Approach categories on aircrafts are based upon? A grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight. An aircraft must fit in only one category. If it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of a speed range for a category, the minimums for the category for that speed must be used. For example, an aircraft which falls in Category A, but is circling to land at a speed in excess of 91 knots, must use the approach Category B minimums when circling to land. • • • • •
Aircraft Category A Aircraft Category B Aircraft Category C Aircraft Category D Aircraft Category E
<91 91 / 120 121 / 140 141 / 165 >165
Max circling speed 90Kts Max circling speed 120Kts Max circling speed 140Kts Max circling speed 165Kts
What is ETOPS? Extended twin operations. An operator is granted permission to operate a twin engined aircraft type on flight in which the aircraft is more than 60 minutes away from a suitable alternative aerodrome in the event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure en route. What are the various ETOPS categories? Normal extended twin operations (ETOPS) categories, vary between 60 and 180 Minutes. The segments on a Takeoff? 1. First Segment: The Climb from 35 feet point until the landing gears are fully retracted. Conditions in this segment are: • landing gear extended • flaps in T/O position • speed = V2 • climb gradient 2 engine = positive / 4 engine = 0.5% • takeoff power 2. Second Segment: Climb from gear retraction point until a height of 400 feet reached. Conditions in this segment are: • gears retracted • flaps in T/O position • speed = V2 • climb gradient 2 engine = 2.4% / 4 engine = 3.0% • takeoff power 3. Third Segment: Its the horizontal distance covered after the second segment until the flap retraction speed is reached, to raise the flaps plus the distance required to accelerate the aircraft to the flaps up climb speed. It consists of two parts: First part of 3rd segment: Distance covered before flap retraction, accelerating to flap retraction speed. The conditions are:
• • • • •
gears retracted laps in t/o position speed increasing from v2 to flap retraction speed climb gradient 2 engine = 1.2% / 4 engine = 1.7% takeoff power
Second part of 3rd segment: Distance covered after flap retraction, accelerating to final t/o climb speed. The conditions are: • gears retracted • flaps retracted • speed, accelerating from flaps retraction to final t/o climb speed • climb gradient 2 engine = 1.2% / 4 engine = 1.7% • maximum continuous power 4. Fourth Segment: the Climb from 400 feet till 1500 feet is reached, after the end of third segment operating with max continuous power. The conditions are: • gears retracted • flaps retracted • speed = final t/o climb speed • max continuous power • climb gradient 2 engine = 1.2% / 4 engine = 1.7% IFR and RVSM Flight levels? MT 000179 MT 180359 • •
odd FL. even FL.
NON RVSM airspace vertical separation is only 1000 ft up to FL290 and 2000 ft above FL290. RVSM airspace only 1000 ft for all levels.
Why are Flight Level intervals increased to 2000 ft in non RVSM airspace? Because of altimeter errors (lower air density). Reduced vertical RVSM to 1000ft separation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and more accurate altimeters, usually crowded routes (Trans Atlantic Routes). What are the lights on a taxiway? Blue edge, green center. How long runway remaining when RWY centerline light turns solid red? 1,000ft (305m). How long runway remaining when RWY centerline light turns alternating red and white? 3000 ft (600m).
What happens if you move C.G from fwd to aft position? It will be tail heavy, and the horizontal tailplane will have a short memento arm that will result in the aircraft is longitudinally unstable because it is too tail heavy for the horizontal tailplane. Light stick forces for pitch is required. A decreased wing angle of attack which results in lower induced drag. It will also increase aircraft range. What is Dutch Roll? Dutch roll is a type of aircraft motion, consisting of an outofphase combination of "tail wagging" and rocking from side to side. This yawroll coupling is one of the basic flight dynamic modes (others include phugoid, short period, and spiral divergence). How many % to be considered a contaminated runway? 25% of Rwy. Why are wings swept? Advantage / Disadvantage regarding Swept Wings? They are swept to be able to fly at a higher speed. The advantages are: higher Mach rise speeds and stability in turbulence. Disadvantages are: Poor lift qualities are experienced, higher stall speeds, a wing tip stalling tendency is particular to a swept wing aircraft mainly because of the high local Cl loading it experiences. An Aircraft is climbing at constant Mach Number what will happen with TAS? TAS will decrease. An aircraft climbs at constant TAS through an inversion, will the RAS and Mach number increase, decrease or stay the same? Mach Number will decrease, RAS will decrease. When descending at a constant CAS? EAS Increases What is Climb Gradient? The rate, expressed as a percentage, of the change in geometric height divided by the horizontal distance traveled in a given time. Definition of wet Runway? A runway is considered “wet” when there is sufficient moisture on the surface to appear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water. A runway surface that appears darkened by residual moisture (damp runway) shall not be considered wet or contaminated except as outlined below.
Effect of Forward C.G.? Longitudinal stability is increased because the aircraft is nose heavy. The aircraft's pitch control is reduced because it experiences high stick forces due to the aircraft's long tail plane moment arm. Increased wing angle of attack, witch will reduce in higher induced drag. Will reduce aircraft performance and range. The stalling speed will increase. Effect of fwd and aft C.G on performance stability and fuel? •
fwd C.G. => High Angle of Attack , increase induced drag which will decrease performance and range. Longitudinal stability is increased because aircraft is nose heavy.
aft C.G. => Low Angle of attack on the wing, which reduces induced drag. Fuel sufficient and increase aircraft range. The aircraft is longitudinal unstable. Effect of forward/aft CG on fuel consumption and range? •
FWD: • Stalling speed increased. • Longitudinal stability increased. • Higher stick force required • Range and endurance decreased due to drag caused by elevators to trim the aircraft. AFT: • • • •
Stalling speed decreased. Longitudinal stability decreased. Lower stick force required Range and endurance Increases.
ICAO CAT I II III Mins, qualifications and recurrent requirements? • • • • •
CAT I CAT II CAT IIIa CAT IIIb CAT IIIc
200 ft 100 ft 50 ft 20 ft 0 ft
550m 350m 200m 100m 0 m
The requirements to carry out a CATII or III approach in addition to the normal CATI approach are that aircrafts CATII or CATIII systems are certified and operational. Runways ground CATII or III equipment is certified. The crew is qualified and current. The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures the? Total air temperature minus kinetic heating effect in order to obtain the static temperature. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are? VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
A trough of low pressure is generally associated with? Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation. The mach number is the? True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound. What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy? Vx and Vy decreases. The absolute ceiling is defined as? The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/minute. Aerodrome QNH is the? Atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome level. Give definition of QNH? QNH is the station pressure adjusted down to mean sea level (msl) using ISA values for the temperature between the station and msl. Since the altimeter itself uses ISA values for its internal calculations, an altimeter with QNH set should read station elevation on the ground a the station. Give definition of QFE? QFE is a reading of station pressure taken on an accurate barometer and adjusted for any difference in height between the barometer and the field elevation. If QFE is set, altimeters should read zero on the ground at the airfield. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : An apparent turn to the North. What is a shuttle valve? A shuttle valve is a type of valve which allows fluid to flow through it from one of two sources. Generally a shuttle valve is used in pneumatic systems, although sometimes it will be found in hydraulic systems. What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue fallowing a single failure below alert height? Fail operational or fail active. What does Vortex Generators do? Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
GPWS mode 5 provides both visual and audible warnings to the pilot, if the aircraft: Is below 1000ft RA and more than 1.3 dots below ILS Glideslope. A jetpowered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have : Reduced Range. On a pressurized airplane, supplemental oxygen is used to: Provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurization. The Bourdon tube is used to measure? Pressure. From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft? FL250. For the flight crew members, quicklyfitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than? FL250. Seasons are due to the? Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: MEL. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : The manufacturer The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : The operator. Which of the fallowing combinations will most likely cause the greats increase in the takeoff distance? Tailwind, Upslope, High Temperature. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which certain inflight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by : The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL).
The red LED indicator light on an emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds intervals. This indicates that: The battery requires replacement. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of? Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface. During an ILS approach to autoland, at 1500 feet: Localizer is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed. An aircraft having undergone an antiicing procedure must be antiicing fluid free at the latest when : Rotation (before takeoff). Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are: A means of locating airframe structure and components. Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is: Deice again the airplane, then apply antiicing fluid. Variable inlet guide vans are fitted to gas turbine engines to: Prevent a compressor stall at high engine speeds. For turbojet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of: LD * 0.6 What is Decision Point Procedure? It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by: Reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to Destination. During a deicing/antiicing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time starts: At the beginning of the second stage (antiicing stage). The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the: Stalling speed.
An Aircraft is descending at constant RAS, what will happen to MN and TAS? TAS decrease and MN decrease. Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? Rolling and yawing. You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly after an active cold front has passed. What does the altimeter indicate? It decreases. Linear acceleration, causing somatograviti illusion, can give a false impression of a: Climb. Map Scale on Lambert's conformal chart is: Constant along a parallel of latitude. The modern antiskid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is? • • •
idle wheel speed (measured), braked wheel speed (measured), desired idle wheel taring slipping rate.
Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of suffering from hypoxia? Up to 10000 – 12000 FT. For FAIL SAFE designed structural parts: • • •
The mounting principle is parallel mounting The principle is the redundancy of components The failure of a member cause the loads to be shared between the other system components.
VLE is defined as the: Maximum landing gear extended speed An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm airmass, The altimeter reading will be? Less than the real altitude
A flight carried out below optimum altitude would result in: Less time more fuel What are the errors of Machmeter? Instrument and pressure error The speed range between high and low speed buffet: Increases during a descent at a constant IAS Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within: 60% of the landing distance available What is GPWS, which mode means what? A ground proximity warning system (GPWS) is a system designed to alert pilots if their aircraft is in immediate danger of flying into the ground or an obstacle. The modes are: 1. Excessive descent rate ("SINK RATE" "PULL UP") 2. Excessive terrain closure rate ("TERRAIN" "PULL UP") 3. Altitude loss after take off or with a high power setting ("DON'T SINK") 4. Unsafe terrain clearance ("TOO LOW – TERRAIN" "TOO LOW – GEAR" "TOO LOW – FLAPS") 5. Excessive deviation below glideslope ("GLIDESLOPE") 6. Excessively steep bank angle ("BANK ANGLE") 7. Windshear protection ("WINDSHEAR") With a gas turbine engine, the Engine Anti Ice system should be selected "ON" whenever: Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture As the center of gravity moves, recovery from a stall: Is more difficult with the center of gravity moving aft. Airplanes certified to JAR25 must not operate across areas where S&R would be especially difficult without survival equipment if it flies to a distance corresponding to greater than: 60 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing. Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to gas turbine engines to: Prevent a compressor stall at high engine speeds
An electrical resonant circuit is constructed from: Capacitor and inductor which may be in parallel or series If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probably cause is: Water contamination What is a SPECI? A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed. Density varies: Directly with pressure and inversely with temperature During the takeoff run , the effect of increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR indication to: Remain constant When an aircraft is deiced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 Degrees in precipitation, which type of fluid and application method will provide the longest holdover time? Type II fluid @ 100% cold spray When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on board. Tell us the difference of a jet engine and turbo prop? A turboprop engine is a type of turbine engine which drives an aircraft propeller using a reduction gear.
