January 2014
Examiners’ Examine rs’ Repor Reportt NEBOSH National Diploma in Occupational Health and Safety - Unit B
Examiners’ Report NEBOSH NATIONAL DIPLOMA IN OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY Unit B: Hazardo us agents in the wor kplace JANUARY 2014
CONTENTS
Introduction
2
General comments
3
Comments on individual questions
4
2014 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW tel: 0116 263 4700
fax: 0116 282 4000
email:
[email protected]
website: www.nebosh.org.uk
The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered c harity, number 1010444
Introduction
NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a comprehensive range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the health, safety, environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and public sectors. Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 35,000 candidates annually and are offered by over 500 course providers, with exams taken in over 100 countries around the world. Our qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety Management (IIRSM). NEBOSH is an awarding body to be recognised and regulated by the Scottish Qualifications Authority (SQA). Where appropriate, NEBOSH follows the latest version of the “GCSE, GCE, Principal Learning and Project Code of Practice” published by the regulatory authorities in relation to examination setting and marking. While not obliged to adhere to this code, NEBOSH regards it as best practice to do so. Candidates’ scripts are marked by a team of Examiners appointed by NEBOSH on the basis of their qualifications and experience. The standard of the qualification is determined by NEBOSH, which is overseen by the NEBOSH Council comprising nominees from, amongst others, the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), the Confederation of British Industry (CBI), the Trades Union Congress (TUC) and the Institution of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH). Representatives of course providers, from both the public and private sectors, are elected to the NEBOSH Council. This report on the examination provides information on the performance of candidates which it is hoped will be useful to candidates and tutors in preparation for future examinations. It is intended to be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of the syllabus content and the application of assessment criteria. © NEBOSH 2014
Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to: NEBOSH Dominus Way Meridian Business Park Leicester LE19 1QW tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email:
[email protected]
2
General com ments
Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations. There are always some candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key concepts should be applied to workplace situations. In order to meet the pass standard for this assessment, acquisition of knowledge and understanding across the syllabus are prerequisites. However, candidates need to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding in answering the questions set. Referral of candidates in this unit is invariably because they are unable to write a full, well-informed answer to one or more of the questions asked. Some candidates find it difficult to relate their learning to the questions and as a result offer responses reliant on recalled knowledge and conjecture and fail to demonstrate a sufficient degree of understanding. Candidates should prepare themselves for this vocational examination by ensuring their understanding, not rote-learning pre-prepared answers. Candidates should therefore note that Examiners’ Reports are no t written to provide ‘sample answers’ but to give examples of what Examiners were expecting and more specifically to highlight areas of under performance. Common pitfalls
It is recognised that many candidates are well prepared for their assessments. However, recurrent issues, as outlined below, continue to prevent some candidates reaching their full potential in the assessment. −
Many candidates fail to apply the basic principles of examination technique and for some candidates this means the difference between a pass and a referral.
−
In some instances, candidates do not attempt all the required questions or are failing to provide complete answers. Candidates are advised to always attempt an answer to a compulsory question, even when the mind goes blank. Applying basic health and safety management principles can generate credit worthy points.
−
Some candidates fail to answer the question set and instead provide information that may be relevant to the topic but is irrelevant to the question and cannot therefore be awarded marks.
−
Many candidates fail to apply the command words (also known as action verbs, eg describe, outline, etc). Command words are the instructions that guide the candidate on the depth of answer required. If, for instance, a question asks the candidate to ‘describe’ something, then few marks will be awarded to an answer that is an outline. Similarly the command word ‘identify’ requires more information than a ‘list’.
−
Some candidates fail to separate their answers into the different sub-sections of the questions. These candidates could gain marks for the different sections if they clearly indicated which part of the question they were answering (by using the numbering from the question in their answer, for example). Structuring their answers to address the different parts of the question can also help in logically drawing out the points to be made in response.
−
Candidates need to plan their time effectively. Some candidates fail to make good use of their time and give excessive detail in some answers leaving insufficient time to address all of the questions.
−
Candidates should also be aware that Examiners cannot award marks if handwriting is illegible.
−
Candidates should note that it is not necessary to start a new page in their answer booklet for each section of a question. 3
UNIT B – Hazardous agents in the workplace
Section A – all questions c ompulsory
Question 1
A machine operator is required to work at a number of different machines during a normal 8-hour working day. (a)
(b)
Explain how a series of static measurements can be taken in the workplace and then used to estimate the operator’s daily personal noise exposure L EP,d.
(5)
The result of personal dosimetry on a similar working day provides an LEP,d that is 4dB(A) greater than the estimate made in (a). Outline factors that may account for the difference.
(5)
This question related to Element 6 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 6.3: Explain the measurement and assessment of noise exposure. Many candidates struggled to provide a coherent explanation of how to go about making a series of static noise measurements; which suggested that they had little knowledge or understanding of the processes involved or the equipment which should be used. Performance in part (a) of this question was generally very poor with many candidates gaining no marks. Part (b) was generally answered better and it is here that most candidates gained their marks. Answers to part (b) were at a better standard with candidates more comfortable when outlining factors that could result in the difference in measurements noted. They often referred to factors such as actual operator position and differences in relation to the machines, materials, machine speeds etc. Most candidates referred to factors associated with accuracy of measurement, errors in calibration and even the possibility that reflected sound from the body. Parts (a) and (b) varied in the command words used, (a) required an explanation and (b) required an outline. Course providers should remind candidates about the differences between these two command words. It is recommended that course providers try where possible to demonstrate the use of this type of equipment to their students, as this would help in their recall of such techniques when answering examination questions.
4
Question 2
The Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 require ‘suitable and sufficient’ washing facilities to be provided at ‘readily accessible places’. (a)
(b)
Outline features of the washing facilities that determine if they are suitable.
(7)
Outline other welfare requirements of The Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992.
(3)
This question related to Element 10 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 10.3: Explain the need for welfare facilities and arrangements in fixed and temporary workplaces. This question assessed knowledge about the welfare requirements in the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992. Part (a) focussed on the “suitability” of washing facilities as described in Regulation 21. It did not require knowledge of the “sufficiency”. So marks were not available for recalling the number of washbasins etc. that are quoted in the Approved Code of Practice that accompanies these Regulations. Candidates should refer to paragraphs (a-h) in Regulation 21(2). In addition the consideration as to whether showers would be needed in addition to wash-basins. Few candidates referred to these. However marks were available for including the need for showers when the nature of the work is strenuous or dirty. The importance of having thermostatic mixing valves on showers to prevent scalding was also mark worthy. In part (b) candidates were expected to outline the other welfare requirements that appear in the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations in Regulations 20 and 22-25. These are specifically welfare requirements. A number of candidates wrote about other requirements and so did not gain marks. Answers were mixed with candidates providing a very basic level of response that is not appropriate at diploma level. In particular part (a) carried 7 marks so candidates should have been guided by this when planning their answer. Those that provided a higher degree of detail usually gained over half marks.
Question 3
Construction workers often spend much of their time working outdoors where they are exposed to naturally occurring ultra-violet (UV) radiation. (a)
(b)
(i) Identify the acute adverse effects that could result from exposure to UV radiation.
(2)
(ii) Identify the chronic effects that could result from exposure to UV radiation.
(2)
Explain measures that the workers can take to reduce the risks associated with their exposure to UV radiation.
(6)
This question related to Element 7 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 7.2: Explain the effects of exposure to non-ionising radiation, its measurement and control. In this question, ultra-violet radiation (UV) was chosen as an example of non-ionising. Candidates were initially expected to understand the acute and chronic effect of 5
exposure to such radiation and in part (b); measures to reduce the effect on outdoor workers. Some candidates did not pay attention to the introduction to the question which specifically cites the risk as being exposure to UV radiation. Instead they spent time discussing issues of thermal comfort and the possible risks of dehydration. This was not required. Part (a) required only an identification of the effects of UV radiation, but part (b) required an explanation of the controls measures that workers could take. The word “workers” was in italics in order to emphasise it. This implied that contr ol measures put in place by the employer or managers were not required. Such an example would be information, instruction and training on the risks and precautions required when exposed to UV radiation. Some candidates overlooked the emphasis on the workers and decided to include these in their answer, but were not given credit. In part (b) an explanation was key, so brief answers that simply mentioned wearing sunscreen or keeping out of the sun did not gain good marks. Instead an explanation that sunscreen should be worn and it should have an SPF of at least 15 gained better marks. It is this attention to detail that is necessary at diploma level. Many candidates overlooked the importance of the workers checking their own skin for changes such as moles, new spots or skin discolouration. Few candidates recognised that the workers themselves should manage their UV exposure when they were not at work. Some candidates recognised that construction workers would likely be wearing hard hats for protection against other risks and some candidates went on to mention the importance of adding to these some covering to the back of the neck area. It was these candidates that had fully applied their answer to the scenario given and gained better marks.
Question 4
(a)
(b)
(c)
Outline the purpose of medical surveillance AND identify who should carry it out.
(3)
Identify circumstances when it is appropriate to carry out medical surveillance.
(3)
Identify functions (other than medical surveillance) that may be carried out by an occupational health service in a large manufacturing organisation.
(4)
This question related to Element 11 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 11.3: Outline the management of occupational health (including the practical and legal aspects). This question concentrated in parts (a) and (b) on medical surveillance before expanding out in part (c) to include other functions an occupational. The syllabus at 11.3 specifically includes: “The legal requirements for medical surveillance with reference to Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations, Control of Lead at Work Regulations, Control of Asbestos Regulations and Ionising Radiation Regulations.” It was this knowledge that was being assessed in parts (a) and (b) and medical surveillance terms and roles were often confused. It was clear that many candidates were confused by this specific term medical surveillance. It is recommended that course providers and candidates refer to the Heath Surveillance Cycle and the diagram Health Surveillance: decision making map, both of which are available on the HSE website. These provide a useful resource when studying this part of the syllabus. In addition particular attention should be paid 6
to Regulation 11 of COSHH and the relevant parts of the regulations listed above for lead, asbestos and ionising radiations. In answer to part (a); medical surveillance alerts employees to early signs of health problems caused by their work and can provide advice on whether further exposure is appropriate. Few candidates were aware of the need for it to be carried out by an HSE appointed doctor, relevant doctor or perhaps an EMAS doctor. In answer to part (b) a candidate could gain marks by stating that medical surveillance should be carried out when it was required by statute. Marks were also available for naming some particular statues, which are those listed in the syllabus. Very few candidates mentioned the relevance on schedule 6 of COSHH in this context. In answer to part (c) there is a wide range of other possible functions that an occupational health service can provide and most candidates were easily able to gain the 4 marks available.
Question 5
A manufacturing process produces high levels of heat and steam. (a)
(b)
Identify FOUR parameters that could be measured when making an assessment of the thermal environment AND, in EACH case, give the name of an instrument that can be used to measure this parameter.
(4)
Outline ways of reducing thermal stress amongst employees during the manufacturing process.
(6)
This question related to Element 10 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 10.1: Explain the need for, and factors involved in, the provision and maintenance of thermal comfort in the work environment. The syllabus clearly states that candidates should have knowledge and understanding of “environmental parameters affecting thermal comfort (air temperature, radiant temperature, relative humidity, air velocity) and how to measure them (thermometers; dry bulb, wet bulb, globe, kata, anemometers, psychrometers, integrated electronic instruments including heat stress monitors).” The content of responses required for part (a) are indicated in this syllabus extract, but generally answers were limited with many inaccuracies and confusions about the parameters to measure and the instrumentation to be used. In order to gain each mark in part (a) it was necessary to identify both the parameter and the name of the instrument used to measure it. The need to include both of these in the answer is indicated by the wording in the question which is emboldened “ AND , in EACH case”. Part (b) produced better responses with most candidates able to provide a reasonable range of ways to reduce thermal stress. However common omissions were; allowing acclimatisation of individuals to the work environment, controlling heat output at source and using health surveillance to look for early signs of health problems relating to the hot and humid environment.
7
Question 6
A telecommunications organisation operates a computerised call centre to handle all enquiries regarding its service. The call centre operates between the hours of 8 am and 8 pm seven days a week. Outline measures that the organisation should put in place in order to reduce the risks of ill-health associated with the use of display screen equipment at the call centre.
(10)
This question related to Element 9 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive activities, manual handling and poor posture. This question focussed on the control measures the organisation (a call centre) should put in place; it was not a question requiring a detailed assessment of the elements of a DSE workstation. Many candidates decided to address only these issues and overlooked the wider range of measures that should be put in place in a call centre environment. Clearly it is important that the DSE workstations are designed and set up correctly but those that are familiar with the requirements of the Display Screen Equipment Regulations and associated guidance (L26) will know that this is only one part of the Regulations (Regulation 3) and there are regulations addressing other matters such as the daily routine of users, eye and eyesight tests and the provision of information and training, (regulations 4 - 7). Therefore those that considered these wider ranging issues and related them to the scenario gained better marks. Marks were available for reference to the need for hands-free telephone head-sets and the importance of managing breaks so they are taken regularly and away from the workstation. Training call handlers in the safe and healthy working practices at DSE workstations was particularly relevant as the nature of the work means they are working at a workstation for prolonged periods of time. Therefore training them to manage their posture and take steps to avoid eye strain are important aspects of the call handler’s training. At diploma level, it is expected that candidates will have studied in more detailed documents such as HSE guidance that accompanies the Display Screen Equipment Regulations (L26). Tutors should encourage this as part of the private study that candidates are required to undertake. It is also expected that candidates can apply their knowledge to particular workplace scenarios and this was necessary in order to gained better marks in this question. Those that did address the scenario referred to other measures such as setting realistic call handling targets and having user friendly software.
8
Section B – three from five question s to be attempted
Question 7
Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) and dilution ventilation are two control measures that may be considered when reduction of personal exposure to hazardous substances is required in a workplace. (a)
(b)
(c)
Explain how dilution ventilation can reduce personal exposure to hazardous substances.
(3)
Identify circumstances when the use of dilution ventilation may not be an appropriate control measure.
(3)
LEV may be used instead of dilution ventilation and LEV systems can contain an air cleaning device. Fabric filters and electrostatic precipitators are two types of air cleaning device that may be found in LEV systems.
For EACH type of air cleaning device:
(d)
(e)
(i) explain how they operate to remove or reduce the contaminant;
(6)
(ii) identify a type of contaminant that the device is designed to remove.
(2)
Explain how the effectiveness of an air cleaning device can be determined.
(2)
Identify FOUR other components of an LEV system.
(4)
This question related to Element 3 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 3.1: Explain local exhaust ventilation and procedures to ensure effective ventilation. This question assessed several parts of the syllabus content listed in 3.1 including: “Local exhaust ventilation (LEV) components and factors that determine effectiveness; dilution ventilation; measurements for assessing performance of local exhaust ventilation: methods and equipment for measuring, static pressures and the purpose of air cleaning devices.” It seems that many candidates were unfamiliar with some of these points of detail. Tutors are reminded of the importance of the HSE document HSG 258 (Controlling airborne contaminants at work, a guide to local exhaust ventilation (LEV), maintenance, examination and testing), when addressing this part of the syllabus. All detail necessary to answer this question is contained within that tutor reference document. The various parts of this question require different amounts of detail and this is indicated by the choice of command words used in each part of the question. Candidates should note these command words and use them to inform the level of detail they provide in their answers. Explaining questions all require a step-wise approach giving detail. An explanation of the workings of the two types of air cleaning device mentioned in this question can be found in HSG 258 along with details of other types of air cleaning device which are also covered by the syllabus. 9
It was clear that many candidates were confused about measuring the effectiveness of air cleaning devices and wrote about how to measure capture velocity or duct (transport) velocity. These have featured in other diploma examination questions but were not relevant here. Few candidates took the correct approach which is to measure a pressure drop or difference across an air cleaning device using a manometer. A large pressure drop may indicate a blockage or loss of effectiveness. Most candidates gained good marks in part (e).
Question 8
An organisation operates a chemical manufacturing process that uses two different grades of the same powder. The table below shows data for the two different grades of powder. Employees handle both powders during the manufacturing process and are therefore likely to inhale the powders. Product
Description
Particle Size Distribution (microns)
Powder grade 1
White powder
7-20
Powder grade 2
White powder
1-5
(a)
For EACH powder:
(i)
describe the likely distribution of the powder in the respiratory tract of the employees;
(4)
describe the mechanisms that the body may use to defend itself from inhalation of the powder.
(6)
Outline how an occupational hygienist would determine the employees’ long-term personal exposure to the dust in powder grade 2.
(10)
(ii)
(b)
This question related to Elements 1 and 4 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcomes 1.3 and 4.2 which are: Describe the main effects and routes of attack of chemicals on the human body, and outline the strategies, methods, and equipment for the sampling and measurement of airborne contaminants, respectively. Part (a) of the question gave candidates a clear suggestion on how to structure an answer. The question clearly says “For EACH powder ” before going on to ask parts (a) (i) and (a) (ii). Therefore those candidates that arranged their responses in either of the two following ways made it clear that they understood the differences between the two grades of powder. Some candidates did not confirm which powder they were describing the “distribution of” or the “defence mechanism” for. Possible layouts for a candidate response: Powder grade 1 (a) (i) Likely distribution (a) (ii) Defence mechanism Powder grade 2 (a) (i) Likely distribution 10
(a) (ii) Defence mechanism Or an alternative layout could be: (a) (i) Likely distribution Powder grade 1 Powder grade 2 (a) (ii) Defence mechanism Powder grade 1........ Powder grade 2....... Part (a) was designed to assess a candidates’ knowledge of the “Distinction between inhalable and respirable dust,” which is included at 1.3 of the diploma syllabus. The particle size distribution of powder grade one indicates it is largely an inhalable dust and powder grade 2 is largely a respirable dust. Having recognised this difference, candidates should have been able to describe the different likely distributions of each powder in the respiratory tract and the differing defence mechanisms the body may use to defend itself from each powder. For powder grade 2 which is likely to enter the lower areas of the respiratory tract (bronchioles and alveoli) then many candidates omitted to describe the defence mechanisms of phagocytosis or the possible inflammatory response that could result in scarring or fibrosis. Part (b) asked only about powder grade 2 which is largely a respirable dust. Therefore it was essential that candidates recognised this and outlined the use of a cyclone sampling head. The methodology that should be used by an occupational hygienist is that set out in MDHS 14/3. This is a gravimetric method. Again tutors should be aware that candidates remain confused about these practical occupational hygiene techniques and tutors should where ever possible use practical demonstrations to deliver this part of the syllabus. This would enhance candidates understanding of these practical techniques. The term occupational hygienist seemed to confuse some candidates. Some thought that the question was referring to occupational health practitioners who may typically undertake health surveillance activities and so wrote about lung function tests. The detail in 4.3 of the diploma syllabus includes the following: “the importance of use of standard methods (MDHS series), general methods for sampling and gravimetric analysis of respirable and inhalable dust, sampling equipment for solid particulates (dusts, fibres): sampling head (protected, cyclone, cowl) and pump;” and it was this knowledge that was being assessed in part (b) of this question.
Question 9
A farm operates a large poultry production and processing facility and is concerned about employees being exposed to the zoonose that causes the disease psittacosis (also known as ornithosis). (a)
(b)
Give the meaning of the term ‘zoonose’ AND identify the organism that causes psittacosis.
(3)
Outline how those working with the poultry are likely to be exposed to the organism that causes psittacosis.
(4)
11
(c)
(d)
Identify possible ill-health effects that could result from exposure to the organism that causes psittacosis.
(3)
Outline a range of control measures that should be put in place by the farm management in order to reduce the risk of employees contracting psittacosis.
(10)
This question related to Element 5 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 5.2: Explain the assessment and control of risk from exposure to biological agents at work. Psittacosis is one of the biological agents specifically listed in the syllabus in element 5, therefore it is expected that candidates will have some familiarity with the particular risks and controls that are needed. Even if candidates struggled to recall some of the detail, those that recognised that the main risks are associated with the inhalation of the dusts containing a bacterium, should have been able to deduce the key route of entry and therefore infer a sensible range of control measures to reduce the risk of exposure to the organism. Part (a) required some specific knowledge that it is the bacterium chlamydia psittaci which causes psittacosis. Understanding that dust or aerosols from urine or dried faeces present a risk if inhaled was the key point relevant to answering part (b). Few if any candidates mentioned the other possible routes of exposure which include bites from infected birds and even human to human transmission. Many candidates were able to mention “flu-like symptoms” as an ill-health effect when answering part (c). However few mentioned the other more specific symptoms associated with psittacosis. Tutors and candidates should refer to general information about zoonoses that can be found on the HSE website, in particular the document AIS2 provides a good overview of many zoonoses, a number for which are listed in the diploma syllabus. Having recognised that the main route of exposure was through inhalation, this should have informed the range control measures to be put in place. Some candidates that had recognised this route of exposure in part (b) did not apply this idea when answering part (d). The range of control measures should have included ventilation and the use of RPE as well as the more common hygiene related controls such as provision of hand washing facilities, disinfection of waste and the use of PPE such as overalls and gloves. Those with more specific knowledge and understanding were able to identify the particular standards of RPE required and that regular health checks on the flock and minimising the stress of the flock would also prevent or reduce the risks of the birds shedding the organism. Cleaning regimes are also important and these should avoid dry brushing and instead involve dampening down or vacuum cleaning techniques. Most candidates mentioned the importance of information, instruction and training of employees in the risks associated with psittacosis, the symptoms and the steps employees should take to reduce the risks.
12
Question 10
(a)
(b)
(c)
Outline the meaning of the following terms: (i) work-related stress;
(2)
(ii) post-traumatic stress disorder.
(2)
Identify a range of information sources that an employer could use to determine the extent of employee work-related stress within an organisation.
(7)
The Health and Safety Executive identifies a range of stress management standards, one of which is change. An organisation is about to change working practices. Outline practical steps that the organisation could take in order to reduce the risk of employees suffering from work-related stress as a result of this change to working practices.
(d)
(6)
The case of Intel Corporation (UK) Limited v Daw (2007) concerned an employee who suffered a breakdown due to an excessive workload. This employee claimed negligence against the employer due to stress and depression resulting from the excessive workload. (i) Identify the defence put forward by the employer in this case.
(1)
(ii) Explain the decision of the Court of Appeal in this case.
(2)
This question related to Element 8 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcomes 8.1 and 8.2: Explain the scope, effects and causes of work-related stress and explain the identification and control of workplace stress with reference to legal duties and other standards. Part (a) assessed some basic knowledge about the meaning of the two terms that appear in the syllabus, work-related stress and post-traumatic stress disorder. The meanings given were generally limited and imprecise. At various points in the diploma syllabus it states “the meaning of” and for these terms candidates are expected to a clear and precise response available. Course providers should use reliable sources in order to provide candidates with these meanings. Variations around a general theme are permissible, but many candidates were not able to convey that they had an understanding of these terms. Part (b) was answered well with many candidates able to provide a range of information sources the employer could use. Change is one of six HSE stress management standards (the other five being demands, role, relationships, control and support). When answering part (c), candidates were often thinking at too simple a level by selecting one type of change and building their response around that. For example change to PPE, or a new piece of work equipment. This question was about the general managerial process of change and how to go about that in a way that would reduce the risk of stress. The process would obviously need to start with consultation about the proposed changes. Few suggested the need to pilot the changes and get feedback from employees after the pilot. This would allow adaptation to the changes proposed to be made before they were fully implemented. Another common omission was to make sure managers had an open approach to discussing concerns about the change with employees. Other ideas that can be used to help manage change are outlined in the HSE document about managing the causes 13
of work-related stress (HSG218). This is a key document when studying this area of the syllabus. There are very few examples of case law in the Unit B diploma syllabus and all appear in element 8. Candidates are expected to be familiar with the details of those cases and understand the relevant points of law illustrated. The syllabus lists the case of Intel Corporation (UK) Limited v Daw [2007] which was covered in part (d) of this question. Most candidates did not have any awareness of this case or confused it with other cases listed in the syllabus, most commonly the Walker case. The Intel case deals with the issue of the provision of counselling services by an employer to employees, sometimes referred to as an employee assistance programme (EAP). The defence put forward by the employer (Intel) was that such an EAP was available to Daw but they did not use it. When the case went to the Court of Appeal the appeal was rejected for a number of reasons. Reasons included the EAP on offer would not have reduced the risk of the breakdown suffered by Daw as it did nothing to address the underlying cause of the stress, which was excessive workload. The court said that an EAP is not ”a panacea by which employers can discharge their duty of care in all cases”. The source references for the case law in this element are given in the syllabus (E.g. EWCA Civ 70). Tutors and candidates should refer to these and other reliable case summaries when studying this area of the syllabus.
Question 11
A facilities manager of a multi-occupancy office block built in the 1970s is concerned about the risks associated with asbestos in the building. (a)
(b)
Outline steps that the facilities manager should take in order to minimise risks associated with any asbestos that may be present in the building.
(12)
An occupant of one of the offices engages a contractor to fit a hand dryer in a toilet. This involves drilling through some asbestos insulating board. Outline the procedure that the contractor should follow to carry out this work safely.
(8)
This question related to Element 2 of the syllabus and assessed candidates’ knowledge of learning outcome 2.3: Explain the additional requirements for asbestos and lead. This was a popular question perhaps because it has appeared on previous diploma question papers. However in part (a) many candidates were inaccurate in their use of terminology and did not outline clearly the need for an asbestos survey, the creation of an asbestos register (if one did not already exist) and the then the development of an asbestos management plan. Most only referred to the survey by name. At diploma level it is important to include the correct technical detail especially in this instance where there are very specific types of control measure associated with work involving asbestos. This technical detail was relevant in parts (a) and (b), but was often missing. Examples of this lack of detail were as follows. What defines the competence of someone undertaking an asbestos survey; what options the asbestos management plan might offer to manage any asbestos found in the building; who is the duty holder in this instance; why the work undertaken in the scenario was non-
14
licensed and non- notifiable; the standard the RPE must meet (FFP3), the waste must be double bagged with the necessary red lining with UN markings etc. The asbestos essentials tool is specifically listed in the syllabus at element 2 so it is important that candidates and tutors are familiar with this resource.
15
The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health Dominus Way Meridian Business Park Leicester LE19 1QW telephone +44 (0)116 2634700 fax +44 (0)116 2824000 email
[email protected] www.nebosh.org.uk
