Suatu kalimat bahasa Inggris yang baik dan benar seharusnya hanya berisi sebuah subjek dan sebuah kata kerja. Pertanyaan yang sering muncul dalam soal-soal TOEFL yaitu dihilangkannya subjek atau kata kerja atau kedua-duanya. Yang perlu Anda lakukan adalah dengan menemukan subjek atau kata kerja, kemudian analisa jawaban dengan melihat kata yang hilang. Contoh Soal TOEFL: _________ was ringing continuously for hours. (A). Loudly (B). In the morning (C). The Phone (D). The bells Pembahasannya: 1. Teridentifikasi terdapat sebuah kata kerja yaitu was sehingga diperlukan subjek untuk melengkapi pernyataan tersebut. 2. (A) bukan subjek, (B) bukan subjek, (C) subjek, (D) subjek 3. Sekarang tinggal 2 pilihan kemungkinan jawaban, sekarang tinggal dilihat yang lebih tepat. 4. Karena was merupakan kata kerja tunggal, maka jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) yang merupakan subjek tunggal. Sebagai latihan, silahkan jawab soal berikut: 1. Mark Twain _________ they years after the Civil War the “Gilded Age.” (A) Called (B) Calling (C) He called (D) His calls 2. Early _________ toes instead on hooves on their feet. (A) Horses (B) Had horses (C) Horses had (D) Horses having 3. _________ radio as the first practical system of wireless telegraphy. (A) Marconi's development (B) The development of Marconi (C) Developing Marconi (D) Marconi developed Sekarang Anda akan belajar tentang salah satu ciri-ciri soal TOEFL bahwa jika suatu kata yang biasanya subjek namun terdapat kata depan (object of preposition) yang mengikutinya, maka kata tersebut bukan suatu subjek.
Contoh Soal TOEFL: To Mike _______ was a big surprise. (A). really (B). the party (C). funny (D). when Pembahasannya: 1. Dapat dilihat bahwa sebelum kata Mike terdapat kata depan to, sehingga Mike bukan merupakan subjek. 2. Teridentifikasi terdapat sebuah kata kerja yaitu was sehingga diperlukan subjek untuk melengkapi pernyataan tersebut. 3. (A) bukan subjek, (B) subjek, (C) bukan subjek, (D) kata penghubung 4. Jawaban yang benar adalah (B) Sebagai latihan, silahkan jawab soal berikut: 1. _________ grow close to the ground in the short Arctic Summer. (A) Above tundra plants (B) Tundra plants (C) Tundra plants are found (C) For tundra plants 2. Between 1725 and 1750, New England witnessed an increase in the specialization of _________ . (A) Occupations (B) Occupies (C) They occupied (C) It occupied them 3. The two biggest resort _________ Arkansas are Hot Springs and Eureka Springs. (A) in (B) towns in (C) towns are (D) towns are in Dan terakhir Anda akan mempelajari tentang Present Participle. Present participle adalah kata kerja (verb) yang ditambah ing (verb + ing). Present participle berbeda dengan gerunds. Fungsi present participle dapat sebagai kata kerja (verb) dan juga dapat sebagai kata sifat (adjective). - Merupakan bagian dari kata kerja bila terdapat bentuk be (is, am, are) di depan kata kerja. Contoh: The train is arriving at the station now. Dalam kalimat ini, kata arriving sebagai kata kerja karena diikuti bentuk be (is).
- Merupakan bagian dari kata sifat bila tidak terdapat bentuk be (is, am, are) di depan kata kerja. Contoh: The train arriving at the station now is an hour late. Dalam kalimat ini, kata arriving sebagai kata sifat karena kata kerja sudah ada pada kata is. Contoh Soal TOEFL: The film _______ appearing at the local theater is my favorite. (A). now (B). is (C). it (D). was Pembahasannya: 1. Dapat dilihat bahwa kata The film merupakan subjek. 2. Dapat juga terlihat bahwa terdapat kata kerja yaitu kata is. 3. (A) kata pelengkap, (B) kata kerja, (C) subjek, (D) kata kerja 4. Jawaban yang benar adalah (A).
Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence you will see four words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. George did not do well in the class because _______________ A. he studied bad B. he was not good studywise C. he was a badly student D. he failed to study properly
2. This university's programs __________________ those of Harvard. A. come second after B. are second only to C. are first except for D. are in second place from
3. The more she worked _____________________ A. the less she achieved B. she achieved not enough C. she did not achieve enough D. she was achieving less
4. _____________ the best car to buy is a Mercedes Benz. A. Because of its durability and economy, B. Because it lasts a long time, a it is very economical., C. Because of its durability and it is economical, D. Because durably and economywise it is better than all the others,
5. When Henry arrived home after a hard day at work, ______________ A. his wife was sleeping B. his wife slept C. his wife has slept D. his wife has been sleeping
6. He gave ________________________ A. to the class s a tough assignment B. the class a tough assignments C. a tough assignment for the class D. an assignment very tough to the class
7. People all over the world are starving __________________________ A. greater in numbers B. in most numbers C. more numerously D. in greater numbers
8. It was not until she arrived in class__________ realized she had forgotten her book A. when she B. and she C. that she D. She
9. John has not been able to recall where ____________________ A. does she live B. she lives C. did she live
D. lived the girl
10. Ben would have studied medicine if he___________to a medical school. A. could be able to enter B. had been admitted C. was admitted D. were admitted
11. He entered a university_________________ A. when he had sixteen years B. when sixteen years were his age C. at the age of sixteen D. at age sixteen years old
12. The jurors were told to _________________________ A. talk all they wanted B. make lots of expressions C. speak freely D. talk with their minds open
13. Those students do not like to read novels_________test books. A. in any case B. forgetting about C. leaving out of the question D. much less
14. He____________looked forward to the new venture. A. eagerly B. with great eagernes
C. eagernessly D. in a state of increasing eagerness
15. The families were told to evacuate their houses immediately _____. A. at the time when the water began to go up to B. when the water began to rise C. when up was going the water D. in the time when the water raised
Kunci Jawaban Soal TOEFL (Structure 6)
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B
DIRECTIONS Questions 1 – 15 are incomplete sentence. Beneath each sentence you will see four words of phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1.
I understand that the governor is considering a new proposal ______________
a.
What would eliminate unnecessary writing in government
b.
Who wants to cut down on the amount of writing in government
c.
That would eliminate unnecessary paperwork in government
d.
To cause that the amount of papers written in government offices will be reduced
2.
The doctor told his receptionist that he would return ________________
a.
As early as it would be possible
b.
At the earliest that it could be possible
c.
As soon as possible
d.
At the nearest early possibility
3.
George belongs to the _____________________
a.
Class of the upper middle
b.
Upper middle class
c.
Class from the center up
d.
High medium class
4.
A good student must know ___________________________
a.
To study hard
b.
To be a good student
c.
How to student effectively
d.
The way of efficiency in study
5.
Jane changed her major from French to business,_________________
a.
With hopes to be able easier to locate employment
b.
Hoping she can easier get a job
c.
With the hope for being able to find better a job
d.
Hoping to find a job more easily
6.
He has received several scholarships _____________________
a.
Not only because of his artistic but his academic ability
b.
For both his academic ability as well as his artistic
c.
Because of his academic and artistic ability
d.
As resulting of his ability in the art and the academic
7.
Harvey will wash the clothes, ________________
a.
Iron the shirt, prepare the meal dusting the furniture
b.
Running the shirt preparing the meal, and dusting the furniture
c.
Iron the shirt, prepare the meal, and dusting the furniture
d.
To iron the shirt, prepare the meal, and dust the furniture
8.
_________________ that new information to anyone else but the sergeant.
a.
They asked him not to give
b.
They asked him to don’t give
c.
They asked him no give
d.
They asked him to no give
9.
_________________ he would have signed his name in the corner.
a.
If he painted that picture
b.
If he paints that picture
c.
If he had painted that picture
d.
If he would have painted that picture
10. The doctor insisted that his patient ______________ a.
That he not work too hard for three months
b.
Take it easy for three months
c.
Taking it easy inside of the three months
d.
To take some vacations for three months
11. The manager was angry because somebody ______________ a.
Had allowed the photographers to enter the building
b.
Had let photographers to enter into the building
c.
Permitting the photographers enter the building
d.
The photographers let into the building without the proper documentations
12. Richard was asked to withdraw from graduate school because ____________ a.
They believed he was not really able to complete research
b.
He was deemed incapable of completing his research
c.
It was decided that he was not capable to complete the research
d.
His ability to finish the research was not believed or trusted
13. The committee members resented __________ a.
The president that he did not tell them about the meeting
b.
The president not to inform them of the meeting
c.
The president’s not informing them of the meeting
d.
That the president had failed informing themselves that there was going to be a
meeting
14. _____________ did Arthur realize that there was danger. a.
Upon entering the store
b.
When he entered the store
c.
After he had entered the store
d.
Only after entering the store
15. The rabbit scurried away in fright __________________ a.
When it heard the movement in the bushes
b.
The movement among the bushes having been heard
c.
After it was hearing moving inside of the bushes
d.
When he has heard that something moved in the bush
Kunci Jawaban Soal TOEFL (Structure 5)
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. D 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. B 11. A 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A
Soal TOEFL (Structure Test 4)
Directions: Question 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentences. Then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.
1. The Cyclist _______ he crossed the main street (A) Looked with caution after. (B) Had looked cautiously before. (C) Was looked cautions when. (D) looks cautious when.
2. Here_______ notebook and report that I promised you last week (A) Is the. (B) Are the. (C) Was the. (D) Has been a.
3. Neither Jane nor her brothers _______ a consent from for tomorrow's field (A) Need. (B) Needs. (C) Is needing. (D) Has need. 4. Cuba is _______ sugar-growing areas in the world (A) One of the larger. (B) One of largest. (C) One of the largest. (D) Largest.
Trip
5. The skiers would rather _______ through the mountains than go by bus (A) To travel on train. (B) Traveled by train. (C) Travel by train. (D) Travelling by the train.
6. That magnificent _______ temple was constructed by the Chinese (A) eight-centuries-old. (B) Eight-centuries’s-old. (C) Old-eight centuries. (D) eight-century-old.
7. There were two small rooms in the beach house, _______ served as as a kitchen. (A) The smaller of which (B) The Smallest of which. (C) The Smaller of them. (D) Smallest of that.
8. Pioneer men and women endured terrible hardships, and _______ (A) So do their children. (B) Neither did the children. (C) Also the Childs. (D) Had he studied more.
9. Mr. Duncan _______ his brother, who has a better position. (A) Twice as much as. (B) Twice more than. (C) Twice as many as. (D) Twice as more as.
10. _______, he would have been able to pass the exam. (A) If he studied more. (B) If he were studying to a greater degree. (C) Studying more (D) He had studied more.
11. Mr. Duncan does not know _______ the lawn mower after they had finished using it. (A) When did they put. (B) When they did put. (C) Where they put. (D) Where to put.
12. The facilities of the older hospital _______ (A) is as good of better than the new hospital. (B) Are as good or better than the new hospital. (C) Are as good as or better than the new hospital. (D) Are as good as or better than those of the new hospital.
13. Our flight from Amsterdam to London was delayed _______. (A) Write a composition on their. (B) To write composition about the. (C) wrote some composition of his or her. (D) Had written any composition for his.
14. The teacher suggested that her students _______ experiences with ESP. (A) Write a composition on their. (B) To write composition about the. (C) wrote some composition of his or her.
(D) Had written any composition for his.
15. Of the two new teachers, one is experienced and _______ (A) The others are not. (B) Another is inexperienced. (C) The other is not. (D) Other lacks experience.
Kunci Jawaban Soal TOEFL (Structure 4)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C
Soal TOEFL (Structure Test 3)
1. After the funeral, the residents of the apartment building __________. (a) sent faithfully flowers all weeks to the cemetery. (b) sent to the cemetery each week flowers faithfully. (c) sent flowers faithfully to the cemetery each week. (d) sent each week faithfully to the cemetery flowers.
2. Because the first pair of pants did not fit properly, he asked for __________. (a) another pants
(c) the others one
(b) other pants
(d) another pair.
3. The committee has met and __________. (a) they have reached a decision. (b) it has formulated themselves some opinions. (c) its decision was reached at. (d) it has reached a decision.
4. Alfred adams has not __________. (a) lived lonelynessly in times previous. (b) never before lived sole. (c) ever lived alone before. (d) before lived without the company of his friends.
5. John’s score on the test is the highest in the class; __________. (a) he should study last night. (b) he should have studied last night. (c) he must have studied last night. (d) he must had to study last night.
6. Henry will not be able to attend the meeting tonight because __________. (a) he must to teach a class. (c) of he will teach a class. (b) he will be teaching a class. (d) he will have teaching a class.
7. Having been served lunch, __________. (a) the problem was discussed by the members of the committee. (b) the committee members discussed the problem. (c) it was discussed by the committee members the problem. (d) a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee.
8. Florida has not yet ratified the equal rights amendment, and __________. (a) several other states hasn’t either. (b) neither has some of the others states. (c) some other states also have not either. (d) neither have several other states
9. The chairman request that __________. (a) the member studied more carefully the problem. (b) the problem was more carefulnessly studied. (c) with more carefulness the problem could be studied. (d) the members study the problem more carefully.
10. California relies heavily on income from fruit crops, and __________. (a) florida also.
(c) florida is as well
(b) florida too.
(d) so does florida
11. The professor said that __________. (a) the student can turn over their report on the monday. (b) the report on monday could be received form the students by him. (c) the students could hand in their reports on monday. (d) the student will on monday the reports turn in.
12. This year will be difficult for this organization because __________. (a)they have less money and volunteers than they had last year. (b) it has less money and fewer volunteers than it had last year. (c) the last year it did not have as few and little volunteers and money. (d) there are fewer money and volunteers that in the last year there were.
13. The teacher have had some problem deciding __________. (a)when to the students they shall return the final papers. (b) when are they going to return to the students the final papers. (c) when they should return to the final papers to the students. (d) the time when the final papers they should return for the students.
14. She wanted to serve some coffee to her guests; however, __________. (a) she hadn’t many sugar. (b) there was not great amount of the sugar. (c) she did not have much sugar. (d) she was lacking in amount of the sugar.
15. There has not been a great response to the sale, __________? (a) does there (b) hasn’t there (c) hasn’t it (d) has there
Kunci Jawaban Soal TOEFL
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. C 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. D 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. D
Soal Tes TOEFL 1. The attorney told his client that _________________________
A. They had little chance of winning the case. B. The case was of a small chance to win C. It was nearly impossible to win him the case. D. The case had a minimum chance to be won by him.
2. One of the professor’s greatest attributes is _______________ A. when he gives lectures B. how in the manner that he lectures C. the way to give lectures D. his ability to lecture
3. The bank sent a notice to its customers which contained _______________ A. a remembrance that interest rate were to raise the following month B. a reminder that a raise in interest rates was the month following C. to remember that interest rates were going up next month D. a reminder that interest rates would rise the following month.
4. ______________ was the day before yesterday. A. The France’s Independence Day B. The day of the French independence C. French’s Independence Day D. France’s Independence Day
5. It was not until she had arrived home ______________ remembered her appointment with the doctor. A. when she B. that she C. and she D. she
6. George would certainly have attended the proceedings ________________ A. if he didn’t get a flat tire B. if the flat tire hadn’t happended. C. had he not had a flat tire D. had the tire not flattened itself.
7. _______________ received law degrees as today. A. Never so many women have B. Never have so many women C. The women aren’t ever D. Women who have never
8. The students liked that professor’s course because _____________________ A. there was few if any homework B. not a lot of homework C. of there wasn’t a great amount of homework D. there was little or no homework.
9. George ______________ he could improve his test scores, but he didn’t have enough time to study. A. knew to B. knew how C. knew how that D. knew how to
10. _________________ he would have come to class.
A. If Mike is able to finish his homework B. Would Mike be able to finish his homework C. If Mike could finish his homework D. If Mike had been able to finish his homework.
11. Lee contributed fifty dollars, but he wishes he could contribute _______________ A. one other fifty dollars B. the same amount also C. another fifty D. more fifty dollars
12. The people at the party were worried about Janet because no one was aware _____________ she had gone. A. where that B. of where C. of the place where D. the place
13. Fred’s yearly income since he changed professions has _________________ A. nearly tripled
B. got almost three times bigger C. almost grown by three times D. just about gone up three times
14. Nancy hasn’t begun working on her Ph.D, ________________ working on her master’s. A. still because she is yet B. yet as a result she is still C. yet because she is still D. still while she is already
15. The director of this organization must know _____________________ A. money management, selling, and able to satisfy the stockholders B. how to manage money, selling his product, and be able to satisfy the stockholders C. how to manage money, sell his product, and satisfy the stockholders D. money management, selling, the idea of being able to satisfy the stockholders.
Kunci Jawaban 1. A 2. D
3. D 4. D 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. D 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. C
Soal Reading II TOEFL, Jawaban dan Pembahasan Soal TOEFL -Reading Comprehension (1) Hot boning is an energy-saving technique for the meat processing industry. It has received significant attention in recent years when increased pressure for energy conservation has accentuated the need for more efficient methods of processing the bovine carcass. Cooling an entire carcass requires a considerable amount of refrigerated space, since bone and trimmable fat are cooled along with muscle. It (5) is also necessary to space the carcasses adequately in the refrigerated room for better air movement and prevention of microbial contamination, thus adding to the volume requirements for carcass chillers.
Conventional handling of meat involves holding the beef sides in the cooler for 24 to 36 hours before boning. Chilling in the traditional fashion is also associated with a loss of carcass weight ranging from 2 (10) percent to 4 percent due to evaporation of moisture the meat tissue.
Early excision, or hot boning , of muscle prerigor followed be vacuum packaging has several potential advantages. By removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor, refrigeration space and cost are minimized, boning labor is decreased, and storage yields increased. Because hot boning often result in the toughening of meat, a more recent approach, hot boning following electrical stimulation, has been (15) used to reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis.
Some researchers have found this method beneficial in maintaining tender meat, while others have found that the meat also becomes tough after electrical stimulation.
1. The word "accentuated" in the line 2 is closest in meaning to. (A) de-emphasized
(B) speeded up (C) caused (D) highlighted.
2. All of the following are mentioned as drawbacks of the conventional method of boning EXCEPT (A) Storage space requirements (B) Energy waste (C) Loss of carcass weight (D) Toughness of meat
3. In the line 2, the word "pressure" is closest in meaning to (A) urgency (B) weight (C) flavor (D) cooking texture
4. Hot boning is becoming very popular because (A) it causes meat to be very tender (B) it helps conserve energy and is less expensive than conventional methods (C) meat tastes better when the bone is adequately seared along with the meat (D) it reduces the weight of the carcass
5. In the line 7, "carcass" is nearest in meaning to
(A) a refrigerator for the animal body (B) a method of boning meat (C) electrical stimulation of beef (D) early excision
6. In the line 11, "early excision" is closest in meaning to (A) vacuum packaging (B) hot boning (C) carcass chilling (D) electrical stimulation
7. The toughening of meat during hot boning has been combatted by (A) following hot boning with electrical stimulation (B) tenderizing the meat (C) using electrical stimulation before hot boning (D) removing only the edible muscle and fat prerigor
8. The word "bovine" in line 3 is nearest in meaning to (A) cold (B) electrically stimulated (C) beef (D) pork
9. The word "this" in line 16 refers to
(A) hot boning (B) hot boning following electrical stimulation (C) rigor mortis (D) removing edible muscle and fat prerigor
10. In line 3, the word "carcass" is closest in meaning to (A) deboned meat (B) body (C) refrigerator (D) fat
11. The word "considerable" in line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) frigid (B) kind (C) lesser (D) substantial
12. One reason it is recommended to remove bones before refrigerating is that (A) it makes the meat more tender (B) the bones are able to be used for other purposes (C) it increases chilling time (D) it saves cooling space by not refrigerating parts that will be discarded
13. The word "trimmable in line 4 is nearest in meaning to
(A) unsaturated (B) removable (C) unhealthy (D) chillable
Pembahasan Jawaban test TOEFL 1. Jawaban yang benar yaitu pilihan D. Kalimat itu mengindikasikan bahwa kebutuhan untuk memelihara energy sudah semakin highlighted (jelas/terbuka).
2. Jawaban yang sesuai yaitu D. Yang dipertanyakan oleh soal yaitu terkait apa yang TIDAK menjadi drawback dari conventional method. Kita lihat dari pilihan jawaban kita lihat bahwa pilihan D Toughness of meat merupakan drawback dari hot boning (metode pengganti conventional method). Sementara pilihan lain A, B, dan C merupakan drawback dari conventional method.
3. (A) kalimat di atas mengindikasikan bahwa ada urgency dalam memelihara energy.
14. Soal bagian ini mempertanyakan terkait alasan metode Hot Boning menajadi sangat popular pada saat ini. Itu berarti hal yang mesti kita pilih terkait kelebihan yang dipunyai oleh Hot Boning . Kelebihan yang mana menutupi kekurangand ari metode conventional. Yang sangat sesuai akan kelebihan dari metode Hot Boning pada pilihan jawaban yatitu pilihan B.
5. (A) Jika Anda mengetahui bahwa carcass meruapakan sinonim dari body dan to chill sinonim dari to cool maka akan lebih cepat. Tapi tanpa mengetahui arti kata secara pasti pun, Anda tetap bias mengetahui sinonim dari kata carcass chiller hanya dengan
membaca teks. Anda bisa melihat bahwa objeck yang dibacarakan dalam bacaan terkait meat. Dan carcass termasuk benda yang di cooling (lihat baris 5). Dan dari kata chiller, Anda bisa mengetahui bahwa chiller mengarah ke suatu alat dengan alasan penggunaan
akhiran
–er.
Olehnya,
Anda
hanya
perlu
mencari
jawaban
yang
menandakan suatu alat.
6. (B) Sangat jelas. Penggunaan kata or menandakan bahwa early excision merupakan kata lain dari hot boning. Jawabannya yaitu B.
7. Jawaban dari soal ini dapat Anda lihat pada paragraf ke tiga "Because hot boning often result in the toughening of meat, a more recent approach, hot boning following electrical stimulation, has been used to reduce the necessary time of rigor mortis." Toughening of meat merupakan salah satu masalah dalam penggunaan metode hot boning. Masalah ini telah di -combatted dengan "hot boning following electrical stimulation" atau "following hot boning with electrical stimulation."
8. Bovine bermakna daging sapi. Jadi pilihan yang tepat yaitu C beef.
9. Menjawab soal TOEFL reading terkait referensi artikel termasuk hal yang mudah. Anda bisa melihat kalimat sebelum dari letak artikle yang dipertanyakan. Artikel this merupakan referensi kata dari hot boning.
10. Keseluruhan bacaan membahas tentang perlakuan pada body of dead animal yang mana disebut dengan sebutan carcass. Jawaban yang benar yaitu B.
11. Kata considerable memodifikasi kata amount (jumlah). Itu berarti makna considerable harus menjadi ukuran besar atau kecil. Considerable amount mesti bermakna jumlah yang besar atu mungkin jumlah yang kecil. Dari pilihan jawaban yang ada jawaban A dan D tidak sesuai dengan konteks ini. Sementara jawaban C (Lesser) juga tidak karena lesser menandakan adanya yang dibandingkan (masuk dalam
kategori comparison). Semnetara dalam kalimat kita tidak melihat ada yang dibandingkan. Jadi jelas jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban D.
12. Bacaan di atas menyatkan bahwa metode hot boning menghasilkan daging yang lebih kuat (tougher meat) jadi jawaban A jelas salah. Bacaan tidak membahasa terkait penggunaan (purposes) dari bone jadi jawaban B juga jelas salah. Bagian C juga sangat jelas salah; meningkatkan waktu memasak (menghabiskan waktu yang lebih lama) tentu saja bukan hal yang menguntungkan. Jadi jawaban yang benar yaitu jawaban D.
13. Trimmable berasal dari kata trim yang bermkana to cut atau to remove. Jadi jawaban yang benar adalah B.
READING COMPREHENSION Time-55 minutes (including the reading of the directions) Now set your clock for 55 minutes.
This section is designed to measure the ability to read and understand short passages similar in topic and style to those found in North American universities and colleges.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by a number of questions about it. You are to choose the one best answer, A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions about the information in a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
John Quincy Adams, who served as the sixth president of the United States from 1825 to 1829, is today recognized for his masterful statesmanship and diplomacy. He dedicated his life to public service, both in the presidency and in the various other political offices that he held. Throughout his political career he demonstrated his unswerving belief in freedom of speech, the antislavery cause, and the right of Americans to be free from European and Asian domination.
Example I
To what did John Quincy Adams devote his life?
(A) Improving his personal life (B) Serving the public (C) Increasing his fortune (D) Working on his private business
According to the passage, John Quincy Adams "dedicated his life to public service." Therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II
In line 4, the word "unswerving" is closest in meaning to
(A) movable (B) insignificant (C) unchanging (D) diplomatic
The passage states that John Quincy Adams demonstrated his unswerving belief "throughout his career." This implies that the belief did not change. Therefore, you should choose (C).
Now begin work on the questions.
Questions 1-9 Carbon tetrachloride is a colorless and inflammable liquid that can be produced by combining carbon disulfide and chlorine. This compound is widely used in industry today because of its effectiveness as a solvent as well as its use in the production of propellants.
Despite its widespread use in industry, carbon tetrachloride has been banned for home use. In the past, carbon tetrachloride was a common ingredient in cleaning compounds that were used throughout the home, but it was found to be dangerous: when heated, it changes into a poisonous gas that can cause severe illness and even death if it is inhaled. Because of this dangerous characteristic, the United States revoked permission for the home use of carbon tetrachloride in 1970. The United States has taken similar action with various other chemical compounds.
1. The main point of this passage is that A. carbon tetrachloride can be very dangerous when it is heated B. the government banned carbon tetrachloride in 1970 C. although carbon tetrachloride can legally be used in industry, it is not allowed in home products. D. carbon tetrachloride used to be a regular part of cleaning compounds
2. The word “widely” in line 2 could most easily be replaced by A. grandly B. extensively C. largely D. hugely
3. The word “banned” in line 4 is closest in meaning to A. forbidden B. allowed C. suggested D. instituted
4. According to the passage, before 1970 carbon tetrachloride was A. used by itself as a cleanser B. banned in industrial use C. often used as a component of cleaning products D. not allowed in home cleaning products
5. It is stated in the passage that when carbon tetrachloride is heated, it becomes A. harmful B. colorless C. a cleaning compound D. inflammable
6. The word “inhaled” in line 7 is closest in meaning to A. warmed B. breathed in C. carelessly used D. blown
7. The word “revoked” in line 8 could most easily be replaced by
A. gave B. granted C. instituted D. took away
8. It can be inferred from the passage that one role of the U.S. government is to A. regulate product safety B. prohibit any use of carbon tetrachloride C. instruct industry on cleaning methodologies D. ban the use of any chemicals
9. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses A. additional uses of carbon tetrachloride B. the banning of various chemical compounds by the U.S. government C. further dangerous effects of carbon tetrachloride D. the major characteristic of carbon tetrachloride
Questions 10-19
The next artist in this survey of American artist is James Whistler; he is included in this survey of American artist because he was born in the United States, although the majority of his artwork was completed in Europe. Whistler was born in Massachusetts in 1834, but nine years later his father moved the family to St. Petersburg, Russia, to work on the construction of a railroad. The family returned to the United States in 1849. Two years later Whistler entered the U.S. military academy at West Point, but he was unable to graduate. At the age of twenty-one Whistler went to Europe to study art despite familial objections, and he remained in Europe until his death.
Whistler worked in various art forms, including etchings and lithographs. However, he is most famous for his paintings, particularly Arrangement in Gray and Black No. 1: Portrait of the Artist’s Mother or Whistler’s Mother, as it is more commonly known. This painting shows a side view of Whistler’s mother, dressed I black and posing against a gray wall. The asymmetrical nature of the portrait, with his mother seated off-center, is highly characteristic of Whistler’s work.
10. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses A. A survey of eighteenth-century art B. a different American artist C. Whistler’s other famous paintings D. European artists
11. Which of the following best describes the information in the passage? A. Several artists are presented
B. One artist’s life and works are described C. Various paintings are contrasted D. Whistler’s family life is outlined.
12. Whistler is considered an American artist because A. he was born in America B. he spent most of his life in Americat C. he served in the U.S. military D. he created most of his famous art in America
13. The world “majority” in line 2 is closest in meaning to A. seniority B. maturity C. large pices D. high percentage
14. It is implied in the passage that Whistler’s family was A. unable to find any work at all in Rusia B. highly supportive of his desire to pursue art
C. working class D. military
15. The word “objections” in line 7 is closest in meaning to A. protests B. goals C. agreements D. battles
16. In line 8, the “etchings” are A. a type of painting B. the same as a lithograph C. an art form introduced by Whistler D. an art form involving engraving
17. The word “asymmetrical” in line 11 is closest in meaning to A. proportionate B. uneven C. balanced
D. lyrical
18. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passsage? A. Whistler work with a variety of art forms. B. Whistler’s Mother is not the official name of his painting. C. Whistler is best known for his etchings. D. Whistler’s Mother is painted in somber tones.
19. where in the passage does the author mention the types of artwork that Whistler was involved in? A. Lines 1-3 B. Lines 4-5 C. Lines 6-7 D. Lines 8-10
Questions 20-30 The locations of stars in the sky relative to one another do not appear to the naked eye to change, and as a result stars are often considered to be fixed in position. Many unaware stargazers falsely assume that each star has its own permanent home in the nighttime sky.
In reality, though, stars are always moving, but because of the tremendous distances between stars themselves and from stars to Earth, the changes are barely perceptible here. An example of a rather fast-moving star demonstrates why this misconception prevails; it takes approximately 200 years for a relatively rapid star like Bernard's star to move a distance in the skies equal to the diameter of the earth's moon. When the apparently negligible movement of the stars is contrasted with the movement of the planets, the stars are seemingly unmoving.
20. Which of the following is the best title for this passage? a. What the eye can see in the sky b. Bernard's star c. Planetary Movement d. The Evermoving stars
21. The expression "naked eye" in line 1 most probably refers to a. a telescope b. a scientific method for observing stars c. unassisted vision d. a camera with a powerful lens
22. According to the passage, the distances between the stars and Earth are a. barely perceptible b. huge c. fixed d. moderate
23. The word "perceptible" in line 5 is closest in meaning to which of the following? a. noticeable b. persuasive c. conceivable d. astonishing
24. In line 6, a "misconception" is closest in meaning to a (n) a. idea b. proven fact c. erroneous belief d. theory
25. The passage states that in 200 years Bernard's star can move
a. around Earth's moon b. next to the earth's moon c. a distance equal to the distance from earth to the moon d. a distance seemingly equal to the diameter of the moon
26. The passage implies that from earth it appears that the planets a. are fixed in the sky b. move more slowly than the stars c. show approximately the same amount of movement as the stars d. travel through the sky considerably more rapidly than the stars
27. The word "negligible" in line 8 could most easily be replaced by a. negative b. insignificant c. rapid d. distant
28. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? a. starts do not appear to the eye to move.
b. the large distances between stars and the earth tend to magnify movement to the eye c. Bernard's star moves quickly in comparison with other stars d. although stars move, they seem to be fixed
29. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses a. the movement of the planets b. Bernard's star c. the distance from earth to the moon d. why stars are always moving
30. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in which course? a. astrology b. geophysics c. astronomy d. geography
Questions 31-40
It has been noted that, traditionally, courts have granted divorces on fault grounds: one spouse is deemed to be at fault in causing the divorce. More and more today, however, divorces are being granted on a no-fault basis.
Proponents of no-fault divorces argue that when a marriage fails, it is rarely the case that one marriage partner is completely to blame and the other blameless. A failed marriage is much more often the result of mistakes by both partners.
Another argument in favor of no-fault divorce is that proving fault in court, in a public arena, is a destructive process that only serves to lengthen the divorce process and that dramatically increases the negative feelings present in a divorce. If a couple can reach a decision to divorce without first deciding which partner is to blame, the divorce settlement can be negotiated more easily and equitably and the postdivorce healing process can begin more rapidly.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss? a. Traditional grounds for divorce b. Who is at fault in a divorce c. Why no-fault divorces are becoming more common d. The various reasons for divorces
32. The word "spouse" in line 1 is closest in meaning to a
a. judge b. problem c. divorce decree d. marriage partner
33. according to the passage, no-fault divorces a. are on the increase b. are the traditional form of divorce c. are less popular that they used to be d. were granted more in the past
34. It is implied in the passage that a. there recently has been a decrease in no-fault divorces b. not all divorces today are no-fault divorces c. a no-fault divorce is not as equitable as a fault divorce d. people recover more slowly from a no-fault divorce
35. The word "proponents" in line 4 is closest in meaning to which of the following? a. Advocates
b. Recipients c. Authorities d. Enemies
36. The passage states that a public trial to prove the fault of one spouse can a. be satisfying to the wronged spouse b. lead to a shorter divorce process c. reduce negative feelings d. be a harmful process
37. Which of the following is NOT listed in this passage as an argument in favor of nofault divorce? a. Rarely is only one marriage partner to blame for a divorce b. A no-fault divorce generally costs less in legal fees c. Finding fault in a divorce increases negative feelings d. A no-fault divorce settlement is generally easier to negotiate
38. The word "present" in line 9 could most easily be replaced by a. existing b. giving
c. introducing d. resulting
39. The word "settlement" in line 10 is closest in meaning to a. development b. serenity c. discussion d. agreement
40. The tone of this passage is a. emotional b. enthusiastic c. expository d. reactionary
Questions 41-50 Whereas literature in the first half of the eighteenth century in America had been largely religious and moral in tone, by the latter half of the century the revolutionary fervor that was coming to life in the colonies began to be reflected in the literature of
the time, which in turn served to further influence the population. Although not all writers of this period supported the Revolution, the two best-known and most influential writers, Ben Franklin and Thomas Paine, were both strongly supportive of that cause.
Ben Franklin first attained popular success through his writings in his brother's newspaper, the New England Current. In these articles he used a simple style of language and common sense argumentation to defend the point of view of the farmer and the Leather Apron man. He continued with the same common sense practicality and appeal to the common man with his work on Poor Richard's Almanac from 1733 until 1758. Firmly established in his popular acceptance by the people, Franklin wrote a variety of extremely effective articles and pamphlets about the colonist's revolutionary cause against England.
Thomas Paine was an Englishman working as a magazine editor in Philadelphia at the time of the Revolution. His pamphlet Common Sense, which appeared in 1776, was a force in encouraging the colonists to declare their independence from England. Then throughout the long and desperate war years he published a series of Crisis papers (from 1776 until 1783) to encourage the colonists to continue on with the struggle. The effectiveness of his writing was probably due to his emotional yet oversimplified depiction of the cause of the colonists against England as a classic struggle of good and evil.
41. The paragraph preceding this passage most likely discusses a. how literature influence the population
b. religious and moral literature c. literature supporting the cause of the American Revolution d. what made Thomas Paine's literature successful
42. The word "fervor" in line 2 is closest in meaning to a. war b. anxiety c. spirit d. action
43. The word "time" in line 3 could best be replaced by a. hour b. period c. appointment d. duration
44. It is implied in the passage that a. some writers in the American colonies supported England during the Revolution b. Franklin and Paine were the only writers to influence the Revolution
c. because Thomas Paine was an Englishman, he supported England against the colonies d. authors who supported England did not remain in the colonies during the Revolution
45. The pronoun "he" in line 8 refers to a. Thomas Paine b. Ben Franklin c. Ben Franklin's brother d. Poor Richard
46. The expression "point of view" in line 9 could best be replaced by a. perspective b. sight c. circumstance d. trait
47. According to the passage, the tone of Poor Richard's Almanac is a. pragmatic b. erudite c. theoretical
d. scholarly
48. The word "desperate" in line 16 could best be replaced by a. unending b. hopeless c. strategic d. combative
49. Where in the passage does the author describe Thomas Paine's style of writing? a. lines 4-6 b. lines 8-9 c. lines 14-15 d. lines 18-20
50. The purpose of the passage is to a. discuss American literature in the first half of the eighteen century b. give biographical data on two American writers c. explain which authors supported the Revolution d. describe the literary influence during revolutionary America
Kunci Jawaban CBAC ABDA BBBA DCAD BCDD CBAC DDBB ACCD ABAD BADC BCBA BAAB DD Sesi Structure and Written Expression mempunyai dua tipe, PART A - Stucture dan Part B - Written Expression. Pada umumnya Anda mempunyai 25 menit untuk mengerjakan soal pada sesi ini. Jumlah soal sebanyak 40 buah.
Apa yang diujikan?
Sesi kedua, disebut juga sebagai sesi grammar, menguji kecakapan Anda terhadap standar formal aturan penulisan/grammar bahasa Inggris. Banyak aturan dapat berterima dalam percakapan (spoken) tapi tidak dalam penulisan (written). Anda harus menggunakan cara yang paling ekonomis (hemat waktu) dan matang (dengan baik) dan strategi yang terbaik dalam menjawab semua soal dalam sesi ini.
Skill apa yang harus Anda persiapkan?
Anda harus betul-betul mengetahui aturan grammar yang benar dengan baik agar Anda dapat dengan cepat mengetahui jawaban mana yang tidak sesuai dengan grammar yang formal.
Pendekatan apa yang harus Anda gunakan untuk menjawab soal Part A - Structure?
- Ketahuilah bahwa petunjuk soal meminta Anda mengenali standar penulisan bahasa Inggris yang formal. - Ketahuilah bahwa Anda akan memilih satu jawaban yang paling benar untuk melengkapi jawaban. Boleh saja diantara beberapa jawaban bisa melengkapi kalimat tapi hanya ada satu yang paling benar.
Untuk pertanyaan Part A, Anda harus: 1. Membaca semua kalimat, dan mencoba memasukkan pilihan jawaban yang tersedia. Misal masukkan terlebih dahulu pilihan jawaban A. 2. Jika jawaban A tidak benar, cobalah untuk memikirkan kenapa tidak benar. 3. Jika Anda sudah mengetahui kenapa jawaban A salah maka silahkan lanjut ke pilihan B, C, dan D. 4. Jika masih saja tidak yakin, cobalah untuk mengingat rumus dari kalimat tersebut. 5. Jika Anda tidak bisa mendapatkan jawaban yang paling benar, eliminasilah terlebih dahulu jawaban-jawaban yang jelas salah dan cobalah untuk menebak.
Contoh: During the Daytona 500, the lead car ___________, leaving the others far behind. A. forwarded rapidly B. advanced rapidly C. advanced forward rapidly D. advanced in a rapidly manner
Analisa soal: Hal yang pertama Anda lakukan yaitu mencoba memasukkan jawaban A pada soal. Anda dapat mengetahui bahwa jawaban A salah karena kalimat soal membutuhkan kata kerja sementara jawaban A tidak memiliki kata kerja. Jika Anda yakin bahwa kata kerja advanced pada jawaban B sudah sesuai untuk mengisi kalimat di atas maka Anda tidak perlu lagi ke pilihan C dan D. Tapi jika anda kurang yakin Anda boleh lanjut ke pilhan C. Anda melihat bahwa jawaban C berlebih-lebihan karena terdapat dua kata yang mepunyai makna sama. Advance telah bermakna move forward (maju). Sementara jawaban D kata rapidly (adverb) sebelum manner (noun) harusnya rapid (adjective) untuk membentuk suatu phrase (gabungan kata) yang benar. Ingat rumus (Adjective + Noun) bukan (Adverb + Noun).
Pendekatan apa yang harus Anda gunakan untuk menjawab soal Part B - Written Expression?
- Lagi, ingatlah bahwa Anda sedang mencari penulisan bahasa Inggris yang benar. - Ingatlah bahwa Anda sedang mencari kata atau frasa (gabungan kata) yang salah, yang mesti diubah agar kalimat menjadi benar.
Untuk pertanyaan Part B, Anda harus:
1. Membaca seluruh kalimat soal. 2. Jika Anda tidak menemukan jawaban yang salah dengan cepat. Maka ingatlah rumus-rumus yang Anda telah pelajari dan pastikanlah pilihan-pilihan jawaban yang benar.
Contoh Soal I: In the united states, there are much holidays throughout the year. A
B
C
D
Analisa jawaban: Ketika Anda membaca kalimat secara keseluruhan Anda dapat mengetahui dengan cepat bahwa much tidak sesuai dengan kata holidays. Much menandakan uncountable noun (benda tak bisa dihitung) sementara holidays dengan jelas merupakan kata benda yang bisa dihitung (countable noun).
Contoh Soal II: Tomatoes grows all year long in Florida A
B C
D
Analisa jawaban: Jika Anda menjawab dengan terburu-buru, hanya dengan melihat pilihan jawaban Anda bisa sja terkecoh dan memilih jawaban A dengan asumsi bahwa tomatoes (plural/jamak) harusnya tomato (singular/tunggal) karena kata
kerja grows berbentuk tunggal. Tapi jika Anda membaca seluruh kalimat Anda akan mendapati bahwa konteks kalimat tidak mendiskusikan tentang satu tomat. Olehnya jawaban yang Anda pilih yaitu jawaban B. Grows seharusnya grow.
Strategi Menjawab Soal TOEFL Structure and Written Expression Bacalah seluruh kalimat --> Ingatlah untuk menerapkan aturan-aturan grammar yang benar --> Eliminasi jawaban yang jelas salah (Part A) atau benar (Part B)
Akhir kata, semoga soal TOEFL Structure and Written Expression dan bahasan di bawah ini dapat meningkatkan skor TOEFL Anda.
Section 2 — Structure and Written Expression
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special directions for each type.
Structure Directions: Questions 1–4 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four words or phrases marked A, B, C and D. Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the following examples: Example I
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes _______ they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface.
A. due to B. because C. in spite of D. regardless of The sentence should read, "Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because they both emit hot liquids from below the Earth's surface." Therefore, you should choose answer B.
Example II
During the early period of ocean navigation, ________ any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.
A. so that hardly B. where there hardly was C. hardly was D. there was hardly The sentence should read, "During the early period of ocean navigation, there was hardly any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques." Therefore, you should choose answer D.
Now begin work on the questions.
1. The North Pole___________ a latitude of 90 degrees north. A. it has B. is having C. which is having D. has
2. The city of Beverly Hills is surrounded on ________ the city of Los Angeles. A. its sides B. the sides are C. it is the side of D. all sides by
3. ________ greyhound, can achieve speeds up to thirty-six miles per hour. A. The B. The fastest C. The fastest dog D. The fastest dog, the
4. Marmots spend their time foraging among meadow plants and flowers or ________ on rocky cliffs. A. gets sun B. sunning C. the sun D. sunny
5. The greenhouse effect occurs ________ heat radiated from the Sun.
A. when does the Earth’s atmosphere trap B. does the Earth’s atmosphere trap C. when the Earth’s atmosphere traps D. the Earth’s atmosphere traps
6. The Rose Bowl, ________ place on New Year’s Day, is the oldest postseason collegiate football game in the United States. A. takes B. it takes C. which takes D. took
7. Experiments ________ represent a giant step into the medicine of the future. A. using gene therapy B. use gene therapy C. they use D. gene therapy uses
8. ________ off the Hawaiian coastline are living, others are dead. A. While some types of coral reefs
B. Some types of coral reefs C. There are many types of coral reefs D. Coral reefs
9. Nimbostratus clouds are thick, dark gray clouds ________ forecast rain. A. what B. which C. what they D. which they
10. Some economists now suggest that home equity loans are merely a new trap to push consumers beyond ________. A. they can afford B. they can afford it C. what is affordable D. able to afford
11. People who reverse the letters of words ________ to read suffer from dyslexia. A. when trying B. if they tried
C. when tried D. if he tries
12. Featured at the Henry Ford Museum ________ of antique cars dating from 1865. A. is an exhibit B. an exhibit C. an exhibit is D. which is an exhibit
13. Rubber ________ from vulcanized silicones with a high molecular weight is difficult to distinguish from natural rubber. A. is produced B. producing C. that produces D. produced
14. ________ appears considerably larger at the horizon than it does overhead is merely an optical illusion. A. The Moon B. That the Moon
C. When the Moon D. The Moon which
15. According to the World Health Organization, ________ there to be an outbreak of any of the six most dangerous diseases, it could be cause for quarantine. A. were B. they were C. there were D. were they
Written Expression Directions: In questions 5–10, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked A, B, C and D. Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Look at the following examples:
Example I Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of the males' bright colors A
B
C
D
The sentence should read, "Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish because of the males' bright colors." Therefore, you should choose answer A.
Example II Serving several term in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States politician. A
B
C
D
The sentence should read, "Serving several terms in Congress, Shirley Chisholm became an important United States politician." Therefore, you should choose answer B.
Now begin work on the questions.
16. On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-topped mountains more than a mile A
B
C
D
beneath sea level.
17. Because of the flourish with which John Hancock signed the Declaration of Independence, A
his name become synonymous with signature. B
C
D
18. Segregation in public schools was declare unconstitutional by the Supreme Court in 1954. A
B
C
D 19. Sirius, the Dog Star, is the most brightest star in the sky with an absolute magnitude about A
twenty-three times that of the Sun.
B
B
D
20. Killer whales tend to wander in family clusters that hunt, play, and resting together. A
B
C
D
21. Some of the most useful resistor material are carbon, metals, and metallic alloys. A
B
C
D
22. The community of Bethesda, Maryland, was previous known as Darcy's Store. A
B
C D
23. Alloys of gold and copper have been widely using in various types of coins. A
B
C
D
24. J. H. Pratt used group therapy early in this century when he brought tuberculosis patients A
B
C
together to discuss its disease. D
25. The United States has import all carpet wools in recent years because domestic wools are A
B
C
too fine and soft for carpets. D
26. Irving Berlin wrote "Oh How I Hate to Get Up in the Morning" while serving in a U.S. Army A
during World War 1. D
B
C
27. Banks are rushing to merge because consolidations enable them to slash theirs costs A
B
C
and expand. D
28. That water has a very high specific heat means that without a large temperature change A
B
water can add or lose a large number of heat. C
D
29. Benny Goodman was equally talented as both a jazz performer as well as a classical A
musician.
B
C
D
D
30. The state seal still used in Massachusetts designed by Paul Revere, who also designed A
B
C
the first Continental currency. D
31.Quarter horses were developed in eighteenth-century- Virginia to race on courses short of A
B
about a quarter of a mile in length. C
D
32. No longer satisfied with the emphasis of the Denishawn School, Martha Graham has moved
A
B
C
D to the staff of the Eastman School in 1925.
33. William Hart was an act best known for his roles as western heroes in silent films. A
B
C
D
34. Prior to an extermination program earlier this century, alive wolves roamed across nearly all A
B
C
D
of North America.
35. During the 1960s the Berkeley campus of the University of California came to national A
B
attention as a result its radical political activity. C
D
36. Artist Gutzon Borglum designed the Mount Rushmore Memorial and worked on project from A
B
1925 until his death in 1941. C D
37. It is proving less costly and more profitably for drug makers to market directly to patients. A
B
C
D
38. Sapphires weighing as much as two pounds have on occasion mined. A
B
C
C
39. Like snakes, lizards can be found on all others continents except Antarctica.
A
B
C
D
40. Banks, savings and loans, and finance companies have recently been doing home equity A
B
loans with greater frequency than ever before. C
D
Pembahasan Jawaban:
Untuk Part A -Structure kami tidak membahasnya melalui postingan ini mengingat akan sangat membutuhkan waktu yang tidak sedikit untuk menaganalisa soal atau pilihan jawaban satu persatu. Hanya saja Anda dapat melihat sedikit pembahasan untuk Part B - Written Expression. Jika Anda ingin menanyakan pembahasan terkait soal-soal tertentu Anda boleh bergabung ke grup facebook Belajar Grammar TOEFL (UIN Alauddin Makassar).
Part A - Structure DDDB CCAA BCAA DBA
Part B - Written Expression + Pembahasan 16. B - are --> masuk dalam kategori Inversion. Subjek kalimat adalah hundreds of flattopped mountains. 17. C - became --> signed (past) paralel dengan became (past) bukan become (present) 18. B - was declared --> Passive Voice (Be + VIII) 19. A - the brightest star --> Ingat aturan Comparison degree -Supelative 20. C - rest --> Hunt, play, and rest together (Harus paralel) 21. C - materials --> kata kerjanya are jadi butuh subjek yang plural. Some of ... material menandakan plural 22. B - previously --> known berbentuk sebagai adjective. (Adv + Adj). 23. C - used --> have been + VIII 24. D - their --> their merujuk ke patients 25. A - imported --> has + VIII 26. C - the --> in the U.S. Army 27. C- their --> their + Noun. Thiers + Noun 28. D - amount --> heat menandakan uncountable noun. Amount (untuk uncountable noun) dan number (untuk countable noun) 29. C - and --> (both + and) 30. B - was designed by --> butuh kata kerja (was) 31. B - short courses --> (Adjective + Noun) bukan (Noun + Adjective) 32. D - moved --> terdapat tahun di kalimat. Maka perlu kata kerja simple past (moved) bukan has moved (past perfect) 33. A -actor --> kalimat bermaksud pelakunya (actor) 34. C - live --> alive terletak dibelakang kalimat. Live (adjective) + Noun 35. C - result of --> result + of (berpasangan)
36. B - the project --> on the project (frasa yang sudah umum) 37. B - profitable --> costly (adjective) --> profitable (adjective). Harus paralel. Profitably (adverb) 38. D - been mined --> have been + VIII 39. C - other --> other + noun. Others + Noun 40. B - making --> pelajari perbedaan do dan make
