contact addresses of Flag State authorities. C. 1) a safety and environmental protection policy 2) instructions and procedures to ensure safe operations and protection of the environment. D. 1) safe navigation and Rules of the Road 2) instructions to masters and chief engineers 3) office staff Home telephone numbers. 13. Under ISM, the Company should establish ………….to describe how the objectives of the ISM code willbe achieved. A. Circulation of informative guidelines B. Company regulations C. A safety and environmental policy D. Company newsletters

14. Under the ISM code the Company must ensure that the Safety and Environmental Policy is ……………. A. Known and implemented by all masters and chief engineers. B. Known and implemented by all Officers and members of the ships crew. C.

Known and maintained at all levels of the organisation both ship based

as well as shore based. D. Known by all ships officers. 15. The safety objectives and requirements of a Company may be ………….. Standards required by the ismcode ? A. Set above B. A substrtute for C. Set below D. Deviating from

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DPKP

16. A Company's safety management objectives and requirements, which are set above the standards of the ISM code, should be ………….. A. Totally disregarded since not enforceable. B. Erased as far as excessive standards are concerned. C. Encouraged and supported. D. Discouraged.

17. It is the responsibility of the Company to define and document the company's………… which Forms an integral part of the Safety Management System ? A. Legal policy objectives B. Ethics and environment objectives C. Safety management objectives D. Trading policy objectives

18. Under ISM, the holder of the DOC or Document of Compliance is the company who ……….. The ship. A. Has chartered B. Owns C. Has mortgaged D. Has assumed responsibilityfor the operation of

19. Under ISM, can a company contract with third parties to manage specific ship related activities such as manning, technical support or maintenance ? A. Yes, it is allowed B. No, it is not longer allowed C. Yes, only for manning D. Yes, only for technical support and manning, not for maintenance

1586

DPKP

20. Under ISM, if the Company has subcontracting arrangements for manning, technical support or maintenance, how many Documents of Compliance are to be issued ? A. Only one DOC can be issued to the Company B. One DOC is issued to the company and one DOC is issued to the the manning company only C. One DOC is issued to the Company and one for each subcontractor D. One DOC is issued to the Company and one DOC is required for the maintenance as well as for the technical support company, not for manning.

21. Linder ISM, any responsibility imposed on the Company by the ISM Code which is subcontracted…….. A. Remains the responsibility of the Company B. Becomes the joint responsibility of the Company and the subcontractor C. Becomes the responsibility of that subcontractor D. Is to be defined contractual as to who has the responsibility beforehand

22. Under ISM, during assessment for issue and compliance with a DOC the auditor must be satisfied that the company is in control of …………… A. The subcontractors' personnel and resources. B. All activities concerning the Safety Management System which have been subcontracted. C. The subcontractors' insurance system. D. The financial portfolio of the subcontractors.

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DPKP

23. Under ISM, the company should define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personnel who manage, perform and verify work relating to and affecting safety and pollution prevention. How ? A. By notice sheets to be posted on the notice boards in the Crews and Officers Messroom. B. By wall posters in the accommodation of the affected ships C. By charts and/or job descriptions to identify positions related to safety and pollution prevention activities for each functional area D. By legal notices in the media, defining the Company Board responsibility and command flow chart

24. Under ISM, what kind of support is to be provided to the Designated Person in order to carry out his functions ? A. All of these. B. Freedom to travel worldwide at will C. An executive salary and a company car D. Adequate resources and shore based support

25. Under ISM, the responsibility and authority of the Designated Person should include…………. A. Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of each ship B. Having overall control over all company departmental heads C. Being a member of the Board of the Company D. Final control over all shipboard operations and maintenance activities

26. Under ISM, what qualifications are required by the Designated Person ? A. A master certificate B. Appropriate knowledge and experience associated with verification and control of safety and pollution prevention requirements of the ISM code C. Twenty years seagoing experience D. A university degree

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DPKP

27. Under ISM, is shipboard presence required by the Designated Person ? A. Every 2 to 3 months B. May be necessary C. Is not required at all D. Frequent lengthy stays on board are required

28. Under ISM, who is responsibility to implement the Company's Safety and Environmental Policy

on board ?

A. The senior Officer's B. The Designated Person's C. The Master's D. The entire crew's

29. Under ISM, how could it be assessed whether or not the Master has effectively implemented the Safety and Environmental Protection policy as defined by the Company ? A. By the state of cleanliness on board B. By judging the moral of the officers and crew on board C. Through interviewing officers and crew D. By looking at the lifeboats, fire fighting equipment and at the oily water separator

30. Under ISM, who should motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental policy on Board ? A. The Master B. The Company's shore based and shipboard management C. All ships officers D. The senior officers

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DPKP

31. Under ISM, what methods should be used to motivate the crew to observe the Safety and Environmental protection policy ? A. Ensure that the crew understands that they will be dismissed and will have to pay their own air fare if they do not observe the policy B. Ensure that the crew understand how they will personally benefit from the implementation as well as encouraging reception of ownership C. Ensure that copies of the Company's policy are given to all shipboard personnel D. Ensure that the crew understands the dangers present on board and the heavy fines to be paid for Pollution

32. How can the crew be helped to understand how they personally benefit from the SEP policy and how could their perception of ownership be encouraged ? A. Through regular meetings at which the crew members are encouraged to participate in the continuous development of the objectives of the SEP B. By distribution of Nature, Health &Wealth or the like magazines and by asking them to open a savings account C. By encouraging then to join Green Peace or any other environmental group D. By the Company's monthly newsletter

33. Under ISM, the master must implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy and should issue appropriate orders and instructions in a clear and simple manner. How is this to be done ? A. By Standing Orders, Bridge night order book, as examples B. Tell what is expected in a casual and amicable way during social gatherings to officers and crew C. By telling each and every crew member what to do exactly in a clear voice

D. By calling the ship's compliment together and give short orders in clear English

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DPKP

34. It is the Master's responsibility to verify that the specific requirements (procedures and instructions) regarding the Safety Management System are observed. Who will actually verifythis on board ? A. The Designated Person B. The Master C. The Master and Officers D. The Chief Engineer

35. What are the best means of verifying that specked requirements (procedures and instructions) Regarding the Safety Management System are observed ? A. By computerising all specified requirements and have an officer assigned as input controller B. By dividing the responsibility amongst officers who have to keep their own Safety Work Book C. By use of a check list for verification of actions/activities cof crew members D. By inspecting the Deck and Engine work book daily by the Master

36. It is the Master's responsibility of reviewing the Safety Management System and reporting its deficiencies to ……….. A. The shore based management B. The classification society C. The Flag state authorities D. The Port state control of the next port of call

37. The Master's review reporting on the Safety Management system should include any deficiencies and may include ………….. A. A list of unsatisfactory crew members who are not to be rehired by the Company. B. A list of keen and safety and environmental aware crew members who are to be promoted C. Proposals for corrective action and recommendations for improving the SMS. D. The officer's and crew's appraisal reports 1591

DPKP

38. Whenever the Master, in his role as the responsible person for on-board safety, finds a deficiency in the Safety Management system relevant to the ships operation he should ………… A. Inform the P & I club. B. Make note in the log book of this deficiency. C. Correct the deficiency and make note of the correction applied in the official log book. D. Inform the Company.

39. When is the Master to review the Safety Management System and to report to the Company ? A. Prior to change of command B. The Company should set a standard interval for such reviews C. Whenever there is a deficiency noted on board D. Prior to the arrival of the external auditor every year

40. Should the Master's authority be emphasized in the Safety Management system? A. The Master is to be mentioned as the Responsible Person in charge of implementing the SMS B. The overriding responsibility of the Master is self evident and need not to be repeated in the SMS C. The Master is to be mentioned as the juridical person in command of the vessel D. The Company should ensure that the SMS operating on board the ship contains a clear statement emphasizing the Master's authority 41. Under ISM, the overriding authority of the Master applies ……………. A. In case of oil spill clean-ups B. In normal circumstances C. In both normal and extreme circumstances D. In emergency and extreme circumstances

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DPKP

42. It should be checked that the Company has documented that the Master has overriding responsibility and authority as required ………….. A. By the Company's Main Policy Objective B. By the SOLAS Convention C. By the International Association of Classification Societies D. By the Shipowners Trust Fund 43. The Company must be sure that the Master is ……………. A. A safety and environmental protection licensed person. B. A person in good standing with the P & I club association. C. Properly qualified for command. D. Not blacklisted by the U.S. Coast Guard or any other Port state control. 44. Verification of the master's qualifications should be done firstly by ………….. A. Interview of the candidate with emphasis on safety and environmental awareness. B. Drug and alcohol test. C. Confirmation of the validity of his certificates in compliance with the STCW convention. D. Medical examination.

45. The Company should ensure that the Master is informed of all requirements relating to safety and environmental protection by …………….. A. Having the Superintendents prepare monthly information sheets B. Including such requirements in operating instructions. C. Reminding him time to time. D. Having the Designated Person sent on board at specified intervals.

46. To make sure that the Master and the crew understand the tasks required of them by the Safety Management System ……….. Should be described. A. The vessel's safety equipment B. Safety and environmental protection hazards C. Job responsibilities D. The ship's voyage and cargo details 1593

DPKP

47. The Master is to be fully conversant with the Company's SMS and should be informed of all requirements through formal meetings with the ………….. A. Shore management. B. Senior Classification Society surveyors. C. P & I club representatives. D. Port state inspectors.

48. Masters are to be given the necessary support so that they can perform their duties safely. Support from the Company includes …………… A. Having port watchmen assigned on the ship in every port. B. Having diver inspections carried out at least every 6 months. C. Maintaining the required compliment and onboard expertise D. Having the ship drydocked every 30 months.

49. The Master must be given the necessary support so that he can perform his duties safely. Tf the Master reports deficiencies in the SMS, the company should ……… A. Make financial assistance available to the Master to

correct

the

deficiencie B. Call in outside contractors to look at these deficiencies and rectify/repair the same C. Respond to identified deficiencies in the SMS. D. Reward the Master for his diligence. 50. Manning requirements and qualifications are part of ………. With which the Company should be familiar. A. The shipping business B. National and International requirements C. The manpower industry D. Crew management responsibilities

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DPKP

51. The Company should have a system in place for firstly ………….personnel, especially if obtainedthrough a manning agent. A. Briefing B. Joining and offsigning C. Dismissing D. Selecting 52. To confirm seafarers as medically first is generally difficult ………… A. Since there is usually insufficient time for a thorough medical check up. B. Since seaman have the tendency to hide illness. C. Since there are no International or National standards. D. Since medical certificates cannot be verified.

53. The Company should establish procedures to ensure that personnel transferred to new assignments related to safety and environment protection are given familiarisation training. What are defined as new assignments ? A. Another ship B. A different job C. Promotion D. All of these.

54. Instructions which are essential must be identified, documented and given to newly assigned Personnel prior sailing. What are "essential instructions" A. The role in the shipboard organization, dayworker or watchkeeper, which watch assigned to. B. SMS manual extracts, the safety manual to be read by each incoming crewmember C. Those that clearly define the crew members role within the SMS and insure that they are prepared prior taking up their duties on board D. Allotting crew cabin, linen, towels, instruction as to use of messrooms and bathrooms

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DPKP

55. Familiarization for personnel transferred or on new assignments could be accomplished by ………….. A. Visual aids such as manuals, operating instructions and videos. B. Observing overlap while vessel in port. C. All of these. D. On board training in a supernumerary capacity.

56. The choice and level of detail to assist familiarisation to new or newly assigned crewmembers will depend on ……….. A. The age of the seaman and the number of years worked sea. B. The rank of the newly assigned crewmember. C. The intelligence quotient of the newly assigned crewmember. D. The

individual

experience

with

the

new

assignment

and

job

responsibilities. 57. If individuals require essential familiarisation prior to sailing …………… A. It will be the Master's duty to assess as such and initiate a training program. B. They should serve a full contract of at least ten months in a lower rank prior to take up the new position. C. Then the company should identify such requirements and develop an appropriate plan. D. They cannot take shipboard duty at all until they prove themselves qualified for the job.

58. The Company should ensure that all personnel involved in the SMS have an adequate Understanding of relevant rules, regulations, codes and guidelines. How could such information be communicated ? A. Trough written instructions B. Described in the job responsibilities C. Formal discussions with company representatives D. All of these.

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DPKP

59. The Company should identify the individual(s) having the responsibility to define training needs Appropriate for specific tasks, taking into account

…………..

A. Previous training, experience and required proficiency in operation of the ship. B. All of these. C. Familiarity with new equipment, familiarity with equipment when transferred to different type vessel. D. Drills for emergencies, results of internal auditing.

60. The Company should establish procedures for the ship's personnel to receive relevant information on the SMS and the amount of documentation should be determined by………………. A. Whatever is necessary to ensure that all appropriate shipboard personnel understand their respective roles. B. The type of vessel and the trading pattern. C. The requirements of the Charterers. D. The size of the Company

61. Under SMS sufficient instructions in a suitable language need to be verified, as well as ensuring an understanding of them by the crew. How can this be verified? A. The crew must be proficient in their own national language and have basic understanding of the language in use on board B. The crew is to be recruited in English speaking countries or will have to pass and examination C. Videos on the correct pronunciation of English need to be available on board D. By witnessing an exercise

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DPKP

62. Concerning the ability of the ship's personnel to communicate effectively in the execution of their duties related to the SMS, documented evidence must be available…………. A. On the medical examination of each crewmember. B. On the ability of each crewmember to read and write in English. C. On the procedures required for effective communication and what verification is carried out on board. D. On the educational level of each crewmember.

63. When developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations with safety and pollution prevention as primary objective, the focus is on ………… A. Prevention. B. Finance. C. Economy. D. Response to accident

64. Procedures for key shipboard operations should have safety and pollution prevention as a primary objective and should include amongst other things … A. Methods to tower the lifeboats. B. Efficiency of the propulsion machinery. C. Measures to mitigate identified risks. D. Accuracy of the trim and stability calculations.

65. Concerning developing plans and instructions for key shipboard operations it is expected that the Company has identified risks associated with ……….. A. The carriage of liquid oil cargoes in bulk B. Drugs and alcohol misuse C. The shipping industry’s cost structure D. The particular type of vessel and its trade.

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DPKP

66. Which of the following tasks and occurrences can be excluded as possible risks to the safety of the ship and pollution of the environment ? A. Heavy weather damage, loss of propulsion, loss of steering B. Cargo shifting, collision, explosion C. Inerting, tank cleaning, gas freeing D. Fire, flooding, grounding

67. The Company should establish procedures to identify, describe and respond to……….. Emergencyshipboard operations. A. Potential B. Assumed C. Occuring D. Theoretical

68. A company is expected to have documented emergency procedures applicable for use onboard the particular type ship being operated including the duties and responsibilities of the crewmembers and ………….. A. The methods of rescue available. B. Shipboard communication methods available. C. The ways of combating a worst case scenario. D. The methods of reporting casualties to the Authorities.

69. In addition to routine drills prescribed in International and National regulations, drills should also include ……….. A. Diving exercises under the ship. B. Boat drills at sea. C. Emergency situations such as identified potential emergency shipboard situations. D. Fire drills in port.

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DPKP

70. The scope of drills should exercise the company's ashore and on board personnel and develop familiarity with a particular emergency. Documented evidence of drills should exist which demonstrate ……….. A. That the Company has been able to respond effectively. B. That all shore staff, office staff and subcontractors, manning agents and repair outfits were effectively involved . C. That the ships staff has followed the correct procedures in notifying the shore staff. D. That all the kinds of drills were carried out.

71. The Company should have available shoresideorganisational structure, resources means and procedures for communications and equipment for responding to a shipboard emergency. This means that ……….. A. A very large communications network is required. B. The office is to be staffed by Emergency Response Teams 24 hours a day. C. The Company needs offices spread out over the globe. D. A 24-hour contact has to be available. 72. The SMS should include procedures ensuring that …….. Are reported to the company, investigatedandanalysed with the objective of improving safety and pollution prevention ? A. Cargo operations and ballast operations B. Illness and injury C. Crew changes D. Non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations 73. The Company should have ………. For responding to non-conformities identified from internal audits andduring routine operation of the ship A. Procedures B. Printed labels C. A toll free telephone number D. Inventory cards

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74. The Company should establish procedures to ensure that the ship is maintained in conformity

with the provisions of the relevant rules and regulations and

with…………. A. The by-laws of the relevant P & I club. B. The approval of the London Salvage Association. C. The cooperation of the Master. D. Any additional requirements which may be established by Company.

75. Objective evidence is required to confirm conformance with established maintenance requirements inclusive ………… A. Of a computerised planned maintenance system. B. Of a computerised maintenance program for diesel engines. C. Of documented procedures and instructions for the onboard work routines and verification of their implementation by the appropriate personnel. D. Of keeping work record books and inventories of deck and engine departments up to date.

76. Under the SMS as part of shipboard responsibilities, there should be routine inspections of …………… A. All crews belongings, luggage and items stowed in crew cabins. B. The accommodation. C. All machinery and ships equipment in use. D. Machinery, ships equipment and structural integrity of the ship.

77. Shipboard personnel, as part of day to day operation of the ship, should be expected to correct non-conformities whenever possible. In this respect, what are “Non-Conformities" ? A. Damage B. Any one these C. Deficiencies D. Defects, malfunctioning

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78. The Company should have procedures established for corrective action. Corrective actions involves solutions which ………….. A. Punish the persons guilty of neglect without taking any other action afterwards. B. Investigate who was at fault and put the blame on the person(s) involved. C. May reduce or prevent occurrence of a non-conformity. D. Guaranty that there is no recurrence of a non-conformity.

79. The Company should establish procedures under SMS to identify equipment and technical systems of which the sudden failure may result in hazardous operations. Once identified …………… A. These items are checked at least once a week by the Master. B. Tests and other procedures should be established to ensure reliability. C. A rigid maintenance program is to be established for this equipment D. It must be ensured that each and every component of these systems and equipment is carried as spare on board.

80. The testing and maintenance of stand by equipment and inactive systems associated with alternatives should be part of the Company's maintenance plan. Example of tests are………….. A. Operation of alarms and emergency shut-downs. B. Emergency and safety equipments tests (eg EPIRB, VHF, CO2 detectors) C. Any or all of the other options D. Pre-arrival and pre-departure tests

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81. The Company should establish and maintain procedures to control all documents which are relevant to the SMS. The Company should ensure that:1) …….. 2) ……3) ……… A. 1) Documents are kept confidential by the Master 2) the Master reviews the documents 3) the Masterimplements the contents of documents. B. 1) Documents are approved by authorised personnel 2) Documents are to be reviewed by the Master 3) Documents are to be kept safe. C. 1) Documents are in the Master's safekeeping only 2) Documents are authorised by the Classification Society 3) Documents are authorised by P & I Club. D. 1) Valid documents are available 2) Changes to documents are reviewed and approved by authorised personnel 3) Obsolete documents are removed prompt.

82. The documents used to describe and implement the SMS may be referred to as the……………. A. Ship Management Manual B. Safety Management Manual C. Ship Maintenance Manual D. Shipboard Instruction Manual 83. The Company should carry out ……….. To verify whether safety and pollution preventionactivitiescomply with the Shipboard Management System ? A. Inspections by third party consultants B. Drydock Inspections C. External safety audits D. Internal safety audits 84. SMS Management reviews should be initiated at least by …………. A. Analysis

and

investigation

of

accidents,

results

obtained

due

implementation of SMS. B. Changes in the market strategy, social and environmental conditions. C. Any of these D. Recommendations based on statutory/classification surveys and outdated 1603

DPKP

SMS in the light of new rules/ regulations brought in force. 85. Personnel carrying out audits should be……… the areas being audited. A. Very conversant B. Familiarised with C. Independent of D. Experts in 86. A ……….. requirements

Should be issued for every Company complying with the of

the

ismcode

by

the

Administration,

or

by

the

Organisationrecognised by the Administration . A. Safety Management Certificate B. International Shipmanagement Certificate C. Document of Compliance D. Safety and Environmental Protection Certificate

87. When verified that the Company and its shipboard management operate in accordance with the approved SMS, a …….... Should be issued to the ship by the Administration or organisationrecognised by it. A. Safety Management Certificate B. Certificate of Responsibility C. Document of Compliance D. Credibility Certificate 88. The Company should ensure that each ship is manned with ………… seafarers in accordance withnational and international requirements. A. Intelligent and healthy B. Safety conscious and diligent C. Qualified, certified and medically fit D. Drug and alcohol abstaining

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89. Under ISM, what is the role of the Designated Person as defined by the ISM Code? A. To write the safety manuals and to follow up on all safety related requisitions requested by the ship B. To monitor and if necessary to build up better safety relationships between the Authorities and the ship's staff C. To inspect the ship at least once every six months and to report all matters concerning safety and environmental protection to the management D. To ensure the safe operation of each ship and to provide a link between the company and those on board

90. What is the ISM or International Safety Management Code ? A. The international code for transporting of cargoes safety on board ships as regulated by Marpol Annex III B. An international management code for the safe operation of ships and for pollution prevention as adopted by the IMO C. The international code for accident prevention and safe working practices D. The International Ship Management Association's code For navigational safety

91. How is a Safety Management Certificate obtained? A. Ship owner has Document of Compliance issued, and vessel is assessed and holds all statutory certificates B. Vessel is surveyed by MCA and certificate issued C. Ship owner is authorised to carry out internal audits and issue SMC D. RSS issue SMC with Register

92. Under ISM, what is a "non-conformity"? A. An observed situation where objective evidence indicates the nonfulfilment of a specified requirement B. The wearing of non-standard Personal protective equipment C. Official log book entries not being completed correctly D. A safety officer not being nominated for the vessel

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93. Watch keeping engineers shall have a minimum of knowledge of the vessel's engine room and operation of its functions prior to being accepted as Engineer on Duty, and shall acknowledge his familiarization with the equipment by signing a check list listing all units he shall be able to operate. Minimum knowledge is: A. He shall have all the knowledge as listed in the other alternatives B. Start, operate and stop main and auxiliary machinery units, including switching between automatic,

remote

and/or

manual

control

functions, and operate the various units in various modes. C. Understand the function of all main and auxiliary equipment, e.g. Machinery, pumps, fuel systems, cooling systems and the interlinks between various units and the function of them. D. Check routines during operation and prior to switching to UMS-mode 94. What do you understand by the term “Risk Assessment”, and how would this be carried out on board? A. Identify the hazards, quantify the risks, put control measures in place, monitor the work activity and review B. Requires a great deal of preparation and involves recording everything on paper C. Identify the hazards and specify the personal protective equipment that would be required to complete the work D. States than when work has a degree of risk that the work is not carried out

95. What does ISM stand for? A. The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution Prevention B. International Safe Manning Certification C. Internal Ship Safety Management D. International Ship Measurement and Pollution Control

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96. What is the main theme of modern safety practice? A. Making use of Risk Assessment as a means to improving safety B. Use the same practice that has been in place for some time C. Consult the chief officer before commencing work D. Health & Safety at Work Act

97. What is the period of validity of the Safety Management Certificate A. 5 years B. 6 months C. 2 years D. 1 Year

98. Which personnel must undergo familiarization training on board A. Everyone B. Only the deck officers C. Only the ratings D. Only catering staff

99. Which ships does the ISM code apply to A. All passenger ships, all cargo ships of 500GRT or above B. Only tankers and Ro-ros C. Only passenger vessels D. All craft above 300GRT

100.

With respect to the ISM, what training in additional to lifeboat and fire drills must be carried out? A. Familiarization, and other drills identified as necessary by the ship B. The boat drill and fire drill should be adequate to meet your needs C. Mooring operations D. Bridge Team Management

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101.

Under ISM, which methods can the master use to implement the Company's Safety and Environmental policy? A. Implementation of all existing IMO and Marpol rules B. At his own discretion taking into account the trading pattern and the workload on the ship, as well as weather conditions C. As defined and documented by the Company D. He should discuss the methods to be used with the senior officers and the shipboard safety committee

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DPKP 13. Menerapkanketerampilankepemimpinandankerjasamakelompok (Application ofleadership andteamworking skills) 1. Which of the Following is not a Type of Team? A. Cross Functional B. Virtual C. Problem Solving D. Individual

2. Identify 4 of the Five Steps in Team Formation and Development. A. Storming, Warming, Norming and Performing B. Forming, Storming, Norming and Performing C. Storming, Norming, Practicing and Adjourning D. Starting, Norming, Performing and Adjourning

3. Which of these is a Disadvantage of Teamwork? A. More ideas may be generated B. More resources are available C. More time is taken to perform the tasks D. More networking opportunities

4. Which of these is an Advantage of Teamwork? A. Conflict may occur B. Compromises may not be best option C. Cost may be increased due to extra resources D. Can provide Support

5. What Individual or Group Behaviours might lead to an effective Team? A. Self Interest verses Group Interest B. Lack of boundaries C. Ill-defined roles D. Able to listen to feedback

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6. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying effective team decision making? A. Two people always seem to make the decisions B. Decision reached by voting or by consensus C. Silence implies acceptance D. The loudest member always decides

7. To be an effective communicator in a team A. Never Praise your team mates B. Never Judge your team mates C. Never Listen by yourself D. Never Respond to your team mates

8. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes: A. Reinforcing Individualism B. Taking one’s time C. Quality Management D. Assimilating Diversity

9. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to A. Check their Fair Work Act Award B. Train them in one task at a time C. Monitor their individual performance D. Reward and motivate them

10. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to A. Actively stick to company procedures B. Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness C. Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions D. Actively avoid introducing too many diverse ideas as it may create confusion

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11. Groupthink is used to describe A. The positive aspects that accur when a group works together. B. Group dinamics that can interfere with group decision-making processes and can produce disastrous results. C. When group members have in-jokes and give each other knowing glances. D. When group members are on the same wavelength and complete each others sentences.

12. Research on working in pairs, teams, or in groups has shown that. A. Collaborations are never productive B. Teamwork is never as good as working alone C. Group problem solving tasks always dilute original ideas D. Collaborations can be productive

13. The subject of minority influence refers to? A. When the group votes by minority rules instead of majority rules B. When the minority opinion in not able to sway the majority opinion C. When one person in a group influences the other members in the group D. When the group members only influence one member in the group

14. Who are free riders ? A. People who report social loafers B. People who volunteer to give others ride home in situations of potential drunk C. Driving Those who do not put forth effort on a task, but reap the benefits of a group D. People who voice their opinions despite the unpopularity of their views

15. Minority influence can A. Never sway the majority of the group members to the other point of view B. Steer other goup members who hold the majorityview over to the minority point of view C. Decrease creativity D. Able to listen to feedback

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16. When observing how teams communicate what signs do we see when identifying effective team decision making? A. Two people always seem to make the decisions B. Decision reached by voting or by consensus C. Silence implies acceptance D. The loudest member always decides

17. To be an effective communicator in a team A. Never Praise your team mates B. Never Judge your team mates C. Never Listen by yourself D. Never Respond to your team mates

18. The Roles and Responsibilities of a team includes: A. Reinforcing Individualism B. Taking one’s time C. Quality Management D. Assimilating Diversity

19. To help turn an individual into becoming a Team Player we would need to : A. Check their Fair Work Act Award B. Train them in one task at a time C. Monitor their individual performance D. Reward and motivate them

20. To help Create and Manage Diversity in a team you need to A. Actively stick to company procedures B. Actively discourage members to ask for help as it is a sign of weakness C. Actively take time out to include people in formal meetings & discussions D. Actively avoid introducing too many diverse ideas as it may create confusion

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21. One finding of the risky shift effect is........ A. That group decisions are often risker when groupthink sets in. B. That individual decisions are often risker than group decisions. C. That individuals help less when others are around. D. That group decisions can encourage more exreme decisions than the person would have made in the first place.

22. It is through ............. That group members can be inspired, motivated and guided to be successful and productive. A. Fellowship B. Sportsmanship C. Coercion D. Leadership

23. Which style of leadership focuses on goals, standard and organization ? A. Task leadership B. Social leadership C. Semantic leadership D. Transformational leadership

24. If immersed in a group that gives a person a sense of anonymity, a person could A. Alter their social indentity to meet the expectations of others B. Unleash inhibitions because of deindividuation C. Become inhibited because of social comparsion D. Accept resposibility for their actions

25. The transformational leadership style A. Encourages group members to transform themselves into better people B. Strives to change the group members opinions by showing them a better way to think C. Changes opinions and attitudes without changing behaviors D. Encourages and inspires group members to go above and beyond selfish interests and do what is the best for the common good of the group as a whole

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26. Social comparasion theory is offered as one explanation for ........................ A. Group polarization B. Pluralistic ignorance C. Summation polarity D. Group adhesion

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