Rubber Dam Questions: The following is / are considered as advantage(s) for rubber dam isolation: A. Decreased risk of cross infection control. B. Ensures that nitrous oxide sedation procedure will be safer when the inhaled gas is routed via the scavenging system. C. Decreased risk of damage to the surrounding tissues from the rotary and hand instruments. A. A and C only D. All of the above is true. The following is / are considered as advantage(s) for the child using rubber dam isolation: A. Improvement of access and visibility B. Reduced stress and relaxation C. Retraction of the gingival tissues. D. Moisture Control. E. All of the above are true. The following justifies the need for preservation of primary teeth: A. Maintenance of a healthy oral environment. B. Prevention and relief of pain. C. Maintaining the function and speech D. Maintenance of arch length E. All of the above. Diet and Dental Caries Questions: Which of the following is / are true regarding measures to reduce caries risk by diet modification: A. Use of sugar substitutes results in less caries activity B. Foods needing active chewing leads to more caries activity. C. Sugars should be eliminated as fast as possible from the oral cavity D. A and C only are true E. A, B, and C are true. If we look at the starch and dental caries research, the results can be summarized as following: A. If the starch is finely ground, heat-treated and eaten frequently, starch can cause caries in the same manner that is caused by sucrose. B. Cooked starchy foods such as pasta and bread are of high cariogenicity in man. C. The addition of sugars increases the cariogenicity of cooked starchy foods to become as cariogenic as sucrose. D. A and B are correct E. B and C are correct. The critical PH: A. Is the point at which demineralization starts. B. Is about 5.5 – 5.7 for enamel
C. Is around 6.2 for the root surface. D. All of the above are true E. None of the above is true. The time that is taken to reduce sugar concentration in saliva to less than 0.1% of the original concentration : A. Is called “Clearance Time” B. Can be called “ Sugartime”. C. Varies between different foods, different individuals, and different sites of the mouth. D. B and C only E. All of the above is true. Which of the following is False regarding sucrose: A. The most common dietary sugar B. It comes from sugar canes, sugar beets as well as fruits. C. It promotes colonization of bacteria on the tooth surface D. All of the above. E. None of the above. When you are discussing the issue of sugar substitution for growing children, which point is the least important to emphasize to the parent: A. Unrestricted intake of such beverages will cause calorie deficiency. B. Such beverages will eliminate or greatly reduce dental caries and it is highly recommended. C. The ingestion of such beverages will lead to erosion. D. It provides little nutritive value in terms of supplying vitamins. E. You should guide the parent to the type of sweetener to be taken to avoid harmful ones. When looking at the Food Guide Pyramid, which of the following is/ are true: A. The top of the pyramid contains fats, oils and sweets and is recommended to be used since it is of low cariogenicity. B. The base of the pyramid contains the foods from grains and they should be used because they contain fibers, minerals and vitamins. C. Although the base of the pyramid contains the foods from grains, they should not be used because they contain cariogenic items. D. A and B only are correct. E. None of the above is true. Oral Hygiene Education and Patient Motivation Research in the area of oral hygiene education and patient motivation to get the child into the habit of oral hygiene practices (brushing and flossing) showed that: A. The best educational aid is the disclosing agent with or without the use of plaque index. B. Patient education will promote improved oral hygiene for a long time following the teaching period. C. Closely supervised teaching on a multiple- visit basis, allowing for periodic reinforcement, is the best approach.
D. A and C only. E. All of the above are true. It was found by research that failing to floss means that ___________ % of the tooth surfaces goes uncleaned. A. 75 B. 50 C. 35 D. 25 E. None of the above is true. The tooth brush that you will recommend to the 8- year old child should have the following characteristics: A. Small B. Has soft nylon bristles C. Has multitufted nylon bristles D. A and B only E. All of the above are true. Stainless Steel Crowns Questions: The most widely used stainless steel crowns used in pediatric dentistry contain: A. 77% chromium, 17% nickel, and 6% iron B. 15% chromium, 77% nickel, and 7% iron C. 17% nickel , 77% chromium, , and 5% iron D. 77% nickel, 15% iron, and 7 % chromium E. None of the above is true. The Stainless Steel Crowns are contraindicated in: A. Children with very poor oral hygiene B. In cases where exfoliation is very near in time. C. In fractured posterior teeth D. In cases with mesial lesions in the first primary molars. E. All of the above. In the preparation of the tooth for a stainless steel crown, you will need the following burs: A. Flame shaped diamond for the occlusal reduction , tapered Diamond for the proximal reduction and heatless stone for the finishing. B. Flame shaped diamond for the proximal reduction , tapered Diamond for the occlusal reduction and heatless stone for the finishing. C. Flame shaped carbide for the occlusal reduction , tapered Diamond for the proximal reduction and rouge for the finishing. D. Any combination of the above choices can be used provided you know how to use the burs. E. None of the above combinations is efficient. We need more burs. Regarding the proximal reduction of the tooth in the preparation for a stainless steel crown, which sentence(s) is / are true:
A. Contact with the adjacent teeth must be broken gingivally and buccolingually and the adjacent tooth structure should not be damaged. B. Proximal slices converge slightly toward the occlusal and lingual with no overtapering. C. The gingival margins should have a feather-edge finish line D. All of the above are true. E. A and B only are true. The most important principle(s) in the selection of the size of a stainless steel crown is (are): A. It should establish correct occlusogingival crown length. B. The crown margins should follow the natural contours of the tooth’s marginal gingival. C. The smallest crown that completely covers the preparation. D. A and B only E. All of the above are true. While trying the Stainless steel crown on the prepared tooth, you noticed that there is some resistance with tissue blanching. The reason(s) for this could be: A. Crown occlusogingival dimension is wrong. B. Crown mesiodistal dimension is wrong. C. Tissue caught in margin D. Any of the above could be true. E. None of the above is related to such incidence. While trying the Stainless steel crown on the prepared tooth, you noticed that there is some resistance without tissue blanching. The reason(s) for this could be: A. Crown occlusogingival dimension is wrong. B. Crown mesiodistal dimension is wrong. C. Tissue caught in margin D. Any of the above could be true. E. None of the above is related to such incidence. Indications for the use of stainless Steel crowns does not include: A. Extensive caries. B. Malformed teeth with hypoplasia and other conditions C. Pulpotomized or pulpectomized teeth. D. All of the above E. None of the above. While developing a treatment plan for your patient, you found that tooth # 64 has mesial-occlusal caries with no pulpal involvement, the best material to restore this tooth is: A. Amalgam filling B. Composite filling C. Stainless steel crown D. Glass ionomer filling E. Preventive resin restoration.
Space Management Questions The space analysis procedure (s) that can be done for both upper and lower arches, with no use of the radiographs is/ are: A. Moyer’s Analysis B. Tanaka and Johnston Analysis C. Bishara and Staley’s Analysis D. Hixon and Oldfather Analysis E. Nance Analysis. The dentition is designed to function as a single unit retained by the sum of the following forces exerted upon each individual tooth: A. Occlusal forces B. Muscular forces C. Eruptive Forces D. B and C with some vertical forces as well as mesiodistal forces E. A , B, and C The importance of space maintenance is appreciated by understanding the sequences of premature loss of primary teeth. Of the following sequences, which one is the least important if applicable: A. On space arch dimensions. B. On center line C. On speech D. On psychosocial development E. All of the above factors are very important. Leeway space: A. Is the difference between the mesiodistal width of Cs, Ds, and Es compared to that of 3s, 4s, and 5s. B. Is 1.7 in the mandibular arch. C. Is 0.9 in the maxillary arch. D. All of the above is true. E. None of the above is true. Primate space: A. Is the space present in the primary dentition distal to lower canines and mesial to the upper canines. B. Is the space present in the primary dentition mesial to lower canines and distal to the upper canines. C. Is the space present in the permanent dentition distal to lower canines and mesial to the upper canines. D. Is the space present in the permanent dentition mesial to lower canines and distal to the upper canines. E. None of the above gives the full definition of the primate space In studying the relationship between Baume classification and Angle’s classification, which of the following is/ are true: A. Severe mesial step in the terminal plane will lead to class III occlusion B. Distal step in the terminal plane will lead to class II occlusion
C. Straight terminal plan will lead to Class I occlusion. D. All of the above are true. E. Such relations are not between Baume and Angle classifications. In studying the relationship between primary and permanent molar relationship. In the case of the straight terminal plan: A. Class I occlusion will result by early shift utilizing leeway space if present. B. Class I occlusion will result by late shift utilizing leeway space if present. C. Class I occlusion will result by early shift utilizing primate space if present. D. A and B are correct E. B and C are correct. Diagnostic records for space management planning does not include: A. Study models B. Radiographs C. Clinical examination D. All of the above E. None of the above To know about the presence or absence of secondary teeth, eruption sequence, Anomalies of secondary teeth and path of eruption, you need: A. Thorough history taking B. Thorough clinical examination C. Good quality radiographs D. Good quality study models E. All of the above. The following general factor(s) will influence the development of a malocclusion: A. Class II div II usually become more severe after premature loss of mandibular teeth. B. Thumb sucking habits causes re-collapse after the untimely loss of teeth. C. Strong mentalis muscle coupled with low tongue position may damage the occlusion. D. All of the above are true E. B and C only are true. In considering the space maintainers indications, which of the following statements is/ are true: A. Dental age of the patient is more important than the chronological age. B. Amount of bone covering the unerupted tooth is more important than the root status development. C. Sequence of eruption is more important than the time of eruption. D. All of the above are true. E. A and C only are true but not B. Factors related to arch-length adequacy include: A. Cuspal interlock B. The size of the unerupted premolars and canines C. The depth of the curve of sfee. D. All of the above.
E. B and C only. Factors related to arch-length adequacy does not include: A. The depth of the curve of spee. B. The position of the lower incisors over the basal bone C. Leeway space D. All of the above E. None of the above. The Band and Loop space maintainer: A. It may require a vertical projection to restore the chewing function B. It does not restore chewing function and will not prevent the continued eruption of the opposing teeth. C. Easy and economic but not practical clinically D. Used in the situation of early loss of tooth # 62. E. All of the above are true. The crown and loop space maintainer: A. Indicated mainly in cases where the posterior abutment tooth is pulpally treated and there is a space loss in the opposing arch. B. Indicated mainly in cases where the posterior abutment tooth is pulpally treated and there is a space loss in the arch anterior to it. C. Indicated mainly in cases where the posterior abutment tooth is pulpally treated and there is a space loss in the same arch but not in the same quadrant. D. Indicated mainly in cases where the posterior abutment tooth is not pulpally treated and there is a space loss in the same quadrant. E. None of the above statements satisfies the specific type. Which of the following statements is/ are true regarding the LLHA space maintainer: A. Should be passive in nature B. Indicated in the primary, mixed and permanent dentition stages provided that there is bilateral premature loss of teeth. C. It does not require patient cooperation in wearing it. D. A and B only E. A and C only. Contraindications for distal shoe appliance include: A. If the patient has poor oral hygiene B. If several teeth are missing so that we lack abutments for the appliance. C. If the patient has certain medical problems such as blood dyscrasia or immunosuppresion. D. All of the above are true E. A and C only are true. The following appliance is successful in replacing several missing posterior teeth in the mandibular arch: A. Fixed appliance B. Removable partial denture C. Lower Lingual holding arch D. Bilateral Crown and loop
E. None of the above is the required design. Fluoride Questions: The main mechanism of action of fluoride is: A. Pre-eruptive and systemic B. Pre-eruptive and local C. Post-eruptive and systemic D. Post-eruptive and local E. None of the above is the main mechanism. One of the following facts is not true regarding the action of fluoride in the prevention of caries: A. As cariogenic bacteria metabolize carbohydrates, fluoride is released from the dental plaque in response to the lower pH. B. Fluoride is more readily taken up by the sound enamel more than the demineralized one. C. Fluoride also inhibits dental caries by affecting the activity of cariogenic bacteria. D. Saliva is a major carrier of topical fluoride, but the concentration of fluoride in ductal saliva is low as it is secreted from the gland. E. Adults as well as children benefit from fluoride since the cycles of demineralization and remineralization continues throughout the lifetime of the tooth. The optimum fluoride concentration in drinking community water is: A. 0.07 ppm – 1 ppm B. 0.1 ppm – 1 ppm C. 0.7 ppm – 1.2 ppm D. 0.1 ppm E. None of the above can be true. It depends on the climate of the area, so we can not predict such value. The main fluoride source (s) responsible for lower caries rate is/ are: A. Fluoridated community drinking water B. Fluoride toothpaste. C. Professionally applied fluoride gel D. All of the above E. A and B only. The concentration of fluoride in most bottled water is: A. > 0.7 ppm B. 1 ppm C. < 0.3 ppm D. 0.3 – 1 ppm E. None of the above. The standard concentration of fluoride in the following product is 1,000 ppm – 1,100 ppm: A. Fluoride daily mouth rinse
B. C. D. E.
Fluoridated tooth paste/ Adult strength. Systemic fluoride tablets for a child age 5 years of age Fluoride gels for home use None of the above is true.
The most common fluoride compound used as a daily mouthrinse is NaF. Its concentration is: A. 0.5% NaF B. 0.2% NaF C. 0.05% NaF D. 0.02% NaF E. None of the above, the concentrations given are for the fluoride and not NaF. One of the following factors is not important in prescribing systemic fluoride: A. Age of the child B. Concentration of fluoride in the child’s primary drinking water C. The “Halo effect” related to the child. D. Ability of the child to spit the excess fluoride E. None of the above. For the maximum benefit of fluoride , the pH of most topical fluoride gels should be around: A. 3.0 B. 7.0 C. 5.0 D. 1.0 E. none of the above . The usual recommended frequency for professional application of fluoride to get the maximum benefit with the best cost-effectiveness is: A. Bimonthly B. Semiannually C. Annually D. Once every three weeks E. We cannot give such a recommendation. It depends on the population we are treating. The highest fluoride concentration can be found in which of the following compounds: A. Fluoride weekly mouthrinse. B. Fluoride gel/ professional use. C. The highest strength fluoridated toothpaste D. Fluoride varnish. E. Fluoride prophylaxis paste/ professional use. To differentiate between milder forms of fluorosis and Nonfluoride enamel opacities, the later is characterized by: A. Usually centered in smooth surface. B. Often oval or round
C. Usually seen on six or eight homogenous teeth at the same time of crown formation. D. A and B only E. All of the above are true. Dental fluorosis is defines as a condition affecting the ____________ caused by increased ingestion of fluoride above the optimum level of fluoride. A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Cementum D. All of the above are true E. A and B only. The following facts are true regarding the dental fluorosis except: A. Characterized by greater porosity of the surface and subsurface layers of enamel. B. Results from increased fluoride reaching the tooth during the developmental stages. C. The most critical period for its influence appears to be the late secretion or early maturation period D. All of the above E. None of the above. 1 ppm is equal to: A. 1 mg / L B. 1 gm / L C. 1 gm / 100 ml D. 1 mg / ml E. none of the above. The fluoride concentration in the APF you use3 in the pediatric dentistry clinic is : A. 12300 ppm F B. 1230 ppm F C. 12.300 ppm F D. 1.23 ppm F E. None of the above is the true concentration because we need to calculate the Fluoride content in this compound. Threshold for dental fluorosis is: A. 0.03 – 1 mg F/ Kg of the body weight B. 0.03 – 0.1 mg F/ Kg of the body weight C. 0.1 – 0.3 mg F/ Kg of the body weight D. 0.3 – 1 gm F/ Kg of the body weight E. 0.03 – 1 gm F/ Kg of the body weight A child ingested 10 ml of 5% NaF. How much fluoride did he ingest? A. 500 mg F B. 50 mg F C. 225 mg F D. 5000 mg F
E. 22.5 mg F Fissure Sealants and PRR Questions Can be defines as a minimal preparation of pits and fissures but with a small area or areas of caries that involve dentin. Requires the placement of composite over the appropriate base. The remaining pits and fissures are covered then by a sealant. This is: A. Type I PRR B. Type II PRR C. Type III PRR D. Class I composite filling E. Class II composite filling In the selection of teeth for the application of pit and fissure sealants, which one is the least indicated for this procedure: A. Occlusal pits and fissures B. Buccal and palatal pits C. Cingulum pits on the lingual surfaces of maxillary incisors D. Shallow well coalesced pits and fissures E. C and D In relation to the chronological and dental age of the patient, which of the following statements is/ are true: A. Sealants must be placed as soon as possible after the emergence of the tooth in the oral cavity B. Patient has to be young to benefit most from this procedure C. Sealants must be placed after complete eruption of the tooth with no operculum covering it to have maximum retention D. A and C only are correct E. None of the above is true. A comprehensive prevention program should include: A. Fluorides and proper diet. B. Plaque control and regular dental care C. Patient education and motivation D. All of the above E. The components above are still lacking all the requirements deeded for a comprehensive program. There are some other components not mentioned. Of the following sentences, which one(s) is/ are true regarding the retention facts of pit and fissure sealants: A. Half of all sealants will last 3-7 years B. For a properly placed sealant, 10 years is expected as a retention period C. Incidence of caries is greatly reduced by the application of sealants D. All of the above statements are true E. None of the above statements is true. Behavior Management Questions:
The critical moment in the dental office that provides us with the first real opportunity to praise the child for his good behavior is: A. The pre-appointment visit B. Separation from the parent C. Getting into the chair D. The injection E. Return to the parent. The profile of a good child dental patient does not include: A. Separates well from the parent B. Cries at the injection time only C. Return to parent bearing pride D. A and C only v. None of the above Causes of inappropriate behavior include : A. Acquired and learned fears B. Awareness of a dental problem C. Mental retardation D. A and B only E. All of the above Wright’s clinical classification of children’s behavior divided children into how many categories: A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Depends on the clinician’s ability to express opinion E. None of the above is true. The functional inquiry is part of: A. History taking B. Clinical examination C. Diagnostic investigation D. Behavior management E. None of the above If the child is reluctant to accept the treatment and he appears to be withdrawn. You can give him Rating _________ of Frankl scale: A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four E. This description is not enough to give the rating. This type of parents will prevent the natural development of the child toward independence. This type is called: A. Overprotective parent B. Hostile parent C. Manipulative parent
D. Neglectful parent E. Troublesome parent Example of such parent is the one who refuses that the child gets radiographs made to get the diagnosis, and they can tell you what to do in your office. This is an example of : A. Overprotective parent B. Hostile parent C. Manipulative parent D. Neglectful parent E. Anyone of the above can have this behavior The best way to work with the Hostile parent is: A. Counseling and explaining the importance of dentistry B. Explaining the office policy clearly C. Frank discussion and explaining the details of the treatment with patience. D. All of the above E. None of the above can help The characteristics of the introverted child include: A. Avoidance behavior B. Aggressive behavior C. Difficult communication D. A and C only E. All of the above. If the home of the family is lacking warmth and love, or if it is even broken home with unfortunate circumstances. This will result into which combination: A. Hostile parent and emotionally compromised child. B. Overprotective parent and emotionally compromised child. C. Hostile parent and introverted child. D. Overprotective parent and emotionally compromised child. E. None of the above combinations is a logical one. Using your experience and common sense, you may simply decide to postpone the appointment so that you will not increase the anxiety of which type of child: A. The emotionally compromised child B. The child who is adverse to authority C. The frightened child D. The shy child E. Any one of the above is true. The child who has misdirected goals in life can be seen misbehaving in the dental office as : A. The emotionally compromised child B. The child who is adverse to authority C. The frightened child D. The shy child E. The introverted child
Behavior management can be defined as the means by which the dental team effectively and efficiently performs treatment to the child instills a positive dental attitude in the child for the future. Effective here means: A. Utilizing the principle of quadrant dentistry B. Providing high quality dental care C. Working in the team as one unit D. All of the above E. A and B only. Behavior management can be defined as the means by which the dental team effectively and efficiently performs treatment to the child instills a positive dental attitude in the child for the future. Efficient here means: A. Utilizing the principle of quadrant dentistry B. Providing high quality dental care C. Working with the team as one unit D. All of the above E. A and C only. Fundamentals of behavior management include all of the following except: A. Tolerance and Flexibility B. Organization and truthfulness C. The team and the positive approach D. All of the above E. None of the above It is one of the fundamentals of behavior management. It means that the dentist has the ability to rationally cope with misbehaviors while maintaining composure. This is referred to: A. The positive approach B. The flexibility C. Tolerance D. The organization E. None of the above. You do not need informed consent in which of the following behavior management methods in children: A. The physical restraint B. The basic communicative behavior techniques C. The voice control D. Hand-over mouth E. None of the above. It is a behavior modification technique used to retrain a child who presents with preestablished fears, and uncooperative behavior. It is called: A. Tell-show-Do B. Desensitization C. Modeling D. Voice Control
E. All of the above can be matching such a definition. It is a behavior management technique used to alleviate the patient fear of the unknown. It is called: A. Tell-show-Do B. Desensitization C. Modeling D. Voice Control E. Pre-appointment visit The behavior management technique that is used while giving the local anesthesia to the child should be: A. Tell-show-Do B. Desensitization C. Modeling D. Voice Control E. Distraction The behavior management technique that is extremely contraindicated while giving the local anesthesia to the child is: A. Tell-show-Do B. Desensitization C. Modeling D. Voice Control E. Distraction Research has shown that during the communication experience between the dentist and the child, over than half of the impact of the clinician comes from: A. the spoken words B. The tone of the voice C. The volume of the voice D. Nonverbal expressions E. B and C together Which of the following facts is not true about the Hand- over- mouth technique: A. You must obtain an informed consent from the parent and document it. B. Used to reframe a previous request and to reengage appropriate behavior C. Indicated in hysterical children D. Indicated in mouth breathers E. Rarely used and recommended nowadays. Alternatives to the communicative behavior management techniques that can be done by the general practitioner includes: A. Conscious sedation B. General anesthesia C. Deep sedation D. All of the above E. None of the above
