MATH PROFICIENCY (55 ITEMS FOR 1 HOUR ONLY)
11. What is the solution set of the inequality x2 -5x+6≤0? A. { } B. all real C. {2,3}
D. x2≤x≤3
1.What is the simplified form of 6a(2a2b-ab2+3b)-6ab ? A. -2a2+ab-3 B. 2a3-ab-2a
12. The simplified form of 11-11- 11- 1y+1 is
C. -2a2+ab-2a D. –2a2-ab+3
A. 1+y
2. Twenty-five workers can make 50 engines in 2 weeks. How many engines will be made by 30 workers in 7 days assuming that they work at the same rate? A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 40 3. What are the x-intercepts of hx=2x2+ x-10? A. 5/2, -2 B. 2, -5/2 C. -10, 1 D. -1, 10 4. 3x-2(5x-y2)0x3y-2 y5x-1 y6-1 in its simplest form is equal to A.yx26yx B. y6yx
c.
yx36x5y D. yx86x5y
6. The square of a positive number increased by another number equals 36. If the sum of the two numbers is 16, what is the greater number? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 11 7. What is the product of the GCF and LCM of 12 and 18? A. 96 B. 216 C. 108 D. 432 8. What is one-fourth of 216? A. 1/216 B. 28 C. 24 D. 214 9. I am 27 years old. In how many years will my future age be 16 years more than my past age when I was the same number of years younger? A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 12
½
C. 11+y
D. 1y-1
13. Ang isang anggulo ng tatsulok ay triple ang laki sa pinakamaliit, at ang isa pang anggulo ay nakalalamang naman ng 5⁰ sa triple ng pinakamaliit. Ano ang sukat ng pinakamaliit na anggulo? A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25 14. If sinθ<0 andtanθ=-409, what is cosθ? A. -40/41 B. -9/41 C. 9/41
D. 40/41
15. Gaano karaming tubig ang dapat na pasingawin mula sa isang 100mL tubig alat na may 35% na asin upang maitaas ang konsentrasyon nito sa 40%? A. 12mL B. 12.5 mL C. 14 mL D. 14.5 mL 16. An inlet pipe can fill a tank in 4 hours. An outlet pipe can drain the same tank in 12 hours. How long will it take to fill the tank if both pipes are open? A. 6 hrs B. 8 hrs C. 10 hrs D. 12 hrs
5. The solution set of x4- 3x2+ 2=0 is A. 1, 2 C. 1, -1, 2,-2 B. 1,-1 D. 2, -2, 2,-2
10. Which value will satisfy 2+x=2-x ? A. -1/4 B. ¼ C.
B. y-1
D. 0
17. Ang sukat laki (area ng isang parihaba) ay 240 metro kuwadrado at nag kanyang diyagonal ay 26 metro ang haba. Ano ang dimensyon ng parihaba? A. 12 at 20 metro C. 8 at 30 metro B. 10 at 24 metro D. 6 at 40 metro 18. In the diagram, m∡3=110 and m∡2=130. What is m∡1?
24. If the operation * is defined by a*b= -13 b, then what is x in x * 18 = 14? A. -4 B. 7/9 C. 1 D. 5 25. What is the measure of the acute angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of the clock at 3:30 AM? A. 45 B. 60 C. 75 D. 90 26. Given the diagram below, what is cos A? A.20
B. 50
19. In sinA=58
,
C. 110
D. 160
what is the area of ∆ABC?
A.1/2
B. 5/12
C. 12/13
D. 13/5
27. In the figure what is x? A.50
B. 80
C. 100
D. 150
20. A pair of dice is rolled. What is the probability of getting an even sum? A. 1/36 B. ½ C. ¼ D. 2/3 21. What is the mean, median and mode of the given data? 38, 39, 37, 37, 38, 39, 35, 38, 40, 34 A.37, 38.5, 38 C. 37.5, 39.5, 37 B. 37.5, 38, 38 D. 38, 39, 38 22. If 256811x2 = 34 , what is the value of ? A. -3/2 B. -1/2 C. 1/4
D. 1/2
23. Three angles have measures 2x-4; 5x and 7x + 2. If their mean is 60, what is the measure of the smallest angle? A. 13 B. 22 C. 26 D. 65
A.132
B. 33
C. 32
D. 16
28. ABCD is a square with side AB = 4 inches and arcs AEB and CED are tangent semicircles. What is the area of the shaded portion in square inches?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
34. There are 3 buildings A, B and C with heights 500 ft, 700 ft and 300 ft, respectively. C is between A and B. C and B are 200 ft apart. On the top of building C is a fountain that if a bird flew from the roof of building A or B, it would travel the same distance. Find the distance from C to A? A. 600 B. 400 C. 300 D. 200
A. 8-π
B. 8-2π
C. 16-2π
D. 16-4π
35. If 3 is subtracted from the numerator of a certain fraction, the value of the fraction becomes 3/5. If 1 is subtracted from the denominator of the same fraction, it becomes 2/3. Find the original fraction. A. 35/55 B. 36/55 C. 4/7 D. 6/11 36. A deli has five types of meat, two types of cheese, three types of bread. How many different sandwiches, consisting of one type of meat, one type of cheese and one type of bread, does the deli serve? A. 10 B. 25 C. 30 D. 75
29. In the figure, what is m∡A+m∡D?
37. What should be the value of x such that NO∥ KM?
A.90
B. 180
C. 270
D. 360
30. A certain number of students were grouped into three with the ratio 3:7:8. Which of the following is a possible total number of students? A. 32 B. 40 C. 64 D. 90 31. What is the exact value of 8-0.33 ? A. 1/8 B. 2 C. 1/2 D. 32. Given 48328x=2 . Find x. A. 5 B. 4 C. 3
8-3/10 A.-2/7
D. 2
33. Country A has a population of 7200, which is decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. Country B has a population of 5000 and is gaining 120 people per year. In how many years will the population of country A and B be the same?
B. -1
C. 3
D. 4
38. Solve the compound inequality. Other than ø, use interval notation to express the solution set and graph the solution set on a number line. -24 ≤-5x + 1 < -9
A.
B.
c.
D.
41. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the graph of (x + 3)2 + (y + 5)2 = 16 is a circle. What is the circumference of the circle, expressed in coordinate units? A. 4π B. 3π C. 5π D. 8π 42. 3102 + 9*3100 + 3103/3 = ? A. 3101 B. 3102 C. 3103
D. 3104
43. In the figure below, AC is parallel to DE. AE, FG and CD intersect at the point B. FG is perpendicular to AC and DE. The length of DE is 5 inches, the length of BG is 8 inches and the length of AC is 6 inches. What is the area, in square inches, of triangle ABC?
39. What is the domain and the range based on the graph below?
. A. 28.8
B. 20
C. 24
D. 15
44. Points A, B and C are defined by their coordinates in a standard rectangular system of axes. What positive value of b makes triangle ABC a right triangle with AC its hypotenuse? A. domain: [0, ∞) range: (-∞, ∞) B. domain: (-∞, ∞) range: [-3, ∞) C. domain: [0, ∞) range: [0, ∞) D. domain: [0, ∞) range: [-3, ∞) 40. What is the equation of a line passing through (3, 4) and perpendicular to the line whose equation is y = 6x + 7? A. y - 3 =-1/6(x - 4) C. y = - 6x - 27 B. y - 4 =-1/6(x+3) D. y-4=-1/6(x - 3) .
B. x - 0.3x + 0.02x A. 4
B. 6
C. √6
D. 1 + √6
45. Line L passes through the points (-2,0) and (0,a). Line LL passes through the points (4,0) and (6,2). What value of a makes the two lines parallel? A. 1/2 B. -2 C. 2 D. -1/2 46. If 60% of a is equal to 120% of b, then 2a - 4b = ? A. 2a B. 0.5a C. 0
D. x + 0.02x
51. If x + y = √22 and (x - y)2 = 10, then xy = A. 3 C. 2√55 B. 10√22 D. 2√22 52. ABCD is a parallelogram and MN is parallel to to DC. The length of BN is 1/3 of the length of BC. What is the ratio of the area of triangle BNM to the area of the parallelogram ABCD?
D. 3a
47. If x, y and z are positive numbers such that 5x = y/4, y/4 = z/5 and y + z = x/k, what is the value of k? A. 1/2 B. 1/25 C. 1/5 D. 1/45 48. In the figure below line l is parallel to line k and line g is parallel to line h. What is the value of y? . A. 18:1 B. 1:9
C. 1:18 D. 1:36
53. What is 4 / (√20 - √12) equal to? A. 1/2 B. 4 / √8 C. √5 - √3
D. √5 + √3
54. If the product of two factors is 0, which of the following cannot be true? A. One of the factors is 10. B. Neither of the factors is 0. C. One of the factors is 0. D. Both of the factors are 0. . A. 10
B. 20
49. (41000)(82000) / (162000) = A. 2 B. 3
C. 15 C. 4
D. 35 D. 1
50. The price x of a t-shirt was first reduced by 10%. Then the new price was reduced by a further 20%. The price of the T-shirt after the two reductions is given by A. x - 0.3x C. x - 30
55. What is log3813+log2162log1002 =? A. 10 b. 6 C. 5 D. 4
7. Four members of the Main Street Bicycle Club meet at a certain intersection on Main Street. The members then start from the same location, but travel in different directions.A short time later, displacement vectors for the four members are: A = 2.0 km, west; B = 1.6 km, north; C = 2.0 km, east; D = 2.4 km, south What is the resultant displacement R of the members of the bicycle club: R = A + B + C+ D? A. 0.8 km, south C. 0.4 km, 45° south of east B. 3.6 km, 30° north of west D. 4.0 km, east
STOP! END OF SECTION. IF YOU HAVE ANY TIME LEFT, GO OVER YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.
SCIENCE PROFICIENCY (85 ITEMS FOR 50 MINS ONLY) 1.Chlorine melts at -101⁰C and boils at -34.5⁰C. In what state does it exist at 0⁰C? A. solid B. liquid C. gas D. plasma 2. What happens to the volume of ice when it melts? A. increase B. decrease C. remains the same determined
D.
cannot
3. Based on the graph, who won the 100m-race?
be
8. Sarah designed an experiment to find out which mouthwash was most effective against some bacteria. She cut out four different circles from a paper towel and soaked each circle in a different mouthwash. She put the circles on a nutrient agar-coated Petri dish that was covered with bacteria commonly found in the mouth. She then incubated the plate for 24 hours. The picture shows the results of this test. Which of the following should Sarah do to improve her experiment? A. Use different kinds of bacteria. B. Use the same type of mouthwash on each paper circle. C. Use the same size paper circles for all mouthwashes. D. Use a smaller Petri dish. 9. If an object moves through equal distances in equal times, then it is moving at a constant _______. A. speed C. acceleration B. displacement D. velocity
4. Refer to the figure above, who run with no acceleration? A. Cedric B. Kade C. Audrie D. Aldrei
10. Whenever one particle exerts a force on a second particle, the second particle simultaneously exerts a force on the first particle with the same magnitude in _________ direction: A. same C. parallel B. opposite D. perpendicular
5. What is the equivalent of 1.00 kg/cm3? A. 1.00 x 100 g/m3 C. 1.00 x 105 g/m3 B. 1.00 x 103 g/m3 D. 1.00 x 109 g/m3
11. Granting the volume is the same, which mass will yield the highest density? A. 850 g B. 1.0 kg C. 1100 g D. 1.2 kg
6. Which one of the following is a vector quantity? A. the age of the earth B. the mass of a football C. the earth's pull on your body D. the temperature of an iron bar
12. A police officer living on a planet with no air resistance drops a pair of handcuffs and a handkerchief at the same time. Which one will reach the ground first? A. the handkerchief C. both will hit the ground at the same time B. handcuffs D. cannot be determined
A. Cedric
B. Kade
C. Audrie
D. Aldrei
D.More than one of these 13. A 50-kg table is sliding on a concrete floor and is pushed with a constant force of 50 N over a distance of 5m. A frictional force of 50N opposes the table’s motion. What is the acceleration of the table? A. 0m/s2 B. 5m/s2 C. 2.5m/s2 D. 10m/s2 14. On a velocity-versus-time graph, a horizontal straight line corresponds to ___________ acceleration. A. zero B. increasingC. constant D. decreasing
20. What does the fact that one side of the moon always faces the earth prove? A. the moon rotates B. the moon does not rotate C. then moon deflects rather than emits light D. the moon has a distorted shape 21. Kinetic energy is the greatest at point:
15. If you pull a cart, what is the force that causes you to move forward? A. the force that the cart exerts on you B. the force that you exert on the cart C. the force you exert on the ground with your feet D. the force the ground exerts
16. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of Mars is about 1/3 the
acceleration due to gravity on Earth’s surface. The weight of a space probe on the surface of Mars is about: A.9 times greater than its weight on Earth’s surface B. 3 times greater than its weight on Earth’s surface C. 1/3 its weight on Earth’s surface D.The same as its weight on Earth’s surface
17. According to the law of conservation of energy:
A.Energy can neither be created nor destroyed B.Energy can be converted from one form to another C.Kinetic Energy can be changed into sound and heat D.More than one of these 18. A rock sitting at the edge of a cliff has_____ because of its position. A.Kinetic Energy C. Potential Energy B.Thermal Energy D. Atomic Energy 19. If no friction acts on a diver during a dive, which of the following statements is true? A.The potential energy at the beginning is equal to the kinetic energy at the end B.Some energy is converted to heat C.Some energy is converted to sound
22. You are traveling east by plane and cross three time zone boundaries. If your watch reads 3:00pm when you arrive, to what time should you reset it to? A. 6:00pm B. 12 nn C. 6:00am D. 12 midnight 23. Which of the following characterizes a mineral? A. organic solid C. crystalline B. can be synthetically prepared D. has varying composition 24. During nighttime, how does the air temperature over the ocean compare with that over the land? A. higher over the ocean C. lower over the ocean B. the same D. cannot be determined 25. What does the point of orbit of the earth around the sun indicate?
A.aphelion
B. perihelion C. apogee
D. perigee
26. Why doesn't Venus have seasons like Mars and Earth do? A. Its rotation axis is nearly perpendicular to the plane of the Solar System. B. It does not have an ozone layer. C. It does not rotate fast enough. D. It is too close to the Sun. 27. Comets are icy masses of frozen gases and dust particles. What happens when a comet gets too close to the sun? A. The gases catch fire, making the comet glow. B. The ice begins to melt, leaving a trail of gases and debris. C. The comet explodes, which is called a supernova. D. The comet bounces off the sun’s magnetosphere. 28. What is remarkable about the rotation of Uranus? A. its rotation period is very long (about 12 years) B. its rotation axis lies in its orbital plane C. its rotation axis always points at the sun D. its rotation period varies wildly from year to year 29. Use the diagram below to answer the next two questions.
In which positions will the day and night hours be equal? A. A and B C. B and C B. C and D D. B and D 30. What season is it at point A in the northern hemisphere? Assume the north pole is on top. A. Winter B. Spring C. Summer D. Fall 31.Why do stars seem to twinkle? A. because the atmosphere bend their light rays B. because they shine C. because they undergo nuclear burning D. because they reflect light 32. In Coriolis effect, where is the direction of the wind oriented in the Northern hemisphere? A. south B. left C. north D. right 33. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock? A. granite B. basalt C. limestone
D. marble
34. How is the pressure over the land compare with that over the sea during daytime? A. higher B. lower C. equal D. none of the above 35. Which layer of the atmosphere is the coldest? A. troposphere B. exosphere C. stratosphere mesosphere 36. The energy that drives the water cycle comes from _____.
D.
A. the earth's own internal heat, B. the sun, C. the energy of rotation, combined with the Coriolis effect, D. the heat energy created by friction as the earth spins upon its axis, 37. At mid-ocean ridges, two plates are A. moving towards each other. other. B. sliding along each other. 38. Which of the following is not a mineral? A. olivine B. limestone
C. moving away from each D. stationary. C. calcite
44. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. Is it possible for a father with normal color vision to have a colorblind daughter? A. Yes B. No C. information not enough D. Maybe 45. What is the cell division process that produces four new cells? A. meiosis B. mitosis C. osmosis D. oogenesis 46. Human body (somatic cells) contain _____ chromosomes and the gametes (sex cells) contain ______ chromosomes. A. 23, 46 B. 46, 23 C. 23, 23 D. 46, 46
D. quartz
39. Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface? A) Magmas are more viscous than solid rocks in the crust and upper mantle. B) Most magmas are richer in silica than most crustal and upper mantle rocks. C) Magmas, being melts and having gases, are less dense than the adjacent solid rock. D) Magmas have higher content of pyroxenes than the surrounding rocks. 40. An igneous rock contains a radioactive isotope that has a half-life of 10 million years. Careful analysis shows that only one quarter of the original concentration of the parent isotope is left. How old is this igneous rock? A. 5 million years old C. 20 million years old B. 40 million years old D. 2.5 million years old 41. What is the fraction of homozygous recessive offspring from a AaBb x AaBb cross? A. 1/16 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 3/4 42. What are the offsprings produced when homozygous red flowers cross with heterozygous red flowers? A. all homozygous red C. 1/2 homozygous red B. all heterozygous red D. no offsprings produced 43. Which of the following can pass the human digestive tract chemically unchanged? A. cellulose B. starch C. lipid D. protein
47. Which best describes the metaphase stage? A. chromosomes migrate to opposite poles B. chromosomes reach the poles of the cell C. chromosomes align at the cell’s equatorial plate D. none of the above 48. Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Hormones are released in the blood stream. B. The right atrium receives red oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. Enzyme action starts in the mouth during digestion. D. The blood entering the left atrium from the lungs is characterized by high oxygen content and low carbon dioxide. 49. A normal daughter of a hemophiliac man marries a man without hemophilia. What is the probability that their son will not have hemophilia? A. 100% B. 50% C. 25% D. 0% 50. Which of the following cannot be a possible genotype of a cross between a heterozygous round pea with a homozygous wrinkled pea? (Rround, r-wrinkled) A. RR B. Rr C. rr D. none 51. Which of the following is correctly paired? A. mitochondria: ATP synthesis C. ribosomes: lipid synthesis B. nucleus: protein transport D. golgi body: carbohydrate storage 52. How does the liver act as an accessory organ of the digestive system? A. digest proteins found in meat C. secretes bile to digest lipids
B. secretes gastric juice to digest fats D. collects water from undigested food 53. When a body acquires an infection, which of the following usually increases in number? A. white blood cells C. red blood cells B. platelets D. hemoglobin 54. After meeting an accident, a man suddenly experiences inability to move his body. What part of the brain is mostly likely been injured? A. cerebrum C. cerebellum B. medulla oblongata D. skull 55. Which of the following is part of the endocrine system? A. pancreas C. spinal cord B. skin D. epididymis 56. Which of the following is a sex-influenced trait? A. hemophilia C. baldness B. baldness D. large comb in roosters 57. What antigen is present in blood type O? A. A C. AB B. B D. none 58. Which of the following blood type is considered to be the universal recipient? A. A B. B C. AB D. O 59. Which organisms are most closely related? A. organisms of the same family B. organisms of the same kingdom C. organisms of the same order D. organisms of the same class 60. Which of the following did not help Darwin formulate his theory of evolution? A. fossil evidence that species had changed over time B. closely related species on oceanic islands C. belief that the earth was several thousand years old D. evidence of artificial selection in domestic animals
61. A compound has a molecular weight of 78 g/mol and contains 92.3% C and 7.74% H. What is the formula of the compound? (AW (g/mol): H:1, C:12) A. C2H2 B. C6H6 C. CH4 D.
C5H10 62. Which of the following has the highest number of moles? (AW (g/mol): C: 12, O:16) A. 2.8 g CO B. 3.0 g O2 C. 4.0 g C D. 4.4 g CO2 63. What is the percentage composition of oxygen in potassium carbonate? (AW (g/mol): K: 39, C:12, O:16) A. 8.69% B. 34.73% C. 56.52% D. 86.25% 64. Which compound has the +3 oxidation number for Carbon? A. C B. CaCO3 C. CO D. CaC2O4 65. What is the correct electron configuration for A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10 B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d10 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p64d4 D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p65s24d105s25d10
48
Cd?
66. In an exothermic chemical reaction A. the mass of the products is greater than the mass of the reactants. B. the mass of the products is less than the mass of the reactants. C. heat is released as the reaction proceeds. D. heat is absorbed as the reaction proceeds. 67. In general, which does not increase the speed of a combustion reaction? A. adding a catalyst B. increasing the temperature of the reaction C. increasing the amount of fuel present D. using a combustion reaction with a high activation energy 68. Which naturally charged? A. alpha particles B. beta particles C. gamma radiation D. neutrons
occurring
radioactive
particles
are
negatively
69. When a solution of ethanol, C2H5OH, is formed in water, the ethanol molecules A. are attracted to the nonpolar water molecules. B. form hydrogen bonds to the polar water molecules. C. form covalent bonds to the polar water molecules. D. are not attracted to the polar water molecules. 70. A 0.25 M aqueous solution of sodium chloride, NaCl, is tested for conductivity using the type of apparatus shown. What do you predict will happen?
A. losing electrons to form ionic compounds B. losing electrons to form covalent compounds C. gaining electrons to form ionic compounds D. sharing electrons to form covalent compounds 75. If 20.0 mL of a 6.0 M HNO3 solution is diluted to 120.0 mL, what is the final molarity of the HNO3 after dilution? A. 0.25 M B. 0.50 M C. 0.75 M D. 1.0M 76. Based on the table below, which statement is correct? solution A B C D pH 6.9 6.2 6.0 5.5 Solution B is A.more acidic than solution C B. less acidic than solution E D
E 4.8
C. less acidic than solution A D. more acidic than solution
77. What is the density of NH3(g) at STP? (AW (g/mol): N: 14, H:1) A. 0.760 g/mL C. 1.32 g/mL B. 0.76 g/L D. 1.32 g/L A. The bulb will not light up. NaCl does not dissolve in water. B. The bulb will not light up. NaCl is in the molecular form in aqueous solution. C. The light bulb will shine dimly. NaCl is only partially ionized in aqueous solution. D. The light bulb will shine brightly. NaCl is highly ionized in aqueous solution. 71. What is the pressure of 1.25 moles of gas in a 8.21-L container at 100K? A. 1.5 atm B. 1.25 atm C. 1.5 atm D. 0.5 atm 72. What is the orbital of an electron that has a principal quantum number (n) equal to 3 and an orbital angular quantum number (l) equal to 2? A. 3p B. 3d C. 5p D. 5d 73. How many unpaired electrons are there in a nitrogen atom (7N)? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 74. Atoms of metals generally react with atoms of nonmetals by
78. Gas A and B contain the same number of molecules and are at the same temperature. The external pressure on Gas A is twice that of Gas B. What can be said of the volume of gas A compared with gas B? A. twice that of gas B C. one-half that of gas B B. four times that of gas B D. same as that of gas B 79. If the size of the fluorine atom is compared to the size of the fluoride ion, A. they would both be the same size B. the atom is larger than the ion C. the ion is larger than the atom D. the size difference depends on the reaction 80. Which is the most electronegative? A. 7N B. 9F C. 6C
D. 8O
81. The number of electrons in the nucleus of an atom of A. 12 C. 36 B. 24 D. 10
24 12
Mg+2 is
82. Which of the following involves ionic bonding? A. H2 C. H2O B. BaF2 D. CCl4 83. When
produces 238 92
U
A. alpha B. positron
, what radioactive particle is emitted? 234 90
Th
C. beta D. gamma
84. If the reaction A + B = C + D is initially at equilibrium and then more A is added, which of the following is not true? A. more collisions of A and B will occur B. equilibrium will shift to the right C. moles of B will be increased D. moles of D will be increased 85. In the equation Zn + Cu(NO3)2 Zn(NO3)2 + Cu, what change did zinc undergo? A. reduced and its oxidation number increased B. reduced and its oxidation number decreased C. oxidized and its oxidation number increased D. oxidized and its oxidation number decreased
STOP! END OF SECTION. IF YOU HAVE ANY TIME LEFT, GO OVER YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY. DO NOT WORK IN ANY OTHER SECTION OF THE TEST.
UPCAT REVIEW POST EXAM GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1.
Choose the best answer by shading the circle corresponding to the letter of choice. If you have to change your answer, put a cross mark on the old answer and shade a new circle. If you have a pencil, please use it so you can easily erase your old answers. (In the real exam, you are required to use a pencil.)
2. Please do not write anything on the questionnaire. Use another paper for scratch work. 3. No calculators and other electronic devices allowed during the exam. Periodic tables are also prohibited. 4. You may eat while taking the exam. 5. If you have questions, ask the proctor/examiner, not your co-examinee. 6. Strictly NO CHEATING! 7. Take a deep breath and enjoy answering. Good luck and God bless!
