Mind’s Nest Review Center MYCOLOGY AND VIROLOGY EXAM Gallen Vince A. Domingo, RMT Name: _______________________________________________________ Score: __________ I. VIROLOGY: Read the instructions per cluster of items carefully. For items 1 – 15: Match the virus with its associated infection. Write the letter of the correct answer before the number. 1. Rubivirus 2. Parvovirus 3. EBV 4. HIV 5. Morbillivirus 6. Lyssavirus 7. Flavivirus 8. Variola Major 9. Togavirus 10. HHV-6 11. Coxsackie A virus 12. Pneumovirus 13. Human T cell lymphotropic virus 14. Human papillomavirus 15. VZV
a. Smallpox b. Chickenpox c. Yellow Fever d. Rabies e. Measles (rubeola) f. Rubella g. AIDS h. Hand-foot-mouth disease i. infectious mononucleosis j. Warts k. Adult T cell leukemia l. Respiratory syncytial virus m. Roseola n. Erythema infectiosum o. Equine encephalitis
For items 16 – 50: Encircle the letter of the correct answer. 16. Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome? a. Retroviridae c. Picornaviridae b. Reoviridae d. Togaviridae 17. The protein coat of the virus is known as the: a. Virion c. Nucleocapsid b. Capsid d. Envelope 18. Replication of RNA viruses typically occurs in the: a. Nucleus c. ER b. Golgi Apparatus d. Cytoplasm 19. The following statements regarding varicella and zoster are true except: a. They are two diseases caused by one virus b. Varicella is the primary illness, whereas zoster is the recurrent form of the disease c. They have same clinical picture d. Varicella is a disease of children, whereas zoster is a disease of elderly and immunocompromised patients 20. What is the largest RNA virus? a. Picornavirus c. Flavivirus b. Calicivirus d. Paramyxovirus 21. Which of the following is not a herpesvirus? a. Roseola c. Adenovirus b. Herpes simplex 2 d. Varicella zoster virus 22. Which influenza envelope proteins facilitate binding to host cells and fusion? a. gp1b c. hemagglutinin b. neuraminidase d. m2 23. The following diseases are characterized by maculopapular rash except: a. Measles c. Herpangina b. Exanthem subitum d. Erythema infectiosus
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24. The following statements about herpesviruses are true except: a. All are DNA-viruses b. All remain latent inside the human body after primary infection c. All cause vesicular rash d. There are eight human herpes viruses 25. A 3- year old child presents with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this disease most likely belongs to which group of viruses? a. Orthomyxovirus c. Picornavirus b. Paramyxovirus d. Adenovirus 26. HHV-8 is associated with: a. Fifth Disease c. Kaposi’s sarcoma b. Roseola infantum d. Oral leukoplakia 27. The following statements about alphaviruses are true except: a. Are responsible for transmitting the Eastern, Western and Venezuelan Encephalitis b. Transmitted exclusively by blood transfusions c. Transmitted by insects including mosquitoes d. Are RNA viruses 28. “Owl’s eye” cytological inclusions are characteristic of infection caused by: a. HIV c. CMV b. VZV d. HSV 29. Mosquitoes serve as vectors in all of the following viral diseases except: a. Dengue fever c. West Nile virus b. Hepatitis d. Yellow fever 30. The correct sequence of steps of viral replication is: a. Assembly-Adsorption-Penetration-Release-Uncoating b. Adsorption-Penetration-Assembly-Uncoating-Release c. Penetration-Adsorption-Release- Uncoating-Assembly d. Adsorption-Penetration-Uncoating-Assembly-Release 31. When specimen delay is anticipated, virology specimens are optimally maintained: a. frozen immediately at -20oC b. held at 4oC and snap-frozen to -70oC c. incubated at 35oC d. at room temperature 32. RNA viruses cause all the diseases listed below except: a. Hepatitis B c. Ebola b. Dengue d. Mumps 33. The disease known as sever acute respiratory syndrome is caused by a type of? a. Coronavirus c. Papillomavirus b. Rhinovirus d. Calicivirus 34. Which of the following is a DNA virus? a. HAV c. HCV b. HBV d. HDV 35. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using: a. Monkey kidney cells b. A549 cells c. Human embryonic fibroblasts d. Embryonated hen’s eggs 36. What common antigen is cross-reactive in all human adenoviruses? a. Hemagglutinin c. Hexon b. Capsomere d. Fiber 37. What specimen should be collected from a patient suspected of enteroviral meningitis? a. Stool c. CSF b. Throat swab d. AOTA
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38. German measles is caused by: a. Rubella virus c. Varicella-zoster virus b. Rubeola virus d. Vaccinia virus 39. What is an alastrim infection? a. Measles c. Smallpox b. Mild form of smallpox d. Chickenpox 40. The most common method for rapid electron microscopy examination is: a. Negative staining c. Gram stain b. Acid-Fast staining d. Periodic Acid Schiff stain 41. Which of the following is a DNA virus? a. Togaviridae c. Orthomyxoviridae b. Herpesviridae d. Retroviridae 42. Which of the following is the smallest RNA virus? a. Togavirus c. Enterovirus b. Rhabdovirus d. Paramyxovirus 43. A mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat; with or without an envelope is: a. Genome c. Virion b. Nucleocapsid d. Capsomer 44. Which of the following viruses causes acute central nervous system disease in humans and animals? a. Mumps c. Rabies b. Measles d. Influenza 45. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are elementary bodies of the: a. Poxvirus c. Papillomavirus b. Herpesvirus d. Poliovirus 46. What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months? a. Influenza viruses c. Hepatitis A virus b. Rotavirus d. Adenovirus 47. What virus group contains a double-stranded, segmented RNA genome? a. Parainfluenza virus c. Herpesvirus b. Influenza virus d. Reovirus 48. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by: a. Acid resistance c. Ether stability b. Size determination d. Ribonuclease treatment 49. Forschheimer spots is a characteristic of which viral infection? a. Measles c. Influenza b. Rubella d. Mumps 50. Formerly known as salivary gland virus: a. Variola Major c. Enterovirus b. Cytomegalovirus d. Coronavirus II. MYCOLOGY: Read the instructions per cluster of items carefully. For items 51 – 55, match the dimorphic fungus with its description. Write the letter of the correct answer beside the number. a. b. c. d. e.
Blastomyces dermatitidis Sporothrix schenkii Coccidioides immitis Paracoccidioides brasiliensis Histoplasma capsulatum
51. Small cigar-shaped yeast cells at 37oC and small, oval conidia arranged singly or as flowerettes
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52. Thick-walled, large-celled, single-budding yeast cells at 37oC and piriform conidia attached to septate hyphae at 25oC 53. Small, budding yeast cells at 37oC and large, thick-walled tuberculate macroconidia at 25oC 54. Thick-walled, round spherules on direct examination and thick-walled septate, barrel shaped arthroconidia at 25oC 55. Large, round, multibudding yeast cells at 37oC and small, septate, branched hyphae with chlamydoconidia at 25oC For items 56 – 63: Match the common name of the disease with the clinical name if the disease. Write the letter of the correct answer beside the number. 56. Darling’s Disease 57. Valley Fever 58. Chicago Disease 59. South American Blastomycosis 60. Mycotic Mycetoma 61. Farmer’s Lung Disease 62. Thrush 63. Balanitis
a. Paracoccidioidomycosis b. Oral candidiasis c. Aspergillosis d. Blastomycosis e. Pseudoallescheriasis f. Histoplasmosis g. Coccidioidomycosis h. Candidiasis of the penis
For items 64 – 100: Encircle the letter of the correct answer. 64. Fungal cultures should be held and observed for growth for at least: a. 72 hours c. 1 month b. 1 week d. Coronavirus 65. The type of asexual spore produced by simple budding off from the mother cell is a: a. Ascospore c. Chlamydospore b. Blastospore d. Sporangiospore 66. Conidia are: a. Asexual spores c. Vegetative spores b. Sexual spores d. Sporangiospore 67. Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred as: a. Intercalary c. Spiral b. Terminal d. Sessile 68. Coenocytic Hyphae is a synonym for: a. Septate Hyphae c. Pseudohyphae b. Aseptate Hyphae d. Arthroconidia 69. What is the stain in Aman medium? a. Methylene blue c. Prussian blue b. Cotton blue d. Bromthymol blue 70. Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures? a. Rice Agar c. Cornmeal Agar b. Saboraud Dextrose Agar d. Staib’s Medium 71. Which of the following media stimulates the production of chlamydospores? a. Urease Test Medium c. Czapek’s Agar b. Cornmeal Agar d. Brain-Heart Infusion Agar 72. Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the: a. Beard c. Feet b. Nail plates d. Palm of hand 73. Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra? a. Trichosporon beigelii c. Piedraia hortae b. Microsporum canis d. Malassezia furfur 74. Which of these organisms is the usual cause of black piedra? a. Trichosporon beigelii c. Microsporum canis b. Piedraia hortae d. T. schoenleinii
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75. A positive result for the hair-baiting test is: a. The production of germ tubes b. The production of the red pigment c. V shaped penetration of the hair shaft d. The production of a brown pigment 76. Which of the following produces small, very slow growing coloniesand has favic chandeliers? a. Trichophyton tonsurans b. Trichophyton schoenleinii c. Epidermophyton floccosum d. Microsporum canis 77. Which statement is NOT true? a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive. b. Trichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft. c. Trichophyton rubrum is urease positive. d. Trichophyton rubrum does not penetrate the hair shaft. 78. Which of the following is diagnostic of chromoblastomycosis? a. Flowerette conidia c. Sclerotic body b. Asteroid body d. Germ tube 79. Which of the following is the result of antigen-antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis? a. Sclerotic body c. Sleeve conidia b. Flowerette conidia d. Asteroid body 80. A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability of the organism to produce what structure with serum: a. Blastospores c. Pseudohyphae b. Germ tube d. Chlamydospores 81. In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenkii, single conidia borne along the sides of the hyphae are referred to as: a. Cigar-shaped c. Asteroid body b. Flowerette d. Sleeve 82. The tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum characteristically shows: a. Pseudohyphae with blastospores b. Yeast cells within macrophages c. Yeast forms with multiple buds d. Tuberculate chlamydospores 83. Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi? a. Histoplasma capsulatum c. choices A and B b. Blastomyces dermatitidis d. NOTA 84. Which microscopic method is preferred to examine nails, sin, or hair? a. Saline mount c. India Ink b. KOH preparation d. Giemsa stain 85. Which of the following has a capsule? a. Candida albicans c. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Geotrichum candidum d. Blastomyces dermatitidis 86. What is the Latin name that corresponds to “athlete’s foot”? a. Tinea corporis c. Tinea cruris b. Tinea barbae d. Tinea pedis 87. What is the causative agent of athlete’s foot? a. Microsporum c. Trichophyton b. Candida albicans d. Coccidioides immitis 88. Most incidents of human sporotrichosis arise following what event? a. Inhalation of spores b. A puncture or scratch wound c. Consumption of contaminated food d. The bite of a tick
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89. What type of fungal infection involves the stratum corneum and the upper dermis? a. Systemic c. Superficial b. Cutaneous d. Subcutaneous 90. A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37oC and a mold at 25oC is described as: a. Eumycotic c. Dimorphic b. Monomorphic d. Yeasts 91. Fungus with “spaghetti and meatballs” appearance in microscopy a. Aspergillus fumigatus c. Sporothrix schenkii b. Candida albicans d. Malassezia furfur 92. Which of the following is/are anthrophilic? a. Microsporum audouinii c. Microsporum gypseum b. Microsporum canis d. AOTA 93. Hairs infected with these dermatophytes fluoresce under Wood’s Lamp: a. Trichophtyon rubrum b. Trichophtyon tonsurans c. Microsporum canis d. Epidermophyton floccosum 94. Macroconidi are usually: a. Unicellular c. Square b. Multicellular d. Rectangular 95. Which of the following techniques best maintains the microscopic morphology of the fungus? a. Tease mount c. Slide culture b. Cellophane preparation d. India Ink 96. Causative agent of Tinea Nigra Palmaris a. Fonsecae pedrosoi c. Acrotheca b. Cladosporum werneckii d. Pseudoallescheria boydii 97. Causative agent of Gilchrist’s Disease: a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis c. Coccidioides immitis d. Histoplasma capsulatum 98. Causative agent of San Joaquin Valley Fever a. Blastomyces dermatitidis b. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis c. Coccidioides immitis d. Histoplasma capsulatum 99. The exoantigen test is a/an: a. Indirect passive agglutination test b. Microscopic immunodiffusion test c. Neutralization test d. Rocket electrophoresis technique 100. Fungus with characteristic brown-black colonies on Niger Seed agar: a. Coccidioides immitis b. Candida albicans c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Fonsecae pedrosoi
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