Vfr-Ifr Comm Questions

O91 – VFR COMMUNICATIONS

091-01

DEFINITIONS

091-01-01 Meanings and significance of associated terms 3201. What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts? A – DME voice channel B – Voice channel of an ILS C – NDB frequencies D – Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR Ref: AIR:atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3222. What does the term BLIND TRANSMISSION mean? A – A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station B – A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations C – A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safely of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations D – A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

091-01-02 Air Traffic Services abbreviations 3208. Which abbreviation is used for the term CONTROL ZONE? A – CTA B – CZ C – CTZ D – CTR Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl, HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

3209. What does the abbreviation FIR mean? A – Flight information required B – Flight information region C – Flow information received D – Flight information radar Ref: AIR: apl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3215. What does the abbreviation HJ mean? A – No specific working hours B – Sunset to sunrise C – Sunrise to sunset D – Continuous day and night service Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3218. What does the abbreviation HX mean? A – Continuous day and night service B – Sunrise to sunset C – Sunset to sunrise D – No specific working hours Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3224. Which abbreviation is used for Co-ordinated universal time? A – UTC B – CUT C – GMT D – COUT Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

3236. What does the abbreviation AFIS mean? A – Aerodrome flashing identification signal B – Automatic flight information service C – Aeronautical flight information system D – Aerodrome flight information service Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24700. The three main categories of aeronautical communications service are: A – IFR, VFR, SVFR B – Air Ground, Flight Information Service, ATC C – Ground, Approach, Tower D – Ground/Tower, Approach/Departure, Area Radar Ref: Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-01-03 Q-code groups commonly used in RTF air-ground communications 3207. What does QTE mean? A – Magnetic heading to the station B – Magnetic bearing from the station C – True heading to the station (no wind) D – True bearing from the station Ref: Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3211. What is the Q-code for MAGNETIC HEADING TO THE STATION (NO WIND)? A – QDM B – QDR C – QNE D – QTE Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

3212. What does QDM mean? A – True bearing from the station B – Magnetic bearing from the station C – True heading to the station (no wind) D – Magnetic heading to the station (no wind) Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3213. QNH is the Q-code to indicate? A – The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP) B – The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold) C – The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground D – The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3216. If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer? A – QBI B – QNH C – QDM D – QFE Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3223. What is the Q-code for magnetic bearing from the station? A – QTE B – QDR C – QDM D – QFE Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3232. Which Q-code is used to report altitude? A – QNH B – AFE C – QFF D – QNJ Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3233. What is the Q-code for TRUE BEARING FROM THE STATION? A – QFE B – QDR C – QDM D – QTE Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3234. What does QDR mean? A – True heading to the station B – Magnetic heading to the station (no wind) C – True bearing from the station D – Magnetic bearing from the station Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24583. An aircraft is requested to fly at 2500 feet on the airfield QFE. All references to vertical position should now be referred to as: A – Height B – Altitude C – Pressure Altitude D – Flight Level Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

24600. If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: “your true bearing is 256o class alpha.” This means: A – QTE accurate to ±5o B – QUJ accurate to ±3o C – QDR accurate to ±2o D – QTE accurate to ±2o Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24602. You obtain a clearance to descend to an ALTITUDE of 2500 feet, in the UK the clearance should also include the following pressure setting or settings: A – QFE B – QNE C – QFE or QNH D – QNH Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24604. A VDF Bearing or heading may be passed using the appropriate phrase or “Q” code. The code QDR means: A - the true bearing of the aircraft from the ground station B – the magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the ground station C – the magnetic heading to steered by the aircraft to reach the VDF station D – the aircraft is instructed to turn onto the specified heading unless it is unable to comply in which case ATC must be immediately advised Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-01-04 Categories of messages 3204. Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc) belong to the category of: A – Flight safety messages B – Flight regularity messages C – Service messages D – Class B messages Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3210. Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service? A – Meteorological messages B – Radio teletype messages C – Flight safety messages D – Urgency messages Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3214. The message to an aeronautical ground station PLEASE CALL A TAXI-CAB FOR US. WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045 IS: A – An unauthorized message B – A flight regularity message C – A flight safety message D – An urgency message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3217. The priority of the instruction TAXI TO RUNWAY 05 is: A – Same as LINE-UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAIT B – Greater than TRANSMIT FOR QDM C – Greater than CAUTION, CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY D – Less than CLEARED TO LAND Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

3230. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: A – Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message B – Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message C – Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message D – Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3231. Flight safety messages are: A – Operation messages concerning non-routine landings B – Air traffic control messages C – Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person D – Messages relating to direction finding Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3235. A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called: A – Flight safety message B – Distress message C – Urgency message D – Class B message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3238. The message addressed to an Area Control Center REQEUST RADAR VECTORS TO CIRCUMNAVIGATE ADVERSE WEATHER is: A – A meteorological message B – A flight safety message C – An urgency message D – A message relating to direction finding Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3239. The clearance: CLEARED FOR IMMEDIATE TAKE-OFF RUNWAY 03 is: A – A flight safety message B – An urgency message C – An unauthorized message D – A flight regularity message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3240. The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: A – Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message B – Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message C – Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message D – Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity Message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3247. A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: A – A flight security message B – An urgency message C – A flight safety message D – A flight regularity message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24577. Aeronautical messages are given an order of priority. Which of the following statements reflects the correct order of priority? A – Meteorological messages take precedence over Direction Finding messages B – Flight Safety messages will be handled before Urgency messages C – Messages relating to Direction Finding take precedence over Flight Regularity messages D – Flight Safety messages take precedence over Direction Finding messages Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

24584. You receive the following ATC message: “G-ABCD after departure cleared to zone boundary via route Charlie. Climb to altitude 2000 feet QNH1010, squawk 6318” This message is: A – a clearance to take-off and depart to the zone boundary via route Charlie At 2000 feet B – a clearance to line-up C – a Flight Safety message D – a Flight Regularity message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

091-02

GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES 091-02-01 Transmission of letters (No questions in this sub-chapter)

091-02-02 Transmission of numbers (including level information) 3504. What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 KHz): A – One two zero decimal three seven B – One twenty decimal three seven C – One two zero three seven D – One two zero three seven Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3507. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or a height? A – three five double zero B – three five zero zero C – three five hundred D – three thousand five hundred Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

3529. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point: A – The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding Exists B – The terms DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only C – The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted D – The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3530. What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH? A – QNH one double 0 one B – QNH one zero zero one C – QNH one thousand and one D – QNH one double zero one Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3579. An aircraft is flying north-east at 2’.500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response: A – 045 and 2.500 B – Heading north-east at level 25 C – Heading 45 at 2.500 feet D – Heading 045 at 2.500 feet Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24566. An altitude of 2600 feet is transmitted as: A – two thousand six hundred feet B – two six hundred feet C – two six thousand feet D – two six zero zero feet Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

091-02-03 Transmission of time 3510. When transmitting time, which time system shall be used? A – Local time (LT), 24-hour clock B – Co-ordinated universal time (UTC) C – Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M. D – No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3524. The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour? A – Two zero B – Twenty C – Two zero this hour D – Nine twenty A.M. Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3562. The time is 4:15 PM. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour? A – One six one five B – Four fifteen PM C – Sixteen fifteen D – Four fifteen in the afternoon Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 24565. A time of “11.20” hours is transmitted as: A – ‘one one two zero’ or ‘two zero’ B – eleven twenty hours C – eleven twenty D – twenty past eleven Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

24596. The time of 1400 UTC is transmitted as: A – one thousand four hundred B – one four zero zero C – fourteen hundred UTC D – one four zero zero uniform tango Charlie Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-02-04 Transmission Technique 2606. When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted? A – In dense traffic during rush hours B – Never C – Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign D – When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do so. Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3171. In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made: A – Only once on the designated frequency B – Twice on the designated frequency C – On the emergency frequency only D – During VFR flights only Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3183. A message preceded by the phrase TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE shall be transmitted: A – On the regional guard frequency B – On the frequency presently in use C – On the international emergency frequency D – On all available aeronautical stations Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3184. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE during an en-route flight, the Aircraft station shall also: A – Land at the nearest airfield/airport B – Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing C – Advise the time of its next intended transmission D – Return to the airport of departure Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3526. How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call? A – TOWER XY-ABC B – Stephenville TOWER X-BC C – Stephenville XY-ABC D – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3527. Before transmitting the pilot should….. A – make sure that the aircraft is levelled off B – listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur C – always write the message and read it during the transmission D – make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3528. My message will be more effective and understandable if I: A – maintain the speaking volume at a constant level B – use the words twice method C – stress the end of message D – stress every beginning of message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

3534. RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC SQUAWK IDENT. What does this mean: A – X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code B – Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC C – X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees D – X-BC shall operate the IDENT button Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3552. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION (or message indicated). THE CORRECT VERSION IS: A – QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016 B – QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016 C – QNH 1017, negative 1016 D – QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016 Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3559. What is meant by good microphone technique? A – Keep the microphone far away since it improves the readability B – Speak very loudly into the microphone C – Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly D – Make large use of hesitation sounds as ER Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

091-02-05 Standard words and phrases (relevant RTF phraseology included) 2608. What does the phrase READ BACK mean: A – Did you correctly receive the message? B – Let me know that you have received and understood this message C – Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received D – Check and confirm with originator Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 2614. What does the phrase Roger mean: A – A direct answer in the affirmative B – I have received all of your last transmission C – A direct answer in the negative D – Cleared for take-off or cleared to land Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 2623. What does the phrase GO AHEAD mean: A – Taxi on B – Proceed with your message C – Pass me the following information… D – Yes Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3458. If a controller would like to say to you PASS ME THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION, he would use the expression: A – READBACK B – REPORT C – SAY AGAIN D – REQUEST Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3492. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say Yes: A – Roger B – Yes C – Affirm D – Affirmative Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3493. RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC SQUAWK STANBY. What does this mean? A – X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency B – X-BC is requested to switch to standby position C – X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors D – X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3496. What does the instruction VACATE LEFT mean? A – Turn left to leave the runway B – Give way to aircraft from the left C – Clear the runway immediately D – Hold position on the left side of the runway Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3498. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: I SHOULD LIKE TO KNOW ___ or I WISH TO OBTAIN ___? A – Confirm B – Report C – Acknowledge D – Request Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

3503. How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder: A – No SSR B – Negative transponder C – Transponder not available D – Negative squawk Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3513. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say “PASS ME THE FOLLOWING INFORMATION___”: A – Say again B – Request C – Report D – Check Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3518. Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required: A – What was your message? B – Repeat your message C – Say again D – Repeat your last transmission Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3521. What does the instruction GO AROUND mean? A – Overtake the aircraft ahead B – Carry out a missed approach C – Make a 360o turn D – Proceed with your message Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3522. RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: X-BC IDENTIFIED. What does this mean? A – Radar identification has been achieved B – X-BC is not visible on the radar screen C – X-BC should perform an identification turn D – X-BC should operate the IDENT-button Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3523. Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use? A – Request backtrack on runway B – Clearance to backtrack C – To enter back runway D – Backtrack clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3542. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off: A – Ready to go B – Ready for take-off C – Ready to line-up D – Ready for departure or ready Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3545. RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: X-BC RECYCLE 1015. What does this mean? A – X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC) B – X-BC is requested to set new code 1015 C – X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015 D – X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015 Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

3547. Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach: A – Pulling up B – Overshooting C – Will make another approach D – Going around Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3549. What does the instruction ORBIT RIGHT mean? A – Make 360o turns to the right B – Turn right to avoid other traffic C – Right-hand circuits are in use D – Leave the runway to the right Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3550. Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: WAIT AND I WILL CALL YOU? A – Roger B – Go ahead C – Standby D – Wilco Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3570. Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly: A – That is right B – Correct C – Affirm D – That is affirmative Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3571. Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase STANDBY? A – Wait and I will call you B – Continue on present heading and listen out C – Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder D – Permission granted for action proposed Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3577. What does the phrase SQUAWK 1234 mean: A – Give a short count for DF (direction finder) B – Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder C – Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz D – Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3582. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: I UNDERSTAND YOUR MESSAGE AND WILL COMPLY WITH IT: A – Will comply with your instruction B – Roger C – Wilco D – OK, will do it Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 24562. An aircraft wishes to obtain a bearing from a VDF station that will be plotted on the chart relative to True North. The correct RT call is: A – G-BNKD request QDM, G-BNKD B – true bearing, true bearing G-BNKD request true bearing, G-BNKD C – G-BNKD request QGH, G-BNKD D – G-BNKD training fix, training fix, training fix, G-BNKD Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

24568. Which of the following sequences shows the correct elements of a position report in the correct order? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii)

callsign reported position heading (oM) level of altitude next position ETA of the next position aircraft type time of reported position

A – (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) B – (i) (vii) (ii) (vi) (iv) C – (i) (ii) (viii) (iv) (v) (vi) D – (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (vi) Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 24570. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which cannot be carried out, the reply should use the phrase: A – CANCEL INSTRUCTION B – UNABLE COMPLY C – NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION D – REGRET CANNOT FOLLOW INSTRUCTION Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 24591. You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call “Long Final”? A – 2 nm B – 4 nm C – between 8 and 4 nm D – 3 nm Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

091-02-06 Radiotelephony call signs for aeronautical stations 3532. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area: A – GROUND B – APPROACH C – TOWER D – CONTROL Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3546. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service: A – APRON B – CONTROL C – AERODROME D – TOWER Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3575. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service: A – FLIGHT CENTRE B – FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE C – INFORMATION D – CONTROL Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 24582. An aerodrome located at HEADCORN notified as having an Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS) will identify itself to aircraft using the call-sign: A – HEADCORN INFORMATION B – HEADCORN RADIO C – HEADCORN TOWER D – HEADCORN AFIS Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

091-02-07 Radiotelephony call signs for aircraft 2616. When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign? A – In dense traffic B – Only after satisfactory communication has been established C – Provided no confusion is likely to result D – After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3499. What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message? A – Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie B – Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo C – Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie D – Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3509. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct: A – Cherokee X-BC B – Cherokee XY-BC C – Cherokee BC D – Cherokee X-ABC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3551. Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct: A – XY-BC B – X-BC C – ABC D – BC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

24573. For aircraft call-sign EASY GABCD the correct abbreviation is: A – EASY Charlie Delta B – Golf Charlie Delta C – EASY Golf Charlie Delta D – EASY Delta Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 24594. The pilot of an aircraft may abbreviate the aircraft radio call-sign only: A – when there is no likelihood of confusion with another aircraft B – if it has first been abbreviated by the ground station and there is no likelihood of confusion C – on second and subsequent calls to an aeronautical ground station D – when the call-sign has been specifically approved by ICAO Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-02-08 Transfer of communication 2602. Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100: A – About 120 NM B – About 300 NM C – About 30 NM D – About 12 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3494. Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.2 MHz: A – Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station B – Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station C – Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill D – Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio Shadow zone of a hill Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3497. Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission? A – Level of aircraft and terrain elevations B – The ionosphere C – Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms D – Day and night effect Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3506. Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band: A – 75 KHz B – 50 KHz C – 25 KHz D – 250 KHz Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3555. Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50: A – About 8 NM B – About 85 NM C – About 15 NM D – About 150 NM Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3560. To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 – 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong? A – Medium frequency B – Very low frequency C – Low frequency D – Very high frequency Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

3566. What are the propagation characteristics of VHF: A – The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into Valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influence B – The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-waves C – Practically straight-line similar to light waves D – Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3568. Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service? A – 108.000 – 117.975 MHz B – 118.000 – 136.975 MHz C – 1810 – 2850 KHz D – 11650 – 13200 KHz Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-02-09 Test procedures including readability scale 3554. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean? A – Readable but with difficulty B – Readable C – Perfectly readable D – Unreadable Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3556. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 2 mean: A – Readable but with difficulty B – No problem to understand C – Loud and clear D – Unreadable Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

3581. Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission: A – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check B – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC pre-flight check C – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7 D – Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3583. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 5 mean: A – Perfectly readable B – Unreadable C – Problem to understand D – Readable but with difficulty Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 24563. “Readability 5” means: A – readable now and then B – perfectly readable C – unreadable D – readable with difficulty Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-02-10 Read back and acknowledgement requirements 2619. Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction? A – Stephenville TOWER X-BC B – Will change to TOWER X-BC C- Changing over X-BC D – 118.7 X-BC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

2621. Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back? A – Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed instructions B – Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings C – Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions D – Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3515. Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: X-BC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD UNTIL 2500 FEET BEFORE TURNING RIGHT, WIND 270 DEGREES 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF. What is the correct read back: A – Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for takeoff, X-BC B – Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC C – Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BC D – Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3531. An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction? A – Wilco B – Holding short C – Will stop before D – Roger Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3537. Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back: A – No, if the communication channel is overloaded B – No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (eg. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID) C – Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned D – No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is Likely to arise Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3557. Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25 on which information is being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction? A – Checking 123.25 X-BC B – Changing to 123.25 X-BC C – Will contact 123.25 X-BC D – Monitoring 123.25 X-BC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24567. A pilot is required to read back the following ATC messages: A – altimeter settings, weather information, airways clearances, information regarding the proximity of other aircraft and taxi instructions B – altimeter settings, weather information, information regarding the proximity of other aircraft and taxi instructions C – altimeter settings, airways clearances, SSR operating instructions, level Instructions and any message when requested by ATC D – altimeter settings, taxi instructions, take-off clearances, weather Information and any other information given by ATC Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

24587. When asked by ATC “are you able to maintain FL 80” the correct reply contains the word: A – ROGER B – WILCO C – AFFIRM or NEGATIVE D – CLEARED Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

091-02-11 Radar procedural phraseology 24569. What does “SQUAWK IDENT” mean? A – select the SSR transponder code to 7000 B – select the SSR transponder model to “AL T” C – operate the SSR transponder “special position identification” feature D – state the aircraft callsign three times Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 24586. A Radar Information Service (RIS) provides: A – radar separation from all other traffic B – information for IFR traffic only C – the bearing, distance and if known, the altitude of conflicting traffic D – traffic information and avoiding action Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 24588. With the SSR transponder selected ON and “ALT” (Mode C) selected, an ATSU requests: “G-ABCD, Verify your level,” this is to: A – identify the aircraft position B – check your altimeter setting C – calibrate the radar equipment D – verify the accuracy of the Mode C level information displayed to the controller Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

091-03 RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION TERMS 091-03-01 Aerodrome weather 3192. Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOL-MET? A – Runway reports B – SPECI and TAF C – SIGMET D – Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3202. How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language: A – In nautical miles only B – Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres C – In feet and nautical miles D – Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3203. How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight: A – SIGMET B – ATIS C – AFIS D – VOLMET Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

091-03-02 Weather broadcast 3186. When the term Broken is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: A – 5 to 7 octas B – 1 to 4 octas C – 8 octas below 10,000 feet D – No clouds below 5,000 feet Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3187. What is the correct way of expressing visibility? A – Visibility 1.2 kilometres B – Visibility 1200 feet C – Visibility 1.2 nautical miles D – Visibility 1200 metres Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3188. When the term Cavok is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are: A – Visibility more than 5,000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND B – Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND C – Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND D – Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3189. When the term Overcast is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) the amount of clouds covering the sky is: A – 50% or more B – 100% C – Less than 50% D – No clouds but poor ground visibility Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3190. When the term Scattered is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: A – More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas) B – Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas) C – Sky entirely covered (8 octas) D – No clouds below 5000 feet/GND Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3278. The phrase BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20 from ATC means that the braking action is: A – medium B – good C – medium to poor D – poor Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

091-04 ACTION REQUIRED TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF COMMUNICATION FAILURE 3164. What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station? A – Squawk mode A code 7500 B – Divert to the alternate airport C – Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations D – Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

3165. An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot: A – Return to the airport of departure B – Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication C – Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency D – Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3167. What is the transponder code for radio communication failure: A – 7200 B – 7600 C – 7500 D – 7700 Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3172. Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600? A – In case of radio communication failure B – When entering bad weather areas C – When approaching a prohibited area D – When flying over desert areas Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3173. When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals? A – When entering a FIR during an IFR flight B – When flying VFR over clouds C – When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport D – When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled Aerodrome Ans: D

3177. An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: A – It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome B – It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure C – It is requesting immediate level change D – It is about to make a forced landing Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 14973. If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase: A – PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN B – Transmitting blind C – Read you one, read you one D – How do you read? Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-05

DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES 091-05-01 Distress

3250. An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that: A – The aircrafts transceiver is unserviceable B – The aircraft is being hijacked C – The aircraft is in distress D – There is a sick passenger on board Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

3258. Distress is defined as: A – A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach B – A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance C – A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance D – A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3261. An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: A – PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN B – DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA C – MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY D – URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 3262. The frequency used for the first transmission of a MAYDAY call shall be: A – The distress frequency 121.5 MHz B – The frequency currently in use C – Any other international emergency frequency D – Any frequency at pilots discretion Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 3265. The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: A – Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilots intention, present position, level and heading B – Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport C – Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level D – Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A

3267. An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: A – 7600 B – 7700 C – 7500 D – 7200 Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 24560. Distress is defined as a condition: A – requiring immediate assistance and danger may or may not be threatened B – of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger, and of requiring immediate assistance C – concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or some person on board or within sight, but does not require immediate assistance D – concerning the safety of any aircraft, ship or other vehicle Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 24578. A Distress or Urgency call shall be preceded by the pre-fix MAYDAY or PAN PAN transmitted: A – Once B – Twice C – Three times D – Until acknowledged Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C 24579. Immediately following the MAYDAY pre-fix, an aircraft in Distress should transmit: A – The aircraft call-sign twice B – The nature of the emergency C – The call-sign of the station addressed, when it is known and the circumstances permit D – Its last known position Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

24580. An aircraft transmitting a distress message is required to give its position as: A – The most accurate possible using GPS if fitted B – Present or last known position, altitude or level and heading C – Position relative to a VRP D – Latitude and longitude Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 24581. An aircraft in distress that is equipped with a SSR transponder should SQUAWK: A – 7000 B – 7500 C – 7600 D – 7700 Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24598. A Distress call shall be preceded by the pre-fix MAYDAY transmitted: A – Twice B – Three times C – Once D – One to three times after the aircraft callsign Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

091-05-02 Urgency 3249. Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call: A – The international emergency frequency B – The air-ground frequency in use at the time C – The regional guard frequency D – Any frequency at pilots discretion Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B

3271. An urgency message shall be preceded by the radio-telephony urgency signal: A – ALERFA, spoken three times B – URGENCY, spoken three times C – MAYDAY, spoken three times D – PAN PAN, spoken three times Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 3275. Urgency is defined as: A – A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance B – A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance C – A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach D – A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D 24561. The subsequent content of a Distress or Urgency message must consist of the following items: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Position Intention of person in command Type of aircraft Nature of emergency Call-sign

Transmitted in the order: A – (v) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) B – (v) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) C – (v) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) D – (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: C

24572. A condition of urgency is defined as: A – a condition of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate assistance B – a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person onboard or within sight and requiring immediate assistance C – a condition requiring immediate assistance D – a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

091-06 GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF PROPAGATION 3248. The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: A – An international emergency frequency B – A frequency for air-to-air communication C – A regional UHF frequency D – An airline operation frequency Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 3269. Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency: A – 122.500 MHz B – 121.500 MHx C – 121.050 MHz D – 121.005 MHz Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 24571. The frequency 243.0 MHz has a wavelength of ___ and lies on the ____band. A – 12.3 cm UHF B – 1.23 m, UHF C – 12.3 cm, VHF D – 1.23 m, VHF Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl

Ans: D 24599. Attenuation of radio waves means: A – the weakening of the radiated waves B – the atmospheric bending of the waves C – only the scattering of the waves by the tropopause D – only the absorption of radio energy by the sea Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 24601. The wavelength of a radio aid is 6.97 cm. The corresponding frequency and frequency band are: A – 4304 MHz SHF B – 43 MHz VHF C – 4304 MHz UHF D – 43 GHz EHF Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: A 24605. What is the lowest frequency where freedom from static interference is likely? A – 3 MHz B – 30 MHz C – 300 MHz D – 3 GHz Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: B 24606. VHF communications sometimes experience extended ranges as a result of: A – ionospheric ducting B – reflections from aircraft C – surface wave propagation D – super refraction Ref: AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl Ans: D

092 – IFR COMMUNICATIONS 092-01

INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS AND ORGANISATIONS

092-01-01 Meanings and significance of associated terms 2610. Which of the following calls is a GENERAL CALL? A – YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL B – YX-EFG, YX-FGH over C – ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL D – YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3159. Blind transmission shall be made: A – On the designated frequency (frequency in use) B – To all available aeronautical stations C – On regional guard frequencies only D – During IFR flights only Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3329. What does the word CHECK mean? A – I understand your message B – Confirm your last transmission C – Read back my last instruction D – Examine a system or procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

3331. What does the word APPROVED mean? A – Permission for proposed action granted B – That is correct C – Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified D – I repeat for clarity or emphasis Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3332. What does the term AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION mean? A – One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth B – One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth C – Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth D – Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3340. What does the phrase BREAK BREAK mean? A – The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected B – It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station C – It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment D – My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3341. What does the term CLEARANCE LIMIT mean: A – The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced B – The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance C – The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance D – The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

3361. What does SELCAL mean? A – A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously B – A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only C – A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft D – A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3362. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term VISUAL APPROACH? A – An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain B – An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC C – A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima D – An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straightin-approach Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3366. What does the word CONTACT mean? A – That is correct B – Radar contact established C – Listen out on (frequency) D – Establish radio contact with …. Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

3367. What does the word CORRECT mean? A – That is correct B – An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is… C – Permission for proposed action not granted D – Negative, the correct version is …. Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3372. What does the term EXPECTED APPROACH TIME mean: A – The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing B – The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated C – The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome D – The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3375. What does the word RECLEARED mean? A – Consider that transmission as not sent B – Permission for proposed action granted C – An error has been made in my last transmission D – A change has been made to your last clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3379. What does the word REPORT mean? A – Say again B – Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received C – Pass me the following information D – Examine a system or procedure Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

3380. What does the phrase VERIFY mean? A – Read back VDF bearing B – Repeat your last transmission C – Check and confirm with originator D – Consider that transmission as not sent Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3389. What does the word DISREGARD mean? A – Consider that transmission as not sent B – An error has been made in this transmission C – Annul the previously transmitted clearance D – Wait and I will call you Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3392. What does the word ACKNOWLEDGE mean? A – Let me know that you have received and understood this message B – Pass me the following information C – Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received D – Repeat all of your last transmission Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3395. What does the term BROADCAST mean? A – A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station B – A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight C – A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations D – A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations. Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

3398. Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis? A – I say again B – Confirm C – Read back D – Verify Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24680. The SELCAL system: A – allows two way VHF data transmission between ATC and aircraft B – allows two way data transmission between operator and aircraft C – allows the aircraft to be contacted on VHF and HF frequencies that are not being monitored by the flight crew D – allows satellite communication Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 24686. Which of the following are radar services? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii)

Radar Control Radar Advisory Flight Information Service Approach Control An SRA A PAR A QGH An ILS

A – All are B – (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (viii) C – (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) D – (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (vi) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

24687. A Flight Level is: A – a height above 3000 ft B – a surface of constant atmospheric pressure related to a datum of 1013.2 Hpa C – a surface of varying atmospheric pressure related to a datum of 1013.2 Hpa D – an altitude of constant height related to 1013.2 Hpa Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24693. The abbreviation HN means he facility described operates: A – between sunrise and sunset B – 24 hours a day C – by prior Notification D – between sunset and sunrise Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24702. A “FINAL” call is made when the aircraft turns on to final approach within ____ from the landing threshold: A – 8 nm B – 8 km C – between 4 nm and 8 nm D – 4 nm Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-01-02 Air Traffic Control abbreviations 3334. What does the abbreviation SAR mean? A – Surveillance airport radar B – Search and rescue C – Standard arrival route D – Secondary altimeter responder Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

3337. An Automatic Terminal Information Service provides: A – An Automatic Terminal Information Service provides: A – Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation B – Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast C – Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR D – Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3343. What does the abbreviation ATIS mean? A – Air traffic information service B – Airport terminal information service C – Aircraft terminal information service D – Automatic terminal information service Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3363. What does the abbreviation RVR mean? A – Runway visibility report B – Runway visual range C – Radar vectors requested D – Recleared via route…… Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3365. What does the abbreviation SSR mean? A – Standard snow report B – Search and surveillance radar C – Surface strength of runway D – Secondary surveillance radar Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

3370. What does the abbreviation IMC mean? A – In most cases B – Instrument meteorological conditions C – International meteorological channel D – In meteorological conditions Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3371. What does the abbreviation H24 mean? A – Sunset to sunrise B – Sunrise to sunset C – Continuous day and night service D – No specific working hours Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3376. What does the abbreviation INS mean? A – Instrument navigation system B – Inertial navigation system C – International NOTAM system D – International navigation service Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3377. What does the term WAY POINT mean? A – A general term meaning the taxiway-and the runway-system of an international airport B – A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system C – A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use D – A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

3382. What does the abbreviation AIS mean? A – Airport information system B – Aerodrome identification signal-area C – Aeronautical information service D – Aerodrome information service Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3385. What does the abbreviation MLS mean? A – Microwave landing system B – Minimum safe level C – Radar aided navigation D – Radio navigation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 15943. What does the abbreviation RNAV mean: A – Area navigation B – Route navigation C – Radar aided navigation D – Radio navigation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24620. An air traffic radar service in which the controller will inform the pilot of the bearing, distance and, if known, the level of conflicting traffic, but in which no avoiding action is given is known as a: A – RAS B – RIS C – FIS D – RS Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24624. What is SSR an abbreviation of? A – Stationary Surveillance Radar B – Sector Surveillance Radar C – Secondary Sector Radar D – Secondary Surveillance Radar Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24625. The abbreviation MLS is a shortened form of: A – Military Light Signals B – Mandatory Landing System C – Military Landing System D – Microwave Landing System Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24643. What does “H24” mean? A – Operates 24 hours B – Sunrise to sunset C – Available 24 hours a day by prior notice only D – Aircraft handling available 24 hours a day Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

092-01-03 Q-code groups commonly used in RTF air-ground communications 20868. QNH is the Q-code to indicate: A – The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold) B – The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP) C – The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome C – The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

20869. QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate: A – The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height B – The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum C – The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold) D – The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 24619. In relation to Direction Finding a QDM is: A – A true bearing of the aircraft measured from the VDF station B – A magnetic bearing of the aircraft measured from the VDF station C – A true bearing of the aircraft measured to the VDF station D – A magnetic heading for a pilot to steer to reach the VDF station Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24697. The pressure at the aerodrome reduced to sea level with regard to international standard atmosphere conditions is: A – QFE B – QFF C – QRM D – QNH Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-01-04 Categories of messages 24636. Which of the following statements relating to message categories is correct? A – The lowest priority message category is Meteorological B – Urgency has greatest priority over everything except Distress C – Flight Safety messages have a higher priority than Direction Finding messages D – Flight Safety messages have a higher priority than Medical Urgency messages Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24683. The ATC message ‘G-XX, departing aircraft advise moderate turbulence present below FL50’ is a: A – Flight Regularity message B – Meteorological message C – Flight Safety message D – Urgency message Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

092-02

GENERAL OPERATING PROCEDURES 092-02-01 Transmission of letters (No questions in this sub-chapter)

092-02-02 Transmission of numbers (including level information) 3544. What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency? A – one one eight decimal one B – one eighteen one C – one one eight one D – one one eight point one Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

092-02-03 Transmission of Time 20870. The time is 4:15 pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour? A – Four fifteen in the afternoon B – One six one five C – Four fifteen PM D – Sixteen fifteen Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24709. When indications of time are passed on the RT for position reports, ETAs and EATs RTF operators should employ: A – GMT B – LMT C – UTC D – EST Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

092-02-04 Transmission technique 3477. Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted? A – Aircraft identification, position, time, level B – Aircraft identification, position, time C – Aircraft identification, position, level D – Aircraft identification, position, next position Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 20867. Before transmitting the pilot should… A – Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time B – Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already transmitting will occur C – Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off D – Always write the message and read it during the transmission Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24612. A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. Which air traffic service should normally be used for this purpose? A – FIR B – RADAR C – APPROACH D – TOWER Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

24616. On the first call to an Air Traffic Service Unit a pilot should pass: A – call-sign, service requested B – call-sign, aircraft type, position, heading, ETA C – call-sign, point of departure and current position, heading, level, intention, type of service required D – call sign only Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

092-02-05 Standard words and phrases (relevant RTF phraseology included) 3324. What does the word CANCEL mean/ A – Wait and I will catch you B – A change has been made to your last clearance C – Annul the previously transmitted clearance D – Consider that transmission as not sent Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3360. Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: CONSIDER THAT TRANSMISSION AS NOT SENT: A – My last transmission is cancelled B – Cancel my last message C – Forget it D – Disregard Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3403. Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: REDUCE YOUR RATE OF SPEECH? A – Speak slower B – Words twice C – Repeat D – Say again Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: A 3412. To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller: A – Runway vacated B – Runway cleared C – Runway free D – Clear of runway Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3413. Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure: A – Going around B – Missed approach C – Pulling up D – Overshooting Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3415. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say COMMUNICATION IS DIFFICULT. PLEASE SEND EVERY WORD OR GROUP OF WORD TWICE? A – Words twice B – Say again, say again C – Repeat twice D – Message second time Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3424. How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre: A – Stopping B – Abandoning take-off C – Aborting take-off D – Cancelling take-off Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3436. What does the instruction: FASTAIAR 345 STANDBY 118.9 FOR TOWER mean: A – Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency B – Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9 on which aerodrome data are being broadcast C – Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9 D – Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will Initiate further communications Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3438. Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out: A – Unable to comply B – Negative instruction C – Impossible to make it D – Disregard Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3445. Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof: A – Recleared B – Cleared C – Approved D – Break break Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3451. Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message? A – Break B – Stop C – I say again D – Over Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: A 3453. Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message? A – Correction B – Correct C – Negative D – Disregard Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3454. What does the word Monitor mean: A – Examine a system or procedure B – Wait and I will call you C – Establish radio contact with…. D – Listen out on (frequency) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3459. Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions? A – Approved B – Go ahead C – Cleared D – I say again : proceed Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 20872. When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with: A – “Message to all aircraft on this frequency” B – “Please listen” C – “All stations” D – “General broadcast” Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

24627. The instruction REPORT means: A – pass me the following information B – file an ATSU report on landing C – return to home base D – read back this clearance Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24639. What would you say if you are having trouble with communications and wish to have everything repeated twice? A – I say again B – Words twice C – Please repeat D – Speak twice Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24640. For clarity or confirmation of a transmission you would use the phrase: A – Words twice B – I say again C – I repeat D – Encore Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24644. Certain RT procedures require messages to be broadcast to all stations using a particular frequency. Such messages would be preceded with the phrase: A – All aircraft on frequency B – All aircraft C – Now hear this D – All stations Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

24684. The phrase UNDER RADAR CONTROL means: A – ATC instructions may be obeyed at the pilot’s discretion B – ATC instructions must be obeyed unless avoiding immediate danger C – ATC information is advisory D – ATC will provide information on other traffic but no avoiding action will be given Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24688. The correct way to say “yes” on the RT is: A – AFFIRMATIVE B – AFFIRM C – YES D – ROGER Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24705. Clearances relating to the runway in use shall be read back only if the aircraft is to: A – Enter, land on, take off from, cross and backtrack B – Enter, cross and backtrack C – Land on and take off from D – Enter, land on, take off from and backtrack Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24711. In addition to aircraft identification, routine position reporting on HF or VHF must contain: A – Position, time and height B – Position, time, next reporting point and ETA C – Time, level, next reporting point and ETA D – Position, time, level, next position and ETA Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-02-06 Radiotelephony call signs for aeronautical stations 3396. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general)? A – RADAR B – CONTROL C – RADAR-CONTROL D – RADAR-SERVICE Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3408. What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery? A – CLEARANCE DELIVERY B – CLEARANCE C – DELIVERY D – RADIO Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3420. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures: A – RADAR B – CONTROL C – DEPARTURE D – APPROACH Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3425. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals: A - …ARRIVAL B - …APPROACH C - …RADAR D - …DIRECTOR Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3441. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station proiding approach control (no radar service)? A – RADAR B – ARRIVAL C – APPROACH D – CONTROL Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3442. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar): A – APPROACH B – CENTRE C – CONTROL D – RADAR Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

092-02-07 Radiotelephony call signs for aircraft 3414. What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum takeoff weight of more than 136 tonnes: A – Fastair 345 B – Heavy Fastair 345 C – Fastair heavy 345 D – Fastair 345 widebody Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3481. What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345? A – No abbreviated form B – Fastair 345 C – Fastair 45 D – 2345 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir

Ans: A 24695. The correct phonetic abbreviation for G-ZULU is: A – GOLF ZULU B – GOLF LIME UNIFORM C – GOLF UNIFORM LIMA UNIFORM D – LIMA UNIFORM Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24698. VIRGIN 1, an aircraft in the HEAVY weight category, should make first contact with an ATSU as follows: A – HEAVY VIRGIN 1 B – VIRGIN 1 HEAVY C – VIRGIN HEAVY 1 D – HEAVY 1 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

092-02-08 Transfer of communication 3478. When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word HEAVY immediately after its call sign eg. Fastair 345 heavy: A – In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit B – Never C – In all calls D – In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3479. When shall the phrase TAKE-OFF be used by a pilot: A – Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway B – Never, it is used only by the control tower C – To inform TOWER when ready for departure D – To acknowledge take-off clearance only Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3569. What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched on)? A – The frequency can not be used by others B – None C – Other stations will have to use the WORD TWICE technique D – Readability will improve for all stations Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

092-02-09 Test procedures including readability scale 3437. What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission? A – Read you loud and clear B – Read back C – Report readability D – How do you read? Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3536. What is meant by the phrase “READABILITY 4”? A – Readable now and then B – Readable C – Perfectly readable D – Readable but with difficulty Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

3580. What is meant by the phrase “READABILITY 2”? A – Readable but with difficulty B – Readable C – Unreadable D – Readable now and then Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 20871. On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean? A – Readable but with difficulty B – Unreadable C – Readable D – Perfectly readable Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24703. A transmission given readability scale of 3 is defined as: A – Readable B – Readable now and then C – Perfectly readable D – Readable but with difficulty Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24707. Test transmissions should include the word(s): A – “Test” B – “Radio check” C – “Test transmission” D – “Testing, testing” Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

092-02-10 Read back and acknowledgement requirements 2617. Must a general call be acknowledged? A – Yes, but only from the station first called B – No C – Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressed D – Yes, from all stations in a random sequence Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3409. What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received: A – Information Golf B – Weather Golf received C – We have the Information D – We have the ATIS Golf Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 3416. Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction: A – Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345 B – Changing over Fastair 345 C – 118.0 Fastair 345 D – Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3419. Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc? A – Confirm B – Correct C – Acknowledge D – Verify Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3427. During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360o. The correct read back of this instruction is: A – A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified B – Heading north, X-BC C – Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC D – Heading three six zero, X-BC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3428. What shall the pilots read back be for CLIMB TO FL 280: A – Climbing to flight level two eighty B – Climbing to flight level two eight zero C – Climbing two eight zero D – Climbing to two eighty Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3440. Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back? 1 – descend to (altitude) 3,000 feet 2 – wind 240o, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots 3 – turn right heading 210 4 – reduce speed to 160 knots 5 – squawk 1723 6 – braking action poor A – 1, 2, 3, 5 B – all C – 1, 3, 4, 5 D – 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

3476. Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back? A – QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability B – QNH, weather information, runway-in-use C – ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information D – SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3480. ATC clears Fastair 345 to descent from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot? A – Descending to 80, Fastair 345 B – Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345 C – Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345 D – Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24628. Which of the following instructions and information are required to be read back? (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)

Descend to altitude 2000 ft Wind 060/20 gusting 30 knots Heading instructions Speed control instructions Squawk 2310 Runway braking action

A – (i) (ii) and (iii) B – (i) (iii) (iv) and (v) C – (i) (iii) (iv) (v) and (vi) D – All of them Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24630. What is the correct reply to the instruction ‘Climb to FL 280’? A – Recleared Level Two Eight Zero B – Climb Two Eight Zero C – Climb to Two Hundred and Eighty D – Climb to Flight Level Two Eight Zero Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24631. What is the correct reply to an ATC instruction which you can’t comply with? A – Negative comply B – Negative instruction C – Negative compliance D – Unable to comply Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24642. When receiving radar vectors an aircraft XY-ABC is told ‘turn right heading 360’, the correct reply is? A – There is no need to respond as you have been identified as XY-ABC B – Heading north, X-BC C – Heading three hundred and sixty, X-BC D – Heading three six zero, X-BC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-02-11 Radar procedural phraseology 24690. The correct phraseology to instruct an aircraft to cease the MODE C SSR reply because of incorrect indications is: A – Climbing to two point five B – Up to two thousand five hundred C – Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet D – Climbing to two thousand five hundred Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24692. Which of the following statements is true? A – An IFR flight may be commenced if the SSR transponder is unserviceable B – If the SSR transponder becomes unserviceable during an IFR flight it must be continued under VFR C – If the SSR transponder becomes unserviceable during an IFR flight ATC must be informed as soon as possible D – If the SSR transponder becomes unserviceable during an IFR flight it must be continued under VMC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

092-02-12 Level changes and reports 3482. What shall the pilots read back be for CLIMB TO 2.500 FEET? A – Climbing to two point five B – Up to two thousand five hundred C – Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet D – Climbing to two thousand five hundred Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3484. If you are requested to REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS, what does that mean: A – Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature B – Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC C – Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing D – Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 24618. All messages relating to an aircraft’s climb or descent to a HEIGHT or ALTITUDE should: A – employ the word “TO” followed immediately by the word HEIGHT or ALTITUDE B – avoid using the word “TO” altogether C – employ the word “TO” followed immediately by the QFE or QNH D – be preceded by the required altimeter subscale setting Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

092-03 ACTION REQUIRED TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF COMMUNICATION FAILURE 3140. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome (no EAT received): A – After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged B – 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged C – Immediately after reaching in any case D – At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3141. In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall: A – Inform FIS for relay to AIS B – Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight C – Insert under item 18 of the flight plan TRANSPONDER UNSERVICEABLE and inform ATC after departure D – Cancel flight Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3142. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome: A – 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged B – Under no circumstances C – 5 minutes in any case D – Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

3144. In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall: A – Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair B – Inform the competent ATC unit immediately C – Squawk 7600 D – Continue the flight in VMC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3146. A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to: A – Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan B – Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner C – Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way D – Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3150. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within: A – 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later B – 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure C – 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT D – 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3151. Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and: A – Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan B – Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then climb in accordance with the flight plan C – Land at the departure aerodrome in any case D – Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3153. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to: A – Land at the destination aerodrome B – Return to the aerodrome of departure C – Land at the alternate aerodrome D – Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3155. An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to: A – Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome B – Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules C – Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight D – Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3158. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to: A – Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival B – Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace C – Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome D – Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24610. After suffering a radio receiver failure the pilots should make blind transmissions preceded by the phrase “Transmitting blind due to receiver failure” and subsequently: A – hold for 5 minutes B – proceed to the pre-planned alternate C – enter the next en-route holding pattern encountered D – advise the time of the next intended transmission Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24632. What is the action required to be taken on an IFR flight after a transponder failure? A – Inform ATC immediately and continue VFR B – Land immediately C – Inform ATC immediately D – Continue flight in VMC Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

24633. What is the correct action of a flight on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions if it experiences total communication failure? A – Continue as filed to beacon over the destination airfield, squawk 7600 B – Continue in VMC C – Continue as filed to beacon over the destination airfield, maintain assigned squawk D – Leave controlled airspace Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24682. On an IFR flight two way communications is lost as the aircraft is holding above the final destination. The expected approach time (EAT) was passed as 1420 UTC before communications was lost. The aircraft should squawk 7600 and make an approach to land at: A – the EAT, plus or minus 10 minutes B – not before the EAT and no later than 10 minutes after EAT C – not before the EAT and no later than 20 minutes after EAT D – not before the EAT and no later than 30 minutes after EAT Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24708. If an aircraft has had a radio failure, the SSR should be set to: A – 7700 B – 2000 C – 7600 D – 7500 Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

092-04

DISTRESS AND URGENCY PROCEDURES 092-04-01 PAN medical

2998. A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal: A – MEDICAL TRANSPORT B – PAN PAN MEDICAL C – PROTECTED TRANSPORT D – PAN PAN TRANSPORT Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3004. What do the spoken words PAN PAN MEDICAL mean? A – The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony B – The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land C – The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport D – The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24637. What is the initial message for an aircraft in a protected medical transportation flight? A – PAN PAN MEDICAL B – MEDICAL TRANSPORT C – TRANSPORTATION MEDICAL D – MEDICAL PAN PAN Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

092-04-02 Distress 3000. The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include? A – Disregard distress communication, OUT B – Emergency communication finished C – MAYDAY traffic ended D – Distress traffic ended Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3002. When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include? A - …MAYDAY, resuming normal operations B - …cancel distress C - …MAYDAY cancelled D - …distress condition terminated Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3003. Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of: A – Technical difficulties B – Urgency communication C – Overload of the frequency D – Distress traffic Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3005. Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence? A – Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY B – Stop transmitting, DISTRESS C – Stop transmitting, MAYDAY D – All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

3007. A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means: A – The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure B – The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicle C – The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight D – Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3008. When an aircraft station receives the call ALL STATIONS STEPHENVILLE RADAR, DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED it is requested: A – Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR B – To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity C – Acknowledge receipt of this message D – To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3009. The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on: A – The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned B – The emergency frequency in any case C – The regional guard frequency D – The air-ground frequency in use at the time Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3010. When an aircraft station receives the call ALL STATIONS STEPHENVILLE RADAR, STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY it is requested: A – To continue normal communication on the frequency in use B – Not to interfere with the distress communication C – To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic D – To leave the frequency in use Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24622. In a distress situation it may be necessary to impose silence either on all stations or on a particular station. This action of imposing silence may be performed: A – only by the ground station controlling the frequency B – by either the aircraft in distress or the station in control of the distress incident C – by any station who considers it necessary to impose silence D – only by the distress and diversion cell at the Rescue Control Centre (RCC) Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

092-04-03 Urgency 2997. The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details: A – Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required B – Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight C – Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilots intention, present position, level and heading D – Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 2999. Which of the following statements is correct? A – The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications B – The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distress C – There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency communications D – ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

3001. On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: A – Impose radio silence on the frequency in use B – Acknowledge the message immediately C – Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if required D – Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 3006. A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: A – An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure B – Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required C – The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate re-clearance D – The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-05 RELEVANT WEATHER INFORMATION TERMS 092-05-01 Aerodrome weather 3127. When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase? A – RVR runway 16 touchdown ___ metres, mid-point ___ metres, stop end ___ metres B – The values of the transmissiometer are ___ metres and ___ metres C – RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ___ metres D – RVR runway 16 ___ metres diagonal ___ metres diagonal ___ metres Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A

3135. What does FRICTION COEFFICIENT 20 in a runway report mean? A – Braking action medium B – Braking action poor C – Braking action good D – Braking action unreliable Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B 3136. What does FRICTION COEFFICIENT 45 in a runway report mean? A – Braking action not measurable B – Braking action medium C – Braking action poor D – Braking action good Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 3137. Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be UNRELIABLE? A – Runway covered with dry snow B – Runway covered with ice C – Runway covered with wet snow and slush D – Runway conditions normal Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 24638. A braking coefficient of 0.45 indicates runway braking action: A – poor B – medium C – good D – unmeasurable Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C

24712. In a METAR, cloud reported as “broken” means: A – 3 – 4 octas B – 2 – 3 octas C – 5-7 octas D – 4-6 octas Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 24715. CAVOK may be used in place of visibility, weather and cloud, provided that visibility is ___ or more; there is no cloud below ___ or MSA whichever is the ___ and no significant weather phenomena. A – 10 km, 5000 ft AAL, lower B – 10 nm, 5000 ft, AAL, higher C – 10 nm, 5000 ft, AGL lower D – 10 km, 5000 ft, AAL, higher Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-05-02 Weather broadcast 24699. Weather information contained in the ATIS is updated every: A – 30 minutes B – 20 minutes C – 60 minutes D – 50 minutes Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24713. Meteorological information broadcast in VOLMET is the same as: A – TAFs B – SPECI TAF sometimes with METARS C – SIGMETs D – METARs with TRENDS and sometimes TAFs Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D

092-06

GENERAL PRINCIPLES OF VHF PROPAGATION

24635. What are the consequences of an aircraft with a transmit button stuck on? A – It improves readability for everyone else B – It has no effect on other transmissions C – It prevents other aircraft transmissions being heard but does not affect the readability of ATC transmissions D – No one else can use the frequency Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: D 24694. The RTF band allocated to aviation VHF communications is: A – 30MHz to 300MHz B – 108 MHz to 117.95MHz C – 118MHz to 136.95MHz D – 108MHz to 111.95MHz Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: C 24701. HF Frequency bands used for aviation are between: A – 2850 to 22000 KHz B – 2850 to 25000 MHz C – 258 to 2500 MHz D – 2580 to 22000 KHz Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A 24710. What is the expected range of VHF air to ground communications if an aircraft is flying 35,000 feet above the transmitter height? A – 187 nm B – 234 nm C – 150 nm D – 267 nm Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: B

24716. The VHF aviation band channel spacing in upper airspace is: A – 8.33 KHz B – 12.5 KHz C – 25.0 KHz D – 7.98 KHz Ref: AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir Ans: A