HEMATOLOGY 1. Variation in shapes of RBC: RBC: Poikilocytosis 2. Variation in sizes of RBC: Anisocytosis RBC: Anisocytosis 3. Leukoerythroblastosis is not associated with ______: Erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN) 4. Procedure employs blood w/ EDTA diluted with 0.105 M NaCitrate or NSS: Modified Westergren 5. What is the T-cell growth factor and mast cell activating factor effect in stimulating erythroid and myeloid proliferation: Interleukin-9 or IL-9 6. Largest of all hematopoietic stem cells: Polyploid megakaryocyte 7. Which among RBC has figure of 8, loop shaped: Cabot rings 8. Which among cells is the earliest erythroid recognizable precursor: pronormoblast 9. Which of the ff mononuclear cells are w/o specific cytoplasmic granules: Lymphocytes 10. Which ff cell is larger than monocyte w/ irregular cell membrane with blunts and pseudopods: Megakaryoblasts 11. Common precursor for granulocytes, monocytes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes: Myeloid stem cells 12. Rbc thinner than normal, peripheral rim of hemoglobin w/ dark Hgb containing area: Leptocytes 13. Disintegrating RBC: Schistocytes 14. Cell that has deep purple and paler nucleus which often nearly hidden by granules: Basophils 15. Last nucleated cell: Orthochromic Normoblast 16. Hematopoietic stem cells also known as CFU-GEM expresses: CD34/CD33 17. Promotes differentiation and maturation of megakaryocytes: Thrombopoietin 18. Large cell w/ single eccentric nucleus has reticular chromatin and prominent nucleolus: Osteoblast 19. Nutritional deficiency of Cobalamine, due to failure of gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factors: Pernicious Anemia 20. During fetal life, all Rbc produce HbF, in adults, 0.2-7% are HbF: TRUE 21. Reticulocytopenia and ABN RBC are primary findings, ABN granulocyte are rare and less than 1% blast cells: Refractory Anemia 22. Acute 22. Acute Myelocytic Leukemia seen in: in: M4 23. Earliest Thrombopoiesis w/ overlapping lobe and small amount of basophilic cytoplasm: Megakaryoblast 24. Degrades fibrin clot and retract fibrinogen forms FDP: Plasmin 25. Content of eosinophilic specific granules toxic to parasite that neutralize heparin and release histamine: Major Basic Protein
26. Pathway using 2,3-BPG: Rapaport-Luebering Shunt 27. Cooper Cruick Shank method is for: Absolute for: Absolute Basophil Count 28. Result of PT & PTT mixing studies: mixed plasma is normal, after 1-2 hrs it is prolonged, suggestive of : Presence of FVIII inhibitor 29. Lab findings findings of DIC: (increase D-dimer, increase D-dimer, increase PT/PTT, decrease platelet count) 30. Conjugated protein serves as a vehicle of oxygen and carbon dioxide: Hemoglobin 31. Absorbance 31. Absorbance of spectrophotometer for determining Hgb using HCN: 540nm 32. Quantitative measure of Carboxy Hgb: Either (Differential spectrophotometer, gas chromatography) 33. Problem solving: solving: memorize corrected corrected WBC count 34. Young 34. Young cells w/ residual RNA polychromatophilic polychromatophilic RBC in air dried film stained with __?: Brilliant Cresyl Blue and New Methylene Blue 35. Bilobed structure which recognized by size and bright red granules: Eosinophil 36. Abundant 36. Abundant blue cytoplasm, eccentric round round nucleus w/ light vacuoles w/ well defined golgi zone adjacent to nucleus: Plasma Cell 37. 1 g of Hgb carries ___ mg of Iron: 3.47 38. Reveals pancytopenia, decrease hematopoietic cell lines resulting to low all blood levels: le vels: Aplastic Aplastic Anemia 39. Genetically impairment of globin synthesis: Thallasemia 40. Which of the ff also called CSF-1: Monocyte macrophage CSF 41. Fastest Hgb at pH 8.4 in alkaline medium: HbH 42. Hgb not denatured by alkaline solution: HbF 43. Variety 43. Variety of Acute leukemia predominant predominant blasts cannot classify using morphologic, cytochemical, ultrastructural and immunologic or DNA analysis: Acute analysis: Acute undifferentiated Leukemia 44. Normal value of reticulated platelet count: 3-20% 45. Term used if RBC is hypochromic and normochromic: Anisochromia 46. This are the Pro-Tcell markers except? CD3, CD 7, CD2, CD17 47. Which of the ff refers to total red cell mass: absolute polycythemia vera 48. Normal Retic count at birth? 3-7% 49. Not required for RBC production: Folic Acid, Iron, Protein or Vitamin or Vitamin E 50. Rare autosomal dominant shows pale blue i nclusion resembling Dohle bodies: May Hegglin Anomaly
51. Autosomal dominant that failure normal segmentation of neutrophils: Pelger Huet Anomaly 52. AML w/ minimal differentiation: M0 53. A molecule of Hgb is consist of ___ polypeptide chain: 2 54. A mixture of oxidized denatured Hgb during oxidative hemolysis: SulfHgb 55. Principle involved in automated counting: Electric Impedance 56. Measures fibrin clot from activation of F7 to fibrin stabilizing clot: PT 57. Lymphoreticular neoplasm involved in skin: mycosis fungoides 58. Global test adequacy of primary hemostasis: template BT 59. Activator that initiates the fibrinolysis and convert plasminogen to plasmin: t-PA 60. Primary test in diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia: ACP 61. Decrease function of F2, 7, 10 (Protein C, Protein S): warfarin 62. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with deficiencies in which factor in intrinsic factor: F8,9, 11, 12 63. Prolonged pt and normal ptt seen in patients with deficiencies in which factor in extrinsic factor: F7 64. Cofactor of required in activation of F2 by activated F8: F5 65. Diluting fluid in platelet count in phase contrast: 1%NH4Oxalate 66. In phase contrast microscope, how many squares in platelets in improved neubauer: 25 small squares 67. Light angle scatter in laser-based cell counting chamber is used to measure: cytoplasmic granularity 68. Patients with infectious mononucleosis, this blood cell is infected: B-lymphocyte 69. Inhibits factor 2,9,7,11,10, enhances the activity of antithrombin as natural anticoagulant: Heparin 70. Which of the ff not function of spleen as hematopoietic origin: secretion of mitogen 71. Immature non-nucleated RBC with RNA granules: Reticulocytes 72. Not associated with sickle cell: promotes spleen destruction 73. Tissue extract with phospholipid and tissue factor that activates F7 in extrinsic pathway: thromboplastin
74. Use to connote the appearance of neoplastic cell w/ non-hodgkins lymphoma: lymphosarcoma cell leukemia 75. This altered of immune response against host own immune system that produce Antibody against itself: AutoImmune Hemolytic Anemia 76. Useful in identifying w/ Beta-Thalassemia trait that elevated upto 7%: HbA2 77. Chronic progressive panmyelosis characterized by triad findings vary in fibrosis in the marrow, splenomegaly and leukoerythroblastic anemia: Myelofibrosis w/ myeloid metaplasia 78. Sensitive test in folate or cobalamine deficiency. Measures ability of marrow cells in vitro to utilize deoxyuridine in DNA synthesis: deoxyuridine suppression test 79. Life span of basophil in bone marrow: 7 days 80. Hematopoiesis begins at the 6 th week of fetal life: Liver 81. Majority of iron bound to _____ which has capacity to bind 331 mg of iron/dl: Transferrin 82. Abnormal RBC due to abnormal radium potassium ratio in the RBC: Stomatocytes 83. F8 deficiency: Hemophilia A 84. Average concentration HgB in a given RBC: MCHC 85. Not considered myeloproliferative disorder: AML 86. Cytokines produced by macrophages and kupffer cell: IL-18 87. HgB constituent that may degraded and return to amino acid pool: Globin 88. Last stage of granulocytic that capable of mitosis: Myelocyte 89. Production of azurophilic granules: Promyelocyte 90. Water soluble complex of ferric salt and protein: Ferritin 91. Platelet survival: 8-11 days(in vivo) 3-5 days(in vitro) 92. Provides initial hemostasis due to injury: platelet plug 93. Condition of panmyelosis with increase megakaryocytes, granulocytes, erythrocytes: Polycythemia vera 94. General measure in intrinsic and common pathway: PTT 95. General measure in extrinsic and common pathway: PT 96. An 18- Kda produce by activated T-cell and mast cell: IL-4
MICROBIOLOGY 1. Cell wall that has large amount lipids: Mycobacterium 2. Characteristic of lactose (-) citrate (-) urease (-), non motile, lysine decarboxylase (-): Shigella dysenteriae 3. Primary test to differentiate S. aureus and S. epidermidis: Coagulase Test 4. Helicobacter pylori is associated with: ulcer of gastric mucosa 5. Campylobacter is associated with: gastroenteritis 6. Pulmonary form of anthrax is known as: Woolsorter’s Disease 7. Eaton’s Agent is another name of what genus: Mycoplasma pneumonia 8. Organism loss of ability to synthesize peptidoglycan cell wall: L-form 9. Freis Test is for: Lymphogranuloma venereum 10. Method of typing Klebsiella is use in clinical lab: K antigen 11. Susceptible in ethylhydrocupreine HCl is test for: Streptococcus pneumoniae 12. Species that is soluble to Na-Desoxycholate: Streptococcus pneumonia 13. Positive to gelatin reaction: Serratia liquefaciens 14. Positive to malonate reaction: Enterobacter aerogenes 15. Species that have buff(light brown) colony: Flavobacterium meningosepticum 16. Strains of Mycoplasma that produce small colonies required urea and cholesterol for growth: T-strain 17. Selective medium in recovery of Vibrio cholera from stool: TCBS and alkaline peptone water 18. Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product of glucose fermentation: acetoin 19. pH where methyl red test is +: pH 4.5 20. Genera that is positive to Phenylalanine Deaminase: Morganella, Proteus, Providencia 21. Media used to isolate Brucella for blood a nd bone marrow as specimen: Biphasic-Castaneda with Brucella broth 22. Agent for conjunctivitis or known as pink eye: Hemophilus influenzae biotype III 23. Majority of H. influenza infection are caused by capsular serotype: b 24. Which of the ff cause Lyme Disease: Borrelia burgdorferi 25. Using Loeffler’s methylene blue, it shows various letter shapes and metachromatic granules, it is most likely: Corynebacterium sp. 26. Which Clostridium sp. Can cause pseudomembranous colitis: C. difficile
27. Antimicrobial susceptibility test for anaerobes: Microtube broth dilution 28. Mycobacterium that can grown in MacConkey Agar: M. chelonae-fortuitum complex 29. Bacitracin test is susceptible which group of streptococcus: Group A 30. Mycobacterial catalase test differs from catalase test from S. aureus as it uses the reagent: 30% H2O2 31. Which of the ff is best rapid non cultural test for G. vaginalis with vaginosis: 10% KOH 32. Sulfone-Dapsone Test used to treat: Leprosy 33. Concentration of Ca and Mg in susceptibility medium is significant when testing the susceptibility of P. aeruginosa to: Gentamicin 34. Which antibiotic has cell wall inhibition: Vancomycin 35. Which antibiotic act inhibit protein synthesis: Gentamicin 36. Heat shocking of an original culture may be needed for the recovery of : Anaerobic sporeforming G(+) bacilli 37. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is: either toxigenic or non-toxigenic 38. Listeria monocytogenes is: catalase +, motile, VP +, don’t produce acid from mannitol 39. Confirmation of diagnosis of diphtheria, it is essential t o: demonstrate toxin production 40. Pasteurization is process of in which: total bacterial count is lowered by heating at 62 degree Celsius for 30 mins. 41. Paper strip for H2S producer is impregnated with: Lead acetate 42. Flagellar staining technique: Leifson 43. Porphyrin test is for identification of: Haemophilus sp. 44. Selective Enrichment broth: Selenite broth 45. Positive result of Arylsulfatase: Red 46. Infectious jaundice is one symptoms of Weil Disease : leptospirosis 47. Infectious body of Chlamydia: Elementary body 48. Which of the ff grow in artificial medium: Rickettsia typhi, Chlamydia trachomata, R. rickettsii, Rochalimaea Quintana 49. Chlamydospore structures seen in: Coccidiodes, Mucor, Microspores, Candida albicans 50. Fungi where mycelium lacks septaceous portion is: Coccidiodes, Trichophyton, Phizopus, Candida sp. 51. Fungi of dermataceous can be obtain from skin by what method: scrap tissue from the infected area 52. Germ tube test +: Candida albicans 53. Fungi grows into 2 different forms: Dimorphic fungi 54. All genera are dermatophytes except: Sporothrix
55. Presence of encapsulated fungi in CSF: Cryptococcus neoformans 56. Common is Gardeners or Rose Fever: Sporothrix 57. Tissue phase of Paracoccidiodes braziliense is: yeast cell with multipolar budding around the periphery 58. Chickenpox: Varicella Zoster virus 59. Human herpes Type6: Roseola 60. When should pregnant women concern in Rubella infection: 1st trimester 61. Steps involved in replication of virus except: Mitosis 62. Kopliks spot: Measles 63. Quellung Reaction: Capsule 64. In bacterial growth, growth ceases, while toxic products accumulated in: stationary phase 65. Which of the ff Quality control for dry heat oven: B. subtilis v. niger 66. Iodophores compose of iodine and: detergents 67. Ordinary NH4disinfectants are easily inactivated by: organic material 68. Which of the ff is not G(-): Peptococcus, Salmonella, Branhamella, Aeromonas 69. Which of the ff is not anaerobe: Veilonella, Fusobacterium, actinomyces, Campylobacter 70. Most abundant normal flora in throat cultures: Alpha hemolytic Streptococcus 71. Most common pathogen in throat cultures: Group A streptococcus 72. Staphylococcal protein A coated with Antiserum is used which of ff sero test in CSF: Coagglutination 73. Using sheep blood agar, it eliminates beta hemolytic: Hemophilus 74. UTI in old women: Staph. Saprophyticus 75. Differentiate of Thayer martin medium and Modified Thayer: Nystatin 76. Propionibacteria is: Aerobes gram + rods 77. Viruses contain: either DNA or RNA 78. German measles: Rubeola
79. The ff specimen is acceptable for microbiology c ulture: with swab and specimen with catheter 80. Grape-like microconidia: Trichophyton mentagrophytes 81. Media for pigment development for T. rubrum: Cornmeal agar 82. Transport medium for Neisseria gonorrhea 83. Most important cause of respiratory viral infection in children: Influenza, Parainfluenza, human papilloma virus, respiratory syncitial virus 84. Among this bacteria, which is least biochemically reactive of Enterobacteriacea: Shigella 85. ff specimen accepted for anaerobic: gastric washings, midstream urine, stool, aspiration biopsy 86. each of the ff antibiotic is use to isolate pathologic fungi from contaminants: penicillin-streptomycin, vancomycinnystatin, cycloheximide-chloramphenicol, nystatinstreptomycin 87. quality control in monitor reagent in antibiotic disk is: container first open, once a week, once a month 88. gram ( –) anaerococcus seen as red fluorescence under UV light: veilonella, neisseria, fusobacterium, peptococcus 89. tubular cells of human kidney shed this virus: EBV, CMV, adenovirus, rubella 90. intracellular inclusion of epithelial cells of urine of infants w/ symptoms jaundice, neurologic defects, low birth rate: EBV infection, CMV infection, Variola virus, Rubella virus 91. HBV and HIV are similar in: nucleic acid composition, mode of transmission, cross-reacting ag, req’d of reverse transcriptase 92. Scalp infection in children are from this epidemic ringworm: trichophyton, dermaphitus, microsporum gypseum, microsporum aldonei 93. Concentration methods for AFBS: digestion of bleach, centrifugation, digestive of mucus alkali, AOTA 94. + toxic subs for niacin test: Cyanogen bromide
