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Indian-Airforce Placement-Paper : 37053

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Updated Date : Mar 9, 2013 Indian-Airforce Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers Indian-Airforce recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

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1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium? http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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1. Out of the following which centre is making use of enriched Uranium? (a) Tarapur Nuclear Energy Centre (b) Kalpakkam Nuclear Energy Centre (c) Narora Nuclear Energy Centre (d) Ravat Bhata Nuclear Energy Centre

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Ans. (a)

2. Shobha Gurtu is a— (a) Padmashree (b) Padmavibbushan (c) Padmabhushan (d) Phalke Award Winner Ans. (a)

3. Dhyan Chand was Indian Captain in Berlin World cup Hockey Test in the year— (a) 1906 (b) 1916 (c) 1964 (d) 1936 Ans. (d)

4. Where is the largest Railway platform in the world? (a) Leningrad (b) Liver pool (c) Sonepur (d) Kharagpur Ans. (d)

5. ‘Nunamati’ is famous for— (a) mines of raw iron (b) mines of coal (c) oil refinery (d) mines of mica Ans. (c)

6. Energy is measured in the same unit as-— (a) work http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(a) work (b) power (c) momentum (d) force

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Ans. (a)

7 The largest gland in human body is— (a) endocrine (b) Pancreas (c) liver (d) none of these Ans. (b)

8. The universal donor is— (a) O (b) A (c) B (d) AB Ans. (a)

9. The capital of of Chattisgarh is— (a) Raipur (b) Bilaspur (c) Raichur (d) Ranchi Ans. (a)

10. Sphygmomanometer measures— (a) blood pressure (b) ocean depth (c) magnetic field (d) electric current Ans. (a)

11. Who among the following holds the office during the pleasure of the President of India? (a) Judges of Supreme Court (b) Election Commissioner (c) Governor (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha Ans. (c) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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12. The author of the book ‘Interpreter of Maladies’ is— (a) Jhumpa Lahiri (b) Arundhati Roy (c) Vikram Seth (d) Geeta Mehta Ans. (a)

13. Which among the following is a ‘Morning Raga’? (a) Sohini (b) Bhairavi (c) Kalawati (d) Sarang Ans. (b)

14. ‘Guernica’ is a famous painting of— (a) Leonardo da Vinci (b) Michelangelo (c) Picasso (d) None of these Ans. (c)

15. ‘Last Supper’ is a world famous painting of— (a) Paul Gauguin (b) Leonardo da Vinci (c) Raphael (d) None of these Ans. (b) 16. ‘Bhogali Bihu’ is a festival of— (a) Assam (b) Orissa (c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan Ans. (a)

17. The capital of Andaman & Nicobar is— (a) Car Nicobar (b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(b) Port Blair (c) Katchtibu (d) None of these

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Ans. (b)

18. What does the term Dactology mean? (a) Study of finger prints for identification (b) Study of physically handicapped persons (c) System of new words (d) None of these Ans. (a) 19. Aizawl is the capital of— (a) Lakshadweep (b) Nagaland (c) Mizoram (d) None of these Ans. (c)

20. The term ‘Third World’ is related to— (a) Asian countries (b) Oil producing countries (c) Developed countries (d) Developing countries Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following is a bulwark of personal freedom? (a) Mandamus (b) Habeas Corpus (c) Quó’Warranto (d) Certiorari Ans. (b)

22. The anode in a dry cell consists of— (a) Copper (b) Zinc (c) Carbon (d) Graphite Ans. (c) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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23. In which country ‘Greenwich’ is situated? (a) USA (b) UK (c) Holland (d) India Ans. (b)

24. Which of the following types of lens is used in a camera? (a) Convex (b) Concave (c) Spherical (d) Uniform. thickness Ans. (a)

25. Sound waves are— (a) longitudinal (b) transverse (c) partially longitudinal and partially transverse (d) sometimes longitudinal sometimes transverse Ans. (a)

26. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my journey? (a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West

Ans. (c)

27. In a certain code language EDITION is written as IDETNOI. How will the word MEDICAL be written in that code language? (a) DEMILAC (b) LACJM (c) DIEMCAL (d) MCADILE http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(d) MCADILE Ans. (a)

28. Find the odd one— (a) Shelley (b) Keats (c) Chaucer (d) Churchill Ans. (a)

29 In a row of boys Ganesh is 12th from the left and Rajan is 15th from the right. When they interchange their positions Rajan becomes 20th from the right. How many boys are there in the row? (a) 29 (b) 31 (c) 32 (d) 30 Ans. (b)

30. There are four roads. You are coming from South and want to go to the temp1e The road to your left leads away from coffee house. The front straight road leads to the college only. In which direction is the temple located? (à) North (b) South (c) East (d) West

Ans. (c) Directions (Q. 31—32): In each of the following questions a related pair of words is given. Find the most suitable pair of related words from among the four alternatives.

31. Satellite : Planetary path (a) Missile : Projectile Path (b) Arrow : Plunge (c) Bullet : Pipe (d) Elevator : Axle Ans. (a)

32. Brittle: Break: (a) Glass : Break (b) Sharp : Scratch

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(b) Sharp : Scratch (c) Tree : Wind (d) Elastic : Bend

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Ans. (d)

33. Fill in the missing letter in the following series— S,V,Y,B,? (a) C (b) D (c) E (d) C Ans. (c)

34. Fill in the missing letter in the following series— A, Z, C, X, E? (a) C (b) D (c) W (d) V Ans. (d)

Directions (Q. 35—39): Read the following information and answer the questions. There are six flats on a floor in two rows facing north and south allotted to six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. The position of their flats is as follows—

(i) Q’s flat faces the north and is not next to S. (ii) S and U have occupied diagonally opposite flats. (iii) R next to U occupied a flat facing the south and T gets a flat which faces the north. 35. Whose flat is between Q and S? (a) P (b) R (c) T (d) U Ans. (c)

36. The flats of which pair other than of SU is diagonally opposite to each other? (a) RT (b) PT


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(b) PT (c) QP (d) TU

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Ans. (c)

37. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who’s flat will be next to that of U? (a) S (b) R (c) Q (d) Q or S Ans. (b)

38. After interchanging the flats of T and P, who stays between T and U in the same block? (a) P (b) Q (c) S (d) R Ans. (d)

39. If the flats are not interchanged between T and P, who occupies the flat between Q and S? (a) P (b)T (c) R (d) U

Ans. (b)

40. In a map south-east has be shown as north, north-east has been shown as west and so on. In this map what will west represent? (a) South-west (b) South-east (c) South (d) North-west Ans. (b)

41. In an imaginary system 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, are represented by z, y, x, w, v, u, t, s, r, q respectively. In such a system 23 *4 *5 will be written as (* indicates symbol of multiplication) (a) xyr (b) rvu http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(b) rvu (c) ysr (d) vtz

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Ans. (d)

42. Anand is related to Vinod and Cinderella. Deepa is Cinderella’s mother. Also Deepa is Vinod’s sister and Ela is Vinod’s sister. How is Ela related to Cinderella? (a) Niece (b) Cousin (c) Sister (d) Aunt Ans. (d)

43 The letters of English alphabet are numbered from 26 to 1. The assigned numbers are used to write he letters of the original alphabet so that 26 stands for A, 25 stands for B and so on. Using this sequence, answer the following question. Which of the following sequence denotes a valid word? V-O-I-D (a) 6—12-17—23 (b) 5—11—18—12 (c) 5—12—18—23 (d) 5—12—17—23 Ans. (c)

44. In certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as LMUIREACN. How will the word PUBLISHED be written in that language? (a) DUBSILEHP (b) DBULISEHP (c) DUBLSEHP (d) DBUSILEHP Ans. (d)

45. If Dog is called Cat, Cat is called Lion, Lion is called Ox, Ox is called Cock, Cock is called Elephant, and Elephant is called Donkey, then farmer ploughs with which animal? (a) Dog (b) Lion (c) Donkey (d) Cock http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(d) Cock Ans. (d)

46 In a colony, each of the 20% families have two TV sets, 30% of the rest families have three TV sets. Each of the remaining families has one TV set. Which of the following statement is true’? (A) 80% families have at least one TV set (B) 50% families have two TV sets (C) 56% families have one TV set (D) 30% families have three TV sets Ans. (C)

48 Arrange the following words according to dictionary— 1. Bird 2. Bilk 3. Bill 4. Billion 5. Birth Code: (A) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 (B) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 (C) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1 (D) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5 Ans. (B)

49. If S — T means ‘5’ is the wife of ‘T’, S + T means ‘S’ is the daughter of ‘T’ and S ÷ T means ‘S’ is the son of ‘T’. What will M + J + K means? (A) ‘K’ is the father of ‘M’ (B) ‘M’ is the grand-daughter of ‘K’ (C) ‘J’ is wife of ‘K’ (D) ‘K’ and ‘M’ are brothers Ans. (B)

50. S x T means ‘S’ is brother of ‘T’ and S + T means ‘S’ is father of ‘T’, which of the following shows ‘0’ is the cousin of ‘R’ ? (A) R x T + O (B) R + T x O (C) R x O x T http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(C) R x O x T (D) None of these Ans. (D)

51. If ‘P + Q’ means P is the husband of Q, P ÷ Q means ‘P’ is the sister of Q, and ‘P x Q’ means ‘P’ is son of Q, which of the following shows ‘A’ is daughter of ‘B’ ? (A) A ÷ D x B (B) D x B + C ÷A (C) B ÷ C x A (D) C x B ÷A Ans. (A)

52. In a class of 50 students, 36 students study Mathematics and 28 study Biology. The number of students studying both Mathematics and Biology will be— (A) 22 (B) 14 (C) 30 (D) 12

Ans. (B)

53. If a man writes ‘QDGFHS’ for ‘TIGHER’, then in this way what will be write for MONKEY’? (A) XDHNMK (B) YDJMLK (C) XDJMNL (D) XCHNMK Ans. (C)

54. What is necessary for a nursing home? (A) Nurse (B) Ambulance (C) Doctor (D) Medicine Ans. (C)

55. If 854 = 12, 467 = 38, then 683 =? (A) 21 (B) 12 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 35

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Ans. (C)

56. In a code if Se ker he = hot good tea Pek cha ker = good thunder pure Nep cha he = fresh pure tea Then in the same code how ‘thunder tea’ will be written? (A) Pek he (B) Cha he (C) Pek ker (D) Cha ker Ans. (A)

57. A clock shows nine-half when seen in the mirror. What is the actual time? (A) 3:30 (B) 2:30 (C) 6:10 (D) 1:30 Ans. (B)

58. A boy used in a picture Blue colour for Red, Red for Yellow, Yellow for Green and Green for Blue. What will be the colour of leaves? (A) Green (B) Blue (C) Red (D) Yellow Ans. (D)

59. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following? 1. Leaves 2. Branch 3. Flower 4. Tree 5. Fruit (A) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5 (B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(B) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 (C) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (D) 4, 2, 1,3, 5

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Ans. (D)

60 If ‘+‘ means ‘x’, ‘—‘ means ‘÷‘, ‘x’ means f—’, and ‘÷‘ means ‘+‘, then what is the value of— 9 + 8 ÷ 8 – 4x9 (A) 65 (B) 39 (C) 27 (D) 11 Ans. (A)

61. If ‘P’ means ‘+‘, ‘Q’ means ‘—‘, ‘R means ‘x’ and ‘S’ means ‘÷‘ which of the following equation is not correct? (A) 1 R 5 = 16 Q 15 P 4 (B) 14 P S 10 = 7 R 2 Q 12 (C) 11 R 10 S 10 = 16 P 2 Q 7 (D) 3 Q 9 P 6 = 8 R 3 Q 24 Ans. (B)

62. In an examination if a student looses mark for the wrong answer and gets 1 mark for the correct answer. If he got 30 marks for solving54 questions, then how many questions were correct? (A) 30 (B) 36 (C) 40 (D) 42 Ans. (B)

63. The word formed in same sequence with the letter of the word ‘INFOMATION’ is— (A) NATION (B) FORMAT (C) RATIONAL (D) ONION Ans. (B)

64. Choose the correct number from the options? 015 : 00015: : 103:? http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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015 : 00015: : 103:? (A) 0103 (B) 0O103 (C) 1003 (D) 1030 Ans. (B)

65. Which one of the following will be seen same in the mirror? (A) AUNUA (B) OVCACV (C) SVWVS (D) TMAMT Ans. (D)

66. What is the angle between the two hands of clock when it is 7 : 30? (A) 45° (B) 35° (C) 325° (D) 30° Ans. (A)

67 Ashok starts to walk from the point P. He went 10 km towards North and 6 km toward South. After this he went 3 km towards East. How far is he now from P? (A) 4 km (B) 5 km (C) 7 km (D) 3 km Ans. (B)

68. Complete the following series after choosing the correct option—c b a a – b a – a c c – a a b b a a a – cba (A) cabc (B) babc (C) bacc (D) abcb Ans. (B)


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69. If it was Friday on 15th Aug. 2003, which day of the week will be on 15th Aug. 2005? (A) Saturday (B) Sunday (C) Monday (D) Thursday Ans. (C)

70. In the following sequence there are how many such ‘6’ which are preceded by 8 and followed by 3? 7863271868986186318 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 Ans. (B)

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Indian-Airforce Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers Indian-Airforce recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT free solved sample placement papers, Previous year AFCAT question papers and their solutions for coming exam,Indian Air Force Engineering Knowledge Test (AFCAT) 2013 Question Paper Answers Previous Year Old Paper Answer Keys Free,afcat solved question paper of previous years.Free previous year question paper for afcat with answers ,AFCAT Question


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years.Free previous year question paper for afcat with answers ,AFCAT Question Paper AFCAT stands for Air Force Common Admission Test,AFCAT ,CMAT,CAT,GATE,NDA,SCRA,Bank IBPS,Gramin Bank IT Non IT PSU companies Aptitude, reasoning verbal ability ,English,Current affairs,General Awareness largest collection of solved question papers,model question papers with detailed explanations, Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT SET – 1

Instructions for candidates

TIME ALLOTTED – 2 HRS. 1. Total No. of Questions–100. Each Question is of three marks. 2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper. 4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razor’s edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sink together. We cannot afford to tamper with man’s single minded loyalty to peace and international understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to man’s past and present, but also to his future, because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors. (b) a humanist with a clear foresight. (c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations. (d) unaware of the global power situation. Q1.

The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to(a) work for international understanding and harmony. (b) invent more powerful weapons. (c) turn to religion. (d) ban nuclear weapons. Q2.

The phrase ‘razor’s edge of destiny’ means a/an(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor. (b) critical situation that foreordains the future. (c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future. (d) destiny with sharp edges. Q3.


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(d) destiny with sharp edges. Q4.

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According to the writer, ‘wisdom’ on the razor’s edge of destiny means:

(a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razor’s edge of destiny. (b) determination to ban nuclear weapons. (c) responsibility to the ‘unborn generations’. (d) awareness of the basic values of life. Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization. (b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what happens to another country. (c) the world is on the brink of disaster. (d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is (d) “No error”. Q6.

A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d) Q7.

They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d) Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d) Q9.

The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q10.

The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Set - 1 2 Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Q11.

His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people. (a) affected (b) imposed (c) inflicted http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(c) inflicted (d) deplored The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty. (a) collect (b) exploit (c) harness (d) muster Q12.

The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team. (a) burst (b) fired (c) shot (d) released Q13.

I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month. (a) seeing (b) looking (c) planning (d) thinking Q14.

Q15.

I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success. (a) known (b) felt (c) decided (d) realized In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals. Q16. CAUSED

(a) Brought about (b) Brought forward (c) Brought out (d) Brought over Q17. PLACID http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Q17. PLACID

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(a) Plain (b) Clear (c) Poor (d) Calm Q18. AUDACIOUS

(a) Obvious (b) Daring (c) Ardent (d) Affluent Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals. Q19. MONOLOGUE

(a) Prologue (b) Epilogue (c) Dialogue (d) Catalogue Q20. DELETE

(a) Imbibe (b) Improve (c) Insert (d) Inspire Q21. AMBIGUITY

(a) Certainty (b) Clarity (c) Rationality (d) Laxity Choose the correct answer. Q22.

The First Battle of Panipat was fought between-

(a) Akbar & Hemu (b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi (c) Akbar & Rana Sanga http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(c) Akbar & Rana Sanga (d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas

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Q23.

Fa-hien visited India during the reign of(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya (b) Bindusara (c) Chandra Gupta II (d) Bimbisara Gandhiji’s first experience with Satyagraha came up in(a) Dandi (b) Champaran (c) Bengal (d) Natal Q24.

Q25.

During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru hanged? (a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Irwin (c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Chelmford The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is(a) Mark Spitz (b) Matt Biondi (c) Michael Phelps (d) Jenny Thompson Q26.

Q27.

‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Cricket Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country? (a) Jamaica http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 Q28.

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(a) Jamaica (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada (d) Nigeria Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is(a) Richard Hadlee (b) Muttiah Muralidharan (c) Jim Laker (d) Andy Roberts Q29.

‘Borlaug Award’ is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of(a) Medicine (b) Space (c) Applied Science (d) Agriculture Q30.

Q31.

The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra (c) Kirti Chakra (d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal Q32.

The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercial satellites is known as(a) SLV (b) ASLV (c) PSLV (d) GSLV Q33.

Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation(a) Red soil (b) Black soil (c) Loamy soil (d) Laterite soil http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Laterite soil

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Q34.

The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is(a) Tejas (b) Chakra c) Vajra (d) Trishul The boundary between China and India is known as(a) Mc Mohan Line (b) Radcliffe Line (c) Hindenberg Line (d) Line of Control Q35.

Q36.

Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox which is the next? (a) 09 October (b) 31 August (c) 23 September (d) 03 November Q37.

UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote(a) Primary Education (b) Health and Culture (c) Relief (d) Protection to refugees Q38.

Who authored the book ‘Train to Pakistan’?

(a) Salman Rushdie (b) Khushwant Singh (c) Mulk Raj Anand (d) Vikram Seth Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E Q39.


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(b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K Q40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is(a) Kathakali (b) Kuchipudi (c) Mohini Attam (d) Yakshaagna

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Q41.

The term ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with(a) Coal reserve of a nation (b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions (c) Fossil Fuel reserve (d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year Q42.

In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees? (a) 10 meters (b) 8 meters (c) 12 meters (d) 9 meters Q43.

A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets. Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get? (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 625 (c) Rs. 750 (d) Rs. 120 Q44.

A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 32 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21 students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is(a) 15 years (b) 17 years (c) 20 years (d) 19 years Q45.

After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced member and new member? (a) 2 years (b) 8 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years Q46.

Q47.

The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seven technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop are(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23 Q48.

In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to pass? (a) 61 (b) 68 (c) 70 (d) 78 The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A? (a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 1250 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 Q49.

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(b) Rs. 1250 (c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1600

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Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all the inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate? (a) 22.5 (b) 32.5 (c) 27.5 d) 37.5 Q50.

A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be(a) -7% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10% Q51.

The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is(a) Rs. 1200 (b) Rs. 1440 Q52.

(c) Rs. 1800 (d) Rs. 2440 Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold it with 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP? (a) 17% (b) 20% (c) 27% (d) 32% Q53.

Q54.

The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TV set, then the price of TV set is(a) Rs. 20000 (b) Rs. 24000 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(b) Rs. 24000 (c) Rs. 32000 (d) Rs. 28000 Q55.

The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel the same distance is(a) 5:4:6 (b) 6:4:5 (c) 10:12:15 (d) 12:15:10 Q56.

The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5. The difference between the numbers is(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8 Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years? Q57.

(a) Rs. 1020 (b) Rs. 1052 (c) Rs. 1282 (d) Rs. 1080 How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is 4.5% p.a on simple interest? (a) 4.5 years (b) 3.5 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years Q58.

At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years? (a) 5.5% (b) 8% Q59.


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8% (c) 6.75% (d) 7.25%

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The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 - ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is(a) 152.456 (b) 152.459 (c) 153.456 (d) 153.459 Q60.

A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs. 3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are(a) 35 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 65 Q61.

This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are given. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer. Q62.

INCITE means the same as (a) short (b) delay (c) place (d) provoke Q63.

SUCCUMB means the same as

(a) aid (b) yield (c) check (d) oppose Q64.

ANOMALOUS means the same as (a) disgraceful (b) formless (c) irregular (d) threatening http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Q65.

FORTUITOUS means the same as (a) accidental (b) conclusive (c) courageous (d) prosperous Q66 PERMEABLE

means the same as

(a) flexible (b) variable (c) soluble (d) penetrable Q67.

CONVOY means the same as (a) carry (b) flock (c) standard (d) escort CITE means the same as (a) illustrate (b) reveal (c) recollect (d) quote Q68.

VOCATION means the same as (a) hobby (b) occupation (c) post (d) designation Q69.

Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are to indicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as the underlined/capitalized word. Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.

(a) significant


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(a) significant (b) obvious (c) temporary (d) cumulative

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The hikers found several crevices in the rocks. (a) cracks (b) minerals (c) canals (d) puddles Q71.

BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to (a) ELEVATOR (b) LOBBY (c) ROOF Q72.

(d) STOREY Q73.

CARROT is to VEGETABLE as (a) DOGWOOD is to OAK (b) FOOT is to PAW (c) PEPPER is to SPICE (d) SHEEP is to LAMB Q74.

CONCAVE is to CONVEX as (a) CAVITY is to MOUND (b) HILL is to HOLE (c) OVAL is to OBLONG (d) ROUND is to POINTED Q75.

GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to (a) COOLANT (b) FUEL (c) OIL (d) LUBRICANT Q76.

HYPER- is to HYPO- as


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Q76.

HYPER- is to HYPO- as (a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC (b) OVER is to UNDER (c) SMALL is to LARGE (d) STALE is to FRESH

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Q77.

IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as (a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE (b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE (c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL (d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL Q78.

OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to

(a) POLYGON (b) PYRAMID (c) RECTANGLE (d) TRIANGLE TELL is to TOLD as (a) RIDE is to RODE (b) SINK is to SANK (c) WEAVE is to WOVE (d) WEEP is to WEPT Q79.

Q80.

SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to (a) COLT (b) DOE (c) FAWN (d) MARE Q81.

IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as (a) AGREE is to CONSENT (b) CLIMB is to WALK (c) DULL is to SHARPEN (d) LEARN is to REMEMBER http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as (a) ALWAYS is to NEVER (b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE (c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY (d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question, you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A, B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position. Q82.


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The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of each section are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You must determine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.

Found the similar paper in recruitment ? : Yes No http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Indian-Airforce Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers Indian-Airforce recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT free solved sample placement papers, Previous year AFCAT question papers and their solutions for coming exam,Indian Air Force Engineering Knowledge Test (AFCAT) 2013 Question Paper Answers Previous Year Old Paper Answer Keys Free,afcat solved question paper of previous years.Free previous year question paper for afcat with answers ,AFCAT Question Paper AFCAT stands for Air Force Common Admission Test,AFCAT ,CMAT,CAT,GATE,NDA,SCRA,Bank IBPS,Gramin Bank IT Non IT PSU companies Aptitude, reasoning verbal ability ,English,Current affairs,General Awareness largest collection of solved question papers,model question papers with detailed explanations, Indian Air Force Common admission Test AFCAT SET – 1 Instructions for candidates TIME ALLOTTED – 2 HRS. 1. Total No. of Questions–100. Each Question is of three marks. 2. One mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. 3. Do not write or mark on the Question Paper. 4. Question Paper to be returned before leaving the Exam Hall. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

We stand poised precariously and challengingly on the razor’s edge of destiny. We are now at the mercy of atom bombs and the like which would destroy us completely if we fail to control them wisely. And wisdom in this crisis means sensitiveness to the basic values of life; it means a vivid realization that we are literally living in one world where we must either swim together or sink together. We cannot afford to tamper with man’s single minded loyalty to peace and international http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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together. We cannot afford to tamper with man’s single minded loyalty toWhole-Testpaper peace and international understanding. Anyone, who does it is a traitor not only to man’s past and present, but also to his future, because he is mortgaging the destiny of unborn generations. From the tone and style of the passage it appears that the writer is(a) a prose writer with a fascination for images and metaphors. (b) a humanist with a clear foresight. (c) a traitor who wishes to mortgage the destiny of future generations. (d) unaware of the global power situation. Q1.

The best way to escape complete annihilation in an atomic war is to(a) work for international understanding and harmony. (b) invent more powerful weapons. (c) turn to religion. (d) ban nuclear weapons. Q2.

The phrase ‘razor’s edge of destiny’ means a/an(a) enigma that cuts through the pattern of life like the edge of a razor. (b) critical situation that foreordains the future. (c) sharp line of division that marks the alternative courses of action in the future. (d) destiny with sharp edges. Q3.

Q4.

According to the writer, ‘wisdom’ on the razor’s edge of destiny means: (a) awareness that we stand poised precariously on the razor’s edge of destiny. (b) determination to ban nuclear weapons. (c) responsibility to the ‘unborn generations’. (d) awareness of the basic values of life. Q5. The author is concerned about the threat of nuclear weapons because he feels that(a) a nuclear war will destroy human civilization. (b) all countries are interlinked and one cannot escape the consequences of what happens to another country. (c) the world is on the brink of disaster. (d) his country is threatened by a nuclear war. In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no mistake, the answer is (d) “No error”. Q6. A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

(c)/No error (d).

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Q6.

(a)

A person I met (a)/in the theatre (b)/was the playwright himself. (c)/No error (d). (b) (c) (d)

Q7.

They walked (a)/besides each other (b)/in silence. (c)/No error (d).No error (d).

(a) (b) (c) (d) Q8. We returned to the guest house (a)/impressed by (b)/what we had seen. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d) Q9.

The judge was convinced (a)/that neither (b)/of the five accused was guilty. (c)/No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Q10.

The municipality is going (a) /to built a new school (b)/near the park. (c)/ No error (d). (a) (b) (c) (d)

Set - 1 2 Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete. Q11.

His actions had ________ pain and suffering on thousands of people. (a) affected (b) imposed (c) inflicted (d) deplored The Government will ______ all resources to fight poverty. (a) collect (b) exploit (c) harness (d) muster Q12.

The children ______ crackers to celebrate the victory of their team. (a) burst (b) fired (c) shot (d) released Q13.

I am ______ forward to our picnic scheduled in the next month. (a) seeing Q14.


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(a) seeing (b) looking (c) planning (d) thinking

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Q15.

I hope you must have _____ by now that failures are the stepping stones to success. (a) known (b) felt (c) decided (d) realized In each of the following choose the word most similar in meaning to the word given in capitals. Q16. CAUSED

(a) Brought about (b) Brought forward (c) Brought out (d) Brought over Q17. PLACID

(a) Plain (b) Clear (c) Poor (d) Calm Q18. AUDACIOUS

(a) Obvious (b) Daring (c) Ardent (d) Affluent Pick out the word that is most nearly the opposite in meaning to the word given in capitals. Q19. MONOLOGUE

(a) Prologue (b) Epilogue (c) Dialogue (d) Catalogue http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Catalogue

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Q20. DELETE

(a) Imbibe (b) Improve (c) Insert (d) Inspire Q21. AMBIGUITY

(a) Certainty (b) Clarity (c) Rationality (d) Laxity Choose the correct answer.

The First Battle of Panipat was fought between(a) Akbar & Hemu (b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi (c) Akbar & Rana Sanga (d) Ahmad Shah Abdali & Marathas Q22.

Q23.

Fa-hien visited India during the reign of(a) Chandra Gupta Maurya (b) Bindusara (c) Chandra Gupta II (d) Bimbisara Gandhiji’s first experience with Satyagraha came up in(a) Dandi (b) Champaran (c) Bengal (d) Natal Q24.

Q25.

During whose tenure as the viceroy of India were the great Martyrs Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and

Rajguru hanged? (a) Lord Curzon http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Irwin (c) Lord Minto (d) Lord Chelmford The winner of the highest number of gold medals in an Olympic game is(a) Mark Spitz (b) Matt Biondi (c) Michael Phelps (d) Jenny Thompson Q26.

Q27.

‘Agha Khan Cup’ is associated with the game of(a) Football (b) Hockey (c) Badminton (d) Cricket Usain Bolt, the 100 meters race world record holder, is from which country? (a) Jamaica (b) U.S.A. (c) Canada (d) Nigeria Q28.

Only two cricket players have taken 10 wickets in an innings. One is Anil Kumble. The other is(a) Richard Hadlee (b) Muttiah Muralidharan (c) Jim Laker (d) Andy Roberts Q29.

‘Borlaug Award’ is given every year to an Indian scientist for outstanding contribution in the field of(a) Medicine (b) Space Q30.

(c) Applied Science (d) Agriculture http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Q31.

The highest Indian gallantry award which could be given in peace time is(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Param Vir Chakra (c) Kirti Chakra (d) Param Vishisht Seva Medal Q32.

The most successful Satellite Launch Vehicle of Indian Space Programme to launch commercial satellites is known as(a) SLV (b) ASLV (c) PSLV (d) GSLV Q33.

Which one of the following soils is most suitable for cotton cultivation(a) Red soil (b) Black soil (c) Loamy soil (d) Laterite soil Q34.

The name of indigenously built Light Combat Aircraft is(a) Tejas (b) Chakra c) Vajra (d) Trishul The boundary between China and India is known as(a) Mc Mohan Line (b) Radcliffe Line (c) Hindenberg Line (d) Line of Control Q35.

Q36.

Equinox means two days in a year when day and night are almost equal. If March 21 is an equinox which is the next? (a) 09 October (b) 31 August http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(b) 31 August (c) 23 September (d) 03 November

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Q37.

UNHCR, an organisation of United Nations, was established to provide/promote(a) Primary Education (b) Health and Culture (c) Relief (d) Protection to refugees Q38.

Who authored the book ‘Train to Pakistan’? (a) Salman Rushdie (b) Khushwant Singh (c) Mulk Raj Anand (d) Vikram Seth Vitamin necessary to prevent prolonged bleeding is(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin E (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin K Q40. The famous classical dance form of Andhra Pradesh is(a) Kathakali (b) Kuchipudi (c) Mohini Attam (d) Yakshaagna Q39.

Q41.

The term ‘Carbon Credit’ is associated with(a) Coal reserve of a nation (b) Reduction of Green House Gas emissions (c) Fossil Fuel reserve (d) Amount of CO2 an individual emits in a year Q42.

In a 225 meter long yard 26 trees are planted at equal distance, one tree being at each end of the yard. What is the distance between two consecutive trees? (a) 10 meters


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(a) 10 meters (b) 8 meters (c) 12 meters (d) 9 meters

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Q43.

A bonus of Rs. 1000 is divided among three employees. Rohit gets twice the amount Sachin gets. Sachin gets one fifth of what Gagan gets. How much amount does Gagan get? (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 625 (c) Rs. 750 (d) Rs. 120 Q44.

A boy was asked to multiply a number by 25. Instead, he multiplied the number by 52 and got the answer 324 more than the correct answer. The number to be multiplied was(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 32 The average age of 35 students in a class is 16 years. Out of these students the average age of 21 students is 14 years. The average age of remaining students is(a) 15 years (b) 17 years (c) 20 years (d) 19 years Q45.

Q46.

After replacing an old member by a new member, it was found that the average age of five

members of a club is the same as it was 3 years ago. What is the difference between the age of replaced member and new member? (a) 2 years (b) 8 years (c) 15 years (d) 25 years Q47.

The average salary of all the workers in a workshop is Rs. 8000. The average salary of seven technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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technicians is Rs. 12000 and average salary of others is Rs. 6000. The total number of workers in the workshop are(a) 20 (b) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23 Q48.

In an examination a candidate has to get 35% of total marks to pass. In one paper he gets 62 out of 150 and in the second 35 out of 150. How many marks should he get out of 200 marks in the third paper to pass? (a) 61 (b) 68 (c) 70 (d) 78 The salary of A & B together amounts to Rs. 2000. A spends 95% of his salary and B 85% of his salary. If their savings are same what is the salary of A? (a) Rs. 750 (b) Rs. 1250 (c) Rs. 1500 (d) Rs. 1600 Q49.

Out of the 1000 inhabitants of a town, 60% are male of whom 20% are literate. If, amongst all the inhabitants, 25% are literate, then what percentage of the females of the town are literate? (a) 22.5 Q50.

(b) 32.5 (c) 27.5 d) 37.5 A trader mixes 26 Kg of rice at Rs. 20 per kg with 30 Kg rice of another variety costing Rs. 36 per Kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs. 30 per Kg his profit will be(a) -7% (b) 5% (c) 8% (d) 10% Q51.


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The difference between the cost price and sale price is Rs. 240. If the profit is 20%, the selling price is(a) Rs. 1200 (b) Rs. 1440 (c) Rs. 1800 (d) Rs. 2440 Q52.

Samant bought a microwave oven and paid 10% less than Maximum Retail Price(MRP). He sold it with 30% profit on his purchase cost. What percentage of profit did he earn on MRP? (a) 17% (b) 20% (c) 27% (d) 32% Q53.

Q54.

The price of a scooter and a TV are in the ratio of 7:5. If the scooter costs Rs. 8000 more than a TV set, then the price of TV set is(a) Rs. 20000 (b) Rs. 24000 (c) Rs. 32000 (d) Rs. 28000 Q55.

The speed of three cars is in the ratio of 5:4:6. The ratio between the time taken by them to travel

the same distance is(a) 5:4:6 (b) 6:4:5 (c) 10:12:15 (d) 12:15:10 Q56.

The ration between two numbers is 3:4. If each number is increased by 6 the ratio becomes 4:5. The difference between the numbers is(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 8 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(d) 8

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Rs. 800 becomes Rs. 956 in 3 years at a certain rate of interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 4% what amount will Rs. 800 become in 3 years? (a) Rs. 1020 (b) Rs. 1052 (c) Rs. 1282 (d) Rs. 1080 Q57.

How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to gain Rs. 81 as interest, if rate of interest is 4.5% p.a on simple interest? (a) 4.5 years (b) 3.5 years (c) 5 years (d) 4 years Q58.

At what rate of annual simple interest will Rs. 10000 double in 15 years? (a) 5.5% (b) 8% (c) 6.75% (d) 7.25% Q59.

The value of (?) in the equation 365.089 - ? + 89.72 = 302.35 is(a) 152.456 (b) 152.459 (c) 153.456 (d) 153.459 Q60.

A sum of Rs. 312 is divided among 60 boys and some girls in such a way that each boy gets Rs. 3.60 and each girl gets Rs.2.40. The number of girls are(a) 35 (b) 60 (c) 40 (d) 65 Q61.

This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Whole-Testpaper This is a test of your ability to understand words. For each question four options are given. There is only one correct answer for each question. Mark the correct answer.

Q62.

INCITE means the same as (a) short (b) delay (c) place (d) provoke Q63.

SUCCUMB means the same as (a) aid (b) yield (c) check (d) oppose Q64.

ANOMALOUS means the same as (a) disgraceful (b) formless (c) irregular (d) threatening Q65.

FORTUITOUS means the same as

(a) accidental (b) conclusive (c) courageous (d) prosperous Q66 PERMEABLE

means the same as

(a) flexible (b) variable (c) soluble (d) penetrable Q67.

CONVOY means the same as (a) carry (b) flock (c) standard (d) escort


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(d) escort

Whole-Testpaper

CITE means the same as (a) illustrate (b) reveal (c) recollect (d) quote Q68.

VOCATION means the same as (a) hobby (b) occupation (c) post (d) designation Q69.

Each of the following questions has an underlined/capitalized word. You are to indicate which one of the four choices most nearly means the same as the underlined/capitalized word. Q70. The benefits of the plan are likely to be transitory.

(a) significant (b) obvious (c) temporary (d) cumulative The hikers found several crevices in the rocks. (a) cracks (b) minerals (c) canals (d) puddles Q71.

BOOK is to CHAPTER as BUILDING is to (a) ELEVATOR (b) LOBBY (c) ROOF (d) STOREY Q72.

Q73.

CARROT is to VEGETABLE as


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Q73.

CARROT is to VEGETABLE as (a) DOGWOOD is to OAK (b) FOOT is to PAW (c) PEPPER is to SPICE (d) SHEEP is to LAMB Q74.

CONCAVE is to CONVEX as (a) CAVITY is to MOUND (b) HILL is to HOLE (c) OVAL is to OBLONG (d) ROUND is to POINTED Q75.

GOWN is to GARMENT as GASOLINE is to (a) COOLANT (b) FUEL (c) OIL (d) LUBRICANT Q76.

HYPER- is to HYPO- as (a) DIASTOLIC is to SYSTOLIC (b) OVER is to UNDER (c) SMALL is to LARGE (d) STALE is to FRESH Q77.

IMMIGRATION is to EMIGRATION as (a) ARRIVAL is to DEPARTURE (b) FLIGHT is to VOYAGE (c) LEGAL is to ILLEGAL (d) MIGRATION is to TRAVEL OCTAGON is to SQUARE as HEXAGON is to (a) POLYGON (b) PYRAMID (c) RECTANGLE (d) TRIANGLE Q78.


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TELL is to TOLD as (a) RIDE is to RODE (b) SINK is to SANK (c) WEAVE is to WOVE (d) WEEP is to WEPT Q79.

Q80.

SHEEP is to LAMB as HORSE is to (a) COLT (b) DOE (c) FAWN (d) MARE Q81.

IGNORE is to OVERLOOK as

(a) AGREE is to CONSENT (b) CLIMB is to WALK (c) DULL is to SHARPEN (d) LEARN is to REMEMBER FREQUENTLY is to SELDOM as (a) ALWAYS is to NEVER (b) EVERYBODY is to EVERYONE (c) GENERALLY is to USUALLY (d) OCCASIONALLY is to CONSTANTLY This test is designed to test your ability to visualize and manipulate objects in space. In each question, you are shown a picture of a block. To the right of the pictured block,there are five choices shown as A, B, C, D and E. Select the choice containing a block that is just like the pictured block at the left although turned in a different position. Q82.


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The hidden figures test is designed to perceive simple figures in complex drawings. At the top of each section are five figures lettered A, B, C, D, and E. Below these are several numbered drawings. You must determine which lettered figure is embedded in each of the numbered drawings.


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CDAC Placement-Paper : 37030 Views : 4186 Rating : 6 students found similar paper in exam

Paper Type : Whole-Testpaper Posted By : Yamuna Updated Date : Mar 9, 2013 CDAC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers CDAC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

CDAC Project engineers recruitment details CDAC Test pattern, Selection procedure, Practice model question papers CDAC hiring Technical Officer Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (CDAC), invites applications for the post of Project Engineer C-DAC Hyderbad Requires Project Engineer on contract basis Eligibility: BE/B.Tech (Computer Science & Engineering (CSE), Electronics & Communication Engineering (ECE), Electronics & Instrumentation Engineering) ME/M.Tech Hiring process on the basis on written test and interview Selection Process : The selection will be based on written test & interview. Important Dates: Last Date for Online Registration 15-01-2013 (05:00 P.M) Last Date for Receipt of hardcopy of the Application along with Application Fee: 17-012013 (05:00 P.M). CDAC Project engineers recruitment details General Conditions

In case of more applications, apart from above mentioned criteria screening will be done based on relevant skill set, experience and aggregate marks secured in relevant qualifying degree. Persons working in Government / PSUs/autonomous bodies are required to forward an online advance copy of the application and later submit hard copy application through proper channel. http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Short-listed candidates will be called for written test. Those who are qualified in the written test. At the time of interview , they should bring Original Certificates of qualifications and experience and a photocopy of the same. SC/ST/OBC/Physically Challenged Category candidates should submit necessary certificates of the caste at the time of interview. The selection will be based on written test & interview. Last date for online registration 15-01-2013 (05:00 P.M) Last date of receipt of hardcopy of the Application along with application fee: 17-01-2013 (05:00 P.M) Thursday Applications received late/incomplete will be summarily rejected. If the candidate wishes to apply multiple posts he has to pay the fees equal to no. of applications. (eg. for 1 post Rs. 100/- and if he applies for 4 Posts Rs. 400/-). Written Test / Interview will be conducted only in Hyderabad. Written Examination is tentatively scheduled on 27-01-2013 (Sunday)Exact date, time venue of the written test will be announced on 16-01-2013 in our website www.cdac.in/careers or www.cdachyd.in/careers).

Admit Card for written examination available on website from 20-01-2013. No TA /DA will be paid for appearing for the written test / interview. C-DAC reserves the right to fill up the post or increase/decrease the number of posts or even to cancel the whole process of recruitment without assigning any reasons thereof. Canvassing in any form is prohibited and will result in disqualification. Candidates are advised to keep checking the website for any information updates For more details :http://cdachyd.in/career


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BSNL previous years solved sample placement papers,BSNL DGM,JTO Tech Assistant questions with answers,BSNL model questions for practicce,BSNL technical assistant question papers wit answers and detalied explnations

1. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is (a) Sinusoidal (Ans) (b) Square (c) rectangular (d) triangular 2. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Strain gauge is not a transducer an active transducer not an electronic none

(Ans)


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(d) none 3. A high Q coil has (a) large band width (b) high losses (c) low losses (d) flat response

(Ans)

4. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is (a) 1.810 % (b) 0.181 % (c) 12.45 % (Ans) (d) 0.0018% (Explanation : Limiting error at full scale = 1/100 X 150 = 1.5 volt the true reading may be (8.3 + 1.5) Volt the relative error = 1.5/100 X 8.3 = 12.45 % ) 5. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for High frequency, large signal operation High frequency, small signal operation Low frequency, small signal operation (Ans) Low frequency, large signal operation

6. (a) (b) (c) (d)

A system is casual if the output of any time depends only on Values of input in the past and in the future Values of input at that time and in the past (Ans) Values of input at that time and in the future None

7. (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. (a)

From the hot metal surface electrons escape because of change of state from metal to gas due to heat of change of state from gas to metal the energy greater than the work function (Ans) the energy is greater than Fermi level The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is amplifier


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(a) amplifier (b) triode (c) diode (d) transistor

(Ans)

9. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is Cathode anode The central tap on the high voltage secondary (Ans) Plate

10. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input Amplify the noise as much as the signal Reduce the noise (Ans) Increase the noise Not effect the noise

PART II

11. (a) (b) (c) (d)

It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode SCR (Ans) PCR VCR DCR

12. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a (a) constant voltage source (b) constant current source (Ans) (c) constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source (d) resistance 13. (a) (b) (c)

A node current in an thyristor is made up of electrons only electrons or holes electrons and holes (Ans)


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(d) holes only 14. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively (a) ferrite : 20:1 (b) laminated iron : 1:1 (c) ferrite : 1:1 (Ans) (d) powdered iron :1:1 15. (a) (b) (c) (d)

A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a 1 phase full converter 3 phase half wave converter 3 phase semi converter (Ans) 3 phase full converter

16. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is (a) square wave (b) triangular wave (Ans) (c) step function (d) pulsed wave 17. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor convertor uses a 230/200 V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is (a) 100 V (b) 141.4V (c) 200 V (d) 282.8 V (Ans) (Explanation : For centre taped transformer in output side the PIV = 2 Vrms = 2 x 200/√2 = 282.8 Volt) 18. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying T keeping Ton constant (Ans) Ton keeping T constant Toff keeping T constant None of the above


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19. (a) (b) (c) (d)

An ideal power supply consist of A Very small output resistance Zero internal resistance (Ans) Very large input resistance Very large output resistance

20. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The linearity error for a digital input is indicated by ξ y η ε (Ans)

21. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In the 8421 BCD code the decimal number 125 is written as 1111101 (Ans) 0001 0010 0101 7D None of the above Explanation :

22. Match the given feedback circuit with its proper nomenclatures


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(a) (b) (c) (d)

Current series feedback Current shunt feedback Voltage series feedback Voltage shunt feedback

23. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Class A amplifier is used when No phase inversion is required Highest voltage gain is required dc voltages are to be amplified Minimum distortion is desired

24.

Identify the correct match for the give transistor

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Enhancement type P channel MOSFET Depletion type N channel MOSFET (Ans) Enhancement type N channel MOSFET Depletion type P channel MOSFET

(Ans)

(Ans)

25. In case a signal band limited to fermimeter is sampled at a rate less than 2 fermimeter , the constructed signal will be (a) Distortionless (b) Small in amplitude (c) Having higher frequencies suppressed (d) Distorted (Ans) http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(d) Distorted

(Ans)

26. (a) (b) (c) (d)

IC which has quad 2 input AND gates 7411 7404 7400 7408 (Ans)

27. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as left shift register right shift register shift registers (Ans) none of the above

28. The expression ABC can be simplified to (a) A B C (b) AB + BC + CA (c) A B + C (d) A + B + C (Ans) 29. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Read the following : Routh Herwitz's criterion is in time domain Root locus plot is in time domain Bode plot is in frequency domain Nyquist criterion is in frequency domain

(Ans)

(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) All four are correct 30. Register and counters are similar in the sense that they both (a) count pulses (b) store binary operation (c) shift registers (d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

(Ans)

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(d) made from an array of flip flops and gates integrated on a single chip

(Ans)

31. In D/A converter, the resolution required is 50 mv and the total maximum input is 10 V. The number of bits required is (a) 7 (b) 8 (Ans) (c) 9 (d) 200 32. (a) (b) (c) (d)

On differentiation unit impulse function results in Unit parabolic function Unit triplet Unit doublet (Ans) Unit ramp function

33. (a) (b) (c) (d)

------ watt of power is received from sun per m2 surface area of a geosynchronous satellite 100 500 2000 1000 (Ans)

34. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The ripple factor in an LC filter Increase with the load current Increases with the load resistance Remains constant with the load current Has the lowest value (Ans)

35. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In different parts of the country identical telephone numbers are distinguished by their Language digits Access digits Area codes (Ans) Central office codes

36. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because (a) it is move noise immune than other modulation systems http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(a) (b) (c) (d)

Whole-Testpaper it is move noise immune than other modulation systems compared with other systems it requires less transmitting power its use avoids receiver complexity (Ans) no other modulation system can provide the necessary bandwidth for high fidelity

37. The maximum phase shift than can be provided by a lead compensator with transfer function G0(S) = 1 + 6S 1 + 2S o (a) 15 (b) 45o (c) 30o (Ans) o (d) 60 (Explanation : If GC(s) = 1 +Tn s 1 + Td s then Q = tan -1 ωTn - tan-1 ωTd Q = tan -1 6ω - tan-1 2ω So maximum phase shift will be Q= 30o ) 38. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The correct sequence of steps required to improve system stability is Insert derivative action, use negative feedback, reduce again Reduce gain, use negative feedback, insert derivative action Reduce gain, insert derivative action, use negative feedback Use negative feedback, reduce gain, insert derivative action. (Ans)

39. Identify slope change at ω= 10 of the magnitude v/s frequency characteristic of a unity feedback system with the following open-loop transfer function G (jω) = 5(1+j o.w) jω (1 + j0.5ω) [ (1+j 0.6 ω/50) + ( jω/50)2] (a) -80 dB/dec to - 60 dB/dec (Ans) (b) 40 dB/dec to 20 dB/dec (c) 20 dB/dec to - 40 dB/dec (d) 40 dB/dec to - 20 dB/dec (Explanation : Corner Factor Gain and angle frequency http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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5

40.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 41.

(a) (b) (c) (d) 42. 1. 2. 3. 4.

frequency -----

1 jω

-----

1 1 + j0.5ω

ω1=2

1+0 (1+j 0.6 ω/50) + ( jω/50)2

ω2=7.07

Whole-Testpaper

20 log5=14dB line parallel to x axis -20dB/dec passing through ω=1 -20dB/dec slope originates from ω=2 -40 dB/dec slope originates from ω=7.07

1+j 0-1 ω ω3=10 +20dB/dec slope originates ω=10 In the feedback control system the loop transfer function is given by G(s) H (s) = K 2 s(s+2) (s +2s +2) Number of asymptotes of its root loci is 1 2 3 4 (Ans) In a closed - loop transfer function G (s) = 2600k(s + 25) R (s) s4 +125s3 + 5100s2 + 65000s + 65000k the imaginary axis intercepts of the root loci will be + j228 (Ans) +j2.28 +j1.14 +j114 Considering the following statement : In a magic tee the collinear arms are isolated from each other one of the collinear is isolated from the E-arm one of the collinear arm is isolated from the H-arm E-arm and H-arm are isolated from each other. of these statements

(a) 1 and 2 are correct


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(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 and 2 are correct 1 and 3 are correct 1 and 4 are correct 2 and 3 are correct

43. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In 1965 first geostationary satellite was launched called ANIK EARLY BIRD (Intel sat-1) WESTAR (Ans) MOLNIYA

44. (a) (b) (c) (d)

When A = 0., B = 0, C=1 then in two input logic gate we get gate XOR gate AND gate NAND gate (Ans) NOR gate

45. (a) (b) (c)

In a radio receiver the IF amplifier is tuned above the stations incoming frequency amplifies the output of local oscillator is fixed tuned to one particular frequency (Ans)

(Ans)

(d) can be tuned to various isolate frequencies 46. (a) (b) (c) (d)

A duplexer is used to couple two antennas to a transmitter without interference isolate the antennas from the local oscillator prevent interference between two antennas connected to a receiver use an antenna for reception or transmission without interference

47. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Boolean algebra is based on numbers logic (Ans) truth symbols

48. The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

(Ans)

modulation AM system be

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48. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The amplifiers following the modulated stage in a low level modulation AM system be linear amplifier harmonic generators class C power amplifiers (Ans) class B untuned amplifiers

49. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In a radar system maximum unambiguous range depends on maximum power of the transmitter pulse repetition frequency (Ans) width of the transmitted pulse sensitivity of the radar receiver

50. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In composite video waveform the function of the serrations, is to equalize the charge in the integrator before the start of vertical retrace. help vertical synchronization help horizontal synchronization (Ans) simplify the generation of the vertical syncpulse.

51. The frequency range 30MHz - 300 MHz is (a) (b) (c) (d)

medium frequency very high frequency super high frequency infrared frequency

52. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Which wave cannot exist inside wave guide TE TM TEM (Ans) HE

53. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Ionosphere layer of earth is situated at upto 18kms from each from 18 to 70 k m 70 to 500 km (Ans) above 500 km

(Ans)


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54. (a) (b) (c) (d)

A two cavity klystron tube is a velocity modulated tube (Ans) frequency modulated tube Amplitude modulated tube simple triode

55. (a) (b) (c) (d)

As the thermal noise get doubled due to the increase in a resistance the noise power get doubled quadrupted unchanged (Ans) halved

56. (a) (b) (c)

Which one is a cross field tube Klystron Reflex Klystron Magnetron (Ans)

(d) TWT 57. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The degree of coupling depends on Size of hole location of holes (Ans) size and location of holes not depend on size or location of hole

58. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The thermal noise depends on direct current through device resistive component of resistance reactive component of impedance load to connected

(Ans)

59. The charge on a hole is (a) 1.6 x 10-9 (b) 1.6 x 10-19 (Ans) (c) 1.6 x 101 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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(c) 1.6 x 101 (d) 1.6 x 1020 60. (a) (b) (c) (d)

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Intel's 8085 microprocessor chip contains seven 8 bit registers (Ans) 8 seven bits registers seven 7 bit registers eight 8 bit registers

PART -III

61. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The words 'Satyameva Jayate' have been taken from Vedas (Ans) Bhagwad Gita Mahabharata None of these

62. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Which of the following countries was the first to develop a neutron bomb? USA (Ans) USSR China Pakistan

63. (a) (b) (c) (d)

'Kathakali' dance is connected with Kerala (Ans) Rajasthan Uttar Pradesh Tamil Nadu

64. (a) (b) (c) (d)

The term "Ashes" is associated with Hockey Cricket (Ans) Soccer None of these

65. (a)

The Kailash Temple at Ellora is a specimen of Gupta architecture


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(a) (b) (c) (d)

Gupta architecture Rashtrakutlas architecture Chalukya architecture Chola architecture (Ans)

66. (a) (b) (c) (d)

When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the controversy is solved by Joint sitting of the two Houses President of India Prime Minister of India (Ans) By a special committee for the purpose

67. (a) (b)

Which of the following is not the work of Kalidasa ? Meghdoot Raghuvansha

(c) (d)

Sariputra Prakarma Ritushamhara (Ans)

68. Amir Khusro was the famous poet and aesthete of (a) Akbar the Great (Ans) (b) Mahmud Ghaznvi (c) Shah Jahan (d) Alauddin Khilji 69. (a) (b) (c) (d)

With the beginnings of space travel, we entered a new Era of great history (Ans) List Book Year

70. (a) (b) (c) (d)

An though it mourns the death of someone , need not be sad Funny poem Newspaper article Orthodox talk Elegy (Ans)

71. If stare is glance so gulp is


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71. (a) (b) (c) (d)

If stare is glance so gulp is Slip (Ans) Tell Salk Admire

72. (a) (b) (c) (d)

He hardly works means The work is hard He is hard The work is easy He work very little (Ans)

73. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Give the opposite word for pulchritude antipathy unsightliness (Ans) inexperience languor

74. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Nanometre is -----part of a metre Millionth Ten millionth (Ans) Billionth Ten billionth

75. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Malaria affects Liver Spleen (Ans) Intestine Lungs

76. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Sindhu Rakshak is a/an Aircraft carrier Submarine Multiple-purpose fighter Anti-aircraft gun (Ans)


Whole-Testpaper

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77. (a) (b) (c) (d)

With which subject is "Dada Saheb Phalke Award" associated ? Best film director Best musician Best documentary (Ans) Best work relating to promotion of Indian film Industry

78. Who developed the branch of mathematics know as Calculus ? (a) Aryabhatta (b) Newton (c) Einstein (Ans) (d) Archimedes 79. (a) (b) (c) (d)

In which state is Kanha Park situated ? M.P. U.P. (Ans) Assam W. Bengal

80. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Which day is observed as Human Rights Day ? 24th October (Ans) 4th July 8th August 10th December


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BSNLDGM model questions with answers and detailed explanations

upcoming DGM examination, BSNL DGM solved question papers includes technical questions,general ability questions,and basic engineering questions. Preparation of BSNL upcoming wrritten test examination practice more model to improve your knowledge and speed,time management for exam. BSNL DGM MODEL PAPER- PART-A,BSNL DGM model questions for practice

BSNL DGM Objective questions 1. First-level managers must possess skills, which include knowledge of and proficiency in the methods, processes and procedures for carrying out activities. a. Human b. Conceptual c. Design d. Technical

2. Which of the following skills is important at all levels of an organization? a. Conceptual b. Design c. Human d. Technical

3. Which of the following skills indicates the ability to solve problems in ways that will benefit the enterprise? a. Design b. Human c. Conceptual d. Technical 4. Managers possessing skill have the ability to understand and coordinate the full range of corporate objectives and activities. a. Design skill b. Human skill c. Conceptual skill d. Technical skill 5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having only http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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5. Which of the following approaches to management examines practical cases but is having only limited value for developing management theory? a. Group behavior approach b. Systems approach c. Operational approach d. Empirical approach

6. Which of the following is also known as the mathematical approach? a. Operational approach b. Management science approach c. Management roles approach d. Systems approach

7. Which of the following approaches to management advocates a system ofcooperation using both interpersonal and group behavioral aspects? a. Sociotechnical approach b. Contingency approach c. Situational approach d. Cooperative social systems approach

8. Under which system does a worker's wage increase in proportion to theoutput produced? a. Time-and-motion study b. Piece-rate incentive system c. Micromotion study d. Gantt Chart

9. Who proposed the task-and-bonus system under which workers are given a bonus if the work is completed before the set time? a. Frederick W. Taylor b. Henry L. Gantt c. Frank B. Gilbreth d. Max Weber

10. The theorists ignored the human desire for job satisfaction. a. Scientific management b. Bureaucratic management c. Administrative theory d. Management science

11. Which type of management approach focuses only on the economic andphysical needs of workers and ignores their social needs? a. Scientific management b. Bureaucratic management c. Administrative management d. Operations management

12.Which one of the following did not contribute to the behavioral concept ofmanagement? a. Elton Mayo b. Mary Parker Follet c. Chris Argyris d. Henry R. Towne


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d. Henry R. Towne

Whole-Testpaper

13. A branch of the classical viewpoint of management, is basedon Max Weber's research in the field of management. a. Bureaucratic management b. Scientific management c. Administrative management d. Weber management

14. which of the following is the fastest memory in the terms of accessibility? 1. Read only memory 2. Cache memory 3.Random Access memory 4. Dynamic random access Memory

15. Registers are associated with_________ 1. Input 2. memory 3.control 4. output

16. _______________ is an example of sequential storage device 1. 2. 3. 4.

Magnetic Tape floppy disk Hard disk CD-ROM

17.Programs and procedures in an information system are _____________ 1. 2. 3. 4.

data resources people resources hardware and software resources all the above

18.The information circulated in a company grapevine can be called as ____________ 1. knowledge information 2. sampled information 3.informal information 4. organizational information 19.what is the term used to refer to alignment of the beginning and end of lines 1.indentation 2. justification 3. superscript 4 font

20. what is the character positioned below normal text called? 1. superscript 2. italic 3.font 4.subscript http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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4.subscript

21. spread sheet is a ________________ 1. superscript 2.Italic 3.font 4.subscript

22.The first Factories Act was enacted in a),1881 b),1895 c),1897 d),1885

Answer- a), 1881 23, Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ? a. Who has completed 18 years of age b. who is less than 18 years c. who is more than 14 years d. who is more than 15 years

Answer- a). Who has completed 18 years of age 24. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as _________ a. Occupier b. Manager c. Chairman d. Managing Director.

Answer - a. Occupier 25, The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of Factories Act, 1948 should be ________ Cubic Meters. a. 9.9 b. 10.2 c. 14.2 d. 13.2

Answer- c. 14.2 26,The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the organization if it employees _______ or more employees. a. 200 b. 250 c. 300 d. 150

Answer- b. 250 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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27.Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ? a. Who has completed 17 years of age b. who is less than 18 years c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years. d. None of these

Answer- c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years. 28, Which one of the following is not a welfare provision under Factories Act, 1948 a.Canteen b. Creches c.First Aid d.Drinking water. Answer- d. Drinking water.

29, F irst Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons a. 125 b. 135 c. 150 d. 160

Answer- c. 150 30,Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees. a. 1000 b. 2000 c. 500 d. 750

Answer- a. 1000 31 Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons. a. 250 b. 230 c. 300 d. 275 Answer- a. 250

32 Leave with wages is allowed for employees if they work for _______ days in a month. a. 15 b. 25 c. 20 d. 28

Answer- c. 20 33. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is engaging ______ or more employees. a. 500 b. 250 c. 600 d. 750

Answer- a. 500 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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34. The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging employees more than______ a. 400 b. 350 c. 500 d. 450

Answer- c. 500 35, Creche is to be provided if ______ or more lady employees are engaged. a. 25 b. 32 c. 30 d. 40

Answer- c. 30 36. An adult worker can upto ____ hrs in a day as per factories Act, 1948 a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 12

Answer-. b. 9 37, Obligations of Workers under the Factories Act 1947 was discussed in section ----a) 78 b) 101 c) 111 d) 99

Answer - Sec.111 38. The term Sabbatical is connected with a) Paid leave for study b) Paternity leave c) Maternity leave d) Quarantine leave

Answer- Paid leave for study 39. Section 49 of the Factories Act 1947 Says about a) Welfare officer b) Canteen c) Rest room d) Crèche

Answer is - Welfare officer 40. Section 2 ( K )of the Factories Act 1947 says about a) Manufacturing Process b) Factory c) Worker d) None of these

Answer : Manufacturing Process 41., If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------------- to http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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41., If the factory employs more than 1000 workers, they should appoint qualified ------------- to carry out the prescribed duties a) Safety Officer b) Welfare officer c) Security officer d) None of these

Answer : a) Safety Officer

42. For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or Rules, the occupier shall liable for punishment up to a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both b) 6 months or fine upto 10, 000 or both c) 3 three years or fine 10, 000 or both d) None of these

Answer –a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both. 43. In case of fatal accident occurred inside the factory , a separate accident report shall be sent to the District magistrate in Form No ---- within 12 hours a) Form No:16 b) Form No:18 A c) Form No :18 B d) Form No:18

44., Manager of every factory should sent a annual report to the Inspectorate of factories containing details like numbers of workers employed , leave with wages, safety officers ,ambulance room, canteen, shelter, accidents in form no --- on or before 31 st January a) Form No : 22 b) Form No: 21 c) Form No: 25 A d) Form No: 25 B

Answer: a) Form No: 22

45. If any employee found violating the section 20 of Factories Act 1947 shall be fine up to a)Rs. 10 b) Rs. 5 c) Rs. 15 d) Rs.20 Answer :b ) Rs. 5

46. Section 41- G of the Factories Act 1948 says about a) Fencing of machineries b) Facing of machineries c) Work on near machinery in motion

Answer-d) Workers participation in safety management 47. Find the minimum value of the objective function where minimum z=20x+35y 1. 2100 2.1600 3.800 4.3700 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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48. which of the following is not an advantage of MRP system? 1. 2. 3. 4.

Ability to price competitively Better Customer service longer idle time Reduced set up and tear –down costs

49. Accounting Ratios are important tools used by (a) Managers, (b) Researchers, (c)Investors, (d) All of the above

50. Net Profit Ratio Signifies: (a) Operational Profitability, (b) Liquidity Position, (c) Big-term Solvency, (d)Profit for Lenders.

51. Working Capital Turnover measures the relationship of Working Capital with: (a)Fixed Assets, (b)Sales, (c)Purchases, (d)Stock.

52.. In Ratio Analysis, the term Capital Employed refers to: (a)Equity Share Capital, (b)Net worth, (c)Shareholders' Funds, (d)None of the above.

53. Dividend Payout Ratio is: (a)PAT Capital, (b)DPS ÷ EPS, (c) Pref. Dividend ÷ PAT, (d) Pref. Dividend ÷ Equity Dividend.

54 DU PONT Analysis deals with: (a) Analysis of Current Assets, (b)Analysis of Profit, (c)Capital Budgeting, (d) Analysis of Fixed Assets

55. In Net Profit Ratio, the denominator is: (a)Net Purchases, (b)Net Sales, (c) Credit Sales, (d) Cost of goods sold.

56. Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inven¬tory with:


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56. Inventory Turnover measures the relationship of inven¬tory with: (a) Average Sales, (b)Cost of Goods Sold, (c)Total Purchases, (d) Total Assets.

57.. The term 'EVA' is used for: (a)Extra Value Analysis, (b)Economic Value Added ,(c)Expected Value Analysis, (d)Engineering Value Analysis.

58.. Return on Investment may be improved by: (a)Increasing Turnover, (b) Reducing Expenses, (c)Increasing Capital Utilization, (d)All of the above.

59.. In Current Ratio, Current Assets are compared with: (a)Current Profit, (b)Current Liabilities, (c)Fixed Assets, (d)Equity Share Capital.

60.. ABC Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 1.5: 1 and Net Current Assets of Rs. 5,00,000. What are the Current Assets? (a)Rs. 5,00,000, (b)Rs. 10,00,000, (c)Rs. 15,00,000, (d) Rs. 25,00,000

61. There is deterioration in the management of working capital of XYZ Ltd. What does it refer to? (a)That the Capital Employed has reduced, (b)That the Profitability has gone up, (c)That debtors collection period has increased, (d)That Sales has decreased.

62. Which of the following does not help to increase Current Ratio? (a)Issue of Debentures to buy Stock, (b)Issue of Debentures to pay Creditors, (c)Sale of Investment to pay Creditors, (d)Avail Bank Overdraft to buy Machine.

63. Debt to Total Assets Ratio can be improved by: (a)Borrowing More, (b)Issue of Debentures, (c)Issue of Equity Shares, (d)Redemption of Debt.

64.. Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as: http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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64.. Ratio of Net Income to Number of Equity Shares known as:

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(a)Price Earnings Ratio, (b) Net Profit Ratio, (c)Earnings per Share, (d) Dividend per Share.

65. Trend Analysis helps comparing performance of a firm (a)With other firms, (b)Over a period of firm, (c)With other industries, (d) None of the above.

66. A Current Ratio of Less than One means: (a)Current Liabilities < Current Assets, (b)Fixed Assets > Current Assets, (c)Current Assets < Current Liabilities, (d) Share Capital > Current Assets.

67. XYZ Ltd. has earned 8% Return on Total Assests of Rs. 50,00,000 and has a Net Profit Ratio of 5%. Find out the Sales of the firm. (a) Rs. 4,00,000, (b)Rs. 2,50,000, (c)Rs. 80,00,000, (d)Rs. 83,33,333.

68. Suppliers and Creditors of a firm are interested in (a)Profitability Position, (b)Liquidity Position, (c)Market Share Position, (d) Debt Position.

69. Which of the following is a measure of Debt Service capacity of a firm? (a)Current Ratio, (b)Acid Test Ratio, (c) Interest Coverage Ratio, (d) Debtors Turnover.

70. Gross Profit Ratio for a firm remains same but the Net Profit Ratio is decreasing. The reason for such behavior could be: (a) Increase in Costs of Goods Sold, (b)If Increase in Expense, (c) Increase in Dividend, (d)Decrease in Sales.

71. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) A Higher Receivable Turnover is not desirable, (b) Interest Coverage Ratio depends upon Tax Rate, (c)Increase in Net Profit Ratio means increase in Sales, (d) Lower Debt-Equity Ratio means lower Financial Risk.

72. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be:


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72. Debt to Total Assets of a firm is .2. The Debt to Equity boo would be: (a) 0.80, (b)0.25, (c) 1.00, (d)0.75

73. Which of the following helps analysing return to equity Shareholders? (a) Return on Assets, (b) Earnings Per Share, (c) Net Profit Ratio, (d)Return on Investment.

74. Return on Assets and Return on Investment Ratios be¬long to: (a) Liquidity Ratios, (b)Profitability Ratios, (c)Solvency Ratios, (d)Turnover.

75. XYZ Ltd. has a Debt Equity Ratio of 1.5 as compared to 1.3 Industry average. It means that the firm has: (a) Higher Liquidity, (b)Higher Financial Risk, (c)Higher Profitability, (d)Higher Capital Employed.

-------------------------------------- END OF PART-A -----------------------------------Found the similar paper in recruitment ? : Yes No


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Updated Date : Mar 7, 2013 CSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers CSC recruitment process and aptitude test experiences

CSC Operating system-OS question for practice, CSE Off and On campus recruitment experience and selection procedure, CSC latest written test pattern, CSC Aptitude written test model questions, CSC Technical written test practice questions with answers, CSC previous years free solved sample placement papers, CSC Technical hr interview procedure, CSC Group Discussion topics and procedures CSC Operating system 1) Round robin scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of ________. 1 FIFO 2 Shortest job first 3 Shortes remaining 4 Longest time first Right Ans ) 1

A page fault occurs 1 when the page is not in the memory 2 when the page is in the memory 3 when the process enters the blocked state 4 when the process is in the ready state 2)

Right Ans ) 1

Which of the following will determine your choice of systems software for your computer ? 1 Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it ? 2 Is it expensive ? 3 Is it compatible with your hardware ? 4 Both 1 and 3 3)

Right Ans ) 4

Let S and Q be two semaphores initialized to 1, where P0 and P1 processes the following statements wait(S);wait(Q); ---; signal(S);signal(Q) and wait(Q); wait(S);---;signal(Q);signal(S); respectively. The above situation depicts a _________ . 1 Semaphore 2 Deadlock 3 Signal 4 Interrupt http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 4)

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4 Interrupt

Right Ans ) 2

What is a shell ? 1 It is a hardware component 2 It is a command interpreter 3 It is a part in compiler 4 It is a tool in CPU scheduling 5)

Right Ans ) 2

Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called _________ 1 Static loading 2 Dynamic loading 3 Dynamic linking 4 Overlays Right Ans ) 3 6)

In the blocked state 1 the processes waiting for I/O are found 2 the process which is running is found 7)

3 the processes waiting for the processor are found 4 none of the above Right Ans ) 1

What is the memory from 1K - 640K called ? 1 Extended Memory 2 Normal Memory 3 Low Memory 4 Conventional Memory 8)

Right Ans ) 4

Virtual memory is __________. 1 An extremely large main memory 2 An extremely large secondary memory 3 An illusion of extremely large main memory 4 A type of memory used in super computers. http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 9)

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4 A type of memory used in super computers. Right Ans ) 3

The process related to process control, file management, device management, information about system and communication that is requested by any higher level language can be performed by __________. 1 Editors 2 Compilers 3 System Call 4 Caching 10)

Right Ans ) 3

If the Disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk queue of I/O blocks requests are 98,37,14,124,65,67. 1 310 2 324 3 315 4 321 11)

Right Ans ) 4

Multiprogramming systems ________. 1 Are easier to develop than single programming systems 2 Execute each job faster 3 Execute more jobs in the same time 4 Are used only on large main frame computers 12)

Right Ans ) 3

Which is not the state of the process ? 1 Blocked 2 Running 3 Ready 4 Privileged 13)

Right Ans ) 4

The solution to Critical Section Problem is : Mutual Exclusion, Progress and Bounded Waiting. 1 The statement is false 2 The statement is true. http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 14)

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2 The statement is true. 3 The statement is contradictory. 4 None of the above Right Ans ) 2

The problem of thrashing is effected scientifically by ________. 1 Program structure 2 Program size 3 Primary storage size 4 None of the above 15)

Right Ans ) 1

The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is __________. 1 Ready 2 Blocked/Waiting 3 Idle 4 Running 16)

Right Ans ) 2 The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________. 1 Output 2 Throughput 3 Efficiency 4 Capacity 17)

Right Ans ) 2

18) _________ is the situation in which a process is waiting on another process,which is also waiting on another process ... which is waiting on the first process. None of the processes involved in this circular wait are making progress. 1 Deadlock 2 Starvation 3 Dormant 4 None of the above Right Ans ) 1 19)

Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ?


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Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup Whole-Testpaper copy of another file ? 1 TXT 2 COM 3 BAS 4 BAK 19)

Right Ans ) 4

Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and the I/O devices busy? 1 Time-sharing 2 SPOOLing 3 Preemptive scheduling 4 Multiprogramming 20)

Right Ans ) 4 21)

A critical region

1 is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time 2 is a region prone to deadlock 3 is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute 4 is found only in Windows NT operation system Right Ans ) 1

The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called _____________ 1 Segmentation 2 Fragmentation 3 Demand Paging 4 Page Replacement 22)

Right Ans ) 3

PCB = 1 Program Control Block 2 Process Control Block 3 Process Communication Block 4 None of the above 23)

Right Ans ) 2 24)

FIFO scheduling is ________.


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FIFO scheduling is ________. 1 Preemptive Scheduling 2 Non Preemptive Scheduling 3 Deadline Scheduling 4 Fair share scheduling

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Right Ans ) 2

Switching the CPU to another Process requires to save state of the old process and loading new process state is called as __________. 1 Process Blocking 2 Context Switch 3 Time Sharing 4 None of the above 25)

Right Ans ) 2

26) Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System? 1 Single level directory structure 2 Two level directory structure 3 Tree directory structure 4 Acyclic directory structure Right Ans ) 3

27) The Banker¿s algorithm is used 1 to prevent deadlock in operating systems 2 to detect deadlock in operating systems 3 to rectify a deadlocked state 4 none of the above Right Ans ) 1

A thread 1 is a lightweight process where the context switching is low 2 is a lightweight process where the context swithching is high 3 is used to speed up paging 4 none of the above 28)

Right Ans ) 1 29)

______ is a high level abstraction over Semaphore.


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______ is a high level abstraction over Semaphore. 1 Shared memory 2 Message passing 3 Monitor 4 Mutual exclusion 29)

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Right Ans ) 3

A tree sturctured file directory system 1 allows easy storage and retrieval of file names 2 is a much debated unecessary feature 3 is not essential when we have millions of files 4 none of the above 30)

Right Ans ) 1 CSC-Multiple Choice Questions On Operating System Part-2

Using Priority Scheduling algorithm, find the average waiting time for the following set of processes given with their priorities in the order: Process : Burst Time : Priority respectively . P1 : 10 : 3 , P2 : 1 : 1 , P3 : 2 : 4 , P4 : 1 : 5 , P5 : 5 : 2. 1 8 milliseconds 2 8.2 milliseconds 3 7.75 milliseconds 4 3 milliseconds 1)

Right Ans ) 2

2) Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called _________ 1 Static loading 2 Dynamic loading 3 Dynamic linking 4 Overlays Right Ans ) 3

In the running state 1 only the process which has control of the processor is found 2 all the processes waiting for I/O to be completed are found 3 all the processes waiting for the processor are found 3)


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all the processes waiting for the processor are found 4 none of the above

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Right Ans ) 1

4) The Purpose of Co-operating Process is __________. 1 Information Sharing 2 Convenience 3 Computation Speed-Up 4 All of the above Right Ans ) 4 The kernel of the operating system remains in the primary memory because ________. 1 It is mostly called (used) 2 It manages all interrupt calls 3 It controls all operations in process 4 It is low level 5)

Right Ans ) 1


Right Ans ) 3

Which of the following disk scheduling techniques has a drawback of starvation ? 1 SCAN 2 SSTF 3 FCFS 4 LIFO 7)

Right Ans ) 2

Multiprogramming systems ________. 1 Are easier to develop than single programming systems 2 Execute each job faster 3 Execute more jobs in the same time http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 8)

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3 Execute more jobs in the same time 4 Are used only on large main frame computers

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Right Ans ) 3

Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is slightly ___________. 1 Lengthened; Shortened 2 Shortened; Lengthened 9)

3 Shortened; Shortened 4 Shortened; Unchanged Right Ans ) 2

Multiprocessing ________. 1 Make the operating system simpler 2 Allows multiple processes to run simultaneously 3 Is completely understood by all major computer vendors 4 Allows the same computer to have the multiple processors 10)

Right Ans ) 4


Right Ans ) 4

A set of resources' allocations such that the system can allocate resources to each process in some order, and still avoid a deadlock is called ________. 1 Unsafe state 2 Safe state 3 Starvation 4 Greeedy allocation 12)

Right Ans ) 2

The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________. 1 Virtual Memory 2 Interrupts http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 13)

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2 Interrupts 3 Main memory 4 Cache memory

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Right Ans ) 4 14)

What is the first step in performing an operating system upgrade ?

1 Partition the drive 2 Format the drive 3 Backup critical data 4 Backup old operating system Right Ans ) 3

The technique, for sharing the time of a computer among several jobs, which switches jobs so rapidly such that each job appears to have the computer to itself, is called ________. 1 Time Sharing 2 Time out 3 Time domain 4 Multitasking 15)

Right Ans ) 1

In a virtural memory environment 1 segmentation and page tables are stored in the cache and do not add any substantial overhead 2 slow down the computer system considerable 3 segmentation and page tables are stored in the RAM 4 none of the above 16)

Right Ans ) 3

If all page frames are initially empty, and a process is allocated 3 page frames in real memory and references its pages in the order 1 2 3 2 4 5 2 3 2 4 1 and the page replacement is FIFO, the total number of page faults caused by the process will be __________. 1 10 27 38 49 17)

Right Ans ) 4 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the final results depends on the order of usage of the shared data, are called ________. 1 Race conditions 2 Critical section 18)

3 Mutual exclusion 4 Dead locks Right Ans ) 1

When two or more processes attempt to access the same resource a _________ occurs. 1 Critical section 2 Fight 3 Communication problem 4 Race condition 19)

Right Ans ) 4


Right Ans ) 4

_________ allocates the largest hole (free fragmant) available in the memory. 1 Best Fit 2 Worst Fit 3 First Fit 4 None of the above 21)

Right Ans ) 2

A process is starved 1 if it is permanently waiting for a resource 2 if semaphores are not used 3 if a queue is not used for scheduling 4 if demand paging is not properly implemented 22)


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23)

The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by

1 CPU Scheduler 2 Context Switching 3 Long-term Scheduler 4 Medium term Scheduler Right Ans ) 3

The time taken to bring the desired track/cylinder under the head is _________. 1 Seek time 2 Latency time 3 Transfer time 4 Read time 24)

Right Ans ) 1

Replace the page that will not be used for the longest period of time. This principle is adopted by ____________. 1 FIFO Page replacement algorithm 2 Optimal Page replacement algorithm 3 Round robin scheduling algorithm 4 SCAN scheduling algorithm 25)

Right Ans ) 3

Which of the following is a criterion to evaluate a scheduling algorithm? 1 CPU Utilization: Keep CPU utilization as high as possible. 2 Throughput: number of processes completed per unit time. 3 Waiting Time: Amount of time spent ready to run but not running. 4 All of the above 26)

Right Ans ) 4

The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the ________. 1 Hardware 2 Peripheral 3 Memory 4 Screen 27)


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Right Ans ) 1

Super computers typically employ _______. 1 Real time Operating system 2 Multiprocessors OS 3 desktop OS 4 None of the above 28)

Right Ans ) 2

A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can communicate with other processes using message based communication, is called ________. 1 Local Procedure Call 2 Inter Process Communication 3 Remote Procedure Call 4 Remote Machine Invocation 29)

Right Ans ) 3

A process is 1 program in execution 2 a concurrent program 3 any sequential program 4 something which prevents deadlock 30)

Right Ans ) 1


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BSNL Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers BSNL recruitment process and aptitude test

experiences

BSNL Technical Assistant Recruitment Procedure in shillong, BSNL Technical Assistant Written test pattern Detailed SyllabusBHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LTD.(A Govt. of India Enterprise) Office of the Chief General Manager, North East - I Circle, Shillong -793 001. No. Rectt-225/TTA/Direct-Rectt/2012 Recruitment of Telecom Technical Assistant CLOSING DATE OF RECEIPT OF APPLICATION: 31.12.2012 BSNL technical Assistant recruitment details EXAMINATION DATE : To be announced later. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. BSNL NE-I Circle, will fill up about 15(fifteen) vacancies for Mizoram SSA [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] of Telecom Technical Assistant in the IDA Pay Scale of Rs.13600-25420 through an open competitive examination likely to be held in the month of February-March 2013 Selection: C andidates

will be selected as Telecom Technical Assistant on the basis of a competitive examination. Date and venue of the examination will be communicated to the candidates in due course BSNL Technical Assistant Written Test Pattern PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20 PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90 Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe prescribed by the BSNL. The examination is fully objective multiple choice pattern . There will be a written test comprising of 3 ( three) parts consisting of Part-I (General ability test - 20 marks), Part-II (Basic Engineering-90 marks) and Part-III (Specialization - 90 marks) of 3 hours duration. Candidates will have the option to answer Part-II & III in Hindi or English language. Option once exercised in respect of medium of answer shall be final and in no way will be allowed to change. Scheme and syllabus of the examination is in Annexure-II Examination :

SCHEME & SYLLABUS FOR TTA DIRECT RECRUIMENT EXAMINATION http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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The standard of Paper in General ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Diploma holder. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be that of Diploma level of an Indian Polytechnic. There shall be a single multiple choice objective types Paper of 3 hrs duration as per given below: Paper Marks Time PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20 PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 3hrs PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90 Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe prescribed by the BSNL. Detailed syllabus

PART-I: Detailed syllabus

PART-I: GENERAL ABILITY TEST – 20 MARKS

The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercise such as provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple-choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions on current events, general knowledge and such matters of everyday observation and experiences as may be expected of Diploma holder. PART-II: BASIC ENGINEERING –90 MARKS Detailed Syllabus is as under: 1. Applied mathematics: Co-ordinate

Geometry, Vector Algebra; Matrix and Determinant; Differential Calculus; Integral Calculus Differential equation of second order; Fourier series; Laplace Transform; Complex Number; Partial Differentiation. 2. Applied Physics: Measurement- Units and Dimension; Waves, Acoustic, Ultrasonic; Light; Laser and its Application, Atomic Structure and Energy Levels. 3. Basic Electricity: Electrostatics; Coulomb’s law, Electric field, Gauss’s theorem, concept of potential difference, concept of capacitance and capacitors; Ohm’s law, power and energy, Kirchhoff’s voltage, current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits, Basic Magnetism;Electric Magnetism; Electromagnetic Induction; Concept of alternating voltage & current; Cells and Batteries, Voltage and Current Sources, The venin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem and their applications. 4. Electronics Devices and Circuits: Classification of materials into conductor, semi conductor, insulator etc, electrical properties, magnetic materials, various types of relays, switches and connectors. Conventional representation of electric & electronics circuits elements. Active and passive components;


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Conventional representation of electric & electronics circuits elements. Active and passive components; semi conductor Physics; Semiconductor Diode; Bipolar transistor & their circuits; Transistor Biasing stabilisation of operating point; Single stage transistor amplifier; field effect transistor, Mosfet circuits application. Multistage Transistor Amplifier; Transistor Audio Power Amplifier; feedback in Amplifier; Sinusoidal; Oscillators; Tuned Voltage Amplifier; Opto Electronics Devices and their applications; Operational Amplifier, Wave shaping and switching circuits. Block diagram of IC. Timer (such as 555) and is working; Motivation Circuits; Time Base Circuits; Tnyristory and UT Regulated Power Supply. 5. Digital Techniques: Applications and advantages of digital system; number system ( binary and hexadecimal); Logic Gates; Logic Simplication; Codes and Parity; Arithmetic Circuits; Decoders, Display Devices and Associated Circuits,Multliplexers and De- multiplexers; batches and Flip Flops; Counters; Shift Registers; Memories A/D and D/A converters. PART-III: SPECIALIZATION – 90 MARKS

Detailed Syllabus is as under:1. Electrical: 3 phase’s vs single-phase supply, Star data connections, relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements; construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator –AC & DC transformers,starters,rectifiers, inverters, battery charges, batteries, servo and stepper motor, contactor control circuits, switchgear, relays, protection devices & schemes, substation, protective relaying, circuits breaker, generator protection. Transformer protection, feeder & lightening protection feeder & bus bar protection, lightening arrestor,earthing, voltage stabilizer & regulators, power control devices & circuits phase controlled rectifiers,inverters,choppers dual converters cycloconverters; power electronics application in control of drivers, refrigeration and air conditioning. 2. Communication:

Modulation and de- modulation – and principles and operation of various type of AM, FM and PM modulator/demodulator pulse modulation – TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing. Principle and applications of PCM. Introduction of basic block diagram of digital and data communication system. Coding error detection and correction techniques; digital modulation techniques – ASK, ICW, FSK,PSK; Characteristic/ working of data transmission circuits; UART,USART;Modems ; protocols and their function; brief idea of ISDN interfaces; local area Net work, carrier Telephony – futures of carrier telephone system. Microwave Engineering; Microwave Devices; Waves –guides; microwaves component; microwave Antennas; Microwaves communication systems- block diagram and working principle of microwave http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Antennas; Microwaves communication systems- block diagram and working principle of microwave communication link. 3 Network, Filters and Transmission Lines:

Two port network; Attenuators; Filters; Transmission Lines and their applications characteristic impedance of line; concept of refection and standing waves on a transmission line; Transmission line equation; principles of impedance matching, Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line. 4. Instruments and Measurements:

Specification of instruments- accuracy, precision, sensitivity, resolution range, Errors in measurements and loading effect; principles of voltage, current and resistance measurements; Transducers, measurement of displacement & strain forces & torque measuring devices, pressure measuring devices flow measuring devices, power control devices & circuits. Types of AC milli voltmeters – Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope, front panel controls; impedance Bridges and Q- Meters. Principles of working and specifications of logic probes, signature analyzer and logic analyzer, signal generator, distortion factor meter, spectrum analyzer. 5. Control System:

Basic elements of control system, open and closed loop system, concept of feedback, Block diagram of control system, Time lag, hysteresis, linearity concepts, self regulating and non- self regulating control systems. Transfer function of simple control components, single feedback configuration. 6. Time response of systems.

Stability Analysis Characteristics equation, Routh’s table, Nyquist criterion, Relative stability, phase margin and gain margin. Routh Hurwitz criteria, root locus techniques, Bode plot, Power plot, Gain margin and phase margin. 7. Microprocessors:

Typical organization of a microprocessor system & functions of its various blocks; Architecture of a Microprocessors; Memories and I/O Interfacing, Brief idea of M/C assembly languages, Machines & Mnemonic codes; Instruction format and Addressing Mode; concept of Instruction set; programming exercises in assembly language; concept of interrupt Data transfer techniques- sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer , DMA, serial output data, serial input data. 8. Computer:

Computer and its working, types of computers, familiarisation with DOS and Windows, concept of file, directory, folder, number system. Data representation programming - Elements of a high level programming language, Pascal, C: Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer Architecture, processor design, Control Unit design, memory Organisation. I/O system organisation. Microprocessors Microprocessors Architecture, instruction set and simple Assembly level programming. Microprocessors based system design; typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses. Data communication principles, types and working principles of modems. Network principles, OSI model, functions of data link http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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principles, types and working principles of modems. Network principles, OSI model, functions of data link layer and network layer, networking components; Communication protocol- X.25, TCP/IP. 9. Database Management System: Basic concepts, entity relationship model, relational model, DBMS based on relational model. Fore more details :http://www.ne1.bsnl.co.in/admin/ttarecttnov12.pdf



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CSC Placement-Paper : 36964

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Posted By : Sreedevi Updated Date : Mar 7, 2013 CSC Whole-Testpaper placement paper Question and answers CSC recruitment process and aptitude test

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CSC Operating system-OS question for practice, CSE Off and On campus recruitment experience and selection procedure, CSC latest written test pattern, CSC Aptitude written test model questions, CSC Technical written test practice questions with answers, CSC previous years free solved sample placement papers, CSC Technical hr interview procedure, CSC Group Discussion topics and procedures CSC Operating system 1) Round robin scheduling is essentially the preemptive version of ________. 1 FIFO 2 Shortest job first 3 Shortes remaining 4 Longest time first Right Ans ) 1


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A page fault occurs 1 when the page is not in the memory 2 when the page is in the memory 3 when the process enters the blocked state 4 when the process is in the ready state 2)

Right Ans ) 1

Which of the following will determine your choice of systems software for your computer ? 1 Is the applications software you want to use compatible with it ? 2 Is it expensive ? 3 Is it compatible with your hardware ? 4 Both 1 and 3 3)

Right Ans ) 4

Let S and Q be two semaphores initialized to 1, where P0 and P1 processes the following statements wait(S);wait(Q); ---; signal(S);signal(Q) and wait(Q); wait(S);---;signal(Q);signal(S); respectively. The above situation depicts a _________ . 1 Semaphore 2 Deadlock 3 Signal 4 Interrupt 4)

Right Ans ) 2

What is a shell ? 1 It is a hardware component 2 It is a command interpreter 3 It is a part in compiler 4 It is a tool in CPU scheduling 5)

Right Ans ) 2

Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called _________ 1 Static loading 2 Dynamic loading 3 Dynamic linking 6)


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4 Overlays Right Ans ) 3 In the blocked state 1 the processes waiting for I/O are found 2 the process which is running is found 3 the processes waiting for the processor are found 4 none of the above 7)

Right Ans ) 1

What is the memory from 1K - 640K called ? 1 Extended Memory 2 Normal Memory 3 Low Memory 4 Conventional Memory 8)

Right Ans ) 4

Virtual memory is __________. 1 An extremely large main memory 2 An extremely large secondary memory 3 An illusion of extremely large main memory 4 A type of memory used in super computers. 9)

Right Ans ) 3


Right Ans ) 3

If the Disk head is located initially at 32, find the number of disk moves required with FCFS if the disk queue of I/O blocks requests are 98,37,14,124,65,67. 1 310 11)


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2 324 3 315 4 321

Right Ans ) 4


Right Ans ) 3


Right Ans ) 4 14)

The solution to Critical Section Problem is : Mutual Exclusion, Progress and Bounded Waiting.

1 The statement is false 2 The statement is true. 3 The statement is contradictory. 4 None of the above Right Ans ) 2

The problem of thrashing is effected scientifically by ________. 1 Program structure 2 Program size 3 Primary storage size 4 None of the above 15)

Right Ans ) 1

The state of a process after it encounters an I/O instruction is __________. 1 Ready 2 Blocked/Waiting 16)


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2 Blocked/Waiting 3 Idle 4 Running Right Ans ) 2

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The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________. 1 Output 2 Throughput 3 Efficiency 4 Capacity 17)

Right Ans ) 2

18) _________ is the situation in which a process is waiting on another process,which is also waiting on another process ... which is waiting on the first process. None of the processes involved in this circular wait are making progress. 1 Deadlock 2 Starvation 3 Dormant 4 None of the above Right Ans ) 1

Which of the following file name extension suggests that the file is Backup copy of another file ? 1 TXT 2 COM 3 BAS 4 BAK 19)

Right Ans ) 4


Right Ans ) 4 21)

A critical region


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A critical region 1 is a piece of code which only one process executes at a time 2 is a region prone to deadlock 3 is a piece of code which only a finite number of processes execute 4 is found only in Windows NT operation system 21)

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Right Ans ) 1

The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called _____________ 1 Segmentation 2 Fragmentation 3 Demand Paging 4 Page Replacement 22)

Right Ans ) 3

PCB = 1 Program Control Block 2 Process Control Block 23)

3 Process Communication Block 4 None of the above Right Ans ) 2

FIFO scheduling is ________. 1 Preemptive Scheduling 2 Non Preemptive Scheduling 3 Deadline Scheduling 4 Fair share scheduling 24)

Right Ans ) 2

Switching the CPU to another Process requires to save state of the old process and loading new process state is called as __________. 1 Process Blocking 2 Context Switch 3 Time Sharing 4 None of the above 25)

Right Ans ) 2

26) Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System? http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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26) Which directory implementation is used in most Operating System? 1 Single level directory structure 2 Two level directory structure 3 Tree directory structure 4 Acyclic directory structure

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Right Ans ) 3

27) The Banker¿s algorithm is used 1 to prevent deadlock in operating systems 2 to detect deadlock in operating systems 3 to rectify a deadlocked state 4 none of the above Right Ans ) 1 28)

A thread

1 is a lightweight process where the context switching is low 2 is a lightweight process where the context swithching is high 3 is used to speed up paging 4 none of the above Right Ans ) 1

______ is a high level abstraction over Semaphore. 1 Shared memory 2 Message passing 3 Monitor 4 Mutual exclusion 29)

Right Ans ) 3

A tree sturctured file directory system 1 allows easy storage and retrieval of file names 2 is a much debated unecessary feature 3 is not essential when we have millions of files 4 none of the above 30)

Right Ans ) 1

CSC-Multiple Choice Questions On Operating System Part-2 http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Using Priority Scheduling algorithm, find the average waiting time for the following set of processes given with their priorities in the order: Process : Burst Time : Priority respectively . P1 : 10 : 3 , P2 : 1 : 1 , P3 : 2 : 4 , P4 : 1 : 5 , P5 : 5 : 2. 1 8 milliseconds 2 8.2 milliseconds 3 7.75 milliseconds 4 3 milliseconds 1)

Right Ans ) 2

2) Routine is not loaded until it is called. All routines are kept on disk in a relocatable load format. The main program is loaded into memory & is executed. This type of loading is called _________ 1 Static loading 2 Dynamic loading 3 Dynamic linking 4 Overlays Right Ans ) 3

In the running state 1 only the process which has control of the processor is found 2 all the processes waiting for I/O to be completed are found 3 all the processes waiting for the processor are found 4 none of the above 3)

Right Ans ) 1

4) The Purpose of Co-operating Process is __________. 1 Information Sharing 2 Convenience 3 Computation Speed-Up 4 All of the above Right Ans ) 4 The kernel of the operating system remains in the primary memory because ________. 1 It is mostly called (used) 2 It manages all interrupt calls 3 It controls all operations in process 4 It is low level 5)


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Right Ans ) 1


Right Ans ) 3

Which of the following disk scheduling techniques has a drawback of starvation ? 1 SCAN 2 SSTF 3 FCFS 4 LIFO 7)

Right Ans ) 2


Right Ans ) 3

Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is slightly ___________. 1 Lengthened; Shortened 2 Shortened; Lengthened 3 Shortened; Shortened 4 Shortened; Unchanged 9)

Right Ans ) 2

Multiprocessing ________. 1 Make the operating system simpler 2 Allows multiple processes to run simultaneously 3 Is completely understood by all major computer vendors http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 10)

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3 Is completely understood by all major computer vendors 4 Allows the same computer to have the multiple processors Right Ans ) 4


Right Ans ) 4

A set of resources' allocations such that the system can allocate resources to each process in some order, and still avoid a deadlock is called ________. 1 Unsafe state 2 Safe state 3 Starvation 4 Greeedy allocation 12)

Right Ans ) 2

The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________. 1 Virtual Memory 2 Interrupts 3 Main memory 4 Cache memory 13)

Right Ans ) 4

What is the first step in performing an operating system upgrade ? 1 Partition the drive 2 Format the drive 3 Backup critical data 4 Backup old operating system 14)

Right Ans ) 3

The technique, for sharing the time of a computer among several jobs, which switches jobs so rapidly such that each job appears to have the computer to itself, is called ________. 1 Time Sharing 2 Time out http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48 15)

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2 Time out 3 Time domain 4 Multitasking

Right Ans ) 1

In a virtural memory environment 1 segmentation and page tables are stored in the cache and do not add any substantial overhead 16)

2 slow down the computer system considerable 3 segmentation and page tables are stored in the RAM 4 none of the above Right Ans ) 3

If all page frames are initially empty, and a process is allocated 3 page frames in real memory and references its pages in the order 1 2 3 2 4 5 2 3 2 4 1 and the page replacement is FIFO, the total number of page faults caused by the process will be __________. 1 10 27 38 49 17)

Right Ans ) 4

Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the final results depends on the order of usage of the shared data, are called ________. 1 Race conditions 2 Critical section 3 Mutual exclusion 4 Dead locks 18)

Right Ans ) 1

When two or more processes attempt to access the same resource a _________ occurs. 1 Critical section 2 Fight 3 Communication problem 4 Race condition 19)

Right Ans ) 4


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Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and the I/O devices busy? 1 Time-sharing 2 SPOOLing 3 Preemptive scheduling 20)

4 Multiprogramming Right Ans ) 4

_________ allocates the largest hole (free fragmant) available in the memory. 1 Best Fit 2 Worst Fit 3 First Fit 4 None of the above 21)

Right Ans ) 2

A process is starved 1 if it is permanently waiting for a resource 2 if semaphores are not used 3 if a queue is not used for scheduling 4 if demand paging is not properly implemented 22)

Right Ans ) 1

The degree of Multiprogramming is controlled by 1 CPU Scheduler 2 Context Switching 3 Long-term Scheduler 4 Medium term Scheduler 23)

Right Ans ) 3

The time taken to bring the desired track/cylinder under the head is _________. 1 Seek time 2 Latency time 3 Transfer time 4 Read time 24)

Right Ans ) 1


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Replace the page that will not be used for the longest period of time. This principle is adopted by ____________. 1 FIFO Page replacement algorithm 25)

2 Optimal Page replacement algorithm 3 Round robin scheduling algorithm 4 SCAN scheduling algorithm Right Ans ) 3

Which of the following is a criterion to evaluate a scheduling algorithm? 1 CPU Utilization: Keep CPU utilization as high as possible. 2 Throughput: number of processes completed per unit time. 3 Waiting Time: Amount of time spent ready to run but not running. 4 All of the above 26)

Right Ans ) 4

The operating system of a computer serves as a software interface between the user and the ________. 1 Hardware 2 Peripheral 3 Memory 4 Screen 27)

Right Ans ) 1

Super computers typically employ _______. 1 Real time Operating system 2 Multiprocessors OS 3 desktop OS 4 None of the above 28)

Right Ans ) 2

A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can communicate with other processes using message based communication, is called ________. 1 Local Procedure Call 2 Inter Process Communication 3 Remote Procedure Call 4 Remote Machine Invocation 29)


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Right Ans ) 3

A process is 1 program in execution 2 a concurrent program 3 any sequential program 4 something which prevents deadlock 30)

Right Ans ) 1


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BSNL Technical Assistant Recruitment Procedure in shillong, BSNL Technical Assistant Written test pattern Detailed SyllabusBHARAT SANCHAR NIGAM LTD.(A Govt. of India Enterprise) Office of the Chief General Manager, North East - I Circle, Shillong -793 001. No. Rectt-225/TTA/Direct-Rectt/2012 Recruitment of Telecom Technical Assistant CLOSING DATE OF RECEIPT OF APPLICATION: 31.12.2012 BSNL technical Assistant recruitment details EXAMINATION DATE : To be announced later. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. BSNL NE-I Circle, will fill up about 15(fifteen) vacancies for http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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Mizoram SSA [subject to variation depending on the availability of vacancies] of Telecom Technical Assistant in the IDA Pay Scale of Rs.13600-25420 through an open competitive examination likely to be held in the month of February-March 2013 Selection: C andidates

will be selected as Telecom Technical Assistant on the basis of a competitive examination. Date and venue of the examination will be communicated to the candidates in due course BSNL Technical Assistant Written Test Pattern PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20 PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90 Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe prescribed by the BSNL. The examination is fully objective multiple choice pattern . There will be a written test comprising of 3 ( three) parts consisting of Part-I (General ability test - 20 marks), Part-II (Basic Engineering-90 marks) and Part-III (Specialization - 90 marks) of 3 hours duration. Candidates will have the option to answer Part-II & III in Hindi or English language. Option once exercised in respect of medium of answer shall be final and in no way will be allowed to change. Scheme and syllabus of the examination is in Annexure-II Examination :

SCHEME & SYLLABUS FOR TTA DIRECT RECRUIMENT EXAMINATION The standard of Paper in General ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Diploma holder. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be that of Diploma level of an Indian Polytechnic. There shall be a single multiple choice objective types Paper of 3 hrs duration as per given below: Paper Marks Time PART-I GENERAL ABILITY TEST 20 PART-II BASIC ENGINEERING 90 3hrs PART-III SPECIALIZATION 90 Note: 1. The candidate is required to obtain minimum qualifying marks in each of these parts as maybe prescribed by the BSNL. Detailed syllabus

PART-I: Detailed syllabus


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PART-I: GENERAL ABILITY TEST – 20 MARKS

The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercise such as provision of antonyms and synonyms, fill in the blanks and multiple-choice exercise etc. This shall also include questions on current events, general knowledge and such matters of everyday observation and experiences as may be expected of Diploma holder. PART-II: BASIC ENGINEERING –90 MARKS Detailed Syllabus is as under: 1. Applied mathematics: Co-ordinate

Geometry, Vector Algebra; Matrix and Determinant; Differential Calculus; Integral Calculus Differential equation of second order; Fourier series; Laplace Transform; Complex Number; Partial Differentiation. 2. Applied Physics: Measurement- Units and Dimension; Waves, Acoustic, Ultrasonic; Light; Laser and its Application, Atomic Structure and Energy Levels. 3. Basic Electricity: Electrostatics; Coulomb’s law, Electric field, Gauss’s theorem, concept of potential difference, concept of capacitance and capacitors; Ohm’s law, power and energy, Kirchhoff’s voltage, current laws and their applications in simple DC circuits, Basic Magnetism;Electric Magnetism; Electromagnetic Induction; Concept of alternating voltage & current; Cells and Batteries, Voltage and Current Sources, The venin’s theorem, Norton’s theorem and their applications. 4. Electronics Devices and Circuits: Classification of materials into conductor, semi conductor, insulator etc, electrical properties, magnetic materials, various types of relays, switches and connectors. Conventional representation of electric & electronics circuits elements. Active and passive components; semi conductor Physics; Semiconductor Diode; Bipolar transistor & their circuits; Transistor Biasing stabilisation of operating point; Single stage transistor amplifier; field effect transistor, Mosfet circuits application. Multistage Transistor Amplifier; Transistor Audio Power Amplifier; feedback in Amplifier; Sinusoidal; Oscillators; Tuned Voltage Amplifier; Opto Electronics Devices and their applications; Operational Amplifier, Wave shaping and switching circuits. Block diagram of IC. Timer (such as 555) and is working; Motivation Circuits; Time Base Circuits; Tnyristory and UT Regulated Power Supply. 5. Digital Techniques: Applications and advantages of digital system; number system ( binary and hexadecimal); Logic Gates; Logic Simplication; Codes and Parity; Arithmetic Circuits; Decoders, Display Devices and Associated Circuits,Multliplexers and De- multiplexers; batches and Flip Flops; Counters; Shift Registers; Memories A/D and D/A converters. http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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PART-III: SPECIALIZATION – 90 MARKS

Detailed Syllabus is as under:1. Electrical: 3 phase’s vs single-phase supply, Star data connections, relation between phase & line voltage power factor and their measurements; construction and principles of working of various types of electrical measuring instruments. All types of motor and generator –AC & DC transformers,starters,rectifiers, inverters, battery charges, batteries, servo and stepper motor, contactor control circuits, switchgear, relays, protection devices & schemes, substation, protective relaying, circuits breaker, generator protection. Transformer protection, feeder & lightening protection feeder & bus bar protection, lightening arrestor,earthing, voltage stabilizer & regulators, power control devices & circuits phase controlled rectifiers,inverters,choppers dual converters cycloconverters; power electronics application in control of drivers, refrigeration and air conditioning. 2. Communication:

Modulation and de- modulation – and principles and operation of various type of AM, FM and PM modulator/demodulator pulse modulation – TDM, PAM, PPM, PWM, Multiplexing. Principle and applications of PCM. Introduction of basic block diagram of digital and data communication system. Coding error detection and correction techniques; digital modulation techniques – ASK, ICW, FSK,PSK; Characteristic/ working of data transmission circuits; UART,USART;Modems ; protocols and their function; brief idea of ISDN interfaces; local area Net work, carrier Telephony – futures of carrier telephone system. Microwave Engineering; Microwave Devices; Waves –guides; microwaves component; microwave Antennas; Microwaves communication systems- block diagram and working principle of microwave communication link. 3 Network, Filters and Transmission Lines:

Two port network; Attenuators; Filters; Transmission Lines and their applications characteristic impedance of line; concept of refection and standing waves on a transmission line; Transmission line equation; principles of impedance matching, Bandwidth consideration of a transmission line. 4. Instruments and Measurements:

Specification of instruments- accuracy, precision, sensitivity, resolution range, Errors in measurements and loading effect; principles of voltage, current and resistance measurements; Transducers, measurement of displacement & strain forces & torque measuring devices, pressure measuring devices flow measuring devices, power control devices & circuits. Types of AC milli voltmeters – Amplifier rectifier and rectifier amplifier. Block diagram explanation of a basic CRO and a triggered sweep oscilloscope, front panel controls; impedance Bridges and Q- Meters. Principles of working and specifications of logic probes, signature analyzer and logic analyzer, signal generator, distortion factor meter, spectrum analyzer. http://placement.freshersworld.com/placement-papers/paper-type/whole-testpaper?page=48

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analyzer.

5. Control System:

Basic elements of control system, open and closed loop system, concept of feedback, Block diagram of control system, Time lag, hysteresis, linearity concepts, self regulating and non- self regulating control systems. Transfer function of simple control components, single feedback configuration. 6. Time response of systems.

Stability Analysis Characteristics equation, Routh’s table, Nyquist criterion, Relative stability, phase margin and gain margin. Routh Hurwitz criteria, root locus techniques, Bode plot, Power plot, Gain margin and phase margin. 7. Microprocessors:

Typical organization of a microprocessor system & functions of its various blocks; Architecture of a Microprocessors; Memories and I/O Interfacing, Brief idea of M/C assembly languages, Machines & Mnemonic codes; Instruction format and Addressing Mode; concept of Instruction set; programming exercises in assembly language; concept of interrupt Data transfer techniques- sync data transfer, interrupt driven data transfer , DMA, serial output data, serial input data. 8. Computer:

Computer and its working, types of computers, familiarisation with DOS and Windows, concept of file, directory, folder, number system. Data representation programming - Elements of a high level programming language, Pascal, C: Use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer Architecture, processor design, Control Unit design, memory Organisation. I/O system organisation. Microprocessors Microprocessors Architecture, instruction set and simple Assembly level programming. Microprocessors based system design; typical examples. Personal computers and their typical uses. Data communication principles, types and working principles of modems. Network principles, OSI model, functions of data link layer and network layer, networking components; Communication protocol- X.25, TCP/IP. 9. Database Management System: Basic concepts, entity relationship model, relational model, DBMS based on relational model. Fore more details :http://www.ne1.bsnl.co.in/admin/ttarecttnov12.pdf Found the similar paper in recruitment ? : Yes No


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