Criminalistics Manual(Booklet)

CLARITO G. LOPEZ JR MPA/PA,LLB

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PART I PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION (FINGERPRINT) 1 What is fingerprint impression? Answer: Fingerprint impression is refers to a pattern or designed formed by the ridges on the end joint of the fingers or thumb. 2 When fingerprint is formed in the human being? Answer: Fingerprint is formed three to four months (3-4) in the mother’s womb. 3 What are the composite of the end joint of the fingers or thumb which form the impression? Answer: End joint of the fingers or thumb is made up of papillary ridges, and furrows. ° Papillary ridges or sometimes referred to as friction ridges or epidermal ridges are raised strips of the skin by which fingerprint are made; while, ° Furrows are the depressions or canals between the ridges. 4 What are the kinds of fingerprint impression? Answer: There are two kinds of fingerprint impression: ° Real impression, it is intentionally made impression with the use of any printing materials. ° Chance impression, these are imprinted impression by mere chance or without intention to produce the print. 5 What are the ways of taking real impressions? Answer: Fingerprints are made by:

fingerprint


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° Rolled impression, this is printed by rolling the fingers or thumb away from the center of the subject’s body. ° Plain impressions, this is printed without rolling the fingers or thumb. 6 What are the classifications of chance impression? Answer: Chance impression is either visible or latent print. ° It is visible impression when the print is apparent even without chemical treatment; ° It is latent print impression, however, if the print is invisible but made visible if some substances are applied. 7 What makes different between DACTYLOGRAPHY and DACTYLOSCOPY? Answer: Both are art of studying fingerprint as a means of personal identification but in Dactylography, it refers to the recording of fingerprint; while, in DACTYLOSCOPY it refers to the comparison of fingerprint. 8 What are the characteristics of fingerprint? Answer: Fingerprints have the character of: ° Individuality, no two people have fingerprint that are exactly alike. ° Permanency, configuration and details of individual ridges remain constant (never change). ° Infallibility, fingerprint evidence is reliable. 9 What are the layers of the skin and their effects in the character of fingerprint? Answer: Skin has: ° an outer scarf or epidermis; & ° an inner scarf or dermis. In case of temporary impairment, the outer scarf revert to their natural alignment and fingerprint will not changed or destroy, but if


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the inner scarf will impaired, the fingerprint will be destroyed and will not be restored. 10When fingerprint evidence warrant conviction? Answer: To warrant a conviction, the fingerprints corresponding to those of the accused must have been found in the crime scene which they could have been impressed at the time when the crime is committed. 11How latent impressions are made? Answer: They are made by the perspiration on top of the ridges of the fingers. 12What was the first Appellate Court to pass upon the admissibility of fingerprint as evidence? Answer: In 1911, an Illinois Court, in the case of People vs. Jennings, was the first Appellate Court to pass upon the admissibility of fingerprint as evidence. 13Is fingerprint’s photograph sufficient in court to support conviction? Answer: Yes. In the case of State vs. Conners, the court was held competent to show by a photograph the fingerprint upon the post without producing the post in court. 14What is the first judicial decision in Philippine jurisprudence on the science fingerprinting? Answer: People vs. Medina, 59 Phil. 330.

the of

15What are the different fingerprint patterns? Answer: All fingerprints are divided into three classes on the basis of their general patterns, namely: A. Arch (5%) B. Loops (65%) C. Whorl (30%)


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16What is arch pattern? Answer: Arch is the least common of the three general patterns and is subdivided into two distinct groups, Plain and Tented. ° The Plain Arch is the simplest of all fingerprint patterns and is formed by ridges entering from one side of the print and exiting on the opposite side. These ridges tend to rise in the center of the pattern, forming a wave-like pattern. ° The Tented Arch is similar to the Plain Arch except that instead of rising smoothly at the center, there is sharp upthrust or spike, or the ridges meet at an angle less than 90 degrees. 17What is loop pattern? Answer: A Loop is a type of pattern in which one or more ridges enter either side, recurve, touch or pass an imaginary line between Delta and Core, and tend to exit the same side as the ridge entry. It is the most common of the three general patterns and subdivided into two distinct groups, ulnar and radial. It is ulnar when the Ridges are flow in the direction of the little finger. It is radial when the ridges are flow in the direction of the thumb. 18What is whorl pattern? Answer: Whorl pattern is the second most common of the three general patterns. They are subdivided into 4 distinct groups: Accidental, Double Loop, Central Pocket Loop and Plain. 19What is plain whorl pattern? Answer: Plain Whorls are the most common and simplest of the Whorl subtypes. It is important to remember that Plain Whorls have two Deltas and at least one recurving ridge in front of each. In a Whorl pattern, the ridges are usually circular.


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20What are the characteristics of plain whorl? Answer: They are: ° A Plain Whorl pattern must have Type Lines and a minimum of two Deltas. ° A Plain Whorl has at least one ridge that makes a complete circuit and touch the imaginary line drawn between the two deltas. ° This ridge may be in the form of a spiral, oval, circle or variant of a circle. 21What is central pocket loop whorl? Answer: Central Pocket patterns have type lines, a minimum of two Deltas and at least one ridge tends to make a complete circle. An imaginary line drawn between two deltas must not touch or cross any of the recurving ridges within the pattern area. 22What is double loop whorl? Answer: A Double Loop pattern, as the name implies, is made up of two Loops combined into one fingerprint. A Double Loop pattern consists of two separate Loop formations with two separate and distinct sets of Shoulders and two Deltas. 23What is accidental whorl? Answer: A. Accidental Whorls consist of a combination of two different types of pattern (with the exception of Plain Arches). B. Accidental Whorls have two or more Deltas and fall into their own category. C. Accidental Whorls may occur in some of the combinations listed below: ° Loop and a Whorl ° Loop and a Tented Arch ° Loop and Central Pocket Loop ° Double Loop and Central Pocket Loop 24In summary, how many fingerprint patterns? What are they and give their corresponding symbols?


Answer: There are eight fingerprint namely: ° Plain arch (A) ° Tented arch(T) ° Ulnar loop(U) ° Radial loop(R) ° Plain whorl(W) ° Central pocket loop whorl(C) ° Double loop whorl(D) ° Accidental whorl(X)

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patterns,

25What is pattern area? Answer: The pattern area is that part of the loop or whorl in which appear the cores, deltas, and ridges which are enclosed by type lines. 26What is a type line? Answer: Type lines may be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel, diverge, and surround or tend to surround the pattern area. 27What is the distinction between a divergence and a bifurcation? Answer: A divergence is the spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel or nearly parallel; while a bifurcation is the forking or dividing of one line into two or more branches. 28Can we use as a type lines the fork of the bifurcation? Answer: No, except when the forks run parallel after bifurcating and then diverge. 29What are the focal points in the fingerprint examination? Answer: The focal points in the fingerprint examination are the delta and the core.


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30What is delta? Answer: Delta is that point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the divergence of the type lines. 31What are delta? Answer: ° ° ° ° °

the

different

ridges

that

may

use

as

They are: A bifurcation Abrupt ending ridge Dot Short ridge Meeting of two ridge

32When a dot or other type of delta and the bifurcation are equally closed to the divergence of the type lines, which one will be selected as delta? Answer: Select the bifurcation. 33When there are two or more possible deltas which conform to the definition, which one will be selected? Answer: The one nearest to the core. 34What is core? Answer: The core, is the approximate center of the finger impression? 35What are the rules that govern the selection of the core? Answer: They are: ° The core is placed upon or within the innermost sufficient recurve; ° When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising as high as the shoulders of the loop, the core is placed on the shoulder of the loop farther from the delta.


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° When the innermost sufficient recurved contains an uneven number of rods raising as high as the shoulders, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod whether it touches the looping ridge or not. ° When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an even number of rods rising as high as the shoulders, the core is placed upon the end of he farther one of the two center rods. 36What is meant by a shoulder of the loop? Answer: The shoulders of the loop are the points which the recurving ridge definitely turns inward or curves. 37What are the different kinds of ridges that are valuable for comparison purposes? Answer: They are: ° Bifurcation. The point where a ridge divides or forks to become two and run either parallel or diverge; ° Island Ridge. A short ridge located within the temporary divergence of parallel ridges, running parallel to the ridge on either side. ° Enclosure. Refers to a ridge forks and then turns to a single parallel ridge within a relatively short distance. ° Dot. A very short section of a ridge, usually round in contour, with probably only one pore showing. ° Short ridge. Refers to a Ridge that has an open area at either end. ° Ending ridge. Ridge that has abrupt ending and has previously continued for a quite distance. ° Broken ridge. Refers to a ridge that is broken up into segment. ° Crossover/bridge. This is Short ridges that interconnect two another parallel ridges. ° Spur. This is a very short ridge jutting out from a free-flowing ridge.


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° Divergence. These are ridges running together in parallel fashion, tend to separate and continue on another course. 38What is the standard number of similarity of ridges to arrive at the conclusion that two fingerprint are the same from the other? Answer: Most experts require from 10 to 12 matching points. 39What are the divisions of the formula? Answer: They are: ° Primary classification ° Secondary classification ° Capital letter group ° Small letter group ° Sub secondary classification ° Major division ° Final classification ° Key classification

classifications

40What is primary classification? Answer: This is the result of the summation of all the numerical values assigned to whorls which are expressed as numerator (for even number in the chart position) and denominator (add number in the chart position) plus the pre-established fraction of one over one 1/1. 41In case there is no whorl in the chart what is the primary classification of the set of fingerprint? Answer: 1/1 42What are the subdivisions of secondary classification? Answer: They are: ° Capital letter group, This is symbolized by a capital letters of the pattern represented by two index fingers after the primary


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classification. Right finger is the numerator and the left finger is the denominator. There are five basic types of patterns which can appear: ° Arch A ° tented Arch T ° Radial loop R ° Ulnar loop U ° Whorl W ° Small letter group, This refers to three types of patterns only, namely; ° plain arch (a) ° tented arch (t) ° radial loop (r) 43What is subsecondary classification? Answer: This is accomplished by grouping according to the ridge counts of loops and the ridge tracing of whorls. Only index, middle and ring fingers of left and right hand are involved 44What is ridge count? Answer: Knowing the number of ridges intervening between the delta and the core is referred to as “ridge counting”. 45What are the rules of ridge counting? Answer: They are: ° Neither delta nor core is counted ° In the event there is a ridge exactly at the point where the imaginary line would be drawn, two ridges are counted. ° Where the line crosses an island, both sides are counted. ° Fagments and dots are counted as ridges only if they appear to be as a thick and heavy as the other ridges in the immediate pattern. ° A ridge count of 1 to 9 in the index fingers is brought up into the subsecondary formula as “I”; while a count of 10 or more is “O”.


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° A ridge count of 1 to 10 in the middle fingers is brought up into the subsecondary formula as “I”; while a count of 11 or more is “O”. ° A ridge count of 1 to 13 in the ring fingers is brought up into the subsecondary formula as “I”; while a count of 14 or more is “O”. 46What is whorl tracing Answer: Refers to the tracing of the ridges from the left delta to the right delta. The intervening ridges between the tracing ridge and the right delta are then counted. 47What are the rules of ridge tracing? Answer: They are: ° If the ridge traced passes inside of (above) the right delta, and there are 3 or more ridges intervene between the tracing ridge and the delta, the tracing is designated as “inner” or with a symbol of “I”. ° If the ridge traced passes outside of (below), the right delta, and there are 3 or more ridges intervene between the tracing ridge and the delta, the tracing is designated as “Outer” or with a symbol of “O”. ° All other tracing are designated as “Meeting” or with a symbol of “M”. ° When the ridge traced ends abruptly and it is determined that the ridge definitely ends, the tracing drops down to the next lower ridge 48What is major division? Answer: This is done by ridge counting the loops and ridge tracing the whorl appearing on the thumb. This is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification formula. Where whorl appears in the thumb reflects the whorl tracing; where a loop appears, translate the


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ridge count into Small (S) Medium (M) and Large (L). 49What is a final classification? Answer: This is based upon the ridge count of the loop in the right little finger. It is indicated at the extreme right of the numerator in the classification. If loops does not appears in the right little finger a loop in the left little finger may be used. It is then indicated at the extreme right of the denominator. If no loops appear in the little fingers, a whorl may be used to obtain a final counting from left delta to core if in the right hand and from right delta to core if in the left hand. If there are two or more cores, the ridge count is made from left delta to the core which is the least number of ridges distant from the delta. Double loop is counted from the delta to the core at the upright loop. Where loops of a double loop are horizontal, the nearest core is used. Should both little finger are arches no final classification is used. The use of a whorl in a little finger for a final is required only in connection with a large group or collection of print. 50What is a key classification? Answer: This is obtained by counting the ridges of the first loop appearing on the fingerprint card(beginning from the right thumb), exclusive of the little fingers which are never considered for the key as they are reserved for the final. The key, no matter where found is always placed to the extreme left of the numerator of the classification formula. 51When an impression is so scarred that neither ridge tracing nor counting can be determined, what impression should be given? Answer: Give both the general type value and the sub-classification value of the corresponding finger of the other hand.


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52When an impression is so scarred that neither of the general type of pattern nor the ridge tracing or count can be determined and it so happens that corresponding finger of the other hand is similarly scarred, what impression should be given? Answer: Given the probable value of whorls with meeting tracing. 53What is the classification if one finger is amputated? Answer: It is the classification identical with that of the opposite finger, including pattern and ridge count, or tracing, and referenced to every other possible classification. 54What is the classification if two or more fingers are amputated? Answer: They are given classification identical with the fingers opposite, with no additional references. 55What is the classification if two amputated fingers are opposite each other? Answer: Both are given the classification of whorls with meeting tracing. 56What is the classification if the fingerprint card bearing a notation of fingers missing at birth or missing from pre-natal cause? Answer: The missing fingers should be treated as amputations in that they are given the identical classifications of the opposite fingers and are filed in the amputation group. 57If all 10 fingers are amputated or missing at birth, what will be the classification? Answer: It should be: M 32 W MMM M 32 W MMM  In those cases where all of the fingers are amputated, the inked footprints should be obtained.


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XXXX

PART II POLYGRAPHY-LIE DETECTION-DECEPTOGRAPHY 1 What is Polygraphy? Answer: (Lie detection test or Deceptography) is defined as the scientific detection of deception through the use or aid of a polygraph. 2 What is Polygraph? Answer: derived from two Greek words “Poly” which means Many or more; and “Graphos” which means Writings. A device or instrument capable of recording changes in blood pressure/pulse beats, respiration, and galvano-skin-reflex (GSR) as indicative of emotional excitement especially of lying when questioned. 3 What is Deception? Answer: is an act of deceiving or misleading which is usually accomplished by lying. 4 What is meant by Lying? Answer: the uttering or conveying falsehood or creating a false or, misleading impression with intention of wrongfully affecting the act, option or affection of others. 5 What is meant by Detection? Answer: is the act of discovering the existence or presence of something hidden of obscured. 6 What is Emotion? Answer: is a complex state of feeling involving conscious experience, internal and external physical responses, and power to motivate the organism to action.


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7 What is Stimulus? Answer: is the force or motion reaching organism and excites the preceptors.

the

8 What is Reaction? Answer: is any activity aroused in an organism by a stimulus, which is of mental process. 9 What is Response? Answer: is any reaction, usually of muscular or glandular processes that depends upon stimulation. 10

What is meant by Specific Response? Answer: is one that is exhibited by a subject to a particular question, which is a deviation from his norm.

11 What is meant by the term Subject in polygraph examination? Answer: refers to any person undergoing polygraph examination. 12

Who are Polygraph Examiner/Polygraphist? Answer: one conducting the polygraph examination or test.

13

What is Polygraph Test/Examination? Answer: is the whole process of questioning or taking of one chart from a series of questions or all of the charts and questions sheet used in the test.

14

What is Polygraph Chart/ Polygram? Answer: refers to the recorded tracing of all the emotional patterns permanently on the charts or graphs from series of questions.

15

Why a person tells a lie? Answer: Every person tells a lie because of fears of detection.

16 What are the Characteristics? Answer: they are:

different

Subject’s

Age


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a 7 to 12 years - Fantastic subjects. b 13 to 19 years - Distinction of fantasy and reality; at this age level, the subject is at the age of imitation and idolatry; his/her ego may start to develop. c 20 to 25 years - His ego begins to lessen because he thinks that he is not important person. Subjects like him are idealistic and be principle. d 26 to 60 years – They serve as best witnesses. Intellect is fully developed and intelligence is well coordinated with memory. e 61 to death – Their memories are fading for their senses are defective. They are no longer good witnesses. 17

What are the types of emotion? Answer: they are: a Emotion as Conscious Experience b Emotion as Motive: - Facilitating behavior - Ex. Destruction, attack or fight, and assault or offend. - Interfering behavior Ex. Retreat fighting, surrenders, and hides or offends. c Emotion as Response - This concerns bodily reactions, usually a muscular or glandular process that depends upon stimulation. Said process may be either be external and internal ones. It is in this third type that the polygraph has to keep his eyes wide open to all information regarding emotional responses. The theory of polygraph is based primarily upon this third aspect.

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What are the different emotional responses? Answer: they are: ° External responses - These responses are very much observable even without the aid of any emotion-stress recording machine. Good examples of these responses as indicative of guilt or deceptions are those, which were enumerated on the Observable methods especially both facial and postural reactions.


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° Internal responses - Scientifically known as “visceral” response, these pertain to the responses of the internal of the systems and properties of the human body as applied in the study of lie-detection with the used or aid of polygraph, thus: 19

What are the different systems of human body? Answer: they are: ° The Nervous System - Controls the glands, muscular tissues, and the rest of the nerveconnecting organs to and from the brain. ° The Respiratory System - Takes care of the inhalation and exhalation process or the breathing cycles. ° The Circulatory System - Regulates heart actions, blood pressure, blood volume, and pulse rates. ° The Excretory System (Electrical Properties of the Skin) - Facilitates the changes in the electrical phenomena of the galvanic-skinreflex (GSR), its resistance, and the brain potentials.

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Who are behind the development of Cardiograph? Answer: they are: ° Angelo Mosso (1895) - Studied fear and its influence on the heart and his observations subsequently formed the basis for the technique; developed the Sphygmomanometer and the Scientific Cradle, which he used in studying fear and its influence on the heart. ° Cesar Lombroso (1895) - Employed the first scientific instrument to detect deceptionHydrosphygmograph that measured changes in pulse and blood pressure when suspects were questioned about their involvement in or knowledge of a specific response. ° William Marston (1915) - He dealt with the sphygmomanometer, which was used to obtain periodic discontinuous blood pressure readings during the course of an examination; He also experienced with and helped to develop the Pneumograph, which records


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breathing patterns, and the Galvanograph, which registers changes in skin resistance. ° John Larson (1921) - Developed polygraph, an instrument capable of continuously records blood pressure, pulse and respiration; The polygraph instrument that he developed was described as polygraphic apparatus in a portable form. ° Leonarde Keeler (1926) - Continued research and development of polygraph; In 1949, he invented the Keeler’s polygraph with components that simultaneously records changes in blood pressure, pulse and respiration, as well as the newly developed galvanic skin reflex; He devised the chart roll paper, a better method of questioning and the incorporated the kymograph. 21

Who are behind the development of Pneumograph? Answer: they are: ° Vittorio Benussi (1914) Successfully detected deception with a Pneumograph-an instrument that graphically measures an examinee’s inhalation and exhalation; He demonstrated that changes in breathing patterns accompany deception. ° Harold Burtt (1918) Determined that respiratory changes were indicative of deception; Found out that changes in systolic blood pressure were of greater value in determining deception than changes in respiration.

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Who are behind the development of Galvanograph? Answer: they are: ° Sticker (1897) - First to suggest the use of the Galvanograph for detecting deception based on the work of several predecessors; Theorized that the galvanic skin phenomena was influenced by exciting mental impressions and that they will have no effect upon it. ° Veraguth (1907) - First to used the term “psychogalvanic reflex”; Believed that the


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electrical phenomenon was due to the activity of the sweat glands. 23

Who is behind the development of Polygraph? Answer: Leonarde Keeler (1926)He devised the metal recording bellows; Devised the kymograph and the rolled chart paper; Incorporated the cardiograph and Pneumograph components that measure blood pressure and respiration respectively.

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What are the different Questioning Techniques? Answer: they are: ° Relevant-Irrelevant Test Developed by Larson and Keeler in 1942. ° Relevant-Irrelevant with Embarrassing personal question test - Developed by various examiners around 1946. ° Relevant-Irrelevant with Surprise control question - Developed by Inbau and Reid about 1948. ° Relevant-Irrelevant with Reviewed (known lie) and guilt complex question - Developed by Inbau and Reid about 1950-53. ° Backster Zone Comparison Test - Developed by Cleve Backster in 1960.

25 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant Test? Answer: (A) Guilt reacts only to relevant questions; (B) Innocent subject shows no reactions. 26 What are the Theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with Embarrassing personal question test? Answer: (A) To determine reactivity of subject; (B) To stimulate innocent subject. 27 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with Surprise control question? Answer: (A) To stimulate the innocent subject; (B) To provide contract for the guilty.


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28 What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with Reviewed (known lie) and guilt complex question? Answer: (A) To stimulate the innocent subject; (B) To identify the general nervous tension and guilt complex reactor; (C) To improve contract between innocent and guilty subject. 29 What are the theories of Backster Zone Comparison Test? Answer: (A) Based on the principle of psychological set; (B) Provide constant monitoring of subject reactivity; (B) Designed to disclose outside issues 30

What is the theory of polygraph examination? Answer: A conscious mentally effort on the part of normal person to deceive, causes involuntary physiological changes which are in effect a body’s reaction to an imminent danger to his well-being.

31

What are the CONCEPTS OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION? Answer: they are: ° Used to test an individual for the purpose of detecting deception or verify the truth of statement; ° Records identifiable physiological reactions of the subject, such as high blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance; and

32 The effectiveness of the polygraph in recording symptoms of deception is based on the theory. What are the OBJECTIVES OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION? Answer: they are:


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° Obtain additional investigative leads to the facts of the case/offenses; ° Ascertain if the person is telling the truth; ° Locate the fruits or the tools of the crime of the whereabouts of a wanted person; ° Identify other persons involved; ° Obtain valuable information from reluctant witnesses; and ° Eliminates innocent suspects. 33

What are the PRINCIPAL USES OF POLYGRAPH? Answer: they are: ° Aids in investigation; ° Speeds up processing of investigation; ° Eliminates innocent suspects; ° Pre-employment screening; and ° Honesty test.

34

What are the LIMITATIONS OF POLYGRAPH? Answer: they are: ° It is an invaluable investigative aid; but never a substitute for investigation. ° It is not a lie detector; it is a scientific diagnostic instrument. ° It does not determine facts; it records only responses of the subject. ° It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.

35 What is the ACCURACY AND RELIABILITY OF THE POLYGRAPH? Answer: The Us Justice Department funded experiments conducted by psychologists from 1975 to 1976 at the University of Utah showed the polygraph to be 90% accurate. Only 10% of the results were declared inconclusive. However, in more recent research, the confirmed average validity was shown to be 96%. Polygraphists produce very high rates of agreement (96% - 100%) based on numerical scoring. 36 What are the instances where the test be admitted in court?


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Answer: they are: ° There must be a court order ° There must be stipulation between the parties; ° When it is used to impeach or corroborate the testimony of a trial witness. ° The court further cited the, “significant process in the field of polygraph testing… administrator are better trained and have better equipment.” 37 What are the BASIC FACTORS THAT WILL CONTRIBUTE GREATLY TO THE SUCCESFUL USE OF THE POLYGRAPH? Answer: they are: ° Highly trained and experienced examiner; ° A reliable instrument; ° A well planned interrogation room; and ° Good teamwork by the investigator, examiner and their superiors. 38 What are the MORAL QUALITIES OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINER? Answer: they are: a He must be free from prejudice; b Sincere desire to be a good examiner; c Devote himself to the profession by maintaining a high personal integrity and by increasing his professional proficiency through constant study and research; d Constantly bear in mind his obligation to his subjects to afford them all possible safeguards against error; e Never accept any subject for examination if they are unfit to the test; f Always conduct the test in a professional and ethical manner; g He must be an impartial seeker of truth; and h Never let his personal feelings or sympathies, or the feelings or sympathies or prejudice of others influence the result of the test 39 What are the TECHNICAL POLYGRAPH EXAMINER?

QUALIFICATIONS

OF


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Answer: they are: ° Have a complete knowledge of the instrument and its capabilities and limitations; ° Complete knowledge of the most modern polygraph technique; ° Proficient in the conduct of the examination, such as test construction, chart marking, chart probing, chart interpretation, pre-test interview and interrogation 40 What are the RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE INVESTIGATOR TO THE SUBJECT? Answer: they are: ° Learn enough about the polygraph; ° Not to reveal the details of an offense, which may be utilized in the application of the, “Peak of Tension Test.” ° Assure the subject that if he is truthful, the test is a means to indicate his innocence; ° Stress the polygraph capability to record responses accurately; ° Assure the subject that the examiner is qualified and impartial to all subject; and ° Avoid any claim for the instrument or examiner that is not being supported by facts. 41 What are the RESPONSIBILITIES OF A POLYGRAPH EXAMINER TO HIS SUBJECT? Answer: they are: ° Recognized the fact that his primary responsibility must be to the person who voluntarily submitted himself to a polygraph test ° He should never conduct a polygraph test without first advising the subject of his constitutional rights against selfincrimination; ° He should never conduct an examination unless the instrument is in good working condition;


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° He should not render a conclusive verbal opinion unless there are at least two or more test charts; and ° He must be thoroughly familiar with the techniques and procedures in polygraph test. 42 What are the CONDITIONS THAT WOULD INVALIDATE A POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION? Answer: they are: a Extreme nervousness or emotional tension; ° The possible effects of a truthful person’s extreme emotional tension or nervousness must be given serious consideration in making a polygraph diagnosis. ° The psychological changes and disturbances induced by nervousness usually appear on the polygraph record without relationship to particular question or questions. b Physiological abnormalities; ° Excessive high or low blood pressure; ° Heart disease or disorders; ° Respiratory disorder, (even common olds); and ° Toothache, severe headache or practically any painful ailment. c Mental abnormalities; ° Pronounced neurosis, psychosis, abnormally low intelligence or retardation; ° State of self-hypnosis or temporary amnesia; and ° Pathological liars. d Unresponsiveness. ° Lack of emotional response hampers accurate testing; ° Extreme fatigue or mental exhaustion; ° Under the influence of alcohol or drugs; and


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° Unnecessary bodily movement can lead to misleading BP readings/tracings. 43

44

What are the PRINCIPLES OF POLYGRAPH? Answer: they are: ° The polygraph is based on theory that when telling a lie, subject will respond physiologically because of Fear of Detection; ° In endeavoring to conceal the truth, one might feel a thudding increase of the heart beat, the rush of blood to the face, an uncomfortable impulse to swallow, or other symptoms resulting from Fear over possibility that the lie be detected; and ° These physiological changes…breathing, blood pressure, pulse rate and the galvanic skin reflex, are phenomena with which the polygraph examiner concerns him.

What are the ESSENTIAL PARTS OF POLYGRAPH? Answer: The polygraph has two, three, four, or more recording channels according to their importance in lie-detection. In an ordinary polygraph (consisting of three-recording channels) various accessories are placed on some chosen parts of the body of the subject. These attachments are set as receivers to the changes in the body and conduct those changes electrically, electronically and pneumatically to the instrument, which are finally recorded on charts and graphs. These receivers are: ° Pneumograph - The first receiver is the Pneumograph tube (a rubberized corrugated tube) which is attached to the subject’s chest or stomach. These attachments are part of the polygraph that detects the air volume changes of the chest through the breathing cycles. ° Cardiograph and/or Cardio-Sphygmograph - The second receiver is a blood pressure cuff wrapped around subject’s upper arm or wrist, and inflated to a suitable air pressure. Changes in blood pressure and pulse rate are detected. ° Galvanograph and/or Galvo-graph (GSR) - The third receiver is a set of electrodes attached either


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between the palmer and dorsal surfaces of the subject’s hands or on the adjacent or relative fingers of the same hand of the subject Operating electrically and electronically, physiological changes are measured through an electrode placed on the inactive portion (a’-method) and/or through the flow of current between two electrodes (b’-method). ° Kymograph (Chart-drive) - Another essential part of the polygraph, although not a direct receiver of internal responses. The kymograph is the chart drive or paper-fed mechanism which is powered by a synchronous electric motor or dynamo. 45 What are the DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUE in The Pre-Test Interview and Preparation of Test Questions Answer: the are: a No test should be ever conducted without a pretest interview, during which the subject is conditioned for the test, and the questions to be asked have been carefully formulated by the examiner. b The pretest interview also involves the casual asking of a series of questions which are designed to elicit verbal and nonverbal responses that will give the examiner an indication of the subject’s truthful or deceptive status without unnecessarily releasing his tension or engaging in any accusatory interrogation. c The examiner should not be withhold any information from the subject about the instrument, its attachments, or recordings. This will serve to increase a lying subject’s concern over possible detection, which is the most important requirement for an effective examination. d During the pretest interview, the subject is appraised of his constitutional right to remain silent and have competent and independent counsel preferably of his own choice, and that he must give his written consent to show proof that he is willing voluntarily to undergo the test. The taking of his personal data and explanation of the test procedure follow this.


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e The pretest interview is very essential because through it, extraneous fear, apprehension, nervousness or distaste of the idea of the test is overcome. It places the subject in a cooperative and objective point of view to willingly approach the test, and at the same time afford the examiner to make an observation and evaluation of the subject to form the basis for the type of test technique best applicable. The success of the polygraph test greatly depends on the rapport existing between the examiner and his subject. f During this period, attachment of the polygraph accessories is made with a brief explanation of the function of each. This is followed by a review of the details of the case and the subsequent development and introduction of the questions to be asked. 46 a b c

d e

What are the Purposes of Interview? Answer: they are: To condition the subject psychologically for the test. To determine whether or not the subject is fit to take the test. To afford the examiner to make an observation and evaluation of the subject in order to be able to determine the type of test technique best applicable on the case. For the examiner to be able to establish rapport with the subject. For the examiner to determine whether the subject voluntarily submits himself to the test.

47 What is the great importance to polygraph examination? Answer: great importance to polygraph examination is the formulation of test questions. The formulation of test questions carries from case to case. The information supplying these questions emanates from the investigators handling the case from the statements of the witnesses or the subject himself, the official and professional records, interviews and other resources or agencies.


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48 What are the General Rules in Question Formulation? Answer: Following are the General Rules in Question Formulation: a Questions must be simple and direct. b They must not involve legal terminologies; ex. Rape, assault, murder, etc. c They must be answerable by “yes or no” and should be as short as possible. d Their meaning must be clear and unmistakable and phrased in a language the subject easily understands. e They must not be in the form of accusation. f They must never contain an influence, which presupposes knowledge on the part of the subject. g All questions must refer to only one offense. h All questions must refer to only one element of an offense. i They must not contain inference to one’s religion, race or belief. 49

What are the DIFFERENT TYPES OF TEST QUESTIONS? Answer: In every criminal investigation, there is prescribed standard operational questioning of subjects in any given case. In order to acquire knowledge of the case, full appreciation and/or study various types of questions is a must for every investigator or examiner. Hence, in polygraph, the following are different types of question used for test construction. a Relevant Question (Critical) - These are the primary or key questions asked by the examiner in order to resolve a specific subject matter. It is further classified according to its stimulation effect when applied, namely: b Strong Relevant or Primary Relevant Questions – are relevant questions, which have intense and specific relationship to the crime or problem, being considered. These are intended to produce strong emotional response in guilty subjects. Ex. Did you steal Joan’s wristwatch? Did you steal anything from Joan’s house? c Weak Relevant Question – are questions that concern some secondary elements of the crime and


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deal mostly on guilty knowledge and partial involvement. Ex. Do you know where the missing wristwatch of Joan now? Further, the weak relevant is classified into the following: ° Sacrifice Relevant or DYAT Questions (Do You intend to Answer Truthfully) – are designed to absorb the response generally generated by the introduction of the first relevant questions in the series. Reaction to these questions gives the examiner a clue as to subject’s attitude of willingness or voluntaries to submit to the test. Ex. Regarding the stolen wristwatch, do you intend answer truthfully each question about that? ° Knowledge Question – This type of question is propounded to the subject to prove whether he possesses the information leading to the identification of the offender or the location of the evidence. Ex. Do you know for sure who stole the wristwatch of Joan? ° Evidence-Connecting Questions – This has to do with inviting subject’s attention on the probability of incriminating proof that would tend to establish his guilt by linking him and his predicaments to the fingerprints, footprints, tool marks, etc. collected at the crime scene. Ex. Were the footprints outside the house of Joan yours? d Irrelevant Question (Neutral) - After the subject has been interviewed, it is the primary duty of the examiner to prepare and arrange several types of questions to be asked during what kind of question test of no importance to the case under investigation, but of great significance to controlling fatigue, nervousness and discomfort of the subject. Irrelevant or neutral questions must precede the relevant ones. Some of them may form like this: Ex. ° Did you eat today ° Do you Smoke? ° Are you wearing brown shoes now? ° Is the cigarette you smoke a Marlboro brand?


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° Do you live at General Santos? e Control Question (Probable Lie) - This is a question based on a known lie made by the subject about denying having done something which verified or known to be true. Control questions have two kinds, namely: ° Preliminary Control Question – recalls the offense done from the time of childhood up to three to five years before the occurrence of the present offense being investigated. Ex. Before reaching the age of 25, have you ever stolen anything? ° Secondary Control Question – more specific in nature and based upon another species or wrongdoing that will enhance the subject’s opportunity for responsiveness. Its scope includes up to the present period of examination. Ex. Have you ever stolen anything from the locality? f Guilt Complex Question - This refers to questions which safeguard against mistaking relevant question response of the guilt complex reactor as deception responses and is based on a fictitious crime situation closely parallel and equal in weight to the actual crime under investigation, so that the guilty can be sure he did not commit it. Ex. Did you steal the gold coin collection? Remember that the stealing of a gold coin collection was not actually committed because the alleged crime investigated was the lost of the precious wristwatch of Joan. g Symptomatic Question - Its function is to detect and evaluate the presence of outside issues which may suppress responses to relevant questions. This is often true that the subject fear they might be asked about another case in which they are involved, but are not the subject-matter under investigation. Ex. Are you completely convinced that I will not ask any question on this test that has not already been reviewed?


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h S K Y Question (S- Suspect, K- Knowledge and Y-“you”) as the subject. These three questions grouped together by Backster to confirm the previous charts and may detect indirect involvement on guilt knowledge. Ex. (S) Do you suspect anyone in particular of stealing Joan’s wristwatch?(K) Do you know for sure who stole Joan’s wristwatch? (Y) Did you steal Joan’s wristwatch? 50

What are the COLOR ZONE Answer: they are: a Red Zone – Strong Relevant b Green Zone – Probable Lie (Control) c Black Zone – Symptomatic (Outside Issue) d Yellow Zone – Irrelevant and Sacrifice Relevant e Yellow or Red Zone – Weak Relevant

PART III FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY 1 What is Photography? Answer: an art, and certainly is a science of producing an image by the action of light on light – sensitive substances (silver halides) and by the application of several chemicals and physical laws. 2 What is vital to photography? Answer: Light, for it is the physical means used to produce the image. without light, there will be no image. 3 What are the CLASSIFICATIONS OF LIGHT? Answer: Light, as a form of radiant energy, is classified according to wavelength and frequency.


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4 What is WAVELENGTH? Answer: Wavelength is the distance between any two such identical points in a given instant of time. Since the electromagnetic spectrum is arranged according to wavelength, there must be measurement of this length. The length of light waves is measured from a point on one crest to an identical point on the next crest. 5 What is FREQUENCY? Answer: The frequency of light is the number of complete waves that would pass a given point in a second time. The longer the wavelength, the fewer the number of waves that will pass a point in a second or the longer the wavelength the less the frequency; the shorter the wavelength the greater the frequency. 6 What is the COMPOSITION OF WHITE LIGHT? Answer: White light is composed of all visible light wavelengths in the visible spectrum. Sunlight is white and is an ideal or equal blending of all the wavelengths of the visible spectrum. If any of these wavelength are missing, even in part, we have another color instead of white light. 7 What is OPTICS? Answer: Optics is a branch of science concerned with the behavior of light. 8 What are the basic characteristics of light behavior which we used to see and to produce photographic image? Answer: they are: ° REFLECTION. Any object that is non-luminous, that does not itself emit light, can be seen only by reflected light that has originated at a luminous source. All objects reflect some light and absorb some. Glass mirrors, polished metals, white papers, all reflect most of the light and absorb some. Black objects absorb most of the light and reflect very little. Light that are either absorbed or transmitted, that is, when light passes


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through a medium such as glass or any transparent substance. ° ABSORPTION. Light will normally be absorbed to some degree no matter what type of surfaces is encountered. The color of the object is largely a matter of absorption and reflection. When white light falls on an object that absorbs some of the wavelengths and reflects and transmitted others, the object appears to have color. The wavelength that is reflected or transmitted determines the color of the object. For example, a red object appears red because it reflects or transmit only the red wavelengths. The others which is green and blue, are absorbed by the object. ° REFRACTION. When light strikes the surface of opaque objects some is absorbed and some is reflected. But when it strikes an object which is transparent, such as glass, a little light is absorbed. These penetrating rays, however, have quite probably undergone some changes; they have been bent. The bending or deflection is what is termed as refraction. 9 What is the LAW OF REFRACTION? Answer: “If a light rays hit perpendicular to the surface between two mediums of different density, the ray is not bent. If the light strikes the surface at an angle, the ray will be bent. The direction in which the light is bent is dependent upon the density of its mediums the light is traveling to”. 10

What is INDEX OF REFRACTION? Answer: Light travels at varying speeds. The speed of light in air or vacuum is approximately 186,000 miles per second while in some glass is approximately 124,000 miles per second. Using the two figures, the refractive index of the glass would be 1.5 (124,000 divided into 186,000). The refractive index of water is about 1.3. the refractive index is never less than 1 and rarely more than 2. The higher the index number, the greater the light – bending power of the


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substance. A practical use of this knowledge is in the determination of the angle of refraction of lenses made for various types of glass and use for varying purposes. 11

What is CAMERA LENSE or OPTICS? Answer: A camera optic or lens, is a spherical and symmetrical piece of polished glass. The purpose of which is to gather, refracts and project light ray on the rear wall of the camera and to produce a clear, sharp image.

12 What is the effect If a film is placed in front of the wall opposite the pinhole? Answer; the negative image that appears after the film if develop will not be very sharp, but it will be quite recognizable as an image of the subject at which the pinhole was aimed. It will not be sharp because the pinhole actually lets in more than one ray of light from each point on the subject and these rays do not strike at exactly the same point on the film. If the pinhole sized is decreased to reduced image blur, it requires also a long exposure time ( which is already long). In addition a very tiny pinhole tends to scatter the light rays and thus image blur actually increases. 13

How to accomplish a brighter and sharper image? Answer: Both can be accomplished by reflecting or refracting the light so that it can collect great bundles of light rays from a single point and redirect them all to meet again at another point – on the film.

14 What part of a camera usually has a function of reflecting or refracting the light so that it can collect great bundles of light rays from a single point and redirect them all to meet again at another point – on the film? Answer: the camera lens. 15 What is the effect if the distance between lens and subject is shortened?


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Answer; if the distance between lens and subject is shortened, the distance between lens and film is extended. This of course, the adjustment being made when focusing the camera; the lens is moved away from the film for close subjects and moved towards the film for distant subject. 16

What are the TYPES OF SINGLE SIMPLE LENS? Answer: Simple lenses are classified according to the way in which they bend the rays of light falling upon them. They are divided into two groups: ° Positive lens/ Convergent lens. Basically these lenses are thicker at the center than at the edges. Tehse lenses from real images because light rays passing through them converged, that is, the rays leaving the lens are bent inward and toward one another and so eventually meet (focus). Lens in this class are also termed convex, convergent, or collective. The most common positive lens is the double convex which will cause light rays from either side of the lens surface, to converge. All these lenses have at least one convex surface, that is, a surface that curved outward. ° Negative lens. These lenses are thicker at the ends than at the center and have at least one concave surface. These lens called concave divergent, or dispersive. Light rays that passed through them are spread apart, negative lenses are not used alone but they from part of a compound lens to correct for errors or distortion.

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What is meant by Focal Plane of a lens? Answer: The focal plane of a lens is the plane where the lens projected image which is clear and sharp. This plane is sometimes called the film plane, as the film is located at this point to capture the image.

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What is meant by Focal Length of a lens? Answer: Focal lengths can be defined as the distance from the lens to the point at which


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light rays that entered the lens on parallel paths will be brought to focus. If the camera lens is focused at infinity which in practical terms means focused on a subject a great distance away (200 feet or more), the light rays reflected by that subject will be traveling on parallel paths, for all practical purposes, when they reach the lens. So the definition of focal length is often given as the distance between the lens and the film when the lens is focused at infinity. The photographer seldom or need no measure the focal length of a lens for this characteristic is almost always marked on the front of the lens mount, in millimeters or in inches. 19

What is the importance of Focal Length of a lens? Answer: The focal length of a lens controls the image brightness, speed of the lens, and the image size at the focal plane. It is a fixed value of the lens and cannot be varied by the photographer. Also, it is inherent factor of the lens which is controlled by the thickness of the lens and the curvatures of its surfaces.

20 What is the best tool for learning to use of lenses? Answer: A 35 – mm single lens reflex camera is the best tool for learning to use of lenses of varying focal lengths because you can actually see what the lens is putting in your picture frame. The picture can be studied in the finder, observe the relative sizes of images within the picture’s depth. 21

What is Lens Speed? Answer: it is the largest opening of the diaphragm (aperture) at which a lens can be used. “Speed” here refers to intensity of the light reaching the film, and not to any movement. Thus an f/2 lens is faster than f/4 because an f/2 has a wider aperture and will admit more light at a given time.

22

What are “fast” lenses?


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Answer: Lenses having a large aperture are called “fast” lenses because their large aperture makes it possible to take photographic at a very short exposure interval or under very dim light conditions. The closer this widest aperture comes to 1, or to being equal in diameter to the focal length of the lens, the faster the lens. 23

What is the practical application of a fast lens? Answer: the practical application of a fast lens is when the light level of a scene is very low, such as in a night club scene. In short, the faster the lens, the lesser the amount of light needed to reproduced an image

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What is camera shutter? Answer; A mechanical device used to control the duration of the time interval during which light will travel to act on the film. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of time light is allowed to pass through the lens.

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What is Focal Plane Shutter? Answer: Focal Plane Shutter is also known as curtain shutter consist of a lightproof rubberized cloth curtain having rectangular openings or slits usually arranged to move horizontally/ or vertically in some cameras. It house entirely within the camera body and is mounted in two rollers. When an exposure is made, the leading curtain moves, say to the right, uncovering the film so that light can act upon it. At the end of the exposure interval, curtain moves to the right to cover the film surface once again.

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What is the advantage of Focal Plane Shutter? Answer: The advantage of this type of shutter is to allow the lens interchangeability and it has a high shutter speed up to 1/1000 of a second.

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What is the disadvantage of Focal Plane Shutter? Answer: where critical measurements in motion are required, this shutter is undesirable because


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of image distortion. At the instant, the fast moving subject may appear elongated or shortened than it actually is, depending on the direction of motion. 28

What is Shutter Speed Answer: Shutter speed refers to the time that the shutter is opened, following light to reach the film. The interval during which it is desired for the shutter to remain open is selected by rotating the shutter speed dial and setting it on the desired scale.

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What is usually the shutter-speed scale marking? Answer: The camera’s shutter-speed scale markings are usually T, or D, 1, 2, 8, 15, 30, 60, 125, 250, 500, 1000, and / or even 2000. The first number in this series stands for 1 full second, but all other number are fractions of a second, 2 is for ½ second, 4 is ¼ second and so forth. The scale may vary from this example, depending upon the camera but each shutter setting gives one half of the time of the preceding number and twice of the succeeding one. All these numbers are abbreviated expressions for fractions of a second and denote shutter speed.

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What is the “B” setting stands for? Answer: the “B” setting stands for “bulb” – a word that goes far back into camera history. Used for exposure longer than one second. Pressure on the shutter release button will open the shutter and will remain opened as long as pressure is maintained. But once pressure is released, the shutter closes again.

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What is the “T” setting stands for? Answer: the “T” setting stands for “time “time” like the “bulb” setting the “T” setting is also used for time exposure of more than one second . It differs from the bulb setting only in that the shutter release button does not have to have held down to make an exposure. Pressure on the button causes the shutter open. It will remain open


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until the shutter releases button is pressed a second time to close it. 32

How to Photograph a Moving Object? Answer: When an object is in motion during exposure, its image on the film also moves, even though the duration of exposure (shutter speed) is 1/1000 of a second, the images moves a small fraction of an inch during this time. The problem for the photographer, then, is to determine just how much image movement can be tolerated before it becomes objectionable and regulate the shutter speed accordingly. As a general rule, the permissible image movement (circle of confusion) is 1/1000 of an inch if they are to be enlarged.

33 What are the four factors which determine the distance of an image moves on the film during exposure? Answer: The four factors which determine the distance of an image moves on the film during exposure are: a The object distance (from lens to object) b The image distance (from lens to film) c The speed of the object (perpendicular to lens axis) d The interval of the exposure ° The first three factors determine the speed at which the image moves across the film and the fourth simply limits the times it is allowed to move, thereby limiting the distance of image movement. 34

What is the use of LIGHT METER OR EXPOSURE METER? Answer: These meters measures the incident light falling upon or the light reflected from a photographic subject, and provide means of converting this information into useable shutter speed and stop. However, this aid is mainly used as a guide, the final interpretation of lighting and camera factors, and picture requirement for best exposure is the decision of the photographer.


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35 How to know the EXPOSURE without the built-in LIGHT METER of a camera? Answer: cameras which do not have built-in light meters, exposure is determined by following the manufacturer’s suggested general guidelines supplied with the film, and then ISO (formerly ASA/ DIN) scale on the camera film speed dial series simply as a reminder. Exposure can be done by using the speed number of the film as the initial shutter speed on the camera; 1/100 of the second shutter speed for ASA/ 100 film; 1/400 for a second for ASA/400 film, and so forth. Set the film as close as can be on the shutter speed dial, 1/125 for ASA/100; 1/500 for ASA/400 and so forth. Then set the f/number according to the class of lighting condition common throughout photographic literature, and, in most cases, are used in the film as an aid in determining exposure. The information sheet is only a guide; it does not guarantee perfect exposure. Variables not adequately considered are: time of the day, time of the year, geographical location, direction of the light, and type of the subject. 36 What are the different TYPES OF DAYLIGHT ILLUMINATIONS? Answer: ° Bright Sun. The sky is clear, bright, and free of large cloud masses or atmospheric haze. Any shadows cast by the sun are sharply defined. An ideal photographic condition. ° Hazy Sun. The sun is partially obscured by clouds or haze, the edges of shadows are slightly diffused or set and are less clearly defined than those in bright sun. ° Cloudy Bright. The sun is largely obscured by clouds or haze. The sun is in evidence, but the shadow are not apparent. This daylight condition exists when the light is bright even glaring and it seems there should be shadows but there are few, if any. ° Cloudy Dull. The sun is completely obscured by heavy layers of clouds or dense haze. Light is completely diffused and it is


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difficult to determine the exact position of the sun. 37 What are the different TYPES OF SUBJECT BRIGHTNESS? Answer: ° Dark Subject. Dark subjects reflects only about 9 percent of the light striking it and absorbs the remainder. Included in this category are vehicles and weapons, people in dark-toned clothing etc. ° Average Subject. Is one that reflects approximately 18 percent of the light striking it and absorbs the remainder. Examples are people in medium-colored clothing, most buildings, street scenes, and interior views. ° Bright Subject. Reflects twice as much as an average subject. Typical subjects in this category are a fair-skinned and lighthaired person, people in light clothing, and light-colored buildings. ° Brilliant Subject. A brilliant subject reflects about four times as much light as an average subject and absorbs very little light, some of this subject are people in light – colored clothing on a white and sandy beach, a white sailboat against a blue sky and white buildings of a desert village. 38 What are the different REFLECTIVE POWER OF COLORS? Answer: The following list are the approximate percentage of light that is reflected by some colors, white (75%), chrome yellow (62%), cardinal red (27%), pearl gray (75%), cream (62%), brown (27%), satin green (75%), sky blue (62%), maroon (27%). 39

What is meant by “FOCUS “in a CAMERA LENS FOCUS? Answer: focus a lens means to concentrate light rays on one particular surface, which, in a camera, is the surface of the film.


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What is focal point? Answer: focal point is the point where one’s visual attention becomes focused, and the point on the film’s surface where the entire light ray concentrate or intersects is known as the point of principal focus.

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What is FOCUSING RING? Answer: The focusing ring is large knurled ring around the barrel of the lens that operates on a type of screw-thread mechanism. When turned, the lens will either moves away or toward the camera body, depending upon the direction of rotation. The closer an object is to the camera, the more the ring have to be turned in one direction to increase the lens on objects at increasingly greater distances;

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What is meant by “Focusing”? Answer: focusing means adjusting or changing the distance between the focal plane and the lens center. To focus; hold the camera to your eye in level with the viewfinder. Turn the focusing ring clockwise or counter-clockwise until a sharp image of the subject appears in the center of the viewfinder.

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What is the importance of filter in photography? Answer: Filters are important tools in photography because they significant increase the photographer’s ability to control the image. Filters can penetrate haze as though if it were not there. Can also put contrast into black and white reproduction of two different colors of equal brightness, or can make two different colors merge as a single brightness value in the print.

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What are the Functions and Uses of filter? Answer: Filters can be used in two ways in photography: ° to modify the light falling on the subject (a filter over the light source) or,


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° to modify the light passing through the lens before it reaches the film (a filter in front of the lens). 45 What is the effect if a colored glass filter is placed in a beam of white light? Answer: When a colored glass filter is placed in a beam of white light, the color composition of the light is altered. According to its color, a filter will absorb some wavelengths and transmit others. 46 What is the effect if filter is placed over a lens? Answer: When a filter is placed over a lens it does two things: a It lighten its own color, and b darkens its complementary colors. ° Because a filter selectively absorbs certain colors, it appears colored. A red filter appears red because it absorbs blue and green and transmit red. A blue filter absorbs red and green, and a green filter absorbs blue and red. A filter which absorbs only blue appears yellow because it transmits red and green. 47

What are the different kinds of Filter? Answer: they are: ° Correction Filters. Are used to equalized the color sensitiveness of film emulsions into make nearly coincide with that of the eyes. The film emulsions is more sensitive to blue. To renders color in their relative brightness, as seen by human eye, a filter is used to change the sensitivity of the film, making it more responsive to yellow and greens. Usually correction filters are yellow. ° Contrast Filters. Although two colors may be different, if their brightness value is the same they will reproduce as almost the same shade of the gray in the print. To crate the needed contrast, a filter is used. The filter


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selected should transmit one of the colors and absorb the other more or less completely, thus, contrast between green and red can be affected by using a green or red filter. The green filter makes green lighter than the red, whereas the red filter eliminate green entirely and yields a print that represents green as black and the red as white. 48

What is the Special Purpose Filters? Answer: in Neutral Density, filter used to reduced the amount of light transmitted t o the film without selective filtering of any particular wavelength. In Ultraviolet or skylight, use to filter out unwanted blue, which often appears in pictures of subjects in open shade, rainy or overcast days, in distant scenic views, etc.

49 What are the basic structures of a black and white film? Answer: the basic structures of a black and white film are the following: ° Top Coating, is an overcoming of a thin layer of hard gelatin which helps protect the silver halide emultion from scratches and abrasions. ° Emultion Layer, composed of silver compounds which are light sensitive, but for photographic purposes, halogens such as bromide; chloride; and iodine (used in small amounts, seldom more than 5% with silver bromide in fast film emulsion) is added to silver halides, ° Antihalation Backing, a black dye applied on the rear surface of the film, its function is to absorb light that may penetrate the emulsion layer thus preventing it to reflect back to the emulsion. The dye removed during the processing by one of the chemical in the developer. Its second function is to control the film curling towards the emulsion layer.


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What are the basic structures of COLOR FILM? Answer: Basically, the structure of color film is almost the same as black and white film, except that the emulsion layer consists of three layers, stacked one on top of the other. A. top Layer is sensitive to blue light only; green and red light passes through it without exposing the color blind halides B. yellow Filter known as carey-lea silver suspended in gelatin is coated between the top and second layer to absorb any penetrating blue light but freely passes green light and red light. C. middle Layer is orthochromatic, sensitive to blue (which can not reach it) and red. It is also somewhat sensitive to green light, but to such a degree that it is not important.

51 What are the different types of FILM ACCORDING TO COLOR SENSITIVITY? Answer: All types of the photographic emultion are sensitive to the color of blue violet, and ultraviolet. The film’s sensivity to other colors is obtained by adding dyes to the emulsion during manufacture. ° nonchromatic, sensitive to ultraviolet and blue-violet colors only. This film may be used when natural redentition is not important. For example, is used to copy black and white originals and to photograph colorless subjects when extreme contrast is needed. ° orthochromatic, sensitive to blues and greens, but not to reds. Reds are recorded as dark tones, while greens and blues as light tones when printed. ° Panchromatic, sensitive to all colors, and are further subdivided according to their degree of sensitivity to each color. This film is commonly used in investigative photography because it produces the most natural recording of colors.


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° Infrared, sensitive to blues and infrared radiations, which is beyond the human eye’s sensitivity. It is useful in penetration haze because of its longer wavelength. In investigate photography, it is useful in the laboratory analysis of questionable documents; in the discovery of old or faded tattoos or areas where small objects are hidden under the skin, and in the construction of camera traps. 52

What is Film speed? Answer: Is the sensitivity of the film emulsion to light, which is measured and express in a numerical rating called ISO formerly known as ASA/ DIN. This means that higher the ISO number, the more sensitive the film is to light, and that pictures can be taken indoors under dim light conditions. One film may be rated ISO -100, and another film ISO-200. This means that the 200 film is twice as fast (twice more sensitive to light) than the 100 film. Hence, would only require half the amount of light to produce a satisfactory negative. Each time the film speed is doubled, it is equal to one f/ stop in exposure. For instance, in the example given, if ISO-100 is exposed at f/8, then ISO-200 would be exposed at f/11 to produce the same negative quality.

53 What are the uses of film under varying condition? Answer: Any film above ISO-100 can be considered high speed and anything less is usually slow speed and Tine-green. The suggested uses of the following film under varying condition are: ° ISO-25 or lowest the condition will permit, for best color and sharpness. ° ISO-100 or 200, for general purpose. ° ISO-400, for dim light or with moving object. ° ISO-1000, and up, for extremely low-light conditions.


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54 What are the different steps in the development of negative through chemical process? Answer: the development of a negative through chemical process entails different steps in the following order: ° Predevelopment water rinse (optional), ° actual development, ° rinse bath, ° fixing bath, ° washing, and ° drying. 55 In negative development, what are the factors which must be pointed out? Answer: they are ° Cleanliness is a must when working with chemicals. Work areas must be free of extraneous objects. If this is not done the negative may be worthless before it ever gets into developing solution. ° Chemical for negative development or printing are set up from left to right to avoid mistake in processing. When using these chemicals do not go back to the previous solution in the chain. This will destroy the negative and will definitely affect the chemical themselves. ° When diluting concentrated acids, always add the acid to the water slowly, stirring constantly. Never adds the water to the acids because the acid may spatter on the face and hands causing serious burns. 56

How to obtain visible image? Answer: To obtain a visible image, the exposed emulsion is treated in a solution known a developer. This solution converts the light affected halides to metallic silver which forms the visible image.

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What are the ingredients of developers? Answer: Most all modern developer contains the following ingredients;


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° Development agent/reducer, the basic and most important ingredient in the developing solution is the reducer, Metol-hyroquinon is the most versatile and popular of all developers. Although amidol, glycin , paraphenylene diamine, and pyro are also use. ° Accelerator, Borax, sodium carbonate, sodium hydroxide are some of the alkalis used to increased the rate of oxidation of the reducing agent, softens the gelatin o the film emulsion, and speeds up solution penetration. However a solution containing only a reducer and an accelerator will oxidize quickly and act to rapidly. ° Restrainer, the chemical most commonly used as a restrainer is potassium bromide. Without the restrainer, most developing solution act too fast and develop unexposed silver halides near the surface of the emulsion which causes fog, steaks, and image lacking in contrast. ° Preservative, all organic developing agents in an alkaline state have a strong chemical attraction to oxygen, so preservative such as sodium sulfite or sodium bisulfite is added to prevent excessive oxidation thus prolonging the useful life of the developing solution and prevents the formation of colored oxidation products which caused stains. 58

What are Basic layers of printing paper? Answer: they are: ° Base. Made of paper which must be chemically pure to insure that it will not interfere with the chemical processes to which the emulsion is subjected. Available either in single or double weight paper. ° Baryta Layer. A gelatin layer containing baryta crystal to increase the reflectivity of the paper. ° Emulsion Layer. Contain minute silver halides suspended with gelatin which needs only to reproduce the total range of a negative.


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59 What are the Types of Photographic Printing Paper? Answer: they are: ° Chloride Papers. Have a slow speed emulsion containing silver chloride, are fine grain and produce deep blanks, used for contact printing. ° Bromide Papers. Have a faster emulsion speed than chloride paper, achieve sensitivity through the use of bromide halides. Because of the relatively high sensitivity to light, these emulsion are particularly suitable for projecting printing. ° Chlorobromide Papers. Contain both silver chloride and silver bromide halides. Emulsion Speed lies between that of chlorine and bromide papers, used both for contact and projection printing. ° Variable Contrast Paper. Combines the contrast range in one paper, this versatility is achieved with a special chlorobromide emulsion that produces varying contrast responses upon exposure to different colored light. 60

What is PRINTING? Answer: Printing is the process whereby light is transmitted through the negative to produce a like positive image.

DEFINITION OF TERMS 61

What is Abrasions? Answer: Abrasions are fined lines or streaks that occur then a sharp or rough object rubs against the emulsion surface before development, are also caused by grit ot rough spots in the camera.

62

What is Acutance? Answer: The degree to which an emulsion can record a sharp division between image area details of different contrast.


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63

What is Air Bells? Answer: Air bells are smell air bubbles that adhere to the film surface and prevent the processing solution from acting on the film, producing small clear spots on film.

64

What is Contrast? Answer: The difference between the bright and dark areas in photograph of the densities of various areas in the negative.

65

What is Emulsion? Answer: A light sensitive salt (silver halides), which is thinly spread permanent support such as

layer of finely divided suspended in gelatin, on the surface of a acetate.

66

What is Fogging? Answer: Is the reduction of unexposed silver halides, which results from faulty development or average film and causes a general lowering of contrast by veiling the shadow areas.

67

What is Highlights? Answer: Refers to the dense portion of a negative, which is caused by bright area in the subject that reflects a great amount of light, causing a corresponding heavy density in the negative.

68

What is Halftones? Answer: The subject brightness between lightest and darkest area recorded on negative corresponding densities.

69

What is Latent Image? Answer: The invisible image formed in an emulsion by exposure to light.

70

What is Latitude? Answer: The ability of an emulsion to record subject brightness difference in density. An emulsion capable of reproducing all brightness values from dark to very bright has wide latitude

the the


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and conversely an emulsion which will reproduce only a narrow or short range of brightness value has poor latitude. 71

What is Negative Density? Answer: Negative density is defined as the degree of blackening of a silver deposit in a film emulsion in relation to the light incident upon it, or the amount of metallic silver deposited in the negative emulsion.Density is used to describe the light transmitting qualities of the negative and is controlled by the thickness of the silver deposit. Therefore, the amount of metallic silver in any area of the negative is known as density. The density of any negative is a dense negative and a light negative is called a thin negative.

72

What is Reticulation? Answer: Reticulation of the emulsion is a network of lines having a grainy, leather-like appearance. This action occurs when film is subjected to sudden temperature changes in transferring from one solution to another.

73

What is Resolving Power? Answer: Resolving power refers to the ability of an emulsion to record fine subject detail distinguishably.

74

What is Silver Halides? Answer: Are metallic silver compound that darkens on exposure to light.

75

What is Safelights? Answer: Essentially, safelights are filters, the functions is to transmit the maximum amount of light which may be properly used for visibility without damage to the sensitized material.


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PART IV FIREARMS IDENTIFICATION (BALLISTICS) 1 What is BALLISTICS? Answer: is a science in itself because it evolved from systematic knowledge, research and development, training, experience and education of those who pioneered in this field. Technically speaking, it refers to the “science of firearms identification which involves the scientific examination of ballistics exhibits such as: a fires bullets; b fired shells; c firearms; and d allied matters, used in crime. LEGAL DEFINITION: It is the microscopic examination of fired cartridge cases and bullets together with the recording and presentation by means of photograph of what is revealed by the microscope. 2 What is INTERIOR BALLISTICS? Answer: is the study of motion of projectiles with the gun barrel. From the release of the firing pin to the moment the sound of the shot can be heard as it leaves the muzzle occupied only 0.01 seconds, in a modern rifle. 3 What are the critical elements involved in the study of interior ballistics? Answer: they are the relationship of the weight of charge to the weight if projectile, the length of bore; the optimum size, shape, and density of the propellant grains for different guns, and the related problems if maximum and minimum muzzle pressures. 4 What is Hang fire?


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Answer: hang fire refers to the failure of a cartridge to explode on time or delayed in firing. 5 What is Loading Density? Answer: refers to the ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the powder chamber (case). 6 What is Misfire? Answer: refers to the failure of the cartridge to discharge. This is different from hang fire which merely a delayed combustion, while misfire a complete failure eve to start combustion. 7 What is PSI? Answer: PSI means “pounds per square inch”. It is often seen designated as PSIA. This designation is now used to signify a measurement of chamber pressure taken with a piezo-electric device. 8 What is Recoil? Answer: refers to the equal and opposite reaction of the gun against the forward movement of the bullet during explosions. A. Residual Pressure – the pressure remaining in the chamber after the bullet has left the barrel. 9 What is EXTERIOR BALLISTICS? Answer: it deals with the motion of projectiles from the time they leave the muzzle of the firearm to the time they hit the target. 10

What is velocity? Answer: velocity refers to the speed of the bullet per unit of time. Ex. M16 – 3, 300 ft. /sec.

11

What is Muzzle blast? Answer: the noise created at the muzzle point of the gun due to the sudden escape of the expanding gas coming in contact with the air in the surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point.

12

What is Trajectory?


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Answer: the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to the target. The following are the kinds of trajectory, straight horizontal line. 13 14

What is Range? Answer: the straight distance between the muzzle point and the target. What is accurate (effective) range? Answer: the distance within the shooter has control of his shots, meaning he can place his shoots at the desired spots.

15

What is Maximum range? Answer: the farthest distance that a projectile can be propelled from a firearm.

16

What is Air Resistance? Answer: resistance encountered while in flight.

17

What is Pull of gravity? Answer: downward reaction of the bullet while in flight.

18

What is Penetration? Answer: depth of entry on target.

19

What is Accuracy range? Answer: the maximum distance at which a particular gun and cartridges will consistently place all shots in the standard target for that distance.

20

What is Bullet Energy? Answer: the power possessed by a moving bullet, or its ability to keep going when it meets obstacles.

21

What is Effective Range? Answer: the maximum distance at which the bullet may reasonably be expected to travel accurately.

22

What is Extreme Range?

by

the

bullet


Answer: the greatest distance the travel when the cartridge is fired.

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bullet

will

23

What is Initial point? Answer: the range at which the bullet’s trajectory fist crosses line of sight. This is normally occurs at a range of about 25 yards.

24

What is chronograph? Answer: Instrument used to measure the velocity of projectile.

25

What is Key-hole-shot? Answer: the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a result of not spinning of its axis.

26

What is Maximum range? Answer: the farthest distance that a projectile can be propelled from a firearm.

27

What is Ricochet? Answer: the bouncing off or defection of a bullet from its original trajectory (normal path).

28

What is Stopping Power? Answer: the power of the bullet that put out the victim out of action instantly. So it should be understood that stopping power is not necessarily the same thing as killing power.

29

What is Zero range? Answer: the farthest distance at which the line of sight and the bullet’s path intersect.

30

What is TERMINAL BALLISTICS? Answer: study of the effect of the impact of the bullet on the target.

31

What are involves in TERMINAL BALLISTICS? Answer: they are: a Terminal Accuracy – size of the grouping on the target

bullet


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b Terminal energy – energy of the projectile when it strikes the target. Also known as striking energy. c Terminal Penetration – depth of entry of the bullet in the target. d Terminal velocity – speed of the bullet upon striking the target. 32

What is SHOTS BALLISITCS? Answer: deals with the attributes and properties of shots and pellets.

33

What is WOUND BALLISTICS? Answer: study of the effects of projectile to human body. .

34

What is Blackening? Answer: wound caused by the deposition of smoke particles by all types of powders at close ranges.

35

What is Tattooing? Answer: embedding of unburned and semi – burned powder particles into the surface of the target.

36

Why the blasted tissues are cherry red in color? Answer: the blasted tissues are cherry red in color because of the presence of carbon monoxide.

37 What are the indications whether the gunshot injury is suicidal, homicidal or Accidental? Answer: they are: a gunshot wound is suicidal when: ° only one gunshot wound ° Usually the distance is short range or class range ° Presence of the suicide note ° History of frustration or despondency of the victim ° Presence of cadaveric spasm on the hand of the victim b gunshot wound is homicidal when: ° Wound is located at any part of the body


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° Signs of struggle (defense wound) maybe present in the victim ° Disturbances of the surroundings ° Wounding weapon usually not found at the scene of the crime c gunshot wound is accidental when: ° Usually only one gunshot wound ° Wound located at any part of the body ° Absence of personal grudge between the victim and the one who fired the gun ° Testimony from the witnesses 38

What is Shotgun wound? Answer: it is an open wound produced by the penetration of pellets or shots in the victim’s body.

39 What are the characteristics of the Shotgun wound of entrance? Answer: they are: a There is singeing of the hair; presence of wads and particles of gunpowder inside the wound of entrance b When a shot is up to six inches distance, there is marked lacerated of the skin and destruction of tissues due to the pressure of the explosion. c If the distance about one yard, there is a blackening of tissues with slight burning, singeing and tattooing. d If the distance is about two to three yards, the wound has a big central hole with ragged edges and a few stray wounds of entrance around the central hole. There will be no more blackening or burning of the skin, gunpowder tattooing, singeing of the hair and pieces of wads near the wound of entrance. e If the distance is four yards, a small group of pellets may penetrate the tissues producing a central core. 40

What is FORENSIC BALLISTICS? Answer: Identification of firearms by means of ammunition fired through them. This is the real


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branch of the science which the police use as their guide in field investigations. 41

What is meant by the term “FORENSIC” Answer: As applied to ballistics, or to any other subject, suggest a relationship to courts of Justice and legal proceedings.

42

What is the technical definition of Firearm? Answer: instrument that is used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive force of gases of burning gunpowder.

43 What is the technical definition of Firearm or Arm? Answer: includes rifles, muskets, carbines, shot guns, pistols, revolvers and all other weapons from which a bullet a ball, a shot, a shell or missiles may be discharged by means of gunpowder or other explosives. The term also includes air rifles, except that are in small in caliber at and usually used as toys. The barrel of a firearm for purposes of Section 877 of the Revised Administrative Code is considered as a complete firearm (legal – Sec. 877 of the RAC and Sec. 290 of NIRC) 44

What is Rifle? Answer: long rifle bored firearm designed to hit targets a greater or longer distance with spiral grooves to fire only a single shot.

45

What is Musket? Answer: long smooth bored firearm designed to prepare a single shot.

that

is

46

What is Shotgun? Answer: long smooth bored firearm having a barrel of 25-30 inches long and designed to shot birds in flight; long smooth bored firearm and breech loading designed to fire number of lead pellets or shot in on charge.

47

What is Carbine?


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Answer: a short barrel riffle, having a barrel not longer than 22 inches and it is designed to fire a single shot through a rifled-bore, either semi-automatic or full automaton, for every press on the trigger. 48

What are the essential parts of firearms? Answer: Any firearm, large or small, has four essentials parts: ° Barrel – it is long tube. It may be smooth, as in shotgun, or with spiral grooves on the inner surface, as in a rifle ° Chamber – it is a widened hole at the breech (rear) end of the barrel. It holds the cartridge (explosive charge). ° Breech mechanism – the breech mechanism closes the rear end of the barrel, holding the cartridge in the chamber. ° Firing mechanism – the firing mechanism may be electric, as in some large artillery. In small arms, a spring moves a pointed firing pin through the breech bolt against a sensitive primer in the cartridge. The firing pin is cocked (drawn back) against a hook called the sear.

49

What is Pistol? Answer: a handgun that use magazine feed

50

What is Revolver? Answer: A handgun with the corresponding cylinder that revolves before the barrel which consist of different chambers.

51 Who are BERTHOLD SCHWARTZ – A German monk, and ROGER BACON, an English monk? Answer: they are both credited with gunpowder invention. (Most reference books credit Roger Bacon, English monk and scientists, with the invention of gunpowder in 1248, and Berthold Schwartz, with the application of gunpowder to the propelling of a missile in the early 1300’s. This powder was that we now call “black powder) It is also often stated that gunpowder was first


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invented by Chinese were aware of gunpowder and use as a propellant long before its advantage became recognized in Europe. It may also assume the Arabs with their advance knowledge of Chemistry at that time. 52

Who is the Father of Modern Ballistics? Answer: Col. Calvin H. Goddard, Md., OS, U.S. Army.

53

Who is Alexander John Forsyth? Answer: Father of the percussion ignition.

54 Who designed and invented the semi-automatic US Riffle, Caliber .30 MI? Answer: John C. Garand 55 Who pioneered the making of Thompson Sub-machine gun? Answer: John T. Thompson 56

What is firearm’s caliber? Answer: The caliber of the firearm is the diameter of the bore of the barrel measured form land to land. Caliber in rifled firearm expresses in inches or fraction of an inch by the American and English manufacturers and millimeters or in centimeters by manufacturers in continental Europe.

57

What are the characters of a rifle? Answer: Rifle is a gun with spiral grooves in its long barrel that spin the bullet as it is shot. Rifles are usually held against the shoulder when firing. Soldiers use rifles in battle.

58

What are the parts of rifle? Answer: all rifles have four basic parts: the barrel, the stock, the action, and the sights.

59

What powder was developed in 1800? Answer: Smokeless powder.

60

What are the characteristics of a Machine gun?


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Answer: Machine gun is an automatic weapon that can fire from 400 to 1,600 rounds of ammunition each minute. Machine gun barrels range in size from .22 calibers to 20 millimeters ammunitions fed into the gun from a cloth or metal belt, or from a cartridge holder called a magazine. 61 When the crime scene investigator recovers a fired shell, where should he put his identifying marks? Answer: he should put at the inner surface near the mouth 62 A rim – fire cartridge case bearing firing pin impression that is recovered at the crime scene is normally presumed to have been fired from what type of firearms? Answer: revolver 63 What gun mechanism grasps the rim of cartridge case to pull it out from the chamber? Answer: extractor 64 While the bullet is traveling through the gun barrel, its bearing surface is not in close contact with the bore surface. In effect, most of the expanding gases came out first than the bullet. This problem is caused by: Answer: improper bullet design 65 What is refers to the distance the bullet needs to travel through the barrel to complete a single rotation? Answer: rifling 66 What instrument is best used to examine bullet and cartridge cases for purposes of determining similarity in class characteristics? Answer: comparison microscope 67 Caliber is one example of firearm class characteristics. What indicates by this term? Answer: bullet diameter in hundredths of an inch


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68 Calibers of European made firearms are usually expressed in millimeters. In Western caliber system, what is the counterpart of 9mm? Answer: cal .38 SPL 69 In ballistics, any object that fired or launched from a firearm is technically called: Answer: projectile 70 What Significant factors that affect the distance traveled by the residues emitted from a firearm? Answer: wind, temperature, and barometric pressure 71 Strictly speaking, a cartridge is a single unit of ammunition consisting of: Answer: the cartridge case, primer and one or more projectiles 72 There are different scientific instruments used in determining the caliber or firearm evidence. What instrument is solely used for measuring the bore diameter of gun barrel? Answer: Caliper 73 What characteristics that would be common to a particular group or family of items? Answer: class characteristics 74 In comparing bullets, most positive identifications are made on striations that are found: Answer: on land impressions near the base of the bullet 75 What limits the forward ammunition into the chamber? Answer: rim

travel

of

revolver

76 Death or serious injury may or may not have been caused by accidental discharge of a firearm. In this situation, a questioned gun is submitted at the crime laboratory to undergo: Answer: firearm functionality testing


77 What force opposes projectile in flight? Answer: gravity

forward

motion

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of

the

78 Gunshot residues that allow a firearm examiner to determine a muzzle – to – garment distance are found around: Answer: bullet entrance holes 79 When a cartridge is chambered then ejected in a semi – automatic or auto – loading type of firearm, it receives marks from the breech mechanisms. Which of these marks found in the shell which may be in the form of impression if the cartridge is fired but could also be in the form of striated action mark if the cartridge is thrown – out without being fired? Answer: magazine lip marks 80 What area of forensic ballistics covers the determination of distance between the shooter & the target? Answer: forensic external ballistics 81 What instrument for ballistics examination can be used to photograph bullets in flight, which aids in investigating the velocity of projectiles? Answer: Chronograph 82 Which class characteristics of firearms can be determined by analyzing fired bullet recovered at the crime scene? Answer: Caliber & rifling pattern 83 Given more than one bullet, the first problem that should be resolved by the firearm examiner is: Answer: Was the bullet fired from the suspect firearm? 84 What marks is found on shells ejected from auto – loading firearms that appear as striated action marks and sometimes impressed action marks? Answer: ejector marks


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85 All cases involving firearms identification start with: Answer: Test firing of questioned firearm 86 In a semi – automatic pistol found at the crime scene, where should the recovering officer place his identifying marks before packing it for transmission at the crime laboratory? Answer: pistol grip 87 The rifling of the firearms is located inside the barrel. It consists of: Answer: lands and grooves 88

A rimmed shell is usually fired from: Answer: revolver

89 The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that: Answer: pulling the trigger will automatically cock of the firearm 90

What is refers to the caliber of a gun? Answer: the diameter of its barrel

91

When a police officer should fire his handgun? Answer: only at last resort

92 What is mostly refers to the term muzzle velocity? Answer: speed at which a bullet leaves the gun 93 What is the effect when a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal? Answer: the shell in most cases will be found at the scene of firing


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PART V QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION CONCEPT OF DOCUMENT 1 What is document? Answer: generally defined as any material containing marks, symbols, or signs either visible, or partially visible that may present or ultimately convey a meaning to someone, maybe in the form of pencil, ink writing, typewriting, or printing on paper. 2 What are the legal definitions of document? Answer: they are: ° Any written document by which a right is established or an obligation is extinguished (People vs. Moreno, CA, 338 O.G. 119). ° every deed or instrument executed by person by whom some disposition or agreement is proved, evidenced or set forth (People vs. Nillosquin, CA, 48 O.G. 4453) ° In relation to Criminal Jurisprudence under the Best evidence rule: any physical embodiment of information of ideas; e.g. a letter, a contract, a receipt, a book of account, a blue print, or an X-ray plate (Black`s Law Dictionary) 3 If a private document is intended to become a part of the public record and falsified prior thereto, what is the crime committed? Answer: falsification of a public document 4 What are writings which do not constitute documentbased on some Supreme Court Rulings? Answer: ° A draft of a Municipal payroll which is not yet approved by the proper authority (People vs. Camacho, 44Phil. 484)


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° Mere blank forms of official documents, the spaces of which are not filled up (People vs. Santiago, CA, 48 O.G. 4558) ° Pamphlets or books which do not evidence any disposition or agreement are not documents but are mere merchandise (People vs. Agnis, 47 Phil. 945) CONCEPT OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT 5 What is questioned document? Answer: questioned document is one in which the facts appearing therein may not be true, and are contested either in whole or part with respect to its authenticity, identity, or origin. It may be a deed, contract, will, election ballots, marriage contract, check, visas, application form, check writer, certificates, etc. 6 What is disputed document? Answer: this term suggesting that there is an argument or controversy over the document, and strictly speaking this is true meaning. 7

What is the examination?

focus

of

Questioned

document

Answer: Questioned document examination is a branch of forensics which focuses on the analysis of documents which are disputed. 8 What are the requirements to become a questioned document examiner? Answer: the courts (State v. Evans 1991) have decided that a person needs both: study and practice -- that is, a period of training (internship or apprenticeship is better than a self-study course) and a period of experience (twenty some previous cases worked on is a good average). 9 What is meant by the term “EXPERT WITNESS”? Answer: A legal term used to describe a witness who by reason of his special training or


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experience is permitted to express an opinion regarding the issue, or a certain aspect of the issue, which is involved in a court action. 10

Who are DOCUMENT EXAMINER? Answer: One who studies scientifically details and elements of documents in order to identify their source or to discover other facts concerning them

11

What is meant by the term “ERASURE”? Answer: The removal of writings, typewriting or printing, maybe chemical eradication and or by an abrasive erasure.

12

What is meant by INSERTION OR INTERLINEATION? Answer: the addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the addition of whole page to a document.

13 What are the DIVISIONS OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION? Answer: they are: ° Criminalistic Examinationinvolves the detection of forgery, erasure, alteration or obliteration of documents. ° Handwriting Investigation /Analysismore focused in determining the author of writing. 14 Who Conducts the Questioned Document? Answer: conducted examiner. 15

16

Preliminary by

a

Examination

questioned

What is meant by “OFF-HAND OPINION”? Answer: Off-hand opinion- not based scientific examination.

of

document

on

though

What are the CLASSES OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT? Answer: The following are the general classification of QD. ° Documents with questioned signatures;


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° Questioned documents alleged to have been containing fraudulent alterations; ° Questioned or disputed holographic wills; ° Documents investigated on the question of typewriting; ° Questioned documents on issues of their age or date; ° Questioned documents on issues of material used in their production; and, ° Documents or writing investigated because it is all alleged that they identify some persons through handwriting. 17 What are the SCIENTIFIC METHODS IN QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION? Answer: they are: ° Analysis (Recognition)properties or characteristics, observed or measured. ° Comparison- Properties or characteristics of the unknown determined through analysis are now compared with the familiar or recorded properties of know items. ° Evaluation- Similarities or dissimilarities in properties will each have a certain value for identification, determined by its likelihood of occurrence. 18 What are the INSTRUMENTS AND APPARATUS USED IN QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATIONS Answer: they are: ° Magnifying lens- could be an ordinary handlens; the maximum diameter is four inches, and this appears big with its wide frame it has a magnifying power of two times the original only. Magnifying lenses of five times or more magnifying power, with builtin-lightning are more useful. ° SHADOWNGRAPH- a pictorial image formed by casting a shadow, usually of the hands, upon a rightful surface or screen. ° STEREOSCOPIC BINOCULAR MICROSCOPE- a tridimensional (3D) enlargement is possible


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° MEASURES AND TEST PLATES (TRANSPARENT GLASS)those used for signatures and typewriting (to measure degree of slant, size, etc. ° TABLE LAMPS WITH ADJUSTABLE SHADES (Goose Neck Lamps)used for controlled illumination; needed in sidelight examination wherein light is place at low angle in a position oblique to plane or document. ° TRANSMITTED LIGHT GADGET- light comes from beneath or behind glass on document is placed. ° ULTRA VIOLET LAMP- used in the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to detect security features of qualified documents. ° INFRARED VIEWER- primarily used to decipher writings in a charred document. ° COMPARISON MICROSCOPE- similar to that of the bullet comparison microscope. 19 What are the TECHNIQUES IN THE EXAMINATION OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS? Answer: they are: ° MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION- Any examination or study which is made with the microscope in order to discover minute physical details. Stereoscopic examination with low and high power objectives is used to detect retouching, patching and unnatural pen-lift in signature analysis. ° TRANSMITTED LIGHT EXAMINATION- the document is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper to determine the presence of erasures, matching of serrations and some other types of alterations. ° OBLIQUE LIGHT EXAMINATION- the illumination so controlled that it gazes or strikes the surface of the document from one side at a very low angle. Decipherment of faded handwriting, determination of outline in traced forgery, embossed impression, etc.


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° PHOTOGRAPHIC EXAMINATION- Actual observations are recorded in the photographs. ° ULTRA-VIOLET EXAMINATIONUltraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the wave lengths just below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum (rainbow). These visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is reflected, a phenomenon known as FLOURESCENCE. The exposure of a document to ultra-violet light is useful when it consists of several pages and substitution is being suspected. The color and intensity of fluorescence reaction is very apparent in case of substituted page. Mechanical and chemical erasures will certainly change the reflectivity and fluorescence of the area affected. ° INFARED EXAMINATIONemploys invisible radiation beyond the red portion of the visible spectrum (rainbow) which is usually recorded on a specially sensitized photographic emulsion. 20

Why photograph in QD is necessary? Answer: Photography in QD is necessary to: ° Serve as record of the initial condition of a disputed document; ° Make clear what otherwise may be hidden or indistinct; ° Enlarge writing in question so that every quality and characteristics of it can be clearly and properly interpreted. ° Enable any number of accurate reproductions of document, thus affording unlimited opportunity for study; ° Allow cutting apart as may be desired and the various parts classified for comparisons; ° Can shoe delicate discolorations due to chemical erasures or other fraudulent changes, which may otherwise be overlooked, or misinterpreted; ° Can show very clearly any erasures by abrasions made by ordinary rubber eraser and


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it can record in permanent form with paper placed obliquely to the plane of the lens and plate and inclined at just right angel of reflection so as o show differences in the reflected light from different portions of the paper surface; and ° With transmitted light, it is useful in: examination of watermarks; determining the identity; or the differences in paper by showing arrangement of the fibers and the markings of the wire gauze and dandy roll showing the continuity of strokes and determining retouching or patching of a writing by showing clearly the presence of added ink film and the uneven distribution of ink in interrupted strokes. 21

What are the methods of examining ERASURES? Answer: they are: ° Physical inspection: using ultraviolet light, observation with light striking the surface at a sharp angle, and observation under the microscope. ° Fuming with iodine may cause an almost negligible stain, but in most instances not the slightest semblance of a stain remains.

22 What are the methods of examining INDENTED WRITING? Answer: usually applied to the partially visible depressions appearing on a sheet of a paper underneath the one on which the visible writing appears. Methods of examination are: ° Physical methods maybe used by passing a strong beam of nearly parallel light almost horizontally over the surface of the paper. ° Fuming the document maybe of values in some cases. ° Powders of various kinds maybe used without changing the document. 23 What are the CHARRED PAPER?

methods

of

examining

BURNED

OR


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Answer: If the combustion is incomplete, there is a certain amount of success provided the pieces are large enough to form a coherent message. Of primary importance is the proper packing and shipping of this type of evidence. The pieces should be placed between layers of cotton and ship in a strong, rigid box, exercising every precaution to avoid damage in transit. It is believed best not to spray or moisten the evidence with water or any other liquid for shipping purposes. The following methods maybe applied to decipher the original message contained thereon: ° Photographic methods, using various types of filters and different angles of illumination may determine the writing contained thereon without changing the appearance of the charred fragments. ° Chemical methods, such as spraying, painting, or bathing charred pieces with solutions of different chemical reagents. ° Photographic plates maybe utilized by allowing the charred paper to remain in contact with emulsion sides in total darkness from one to two weeks. CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS 24 How to care and handle DISPUTED DOCUMENTS AND DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE? Answer: the following should be observed: ° It should be kept UNFOLDED AND IN A SEPARATE, PROPER SIZE ENVELOPE OR FOLDER. ° It is also advisable that right after the document becomes disputed, or questioned, it is important to make not only the usual photo static copy (Xerox), but also a proper photograph or photo-enlargement. ° It is often necessary for the lawyer or court to handle repeatedly the disputed document. Should this be necessary, instead of handling and working with the original document, the photograph should be used.


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° Touching with wet hands or fingers can create smearing in the ink, pointing with a pencil can leave marks that create a suspicion of previous pencil marks, or experiments as proof of attempted forgery. ° Pointing a document with any other instruments, such as sharp stick, can cause sight damage with although it cannot be seen by the naked eye, can show definite marks under the microscope or on the enlarged photograph. ° No test should be made to alter the conditions of the document. ° Should any test be necessary, insist that it should be done in the presence of a chemist, or in court, or in front of both parties involved the case. 25 What are the DO`s in CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF DOCUMENTS? Answer: they are: ° Take disputed papers to Document Examiner`s Laboratory at the First Opportunity. ° If storage is necessary, keep in dry place away from excessive heat strong light. ° Maintain in consequential document, unfolded and in transparent plastic envelope or evidence preserver. 26 What are the Don’ts in CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF DOCUMENTS? Answer: they are: ° Do not underscore, make careless markings, fold, erase, impress rubber stamps, sticker, write on, or otherwise alter any handwriting. ° Do not smear with fingerprints powder or chemicals. ° Do not carry handwriting document carelessly in wallet, notebook or brief case on grounds of interviews. ° Do not handle disputed papers, excessively or carry then in pocket for a long time.


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° Do not marked disputed documents (either by consciously writing instruments or dividers) ° Do not mutilate or damage by repeated refolding, creasing, cutting, tearing or punching for filing purposes. ° Do not allow anyone except qualified specialist to make chemical or other tests; do not treat or dust for latent finger prints before consulting a document examiner. 27

How to HANDLE CHARRED DOCUMENTS? Answer: they are: ° Those extremely fragile must be handled as little as possible and transporting them to the laboratory requires extra-ordinary care. With forethought and caution they can be brought from the distant fire scene to the laboratory. ° They should be moved in the container in which they are found whenever possible. When the fragments are not packed tightly, they should be padded with lightweight absorbent cotton. If jarring cannot be entirely eliminated jarring the box must be kept to a minimum. ° The fragment must be held firmly without crushing and prevent movement or shifting when finally packed in a sturdy container.

EXEMPLAR 28

What is exemplar? Answer: Exemplars, also called standards, are legally admissible authentic samples of handwriting used for comparison with questioned writing. They are used by the document examiner to enable her to form an opinion concerning the authenticity of handwriting in dispute. There are two kinds of exemplars (informal which are documents previously executed and known to be genuine) and formal (which are request writing samples). Exemplars are also called known handwriting samples.


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29

What is the most reliable exemplar? Answer: Informal handwriting exemplars (Collected Standards) are more reliable for comparison purposes than request writing. Since informal writing was written in the normal course of business, it more accurately reflects the subconscious habits of the writer. Selfconsciousness or conscious-awareness enters into the request writing process. Even when there is no attempt to disguise request writing, it may not represent the normal subconscious habits of the writer.

30

What are the TYPES OF HANDWRITING “STANDARDS”? Answer: they are: ° Collected Standards are KNOWN (genuine or informal standard) handwriting of an individual written in the course of daily life, both business and socials. ° Request standards are signature or other handwritings (or hand printings) written by an individual upon request for the purpose of comparison with other handwriting or for specimen purposes. ° Post Litem Motan Exemplars- writings produced by the subject after evidential writings have come into dispute and solely for the purpose of establishing his contentions.

31 What are the DISADVANTAGES OF REQUEST WRITING SAMPLES? Answer: they are: ° Request writing taken after the incident may not be as close to the date of the questioned writing as informal documents executed in the normal course of business. ° Courts consider request writing taken after the fact as self-serving and may not allow it. Some writers will deliberately disguise their request handwriting. ° It may be difficult or impossible to duplicate the writing environment of the


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suspect document in order to obtain comparable documents. ° The writer may not be available for request writing or circumstances may have caused changes that make it impossible to obtain similar request writing samples. 32 What are the SUGGESTED PROCEDURE FOR TAKING REQUEST HANDWRITING STANDARDS IN ALL TYPES OF QUESTIONED-DOCUMENT PROBLEMS? Answer: they are: ° Let subject seat in a natural position at table or desk having smooth writing surface. ° Furnish subject with paper and writing instrument similar to those used in questioned writings, lie; paper should be same size, and ruled or unruled; as questioned document. ° Never permit the subject to see any writing on the questioned document. ° Dictate material to be written (or printed, if questioned material is hand printed): give no assistance in spelling or arrangement on page. Dictate at a rate of speed which will produce the subject natural writing habits. ° Remove each specimen upon completion by subject number in consequence, date, time and identify by initiating each, and request subjects to sign each specimen. ° Observe all writing done by subjects and indicate any attempt of disguise, and whether subjects appears to be normally right or left handed, etc. 33

HOW MANY SAMPLES OF HANDWRITING ARE NEEDED? Answer: consider the following: ° The type of case determines the number of exemplars that the document examiner needs for comparison with the questioned documents. Always try to collect as many samples as possible because it is more important to have suitable undisputed samples than a large quantity of little comparable value. Cases have been won in court using a single known


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signature to support the authenticity of a questioned document. One signature is sufficient when all the characteristics of handwriting match. When proving that an individual did not write a questioned document, it is necessary to obtain a larger range of writing and one hundred signatures may not be enough. An average would be twenty to twenty-five signatures and four to five pages of normal handwriting and/or hand printing preferably written at different times. ° More known documents are needed if the writer has a wide range of variation or an oversimplified signature, while only a few signatures would suffice if the writer is consistent. An oversimplified signature is one that contains few changes of direction and is usually an illegible scrawl. Oversimplified signatures are easier to imitate than more complex signatures that contain more changes of direction and more stylized letter forms. ° When a questioned signature shows obvious signs of forgery not present in the known signature, one known signature should be enough to prove no genuineness. Forged writing often contains tremor or has a drawn look. ° A single signature would be sufficient to determine the facts when the questioned signatures are written with a higher skill level than the suspected writer could execute. However, it is better to have more exemplars whenever possible. The document examiner must evaluate the exemplars to determine if she has sufficient suitable material to render an accurate opinion. 34

What are SUITABLE EXEMPLARS? Answer: the following are suitable exemplar: ° Cancelled checks, contracts, applications, and business letters make suitable exemplars or standards. The writing can be properly


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identified, the date can be verified, and the habits of the writer can be studied. Additional standards may be needed if the words on the disputed writing do not match the exemplars. ° Ideally, original writing should be available for the scrutiny of the document examiner. Original writing is always better than a photocopy or a facsimile. If it is impossible to obtain original documents, a first generation photocopy should be supplied. The original documents should be requested whenever a photocopy is supplied by the adverse party. Intermediate tones are almost always lost in a photocopy because it aims to secure the greatest possible contrast. Subsequent generations of photocopies may drop sufficient detail, rendering them worthless to a competent document examiner. ° According to the FBI Law Enforcement Bulletin published in September, 1970, handwriting identification depends on the quality of the known writing. A's cannot be compared with G’s ‘John Jones' cannot be compared with 'Samuel Hansen' The J's must be compared with J's and the 'ohn's' with 'ohn's.' Handwriting cannot be compared with hand printing. ° Documents similar in nature will make the best exemplars. Contracts should be compared with contracts, and cancelled checks with cancelled checks. Try to procure like signatures. An A should be compared with A, an Al with Al, and hand printing with hand printing. Documents written with ink should be compared with other documents written in ink. Try to find writing on similar documents. People often have more than one style signature depending on the document being executed. Checks may be executed in a more careless manner than wills and contracts. Do not use signatures written while the writer was intoxicated unless the


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questioned documents were written under similar circumstances. ° Some hand printing can be compared with handwriting and vice versa. Some writers use hand printed letters and handwritten ones interchangeably. Most common is the use of hand printed capital letters in place of cursive. Other writers use the same letter form for both hand printed and cursive writing. ° While it may be possible to make a match with only a few exemplars, the more exemplars available the better. Collect as many samples of handwriting, including signatures, as possible. It is necessary to collect enough handwriting samples to enable the expert to render a professional opinion. How much is enough? Enough would be sufficient exemplars to eliminate any other writer as the author of a document. 35 What are the CASES IN WHICH NO EXEMPLARS ARE NEEDED? Answer: they are the following: ° There are some cases in which no exemplars are needed to prove spuriousness. Since no one can write his signature exactly the same way twice, identical signatures are generally evidence of no genuineness. This would include traced forgeries, scanned signatures, or even freehand simulations, as well as cut and paste signatures. ° Some writers use signature stamps and autopens as legitimate signatures making it are necessary to determine the nature of the signatures before an opinion of no genuineness is given. ° Signs of forgery are indicative of no genuineness. Documents that contain indications of tracing can be identified without known signatures. Evidence of tracing the signature would be a groove or guide line along the signature line or residue of pencil or carbon.


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° When a questioned signature matches the handwriting of another writer, identification can be made that the writing was penned by that individual. In this case, no known signatures of the victim are needed for comparison. ° Writing of the impaired or illiterate can be identified as spurious if the questioned writing exceeds the ability of the known writer. A high skill level signature of an impaired individual can be rejected without comparison documents. 36

What is REQUEST WRITING? Answer: Request writing exemplars are handwriting samples made at the request and under the supervision of the police, document examiners, or attorneys for comparison with questioned writing.

37 What are the DOs AND DON'Ts FOR COLLECTING EXEMPLARS AND STANDARDS? Answer: they are: ° DON'T rely on too little writing. How much is enough? Enough to show the range of handwriting characteristics of the writer. ° DO obtain sufficient handwriting exemplars, at least twenty to twenty-five signatures or four to five pages of handwriting or hand printing. ° DON'T rely exclusively on writing that differs significantly from the questioned. ° DO collect similar samples: hand printing with hand printing, ink signatures with ink signatures, lined paper with lined paper, same size with same size. ° DON'T rely on documents recently written if the comparison documents were written many years ago. ° DO collect standards dated at approximately the same time as the questioned. ° DON'T compare writing written under abnormal conditions (for example, when the writer was intoxicated) with normal writing.


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° DO collect documents that duplicate the writing environment: checks with checks, contracts with contracts. ° DO instruct the writer in order to obtain similar exemplars. For example, print with all uppercase letters. HANDWRITING AND SIGNATURE IDENTIFICATION A. HANDWRITING 38

How HANDWRITING is DEFINED? Answer: Handwriting is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort also knows as “visible speech.” In Wignore`s Principles of judicial Proof, handwriting is defined as a visible effect of bodily movement which is an almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular habits, reacting from fixed mental impression of certain ideas associated with script form.

39

What are the KINDS OF WRITINGS? Answer: ° Cursive- connected writing in which letter is joined the next ° Script- separated printed writing. ° BLOCK- ALL CAPITAL LETTERS.

one

40 Why imitation of the style of writing by another person becomes difficult? Answer: because the other person cannot reproduce the muscular combination from the habit of the first writer. 41 What is refers to the brain’s writing where the impulse to form a letter begins? Answer: cortex

center


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42 What are the two groups of muscles involve in Handwriting? Answer: (1) Extensor muscles which push up the pen to form the upward strokes, and (2) Flexor muscles which push the pen to from the downward strokes. 43 Generally speaking, what are the four groups of muscles employed in writing? Answer: those which operate the joints of the fingers, wrist, elbow, and shoulder. 44

What is motor coordination? Answer: motor coordination is the delicate way in which the various muscles used in writing work together to procedure written form is known as

45 What are the environmental factors affecting the handwriting? Answer: These include the writing instrument itself, the writing surface and what lies beneath it, and other variables of the writing situation. 46 What are the two categories of handwriting characteristics? Answer: (1) general, or class characteristics, and (2) individual characteristics. 47

What are the factors that can affect Handwriting? Answer: (1) injury, (2) illness, (3) medication, (4) drug or alcohol use, (5) stress, (6) the writing surface, (7) the writing instrument, or (8) attempted disguise.

TERMINOLOGIES RELATED TO HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION AND EXAMINATIONS 48

What is ALIGNMENT? Answer: the relation of the writing or line of individual letters to the baseline.

49

What is ANGULAR FORMS?


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Answer: Sharp, straight strokes that are made by stopping the pen and changing direction before continuing. 50

What is ARCADE FORMS? Answer: strokes that look like arches rounded on the top and open at the bottom.

51

What is CHARACTERISTICS? Answer: any property or mark which is commonly called the identifying details.

52

What is COLLATION? Answer: critical comparison on side examination of the standard and QD.

by

side

53

What is COMPARISON? Answer: the act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying qualities.

54

What is DISTINGUISED WRITING? Answer: altered writing in identity.

55

What is DOWNSTROKE? Answer: The movement writer.

of

hopes

the

pen

of

hiding

toward

the

56

What is FORM? Answer: The way the writing looks, whether it is copybook, elaborated, simplifier or printed

57

What is GARLAND FORMS? Answer: A cup like connected form that is open at the top and rounded on the bottom.

58

What is GESTALT? Answer: The German word that means “complete” or “whole”. A good gestalt needs nothing added or taken away to make it “look right”.

59

What is GRAHOANALYSIS? Answer: the study of handwriting based on the two fundamental strokes, the curve and the straight strokes.


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60

What is GRAPHOMETRY? Answer: analysis by comparison and measurement.

61

What is HANDLETTERINGAnswer: Any disconnected style of writing in which each letter is written separately, also called hand printing.

62

What is LETTER SPACE? Answer: The distance between the letters.

63

What is LINE DIRECTIONAnswer: Movement of the baseline, it may slant-up, down or straight across the page.

be

64

What is LINE QUALLITY? Answer: the overall character of the ink lines from the beginning to the ending stroke: it may be a Good Line quality or Poor Line quality.

65

What is LINE SPACE? Answer: The amount of the space between lines.

66

What is MICROSOPIC EXAMINATION? Answer: Any study or examination which is made with the microscope in other to discover minute details.

67

What is MOVEMENT? Answer: an important element in handwriting which embraces all the factors which are related to the motion of the writing instrument skill, speed freedom, hesitation, rhythm, emphasis, tremors and the like.

68

What is NATURAL WRITING? Answer: Any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to control or alter its identifying habits and its usual quality or execution.

69

What is NATURAL VARIATIONAnswer: normal or usual deviation found between repeated specimens of any individual handwriting.


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70

What is PEN MPHASIS? Answer: The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surfaces which produces shading out with more rigid writing points heavy point emphasis can occur in writing without any evidence of shading.

71

What is PEN HOLD? Answer: - The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he holds it.

72

What is PEN POSITION? Answer: - relationship between the pen point and the paper.

73

What is PEN PRESSURE? Answer: the average force contacts the paper.

74

What is PRINTSCRIPT Answer: - A creative combination of printing and cursive writing.

75

What is PROPORTION or RATIO Answer: – the relation between the tall and the short letter

76

What is QUALITY Answer: - A distinct or peculiar character. Also, “quality” is used in describibg handwriting to refer to any identifying factor that is related to the writing movement itself.

77

What is RHYTHM? Answer: The element of the writing movement which is marked by regular or periodic recurrences: maybe smooth, intermittent, or jerky in its quality; the flourishing succession of motion which are recorded in a written record.

78

What is SHADING?

with

which

the

pen


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Answer: widening of the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a flexible pen point or to the use of a stub pen. 79

What is SIMPLIFICATION? Answer: Eliminating extra or superfluous strokes from the copybook model.

80

What is SIZE? Answer: the proportions between zones.

81

What is SKILL? Answer: writer’s proficiency; degree, ability, or skill of a write proficiency.

82

What is SLOPE/ SLANT? Answer: the angle or inclination of the axis of the letters relative to the baseline: Slant to the left; Slant to the right; and Vertical Slant.

83

What is SYSTEM (OF WRITING)? Answer: The combination of the basic design of letters and the writing movement as taught in school make up the writing system.

84

What is THREADY FORM? Answer: An indefinite connective form that looks flat and wavy. . What is WRITING CONDITION? Answer: circumstances under which the writing was prepared and the factors in influencing the writer’s ability to write at the time of execution. It includes the writer’s position (sitting, standing, abed, etc.), the paper support and backing, and the writing instrument; writing ability may be modified by the condition of the writer’s health, nervous state or degree of intoxication.

85

86

What is WRITING IMPULSE? Answer: The result of the pen touching down on the paper and moving across the page, until it is raised from the paper.


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MOVEMENT IN HANDWRITING 87

What are the KINDS OF MOVEMENT? Answer: (1) Finger Movement- The thumb, the first and second and slightly the third fingers are in actual motion. Most usually employed by children and illiterates. (2) Hand Movement- produced by the movement or action of the whole hand with the wrist as the center of attraction; (3) Forearm Movement- movement of the shoulder, hand and arm with the support of the table, and, (4) Whole Forearm Movement- action of the entire arm without resting.

88 What are the CHARACTERISTICS OF MOTOR COORDINATION Answer: (1) Free, smelt rounded curves; (2) Gradual changes of directions; (3) Pressure is always in a state of change, moving from light to heavy or from heavy to light; (4) Speed 89 What are the characteristics of FAULTY COORDINATION? Answer: (1) Wavering and very irregular line or strokes with uncertain and unsteady progress. There is no freedom of movement along the strokes of the letter-forms; and, (2) Angular Line, a very common fault of coordination. Curves, large and small are not smoothly rounded and there is no gradual change of direction. 90

WHAT IS RHYTHM IN HANDWRITING? ANSWER: Rhythm is succession of connected, uniform strokes in full coordination. This is manifested by clear-cut accentuated strokes which increase and decrease in which like perfect cones.

91 What is characterized by succession of awkward, independent, poorly directed and disconnected motions? Answer: LACK OF RHYTHM 92

Why rhythm is important?


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Answer: important because one can determine if the writer normally and spontaneously write with hesitation as if he is attempting to for another signature. 93

What is Garland? Answer: Links the downward stroke to the upstrokes with a flowing curve swinging from left right. It is an easy, effortless mode of connection, written with speed.

94

What is Angular connective form? Answer: characterized by an abrupt stop and start in each turning point.

95

What is STROKE? Answer: Path trace by the pen on the paper.

TERMINOLOGIES CONCERNING STROKES 96

What is AIRSTROKE? Answer: The movement of the pen as it is raised from the paper and continues in the same direction in the air.

97

What is COVERING STROKE? Answer: A stroke that is another stroke.

98

What is FINAL stoke? Answer: The ending stroke on a letter.

99

What is UPSTROKE? Answer: Movement of the pen away from the writer.

unnecessarily

covers

100 What is SEQUENCE OF STROKE? Answer: The order in which writing strokes are placed on the paper. 101 What is SUPPORTED STROKES? Answer: Upstrokes partially covering the previous down strokes.


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102 What is TRAIT STROKE? Answer: A school of handwriting analysis that assigns personality trait manners to individual writing strokes. QUALITIES OF THE STROKES 103 What is Expansion? Answer: whether the movement is extended or limited in its range with respect to both vertical and horizontal dimension. 104 What is Co-ordination? Answer: whether the flow of movement is controlled or uncertain, smooth or jerky, continuous or interrupted. 105 What is Speed-? Answer: whether the movement has been rapid or slow and whether the pace has been steady or variable. 106 What is Pressure? Answer: whether the pressure exerted in movement and its upward and downward reach.

the

107 What is Direction? Answer: Left ward and right ward trend of the movement and its upward and downward reach. 108 What is GENERAL (CLASS) CHARACTERISTICS? Answer: those habits are part of basic writing system or which are modifications of the system of writing found among so large a group of writes that have only slight identification value. 109 What is INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS? Answer: the result of the writer`s muscular control, coordination, age, health, and nervous temperament, frequency of writing, personality and character found in writing. 110 What are the Indications writing? Answer: they are:

of

speed

(speedy)


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° Smooth, unbroken strokes and rounded forms. ° Frequent signs or tendencies to the right. ° Marked uncertain as to the location of the dots of small letters “I”, “j” & crosses of small letter “t”. ° Increased spontaneity of words or small letter “t” connected with the following words. ° Letters curtailed or degenerated almost to illegibility towards the end of words. ° Wide writing- width of letters is greater than the connecting spaces adjoining it. ° Great difference in emphasis between upstrokes and down strokes. ° Marked simplification of letters especially capital letters. ° Rising line. ° Increased pen pressure. ° Increase in the margin to left at the beginning of the line. 111

What are the Indications of slow writing? Answer: they are: ° Wavering forms and broken strokes. ° Frequent signs or tendencies to the left. ° Conspicuous certainly as to the location of the dots of small letters “I”, “j”, or “t” crosses with scarcely perceptible deviation from the intended direction. ° Frequent pauses by meaningless blobs, angles, divided letters and retouches. ° Careful execution of detail of letters toward the end or names. ° Narrow writing. ° No difference in emphasis in up stroke and down stroke. ° Ornamental or flourishing connections. ° Sinking lines.

112 What are the CHARACTERISTICS? Answer: they are

CLASSIFICATION

OF

INDIVIDUAL


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° Permanent characteristics- found always in his handwriting. ° Common or usual- found in a group of writers who studied the same system of writing. ° Occasional- found occasionally in his handwriting. ° Rare- found only in one or two persons in a group of one hundred individuals. 113

HOW INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS ARE ACQUIRED? Answer: acquired by: ° Outgrowth of definite teaching ° Result of imitation ° Accidental condition or circumstances ° Expression of certain mental and physical traits of the writer as affected by education, by environment and by occupation.

114 What are the PRINCIPLE IN HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION? Answer: they are: ° When any two specimens of handwritings contain a combination of corresponding or similar and specifically oriented characteristics of such number and significance as to preclude the possibility of their occurrence by mere coincidence, and there are no unaccounted for difference, it may be concluded that they are similar in writing characteristics and therefore written by one and the same person. ° Handwritings are fixed habits. ° These writing habits become so automatic and unconscious that even by the most strenuous effort, it is almost impossible to change them. ° No duplication of handwriting by two individuals. 115 What are the FUNDAMENTAL LAW WHICH GOVERNS THE CONCLUSION IN HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION PROBLEMS? Answer: they are


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° A signature/handwriting naturally and genuinely written under normal condition contain all of the individual habits of the writer`s signature which are put into it in a way that is consistent with his writing ability and the writing quality of his signature. ° A signature/handwriting is fraudulent if it contains habits, qualities or elements which are significantly different from genuine signatures written under similar conditions. B. SIGNATURE 116 What is SIGNATURE? Answer: is the name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement. Or, it is a name or mark that a person puts at the end of a document to attest that he is its author or that he ratifies its contests. 117 What is MODEL SIGNATURE? Answer: A genuine signature that has been used to prepare an imitated or traced forgery 118 Why THE EXAMINATION OF SIGNATURES IS CONSIDERED A SPECIALIZED BRANCH OF HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION, FOR THE FOLLOWING REASONS? Answer: because: ° It is a word most practiced by many people and therefore most fluently written. ° It is a means to identify a person and have a great personal significance. ° It is written with a little attention to spelling and some other details. ° It is a word written with conscious thought about the mechanics of its production and is written automatically. ° It is the only word the illiterate can write with confidence. 119 What are the TYPES OF SIGNATURES? Answer: they are


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° FORMAL (CONVENTIONAL or COPYBOOK FORM) – complete correct signature for an important document such as will. ° INFORMAL (CURSORY) – usually for routine documents and personal correspondence. a Personalized b Semi-personalized ° CARELESS SCRIBBLE – for the mail carrier, delivery boy or the autograph collector. 120 What are the SUGGESTED STEPS IN THE EXAMINATION OF SIGNATURE? Answer: they are: ° STEP 1- Place the questioned and the standard signatures in the juxta-position or side-byside for simultaneous viewing of the various elements and characteristics. ° STEP 2 - The first element to be considered is the handwriting movement or the manner of execution (slow, deliberate, rapid, etc.). The fundamental difference existing between a genuine signature and an almost perfect forgery is in the manner of execution. ° STEP 3 – Second elements to examine is the quality of the line, the presence or tremors, smooth, fluent or hesitation. Defect in line quality is only appreciated when simultaneous viewing is made. ° STEP 4 – Examine the beginning and ending lines, they are very significant, determine whether the appearance blunt, club-shaped, tapered or/vanishing. ° STEP 5 – Design and structure of the letters. Determine as to roundness, smoothness, angularity and direction. Each individual has a different concept of letter design. ° STEP 6 – Look for the presence of retouching or patching. ° STEP 7 – Connecting strokes, slant, ratio, size, lateral spacing. ° STEP 8 – Do not rely so much in the similarity or difference of the capital


letters, for theses are the often according to the whim of the writer.

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changed

oOo

PART VI FORENSIC MEDICINE MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS

OF DEATH

1) What is Forensic Medicine? Answer: application of medicine in the solution of various problems in court. 2) What is medicine? Answer: deals with the prevention and treatment of diseases. 3) What is pathology? Answer: study of disease affecting the body. 4) What is gynecology? Answer: branch of medicine pertaining to disease of woman. 5) What stage of muscular change which occurs 2-6 hrs after death and is characterized by hardening of the muscles. Answer: post-mortem rigidity (rigor mortis) 6) When the dead body was seen by the investigator, there was a hardening of the muscles in the face, what is the approximated time after his date? Answer: two hours or less. 7) What part of the body usually starts mortis? Answer: muscle of the jaw and face.

rigor


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8) What is the duration of rigor mortis during summer in the Philippines? Answer: will lasts for 36-48 hours after death 9) What is the duration of rigor mortis tropical countries like the Philippines? Answer: 24-48 hours.

in

the

10) What is heat stiffening? Answer: A condition characterized by hardening of the muscles due to coagulation of muscle protein when the dead body is exposed to intense heat. 11) Normally, death’s temperature gradually decreases however there is an increase of temperature due to fast, early putrefactive and chemical changes of the body. This is referred to as: Answer: Post-mortem caloricity 12) What is cadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigor? Answer: it is the instant stiffening of a certain group of muscles which occurs immediately at the moment of death associated with violent death due to extremes nervous tension, fatigue and injury to the nervous system. 13) The complete, continuous, and persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all brain functions of an organism is referred to as: Answer: Somatic death 14) What are the factors that cooling of the death body?

affect

the

rate

of

Answer: (1) Body size, (2) Death from asphyxia, (3) Age, (4) infectious disease 15) If rigor mortis appears 2-6 hours after death, how about cadaveric spasm? Answer: immediately at the moment of death.


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16) This refers to a fixed or permanent discoloration when the blood clotted inside the blood vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body. Answer: Diffusion lividity 17) This refers to the burning of the dead body into ashes. Answer: Cremation 18) This voluntary contraction of muscles has a medico-legal implication because it records the last act of life in a person. Answer: cadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigor 19) What is referred to when the skin of dead person, if viewed through a strong light, an opaque will appear due to absence of floe? Answer: Opacity of the skin 20) A process of dissolution of tissues by the digestive action of its enzymes and bacteria that result of softening and liquefaction of tissues and usually accompanied by liberation of foul-smelling gases and change of color of the tissues Answer: putrification 21) In temperate countries, the body, when exposed to air, will be reduced to skeleton in: Answer: 5-6 months. 22) A dead body when buried in a well-drained soil and when embalmed, it will take ________ before an adult dead body will be reduced to skeleton. Answer: 10 years 23) What is referred to a method by placing the dead body in the grave? Answer: Burial 24) It is a form mummification wherein the forces of nature such as sunlight, warm climate or hot dry soil influences the dead body. Answer: Natural mummification


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25) What method of preserving the dead body for a certain period of time by the removal of the body fluid before decomposition set in. Answer: Embalming 26) This is refers to a lividity when the discoloration is due to the blood pooled in the most dependent areas of the body? Answer: Hypostatic Lividity 27) It is a method of judicial death wherein a poisonous substance is administered to the convict to produce death? Answer: Death by lethal injection 28) This refers to the discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels at the most dependent portion of the body and appears 20-30 minutes after death? Answer: Post mortem lividity (livor mortis) 29) Post mortem lividity (livor mortis) is completed within: Answer: 12 hours. 30) What body temperature is considered as a sign of death? Answer: 15 °F to 20 °F 31) What is the rate of growth of hair? Answer: 0.4mm to 0.5mm per day 32) It is a disputable presumption that a person not heard, seen or absent for ______ is dead. Answer: 7 years 33) This refers to the raising or disinterring of the dead body or remains from the grave. Answer: Burial 34) The dead body is subjected to autopsy by the physician and the findings will be presented to court as evidence to:


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Answer: Prove or disprove that a crime or foul play had been done to the victim 35) What are the importances of Post-mortem Lividity? Answer: (1) Sign of death, (2) Approximates the time of death, (3) Determines the position of the body after death, and (4) May indicate the cause or manner of death 36) This refers to an instance wherein a person suffering from a person hopeless incurable disease, ailment or condition will be placed to death to lessen his sufferings. Answer: Euthanasia or Mercy killing 37) This refers to death which occurs unexpected and outside of will due to misadventure. Answer: accidental death 38) Operation is only for a living, while autopsy is done to the: Answer: Dead body 39) What refers to the death that occurs due to a disease or ailment in the body? Answer: Natural death 40) What is referred to the death due to injuries by some forms of outside force wherein the physical injuries inflicted is the proximate cause of death? Answer: Violent death 41) Method of judicial death wherein the death convict is placed in front of firing squad and a volley of fire from the gun kill the victim. Answer: death by musketry:


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42) It is a post-mortem examination of the body after death. Answer: autopsy or necropsy 43) What is the purpose of autopsy or necropsy? Answer: Determine the cause of death through the findings in the body. 44) What is funeral? Answer: it is the procession of the dead body followed by the grieving relatives, friends and other persons to the place of burial in accordance with the religion, customs or traditions. 45) This refers to the sum total of all activities in which the physical integrity and biological properties are maintained. Answer: Life 46) A method of executing death penalty by placing death convict in a closed one-way mirror compartment and then a poisonous gas will kill the convict inside the compartment Answer: death by gas chamber 47) This refers to the burning of the dead body into ashes. Answer: Cremation 48) What is the other term of autopsy? Answer: Necropsy 49) What is the approximate number of days of a dead person, if the abdomen is distended with gases, trunk blooded, hair and nails loosened from attachment, and maggots are seen?


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Answer: 3 days or 72 hours 50) When the temperature of the dead’s body suddenly rises due to rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal changes, it is undergoing – Answer: post-mortem caloricity 51) A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is elongated and the splashes are found to be concentrated around one end of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the extension of the drop of blood indicates Answer: Direction movement 52) What is the cause of death due to a sudden and fatal cessation of the action of the hearth with circulation included? Answer: syncope 53) What is refers to a condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues has been reduced below normal working level? Answer: asphyxia 54) Refers to the state of unconsciousness with insensibility of the pupil and conjunctive, and inability to swallow, resulting from the arrest of the function of the brain? Answer: Coma 55) What is orthothanasia? Answer: there is orthothanasia when an incurably ill person is allowed to die a natural death without the application of any operative or treatment procedure. 56) The human body without food loses ____ of its weight daily and a loss of 40% of the weight results to death. Answer: 1/24th 57) What is length of survival of a human without food and water? Answer: cannot survive more than 10 days.

body


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58) What is the length of survival of a human body if there is water but without food? Answer: 50 to 60 days MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF PHYSICAL INJURY 59) What is injury? Answer: specific impairment of the body structure or function caused by an outside force or agent. 60) What is wound? Answer: wound is a break or solution in the continuity of the skin or tissues of the body. 61) What kind of wound when inflected to the body is immediately followed by death or is so serious that it will endanger the life of the victim? Answer: mortal wound 62) What are examples of mortal wounds which affect the vital organs? Answer: (1) brain, (2) spinal cord,(3) heart, (4) lungs, (5) liver, (6) kidney, (7) big blood vessels. 63) Wound which when inflicted to the body is not immediately followed by death. Answer: non-mortal wound. 64) What wound produced by blunt instrument? Answer: lacerated wound 65) What wound is produced by sharp-edge instrument? Answer: incised wound 66) What wound is produced instrument? Answer: punctured wound

by

sharp

pointed

67) What wound is produced by a sharp-edge and sharppointed instrument? Answer: stab wound


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68) What physical injury which is found at the site of the application of force. Answer: coup injury 69) What physical injury is found not at the site but opposite the site of the application of force? Answer: Contre coup injury 70) What physical injury which is found at the site and also opposite the site of the application of force? Answer: Coup contre coup injury 71) It is the physical injury which is found not at the site or opposite the site of the application of force but in some areas offering the least resistance to the forced applied. Answer: locus minoris resistencia 72) What wound which involves the outer layer of the skin? Answer: superficial wound 73) It is a condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure. Answer: frostbite 74) An exposure to freezing temperature characterized by cold stiffening, muscle cramps, necrosis and gangrene of the muscles in the foot Answer: trench foot. 75) What kind of burn if the body comes into contact with a moving object? Answer: friction burn 76) It is the burn which involves the superficial layer of the skin or tissues characterized by the redress and pain. Answer: first degree burn (1° Burn) 77) A form of strangulation wherein the assailant uses the arm or forearm legs or thigh in compressing the neck of the victim. Answer: mugging


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78) It is asphyxia by suffocation wherein there is a closure of the mouth or nose by solid objects such as the hands, pillows or by hard surface externally. Answer: smothering 79) It is the obstruction of the respiratory tract by foreign bodies which may be a bolus food, blood, false teeth or any hard material. It is usually accidental. Answer: choking 80) A form of traumatic crush asphyxia wherein the victim is murdered by kneeling or sitting on the chest and with hands, the nostrils and mouth are closed. Afterwards, the cadaver is sold to medical school to do scientific studies. Answer: burking 81) It is a deprivation of food and or water which is necessary for the maintenance of life and health. Answer: starvation or inanition 82) Stoppage of respiration, or asphyxia due to such stoppage. Answer: suffocation 83) What is emphysema? Answer: abnormal presence of air or gas in the body tissue. SEXUAL OFFENSE AND DEVIATION 84) What is homosexual? Answer: a person who is sexually attracted to the same sex. 85) What is refers to the rupture or laceration of the hymen in woman due to sexual intercourse? Answer: defloration


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86) Refers to a condition of a woman who have not experience sexual intercourse or whose genital organs had not been altered by coitus. Answer: virginity 87) What is blood? Answer: circulating tissue of the body 88) The red color of the blood is due to the presence of _________ in the red blood corpuscles. Answer: hemoglobin 89) What test is used to determine whether the blood is of human origin or not. Answer: precipitin test 90) When the wounded body part is the heart, the wound is ______. Answer: mortal wounds 91) About ______ of blood is plasma and about 90% of the plasma is water. Answer: 65% 92) What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a single ejaculation? Answer: 1.5 to 3.5 cc 93) What is the composition of blackpowder for firearms ammunition? Answer: mixture of charcoal (15%), sulphur and potassium (10%), or sodium nitrate (75%) 94) What wound is inflected when the muzzle of the gun is held directly against the body at the time of discharge? Answer: Contact wound 95) What are the indications of contact wound? Answer: (1) fabric is badly torn,(2) blackened area surrounding the bullet hole, (3) singeing of the fibers at the entrance, (4) presence of partially burned powder residue around the entrance hole


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96) What is produced when the gun is held from about 2 inches to a maximum of 8 inches? Answer: smudging 97) If the gun is held at a slightly greater distance but within the range of the powder blast which was estimated to be about 36 inches, what is produced? Answer: tattooing -oOo-

Criminalistics Manual(Booklet)

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