Robbins Chapters

Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 1 Introduction to Organizational Behavior 1) When managers are asked to describe their most frequent problems, they often describe ________ problems. A) technology B) people C) equipment D) time management E) location Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1 2) Which of the following reflect people problems that managers frequently experience? A) outdated technology B) employees' lack of motivation C) poor communication skills of bosses D) conflicts between team members Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1 3) Until the late 1980s, business school curricula emphasized the ________ aspects of management. A) ethical B) people C) technical D) human E) global Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1 4) Until the late 1980s, business school curricula emphasized all of the following EXCEPT A) human behavior. B) economics. C) accounting. D) finance. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1

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5) Over the past two decades, business schools have added required courses on people skills to many of their curricula. Why have they done this? A) Managers no longer need technical skills in subjects such as economics and accounting to succeed. B) There is an increased emphasis in controlling employee behavior in the workplace. C) Managers need to understand human behavior if they are to be effective. D) These skills enable managers to effectively lead human resources departments. E) A manager with good people skills can help create a pleasant workplace. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1 6) The director of leadership at MIT's Sloan School of Management said that technical skills may be enough to get MBA students by in their first few years of employment, but then ________ skills distinguish those whose careers soar. A) quantitative B) economic C) accounting and finance D) leadership and communication E) computer Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2 7) Companies with reputations as good places to work A) can generate superior financial performance. B) seldom have good managers. C) place little emphasis on interpersonal skills. D) consistently offer flextime. E) pay higher wages Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 8) Which of the following is most likely to be a belief held by a successful manager? A) Technical knowledge is all that is needed for success. B) It is not essential to have sound interpersonal skills. C) Technical skills are necessary, but insufficient alone for success. D) Effectiveness is not impacted by human behavior. E) Technical skills do not influence efficiency. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2


9) An OB study would be least likely to be used to focus on which of the following problems? A) an increase in absenteeism at a certain company B) a fall in productivity in one shift of a manufacturing plant C) a decrease in sales due to growing foreign competition D) an increase in theft by employees at a retail store E) excessive turnover in volunteer workers at a non-profit organization Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior 10) ________ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization's effectiveness. A) Organizational development B) Human Resources Management C) Organizational behavior D) People management E) Corporate strategy Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior 11) What are the three primary determinants of behavior that organizational behavior focuses upon? A) Profit structure, organizational complexity, job satisfaction B) Individuals, profit structure, and job satisfaction C) Individuals, groups, and job satisfaction D) Groups, structure, and profit structure E) individuals, groups, and structure Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 2 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior 12) Which of the following is not generally considered a core topic of organizational behavior? A) motivation B) attitude development C) conflict D) resource allocation E) work design Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2-3 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior


13) In order to predict human behavior, it is best to supplement your intuitive opinions with information derived in what fashion? A) common sense B) direct observation C) systematic inquiry D) speculation E) organizational theory Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 14) Which of the following explains the usefulness of the systematic approach to the study of organizational behavior? A) Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations. B) Human behavior is not random. C) Human behavior is not consistent. D) Human behavior is rarely predictable. E) Human behavior is often not sensible. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 15) A manager wishes to know how members of her team will react to layoffs in other departments. Which of the following is least useful in predicting her team's behavior? A) knowing the organizational goals of her team B) knowing what is important to each member of the team C) knowing how the team perceives the layoffs D) knowing how the team has reacted in similar situations E) knowing how other workers have reacted in similar situations Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 16) What do the fundamental consistencies underlying the behavior of all individuals enable researchers to do? A) observe human behavior B) systematize human behavior C) research human behavior D) predict human behavior E) detect human behavior Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study


17) Analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence all constitute aspects of ________ study. A) organizational B) intuitive C) theoretical D) systematic E) case-based Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 18) By practicing systematic analysis, you can enhance your intuitive views of behavior and improve your accuracy in ________ behavior. A) explaining and predicting B) confirming C) predicting 100 percent of D) controlling E) managing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 19) Which of the following is NOT true concerning EBM? A) EBM requires that management decisions be based on "gut feel" B) EBM requires that managerial decisions are based on the latest available evidence C) EBM requires that managers become more scientific in their approach to managerial problems D) None of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 20) Organizational behavior is constructed from all of the following disciplines except ________. A) physics B) psychology C) anthropology D) sociology E) social psychology Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field


21) Psychology's major contributions to the field of organizational behavior have been primarily at what level of analysis? A) the level of the group B) the level of the individual C) the level of the organization D) the level of the culture E) the level of interacting groups Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 22) Anthropology's major contribution to the field of organizational behavior has been primarily at what level of analysis? A) micro level B) group level C) individual level D) organization level Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 1-1 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 23) The science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals is known as ________. A) psychiatry B) psychology C) sociology D) political science E) organizational behavior Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 24) Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding individual behavior? A) sociology B) social psychology C) psychology D) anthropology E) organizational behavior Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field


25) Significant contributions to OB in the study of group behavior in organizations have been made by ________. A) psychologists B) social psychologists C) anthropologists D) political scientists E) operations analysts Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 26) Recently, industrial/organizational psychologists have concerned themselves with the study of all EXCEPT which of the following? A) emotions B) training C) job satisfaction D) performance appraisals E) power Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 27) You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering. You should expect that the faculty member from ________ will probably contribute information about leadership effectiveness and job satisfaction. A) sociology B) social psychology C) psychology D) anthropology E) industrial engineering Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


28) You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and industrial engineering. Which professor out of this group would you expect to address issues of communication? A) the psychologist B) the anthropologist C) the sociologist D) the social psychologist E) the industrial engineer Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 29) The study of group behavior in organizations has largely been derived from what field of study? A) psychology B) political science C) anthropology D) sociology E) psychiatry Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 30) The OB topic of motivation has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? A) psychology B) social psychology C) sociology D) political science E) corporate strategy Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 31) The science that focuses on the influence people have on one another is ________. A) psychology B) anthropology C) political science D) social psychology E) archaeology Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field


32) ________ blends concepts from psychology and sociology. A) Corporate strategy B) Anthropology C) Political science D) Social psychology E) Archaeology Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 33) Group behavior, power, and conflict are central areas of study for ________. A) archaeologists B) sociologists C) anthropologists D) social psychologists E) operations analysts Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 34) ________ focuses on the study of people in relation to their social environment. A) Psychology B) Sociology C) Corporate strategy D) Political science E) Operations management Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 35) When seeking to understand how the corporate culture of IBM differs from that of Apple, OB researchers are drawing on contributions made from A) anthropology B) psychology C) sociology D) social psychology Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field


36) Social psychologists have made major contributions to OB by their study of which of the following? A) behavioral and attitude change B) individual decision making C) job satisfaction D) organizational power E) cross-cultural analysis Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 1-1 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 37) Contributions of psychology to the OB discipline include A) organizational change. B) formal organizational technology. C) work stress. D) power. E) comparative values. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 1-1 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 38) The subject of organizational culture has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? A) anthropology B) psychology C) social psychology D) political science E) corporate strategy Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 39) Which of the following fields has most helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior among people in different countries? A) anthropology B) psychology C) political science D) operations research E) psycholinguistics Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field


40) Which of the following statements best describes the current status of organizational behavior concepts? A) They are based on universal truths. B) Since people are complex, the theories explaining their actions must also be complex. C) There is general consensus among OB researchers and scholars on the simple concepts that underlie most human behavior. D) The cause-effect principles that tend to apply to all situations have been discovered. E) Cause-and-effect relationships for most human behaviors have been isolated. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB 41) There are ________ simple and universal principles that explain organizational behavior. A) an infinity of B) absolutely no C) a confusing array of D) fourteen E) few, if any Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB 42) In order to predict human behavior with any degree of accuracy, what sort of variables must be taken into account? A) global B) general C) dependent D) non-reactive E) contingency Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB 43) OB concepts must reflect contingency conditions since A) human beings are complex. B) two people often act very differently in the same situation. C) one person's behavior changes in different situations. D) we are limited in our ability to make sweeping generalizations. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB


44) Which of the following factors requires that employees become more flexible? A) temporariness B) corporate excess C) truncated capacity D) advances in corporate strategy E) global competition Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 45) A decrease in loyalty in the workplace may be attributed to A) the heavy use of temporary workers B) lower wages C) greater diversity in the workplace D) an increase in foreign assignments Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 46) Which of the following was NOT cited in the text as a change taking place in organizations? A) workers are more diverse B) the typical employee is younger C) more women are in the workplace D) corporate downsizing E) global competition Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 47) As a result of globalization, a manager is ________ likely to find herself in a foreign assignment. A) increasingly B) less C) never D) somewhat E) not Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


48) To work effectively with people from a different culture, you need to understand A) how their culture shaped them. B) how their geography shaped them. C) how their religion shaped them. D) how to adapt your management style to their differences. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 49) As managers oversee the movement of jobs to countries with low-cost labor, A) they face little criticism. B) they must deal with strong criticism from labor groups. C) they manage less diverse workforces. D) they avoid markets like China and other developing nations. E) they work themselves out of a job. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 50) Lensmasters, a U.S. company that produces high quality optical systems for survey equipment, has decided to expand its operations by opening plants in low-wage countries in Southern Asia. If this proves successful, it plans to reduce its U.S. manufacturing capacity and move more of its production offshore. Managers at Lensmasters are least likely to find their jobs changing in which of the following ways due to these changes? A) They will have to adapt their management style to other cultures. B) They will have to anticipate an increased number of foreign assignments. C) They will need to anticipate paying much higher wages to employees outside the US. D) They will need to plan to shift knowledge work to lower-wage companies. E) They will need to manage the fears of terrorism of employees remaining in the United States. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 51) Whereas ________ focuses on differences among people from different countries, ________ addresses differences among people within given countries. A) workforce diversity; globalization B) globalization; workforce diversity C) culture; diversity D) culturalization; workforce diversity E) psychology; social psychology Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 13 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

52) ________ means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. A) Globalization B) Workforce diversity C) Affirmative action D) Organizational culture E) Operational homogeneity Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7-8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 53) One of the most important and broad-based challenges facing organizations today is A) going global. B) containing costs. C) adapting to people who are different. D) developing people. E) winning the war for talent. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 54) Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of all of the following EXCEPT A) age. B) gender. C) sexual orientation. D) socio-economic status. E) ethnicity. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7-8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 55) Managing diversity A) is an issue just for the United States. B) is not an issue in Canada. C) is not an issue in Japan. D) has become a global concern. E) is not a business issue Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


56) Which group comprises nearly half of the U.S. labor force? A) people over the age of 65 B) Latino/as C) African-Americans D) men E) women Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 1-2 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 57) Diversity, if properly managed, can A) increase creativity. B) increase innovation. C) provide different perspectives on problems. D) improve decision making. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 58) Which of the following statements is not an implication of increased workplace diversity? A) Managers should recognize differences between workers. B) Diversity training should be provided. C) Employee benefits should be revamped to accommodate the different needs of different employees. D) It is critical that all workers be treated alike. E) Innovation and creativity in organizations is likely to increase. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 59) Which of the following is NOT true of diversity? A) Managers have to shift their philosophy from treating everyone alike. B) Managers have to recognize differences. C) Managers have to provide diversity training. D) When diversity is not managed properly, there is a potential for higher turnover. E) Diversity makes communication easier. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


60) According to the textbook, when diversity is not managed properly, there is a potential for ________. A) higher creativity B) communication benefits C) labor cost inequities D) increased competitiveness E) higher turnover Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8-9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 61) Today's managers understand that the success of any effort at improving quality and productivity must include ________. A) process reengineering B) quality management programs C) customer service improvements D) employees E) manufacturing simplification Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 62) The common characteristic of service jobs is that they require A) substantial interaction with an organization's customers. B) low pay. C) a focus on productivity. D) little job knowledge. E) little technical competence. Answer: A Diff: 4 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 63) The majority of employees today in developed countries work in ________. A) manufacturing jobs B) service jobs C) MNCs D) government agencies E) the military Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB


64) Approximately ________ % of the U.S. labor force is employed in service industries. A) 10 B) 25 C) 40 D) 60 E) 80 Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 65) Examples of service industry jobs include all of the following except ________. A) fast-food counter worker B) sales clerk C) waiter D) nurse E) production-line worker Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 66) Which of the following is NOT considered a key quality of an employee in a customerresponsive culture? A) friendly and courteous B) accessible C) knowledgeable D) good computer skills E) willing to do what's necessary to please the customer Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 67) Cultures in which employees are friendly, accessible, and prompt in responding to customer needs are considered ________ cultures. A) ethically healthy B) customer responsive C) innovative D) learning organization E) total quality Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB


68) What is the primary reason many large companies such as Sears and Boeing have implemented cost-cutting programs and eliminated thousands of jobs? A) to expand globally B) to win the war for talent C) to become lean and mean D) to avoid going broke E) to merge with another company Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 69) Today's successful organizations must do all of the following EXCEPT A) foster innovation. B) master the art of change. C) continue doing what they have been for years that made them successful. D) continually improve their quality. E) maintain their flexibility. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 70) Organizations may become candidates for extinction if they A) do not foster innovation. B) do not master the art of change. C) are not flexible. D) do not improve their quality. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 71) Evidence of temporariness is seen in all of the following EXCEPT A) jobs are continually being redesigned. B) companies are relying more on temporary workers. C) the time horizon for a sustainable competitive advantage is getting shorter. D) pensions are being redesigned to move with people as they change jobs. E) tasks are increasingly being done by flexible teams rather than individuals. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


72) Organizations are in a state of flux. Examples of this include A) continual reorganizing. B) selling off poor-performing businesses. C) replacing permanent employees with temporary workers. D) subcontracting non-critical services to other organizations. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 73) Given the climate of "temporariness" in modern organizations, employees must ________. A) continually update their knowledge and skills B) be prepared to stay in the same position for longer periods of time C) make closer connections to their peers D) foster friendship within the work environment E) limit their mobility if they hope to compete Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 74) Today's managers and employees A) must learn to live with flexibility. B) must learn to cope with temporariness. C) must understand how to overcome resistance to change. D) must learn to live with unpredictability. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 75) The blurring of the line between work and non-work time has created A) personal conflicts. B) a more stable workforce. C) higher pay scales for more hours worked. D) less stress. E) more stay-at-home moms. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB


76) Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between employees' work life and personal life? A) Hours are not clearly specified. B) Communications technology allows employees to work any time and from any place. C) Organizations asking employees to put in longer hours D) Creation of flexible teams E) The workplace itself is not clearly specified. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 77) Situations where an individual is required to define right and wrong conduct are termed ________. A) diversity issues B) human resource problems C) ethical dilemmas D) loyalty situations E) social puzzles Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 78) An example of an ethical dilemma is: A) Do I inflate an employee's evaluation to save his job? B) Do I offer a bribe to land a contract? C) Do I write a check on a closed account? D) Do I fire an employee to avoid paying her a big bonus? E) Do I fire a whistle blower for exposing the company's wrongdoing? Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 79) What constitutes good ethical behavior A) is constantly ignored B) has never been clearly defined C) is well known D) is seen when elected officials pad their expense accounts E) is not related to organizational culture Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities


80) Employees today are A) expressing increased confidence in management. B) expressing increased trust in management. C) increasingly certain about what constitutes appropriate ethical behavior. D) increasingly uncertain about what constitutes appropriate ethical behavior. E) using fewer excuses for engaging in unethical behavior. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 81) An ethically healthy climate A) exists where employees confront a minimal degree of ambiguity regarding what constitutes right and wrong behaviors. B) is non-existent in businesses. C) seldom allows employees to do their work productively. D) cannot be created by managers, but must be dictated by the organization's mission. E) interferes with the actual performance of the organization. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 82) Positive organizational scholarship A) is also called positive organizational behavior B) is also called foundation for positive organizations C) is concerned with developing the weaknesses of employees D) is concerned with identifying what's wrong with organizations and their employees Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 83) Joseph's manager has asked him to think about situations in which he was at his "personal best" to better understand how to exploit his strengths. This concept is known as A) reflected best-self B) minimizing limitations C) emotional intelligence D) best of the best Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB


84) Positive organizational scholarship A) challenges researchers to look at OB through a new lens B) denies the presence of the negative C) challenges organizations to dwell on their limitations D) denies the value of critical feedback Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 85) OB is a field of study that investigates the impact the individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving A) an organization's effectiveness. B) an organization's social responsibilities. C) the manager's pay. D) the quality of the firm's products. E) an organization's social audit results. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 13 Topic: Implications for Managers 86) People skills have always been a critical component of business school programs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 1 87) According to the textbook, the most frequent problem of managers is people problems. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 1 88) Although managers must be technically competent, technical knowledge is often not enough for success. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2 89) Outstanding employees are most in demand during economic downturns. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2 90) Companies with reputations as good places to work improve retention, but seldom generate improved financial performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2


91) Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on productivity within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward defining an organization's objectives. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior 92) Scholars generally agree on the topics that constitute OB and the relative importance of each. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 2 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior 93) OB focuses on the three determinants of behavior in organizations: individuals, groups, and power. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 2 Topic: The Field of Organizational Behavior 94) Behavior is generally predictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate predictions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 95) Many people's views on human behavior are based on intuition. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 96) Intuition comes from "gut feelings" about the state of some phenomenon of interest. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 97) The majority of management decisions today are made based on a systematic study of the evidence. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 98) Evidence-based management complements systematic study. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study


99) When conclusions are based on scientific evidence, they are based on data gathered under controlled conditions and measured and interpreted in a rigorous manner. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 4-5 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study 100) Social psychology is an area within psychology, blending concepts from both psychology and socialism. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 101) What psychology is to the group, sociology is to the individual. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 102) Learning, perception, and personality are OB topics whose contributions have generally come from psychiatry. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 103) Conflict and power have been major topics of concern to social psychologists. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 104) Anthropology has helped us understand differences in values and attitudes between people in different countries. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 105) There are many universal principles that explain organizational behavior. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB 106) OB researchers cannot offer reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior since people act very differently in similar situations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB


107) OB concepts must reflect contingency conditions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB 108) OB research provides many cause-and-effect relationships. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Few Absolutes in OB 109) Corporate downsizing is severing the bonds of loyalty. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 110) The typical worker today is younger. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 6 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 111) As the world has becomes more global, managers have to become capable of working with people from different cultures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 112) The manager's job has remained relatively stable even with the globalization of business. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 113) Managers today are more likely to find themselves in a foreign assignment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 114) In the global arena, managers quickly discover that the same factors motivate people the world over. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


115) Managers today are challenged to balance the interests of their organization with the responsibility to the communities in which they operate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 116) Critics see the exportation of jobs as undermining the job markets in developing countries. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 117) People must set aside their cultural values and differences when they come to work. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 118) One of the most important challenges facing organizations today is adapting to diversity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 119) Workforce diversity focuses on differences between people from different countries. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 120) Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming a more homogeneous mix of people. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 7-8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 121) Managing diversity is not just an issue in the United States, but also in Canada, Australia, and Japan. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


122) Managers have to shift their philosophy from treating everyone alike. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 123) When diversity is not managed properly, there is a potential for higher turnover and interpersonal conflicts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 8-9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 124) Diversity, if positively managed, can increase creativity and innovation in organizations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 125) Forty percent of the U.S. labor force is employed in service industries. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 126) The common characteristic of manufacturing jobs is that they require substantial interaction with an organization's customers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 127) OB can be helpful in understanding how to include employees in quality improvement efforts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 128) Forty percent of the U.S. labor force is female. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 1-2 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


129) Recent polls indicate than an increasing percent of employees expect to work past the traditional retirement age of 65. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 1-2 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 130) A growing percentage of U.S. workers are immigrants. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 1-2 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 131) In tight labor markets, those managers who don't understand human behavior risk having no one to manage. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 132) Today's managers and employees must learn to cope with temporarinesslearning to live with flexibility, spontaneity, and unpredictability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 133) Most managers today work in a climate best characterized as stable and permanent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 10 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 134) The blurring of the lines between work and non-work has not been all bad. It has created opportunities for employees to structure their roles at work. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 135) Ethical dilemmas are situations in which employees are required to define right and wrong conduct. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities


136) The line differentiating right from wrong has never been more clearly defined. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 137) Employees today feel increasing pressure to cut corners and break rules. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 138) An ethically healthy climate is one where employees confront a minimal degree of ambiguity regarding what constitutes right and wrong. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 139) In today's highly competitive business environment, almost all organizations are choosing to forego the creation of a positive work environment in order to "turn up the heat" and be more competitive. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 140) The OB research area known as positive organizational scholarship has increasingly targeted what's wrong with organizations and their employees. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB 141) Why is it important to complement intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations? Answer: It is important to complement intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations in order to help uncover important facts and relationships. This will provide a base from which more accurate predictions of behavior can be made. That is, we can improve our predictive ability by complementing intuitive opinions with a more systematic approach. Systematic studies looks at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and base conclusions on scientific evidence. This process helps us to explain and predict behavior. Page Ref: 3 Topic: Complementing Intuition with Systematic Study


142) How have the fields of psychology and sociology contributed to our understanding of organizational behavior? Answer: Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and change the behavior of humans. Contributions have been made by learning theorists, personality theorists, counseling psychologists, and industrial and organizational psychologists. Contributions have been made in learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, motivation, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology studies people in relation to their social environment. The greatest contributions by sociologists have been in the study of group behavior in organizations, organizational culture, formal organization theory, organizational structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict. Page Ref: 4-5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 143) Compare and contrast the fields of psychology, social psychology, and sociology. Answer: Psychology focuses on the individual. Social psychology focuses on people's influences on one another. Sociology is concerned with group behavior in organizations. Thus it could be said that social psychology falls between the extremes of the individual focus of psychology and the large group focus of sociology. Page Ref: 4-5 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 144) Organizational behavior is an applied behavioral science built upon contributions from a number of different disciplines. What are these disciplines and what are the contributions of each discipline? Be complete in your response and include four different behavioral science disciplines. Answer: Organizational behavior has been built upon the contributions of psychology, sociology, social psychology, and anthropology. Psychology has contributed to learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, needs and motivational forces, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology has contributed through the study of formal and complex organizationsincluding group dynamics, design of work teams, organizational culture, formal organization theory and structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict. Social psychology has contributed in the areas of measuring, understanding, and changing attitudes; communication patterns; building trust; the ways in which group activities can satisfy needs; and group decisionmaking processes. Anthropology has contributed to an understanding of organizational culture, organizational environments, and differences between national cultures. Page Ref: 4-6 Topic: Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field


145) How does globalization affect a manager's people skills? Answer: Globalization affects a manager's people skills in at least two ways. First, managers are increasingly likely to find themselves on foreign assignments. Once there, they may be managing a work force that is defined by very different needs, aspirations, and attitudes from the workforce back at home. Second, managers are going to find themselves working with superiors, peers, and employees who were born and raised in a different culture. To work effectively with these people, managers will need to understand their culture, how it has shaped them, and how to adapt a management style to these differences. Page Ref: 7 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 146) Discuss the ways in which the manager's job is changing in response to globalization. Answer: The manager's job is changing in a number of ways in response to globalization. There are increased foreign assignments for managers and they are more likely to be working with people from different cultures (even in their own country). They are overseeing the movement of jobs to countries with low-cost labor and learning to balance the interests of their organizations with their responsibility to the communities in which they operate. Page Ref: 7-8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 147) Explain "workforce diversity." Answer: Workforce diversity is a term used to describe how organizations are becoming more heterogeneous with regard to gender, race, and ethnicity. It also includes the physically disabled, gays and lesbians, and the elderly. Page Ref: 8 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 148) Discuss the implications of workforce diversity for management practices. Answer: Managers have to shift their philosophy from treating everyone alike to recognizing differences and responding to those differences in ways that ensure employee retention and greater productivity while, at the same time, not discriminating. This shift includes providing diversity training and revamping benefits programs to accommodate the different needs of different employees. Managing diversity has become a global concern. A manager's inability to effectively manage diversity may lead to higher turnover and more interpersonal conflicts in the organization. Page Ref: 8-9 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


149) What is an ethical dilemma? Provide an example. Answer: An ethical dilemma is a situation in which employees are required to define right and wrong conduct. Dilemmas include whether to blow the whistle, whether they should follow orders with which they don't personally agree, whether they should give an inflated performance evaluation to an employee whom they like, knowing that such an evaluation could save that employee's job, or whether they should allow themselves to play politics in the organization if it will help their career advancement. These ethical dilemmas result from the blurring of the line differentiating right from wrong. Page Ref: 11 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 150) What is positive organizational scholarship? Answer: Positive organizational scholarship is concerned with how organizations develop human strengths and unlock their employees' potential. Also referred to as positive organizational behavior, this approach studies what is good about organizations. One of the concepts studied by positive organizational scholars is "reflected best-self". Positive organizational scholarship is meant to provide a new lens through which OB may be studied challenging organizations to think about how to exploit the strengths of their employees rather than dwelling on their weaknesses. Page Ref: 12 Topic: Challenges and Opportunities for OB


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 2 Personality and Values 1) Which of the following statements about personality is correct? A) Personality is always stable. B) Personality is a part of a person. C) Personality is an aggregate whole. D) Personality is for the most part comprised of traits that cannot be measured. E) Personality is the primary source of emotions in most people. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14-15 Topic: Personality 2) Researchers have paid so much attention to personality traits in OB in order to ________. A) help in employee selection and in understanding how to more effectively manage people. B) enable the easy evaluation of employee performance C) help identify which people in a workforce will work best together D) understand the motivation of outstanding workers E) exclude potential trouble-makers from work. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 15 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 3) Studies of twins separated at birth and raised separately have confirmed the importance of ________ in shaping personality. A) attitudes B) heredity C) environment D) parental influence Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Personality 4) Which of the following is not considered to be completely influenced by heredity? A) facial attractiveness B) energy level C) personality D) physical stature Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Personality


5) You wish to hire a person who has an original mind, is skeptical, critical, independent, and determined. Candidates for this position would ideally have what classification on the MyersBriggs Type Indicator? A) INTJs B) ESTJs C) ENTPs D) ISFPs E) ESTPs Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 6) All of the following are classifications on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator except ________. A) extroverted/introverted B) sensing/intuitive C) perceiving/judging D) independent/dependent E) thinking/feeling Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 7) Jason is outgoing, sociable, and assertive. According to the MBTI, he is considered A) extraverted B) feeling C) perceiving D) sensing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 8) How would someone who is described as an ESTJ on the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator best be described? A) as a visionary B) as a conceptualizer C) as an innovator D) as an organizer E) as a leader Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality


9) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of "E or I" stand for? A) extroverted/intuitive B) emotional/introverted C) extroverted/introverted D) emotional/intuitive E) sane/reflective Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 10) What does the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classification of "S or N" stand for? A) sensing/intuitive B) sensing/thinking C) emotional stability/intuitive D) emotional stability/thinking E) sane/reflective Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 11) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project which requires creativity, stamina and farsightedness. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below: Candidate Alan Myers Briggs INTJ Type

Brenda ESTJ

Cameron Drusilla ENTP ESFP

Ellen INFP

You need to choose a lead person for the team. This person must be a visionary; combining an original mind with great drive. Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type? A) Alan B) Brenda C) Cameron D) Drusilla E) Ellen Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


12) You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project which requires creativity, stamina and farsightedness. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. These results are shown below: Candidate Alan Myers Briggs INTJ Type

Brenda ESTJ

Cameron Drusilla ENTP ESFP

Ellen INFP

You are looking for an organizer, a person on whom you can depend to be practical and realistic. Who would be the best candidate based on their Myers-Briggs Type? A) Alan B) Brenda C) Cameron D) Drusilla E) Ellen Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 13) What is the major problem with the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator as a measure of personality? A) It is very difficult to administer. B) It probably should not be used as a selection test for choosing among job candidates since it is not necessarily a valid measure of personality. C) It does not include enough dimensions to differentiate all the variety of human personality D) It tends to overemphasize intuitive personality traits over analytical personality traits E) It is very difficult to accurately interpret. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 14) A high score in which dimension of the Big Five model predicts good job performance for all occupational groups? A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) emotional stability E) openness to experience Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality


15) Which of the following is not included in the Big Five model? A) agreeableness B) conscientiousness C) intuitiveness D) emotional stability E) extraversion Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 16) Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others? A) conscientiousness B) agreeableness C) extraversion D) feeling E) emotional stability Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 17) Which dimension of the Big Five model is a measure of reliability? A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) feeling E) emotional stability Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 18) You know that your customers are demanding and sometimes difficult. Which personality dimension taps a person's ability to withstand stress? A) extraversion B) judging C) conscientiousness D) emotional stability E) intellect Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


19) Jane Simpson rates low on conscientiousness. This would this lead you to suspect that which of the following statements is most likely to be true about Jane? A) She will be easily distracted. B) She will find comfort in the familiar. C) She will be nervous, depressed, and insecure. D) She will be comfortable with solitude. E) She will be very dim-witted. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 20) You wish to predict how strong organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) is in each of your employees. Which of the five facets of personality will probably be of the most interest in this case? A) extraversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) emotional stability E) intellect Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 21) Of the Big Five, ________ is most strongly related to life satisfaction, to job satisfaction, and to low stress levels. A) self-esteem B) emotional stability C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness E) extroversion Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 22) Which of the following is not true of extraverts? A) Extraverts tend to be happier in their jobs and in their lives as a whole than intraverts. B) Extraverts experience more positive emotions than introverts. C) Extraverts less freely express their positive emotions than do introverts. D) Extraverts have more friends than introverts. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18-19 Topic: Personality


23) Which of the following is not a downside to conscientiousness? A) Conscientious people don't adapt well to changing contexts. B) Conscientious people have trouble learning complex tasks early in the training process. C) Conscientious people are often less creative than those who are less conscientious. D) Conscientious people are rarely considered structured individuals. E) There are no downsides to conscientiousness. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Personality 24) James has been described as an agreeable individual. He is better liked on the job and is less likely to engage in organizational deviance. What would we expect to be associated with his agreeableness? A) He will be happier than a disagreeable person - but only slightly more B) He will likely choose other agreeable individuals as members of his team. C) He will probably be a poorer negotiator and experience lower levels of career success. D) All of the above. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 19-20 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) Which of the following statements about people with positive core self-evaluations is true? A) They set goals which are easily obtainable. B) They do not like themselves. C) They seldom persist to reach their goals. D) They view themselves as powerless over their environment. E) They tend to be more committed to their goals. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Personality 26) What is the term used for the degree to which people like or dislike themselves? A) core self-evaluation B) authoritarianism C) locus of control D) Machiavellianism E) efficacy Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Personality


27) Mary has an opening for a position requiring the individual to demonstrate considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior by reading external cues. She should identify the employee with a(n) ________ for a good fit. A) high self-monitoring tendency B) low self-monitoring tendency C) internal locus of control D) external locus of control E) high SE Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) How would you describe an individual who is not capable of presenting striking contradictions between who they are in public and who they are privately and does not pay close attention to the behavior of others? A) low Mach B) high Mach C) low self-monitoring D) high self-monitoring E) narcissistic Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 29) Which of the following statements about low self-monitors is true? A) They have a low behavioral consistency between who they are and what they do. B) They tend to rate their performance much more highly than do outside observers. C) They tend to pay less attention to the behavior of others than high self-monitors. D) They usually receive high performance ratings. E) They tend to thrive in areas that require them to take risks. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities


30) High self-monitors will most likely be well-suited to which of following positions? A) one that requires them to play a central role B) one that requires them not to yield to outside pressure C) one that requires them to operate independently for long periods of time D) one that requires them to take risks E) one that requires a great deal of creativity Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 31) What term is used to describe the personality of an individual who is aggressively involved in an incessant struggle to achieve more and more in less and less time? A) Type A personality B) Type B personality C) proactive personality D) narcissistic personality E) high Mach personality Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 32) Which of the following is true of people with a Type A personality? A) They tend to be more successful than people with a Type B personality. B) They play for fun and relaxation. C) They tend to emphasize quantity over quality. D) They generally feel little need to discuss their achievements. E) They are generally content with their place in the world. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 33) Which of the following behaviors is most likely to be exhibited in someone with a Type A personality? A) highly creative B) enjoys leisure and quiet time alone C) feels impatient with the rate of most events D) concentrates on one task at a time E) takes long lunches and plays pool Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality


34) Which of the following is a characteristic of the Type B personality? A) A Type B suffers from a sense of time urgency, with its accompanying impatience. B) A Type B struggles to achieve more with less. C) A Type B strives to always multi-task. D) A Type B can relax without guilt. E) A Type B needs to discuss his or her achievements. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 35) People with which type of personality trait commonly make poor decisions because they make them too quickly. A) high self-esteem B) Type As C) Type Bs D) self-monitors E) extroverts Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 36) Which of the following terms best describes people who identify opportunities, show initiative, take action, and persevere until meaningful change occurs? A) Type A personalities B) high self-esteem C) proactive personalities D) high conscientiousness E) high Mach Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 37) Which of the following personality traits is most likely to help achieve career success? A) proactive personality B) high SE C) Type A D) extrovert E) agreeable Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


38) Which of the following terms describes basic convictions that "a specific mode of conduct or end state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct"? A) values B) attitudes C) convictions D) preferences E) affectual preferences Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 39) What does the content attribute of a value state? A) that the value is complete B) that the mode of conduct is important C) that the value is strongly or weakly held D) the behavior associated with that value E) that the value is not transient Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 40) When we rank an individual's values in order of their ________, we obtain the person's value system. A) intensity B) content C) context D) social acceptance E) social needs Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 41) Which of the following statements about values is true? A) Values are flexible. B) Values are synonymous with attitudes. C) Values tend to be consistent among occupational groups. D) Values are fairly stable over time. E) Values change easily when they are called into question. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values


42) What is the difference between terminal and instrumental values, as proposed by Rokeach? A) Terminal values are the goals that a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime, while the instrumental values are the preferable modes of behavior in achieving these values. B) Instrumental values are the goals that a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime, while terminal values are the preferable modes of behavior in achieving theses values. C) Terminal values are the highest values in a person's value system, while instrumental values are the ones that are most often used. D) Instrumental values are the values that are used in day to day life, terminal values are those that come into play at times of great stress. E) Terminal values are the values shared by the group as a whole, instrumental values are the values that differ within a group and give rise to conflict. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Values 43) Which of the following values would be most likely to be considered a terminal value by Rokeach? A) ambitious B) broad-minded C) helpful D) a sense of accomplishment E) self-controlled Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-2 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 44) Which category of dominant work values is most likely to characterize a 55-year-old employee in the United States? A) hard working, conservative, conforming, loyalty to the organization B) team-orientated, honest, self-reliant, loyal to relationships. C) success, achievement, ambition, dislike of authority, loyalty to career D) work/life balance, team-oriented, dislike of rules, loyalty to relationships E) confident, financial success, self-reliant but team-oriented, loyalty to both self and relationships Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 2-2 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


45) What is the term used to describe the cohort of workers who entered the workforce in the 1950s and early 1960s? A) boomers B) nexters C) Xers D) veterans E) Millennials Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 46) What is the term used to describe those members of the population whose lives have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers; and who value flexibility, life options, and the achievement of job satisfaction? A) veterans B) boomers C) nexters D) Xers E) hexers Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 24 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 47) Veterans are most likely to place the greatest importance on A) a comfortable like and family security B) social recognition C) true friendship D) happiness E) meaningful work Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


48) What cohort of workers in the United States is most likely to balk at having to work extensive overtime and weekends? A) Veterans B) Boomers C) Nexters D) Xers E) Traditionalists Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 49) What term is used for those who entered the United States workforce from the mid-1960s through the mid-1980s? A) Veterans B) Boomers C) Nexters D) Xers E) Traditionalists Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 50) As you work with Tom, who is 27 years old, you are likely to find that he ________. A) desires financial success B) prefers leisure time C) sees the company merely as a vehicle for his career D) highly values security E) is not interested in work at all Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 51) What cohort of workers in the United States is most loyal to their careers? A) Veterans B) Boomers C) Nexters D) Xers E) Traditionalists Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


52) The most recent entrants to the United States workforce are ________. A) Veterans B) Boomers C) Nexters D) Xers E) Traditionalists Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 53) What cohort of workers values loyalty to both self and relationships? A) Veterans B) Boomers C) Nexters D) Xers E) Traditionalists Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 54) Holland's personality-job fit theory is based on the notion of fit between an individual's ________ and ________. A) personality characteristics; the job requirements B) satisfaction; the job C) ability to perform the job; motivation D) motivation; on-the-job performance E) personality characteristics; job satisfaction Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25-26 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 55) According to Holland's personalityjob fit theory, what are consequences of a good fit between personality and occupation? A) a low level of stress B) a high level of accomplishment C) high satisfaction and low turnover D) maximum performance and efficiency E) a high rate of turnover Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 25-26 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace


56) ________ developed a Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire that contains 160 occupational titles. A) Maslow B) Holland C) Hofstede D) Herzberg E) Surber Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 57) According to Holland, the closer two fields are in the hexagon, the ________ they are. A) more dissimilar B) more compatible C) less compatible D) more difficult to categorize E) less related to any occupation Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 58) The "enterprising" personality from Holland's typology of personality and congruent occupations would exhibit which of the following personality characteristics? A) imaginative, disorderly, idealistic B) shy, genuine, persistent C) sociable, friendly, cooperative D) self-confident, ambitious, energetic E) conforming, efficient, practical Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 59) You are seeking to fill the position of corporate accountant, and have administered Holland's Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire to all candidates. You would suspect that the questionnaire would indicate that the best candidates for the position would have which of the following personality types? A) conventional B) realistic C) enterprising D) investigative E) social Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


60) Monica is majoring in interior design. Her personality type is "realistic" according to Holland's Typology. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Monica's personality type is well-suited to her major. B) Monica is better suited to be a bank teller. C) Interior design is incongruent with her personality type. D) Interior design is congruent with a "social" personality type. E) Monica prefers activities that do not require strength. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 61) The "realistic" personality from Holland's typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs? A) painter B) accountant C) mechanic D) lawyer E) biologist Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 62) The "social" personality from Holland's typology of personality would be well suited for which of the following jobs? A) assembly-line worker B) economist C) teacher D) bank teller E) lawyer Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 63) Which of Holland's personality types prefers activities that involve thinking and understanding? A) realistic B) investigative C) social D) conventional E) artistic Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 49 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

64) Which one of the following statements is true about the six personality types developed in Holland's personality-job fit theory? Each of the six types has a ________. A) supplemental personality style B) congruent personality style C) congruent occupation D) supplemental occupational environment E) supplemental skill set Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 27 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 65) It's more important today that employees' personalities fit with A) their manager's personality B) the overall organization's culture C) the characteristics of the job D) the recruiter's personality Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 27 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 66) A study of the EU found which of the Big Five personality factors was a valid predictor of performance across jobs and occupational groups? A) agreeableness B) extraversion C) openness to experience D) conscientiousness Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 27-28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 67) Which of the following researchers produced a comprehensive analysis for analyzing variations among cultures? A) Maslow B) Hofstede C) Festinger D) Skinner E) Freud Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


68) Which of the following is not one of Hofstede's five dimensions of national culture? A) power distance B) flexibility versus rigidity C) individualism versus collectivism: D) long-term versus short-term orientation: E) uncertainty avoidance Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 69) What is the measure of the extent to which people in a country accept the fact that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally? A) caste acceptance B) collectivism C) power distance D) masculinity E) rigidity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 70) Which dimension of Hofstede's framework is the degree to which people prefer to act as individuals rather than as members of groups? A) power distance B) individualism vs. collectivism C) masculinity vs. femininity D) uncertainty avoidance E) long-term vs. short-term orientation Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 71) Which of Hofstede's cultural dimensions emphasizes a tight social framework in which people expect others in groups of which they are a part to look after them? A) long-term orientation B) masculinity C) individualism D) collectivism E) femininity Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


72) According to Hofstede, people in cultures with ________ value thrift, persistence, and tradition. A) high power distance B) low power distance C) long-term orientation D) short-term orientation E) low uncertainty avoidance Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 73) According to Hofstede, cultures that score ________ tend to emphasize laws and regulations. A) high on power distance B) high on uncertainty avoidance C) low on power distance D) low on uncertainty avoidance E) high on masculinity Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 74) Which of Hofstede's dimensions is the degree to which people in a country prefer structured to unstructured situations? A) collectivism B) power distance C) long-term orientation D) uncertainty avoidance E) idiocentricity Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 75) According to Hofstede, high femininity cultures A) emphasize equality between men and women. B) favor achievement and power. C) emphasize feminine roles. D) have increased anxiety about ambiguity. E) are rule-oriented. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


76) According to Hofstede, which country scored as the most individualistic nation of all? A) Japan B) Korea C) Great Britain D) United States E) China Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 77) The gender differentiation cultural dimension identified by GLOBE is the equivalent of which of Hofstede's dimensions? A) power distance B) uncertainty avoidance C) masculinity-femininity D) future orientation E) individualism-collectivism Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 78) According to Hofstede, the Unites States scores high in ________ and low in ________. A) power distance; uncertainty avoidance B) individualism; power distance C) uncertainty avoidance; individualism D) uncertainty avoidance; masculinity E) femininity; masculinity Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 79) All of the following are weaknesses of Hofstede's cultural dimensions pointed out by critics EXCEPT: A) The original data are from 30 years ago. B) The original data were based on only four companies: IBM, Disney, Coca-Cola, and McDonald's. C) Most researchers are unaware of the judgment calls Hofstede had to make. D) Some of the Hofstede results are unexpected. E) Few researchers have read the details of Hofstede's methodology closely. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications


80) The GLOBE team identified ________ dimensions on which national cultures differ. A) 3 B) 5 C) 7 D) 9 E) 15 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 81) Which of the following is not one of the cultural dimensions identified by the GLOBE team? A) performance orientation B) future orientation C) humane orientation D) age differentiation E) power distance Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 82) Which of the following cultural dimensions identified by GLOBE does not have an equivalent in Hofstede? A) future orientation B) power distance C) performance orientation D) individualism/collectivism E) gender differentiation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


83) Country Country A Country B Country C Country D Country E

In-group collectivism 4 3 2 5 1

Individualism/ Performance collectivism orientation 3 1 5 2 1 3 2 4 4 5

Humane orientation 2 1 5 3 4

Power distance 5 3 4 1 2

The above table shows the relative rankings of five countries in five of GLOBE's cultural dimensions. In which country are people most likely to identify with and take pride in the company they work for? A) Country A B) Country B C) Country C D) Country D E) Country E Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 84) Country Country A Country B Country C Country D Country E

In-group collectivism 4 3 2 5 1

Individualism/ Performance collectivism orientation 3 1 5 2 1 3 2 4 4 5

Humane orientation 2 1 5 3 4

Power distance 5 3 4 1 2

According to the above table, in which country are people most likely to be rewarded for being altruistic, caring, and kind to others? A) Country A B) Country B C) Country C D) Country D E) Country E Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


85) Which of the following statements is true of the GLOBE project? A) The GLOBE dimensions replaced Hofstede's work. B) The GLOBE project confirmed that Hofstede's dimensions are no longer valid. C) The GLOBE dimensions have confirmed Hofstede's work. D) The GLOBE framework recognizes that a country's cultural values do not change. E) It is not expected that future cross-cultural studies will use the GLOBE dimensions to assess differences between countries. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 86) Behavior is shaped by our personalities. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 14 Topic: What Is Perception? 87) Personality looks at the parts of the person rather than the aggregate whole. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 15 Topic: Personality 88) A trait can be described as a characteristic or behavior that is sometimes exhibited in a few situations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 16 Topic: Personality 89) The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a 100-question personality test that types four characteristics into sixteen personality types. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 90) In the Myers-Briggs typology, N stands for intuitive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 91) In the Myers-Briggs typology, S stands for sensible. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality


92) Because MBTI results are job related, it is an excellent selection test for choosing job candidates. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 93) In the Myers-Briggs typology, P stands for preparedness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 94) If you were looking for an employee who was an organizer, you would probably choose one whose type is INFP. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 95) A substantial body of research supports the MBTI as a valid measure of personality. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 96) An impressive body of research supports that five basic personality dimensions underlie all others. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality 97) The Big Five Model factor termed "extraversion" is probably a good predictor of job performance in most professions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 17-18 Topic: Personality 98) Conscientiousness refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 99) Agreeable people tend to be less trusting than disagreeable people. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality


100) Extraverts are more likely to be absent from work than introverts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 101) Intraverts tend to be more impulsive than extroverts. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 18 Topic: Personality 102) Individuals who score high on openness to experience are more creative in science and in art than those who score low. Because creativity is important to leadership, open people are more likely to be effective leaders. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 103) Agreeableness is associated with lower levels of career success. This may be due in part because agreeable individuals are poorer negotiators. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 19 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 104) Self-monitoring refers to an individual's ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 20 Topic: Personality 105) High self-monitors tend to pay less attention to the behavior of other people than do low self monitors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 106) Low self-monitors show high behavioral consistency. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Personality


107) Individuals with Type B personalities exhibit characteristics highly prized by the North American culture. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 108) Zack is always moving and is impatient. He prefers work to leisure and seems obsessed with numbers. Zack probably has a Type B personality. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 109) People with Type A personalities are rarely concerned with time. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 110) Those individuals with Type A personalities tend to be more at risk for cardiovascular disease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 111) People with Type B personalities tend to operate under more stress than those with Type A personalities. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 112) Proactive personalities are more likely to act as change agents within an organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 113) The content attribute of a value says that a mode of conduct is important. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values


114) When we rank an individual's values in terms of the intensity of those values, we obtain that person's value system. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 115) Values cannot be classified because of their spiritual and theological basis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 116) Values tend to be stable and enduring. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 117) People always act in ways consistent with their values. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values 118) Instrumental values are preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving one's terminal values. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Values 119) Milton Rokeach developed a survey that assesses terminal and instrumental values. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Values 120) RVS values are fairly stable and consistent across groups. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 23 Topic: Values 121) Boomers place a great deal of emphasis on achievement and material success. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


122) Veterans tend to be more loyal to their country and less loyal to their employer. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 24 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 123) The loyalty of Boomers is to their careers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-3 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 124) The lives of Xers have been shaped by war, women's lib, AIDS, and computers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 125) Terminal values such as a sense of accomplishment and social recognition rank high with Nexters. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 126) A significant portion of our values are often established at an early age. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 25 Topic: Values 127) Individuals with Holland's "investigative" personality are well suited for careers as small business managers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 128) Holland's "conventional" personality, placed in the position of a cost accountant, is likely to be dissatisfied and quit. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 2-4 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


129) In Holland's Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire, adjacent categories are quite similar while diagonally opposite ones are highly dissimilar. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 26 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 130) It is more important that employees' personalities fit with the overall organization's culture than with the characteristics of any specific job. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace 131) The five personality factors identified in the Big Five Model appear in almost all crosscultural studies. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 27 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 132) Each culture has a common personality type. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 27-28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 133) Geert Hofstede produced a very widely referenced approach for analyzing variations among cultures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 134) Collectivism refers to a cultural attribute describing a loosely knit social framework in which people tend to the interests of their immediate family. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 135) Organizations in a society high in uncertainty avoidance are likely to have more rules. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


136) It is consistent for a country with a democratic government to rank below average on power distance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 137) The U.S. culture ranked above average on power distance according to Hofstede. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 138) The GLOBE research program is an ongoing cross-cultural investigation of leadership and national culture. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) GLOBE's future orientation dimension is essentially equivalent to Hofstede's longterm/short-term orientation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 140) The GLOBE dimensions have replaced Hofstede's dimensions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 141) What is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) and how might it be used by managers? Answer: The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) is one of the most widely used personality frameworks. It is essentially a 100-question personality test that asks people how they usually feel or act in particular situations. On the basis of the answers individuals give to the test, they are classified as extroverted or introverted (E or I), sensing or intuitive (S or N), thinking or feeling (T or F), and perceiving or judging (P or J). These classifications are then combined into sixteen personality types. The MBTI has a place in training and development, since it can help employees to better understand themselves. It can also provide aid to teams by helping members better understand each other. It can also provide career guidance, but should not be used as a selection test. Page Ref: 17 Topic: Personality


142) Discuss the "Big Five" model of personality. Answer: The five-factor model of personality is typically called the "Big Five." In addition to providing a unifying personality framework, research on the Big Five also has found important relationships between these personality dimensions and job performance. The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. Extroversion captures one's comfort level with relationships. Agreeableness refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others. Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability. Emotional stability taps a person's ability to withstand stress. Openness to experience addresses one's range of interests and fascination with novelty. Page Ref: 17-19 Topic: Personality 143) What is self monitoring? Discuss how high self monitors differ from low self monitors. Answer: Self monitoring refers to an individual's ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors. High self monitors show considerable adaptability in adjusting their behavior to external situational factors. They are highly sensitive to external cues and can behave differently in different situations. They are also capable of presenting striking contradictions between their public persona and their private self. Low self monitors can't disguise themselves and tend to display their true dispositions and attitudes in very situation. High self monitors are more capable of conforming and tend to receive better performance ratings than low self monitors. High self monitoring managers receive more career promotions and are more likely to occupy central positions in the organization. Page Ref: 20-21 Topic: Personality 144) Describe the Type B personality. Answer: Type B personalities do not suffer from a sense of time urgency or with its accompanying impatience. They feel no need to display or discuss either their achievements or accomplishments. Type B's play for fun and relaxation, and can relax without guilt. They are rarely harried by the desire to obtain an increasing number of things. Page Ref: 21 Topic: Personality 145) Explain why values are important to the study of organizational behavior. Answer: Values lay the foundation for understanding people's attitudes and motivation. Values also influence our perceptions. As individuals enter an organization with preconceived notions of what "ought" to be, they contain interpretations of right and wrong - based upon their values. Values can cloud objectivity and rationality. Furthermore, values generally influence attitudes and behavior. Organizations are interested in whether the individual's values are aligned with the organization's. Page Ref: 22 Topic: Values AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


146) Discuss the Rokeach Value Survey. Include definitions and discussion of terminal values and instrumental values. Answer: Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS). The RVS consists of two sets of values, with each set containing 18 individual value items. One set, called terminal values, refers to desirable end-states of existence. These are goals that a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime. The other set, called instrumental values, refers to preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving the terminal values. People in the same occupations or categories tend to hold similar values. Page Ref: 23 Topic: Values 147) Discuss the cohort groups in the workforce and their dominant work values. Answer: Veterans entered the workforce in the 1950s or early 1960s. There are hardworking, conservative, and conforming. They are loyal to the organization. Boomers entered the workforce between 1965 and 1985. They values success, achievement, and ambition. They dislike authority and are loyal to their career. Xers entered the workforce between 1985 and 2000. They value work-life balance, are team-oriented, dislike rules and are loyal to relationships. Nexters entered the workforce after 2000. They are confident, value financial success, are self-reliant, but team oriented, and are loyal to both self and relationships. Page Ref: 24 and Exh 2-3 Topic: Values 148) Describe what is meant by the terms "person-job fit" and "person-organization fit." Answer: The person-job fit theory was developed by John Holland. It is based on the notion of fit between an individual's personality characteristics and his or her occupational environment. The theory argues that satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest when personality and occupation are in agreement. The key points of this model are: (1) there do appear to be intrinsic differences in personality among individuals, (2) there are different types of jobs, and (3) people in job environments congruent with their personality types should be more satisfied and less likely to voluntarily resign than should people in incongruent jobs. The person-organization fit essentially argues that people leave organizations that are not compatible with their personalities. People with high extraversion, for example, fit better with aggressive and team-oriented cultures, while people with high agreeableness will match up better with a supportive organizational climate Page Ref: 25-27 Topic: Linking an Individual's Personality and Values to the Workplace


149) Name and describe the value dimensions of culture identified by Hofstede. Answer: Power distance is the degree to which people accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. Individualism/collectivism is the degree to which people prefer to act as individuals or as members of a group. Masculinity/femininity is the degree to which values such as assertiveness, the acquisition of money and material goods and competition prevail versus the degree to which people value relationships, and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others. Uncertainty avoidance is the degree to which people prefer structured over unstructured situations. Long-term/short-term orientation is the degree to which people look to the future or to the past and present. The latter emphasizes respect for tradition and fulfilling social obligations. Page Ref: 28 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 150) Compare Hofstede's cultural dimensions with the GLOBE framework. Answer: The Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness research program identified nine dimensions on which national cultures differ. Assertiveness is essentially equivalent to Hofstede's quantity-of-life dimensions. Future orientation is equivalent to Hofstede's long-term/short term orientation. Gender differentiation is the extent to which a society maximizes gender role differences. Uncertainty avoidance, power distance, and individualism/collectivism were also identified by Hofstede. In-group collectivism encompasses the extent to which members of a society take pride in membership in small groups. Performance orientation is the degree to which a society encourages and rewards group members for performance improvement and excellence. Humane orientation is defined as the degree to which a society encourages and rewards individuals for being fair, altruistic, generous, caring, and kind to others. This is close to Hofstede's quality-of-life dimension. Page Ref: 30 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 3 Perception and Individual Decision Making 1) What do we call the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment? A) interpretation B) environmental analysis C) social verification D) outlook E) perception Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 32 Topic: What Is Perception? 2) What are the three classes of factors that influence perception? A) factors in the setting, factors in the environment and factors in the motives B) factors in the perceiver, factors in the target and factors in the situation C) factors in the character, factors in knowledge and factors in experience D) factors in the personality, factors in the character and factors in the values E) factors in the senses, factors in the surroundings and factors in the lighting Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 3) Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside? A) the perceivers B) the target C) the timing D) the context E) the situation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 4) What is the relationship between what one perceives and objective reality? A) They are the same. B) They can be substantially different. C) They should be the same. D) They are rarely if ever the same. E) They cannot be the same. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception?


5) David has the opinion that people who drive SUVs are dangerous drivers. He often perceives that people driving SUVs are doing so in a dangerous manner, even when other observers can see nothing wrong with the behavior of the SUV drivers. What factor in David is affecting his perception in this case? A) his interests B) his experiences C) his expectations D) his motives E) his background Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 6) The time at which an object or event is seen is an example of what type of factor influencing the perceptual process? A) perceiver B) target C) social D) reality E) situation Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 7) What is the theory that suggests that when we observe an individual's behavior, we attempt to determine whether it was internally or externally caused? A) Behavioral Theory B) Judgment Theory C) Selective Perception Theory D) Attribution Theory E) Equality Theory Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


8) If a manager attributes an employee's reasons for being late to internally caused behaviors, the manager A) would see the the employee as having been forced into being late by the situation. B) might attribute the employee's lateness to construction that tied up traffic on the road this employee regularly travels. C) might attribute the employee's lateness to partying the night before and then oversleeping. D) might attribute the lateness to outside causes. E) all of the above. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 33-34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 9) Which of the following is an internally caused behavior? A) working late in order to get a promotion B) arriving at work late because of an accident that tied up traffic C) working late because you don't have a ride home from work D) driving with the flow of traffic under the speed limit so that you do not get a ticket E) running from an angry dog Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33-34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 10) You are on a team with two individuals who are "difficult." The work has been divided among the three of you and each time your team meets, Janet and Jim disagree about the progress of the team project. Janet is convinced that Jim's lack of progress is because he is inherently lazy and not because of some overwhelming problem with the project itself. The truth seems to be that Janet is not doing her part of the work. What might you use to try to understand Janet and Jim's behavior? A) perception theory B) attribution theory C) decision-making theory D) satisficing theory E) Surber's theory Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33-34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


11) Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior? A) An employee is late because he was partying late and then overslept. B) An employee is late because of a flat tire. C) An employee was fired because he slept on the job. D) An employee was promoted because he was hard working. E) An employee died from lung cancer after excessive tobacco use. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33-34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 12) In attribution theory, what is distinctiveness? A) whether an individual displays consistent behaviors in different situations B) whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations C) whether an individual displays consistent behaviors in similar situations D) whether an individual displays different behaviors in similar situations E) whether an individual displays different behavior from other people Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 13) What sort of actions are most likely to be attributed to external causes? A) actions that have high distinctiveness, high consensus and high consistency B) actions that have high distinctiveness, high consensus and low consistency C) actions that have high distinctiveness, low consensus and low consistency D) actions that have low distinctiveness, low consistency and high consensus E) actions that have low distinctiveness, low consensus and low consistency Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-1 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 14) What does consensus refer to in attribution theory? A) There is general agreement about a perception. B) Different people respond the same way in the same situation. C) There is general agreement about how people desire to respond to the same situation. D) Different people perceive a situation similarly. E) All people behave precisely the same way in certain situations. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


15) What term is used for the extent to which an individual displays different behaviors in different situations? A) continuity B) integrity C) stability D) flexibility E) distinctiveness Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 16) If everyone who is faced with a similar situation responds in the same way, attribution theory states that the behavior shows ________. A) consensus B) similarity C) reliability D) consistency E) stability Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 17) Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. How would attribution theory describe this behavior? A) It shows consensus and is attributed to internal causes. B) It shows similarity and is attributed to external causes. C) It shows reliability and is attributed to external causes. D) It shows consistency and is attributed to internal causes. E) It shows distinctiveness and is attributed to internal causes. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 18) The more consistent a behavior, the more the observer is inclined to attribute it to ________. A) interpretation B) internal causes C) consensus D) external causes E) distinctiveness Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


19) If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows ________. A) distinctiveness B) consensus C) consistency D) continuity E) stability Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 20) You are on a team with two individuals who are "difficult." The work has been divided among the three of you and each time your team meets, Janet and Jim disagree about the progress of the team project. Janet is convinced that Jim's lack of progress is because he is inherently lazy and not because of some overwhelming problem with the project itself. The truth seems to be that Janet is not doing her part of the work. What error or bias does Janet seem to be making? A) selective perception B) an external bias C) the fundamental attribution error D) self-serving bias E) the ultimate attribution error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 21) What term is used for the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others? A) fundamental attribution error B) self-serving bias C) selective perception D) consistency E) actor bias Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


22) Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you were late back from lunch, he assumed that you had simply taken too much time. He never considered that the elevators were out and you had to walk up 10 flights of stairs. Your boss is guilty of ________. A) self-serving bias B) selective perception C) fundamental attribution error D) inconsistency E) stereotyping Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 23) What name is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors? A) the fundamental attribution error B) the self-serving bias C) consistency D) selective perception E) stereotyping Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 24) Whenever Jane is successful she takes full credit for what has happened, but whenever she is unsuccessful she attributes her failure to bad luck or blames one of her fellow employees. She is guilty of ________. A) the fundamental attribution error B) attribution bias C) the halo effect D) distinctiveness E) the self-serving bias Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


25) Investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000 What sort of bias were these investors most probably guilty of? A) the fundamental attribution error B) the self-serving bias C) the halo effect D) distinctiveness E) selective perception Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 26) Shortcuts in judging others include all of the following except ________. A) stereotyping B) halo effect C) selective perception D) self-serving bias E) contrast effects Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 27) Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we perceive, we engage in ________. A) selective perception B) memorization C) mental desensitization D) periodic listening E) linear clustering Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


28) A committee is made up of 12 managers; three each from the sales, production, accounting and human resources departments. They read a comprehensive study of the company they work for, and are asked which of its recommendations are most important. In discussion they find that the managers perceive that the most important recommendations are those concerning their own department. This finding is most likely the result of what type of bias? A) selective perception B) halo effect C) Pygmalion effect D) self-serving bias E) projection Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 29) What is the term used for drawing a general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance? A) the contrast effect B) personal bias C) prejudice D) the halo effect E) projection Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 30) Your rating in a job interview is high in contrast to the candidate who was interviewed directly before you, who was rated extremely low. Your own high rating might be partially attributed to which of the following? A) the halo effect B) the contrast effect C) projection D) stereotyping E) prototyping Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


31) One of the shortcuts used to judge others involves the influence by other persons we have recently encountered. What is this shortcut called? A) selective perception B) the contrast effect C) the halo effect D) prejudice E) stereotyping Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 32) Jennifer has already presented two excellent reports. The report she has just presented is clearly not as good as the first two reports, yet she is given the same high grade as before. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case? A) the contrast effect B) the halo effect C) stereotyping D) projection E) assertion Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 33) Allison has just presented her paper and has done an excellent job. Why should you not want to present your own paper directly after she does? A) to avoid the stereotyping effect B) to avoid the halo effect C) to avoid the contrast effect D) to avoid the projection effect E) to avoid the ultimate attribution error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 34) You have heard that the teacher believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women. What shortcut has the teacher used in this case? A) the halo effect B) the contrast effect C) projection D) stereotyping E) prototyping Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35-36 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 76 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

35) What do we call it when we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he/she belongs? A) grouping B) stereotyping C) categorizing D) assimilating E) prototyping Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35-36 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 36) When F. Scott Fitzgerald said, "The very rich are different from you and me" and Hemingway replied, "Yes, they have more money," Hemingway refused to engage in what shortcut to judge others? A) projection B) contrast effect C) halo effect D) stereotyping E) prototyping Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35-36 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 37) Which of the following statements is not an example of stereotyping? A) There is no need to offer child-care to him; men aren't interested in child care. B) Don't hire an older worker; they can't learn new skills. C) She was good at her last job, so she will be good at this one. D) She won't relocate for a promotion, since women don't relocate. E) The new hire will be emotionally insensitive, since he is a man. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35-36 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 38) Which of the following is a strong indicator that interviewers often base their judgments on perception, rather than simply on the facts they are presented with? A) Different interviewers often arrive at different conclusions about the same applicant. B) Applicants who do not have any negative traits are viewed more highly than those with a mix of negative and positive traits. C) Ethnic profiling is often needed to sort out large numbers of applicants. D) Interviewers do not have recourse to objective measures in many cases. E) Experience shows that in many cases the best person is not hired for the job. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 36-37 Topic: The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision-Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 77 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

39) Why is decision making a perceptual issue? A) Decisions must be made on how to move from the current state of affairs to some desired state. B) Middle- and lower-level managers may have different perceptions on how to solve a problem than their underlings or top level managers. C) Decision making is generally by consensus. D) There may be more than one way to solve a problem. E) Before a decision is made, a problem must be perceived to exist. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 36-37 Topic: The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision-Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 40) What is the first step in the Rational Decision-Making Model? A) developing alternatives B) defining the problem C) identifying the decision criteria D) weighing the decision criteria E) collecting relevant data Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 41) Mel has exceeded her budget by at least $200 every month for the last three months. After recognizing that this is a problem, she decides to use the rational decision-making model to decide what to do. What might be the next step she takes if she follows this model? A) determining what she needs to take into account when making her decision B) choosing a method to cut her expenses C) weighing the relative importance of each of her expenses D) coming up with different ways that would either reduce her expenses or increase her income E) evaluating different ways that she could use to either reduce her expenses or increase her income Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 42) In the following steps in rational decision making, which would come first? A) Generate alternatives. B) Identify criteria. C) Make a choice. D) Implement the decision. E) Assess the outcome. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations


43) The factors an individual views as important in a decision are assessed in which step in the rational model? A) decision criteria B) developing alternatives C) evaluation of alternatives D) problem definition E) reflection Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 44) Sarah is responsible for purchasing a new computer system for her department. Given the significant financial investment, Sarah has decided to use the rational decision-making model. The first step occurred when Sarah's manager informed her that the old computer system was not able to accommodate the expected customer load. What is this step? A) identifying decision criteria B) defining the problem C) rating each alternative on each criterion D) computing the optimal decision E) creating an agenda Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision-Making AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 45) Sarah is responsible for purchasing a new computer system for her department. Given the significant financial investment, Sarah has decided to use the rational decision-making model. What should Sarah do in the rational decision-making process after she identifies the decision criteria? A) Find out who will be using the computer system, what they need it to be able to do, cost constraints and any other criteria that needs to be taken into account. B) Weight the criteria that must be met by the new system and identify which are simply preferences. C) Find out which systems would fulfill the criteria identified. D) Work out which computer system is the best of all the possible alternatives. E) Select the new computer system that best fits the weighted criteria. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


46) Sarah is responsible for purchasing a new computer system for her department. Given the significant financial investment, Sarah has decided to use the rational decision-making model. What is Sarah doing when she looks at all of the possible computer systems, sees how well that system meets the weighted criteria and then selects the alternative with the highest total score? A) identifying decision criteria B) defining the problem C) rating each alternative on each criterion D) computing the optimal decision E) modifying her decision criteria Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 47) Which is not one of the steps in the rational decision-making model? A) defining the problem B) identifying the decision criteria C) rating the alternatives D) computing the decision alternatives E) selecting the best alternative Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 48) Which of the following is an assumption of the rational decision-making model? A) The decision maker has unlimited time to make the decision. B) The decision criteria are flexible. C) The decision maker can identify all the relevant criteria in an unbiased way. D) The decision maker is aware of all the possible consequences of each alternative. E) The decision maker does not have complete information. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 49) MeltonCorp has installed a new email system, but many staff do not know of its features. Upper management decides to allocate a small portion of the company's budget to solving this problem. A team that uses rational decision making to arrive at a solution should be aware that this case deviates from the assumptions of the rational decision-making model in what way? A) There are constraints on the options available to them. B) There are cost constraints. C) The options available to the team are not known. D) The problem is not clearly defined. E) There is a lack of strong leadership. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 80 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

50) Decision makers construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. That is, they operate within the confines of ________. A) optimal decision making B) intuitive decision making C) bounded rationality D) rationality E) common sense Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 51) How is the satisficing decision maker best characterized? A) as using rationality B) as using bounded rationality C) as affected by anchoring bias D) as using creativity E) as relying on others to make decisions Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 52) Why do people satisfice? A) Resource restraints usually prevent people from entertaining all the options possible. B) Solutions that solve a problem, even if they are not the best solution, are generally satisfactory. C) Any solution that solves a problem will be considered to be acceptable if the other possible options are not explored. D) In general, people lack the motivation to perform rational decision-making fully. E) The limited information-processing capability of human beings makes it impossible to assimilate and understand all the information necessary to optimize. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 53) Which of the following statements concerning intuition is NOT true? A) Decision-makers' use of intuition is irrational and ineffective. B) Relying on intuition can improve decision making. C) Care must be taken not to rely too much on intuition. D) Intuition should be supplemented with evidence and good judgment. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations


54) What is the unconscious process created out of distilled experience? A) rational problem-solving B) bounded rationality C) intuitive decision-making D) randomness E) creativity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 55) You are part of a group making a decision about whether it is appropriate to discontinue research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous data. Your experience tells you that this project has merit. What form of decision-making are you using if you decide to continue the project on this basis? A) compulsive B) intuitive C) rational D) satisficing E) compelling Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 56) Which of the following conditions would probably not lead to intuitive decision making? A) Time is limited and there is pressure to come up with the right decision. B) Facts don't clearly point the way to go. C) There is a high level of certainty. D) There are several plausible solutions from which to choose. E) People are feeling pressured to make a decision. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


57) Where is overconfidence most likely to surface? A) outside your area of expertise B) in your area of expertise C) with more education and training D) among higher wage earners E) among older workers Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 58) Which decision making bias is particularly likely when negotiating salary? A) confirmation bias B) anchoring bias C) availability bias D) overconfidence bias Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 59) You are part of a group making a decision about whether it is appropriate to discontinue research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous data. Well after you have started trying to make a decision, new information comes to light that implies that the drug may be able to be synthesized much more cheaply than was previously thought. Which error in decision making should your group be especially aware of? A) anchoring bias B) overconfidence bias C) confirmation bias D) availability bias E) representative bias Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


60) What do we call the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that they can easily obtain? A) representative bias B) availability bias C) confirmation bias D) anchoring bias E) principality Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 61) What is the term used for an increased commitment to a previous decision in spite of negative information? A) escalation of commitment B) hindsight C) satisficing D) representative E) rose-colored-glasses Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 62) You are part of a group making a decision about whether it is appropriate to discontinue research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous data. The group decides to continue the project so that all the resources already spent on it will not have been wasted. In this case the group has done which of the following? A) used the availability bias B) used the anchoring bias C) made an escalation of commitment D) satisficed E) made the ultimate attribution error Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


63) When one "throws good money after bad," which judgment bias is present? A) escalation of commitment B) hindsight C) satisficing D) representative E) rose-colored glasses Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 64) Which decision making bias reduces our ability to learn from the past? A) hindsight bias B) escalation of commitment C) overconfidence bias D) anchoring bias Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 65) All of the following are considered organizational constraints on managerial decision making EXCEPT A) performance evaluation criteria B) reward systems C) historical precedents D) lack of deadlines Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 40-41 Topic: Organizational Constraints on Decision Making 66) When the budget committee of a major university determines this year's budget on last year's, their decision making is constrained by A) performance evaluation criteria B) reward systems C) historical precedents D) lack of deadlines Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Organizational Constraints on Decision Making AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


67) Which of the following terms involves making decisions so as to provide the greatest good for the greatest number? A) utilitarianism B) justice C) rights D) satisficing E) humanitarianism Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? 68) You are the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. You have decided that it is important for your group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and you are designing a training program on the subject of ethics. You want to teach the decision criterion that currently dominates business decision-making. Which decision criterion will you teach? A) utilitarian B) justice C) rights D) privilege E) assertion Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 41-42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 69) You are the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. You have decided that it is important for your group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and you are designing a training program on the subject of ethics. You want to teach the decision criterion that currently dominates business decision-making. If you wish to emphasize the importance of making decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges, the focus of your teaching will also be on which of the following? A) utilitarianism B) justice C) rights D) privilege E) service Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41-42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities


70) In making ethical choices, the criterion that requires managers to enforce policies impartially to ensure an equitable distribution of costs and benefits is A) justice B) utilitarianism C) rights D) privilege Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41-42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 71) Which criterion for ethical decision making would protect Sarah if she blew the whistle on her company for illegal dumping? A) utilitarianism B) justice C) rights D) privilege Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 41-42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 72) Susan is involved in making a very important decision for her university. The university is searching for a new president and Susan is a member of the selection committee. She wants to make certain that the best candidate is chosen. Susan wants the committee to produce novel and useful ideas for identifying and selecting the candidate. She has decided she should stimulate ________. A) consensus B) creativity C) diversity D) clarity E) obedience Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 73) What trait does a decision maker need to have if they are to fully appraise a problem and even see problems that others are not aware of? A) creativity B) rationality C) conceptual style D) intuition E) individuality Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 42-43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? 87 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

74) What is creativity's greatest value in decision making? A) identifying the problem B) computing the optimal decision C) allocating weights to the alternatives D) helping identify all viable alternatives E) generating consensus Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 42-43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 75) People who score high on which personality dimension are more likely to be creative? A) external locus of control B) openness to experience C) risk avoidance D) intolerance for ambiguity E) Machiavellianism Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 76) What should Susan avoid doing if she is to encourage creativity in her committee? A) encourage the flow of ideas B) judge ideas fairly and constructively C) sharply define the problem to be solved D) give rewards and recognition for creative work E) support the committee Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 43-44 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 77) Gene is regarded by his peers as an extremely creative designer of watercraft. He attributes much of his success to his family: he was raised by a traditional boat builder and from a very early age was surrounded by boats and the people who made them. To what element of the threecomponent model of creativity does Gene attribute his success? A) intuitiveness B) insight C) intrinsic task motivation D) expertise E) creative thinking skills Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


78) What is the segment of the three-component model of creativity that is the foundation for all creative work? A) expertise B) creative thinking skills C) intrinsic task motivation D) intuition E) realization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 79) What segment of the three-component model of creativity encompasses personality characteristics that are associated with imagination? A) expertise B) creative thinking skills C) intrinsic task motivation D) intuition E) realization Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? 80) What is the segment in the three-component model of creativity that turns creative potential into actual creative ideas? A) expertise B) creative thinking skills C) intrinsic task motivation D) intuition E) realization Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43-44 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? 81) If Joseph wants to be more creative, research suggests that he should A) do things that make him happy. B) listen to music he enjoys. C) socialize with others. D) all of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


82) Even though attribution theory was developed largely based on experiments with US and western European workers, A) attribution theory predictions hold true across the globe in all cultures. B) attribution theory predictions are not reliable outside the US and western Europe. C) caution is suggested in making predictions in collectivist traditions. D) a study of Korean managers suggested that attribution theory predictions are especially reliable in Asian cultures. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 83) All of the following statements concerning decision making are true EXCEPT A) The rational decision making model makes no acknowledgment of cultural differences. B) The cultural background of a decision maker does not influence the decision making process. C) While there are reasons to believe that cultural differences influence decision making, there is not much research to substantiate this belief. D) The collectivist nature of the Japanese culture influences managers to make more group oriented decision than their US counterparts. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 44-45 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) Criteria defining right and wrong A) are much clearer in the West than in Asia. B) are highly ambiguous across the world. C) are much clearer in Asia than in the West. D) do not exist. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 45 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 85) To improve their decision making, managers should do all of the following EXCEPT A) Enhance their creativity. B) Be aware of biases, then try to minimize their impact. C) Use rational analysis and avoid intuition. D) Analyze the situation. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 45-46 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


86) Perception refers to the way we organize and interpret the world around us. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 32 Topic: What Is Perception? 87) The reality of a situation is what is behaviorally important. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 32 Topic: What Is Perception? 88) Individuals involved in the same situation will usually perceive that situation similarly. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 89) When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 90) Personal characteristics affecting perception include the time at which an object or event is seen. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 91) An individual's expectations have little effect on perception. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 92) Expectations can distort your perceptions in that you will see what you did not expect. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 93) The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception of that target. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 94) Elements in the surrounding environment are ignored in our perceptions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 91 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

95) Our perceptions and judgments of others' actions will seldom be influenced by the assumptions we make about their internal states. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 96) Attribution theory looks at the internal and external causes of behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 97) Assigning an external cause for a person's behavior means you assume that the individual is responsible for his or her own behavior. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33-34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 98) James is consistently late to work, is the source of regular complaints by his co-workers, and produces low quality work. His manager is most likely, then, to give the behavior an external attribution. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 33-34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 99) In attribution theory, "distinctiveness" refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 100) In attribution theory, "consensus" refers to whether an individual displays similar behaviors in similar situations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 101) The more consistent the behavior, the more the observer is inclined to attribute it to internal causes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 34 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


102) The tendency for individuals to attribute their successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors is called the fundamental attribution error. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 103) The self-serving bias explains why a sales manager is prone to attribute the poor performance of her sales agents to laziness rather than to the innovative product line introduced by a competitor. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 104) The self-serving bias suggests that feedback provided to employees in performance reviews is very likely to be distorted by recipients. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 105) Selective perception allows us to "speed read" others with a high degree of accuracy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 106) The halo effect occurs because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 107) An individual's place in the interview schedule may affect the interviewer's evaluation of the applicant. This is an example of the halo effect. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 108) A job candidate is likely to receive a more favorable evaluation if preceded by mediocre or poor applicants. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 109) When you are judging someone based upon your perception of a group to which he belongs, you are guilty of selective perception. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 35-36 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


110) Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are generally accurate during an employment interview. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 36 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 111) Awareness that a problem exists and that a decision needs to be made is an analytical issue. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 36 Topic: The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision-Making 112) One person's problem may be considered by another person to be a satisfactory state of affairs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 36 Topic: The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision-Making 113) The perceptions of the decision makers will determine what data is even relevant to the decision. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 36 Topic: The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision-Making 114) If a decision maker chooses not to identify some factor as a decision criterion in step two of the decision-making process, it is considered irrelevant to the process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 115) The rational decision-making model assumes that the decision maker has complete information. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 116) The rational decision-making model assumes that the alternative that yields the highest utility will be chosen. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 117) The intuitive decision-making model assumes the problem is clear and unambiguous. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations


118) All rational decision makers can be expected to identify and select the same problems to solve. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 37 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 119) Most decisions in the business world follow the rational model. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 120) The bounded rationality model assumes that the decision maker will complicate the problem. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 121) The bounded rationality model uses previously tried-and-true solutions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 122) To optimize an outcome, the bounded-rational decision-making process should be used. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 123) A satisficing solution is satisfactory but not sufficient. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 124) Intuition occurs outside conscious thought and usually engages emotions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 125) Intuitive decision making is a conscious process created out of experience. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 126) Intuitive decision analysis must operate independently of rational analysis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 95 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

127) The anchoring bias is always experienced any time a negotiation occurs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 128) As managers become more knowledgeable about an issue, the less likely they are to display overconfidence. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 129) The confirmation bias is a specific case of anchoring. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 130) The availability bias is the tendency for people to base judgments on information that is readily available to them. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 39 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 131) Jackson continues to put money into car repair even though he knows the car is a "lemon." This is an example of the availability bias. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 132) It has been well documented that individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 133) The hindsight bias reduces our ability to learn from the past. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 134) Organizations can constrain decision makers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 40-41 Topic: Organizational Constraints on Decision Making


135) By programming decisions, organizations limit the decision-maker's choice. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 41 Topic: Organizational Constraints on Decision Making AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 136) Utilitarianism dominates business decision making. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 41 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 137) The justice criterion for decision making requires that individuals impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 138) Most people do not have creative potential. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 139) Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? 140) The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity requires expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making?


141) Discuss the three primary factors that operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. Answer: A number of factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver, in the object or target being perceived, or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver. Personal characteristics affecting perception include his or her attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Characteristics of the target being observed can affect what is perceived. The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as does our tendency to group close things and similar things together. The context in which we see objects or events is also important. The time at which an object or event is seen can influence attention, as can location, light, heat, or any number of other factors. Page Ref: 33 Topic: What Is Perception? 142) Contrast the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias. Answer: When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we have a tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error. There is also a tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors such as ability or effort while putting the blame for failure on external factors such as bad luck or unproductive coworkers. This is called the self-serving bias. Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 143) Discuss the influence of the contrast effect in the interviewing process. Answer: The contrast effect can distort perceptions. Since people are not evaluated in isolation, our reaction to a person is influenced by others we have recently encountered. Interviewers can make distortions as a result of a candidate's placement in the interview schedule. An applicant that follows mediocre applicants is likely to be perceived more favorably . The reverse is also true. Page Ref: 35 Topic: Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others


144) Outline the six steps in the rational decision-making model. Answer: The rational decision-making model begins by defining the problem. Once a decision maker has defined the problem, he or she needs to identify the decision criteria that will be important in solving the problem. That is, the decision maker determines what is relevant in making the decision. The third step requires the decision maker to weight the previously identified criteria in order to give them the correct priority in the decision. The fourth step requires the decision maker to generate possible alternatives that could succeed in resolving the problem. Once the alternatives have been generated, the decision maker must critically analyze and evaluate each one. This is done by rating each alternative on each criterion. The final step requires computing the optimal decision. This is done by evaluating each alternative against the weighted criteria and selecting the alternative with the highest total score. Page Ref: 37 and Exh 3-2 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 145) How is bounded rationality related to decision making? Answer: Since the capacity of the human mind for formulating and solving complex problems is far too small to meet the requirements for full rationality, individuals operate within the confines of bounded rationality. They construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. Individuals can then behave rationally within the limits of the simple model. Once the limited set of alternatives is identified, the decision maker will begin reviewing it. But the review will not be comprehensive. Instead, the decision maker will begin with alternatives that differ only in a relatively small degree from the choice currently in effect. Following along familiar and well-worn paths, the decision maker proceeds to review alternatives only until he or she identifies an alternative that is "good enough." The first alternative that meets the "good enough" criterion ends the search. So the final solution represents a satisficing choice rather than an optimum one. Page Ref: 37-38 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations


146) List and explain six biases in decision making. Answer: Overconfidence Bias. When we're given factual questions and asked to judge the probability that our answers are correct, we tend to be far too optimistic. Anchoring Bias. The anchoring bias is a tendency to fixate on initial information as a starting point. Once set, we then fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information. The anchoring bias occurs because our mind appears to give a disproportionate amount of emphasis to the first information it receives. So initial impressions, ideas, prices, and estimates carry undue weight relative to information received later. Confirmation Bias. The rational decision-making process assumes that we objectively gather information. But we don't. We selectively gather information. The confirmation bias represents a specific case of selective perception. We seek out information that reaffirms our past choices, and we discount information that contradicts past judgments. Availability Bias. This is the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them. Events that evoke emotions, that are particularly vivid, or that have occurred more recently tend to be more available in our memory. As a result, we tend to be prone to overestimating unlikely events like an airplane crash. The availability bias can also explain why managers, when doing annual performance appraisals, tend to give more weight to recent behaviors of an employee than those behaviors of six or nine months ago. Escalation of Commitment Error. This refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence that it's wrong. Individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. Escalation of commitment is also congruent with evidence that people try to appear consistent in what they say and do. Increasing commitment to previous actions conveys consistency. Hindsight Bias. The hindsight bias is the tendency for us to believe falsely that we'd have accurately predicted the outcome of an event, after that outcome is actually known. When something happens and we have accurate feedback on the outcome, we seem to be pretty good at concluding that this outcome was relatively obvious. Page Ref: 39-40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations 147) Define the term escalation of commitment and provide an example. Answer: A bias that creeps into decisions is a tendency to escalate commitment when a decision stream represents a series of decisions. Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence that it is wrong. Individuals tend to escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure. For example, a poor product was rolled out and continued to lose money. Rather than pulling the plug and cutting the organizations losses, the product continued to be offered. Page Ref: 40 Topic: Decision Making in Organizations AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


148) Discuss some of the ways in which an organization constrains decision makers. Answer: Managers are strongly influenced in their decision making by the criteria by which they are evaluated. The organization's reward system influences decision makers by suggesting to them what choices are preferable in terms of personal payoff. Rules, policies, procedures, and other formalized regulations standardize behavior of organizational members. By programming decisions, organizations are able to get individuals to achieve high levels of performance without paying for the years of experience that would be necessary in the absence of regulations. Organizations impose deadlines on decisions. These conditions create time pressures on decision makers and often make it difficult, if not impossible, to gather all the information they might like to have before making a final choice. Decisions have a context. Decisions made in the past are ghosts which continually haunt current choices. Choices made today, therefore, are largely a result of choices made over the years. Page Ref: 40-41 Topic: Organizational Constraints on Decision Making 149) Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making. Answer: There are three different criteria in making ethical choices. The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends to dominate business decision making. Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals. A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs. Page Ref: 41-42 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making? 150) Discuss the three-component model of creativity. Answer: The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity essentially requires expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation. Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. The potential for creativity is enhanced when individuals have abilities, knowledge, proficiencies, and similar expertise in their field of endeavor. The second component is creative-thinking skills. This encompasses personality characteristics associated with creativity, the ability to use analogies, as well as the talent to see the familiar in a different light. The final component is intrinsic task motivation. This is the desire to work on something because it is interesting, involving, exciting, satisfying, or personally challenging. This motivational component is what turns creativity potential into actual creative ideas. It determines the extent to which individuals fully engage their expertise and creative skills. Page Ref: 43 Topic: What About Ethics in Decision Making?


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 4 Job Attitudes 1) Which of the following is the best definition of attitudes? A) Attitudes indicate how one will react to a given event. B) Attitudes are the yardstick by which one measures one's actions. C) Attitudes are the emotional part of an evaluation of some person, object or event. D) Attitudes are evaluative statements of what one believes about something or someone. E) Attitudes are a measure of how the worth of an object, person or event is evaluated. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 47 Topic: Attitudes 2) The belief that "violence is wrong" is an descriptive statement. Such an opinion constitutes the ________ component of an attitude. A) cognitive B) affective C) reflective D) behavioral E) reactive Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 3) What are the three components of an attitude? A) cognitive, behavioral, and dissonant B) cognitive, affective, and behavioral C) dissonant, affective, and behavioral D) behavioral, affective, and correspondent E) correspondent, cognitive, and affective Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes 4) The ________ component of an attitude is the emotional or feeling component of that attitude. A) affective B) cognitive C) behavioral D) evaluative E) reaffective Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes


5) Jan is a security officer. Jan believes that it is important to know exactly who is in the office at any given time. She notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they take lunch, which makes it impossible to keep track of who is actually in the office. Jan becomes frustrated with those employees. She makes note of them and reports them to their supervisors. What is the behavioral component of Jan's attitude to the employees who did not sign out of the office? A) Jan believes that it is important that she know exactly who is in the office at any given time. B) Jan notices that some employees do not sign out of the office when they take lunch. C) Jan finds it impossible to keep track of who is actually in the office. D) Jan becomes frustrated with those employees who do not sign out of the office. E) Jan notes which employees leave the office without signing out, and reports them to their supervisors. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 6) Which of the following is an example of the affective component of an attitude? A) Satisfaction with a job well done. B) The observation that most dogs have four legs. C) The opinion that it is never acceptable to steal. D) Anger at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing. E) The avoidance of a restaurant where one once received bad service. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 7) Which of these actions are the most likely to be taken by Sarah if she behaves in a way that is inconsistent with an attitude that she holds? A) Change the behavior. B) Change the attitude. C) Rationalize the behavior. D) Ignore the inconsistency. E) All of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


8) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in ________. A) organizational dissonance B) cognitive dissonance C) attitudinal clarification D) values clarification E) affective reactance Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 9) When there are inconsistencies between attitudes or between behavior and attitudes, individuals will attempt to A) increase their job-related social relationships. B) confront their supervisor. C) reduce their job involvement. D) reduce dissonance. E) increase their job satisfaction Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 10) The primary organizational implication of cognitive dissonance theory is that it helps to predict ________. A) overall job satisfaction for employees B) the likelihood of a given employee engaging in impression management C) the overall level to which the workforce will accept gender, racial or other types of bias D) the willingness of the workforce to accept company rules and work practices E) the inclination towards attitude and behavioral change of the workforce Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by ________. A) Maslow B) Festinger C) Hofstede D) Skinner E) Pavlov Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes


12) "Dissonance" means ________. A) reactance B) constance C) resistance D) consistency E) inconsistency Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 13) Leon Festinger argued that ________ follow(s) ________. A) behavior; job satisfaction B) behavior; attitude C) attitudes; behavior D) attitudes; job satisfaction E) job satisfaction; behavior Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 14) If Joe knows that stealing from the company is wrong, but he continues to take paper for his computer home fro his son's homework, Festinger would argue that Joe is experiencing A) deviant work behaviors. B) cognitive dissonance. C) a poor conscience. D) job dissatisfaction E) disengagement Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 15) Festinger argued that dissonance is ________. Therefore, people will attempt to reduce it. A) monotonous B) confounding C) physically painful D) exhausting E) uncomfortable Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes


16) Jo is a courier, delivering parcels throughout the metropolitan area. Although she considers herself law abiding, she often breaks the speed limit while making her deliveries. Which of the following statements does not reflect a likely response to the conflict between her attitude and her behavior? A) "It's not a problem that I speed a little bit, it's not much over the limit, and everyone else speeds some." B) "The speed limits are just too low around here; anyone driving at a reasonable speed will break them." C) "This speeding is irresponsible. From now on I am observing the speed limits." D) "I've got to drive fast sometimes, otherwise I will not make all my deliveries and I'll lose clients." E) "It's wrong to break even minor laws, but I'll probably keep speeding anyway." Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 17) According to Festinger, people will seek a(n) ________. A) variable state with variable dissonance B) stable state with maximal dissonance C) unstable state with maximal dissonance D) unstable state with minimal dissonance E) stable state with minimal dissonance Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 18) Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that it is important that workers' rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Mrs. Jonas is likely experiencing ________. A) cognitive dissonance B) unresolved anger C) ethical evasion D) uncertainty avoidance E) social pressure Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


19) Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Mrs. Jonas is experiencing cognitive dissonance. In this situation Mrs. Jonas has a(n) ________ that is in conflict with a(n) ________. A) behavior; behavior B) attitude; attitude C) social need; social interest D) social need; social need E) behavior; attitude Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 20) Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. It is safe to say that this wouldn't be a problem if Mrs. Jonas was ________. A) a worker rather than a supervisor B) working for the construction company C) more of an ethical character D) an undocumented worker E) indifferent to workers' rights Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


21) Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Mrs. Jonas comes to you for an explanation of why she is so uncomfortable. You might refer her to the theories of ________. A) Hofstede B) Maslow C) Skinner D) Festinger E) Surber Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 22) Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that it is important that worker's rights be respected, and that one of the more important ways of doing this is to ensure that all workers be properly documented. She is supervising a contracting company that is building a new warehouse for her company. While doing this she discovers that many of the workers employed by the contractor are undocumented aliens working for well below minimum wage. Mrs. Jonas can be expected to relieve the discomfort she is experiencing by engaging in which of the following behaviors? A) deciding this issue is unimportant B) rationalizing that it is not her problem since she is not the contractor C) attempting to stop the contractor using undocumented workers D) coming to accept that using undocumented workers does not harm workers' rights E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 23) Festinger proposed that the desire to reduce dissonance is determined by three factors including the ________. A) values of the elements creating the dissonance B) degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over the elements C) degree of positive affect the person has toward the behavior D) fact that values and attitudes will vary over the short term E) awareness that dissonance exists Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes


24) Which of the following is not a moderating variable of the attitude-behavior relationship? A) direct experience B) correspondence to behavior C) power D) accessibility E) importance Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 25) The attitude-behavior relationship is likely to be much stronger if the attitude ________. A) refers to something that the individual has direct personal experience with B) must be defended against the attitudes of society at large C) is perceived to be of little importance D) is related to organizational structure E) is not regularly discussed and examined Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 26) The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth is ________. A) job satisfaction B) job involvement C) job stability D) organizational commitment E) social embeddedness Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 27) A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds A) positive attitudes toward the job. B) negative attitudes toward the job. C) positive attitudes toward the organization. D) negative attitudes toward the organization. E) indifferent attitudes toward both the organization and the job. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes


28) ________ refers to an individual's general attitude toward his or her job. A) Job satisfaction B) Job involvement C) Job stability D) Organizational commitment E) Social investment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 29) Which of the following statements would have been most likely made by an employee with a high degree of job involvement? A) "My skills make me exceptionally valuable to the company." B) "I'm a harder worker than most of my colleagues, even to the degree I am carrying some of the lazier ones." C) "It felt great to get promoted; I guess the guys upstairs really did appreciate the way I had been running things." D) "I love my job, it is engaging, well-paid, and low pressure enough that I don't have to be always worrying about it in my time off." E) "I enjoy working with my hands, so much so that on the days when my job requires me to actually physically build something time flies by without me even noticing it." Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 30) In her work in the publishing industry, Vera seeks out new authors who she considers promising. In the past two years she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional, and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. Vera believes that the decision not to publish these authors was based on personal rivalries within management, rather than the quality of her writers' work. She is extremely frustrated, dreads coming into work each morning and is seriously thinking of resigning. How can Vera's job attitudes best be described? A) low job satisfaction and low job involvement B) low job satisfaction and high job involvement C) high job satisfaction and low job involvement D) high job satisfaction and high job involvement E) low organizational commitment Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


31) OB research has focused on all of the following attitudes EXCEPT A) job satisfaction. B) job involvement. C) employee engagement. D) perceived organizational support. E) employee turnover Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 32) Job satisfaction is best described as ________. A) a result B) a value C) an attitude D) causing high performance E) a valued discipline Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 33) The following answer choices are quotes from employees about their job at Healthy Eating, a chain of health food stores. Which quote most likely comes from an employee who has a great deal of organizational commitment? A) "I am a great believer in the importance of a healthy diet, so I'm glad I am working for a company that is trying to make simple, healthy food available to all." B) "I like the fact that in my role as a buyer for Healthy Eating I get to make choices about which food is good enough for us to sell." C) "Even though I only work in the produce department for now, it's good to know that the suggestions I make about how the store could be improved are heard and considered by my managers." D) "The challenging nature of the work and the thoughtful and generous way they treat their staff has made Healthy Eating the best place I have ever worked." E) "With the benefits it provides, it is vital for me to keep my job. In fact, I will stay with Healthy Eating for as long as I possibly can." Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


34) Organizational commitment is defined as ________. A) the degree to which an employee identifies with the organization they work for and its goals B) an employee's belief that the organization they work for will go to considerable lengths to ensure that its employees are treated fairly C) the degree to which an employee's sense of fulfillment and self-worth is related to their job D) the amount of effort an employee will make in order to keep or advance their position in an organization E) the degree to which an employee believes their work impacts their organization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 35) Sam works for the SPCA because of their involvement with animals. He is demonstrating which dimension to organization commitment? A) general organizational commitment B) affective commitment C) continuance commitment D) normative commitment E) involvement commitment Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 36) Which dimension to organizational commitment is reflected in the perceived economic value of remaining with an organization compared to leaving it? A) general organizational commitment B) affective commitment C) continuance commitment D) normative commitment Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 37) Which dimension to organizational commitment describes an employee who is "tethered" to an employer simply because there isn't anything better available? A) general organizational commitment B) affective commitment C) normative commitment D) continuance commitment Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes


38) Of the following, the best predictor of turnover is ________. A) job satisfaction B) job involvement C) affective commitment D) cognitive dissonance E) affective dissonance Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes 39) High levels of job involvement are related A) positively to organizational citizenship. B) negatively to absences. C) positively to job performance. D) negatively to resignation rates. E) all of the above. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes 40) High job involvement means identifying with ________, while high organizational commitment means identifying with ________. A) your employing organization; your specific job B) your specific job; your employing organization C) your profession; your specific job D) your co-workers; your specific job E) your specific job; your co-workers Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes 41) The degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and cares about their well-being is known as A) employee engagement. B) job involvement. C) perceived organizational support. D) job satisfaction. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes


42) What can a manager do to ensure his employees perceive the organization as supportive? A) Ensure rewards are deemed fair. B) Allow employees a voice in decisions. C) Provide a participative environment. D) Provide support for employees. E) All of the above. Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 43) An individual's involvement with, satisfaction with, and enthusiasm for the work he performs is known as A) employee engagement. B) job involvement. C) loyalty. D) job satisfaction. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52-53 Topic: Attitudes 44) Those employees who have been described as "retired on the job" are considered A) dissatisfied. B) disengaged. C) disloyal. D) uninvolved. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52-53 Topic: Attitudes 45) Which of the following is NOT generally found in businesses whose employees have highaverage levels of engagement? A) higher levels of customer satisfaction B) higher levels of productivity C) higher profits D) higher turnover E) lower accident rates Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


46) "It is suggested that with a weakening of the loyalty of employers to employees (and viceversa) in today's workplace, organizational commitment may be replaced with ________ commitment." A) family B) occupational C) hierarchical D) department E) socially stratified Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 53 Topic: Job Satisfaction 47) What are the most widely used approaches to measuring job satisfaction? A) engagement surveys B) a single global rating and a summation score C) supervision and pay ratings D) standardized job involvement surveys Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54 Topic: Job Satisfaction 48) Which of the following might be a typical element in a job used to measure job satisfaction? A) nature of the work B) supervision C) present pay D) promotion opportunity E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54 Topic: Job Satisfaction 49) Which of the following statements is NOT true about job satisfaction ? A) More workers are satisfied with their jobs overall than are dissatisfied. B) U.S. trends are generally applicable to other developed countries, C) Employees tend to be most satisfied by the work itself. D) Rate of pay is strongly correlated with job satisfaction for almost all workers. E) Employees tend to be least satisfied with pay and promotion opportunities. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 54 Topic: Job Satisfaction


50) Which major job-satisfaction facet is the one most strongly correlated with high levels of overall job satisfaction? A) advancement opportunity B) pay C) enjoying the work D) supervision Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 55 Topic: Job Satisfaction 51) All of the following are true about pay and job satisfaction EXCEPT A) For people who are poor, pay correlates with job satisfaction. B) Once an individual; reaches a level of comfortable living, pay correlates highly with job satisfaction. C) People in the U.S. who earn $75,000 experience no greater levels of job satisfaction than those who earn $40,000. D) There is no relationship between average pay and average level of job satisfaction. E) The richest people on the Forbes 400 list do not have significantly higher overall well-being scores than Maasai herdsmen in East Africa. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55-56 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 52) The exit-voice-loyalty framework aids in understanding the consequences of A) pay. B) low motivation. C) dissatisfaction. D) lack of loyalty. E) low levels of employee engagement. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56 Topic: Job Satisfaction 53) Which response is demonstrated when Joe speaks up to support his company's actions even when the local newspaper is criticizing them? A) exit response B) voice response C) loyalty response D) neglect response E) performance response Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


54) When Joe responds to his dissatisfaction with his job by discussing his problems with his manager, he is using which response? A) exit response. B) voice response. C) loyalty response. D) neglect response. E) performance response. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 55) Which responses to dissatisfaction allow individuals to tolerate unpleasant situations? A) exit and neglect responses. B) neglect and loyalty responses. C) voice and neglect responses. D) voice and loyalty responses. E) exit and voice responses. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 56) When union members express dissatisfaction through the grievance procedure, this allows them to continue in their jobs while convincing themselves they are acting to improve the situation. Which response is being used? A) exit response B) voice response C) loyalty response D) neglect response E) performance response Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 57) Which of the following is NOT a response to dissatisfaction? A) exit response B) voice response C) loyalty response D) neglect response E) performance response Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


58) Which of the following is NOT true? A) Organizations with more satisfied employees tend to be more effective than organizations with fewer satisfied employees. B) Making workers happy causes higher levels of productivity. C) Happy workers are likely to be productive workers. D) The relationship between job satisfaction and job performance is no longer considered a myth. E) Job satisfaction is a determinant of OCB. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Job Satisfaction 59) In which facet of job satisfaction are people least satisfied? A) work itself B) pay and promotion opportunities C) job overall D) supervisor E) coworkers Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 4-2 Topic: Job Satisfaction 60) Evidence suggests that job satisfaction A) creates productive workers. B) is unrelated to performance. C) is the major determinant of a worker's OCB. D) is unrelated to fairness of outcomes, treatments or procedures. E) is caused by high pay. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Job Satisfaction 61) Early studies of organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) assumed that it was closely linked with satisfaction. More recent evidence suggests that satisfaction influences OCB, but through perceptions of ________. A) fairness B) consistency C) productivity D) leadership ability E) out marketing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Job Satisfaction


62) Which of the following statements are true? A) Employee satisfaction is related to positive customer outcomes for those employees with regular customer contact. B) Satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction. C) Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee's job dissatisfaction. D) Satisfied employees increase customer loyalty. E) All of the above. Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction 63) Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. B) Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee's job dissatisfaction. C) In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how frontline employees deal with customers. D) Satisfied employees are likely to be more productive. E) The most effective way to improve job satisfaction is a raise in pay. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction 64) Why do satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction? A) Satisfied employees are more likely to be friendly. B) Satisfied employees are less prone to turnover. C) Customer satisfaction and loyalty are built with employees who customers are familiar with. D) Customer retention is highly dependent on their interactions with front line employees. E) All of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 65) Service-oriented businesses like Southwest Airlines obsess about pleasing customers. To accomplish this end, they also focus on A) providing the best benefits to employees. B) building employee satisfaction. C) paying the highest salaries. D) offering flextime. E) offering tuition reimbursement Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction


66) To focus on building a service-oriented business, companies might do all of the following EXCEPT A) hire upbeat, friendly employees. B) provide training in customer service. C) conduct external pay surveys. D) reward customer service. E) track employee satisfaction through attitude surveys. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 67) Which company was the focus of a study on how satisfaction directly leads to attendance? A) Neiman Marcus B) Southwest C) Sears D) Macy's E) Four Seasons Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 58-59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 68) What did the study of Sears employees that examined satisfaction and absenteeism find? A) Workers with high satisfaction scores had much higher attendance than those with lower satisfaction levels. B) Workers with high satisfaction scores had much lower attendance during snow storms. C) Workers with low satisfaction scores had much higher attendance than those with higher satisfaction levels. D) There was no relationship between satisfaction and attendance. E) Even satisfied employees will experience high absenteeism during snow storms. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 58-59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 69) Job satisfaction is negatively related to A) turnover. B) absenteeism. C) customer satisfaction. D) turnover and absenteeism. E) turnover and customer satisfaction. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 58-59 Topic: Job Satisfaction


70) Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism? A) There is a consistent positive relationship between the two. B) There is a consistent, moderate negative relationship between the two. C) There is a curvilinear relationship between the two. D) When fairness is controlled for, there is a direct relationship between the two. E) No relationship can be established between the two. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58-59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 71) An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the ________. A) employee's level of performance B) organization's culture C) management's style D) employee's values and attitudes E) employee's level of workplace deviance Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 72) Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the employee's level of performance. B) Job satisfaction is more important in influencing superior performers to stay than in influencing poor performers to stay. C) Job satisfaction is more important in influencing poor performers to stay than in influencing superior performers to stay. D) Superior performers are more likely to remain with the organization because of other rewards they receive. E) All of the above. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 73) Which of the following factors is likely to impact the job satisfaction-turnover relationship? A) labor-market conditions B) length of time with the organization C) expectations about alternative job opportunities D) employee's level of performance E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction


74) Which of the following is a predictor of deviant behaviors in the workplace? A) turnover B) absenteeism C) dissatisfaction D) loyalty E) job involvement Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 75) Jason has been spending a great deal of work time talking to his co-workers about how dissatisfied he is with the job. He has spent quite a bit of time discussing unionization. he has arrived at work intoxicated twice in the last week and has repeatedly taken office supplies home with him. His behavior might be classified as A) job enlargement. B) deviant behavior. C) separation anticipation. D) theft. E) cognitive dissonance. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 76) Dissatisfied employees who don't like their jobs will attempt to "get even". This may manifest itself in which of the following behaviors? A) quitting B) surfing the Internet on company time C) stealing from the company D) spending more time socializing on the job E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 77) A study conducted by a management consulting firm found that those companies with higher morale A) experienced a larger growth in their stock prices. B) experienced a larger growth in market share. C) experienced a smaller decrease in their stock prices. D) experienced a smaller decrease in their market share. E) had more dissatisfied employees. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction


78) In a study of large employers, the text reported that ________ percent of senior managers believe the organization treated its employees well and ________ percent of the employees agreed. A) 86; 55 B) 55; 86 C) 55; 55 D) 100; 100 E) 100; 0 Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 79) Survey results highlighting the discrepancy between employee morale as perceived by management and employees themselves suggests that managers need to A) do more to improve employee morale. B) administer salary surveys more frequently. C) care about job satisfaction and then measure it rather than assuming everything is fine. D) treat employee better. E) all of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 80) Which of the following statements about job satisfaction is NOT true? A) Most of the research on job satisfaction has not been conducted in the U.S. B) People in other cultures form judgments of job satisfaction. C) Similar factors cause job satisfaction across cultures. D) Pay is weakly related to job satisfaction in industrialized nations. E) all of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 81) The highest levels of job satisfaction have been reported in A) Japan. B) all the collectivist cultures. C) the U.S. and western Europe. D) western Europe. E) most of Asia. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 4-4 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


82) Higher levels of job satisfaction have been reported in the U.S. and western Europe. This may be because A) individuals in western cultures need to work. B) individuals in western cultures emphasize positive emotions. C) there is more industrialization in western cultures. D) individuals in western cultures are more self-critical and geared toward continuous improvement. E) these are collectivist societies not focused on individual happiness. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 60-61 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 83) Which of the following statements is NOT true about attitudes? A) Managers need to focus more on keeping resignations and absences down than on employees' attitudes. B) Managers should be interested in their employees' attitudes since they give warnings of potential problems. C) Managers should be interested in their employees' attitudes since they influence behavior. D) Measurement of overall job attitude is a useful piece of organizational information. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 61 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 84) Given that managers want to keep resignations and absences at a minimum, they should focus on generating A) positive job attitudes. B) happy employees. C) the highest pay rates. D) the best benefit package. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 61 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 85) The most important thing a manager can do to raise employee satisfaction is to focus on A) employee pay. B) benefits. C) work hours. D) intrinsic parts of the job. E) employee productivity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 Topic: Implications for Managers


86) Attitudes are evaluative statements about objects, people or events that reflect how we feel about something. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47 Topic: Attitudes 87) When Sarah says "I don't like Paris Hilton", she is expressing an attitude. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 88) Attitudes are often concrete matters of fact. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 47 Topic: Attitudes 89) Attitudes and values are synonymous terms. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes 90) There are three components of an attitude: cognition, affect, and behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes 91) The intent to act in a certain way is the affective component of an attitude. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes 92) It is often difficult to separate cognition, affect, and behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 48 Topic: Attitudes 93) In organizations, attitudes are important because they affect job behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 94) Festinger argued that behavior follows attitudes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes


95) Research has concluded that people seek consistency among their attitudes but not between their attitudes and behavior. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 96) According to Festinger, people seek consistency among their attitudes and between attitudes and behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 97) If dissonance arises over behavior that people are compelled to take, then their propensity to act to reduce that dissonance is reduced. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 98) The theory of cognitive dissonance seeks to explain the linkage between values and attitudes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 99) Festinger argued that individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 100) If there is an inconsistency between an individual's attitude on a specific issue and his or her behavior, there are only two courses of action availablealter the attitude or alter the behavior. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49 Topic: Attitudes 101) Recent research shows that attitudes predict future behavior and refute Festinger's belief about moderating variables. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 49-50 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 102) Cognitive dissonance helps to explain the linkage between attitudes and behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 49-50 Topic: Attitudes


103) The desire to reduce dissonance between attitude and behavior is in general not moderated by outside factors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 104) If the elements creating dissonance are relatively unimportant, the pressure to correct this imbalance will be low. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 105) If individuals perceive the dissonance to be an uncontrollable result, they will be more motivated to reduce dissonance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 106) Rewards can offset dissonance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 107) The more specific the attitude and the more specific the behavior, the stronger the link between the two. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 108) Moderating variables in the attitude behavior relationship include the importance of the attitude, its applicability, its accessibility, social pressures, and direct experience with the attitude. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 50 Topic: Attitudes 109) A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 110) Jane strongly identifies with her teaching job and regularly communicates how much she cares about her work. She has a high level of job involvement. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 127 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

111) Job involvement refers to an individual's general attitude toward his or her job. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 112) High levels of job involvement are positively related to higher absences. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 51 Topic: Attitudes 113) An organizational commitment to remain with a company because of moral or ethical obligations is affective commitment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51-52 Topic: Attitudes 114) Organizational commitment is a more global response to the organization than is job satisfaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51-52 Topic: Attitudes 115) Organizational commitment is a measure of the personal compatibility of a person and their position. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 51-52 Topic: Attitudes 116) Organizational commitment is probably less important in predicting job satisfaction today than it was a generation ago. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes 117) Occupational commitment may be more relevant today because it better reflects today's fluid workforce. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52 Topic: Attitudes 118) The degree to which employees believe the organization values their contribution and care and their well-being is known as employee engagement. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 52-53 Topic: Attitudes


119) Disengaged employees have "checked out" and have been described as "retired on the job". Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 52-53 Topic: Attitudes 120) Research has shown that people who have a negative personality are usually less satisfied with their jobs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54 Topic: Attitudes 121) When measuring job satisfaction, the research has supported the summation score approach. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54 Topic: Job Satisfaction 122) Overall, studies over the past 30 years indicated that workers in the U.S. are generally more satisfied with their jobs than dissatisfied. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 54-55 Topic: Job Satisfaction 123) Of the major job-satisfaction facets, the one most strongly correlated with high levels of overall job satisfaction is pay. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55 Topic: Job Satisfaction 124) Individuals who are more highly compensated generally have higher average job satisfaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 55-56 Topic: Job Satisfaction 125) The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework helps us understand why employees are disengaged from their jobs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction 126) The loyalty response to job dissatisfaction involves passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction


127) When dissatisfied employees still remain with the organization, it might be explained by the voice and loyalty response. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 128) At the individual level, satisfaction generally leads to productivity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Job Satisfaction 129) If Marie is more satisfied with her job, we might expect her to engage in more OCBs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 57 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 130) The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction 131) Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee's job dissatisfaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 132) There is a strong negative relationship between job satisfaction and absenteeism. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction 133) The propensity to quit a job tends to be inversely related to job satisfaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 134) Your supervisor is trying to assess the degree to which those working for her are satisfied with their jobs. You are trying to gather information from your peers that might help her in her aim to improve job satisfaction. She will find that turnover and absenteeism are both negatively related to satisfaction, but the correlation is stronger for absenteeism than for turnover. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 58-59 Topic: Job Satisfaction


135) Job satisfaction has greater influence on poor performers than superior performers as it relates to turnover. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 136) Job satisfaction can affect a company's bottom line and stock prices. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 59 Topic: Job Satisfaction 137) The research has suggested that job satisfaction is a U.S. concept and other cultures do not form judgments of job satisfaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 138) The highest levels of job satisfaction been reported in the U.S. and Asia. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 60 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) Managers should be interested in their employees' attitudes because attitudes influence behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 Topic: Implications for Managers 140) One of the most important things managers can do to raise employee satisfaction is to make the work challenging and interesting. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 61 Topic: Implications for Managers 141) Discuss the three components of an attitude. Answer: The three components of an attitude are cognition, affect, and behavior. The cognitive component is a value statement. Affect is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. The behavioral component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something. Viewing attitudes as being made up of three components helps to understand the potential relationship between attitudes and behavior. Page Ref: 48 and Exh 4-1 Topic: Attitudes


142) Discuss cognitive dissonance theory and three ways in which individuals might alleviate dissonance. Answer: Cognitive dissonance was proposed in the late 1950s by Leon Festinger. The theory seeks to explain the linkage between attitudes and behavior. Dissonance means an inconsistency. Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility that an individual might perceive between two or more of his or her attitudes, or between his or her behavior and attitudes. Individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance. Individuals may change their behavior, reduce dissonance by concluding that the dissonant behavior is not so important after all, or change their attitude. Page Ref: 49-50 Topic: Attitudes 143) Discuss the most powerful moderators of the attitudes-behavior relationship. Answer: The most powerful moderators of the attitudes-behavior relationship are the importance of the attitude, its correspondence to behavior, its accessibility, whether there exist social pressures, and whether a person has direct experience with the attitude. Attitudes that individuals consider important tend to show a strong relationship to behavior. The more closely the attitude and the behavior are matched, the stronger the relationship. Attitudes easily remembered are more likely to predict our behavior. Discrepancies between attitudes and behavior are more likely to occur when social pressures to behave in certain ways hold exceptional power. And he attitude-behavior relationship is likely to be much stronger if an attitude refers to something with which the individual has direct personal experience. Page Ref: 50-51 Topic: Attitudes 144) Explain the difference between job satisfaction, job involvement, and organizational commitment. Answer: Job satisfaction refers to an individual's general attitude toward his or her job. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job, while a person who is dissatisfied with his or her job holds negative attitudes about the job. Job involvement measures the degree to which a person identifies psychologically with his or her job and considers his or her perceived performance level important to self-worth. Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do. Organizational commitment is defined as a state in which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals, and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. So high organizational commitment means identifying with one's employing organization. Page Ref: 51-52 Topic: Attitudes


145) What are the three dimensions to organizational commitment? Answer: Organizational commitment is a state in which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in that organization. The three dimensions to organizational commitment are affective, continuance and normative. An affective commitment is an emotional attachment to the organization and a belief in its values. A continuance commitment is the perceived economic value of remaining with the organization compared to leaving it. And a normative commitment is an obligation to remain with the organization for ethical or moral reasons. Page Ref: 51-52 Topic: Attitudes 146) What are the major causes of job satisfaction? Answer: The major job satisfaction facets are the work itself, pay, advancement opportunities, supervision, and coworkers. Enjoying the work itself is almost always the facet most strongly correlated with high levels of overall job satisfaction. Most people prefer work that is challenging and stimulating over work that is predictable and routine. For people who are poor or who live in poor countries, pay does correlate with job satisfaction and with overall happiness. But, once an individual reaches a level of comfortable living the relationship virtually disappears. Personality also plays a role in job satisfaction. Research has shown that people who have a negative personality (for example, those who tend to be grumpy, critical, and negative) are usually less satisfied with their jobs. Page Ref: 55-56 Topic: Job Satisfaction 147) Explain the exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework. Answer: The exit-voice-loyalty-neglect framework is helpful in understanding the consequences of dissatisfaction. The exit response involves directing behavior toward leaving the organization. The voice response involves actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions. The loyalty response involves passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve and trusting the organization to do the right thing. The neglect response involves passively allowing conditions to worsen. Page Ref: 56-57 Topic: Job Satisfaction 148) Discuss how job satisfaction can impact productivity, absenteeism and turnover. Answer: Happy employees are more likely to be productive employees. Organizations with more satisfied employees tend to be more effective than organizations with fewer satisfied employees. There is a consistent negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism, but the correlation is moderate. Satisfaction is also negatively related to turnover, but the correlation is stronger than what was found for absenteeism. An important moderator of the satisfactionturnover relationship is the employee's level of performance. Page Ref: 57-58 Topic: Job Satisfaction


149) Discuss how employee satisfaction is related to customer satisfaction. Answer: The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. Satisfied employees are more likely to be friendly, upbeat, and responsivewhich customers appreciate. And because satisfied employees are less prone to turnover, customers are more likely to encounter familiar faces and receive experienced service. These qualities build customer satisfaction and loyalty. Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee's job dissatisfaction. Employees who have regular contact with customers report that rude, thoughtless, or unreasonably demanding customers adversely effect the employees' job satisfaction. Page Ref: 58 Topic: Job Satisfaction 150) Discuss whether job satisfaction is a U.S. concept. Answer: While most of the research on job satisfaction has been conducted in the U.S., the evidence strongly suggests that this is not a U.S. concept. People in other cultures form judgments of job satisfaction. Furthermore, similar factors cause, and result from, job satisfaction across cultures. Page Ref: 60 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 5 Motivation Concepts 1) Jim is a student who cannot work at writing a paper for more than 30 minutes, yet he can spend many hours writing comments on blogs. What accounts for the change in motivation in this case? A) his ability B) the direction C) his personality D) the congruence E) the structure of the task Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62-63 Topic: Defining Motivation 2) Motivation is best defined as a process that ________. A) results in a level of effort B) intensifies an individual's efforts C) accounts for an individual's efforts toward attaining a goal D) meets an individual's needs E) stabilizes over time Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Topic: Defining Motivation 3) What are the three key elements of motivation? A) reactance, congruence and circumstance B) interest, activity and reward C) awareness, effort and outcome D) stimulation, progress and achievement E) intensity, direction and persistence Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62-63 Topic: Defining Motivation 4) In Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, what is the term used for the drive to become what one is capable of becoming? A) perfection B) self-actualization C) hypo-glorification D) self-esteem E) attainment Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


5) The most well-known theory of motivation is Abraham Maslow's ________. A) Theories X and Y B) Hierarchy of Needs C) Two-factor Theory D) Motivator-Hygiene Theory E) Cognitive Evaluation Theory Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 6) Maslow's hierarchy has five levels of needs. Which of the following is not one of those levels? A) safety needs B) social needs C) animal needs D) self-actualization needs E) physiological needs Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 7) Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one's hunger, thirst, and need for sex? A) safety B) physiological C) social D) esteem E) psychological Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 8) Danielle wants to become a surgeon, not only because achieving this goal will give her selfrespect and autonomy, but also because she wants a job with high status and recognition from others. Which of Maslow's needs is Danielle trying to fill? A) self-actualization B) social C) esteem D) psychological E) safety Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


9) Maslow's hierarchy of needs arranges those five needs in which of the following orders? A) physiological, esteem, safety, social, and self-actualization B) physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization C) safety, physiological, esteem, social, and self-actualization D) physiological, social, safety, esteem, and self-actualization E) safety, physiological, social, esteem, and self-actualization Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 10) Hans derives a great sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship from his relationships with his extended family. Which of Maslow's needs is Hans fulfilling through these relationships? A) lower-order B) self-actualization C) esteem D) social E) physiological Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 11) What is the primary organizational factor that satisfies people's physiological needs? A) their relationships with co-workers B) recognition C) pay D) admiration E) their position within the organization Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


12) Your church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who is working for minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy and works because he enjoys it. Jane is single, 45 years old and has few interests outside of the office. You have decided to attempt to apply Maslow's hierarchy of needs to determine what motivates each of these individuals. What is the need that you would expect that Mary is trying to satisfy? A) social B) esteem C) physiological D) self-actualization E) alter-actualization Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) Your church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who is working for minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy and works because he enjoys it. Jane is single, 45 years old and has few interests outside of the office. You have decided to attempt to apply Maslow's hierarchy of needs to determine what motivates each of these individuals. You would expect that Jane is trying to satisfy her ________ needs. A) social B) esteem C) physiological D) self-actualization E) psychophysical Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 14) Your church is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who is working for minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy and works because he enjoys it. Jane is single, 45 years old and has few interests outside of the office. You have decided to attempt to apply Maslow's hierarchy of needs to determine what motivates each of these individuals. According to Maslow, which of the following do you think would motivate Jonathan the most? A) physiological needs B) higher-order needs C) lower-order needs D) none since he is wealthy E) the need for achievement Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


15) According to Maslow, when does a need stop motivating? A) when it is substantially satisfied B) it never stops motivating C) when one returns to a lower-level need D) when one chooses to move to a higher-level need E) only when it is completely satisfied Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 16) Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow? A) physiological, safety, social B) safety, social, esteem C) esteem, self-actualization D) social, esteem, self-actualization E) recognition, pay, admiration Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 17) What is the major problem with Maslow's hierarchy of needs in organizational behavior? A) It is difficult to apply to the workplace. B) It is vague as to how a workplace can satisfy higher-order needs. C) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied. D) It has received little recognition among managers. E) The research does not validate the theory. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 63-64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 18) Which of the following theories was proposed by Douglas McGregor? A) Hierarchy of Needs Theory B) Theories X and Y C) Two-Factor Theory D) ERG Theory E) Expectancy Theory Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


19) How would a Theory X manager view employees? A) seeking responsibility B) needing to be coerced to achieve goals C) viewing work as a normal daily activity D) exercising self control E) not motivated by rewards Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 20) Which of the following is a behavior that would most likely be exhibited by a Theory X manager? A) She lets her employees choose their own goals. B) She trusts her employees to use discretion in most matters. C) She strictly controls the details of any project she is managing. D) She delegates authority extensively to junior managers. E) She honestly informs her employees of the likelihood that they will lose their jobs. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 21) In what way are Theory X and Theory Y managers alike? A) They are skeptical about their employees' ability to operate independently. B) They have a negative view of human behavior. C) They acknowledge that people in the workplace are mostly motivated by higher-order needs. D) Their behavior follows their assumptions. E) They both motivate their workers in the optimal way given the conditions within their workplace. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 22) A Theory Y manager would assume that employees would ________. A) dislike work B) need to be controlled C) avoid responsibility D) accept responsibility E) attempt to avoid work Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


23) Two managers are talking about how they get the best out of their employees: Jo: "I tell my employees that times are tough and there is no way of telling when the guys in head office might try to downsize. Let me tell you, a bit of fear keeps them focused on the task at hand." Chris: "I tell them that head office is making them more responsible for deciding how to do their work. The increased sense of ownership they have makes productivity go way up." How would these managers be best characterized by Douglas McGregor? A) Both hold Theory X assumptions. B) Both hold Theory Y assumptions. C) Chris holds Theory X assumptions; Jo holds Theory Y assumptions. D) Jo holds Theory X assumptions; Chris holds Theory Y assumptions. E) The statements would not indicate that either manager is predisposed to either Theory X or Theory Y assumptions. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 24) Someone subscribing to Theory Y would agree with which of the following statements? A) Individuals are dominated by Maslow's lower-level needs. B) Individuals are dominated by Maslow's higher-level needs. C) Individuals are not clearly dominated by any particular level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. D) Individuals are in reality independent of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. E) Individuals are dominated by their needs in a situational context rather than in a strict hierarchy. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 25) You are a new employee with Acme, Inc. Your supervisor has explained your job to you and has indicated that you will have a great deal of control over your job once you become proficient at it. He compliments your history of accepting responsibility and suggests that you are to feel free to offer constructive criticism about the way that your job is structured. Your supervisor seems to possess ________ assumptions. A) Theory T B) Theory V C) Theory Z D) Theory X E) Theory Y Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


26) You are a new employee with Acme, Inc. Your supervisor has explained your job to you and has indicated that you will have a great deal of control over your job once you become proficient at it. He compliments your history of accepting responsibility and suggests that you are to feel free to offer constructive criticism about the way that your job is structured. Which of the following is something you would not expect your supervisor to do? A) assume that you will be internally motivated B) assume that you want to do your job C) allow you freedom to do your job as you believe it should be done D) monitor your work very closely E) empower you to take responsibility Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 27) Who proposed the two-factor theory of motivation? A) Maslow B) McClelland C) McGregor D) Vroom E) Herzberg Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 65 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 28) What other name is the two-factor theory known by? A) Theories X and Y B) Motivator-Hygiene Theory C) Hierarchy of Needs Theory D) Satisfaction/Dissatisfaction Theory E) Minimal Justification Theory Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 29) The two-factor theory suggests that dissatisfaction is caused by extrinsic factors. Which of the following is an example of such a factor? A) advancement B) working conditions C) achievement D) recognition E) nature of the work itself Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65-66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


30) Which of the following is not true about the two-factor theory? A) Working conditions are characterized as hygiene factors. B) Intrinsic factors are motivators. C) A job becomes satisfying when the dissatisfying characteristics are removed. D) Responsibility is a satisfier. E) Hygiene factors are demotivators. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65-66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 31) Gerry has a job that pays an excellent salary. She has a good relationship with her peers and her supervisors. She also likes the fact that the company policy fits well with what she personally believes, and that she has received considerable recognition for her achievements at the company. Which of these factors is most likely responsible for the fact that Gerry loves her job? A) high compensation B) good nature of peer relationships C) good nature of supervisor relationships D) good fit between personal beliefs and company policy E) recognition for her achievements Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 65-66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 32) Which one of the following would be considered a motivator in the two-factor theory? A) salary B) supervision C) working conditions D) bonuses E) responsibility Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 65-66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


33) Your fellow employees have a terrible work situation. They work in an old, run-down building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious and the supervisor is rarely available and only shows up to give reprimands for production shortfalls. Nobody has received a promotion in two years. The work is boring, repetitious, and unrewarding. You have decided to try to apply Herzberg's two-factor theory. You decide that your first job should be to remedy the hygiene factors. Which are they? A) working conditions B) intrinsic rewards C) recognition D) advancement E) reprimands Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 34) Your fellow employees have a terrible work situation. They work in an old, run-down building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious and the supervisor is rarely available and only shows up to give reprimands for production shortfalls. Nobody has received a promotion in two years. The work is boring, repetitious, and unrewarding. You have decided to try to apply Herzberg's two-factor theory. Which of the following statements would likely be true? A) When the working conditions are improved, employees will be satisfied. B) The relationship with the supervisor is a motivation factor. C) Fixing the conditions that make the employees dissatisfied will not make them satisfied - only not dissatisfied. D) Employees are dissatisfied due to lack of recognition. E) The major reason for dissatisfaction is probably the nature of the work itself. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


35) Your fellow employees have a terrible work situation. They work in an old, run-down building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious and the supervisor is rarely available and only shows up to give reprimands for production shortfalls. Nobody has received a promotion in two years. The work is boring, repetitious, and unrewarding. You have decided to try to apply Herzberg's two-factor theory. What would be the action that could be taken that would probably most motivate the employees? A) improvement in working conditions B) fixing the heating system C) receiving recognition for a job well done D) having the supervisor "hang around" more to closely monitor their work E) a greater reliance on punishment for poor performance Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 36) What continuum in the two-factor theory is influenced by the hygiene factors? A) no dissatisfaction to dissatisfaction B) no dissatisfaction to satisfaction C) satisfaction to no satisfaction D) satisfaction to dissatisfaction E) dissatisfaction to exit behavior Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 37) Which of the following is a not a criticism of the two-factor theory? A) No overall measure of satisfaction is utilized. B) The research methodology does not examine productivity. C) The theory is inconsistent with previous research and lacks broad appeal. D) The system used by raters is too rigid and not open to interpretation. E) He assumed a strong relationship between satisfaction and productivity, but the research methodology examined only satisfaction. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 38) McClelland's theory of needs concentrates on which three needs? A) achievement, realization and acceptance B) achievement, power and affiliation C) power, acceptance and confirmation D) affiliation, control and realization E) control, status and relationships Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


39) How does McClelland define the need for affiliation? A) drive to excel, to strive to succeed. B) need to make others behave in a novel way C) desire for friendship and close interpersonal relationships D) same as Maslow's social need E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 40) Jasmine is trying to gain control of her department. Although she will be greatly compensated if she achieves this aim, and will gain control over many subordinates, the main reason she is pursuing this position is that she thinks she can do the job better than her predecessors and wants people to know that this is so. What need would McClelland say primarily drives Jasmine in this case? A) the need for control B) the need for success C) the need for attainment D) the need for influence E) the need for power Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 41) Who proposed that there are three major relevant motives, or needs, that drive one's behavior in the workplace? A) McClelland B) Alderfer C) Herzberg D) Maslow E) Wittenbaum Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 42) According to McClelland, what is the need to make others behave in a way that they would not have behaved otherwise? A) the need for power B) the need for achievement C) the need for affiliation D) the need for control E) the need for social validation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


43) According to McClelland, individuals who have a desire to excel and to succeed are high in A) the need for power. B) the need for achievement. C) the need for motivation. D) the need for affiliation. E) the need for social validation. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 44) Which of Maslow's needs best approximates McClelland's need for achievement? A) esteem B) self-actualization C) social D) physiological E) gratification Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 45) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe scores high in the need for achievement, Mary scores high in the need for power, and Tim scores high in the need for affiliation. Sarah scored high in the need for power and low in the need for affiliation. Doug scores low in both need for power and need for affiliation. Which employee would be best suited to a challenging new assignment where they would receive rapid feedback? A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


46) You manage a department of five employees. You have identified that Joe scores high in the need for achievement, Mary scores high in the need for power, and Tim scores high in the need for affiliation. Sarah scored high in the need for power and low in the need for affiliation. Doug scores low in both need for power and need for affiliation. Which employee would be best suited as a mentor to new employees with a chance to develop friendships? A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 47) A manager wishes to motivate a sales employee who is a high achiever. According to McClelland, which of the following sales territories should be assigned to such a salesperson? A) one where he is loosely controlled and he is certain to meet his sales targets B) one where he receives rapid feedback and the probability of success in meeting his sales targets is .5 C) one where he is loosely controlled and there is a moderate chance he will exceed his sales targets D) one where he is closely controlled and there is a small chance he will greatly exceed his sales targets E) one where he is loosely controlled and there is a small chance he will greatly exceed his sales targets Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 48) According to McClelland, an individual who strives for personal achievement rather than the rewards of success per se, probably would have high need for ________. A) achievement B) affiliation C) power D) esteem E) love Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


49) You are supervising a team leader who has a high need for achievement. He is in charge of training employees to use a new phone system. According to McClelland, which of the following courses of action will best ensure this employee stays motivated in his task? A) Trust him to do the job independently, and do not give feedback until the project is completed. B) Trust him to do the job independently, and do not give any feedback unless it is asked for. C) Trust him to do the job independently, but do not fail to provide plenty of feedback. D) Closely supervise him, and provide moderate amounts of feedback. E) Closely supervise him and provide a great deal of feedback. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 50) The need for ________ identified by McClelland has received the most attention from researchers. A) achievement B) affiliation C) power D) esteem E) belongingness Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 51) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following except ________. A) job situations with a high degree of personal responsibility B) a high degree of risk C) overcoming obstacles D) feedback E) personal empowerment Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 52) Which of the following appears to be the combination of needs found in the best managers? A) high nAch, high nPow B) high nAch, low nPow C) high nPow, low nAff D) low nPow, high nAff E) low nAff, high nAch Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


53) The issue of whether or not intrinsic and extrinsic motivators are independent is considered in which theory? A) expectancy B) reinforcement C) equity D) cognitive evaluation E) two-factor Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67-68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 54) Cognitive evaluation theory suggests that which of the following would not serve to increase an employee's motivation? A) base pay on performance B) praise good performance C) make the work interesting D) support employee development E) provide verbal rewards Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67-68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 55) According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, highest performance is reached when goals are set to which level? A) impossible but inspirational B) difficult but attainable C) slightly beyond a person's actual potential D) "do your best" E) easily attained Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 69 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 56) Deborah works for a U.S.-based firm with extensive business interests in Latin America. Deborah has successfully used goal-setting theory in her efforts to motivate her U.S. employees. When she tries to use it on her Chilean employees, she has much poorer results. Why is this probably so? A) Language difference makes it very difficult to translate the necessary concepts into Spanish. B) Goal setting theory is culture-bound. C) Chilean employees tend to score high on measures of the need for achievement. D) The goals the workers in Chile must reach are substantially simpler than those her U.S. employees must reach. E) She publicly announced the goals she wanted her Chilean workers to reach. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 150 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

57) MBO emphasizes translating overall organizational objectives into ________. A) capital gains B) specific objectives for organizational units and individual members C) operational units D) terms that the individual worker can understand and accept E) personal gain Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 58) Who sets MBO objectives? A) the boss B) the boss and immediate subordinates C) they are set jointly by superior and subordinate D) the employees performing the task in question E) each working division in cooperation with management Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 59) What sort of goals does Management By Objectives (MBO) emphasize? A) tangible, verifiable and measurable B) achievable, controllable and profitable C) inspirational, teachable and creative D) challenging, emotional and constructive E) hierarchical, attainable and effective Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70-71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 60) What does MBO provide for the individual employee? A) specific personal performance objectives B) precise job descriptions C) explicit task objectives D) clear direction and purpose E) higher salaries Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70-71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


61) Which of the following is an example of an MBO objective? A) Decrease payroll costs in the accounting department by 6% over the next 6 months. B) Modernize outdated equipment. C) Train employees to use new invoicing software. D) Improve customer service. E) Increase employee satisfaction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70-71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 62) Which of the following is not an ingredient common to all MBO programs? A) an explicit time period B) participative decision making C) consistent monetary rewards D) performance feedback E) goal specificity Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70-71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 63) What is the term used for an individual's personal evaluation of their ability to perform? A) expectancy B) autonomy C) self-efficacy D) task identity E) auto-discrimination Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 64) All of the following are ways to increase self-efficacy EXCEPT A) arousal B) vicarious modeling C) verbal persuasion D) enactive mastery E) focused training Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 72 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


65) In equity theory, individuals assess the ________. A) cost-benefit ratio B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off C) quantity-quality trade-off D) outcome-input ratio for themselves as compared to others E) pareto efficient outcome Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 66) When people perceive an imbalance in their outcome-input ratio relative to others, ________. A) reinforcement theory is imbalanced B) expectancy theory is violated C) equity tension is created D) distributive justice is questioned E) they seek to move to another position of authority Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 67) You graduated from college two years ago and began working at Hampstead Electronics. You have received good performance evaluations and a raise. You just found out that a recent college graduate with no experience has been hired at a higher salary than you are now making. Which of the following will you probably use to evaluate this situation? A) equity B) expectancy C) goal setting D) reinforcement E) self-enhancement Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


68) You graduated from college two years ago and began working at Hampstead Electronics. You have received good performance evaluations and a raise. You just found out that a recent college graduate with no experience has been hired at a higher salary than you are now making. Your referent comparison (the recent college graduate) for equity theory is termed ________. A) self-inside B) self-outside C) other-inside D) other-outside E) inside-outside Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 73 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 69) You graduated from college two years ago and began working at Hampstead Electronics. You have received good performance evaluations and a raise. You just found out that a recent college graduate with no experience has been hired at a higher annual salary than you are now making. How can your behavior at work be predicted to change? A) You will work harder. B) You will call in sick more often. C) You will acknowledge that the new person hired is worth more. D) You will not work so hard. E) You will act to undermine the new employee. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 70) James is an employee whose job it is to proofread legal documents. He is paid by the number of documents that he proofs. He discovers that he is paid substantially more than his colleagues, even though their jobs and performances are very similar. What is likely to be his reaction to this discovery according to equity theory? A) The quantity of documents he proofreads will decrease. B) The quality of documents he proofreads will decrease. C) The quality of documents he proofreads will increase. D) He will seek a position within the company commensurate with his pay. E) There will be no effect. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


71) What would be the predicted result of underpaying a piece-rate worker, according to equity theory? A) Quality will increase. B) Quantity will increase while quality will decrease. C) Quality will decrease. D) There will be no effect. E) The employee will seek a higher wage. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 72) Contemporary research in equity theory focuses on ________ justice. A) interpersonal B) distributive C) organizational D) procedural E) interactional Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 73) Equity theory historically focused on ________ justice. A) procedural B) distributive C) interpersonal D) organizational E) interactional Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 74) Gloria thinks that she is paid less than other workers in her division and feels extremely resentful. She starts taking long breaks and generally wasting time. Her actions were a result of her perceiving what kind of injustice? A) interactive B) interpersonal C) procedural D) distributive E) interactional Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


75) Jessica believes that she received an appropriate salary increase this year but she does not believe that the company's methods for determining salary increases were fair. She believes that there is a problem with the firm's ________ justice. A) interpersonal B) distributive C) equity D) procedural E) outcome Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 75 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 76) People who perceive that they are victims of interactional injustice tend to blame their immediate supervisor rather than the organization at large. Why is this? A) Interactional justice or injustice is intimately tied to the conveyer of the information. B) Interactional injustice can only occur during face-to-face encounters. C) When people are not treated with respect, they tend to retaliate against those closest to hand. D) Interactional injustice is in the eyes of those who perceive they are disrespected. E) Interactional injustice is most often the result of impersonal policies of the organization. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75-76 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 77) Procedural justice relates most strongly to A) job satisfaction. B) employee trust. C) citizenship behaviors. D) job performance. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 75-76 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 78) What theory attempts to measure the strength of one's expectations and predict motivation? A) Expectancy theory B) Equity theory C) Goal setting theory D) ERG theory E) Surberist theory Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76-77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


79) The degree to which an individual believes that performing at a particular level will generate a desired outcome is defined by expectancy theory as what kind of relationship. A) performance-reward B) effort-performance C) reward-personal goal D) effort-satisfaction E) agent-actor Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 80) Which of the following is one of the relationships proposed in expectancy theory? A) reward-satisfaction relationship B) satisfaction-performance relationship C) rewards-personal goals relationship D) effort-satisfaction relationship E) performance-achievement relationship Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 81) Helen is an office worker who processes health insurance forms. She has worked at her present job for three years. Initially she was criticized by her supervisor for sloppy work, but in the months after that she improved considerably. Now she consistently processes her forms without errors and above quota. However she has found her supervisor has not responded to the extra effort she puts in, giving her no praise and no financial reward. Helen will most likely perceive that there is a problem in which of the following relationships? A) rewards-personal goals B) performance-reward C) effort-performance D) rewards-effort E) performance-achievement Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


82) According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual is known as what sort of relationship. A) performance-reward B) effort-performance C) rewards-personal goals D) effort-satisfaction E) performance-achievement Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 83) Most current motivation theories have a strong emphasis on individualism and goal accomplishment. Why is this? A) They were developed in the United States by Americans. B) These are the traits needed to successfully motivate people. C) Researchers tend to concentrate on those traits that are easiest to quantify. D) Motivation theory relies on the study of personality traits to understand what drives people. E) These are the two traits that are most distinct in most people worldwide. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 78 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) Which of the following motivation concepts clearly has an American bias? A) need for power B) need for affiliation C) need for achievement D) social needs E) need for association Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 85) Which of the following desires would most likely be common to a worker in China, Australia, Kenya, Canada and Kuwait? A) interesting work B) higher pay C) more flexibility D) telecommuting options E) advancement Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


86) Motivation is a personality trait. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Topic: Defining Motivation 87) Leadership is the processes that accounts for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62 Topic: Defining Motivation 88) High intensity is unlikely to lead to favorable job-performance outcomes unless the effort is channeled in a direction that benefits the organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 62-63 Topic: Defining Motivation 89) The persistence dimension of motivation is a measure of how long a person can maintain effort. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Defining Motivation 90) The early theories of motivation are most used by practicing managers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 91) According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer motivates. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 92) Esteem is considered a lower-order need. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 93) Higher-order needs are satisfied externally, whereas lower-order needs are predominantly satisfied internally. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 63 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


94) Research actively validates Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 63-64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 95) An assumption of Theory Y is that people are inherently lazy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 96) Theory X assumes that human beings view work as being as natural as play. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 97) McGregor referred to the positive assumptions about human beings as Theory Y. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 98) Theory X assumes that higher-order needs dominate individuals. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 99) Maslow proposed a two-factor theory, suggesting that intrinsic job factors motivate, whereas extrinsic factors only maintain and placate employees. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 65 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 100) According to Herzberg, the opposite of "satisfaction" is "dissatisfaction." Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 101) According to Herzberg, some factors lead to satisfaction, and if you remove these factors you create dissatisfaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 102) According to Herzberg, pay strongly motivates. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation


103) Herzberg's two-factor theory has not been well supported in the literature. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 104) McClelland's theory of needs contains a frustration-regression dimension. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 105) A drive to succeed would be described by McClelland as a need for achievement. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 106) High achievers attempt the most difficult goals because once achieved, they gain more recognition. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 107) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer job situations with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 108) Evidence indicates that high achievers make good managers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 109) Evidence indicates that the best managers are high in nPow and low in nAff. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 110) Research shows that contemporary theories of motivation are generally more valid than the early theories of motivation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


111) When extrinsic rewards are given to someone for performing an interesting task, it causes intrinsic interest in the task itself to decline. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 67-68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 112) Cognitive evaluation theory is concerned with whether individuals perceive that rewards are distributed fairly. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 67-68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 113) According to the cognitive evaluation theory, pay should not be directly related to job performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 114) Evidence gathered about the cognitive evaluation theory leads us to believe that extrinsic and intrinsic rewards are independent. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 115) According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a high level of output. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 69 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 116) External feedback has been shown to be a more powerful motivator than self-generated feedback. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 69-70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 117) Difficult goals motivate us more than easy ones since they direct our attention to the task and away from irrelevant distractions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 69 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 118) Participatively set goals have been clearly shown to elicit improved performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


119) Goal-setting theory is culture-bound; it is well adapted to countries like the United States and Canada. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 120) The goals-performance relationship is influenced by feedback, goal commitment, task characteristics, and national culture. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 121) Research indicates that goal-setting theory works equally well on all tasks. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 122) MBO works from the "bottom up" rather than from the "top down." Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 123) Self-efficacy refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 124) Goal-setting theory and self-efficacy theory compete with one another. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 125) Equity theory proposes that equity tension is the negative tension state that provides the motivation to do something to correct it. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 126) In equity theory, if perceived outcomes and inputs are not balanced, an individual will make certain adjustments to correct the imbalance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 73 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


127) Research shows that in equity theory men prefer same-sex comparisons but women do not. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 128) If you pay an individual an hourly rate, according to the equity theory, overpaying this individual will result in more output. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 129) Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 130) It is possible for an employee to perceive injustice even if the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals is perceived as fair. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74-75 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 131) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 132) Interactional justice is the individual's perception of the degree to which he or she is treated with dignity, concern, and respect. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 133) To promote fairness in the workplace, managers should consider openly sharing information on how allocation decisions are made. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 76 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 134) Currently, one of the most widely accepted explanations of motivation is Vroom's expectancy. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 76 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


135) Many employees see the performance-reward relationship in their job as weak. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 136) In expectancy theory, the strength of a person's motivation to perform depends in part on how strongly he believes he can achieve what he attempts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 137) The expectancy theory is a contingency model. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 138) Most motivation theories were developed in the United States by Americans and about Americans. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 78 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory aligns with Japanese culture. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 140) Evidence suggests that in collectivist cultures, employees expect rewards to reflect their individual needs as well as their performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 78 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


141) Describe Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Answer: Maslow's hierarchy of needs hypothesized that within every human being there exists a hierarchy of five needs. The physiological needs include hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs. Safety includes security and protection from physical and emotional harm. Social includes affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship. Esteem includes internal esteem factors such as self-respect, autonomy, and achievement; and external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention. Self-actualization is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming; includes growth, achieving one's potential, and self-fulfillment. As each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next need becomes dominant. So if you want to motivate someone, according to Maslow, you need to understand what level of the hierarchy that person is currently on and focus on satisfying those needs at or above that level. Page Ref: 63-64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 142) What assumptions are held by a Theory Y manager? Answer: The Theory Y manager assumes employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play; people will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the objectives; the average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility; and the ability to make innovative decisions is widely dispersed throughout the population and is not necessarily the sole province of those in management positions. Page Ref: 64 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation 143) According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, how might a manager motivate employees? Answer: According to Herzberg, the factors leading to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction. Therefore, managers who seek to eliminate factors that can create job dissatisfaction may bring about peace but not necessarily result in motivation, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When they are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied. If we want to motivate people on their jobs, Herzberg suggested emphasizing factors associated with the work itself or to outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement. These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding. Page Ref: 66 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


144) Discuss McClelland's Theory of Needs. What predictions can be made based on the relationship between the achievement need and job performance? Answer: McClelland's theory of needs focuses on three needs: achievement, power, and affiliation. The need for achievement is the drive to excel; to achieve in relation to a set of standards; and to strive to succeed. The need for power is the need to make others behave in a way that they would not have behaved otherwise. The need for affiliation is the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships. Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer job situations with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk. When these characteristics are prevalent, high achievers will be strongly motivated. The evidence consistently demonstrates, for instance, that high achievers are successful in entrepreneurial activities such as running their own businesses and managing a self-contained unit within a large organization. A high need to achieve does not necessarily lead to being a good manager, especially in large organizations. People with a high achievement need are interested in how well they do personally and not in influencing others to do well. Employees have been successfully trained to stimulate their achievement need. So if a job calls for a high achiever, management can select a person with a high need for achievement or develop its own candidate through achievement training. Page Ref: 66-67 Topic: Early Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 145) Explain cognitive evaluation theory. Answer: Cognitive evaluation theory proposes that the introduction of extrinsic rewards, such as pay, for work effort that had been previously intrinsically rewarding due to the pleasure associated with the content of the work itself would tend to decrease the overall level of motivation. Cognitive evaluation theory argues that when extrinsic rewards are used by organizations as payoffs for superior performance, the intrinsic rewards, which are derived from individuals doing what they like, are reduced. That is, the extrinsic rewards can cause intrinsic interest in the task itself to decline. Page Ref: 67-68 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


146) Discuss goal-setting theory and its implications for managers. Answer: Goal-setting theory proposed that intentions to work toward a goal are a major source of work motivation. Goals tell an employee what needs to be done and how much effort will need to be expended. The evidence strongly supports the value of goals. It shows that specific goals increase performance; that difficult goals, when accepted, result in higher performance than do easy goals; and that feedback leads to higher performance than does nonfeedback. Specific, challenging goals produce a higher level of output than does the generalized goal of "do your best." The specificity of the goal itself acts as an internal stimulus. The more difficult the goals, the higher the level of performance. However, it's logical to assume that easier goals are more likely to be accepted. But once an employee accepts a hard task, he or she will exert a high level of effort until it is achieved, lowered, or abandoned. People will do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals because feedback helps to identify discrepancies between what they have done and what they want to do; that is, feedback acts to guide behavior. Goal-setting theory presupposes that an individual is committed to the goals, that is, is determined not to lower or abandon the goal when the goal is made public, when the individual has an internal locus of control, and when the goal is self-set rather than assigned. Goal-setting has also been found to be culture bound. It is well adapted to countries like the United States and Canada. Page Ref: 69-70 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 147) What is self-efficacy? How does it relate to goal setting theory? Answer: Self-efficacy refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. The higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability to succeed in a task. Individuals high in self-efficacy seem to respond to negative feedback with increased effort and motivation, while those low in self-efficacy are likely to lessen their effort when given negative feedback. Goal setting theory and self-efficacy theory complement each other. Setting difficult goals for people communicates confidence. When individuals are more confident in themselves (higher self-efficacy), they set higher personal goals, causing them to perform better. Page Ref: 71 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


148) Discuss equity theory. Include the concepts of equity tension and referent comparisons. Answer: Employees make comparisons of their job inputs and outcomes relative to those of others. We perceive what we get from a job situation in relation to what we put into it, and then we compare out outcome-input ratio with the outcome-input ratio of relevant others. If we perceive our ratio to be equal to that of the relevant others with whom we compare ourselves, a state of equity is said to exist. We perceive our situation as fair. Equity tension arises when we perceive that this is not the case. When we see ourselves as under-rewarded, the tension creates anger; when over-rewarded, the tension creates guilt. This negative state provides the motivation to do something to correct it. The referent that an employee selects adds to the complexity of equity theory. The four referent comparisons that an employee can use are comparisons to how that employee has been treated in the past in both the company he or she currently works for and in similar situations outside the company(the self-inside and the self-outside) and comparisons to others both within the company he or she currently works for and outside the company (the other-inside and the other-outside). Page Ref: 73-74 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation 149) Discuss distributive justice and procedural justice. Explain how managers can use these concepts. Answer: Historically, equity theory focused on distributive justice or the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals. But equity should also consider procedural justice the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. The evidence indicates that distributive justice has a greater influence on employee satisfaction than procedural justice, while procedural justice tends to affect an employee's organizational commitment, trust in his or her boss, and intention to quit. As a result, managers should consider openly sharing information on how allocation decisions are made, following consistent and unbiased procedures, and engaging in similar practices to increase the perception of procedural justice. By increasing the perception of procedural fairness, employees are likely to view their bosses and the organization as positive even if they're dissatisfied with pay, promotions, and other personal outcomes. Page Ref: 74-76 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 150) What are the three relationships in Vroom's expectancy theory? Answer: Expectancy theory argues that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual. The theory focuses on three relationships. The effort-performance relationship is the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. The performance-reward relationship is the degree to which the individual believes that performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. The rewards-personal goals relationship is the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual. Page Ref: 76-77 Topic: Contemporary Theories of Motivation


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 6 Motivation: From Concepts to Applications 1) Which of the following is not one of the core job dimensions in the JCM model? A) task significance B) feedback C) autonomy D) status E) skill variety Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 2) According to the JCM, the owner-operator of a garage show performs electrical repairs, rebuilds engines, does body work, and interacts with customers would score ________. A) high on task identity B) high on skill variety C) low on autonomy D) low on task significance E) low on skills variety Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 81 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 3) In the JCM model, what three core job dimensions combine to create meaningful work? A) autonomy, task identity, and feedback B) skill variety, autonomy, and task significance C) skill variety, autonomy, and feedback D) feedback, task identity, and task significance E) skill variety, task identity, and task significance Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 81 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 4) According to JCM theory, which of the following results in the maximum internal rewards for an individual? A) when they are given tangible rewards B) when they learn that they personally have performed well on a task that they care about C) when they initiate a program that enables them to work with a variety of like-minded colleagues D) when their training is realized and their expectations are met E) when they are singled out for praise for successfully completing an arduous task Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 81 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


5) According to the Job Characteristics Model, a telemarketing employee who is provided a list of calls to make and a standardized script to follow would score A) high on feedback B) low on task identity C) high on autonomy D) low on autonomy Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 81 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 6) According to the Job Characteristics Model, the presence of the three psychological states (knowledge of results, experienced responsibility, and experienced meaningfulness) will A) increase motivation B) increase performance C) decrease absenteeism D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 82 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 7) According to the JCM, the links between the job dimensions and the outcomes are moderated by ________. A) a high MPS B) the strength of the individual's growth need C) a low score on self-esteem D) experienced meaningfulness of the job E) autonomy Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 82 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 8) According to the JCM, which of the following statements is NOT true? A) The evidence supports the general framework of the theory. B) Managers can bypass the complex MPS formula and better derive motivating potential by simply adding the characteristics. C) The employee's perception of his or her workload compared to others may moderate the link between the core job dimension and outcomes. D) If jobs score high on motivating potential, the likelihood of turnover will be reduced. E) Jobs that are high on motivating potential must be high on both autonomy and task variety. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 82 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


9) What is another term for cross-training? A) work enrichment B) job sharing C) work enlargement D) job enhancement E) job rotation Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 10) What is a main strength of job rotation? A) It eliminates turnover. B) It increases motivation. C) It increases productivity. D) It decreases training costs E) It decreases supervisor workload. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 11) A trucking company routinely makes all of its office staff work for a week in the warehouse area; loading trucks, cleaning trucks, and doing other warehouse work which they are capable of. This program is an example of which of the following? A) job rotation B) job enlargement C) job enrichment D) job sharing E) flextime Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 12) Which is not cited as a drawback to job rotation? A) Training costs are increased. B) Productivity is reduced. C) Disruption is created. D) Jobs are eliminated. E) Supervisors spend more time answering questions. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


13) When the ticket agent at Singapore Airlines takes on the duties of a baggage handler, he is engaged in ________. A) job enlargement B) job rotation C) vertical loading D) participative management E) involvement Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 14) A company redesigns the jobs of the workers in accounts receivables, so that instead of simply billing customers, they will also be responsible for following up on non-payment, liaising between customers and the departments billing them, and other related tasks. What term would best be used to describe these changes? A) job rotation B) job enlargement C) job enrichment D) job sharing E) flextime Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 15) Which approach to putting the JCM into practice is usually met with less than enthusiastic results by employees? A) job enlargement B) job rotation C) vertical loading D) participative management E) involvement Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 16) How do most employees react to job enlargement efforts? A) unqualified approval B) somewhat enthusiastically C) with a lack of enthusiasm D) with mixed emotions E) with very little reaction. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


17) Job enrichment increases the degree to which the worker controls the ________. A) planning, execution and evaluation of his or her work B) planning, execution and evaluation of company plans C) horizontal integration of his or her tasks D) feedback that a worker receives from his or her supervisor and peers E) evaluation of his or her peers Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 18) Which one of the following is not one of the guidelines for enriching jobs? A) ensure employees perform one small part of a task B) establish client relationships C) open feedback channels D) combine tasks E) expand jobs vertically Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 6-2 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 19) The vertical expansion of jobs is seen in ________. A) job rotation B) job enlargement C) job enrichment D) job sharing E) flextime Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 20) A firm introduces job enrichment in order to motivate its employees. Evidence would suggest that which of the following is the most likely result of this change? A) reduced absenteeism and turnover costs B) lower fixed costs C) a drop in quality D) a decrease in productivity E) an increase in productivity Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


21) Beyond redesigning the nature of the work itself, and involving employees in decisions, another approach to making the work environment more motivating is to alter work arrangements. Which of the following is designed to give an employee greater control of their work schedule? A) flextime B) job sharing C) job rotation D) telecommuting E) job enrichment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 22) Which of the following has not been shown to be a benefit of flextime? A) reduced absenteeism B) improved productivity C) increased meaningfulness D) increased satisfaction E) improved promptness Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 23) Allied General Hospital employs many individuals and has decided to try to increase motivation through job redesign and flexible scheduling. You have been hired as a consultant to help them design and implement the programs You are looking at flextime and realize that it will probably work least well for which of the following jobs? A) insurance billing clerks B) custodial workers C) floor nurses D) equipment maintenance staff E) IT personnel Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


24) Allied General Hospital employs many individuals and has decided to try to increase motivation through job redesign and flexible scheduling. You have been hired as a consultant to help them design and implement the programs. Members of the nighttime janitorial staff are generally low skilled and would probably be motivated by ________. A) job enrichment B) flexible work schedules C) job enlargement D) all of the above E) none of the above Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 25) What is flextime's major drawback? A) Not all employees have computers. B) Not everyone wants to work part-time. C) It is not applicable to every job. D) Tardiness increases. E) It is hard to find compatible employees. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 26) The work arrangement that allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a week job is ________. A) flextime B) core hours C) telecommuting D) job sharing E) employee involvement Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 27) The work arrangement that doesn't seem to be widely adopted by employees is ________. A) flextime B) core hours C) telecommuting D) job sharing E) employee involvement Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


28) Which of the following is a job that does not lend itself to telecommuting? A) an attorney who spends most of her time researching on the computer B) a writer of copy for an advertising firm C) a car salesman who demonstrates the features of a new model of car D) a telemarketer who uses the phone to contact clients E) a product support specialist who fields calls from irate customers Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 29) The Japanese are increasingly considering job sharing to ________. A) increase flexibility B) avoid layoffs C) add more part-time positions D) accommodate working mothers E) stimulate the economy Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 30) About ________ percent of the U.S. workforce telecommutes. A) 2 B) 10 C) 25 D) 50 E) 75 Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 31) Potential benefits of telecommuting include which of the following? A) a larger labor pool from which to select B) reduced office-space costs C) less turnover D) improved morale E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


32) The major drawback for management with telecommuting is ________. A) increased cost of office space B) less direct supervision C) higher turnover D) lower productivity E) more hours worked Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 86-87 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 33) The downside of telecommuting from the employee's perspective is ________. A) the "out of sight/out of mind" effect B) no overtime earned C) too many promotions D) high costs for computer equipment E) 24 hours on call Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 86-87 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 34) The underlying logic of employee involvement is that by involving workers and increasing their autonomy and control over their work lives, employees will become all of the following except more ________. A) motivated B) competent C) productive D) satisfied E) committed to the organization Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 35) What term is used for a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success? A) MBO B) employee involvement C) reengineering D) OB Mod E) job sharing Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement


36) Participative management and representative participation are forms of ________. A) job rotation B) job enrichment C) employee involvement D) employee recognition E) employee incentives Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 37) What is the distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs? A) joint decision making B) autonomy C) empowerment D) productivity enhancement E) quality awareness Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 38) What is participative management? A) a method of management where subordinates make corporate decisions and management helps carry out those decisions B) a method of management where upper management participates in the organization's strategic planning C) a method of management where subordinates share a degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors D) a method of management where low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department E) a method of management where low-level workers are responsible for making corporate policy decisions Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement


39) A manager introduces participative management in an effort to boost morale and productivity. If he wants to make sure that it has as great a chance of success as possible he should ensure all of the following except which of the following? A) The issues decided upon must be relevant to the employees. B) The employees must be informed and competent enough to make decisions. C) The employees must be trusted by the manager. D) The manager must be trusted by the employees. E) There must be representative participation through work councils and board representatives. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 40) Your supervisor has heard that employee involvement is important and you have been instructed to research various methods of employee involvement. You are supposed to help assist in the analysis of the probable effects of each of the programs being considered. You have decided to let employees select a small group to represent them and work with management. This is termed ________. A) representative participation B) an ESOP C) quality circles D) participative management E) an AESOP Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 41) What is the name for employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent the interests of the firm's employees? A) board representatives B) works councils C) quality circles D) union representatives E) board leaders Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement


42) Research studies conducted on the participation-performance relationship show that the use of participation ________. A) enhances job satisfaction B) increases motivation C) has only a modest influence on employee productivity D) greatly influences employee attitudes E) lowers costs considerably Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 43) What does legislation require almost every company in Western Europe to do? A) Have a form of representative participation. B) Provide employee ownership. C) Provide flextime. D) Set up quality circles. E) Have flexible benefit options. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 44) What is the goal of representative participation? A) for workers to own the firms where they work B) to help workers' self-esteem C) to provide greater motivation and productivity D) to redistribute power within the organization E) to empower high-level managers Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 45) Works councils and board representatives are the two most common forms of ________. A) employee recognition B) representative participation C) participative management D) job enrichment E) employee benefits Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87-88 Topic: Employee Involvement


46) Research shows that works councils tend to be ineffective for which of the following reasons? A) Members of works council tend to side with management when making decisions for fear of being punished. B) Works councils represent the wishes of employees that are often at odds with the best direction of an organization. C) Works councils are dominated by management and their input has little impact on employees or the organization D) Works councils insert an extra element into decision making which slows the response of an organization to changing conditions. E) Members of works councils are in general not qualified to make large decisions concerning the direction of an organization. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 47) Experience shows that the greatest value of representative participation is which of the following? A) increased motivation B) increased satisfaction C) symbolic D) decreased absenteeism E) increased commitment Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Employee Involvement 48) Job evaluation establishes ________. A) the amount of compensation to be paid B) external equity C) the worth of the job to the organization D) how many tasks to be included in a job E) how to evaluate an employee Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 49) In a 2006 study, what percentage of top performers indicated pay was a key factor in losing top talent? A) 21 B) 41 C) 61 D) 71 Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 182 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

50) Initially setting pay levels requires balancing ________. A) the company's budget B) supply and demand of labor C) internal and external equity D) job worth and demand E) job worth and internal equity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 51) Which of the following are all forms of variable-pay programs? A) piece-rate, merit-based pay, gainsharing B) profit sharing, lump-sum bonuses, extended vacations C) wage incentive plans, flextime, piece-rate D) retirement benefits, extended vacations, wage incentive plans E) wage rate increases, bonuses, flextime Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 52) Which of the following is one advantage of variable pay plans to management? A) They turn fixed labor costs into variable labor costs. B) They turn low producers into high producers. C) They turn slow employees into fast employees. D) They turn high fixed costs into low fixed costs. E) They turn lower performance into fewer employees. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 53) Which of the following is an example of a piece-rate plan? A) time and a half for overtime B) $2 for each unit produced C) productivity bonus D) commission E) $10 per hour worked Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


54) Merit-based pay plans are based on ________. A) union negotiations B) performance appraisal ratings C) company profits D) company productivity improvements E) company stock performance Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 55) Which of the following is cited as a limitation of merit pay plans? A) Being based on an annual performance appraisal, the merit pay is as valid (or invalid) as the performance ratings on which it is based. B) The pay raise pool seldom fluctuates. C) Unions encourage merit pay plans. D) Employees tend to like merit pay plans. E) There is little link between pay and performance. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 56) Which of the following is not one of the most widely used variable-pay programs? A) piece-rate wages B) merit-based pay C) base pay D) employee stock ownership E) profit-sharing plans Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 89-91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 57) Amalgamated Industries manufactures parts for furniture. Management has decided to change the method of payment to a skill-based plan. You are interested in increasing your current compensation and see this as an opportunity. You should expect to earn more if you ________. A) volunteer for overtime B) increase your production C) cross train in other jobs D) become a specialist E) master common skills Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


58) What is the term used for a pay plan where pay levels are based on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do? A) a variable pay plan B) flexible pay C) competency-based pay D) gainsharing E) ISOP Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 59) Amalgamated Industries manufactures parts for furniture. Management has decided to change the method of payment to a skill-based plan. You are interested in increasing your current compensation and see this as an opportunity. As a manager, you like the plan because it allows ________. A) protection of territory B) increased flexibility of the workforce C) elimination of workers D) decreased payroll costs E) increased control Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 60) A certain corporation ties its compensation for front-line operations managers to developing their skills in leadership, workforce development, and functional excellence. What is this sort of compensation scheme called? A) job-based pay B) training-based pay C) individual merit-based pay D) skill-based pay E) development-based pay Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


61) Amalgamated Industries manufactures parts for furniture. Management has decided to change the method of payment to a skill-based plan. You are interested in increasing your current compensation and see this as an opportunity. Which of the following may be a disadvantage of introducing this type of pay plan? A) Employees will become less motivated. B) Employees will become more specialized. C) Employees will tend not to work as hard as before. D) Your employer may pay for skills that they aren't using. E) Your employer will have less control over what each employee does. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 62) Which of the following is not a downside of skill-based pay? A) People can "top out." B) Skills can become obsolete. C) Ambitious people can confront minimal advancement opportunities. D) People are paid for acquiring skills for which there is no immediate need. E) It doesn't address the level of performance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 63) A rise in which of the following was reported by companies that pay employees for learning extra skills? A) operating costs B) communication across the organization C) turnover D) absenteeism E) perceptions of unfairness Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities


64) Much of the compensation of traders at Synalco, a metals trading company, is in the form of stock options. The amount of options distributed is based on the company's net profits. What sort of compensation plan is this? A) profit sharing B) gainsharing C) merit based D) ESOP E) employee ownership Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 65) What is the name for an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is allocated? A) ESOP B) gainsharing C) profit sharing D) piece rates E) employee ownership Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 66) How is gainsharing different from profit sharing? A) Gainsharing focuses on productivity gains rather than profits. B) Gainsharing rewards specific behaviors. C) Gainsharing does not distribute profits, only gains in profits. D) Gainsharing rewards behaviors that are less influenced by external factors. E) With gainsharing, superior employees can receive incentive awards even when the organization isn't profitable. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 67) In what sort of companies is gainsharing most popular? A) large manufacturing companies B) large service organizations C) small, non-unionized manufacturing companies D) small, privately held companies E) non-profit organizations Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


68) What sort of plan is a company-established benefit plan where employees acquire stock as part of their benefits? A) MBO program B) job redesign C) ESOP D) quality circle E) piece-rate Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 69) Research on employee stock ownership programs indicates that they are clearly successful in doing which of the following?. A) increasing employee satisfaction B) reducing salaries C) reducing stress D) increasing productivity E) increasing employee expectations Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 70) What is the term used for the situation where employees are allowed to pick and choose from among a menu of benefit options. A) flexible pay B) benefit menu options C) flexible benefits D) benefit participation E) flextime Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 71) Your workforce is diverse in terms of their needs for benefits. Jim is married with two children and his wife is at home full time. Janet is single and supports her widowed mother. Bob is married and his wife has a high-paying job You decide that you want to devise a benefits program that is tailored to their individual needs. What sort of benefit program would probably be the best choice? A) a traditional benefit program B) a flexible benefit program C) letting them purchase their own benefits D) an ESOP E) an AESOP Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 188 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

72) Your workforce is diverse in terms of their needs for benefits. Jim is married with two children and his wife is at home full time. Janet is single and supports her widowed mother. Bob is married and his wife has a high-paying job You decide that you want to devise a benefits program that is tailored to their individual needs. You should expect that a flexible benefits program will be all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) less expensive B) consistent with expectancy theory C) more responsive to individual needs D) motivational E) accommodate employee differences Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 73) Why are flexible benefit plans consistent with expectancy theory's thesis? A) They allow organizations to minimize costs associated with benefits. B) They provide a suite of tangible rewards that can be offered as motivation. C) Flexible benefits individualize rewards. D) They make employment at firms providing such programs more attractive. E) The motivation to gain extra benefits promotes productivity. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 74) Your workforce is diverse in terms of their needs for benefits. Jim is married with two children and his wife is at home full time. Janet is single and supports her widowed mother. Bob is married and his wife has a high-paying job You decide that you want to devise a benefits program that is tailored to their individual needs. What sort of plan would provide pre-designed packages of benefits, put together to meet the needs of a specific group of employees? A) flexible spending B) core-plus C) cafeteria D) modular E) customized Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


75) What are modular benefit plans? A) essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits B) pre-designed packages of benefits to meet the needs of a specific group of employees C) they require employees to set aside funds up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for services D) a scheme designed for single employees with no dependents E) a scheme designed for employees with families Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 76) In which benefit plan are employees given benefit credits to purchase additional benefits to add to the core? A) modular plans B) core plus plans C) flexible spending plans D) ESOPs E) employee recognition plans Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 77) Which benefit plan can increase employee take-home pay? A) modular plans B) core-plus plans C) flexible spending plans D) ESOPs E) employee recognition plans Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 78) Employee recognition programs are consistent with which of the following? A) goal setting theory B) cognitive evaluation theory C) reinforcement theory D) expectancy theory E) Marxist theory Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


79) Laura only makes minimum wage, but she loves her job Her supervisor regularly compliments her and she has been chosen employee of the month twice this year. Which of the following is Laura's attitude most likely a function of? A) recognition B) motivation C) goal setting D) involvement E) reactance Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 80) Researchers report that which of the following was considered by employees to be the most powerful workplace motivator? A) recognition B) money C) opportunity for advancement D) autonomy E) vacation time Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 81) Which of the following is a form of recognition? A) personal congratulations B) job enlargement C) job sharing D) flexible benefit packages E) profit sharing Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 93 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 82) Why may job enrichment strategies be less effective in more collectivist cultures? A) The JCM is relatively individualistic. B) The core job characteristics are not equally applicable across cultures. C) Collectivist cultures do not focus on intrinsic job characteristics. D) The JCM has not been translated into other languages. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


83) The global research on telecommuting found that A) telecommuting is more common in the US than in Europe. B) across the globe, employers are more interested in telecommuting than employees. C) of the EU countries, Portugal has the highest rate of telecommuting. D) telecommuting simply works better in the US than in other countries. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) All of the following statements about employee involvement are true, EXCEPT A) Employee involvement programs must reflect national culture. B) Managers in India who empowered their employees through employee involvement programs were rated low. C) US employees accept employee involvement programs, but not all employees from other culture feel the same way. D) Employees across the globe warmly receive employee involvement programs. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 93 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 85) To motivate employees in organizations, managers should do all of the following EXCEPT A) recognize individual differences B) use goals and feedback C) make decisions for employees including setting goals for them D) link rewards to performance E) check the reward system for equity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 94-95 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 86) The JCM consists of five core job characteristics: task significance, feedback, experienced meaningfulness, task variety, and autonomy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 81 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 87) The dimensions of the JCM that create meaningfulness include task identity, skill variety, and task significance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 6-1 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


88) Jobs that are high on motivating potential must be high on at least one of the three factors that lead to experienced meaningfulness, and they must be high on both autonomy and feedback. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 82 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 89) Jobs that have the intrinsic elements of variety, identity, significance, autonomy, and feedback are more satisfying and generate higher performance from people than jobs that lack these characteristics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 82 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 90) In job rotation, jobs are not redesigned; in job enlargement, they are. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 91) The strengths of job rotation are that it eliminates boredom, increases motivation, and increases productivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 92) In job rotation, the nature of the work performed is changed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 93) Job enrichment, job enlargement, and job rotation are all job redesign options. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83-84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 94) Most employees do not view efforts at job enlargement enthusiastically. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 83 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 95) Job enrichment increases the degree to which the worker controls the execution of company plans. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment


96) The overall evidence on job enrichment generally shows that it increases satisfaction, reduces absenteeism, and reduces turnover costs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 97) Evidence on job enrichment indicates conclusively that it increases productivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 84 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 98) Flextime is shown to increase the meaningfulness that employees find in their work. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 99) The scheduling options of flextime, job sharing, and telecommuting are all approaches to make the workplace environment more motivating. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 85 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 100) Although over 30 percent of large organizations offer employees job sharing, it doesn't seem to be widely adopted by employees. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment 101) For employees with a high social need, telecommuting is a good option. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 86 Topic: Motivating by Changing the Nature of the Work Environment AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 102) Employee involvement is a participative process that is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 103) Employee involvement programs should take into account cultural factors such as differences in power-distance culture. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


104) The laws of the United States require companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: Employee Involvement 105) Participative management implies joint decision-making and equal decision-making roles. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 106) Employee involvement programs could provide employees with intrinsic motivation by increasing opportunities for growth and responsibility. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 107) Participation typically has only a modest influence on variables such as employee productivity, motivations, and job satisfaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 108) If one is interested in changing employee attitudes or in improving organizational performance, representative participation would be a good choice. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 109) The two most common forms that representative participation takes are works councils and board representatives. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 87-88 Topic: Employee Involvement 110) Participative management has had a profound influence on employee productivity and motivation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Employee Involvement


111) Board representatives are employees who sit on a company's board of directors and represent the interests of the firm's employees. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 87-88 Topic: Employee Involvement 112) The greatest value of representative participation is symbolic. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Employee Involvement 113) Internal equity is usually established through pay surveys. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 114) Job evaluation establishes internal equity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 88 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 115) Variable-pay compensation pays people for the time they spend on the job and seniority. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 116) Variable-pay programs turn part of an organization's fixed labor costs into a variable cost. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 117) Employee compensation will decline if performance declines in variable-pay programs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 118) Piece-rate plans, wage incentives, profit sharing, bonuses, and gainsharing are all forms of flexible benefits. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89-91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 119) Both piece-rate and gainsharing plans are examples of variable-pay compensation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 89-90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 196 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

120) Piece-rate wages are a traditional form of variable pay compensation whereby workers' pay is based upon the number of units they produce. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 121) People who sell peanuts at ball parks, keeping $.75 for every bag of peanuts they sell, are being paid piece-rate wages. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 122) Piece-rate plans are based on group productivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 89 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 123) Individuals in merit-based pay plans perceive a strong relationship between their performance and the rewards they receive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 124) Profit sharing may be paid by direct cash outlay or as stock options. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 125) Bonus plans are still reserved for the executive ranks with very few lower ranking employees included. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 126) Skill-based pay is not utilized much in white-collar jobs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 127) From management's perspective, the greatest appeal of skill-based pay plans is decreased payroll costs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


128) Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two highly desirable skills. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 129) Skill-based pay plans encourage people to specialize. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 90 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 130) Gainsharing and profit sharing are the same thing. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 90-91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 131) An employee in a gainsharing plan can receive incentive awards even if the organization isn't profitable. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 132) Studies generally show that organizations with profit sharing plans have higher levels of profitability than those without. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 133) Studies show that gainsharing programs have a positive impact on employee attitudes. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 134) Gainsharing's popularity seems to be narrowly focused among large, manufacturing companies. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 135) ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


136) Research on ESOPs indicates they increase employee satisfaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 137) Flexible spending plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 138) Studies show that employees consider wages and benefits to be the most powerful workplace motivators. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 92 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 139) One of the most expensive motivation programs is that which recognizes an employee's superior performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 92-93 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 140) While flexible benefits have become the norm in the US, this is not the case in other countries. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 94 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 141) Discuss the Job Characteristics Model. Answer: The Job Characteristics Model was developed by Hackman and Oldham. It proposes that any job can be described in terms of five core job characteristics. Skill variety is the degree to which the job requires a variety of different activities so the worker can use a number of different skills. Task variety is the degree to which the job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. Task significance is the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people. Autonomy is the degree to which the job provides freedom and discretion to the individual in scheduling the work and determining procedures to be used in carrying out the work. And finally, feedback is the degree to which carrying out the work activities required by the job results in the individual obtaining direct and clear information about the effectiveness of the his or her performance. The presence of these five core job characteristics impacts the three critical psychological states: knowledge of results, experienced responsibility, and experienced meaningfulness. The more these three states are present, the greater will be employees' motivation, performance, and satisfaction. The core dimensions can be combined into a single predictive index, the motivating potential score (MPS). Page Ref: 81-82 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 199 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

142) Discuss three ways the JCM can be put into practice to make jobs more motivating. Answer: The JCM can be put into practice to make jobs more motivating with job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment. Job rotation. This is the practice of periodically shifting an employee from one task to another. When an activity is no longer challenging, the employee is rotated to another job, usually at the same level, that has similar skill requirements. Job enlargement. This is the expansion of jobs horizontally; increasing the number and variety of tasks that an individual performs. Instead of only sorting the incoming mail by department, for instance, a mail sorter's job could be enlarged to include physically delivering the mail to the various departments or running outgoing letters through the postage meter. Job enrichment refers to the vertical expansion of jobs. It increases the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work. An enriched job organizes tasks so as to allow the worker to do a complete activity, increases the employee's freedom and independence, increases responsibility, and provides feedback, so an individual will be able to assess and correct his or her own performance. Page Ref: 83-84 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 143) How can management enrich an employee's job? Answer: An employee's job can be enriched by a number of ways. Combining task takes existing tasks and puts them back together to form a new and larger module of work. Forming natural work units means that the tasks an employee does create an identifiable and meaningful whole. Establishing client relationships increases the direct relationships between workers and their clients. Expanding jobs vertically gives employees responsibilities and control that were formerly reserved for management. Opening feedback channels lets employees know how well they are performing their jobs and whether their performance is improving, deteriorating, or remaining at a constant level. Page Ref: Exh 6-2 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 144) Discuss three alternative work arrangements. Answer: Flextime, job sharing, and telecommuting are three alternative work arrangements. Flextime stands for flexible work hours. It allows employees some discretion over when they arrive at work and when they leave. Job sharing allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job. Telecommuting refers to employees who do their work remotely at least two days a week using a computer linked to their office. Page Ref: 85-86 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


145) Discuss the benefits and drawbacks for management of telecommuting. Answer: The potential benefits of telecommuting include a larger labor pool from which to select, higher productivity, less turnover, improved morale, and reduced office-space costs. The drawbacks include less direct supervision of employees and increased difficulty to coordinate teamwork. The major drawback is that it is not applicable to every job. Page Ref: 86-87 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 146) What is participative management? Answer: All participative management programs use joint decision-making. Subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. It is not the panacea for poor morale and low productivity that it was once thought to be. Research findings are mixed. Page Ref: 87 Topic: Employee Involvement 147) List and describe different variable-pay programs. Be sure to include piece-rate plans, profit-sharing plans, and gainsharing. Answer: Piece-rate plans, merit-based pay plans, wage incentives, profit sharing, bonuses, skillbased pay plans, and gainsharing are all forms of variable-pay programs. In piece-rate pay plans, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. When an employee gets no base salary and is paid only for what he or she produces, this is a pure piece-rate plan. Unlike piece-rate plans, which pay based on objective output, merit-based pay plans are based on performance appraisal ratings. Bonuses can be paid exclusively to executives or to all employees. Many companies now routinely reward production employees with bonuses in the thousands of dollars when company profits improve. Skill-based pay is an alternative to jobbased pay. Rather than having an individual's job title define his or her pay category, skill-based pay sets pay levels on the basis of how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do. It is also called competency-based or knowledge-based pay. Profit-sharing plans are organization wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company's profitably. Gainsharing is a formula-based group incentive plan. Improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is to be allocated. By focusing on productivity gains rather than profits, gainsharing rewards specific behaviors that are less influenced by external factors. Employees in a gainsharing plan can receive incentive awards even when the organization isn't profitable. Page Ref: 89-91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


148) How are flexible benefits linked with expectancy theory? Answer: Giving all employees the same benefits assumes, falsely, that all employees have the same needs. Thus, flexible benefits turn the benefits' expenditure into a motivator. Consistent with expectancy theory's thesis that organizational rewards should be linked to each individual employee's goals, flexible benefits individualize rewards by allowing each employee to choose the compensation package that best satisfies his or her current needs. Page Ref: 91 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 149) Discuss the importance of employee recognition programs. Answer: Rewards to employees can be intrinsic or extrinsic. Employee recognition programs are intrinsic rewards. While financial incentives may be more motivating in the short term, nonfinancial incentives are more motivating in the long run. Surprisingly enough, recognition has been identified as the most powerful workplace motivator. The good news is that recognition programs are inexpensive. However, recognition programs are highly susceptible to political manipulation by managers. Abuse of the system can then act to de-motivate employees. Page Ref: 92-93 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees 150) List five guidelines of what has been learned about motivating employees in organizations. Answer: Following are five guidelines of what has been learned about motivating employees in organizations: 1. Recognize individual differences. Since employees have different needs, they should not all be treated the same. 2. Use goals and feedback. Employees should have hard, specific goals and feedback to know how they are progressing. 3. Allow employees to participate in decisions that affect them. This can increase productivity, commitment to work goals, motivation, and job satisfaction. 4. Link rewards to performance. Rewards should be contingent on performance. 5. Check the system for equity. Rewards should also be perceived by employees as equating with the inputs they bring to the job. Page Ref: 94-95 Topic: Using Rewards to Motivate Employees


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 7 Emotions and Moods 1) Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning emotions? A) Until recently, the field of OB has given the topic of emotions little or no attention. B) The prevailing thought in business until recently was to put a damper on emotions. C) Managers have tried to create emotion-free organizations. D) Researchers have viewed emotions as constructive and able to enhance productivity. E) The myth of rationality can explain why emotions have been given little or no attention in the field of OB. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 96 2) What statement best reflects the myth of rationality? A) Emotions are an inseparable part of everyday life. B) The work world has tried to keep a damper on emotions at work. C) Emotions are a normal part of rationality. D) Emotions are a constructive part of organizations. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 96 3) Which of the following is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience? A) affect B) emotions C) moods D) emotional labor E) cognition Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 4) What is the umbrella concept that encompasses both emotions and moods? A) affect B) emotions C) moods D) emotional labor E) cognition Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


5) What term is used for intense feelings that are directed at someone or something? A) affect B) cognition C) moods D) thoughts E) emotions Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 6) What term is used for feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions? A) affect B) cognition C) moods D) thoughts E) emotions Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 7) Erin works on a software help desk. After being yelled at by a customer about the state of her company's software, she becomes angry, and has to take a short break to calm down. What makes her anger an emotion, rather than a mood? A) It is a simple, unambiguous feeling. B) It interferes with her capacity to work effectively. C) It has a contextual stimulus. D) It can be controlled given some time. E) It cannot be controlled when it is elicited. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 8) When the team he supports wins the World Cup, Detleb feels a surge of joy, which turns into a feeling of satisfaction that lasts for days. What is one of the reasons that the feeling of satisfaction might be categorized as a mood and not an emotion? A) It is a very strong feeling. B) It is brought about by a specific event. C) It has a lengthy duration. D) It is a positive feeling. E) It is not the result of something that Detleb himself has done. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


9) Which of the following statements is true? A) Affect is a type of emotion. B) Affect is a type of mood. C) Affect can be experienced as a mood or an emotion. D) Affect is the result of conscious thought and action. E) Affect is the result of a mood or an emotion. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 10) Which of the following is not true about emotions? A) There are differences between moods and emotions. B) Emotions can be clearly revealed with facial expressions. C) Emotions are more cognitive than moods. D) Emotions can affect moods. E) Moods can affect emotions. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 11) One way to classify emotions is by whether they are A) simple or complex B) positive or complex C) complex or negative D) simple or negative E) positive or negative Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 12) Which of the following statements is generally accepted by experts? A) Moods cause emotions. B) Emotions cause moods. C) Moods and emotions are both caused by introspection. D) Moods and emotions are the same phenomena. E) Moods and emotions can mutually influence one another. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


13) Emotions A) may be less action-oriented than moods. B) may cause us to brood for a while. C) may be more clearly revealed with facial expressions. D) are interchangeable with moods. E) are less fleeting than moods. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 14) Which of the following is NOT considered one of the essentially universal emotions? A) anger B) fear C) grief D) sadness E) disgust Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 15) The six basic emotions can be plotted on a continuum with which two emotions serving as the end points? A) sadness and happiness B) anger and surprise C) anger and happiness D) surprise and fear E) sadness and disgust Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 16) When there is nothing in particular going on, an individual is likely to experience A) no mood. B) a mildly positive mood. C) a definite negative mood. D) impatience for activity. E) a mildly negative mood. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 99 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


17) Which of the following is a mood dimension consisting of positive emotions. A) positive regard B) static regard C) negative affect D) emotional range E) positive affect Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 18) The key to good decision making is to employ A) thinking. B) feeling. C) rationality. D) thinking and feeling. E) speed. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 99 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 19) Darwin argued that A) emotions have no place in decision making. B) emotions are useful because they motivate people to engage in survival actions. C) emotions have a limited role in decision making. D) emotions limit our ability to think rationally. E) emotions hamper an individual's ability to avoid danger. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 20) Evolutionary psychology A) draws from Darwin's work on emotions. B) suggests that individuals must experience emotions since they serve a purpose. C) justifies the purpose of even negative emotions. D) may not provide a valid perspective at all times. E) all of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


21) Evolutionary psychology has which of the following views on negative emotions such as anger and jealousy? A) They are a biological imperative that cannot be controlled. B) They are only negative in the way they make us feel, however they are a great help when we have to interact in complex situations. C) They are necessary if we are to function efficiently amid the stresses of contemporary life. D) They are vestiges of our past as hunter gatherers that will be lost as we continue to evolve. E) They serve a useful adaptive purpose, even if it is not readily apparent. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 22) Darwin argued that emotions ________. A) help humans solve problems B) hinder our ability to survive C) help us understand our world D) are linked to moods E) serve no real purpose Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 23) On which of the following days do people tend to be in their best moods? A) Monday B) Tuesday C) Wednesday D) Friday E) Sunday Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 7-3 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 24) If Jane wants to increase the likelihood that her manager is receptive to her request for a raise, what day should she avoid asking for her raise? A) Monday B) Tuesday C) Wednesday D) Friday Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


25) "Morning" people A) experience peak levels of positive affect in the morning. B) experience peak levels of positive affect in the evening. C) experience higher levels of negative affect in the afternoon. D) show little fluctuation in negative affect through the day. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 26) If Jason wants to experience more positive workplace interactions, what advice would you give him about his timing? A) More positive interactions are likely from midmorning onward. B) The most positive interactions are likely in the early morning. C) The most positive interactions are likely in sunny weather. D) The most positive interactions are likely in warmer weather. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 27) When would be the worst time to ask someone for a favor? A) Friday afternoon B) Monday morning C) Wednesday morning D) Thursday afternoon Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 28) Research suggests which of the following relationships exists between weather and mood? A) a moderately positive B) a moderately negative C) a strong positive D) a strong negative E) weather tends to have little effect on mood. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


29) Peter is a counselor at a drug treatment program. Today he is under quite a lot of stress: he has a grant proposal to write by the end of the day, he is scheduled to counsel a client who has proved difficult in the past and his supervisor has written him up for being late to work. How will the stress from these events probably affect Peter's mood? A) gradually worsen his mood B) gradually improve his mood C) suddenly worsen his mood D) suddenly improve his mood E) will likely have little actual effect on his mood. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 101-102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 30) What effect does stress typically have on mood? A) short-term positive B) long-term positive C) short-term positive but long-term negative D) negative E) small and insignificant Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101-102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 31) Jo has a job interview. Which of the following will probably not have an effect on the way she reacts emotionally to the interview? A) how much sleep Jo had the night before B) how much exercise Jo regularly gets C) Jo's age D) Jo's gender E) the weather on the day of the interview Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101-102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 32) Research shows that for most people, the effect of social activities is which of the following? A) decreases positive mood B) increases positive mood C) increases negative mood D) decreases negative mood E) will have little effect on mood. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


33) Valerie is in a negative mood, so she decides to have dinner with her friends to improve her mood. What effect will this activity likely have on her negative mood? A) strongly decrease it B) moderately decrease it C) have little or no effect on it D) moderately increase it E) strongly increase it Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 34) Rachael hopes to increase her positive mood. Which activity is most likely to have the greatest positive impact? A) attending a meeting B) watching tv with friends C) going to a move alone D) hiking with friends E) reading a good book Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 35) According to a recent poll, people are getting ________ sleep than they did in the past. A) more B) less C) higher-quality D) deeper E) lighter Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 36) Sleep quality A) affects mood. B) impacts decision making. C) impacts an individual's ability to control emotions. D) all of the above. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


37) Which of the following statements is NOT true about exercise? A) Exercise enhances people's positive mood. B) The therapeutic effects of exercise are strongest for those who are depressed. C) A little exercise can have dramatic effects on mood. D) "Sweat therapy" works. E) Exercise may help put you in a better mood. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 38) The idea of "youthful exuberance" with young people experiencing more extreme, positive emotions than older people A) is only true to a point. B) is not true since negative emotions occur more frequently in young people. C) is not true; research shows periods of highly positive moods lasted longer for older people and bad moods faded more quickly. D) is definitely true. E) has not been researched. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 39) Which of the following statements is not true about the difference between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions? A) Emotional differences between men and women are due to the different ways men and women have been socialized. B) Men express emotions more intensely than women. C) Women hold onto emotions longer than men. D) Women display more frequent expressions of both positive and negative emotions than men. E) Women experience emotions more intensely. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 40) Which of the following statements explains gender differences in emotional expression? A) Men and women are socialized differently. B) Men may have more innate ability to read others than women. C) Men may have a greater need for social approval than women. D) Women are socialized to be tough and brave. E) Women have a lower propensity to show emotions than men. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


41) If an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work, which of the following is being expressed? A) emotional labor B) negative synergy C) dissonance D) emotional intelligence E) deviance Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 42) What term is used for those emotions that an organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate in a given job? A) felt B) displayed C) conditional D) required E) mandated Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor 43) Airlines expect their flight attendants to be cheerful. This is an example of A) moods at work. B) emotional labor. C) emotional dissonance. D) customer service. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 44) Sarah is a flight attendant who is required to smile on the job and to be courteous. She does not feel very kindly toward an inconsiderate passenger, but continues to be pleasant and smile. This disparity is known as A) emotional dissonance. B) felt emotions. C) displayed emotions. D) emotional labor. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


45) All of the following are jobs that have helped researchers understand the concept of emotional labor EXCEPT A) flight attendants. B) copy editors. C) funeral directors. D) doctors. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 46) When doctors attend a workshop to improve their bedside manner and feel more apathy for their patients, they are attempting to impact their A) deep acting. B) surface acting. C) emotional labor. D) displayed emotions. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 47) ________ emotions are learned; they are not innate. A) Felt B) Displayed C) Conditional D) Exposed E) Suppressed Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 48) ________ emotions are the emotions an individual actually is experiencing, despite what they might outwardly show. A) Felt B) Displayed C) Conditional D) Exposed E) Suppressed Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor


49) Julie smiles and acts politely towards a customer at her checkout, even though she really deeply dislikes this customer. What is the disparity between the emotion Julie displays and the emotions she is actually experiencing? A) felt emotions B) emotional dissonance C) conditional emotional response D) emotional distance E) emotional exposure Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 50) What do you call the practice of hiding inner feelings and forgoing emotional expressions in response to display rules? A) surface acting B) deep acting C) emotional subterfuge D) affective camouflage E) repressed affection Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 51) If Adam modifies his true inner feelings based on display rules, he is engaged in A) surface acting. B) deep acting. C) emotional subterfuge. D) affective camouflage. E) repressed affection. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 52) Surface acting deals only with ________ emotions. A) negative B) weak C) strong D) displayed E) felt Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor


53) ________ is more stressful to employees than ________ because it requires feigning one's true emotions. A) deep acting; surface acting B) experiencing displayed emotions; experiencing felt emotions C) surface acting; deep acting D) surface acting; felt emotions Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 54) Gina and Hanna are teachers. Gina dislikes her students, but pretends she likes them by making sure she acts in a friendly manner toward them. Hanna also dislikes her students, but is trying to change the way she feels about them. Which of these teachers is most likely to feel the most stress from their actions and why? A) Gina, since she has to feign genuine emotion B) Gina, since her deep emotions conflict with what her job requires C) Hanna, since she will probably display her true feelings before she changes her deep emotions D) Hanna, since it is very difficult to change displayed emotion E) Their actions are unlikely to cause stress. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 55) Which of the following is the term referring to one's ability to be self-aware, to detect emotions in others, and to manage emotional cues and information? A) emotional intelligence B) AET C) emotional external constraints D) affective emotions E) cognition Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 56) Which of the following is the dimension of emotional intelligence that describes the ability to recognize your own emotions and impulses? A) self-awareness B) self-management C) commitment D) empathy E) social skills Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Intelligence


57) Joseph is not very good at reading the emotions of his employees and has not learned to express his own emotions. He would be classified as having which of the following? A) low emotional labor B) low emotional intelligence C) high empathy D) high emotional intelligence E) low affect Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Intelligence AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 58) A study examining 11 American presidents concluded that the key quality differentiating the successful from the unsuccessful presidents was A) communication. B) political oratory. C) emotional intelligence. D) vision. E) cognitive style. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104-105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 59) As the CEO of a corporation, you have learned to understand the role of emotional intelligence in the workplace. You have worked hard to develop emotional intelligence in your vice-presidents, but believe that some are still struggling. Clem, who is the V.P. of Marketing, has driven his department to new successes in sales, but also by driving them so hard has created new records of turnover of employees. Clem seems to lack the ability to sense how others are feeling. Based on these observations, you would say that Clem is lacking in ________. A) self-awareness B) self-management C) empathy D) social skills E) self-motivation Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 104-105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence


60) As the CEO of a corporation, you have learned to understand the role of emotional intelligence in the workplace. You have worked hard to develop emotional intelligence in your vice-presidents, but believe that some are still struggling. Alan, the V.P. of Employee Relations, does a great job in most respects, but you have noticed that he is very concerned about his image and does not take joking about his abilities well. Alan seems to lack the ability to be aware of what he is feeling. Based on these observations, you would say that Alan is lacking in ________. A) self-awareness B) self-management C) empathy D) social skills E) self-motivation Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 104-105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 61) Emotional intelligence appears to be especially relevant in jobs that demand which of the following? A) social interaction B) commitment C) task structure D) charisma E) leadership skills Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 62) Which of the following is not an argument that supports the existence of emotional intelligence? A) EI is practically indistinguishable from the established concepts of intelligence and personality. B) People with high EI have a leg up in the business world. C) People without the ability to process emotions have been proved to be poor decision makers. D) A high level of EI is a good predictor of job performance. E) It is intuitively appealing. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence


63) Which of the following is NOT true? A) People with damage to the prefrontal cortex scored significantly lower on EI tests. B) EI is neurologically based. C) People who suffer neurological damage make poorer decisions. D) People with damage to the prefrontal cortex will score lower on standard measures of intelligence then people without the same brain damage. E) EI is biologically based. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 64) All of the following are true statements concerning the criticism of EI EXCEPT: A) EI is too vague a concept. B) There is only one generally accepted definition of EI. C) EI can't be measured. D) The validity of EI is suspect. E) EI is highly correlated with measures of personality. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 65) Some researchers doubt the existence of emotional intelligence. Which of the following is an argument they use against it? A) EI assumes that decisions made emotively are superior to those made dispassionately. B) Emotions cannot be measured by testing as can be done for personality or intelligence. C) The tests used to measure EI are too simplistic in what they define as right and wrong answers. D) The concept of EI is so broad and variegated as to render it effectively meaningless. E) People with high EI appear to be high performers in the eyes of others rather than in reality. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 105-106 Topic: Emotional Intelligence AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 66) Whether a candidate has high emotional intelligence would not be a significant factor when considering candidates for which of the following jobs? A) an interviewer who assesses candidates in an employment agency B) an engineer heading up a team designing a complex software/hardware interface C) a meeting planner who must set up meetings for candidates around the world D) a copy editor who seeks out spelling errors and grammatical mistakes in manuscripts E) a realtor arranging sales between homeowners and potential buyers Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 106 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


67) A study of US Air Force recruiters showed that A) top-performing recruiters exhibited high levels of emotional intelligence. B) there was little validity to EI in selection decisions. C) EI measures would not be used in hiring decisions. D) EI was not relevant in jobs requiring social interaction. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 106 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 68) Studies show that people who are depressed tend to make poorer decisions than those with a more positive outlook. Why is this thought to be the case? A) They tend to choose an outcome that will confirm their negative worldview. B) They search for the perfect solution when rarely is any solution perfect. C) They rarely weigh up all the options when making a decision. D) They avoid stereotyping and other behaviors that allow them to come to a rapid decision. E) They tend to put too great a value on their own ability to affect outcomes. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 69) Francine is the head of a group at an ad agency working with copywriters, artists and designers to come up with effective branding of new products. Why is it particularly important for her to keep her team happy? A) People are more conscientious when they are in a good mood. B) People are more efficient when they are in a good mood. C) People are more productive when they are in a good mood. D) People are more cooperative when they are in a good mood. E) People are more creative when they are in a good mood. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 70) Organizations that promote positive moods at work are likely to A) be less creative. B) be less relaxed. C) have a more motivated workforce. D) have lower expectations of success. E) not work as hard. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods


71) People who are in good moods A) are more creative. B) produce more ideas. C) produce ideas others think are original. D) identify more creative options. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 72) Astute corporate executives use emotional content to get employees to buy into A) their job responsibilities. B) unethical requests. C) overtime. D) their vision of the company's future. E) downsizing. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 108 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 73) When effective leaders want to implement significant changes, they rely on the evocation of A) intelligence. B) emotions. C) values. D) ethics. E) financial rewards. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 108 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 74) Individuals who do poorly in negotiations A) experience negative emotions. B) develop positive perceptions of their counterparts. C) are more willing to share information. D) are more willing to be cooperative in future negotiations. E) tend to have the highest levels of emotional intelligence. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 108 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods


75) In what way is negotiation different from other activities in the workplace? A) A lack of emotion improves performance. B) Feeling bad about your performance in a negotiation is likely to improve future performance. C) Displaying negative emotions such as anger is ineffective. D) Negative outcomes do not mean that negative emotions will result. E) A negative emotional state enhances performance. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 108 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 76) Providing quality customer service makes demands on employees because it often puts them in a state of A) cognitive dissonance. B) negative affect. C) emotional contagion. D) emotional dissonance. E) positive affect. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 108 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 77) The "catching" of emotions from others is known as A) cognitive dissonance. B) emotional contagion. C) emotional dissonance. D) EI. E) moodiness. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 109 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 78) When customers "catch" employees' positive moods, they A) spend more money. B) shop longer. C) become more demanding. D) smile more often. E) negotiate better. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 109 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods


79) Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) People emotionally take their work home with them. B) A negative mood resulting from a bad day at work carries over to the next day. C) People who have a good day at work tend to be in better mood at home that evening. D) People who have a bad day at work tend to be in a bad mood at home that evening. E) People who have a stressful day at work tend to have trouble relaxing at home that evening. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 109 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 80) People who feel negative emotions A) score high in EI. B) score low in EI. C) are more likely to engage in deviant behavior at work. D) are more creative. E) are more popular. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 109 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 81) Cultural norms in the United States dictate that employees in service organizations should smile and act friendly when interacting with customers. This norm A) applies worldwide. B) is especially strong in Israel. C) is valuable for Wal-Mart to enforce globally in their stores. D) wins companies loyal followers globally. E) is not embraced by German shoppers. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 82) Which of the following is not true concerning cultural influences impacting emotions? A) Cultural factors influence what is or isn't considered as emotionally appropriate. B) What's acceptable in one culture may seem unusual or even dysfunctional in another. C) All cultures agree on the value they give to emotions. D) There tends to be high agreement on what emotions mean within cultures. E) Culture dictates how we construe emotional displays. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


83) When Tahitians are sad, their peers attribute their state to a physical illness. Which of the following facts does this best illustrate? A) The norms for the expression of emotions differ across cultures B) The value people place on emotions varies across cultures? C) The degree to which people experience emotions varies across cultures? D) It's easier for people to accurately recognize emotions within their own culture than in those of other cultures. E) All cultures interpret emotions in the same way. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) Which is NOT cited as a factor that influences emotions and moods? A) time of day B) stressful events C) social activities D) season of the year E) sleep patterns Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Implications for Managers 85) Jeremy is angry and hostile. As a result, he is more likely to A) engage in deviant behaviors at work. B) score high in EI. C) be more creative. D) be more motivated. E) all of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 111 Topic: Implications for Managers 86) Emotions can hinder performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 96 87) Emotions can enhance performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 96 88) In the past, emotions in the workplace were rarely viewed as being constructive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 96


89) Some emotions can reduce employee performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 96 90) Moods are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 91) Affect is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 92) Moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 93) "Insight" is a broad term that encompasses both emotions and moods. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 94) Emotions are object-specific. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 95) Employees bring an emotional component with them to work every day. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 96) It is generally accepted that moods and emotions can mutually influence one another. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 97) Good or bad moods can make you more emotional in response to an event. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


98) It is almost impossible to mistake one emotion for another since they are all so different. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 99) Emotions can be clearly categorized as positive or negative. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 98 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 100) Nervousness, stress, and anxiety are at the high end of negative affect. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 99 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 101) According to evolutionary psychology, an individual's anger is not necessarily bad because it serves a purpose. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 102) People tend to be in their best moods on Sunday. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 7-3 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 103) Morning people experience peak periods of positive affect before noon. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 104) Research suggests that weather has no effect on mood. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 105) Stress typically has a negative effect on mood. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 106) For most people social activities decrease positive mood. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


107) For most people social activities have little effect on negative mood. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 108) According to a recent poll, people are getting progressively less sleep. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 102-103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 109) "Sweat therapy" not only works, but research reveals that the effects of exercise may be strongest for those who are depressed. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 110) Women generally show greater emotional expression than do men. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 111) Evidence confirms there is no real difference between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 112) Men generally express emotions more intensely than do women. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 113) Men generally express anger more frequently than do women. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 114) If an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions, the employee is performing emotional labor. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor 115) The concept of emotional labor originally developed from studies of service jobs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor 227 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

116) When Joseph must project courtesy on the job while feeling hostility, he is experiencing emotional dissonance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor 117) Emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job are termed displayed emotions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 118) Conditional emotions are an individual's actual emotions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 119) Displayed emotions and felt emotions are generally the same. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 120) Displayed emotions are innate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 121) Felt emotions are an individual's actual emotions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 122) Deep acting is hiding inner feelings by modifying facial expressions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 123) Deep acting involves modifying inner feelings. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 124) Surface acting deals with one's displayed emotions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor


125) People who are good at reading others' emotions may be more effective in their jobs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 126) Studies of U.S. presidents seem to show that the ones judged the most successful had high EI. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 104-105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 127) Studies have not shown a clear correlation between emotional intelligence and job performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 128) Critics of EI have criticized it for being poorly defined. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 105-106 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 129) At L'Oreal, salespersons selected on EI scores had higher sales than those hired using the old selection criteria. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 106 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 130) Emotional intelligence appears to be especially relevant in jobs that demand a high degree of social interaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 106 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 131) People in good moods are less likely to cut corners by using rules of thumb to help them make decisions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 132) A cycle can exist in which positive moods cause people to be more creative, which leads to positive feedback from those observing their work, which in turn results in a positive mood. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods


133) Several studies have shown that negotiators who fake anger in a negotiation can win an advantage over their opponents by doing so. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 108 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 134) For most people, it appears that a negative mood resulting from a bad day at work does not carry over to the next day. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 109 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods 135) There tends to be high agreement on what emotions mean within cultures, but not between cultures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 136) Cultural factors influence what is or isn't considered as emotionally appropriate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 137) What's acceptable in one culture may seem unusual or even dysfunctional in another. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 138) It is likely that most people within a given culture would agree on what a particular emotion means. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) In the US there is a bias to regularly express intense negative emotions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


140) In a highly individualistic culture an observer seeing a happy expression on a friend's face would tend to think that the friend is happy because of something the observer has done. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 110 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 141) Explain the differences between the following terms: affect, emotions, and moods. Answer: Affect is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience. It's an umbrella concept that encompasses both emotions and moods. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Finally, moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and which lack a contextual stimulus. Page Ref: 97 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 142) What functions do emotions serve? Answer: We need emotions to think rationally. Darwin argued that emotions developed over time to help humans solve problems. Emotions are useful because they motivate people to engage in actions important for survival. Page Ref: 100 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 143) Discuss the impact the day of the week and time of day have on emotions. Answer: People tend to be in their worst moods early in the week and in their best moods late in the week. People are generally in lower spirits early in the morning. Levels of positive affect tend to peak around the halfway point between waking and sleeping. Negative affect, however, shows little fluctuation throughout the day. So in organizations, we can expect more positive interactions midmorning and later in the day, as well as later in the workweek. Page Ref: 100-101 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods? 144) Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions. Answer: The evidence confirms differences between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others. In contrasting the genders, women show greater emotional expression than men; they experience emotions more intensely; and they display more frequent expressions of both positive and negative emotions, except anger. In contrast to men, women also report more comfort in expressing emotions. These differences may be explained by the way men and women have been socialized. Men are socialized to be tough while women are socialized to be nurturing. Page Ref: 103 Topic: What Are Emotions and Moods?


145) What is emotional labor? Answer: Emotional labor is an employee's expression of organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions at work. This concept emerged from studies of service jobs. Managers expect employees to be courteous, not hostile, in interactions with coworkers. The true challenge is when employees have to project one emotion while simultaneously feeling another. This disparity is emotional dissonance, and it can take a heavy toll on employees. Left untreated, bottled-up feelings of frustration, anger, and resentment can eventually lead to emotional exhaustion and burnout. Emotional labor creates dilemmas for employees. Page Ref: 103 Topic: Emotional Labor 146) What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions? Answer: Felt emotions are an individual's actual emotions. In contrast, displayed emotions are those that are organizationally-required and considered appropriate in a given job. They are not innate; they are learned. The key point here is that felt and displayed emotions are often different. Page Ref: 104 Topic: Emotional Labor 147) What is emotional intelligence? Answer: Emotional intelligence is a person's ability to be self-aware, to detect emotions in others, and to manage emotional cues and information. People high in emotional intelligence are most likely to be effective since they know heir own emotions and are good at reading emotional cues of others. Page Ref: 105 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 148) Discuss the case against emotional intelligence. Answer: The critics of EI suggest the concept has a number of problems. Critics suggest it is too vague a concept. To many researchers, it is not clear what EI is. Many times different researchers focus on different skills. They also suggest that EI cannot be measured. Many measures are selfreported, meaning there is no right or wrong answer. The validity of EI is suspect. Some critics argue that because EI is so closely related to intelligence and personality, once you control for these factors, EI has nothing unique to offer. Page Ref: 105-106 Topic: Emotional Intelligence 149) What is the relationship between creativity and moods? Answer: People who are in good moods are more creative than people in bad moods. They produce more ideas, others think their ideas are original, and they tend to identify more creative options to problems. Supervisors should actively try to keep employees happy because this will create more good moods, which in turn leads people to be more creative. Other researchers have argued that when people are in positive moods, they may relax and not engage in the critical thinking necessary for some forms of creativity. However, this view is controversial. Page Ref: 107 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods


150) Discuss the relationship between moods and customer service. Answer: An employee's emotional state influences customer service, which influences levels of repeat business and levels of customer satisfaction. Providing quality customer service, however, may put employees in a state of emotional dissonance which can lead long term to job burnout, lower job performance and lower job satisfaction. Studies have also identified emotional contagion can occur whereby emotions can be "caught" from others. When employees express positive emotions, customer respond similarly. When customer respond to positive employee emotions, they have been found to shop longer. Unfortunately, this also works in the reverse. That is, when an employee experiences a negative emotion, this is also contagious - and caught by the customer. Page Ref: 108-109 Topic: OB Applications of Emotions and Moods


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 8 Foundations of Group Behavior 1) Which one of the following characteristics is not necessarily true about groups? A) Group members are interdependent. B) Groups have two or more members. C) Groups have externally assigned goals. D) Groups interact. E) Members come together to achieve particular objectives. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 2) What sort of groups is defined by the organization's structure? A) informal B) task C) friendship D) interest E) formal Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 3) An elementary school principal and her 18 teachers form a(n) ________. A) informal group B) friendship group C) command group D) interest group E) normative group Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 4) When do informal groups appear? A) in response to the need for social contact B) in reaction to formal groups C) as a result of social needs D) most frequently in bureaucracies E) when formal groups cannot meet their goals Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups


5) Julia, Bree and David work in different departments, but often eat lunch together. They are an example of what type of group? A) formal B) informal C) command D) task E) reactant Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 6) Which of the following statements is true? A) All task groups are also informal groups. B) All command groups are also task groups. C) All task groups are also friendship groups. D) All command groups are also informal groups. E) All informal groups are also command groups. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 7) The group type that is determined by the organization chart is the ________ group. A) job B) work C) authority D) social E) command Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 8) Which one of the following group types is organizationally determined? A) job B) task C) interest D) authority E) social Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups


9) A group that develops outside of work to support a local sports team is an example of what sort of group? A) booster B) interest C) friendship D) sports E) miscreant Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 10) Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) ________ group. A) union B) support C) interest D) work E) emancipated Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 11) Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups? A) They are longer lasting than friendship groups. B) They develop because individual members have one or more common characteristics. C) They are formed to achieve some common objective with which each member is concerned. D) They are governed by labor laws. E) They are likely to involve great social conflict. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 12) Which of the following is not one of the most common reasons people join groups? A) security B) status C) equity D) power E) goal achievement Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 8-1 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups


13) A group that is determined by the organization chart and composed of the individuals who report directly to a given manager is known as a(n) ________. A) task group B) command group C) friendship group D) interest group E) informal group Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 14) A group that is organizationally determined, but that can cross command relationships is known as a(n) ________. A) task group B) command group C) friendship group D) interest group E) informal group Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 15) Which of the following is true? A) All groups provide the same benefits to their members. B) Different groups provide different benefits to their members. C) Different groups provide the same benefits to their members. D) Group members seldom reap any benefits from their membership. E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 16) When group members "test the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable, they are most likely in which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


17) John's group has developed a strong sense of group identity and has assimilated a common set of expectations defining appropriate member behavior. John's group has most likely completed which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 18) Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of the group development model? A) forming B) storming C) joining D) adjourning Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development 19) The curriculum committee members are resisting some of the newly created policies and are in conflict over who will chair the committee. They are most likely in which stage of group development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) adjourning Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 20) For permanent work groups, which is the last stage in the group's development? A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development


21) Which of the following statements is true concerning the five stage group development model? A) Stage IV (performing) is always the most preferable. B) Several stages can go on simultaneously. C) Groups in Stage III will outperform those in Stage II. D) Groups proceed clearly from one stage to the next sequentially. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development 22) What term is used for a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position in a social unit? A) role B) role perception C) role identity D) role expectation E) identity Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 23) Our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation is A) role identity. B) role ambiguity. C) role expectation. D) role perception. E) role conflict. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 24) When Judith became a doctor she modeled her manner on her observations of more experienced doctors, and also on the behavior of doctors in medical dramas she had enjoyed watching as a child on TV. What is Judith modeling her manner upon? A) the role behaviors of doctors B) her role perception of doctors C) the role identity of doctors D) her role expectation of doctors E) the core role actions of doctors Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


25) Which of the following is true of role identity? A) Role perception creates the attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role. B) People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when the situation requires change. C) There is considerable inertia in role identity after roles are changed. D) Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation. E) No two people ever agree on what constitutes a role. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 26) Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and the business expanded to offer computer repair and custom programming. You have noticed that people have definite expectations about what their appropriate roles within the expanding company should be. You can help the people in the company understand their roles and the roles of other people by explaining some common facts about roles. Which of the following is not true? A) Each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles. B) Most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands require major changes. C) Role perception is how people believe others are expected to act in their given roles. D) It may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a psychological contract. E) People can be flexible in the roles that they play. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 27) John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair work. He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn't know whether to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from role ________. A) conflict B) expectations C) perception D) identity E) duality Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


28) Most people assume that a police officer should behave in a lawful manner, and not show any favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. What term is used for this kind of belief? A) a norm B) a norm identity C) a role expectation D) a role perception E) a norm violation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 29) Zach is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Zach would like the promotion, but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. It is likely that Zach is experiencing which of the following? A) role conflict B) role expectation C) role perception D) psychological conflict E) cognitive reactance Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 30) Zimbardo's experiment at Stanford University demonstrated which of the following? A) Individuals will often do anything as long as it's consistent with their role identity. B) Roles are defined by external authority figures. C) Divergent role expectations create role conflict. D) All groups have established norms. E) People will conform even when they know they are wrong. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 31) What term is used for acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by a group's members? A) norms B) rules C) standards D) codes of behavior E) explicit contracts Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


32) Which of the following is an example of a performance norm? A) how hard group members should work B) how the job should be performed C) how much tardiness is appropriate D) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 33) Which of the following is not a finding of the Hawthorne studies? A) A worker's behavior and sentiments are closely related. B) Group standards are highly effective in establishing individual worker output. C) Money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group standards, sentiments, and security. D) Competition between groups will maximize group output. E) Group influences are significant in affecting individual behavior. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 34) The Hawthorne researchers began by examining A) the relation between the physical environment and productivity. B) the role of money in determining worker output. C) the role of group standards in determining worker output. D) Mayo's research at Harvard. E) the bank wiring group. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 35) What is the most often cited finding of the Hawthorne studies?. A) A group's performance is significantly affected by being observed. B) Increases in illumination increase productivity. C) Role identities often lead to role expectations. D) Cohesive groups always perform at high levels. E) Groups are gentle and subtle when enforcing their norms with their members. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


36) In the follow-up portion of the Hawthorne studies with the bank wiring group, interviews determined that the group was operating well below its capability. Members were afraid that if they significantly increased their output, A) the unit incentive rate would be cut. B) the expected daily output will be increased. C) layoffs might occur. D) slower workers will be reprimanded. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116-117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 37) What term is used for the process by which an individual's desire for acceptance by the group and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in a change in individual attitudes and behaviors? A) conformity B) coercion C) commitment D) convergence E) confluence Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 38) The important groups to which people belong or hope to belong are known as A) conformist groups. B) status groups. C) reference groups. D) command groups. E) nonconformist groups. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 39) In Asch's experiment, what percent of the subjects gave at least one answer that conformed to an option which they knew was wrong but was consistent with the replies provided by the other group members? A) 10 B) 20 C) 40 D) 60 E) 75 Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 117-118 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


40) The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of ________. A) group norms pressing us toward conformity B) how seating arrangements create conformity C) convergence D) status E) cognitive dissonance Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 41) Since Asch's studies were conducted in the early 1950s, what updates have been identified in the research since that time? A) Asch's findings are considered culture bound. B) The levels of conformity have steadily increased. C) Conformity to social norms has been found to be lower in collectivist cultures. D) Conformity to norms is no longer as powerful a force in groups. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 42) What term is used for antisocial actions by organizational members who voluntarily violate significant norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both? A) ethical dilemmas B) deviant workplace behavior C) abnormal behavior D) discommitment behavior E) reactive affirmation behavior Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 43) What percentage of employees have reported having suffered incivility in the workplace? A) 10 B) 20 C) 50 D) 75 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


44) Sally works as a salesperson in a department store. Whenever a customer asks for an item that is in stock but not on display, she usually tells them that the product is out of stock. "It's a pain going into the stock-room to find an item," says Sally "Nobody in my department ever tells a customer the truth about what is in stock." This example illustrates which of the following facts about deviant workplace behavior? A) Deviant workplace behavior will arise when tasks that an employee is supposed to perform are unpleasant or difficult. B) Most workers do not consider lying to a customer be deviant workplace behavior. C) Workers will lie to customers as long as the customers do not complain about it. D) Deviant workplace behavior flourishes where it's supported by group norms. E) Groups will come to their own conclusions about what is and isn't appropriate. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 119 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 45) Which of the following is NOT considered a deviant workplace behavior? A) leaving early B) lying about hours worked C) gossiping and spreading rumors D) blaming coworkers E) helping a co-worker complete a project Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: Exh 8-4 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 46) A recent study suggested that individuals working in a group were more likely to lie, cheat, and steal than those working alone. This may be due to the fact that A) it's easier to steal in numbers. B) groups provide a shield of anonymity. C) conformity is not critical with deviant behaviors. D) it's easier to rationalize deviant behavior than appropriate work behaviors in groups. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 119 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 47) What term is used for the socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others? A) regency B) authority C) status D) command E) magnus Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 245 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

48) Which of the following people are likely to have low status in a group? A) people who can allocate resources B) a group's formal leader C) people whose contributions are critical to the group's success D) people who have little control over the group's outcomes E) the outstanding performers Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 49) People who control the outcomes of a group through their power tend to be perceived as ________. A) high conformists B) deviants C) high status D) low status E) highly anonymous Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 50) Which of the following statements about status is not true? A) Status is an important motivator. B) Possession of personal characteristics that are positively valued by the group will give a member higher status. C) Low-status members are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other members. D) High-status members are better able to resist conformity pressures than lower status members. E) Conformity is affected by status. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120-121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 51) Low-status people ________. A) speak out more often B) criticize more often C) are not likely to be fully utilized D) interrupt others more E) state more commands Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


52) High-status people tend to ________. A) be more assertive B) assist more C) be more reflective D) have superior insight E) be well liked Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 53) A group is most likely to tolerate deviation from a group's conformity norms by which of the following individuals? A) a high-status individual who does not care about the social rewards the group provides B) a high-status individual who is tightly integrated into the group's social structure C) a low-status individual who has only recently entered the group D) a low-status individual who strongly wishes to integrate within the group E) a low-status individual who is not well regarded by the rest of the group Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 54) If your group is engaged in problem solving, which of the following is likely to be the most effective group size? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 7 Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 55) What term is used for the tendency for individuals to spend less effort when working collectively than when working individually? A) groupthink B) the rule of diminishing returns C) social loafing D) groupshift E) clustering Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


56) Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing? A) Increase the rewards the group is given if it succeeds. B) Increase the amount by which the group's progress is monitored. C) Provide means by which individual efforts can be identified. D) Increase the size of the group. E) Increase the group's workload. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121-122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 57) Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his departments. Joe remembers that he has learned in an OB course that ________. A) small groups are good for developing ideas B) large groups are better at taking action C) social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively D) team spirit always spurs individual effort and enhances the group's overall productivity E) groups composed of all men or all women are the most effective groups, in general Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 58) A common stereotype that the sense of team spirit spurs individual effort and enhances the group's overall productivity was challenged in a rope-pulling exercise conducted by ________. A) Mayo B) Ringelmann C) Hawthorne D) Janis E) Maslow Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 59) What did Ringelmann conclude after he compared the results of individual and group performance? A) The larger the group, the greater the individual productivity. B) Individual productivity goes down as group size goes up. C) Total productivity tends to decline in large groups. D) Group size is not a determinant of individual productivity. E) Groups served little purpose in organizations. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


60) Social loafing may be attributed to ________. A) the rise of Internet usage B) the fact that efficiency declines when individuals think that their contributions cannot be measured. C) synergy D) the more members, the greater the total productivity E) accountability is obvious Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 61) All of the following are ways to prevent social loafing EXCEPT A) Set group goals so the group has a common purpose to strive toward. B) Increase intergroup competition. C) Engage in peer evaluation to evaluate each member's contribution to the group. D) Ensure the group results cannot be attributed to any single person. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 62) What term is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are motivated to stay in the group? A) cohesiveness B) integration C) sociability D) reliability E) interdependence Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 63) The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on which norms established by the group? A) status-related B) decision-making C) performance-related D) conformity-related E) cohesiveness Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


64) Which of the following is not likely to increase group cohesiveness? A) increasing the group size B) members spending a lot of time together C) competition with other groups is increased D) the group is physically isolated E) providing group rewards Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 65) What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low? A) Internal conflict will be high. B) Internal conflict will be low. C) Productivity will be high. D) Productivity will be low. E) It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 66) Group decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when which of the following is sought. A) acceptance of the solution B) speed C) efficiency D) clear responsibility E) a conjunctive solution Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122-123 Topic: Group Decision Making 67) Which is not a weakness of group decision making? A) It is time consuming. B) There is less originality. C) It suffers from ambiguous responsibility. D) It can be dominated by one or a few members. E) It's not clear who is accountable for bad decisions. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making


68) Individual decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when which of the following is sought? A) speed B) creativity C) acceptance D) quality E) broad unanimity Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 69) Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. You should expect to find that ________. A) group decision making will be faster B) group discussions will be shared equally C) there will be increased acceptance of the decision with group decision-making D) group decision making will be very costly E) groups will find reaching a decision to require less effort than individuals Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 70) Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. You should expect a weakness of group decision making to be ________. A) less complete knowledge B) more time will be used to make the decision C) employees will be less accepting of the group decision D) the decision will probably be a lower-quality decision E) decreased risky shift Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 71) What is generally the result of groupthink? A) higher-quality decisions B) more risky decisions C) less critical analysis D) unpopular decisions E) social reification Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123-124 Topic: Group Decision Making 251 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

72) Which of the following is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views? A) group conformity B) groupshift C) groupthink D) compromise E) risk transfer Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 73) Groups tend to be more effective than individuals if A) creativity is important. B) speed is important. C) acceptance is not needed. D) efficiency is critical. E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 74) Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making. You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and you know that the group is very cohesive. You conclude that they may be suffering from ________. A) inefficiency syndrome B) groupshift C) disintegrating norms D) groupthink E) risky shift Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 75) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of groupthink? A) Group members rationalize any resistance to the assumptions they have made. B) Members apply direct pressures on those who express doubts about the group's shared views. C) Members who have doubts keep silent about misgivings. D) There is a shift toward risky decisions. E) There appears to be an illusion of unanimity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Topic: Group Decision Making


76) All of the following are examples of American foreign policy decisions that experienced groupthink EXCEPT A) unpreparedness at Pearl Harbor in 1941. B) the Cuban Missile Crisis. C) the Bay of Pigs Fiasco. D) the escalation of the Vietnam War. E) the Columbia space shuttle disaster. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Topic: Group Decision Making 77) Which of the following can minimize groupthink? A) Significantly increase the size of the group to more than ten. B) Managers/leaders should seek input from all group members. C) Managers/leaders should openly express their own opinion. D) Avoid appointing anyone to offer divergent perspectives. E) Develop a group mission statement. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 124 Topic: Group Decision Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 78) What result does groupshift generally have on the decisions a group makes? A) They are made by groups rather than individuals. B) They are generally riskier. C) They are made more quickly. D) They are less effective. E) They are objectively incorrect. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124-125 Topic: Group Decision Making 79) Which of the following is not an explanation for the phenomenon of groupshift? A) Discussion creates familiarization among members. B) Most developed nations value risk. C) The group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action. D) The group diffuses responsibility. E) People willing to take risks are admired. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making


80) Which of the following is likely to generate the most pressure for members to conform to opinions? A) face-to-face interacting groups B) brainstorming C) Delphi technique D) nominal group technique E) electronic meeting Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making 81) What is brainstorming? A) a technique used to build group cohesiveness B) a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking C) a process for generating ideas that withholds criticism D) a process used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution E) the most effective means of generating answers Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making 82) Which of the following techniques most restricts discussion or interpersonal communication during the decision-making process? A) groupthink B) nominal group C) brainstorm D) electronic meeting E) formal process Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Group Decision Making 83) What sort of group should you avoid if you want to minimize interpersonal conflict? A) interacting B) brainstorming C) nominal D) electronic E) social Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Group Decision Making


84) American managers must understand status varies between cultures. Which of the following statement is NOT true of culture? A) The French are highly status conscious. B) Status in the US relies more heavily on the basis of titles than accomplishments. C) Asians derive status from family position. D) The British place a high degree of importance on family genealogy. E) A failure to understand how cultural differences affect status may lessen one's interpersonal effectiveness in the global arena. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 85) In the early stages of a group, diversity A) leads to increased group conflict. B) improves group morale. C) increases group members' satisfaction with their groups. D) creates more cohesiveness E) occurs only when there is homogenous group membership. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 Topic: Global Implications 86) Groups may be classified as either formal or informal. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 87) A group must have at least two members and one or more objectives. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 88) Members in a group are interdependent. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 89) The tasks in groups within an organization must be directed toward organizational goals. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups


90) Command and task groups are dictated by the formal organization whereas interest and friendship groups are not. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 91) All task groups are also command groups. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 92) A command group is composed of the individuals who report directly to a given manager. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 93) Whereas command groups are determined by the organization chart, task, and interests; friendship groups instead develop because of the necessity to satisfy one's work needs. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 94) There is no single reason why individuals join groups. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 95) Different groups provide different benefits to their members. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 113 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 96) The forming stage of group development is one of intragroup conflict. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development 97) When group members are "testing the waters" to determine what behaviors are acceptable, they are most likely in the forming stage of group development. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development 98) When the group prepares for its disbandment, it is in the adjourning stage. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development 256 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

99) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in the group's development. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development 100) Work groups have a structure that shapes the behavior of members and makes it possible to explain and predict a large portion of individual behavior within the group as well as the performance of the group itself. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 101) People generally cannot shift roles quickly. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 102) Our perceptions of roles are generally formed early in our lives and remain stable. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 103) We all are usually required to play one role and our behavior stabilizes with that role. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 104) One's view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 105) When an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations, the result is role divergence. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 115 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 106) Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 107) Only some groups have established norms. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 257 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

108) The Hawthorne studies provide strong evidence for the power of norms over group members. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 109) One conclusion of the Hawthorne studies was that worker output was highly effective in establishing group standards. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 116-117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 110) If group acceptance were not important to you, the need to conform to the group's norms would decrease. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 111) Conformity is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 112) "Don't be a chiseler" is one example of norms the group established in the Hawthorne studies. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 117 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 113) Evidence indicates that Asch's findings about group conformity are culture bound. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 117-118 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 114) Deviant workplace behavior covers a wide range of antisocial actions by organizational members that intentionally violate established norms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 118 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


115) Individuals working in a group are less likely to lie, cheat, and steal as a result of peer pressure. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 119 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 116) A good looking person may have higher status in a group if good looks are positively valued by the group. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 117) High-status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other group members. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 120 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 118) Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less energy when working individually than when working collectively. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 119) If the goal is problem solving, smaller groups are more effective than larger ones. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 120) Ringelmann's research found that groups can generate more output than the sum of the individuals. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 121) Social loafing may be caused by the concentration of responsibility. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 122) As group performance increases with group size, the addition of new members to the group has positive returns on productivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 259 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

123) Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 124) Giving rewards to individuals in a group will generally increase cohesiveness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 125) Groups generally generate more complete information. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Decision Making 126) Group decisions are more likely to be accepted than individual decisions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 127) Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 128) If a low-to-medium ability person dominates the group, the group's overall effectiveness will suffer. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 129) Individual decisions tend to be more creative than group decisions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 130) If you become so enamored with seeking concurrence in your group that it overrides the critical appraisal of alternative courses of action, you may be experiencing groupthink. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


131) Groupthink improves group performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Topic: Group Decision Making 132) The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Topic: Group Decision Making 133) To minimize groupthink, managers should consider appointing a member to play the role of devil's advocate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Topic: Group Decision Making AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 134) Groupshift can cause groups to make more risky decisions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making 135) Brainstorming is meant to overcome pressures for conformity. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making 136) "Production blocking" impedes the sharing of ideas and can lead to groupshift. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making 137) Brainstorming generates ideas in an extremely efficient manner. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125 Topic: Group Decision Making 138) Research has shown that brainstorming groups consistently outperform nominal groups. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Global Implications


139) Social loafing appears to have a Western bias; it is consistent with individualistic cultures and is not consistent with collectivist societies. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 140) The importance of status is consistent from culture to culture. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 141) Differentiate between formal and informal groups. Answer: Formal groups are those defined by the organization's structure, with designated work assignments establishing tasks. In formal groups, the behaviors that one should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals. Informal groups are alliances that are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. These groups are natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to the need for social contact. Page Ref: 112 Topic: Defining and Classifying Groups 142) Explain the five-stage group development model. Answer: The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is characterized by a uncertainly about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership. Once members begin to think of themselves as part of a group, they enter the second stage of storming. This is a stage of intragroup conflict where there is resistance to the constraints that group membership imposes on individuality. The norming stage is one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. Norming is complete when the group solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what is appropriate. Performing is the fourth stage. The structure is fully functional and accepted. Group energy is focused on understanding each other to performing the task at hand. Performing is the last stage in the group development of permanent work group. For temporary groups that have a limited task to perform, there is an adjourning stage that prepares for its disbandment.. Page Ref: 114 Topic: Stages of Group Development


143) Differentiate the terms role identity, role perception, and role expectation. Answer: There are certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role, and they create the role identity. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands clearly required major changes. One's view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. Based on an interpretation of how we believe we are supposed to behave, we engage in certain types of behavior. Role expectations are defined as how others believe you should act in a given situation. How you behave is determined to a large extent by the role defined in the context in which you are acting. Page Ref: 115-116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 144) What are norms? Answer: Norms are acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group's members. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances. From an individual's standpoint, they tell what is expected of you in certain situations. When agreed to and accepted by the group, norms act as a means of influencing the behavior of group members with a minimum of external controls. Norms differ among groups, communities, and societies, but they all have them. The most common group norm is a performance norm. Page Ref: 116 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 145) What are deviant workplace behaviors? Answer: Deviant workplace behaviors are also called antisocial behavior or workplace incivility. These are voluntary behaviors that violate significant organization norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members. There has been an increase in rudeness and disregard toward others in recent years. Almost half of employees who have suffered incivility report that it has led them to think about changing jobs. Page Ref: 118-119 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 146) Explain social loafing. Answer: Social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. In the late 1920s, Max Ringelmann conducted rope-pulling experiments. Group performance increases with group size, but the addition of new members to the group has diminishing returns on productivity. This may be due to the fact that others in the group are not carrying their fair share and they experience the dispersion of responsibility. That is, there will be a reduction in efficiency when individuals think that their contribution cannot be measured. Page Ref: 121 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness


147) What is cohesiveness? Discuss the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity. Answer: Cohesiveness is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. Studies consistently show that the relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on the performance-related norms established by the group. If performance-related norms are high (for example, high output, quality work, cooperation with individuals outside the group), a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. But if cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases, but less than in the high-cohesiveness/high-norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity will tend to fall into the low-to-moderate range. Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 148) Identify ways that you can encourage cohesiveness. Answer: To encourage group cohesiveness, you might try one or more of the following suggestions: (1) Make the group smaller. (2) Encourage agreement with group goals. (3) Increase the time members spend together. (4) Increase the status of the group and the perceived difficulty of attaining membership in the group. (5) Stimulate competition with other groups. (6) Give rewards to the group rather than to individual members. (7) Physically isolate the group. Page Ref: 122 Topic: Group Properties: Roles, Norms, Status, Size, and Cohesiveness 149) Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of group decision making. Answer: Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. Groups bring more input into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This opens up the opportunity for more approaches and alternatives to be considered. Groups will almost always outperform even the best individual. Groups generate higher quality decisions. Finally, groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. Members who participated in making a decision are likely to enthusiastically support the decision and encourage others to accept it. Groups also have drawbacks. They are time consuming. They take more time to reach a solution than would be the case if an individual were making the decision alone. There are conformity pressures in groups. The desire by group members to be accepted and considered an asset to the group can result in squashing any overt disagreement. Group discussion can be dominated by one or a few members. If this dominant coalition is composed of low- and moderate-ability members, the group's overall effectiveness will suffer. Finally, group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. In an individual decision, it's clear who is accountable for the final outcome. In a group decision, the responsibility of any single member is watered down. Page Ref: 122-123 Topic: Group Decision Making


150) Explain groupthink and groupshift. Answer: Groupthink describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance. Groupshift is a special case of groupthink. It indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. In some situations, caution dominates, and there is a conservative shift. More often, however, the evidence indicates that groups tend toward a risky shift. Page Ref: 123-125 Topic: Group Decision Making


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 11e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 9 Understanding Work Teams 1) Which of the following helps explain the current popularity of teams? Teams ________. A) are easier to manage B) better utilize employee talents C) are less expensive D) promote socialization and cohesion E) increase the speed of decision making. Answer: B Explanation: B) As organizations have restructured themselves to compete more effectively and efficiently, they have turned to teams as a better way to use employee talents. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 122 Objective: Popularity of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 2) Which of the following statements best defines a work group? A) The performance of a work group is generally greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members. B) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort. C) A work group consists of 3 or more people who take on self-supervising responsibilities. D) A work group consists of 3 or more people from across departmental or functional lines. E) A work group is a group comprised of 10 or more people who belong to the same department. Answer: B Explanation: B) A group consists of two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to achieve particular objectives. A work group is defined as a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each group member perform within his or her area of responsibility. They have no need or opportunity to engage in collective work that requires joint effort. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Groups Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1


3) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team? A) Today teams are rarely used in organizations. B) Teams are less flexible than traditional departments. C) A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. D) Work teams are less responsive to changing events than traditional departments. E) Teams impedes employee participation in decision making. Answer: C Explanation: C) Today most of the organizations use teams. Teams are more flexible and responsive to changing events than traditional departments or other forms of permanent groupings. A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. Teams facilitate employee participation in operating decisions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Groups Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 4) ________ results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs. A) Synergy B) Positive affect C) Emotional labor D) Cognitive dissonance E) Emotional dissonance Answer: A Explanation: A) A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. The individual efforts result in a level of performance greater than the sum of those individual inputs. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Synergy Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1


5) Which of the following statements is true regarding a work group? A) Individuals working in a workgroup are dependent on each other. B) Work groups primarily engage in collective work that requires joint effort. C) Work groups do not generate any positive synergy through coordinated effort. D) Information sharing is not the primary function of a work group. E) The performance level of the workgroup is greater than the summation of each group member's individual contribution. Answer: C Explanation: C) A work group consists of two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent, who have come together to achieve particular objectives. The primary function of workgroup is sharing information. Work groups have no need or opportunity to engage in collective work that requires joint effort. So their performance is merely the summation of each group member's individual contribution. There is no positive synergy that would create an overall level of performance greater than the sum of the inputs. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 6) Which of the following is not a difference between work groups and work teams? Work groups ________, and work teams ________. A) shave neutral synergy, have positive synergy B) rely on independent accountability, rely on mutual and independent accountability C) require joint efforts, are the summation of the individual contribution D) have random and varied skills, have complimentary skills E) share information, rely on collective performance Answer: C Explanation: C) Work groups have no need or opportunity to engage in collective work that requires joint effort. Work group performance is merely the summation of each group member's individual contribution making (C) the false answer. All other answer choices accurately describe the difference between work groups and work teams. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1


7) A team consists of employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving the work environment but they do not have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. This is most likely to be a ________ team. A) cross-functional B) virtual C) self-managed D) problem-solving E) task Answer: D Explanation: D) In a problem-solving team, members share ideas or suggest how work processes and methods can be improved; they rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Types of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 8) Self-managed teams typically consist of ________ employees. A) two to four B) four to eight C) ten to fifteen D) twenty to thirty E) forty to fifty Answer: C Explanation: C) Self-managed teams typically consist of ten to fifteen employees. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Problem-Solving Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 9) Which of the following types of teams is most likely to be assembled to improve the efficiency of a company's production process? A) cross-functional B) problem-solving C) self-managed D) critical E) task Answer: B Explanation: B) Problem-solving teams share ideas or suggest how work processes and methods (such as quality, efficiency, and the work environment), can be improved. They rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Problem-Solving Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


10) ________ teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. A) Critical B) Self-managed work C) Cross-functional D) Problem-solving E) Task Answer: B Explanation: B) Self-managed work teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Self-Managed Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 11) Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams? A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees. B) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well. C) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction. D) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other. E) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance. Answer: E Explanation: E) Self-managed work teams are groups of employees (typically ten to fifteen in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Supervisory positions take on decreased importance and are sometimes even eliminated. Self-managed teams do not typically manage conflicts well. Members of this team report higher levels of job satisfaction than other individuals. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Self-Managed Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 12) Which of the following teams are more likely to be made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas? A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) task E) rapid action Answer: C Explanation: C) Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 270 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

13) ________ teams are an effective way to allow people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. A) Self-managed B) Problem-solving C) Cross-functional D) Task E) Command Answer: C Explanation: C) Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. They are an effective means of allowing people from diverse areas to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 14) The Boeing Company created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate shims on the company's C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team. A) command B) cross-functional C) self-managed D) problem-solving E) task Answer: B Explanation: B) Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. They are an effective means of allowing people from diverse areas to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


15) Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team? A) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels. B) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department. C) Today cross-functional teams are rarely used in well established organizations. D) In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short. E) Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects. Answer: E Explanation: E) Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas. Today cross-functional teams are widely used in several organizations. Cross-functional teams are an effective means of developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects. Their early stages of development are often long, as members learn to work with diversity and complexity. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 16) Which of the following types of teams allows for collaboration between team members who are physically dispersed? A) problem-solving teams B) self-managed teams C) task teams D) virtual teams E) command teams Answer: D Explanation: D) Virtual teams use computer technology to unite physically dispersed members and achieve a common goal. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Virtual Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


17) Which of the following statements is true regarding virtual teams? A) Virtual teams are less task oriented than face-to-face teams. B) In the case of virtual teams there is less social rapport and direct interaction among members. C) Virtual teams report more satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. D) Virtual teams exchange more social–emotional information than face-to-face teams do. E) For increasing the efficiency of a virtual team, managers should empower the team and avoid monitoring its progress closely. Answer: B Explanation: B) Virtual teams tend to be more task oriented and exchange less social–emotional information than face-to-face teams do. Not surprisingly, their members report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. In the case of virtual teams there is less social rapport and direct interaction among members. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Virtual Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 18) Eva is not getting the results she needs from her data base administration team. She believes that this problem is occurring because the administration team is a virtual team. Which of the following is one of the things that Eva should do to create an effective virtual team? A) Conduct training for improving interpersonal skills B) Allow more independence among members. C) Monitor progress of the team closely. D) Include peer evaluation in the appraisal system. E) Avoid publicizing team successes company wide. Answer: C Explanation: C) For virtual teams to be effective, management should ensure that (1) trust is established among members; (2) team progress is monitored closely; and (3) the efforts and products of the team are publicized throughout the organization (so the team does not become invisible). The members should be highly monitored, and less independent. Training related to interpersonal skills will not be very effective in the case of a virtual team. Peer evaluation is not related to improving effectiveness of a virtual team. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Virtual Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


19) Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams? A) team efficacy B) a well-established company identity C) adequate resources D) member flexibility E) leadership and structure Answer: B Explanation: B) A well-established company identity is not one of the key components of effective teams. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Objective: Components of Effective Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 20) With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors? A) team efficacy B) climate of trust C) common purpose D) social loafing E) specific goals Answer: B Explanation: B) Climate of trust is a contextual factor that affects the effectiveness of teams. Team efficacy, social loafing, specific goals, and common purpose are process related factors that affect the effectiveness of the team. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Objective: Contextual Factors of Effective Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 21) According to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team? A) leadership and structure B) team efficacy C) member flexibility D) performance evaluation and reward systems E) abilities of members Answer: B Explanation: B) Process variables are events within the team that influence effectiveness. Team efficacy is a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Objective: Adequate Resources Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


22) The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories; context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables belongs to the composition category? A) adequate resources B) conflict level C) team efficacy D) performance evaluation system E) personality of team members Answer: E Explanation: E) The personality of team members is a key component that affects the effectiveness of teams and it belongs to the composition category. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 126 Objective: Popularity of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 23) In a ________ team, the manager's job becomes more about managing outside the team. A) technical B) self-managed C) problem-solving D) task E) virtual Answer: B Explanation: B) In a self-managed team, team members absorb many of the duties typically assumed by managers. A manager's job then becomes managing outside (rather than inside) the team. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 Objective: Leadership and Structure Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 24) Leadership is especially important in ________, in which different teams coordinate their efforts to produce a desired outcome. A) technical teams B) self-managed teams C) problem-solving teams D) management teams E) multi-team systems Answer: E Explanation: E) Leadership is especially important in multi-team systems. Here, leaders need to empower teams by delegating responsibility to them, and then play the role of facilitator, making sure the teams work together rather than against one another. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 Objective: Leadership and Structure Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


25) Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each others' backs after the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members' work, looking for a mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is most likely hindering the success of Araceli's team? A) adequate resources B) climate of trust C) team structure D) performance evaluations E) leadership Answer: B Explanation: B) Araceli doesn't contribute because she does not feel like the group has a climate of trust. Interpersonal trust facilitates cooperation, reduces the need to monitor each others' behavior, and bonds members around the belief that others on the team won't take advantage of them. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Trust Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 26) In addition to evaluating and rewarding employees for their individual contributions, management should consider using ________ to reinforce team effort and commitment. A) personalized incentives B) consistent wages for all team members C) individual performance evaluations D) fixed hourly wages E) profit sharing Answer: E Explanation: E) In addition to evaluating and rewarding employees for their individual contributions, management should modify the traditional, individually oriented evaluation and reward system to reflect team performance. Group-based appraisals, profit sharing, gainsharing are examples of team reward systems. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 Objective: Reward Systems Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


27) Team members with good listening, feedback, and conflict resolution skills are examples of ________ skills. A) technical B) problem-solving C) decision-making D) interpersonal E) cognitive appraisal Answer: D Explanation: D) Team members with good listening, feedback, and conflict resolution skills are examples of interpersonal skills. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 127 AACSB: Communication Objective: Skills of Team Members Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 28) A high-ability team is composed of mostly intelligent members. Which of the following statements is true regarding a high-ability team? A) High-ability teams are also less adaptable to changing situations as compared to low-ability teams. B) When tasks are simple, high-ability teams perform better than low-ability teams. C) High-ability teams should be reserved for tackling the tough problems. D) Low-ability teams can more effectively apply existing knowledge to new problems than highability teams. E) When the task entails considerable thought, lower-ability teams perform better than highability teams. Answer: C Explanation: C) High-ability teams are more adaptable to changing situations; they can more effectively apply existing knowledge to new problems. When tasks are simple, high-ability teams do not perform as well, perhaps because members become bored and turn their attention to other activities that are more stimulating, whereas low-ability teams stay on task. High-ability teams should be reserved for tackling the tough problems. When the task entails considerable thought, high-ability teams perform better than lower-ability teams. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Skills of Team Members Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


29) People scoring high on ________ are valuable in teams because they're good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when that support is truly needed. A) conscientiousness B) positivity C) emotional stability D) agreeableness E) openness to experience Answer: A Explanation: A) Conscientious people are valuable in teams because they're good at backing up other team members, and they're also good at sensing when that support is truly needed. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Personality Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 30) Teams that are composed of people who score high on ________ are more creative and innovative. A) emotional stability B) agreeableness C) openness to experience D) extraversion E) conscientiousness Answer: C Explanation: C) Team members scoring high on openness to experience communicate better with one another and throw out more ideas, which makes teams composed of open people more creative and innovative. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Personality Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 31) Teams that consist of team members that score ________ are more likely to perform poorly. A) high on conscientiousness B) low on openness to experience C) high on emotional stability D) low on extraversion E) low on agreeableness Answer: E Explanation: E) Teams that rate higher on mean levels of conscientiousness and openness to experience tend to perform better, and the minimum level of team member agreeableness also matters; teams perform poorly when they have one or more highly disagreeable members. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


32) ________suggests that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help us predict turnover. A) Employee mobility B) Organizational demography C) Residential mobility D) Demographic environment E) Population dynamics Answer: B Explanation: B) The degree to which members of a work unit (group, team, or department) share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service in the organization, is the subject of organizational demography. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 33) To realize their creative potential, diverse teams need to focus on their ________. A) similarities B) resources C) role allocation D) differences E) team efficacy Answer: D Explanation: D) To realize their creative potential, diverse teams need to focus not on their similarities but on their differences. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 34) Which of the following factors typically improves the creativity of a diverse team? A) specific goals B) team size C) proper leadership D) member flexibility E) team efficacy Answer: C Explanation: C) Proper leadership can improve the performance of diverse teams. When leaders provide an inspirational common goal for members with varying types of education and knowledge, teams are very creative. When leaders don't provide such goals, diverse teams fail to take advantage of their unique skills and are actually less creative than teams with homogeneous skills. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


35) According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________. A) increased employee satisfaction B) decreased level of conflicts C) higher employee motivation D) higher employee turnover E) higher team efficacy Answer: D Explanation: D) Organizational demography suggests that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help us predict turnover. The logic goes like this: Turnover will be greater among those with dissimilar experiences because communication is more difficult. Conflict and power struggles are more likely and are more severe when they occur. Increased conflict makes membership less attractive, so employees are more likely to quit. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 36) Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which members of a work unit (group, team, or department) share a common attribute, such as age, sex, race, or educational level? A) demographic environment B) residential mobility C) organizational demography D) population dynamics E) employee mobility Answer: C Explanation: C) The degree to which members of a work unit (group, team, or department) share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service in the organization, is the subject of organizational demography. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 37) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have ________ members. A) two to four B) three to five C) five to nine D) ten to fifteen E) fifteen to twenty Answer: C Explanation: C) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have five to nine members. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Size of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


38) Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams? A) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have twelve to fifteen members. B) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines. C) As team size increases, social loafing decreases. D) When teams have excess members mutual accountability increases. E) As team size increases, coordination problems tend to decrease. Answer: B Explanation: B) Generally speaking, the most effective teams have five to nine members. When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline, social loafing increases, and more people communicate less. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Process Variables Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 39) A team that has a good plan, but is also willing to adjust their master plan and adapt when conditions call for it demonstrates high ________, an important variable in successful team processes. A) goal specificity B) goal congruency C) social loafing D) diversity E) reflexivity Answer: E Explanation: E) Reflexivity is the team characteristic of reflecting on and adjusting the master plan when necessary. It is considered part of the process variables. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 Objective: Common Plan and Purpose Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 40) Effective teams begin their work by ________. A) allocating roles to team members according to their personalities and preferences B) analyzing the team's mission C) developing a climate of trust among team members D) developing team efficacy E) designing specific goals Answer: B Explanation: B) Effective teams begin by analyzing the team's mission, developing goals to achieve that mission, and creating strategies for achieving the goals. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 Objective: Adequate Resources Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4


41) In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, ________. A) team efficacy tends to increase B) team cohesiveness tends to decrease C) motivation of the team members tends to increase D) team members tend to decrease their efforts E) mutual accountability of the team members tends to decrease Answer: D Explanation: D) In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, individuals tend to decrease their effort. This illustrates a process loss from using teams. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 Objective: Use of Work Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 42) ________ illustrates a process loss from using teams. A) Emotional contagion B) Cognitive dissonance C) Social loafing D) Positivity offset E) Emotional dissonance Answer: C Explanation: C) In the case of a team, when each member's contribution is not clearly visible, individuals tend to decrease their effort. This is known as social loafing. Social loafing illustrates a process loss from using teams. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 130 Objective: Popularity of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 43) Members of successful teams put a tremendous amount of time and effort into discussing, shaping, and agreeing on ________ which then provides direction and guidance under any and all conditions. A) the level of individual contribution B) allocation of resources C) a common purpose D) allocation of roles E) developing team efficacy Answer: C Explanation: C) Members of successful teams put a tremendous amount of time and effort into discussing, shaping, and agreeing on a purpose that belongs to them both collectively and individually. This common purpose, when accepted by the team provides direction and guidance under any and all conditions. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 130 Objective: Turning Individuals into Team Players Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


44) Alberto's team is evaluating and developing the data base for the water pollution data of three cities. He wants to improve the team efficacy of his team. Which of the following actions can Alberto take to increase team efficacy before the project starts? A) plan a team outing for the team members B) make sure that his team is not comprised of more than nine people C) spend considerable time evaluating team members and allocating proper roles for each D) provide client's software and database training for all the team members E) create team goals that are very challenging Answer: D Explanation: D) Efficacy means that a team believes it can succeed in the job and goal that is placed before them. There are two ways of increasing efficacy: 1) provide training to improve skills and increase confidence and 2) help the team achieve small, incremental successes. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 131 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Team Efficacy Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 45) Effective teams have confidence in themselves and believe they can succeed. This confidence is called ________. A) social facilitation B) goal congruence C) social loafing D) team efficacy E) self serving bias Answer: D Explanation: D) Efficacy means that a team believes it can succeed in the job and goal that is placed before them. There are two ways to increasing efficacy: 1) provide training to improve skills and increase confidence and 2) help the team achieve small, incremental successes. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Team Efficacy Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


46) Which of the following is most likely to increase team efficacy? A) providing measurable goals B) helping the team achieve small successes C) improving the reflexivity of the team D) ensuring that team goals are challenging E) reducing the number of members on a team Answer: B Explanation: B) Efficacy means that a team believes it can succeed in the job and goal that is placed before them. There are two ways to increasing efficacy: 1) provide training to improve skills and increase confidence and 2) help the team achieve small, incremental successes. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Team Efficacy Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 47) When teams are under acute stress, they are particularly likely to have ________. A) inaccurate mental models B) high team efficacy C) goal congruence D) a self-serving bias E) high reflexivity Answer: A Explanation: A) Effective teams share accurate mental models, or knowledge and beliefs (a "psychological map") about how the work gets done. If team members have the wrong mental models, which is particularly likely with teams under acute stress, their performance suffers. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Mental Models Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 48) If team members have similar mental models then it means that the team members have similar ________. A) roles within the team B) self-efficacy C) knowledge and skills D) beliefs about how the work gets done E) attitude towards social loafing Answer: D Explanation: D) Mental models indicate knowledge and beliefs of team members about how the work gets done. If team members have different ideas about how to do things, the team will fight over how to do things rather than focus on what needs to be done. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Mental Models Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


49) Which type of conflict is almost always dysfunctional? A) task conflict B) efficacy conflict C) relationship conflict D) resource conflict E) goal conflict Answer: C Explanation: C) Conflict on a team isn't necessarily bad and can actually improve team effectiveness. Relationship conflicts, those based on interpersonal incompatibilities, tension, and animosity toward others, are almost always dysfunctional. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Conflict Levels Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 50) Coasting on the group effort is termed ________. A) emotional labor B) cognitive dissonance C) social loafing D) positivity offset E) self-concordance Answer: C Explanation: C) Individuals can engage in social loafing and coast on the group's effort because their particular contributions can't be identified. Effective teams undermine this tendency by making members individually and jointly accountable for the team's purpose, goals, and approach. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Social Loafing Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 51) On teams performing nonroutine activities, ________ conflicts stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions. A) relationship B) efficacy C) resource D) task E) social Answer: D Explanation: D) On teams performing nonroutine activities, disagreements among members about task content (called task conflicts) stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Collectivist Societies Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


52) Teams fit well in countries that score ________. A) high on power distance B) high on collectivism C) low on uncertainty avoidance D) high on long term orientation E) low on restraint Answer: B Explanation: B) Teams fit well in countries that score high on collectivism. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Training Quest. Category: Application LO: 4 53) You need to hire an analyst for an important project team. It is essential that the new employee work well on the already established team in order to meet the project's challenging deadlines. The most talented candidate doesn't have any team experience and when asked in the interview about his team experience he replied, "I prefer to work alone. I'm much more efficient alone." What should you do? A) Hire him and train him. B) Hire him and hope that he learns. C) Hire him and redesign the job. D) Look for a different candidate. E) Hire him and assign him a mentor. Answer: D Explanation: D) The candidate should not be hired. Creating teams often means resisting the urge to hire the best talent no matter what. The project has looming deadlines, so training isn't an option. Hoping that he'll learn is too much of a risk to the project, and not fair to the existing team. Redesigning the job is not an option. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Selection Quest. Category: Application LO: 4


54) Exercises that help individuals become team players include workshops on ________. A) negotiation B) individualism C) goal setting D) event planning E) recruiting Answer: A Explanation: A) Communication and negotiation are important team necessities. Workshops help employees improve their problem solving, communication, negotiation, conflictmanagement, and coaching skills. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 Objective: Training Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 55) Evidence shows that teams that switch from a competitive to a cooperative system do not ________. A) make poor decisions B) make rushed decisions C) share information D) have conflicts E) distrust each other Answer: C Explanation: C) Teams that switch from a competitive to a cooperative system do not share information and they tend to make rushed, poor-quality decisions. The low trust typical of the competitive group will not be readily replaced by high trust. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 Objective: Training Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4


56) Which of following statements is true regarding a reward system that attempts to create good team players? A) The reward system should encourage competitive efforts. B) Rewards given to individuals should be based on peer evaluation. C) The reward system should ignore individual contributions. D) Performance-based rewards could include a bonus based on achievement of team goals. E) The reward system should discourage cooperative efforts. Answer: D Explanation: D) In order to create good team players, an organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. This doesn't mean individual contributions should be ignored; rather, they should be balanced with selfless contributions to the team. In order to encourage cooperative efforts, the reward system can include a bonus based on achievement of team goals. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 Objective: Training Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 57) Which of the following techniques can be used for increasing effectiveness of teams? A) Implement a reward system that encourages competitive efforts. B) The appraisal system should take into consideration peer evaluation. C) Avoid giving promotions and pay raises for individual contributions. D) Training should be provided to those candidates who lack team skills. E) The reward system should discourage cooperative efforts. Answer: D Explanation: D) In order to create good team players, an organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. This doesn't mean individual contributions should be ignored; rather, they should be balanced with selfless contributions to the team. Training should be provided to those candidates who lack team skills. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 58) As compared to individual work, teamwork ________. A) involves fewer meetings B) takes more time C) needs less resources D) decreases communication demands E) decreases the need for conflict management Answer: B Explanation: B) Teamwork takes more time and often more resources than individual work. Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to manage, and meetings to run. So the benefits of using teams have to exceed the costs, and that's not always the case. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 133 Objective: Costs of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 288 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

59) Work should be performed by an individual if ________. A) the work is complex and requires different perspectives B) the work creates a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals C) the work is simple and does not require diverse input D) several tasks that are interdependent are to be performed for completing the work E) performing the work requires learning a new technology or understanding a new system Answer: C Explanation: C) Simple tasks that don’t require diverse input are better left to individuals, whereas complex tasks that require diverse input are best accomplished by teams. A successful team identifies a common goal; together, members of the team work to accomplish more than they could had they worked individually. Using teams makes sense when there is interdependence between tasks–the success of the whole depends on the success of the individual parts. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 133 Objective: Costs of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 60) Evidence suggests self-managed teams have not fared well in Mexico because ________. A) the culture in Mexico has high tolerance for ambiguity B) the employees in Mexico strongly respect hierarchical authority C) the culture in Mexico is characterized by low power distance D) the culture of Mexico is individualistic in nature E) the culture in Mexico has short term orientation Answer: B Explanation: B) Evidence suggests self-managed teams have not fared well in Mexico, largely due to that culture's low tolerance of ambiguity and uncertainty and employees' strong respect for hierarchical authority. Thus, in countries relatively high in power distance a team may need to be structured so leadership roles are spelled out and power relationships identified. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 134 Objective: Global Implications Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 6


61) Which of the following statements is true regarding a culturally diverse team? A) Elements of diversity do not interfere with team processes. B) Culturally homogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems than culturally heterogeneous teams. C) Generally, newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform when compared to newly formed culturally homogeneous teams. D) Cultural diversity within a team is not advisable for those tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints. E) Solving problems is more difficult for culturally homogeneous teams than it is for culturally heterogeneous teams. Answer: C Explanation: C) Evidence indicates these elements of diversity interfere with team processes, at least in the short term. Cultural diversity does seem to be an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints. But culturally heterogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems. Although newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform as compared to newly formed culturally homogeneous teams, the differences disappear after about 3 months. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 134 Objective: Extent of Teamwork Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 6 62) Diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________. A) require a variety of viewpoints B) are simple C) involve emotional labor D) are highly technical E) required for completing the work are highly interdependent Answer: A Explanation: A) Cultural diversity does seem to be an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints. However, in other circumstances, diversity seems to interfere with team processes in the short term. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 134 Objective: Global Implications Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 6


You are vice-president of a division of a large, multi-national company that makes electronic equipment for consumers and the military. Your company has several teams and there are several managers managing those teams. 63) Joan, your director of accounting, has created a team of seven employees from the accounts payable department who meet for three hours a week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency and the work environment. This is an example of a ________ team. A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: A Explanation: A) Problem-solving teams share ideas or suggest how work processes and methods (such as quality, efficiency, and the work environment), can be improved. They rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Problem-Solving Teams Quest. Category: Application LO: 2 64) Jack, your director of manufacturing, has created a team of eleven employees from quality control. Jack gives the team members the responsibility of planning and scheduling their own work, and making operating decisions. Also, members of this team evaluate each other's performance. This is an example of a ________ team. A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: B Explanation: B) Self-managed work teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. These tasks are planning, assigning tasks to members, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Self-Managed Teams Quest. Category: Application LO: 2


65) Your company has recently landed a contract to design and manufacture a new state-of-theart electronic device for the military. This will be a very complex project, requiring many different types of skills. Which of the following types of teams is most suited for the project? A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: C Explanation: C) Cross-functional teams are teams made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. They are an effective means of allowing people from diverse areas to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects such as this one. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Application LO: 2 66) Janice is your director of sales. Since her team members are located in Europe, Asia, and North America, she has decided to use instant messaging to tie her team members together in order to develop a marketing strategy for a new product line. This is an example of a ________ team. A) problem-solving B) self-managed C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution Answer: D Explanation: D) Virtual teams use computer technology to unite physically dispersed members and achieve a common goal. Janice has created a virtual team. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 AACSB: Analytic Skills; Multicultural and Diversity Objective: Virtual Teams Quest. Category: Application LO: 2


You are the manager of a software design firm that develops software programs for clients using teams of specialists. One of your most successful teams has been together for nearly 5 years. In the past, this team has performed effectively, and you have been very satisfied with the team's output. Recently, however, you have noticed a marked decrease in the team's performance. You investigate to determine the problem. 67) After interviewing all 7 team members, you determine that one of the team members performs routine administrative tasks that are rarely visible to any of the other team members. You suspect that this team member may be loafing off and lagging in his duties. You could most likely improve that team member's output by ________. A) encouraging him to work more independently B) making his work clearly visible to the other team members C) empowering the team member to make decisions D) providing him with administrative training E) giving him additional assignments to complete Answer: B Explanation: B) This team member is engaging in social loafing. Effective teams undermine this tendency by making members individually and jointly accountable for the team's purpose, goals, and approach. Therefore, members should be clear on what they are individually responsible for and what they are jointly responsible for on the team. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Process Quest. Category: Application LO: 3 68) During an interview with one team member, you learn that several members of the team have had conflicts regarding the content of a task to which the team was recently assigned. Are these conflicts likely to be reducing the group's productivity? A) Yes, because interpersonal conflicts always hurt a team's performance. B) No, because conflicts based on personal animosity rarely affect team operations. C) Yes, because task-related conflicts lead to poor team decisions. D) No, because task-related conflicts usually benefit the performance of a team. E) Yes, because disagreements about tasks usually lessen groupthink. Answer: D Explanation: D) Interpersonal conflicts are almost always dysfunctional but the conflict involved in this case is a task conflict. Conflict on a team isn't necessarily bad. On teams performing nonroutine activities, disagreements among members about task content (called task conflicts) stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Conflict Levels Quest. Category: Application LO: 3


You work for an international company that has offices around the world. You have been asked to pull together a global virtual team to handle a specific project. The project is expected to take 3 to 5 years to complete. You are free to include individuals from any of the company's offices, which are located in the United States, Canada, Mexico, Britain, Australia, and Japan. 69) Provided that all of the team members are equally qualified, which of the following teams is likely to be the least challenging to manage? A) A team comprised of members drawn equally from all of the company's offices, because culturally diverse teams tend to operate with minimal conflict. B) A team comprised primarily of members from the United States, because employees from countries with individualistic values tend to function well in teams. C) A team comprised primarily of members from Canada, Britain, and Australia, because cultures of these countries are characterized by high power distance. D) A team comprised of members from both Japan and Mexico, because employees from these countries tend to focus on individual accomplishments. E) A team comprised primarily of members from either Japan or another Asian-Pacific country, because employees from countries with collectivist values tend to adjust easily to team structures. Answer: E Explanation: E) Teams fit well in countries that score high on collectivism. In one study, employees from Asian-Pacific countries reported the highest level of team participation, compared to the United States and Canada, with the United States ranking the lowest. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 133 AACSB: Analytic Skills Objective: Collectivist Societies Quest. Category: Application LO: 6 70) Compared to traditional departments, teams tend to be less flexible and less responsive to changing events. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Teams are more flexible and responsive to changing events than traditional departments or other forms of permanent groupings. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 Objective: Popularity of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1


71) Teams are an effective means for management to democratize organizations and increase employee motivation. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Teams facilitate employee participation in operating decisions. Teams are an effective means for management to democratize organizations and increase employee motivation. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 122 Objective: Popularity of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 72) Work groups typically generate more positive synergy than do work teams. Answer: FALSE Explanation: There is no positive synergy in a work group that would create an overall level of performance greater than the sum of the inputs. A work team, on the other hand, generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Groups Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 73) The primary goal of a work team is information sharing. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Information sharing is the primary goal of a work group. The primary goal of a work team is collective performance. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Groups Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 74) In the case of a work team, individual efforts result in a level of performance greater than the sum of those individual inputs. Answer: TRUE Explanation: A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. The individual efforts result in a level of performance greater than the sum of those individual inputs. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Groups Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


75) You are a member of a team of eight individuals from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. You are most likely a member of a self-managed work team. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Problem-solving teams are typically composed of 5 to 12 hourly employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. Members share ideas or suggest how work processes and methods can be improved; they rarely have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Types of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 76) As a result of self-managed teams, supervisory positions may be eliminated. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Self-managed work teams are groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Supervisory positions take on decreased importance and are sometimes even eliminated. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Self-Managed Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 77) Self-managed teams do not typically manage conflicts well. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Self-managed teams do not typically manage conflicts well. When disputes arise, members stop cooperating and power struggles ensue, which leads to lower group performance. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Self-Managed Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 78) Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. Answer: TRUE Explanation: A team made up of employees from various departments or work areas, and from about the same hierarchical level, who come together to accomplish a task form a crossfunctional team. Cross-functional teams are an effective means of allowing people from diverse areas within or even between organizations to exchange information, develop new ideas, solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


79) Virtual teams tend to be less task oriented than face-to-face teams. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Virtual teams tend to be more task oriented than face-to-face teams. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Types of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 80) Virtual teams report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Virtual teams tend to be more task oriented and exchange less social–emotional information than face-to-face teams do. As a result, virtual teams report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 81) One advantage of cross-functional teams is that they are easy to manage. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Cross-functional teams are not easy to manage. Their early stages of development are often long, as members learn to work with diversity and complexity. It takes time to build trust and teamwork, especially among people from different backgrounds with different experiences and perspectives. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 82) For virtual teams to be effective, management should closely monitor the team's progress. Answer: TRUE Explanation: For virtual teams to be effective, management should ensure that (1) trust is established among members (2) team progress is monitored closely, and (3) the efforts and products of the team are publicized throughout the organization. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Skills of Team Members Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


83) When tasks are simple lower-ability teams perform better than high-ability teams. Answer: TRUE Explanation: When tasks are simple, high-ability teams do not perform as well, perhaps because members become bored and turn their attention to other activities that are more stimulating, whereas low-ability teams stay on task. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 84) Lower-ability teams are more adaptable to changing situations than high-ability teams. Answer: FALSE Explanation: High-ability teams are more adaptable to changing situations than lower-ability teams. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 85) Teams composed of highly agreeable people are more creative and innovative. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Teams composed of people who score high on openness to experience are more creative and innovative. Open team members communicate better with one another and throw out more ideas, which makes teams composed of open people more creative and innovative. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 128 Objective: Key Roles of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 86) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline. Answer: TRUE Explanation: When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline, social loafing increases, and more people communicate less. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Social Loafing Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


87) Task conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. On teams performing nonroutine activities, disagreements among members about task content (called task conflicts) stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions. Diff: 1 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Collectivist Societies Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 88) For creating good team players, an organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage competitive efforts rather than cooperative ones. Answer: FALSE Explanation: For creating good team players, an organization's reward system must be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 Objective: Rewards and Collaboration Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 89) Teams that switch from a competitive to a cooperative system tend to make better-quality decisions. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Teams that switch from a competitive to a cooperative system do not share information and make rushed, poor-quality decisions. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 132 Objective: Rewards Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4 90) Teamwork takes more time and often more resources than individual work. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Teams can be costly. Teamwork takes more time and often more resources than individual work. Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to manage, and meetings to run. So the benefits of using teams have to exceed the costs, and that's not always the case. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 133 Objective: Disadvantages of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5


91) Teams should be used when tasks are interdependent. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Using teams makes sense when there is interdependence between tasks—the success of the whole depends on the success of each one, and the success of each one depends on the success of the others. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 133 Objective: Collectivist Societies Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 92) Generally, newly formed culturally homogeneous teams underperform when compared to newly formed culturally diverse teams. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Generally, newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform when compared to newly formed culturally homogeneous teams. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 134 Objective: Collectivist Societies Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 6 93) Discuss the difference between a work group and a work team. Answer: A work group is a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member perform within his or her area of responsibility. There is no positive synergy that would create an overall level of performance that is greater than the sum of the inputs. A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. Their individual efforts result in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of those individual inputs. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 123 Objective: Work Groups and Work Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 1 94) Describe and discuss self-managed work teams. Answer: Self-managed work teams are groups of employees (typically 10 to 15 in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Typically, this includes planning and scheduling of work, assigning tasks to members, collective control over the pace of work, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers. Fully self-managed work teams even select their own members and have the members evaluate each other's performance. As a result, supervisory positions take on decreased importance and may even be eliminated. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Self-Managed Work Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2


95) What is a cross-functional team? Answer: Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. This is an effective means for allowing people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 124 Objective: Cross-Functional Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 96) What are some special challenges that virtual teams face? For virtual teams to be effective, what should management ensure? Answer: Virtual teams may suffer from less social rapport and less direct interaction among members. They aren't able to duplicate the normal give-and-take of face-to-face discussion. Especially when members haven't personally met, virtual teams tend to be more task-oriented and exchange less social-emotional information. Not surprisingly, virtual team members report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams. For virtual teams to be effective, management should ensure that: (a) trust is established among team members (research has shown that one inflammatory remark in a team member e-mail can severely undermine team trust); (b) team progress is monitored closely (so the team doesn't lose sight of its goals, and no team member "disappears"); and (c) the efforts and products of the virtual team are publicized throughout the organization (so the team does not become invisible). Diff: 2 Page Ref: 125 Objective: Virtual Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 2 97) The team effectiveness model identifies three categories of key components making up effective teams. What are these three categories? Give examples of each category. Answer: The key components making up effective teams can be subsumed into four general categories. a) The first category relates to the team's composition. It takes into consideration the abilities of team members, their personalities, size of the team, and preferences of team members. b) The third category is related to the resources and contextual influences that make teams effective. The four contextual factors that appear to be most significantly related to team performance are the presence of adequate resources, effective leadership, a climate of trust, and a performance evaluation and reward system that reflects team contributions. c) Finally, process variables reflect the things that go on in the team that influence effectiveness. These include member commitment to a common plan and purpose, establishment of specific team goals, team efficacy, establishment of mental models, a managed level of conflict, and minimization of social loafing. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 126 Objective: Team Effectiveness Model Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


98) How does climate of trust improve effectiveness of teams? Answer: Interpersonal trust among team members facilitates cooperation, reduces the need to monitor each others' behavior, and bonds members around the belief that others on the team won't take advantage of them. Team members are more likely to take risks and expose vulnerabilities when they believe they can trust others on their team. And, as we will discuss later in the book, trust is the foundation of leadership. It allows a team to accept and commit to its leader's goals and decisions. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 127 Objective: Popularity of Teams and Virtual Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 99) Discuss the effect of team size on effectiveness of teams. Answer: Generally speaking, the most effective teams have five to nine members. And experts suggest using the smallest number of people who can do the task. Unfortunately, managers often err by making teams too large. It may require only four or five members to develop diversity of views and skills, while coordination problems can increase exponentially as team members are added. When teams have excess members, cohesiveness and mutual accountability decline, social loafing increases, and more people communicate less. Members of large teams have trouble coordinating with one another, especially under time pressure. Keep teams at nine or fewer members. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 129 Objective: Types of Teams and Effective Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 100) What is team efficacy? What can management do to increase team efficacy? Answer: Effective teams have confidence in themselves; they believe they can succeed. We call this team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future success, which, in turn, motivates them to work harder. The two ways in which the management can increase team efficacy are: (1) helping the team achieve small successes that build confidence, (2) providing training to improve members' technical and interpersonal skills. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Types of Teams and Effective Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


101) Discuss the impact of conflicts on effectiveness of teams. Answer: Conflict on a team isn't necessarily bad. Teams completely devoid of conflict are likely to become apathetic and stagnant. Thus, conflict—but not all types—can actually improve team effectiveness. Relationship conflicts—those based on interpersonal compatibilities, tension, and animosity toward others—are almost always dysfunctional. However, on teams performing nonroutine activities, disagreements among members about task content (called task conflicts) stimulate discussion, promote critical assessment of problems and options, and can lead to better team decisions. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Turning Individuals into Team Players and How it can Affect Team Processes Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3 102) What is social loafing? How can the management undermine the tendency of social loafing? Answer: Individuals can engage in social loafing and coast on the group's effort because their particular contributions can't be identified. Effective teams undermine this tendency by making members individually and jointly accountable for the team's purpose, goals, and approach. Therefore, members should be clear on what they are individually responsible for and what they are jointly responsible for on the team. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 131 Objective: Types of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3


103) Explain how organizations can create team players. Answer: The primary options managers have for trying to turn individuals into team players include: a) Selection. Some people already possess the interpersonal skills to be effective team players. When hiring team members, in addition to the technical skills required to fill the job, care should be taken to ensure that candidates can fulfill their team roles as well as technical requirements. Many job candidates don't have team skills. This is especially true for those socialized around individual contributions. When faced with such candidates, managers basically have three options. The candidates can undergo training to "make them into team players." If this isn't possible or doesn't work, the other two options are to transfer the individual to another unit within the organization, without teams (if this possibility exists); or don't hire the candidate. In established organizations that decide to redesign jobs around teams, it should be expected that some employees will resist being team players and may be un-trainable. Unfortunately, such people typically become casualties of the team approach. b) Training. On a more optimistic note, a large proportion of people raised on the importance of individual accomplishments can be trained to become team players. Training specialists conduct exercises that allow employees to experience the satisfaction that teamwork can provide. They typically offer workshops to help employees improve their problem-solving, communication, negotiation, conflict-management, and coaching skills. Employees also learn the five-stage group development model. c) Rewards. The reward system needs to be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. Promotions, pay raises, and other forms of recognition should be given to individuals for how effective they are as a collaborative team member. This doesn't mean individual contributions are ignored; rather, they are balanced with selfless contributions to the team. Examples of behaviors that should be rewarded include training new colleagues, sharing information with teammates, helping to resolve team conflicts, and mastering new skills that the team needs but in which it is deficient. Diff: 2 Page Ref: 131-132 Objective: Creating Team Players Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 4


104) What are some of the cautions to be aware of when using teams? What tests should be applied to see if a team fits the situation? Answer: Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to be managed, and meetings to be run. It has been suggested that three tests be applied to see if a team fits the situation. First, can the work be done better by more than one person? A good indicator is the complexity of the work and the need for different perspectives. Simple tasks that don't require diverse input are probably better left to individuals. Second, does the work create a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals? The final test to assess whether teams fit the situation is: Are the members of the group interdependent? Teams make sense where there is interdependence between tasks; where the success of the whole depends on the success of each one and the success of each one depends on the success of the others. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 133 Objective: Disadvantages of Teams Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 5 105) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of team diversity. Discuss diversity in a global context. How does cultural diversity affect team-building? Answer: One of the pervasive problems with teams is that while diversity may have real potential benefits, a team is deeply focused on commonly held information. But if diverse teams are to realize their creative potential, they need to focus not on their similarities but on their differences. There is some evidence, for example, that when team members believe others have more expertise, they will work to support those members, leading to higher levels of effectiveness. The key is for diverse teams to communicate what they uniquely know, but also what they don't know. Evidence indicates these elements of diversity interfere with team processes, at least in the short term in global situations. Cultural diversity appears to be an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints. But culturally heterogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems. However, these difficulties seem to dissipate with time. Although newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform newly formed culturally homogeneous teams, the differences disappear after about 3 months. Fortunately, some team performance-enhancing strategies seem to work well in many cultures. One study found that teams in the European Union made up of members from collectivist and individualist countries benefitted equally from group goals. If a manager allows a global team time to adjust it can overcome the initial stages of surface-level differences and result in a highly efficient team. Diff: 3 Page Ref: 129, 133 AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding Objective: Diversity Quest. Category: Concept/Definitional LO: 3, 6


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 10 Communication 1) Communication must include both the ________ and the understanding of meaning. A) transportation B) interpretation C) writing D) transfer E) intention Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 143 AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 2) The means by which a communication is passed between a sender and a receiver is called a ________. A) medium B) conduit C) conductor D) transmission E) coder Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 3) The receiver of a communication is most likely to ________ a message initiated by the sender. A) explain B) reproduce C) reflect D) decode E) discard Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 4) In the communication process, which of the following steps occurs first? A) transmitting B) decoding C) encoding D) understanding E) analysis Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process


5) During communication, the ________ initiates a message by encoding a thought. A) receiver B) channel C) sender D) speaker E) leader Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 6) During a discussion with Matthew, when Jennifer gestures, this is considered part of the A) medium. B) channel. C) message. D) noise. E) decoding. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 7) The product of a sender's encoding is the ________. A) channel B) message C) transmission D) medium E) feedback Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 8) The medium through which communication travels is called a ________. A) transmission B) message C) media D) channel E) vessel Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process


9) Mary telephones her employee, Joe, to let him know that today's meeting has been moved to one o'clock. In the communication process, Mary is the A) sender B) receiver C) message D) channel E) encoder Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 10) Mary telephones her employee, Joe, to let him know that today's meeting has been moved to one o'clock. The telephone is the A) sender. B) receiver. C) medium. D) message. E) decoder. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 11) Mary telephones her employee, Joe, to let him know that today's meeting has been moved to one o'clock. Joe misses the one o'clock meeting because he misunderstood which meeting Mary was referring to. Joe forgot to ask Mary to clarify which meeting she meant. Joe's misunderstanding therefore occurred due to a lack of A) encoding. B) decoding. C) noise. D) feedback. E) channel. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


12) John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of ________. A) encoding B) noise C) decoding D) channeling E) cryptography Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 13) Formal channels of communication traditionally follow the ________ within an organization. A) communication chain B) authority chain C) influence chain D) transmission chain E) social chain Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 14) What step determines whether understanding has been achieved during the communication process? A) decoding B) feedback C) channel D) encoding E) transmission Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 15) A receiver who translates a sender's message is engaging in the process of ________. A) encoding B) decoding C) transmission D) feedback E) recoding Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process


16) The final link in the communication process is ________. A) noise B) encoding C) decoding D) feedback E) messaging Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 17) The communication used by managers to provide job instructions to employees is ________ communication. A) downward B) lateral C) formal D) directional E) diagonal Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: Direction of Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 18) Which of the following is an example of downward communication flow? A) suggestion boxes B) envelope attitude surveys C) feedback on job performance D) identifying with and discussing problems with the boss E) letters to your senator Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144-145 Topic: Direction of Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 19) All of the following are examples of downward communication flows EXCEPT A) managers assigning goals for subordinates B) managers informing employees of procedures C) managers pointing out problems that need attention by employees D) employees completing attitude surveys E) managers telling employees to work more quickly Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144-145 Topic: Direction of Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities


20) Suggestion boxes, employee attitude surveys, and grievance procedures are examples of ________. A) organizational structure B) horizontal communication C) managerial communication D) upward communication E) diagonal communication Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144-145 Topic: Direction of Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 21) Which of the following is not an example of upward communication? A) performance reports prepared by lower management for top management review B) informing employees of policies C) suggestion boxes D) grievance procedures E) a letter to your boss Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Direction of Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 22) All of the following are recommendations for engaging in more effective upward communication EXCEPT A) try to reduce distractions B) avoid meandering discussions if you want t get your boss's attention C) prepare an agenda D) try to meet in your boss's office E) support your position with actionable items Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Direction of Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 23) Communication that takes place among members of work groups at the same level is known as ________ communication. A) tangential B) cross-functional C) job D) lateral E) downward Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Direction of Communication


24) When can lateral communications create dysfunctional conflict? A) when the formal vertical channels are breached B) when members go above their superiors to get things done C) when bosses find out that actions have been taken without their knowledge D) when members go around their superiors to get things done E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 145 Topic: Direction of Communication 25) Oral communication messages that are passed through a great many people will most likely suffer from which of the following? A) disruption B) distortion C) lack of non-verbal cues D) decoding E) formal communication decay Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communications 26) Memos, letters, e-mail, fax transmissions, and organizational periodicals represent examples of ________. A) informal communication channels B) formal communication channels C) written communication D) technological communication E) electronic communication Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communications AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 27) A sender may most likely choose to use written communication because ________. A) written communications are tangible and verifiable B) written messages can be retracted easily C) the messages can only be stored for short periods of time D) written messages usually take minimal time to prepare E) written messages often require additional feedback Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communications


28) Which of the following is not a drawback of written messages? A) They're time consuming. B) They are unlikely to be well thought-out. C) They lack built-in feedback mechanisms. D) It is difficult for senders to confirm whether they have been received. E) They may be misinterpreted by their receivers. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communications 29) Messages conveyed through body movements and facial expressions are ________. A) nonverbal communication B) kinesics C) physical characteristics D) connotations E) semantics Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communications 30) Facial expressions, physical distance, and looking at your watch are all examples of ________. A) kinesics B) nonverbal communication C) informal networks D) verbal communication E) adaptors Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communications AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 31) All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication EXCEPT A) intonations or emphasis B) instant messaging C) physical distance D) facial expressions E) hand gestures Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communications AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


32) Which of the following statements is not a characteristic of nonverbal communication? A) It includes intonation. B) Its significance is unproven in explaining and predicting behavior. C) It can be argued that every body movement has meaning. D) We rarely send these types of messages consciously. E) It can convey meaningful information. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communications AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 33) Why is it easier to understand the real communication that occurred in a meeting by viewing a video rather than reading the meeting minutes? A) Facial expressions convey meaning and can be seen in the video. B) Intonations convey meaning and can be heard in the video. C) The meeting minutes do not contain any record of nonverbal communication. D) The emphasis placed on words or phrases is missing from the meeting minutes. E) All of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Interpersonal Communications AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 34) What are the two most important messages that body language conveys? A) the extent to which one is interested in another and the relative perceived status between the send and receiver B) the extent to which one has power and is relaxed C) how quickly and loudly one can speak D) the extent to which facial expressions and intonation are important E) the importance of physical distance and intonation in communication Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Interpersonal Communications AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 35) A(n) ________ network of communication would most likely be found in direct-line authority relations with no deviations. A) vertical B) direct C) chain D) all-channel E) box Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


36) A(n) ________ communication network occurs when a checkout clerk reports to a department manager, who in turn reports to a store manager, who reports to a regional manager. A) direct B) all-channel C) vertical D) chain E) horizontal Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 37) When all communication is channeled through one person, a ________ communication network exists. A) direct B) chain C) lateral D) wheel E) box Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication 38) The ________ communication network is best illustrated by a self-managed team. A) wheel B) all-channel C) interpersonal D) circle E) box Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 39) In a(n) ________ communication network, any network member can communicate with any other member. A) wheel B) all-channel C) interpersonal D) circle E) free Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication


40) The most effective communication network for facilitating the emergence of a leader is ________. A) chain B) all-channel C) wheel D) direct E) box Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 41) Harriet has been assigned the task of setting up work teams for a complex software development project. Each team has different work requirements. Harriet must choose the best structure for each team, based on its specific requirements. Team A must operate very quickly to meet stringent deadlines. The quality of the final project depends highly on Team A's output, so Team A must also work very accurately. Which of the following network structures should Harriet choose for this team? A) chain B) wheel C) grapevine D) informal E) all-channel Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 10-3 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 42) Harriet has been assigned the task of setting up work teams for a complex software development project. Each team has different work requirements. Harriet must choose the best structure for each team, based on its specific requirements. Team B must promote high member satisfaction to improve employee engagement. Which of the following network structures should Harriet choose for this team? A) chain B) wheel C) grapevine D) informal E) all-channel Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 10-3 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


43) The ________ network best serves to promote high member satisfaction. A) direct B) circle C) wheel D) all-channel E) box Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 44) Which of the following types of networks is most likely to promote accuracy? A) chain B) direct C) wheel D) all-channel E) circle Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 45) An informal communication network is typically called a ________. A) gossip monger B) grapevine C) chain D) contextual system E) free-acting system Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 46) It was found that about ________ percent of individuals hear about matters first through rumors on the grapevine. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) 95 Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication


47) Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the grapevine? A) It is used to serve the self-interests of outsiders. B) It is perceived by employees as being more reliable than formal communication issued by top management. C) It is generally used as an anti-management tool. D) It is usually inaccurate. E) It serves as a formal communication channel. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 48) Studies have shown that ________ percent of the information transmitted through the grapevine is accurate. A) 55 B) 65 C) 75 D) 85 E) 100 Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 49) The grapevine is valuable for all of the following EXCEPT A) tapping into employee anxieties. B) giving managers a feel for the morale of their organization. C) identifying issues that employees consider important. D) serving employees' needs to create a sense of closeness and friendship. E) replacing the need for formal communication. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 50) Rumors would most likely flourish in situations where there is ________. A) well-communicated change B) ambiguity C) a trivial issue at hand D) assurance by management E) a chain communication style Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149-150 Topic: Organizational Communication


51) With regard to the grapevine, a manager should try to ________. A) ignore it B) destroy it C) minimize the negative consequences of rumors by limiting its range and impact D) discipline those those involved in the grapevine rumors E) control the information flow Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 150 Topic: Organizational Communication 52) There is a rumor in your organization that layoffs are inevitable. Which of the following is the least likely way to reduce the negative consequences of this rumor? A) Explain decisions that may appear inconsistent or secretive. B) Emphasize the downside, as well as the upside, of current decisions and future plans. C) Discount the rumor. D) Openly discuss worst case possibilities. E) Discuss deadlines for decisions. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 10-5 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 53) Electronic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT A) text messaging. B) teleconferencing. C) videoconferencing. D) e-mail. E) blogs. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 150 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 54) Electronic communication is the primary medium of communication in today's organizations in ________ percent of cases. A) 15 B) 25 C) 50 D) 70 E) 90 Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 150 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


55) All of the following are considered drawbacks of email EXCEPT A) misinterpreting the message. B) communicating negative messages. C) overuse of email. D) privacy concerns. E) poor grammar. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication 56) When Radio Shack laid off 400 employees, they were criticized for the medium they chose to communicate the layoffs. Which medium did they use to communicate? A) videoconference B) corporate website announcement C) email D) intranet E) blogs Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication 57) Mary wanted to provide recommendations to her co-workers on using email. Which of the following statement would you recommend she share with her peers to inform them of privacy issues? A) Emails are generally private and seldom monitored. B) It should be assumed that the email recipient will keep the email confidential. C) You should not write anything in an email that you would not want made public. D) Forwarding email from your company account to your personal account can be protected from monitoring if it is marked "private". E) All of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication 58) Real-time e-mail is known as ________. A) intranet B) instant messaging C) extranet D) facebook E) videoconferencing Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication


59) Which electronic communication is usually transmitted via a Blackberry versus a computer? A) TM B) IM C) email D) teleconference E) blog Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication 60) Many organizations are concerned about the security of IM/TM since A) they are often encoded. B) they can be intercepted so easily. C) they are written in short-hand. D) they are not saved. E) they clutter up in-boxes. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication 61) Email communication is recommended over IM and TM when A) conveying long messages that need to be saved. B) only one-line messages are being sent. C) a fast means is needed to stay in touch anywhere, anytime. D) a "real" time communication is needed. E) records are not needed. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 62) Which of the following is NOT true about instant messaging? A) IM is a fast and inexpensive way for managers to stay in touch with employees and for employees to stay in touch with each other. B) IM is going to replace e-mail. C) IM is preferred for sending one- or two-line messages. D) Some IM users find the technology intrusive. E) IM's continual online presence can make it hard for employees to stay focused. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology


63) MySpace and Facebook are examples of A) TM. B) IM. C) social networking platforms. D) email applications. E) blogs. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 64) In gathering information on job candidates, prospective employers might check an applicant's A) email. B) IM's. C) MySpace. D) TM's. E) All of the above. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 65) Weblogs are commonly known as A) networking software. B) social networking sites. C) blogs D) IM E) TM Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 152-153 Topic: Organizational Communication 66) The advice for employees with personal blogs is to A) use your first amendment right. B) maintain a strict work-personal "firewall". C) post personal blog entries at work. D) share information only with those inside your company. E) forgive any blogs casting a negative light on the company. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology


67) When employees can conduct interactive meetings with live audio and video images, without being physically in the same location, which means of electronic communication are they using? A) intranet B) instant messaging C) extranet D) facebook E) videoconferencing Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 68) A process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the right time is known as ________. A) the grapevine B) knowledge management C) organizational communication D) the rumor mill E) effective feedback Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Organizational Communication 69) Effective KM begins by A) developing an effective email policy. B) determining what software system to use. C) identifying what knowledge matters to the organization. D) creating a data base. E) determining who needs what information in the organization. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Organizational Communication 70) Effective KM has the potential to provide all of the following benefits to organizations EXCEPT A) provide organizations with a competitive edge. B) provide organizations with improved organizational performance. C) make employees smarter. D) control leaks of vital company information. E) allow employees to participate in video conferences without leaving their desks. Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


71) Which of the following is NOT a reason why KM is increasingly important? A) Intellectual assets are now as important as physical assets. B) As more baby boomers leave the workforce, their knowledge will be lost if there are no attempts to capture it. C) A KM system can reduce redundancy. D) A KM system can make an organization more efficient by cutting time re-training a path already traveled. E) Information can be easily manipulated. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153-154 Topic: Organizational Communication 72) When a person purposely manipulates information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver, he is ________. A) using selective perception B) filtering information C) using politically correct communication D) suffering from communication apprehension E) using ineffective communication means Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 73) Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. Jake is engaging in ________. A) filtering B) selective perception C) communication apprehension D) emotional block E) selective selection Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 74) Receivers in communication see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. This is called ________. A) communication apprehension B) filtering C) selective perception D) emotional block E) projection Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities


75) An interviewer may project her own interest in family into communications she decodes from others and therefore believes female applicants will put family ahead of career. This interviewer is using ________. A) prejudice B) selective perception C) values judgment D) filtering E) the self-serving bias Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 154-155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 76) During the communication process, which of the following is most likely to result in lost information and less effective communication? A) information processing B) information overload C) information filtering D) effective communication E) the maximal effort effect Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 77) Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication? A) filtering B) silence C) selective perception D) language E) emotions Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154-155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 78) Two of the biggest variables that influence the language a person uses and the definitions given to words are A) age and context. B) incentives and gender. C) education and age. D) cultural background and gender. E) nationality and context. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 325 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

79) Communication ________ is the tension and anxiety about oral, or written communication, or both. A) obstruction B) apprehension C) breakdown D) block E) frustration Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155-156 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 80) If Albert is apprehensive regarding oral communication, which of the following behaviors is he least likely to display? A) He prefers to talk on the phone. B) He distorts the communication demands of his job. C) He limits his oral communication and then tends to rationalize his behavior. D) He relies on memos or letters. E) He avoids face-to-face communication. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 156 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 81) Which of the following would be least likely to pose a barrier to cross-cultural communications? A) tone difference B) word connotations C) semantics D) political correctness E) differences among perceptions Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 82) In dealing with cross-cultural communication, a manager might practice putting herself in the place of the employee, a method termed ________. A) evaluation B) empathy C) complicity D) commiseration E) apathy Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 326 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

83) Which of the following is most likely to help reduce misperceptions when communicating with people from a different culture? A) Assume similarity until differences are proven. B) Emphasize interpretation rather than evaluation and descriptions. C) See the other's point of view. D) Treat your interpretations as a confirmed hypothesis. E) Make judgments quickly and decisively. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) Which of the following statements reflects the relationship between communication and employee satisfaction? A) There is no documented relationship between communication and employee satisfaction. B) The greater the uncertainty in communication, the more positive the impact on employee satisfaction. C) Communication distortions and ambiguities have a negative impact on employee satisfaction. D) The less the uncertainty in communication, the more negative the impact on employee satisfaction. E) The less distortion in communication, the less employee satisfaction. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 158 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 85) Incongruities between verbal and nonverbal communication A) seldom impact satisfaction. B) increase uncertainty and thereby reduce satisfaction. C) increase employee satisfaction. D) decrease uncertainty. E) rarely occur in organizational settings. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 158 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 86) No group can exist without communication. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 143 87) Communication must include either the transference or the understanding of meaning. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 143


88) Reading is a form of communication. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 143 Topic: The Communication Process 89) In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 143 Topic: The Communication Process 90) The means by which a communication is passed is called the conduit. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 143 Topic: The Communication Process 91) Encryption is the process through which a message is converted into symbolic form. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 92) The encoder is the object to whom a message is directed. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 93) When two people are talking, the message that they exchange is referred to as noise. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 94) Feedback determines whether a message has been received. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 95) The receiver decodes the communication. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 96) Organizational communication can flow laterally or vertically. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process


97) When information is given to a subordinate, this process occurs through lateral communication. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process 98) When feedback is being given to higher-level individuals in an organization, upward communication is taking place. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 145 Topic: The Communication Process 99) Lateral communications are often created to short-circuit the vertical hierarchy within an organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 100) Lateral communication can create dysfunctional conflicts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 145 Topic: The Communication Process AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 101) Oral communication is the chief means of conveying messages among group members. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communication 102) The advantages of oral communication are precision and feedback. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 103) Oral communications are more likely than written communications to be logical and clear. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communication 104) Written communication has a built-in feedback mechanism. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities


105) Examples of nonverbal communication include messages transmitted by facial expressions and body movements. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 146 Topic: Interpersonal Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 106) Body language can convey the relative perceived status between a sender and a receiver. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 107) Body language tends to make verbal communication less complicated. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication 108) Facial expressions can indicate something quite different from the verbal message that a sender is communicating. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 109) During communication, the acceptable amount of physical space between individuals varies according to cultural norms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 110) Three common small-group networks are chain, wheel, and global. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication 111) The all-channel network uses one figure to act as the conduit for all of the group's communication. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication 112) The grapevine is a type of chain communication. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 330 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

113) The grapevine is perceived by most employees as being more believable and reliable than formal communiqu s issued by management. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 114) Rumors flourish in ambiguous situations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 115) Evidence indicates that about 90 percent of the information conveyed through the grapevine is accurate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 149-150 Topic: Organizational Communication 116) The potential for misinterpreting email messages is less than with verbal messages since they are in writing. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 150 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 117) Nearly 40% of companies have employees whose only job is to read other employees' email. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication 118) It is recommended that employees maintain a strict "work-personal firewall" in their personal blogs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 119) IM and TM are expected to replace email. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 151-152 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology


120) Postings to social networks are seldom of interest to potential employers. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 121) Electronic mail is the ideal method for conveying messages that might evoke emotional responses. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 122) Many people say things in e-mails that they would never say to someone face-to-face. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 152 Topic: Organizational Communication 123) Without travel, a meeting with Sarah in Hong Kong, Raul in Columbia, and Marie in Paris is possible with video conferencing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 124) Most business executives are firmly committed to knowledge management. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Organizational Communication 125) The organization culture must support sharing of information for knowledge management to work. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 153 Topic: Organizational Communication 126) In KM, more knowledge means better knowledge. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Organizational Communication 127) The Internet surveillance and monitoring practices of organizations seldom invade employees' privacy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Organizational Communication AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 332 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

128) It is safe for senders to assume that their words mean the same to the sender as they do to them. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 129) Filtering is most likely to occur in organizations in which there are many vertical levels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 154 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 130) Selective perception refers to manipulating information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 131) Selective perception and information overload are barriers to effective communication. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 154-155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 132) When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is selective perception. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 133) Individuals have an infinite capacity for processing data. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 134) A receiver who is experiencing depression may interpret a message differently than a receiver who is in a positive mood. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 135) It is estimated that 5 to 20 percent of the population suffers from debilitating communication apprehension. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 155 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication


136) People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety only in oral communication. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 155-156 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 137) Cross-cultural communications may experience a barrier to effective communication caused by tone differences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 156 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 138) People who speak different languages actually view the world in different ways. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) When communicating with people from a different culture, it is best to assume similarities until differences are proven. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 140) Incongruities between verbal and nonverbal communication is likely to reduce satisfaction. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 157 Topic: Implications for Managers AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 141) Describe the communication process. Explain the parts of this process. Answer: Before communication can take place, a purpose, expressed as a message to be conveyed, is needed. It passes between a source (the sender) and a receiver. The message is encoded (converted to a symbolic form) and passed by way of some medium (channel) to the receiver, who retranslates (decodes) the message initiated by the sender. The result is a transference of meaning from one person to another. The seven parts of the communication process are the source, encoding, the message, the channel, decoding, the receiver, and feedback. The source initiates a message by encoding a thought. The message is the actual physical product from the source encoding. The channel is the medium through which the message travels. The receiver is the object to whom the message is directed. The symbols must be translated into a form that can be understood by the receiver. This is the decoding. The final link is a feedback loop. Page Ref: 144 Topic: The Communication Process


142) What are the three basic methods of interpersonal communication? Answer: The three basic methods of interpersonal communication are oral, written, and nonverbal communication. The chief means of conveying messages is oral communication. Speeches, formal one-on-one and group discussions, and the informal rumor mill or grapevine are popular forms of oral communication. Written communications include memos, letters, electronic mail, fax transmissions, organizational periodicals, notices placed on bulletin boards, or any other device that is transmitted via written words or symbols. Nonverbal communications includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver. Page Ref: 146-147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication 143) Contrast the advantages and disadvantages of oral versus written communication. Answer: The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback. A verbal message can be conveyed and a response received in a minimal amount of time. If the receiver is unsure of the message, rapid feedback allows for early detection by the sender and, hence, allows for early correction. The major disadvantage of oral communication surfaces in organizations or whenever the message has to be passed through a number of people. The more people a message must pass through, the greater the potential distortion. The message's content, when it reaches its destination, is often very different from that of the original. In an organization, where decisions and other communiqués are verbally passed up and down the authority hierarchy, there are considerable opportunities for messages to become distorted. The advantages of written communications include that they are often tangible and verifiable. When printed, both the sender and receiver have a record of the communication and the message can be stored for an indefinite period. If there are questions concerning the content of the message, it is physically available for later reference. This feature is particularly important for complex and lengthy communications. A final benefit of all written communication comes from the process itself. You're usually more careful with the written word than the oral word. You're forced to think more thoroughly about what you want to convey in a written message than in a spoken one. Thus, written communications are more likely to be well thought out, logical, and clear. Written messages also have their drawbacks. They're time consuming. So, although writing may be more precise, it also consumes a great deal of time. The other major disadvantage is feedback, or lack of it. Oral communication allows the receiver to respond rapidly to what he thinks he hears. Written communication, however, does not have a built-in feedback mechanism. The result is that the mailing of a memo is no assurance it has been received, and, if received, there is no guarantee the recipient will interpret it as the sender intended. Page Ref: 146-147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication


144) Explain the concept of nonverbal communication. Answer: Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver. Page Ref: 147 Topic: Interpersonal Communication 145) Discuss the three common small group networks. Evaluate each on their effectiveness. Answer: The chain rigidly follows the formal chain of command. This network approximates the communication channels you might find in a rigid three-level organization. The wheel relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group's communication. It stimulates the communication network you would find on a team with a strong leader. The all-channel network is most often characterized in practice by self-managed teams, in which all group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. The structure of the wheel facilitates the emergence of a leader. The all-channel network is best if you are concerned with having high member satisfaction. The chain is best if accuracy is most important. No single network will be best for all occasions. Page Ref: 148 Topic: Organizational Communication 146) What is the grapevine? Answer: The grapevine is an informal communication system. While it is informal, it doesn't mean that it is not an important source of information. A survey found that 75 percent of employees hear about matters first through rumors on the grapevine. Page Ref: 149 Topic: Organizational Communication 147) What are the limitations of e-mail? Answer: E-mail can be a distraction from work activities. Information overload is also a drawback. It's not unusual for employees to get a hundred or more e-mails a day. Reading, absorbing, and responding to such an inflow can literally consume an employee's entire day. In essence, e-mail's ease of use has become its biggest negative. Employees are finding it increasingly difficult to distinguish important e-mails from junk mail and irrelevant messages. Another drawback of e-mails is that they lack emotional content. The nonverbal cues don't come across in e-mail. They can be cold and impersonal. As such, it's not the ideal means to convey information like layoffs, plant closings, or other messages that might evoke emotional responses and require empathy or social support. There is a high potential for misinterpreting email messages. Finally, there are two privacy issues with email. First, employees must be aware that their e-mails may be (and usually are) monitored. Second, you can't always trust that the recipient of your e-mail will keep it confidential. The recommendation is not to write anything that you would not want made public. Page Ref: 150-151 Topic: Organizational Communication


148) List and explain five of the barriers to effective communication. Answer: Filtering refers to a sender's purposely manipulating information so it will be seen more favorably by the receiver. Selective perception occurs when receivers process communication selectively to see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is information overload. Emotions serve as a barrier to effective communication. How the receiver feels at the time of receipt of a communication message will influence how he or she interprets it. Words mean different things to different people. Age, education, and cultural background are three of the most obvious variables that influence the language a person uses and the definitions he or she gives to words. Communication apprehension is a major barrier to effective communication that affects 5 to 20 percent of the population. People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both. Page Ref: 154-156 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 149) Describe and discuss specific problems related to cross-cultural communication. Answer: There are four specific problems related to language difficulties in cross-cultural communications. First, there are barriers caused by semantics. Second, there are barriers caused by word connotations. Third are barriers caused by tone differences. Fourth, there are barriers caused by differences among perceptions. Cultures tend to differ in the importance to which context influences the meaning that individuals take from what is actually said or written versus who the other person is. High-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. What is not said may be more significant than what is said. A person's official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight in communications. People in low-context cultures rely essentially on words to convey meaning. Body language or formal titles are secondary to spoken and written words. Page Ref: 157 Topic: Barriers to Effective Communication 150) Discuss four ways to reduce misinterpretations when communicating with people from a different culture. Answer: The following four rules can be helpful when communicating with people from different cultures. 1. Assume differences until similarity is proven. You are less likely to make an error if you assume others are different from you rather than assuming similarity until differences are proven. 2. Emphasize description rather than interpretation or evaluation. Delay judgment until you've had sufficient time to observe and interpret the situations from the differing perspectives of all the cultures involved. 3. Practice empathy. Before sending a message, put yourself in the recipient's shoes. 4. Treat your interpretations as a working hypothesis. Recognize that you need further testing of your hypothesis. Carefully assess the feedback provided by recipients to see if it confirms your hypothesis. Page Ref: 157 Topic: Global Implications


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 11 Leadership 1) Leadership is best defined as ________. A) the ability to influence a group in goal achievement B) keeping order and consistency in the midst of change C) implementing the vision and strategy provided by management D) coordinating and staffing the organization and handling day-to-day problems E) not a relevant variable in modern organizations Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 Topic: What Is Leadership? 2) Which of the following roles focuses on bringing about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans? A) leadership B) management C) task structure D) initiating structure E) production orientation Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 159 Topic: What Is Leadership? 3) John Kotter's view argues that management focuses on coping with complexity, whereas leadership focuses on coping with ________. A) conflict B) success C) defeat D) morale E) change Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 159 Topic: What Is Leadership? 4) Which of the following statements regarding leadership is true? A) All leaders are managers. B) Formal rights enable managers to lead effectively. C) All managers are leaders. D) All leaders are hierarchically superior to followers. E) Non-sanctioned leadership is often as important as or more important than formal influence. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 160 Topic: What Is Leadership?


5) Which of the following statements best characterizes the function of leadership within an organization? A) Leadership is more important than management. B) Vision is a common thread throughout the research on leadership. C) Management is more important than leadership. D) Leaders establish direction by developing a vision of the future; then they align people by communicating this vision and inspiring them to overcome hurdles. E) Leaderships and management are interchangeable terms. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: What Is Leadership? 6) Evidence today suggests that traits can predict leadership. This is primarily due to the research surrounding A) the Big Five. B) American Presidents. C) behavioral theories. D) emotional intelligence. E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 7) Which theory states that people are born with certain characteristics that predispose them to being leaders? A) Fiedler's perspective B) characteristic theory C) LPC D) contingency theory E) trait theory Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 8) Which two common traits of leaders are part of the Big Five personality trait of extraversion? A) conscientiousness and agreeableness B) ambition and energy C) energy and openness to experience D) ambition and conscientiousness E) energy and emotional stability Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


9) Your company's HR director is a believer in trait theories of leadership. He believes that he can differentiate leaders from non-leaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics. He asks for your expertise in helping him to apply trait theory to leadership selection within your company. You explain that research efforts at isolating leadership traits have A) identified six leadership traits that definitely predict leadership. B) been supportive of the Big Five leadership traits predicting leadership. C) shown that conscientiousness does not help much in predicting leadership. D) identified emotional stability as the most strongly related trait to leader emergence. E) been more focused on developing contingency theories and replacing trait theories. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 160-161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 10) Your company's HR director is a believer in trait theories of leadership. He believes that he can differentiate leaders from non-leaders by focusing on personal qualities and characteristics. He asks for your expertise in helping him to apply trait theory to leadership selection within your company. When selecting individuals for leadership positions, trait theory suggests that which of the following is least helpful for identifying leaders? A) extraversion B) conscientiousness C) openness to experience D) agreeableness E) ambition Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160-161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 11) The HR director plans to promote Lawrence, a highly extroverted manager with a great deal of assertiveness. The director believes that because of his innate characteristics, Lawrence will be highly effective at helping the company achieve its production goals. You advise the director against this decision because A) research has identified emotional stability as the strongest predictor of leadership effectiveness. B) studies have found that the Big Five traits are difficult to identify in leaders. C) studies have shown that highly assertive leaders were less effective than those who were moderately assertive. D) research has found that conscientiousness is a better predictor of effectiveness than extraversion. E) research has shown that effective managers are often unlikely to become effective leaders. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160-161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


12) There is fairly strong evidence that traits can predict ________ more accurately than leadership effectiveness. A) leadership emergence B) extraversion in leaders C) leadership awareness D) leadership competence E) the conscientiousness of leaders Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 13) Suddenly your boss begins sending people to training to help them develop more effective leadership characteristics. It is clear that he is reading an author who supports ________. A) trait theories B) behavioral theories C) Fiedler's contingency model D) the reflection effect E) the managerial grid Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 14) You are the CEO of an engineering design firm that has several departments, each specializing in the design of different products. You have noticed a great deal of difference between the styles of the various department directors. You also see a big difference in the morale, employee satisfaction levels, and effectiveness (productivity) levels of the departments. One of your goals as CEO is to maximize productivity across all departments. As you look at the difference between the department directors, you notice that some are more charismatic and enthusiastic than others. In identifying this difference, you are looking at the directors' ________. A) behaviors B) traits C) values D) attitudes E) all of the above Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


15) Which of the following statements is true concerning emotional intelligence and leadership? A) The research indicates a strong positive correlation between EI and leadership effectiveness. B) The research indicates a strong negative correlation between EI and leadership effectiveness. C) Researchers are not confident about the connection between EI and leadership. D) The link between EI and leadership effectiveness is the most investigated. E) There is no relationship between EI and leadership effectiveness. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 16) If behavioral leadership theories are correct, then ________. A) leadership behaviors are consistent B) leaders are born with leadership behaviors C) leaders' behavior should be altered D) leadership skills can be taught through training E) women generally make better leaders than men Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 17) The two dimensions of leader behavior explained in the Ohio State studies are ________. A) coercion and motivation B) concern for people and concern for production C) employee-oriented and production-oriented D) initiating structure and consideration E) operant conditioning and classical conditioning Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 18) According to the Ohio State studies, the extent to which a leader's behavior is directed toward getting the job done is called ________. A) consideration B) maximization C) relationship-oriented D) path-goal E) initiating structure Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


19) According to the Ohio State studies, the extent to which a leader is likely to have job relationships characterized by mutual trust and respect for his/her employees is ________. A) consideration B) matrix C) consensus-building D) LPC E) maximization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 20) A leader high in initiating structure would do which of the following? A) Seek consensus. B) Exhibit laissez-faire type of leadership. C) Maximize leader-member relations. D) Assign group members to particular tasks. E) Empower employees to make their own decisions. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 21) Trait research focused on ________, whereas behavioral studies focused on ________. A) underlying traits; observable behavior B) the task at hand; relationships C) observable behavior; specific leader activities D) observable behavior; underlying traits E) identifying certain traits in leaders; relationships leaders engaged in Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


22) Your boss has been reading several books on leadership. You notice that every few months he is spouting a different approach and philosophy. You have been trying to keep up with him and figure out which "leadership theory of the month" he is studying. This month, he seems to be focusing on whether the managers are employee-oriented or production-oriented. You deduce that he has been reading ________. A) Hersey and Blanchard B) Vroom and Yetton C) Fiedler D) House E) the University of Michigan studies Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 23) Some of the departmental directors spend more time training and helping their employees, while other spend more time on the technical issues that arise in the development process. According to the categories used in the University of Michigan studies, the directors can be described as ________. A) oriented toward initiating structure vs. oriented toward consideration B) employee-oriented vs. production-oriented C) training-oriented vs. development-oriented D) assistance-oriented vs. growth-oriented E) authority-type leaders vs. laissez-faire-type leaders Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 24) Based on the results of the University of Michigan studies, which department leaders most likely have departments with higher productivity and job satisfaction? A) the employee-oriented leaders B) the production-oriented leaders C) the consideration-oriented leaders D) the development-oriented leaders E) the task-oriented leaders Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


25) The two dimensions of leadership behavior identified in the University of Michigan studies are ________. A) coercion and motivation B) emotional and rational C) employee-oriented and production-oriented D) initiating structure and consideration E) initiation and completion Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 26) The University of Michigan studies define a(n) ________ leader as one who takes personal interest in the needs of his/her subordinates. A) LMX B) contextual C) employee-oriented D) consensus-building E) consummate Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 27) If a leader's main concern is accomplishing his/her group's tasks, the University of Michigan studies label this leader ________. A) consideration-oriented B) managerial C) ineffective D) high achieving E) production-oriented Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 28) According to University of Michigan researchers, which type of leader is associated with higher group productivity and higher job satisfaction? A) situational B) employee-oriented C) production-oriented D) initiating structure-oriented E) heliocentric Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


29) The graphic portrayal of a two-dimensional view of leadership style by Blake and Mouton is known as the ________. A) least preferred co-worker scale B) leader-participation model C) autocratic-democratic continuum D) managerial grid E) matrix of discretion Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 30) Which of the following is not a behavioral theory of leadership? A) Ohio State studies B) Fiedler model C) University of Michigan studies D) Blake and Mouton's managerial grid E) none of the above Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 31) Which of the following proposed a contingency theory? A) Fiedler B) Blake C) Weber D) Mouton E) Kelleher Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 32) All contingency theories are based on the idea that effective leadership performance depends on ________. A) the proper match between the leader's style and the control the situation gives the leader B) selecting the right leadership style based on the level of the followers' readiness C) using a leadership style that is appropriate to the situational conditions D) making use of the best path for the goal that is identified E) the "right" traits Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


33) Which of the following developed the LPC (least preferred co-worker) questionnaire? A) Ohio State University B) Fiedler C) House D) Blake and Mouton E) University of Michigan Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 34) The first comprehensive contingency model for leadership was developed by ________. A) Hersey and Blanchard B) Blake and Mouton C) Fred Fiedler D) John Kotter E) Douglas Surber Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 35) You have noticed that your boss is often asking you what types of peers you least like to work with. You suspect that he is trying to covertly determine your leadership style according to ________. A) the University of Michigan studies B) the Ohio State studies C) Fiedler D) trait theory E) LMX theory Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 36) Which model represents the theory that effective leadership depends upon a proper match between a leader's style of interacting with subordinates and the degree to which the situation gives control and influence to the leader? A) Leader-Member Exchange Model B) Fiedler's Contingency Model C) Hersey and Blanchard's Situational Leadership Model D) Vroom and Yetton's Leader-Participation Model E) the Ohio State studies Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


37) In Fiedler's model, if a respondent describes his or her least preferred co-worker in relatively positive terms, then the respondent is considered to be ________. A) relationship-oriented B) positive C) consensus-building D) consideration-focused E) unrealistic Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 38) If a survey respondent sees his or her least preferred co-worker in unfavorable terms, Fiedler would categorize the respondent as ________. A) overly critical B) task-oriented C) emotionally deficient D) insightful E) laissez-faire Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 39) Fiedler labels the degree of confidence, trust, and respect that subordinates have in their leader as ________. A) leader-member relations B) relationship orientation C) positional power D) employee-orientation E) context Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


40) Fran completes the LPC questionnaire and finds that she described her least-preferred coworker in relatively positive terms. She is surprised by this finding because she recalls being particularly annoyed by this difficult co-worker. Based on your understanding of Fiedler's model, you explain to Fran that her LPC score makes sense within the model because: A) Fran tends to become very dominating when given ambiguous tasks. B) Fran is usually much more focused on productivity than on developing relationships. C) Fran tends in general to focus on building good relationships with the other employees at your company. D) Fran has a spotty work history and has tended to switch jobs every couple of years. E) Fran is usually chosen for positions of high responsibility within your organization. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 41) Fiedler's contingency model assumes that an individual's leadership style is ________. A) changeable B) contingent C) situational D) fixed E) intangible Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 42) You have decided to use Fiedler's LPC questionnaire to help your employees learn more about their leadership styles. Each of your employees has filled out and scored the instrument. It is your job to try to explain to them how to use the survey information. According to Fiedler's approach, your employees should assume which of the following about the leadership styles determined through using the survey? A) Each person's style is essentially fixed. B) Each person can use the information to change his/her style to a more productive style. C) Task-oriented leaders will not perform as well as relationship-oriented leaders in situations that are very unfavorable. D) Task-oriented leaders will perform better than relationship-oriented leaders in moderately favorable situations. E) Each person's style will change in accordance with the situation at hand. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


43) Three situational criteria identified in the Fiedler model are ________. A) job requirements, position power, and leadership ability B) charisma, influence, and leader-member relations C) leader-member relations, task structure, and position power D) task structure, leadership ability, and group conflict E) emotional intelligence, group orientation, and employee status Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163-164 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 44) The degree to which job assignments are procedurized is classified in the Fiedler model as ________. A) leader-member relations B) task orientation C) task structure D) initiating structure E) productivity oriented Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163-164 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 45) The Fiedler model proposes A) changing the leader. B) changing the situation. C) matching leaders and situations. D) changing the employees. E) training the leader to match each situation. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 164 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 46) Fiedler's theory predicts that an individual who is considered task oriented will be most effective when the situation is ________. A) moderately to highly favorable B) moderately favorable C) moderately to highly unfavorable D) very favorable or very unfavorable E) highly favorable Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 164-165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


47) Based on the contingency theory, if the leadership style does not match the situation, you should ________. A) change the leader to fit the situation B) change the situation to fit the leader C) accept this circumstance as unchangeable D) either change the leader to fit the situation or change the situation to fit the leader. E) retrain the leader in a more appropriate style Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 48) Which of the following is NOT a problem with Fiedler's LPC Scale? A) It's difficult to determine how good the leader-member relations are. B) It's difficult to determine how structured the task is. C) It's difficult to determine how much position power the leader has. D) The LPC Scales are not stable. E) The logic underlying the LPC Scale is too rigid. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 49) Which of the following theories argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their subordinates? A) managerial grid B) leader-member exchange C) path-goal D) expectancy E) contingency Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 50) According to LMX theory, which of the following is not true of those individuals who fall into the out-group? A) They receive a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention. B) They have leader-follower relations based on formal authority interaction. C) They are less trusted. D) They receive fewer of the preferred rewards that the leader controls. E) The members of the out group are treated differently than members of the in group. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


51) According to LMX theory, a leader implicitly categorizes followers as "in" or "out" ________. A) after careful analysis B) on a temporary basis C) early in the interaction D) because of political pressure E) based on job requirements Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 52) As you have observed your department manager and her interactions with the department's employees, you have come to believe in LMX theory. Sarah and Joe get less of the manager's time. Sally gets fewer of the preferred rewards that the manager controls and John has a relationship with the manager based on formal authority interactions. Rebecca is trusted. Jennifer gets a disproportionate amount of the manager's attention and is more likely to receive special privileges. According to LMX theory, the in-group is likely to be comprised of ________. A) Rebecca and Jennifer only B) Jennifer only C) Rebecca only D) John, Rebecca, and Jennifer only E) Sarah, Joe, Sally, and John only Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165-166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


53) As you have observed your department manager and her interactions with the department's employees, you have come to believe in LMX theory. Sarah and Joe get less of the manager's time. Sally gets fewer of the preferred rewards that the manager controls and John has a relationship with the manager based on formal authority interactions. Rebecca is trusted. Jennifer gets a disproportionate amount of the manager's attention and is more likely to receive special privileges. According to LMX theory, which of the following employees is likely to be included in the out-group? A) Rebecca only B) Jennifer only C) Sarah and Jennifer only D) Sarah and Joe only E) Sarah, Joe, Sally, and John only Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 165-166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 54) As you have observed your department manager and her interactions with the department's employees, you have come to believe in LMX theory. Sarah and Joe get less of the manager's time. Sally gets fewer of the preferred rewards that the manager controls and John has a relationship with the manager based on formal authority interactions. Rebecca is trusted. Jennifer gets a disproportionate amount of the manager's attention and is more likely to receive special privileges. When you look at this department's performance evaluations, you expect to find that ________. A) Rebecca and Jennifer have high ratings. B) Rebecca, John, and Jennifer have high ratings. C) Rebecca and Jennifer have high ratings, John has moderate ratings, and the rest of the employees have low ratings. D) John has received more promotions than any of the other employees. E) Rebecca and John compete with each other for the highest ratings. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165-166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


55) As you have observed your department manager and her interactions with the department's employees, you have come to believe in LMX theory. Sarah and Joe get less of the manager's time. Sally gets fewer of the preferred rewards that the manager controls and John has a relationship with the manager based on formal authority interactions. Rebecca is trusted. Jennifer gets a disproportionate amount of the manager's attention and is more likely to receive special privileges. The manager of this particular department is very goal-oriented in his leadership style and also values employees who are goal-oriented. Which of the following employees is also likely to be very goal-oriented? A) Sarah B) Jennifer C) Joe D) Sally E) John Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165-166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 56) According to LMX theory, followers with in-group status will have all of the following EXCEPT A) higher performance ratings than out-group members. B) lower turnover intentions. C) more characteristics in common with the leader. D) greater satisfaction with their supervisors. E) higher overall satisfaction than the out-group members. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 57) Now your boss seems to be trying to analyze each leader according to which employees they interact with most and least, and which employees they rate highest and lowest. You suspect that he is reading about which of the following models? A) MBTI B) LMX C) LPC D) Fiedler E) Managerial Grid Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165-166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


58) Leaders can influence how others see and understand events by A) framing. B) delegating. C) directing. D) using LMX theory. E) engaging in charismatic leadership. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 59) Who was the first scholar to discuss charismatic leadership? A) Max Weber B) Vroom C) House D) Fiedler E) Blake Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 60) Which of the following is not true of charismatic leaders? A) They have a vision and the ability to articulate the vision. B) They have behavior that is unconventional. C) They are willing to take high personal risk. D) They exhibit behaviors that are consistent with their followers' behaviors. E) All of the above are true. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167-168 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 61) The author of the text would be most likely to disagree with which of the following statements regarding charismatic leaders? A) Charismatic leaders routinely express confidence that followers can attain established goals. B) Charismatic leaders typically communicate high performance expectations of their followers. C) Charismatic leaders are known for conveying new sets of values to their followers. D) Charismatic leaders are better at describing positive behaviors than demonstrating those behaviors in practice. E) Charismatic leaders are skilled at articulating appealing visions for their organizations. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 167-168 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership


62) According to the text, a person can learn to become more charismatic by displaying all of the following characteristics EXCEPT A) maintaining an optimistic view. B) creating a bond that inspires others to follow. C) communicating information only with a select group of close advisors. D) bringing out the potential in followers by tapping into their emotions. E) using a captivating and engaging tone of voice. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167-168 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 63) You are an employee in a large organization. In this organization, there are two senior managers. The first of these mangers, John, prides himself on his ability to help his subordinates understand their roles in achieving company goals. He defines clear-cut steps for his subordinates to use in completing projects, and rewards them for using proven strategies. The second manager, Alan, feels that his role should be to provide individualized consideration and intellectual stimulation. His approach encourages creative problem solving and the development of new ideas. Most of the workers believe that both leaders are well trained, but Alan's employees remark that Alan seems to have a special leadership quality that sets him apart from the other managers. That special leadership quality that people notice when they work with Alan may be termed ________. A) transformation B) trust C) charisma D) framing E) transaction Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167-168 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


64) You are an employee in a large organization. In this organization, there are two senior managers. The first of these mangers, John, prides himself on his ability to help his subordinates understand their roles in achieving company goals. He defines clear-cut steps for his subordinates to use in completing projects, and rewards them for using proven strategies. The second manager, Alan, feels that his role should be to provide individualized consideration and intellectual stimulation. His approach encourages creative problem solving and the development of new ideas. Most of the workers believe that both leaders are well trained, but Alan's employees remark that Alan seems to have a special leadership quality that sets him apart from the other managers. In his role as manager, Alan most likely exhibits all of the following characteristics EXCEPT ________. A) engaging in unconventional behavior B) making self-sacrifices C) acting in his own best interests D) setting an example for others to follow E) responsive to others' needs Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 168 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 65) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of charismatic leaders? A) vision B) providing rewards C) sensitivity to follower needs D) exhibiting behaviors that are out of the ordinary E) willingness to take personal risks to achieve their vision Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 11-3 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 66) Martin Luther King's "I have a dream" speech is an example of how A) followers "catch" the emotions their leader is conveying. B) repetition is effective. C) transactional leadership relies first on transformational leadership. D) charismatic leadership fails to incite followers. E) all of the above Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 169 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


67) The dark side of charismatic leadership can be seen when A) the lines between their personal interests and their organization's interests become blurred. B) personal goals override the organization's goals. C) they are intolerant of criticism. D) they surround themselves with "yes people" who are rewarded for pleasing them. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 169-170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 68) According to the text, transactional leadership is addressed by all of the following leadership theories EXCEPT ________. A) transformational leadership theory B) trait theory C) Fiedler's model D) the Ohio State studies E) the University of Michigan studies. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 69) The type of leader who guides or motivates his or her followers in the direction of established goals by clarifying role and task requirements is known as a(n) ________ leader. A) transactional B) charismatic C) transformational D) transcendent E) actuarial Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 70) The text implies that the type of leader likely to have the most profound effect on his or her followers is the ________ leader. A) educational B) transformational C) actuarial D) transcendent E) transactional Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership


71) The text suggests that transactional and transformational leadership should be viewed as ________. A) equivalent to charismatic leadership B) opposing approaches to accomplishing goals C) subcomponents of situational leadership D) the building blocks of charismatic leadership E) cumulative forms of leadership with transformational built on top of transactional leadership Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 72) You are an employee in a large organization. In this organization, there are two senior managers. The first of these managers, John, prides himself on his ability to help his subordinates understand their roles in achieving company goals. He defines clear-cut steps for his subordinates to use in completing projects, and rewards them for using proven strategies. The second manager, Alan, feels that his role should be to provide individualized consideration and intellectual stimulation. His approach encourages creative problem solving and the development of new ideas. Most of the workers believe that both leaders are well trained, but Alan's employees remark that Alan seems to have a special leadership quality that sets him apart from the other managers. The passage implies which of the following about the effectiveness of the two managers' leadership styles? A) Alan and John are not effective leaders, because neither helps define the vision of the organization. B) Alan is a more effective leader than John, because he encourages creativity in his employees. C) Alan and John are equally effective as leaders, because both employ transformational leadership styles. D) John is a more effective leader than Alan, because he encourages his employees to use proven methods. E) John is more effective than Alan at inspiring employees, while Alan is more effective than John at achieving goals. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


73) You are an employee in a large organization. In this organization, there are two senior managers. The first of these mangers, John, prides himself on his ability to help his subordinates understand their roles in achieving company goals. He defines clear-cut steps for his subordinates to use in completing projects, and rewards them for using proven strategies. The second manager, Alan, feels that his role should be to provide individualized consideration and intellectual stimulation. His approach encourages creative problem solving and the development of new ideas. Most of the workers believe that both leaders are well trained, but Alan's employees remark that Alan seems to have a special leadership quality that sets him apart from the other managers. Based on the information given in the passage, Alan is most likely a(n) ________ leader. A) transactional B) emotion-based C) transformational D) transcendent E) reactional Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 171 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 74) Evidence indicates that transactional leadership is more strongly correlated than transformational leadership with ________. A) higher employee satisfaction B) higher productivity C) higher employee turnover D) reduced operating costs E) none of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 173 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 75) Leaders who know who they are, know what they believe in and value, and act on those values and beliefs openly and candidly are known as A) ethical leaders. B) authentic leaders. C) transformational leaders. D) transactional leaders. E) charismatic leaders. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 Topic: Authentic Leadership: Are Ethics The Foundation of Leadership?


76) As a leader, Joseph conveys values that are other-centered versus self-centered and models ethical conduct. He is demonstrating A) transformational leadership. B) socialized charismatic leadership. C) charismatic leadership. D) transactional leadership. E) dark charismatic leadership. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 174 Topic: Authentic Leadership: Are Ethics The Foundation of Leadership? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 77) The ________ theory of leadership views leadership traits as ascribed to individuals based on followers' perceptions of them. A) fundamental B) attribution C) perception D) organizational E) contingency Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct 78) According to the attribution theory of leadership, the key to being characterized as an "effective leader" is projecting the ________ of being a leader rather than focusing on ________. A) appearance; actual accomplishments B) image; overcoming challenges C) facade; reality D) look; events E) attributes; substance Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct 79) ________ make it impossible for leader behavior to make any difference to follower outcomes. A) Substitutes B) Neutralizers C) Higher-level leaders D) Deterrents E) Authentic leaders Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct


80) Organizational characteristics that can be substitutes for leadership include all of the following EXCEPT A) explicit formalized goals. B) rigid rules and procedures. C) cohesive work groups. D) mentor relationships. E) formalized goals. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 81) The VP of Human Resources of the Acme Company is interested in identifying individuals who will be effective leaders. Which of the following tools might she use in this search? A) Personality tests to identify extraversion B) Interviews C) reviews of situation-specific experience D) personality tests to identify conscientiousness E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Topic: Finding and Creating Effective Leaders 82) Which company was called the "Leadership Factory" as a result of their reputation for developing leaders? A) Disney B) Southwest Airlines C) General Electric D) Goldman Sachs E) Yahoo! Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Topic: Finding and Creating Effective Leaders 83) According to the text, which of the following skills should be included in leadership training? A) vision implementation B) trust building C) situational analysis D) mentoring E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Finding and Creating Effective Leaders


84) Based on the GLOBE student, which leadership characteristic might be the most effective in leading a team of Brazilian employees? A) low on consideration B) low LPC scores C) emphasis on participative decision-making D) dictatorial in nature E) task-oriented Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 85) Which of the following statements reflects the findings of global research on leadership? A) Charismatic/transformational leadership generalizes across cultures. B) Participative leadership styles generalize across cultures. C) High LPC leadership styles generalize across cultures. D) High consideration styles generalize across cultures. E) Traditional leadership styles generalize across cultures. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 179 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 86) Leadership and management are two terms that are often confused. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 159 Topic: What Is Leadership? 87) According to Kotter, management focuses on coping with change; leadership focuses on coping with complexity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 159 Topic: What Is Leadership? 88) Leadership can be defined as the ability to influence a group towards the achievement of cohesiveness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 160 Topic: What Is Leadership? 89) Holding a management position is an important step towards becoming a leader in an organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: What Is Leadership?


90) Strong leadership is the primary element needed for optimum organizational effectiveness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: What Is Leadership? 91) Research efforts at isolating leadership traits achieved a breakthrough, of sorts, when researchers began organizing traits around the Big Five personality framework. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 92) By the 1990s, numerous studies indicated that leaders differed from non-leaders only in ambition and self-confidence. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 93) The Big Five personality framework revealed that traits are most useful as predictors of leadership. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 94) One assumption of the trait view of leadership is that leaders cannot be trained. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 95) The link between EI and leadership effectiveness has been well established in the research. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 96) If behavioral theories of leadership are valid, we could have an infinite supply of effective leaders. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 97) The most comprehensive and replicated of the behavioral theories resulted from research begun by Fred Fiedler. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


98) The Ohio State Studies involved research on two leadership dimensionsinitiating structure and consideration. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 99) A leader designated as high on initiating structure would be likely to clearly define the roles of his or her subordinates. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 100) According to the University of Michigan studies, production-oriented leadership is defined as the extent to which a leader tends to emphasize the technical or task aspects of the job. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 101) The University of Michigan studies found that production-oriented leaders were associated with higher group productivity than employee-oriented leaders. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 102) The managerial grid was developed by a team of researchers known as the Scandinavian Studies group. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 103) The managerial grid model of leadership is based on the styles "concern for people" and "concern for production." Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 162 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 104) The Fiedler contingency model proposes that effective group performance depends upon the proper match between a leader's style and the degree to which a situation gives control to the leader. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


105) Fiedler's contingency model is considered to be the first comprehensive contingency model for leadership. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 106) Contingency models of leadership suggest that there is no one best style of leadership, but rather the situation and the conditions must be considered. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 107) Fiedler believes that a key factor in leadership success is the follower's preferences for coworker types. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 108) Fiedler's findings focused on results obtained from his pioneering use of the most preferred co-worker (MPC) questionnaire. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 109) In Fiedler's approach, if a respondent uses unfavorable terms to describe the co-worker in question, the respondent can be said to be primarily task-oriented. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 110) Fiedler's theory is based on the assumption that leaders can't change their styles to fit changing situations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 111) According to Fiedler, task structure is the degree to which the job assignments are procedurized. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


112) According to Fiedler, leader-member relations concern the degree to which a leader takes a personal interest in the needs of his or her employees and accepts individual differences among them. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 163 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 113) Fiedler's three situational factors include: leader-member relations, task structure, and stress. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 163-164 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 114) According to Fiedler's contingency model, task-oriented leaders are most effective in situations of high or low control. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 115) Fiedler's theory suggests that training is an effective tool to improve leader effectiveness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 116) Fiedler assumes that we should concentrate on changing situations to suit the leaders or changing the leaders to fit the situation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 117) Taken as a whole, tests of the overall validity of the Fiedler model tend to support substantial parts of the model. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 118) One of the most cited flaws in the Fiedler leadership model is that it fails to take into account the formal authority of the leader. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


119) Studies regarding the Fiedler model have shown that respondents' questionnaire scores tend to be relatively stable. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 120) One criticism of the Fiedler model concerns the fact that the logic underlying the model's questionnaire is not well understood. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 121) One advantage of the Fiedler model is that its contingency variables are simple and easy to assess. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 122) In the leader-member exchange theory, leaders don't treat all of their subordinates alike. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 123) According to LMX theory, out-group members get more of the leader's time, but in a negative manner. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 124) In the leader-member exchange theory, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of employees called the "supportive followers." Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 125) Research testing LMX theory has been generally supportive. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 126) According to LMX theory, followers with in-group status will have lower turnover intentions than the out-group members. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 166 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


127) According to charismatic leadership theory, followers make attributions of heroic leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 167 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 128) Most researchers have concluded that charisma is an innate trait. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 167 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 129) Charismatic leadership is necessary to achieve high levels of employee performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 169 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 130) Transformational leadership builds on top of transactional leadership. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 131) Transactional leaders are always charismatic leaders. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 171 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 132) One study found that vision was even more important than a charismatic communication style when explaining the success of entrepreneurial firms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 172 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 133) There is an increasing body of research that shows impressive correlations between transactional leadership and higher productivity, lower turnover rates, and higher employee satisfaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 173 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 134) The primary quality produced by authentic leaders is trust. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 174 Topic: Authentic Leadership: Are Ethics The Foundation of Leadership?


135) According to the attribution theory of leadership, most leaders do not possess the characteristics that individuals attribute to them. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct 136) In the attribution leadership literature, effective leaders are generally considered to be flexible and responsive in their decisions. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 175 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct 137) Leadership neutralizers make it possible for a leader to make a difference in follower outcomes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 176 Topic: Challenges to the Leadership Construct 138) The interview is the primary tool available for identifying and selecting strong leaders. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 177 Topic: Finding and Creating Effective Leaders 139) For the most part, people are equally trainable. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Finding and Creating Effective Leaders 140) There is evidence suggesting that behavioral training can increase an individual's ability to exhibit charismatic leadership qualities. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 178 Topic: Finding and Creating Effective Leaders 141) What is the difference between leadership and management? Answer: Leadership is defined as the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of goals. Leadership is about coping with change, management is about coping with complexity. Good management brings about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans, designing rigid organization structures, and monitoring results against plans. Management consists of implementing the vision and strategy provided by leaders, coordinating and staffing the organization, and handling day-to-day problems. Page Ref: 159-160 Topic: What Is Leadership?


142) What "breakthrough" resulted in consistent and strong support for traits as predictors of leadership? Answer: When researchers began organizing traits around the Big Five personality framework, it became clear that most of the dozens of traits that emerged in various leadership reviews could be subsumed under one of the Big Five.This approach resulted in consistent and strong support for traits as predictors of leadership emergence. Page Ref: 160 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 143) What are the implications of the behavioral theories of leadership? Answer: The failures of early trait studies led researchers to go in the direction of behavioral theories. These theories focused on observable behaviors, as opposed to underlying traits. One relative advantage of the behavioral approach is that, since behaviors can be learned, we could train people to be leaders. Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 144) Identify and explain the two dimensions of leadership described in the Ohio State studies. Answer: The Ohio State studies proposed that two categories accounted for most of the leadership behavior described by employees. They called these two dimensions initiating structure and consideration. Initiating structure refers to the extent to which a leader is likely to define and structure his or her role and those of employees in the search for goal attainment. Consideration is described as the extent to which a person is likely to have job relationships that are characterized by mutual trust, respect for employees' ideas, and regard for their feelings. Page Ref: 161 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


145) Explain Fiedler's contingency model. In your discussion, describe the role of the LPC (least preferred coworker) questionnaire and identify the key situational factors that determine leadership effectiveness, according to this model. Answer: Fred Fiedler developed the first comprehensive contingency model for leadership. This model proposes that effective group performance depends upon the proper match between the leader's style and the degree to which the situation gives control to the leader. The least preferred co-worker (LPC) questionnaire is used to determine what the leader's basic style is. Sixteen contrasting adjectives are used to ask respondents to describe their least-preferred co-worker. If the least preferred co-worker is described in relatively positive terms (a high LPC score), then the respondent is primarily interested in good personal relations with this co-worker. This person is considered relationship oriented. If the least preferred co-worker is primarily interested in productivity, they would be labeled task oriented. Fiedler assumes that an individual's leadership style is fixed. Fiedler identified three contingency dimensions that define the key situational factors that determine leadership effectiveness. Leader-member relations are the degree of confidence, trust, and respect members have in their leader. Task structure is the degree to which the job assignments are procedurized. Position power is the degree of influence a leader has over power variables such as hiring, firing, discipline, promotions, and salary increases. The better the leader-member relations, the more highly structured the job, and the stronger the position power, the more control the leader has. With knowledge of an individual's LPC and an assessment of the three contingency variables, Fiedler proposes matching them up to achieve maximum leadership effectiveness. Task-oriented leaders tend to perform better in situations that were very favorable to them and in situations that were very unfavorable. Relationship oriented leaders perform better in moderately favorable situations. Fiedler has suggested recently that task-oriented leaders perform best in situations of high and low control, while relationship-oriented leaders perform best in moderate control situations. There are two ways to improve leader effectiveness. You can change the leader to fit the situation. The second alternative would be to change the situation to fit the leader. This could be done by restructuring tasks or increasing or decreasing the power that the leader has to control factors such as salary increases, promotions, and disciplinary actions. Page Ref: 163-165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 146) Describe LMX theory and identify its main beliefs. Answer: This theory argues that because of time pressures, leaders establish a special relationship with a small group of their followers. These individuals make up the in-group ∙ they are trusted, get a disproportionate amount of the leader's attention, and are more likely to receive special privileges. Other followers fall into the out-group. They get less of the leader's time, fewer of the preferred rewards that the leader controls, and have leader-follower relations based on formal authority interactions. The leader implicitly categorizes the follower as an "in" or "out" and that relationship is relatively stable over time. Page Ref: 165 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership


147) Summarize the research evidence in support of leader-member exchange theory. Answer: The theory and research surrounding it provide substantive evidence that leaders do differentiate among followers; that these disparities are far from random; and that followers with in-group status will have higher performance ratings, lower turnover intentions, greater satisfaction with their superior, and higher overall satisfaction than will the out-group. These positive findings for in-group members are consistent with our knowledge of the self-fulfilling prophesy. Page Ref: 166-167 Topic: Traditional Theories of Leadership 148) How can charismatic leadership hurt an organization? Answer: To attract charismatic leaders, companies may give these individuals virtually unrestricted autonomy and resources. As a result, the leaders may earn very high salaries even if they do not perform effectively. They may use company funds for their own personal benefits, and they may also take advantage of their power by putting their own interests ahead of the interests of the organization. Some charismatic leaders are successful at convincing their followers to pursue a vision that can be disastrous. Charismatic leaders who are larger-than-life don't necessarily act in the best interests of their organizations. Many used their power to remake their companies in their own image. They often completely blurred the boundary separating their personal interests from their organization's interests. Intolerant of criticism, they surround themselves with yes people who are rewarded for pleasing the leader and create a climate where people are afraid to question the leader. Page Ref: 169-170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 149) What is the difference between transactional leadership and transformational leadership? Answer: Transactional leaders guide their followers in the direction of established goals by clarifying role and task requirements. Transformational leaders inspire followers to transcend their own self-interests for the good of the organization. Transformational leadership is built on top of transactional leadershipit produces levels of follower effort and performance that go beyond what would occur with a transactional approach alone. Page Ref: 170 Topic: Contemporary Approaches to Leadership 150) What is authentic leadership? Answer: Authentic leadership is a relatively new concept. Authentic leaders know who they are, know what they believe in and value, and act on those values and beliefs openly and candidly. Their followers would consider them to be ethical people. The primary quality produced by authentic leaders is trust. They do this by sharing information, encouraging open communication, and sticking to their ideals. As a result, people come to have faith in authentic leaders. Page Ref: 174 Topic: Authentic Leadership: Are Ethics The Foundation of Leadership?


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 12 Power and Politics 1) Power can be defined as ________. A) the ability to influence the behavior of others B) the actualization of the dependency of others C) congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led D) downward influence on one's followers E) upward influence on one's leaders Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 2) Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power? A) influence B) potential C) dependency D) actualization E) capacity Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 3) The most important aspect of power is probably that it ________. A) is needed to get things done in an organization B) is a function of dependency C) tends to corrupt people D) is counterproductive E) involves control Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 4) Which of the following statements is true concerning power? A) Trust and mistrust affect the expression of power. B) A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire. C) Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. D) To be effective, power must be actualized. E) In order to have power, a person must impose their control over others. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power


5) Leaders achieve goals, and power is ________. A) defined by leaders' hopes and aspirations B) usually used by poor leaders C) a means of achieving goals D) a goal in and of itself E) a strong influence on leaders' goals Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power 6) Power does not require goal compatibility, merely ________. A) reliance B) communication C) confidence D) dependence E) understanding Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: A Definition of Power 7) Leadership requires ________. A) some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led B) strong two-way communication between the leader and those being led C) a dependency of those being led on the leader D) a dependency of the leader on those being led E) followers to share behavioral traits with their leaders Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power 8) Leadership focuses on the ________. A) downward influence of a leader on his or her followers B) importance of lateral and upward influence patterns C) elimination of dependency relationships D) the stability of the organization E) management of the organization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power


9) Leadership research emphasizes ________. A) style B) persuasion C) power D) communication E) commitment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power 10) Unlike leadership research, research on power tends to focus on ________. A) individual styles in using power B) strategies for goal attainment C) tactics for gaining compliance D) the administration of rewards E) the effective use of threats Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power 11) The two general groupings of power are ________. A) informational and personal B) formal and informal C) informal and legitimate D) personal and formal E) static and fluid Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power 12) ________ power is based on an individual's position in an organization. A) Leadership B) Formal C) Informal D) Influential E) Static Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power


13) Formal power can arise out of which of the following? A) the ability to coerce B) formal authority C) the ability to reward D) one's position in the organization E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 14) Your colleagues at work are constantly talking about the vice president in your region. He is perceived throughout the organization as a ruthless man who is not to be antagonized. It is necessary for you to bring him a report, and you are very nervous about having to deal with him. The vice president's major base of power seems to be ________. A) reward B) coercive C) referent D) expert E) personal Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) The vice president in your region is perceived throughout the organization as a ruthless man who is not to be antagonized. It is necessary for you to bring him a report and you are very nervous about having to deal with him. The most likely reason for the success of this vice president in your organization is that his subordinates A) strive to make themselves indispensable to him. B) find his leadership style inspiring. C) strive to emulate him. D) are envious of his success. E) fear negative sanctions if they fail to comply. Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


16) One reacts to ________ power out of fear of the negative ramifications that might result if one fails to comply. A) legitimate B) coercive C) punitive D) referent E) abusive Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power 17) When a bank robber points a gun at a bank employee, his base of power is ________. A) coercive B) punitive C) positional D) authoritative E) fractional Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 18) The opposite of coercive power is ________ power. A) referent B) reward C) legitimate D) charismatic E) resourcive Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power 19) When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he/she is exercising ________ power. A) legitimate B) coercive C) reward D) personal E) reflective Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


20) You know that the vice president of your region has the authority to accept or reject your report. This is part of his ________ power. A) reward B) coercive C) expert D) legitimate E) personal Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 21) As a result of the organization's structure, the vice president in your region has which of the following power bases? A) reward B) coercive C) formal D) legitimate E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182-183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 22) Legitimate power is based on ________. A) positive rewards B) interpersonal trust C) structural position D) expert knowledge E) respect and admiration Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 23) The power that the College Dean has been granted by the University over the faculty is termed ________ power. A) academic B) positional C) legitimate D) personal E) referent Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


24) Which of the following types of power requires acceptance of the leader's authority by members of the organization? A) personal B) organizational C) legitimate D) positional E) balanced Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 25) ________ power is generally related to an individual's unique characteristics. A) Personal B) Reward C) Legitimate D) Expert E) Idiosyncratic Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 26) Personal power is generally perceived as a result of all the following EXCEPT A) expertise B) charisma C) legitimate authority D) admiration E) skill Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 27) ________ power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. A) Associational B) Legitimate C) Referent D) Personal E) Source Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power


28) Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her ________ power. A) referent B) information C) formal D) expert E) personal Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 29) Celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials because the advertisers believe the celebrities have ________ power. A) personal B) referent C) expert D) legitimate E) star Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 30) Research suggests which of the following is the most effective source of power? A) formal B) coercive C) personal D) reward E) legitimate Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 31) Which source of formal power can actually backfire? A) reward B) coercive C) expert D) referent E) legitimate Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power


32) Power tactics can be defined as ________. A) the only legitimate sources of power B) techniques for translating power bases into specific actions C) strategies for gathering and maintain support D) organizational structural characteristics E) approaches for winning arguments Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Power Tactics 33) James approaches his supervisor with data and a logical presentation supporting his request for additional personnel. He is using ________. A) consultation B) legitimacy C) rational persuasion D) informational power E) exchange Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 34) Joe comes to you with a request for funds for a project. He reminds you that company policy supports his position. He is using the tactic of ________. A) coalitions B) consultation C) rational persuasion D) legitimacy E) pressure Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 35) Which of the following is not considered to be a power tactic? A) coalitions B) substitution C) rational persuasion D) ingratiation E) legitimacy Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics


36) Vivian has not been handling one portion of her duties in a satisfactory manner. As a result, her manager threatens to withhold her promotion. Which power tactic is being used? A) exchange B) ingratiation C) pressure D) personal appeals E) inspirational appeals Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 37) When Jennifer asks for Jim's compliance on her new initiative based on their long friendship, which influence tactic is she using? A) exchange B) ingratiation C) pressure D) personal appeals E) inspirational appeals Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 38) The power tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is known as ________. A) ingratiation B) exchange C) inspirational appeal D) motivational appeal E) affective appeal Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics 39) Which of the following tactics involves including an individual in the decision-making and planning process? A) ingratiation B) exchange C) pressure D) inspirational appeals E) consultation Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities


40) The power tactic that evidence suggests is one of the most effective is ________. A) pressure or coercion B) rational persuasion C) personal appeals or friendship D) exchange or rewards E) flattery Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics 41) Which of the following is NOT considered a "softer" influence tactic? A) personal appeals B) inspirational appeals C) rational persuasion D) pressure E) consultation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 42) Which influence tactic tends to work best as a downward influencing tactic with subordinates? A) pressure B) inspirational appeals C) ingratiation D) coalitions E) exchange Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics AASCB Tag: Communication Abilities 43) Which power tactic tends to be the most effective across all organizational levels? A) personal appeals B) rational persuasion C) ingratiation D) legitimacy E) pressure Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics


44) When employees in organizations convert their power into action, they are engaged in ________. A) influence B) IM C) politics D) power techniques E) power tactics Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 45) Activities that influence the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within an organization are known as ________. A) human resources B) political behaviors C) sexual harassment D) influential power moves E) interactive initiatives Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 46) Political behaviors usually ________. A) lie outside of an individual's specified job requirements B) are counterproductive to individual goals C) are seen only in large organizations D) are frowned upon by organizational leaders E) are expected as part of each job requirement Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 47) Which of the following would be considered a legitimate political behavior? A) sabotage B) bypassing the chain of command C) whistleblowing D) wearing protest buttons E) groups of employees simultaneously calling in sick Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action


48) All of the following may provide reasons to explain why politics is a fact of organizational life EXCEPT A) Organizations are comprised of groups with different values and goals. B) There is the potential for conflict over resources. C) Resources in organizations are limited. D) Win/win scenarios are the norm. E) Decisions are often made in a climate of ambiguity. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 49) For an organization to be politics free would require that A) all organizational members hold the same goals and interests. B) organizational resources are not scarce. C) performance outcomes are clear. D) performance outcomes are objective. E) all of the above. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 50) Which of the following is not an individual factor related to political behavior? A) organizational investment B) perceived job alternatives C) zero-sum reward practices D) level of self-monitoring E) expectations of success Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 51) The more a person has invested in the organization, the more that person has to lose if forced out and therefore, is less likely to use A) their power. B) politics. C) illegitimate means. D) defensive behavior. E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics


52) An individual most likely to engage in political behavior would have all of the following except a(n) ________. A) high need for power B) high ability to self monitor C) high charisma rating D) internal locus of control E) Machiavellian personality Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 53) Which of the following does not describe high self-monitors? A) The show greater sensitivity to social cues. B) They possess an external locus of control. C) They exhibit higher levels of social conformity. D) They are more likely to be skilled in political behavior. E) They are more likely to engage in political behavior. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 54) Political activity is probably more a function of ________ than of ________. A) management's example; the organization's characteristics B) management's example; individual difference variables C) the organization's characteristics; individual difference variables D) individual difference variables; management's example E) individual difference variables; the organization's characteristics Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 55) Which of the following is not true? A) The more an organization's culture emphasizes zero-sum reward allocations, the more employees will be motivated to engage in politicking. B) The more pressure that employees feel to perform well, the more likely they are to engage in politicking. C) The more growth stability a company demonstrates, the more likely its employees are to engage in politicking. D) The greater the role ambiguity within a company, the more its employees can engage in political activity with little chance of it being visible. E) The greater the opportunity for promotion or advancement within a company, the more employees will compete to positively influence outcomes. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics


56) There is a greater likelihood of political behavior of the illegitimate kind when there is/are ________ within the organization. A) more resources B) less trust C) more executive opportunities D) less executive opportunities E) less satisfaction Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 57) Which of the following is NOT cited as a culture that creates a breeding ground for politicking? A) cultures with unclear performance evaluation systems B) high trust cultures C) cultures with role ambiguity D) democratic decision-making cultures E) cultures with self-serving senior managers Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 58) Which factors in the reward allocation process are likely to increase the likelihood that an employee will be motivated to engage in politicking? A) the use of objective criteria in the appraisal B) use of several outcome measures C) a zero-sum approach D) clear criteria E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 59) When politicking becomes too much to handle, A) it can lead to employees quitting. B) it can lead to increases in employee performance. C) it can increase the motivation of employees. D) it may decrease pressure to compete in the political arena. E) it can increase employee retention. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics


60) Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change when people perceive politics as a threat, are termed ________. A) political behaviors B) defensive behaviors C) protectionism D) impression management E) shielding bias Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 61) Individuals who develop explanations to lessen their responsibility for negative outcomes are demonstrating which of the following defensive behaviors? A) buffing B) justifying C) prevention D) stretching E) misrepresenting Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 62) When Sal says, "This is the way we've always done it," he is using the defensive behavior known as A) buck passing. B) playing dumb. C) over-conforming. D) stretching. E) stalling. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 63) When Matt avoids blame by manipulating information by distortion or deception, he is using the defensive behavior known as A) buffing. B) playing safe. C) justifying. D) scapegoating. E) misrepresenting. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


64) Catherine and Bernice are faculty members at a local college who feel very differently about their academic dean. Catherine believes that he is always engaging in political activity that is not in the best interests of the college. She describes him as a man who passes the buck and who is scheming and arrogant. Bernice believes that the dean is an effective manager. Bernice's label for what Catherine describes as "passing the buck" might be A) delegating authority. B) showing responsibility. C) encouraging dependency. D) demonstrating conscientiousness. E) facilitating cooperation. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 65) Catherine and Bernice are faculty members at a local college who feel very differently about their academic dean. Catherine believes that he is always engaging in political activity that is not in the best interests of the college. She describes him as a man who passes the buck and who is scheming and arrogant. Bernice believes that the dean is an effective manager. Bernice's effective management label for Catherine's phrase "justifying" is probably A) distributing rewards. B) establishing expertise. C) apologizing. D) displaying charisma. E) fixing responsibility. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 66) Catherine and Bernice are faculty members at a local college who feel very differently about their academic dean. Catherine believes that he is always engaging in political activity that is not in the best interests of the college. She describes him as a man who passes the buck and who is scheming and arrogant. Bernice believes that the dean is an effective manager. Behaviors that Catherine views as "over-conforming" are probably viewed by Bernice as A) competent. B) responsible. C) being mindful of the rules . D) practical-minded. E) astute. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


67) Catherine and Bernice are faculty members at a local college who feel very differently about their academic dean. Catherine believes that he is always engaging in political activity that is not in the best interests of the college. She describes him as a man who passes the buck and who is scheming and arrogant. Bernice believes that the dean is an effective manager. Bernice sees the dean as being competent, thorough and carefully documenting. Catherine would most likely describe the dean instead as A) overachieving. B) scapegoating. C) misrepresenting . D) cunning. E) buffing. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 68) Thomas recognizes that his firm is plagued by organizational politics. He is not good at playing games and instead frequently engages in defensive behaviors in order to protect himself and his interests. Thomas is frustrated because he believes that he has little control over his environment, and his environment is uncomfortable to him. He has had some success at establishing a sense of control for himself by appearing to be more or less supportive publicly while doing little or nothing privately. Which of the following behaviors is Thomas engaged in? A) overconforming B) stalling C) playing dumb D) stretching E) buck passing Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


69) Thomas recognizes that his firm is plagued by organizational politics. He is not good at playing games and instead frequently engages in defensive behaviors in order to protect himself and his interests. Thomas is frustrated because he believes that he has little control over his environment, and his environment is uncomfortable to him. He has had some success at establishing a sense of control for himself by appearing to be more or less supportive publicly while doing little or nothing privately. The defensive behavior that he is engaged in falls under the category of avoiding A) action. B) blame. C) change. D) power. E) responsibility. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 70) Thomas also attempts to project an image of competence and thoroughness by rigorously documenting all of his activity. This defensive behavior is termed A) justifying. B) playing safe. C) buffing. D) scapegoating. E) misrepresenting. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 71) Thomas' rigorous documentation allows him to accomplish which of the following? A) avoiding responsibility B) avoiding power C) avoiding change D) avoiding action E) avoiding blame Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


72) Thomas has decided that in general, his best defense is to focus on behaviors that enable him to avoid blame. Which of the following behaviors is he most likely to engage in? A) overconforming B) playing dumb C) scapegoating D) prevention E) stalling Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 73) If Thomas wishes to avoid change at work, he will most likely ________. A) share resources B) overachieve C) build coalitions D) guard information E) divide alliances Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 74) The process by which individuals attempt to control the perceptions that others form of them is called ________. A) impression management B) information management C) defensive behavior D) perception management E) reflection control Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics


75) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his coworkers and supervisor. He agrees with the supervisor's opinion most of the time and is always doing nice things for him. Jerrod makes sure that he associates with the "right" people and is constantly complimenting others about their good work. Jerrod is attempting to use A) politics. B) impression management. C) defensive behavior. D) his power base. E) interdependence. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 76) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his coworkers and supervisor. He agrees with the supervisor's opinion most of the time and is always doing nice things for him. Jerrod makes sure that he associates with the "right" people and is constantly complimenting others about their good work. Jerrod is engaging in which of the following impression management techniques? A) mirroring B) acclaiming C) groveling D) conformity E) apologizing Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-4 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 77) Jerrod is relatively new to Xenon Corporation and wants to make sure that he makes a good impression on his coworkers and supervisor. He agrees with the supervisor's opinion most of the time and is always doing nice things for him. Jerrod makes sure that he associates with the "right" people and is constantly complimenting others about their good work. Jerrod is engaging in all of the following impression management techniques except A) conformity. B) flattery. C) excuses. D) association. E) favors. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 12-4 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


78) Which of the following is not an example of an impression management technique? A) conformity B) capitulating C) flattery D) granting favors E) self-promotion Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-4 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 79) "I've got two tickets to the game tonight that I can't use. Take them. Consider it a thank you for taking the time to talk with me." This is an example of which impression management behavior? A) favors B) flattery C) association D) self-promotion E) conformity Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 12-4 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 80) Some individuals promote their image by describing others with whom they are associated in a positive light. These individuals are using the impression management technique of ________. A) conformity B) flattery C) association D) self-promotion E) attribution denial Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-4 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 81) Who is most likely to engage in IM? A) low self-monitors B) high self-monitors C) low Machs D) those with an external locus of control E) everyone Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 190 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics


82) Which IM technique may be the most important to interviewing success? A) ingratiation B) self-promotion C) conformity D) flattery E) association Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 83) Which of the following is most likely to help Jerrod earn higher performance evaluations from his supervisors? A) apologies B) ingratiation C) excuses D) buffing E) self-promotion Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 84) Which IM technique appears to backfire on employees and lead to lower performance evaluations? A) ingratiation B) self-promotion C) conformity D) flattery E) association Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 85) Which of the following is NOT true of power? A) To get things done, it helps to have power. B) Managers should increase others' dependence on them. C) To increase your power, you should develop a skill your boss needs. D) Power is a one-way street. E) While you seek to maximize others' dependence on you, you will be seeking to minimize your dependence on others. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 193 Topic: Implications for Managers


86) Power is an action, not a potential. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 87) Power is a function of dependency. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 88) A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 89) Unlike power, leadership requires a significant degree of goal compatibility. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power 90) Power focuses on downward influence patterns. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power 91) A bully's power can be understood as coercive power. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power 92) If A can assign B work activities that B finds unpleasant, or treat B in a manner that B finds embarrassing, A possesses referent power over B. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 93) Formal power is a measure of an individual's ability to control organizational resources. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power 94) For reward power to be effective, the rewards involved must be financial. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power


95) Reward power rests on the allocation of things others view as valuable. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 182 Topic: Bases of Power 96) Having a formal position in an organization is a prerequisite to have power. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 97) Personal power arises from an individual's unique characteristics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 98) The expert power of an individual within an organization is strengthened when another individual with the same job-related knowledge and skills is hired by the organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 99) As the world has become more technologically oriented, expertise has declined as a source of influence due to the increased availability of information. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 100) A famous NFL quarterback's power to influence buying behavior through commercial endorsements is based on his expertise at leading a football team and his athletic skills. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 101) Referent power is based on identification with a person who is famous and wealthy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 102) The use of power tactics over time can result in an accumulation of a power base. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 183 Topic: Power Tactics


103) Personal appeal is a power tactic based on flattery. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics 104) Rational persuasion is the only power tactic that is effective across all organizational levels. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics 105) Pressure is effective as a power tactic when individuals attempt to influence their superiors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 184 Topic: Power Tactics 106) The organizational culture in which a manager works will have an insignificant bearing on defining which power tactics are considered appropriate. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Power Tactics 107) When employees in organizations convert their power into action, we describe them as being engaged in politics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 108) Political behavior encompasses efforts to influence organizational decision-making. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 109) Legitimate political behavior refers to actions that are specified in one's formal job description. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 110) Those who pursue extreme illegitimate political behaviors have been described as "playing hardball". Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action


111) By definition, all political behavior is considered an illegitimate activity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 112) There is a great likelihood that organizations can become politics free. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 185 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 113) The more an individual has invested in the organization, the less likely they are to use illegitimate means. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 114) Politicking is most likely to be used when decisions are made in a climate of certainty. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 115) Political activity is influenced by both an organization's characteristics and by individual differences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 186 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 116) Objective performance appraisal criteria tend to encourage politicking. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 117) The zero-sum approach encourages making others look bad so you can "win". Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 118) High trust in organizations should encourage a higher level of political behavior in general. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 119) Politicking by top management implies such behavior is acceptable. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics


120) Politicking is fostered within organizations that emphasize a zero-sum approach to the allocation of rewards. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 187 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 121) The perception of politics in organizations tends to increase job anxiety and stress. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 122) Evidence suggests that politics leads to self-reported increases in employee performance. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 188 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 123) When people perceive politics as an opportunity, they respond with defensive behaviors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 189 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 124) The defensive behavior known as "playing it safe" can also be described as "covering your rear." Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 125) Avoiding an unwanted task by falsely pleading inability is the defensive behavior known as playing dumb. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 126) Prevention is a defensive behavior to avoid blame. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: Exh 12-3 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 127) Since high self-monitors are good at reading situations and molding their appearances and behavior, they are more likely to engage in IM. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 190 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


128) Everyone is concerned with IM. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 190 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 129) IM does not imply that the impressions people convey are necessarily false. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 190 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 130) Reactive behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change are called impression management. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 131) Individuals use association and conformity to manipulate the impressions that others hold of them. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 12-4 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 132) Self-promotion tactics are important to interviewing success. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 133) Self-promotion tactics can lower performance evaluations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 134) Evidence demonstrates that impression management techniques are rarely successful. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 191 Topic: Causes and Consequences of Politics 135) Research has produced clear guidelines for differentiating ethical from unethical politicking. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 192 Topic: The Ethics of Behaving Politically 136) It is a lot easier for the powerless than the powerful to act ethically. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 192 Topic: The Ethics of Behaving Politically


137) There is significant agreement in the power tactics preferred by people across the globe. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 192 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 138) Individuals in Western, individualized cultures tend to engage in more self-promotion behaviors than individuals in Eastern, more collectivist cultures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 193 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) The effective manager accepts the political nature of organizations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 193 Topic: Implications for Managers 140) IM is a type of political behavior designed to alter others' immediate perceptions of us. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 193 Topic: Implications for Managers 141) How is power defined? Answer: Power is a capacity that A has to influence the behavior of B, so that B acts in accordance with A's wishes. This implies a potential that need not be actualized to be effective and a dependency relationship. Power may exist but not be used. It is a capacity or potential. A person may have power over you if he/she controls something you want. Page Ref: 181 Topic: A Definition of Power 142) Contrast leadership and power. Answer: Power does not require goal compatibility, merely dependence. Leadership, on the other hand, requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led. A second difference relates to the direction of influence. Leadership focuses on the downward influence on one's followers. It minimizes the importance of lateral and upward influence patterns. Power does not. Still another difference deals with research emphasis. Leadership research, for the most part, emphasizes style. It seeks answers to such questions as: How supportive should a leader be? How much decision making should be shared with followers? The research on power encompasses a broader area and focus on tactics for gaining compliance. Power can be used by groups as well as by individuals to control other individuals or groups. Page Ref: 182 Topic: Contrasting Leadership and Power


143) List and discuss the bases of formal power. Answer: Formal power can come from the ability to coerce or reward or from formal authority. The coercive power base is dependent on fear. One reacts to this power out of fear of the negative results that might occur if one failed to comply. A has coercive power over B if A can dismiss, suspend, or demote B, assuming that B values his or her job. The opposite of coercive power is reward power. People comply with the wishes or directives of another because doing so produces positive benefits. Therefore, one who can distribute rewards that others view as valuable will have power over those others. These rewards can be either financial or nonfinancial. One's structural position is called legitimate power. It represents the formal authority to control and use organizational resources. Page Ref: 182-183 Topic: Bases of Power 144) List and discuss the bases of personal power. Answer: Personal power comes from an individual's unique characteristics. Two bases of personal power are expertise, the respect and admiration of others, and charisma. Expert power is influence wielded as a result of expertise, special skill, or knowledge. Expertise has become one of the most powerful sources of influence as the world has become more technologically oriented. Referent power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits. If I like, respect, and admire you, you can exercise power over me because I want to please you. Page Ref: 183 Topic: Bases of Power 145) What power tactics can employees use to translate their power bases into specific actions and how does each one work? Answer: Research has identified nine distinct tactics of political influence. Legitimacy involves relying on one's authority position or stressing that a request is in accordance with organizational policies or rules. Rational persuasion involves presenting logical arguments and factual evidence to demonstrate that a request is reasonable. Inspirational appeals involve developing emotional commitment by appealing to a target's values, needs, hopes, and aspirations. Consultation involves increasing a target's motivation and support by involving him or her in deciding how a plan or change will be implemented. Exchange involves rewarding targets with benefits or favors in exchange for following a request. Personal appeals involve asking for compliance based on friendship or loyalty. Ingratiation involves using flattery, praise, or friendly behavior prior to making a request. Pressure involves using warnings, repeated demands, and threats. Finally, coalitions involve enlisting the aid of other people to persuade a target or using the support of others as a reason for the target to agree. Page Ref: 183-184 Topic: Power Tactics


146) What is political behavior? Discuss some of the individual and organizational factors related to political behavior. Answer: Political behavior in organizations is defined as those activities that are not required as part of one's formal role in the organization, but that influence, or attempt to influence, the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within the organization. At the individual level, researchers have identified certain personality traits, needs, and other factors that are likely to be related to political behavior. Employees who are high self-monitors, possess an internal locus of control, and have a high need for power are more likely to engage in political behavior. An individual's investment in the organization, perceived alternatives, and expectations of success will influence the degree to which he or she will pursue illegitimate means of political action. Political activity is probably more a function of the organization's characteristics than of individual difference variables. When an organization's resources are declining, when the existing pattern of resources is changing, and when there is opportunity for promotions, politics is more likely to surface. In addition, cultures characterized by low trust, role ambiguity, unclear performance evaluation systems, zero-sum reward allocation practices, democratic decision making, high pressures for performance, and self-serving senior managers will create breeding grounds for politicking. Page Ref: 185-187 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 147) Discuss defensive behaviors. Answer: Defensive behaviors occur when people perceive politics as a threat rather than an opportunity. They respond with reactive and protective behaviors to avoid action, blame, or change. Defensive behaviors are often associated with negative feelings toward the job and work environment. In the short run, employees may find that defensiveness protects their self-interest. But in the long run, it is the only way they know how to behave. At that point, they lose the trust and support of their peers, bosses, employees, and clients. Page Ref: 189 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 148) Explain impression management and give an example of its use in the workplace. Answer: The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. IM techniques are especially widespread in the employment interview. People create an impression to be seen as more attractive than other candidates. This can help them initially get the jobs they want in an organization and, once hired, to get favorable evaluations, superior salary increases and more rapid promotions. Page Ref: 189-190 Topic: Politics: Power in Action


149) Describe impression management (IM) techniques and describe their effectiveness on interview success. Answer: The process by which individuals attempt to control the impression others form of them is called impression management. The evidence indicates IM behavior works. In one study, interviewers felt that those applicants for a position as a customer service representative who used IM techniques performed better in the interview, and they seemed somewhat more inclined to hire these people. It was the IM techniques alone that influenced the interviewers. It didn't seem to matter if applicants were well or poorly qualified. If they used IM techniques, they did better in the interview. Page Ref: 191 Topic: Politics: Power in Action 150) List the three questions that can help determine if a political action is ethical. Answer: The first question you should ask is "What is the utility of engaging in the behavior?" Sometimes we engage in political behaviors for little good reason. Second, we should ask "How does the utility of engaging in the political behavior balance out any harm it will do to others?" And the third question to ask is "Does the political activity conform to standards of equity and justice?" Page Ref: 192 Topic: The Ethics of Behaving Politically


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 13 Conflict and Negotiation 1) If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that ________. A) employee-employer relations will be good B) conflict is subversive C) no conflict exists D) conflict is inevitable E) conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 194 Topic: A Definition of Conflict 2) Which of the following is an example of conflict? A) incompatibility of goals B) differences over interpretation of facts C) disagreements based on behavioral expectations D) workplace violence E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 194 Topic: A Definition of Conflict 3) Which of the following is not one of the views of conflict? A) traditional view B) human relations view C) interactionist view D) functional view E) all of the above Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 4) The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict ________. A) cannot be avoided B) helps to generate discussion C) can be avoided D) improves productivity E) must be avoided Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought


5) The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is ________. A) harmful B) natural C) necessary D) situationally dependent E) neutral Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 6) Which one of the following is not a perspective of the traditional view of conflict? A) Conflict is inevitable. B) Conflict must be avoided. C) Conflict is dysfunctional. D) Conflict is harmful. E) Conflict is synonymous with irrationality. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 7) Which one of the following views on conflict prevailed in the 1930s and 1940s and may be considered outmoded today? A) human relations B) interactionist C) traditional D) functional E) asymptotic Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 8) The ________ view of conflict argues that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group. A) human relations B) interactionist C) traditional D) functional E) human resources Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought


9) The ________ view of conflict argues that conflict is a dysfunctional outcome that may arise from management failure. A) human relations B) interactionist C) traditional D) functional E) conjunctive Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 10) The human relations view of conflict advocates ________ conflict. A) encouraging B) open communication for resolving C) group therapy for resolving D) acceptance of E) rejection of Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 11) It seems that your work group is in conflict much of the time. One colleague has suggested that you, as the supervisor, are responsible for eliminating the conflict so that your work group can function harmoniously. Another colleague has suggested that conflict is good for stimulating creativity and productivity within the work environment. You are unsure about whether you should try to eliminate the conflict within your group or learn to deal with it positively. If you support the idea that conflict should be eliminated, you are supporting which of the following views of conflict? A) the traditional view B) the human relations view C) the interactionist view D) the moderated acceptance view E) the positivistic view Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


12) It seems that your work group is in conflict much of the time. One colleague has suggested that you, as the supervisor, are responsible for eliminating the conflict so that your work group can function harmoniously. Another colleague has suggested that conflict is good for stimulating creativity and productivity within the work environment. You are unsure about whether you should try to eliminate the conflict within your group or learn to deal with it positively. You have decided to accept conflict as a natural occurrence and deal with it. You are supporting A) the traditional view. B) the human relations view. C) the interactionist view. D) the behavior modification view. E) the positivistic view. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) You decide to do more research on the view that conflict should be encouraged as a means to achieve change and innovation. This view is termed A) the traditional view. B) the human relations view. C) the interactionist view. D) the acceptance view. E) the promotional view. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 14) When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group's work should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is A) task conflict. B) relationship conflict. C) process conflict. D) traditional conflict. E) reactive conflict. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


15) The ________ view of conflict encourages a group to perform effectively by maintaining an ongoing minimum level of conflict. A) human relations B) interactionist C) traditional D) functional E) reactive Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 16) The interactionist view of conflict proposes that functional conflict is ________. A) an indication of the group maturity level B) necessary for effective group performance C) a necessary evil D) always focused around relationships E) universally harmful Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 17) According to the interactionist view, it may be appropriate to A) eliminate all conflict. B) avoid all conflict. C) encourage functional conflict. D) create anti-conflict cultures. E) reward conflict avoiders. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 18) According to the interactionist's perspective, a group that functions without conflict is ________. A) living up to behavioral ideals B) prone to becoming static and apathetic C) likely to be responsive to the need for change and innovation D) the most productive E) a rare phenomenon Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought


19) Encouraging group leaders to maintain an ongoing minimum level of conflict is part of the ________ view of conflict. A) functional B) traditional C) human relations D) interactionist E) conjunctivist Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 20) ________ conflict supports the goals of the group and improves its performance. A) Formal B) Informal C) Functional D) Dysfunctional E) Reactive Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 21) You have decided to allow conflict to exist so long as it doesn't hinder group performance. You will try to eliminate those destructive forms of conflict that are A) functional. B) dysfunctional. C) task. D) individualized. E) non-communicative. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 22) ________ conflict hinders group performance. A) Formal B) Informal C) Functional D) Dysfunctional E) Reactive Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought


23) Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is termed ________ conflict. A) job B) task C) relationship D) process E) communication Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 24) For process conflict to be productive, it must be ________. A) kept high B) kept low C) kept at low-to-moderate levels D) kept at moderate levels E) subject to managerial control Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 25) For task conflict to be productive, it should be ________. A) kept high B) kept low C) kept at low-to-moderate levels D) kept at moderate levels E) subject to managerial control Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 26) Which of the following is a type of conflict identified by the interactionist view? A) resource B) organizational C) personality D) process E) institutional Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought


27) ________ conflict focuses on interpersonal interaction. A) Task B) Job C) Relationship D) Process E) Communication Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 28) ________ conflict relates to how the work gets done. A) Task B) Job C) Relationship D) Process E) Reactive Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 29) ________ conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. A) Task B) Job C) Relationship D) Process E) Personal Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 30) An important criterion in determining whether conflict is functional or dysfunctional is ________. A) overall morale B) turnover rates C) absenteeism levels D) management's assessment E) performance Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


31) The first stage of the conflict process is known as A) cognition and personalization. B) behavioral manifestation. C) potential opposition or incompatibility. D) intention. E) habituation. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: The Conflict Process 32) Which of the following is not considered one of the potential sources of conflict? A) too much communication B) jurisdictional ambiguity C) value similarities D) group size E) too little communication Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: The Conflict Process 33) The categories of causes or sources of conflict include all of the following EXCEPT A) communication. B) structure. C) group interaction. D) personal variables. E) none of the above. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: The Conflict Process 34) Which of the following is likely to lead to conflict? A) older group members B) low turnover C) mutually independent groups D) small group size E) high job specialization Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


35) Research has found that tenure and conflict are A) highly positively correlated. B) counterproductive. C) inversely related. D) always present together. E) unrelated. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process 36) Which of the following is a personal variable that can lead to potential conflict? A) personality type B) degree of intergroup dependence C) group size D) organizational tenure E) culture Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process 37) Stage II of the conflict process deals with conflict being ________. A) perceived and felt B) apparent and experienced C) expressed and perceived D) overt and covert E) internalized Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 38) In which stage of conflict do individuals become emotionally involved? A) potential opposition B) cognition and personalization C) intuitions D) behavior E) reaction and transference Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process


39) ________ intervene(s) between people's perceptions and their overt behavior. A) Intuition B) Intention C) Cognition D) Attributions E) Attitudes Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 40) The conflict-handling intention of collaborating is ________. A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) affective and reflective Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 41) The conflict-handling intention of avoiding is ________. A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) assertive and reflective Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 42) The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________. A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) reflective and emotional Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process


43) In assessing conflict-handling intentions, cooperativeness is the degree to which ________. A) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns B) one party attempts to resolve conflict C) both parties work toward a common goal D) there is an absence of conflict E) one party can empathize with the other Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 44) In assessing conflict-handling intentions, the dimension of assertiveness refers to situations ________. A) in which one party attempts to satisfy his/her own concerns B) in which there is an expression of competition C) involving a major behavior change D) that lead to conflict E) in which one party behaves generously Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 45) Which is not one of the five conflict-handling intentions? A) collaborating B) competing C) accommodating D) avoiding E) resisting Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 46) Which type of conflict-handling intention results in a person seeking to suppress conflict and hoping it will go away? A) competing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising E) collaborating Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process


47) Trying to achieve your goal at the expense of your co-worker achieving hers is an example of ________. A) competing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising E) collaborating Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 48) Which of the following conflict-handling intentions might involve attempting to find a winwin solution? A) avoiding B) collaborating C) accommodating D) compromising E) mollifying Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 49) If one party is willing to give in to please someone else, this is an example of which type of conflict-handling intention? A) sacrificing B) accommodating C) collaborating D) compromising E) competing Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 50) Which stage of the conflict process is best conceptualized as a dynamic process of interaction? A) Potential Opposition or Incompatibility B) Cognition and Personalization C) Intentions D) Behavior E) Outcomes Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198-199 Topic: The Conflict Process


51) In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible? A) illumination B) intentions C) potential opposition or incompatibility D) behavior E) cognition and personalization Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 52) Conflict is constructive when it ________. A) improves the quality of decisions B) stimulates creativity and innovation C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation and change D) encourages curiosity among group members E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 53) Which one of the following might not be a functional outcome of the conflict process? A) stimulates creativity B) increases innovation C) fosters environment of self-evaluation D) relieves tensions E) reduces group cohesiveness Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 54) Last month, Jennifer's department experienced constructive conflict during a meeting. Which of the following is not an outcome of this functional conflict? A) The quality of decisions is improved. B) Creativity and innovation are stimulated. C) Tensions are released. D) Groupthink is increased. E) Interest and curiosity are encouraged. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


55) When "yes" people are hired and promoted, ________ outcomes are likely to result. A) improved organizational B) functional C) dysfunctional D) enhanced policy E) harmonious Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 56) Conflict is an antidote for A) the risky shift. B) groupthink. C) emotional intelligence. D) a poor decision. E) creativity. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 57) Which of the following statements is true regarding conflict? A) It challenges the status quo. B) It can be dysfunctional. C) It can arise from diversity. D) It can lead to the demise of an organization. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 58) One of the departments in Jennifer's organization has almost no conflict. In observing this department, which of the following is Jennifer least likely to observe in this department? A) The members of the department have difficulty responding to change. B) The group often makes decisions based on weak assumptions. C) The group thoroughly considers relevant alternatives when making policy decisions. D) The members of the department rarely reassess the department's goals. E) Individuals within the department don't usually question the decisions of their managers. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


59) Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________. A) provides a medium to release tension B) reduces group cohesiveness C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation D) provides a means for expressing frustration E) leads to change Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 60) Jennifer's boss asks for her recommendations on strategies for promoting functional conflict within the company. Which of the following is Jennifer most likely to recommend? A) punishing individuals who support beliefs that management has rejected B) empowering employees to question their bosses with impunity C) implementing a policy of promoting personnel who are conflict avoiders D) training managers to discourage devil's advocates in the decision-making process E) encouraging managers to reward employees who keep their opinions to themselves Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 61) Jennifer's boss decides to implement a new policy whereby employees provide regular, formalized feedback to their supervisors. Employees are encouraged to evaluate and criticize their superiors. Based on your understanding of functional conflict, is this policy likely to benefit Jennifer's company? A) no, because the evaluations will promote relationship conflict, which is always dysfunctional B) yes, because the evaluations will encourage groupthink, which increases turnover C) no, because the evaluations will create a climate of insecurity for the company's management D) no, because the evaluations will generate dysfunctional conflict, which breeds discontent E) yes, because the evaluations will encourage functional conflict, which improves organizational performance Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 62) All of the following can be effective techniques to encourage conflict EXCEPT A) reward dissenters. B) punish conflict avoiders. C) build devil's advocate roles into the decision making process. D) reward those who support the status quo. E) train managers to listen to bad news they may not want to hear. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process


63) When a co-worker agrees to assist with a project in exchange for a future favor, they are engaged in which process? A) negotiation B) conflict resolution C) direct authority D) delegation E) pressure Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 201 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 64) Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and attempt to agree upon ________. A) the exchange rate for those goods and services B) acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services C) a model of the negotiation process for resolving differences D) effective arbitrators for disputes E) the monetary value of the exchanged items Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation 65) The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably. A) win-lose B) bargaining C) collaboration D) accommodating E) arbitration Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation 66) The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________. A) emotional and rational B) affective and reflective C) distributive and integrative D) formal and informal E) legal and restrictive Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation


67) The example of labor-management negotiations over wages exemplifies ________ bargaining. A) integrative B) reflective C) distributive D) restrictive E) affective Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 68) ________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a "fixed pie." A) Distributive B) Integrative C) Reflective D) Affective E) Conjunctive Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation 69) The point below which either negotiating party would break off negotiations is known as the party's ________ point. A) resistance B) refusal C) target D) negative E) assistance Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Negotiation


70) Labor and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. The drivers are threatening to strike, and management knows that such a strike would be very costly. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement seems to be possible. Both sides agree that they are competing over a fixed amount of resources. Each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. The two sides are engaged in A) integrative bargaining. B) distributive bargaining. C) mediation. D) BATNA. E) arbitration. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 71) Which of the following is a characteristic of distributive bargaining? A) I win, you lose B) long-term focus C) convergent or congruent interests D) most preferable bargaining for intraorganizational behavior E) high information sharing Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202-203 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 72) Labor and management at DJ Trucking cannot agree upon a contract for the truck drivers. The drivers are threatening to strike, and management knows that such a strike would be very costly. Each side contends that they are bargaining fairly, but no agreement seems to be possible. At first, the disputing parties resist your offer to help create a win-win situation for both groups. They are each highly focused on their demands in the negotiation, otherwise known as their ________. A) bargaining chips B) distribution points C) resistance points D) settlement ranges E) target points Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


73) You have decided to try to find a win-win situation to help labor and management resolve their differences. You are attempting to engage in A) integrative bargaining. B) distributive bargaining. C) mediation. D) BATNA. E) arbitration. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 74) Which bargaining strategy is preferable for use in intra-organizational behavior? A) positive negotiation B) distributive bargaining C) integrative bargaining D) equal bargaining E) equity splitting Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Negotiation 75) The focus on relationships in distributive bargaining is ________. A) accommodation B) long term C) short term D) win-win E) lose-lose Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Negotiation 76) Integrative bargaining focuses on ________. A) competition B) short-term benefits C) zero-sum gains D) ensuring balanced inputs E) long-term relationships Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Negotiation


77) Which of the following is not a step in the negotiation process? A) definition of ground rules B) clarification and justification C) bargaining and problem solving D) process evaluation E) preparation and planning Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 205 Topic: Negotiation 78) Your ________ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement. A) BATNA B) margin of error C) bid price D) asking price E) hidden value Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Negotiation 79) During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands? A) opening and initiating B) definition of ground rules C) clarification and justification D) bargaining and problem-solving E) integration of preferences Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Negotiation 80) Which of the following statements is true pertaining to the role of personality traits in negotiations? A) Personality of the negotiators will definitely determine who prevails. B) Recent research has shown that extraverts are less effective negotiators in distributive bargaining than introverts. C) High risk takers will definitely be better negotiators. D) Individuals who are agreeable and with an internal locus of control will be better negotiators. E) Individuals who are concerned with appearing competent make excellent negotiators. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Negotiation


81) Which of the following statements is false concerning gender differences in negotiations? A) Women are penalized when they initiate negotiations. B) Women's attitudes toward negotiation and toward themselves as negotiators appear to be quite different from men's. C) Managerial women demonstrate less confidence in anticipation of negotiating. D) Women and men negotiate differently. E) Men tend to negotiate slightly better outcomes than women. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 207 Topic: Negotiation 82) In a study examining nonverbal negotiation tactics, which culture was found to make more physical contact? A) Americans B) Canadians C) Japanese D) Brazilians E) Russians Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 208 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 83) Which of the following is correct about cultural differences in negotiation? A) The Japanese tend to communicate directly. B) The Chinese draw out negotiations. C) Americans are known for their patience. D) Arabs rely on facts and appeal to logic. E) Russians tend to reciprocate concessions. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 208 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) In an emergency situation, which conflict-handling technique is recommended? A) collaboration B) competition C) accommodation D) avoidance E) compromise Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 210 Topic: Implications for Managers


85) All of the following are recommendations for improving your negotiating effectiveness EXCEPT A) Set ambitious goals. B) Pay particular attention to initial offers. C) Research your opponent. D) Address the problem, not personalities. E) Be creative and emphasize win-win solutions. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 210-211 Topic: Implications for Managers 86) Conflict implies opposition. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 194 Topic: A Definition of Conflict 87) Negotiation is a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 194 Topic: A Definition of Conflict 88) Conflict covers the full range from overt and violent acts to subtle forms of disagreement. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 194 Topic: A Definition of Conflict 89) The presence of conflict is a reliable indicator of a poorly functioning group or organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 90) The traditional view toward conflict seeks to retain the functional conflict in a group. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 91) The traditional view of conflict sees conflict as a dysfunctional outcome. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 92) The traditional view of conflict states that conflict is natural and inevitable and therefore must be accepted. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 429 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

93) The interactionist view of conflict proposes that too little conflict can hinder a group's performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 94) The interactionist view of conflict proposes that conflicts are inevitable. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 195 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 95) Dysfunctional conflict can be constructive. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 96) Relationship conflict focuses on how work gets done through people. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 97) For process conflict to be productive, it must be kept at low levels. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 98) Process conflict relates to the content and goals of a group's work. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 99) The first stage of the conflict process is cognition. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: The Conflict Process 100) The three conditions that create the opportunity for conflict are communication, structure, and organizational variables. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 196 Topic: The Conflict Process 101) The potential for conflict can actually be increased if too much information is communicated. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 196 Topic: The Conflict Process 430 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

102) The size of a group can lead to potential conflict. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process 103) Reward systems can create conflict when one person gains at another's expense. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process 104) Participation and conflict are generally highly correlated, because participation encourages the promotion of differences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 105) Jurisdictional clarity is an example of a personal variable that can lead to conflict. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process 106) The degree of interdependence between groups is an example of a structural variable that can lead to conflict. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 197 Topic: The Conflict Process 107) Once a conflict is perceived, it is automatically personalized. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 108) In the conflict process, emotions play a role in shaping perceptions. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 109) You have to be directly informed of another's intent in order to know how to respond to his or her behavior. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process


110) As a conflict-handling intention, avoiding is the opposite of competing. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 111) Avoiding encompasses both assertive and uncooperative behaviors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 112) If you place your opponent's interest above your own, you are engaging in collaborating. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 113) Accommodating consists of unassertiveness and uncooperativeness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 114) Collaborating consists of assertiveness and cooperativeness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 115) Competing consists of assertiveness and uncooperativeness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 116) Avoiding consists of unassertiveness and uncooperativeness. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 117) In the conflict process, individuals' intentions are rigid and will rarely change due to an emotional reaction to the behavior of the other party. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 118) Many open conflicts in work groups can be functional. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process


119) A devil's advocate may encourage conflict in a group. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 120) Conflict always improves the quality of group decision making. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 121) Dysfunctional conflict hinders a group's performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 122) Conflict is an antidote for groupthink. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 200 Topic: The Conflict Process 123) A company that purposely encourages big, unruly, and disruptive meetings may be attempting to create friction and stimulate creative ideas. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 124) Those organizations that don't punish dissent may find their survival threatened. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process 125) One common ingredient in organizations that successfully create functional conflict is that they reward dissent and punish conflict avoiders. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process 126) Negotiation permeates the interactions of almost everyone in groups and organizations. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 201 Topic: Negotiation


127) Compromise is defined as a process in which two or more parties agree to trade particular goods or services. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation 128) There are two general approaches to negotiation: distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation 129) If you are negotiating the price of a car, you are probably using an integrative bargaining strategy. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 202 Topic: Negotiation 130) An individual's target point represents the lowest outcome that he or she would accept during a negotiation process. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Negotiation 131) If the aspiration ranges of two parties overlap, then a settlement range for the conflict exists. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 203 Topic: Negotiation 132) Integrative bargaining is widely used in to solve problems within today's business organizations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Negotiation 133) For negotiating agreements within organizations, integrative bargaining is preferable to distributive bargaining. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 204 Topic: Negotiation 134) When you can anticipate your opponent's position in the negotiation process, you are better equipped to counter arguments with the facts and figures that support your position. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 205 Topic: Negotiation


135) Your BATNA determines the target value you hope for in a negotiated agreement. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Negotiation 136) The clarification and justification stage of negotiation when initial positions are clarified must be confrontational. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Negotiation 137) The best distributive bargainer tends to be a disagreeable introvert. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 206 Topic: Negotiation 138) The research supports the belief that women are more cooperative and pleasant in negotiations than are men. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 207 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) Even when their performance and the outcomes they achieve are similar to men, female managers demonstrate less confidence in anticipating their negotiations and are less satisfied with their performance after the process is complete. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 207 Topic: Negotiation AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 140) The cultural backgrounds of negotiators have no significant effect on bargaining. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 208 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 141) How is conflict defined? Answer: Conflict is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives that another party has negatively affected, or is about to negatively affect, something that the first party cares about. This includes the full range of conflict levelsfrom overt and violent acts to subtle forms of disagreement. Page Ref: 194 Topic: A Definition of Conflict


142) Compare and contrast the three schools of thought regarding conflict in groups and organizations. Answer: The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict must be avoided. Conflict indicates a malfunctioning within the group. The early approach to conflict assumed that all conflict was bad. Conflict was viewed negatively, and it was used synonymously with such terms as violence, destruction, and irrationality to reinforce its negative connotation. Conflict, by definition, was harmful and was to be avoided. The traditional view was consistent with the attitudes that prevailed about group behavior in the 1930s and 1940s. Conflict was seen as a dysfunctional outcome resulting from poor communication, a lack of openness and trust between people, and the failure of managers to be responsive to the needs and aspirations of their employees. The human relations view argues that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group and that it need not be evil, but rather has the potential to be a positive force in determining group performance. Since conflict was inevitable, the human relations school advocated acceptance of conflict. Proponents rationalized its existence: It cannot be eliminated, and there are even times when conflict may benefit a group's performance. The human relations view dominated conflict theory from the late 1940s through the mid-1970s. The third, and most recent perspective, proposes not only that conflict can be a positive force in a group but explicitly argues that some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively. The interactionist view encourages conflict on the grounds that a harmonious, peaceful, tranquil, and cooperative group is prone to becoming static, apathetic, and nonresponsive to needs for change and innovation. The major contribution of the interactionist approach, therefore, is encouraging group leaders to maintain an ongoing minimum level of conflictenough to keep the group viable, self-critical, and creative. Page Ref: 195-196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 143) Distinguish between functional conflict and dysfunctional conflict. Answer: Some conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance; these are functional, constructive forms of conflict. Additionally, there are conflicts that hinder group performance; these are dysfunctional or destructive forms of conflict. Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought 144) Discuss the three types of conflict: task conflict, relationship conflict, and process conflict. Answer: There are three types of conflict: task, relationship, and process. Task conflict relates to the content and goals of the work. Relationship conflict focuses on interpersonal relationships. Process conflict relates to how the work gets done. Relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional. However, low levels of process conflict and low to moderate levels of task conflict are functional. Low to moderate levels of task conflict consistently demonstrate a positive effect on group performance because it stimulates discussion of ideas that helps groups perform better. Page Ref: 196 Topic: Transitions in Conflict Thought


145) Outline and discuss the conflict process. Answer: The conflict process can be seen as comprising five stages: potential opposition or incompatibility, cognition and personalization, intentions, behavior, and outcomes. The first step in the conflict process is the presence of conditions that create opportunities for conflict to arise. They need not lead directly to conflict, but one of these conditions is necessary if conflict is to surface. These conditions are communication, structure, and personal variables. If the conditions cited in Stage I negatively affect something that one party cares about, then the potential for opposition or incompatibility becomes actualized in the second stage. The antecedent conditions can only lead to conflict when one or more of the parties are affected by, and aware of, the conflict. Stage II is cognition and personalization. This is where conflict issues tend to be defined. In Stage III, intentions intervene between people's perceptions and emotions and their overt behavior. These intentions are decisions to act in a certain way. When most people think of conflict situations, they tend to focus on Stage IV because this is where conflicts become visible. The behavior stage includes statements, actions, and reactions made by the conflicting parties. The action-reaction interplay between the conflicting parties results in consequences. These outcomes in Stage V may be functional in that the conflict results in an improvement in the group's performance, or dysfunctional in that it hinders group performance. Page Ref: 196-201 Topic: The Conflict Process 146) Discuss the three general categories of conditions which may be the sources of conflict. Answer: The three general categories of conditions which may be the sources of conflict are communication, structure, and personal variables. Communication represents those opposing forces that arise from semantic difficulties, misunderstandings, and "noise" in the communication channels. Differing word connotations, jargon, insufficient exchange of information, and noise in the communication channel are all barriers to communication and potential antecedent conditions to conflict. The potential for conflict increases when either too little or too much communication takes place. Structure includes variables such as size, degree of specialization in the tasks assigned to group members, jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, leadership styles, reward systems, and the degree of dependence between groups. Personal variables include individual value systems that each person has and the personality characteristics that account for individual differences. Page Ref: 196-197 Topic: The Conflict Process


147) Identify the behaviors to be expected from persons who exhibit each of the five primary conflict-handling intentions. Answer: When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests, regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict, he or she is competing. In collaborating, the intention of the parties is to solve the problem by clarifying differences rather than by accommodating various points of view. In avoiding, a person may recognize that a conflict exists and want to withdraw from it or suppress it. When one party seeks to appease an opponent, that party may be willing to place the opponent's interests above his or her own. In order for the relationship to be maintained, one party is willing to be self-sacrificing by accommodating. In compromising, there is no clear winner or loser. Rather, there is a willingness to ration the object of the conflict and accept a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties' concerns. Each party to the conflict seeks to give up something and sharing occurs, resulting in a compromised outcome. Page Ref: 198 Topic: The Conflict Process 148) Discuss functional and dysfunctional outcomes of conflict. Answer: Conflict is constructive when it improves the quality of decisions, stimulates creativity and innovation, encourages interest and curiosity among group members, provides the medium through which problems can be aired and tensions released, and fosters an environment of selfevaluation and change. Conflict can improve the quality of decision making by allowing all points, particularly the ones that are unusual or held by a minority, to be weighed in important decisions. Conflict is an antidote for groupthink. It doesn't allow the group passively to "rubber stamp" decisions that may be based on weak assumptions, inadequate consideration of relevant alternatives, or other debilities. Conflict challenges the status quo and therefore furthers the creation of new ideas, promotes reassessment of group goals and activities, and increases the probability that the group will respond to change. Destructive outcomes of conflict include the following: uncontrolled opposition breeds discontent, which acts to dissolve common ties, and eventually leads to the destruction of the group. Conflict can also reduce group effectiveness. Among the most undesirable consequences are a retarding of communication, reductions in group cohesiveness, and subordination of group goals to the primacy of infighting between members. At the extreme, conflict can bring group functioning to a halt and potentially threaten the group's survival. Page Ref: 200-201 Topic: The Conflict Process


149) How can functional conflict be created? Answer: To create functional conflict, organizations must encourage and support dissent. They should encourage their people to challenge the system and develop fresh ideas. Companies can encourage unruly and disruptive meetings to create friction and stimulate creative ideas. They can reward dissenters by recognizing those who go against the grain. They can criticize their bosses and question without impunity. Some may build devil's advocates into the decision process. One common ingredient in organizations that successfully create functional conflict is that they reward dissent and punish conflict avoiders. Managers have to learn to take the bad news without flinching. Page Ref: 201 Topic: The Conflict Process 150) Discuss the two general approaches to negotiation. Answer: There are two general approaches to negotiation ∙ distributive bargaining and integrative bargaining. Distributive bargaining is characterized by zero-sum conditions. Each negotiator has a target point that defines what he or she would like to achieve. Each also has a resistance point, which marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable ∙ the point below which they would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement. The area between these two points makes up each one's aspiration range. As long as there is some overlap between A and B's aspiration ranges, there exists a settlement range where each one's aspirations can be met. Integrative bargaining operates under the assumption that there exists one or more settlements that can create a win-win solution. Both parties must be open with information and candid about their concerns, have a sensitivity to each other's needs, the ability to trust one another, and a willingness by both parties to maintain flexibility. Page Ref: 202-204 Topic: Negotiation


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 14 Foundations of Organization Structure 1) ________ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. A) Organizational structure B) Work specialization C) Departmentalization D) Organizational behavior E) Matrix departmentation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 212 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 2) Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements? A) centralization B) departmentalization C) work specialization D) formalization E) location of authority Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 3) Consultants Exceptional (CE) has hired you to develop training materials for their consultants. Your first assignment is to develop a training program that helps their consultants to analyze and understand the organizational structure of the company that they are assisting. CE believes that in order to adequately evaluate and understand a client company, consultants need to understand the basic organizational structure of the company. Consultants are then able to recommend actions and changes based on the company's structure. One of the questions you tell the trainees to ask is, "To what degree are tasks subdivided into separate jobs?" This question addresses the issue of ________. A) formalization B) work specialization C) span of control D) chain of command E) matrix restructuring Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 14-1 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


4) ________ is addressed by asking the question, "On what basis are jobs grouped together?" A) Departmentalization B) Work specialization C) Centralization and decentralization D) Formalization E) Matrix restructuring Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 14-1 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 5) Consultants Exceptional (CE) has hired you to develop training materials for their consultants. Your first assignment is to develop a training program that helps their consultants to analyze and understand the organizational structure of the company that they are assisting. CE believes that in order to adequately evaluate and understand a client company, consultants need to understand the basic organizational structure of the company. Consultants are then able to recommend actions and changes based on the company's structure. You instruct the trainees to ask about the degree of rules and regulations that direct employees and managers. You want to help them understand the ________. A) chain of command B) degree of formalization C) span of control D) degree of departmentalization E) idea of matrix restructuring Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 14-1 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 6) Work specialization is the same as ________. A) departmentalization B) division of labor C) decentralization D) job grouping E) chain command Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


7) A task that is subdivided into many separate jobs is considered to have a ________. A) high degree of departmentalization B) low degree of decentralization C) high degree of work specialization D) low degree of structure E) high degree of matrix structuring Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 8) In the late 1940s, most manufacturing jobs in industrialized countries were being done with high ________. A) departmentalization B) decentralization C) work specialization D) structuralization E) generalized structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 9) For much of the first half of the century, managers viewed work specialization as ________ A) a means to encourage employee satisfaction B) a frustrating cause of reduced product output C) an unending source of increased productivity D) difficult to implement without automation technology E) an effective solution to over-centralization Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 10) You have divided the jobs performed by your department through work specialization and are now trying to decide how to best group these jobs to improve efficiency and customer service. You are considering whether to group activities by function, product, process, geography, or customer. You have decided that since you are a novice at departmentalization, you will go with the most popular method. You will probably choose ________. A) function B) product C) process D) customer E) matrix Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


11) The basis by which jobs are grouped together is termed ________. A) social clustering B) bureaucracy C) specialization D) centralization E) departmentalization Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 214 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 12) One of the most popular ways to group activities is by ________. A) product B) function C) geography D) process E) temporality Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 13) Proctor & Gamble departmentalizes by Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of departmentalization by ________. A) function B) process C) geography D) product E) interest Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 14) A plant manager who organizes the plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and purchasing into departments is practicing ________ departmentalization. A) target-customer B) product C) functional D) geographic E) graphic Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214-215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


15) ________ departmentalization achieves economies of scale by placing people with common skills and orientations into common units. A) Functional B) Process C) Product D) Geographic E) Temporal Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214-215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 16) Which one of the following is not one of the primary ways to group jobs? A) skill B) customer C) function D) product E) process Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 214-215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 17) Your company decides to establish southern, Midwestern, western, and eastern zones of operation. Based on this expansion, you decide to implement ________ departmentalization. A) area B) customer C) geography D) regional E) matrix Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 18) Your products fall into several categories with very different production methods for each category. Because of this, you might consider departmentalizing by ________. A) implementation B) method C) production D) process E) matrix Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


19) You discover that your market is clearly divided between very different types of clients, with different support needs. To respond to this market diversity, you will probably choose to departmentalize by ________. A) functional B) geography C) support D) customer E) matrix Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 20) The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom is termed ________. A) chain of command B) authority C) span of control D) unity of command E) web of authority Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 21) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed ________. A) chain of command B) authority C) power D) unity of command E) leadership Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 22) The ________ principle helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. A) span-of-control B) chain-of-command C) cross-functionality D) centralization E) unity-of-command Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


23) The unity-of-command principle states which of the following? A) Managers should limit their oversight to a maximum of 12 employees. B) Managers should oversee 1-4 employees on average. C) An individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor. D) Managers should provide direction to their employees in a unified fashion. E) Employees should report directly to two supervisors to maintain task balance. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 24) The ________ refers to the number of subordinates that a manager directs. A) span of control B) unity of command C) chain of command D) decentralization principle E) leadership web Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 25) As employees are being empowered to make decisions previously reserved for management, which concept of organizational structure has become less relevant? A) decentralization B) maintaining the chain of command C) centalization D) span of control E) departmentalization Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 26) If you have a narrow span of control, you have a(n) ________ organization. A) efficient B) short C) tall D) matrix E) fat Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


27) In reorganizing his division, Matthew must make some decisions regarding the span of control for management within his decision. The question of span of control determines ________. A) who reports to whom B) the number of levels and managers an organization has C) where decisions are made D) how jobs will be grouped E) how employees will be compensated Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 28) ________ are consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees. A) Wider spans of control B) Narrower spans of control C) Matrix structures D) Simple structures E) Centralization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216-217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 29) Which of the following is true regarding organizations that establish wide spans of control? A) At some point, employee performance increases substantially. B) At some point, supervisors become more efficient at providing support. C) At some point, wider spans of control reduce effectiveness. D) At some point, the organization becomes more formalized. E) At some point, the number of managers in the organization decreases. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


30) In observing the departments in his division, Matthew notices that some managers with wide spans of control seem to perform more effectively than other managers with similarly-sized spans of control. Which of the following statements is most likely true regarding the highperforming managers? A) These managers are paid higher salaries than the low-performing managers. B) These managers discourage employee autonomy, which produces more uniform departmental results. C) The employees within their departments tend to compete to reach productivity goals, which boosts performance. D) The employees within their departments have poor communication with each other. E) The employees within their departments are highly skilled and very knowledgeable about their jobs. Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 31) The best definition for centralization is a situation in which decision making ________. A) is pushed down to lower level employees B) is concentrated at top management levels in the organization C) depends on the situation D) is completed in each department and then sent to the president for review E) is diffused among a large segment of employees Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 32) Which one of the following dichotomies of organizational structure specifically defines where decisions are made? A) complexity/simplicity B) formalization/informalization C) centralization/decentralization D) specialization/enlargement E) affectivity/reflexivity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 33) Which of the following is a drawback of a narrow span of control? It ________. A) reduces effectiveness B) is more efficient C) encourages overly tight supervision and discourages employee autonomy D) empowers employees E) increases participatory decision-making Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 448 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

34) Which of the following is not a drawback of a narrow span of control? A) It is expensive. B) It makes vertical communication in the organization more complex. C) Supervisors may lose control of their employees. D) It encourages overly tight supervision. E) It discourages employee autonomy. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 35) The trend in recent years has been toward ________. A) narrower spans of control B) wider spans of control C) a span of control of four D) an ideal span of control of six to eight E) eliminating spans of control in favor of team structures Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 36) In an organization that has high centralization, ________. A) the corporate headquarters is located centrally to branch offices B) all top-level officials are located within the same geographic area C) action can be taken more quickly to solve problems D) new employees have a great deal of legitimate authority E) top managers make all the decisions and lower-level managers merely carry out directions Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 37) Your trainees are given a case study concerning a local manufacturing firm called Acme Products. In assessing Acme's organizational structure, your trainees notice that all of the company's decisions are made by top management, with little or no input from lower-level personnel. The trainees most likely identify Acme as a(n) ________ organization. A) decentralized B) highly formalized C) aggressively managed D) highly centralized E) informally structured Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


38) Senior management at Acme is concerned because the company takes so long to bring new products to market. Which of the following approaches would your trainees identify as most likely to help resolve this problem? A) reduction of cross-functional work teams B) decentralization of the decision-making process C) decreased work specialization D) decreased formalization of policies and procedures E) reduced diversity within the company's work force Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 39) The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the more ________ there is within an organization. A) centralization B) disempowerment C) work specialization D) departmentalization E) decentralization Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 40) If a job is highly formalized, it would not include which of the following? A) clearly defined procedures on work processes B) explicit job description C) high employee job discretion D) a large number of organizational rules E) a consistent and uniform output Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 41) Employee discretion is inversely related to ________. A) complexity B) standardization C) specialization D) departmentalization E) empowerment Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


42) Which of the following is not a common organizational design? A) simple structure B) bureaucracy C) centralized structure D) matrix structure E) all of the above Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 43) ________ is characterized by a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization A) Bureaucracy B) Matrix organization C) Simple structure D) Team structure E) Centralized structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 44) Which one of the following is consistent with a simple structure? A) high centralization B) high horizontal differentiation C) high employee discretion D) standardization E) bureaucracy Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 45) A ________ is a flat organization. A) bureaucracy B) centralized structure C) matrix structure D) simple structure E) virtual organization Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs


46) The simple structure is most widely practiced in small businesses in which ________. A) the owner also manages the company B) management is limited to one individual C) managers have a high degree of influence with the company's owner D) managers are hired directly by the company's owner E) training budgets are limited Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 47) The strength of the simple structure lies in its ________. A) efficiency B) simplicity C) centralization D) span of control E) specialization Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 48) Which of the following is not a weakness of the simple structure? A) It is risky. B) It is prone to information overload. C) There is little unity of command. D) It can lead to slower decision making. E) It is often insufficient in larger organizations. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 49) You describe a structure that is flat, has little formalization, and is fast, flexible, and inexpensive to maintain. You are describing the ________. A) matrix structure B) simple structure C) bureaucracy D) team structure E) organizational pyramid Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


50) You assign your students a project that involves developing a business plan for a retail store. The store will have 200 employees and will serve customers both locally and internationally via a storefront and an Internet catalogue. Which of the following organizational designs is least likely to benefit the goals of this retail store? A) matrix B) virtual C) bureaucracy D) team E) simple Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 51) The key component underlying bureaucracies is ________. A) flexibility B) standardization C) dual lines of authority D) wide span of control E) the organizational pyramid Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 52) You extol the virtues and benefits of standardization. You are probably promoting the ________. A) matrix structure B) simple structure C) bureaucracy D) team structure E) organizational pyramid Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 53) A bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) highly routine operating tasks B) formalized rules and regulations C) tasks that are grouped into functional departments D) decentralized decision making E) specialization Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs


54) The structure that combines functional and product departmentalization is the ________. A) matrix structure B) simple structure C) bureaucracy D) team structure E) organizational pyramid Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 55) The matrix structure combines which two forms of departmentalization? A) process and functional B) functional and product C) product and process D) process and geographic E) geographic and product Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 56) You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The structure probably best meets the definition of the ________. A) matrix structure B) expert structure C) boundaryless structure D) virtual structure E) organizational pyramid Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 57) The structure that creates dual lines of authority is the ________. A) organizational structure B) bureaucracy C) matrix structure D) virtual organization E) simple structure Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs


58) The ________ structure violates the unity of command concept. A) simple B) virtual C) matrix D) team E) web Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 59) Which one of the following problems is most likely to occur in a matrix structure? A) decreased response to environmental change B) decreased employee motivation C) loss of economies of scale D) increases in groupthink E) employees receiving conflicting directives Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 60) The strength of the matrix structure is its ________. A) ability to facilitate coordination B) economies of scale C) adherence to chain of command D) standardization E) social empowerment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 61) A major disadvantage of the matrix structure is ________. A) the confusion it creates B) its simplicity C) its rigid adherence to the unity of command D) its centralization E) its rigid role expectations Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs


62) The virtual is also called the ________ or ________ organization. A) network; modular B) team; social C) pyramid; multi-level D) boundaryless; global E) simple; unitary Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 221 Topic: New Design Options 63) You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions of your business. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle human resource functions, and a computer firm to handle all records. To keep costs down, you are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations. You have chosen to operate your business as a ________. A) matrix organization B) virtual organization C) team structure D) boundaryless structure E) organizational pyramid Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 221-222 Topic: New Design Options AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 64) Your new organization is looking for maximum flexibility. The most appropriate structure is probably the ________. A) matrix organization B) virtual organization C) team structure D) network structure E) organizational pyramid Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 222 Topic: New Design Options AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


65) A small, core organization that outsources major business functions is a ________ organization. A) team B) virtual C) boundaryless D) matrix E) simple Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 222 Topic: New Design Options 66) The virtual organization stands in sharp contrast to the typical bureaucracy that has many vertical levels of management and where control is sought through ________. A) ownership B) teams C) imposing limits D) directives E) manipulation Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 222 Topic: New Design Options 67) The primary drawback of the virtual organization is A) the reduction in management's control over key parts of its business. B) the reliance on the founder/manager of the business. C) the wide spans of control. D) the long chain of command. E) the lack of flexibility. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 68) The boundaryless organization relies heavily on ________. A) information technology B) efficient chains of command C) the simple structure D) the matrix structure E) departmentalization Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options


69) You have eliminated horizontal, vertical, and external barriers within your organization. You are operating as a(n) ________. A) matrix organization B) virtual organization C) team structure D) boundaryless organization E) organizational pyramid Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 70) The major advantage of the virtual organization is its ________. A) control B) predictability C) flexibility D) empowerment E) complexity Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 71) Which organizational design has been called the T-form? A) matrix organization B) virtual organization C) team structure D) boundaryless organization E) bureaucracy Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 72) The ________ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization. A) mechanistic model B) organic model C) traditional model D) bureaucracy organization E) simple structure Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ?


73) If there is low formalization, a comprehensive information network, and high participation in decision making, one would expect a(n) ________ structure. A) simple B) mechanistic C) organic D) stable E) matrix Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 74) Which of the following is not a determinant of an organization's structure? A) strategy B) organization size C) size of revenues D) technology E) environment Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 75) All of the following are characteristics of the organic model EXCEPT A) cross-functional teams B) narrow spans of control C) cross-hierarchical teams D) high participation in decision making E) flatness Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 14-6 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 76) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the mechanistic model? A) high specialization B) free flow of information C) centralization D) high formalization E) narrower spans of control Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 14-6 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ?


77) A strategy that emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services is a(n) ________ strategy. A) innovation B) enhancement C) progressive D) organic E) matrix Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 78) A company oriented around cost minimization is best served by which type of structure? A) virtual B) combination C) mechanistic D) organic E) targeted Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 79) Wal-Mart is an example of a company following a A) innovation strategy. B) cost-minimization strategy. C) imitation strategy. D) branding strategy. E) differentiation strategy. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 80) ________ refers to how an organization transfers its inputs into outputs. A) Production B) Technology C) Operations D) Process E) Effectiveness Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ?


81) Which of the following is not part of an organization's environment? A) public pressure groups B) customers C) employees D) competitors E) government regulatory agencies Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 82) Which of the following does not reflect a dynamic environment? A) new competitors B) difficulties in acquiring raw materials C) rapidly changing government regulations affecting business D) no new technological breakthroughs by current competitors E) continually changing produce preferences by customers Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 226 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 83) Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee performance and satisfaction is most accurate? A) There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction. B) No evidence supports a relationship between span of control and employee performance. C) The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to lower employee productivity. D) Employees dislike routine work that makes minimal intellectual demands. E) Large spans of control provide more distant supervision, thereby increasing employee productivity. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 227 Topic: Organizational Designs and Employee Behavior 84) Which organizational structure still dominates in many parts of Europe and Asia? A) simple structure B) bureaucracy C) virtual organization D) boundaryless organization E) matrix Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 228 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding


85) Managers need to address six key elements when they design their organization's structure: work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, chain of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 212 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 86) The degree to which tasks in the organization are subdivided into separate jobs is termed departmentalization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 14-1 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 87) Specialization defines how job tasks are formally defined, grouped, and coordinated. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 88) Work specialization may result in employee boredom, stress, and absenteeism. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 89) For much of the first half of this century, managers viewed departmentalization as promoting increased productivity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 213 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 90) The strength of functional departmentalization lies in the efficiencies obtained by putting similar specialists together. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 91) Only one form of departmentalization can effectively be implemented in an organization at a time. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 92) The inherent right in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed is termed power. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


93) Departmentalization answers questions for employee such as "To whom do I go if I have a problem?" Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 94) The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon is termed the command line of authority. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 95) The principle of unity of command suggests that managers should support one another. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 96) Span of command determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 97) All things being equal, the wider or larger the span of control, the more profitable the organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 98) Flat organizational structures result from narrow spans of control. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 99) Narrow spans of control can result in lack of supervision, causing performance to suffer. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 100) Having too many people report to you can undermine your effectiveness as a manager. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 101) The trend in recent years has been toward wider spans of control. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 463 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

102) The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the more decentralized the organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 217 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 103) A decentralized organization is more likely to result in a feeling of alienation by employees than a centralized organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 104) There has been a marked trend toward centralization in business decision making. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 105) An increase in the number of rules and regulations results in increased formalization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 106) The greater the formalization of an organization, the more input an employee has into how his or her work is done. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 107) Autonomy and formalization are positively related. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 218 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 108) The simple structure is flexible and inexpensive to maintain, but its chain of command is often ambiguous. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 109) A major strength of the simple structure is that it easily adapts to any size organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs


110) One disadvantage of the simple structure is its high risk. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 111) The strength of the bureaucracy lies in its ability to perform standardized activities. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 112) A major weakness of the bureaucracy is that specialization creates sub-unit conflicts. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 219 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 113) The bureaucracy is efficient only as long as employees confront problems brought about by programmed decision rules. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 114) The matrix structure is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 115) A structure that creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization is the matrix structure. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 116) The matrix structure facilitates the allocation of specialists. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 220 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 117) The major disadvantage of the matrix is the propensity for functional unit goals to override organizational goals. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 221 Topic: Common Organizational Designs


118) You have decided to hire a small shop to do all of your duplicating and printing. This is an example of outsourcing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 221 Topic: New Design Options 119) The matrix organization is also called the network or modular organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 221 Topic: New Design Options 120) The virtual organization is effective at reinforcing management control over business operations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 222 Topic: New Design Options 121) The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 122) An organization that seeks to eliminate the chain of command is a boundaryless organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 123) Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 124) Globalization serves to reinforce external boundaries within organizations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options 125) The technological thread that makes the boundaryless organization possible is wireless communications. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 223 Topic: New Design Options AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology


126) An organic model of structure is characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 127) The boundaryless organization is an example of the organic model of organizational design. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 128) Mechanistic structures are high in formalization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 129) Businesses structured according to the mechanistic model usually have high employee participation in decision making. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 130) An organization's business strategy is usually determined by the organization's business structure. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 224 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 131) An innovation strategy works well only for businesses organized within a simple structure. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 132) Businesses using innovation strategy seek to quickly move into new markets after the viability of those markets has been proven. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 133) An organization pursues a price-minimization strategy by controlling costs, avoiding unnecessary innovation or marketing expenses, and cutting prices in selling basic products. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ?


134) The size of an organization affects the organization's structure at a decreasing rate of impact. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 135) Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 members is likely to result in a shift toward a more organic structure. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 136) Technology is associated with how an organization transfers its inputs into outputs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 225 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 137) Organizations operating in highly scarce, dynamic, and complex environments fare best if under organic structures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 226 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 138) Organizational structure has little bearing on employee attitudes and behavior. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 226 Topic: Organizational Designs and Employee Behavior 139) Research supports the notion that employees prefer organic business structures. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 226-227 Topic: Organizational Designs and Employee Behavior 140) Organizations that are less centralized have greater employee input in business decision making. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 227 Topic: Organizational Designs and Employee Behavior 141) What is organizational structure? Answer: An organizational structure defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. The elements that must be addressed are work specialization, departmentalization, chain of command, span of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization. Page Ref: 212 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


142) Explain the organizational component of work specialization. Discuss its advantages and drawbacks. Answer: The essence of work specialization is that, rather than an entire job being done by one individual, it is broken down into a number of steps, with each step being completed by a separate individual. In essence, individuals specialize in doing part of an activity rather than the entire activity. Management saw this as a means to make the most efficient use of its employees' skills. In most organizations, some tasks require highly developed skills and others can be performed by untrained workers. If all workers were engaged in each step of, say, an organization's manufacturing process, all would have to have the skills necessary to perform both the most demanding and the least demanding jobs. The result would be that, except when performing the most skilled or highly complex tasks, employees would be working below their skill levels. And because skilled workers are paid more than unskilled workers and their wages tend to reflect their highest level of skill, it represents an inefficient use of organizational resources to pay highly skilled workers to do easy tasks. Managers also saw other efficiencies that could be achieved through work specialization. Employee skills at performing a task successfully increase through repetition. Less time is spent in changing tasks, in putting away one's tools and equipment from a prior step in the work process, and in getting ready for another. Equally important, training for specialization is more efficient from the organization's perspective. It's easier and less costly to find and train workers to do specific and repetitive tasks. For much of the first half of the twentieth century, managers viewed work specialization as an unending source of increased productivity. And they were probably right. Because specialization was not widely practiced, its introduction almost always generated higher productivity. But by the 1960s, there came increasing evidence that a good thing can be carried too far. The point had been reached in some jobs at which the human diseconomies from specializationwhich surfaced as boredom, fatigue, stress, low productivity, poor quality, increased absenteeism, and high turnovermore than offset the economic advantages. Most managers today see work specialization as neither obsolete nor an unending source of increased productivity. Rather, managers recognize the economies it provides in certain types of jobs and the problems it creates when it's carried too far. Page Ref: 213-214 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


143) What is departmentalization? What are five common ways that an organization can group activities? Give an example of each. Answer: The basis by which jobs are grouped together is called departmentalization. Tasks can be grouped by function performed, the type of product the organization produces, on the basis of geography or territory, process used, or by the particular type of customer the organization seeks to reach. One of the most popular ways to group activities is by functions performed. A manufacturing manager might organize his or her plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing, personnel, and supply specialists into common departments. Tasks can also be departmentalized by type of product the organization produces. Procter & Gamble is organized along these lines. Each major product is placed under the authority of an executive who has complete global responsibility for that product. Another way to departmentalize is on the basis of geography or territory. The sales function, for instance, may have western, southern, midwestern, and eastern regions. Each of these regions is, in effect, a department organized around geography. Process departmentalization can be used to group departments. At an Alcoa aluminum tubing plant in upstate New York, production is organized into five departments: casting; press; tubing; finishing; and inspecting, packing, and shipping. Each department specializes in one specific phase in the production of aluminum tubing. A final category is to use the particular type of customer the organization seeks to reach. Microsoft recently reorganized around four customer markets: consumers, large corporations, software developers, and small businesses. Page Ref: 214-215 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 144) What is the chain of command within an organization? Answer: The chain of command is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom. It answers questions for employees such as "To whom do I go if I have a problem?" and "To whom am I responsible?" The two complementary concepts are authority and unity of command. Authority refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed. The unity of command principle helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority. It states that a person should have one and only one superior to whom he or she is directly responsible. Page Ref: 215-216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 145) Why is span of control important within an organization? Answer: The question of span of control is important because, to a large degree, it determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. It answers the question "How many employees can a manager efficiently and effectively direct?" All things being equal, the wider or larger the span of control, the more efficient the organization. Page Ref: 216 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure?


146) What is the difference between centralization and decentralization? Answer: The term centralization refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. The concept includes only formal authority, that is, the rights inherent in one's position. The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions, the more decentralization there is. An organization characterized by centralization is an inherently different structural animal from one that is decentralized. In a decentralized organization, action can be taken more quickly to solve problems, more people provide input into decisions, and employees are less likely to feel alienated from those who make the decisions that affect their work lives. Page Ref: 217-219 Topic: What Is Organizational Structure? 147) Describe the three common organizational designs: simple structure, bureaucracy, and matrix structure. Answer: The simple structure is said to be characterized most by what it is not rather than what it is. The simple structure is not elaborate. It has a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority centralized in a single person, and little formalization. The simple structure is a "flat" organization; it usually has only two or three vertical levels, a loose body of employees, and one individual in whom the decision-making authority is centralized. Standardization is the key concept that underlies the bureaucracy. It is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization, very formalized rules and regulations, tasks that are grouped into functional departments, centralized authority, narrow spans of control, and decision making that follows the chain of command. The matrix combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. It breaks the unity-of-command concept. Employees in the matrix have two bossestheir functional department managers and their product managers. Therefore, the matrix has a dual chain of command. Page Ref: 218-221 Topic: Common Organizational Designs 148) Explain the virtual organization and the boundaryless organization. Answer: The virtual organization is sometimes called the network or modular organization. Typically, a small, core organization outsources major business functions. In structural terms, the virtual organization is highly centralized, with little or no departmentalization. Why own when you can rent is the question that captures the essence of the virtual organization. Jack Welch coined the term boundaryless organization to describe his idea of what he wanted GE to become. He wanted to eliminate vertical and horizontal boundaries within GE and break down external barriers between the company and its customers and suppliers. The boundaryless organization seeks to eliminate the chain of command, have limitless spans of control, and replace departments with empowered teams. Because it relies so heavily on information technology, some have called this structure the T-form or technology-based organization. By removing vertical boundaries, management flattens the hierarchy. Status and rank are minimized. Page Ref: 221-222 Topic: New Design Options


149) What is the difference between the mechanistic model and the organic model of organizational structure? Answer: The mechanistic model is generally synonymous with the bureaucracy in that it has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network (mostly downward communication), and little participation by low-level members in decision making. At the other extreme is the organic model. This model looks a lot like the boundaryless organization. It is flat, uses cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network and it involves high participation in decision making. Page Ref: 224 and Exh14-6 Topic: Why Do Structures Differ? 150) Explain the implications of different organizational designs for employee behavior. Answer: A review of the evidence linking organizational structures to employee performance and satisfaction leads to a pretty clear conclusion ∙ you can't generalize. Not everyone prefers the freedom and flexibility of organic structures. Individual differences must be addressed. The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to higher productivity but at the price of reduced job satisfaction. Work specialization is not an unending source of higher productivity. Problems start to surface, and productivity begins to suffer, when the human diseconomies of doing repetitive and narrow tasks overtake the economies of specialization. As the workforce has become more highly educated and desirous of jobs that are intrinsically rewarding, the point where productivity begins to decline seems to be reached more quickly than in decades past. Negative behavioral outcomes from high specialization are most likely to surface in professional jobs occupied by individuals with high needs for personal growth and diversity. A review of the research indicates that it is probably safe to say there is no evidence to support a relationship between span of control and employee performance. There is some evidence indicating that a manager's job satisfaction increases as the number of employees he or she supervises increases. Fairly strong evidence has linked centralization and job satisfaction. In general, organizations that are less centralized have a greater amount of participative decision making. Participative decision making is positively related to job satisfaction. But, again, individual differences surface. The decentralization-satisfaction relationship is strongest with employees who have low self-esteem. Because individuals with low self-esteem have less confidence in their abilities, they place a higher value on shared decision making, which means that they're not held solely responsible for decision outcomes. To maximize employee performance and satisfaction, individual differences, such as experience, personality, and the work tasks, should be taken into account. Page Ref: 226-227 Topic: Organizational Designs and Employee Behavior


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 15 Organizational Culture 1) ________ is a shared system of meaning held by the organization's members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. A) Institutionalization B) Organizational culture C) Socialization D) Formalization E) Corporate image Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 231c Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 2) Which of the following is not a primary characteristic that captures the essence of organizational culture? A) attention to detail B) innovation C) formality orientation D) team orientation E) outcome orientation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 3) ________ is the characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. A) Humanistic B) Community C) Team D) People orientation E) Relationship Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


4) The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which people are competitive rather than easygoing is termed ________. A) assertiveness B) competitiveness C) aversiveness D) risk taking E) aggressiveness Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 5) The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which employees are expected to exhibit precision is termed ________. A) accuracy orientation B) accountability C) attention to detail D) stability E) reactivity Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 6) The key characteristic of organizational culture that assesses the degree to which organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth is termed ________. A) permanence B) aggressiveness orientation C) stability D) competitiveness E) reflexivity Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 7) Organizational culture is A) not concerned with how employees perceive their culture. B) a descriptive term. C) concerned with whether employees like certain characteristics of their culture. D) evaluative. E) synonymous with job satisfaction. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


8) In contrasting organizational culture with job satisfaction, organizational culture is a(n) ________ term, while job satisfaction is a(n) ________ term. A) predictive; reactive B) implied; stated C) reflective; affective D) descriptive; evaluative E) inductive; deductive Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 9) The macro view of culture that gives an organization its distinct personality is its ________ culture. A) dominant B) subC) strong D) national E) marginal Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 10) Cultures within an organization that are defined by departmental designations are often called ________. A) micro-cultures B) subcultures C) divisional cultures D) microcosms E) counter cultures Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 11) Which characteristic is not reflective of subcultures? A) includes core values of the organization B) typically defined by department designations C) rejects the core values of the dominant culture D) usually defined by geographical separation E) includes values unique to members of a department or group Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


12) Masterson College is a small liberal arts women's college in North Carolina. The founders of the college were Baptist and were committed to the idea that a liberal arts education was the best preparation for lifelong learning. The college has continued to support this orientation towards liberal arts education and has actually moved to strengthen that commitment recently. Within the last two decades, the business department has become one of the larger departments on campus. The faculty of the business department is also committed to finding employment for their graduates and believe that two things are critical for this to happen: 1) their students must have a solid understanding of the fundamental of their discipline; and 2) internships are an important method of establishing the connections and opportunities for employment. The belief in a liberal arts education is part of the ________ of the college. A) subculture of the business department B) management culture C) dominant culture D) mission statement E) logic Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 13) Masterson College is a small liberal arts women's college in North Carolina. The founders of the college were Baptist and were committed to the idea that a liberal arts education was the best preparation for lifelong learning. The college has continued to support this orientation towards liberal arts education and has actually moved to strengthen that commitment recently. Within the last two decades, the business department has become one of the larger departments on campus. The faculty of the business department is also committed to finding employment for their graduates and believe that two things are critical for this to happen: 1) their students must have a solid understanding of the fundamental of their discipline; and 2) internships are an important method of establishing the connections and opportunities for employment. The commitment to finding employment for graduates is part of the ________. A) subculture of the business department B) management culture C) dominant culture D) mission statement E) logic Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


14) Masterson College is a small liberal arts women's college in North Carolina. The founders of the college were Baptist and were committed to the idea that a liberal arts education was the best preparation for lifelong learning. The college has continued to support this orientation towards liberal arts education and has actually moved to strengthen that commitment recently. Within the last two decades, the business department has become one of the larger departments on campus. The faculty of the business department is also committed to finding employment for their graduates and believe that two things are critical for this to happen: 1) their students must have a solid understanding of the fundamental of their discipline; and 2) internships are an important method of establishing the connections and opportunities for employment. The business department holds some unique values in addition to the ________ of the dominant culture. A) core values B) sub-values C) formal values D) holistic values E) spiritual orientation Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 15) Masterson College is a small liberal arts women's college in North Carolina. The founders of the college were Baptist and were committed to the idea that a liberal arts education was the best preparation for lifelong learning. The college has continued to support this orientation towards liberal arts education and has actually moved to strengthen that commitment recently. Within the last two decades, the business department has become one of the larger departments on campus. The faculty of the business department is also committed to finding employment for their graduates and believe that two things are critical for this to happen: 1) their students must have a solid understanding of the fundamental of their discipline; and 2) internships are an important method of establishing the connections and opportunities for employment. Which of the following represents a core value of the college? A) affordable education B) scientific knowledge C) technological innovation D) remedial reinforcement E) lifelong learning Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


16) A dominant culture is ________. A) the sum of an organization's subcultures B) defined by the leader of an organization C) synonymous with an organization's culture D) usually a strong culture E) likely to be a weak culture Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 17) The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are known as ________. A) foundational values B) core values C) shared values D) institutional traits E) manifestos Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 18) Which of the following is characteristic of a strong culture? A) little influence over members' behavior B) low behavioral controls C) narrowly shared values D) intensely held values E) weakly held values Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 19) ________ are indicators of a strong organizational culture. A) High levels of dissention B) Weak managers C) Completely horizontal organizational charts D) Narrowly defined roles E) Widely shared values Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


20) A strong culture can create a climate of ________. A) creativity B) high behavioral control C) low commitment D) disloyalty E) uncertainty Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 21) The retailer known for their strong service culture is ________. A) Macy's B) Nordstrom's C) Kmart D) Target E) Gap Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 22) Which of the following is most likely to result from a strong organizational culture? A) low employee turnover B) low employee satisfaction C) high employee turnover D) high absenteeism E) low organizational commitment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 23) The unanimity of a strong culture contributes to all of the following except ________. A) cohesiveness B) loyalty C) higher product quality D) organizational commitment E) lower employees' propensity to leave the organization Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


24) A strong organizational culture may reduce A) internalizing behaviors. B) formalization. C) norms. D) the regulation of employee behavior. E) consistency. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 25) Since a strong organizational culture increases behavioral consistency, you would expect A) narrower spans of control. B) less formalization. C) longer chains of command. D) less open communication. E) less predictability. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 26) Which of the following is NOT a function of culture? A) It conveys a sense of organizational identity. B) It shapes employee attitude and behavior. C) It reduces the stability of the social system. D) It has a boundary-defining role. E) It facilitates the generation of commitment to something larger than one's individual selfinterests. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 27) The culture of Disney has been very effective in performing which of the following functions? A) displaying the dominance of their industry B) ensuring employees will act in a relatively uniform way C) improving company profits D) facilitating commitment to the theme park industry E) blurring department boundaries Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do?


28) As organizations have widened spans of control, flattened structures, introduced teams, reduced formalization, and empowered employees, the ________ provided by a strong culture ensures that everyone is pointed in the same direction. A) rules and regulations B) shared meaning C) rituals D) socialization E) rigid hierarchy Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 29) Gary has been reading an OB book on culture to improve his managerial skills. As a result, he realizes A) when selecting a candidate, he should take into account the individual-organization fit. B) organizational culture does not play a role in selection. C) promotion decisions are not influenced by organizational culture. D) organizational fit determines if employees like the management of the organization. E) organizational fit is seldom important when rules guide the behavior of employees. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 30) Culture is important from an employee's standpoint because A) it reduces ambiguity. B) it tells employees how things are done. C) it tells employees what is important. D) it increases the consistency of employee behavior. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 233-234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do?


31) The Young Woman's Club of Williams has been operating for seventy-five years as an organization that supports women who stay at home. For years it has been one of the most prestigious organizations in town with a strong membership. This group has always held classes in cooking, sewing, and child rearing. It has always been made up of upper middle class women from the small town of Williams. As the area has grown, many people have moved into Williams and now commute to Capital City, just 15 miles away. Most of the newcomers are dual-income couples, with both spouses holding full-time jobs. It is probable that the strong culture of the Young Woman's Club of Williams will ________. A) prevent the organization from changing as the population of the community changes B) enable the organization to meet the needs of diverse women in the community C) be embraced by all of the newcomers to the community D) be strengthened by the presence of the newcomers in the community E) enable the organization to become more effective. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 32) The Young Woman's Club of Williams has been operating for 75 years as an organization that supports women who stay at home. For years it has been one of the most prestigious organizations in town with a strong membership. This group has always held classes in cooking, sewing, and child rearing. It has always been made up of upper middle class women from the small town of Williams. As the area has grown, many people have moved into Williams and now commute to Capital City, just 15 miles away. Most of the newcomers are dual-income couples, with both spouses holding full-time jobs. The culture of the Young Woman's Club can be defined as A) a liability. B) a weak culture. C) an ambiguous culture. D) a diverse culture. E) a tolerant culture. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


33) The Young Woman's Club of Williams has been operating for 75 years as an organization that supports women who stay at home. For years it has been one of the most prestigious organizations in town with a strong membership. This group has always held classes in cooking, sewing, and child rearing. It has always been made up of upper middle class women from the small town of Williams. As the area has grown, many people have moved into Williams and now commute to Capital City, just 15 miles away. Most of the newcomers are dual-income couples, with both spouses holding full-time jobs. The culture of the Young Woman's Club will be a liability if ________. A) newcomers embrace it B) it does not further the organization's effectiveness C) it reduces ambiguity D) it enhances social system stability E) it improves the performance of the organization. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 34) The Young Woman's Club of Williams has been operating for 75 years as an organization that supports women who stay at home. For years it has been one of the most prestigious organizations in town with a strong membership. This group has always held classes in cooking, sewing, and child rearing. It has always been made up of upper middle class women from the small town of Williams. As the area has grown, many people have moved into Williams and now commute to Capital City, just 15 miles away. Most of the newcomers are dual-income couples, with both spouses holding full-time jobs. The Young Woman's Club is most likely to ________. A) experience internal division regarding the future of the organization B) broaden its membership to include women of different classes C) shift its core values in response to the perceived needs of newcomers D) expand its membership significantly, given the town's population increase E) remain similar in size, despite the town's population increase Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 35) Culture may be a liability when it is a barrier to ________. A) change B) diversity C) mergers and acquisitions D) acquisitions E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do?


36) The Young Woman's Club of Williams has been operating for seventy-five years as an organization that supports women who stay at home. For years it has been one of the most prestigious organizations in town with a strong membership. This group has always held classes in cooking, sewing, and child rearing. It has always been made up of upper middle class women from the small town of Williams. As the area has grown, many people have moved into Williams and now commute to Capital City, just 15 miles away. Most of the newcomers are dual-income couples, with both spouses holding full-time jobs. Women who are newcomers to the town of Williams are most likely to ________. A) find membership in the Young Women's Club helpful for increasing their social support B) help to enhance the prestige of the Young Women's Club by increasing the average income of the group's members C) find that the Young Woman's Club values the unique strengths of those from different backgrounds D) help improve the profitability of the Young Woman's Club by recommending increases in its membership dues E) find that the Young Woman's Club has a low tolerance for diversity Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 37) Culture is most likely to be a liability when ________. A) it increases the consistency of behavior B) the organization's environment is dynamic C) the organization's management is ineffectual D) it reduces ambiguity E) countercultures are integrated into the dominant cultures Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 38) Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces ________. A) a dynamic environment B) an unknown environment C) social upheaval D) massive changes E) a stable environment Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do?


39) A dilemma is created for strong cultures when A) too many employees are retained. B) diverse individuals are hired. C) turnover remains low. D) core values are embraced. E) new employees are quickly accepted. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 40) One of the major reasons cited for the problems of AOL Time Warner's merger is A) financial incompatibility. B) product line incompatibility. C) culture clash. D) goal incompatibility. E) the size of the organizations. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234-235 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 41) In recent years, ________ has become the primary concern in acquisitions and mergers. A) cultural compatibility B) cultural synergy C) financial advantages D) product synergy E) value dominance Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 42) The ultimate source of an organization's culture is ________. A) top management B) the environment C) the country in which the organization operates D) the organization's founders E) the belief systems of it employees Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


43) Culture creation occurs in which of the following ways? A) Founders hire employees who think and feel the way they do. B) Founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and feeling. C) Founders keep employees who think and feel they way they do. D) Founders' behavior acts as a role model for others to identify with. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 44) All of the following are factors that serve to sustain an organization's culture EXCEPT ________. A) selection B) orientation C) performance evaluation criteria D) top management practices E) Wall Street views Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 45) The selection process helps sustain the organization's culture by ________. A) establishing and enforcing norms B) ensuring that candidates fit well within the organization C) socializing the applicant D) identifying individuals who have the skills to perform certain jobs E) rewarding conformity Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 46) The selection process helps candidates learn about an organization. If employees perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, this gives them a chance to ________. A) work to change the organization B) express their concerns C) inform the organization of appropriate changes D) self-select out of the applicant pool E) rectify their cognitive dissonance Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


47) The selection process at W.L. Gore & Associates is designed to allow candidates who don't fit with the organizational culture to A) obtain training to better fit. B) select out. C) learn more about the culture. D) change the organization's values. E) change their own values to match. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 48) Top management has a major impact on the organization's culture through ________. A) establishing norms that filter down through the organization B) ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values C) socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase D) providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires E) properly rewarding management's initiatives Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 49) The process through which employees are adapted to an organization's culture is called ________. A) training and development B) mentoring C) socialization D) institutionalization E) intimidation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 50) The Marines' boot camp is an example of A) onboarding. B) entry. C) socialization. D) culture shock. E) molding. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


51) Which of the following is the first stage of the socialization process? A) prearrival B) encounter C) metamorphosis D) ritual E) commitment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 52) The correct order for the stages of the socialization process is ________. A) prearrival, metamorphosis, encounter B) prearrival, encounter, ritual C) prearrival, ritual, encounter D) prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis E) prearrival, ritual, arrival Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 15-1 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 53) The socialization stage that encompasses the learning that occurs before a new member joins an organization is known as ________ socialization. A) prearrival B) encounter C) metamorphosis D) ritual E) systemic Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 54) During which stage of the socialization process do individuals come with a set of values, attitudes and expectations? A) prearrival B) encounter C) metamorphosis D) ritual E) analysis Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


55) The learning that you experience during the interviewing and hiring process occurs as part of the ________ stage of employee socialization. A) selection B) prearrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) training Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 56) Your first day at work is part of the ________ stage of socialization. A) orientation B) prearrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) interview Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 57) In which stage of the socialization process do you usually begin to notice things that are not as you expected? A) orientation B) prearrival C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) arrival Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 58) Which of the following steps could your supervisor take to best help you develop a commitment to your new company? A) encourage you to work independently at first to learn the ropes B) discourage you from putting too much weight on your initial expectations C) discourage you from putting too much emphasis on your perception of the organization D) encourage you to look carefully at your own assumptions, which may be biased E) encourage you to develop friendship ties within the organization Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


59) The employee compares her expectations to organizational reality in which stage of socialization? A) prearrival B) encounter C) metamorphosis D) ritual E) analysis Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 60) The time when a new employee sees what the organization is really like and realizes that expectations and reality may diverge is called the ________ stage. A) encounter B) exploration C) establishment D) metamorphosis E) mirroring Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 61) If there is a basic conflict between the individual's expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during which stage of socialization? A) prearrival B) ritual C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) reflection Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 62) When you start to work through the problems that you discover about the organization, you move into the ________ stage of socialization. A) prearrival B) encounter C) acceptance D) metamorphosis E) refreezing Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


63) Employee attitudes and behavior change during the ________ stage of socialization. A) establishment B) transformation C) encounter D) metamorphosis E) prearrival Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 64) New employees are usually comfortable with their organizations by the end of the ________ stage of socialization. A) encounter B) exploration C) establishment D) metamorphosis E) adaptation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 238 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 65) Specific orientation and training programs that segregate new employees from the ongoing work setting are examples of which type of entry socialization? A) individual socialization. B) collective socialization. C) formal socialization. D) serial socialization. E) investiture socialization. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 238 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 66) A law firm has established standardized stages of transition. A defined probationary period of five years is established before a candidate should be given partner status. This is an example fo the ________ entry socialization. A) collective B) fixed C) individual D) serial E) investiture Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 239 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


67) Which of the following is not a means of transmitting culture within an organization? A) stories B) reflections C) rituals D) language E) material symbols Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 68) Reminding employees about the founders at each quarterly meeting is an example of which technique for transmitting culture? A) stories B) material symbols C) language D) rituals E) tools Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 69) ________ typically contain(s) a narrative of events about the organization's founders, rule breaking, or reactions to past mistakes. A) Stories B) Material symbols C) Rituals D) Language E) Reflections Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 70) Nunya is a computer software company that employs highly intelligent, but somewhat unusual people. The regular distribution of lollipops, toys, or treats every Friday is an example of a ________ that helps reinforce Nunya's culture. A) story B) ritual C) material symbol D) symbolism E) tool Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


71) Nunya is a computer software company that employs highly intelligent, but somewhat unusual people. The dress code worn by Nunya employees is an example of a ________ through which organization culture is transmitted. A) story B) ritual C) material symbol D) symbolic act E) tool Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 72) The Wal-Mart company chant is an example of a(n) A) story. B) material symbol. C) ritual. D) language. E) reflection. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 73) Socialization rituals perform all of the following functions except that of ________. A) reinforcing the key values of the organization B) emphasizing the organization's goals C) revealing the company's bottom line in terms of net profit D) reinforcing the company's perspective on which people are important E) revealing the company's view of which people are expendable Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 74) All of the following are examples of rituals EXCEPT ________. A) anniversary parties honoring long-time employees B) annual award meetings C) fraternity initiations D) the placement of offices within corporate headquarters E) singing company songs Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture


75) All of the following are examples of material symbols that transmit organizational culture EXCEPT ________. A) top executives' use of the company jet B) the layout of corporate headquarters C) new employee orientations D) luxury cars for executives E) private parking spots Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 76) The acronyms and jargon that employees use in an organization are part of A) stories. B) material symbols. C) rituals. D) language. E) reflections. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 77) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards is one that ________. A) is high in risk tolerance B) is high in aggressiveness C) focuses on outcomes D) punishes innovation E) creates a highly competitive internal environment Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 78) A highly publicized example of a company with a strong culture that supports high ethical standards that influenced employee behavior in a crisis is A) Enron. B) Disney. C) Johnson & Johnson. D) Boeing. E) American Airlines. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities


79) To create a more ethical culture, management should do all of the following EXCEPT A) serve as a visible role model. B) cover up unethical acts. C) provide ethical training. D) communicate ethical expectations. E) provide protective mechanisms. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 80) A culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths and emphasizes individual vitality and growth is known as a/an A) strong culture. B) positive organizational culture. C) strengths-driven culture. D) ethical culture. E) reward culture. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Creating a Positive Organizational Culture 81) The positive organizational culture focuses more on ________ than ________. A) profits; building individual strengths B) building individual strengths; rewards C) rewarding; punishing D) punishing; building individual strengths E) employee's health; profits Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Creating a Positive Organizational Culture 82) Which of the following statements best reflects the current state of positive organizational culture? A) While there are benefits to a positive organizational culture, caution must be exercised that it is not pursued beyond the point of effectiveness. B) There is no such thing as too much of a positive organizational culture. C) Positive organizational cultures are an idealistic vision, but unable to be achieved in reality. D) There is no uncertainty in the research about how positive organizational cultures work and benefit organizations. E) All cultures across the globe value being positive as much as the US. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243 Topic: Creating a Positive Organizational Culture


83) The best advice to offer US managers when opening up operations in another country is to A) let the US culture dominate. B) be culturally sensitive. C) ignore local cultures. D) merge the local culture with the dominant US culture. E) let the local culture dominate. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) US managers can learn to be more culturally sensitive. Recommendations for achieving this include A) talking in a low tone of voice. B) speaking slowly. C) listening more. D) avoiding discussions of religion and politics. E) all of the above. Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 85) All of the following factors increase the probability that cultural change can be successfully implemented EXCEPT A) the existence of a dramatic crisis. B) a positive organizational culture. C) a turnover in the organization's top leadership. D) an organization that is both young and small. E) a weak dominant culture. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 244 Topic: Implications for Managers 86) Organizational culture is a set of key characteristics that an organization values. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 87) The degree to which employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks is termed aggressiveness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


88) The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed outcome orientation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 89) The degree to which management focuses on results rather than on techniques and processes refers to results orientation. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 90) The degree to which organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth is known as stability. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 91) Individuals with different backgrounds in an organization will tend to describe the organization's culture in similar terms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 92) The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout an organization are known as its core principles. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 93) "Dominant culture" refers to cultures that value aggressive personalities. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 94) Research demonstrates that subcultures act to undermine the dominant culture. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 95) Subcultures rarely influence the behavior of an organization's members. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


96) Strong cultures have a greater impact on employees' behavior than do weak cultures. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 97) One specific result of a strong culture should be lower employee turnover. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 98) Culture has a boundary-defining role; it creates distinctions between one organization and others. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 99) Culture is the social glue that holds an organization together by providing appropriate standards for what employees should say and do. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 100) Organizational culture serves to reinforce the self-interest of individual employees. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 101) Culture by definition is tangible and explicit. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 102) Culture increases ambiguity for employees. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 103) A strong culture can be a liability for an organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 104) An entrenched culture can be a burden to an organization when it faces a dynamic environment. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 498 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

105) A strong culture provides a supportive atmosphere for diversity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 106) Strong cultures encourage individuality. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 107) The success of a merger depends most strongly upon the example set by the top management of the merged organizations. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 108) People issues are cited as the reason for the unusually high failure rate of mergers. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 109) The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the organization's culture since they are so far removed from the employees. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 110) Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture: selection practices, promotion policies, and socialization methods. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 235 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 111) The selection process involved with hiring an employee is a two-way process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 112) The values within an organization's culture tend to flow down from top management. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 113) Socialization is the process that defines group interaction patterns. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 499 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

114) The socialization process is made up of three steps: prearrival, adjustment, and metamorphosis. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 115) In the socialization process, the period of learning that occurs before a new employee joins an organization is termed the encounter stage. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 116) One major purpose of a business school is to socialize business students to the attitudes and behaviors that business firms want. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 236-237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 117) The stage of socialization where an individual confronts the possible dichotomy between her expectations and reality is the encounter stage. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 118) When a new employee works out problems discovered upon entry to an organization, he is in the metamorphosis stage of the socialization process. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 237 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 119) Socialization is complete when an employee completes his probationary period with a new company. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 120) A successful metamorphosis should reduce the employee's propensity to leave the organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 238 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


121) Fraternity pledges go through divestiture socialization whereby they are shaped into the proper role. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 239 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 122) The most potent means of transmitting culture to employees are stories, rituals, related symbols, and language. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 123) Stories are a form of socialization ritual. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 124) A ritual is a repetitive sequence of activities that continually expresses the key values of the organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 125) Rituals serve to reinforce the hierarchical structure of an organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 126) Providing an executive with a chauffer-driven limousine is an example of a ritual. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 127) Material symbols may convey to employees the degree of egalitarianism that is desired by top management. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 128) Language can serve to unite members of a given culture as new employees learn the acronyms and jargon specific to the organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture


129) All organizations within an industry use the terminology designated by the industry so that their employees can move freely from organization to organization. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 130) A strong organizational culture exerts more influence on employees than does a weak culture. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 131) The content and strength of an organizational culture influences the organization's ethical climate. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 132) An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards is one that is high in risk tolerance, low in aggressiveness, and focuses on means instead of outcomes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 133) A strong company that encourages pushing the limits can be a powerful force in shaping unethical behavior. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 134) Performance appraisals of managers should include a point-by-point evaluation of how the manager's decisions measure up against the organization's code of ethics. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities


135) Management can create more ethical cultures through the following means: acting as visible role models, communicating ethical expectations, providing ethical training, visibly rewarding ethical acts and punishing unethical ones, and providing protective mechanisms. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities 136) A positive organizational culture is defined as a culture that rewards more than it punishes and emphasizes individual growth. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Creating a Positive Organizational Culture 137) A positive organizational culture emphasizes not only organizational effectiveness, but individuals' growth as well. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 242 Topic: Creating a Positive Organizational Culture 138) An organization's culture often reflects the national culture. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 243 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) An organization's culture is relatively easy to change. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 244 Topic: Implications for Managers 140) A surprising financial setback can provide an impetus for culture change. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 244 Topic: Implications for Managers 141) What is organizational culture? Answer: Organizational culture refers to a system of shared meaning held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. This system of shared meaning is a set of key characteristics that the organization values. Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture?


142) Identify and describe the seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization's culture. Answer: Organizational culture refers to a system of shared meaning held by members that distinguishes the organization from other organizations. This system of shared meaning is, on closer examination, a set of key characteristics that the organization values. There are seven primary characteristics that capture the essence of an organization's culture. Innovation and risk taking are the degree to which employees are encouraged to be innovative and take risks. Attention to detail is the degree to which employees are expected to exhibit precision, analysis, and attention to detail. Outcome orientation is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve these outcomes. People orientation is the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization. Team orientation is the degree to which work activities are organized around teams rather than individuals. Aggressiveness is the degree to which people are aggressive and competitive rather than easygoing. Stability is the degree to which organizational activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth. Page Ref: 231 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 143) Discuss the difference between strong and weak organizational cultures. Answer: Strong cultures have a greater impact on employee behavior and are more directly related to reduced turnover. In a strong culture, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared. The more members who accept the core values and the greater their commitment to those values is, the stronger the culture is. A strong culture will have a great influence on the behavior of its members because the high degree of sharedness and intensity creates an internal climate of high behavioral control. One specific result of a strong culture should be lower employee turnover. A strong culture demonstrates high agreement among members about what the organization stands for. Such unanimity of purpose builds cohesiveness, loyalty, and organizational commitment. These qualities, in turn, lessen employees' propensity to leave the organization. Page Ref: 232 Topic: What Is Organizational Culture? 144) What are the functions of organizational culture? Answer: Culture performs a number of functions within an organization. First, it has a boundary-defining role. That is, it creates distinctions between one organization and others. Second, it conveys a sense of identity for organization members. Third, culture facilitates the generation of commitment to something larger than one's individual self-interest. Fourth, it enhances social system stability. Culture is the social glue that helps hold the organization together by providing appropriate standards for what employees should say and do. Finally, culture serves as a sense-making and control mechanism that guides and shapes the attitudes and behavior of employees. Page Ref: 233 Topic: What Do Cultures Do?


145) When can culture be a liability? Answer: Culture is a liability when the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the organization's effectiveness. This is most likely to occur when an organization's environment is dynamic. When an environment is undergoing rapid change, an organization's entrenched culture may no longer be appropriate. So consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a stable environment. It may, however, burden the organization and make it difficult to respond to changes in the environment. These strong cultures become barriers to change when business as usual is no longer effective. Culture can also serve as a liability when hiring a diverse workforce. Organizations hire diverse individuals because of the alternative strengths these people bring to the workplace, yet these diverse behaviors and strengths are likely to diminish in strong cultures as people attempt to fit in. Finally, culture can be a liability in acquisitions and mergers. In recent years, cultural compatibility has become the primary concern with acquisition and merger decisions. The primary cause of failure is conflicting organizational cultures. Page Ref: 234 Topic: What Do Cultures Do? 146) How does organizational culture develop? Answer: An organization's current customs, traditions, and general way of doing things are largely due to what it has done before and the degree of success it has had with those endeavors. The founders of an organization traditionally have a major impact on that organization's early culture. They have a vision of what the organization should be. They are constrained by previous customs or ideologies. The small size that typically characterizes new organizations further facilitates the founders' imposition of their vision on all organizational members. The process of culture-creation occurs in three ways. First, founders only hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do. Second, they indoctrinate and socialize these employees to their way of thinking and feeling. And finally, the founders' own behavior acts as a role model that encourages employees to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs, values, and assumptions. When the organization succeeds, the founders' vision becomes seen as a primary determinant of that success. At this point, the founders' entire personalities become embedded in the culture of the organization. Page Ref: 235 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture


147) Explain the primary methods of maintaining an organization's culture. Answer: Once a culture is in place, there are practices within the organization that act to maintain it by giving employees a set of similar experiences. Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining a culture: selection practices, the actions of top management, and socialization methods. First, the explicit goal of the selection process is to identify and hire individuals who have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the jobs within the organization successfully. It would be naive to ignore that the final decision as to who is hired will be significantly influenced by the decision maker's judgment of how well the candidates will fit into the organization. This attempt to ensure a proper match, whether purposely or inadvertently, results in the hiring of people who have values essentially consistent with those of the organization, or at least a good portion of those values. In addition, the selection process provides information to applicants about the organization. Candidates learn about the organization and, if they perceive a conflict between their values and those of the organization, they can self-select themselves out of the applicant pool. In addition to selection, the actions of top management also have a major impact on the organization's culture. Through what they say and how they behave, senior executives establish norms that filter down through the organization as to whether risk taking is desirable; how much freedom managers should give their employees; what is appropriate dress; what actions will pay off in terms of pay raises, promotions, and other rewards; and the like. Finally, no matter how good a job the organization does in recruiting and selection, new employees are not fully indoctrinated in the organization's culture. Because they are unfamiliar with the organization's culture, new employees are potentially likely to disturb the beliefs and customs that are in place. The organization will, therefore, want to help new employees adapt to its culture. This adaptation process is called socialization. This is when the organization seeks to mold the outsider into an employee "in good standing." Employees who fail to learn the essential or pivotal role behaviors risk being labeled "nonconformists" or "rebels," which often leads to expulsion. But the organization will be socializing every employee, though maybe not as explicitly, throughout his or her entire career in the organization. This further contributes to sustaining the culture. Page Ref: 235-236 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 148) What are the three stages of socialization through which employees become indoctrinated into an organization's culture? Answer: The three stages of socialization are prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis. The prearrival stage recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes, and expectations. These cover both the work to be done and the organization. Upon entry into the organization, the new member enters the encounter stage. Here the individual confronts the possible dichotomy between her expectations and reality. Finally, the new member must work out any problems discovered during the encounter stage. This may mean going through changes ∙ hence, this is called the metamorphosis stage. Page Ref: 236-238 Topic: Creating and Sustaining Culture 506 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

149) Discuss how culture is transmitted to employees. Answer: Culture is transmitted to employees in a number of forms, the most potent being stories, rituals, material symbols, and language. Stories contain a narrative of events about the organization's founders, rule breaking, rags-to-riches successes, reductions in the workforce, relocation of employees, reactions to past mistakes, and organizational coping. These stories anchor the present in the past and provide explanations and legitimacy for current practices. Rituals are repetitive sequences of activities that express and reinforce the key values of the organization, what goals are most important, which people are important and which are expendable. The layout of corporate headquarters, the types of automobiles top executives are given, and the presence or absence of corporate aircraft are a few examples of material symbols. These material symbols convey to employees who is important, the degree of egalitarianism desired by top management, and the kinds of behavior that are appropriate. Many organizations and units within organizations use language as a way to identify members of a culture or subculture. By learning this language, members attest to their acceptance of the culture and, in so doing help to preserve it. Once assimilated, terminology acts as a common denominator that unites members of a given culture or subculture. Page Ref: 240 Topic: How Employees Learn Culture 150) What can management do to create a more ethical culture within an organization? Answer: To create a more ethical culture, management can take a number of steps. Management can be a visible role model. Employees will look to top management behavior as a benchmark for defining appropriate behavior. Management can also communicate ethical expectations. Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating an organizational code of ethics. It should state the organization's primary values and the ethical rules that employees are expected to follow. Management can also provide ethical training. Training sessions can be used to reinforce the organization's standards of conduct, to clarify what practices are and are not permissible, and to address possible ethical dilemmas. Finally, management can visibly reward ethical acts and punish unethical ones. Performance appraisals of managers should include a point-by-point evaluation of how his or her decisions measured against the organization's code of ethics. Appraisals must include the means taken to achieve goals as well as the ends themselves. A formal mechanism should also be provided so employees can discuss ethical dilemmas and report unethical behavior without fear of reprimand. Page Ref: 241 Topic: Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture AASCB Tag: Ethical Understanding and Reasoning Abilities


Essentials of Organizational Behavior, 10e (Robbins/Judge) Chapter 16 Organizational Change 1) Phrases such as "more cultural diversity," "many new entrants with inadequate skills," and "increase in aging workers" are all examples of what force for change? A) technology B) world politics C) nature of the workforce D) social trends E) competition Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 2) An example of change in the nature of the workforce is an increase in ________. A) college attendance B) mergers and consolidations C) capital equipment D) divorce rates E) cultural diversity of employees Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 3) Which of the following reflects the force for change of economic shock? A) the dot-com bust B) aging population C) growth of e-commerce D) war on terrorism E) competitors Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 4) Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations? A) technology B) economic shocks C) decreasing skill sets D) social trends E) competition Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change


5) An example of change in the nature of competition is ________. A) growth of e-commerce B) collapse of Enron Corporation C) Iraq-U.S. war D) increased interest in urban living E) a decrease in interest rates Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 6) Organizations and their members resist change since they perceive A) change as threatening. B) they are ok as they are. C) there is no need for change. D) change is not always good. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 246-247 Topic: Resistance to Change 7) Which of the following is an individual source of resistance to change? A) perception B) habit C) personality D) threat to established power relationships E) uncertainty Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change 8) Which of the following is NOT an organizational source of resistance to change? A) structural inertia. B) limited focus of change. C) group inertia. D) fear of the unknown. E) threat to established power relationships, Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change


9) An example of a source of individual resistance to change is ________. A) inertia B) structural inertia C) a habit D) threat to expertise E) a policy conflict Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change 10) Which of the following is not a source of individual resistance to change? A) habit B) security C) programmed responses D) structural E) fear of the unknown Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change 11) Your supervisor has restructured the jobs within your division and some of your colleagues are not pleased. Don is concerned that he will not be able to perform the new tasks. Since he is paid by the amount he produces, his pay might be reduced. Tony is afraid that his job may be in jeopardy and he may be laid off. Doug dislikes uncertainty and has developed a negative attitude. The source of Don's resistance is ________. A) habit B) economic C) security D) structural inertia E) inertia Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


12) Your supervisor has restructured the jobs within your division and some of your colleagues are not pleased. Don is concerned that he will not be able to perform the new tasks. Since he is paid by the amount he produces, his pay might be reduced. Tony is afraid that his job may be in jeopardy and he may be laid off. Doug dislikes uncertainty and has developed a negative attitude. The source of Tony's resistance is ________. A) habit B) selective information processing C) security D) group inertia E) structural inertia Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 13) Since the restructuring, your division has had trouble filling the open positions with appropriate candidates. The selection processes used by human resources have not yet adjusted to the new criteria required for the restructured job positions. This problem is an example of which kind of resistance to change? A) structural inertia B) limited focus of change C) group inertia D) threat to expertise E) threat to established power relationships Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 14) When GM announces a major layoff, the source of employees' resistance to change is ________. A) habit B) security C) limited focus D) structural E) economic factors Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


15) When management changes the technological process of the accounting department, but fails to modify the structure to match, the resistance to change is from ________. A) unfreezing B) the limited focus of change C) habit D) security E) double-loop learning Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 16) ________ acts as a counterbalance to sustain stability when an organization is confronted with change. A) Structural inertia B) Security C) Limited focus of change D) The threat to established power relationships E) Group inertia Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 17) If an organization used an outside consultant as opposed to an insider as a change agent, the result would probably be more ________. A) conservative and risk averse B) reflective of the organization's history and culture C) objective D) reflective of the fact that change agents must live with the consequences of their actions E) prone to bias Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 18) Which factor in choosing an outside consultant as change agent is likely to result in more drastic changes? A) the cost B) internal members' resistance to outsiders C) they don't have to live with the repercussions after the change D) an objective perspective E) they don't know the organization Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change


19) Change agents can be ________. A) managers B) non-managers C) current employees D) outside consultants E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247-248 Topic: Resistance to Change 20) If an organization used an insider as a change agent, as opposed to an outside consultant, the change would ________. A) probably be more cautious B) probably be more drastic C) probably be more objective D) most likely be second order E) most likely be tertiary Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 21) You have brought in the local extension agent to explain demographics and the changing nature of the area in which you live. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________. A) education and communication B) participation C) negotiation D) manipulation and cooptation E) coercion Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 22) Which tactic for overcoming resistance to change basically assumes that the source of resistance lies in misinformation? A) training and development B) facilitation and support C) education and communication D) teaching and advancement E) cooptation and manipulation Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change


23) When change agents ensure that employees perceive the changes as being made consistently, they are using which tactic to reduce resistance to change? A) participation B) building emotional commitment C) implementing changes fairly D) coercion E) education and communication Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 24) If management realizes that firing up employees can help them let go of the status quo to change, which method of overcoming resistance to change are they likely to use? A) education and communication B) participation C) building emotional commitment D) selecting people who accept change E) coercion Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 25) Your company, Johnson Farm Products, has decided to expand its traditional business serving farm owners in order to include home gardeners in its customer base. This change is not met with enthusiasm by the sales personnel who have had good long-term relationships with area farmers. You know that the change will be difficult if you cannot overcome the resistance of the sales personnel and obtain their cooperation. You have decided to involve the sales personnel in planning for the change and in stocking appropriate new items to sell to gardeners. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen is ________. A) education and communication B) participation C) negotiation D) manipulation and cooptation E) coercion Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills


26) Which of the following is NOT an approach to building emotional commitment to overcome resistance to change? A) employee counseling B) new skills training C) energizing employees D) buying off resistors E) providing a short paid leave of absence Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 27) Which tactic to deal with resistance to change can backfire if the targets become aware that they were used? A) participation B) education and communication C) coercion D) cooptation E) building emotional support Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 28) Which one of the following is NOT suggested as a tactic for dealing with resistance to change? A) acceleration B) coercion C) participation D) cooptation E) building emotional commitment Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 248-249 Topic: Resistance to Change 29) You have threatened to eliminate positions and even to close down the company if your employees don't change their attitudes. The method for overcoming resistance that you have chosen may be ________. A) education and communication B) participation C) negotiation D) coercion E) building support and commitment Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Resistance to Change


30) Research suggested that organizations could facilitate the change process by selecting people with high ________. A) uncertainty avoidance B) risk tolerance C) external locus of control D) authoritarianism E) dogmatism Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Resistance to Change 31) Using direct threats to overcome resistance to change is called ________. A) participation B) building support and commitment C) selecting people who accept change D) coercion E) education and communication Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Resistance to Change 32) Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is last on the list and is likely to harden resistance to change or lead to hidden revolts? A) participation B) building support and commitment C) selecting people who accept change D) coercion E) education and communication Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Resistance to Change 33) The three-step description of the change process as unfreezing, movement, and refreezing was proposed by ________. A) Tom Peters B) Kurt Lewin C) Edward Deming D) Peter Senge E) Kotter Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change


34) According to Lewin, the stage of the change process where the new change is made permanent is ________. A) changing B) unfreezing C) movement D) refreezing E) equilibrium Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 35) Mintz's Motor Repair is moving its location to a larger community 100 miles away. Mintz would like for its mechanics to move with the company but realizes that there will be some hardships associated with the move. Mintz has decided to use Lewin's three-step model in order to make the change. As a manager in charge of the relocation effort, you are offering a $2,000 moving bonus for any employee who will go to the new location. In Lewin's terms, you are attempting to ________. A) unfreeze the status quo B) move the process along C) refreeze the change D) bribe your employees E) maintain the status quo Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills 36) Mintz's Motor Repair is moving its location to a larger community 100 miles away. Mintz would like for its mechanics to move with the company but realizes that there will be some hardships associated with the move. Mintz has decided to use Lewin's three-step model in order to make the change. You have implemented a permanent upward adjustment of salaries for employees who relocate. You are attempting to ________. A) unfreeze the status quo B) move the process along C) refreeze the change D) change a driving force E) maintain the status quo Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change AASCB Tag: Analytic Skills


37) Mintz's Motor Repair is moving its location to a larger community 100 miles away. Mintz would like for its mechanics to move with the company but realizes that there will be some hardships associated with the move. Mintz has decided to use Lewin's three-step model in order to make the change. You counsel each employee individually, trying to lessen each person's fears about the move. This is an example of ________. A) removing driving forces B) increasing driving forces C) removing restraining forces D) brainwashing E) increasing restraining forces Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change AASCB Tag: Reflective Thinking Skills 38) Research on organizational change has shown that to be effective, A) change has to happen quickly. B) organizations must build up to change. C) change must be phased in slowly across departments. D) strong cultures must be weakened. E) change must be incremental and not radical. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 39) ________ is one way to achieve unfreezing of an organization's status quo. A) Increasing the driving forces directing behavior away from the status quo B) Increasing the restraining forces which hinder movement from inequality C) Increasing employee investment in the status quo D) Decreasing management's investment in change E) Increasing the rigidity of the organizational hierarchy Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 40) To move from equilibrium, Lewin suggests ________ forces. A) decreasing restraining B) increasing compelling C) decreasing driving and restraining forces D) increasing restraining E) increasing restraining and driving Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change


41) Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change includes all of the following steps EXCEPT A) Discourage risk taking. B) Establish a sense of urgency for why change is needed. C) Form a coalition with enough power to lead the change. D) Communicate the vision throughout the organization. E) Reward short-term wins that move the organization toward the new vision. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-4 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 42) Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing changes builds on A) Lewin's three-step model. B) research on resistance to change. C) driving forces. D) appreciative inquiry. E) Senge's learning organization. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 43) ________ encompasses a collection of planned-change interventions built on humanisticdemocratic values that seek to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being. A) Organizational development B) Reflected change C) Process consultation D) Action research E) Economic validity Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 44) The change agent may be directive in OD; however, there is a strong emphasis on ________. A) overcoming resistance B) collaboration C) coercion D) threats E) getting the change done at any cost Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development


45) Which of the following is not considered an underlying value in organizational development? A) participation B) confrontation C) implementation D) respect for people E) trust Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 46) Which of the following is not true of organizational development? A) Hierarchical authority is emphasized. B) There is an emphasis on collaboration. C) Effective organizations are characterized by trust. D) People should be treated with dignity and respect. E) Problems should be opening confronted. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 47) T-groups are also known as ________. A) action research teams B) appreciative inquiry training groups C) team-building groups D) sensitivity training groups E) focus groups Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 48) ________ is a method of changing behavior through unstructured group interaction. A) Action research B) Planned change C) Process consultation D) Sensitivity training E) Psychoanalysis Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development


49) ________ is a tool for assessing attitudes held by organizational members, identifying discrepancies among member perceptions, and solving these differences. A) Sensitivity training B) Survey feedback C) Process consultation D) Intergroup development E) MBWA Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 50) Sensitivity training A) uses data from a questionnaire to identify problems. B) tabulates the data findings to feed back to employees. C) uses a consultant to advise the organization on the process of change. D) seeks to identify the strengths of the organization. E) uses an open environment to allow participants to express their attitudes about change. Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 51) Providing subjects with increased awareness of their own behavior and how others perceive them is the objective of ________. A) sensitivity training B) survey feedback C) process consultation D) inter-group development E) MBWA Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 52) Which of the following is NOT an intervention that change agents might consider? A) sensitivity training B) survey feedback C) process consultation D) appreciative inquiry E) process reengineering Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251-252 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development


53) The purpose of ________ is for an outside consultant to assist a client, usually a manager, to perceive, understand, and act upon process events with which the manager must deal. A) a change agent B) survey feedback C) process consultation D) action research E) social reinforcement Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 54) Which of the following statements is true of process consultation? A) PC is less task-directed than sensitivity training. B) Process consultants are there to assist the organization by providing the insight into what is going on. C) The process consultant solves the organization's problems. D) Process consultation generally uses managers within the organization. E) PC resolves resistance to change. Answer: B Diff: 3 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 55) Rather than looking for problems, ________ seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance. A) appreciative inquiry B) action research C) team building D) process consultation E) social reinforcement Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 56) Which of the following is not a step in the appreciative inquiry process? A) discovery B) dreaming C) devising D) destiny E) design Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development


57) In which step of the AI process are people asked to envision the organization in five years and to describe what is different? A) discovery B) dreaming C) design D) destiny E) inquiry Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Managing Change Through Organizational Development 58) ________ is defined as a new idea applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service. A) Creativity B) Innovation C) Process reengineering D) Continuous improvement E) Organizational change Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change 59) Nabisco's extension of the Oreo product line to include double-stuffed Oreos is an example of A) product reengineering. B) radical breakthrough innovation. C) small incremental improvement. D) process innovation. E) creativity. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change 60) All of the following organizational factors positively influence innovation EXCEPT A) lower vertical differentiation. B) higher centralization. C) lower formalization. D) longer managerial tenure. E) more slack resources. Answer: B Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change


61) Innovative organizational cultures are likely to do all of the following EXCEPT A) encourage experimentation. B) reward successes. C) reward failures. D) punish failures. E) celebrate mistakes. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change 62) Once an idea is developed, those who actively promote it, build support, overcome resistance and ensure the innovation is implemented are known as A) idea champions. B) innovators. C) management. D) resistors. E) innovators. Answer: A Diff: 1 Page Ref: 254 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change 63) "Good isn't good enough" is the theme o A) process reengineering. B) appreciative inquiry. C) continuous improvement. D) distinctive competencies. E) organizational development. Answer: C Diff: 1 Page Ref: 254 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 64) When management starts with a clean sheet to rethink the way they create value, they are engaged in A) process reengineering. B) appreciative inquiry. C) continuous improvement. D) distinctive competencies. E) organizational development. Answer: A Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


65) One of the main consequences of process reengineering has been that A) jobs have remained the same for most employees. B) skill sets remain stable. C) it is over quickly. D) many middle managers and support staff have lost their jobs. E) it results in very little stress. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 66) Which of the following is NOT true of stress? A) Challenge stress is associated with challenges in the work environment. B) Hindrance stress keeps you from reaching your goals. C) Challenge stress has many more negative implications than hindrance stress. D) Office politics is an example of hindrance stress. E) Some stress can be good. Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 67) The concern today is A) to eliminate all stress on the job. B) to avoid all stressors. C) to eliminate all challenge stress. D) to reduce dysfunctional stress. E) to understand dysfunctional stress. Answer: D Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 68) The pressure of heavy workloads and deadlines can be seen as A) positive challenges. B) challenge stress. C) enhancements to job satisfaction. D) an opportunity to perform at maximum levels. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 2 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


69) Which of the following is NOT an organizational factor that can lower stress levels? A) conducting employee selection to ensure a good abilities-job fit B) using an objective job preview to reduce ambiguity C) improving organizational communication to reduce ambiguity D) designing goal-setting programs to provide clear performance objectives E) redesigning jobs to eliminate all challenges Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 70) An organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change is termed a(n) ________. A) maladapted mechanism B) continuous improvement process C) innovative organization D) double-loop learning organization E) learning organization Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 71) Which of the following approaches might a manager consider recommending in order to address the stress arising from an employee's personal life? A) employee counseling B) time management programs C) physical activity programs D) relaxation programs E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 1 Page Ref: 277 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 72) ________ involves correcting errors using past routines and present policies. A) Process reengineering B) Single-loop learning C) Double-loop learning D) Continuous improvement process E) Organizational reaction Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


73) Errors that are corrected by modifying the organization's objectives, policies, and standard routines are part of ________. A) single-loop learning B) double-loop learning C) process reengineering D) continuous improvement E) tertiary continuance Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 74) The learning organization is viewed as a remedy for which of the following problems inherent in traditional organizations? A) poor communication B) overemphasis on competition C) poor morale D) poor employee engagement E) groupthink Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 75) Which fundamental problem that is inherent in traditional organizations misdirects management's attention to problem solving rather than creation? A) crisis management B) groupthink C) overemphasis on competition D) reactiveness E) fragmentation Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 258 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 76) The learning organization draws on which of the following OB concepts? A) quality management B) functional conflict C) transformational leadership D) the boundaryless organization E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 258 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


77) Which of the following is a characteristic of a learning organization? Its employees ________. A) have standard ways of doing their jobs B) pursue projects of interest C) discard their old ways of thinking and routines for solving problems D) think in terms of independent relationships E) have high levels of technical knowledge Answer: C Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 16-5 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 78) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a learning organization? A) There is a shared vision upon which everyone agrees. B) People sublimate their personal self-interest to work together to achieve the organization's shared vision. C) Members think of organization activities as independent activities. D) People openly communicate with each other. E) There is consensus on the direction of the organization. Answer: C Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-5 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 79) Which is not a strategy for managers to make their firms learning organizations? A) Establish a strategy that makes management's commitment to innovation explicit. B) Redesign the organization's structure by flattening the structure and increasing the use of cross-functional teams. C) Reshape the organization's culture by emphasizing risk taking and openness. D) Systematically collect data and then select a change action based on the analyzed data. E) Make it clear that people high in the organization are behind any proposed change. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 258-259 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 80) Which of the following actions can management take to reshape the organization's culture in creating a learning organization? A) Flatten the structure. B) Reduce the use of cross-functional teams. C) Be a role model in avoiding risk. D) Discourage functional conflict. E) Discourage disagreements. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 258-259 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


81) People will be more likely to take a passive approach toward change in countries A) where people see themselves as subjugated to their environment. B) such as the United States. C) such as Canada. D) where people believe they can dominate their environment. E) that are collectivist in nature. Answer: A Diff: 3 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 82) All of the following statements are true of culture change EXCEPT A) societies that focus on the long term will show patience in waiting for positive outcomes from change efforts. B) in the Unites States, people will seek change programs that promise fast results. C) resistance to change will be influenced by a society's reliance on tradition.. D) Italians are less resistant to change than Americans. E) greater use of participation is expected in change efforts in Denmark. Answer: D Diff: 3 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 83) Which of the following is true of the way idea champions do things in the global arena? A) Successful idea champions will do things differently in different cultures. B) People in collectivist cultures prefer appeals for cross-functional support for innovation efforts. C) People in high-power distance cultures prefer champions to work closely with those in authority before work is conducted on them. D) Idea champions in cultures high in uncertainty avoidance will be more effective by closely following procedures. E) all of the above Answer: E Diff: 3 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 84) Today's managers are finding their world is characterized by A) change as occasional disturbances. B) stable environments. C) predictability. D) constant and chaotic change. E) more of the same. Answer: D Diff: 2 Page Ref: 260 Topic: Implications for Managers


85) When considering stress across cultures which of the following statements is NOT true? A) The job conditions that cause stress vary across cultures. B) Personality effects on stress are different across cultures. C) Stress is equally bad for employees of all cultures. D) Social support can help reduce the demand to work long hours for American employees. E) Social support can help reduce the demand to work long hours for Chinese employees. Answer: B Diff: 2 Page Ref: 260 Topic: Implications for Managers 86) "Change or die" is the rallying cry among today's managers worldwide. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 245 Topic: Forces for Change 87) The aging population, internet chat rooms, and the volatility of the stock market are all forces for change. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 88) Technology is a force that acts as a catalyst for change. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change AASCB Tag: Use of Information Technology 89) We live in an age of continuity. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 90) The global economy means that competitors are as likely to come from across the ocean as from across town. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 91) Social trends remain static. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 92) Change is caused by individual, not organizational, factors. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247 Topic: Resistance to Change 530 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

93) Research demonstrates that any effort to resist change is dysfunctional in terms of organizational effectiveness. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 247 Topic: Resistance to Change 94) There is a negative correlation between people's need for security and their resistance to change. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change 95) If an individual believes his/her income will be affected negatively by a particular change, resistance will be likely. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Resistance to Change 96) "Change agent" is synonymous with "manager." Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 247-248 Topic: Resistance to Change 97) Outside consultants are more likely to initiate more drastic changes than internal change agents. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 98) Internal change agents are more likely to be cautious in their recommended changes since they have to live with the consequences. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 99) Internal change agents typically are individuals high in the organization who have little to lose from the change. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 248 Topic: Resistance to Change 100) According to Lewin's model, refreezing is required if changes are to be permanent. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change


101) Retention forces are those that hinder movement from the existing equilibrium. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 102) Inertia forces direct behavior away from the status quo. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 103) According to Lewin's change process, the status quo is considered an equilibrium state; moving from this equilibrium requires unfreezing. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 104) According to Lewin, to unfreeze from the equilibrium state the driving forces should be decreased. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 105) According to Lewin, once the change has been implemented, it will take hold immediately. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 106) Kotter's eight-step plan for implementing change builds on Lewin's three-step model to create a more detailed approach. Answer: TRUE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 250 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 107) There is a strong emphasis on collaboration in OD. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 108) Sensitivity training emphasizes changing behavior through structured group interaction. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 109) Sensitivity training is also known as T-groups. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 532 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

110) The objectives of survey feedback are to provide subjects with increased awareness of their own behavior and how others see them. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 111) One tool for assessing attitudes held by organizational members, identifying discrepancies among member perceptions, and solving these differences is the survey feedback approach. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 251 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 112) Process consultants work with the clients in jointly diagnosing what processes need improvement. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 113) Process consultants are hired to solve the organization's problems. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 114) Appreciative inquiry refers to a change process based on systematic collection of data and then selection of a change action based on what the analyzed data indicates. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 115) Appreciative inquiry is a collection of change techniques or interventions built on humanistic-democratic values. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 116) Appreciative inquiry is problem-focused. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 117) Rather than looking for problems to fix, appreciative inquiry seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change


118) In the discovery step of the AI process, the organization finds out what people think the organization's strengths are.. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 119) Organic organizational structures positively influence innovation. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 253 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change 120) The search for continuous improvement recognizes that good isn't good enougheven for excellent performance. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 254 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 121) Process reengineering involves minor tinkering with organizational processes. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 122) Process reengineering means eliminating cross-functional teams. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 123) A consequence of process reengineering has been the loss of middle management jobs. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 255 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 124) Not all stress is dysfunctional. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 125) Employee selection can lower stress levels by ensuring employee abilities match the job requirements. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 126) Stress may offer the opportunity for potential gain. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 534 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

127) Conditions that cause stress are universal in effect. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 128) To help manage stress, organizations can use the techniques of goal setting and redesigning jobs, among others. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 129) Few of the factors that cause stress are controlled by management. Answer: FALSE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 256-257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 130) Double-loop learning is an error correction process that relies on past routines and present policies. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 131) A learning organization is an ideal rather than an organizational reality. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 258 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 132) Transformational leadership is needed in a learning organization to implement the shared vision. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 258 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 133) Seldom does an organization's formal structure act as an impediment to learning. Answer: FALSE Diff: 3 Page Ref: 258 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 134) It is important for management in a learning organization to demonstrate by their actions that taking risks and admitting failures are desirable traits. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


135) People openly communicate with each other across vertical and horizontal boundaries in the learning organization. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: Exh 16-5 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 136) Cultures across the globe are in agreement in terms of beliefs about their ability to control their environment. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 137) In high-power-distance cultures, change efforts will tend to be autocratically implemented by top management. Answer: TRUE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 138) Since Italians focus on the past, they should be less resistant to change efforts. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 139) An idea champion in Germany will be more effective by ignoring budgets and procedures. Answer: FALSE Diff: 2 Page Ref: 259-260 Topic: Global Implications AASCB Tag: Multicultural and Diversity Understanding 140) Managers must continually act as change agents. Answer: TRUE Diff: 1 Page Ref: 260 Topic: Implications for Managers


141) Discuss some of the forces for change. Answer: Some of the forces for change are: the nature of the workforce, technology, economic shocks, competition, social trends, and world politics. The nature of the workforce includes more cultural diversity, increase in professionals, and many new entrants with inadequate skills. Technology includes faster and cheaper computers, new mobile communication devices, and deciphering of the human genetic code. Economic shocks include the rise and fall of dot.com stocks, the decline in the value of the Euro, and the collapse of Enron Corporation. Competition includes global competitors; mergers and consolidations; and the growth of e-commerce. Social trends include Internet chat rooms, the retirement of Baby Boomers, and the increased interest in urban living. World politics includes the escalation of hostilities in the Middle East, the opening of markets in China, and the war on terrorism. Page Ref: 246 Topic: Forces for Change 142) Discuss organizational sources of resistance to change. Answer: One major organizational source of resistance is structural inertia. Organizations have built-in mechanisms to produce stability: the selection process systematically selects certain people in and certain people out; training and other socialization techniques reinforce specific role requirements and skills; and formalization provides job descriptions, rules, and procedures for employees to follow. When an organization is confronted with change, this structural inertia acts as a counterbalance to sustain stability. Another organizational factor that leads to resistance to change is the limited focus of change. Organizations are made up of interdependent subsystems. One can't change without affecting the others. Limited changes in subsystems tend to get nullified by the larger system. Group inertia may act as a constraint even if individuals themselves want to change. Changes in organizational patterns may threaten the expertise of specialized group. Andy redistribution of decision-making authority can threaten longestablished power relationships within the organization. Finally, groups in the organization that control sizable resources often see change as a threat. Page Ref: Exh 16-1 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 143) Discuss the actions that managers can take to overcome resistance to change. Answer: Change agents can take a number of approaches to lessen the resistance to change. Resistance can be reduced by communicating with employees to help them see the logic of a change and educating them in the change. Prior to making a change, those opposed can be brought into the decision process. Their involvement can reduce resistance and obtain commitment. Change agents can offer a range of supportive efforts to reduce resistance. Employee counseling and therapy, new skills training, or a short paid leave of absence may facilitate adjustment. Energizing employees can also help them emotionally commit to the change rather than embrace the status quo. Through cooptation, the leaders of a resistance group can be bought off. Organizations can facilitate the change process by selecting people who score high on openness to experience, positive attitude toward change, willingness to take risks, flexibility in their behavior, high risk tolerance, and self concept. As a last resort, coercion may be used to lessen resistance to change. Page Ref: 248-249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 537 Copyright © 2010 Pearson Education, Inc. Publishing as Prentice Hall

144) Describe Lewin's model for change. Answer: Kurt Lewin argued that successful change in organizations should follow three steps: unfreezing the status quo, movement to a new state, and refreezing the new change to make it permanent. The status quo is an equilibrium state. To move from this equilibrium, unfreezing is necessary. It can be achieved by increasing the driving forces, decreasing the restraining forces, or both. Page Ref: 249 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 145) Discuss four OD interventions that change agents might consider using. Answer: Sensitivity training refers to a method of changing behavior through unstructured group interaction. Members are brought together in a free and open environment in which participants discuss themselves and their interactive processes, loosely directed by a professional behavioral scientist. One tool for assessing attitudes held by organizational members, identifying discrepancies among member perceptions, and solving these differences is the survey feedback approach. The purpose of process consultation is for an outside consultant to assist a client to perceive, understand, and act upon process events with which he or she must deal. Finally, appreciative inquiry seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance. That is, it focuses on an organization's successes rather than its problems. Page Ref: 251-252 Topic: Approaches to Managing Organizational Change 146) Discuss the structural variables that serve as sources of innovation in organization. Answer: Organic structures positively influence innovation. Because they are lower in vertical differentiation, formalization, and centralization, organic organizations facilitate the flexibility, adaptation, and cross-fertilization that make the adoption of innovations easier. Second, long tenure in management is associated with innovation. Third, innovation is nurtured when there are slack resources. Finally, interunit communication is high in innovative organizations. They utilize committees, task forces, cross-functional teams, and other mechanisms that facilitate interaction across departmental lines. Page Ref: 253-254 Topic: Creating a Culture for Change 147) Define process reengineering and identify its three key elements. Answer: Process reengineering is how you would do things if you could start all over from scratch. It means that management should start with a clean sheet of paperrethinking and redesigning those processes by which the organization creates value and does work, ridding itself of operations that have become antiquated. The three key elements of process reengineering are identifying an organization's distinctive competencies, assessing core processes, and reorganizing horizontally by process. Page Ref: 255 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change


148) What is stress? Answer: Stress is a dynamic condition in which an individual is confronted with an opportunity, constraint, or demand related to what he or she desires and for which the outcome is perceived to be both uncertain and important. Stress is not necessarily bad in and of itself. It is an opportunity when it offers potential gain. Page Ref: 256 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 149) What is a learning organization? Discuss the difference between single-loop and doubleloop learning. Answer: A learning organization is an organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change. Just as individuals learn, so too do organizations. A learning organization is one in which people put aside their old ways of thinking, learn to be open with each other, understand how their organization really works, form a plan or vision that everyone can agree on and then work together to achieve that vision. Most organizations engage in what has been called single-loop learning. When errors are detected, the correction process relies on past routines and present policies. In contrast, learning organizations use double-loop learning. When an error is detected, it is corrected in ways that involve the modification of the organization's objectives, policies, and standard routines. Doubleloop learning challenges deep-rooted assumptions and norms within an organization. It provides opportunities for radically different solutions to problems and dramatic jumps in improvement. Page Ref: 257 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change 150) What can managers do to make their firms learning organizations? Answer: Managers can make their firms learning organizations through a number of suggestions. Management can establish a strategy. Management might also redesign the organization's structure. In addition, they can reshape the organization's culture. Page Ref: 258-259 Topic: Contemporary Issues in Organizational Change



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