Cat ATPL Full Question

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 010-ATC

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

Visual Flight Rules Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodrome within a CTR or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern when the a)

ceiling is less than 1 000 ft or the ground visibility is less than 8 km.

b)


c)


d)


Authority The final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft has the: a)

ATC controller whenever the aircraft is flying in controlled airspace.

b)

Pilot-in-command.

c)

aircraft owner.

d)

Operator.

Avoidance of collisions The highest priority for landing has: a)

an aircraft that is compelled to land (Emergency landing).

b)

an aircraft on a diplomatic flight (Head of state).

c)

an Air Ambulance carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention.

d)

a military aircraft.

Visual Flight Rules An aircraft operating in accordance with VFR, above the sea at altitudes between 4500 ft and 9000 ft AMSL, outside controlled airspace shall maintain at least a)

a distance from cloud of 600 m horizontally and 1000 ft vertically and a flight visibility of 5 km.

b)


c)


d)


Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20. Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T. 005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

JAR-ATPL


The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are: a)

1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

b)

2 000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

c)

1 mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility

d)

clear of clouds; 8 km visibility

Visual Flight Rules Above an altitude of 10000 ft, flights operating within airspace Class "G" in accordance with VFR shall observe the following weather minima: a)

a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.

b)

a distance from cloud: 1 Nautical Mile (NM) horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.

c)

a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 5 km.

d)

a distance from cloud: 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically, flight visibility: 8 km.

A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan by plus or minus: a)

5%

b)

2%

c)

3%

d)

10 %

Interception An aircraft equipped with SSR transponder which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic service unit, select Mode A a)

Code 7000.

b)

Code 7700.

c)

Code 7600.

d)

Code 7500.


page: 2

C.A.T. 009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

JAR-ATPL


Interception An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio-communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit, by making a general call on the frequency a)

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.

b)

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 243 MHz.

c)

243 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 125.5 MHz.

d)

121.5 MHz. If no contact has been established, and if practicable, repeat this call on the frequency 282.8 MHz.

Interception, DAY or NIGHT Which manoeuvre will be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot of this aircraft wants to communicate to the intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED"? a)

Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at regular intervals.

b)

Circling the intercepted aircraft in a counter-clockwise pattern for aeroplanes, in a clockwise pattern for helicopter.

c)

Rocking aircraft twice in front of the intercepting aircraft, after acknowledgement by intercepted aircraft a slow level turn (normally to the left).

d)

An abrupt break-away manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a)

Switching on and off four times the landing lights

b)

Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

c)

Switching on and off three times the landing lights

d)

The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights

If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing? a)

Descend

b)

Descend for landing

c)

You land

d)

Let down


page: 3

C.A.T. 013.)

014.)

015.)

016.)

JAR-ATPL


If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received? a)

CAN NOT

b)

UNABLE TO COMPLY

c)

CAN NOT COMPLY

d)

NOT POSSIBLE

A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means: a)

Continue circling and wait for further instructions

b)

The airport is unsafe, do not land

c)

The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

d)

Give way to other aircraft in emergency

On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to: a)

other converging aircraft

b)

aircraft taking off or about to take off

c)

all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle

d)

other vehicles and pedestrians

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace? a)

2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

b)

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position of the aircraft

c)

2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course

d)

1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course


page: 4

C.A.T. 017.)

018.)

019.)

020.)

JAR-ATPL


Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way? a)

Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is approaching

b)

Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

c)

Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching

d)

Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right

Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the track? a)

Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions

b)

If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions

c)

Inform the ATC unit immediately

d)

Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable

While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? a)

Squawk 7700

b)

Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan

c)

Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours

d)

The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as circumstances permit

A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals: a)

Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.

b)

Crossing arms extended above his head

c)

Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground

d)

Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then clench fist


page: 5

C.A.T. 021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is: a)

adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination

b)

descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations

c)

continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed flight plan.

d)

land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing

A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means: a)

Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.

b)

Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

c)

Come back and land.

d)

Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is: A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track. The tracks are not reciprocal. a)

Base turn

b)

Procedure turn

c)

Reversal procedure

d)

Race track

OCA An OCA is referenced to: a)

the Aerodrome Reference Point

b)

an Aerodrome Elevation

c)

Mean Sea Level

d)

the relevant Runway Threshold


page: 6

C.A.T. 025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

JAR-ATPL


Definitions What is: A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track: a)

Race track.

b)

Procedure turn.

c)

Reversal track.

d)

Base turn.

Circling approach One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: a)

The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight.

b)

The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

c)

The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

d)

The required visual references have been established and can be maintained.

Holding procedures If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should: a)

follow the radio communication failure procedure.

b)

advise ATC as early as possible.

c)

execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane.

d)

remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.

Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern at 14000 ft or below in still air conditions is: a)

1 minute.

b)

30 seconds.

c)

2 minutes.

d)

1,5 minutes.


page: 7

C.A.T. 029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

JAR-ATPL


Holding procedures (entry) You have received instructions to hold over a radio fix. The published procedure is: All turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound Magnetic Track 052°. You are approaching the fix on Magnetic Track 232°. Select the appropriate entry procedure: a)

parallel or direct.

b)

either offset or parallel.

c)

offset only.

d)

direct only.

Holding procedures (outbound time) The outbound time in a holding pattern above 14000 ft in still air conditions is: a)

2 minutes 30 seconds.

b)

2 minutes.

c)

1 minute.

d)

1 minute 30 seconds.

Altimeter setting (change during climb) On flights in accordance with IFR, the change of the altimeter setting from QNH to Standard shall be made at the: a)

transition level.

b)

level specified by ATC.

c)

transition layer.

d)

transition altitude.

AIP Which part contains a brief description of areas and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided? a)

METEO

b)

AD

c)

GEN

d)

ENR


page: 8

C.A.T. 033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

JAR-ATPL


AIP Which part of the AIP gives detailed information about refuelling facilities and the fuel grades available? a)

AD

b)

FAL

c)

GEN

d)

ENR

AIP Which part of the AIP contains information relating to existing prohibited, restricted and danger areas? a)

ENR

b)

The AIP does not contain this information

c)

GEN

d)

AD

A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: a)

Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).

b)

NOTAM.

c)

AIRAC.

d)

Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).

A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is: a)

A NOTAM RAC.

b)

An ATS NOTAM.

c)

An Advisory NOTAM.

d)

An AIRAC.


page: 9

C.A.T. 037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

JAR-ATPL


Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination of: a)

AIP, NOTAMs, Circular and AIRAC.

b)

Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.

c)

Only NOTAMs and Circulars.

d)

Only AIP and NOTAMs.

"Instrument runways" are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach procedures. a)

Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

b)

Precision approach runways in general.

c)

Precision approach runways category I, II and III.

d)

Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.

"Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: a)

23 m.

b)

18 m.

c)

25 m.

d)

15 m.

"TODA" take-off distance available is: a)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

b)

The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).

c)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way.

d)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stop way and clearway (if provided).


page: 10

C.A.T. 041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

JAR-ATPL


"Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to: a)

Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

b)

Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.

c)

Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

d)

Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? a)

Code letter "E".

b)

Code letter "B".

c)

Code letter "C".

d)

Code letter "D".

According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of: a)

36 m up to but not including 52 m.

b)


c)


d)


In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify: a)

The length of the aircraft fuselage.

b)

The width of the aircraft wing.

c)

Only the aircraft wing span.

d)

The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.

The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed of two elements which are related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under listed: a)

4F.

b)

5E.

c)

2B.

d)

6D.


page: 11

C.A.T. 046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

JAR-ATPL


According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the "Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field length of: a)

1 200 m.

b)

1 800 m and over.

c)

1 500 m.

d)

1 600 m.

The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a suitable area where: a)

A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.

b)

A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

c)

An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

d)

An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.

"ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is: a)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

b)

The length of the runway plus the length of stop way available (if stop way provided).

c)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way (if stop way provided) .

d)

The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stop way and clearway (if provided) .

How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following a normal glide path defined by a PAPI? a)

None.

b)

3.

c)

1.

d)

2.

Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be: a)

Fixed lights showing green.

b)

Fixed lights showing white.

c)

Fixed lights showing blue.

d)

Fixed lights showing yellow.


page: 12

C.A.T. 051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

JAR-ATPL


In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be: a)

Fixed lights showing variable white.

b)

Fixed lights showing variable green.

c)

Flashing lights showing variable green.

d)

Flashing lights showing variable white.

The abbreviation PAPI stands for: a)

Precision Approach Power Index.

b)

Precision Approach Path Indicator.

c)

Precision Approach Power Indicator.

d)

Precision Approach Path Index.

The "PAPI" shall consist of: a)

Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

b)

A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

c)

Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.

d)

A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.

In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when: a)

Only on the approach slope.

b)

Below the approach slope.

c)

Above the approach slope.

d)

On or close to the approach slope.

In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be supplemented: a)

By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and the central has no letter.

b)

By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways.

c)

By a letter for 2 parallel runways.

d)

By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for 3 "L", "C" and "R".


page: 13

C.A.T. 056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL


Taxiway edge lights shall be: a)

Flashing showing blue.

b)

Fixed showing yellow.

c)

Fixed showing green.

d)

Fixed showing blue.

Runway end lights shall be: a)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.

b)


c)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.

d)

Fixed lights showing variable red.

Runway threshold lights shall be: a)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.

b)

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.

c)

Fixed lights green colours.

d)

Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be: a)

Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.

b)

Flashing white.

c)


d)

Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.

Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be: a)

Flashing white.

b)

Flashing green.

c)

Fixed green.

d)

Fixed white.


page: 14

C.A.T. 061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

JAR-ATPL


The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be: a)

White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.

b)

Green colour identification given by Morse Code.

c)

Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.

d)

White colour identification given by Morse Code.

In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing bar? a)

4.

b)

3.

c)

5.

d)

2.

In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: a)

150 m.

b)

250 m.

c)

200 m.

d)

300 m.

High intensity obstacle lights should be: a)

Fixed red.

b)

Flashing white.

c)

Fixed orange.

d)

Flashing red.

Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: a)

Flashing red or preferably yellow.

b)

Fixed red or preferably orange.

c)

Fixed red or preferably blue.

d)

Flashing blue.


page: 15

C.A.T. 066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

JAR-ATPL


Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be: a)

Flashing red.

b)

Fixed orange.

c)

Flashing yellow.

d)

Fixed red.

The runway edge lights shall be: a)

blue

b)

white

c)

green

d)

red

A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means: a)

The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.

b)

Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

c)

An area unit for the movement of aircraft.

d)

Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on: a)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.

b)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight.

c)

The over-all length of the longest aeroplane.

d)

The longest aeroplane maximum width only

The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination. a)

The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.

b)

The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.

c)

The stated above is correct.

d)

The operator has no obligation.


page: 16

C.A.T. 071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

JAR-ATPL


Search and Rescue The unit responsible for promoting efficient organisation of search and rescue service is the: a)

Flight Information Centre

b)

Alerting Centre

c)

Area Control Centre

d)

Rescue Co-ordination Centre

Accident, incident notification and reporting After landing, while taxiing towards the apron, the landing gear of your aircraft sinks into a hole. No persons are injured, but the aircraft sustains structural damage. As a consequence you have to cancel the onward flight. a)

This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.

b)

Since there is no person injured and the flight is terminated, a damage report has to be made out with the services of the aerodrome in charge of the runway and taxiways for the insurance company.

c)

This is an irregularity in the operation. The crew must inform the operator of the aerodrome and establish a report.

d)

This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: a)

Control zone.

b)

Flight Information Region.

c)

Advisory airspace.

d)

Control area.

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is: a)

Air traffic zone.

b)

Advisory airspace.

c)

Control area.

d)

Control zone.


page: 17

C.A.T. 075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

JAR-ATPL


ATS airspace's where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: a)

Class A.

b)

Class B.

c)

Class E.

d)

Class D.

Aerodrome traffic is: a)

All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.

b)

All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

c)

All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

d)

All traffic on the manoeuvring area.

Air Traffic Service unit means: a)

Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services reporting offices.

b)

Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.

c)

Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.

d)

Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.

Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled? a)

The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.

b)

The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.

c)

The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control Tower.

d)

The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.

Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services are provided: a)

Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.

b)

Flight Information Service only.

c)

Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.

d)

Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.


page: 18

C.A.T. 080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

JAR-ATPL


Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows: a)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.

b)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.

c)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.

d)

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.

A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: a)

10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

b)


c)


d)

5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from which approaches may be made.

A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water of not less than: a)

500 metres.

b)

300 metres.

c)

200 metres.

d)

150 metres.

The units providing Air Traffic Services are: a)

Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.

b)

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.

c)

Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.

d)

Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.


page: 19

C.A.T. 084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

JAR-ATPL


Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: a)

Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

b)

Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

c)

Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

d)

Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: a)

Achieving separation between IFR flights

b)

Providing flight Information Service

c)

Providing advisory service

d)

Achieving separation between controlled flights

Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of: a)

Achieving separation between controlled flights

b)

Providing flight Information Service

c)

Providing alerting services

d)

Providing advisory services

You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearance expires at 0920. What does it mean? a)

If not airborne until 0920, a new clearance has to be issued

b)

After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan

c)

Do not take off before 0920

d)

The take off clearance is expected at 0920

When are ATIS broadcasts updated? a)

Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

b)

Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values

c)

Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ; otherwise hourly

d)

Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or instrument approach in use


page: 20

C.A.T. 089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

JAR-ATPL


When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the: a)

flight information or control organisations

b)

search and rescue co-ordination centres

c)

operational air traffic control centres

d)

air traffic co-ordination services

The Alerting Service is provided by: a)

The Area Control Centres.

b)

The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.

c)

The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.

d)

Only by ATC units.

The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are: a)

uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.

b)

uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.

c)

uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

d)

uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.

A radio communications, "Distress" differs from "Urgency" because in the first case: a)

There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

b)

The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.

c)

The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.

d)

The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.

Alert phase is defined as follows: a)

An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened by a danger.

b)

A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

c)

A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.

d)

A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of emergency.


page: 21

C.A.T. 094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

JAR-ATPL


Separation methods and minima - ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC INFORMATION Essential traffic is: a)

Controlled Traffic separated from other controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.

b)

Uncontrolled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled VFR flights within advisory airspace.

c)

Controlled Traffic not separated from another controlled traffic with the prescribed separation minima.

d)

Controlled IFR flights separated from uncontrolled flights within advisory airspace.

General provisions - change from IFR to VFR a)

A change from instrument flight rules (IFR) to visual flight rules (VFR) is only acceptable, when VFR is permitted in that air space and when the PIC has requested and obtained an ATC CLR for the change and has filed a special VFR flight plan.

b)

the position of the change has been noted on the ATC flight plan. The cancellation of the IFR flight will then be made automatically by ATC.

c)

the change is initiated by the PIC with a message containing the specific expression "cancelling my IFR flight".

d)

ATC invites the PIC to change from IFR to VFR.

General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is in excess of: a)

30 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

b)

30 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

c)

60 minutes of the estimated time off blocks.

d)

60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.

General provisions for ATS - Content of voice position reports (according Doc4444) A complete position report transmitted by radiotelephony shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed. a)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

b)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) flight level or altitude, 4) time, 5) next position and time over, 6) ensuing significant point.

c)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) true air speed, 5) flight level or altitude, 6) next position and time over.

d)

1) Aircraft identification, 2) position, 3) time, 4) flight level or altitude, 5) next position, 6) time over.


page: 22

C.A.T. 098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

JAR-ATPL


General provisions - Responsibility for terrain clearance Who is in general responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance? a)

The aircraft operator.

b)

The pilot-in-command.

c)

The ATS reporting office accepting the flight plan.

d)

The ATC.

General provisions - handling an ATC-flight plan in case of a delay In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight for which a flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one cancelled, when the delay is exceeding the original a)

estimated departure time by 30 minutes.

b)

estimated off-block time by 30 minutes.

c)

estimated off-block time by 60 minutes.

d)

estimated departure time by 60 minutes.

Procedures related to communication failure - IFR in VMC Which procedure do you follow after having experienced a two way communication failure during a flight in accordance with IFR in VMC? a)

Maintain the assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome where VMC conditions prevail.

b)

Continue to fly in VMC and return to the aerodrome of departure.

c)

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report the arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic Control unit.

d)

Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, carry out level changes as indicated in the filed ATC flight plan, start the approach to the flight plan destination at the planned ETA.

General provisions - amended clearance If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot-in-command of an aircraft a)

The PIC may request an amended clearance from the ATC. Amended clearances will only be given when VMC prevails.

b)

The PIC has to accept the ATC clearance. The clearance is based on the flight plan filed with ATC.

c)

The PIC may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

d)

The PIC may propose another clearance. ATC has to amend the clearance in accordance with the pilots request.


page: 23

C.A.T. 102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

JAR-ATPL


Separation - VMC and own separation The "Clearance to fly maintaining own separation while in visual meteorological conditions" may be given by the appropriate ATS authority. This has to be requested by the pilot of a controlled flight and has to be agreed by the pilot of the other aircraft. The conditions are: a)

Airspace Class C, VMC, hours of daylight

b)

Airspace Class B. C, D and E, VMC

c)

Airspace Class D and E, VMC, hours of daylight

d)

Airspace Class C, D, VMC

Separation Methods and Minima – General What are the controlled traffic separation methods applied by ATC? a)

Vertical and horizontal separation.

b)

Time separation and track separation.

c)

Composite separation.

d)

Vertical, horizontal and angular separation.

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is: a)

2000 feet (600 m).

b)

2500 feet (750 m).

c)

1000 feet (300 m).

d)

500 feet (150 m).

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace above FL 290 is: a)

4000 feet (1200 m).

b)

2000 feet (600 m).

c)

1000 feet (300 m).

d)

500 feet (150 m).


page: 24

C.A.T. 106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

JAR-ATPL


Communications Failure - Flight Procedures You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route. At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction from the radar controller: "Turn immediately, fly heading 050° until further advised". At 18:37 UTC you discover a communication failure. Two way radio communication cannot be established again. a)

You continue on Heading 050 for 15 minutes.

b)

You continue on Heading 050.

c)

You continue on Heading 050 for 30 minutes.

d)

You have to return to your current flight plan route.

Separation methods and minima - vertical separation Above flight level FL 290 the Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) between aircraft flying in the same direction is: a)

4 000 feet.

b)

3 000 feet.

c)

1 500 feet.

d)

2 000 feet.

Separation in the vicinity of aerodromes - timed approaches A "Timed Approach Procedure" may be utilized as necessary in order to expedite the approaches of a number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained by requesting aircraft to a)

notify the time when passing a specified point.

b)

pass a specified point inbound at the previously notified time.

c)

keep distance and time equal between aircraft in the approach.

d)

maintain a specified airspeed during the approach procedure.

General provisions for ATS - obstacle clearance When does Air Traffic Control Services have the responsibility to prevent collisions with terrain? a)

ATS never prevent collisions with terrain.

b)

When a flight in accordance with IFR is vectored by radar.

c)

ATS only provides prevention when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

d)

Always when ATS are provided.


page: 25

C.A.T. 110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

JAR-ATPL


One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: a)

To conduct surveillance radar approaches.

b)

To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.

c)

To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.

d)

To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.

The primary duty provided by a radar unit is: a)

To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.

b)

To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.

c)

To assist aircraft on the location storms.

d)

To provide radar separation.

When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall: a)

Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.

b)

Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.

c)

not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.

d)

Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.

One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is: a)

To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.

b)

To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.

c)

To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.

d)

To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).

Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: a)

2 NM.

b)

3 NM.

c)

5 NM.

d)

4 NM.


page: 26

C.A.T. 115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

JAR-ATPL


When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures: a)

To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".

b)

To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".

c)

To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".

d)

Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".

Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures: a)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.

b)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.

c)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.

d)

To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.

Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference? a)

Code 2000.

b)

Code 7600.

c)

Code 7700.

d)

Code 7500.

Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? a)

Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

b)

Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.

c)

You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

d)

ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has been lost.


page: 27

C.A.T. 119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

JAR-ATPL


What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to an airway? a)

You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

b)

Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

c)

You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.

d)

Radar Service is terminated.

The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed: a)

15th of October the same year

b)

30th of October the same year

c)

30th of April the following year

d)

31th of December the same year

Abbreviations What does the abbreviation OIS mean? (Doc 8168) a)

Obstacle in surface.

b)

Obstacle identification slope.

c)

Obstacle identification surface.

d)

Obstruction in surface.

Abbreviations In Pans-Ops, the abbreviation DER stands for (Doc 8168) a)

Distance error in routing.

b)

Direct entry route.

c)

Displaced end of runway.

d)

Departure end of runway.


page: 28

C.A.T. 123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

JAR-ATPL


Instrument Departure Procedure - Wind correction Flying an Instrument Departure Procedure pilots are expected to: a)

request a clearance from ATC with regards to a wind correction to be applied.

b)

ignore the wind and proceed on a heading equal to the track.

c)

request from ATC an adequate heading to cater for wind direction and strength.

d)

correct the track for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

Departure procedure – Design The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are: a)

ATC availability and requirements.

b)

airspace restrictions applicable and in force.

c)

availability of navigation aids.

d)

the terrain surrounding the aerodrome.

Instrument Departure Procedures - Obstacle Clearance The minimum obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway equals: a)

35 ft.

b)

0 ft.

c)

0.8 % gradient.

d)

3.3 % gradient.

Standard Instrument Departure Procedures - Straight Departures A straight departure is one in which the initial departure track does not deviate from the alignment of the extended runway centre line by more than: a)

30°.

b)

15°.

c)

45°.

d)

12.5°.


page: 29

C.A.T. 127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

JAR-ATPL


Holding procedures - Offset Entry Above 14000 ft in still air, the outbound time on a 30° offset track is limited to: a)

2 minutes.

b)

1 minute.

c)

1 minute 30 seconds.

d)

3 minutes.

Arrival and Approach segments, General What are the names of all separate segments that can be part of an instrument approach procedure? a)

Initial, intermediate, final.

b)

Descend, holding arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

c)

Arrival, holding, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

d)

Arrival, initial, intermediate, final, missed approach.

Approach Procedures -Arrival and Approach Segments The minimum obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment for an instrument approach procedure is at least: a)

150m (492 ft).

b)

300m (984 ft).

c)

450m (1476 ft).

d)

600m (1968 ft).

Approach procedures, Arrival and Approach Segments - Intermediate approach segment What is the minimum obstacle clearance requirement at the end of the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure? a)

150m (492 ft) reducing to 0 m.

b)

450m (1476 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).

c)

300 m (984 ft) reducing to 0 m.

d)

300m (984 ft) reducing to 150 m (492 ft).


page: 30

C.A.T. 131.)

132.)

133.)

134.)

JAR-ATPL


Approach procedures - Arrival and approach segments In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are made is called: a)

Arrival segment.

b)

Initial approach segment.

c)

Final approach segment.

d)

Intermediate approach segment.

Approach procedures - Final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the: a)

FAP.

b)

FAF.

c)

IF.

d)

MAP.

Approach procedures - final approach segment In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path interception occurs at heights above runway elevation from: a)

300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

b)

150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

c)

150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

d)

300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

Approach procedures - Final approach segment - precision approach – ILS The ILS obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline more than: a)

A quarter of a scale deflection after being established on the track.

b)

Half a scale deflection after being established on the track.

c)

One full scale deflection after being established on the track.

d)

One and a half of a scale deflection after being established on the track.


page: 31

C.A.T. 135.)

136.)

137.)

138.)

JAR-ATPL


Approach Procedures - Missed Approach – Phases A complete missed approach procedure consists of the following phases? a)

Arrival, intermediate and final.

b)

Initial, intermediate and final.

c)

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

d)

Initial and final.

Approach Procedures – Circling The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: a)

Visual approach.

b)

Visual manoeuvring (circling).

c)

Contact approach.

d)

Aerodrome traffic pattern.

Approach Procedures – Circling It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published procedure: a)

Permits circling only in VMC.

b)

Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

c)

Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

d)

Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.

Approach Procedures - Visual Flight Manoeuvre – Circling A circling approach is: a)

A visual flight manoeuvre that may be carried out as long as visual ground contact can be maintained.

b)

A visual flight manoeuvre to be performed when radar vectoring is available.

c)

A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

d)

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway environment in sight while at MDA/H.


page: 32

C.A.T. 139.)

140.)

141.)

142.)

JAR-ATPL


Holding Procedures – Entry Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors boundaries of: a)

15°.

b)

5°.

c)

10°.

d)

20°.

Holding Procedures - Buffer Area How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? a)

5 NM.

b)

3 NM.

c)

5 km.

d)

3 km.

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Altitude The transition altitude of an aerodrome shall be as low as possible but normally not less than: a)

1500 ft.

b)

2500 ft.

c)

3000 ft.

d)

1000 ft.

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Level The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level with altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa has to be reported: a)

as Altitude.

b)

as Height.

c)

According to pilot's choice.

d)

as Flight Level.


page: 33

C.A.T. 143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

JAR-ATPL


SSR – Transponder When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder: a)

At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.

b)

Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.

c)

Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.

d)

Only when directed by ATC.

SSR – Transponder When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode a)

regardless of ATC instructions.

b)

unless otherwise directed by ATC.

c)

only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.

d)

only when directed by ATC.

SSR – Transponder When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by setting the transponder to Mode A, Code a)

7700.

b)

7600.

c)

7000.

d)

7500.

SSR – Transponder Pilots shall not SQUAK IDENT unless they: a)

operate within controlled airspace.

b)

are requested by ATC.

c)

operate a transponder with Mode C.

d)

operate outside controlled airspace.


page: 34

C.A.T. 147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

JAR-ATPL


SSR – Transponder When acknowledging mode / code setting instructions, pilots shall: a)

read back the mode and code to be set.

b)

read back the code to be set and SQUAK IDENT.

c)

use the word ROGER.

d)

use the word WILCO.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed, is: a)

3 minutes.

b)

15 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

5 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a)

5 minutes.

b)

10 minutes.

c)

3 minutes.

d)

15 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a)

5 minutes.

b)

6 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

3 minutes.


page: 35

C.A.T. 151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL


The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a)

2 minutes.

b)

5 minutes.

c)

3 minutes.

d)

10 minutes.

The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is: a)

3 minutes.

b)

5 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

8 minutes.

When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: a)

5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.

b)


c)


d)


The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: a)

20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

b)

5 NM.

c)

20 NM.

d)

10 NM.


page: 36

C.A.T. 155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL


The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is: a)

20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft.

b)


c)


d)


A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on track" way-point. This minimum is: a)

20 NM.

b)

50 NM.

c)

80 NM.

d)

60 NM.

A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in controlled airspace classified as: a)

B.

b)

B, C and D.

c)

B and C.

d)

B, C, D and E.

One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: a)

30° immediately after take-off.

b)


c)


d)



page: 37

C.A.T. 159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

JAR-ATPL


Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when: a)

The preceding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.

b)


c)


d)


When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an angle not greater than: a)

20 degrees.

b)

25 degrees.

c)

15 degrees.

d)

30 degrees.

The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake turbulence: a)

3 NM.

b)

5 NM.

c)

2 NM.

d)

2.5 NM.

The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the localizer course shall be: a)

5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.

b)


c)


d)

3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course.


page: 38

C.A.T. 163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

JAR-ATPL


The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: a)

+/- 500 ft.

b)

+/- 200 ft.

c)

+/- 250 ft.

d)

+/- 300 ft.

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall be: a)

5.0 NM.

b)

3.5 NM.

c)

3.0 NM.

d)

10.0 NM.

The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller criterion): a)

+/- 200 ft.

b)

+/- 150 ft.

c)

+/- 250 ft.

d)

+/- 300 ft.

An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR mode C derived level information indicated that it is within: a)

+/- 500 ft of the assigned level.

b)


c)


d)



page: 39

C.A.T. 167.)

168.)

169.)

170.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the required direction by: a)

More than 300 ft.

b)

+/- 300 ft.

c)

300 ft.

d)

More than 200 ft.

The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below: a)

1.5 NM.

b)

2.0 NM.

c)

3.0 NM.

d)

5.0 NM.

Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately: a)

8 NM.

b)

6 NM.

c)

10 NM.

d)

5 NM.

An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for significant interval during the last: a)

2 NM.

b)

3 NM.

c)

4 NM.

d)

1 NM.


page: 40

C.A.T. 171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

JAR-ATPL


When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of: a)

1 NM from touchdown.

b)


c)

2.5 NM from touchdown.

d)


Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than: a)

+/- 15 kt.

b)

+/- 20 kt.

c)

+/- 10 kt.

d)

+/- 8 kt.

The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the aircraft has passed: a)

3 NM from the threshold on final approach.

b)


c)


d)


Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service: a)

Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified.

b)

may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.

c)

need to file a flight plan

d)

Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service.


page: 41

C.A.T. 175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

JAR-ATPL


Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for medical supply and first aid equipment is: a)

Black

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Yellow

The colour identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers according to the following code: a)

Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

b)

Red for food and water.

c)

Black for food and water.

d)

Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.

Search and Rescue The colour of droppable containers and streamers for food and water is: a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Yellow

d)

Black

The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: a)

A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.

b)

A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

c)

Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.

d)

Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.


page: 42

C.A.T. 179.)

180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

JAR-ATPL


In accordance with annex 1, when a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state, the validity of the authorisation: a)

Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.

b)

Is only considered for PPL.

c)

Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.

d)

Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.

Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for adoption? a)

the Air Navigation Commission

b)

the Assembly

c)

the Council

d)

the Regional Air Navigation meeting

You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a PPL a)

With a valid licence plus flight instructor rating

b)

With a PPL plus flight instructor rating

c)

With a CPL

d)

With a PPL plus CPL theory

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is: a)

6 months

b)

5 years

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

AIP Which part of the AIP contains a list with "Location Indicators"? a)

ENR

b)

AD

c)

LOC

d)

GEN


page: 43

C.A.T. 184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

JAR-ATPL


The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is: a)

17 years

b)

16 years

c)

21 years

d)

18 years

An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than: a)

70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

b)


c)


d)


Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT? a)

Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: not required ;

b)

Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: required ;

c)

Service provided: Air Traffic Control Service; ATC Clearance: not required

d)

Service provided: Traffic Information as far as practical; ATC Clearance: required ;

VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are: a)

5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;

b)

8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds ;

c)

8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;

d)

No minima, VFR flights are not permitted

During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication failure. You will: a)

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC

b)

Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;

c)

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

d)

Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;


page: 44

C.A.T. 189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

193.)

JAR-ATPL


An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighbouring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised? a)

2nd freedom

b)

3rd freedom

c)

1st freedom

d)

4th freedom

Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more than: a)

25 knots at any stage

b)

20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold

c)

15 knots at any stage

d)

10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold

What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II: a)

300m

b)

150m

c)

600m

d)

900m

What is a "barrette"? a)

a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.

b)

three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.

c)

a CAT II or III holding position.

d)

a high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.

When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at: a)

450 m from threshold

b)


c)


d)



page: 45

C.A.T. 194.)

195.)

196.)

197.)

JAR-ATPL


Approach Procedures - Non-precision - straight-in A so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered to be acceptable for a non-precision approach, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway centreline is: a)

20° or less

b)

40° or less

c)

10° or less

d)

30° or less

To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E : a)

a clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required.

b)

a clearance and two-way radio communication is required.

c)

a clearance is required.

d)

two way radio communication is not required.

Which statement regarding approach control service is correct? a)

If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft

b)

An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and approach control ;

c)

During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ;

d)

Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ;

Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway. Identification has to be achieved within: a)

1NM

b)

5NM

c)

3NM

d)

2NM


page: 46

C.A.T. 198.)

199.)

200.)

201.)

JAR-ATPL


Runway-lead-in lighting should consist: a)

of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ;

b)

of an arbitrary amount of green lights;

c)

always of a straight row of lights towards the runway

d)

of flashing lights only;

Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct? a)

Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same ATS unit

b)

The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

c)

Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about this;

d)

The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received;

Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? a)

An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ;

b)

Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller;

c)

The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the movement area;

d)

ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicle

Which statement is correct? a)

The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL;

b)

The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL;

c)

The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level

d)

The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL;


page: 47

C.A.T. 202.)

203.)

204.)

205.)

206.)

JAR-ATPL


The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called: a)

Composite separation

b)

Reduced separation

c)

Combined separation

d)

Essential separation

The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published: a)

only in AIP

b)

in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.

c)

NOTAM, AIP and MAL

d)

only in NOTAM

Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration: a)

mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

b)

mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.

c)

information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.

d)

information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.

When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, ATC has to be informed in case: a)

it is a deviation from the track.

b)

the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flight plan.

c)

the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.

d)

of an emergency.

When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, than: a)

you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;

b)

you are not allowed to commence the flight

c)

the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

d)

departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed


page: 48

C.A.T. 207.)

208.)

209.)

210.)

JAR-ATPL


Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight: a)

at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

b)

at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

c)

at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

d)

at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position

An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light: a)

while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;

b)

outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;

c)

on the ground when the engines are running

d)

outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;

The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that: a)

this aerodrome is using parallel runways

b)

taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;

c)

glider flying is performed outside the landing area;

d)

landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;

Interception If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall: a)

select transponder mode A, squawk 7600, fly holding patterns until having received instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.

b)

ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and request instructions from the appropriate ATS unit.

c)

ignore the signals of the intercepting aircraft and continue in accordance with the last clearance received and confirmed by the appropriate ATS unit.

d)

follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft and request immediate clarification.


page: 49

C.A.T. 211.)

212.)

213.)

214.)

JAR-ATPL


Approach procedures - Instrument Approach Area The primary area of an instrument approach segment is: a)

the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully.

b)

a defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which the Minimum Obstacle Clearance is provided.

c)

the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from zero ft to the appropriate minimum.

d)

the first part of the segment.

A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed: a)

during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the underlying ground;

b)

during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;

c)

as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more

d)

during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if: a)

the aircraft gets radar vectors ;

b)

the pilot is following the published approach procedure

c)

the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;

d)

all mentioned answers are correct

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is: a)

18 and 60 years

b)

17 and 59 years

c)

21 and 59 years

d)

16 and 60 years


page: 50

C.A.T. 215.)

216.)

217.)

218.)

JAR-ATPL


The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected delay is: a)

15 minutes or more

b)

10 minutes

c)

20 minutes

d)

5 minutes or more.

Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace than: a)

2,5 NM

b)

3 NM

c)

5 NM

d)

1,5 NM

During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower-controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the moment the aircraft is: a)

2 NM from touch-down;

b)


c)


d)

1NM from touch-down;

Which statement is correct ? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C): a)

the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

b)

ATC will apply separation with other traffic

c)

ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic

d)

ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic


page: 51

C.A.T. 219.)

220.)

221.)

222.)

JAR-ATPL


"Cabotage" refers to: a)

domestic air services ;

b)

a flight above territorial waters;

c)

a national air carrier;

d)

crop spraying

A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections. In section I the pilot fills in: a)

a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ;

b)

flight identification and weather noted ;

c)

weather noted ;

d)

urgent messages

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: a)

Declare an emergency

b)

As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

c)

Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

d)

Fly the emergency triangle

What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? a)

250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100

b)

250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195

c)

250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100

d)

250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels


page: 52

C.A.T. 223.)

224.)

225.)

226.)

JAR-ATPL


Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with runway code 4? a)

40 metres

b)

35 metres

c)

45 metres

d)

50 metres

Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this approach light system? a)

900 metres

b)

1000 metres

c)

420 metres

d)

1200 metres

One of the main objectives of ICAO is to: a)

approve new international airlines

b)

approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies

c)

develop principles and technique for international aviation

d)

approve new international airlines with jet aircraft

The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered: a)

binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference

b)

binding for all member states

c)

advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states

d)

binding for all air line companies with international traffic


page: 53

C.A.T. 227.)

228.)

229.)

230.)

JAR-ATPL


The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with: a)

the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

b)

limitation of the operator's liability for damage caused to passengers and goods transported

c)

operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation

d)

the security system at airports

Altimeter setting procedures - transition altitude / level In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of: a)

altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude

b)

flight level at or below the transition level

c)

altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude

d)

flight level at or below the transition altitude

Altimeter setting procedures - Transition Layer When flying through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as: a)

either altitude or flight level during climb

b)

flight level during descent

c)

altitude during climb

d)

altitude during descent

Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light system? a)

3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit

b)

5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit

c)

4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit

d)

3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit


page: 54

C.A.T. 231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

JAR-ATPL


The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot? a)

The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

b)

The aircraft is subject to positive control

c)

The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft

d)

Position reports may be omitted

What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? a)

1500 feet

b)

500 feet

c)

1000 feet

d)

2000 feet

Change from IFR to VFR will always take place: a)

on the initiative of the aircraft commander

b)

as instructed by an air traffic control unit

c)

at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions

d)

when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC

Approach procedures – Circling The visual contact with the runway is lost on the down-wind leg, while circling to land following an instrument approach. You have to initiate a go-around: a)

If you have other visual cues of the aerodrome environment, continue with visual ground contact.

b)

Turn towards the runway, maintain altitude and request ATC instructions.

c)

Make a turn of 90 degrees towards the runway and try to regain visual contact.

d)

Make an initial climbing turn towards the runway and initiate the missed approach.


page: 55

C.A.T. 235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO? a)

ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the convention

b)

ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such licenses

c)

ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations

d)

ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections

An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to: a)

Declare an emergency

b)

Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290

c)

Fly the emergency triangle

d)

As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimise the difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 3

c)

Annex 2

d)

Annex 4

Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum specifications for the design of aerodromes? a)

Annex 14

b)

Annex 6

c)

Annex 11

d)

Annex 10


page: 56

C.A.T. 239.)

240.)

241.)

242.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)? a)

Annex 14

b)

Annex 11

c)

Annex 17

d)

Annex 6

An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be expected? a)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120

b)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140

c)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70

d)

When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130

A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is: a)

Medium

b)

Good

c)

Medium/poor

d)

Poor

Accident investigation Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? a)

The aircraft manufacturer.

b)

The Operators of the same aircraft type.

c)

The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.

d)

The State of design and manufacturer.


page: 57

C.A.T. 243.)

244.)

245.)

246.)

JAR-ATPL


According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in degrees magnetic: a)

When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.

b)

In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.

c)

Before landing and take-off

d)

When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP

Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP a)

OCA or OCH

b)

Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector

c)

Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate

d)

DME-frequencies

Altimeter setting procedures – Definitions The Transition Level: a)

shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established.

b)

is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP.

c)

shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.

d)

is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

Altimeter setting procedures - transition level The transition level: a)

is calculated by the Pilot-in command

b)

will be passed to aircraft by ATS units

c)

is published and updated in the NOTAM

d)

is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome


page: 58

C.A.T. 247.)

248.)

249.)

250.)

251.)

JAR-ATPL


Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight level (FL) a)

Above the transition altitude when applicable

b)

if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet

c)

only in airspace class A

d)

When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa

Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible a)

Only when leaving controlled airspace

b)

If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes

c)

If the commander so requests

d)

If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes

For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: a)

Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight

b)

If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests

c)

At the discretion of the air traffic controller

d)

When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation

If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions a)

The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

b)

Continued approach will be according to VFR

c)

The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic

d)

The approach must be passing the FAF

What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft a)

2 km

b)

10 km

c)

3 NM

d)

6 NM


page: 59

C.A.T. 252.)

253.)

254.)

255.)

JAR-ATPL


Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or descend a)

15 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

12 NM

d)

10 NM

The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the: a)

Geneva convention 1936

b)

Warsaw convention 1929

c)

Chicago convention 1944

d)

Geneva convention 1948

Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is: a)

V

b)

Y

c)

N

d)

X

Search and Rescue signals The ground - air visual code for: "REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE" is: a)

X

b)

V

c)

N

d)

Y


page: 60

C.A.T. 256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

JAR-ATPL


The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The number of days is: a)

21

b)

30

c)

60

d)

90

If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed: a)

if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires

b)

After 21 days of consecutive "illness"

c)

after one calendar month of consecutive illness

d)

as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days

If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may take off in any direction a)

until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

b)

until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

c)

until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

d)

until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway

When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of: a)

1.5 NM from the touchdown

b)

2 NM from the touchdown

c)


d)



page: 61

C.A.T. 260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

JAR-ATPL


The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be given at each a)

half NM

b)

half mile

c)

1.5 NM

d)

1 NM

Clearance to land or any alternative clearance received from the non-radar controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of: a)

3 NM from touchdown

b)

5 NM from touchdown

c)

4 NM from touchdown

d)

2 NM from touchdown

An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of: a)


b)


c)


d)

1.5 NM from the touchdown

An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant interval during the: a)

Last 5 NM of the approach

b)


c)


d)



page: 62

C.A.T. 264.)

265.)

266.)

267.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach? a)

± 10KT

b)

± 15 KT

c)

± 20KT

d)

± 25 KT

Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be again brought into operation: a)

At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

b)


c)

At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft

d)


At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind component significant change is: a)

8 KT

b)

5 KT

c)

10 KT

d)

3 KT

At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is: a)

2 KT

b)

3 KT

c)

4 KT

d)

5 KT


page: 63

C.A.T. 268.)

269.)

270.)

271.)

JAR-ATPL


At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change is: a)

5 KT

b)

8 KT

c)

4 KT

d)

10 KT

Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by: a)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500

b)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700

c)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500

d)

Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700

When the Mach number technique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is: a)

70 NM

b)

100 NM

c)

80 NM

d)

60 NM

Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilises "on Track" DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is: a)

40 NM

b)

25 NM

c)

20 NM

d)

10 NM


page: 64

C.A.T. 272.)

273.)

274.)

275.)

JAR-ATPL


Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be a)

2 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

5 minutes

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be a)

2 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

3 minutes

d)

10 minutes

Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed will be a)

10 minutes

b)

3 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

15 minutes

Repetitive flight plans (RPLs) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and: a)

On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days

b)

On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days

c)

On at least 20 occasions

d)

On at least 20 days consecutively


page: 65

C.A.T. 276.)

277.)

278.)

279.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway? a)

5 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

2 minutes

d)

3 minutes

Special VFR flights may the authorised to operate locally within a control zone when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class: a)

C, D and E airspace

b)

E airspace

c)

D and E airspace

d)

D airspace

In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a medium aircraft? a)

light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

b)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes

c)

medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes

d)

medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes

A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted: a)

200 m (660 ft)

b)

150 m (500 ft)

c)

100 m (330 ft)

d)

300 m (1000 ft)


page: 66

C.A.T. 280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

JAR-ATPL


A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction runway separated by: a)

Less than 730 m

b)

760 m

c)

Less than 760 m

d)

730 m

A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is: a)

1 minute

b)

2 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

3 minutes

A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are established inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted: a)

2.0 NM

b)

1.0 NM

c)

5.0 NM

d)

3.0 NM

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: a)

the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

b)


c)


d)



page: 67

C.A.T. 284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

JAR-ATPL


When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the final vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle not greater than: a)

30 degrees

b)

15 degrees

c)

20 degrees

d)

25 degrees

Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least: a)

500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar display

b)


c)


d)


When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track in level flight for: a)

at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle

b)


c)


d)


Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that: the missed approach track for one approach diverges by: a)

at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach

b)


c)


d)



page: 68

C.A.T. 288.)

289.)

290.)

291.)

JAR-ATPL


In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway? a)

4 minutes

b)

1 minute

c)

3 minutes

d)

2 minutes

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: a)

240 KT IAS

b)

Not applicable

c)

250 KT IAS

d)

250 KT TAS

The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: a)

250 KT TAS

b)

240 KT IAS

c)

Not applicable

d)

250 KT IAS

The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is: a)

250 KT TAS

b)

260 KT IAS

c)

250 KT IAS

d)

Not applicable


page: 69

C.A.T. 292.)

293.)

294.)

295.)

JAR-ATPL


The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is: a)

260 KT IAS

b)

250 KT TAS

c)

Not applicable

d)

250 KT IAS

A strayed aircraft is: a)

An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which reports that it is lost

b)

only that aircraft which reports that it is lost

c)

only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track

d)

an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established

Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes: a)

A to E (inclusive)

b)

F and G

c)

C to G (inclusive)

d)

A to G (inclusive)

ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should include cloud cover, when the clouds are: a)

cumulonimbus

b)

below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

c)

below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater

d)

below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the greater


page: 70

C.A.T. 296.)

297.)

298.)

299.)

JAR-ATPL


Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures applicable there in: a)

have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings

b)

have to be as indicated by ICAO council

c)

need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight information region

d)

has to be the same as the underlying flight information region

The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is: a)

8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

b)

5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud

c)

5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds

d)

8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds a)

8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

b)

5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds

c)

5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

d)

5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds a)

8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

b)

8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds

c)

5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds

d)

5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds


page: 71

C.A.T. 300.)

301.)

302.)

303.)

JAR-ATPL


An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as: a)

Airspace E

b)

Airspace C

c)

Airspace D

d)

Airspace B

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as a)

Airspace C

b)

Airspace B

c)

Airspace D

d)

Airspace E

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights, is classified as: a)

Airspace A

b)

Airspace D

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace B

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air Traffic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as a)

Airspace A

b)

Airspace B

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace D


page: 72

C.A.T. 304.)

305.)

306.)

307.)

JAR-ATPL


An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified a)

Airspace D

b)

Airspace G

c)

Airspace E

d)

Airspace F

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is classified as a)

Airspace G

b)

Airspace F

c)

Airspace C

d)

Airspace E

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements a)

AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and checklist summaries

b)

AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC

c)

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries

d)

AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP; NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC; checklists and summaries

The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed by: a)

The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures

b)

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and figures

c)

The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

d)

The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and D


page: 73

C.A.T. 308.)

309.)

310.)

311.)

312.)

JAR-ATPL


In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of a)

At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

b)


c)

At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer

d)


Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration. a)

Six months or longer

b)

Three months or longer

c)

One year or longer

d)

Two months or longer

Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with: a)

AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC

b)

NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number

c)

AIP supplements and shall be clearly identified

d)

AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number

A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of: a)

Not more than three months

b)

Not more than one month

c)

Not more than 2 months

d)

Not more than 28 days

A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of: a)


b)

No more than 15 days

c)

Not more than one month

d)



page: 74

C.A.T. 313.)

314.)

315.)

316.)

JAR-ATPL


The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is a)

YELLOW

b)

GREEN

c)

RED

d)

ORANGE

AIP SIGMET information can be found in which part of the AIP? a)

MET

b)

GEN

c)

AD

d)

ENR

AIP Which part of the AIP contains a brief description of the service(s) responsible for search and rescue? a)

ENR

b)

AD

c)

SAR

d)

GEN

AIP Which part of the AIP contains information about holding, approach and departure procedures? a)

ENR

b)

MAP

c)

AD

d)

GEN


page: 75

C.A.T. 317.)

318.)

319.)

320.)

JAR-ATPL


Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure applicable to: a)

accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other cargo

b)

cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms

c)

cargo and is covered by a traffic document

d)

cargo but clearance documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger prior to shipment

The documents for entry and departure of aircraft: a)

are accepted in hand-written block lettering in ink

b)

has to be typewritten

c)

are accepted at the contracting state discretion

d)

has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques

When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator: a)

shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

b)

is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state

c)

and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

d)

shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility

The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in international flights is: a)

annex 6

b)

annex 15

c)

annex 9

d)

annex 8


page: 76

C.A.T. 321.)

322.)

323.)

324.)

JAR-ATPL


The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on international flights is: a)

annex 8

b)

annex 16

c)

annex 9

d)

annex 15

The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law a)

may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person

b)

may request such person to disembark

c)

may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members

d)

may deliver such person to the competent authorities

The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with: a)

Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

b)

offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft

c)

Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface

d)

Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is: a)

the Paris Convention

b)

the Rome Convention

c)

the Warsaw Convention

d)

the Tokyo Convention


page: 77

C.A.T. 325.)

326.)

327.)

328.)

JAR-ATPL


Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as provided by: a)

the Rome Convention

b)

the Warsaw Convention

c)

the Chicago Convention

d)

the Montreal Convention

The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is: a)

the convention of Chicago

b)

the convention of Rome

c)

the convention of Tokyo

d)

the convention of Paris

The convention which deals with offences against penal law, is a)

the convention of Tokyo

b)

the convention of Warsaw

c)

the convention of Madrid

d)

the convention of Rome

The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than: a)

50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

b)

60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

c)

40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence

d)

100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence


page: 78

C.A.T. 329.)

330.)

331.)

332.)

JAR-ATPL


The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than: a)

17 years of age

b)

16 years of age

c)

18 years of age

d)

21 years of age

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold a)

a current class I medical assessment

b)

a current class III medical assessment

c)

a current class II medical assessment

d)

a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence

The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be: a)

none of the answers are correct

b)

to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation

c)

to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than commercial air transportation

d)

to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in commercial air transportation

An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance referred are: a)

10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)

b)

15 hours and 540 km (300NM)

c)


d)



page: 79

C.A.T. 333.)

334.)

335.)

JAR-ATPL


An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: a)

15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300NM)

b)


c)


d)


An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and functions of pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively: a)

200 hours and 75 hours

b)


c)


d)


The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ..... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively: a)


b)


c)


d)



page: 80

C.A.T. 336.)

337.)

338.)

339.)

JAR-ATPL


An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: a)

150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time.

b)

75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time.

c)

100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time

d)

75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time.

An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: a)

100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command

b)

75 hours of night time only as pilot in command

c)

75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

d)

100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to a maximum of: a)

100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer

b)

100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

c)

100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

d)

75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer

An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are respectively a)


b)


c)


d)



page: 81

C.A.T. 340.)

341.)

342.)

343.)

JAR-ATPL


In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed: a)

A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.

b)

Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations

c)

A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial operations.

d)

in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months

The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the date: a)

the licence is issued or renewed

b)

the medical assessment is issued

c)

the licence is delivered to the pilot

d)

the licence is issued or validated

When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity of the authorisation a)

shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights

b)

shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence

c)

shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence

d)

the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own discretion

When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from: a)

24 months to 12 months

b)


c)

none of the answers are correct

d)



page: 82

C.A.T. 344.)

345.)

346.)

347.)

JAR-ATPL


Type ratings shall be established a)

all the answers are correct

b)

only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots

c)

for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority

d)

only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit: a)

in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence

b)

50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

c)

the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of the licensing authority

d)

in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence

For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night a)

5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot

b)

5 hours of night flight time including 5 take-offs and 5 landings as pilot in command

c)


d)


An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: a)

200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes

b)

150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command

c)


d)



page: 83

C.A.T. 348.)

349.)

350.)

351.)

JAR-ATPL


An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than: a)

20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time.

b)

10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time

c)

15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command

d)

20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time

The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by: a)

ECAC

b)

Each contracting state

c)

ICAO

d)

ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned

When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed a)

only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened

b)

the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft

c)

the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified

d)

only the passengers are to be re screened

Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its administration to be responsible for the development implementation and maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should apply: a)

to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member state

b)

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights

c)

only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights

d)

only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of cargo


page: 84

C.A.T. 352.)

353.)

354.)

355.)

JAR-ATPL


When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional upon: a)

Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only

b)

Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination

c)

Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival

d)

Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft

Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below: a)

Deportees and persons in lawful custody only

b)

Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody

c)

Deportees and inadmissible persons only

d)

None of the answers is correct

For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are to be observed such as: a)

the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion

b)

boarding prior to all passengers

c)

boarding after to all other passengers

d)

the boarding has to be done at the state discretion

When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments with a radius of: a)

25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190

b)

15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200

c)

22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250

d)

15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190


page: 85

C.A.T. 356.)

357.)

358.)

359.)

360.)

JAR-ATPL


Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation accuracy of a)

plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

b)

plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

c)


d)


When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of: a)

22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260

b)

20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

c)

22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200

d)

25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250

The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed a)

3 minutes

b)

30 seconds

c)

2 minutes

d)

1 minute

Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated a)

at least every half an hour independently of any significant change

b)

immediately a significant change occurs

c)

as prescribed by the meteorological office

d)

as prescribed by the state

Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the responsibility of a)

the air traffic services

b)

the unit as prescribed the states

c)

the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)

d)

both air traffic services and the meteorological office


page: 86

C.A.T. 361.)

362.)

363.)

364.)

JAR-ATPL


ATIS broadcast a)

shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS

b)

Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR

c)

Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR

d)

Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency

Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus a)

10 seconds of UTC at all times

b)


c)

1 minute of UTC at all times

d)


An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned or subarea thereof is a)

A SIGMET information

b)

A NOTAM

c)

An AIRMET information

d)

An En-Route Meteo Report

Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be limited to route segments of a)

100 NM or more

b)

60 NM or more

c)

50 NM or more

d)

75 NM or more


page: 87

C.A.T. 365.)

366.)

367.)

368.)

369.)

JAR-ATPL


Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed a)

by regional air navigation agreements

b)

by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements

c)

by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

d)

by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements

Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision hazards when operating in airspace classes: a)

F only

b)

A, B, C, D, E, F and G

c)

F and G only

d)

C, D, E, F, and G

According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and numbers and shall be that assigned by: a)

the International Civil Aviation Organisation

b)

the International Telecommunication Union

c)

the state of registry or common mark registering authority

d)

the state of registry only

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with the a)

three letters combinations used in the international code of signals

b)

four letter combinations beginning with Q

c)

five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

d)

letters used for ICAO identification documents

When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example a)

LLL

b)

RCC

c)

FFF

d)

TTT


page: 88

C.A.T. 370.)

371.)

372.)

373.)

374.)

JAR-ATPL


When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent signals for example a)

DDD

b)

LLL

c)

RCC

d)

PAN

When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example a)

DDD

b)

LLL

c)

XXX

d)

RCC

The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be: a)

at least 75 centimetres

b)


c)


d)

at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres

The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be: a)

at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres

b)


c)


d)


The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes: a)

over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

b)

up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

c)

over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

d)

up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass


page: 89

C.A.T. 375.)

376.)

377.)

378.)

JAR-ATPL


When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if a)

the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy

b)

the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy

c)

the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

d)

the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy

The loading limitations shall include: a)

all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

b)

all limiting mass and centres of gravity

c)

all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading

d)

all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading

An aircraft manoeuvring in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: a)

give way to another aircraft.

b)

return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.

c)

not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

d)

not land because the airport is not available for landing.

The International Civil Aviation Organisation ( I.C.A.O. ) was established by the international convention of: a)

Chicago

b)

Montreal

c)

Warsaw

d)

The Hague


page: 90

C.A.T. 379.)

380.)

381.)

382.)

JAR-ATPL


The second freedom of the air is the: a)

right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).

b)

right to overfly without landing

c)

right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states.

d)

right to land for a technical stop

The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is: a)

Annex 1

b)

Annex 12

c)

Annex 11

d)

Annex 2

The first freedom of the air is: a)

The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two states.

b)

The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.

c)

The right to overfly without landing.

d)

The right to land for a technical stop.

An AIRAC is: a)

A package which consists of the following elements: AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and summaries.

b)

A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.

c)

A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.

d)

An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating procedures.


page: 91

C.A.T. 383.)

384.)

385.)

386.)

JAR-ATPL


The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: a)

aeronautical standards adopted by all states.

b)

proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

c)

standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

d)

standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the: a)

Warsaw Convention.

b)

Tokyo Convention.

c)

Hague Convention.

d)

Montreal Convention.

At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ground signals, the pilot must: a)

switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his navigation lights twice.

b)

fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.

c)

make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.

d)

transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R" using his navigational lights.

The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the: a)

true air speed (TAS).

b)

indicated air speed (IAS).

c)

estimated ground speed (G/S).

d)

true air speed at 65% power.


page: 92

C.A.T. 387.)

388.)

389.)

390.)

JAR-ATPL


The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time: a)

required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).

b)

required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.

c)

required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.

d)

of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.

An air traffic control unit: a)

may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.

b)

may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.

c)

may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.

d)

must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.

The pilot in command of an aircraft: 1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC. 2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying". 3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. 4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction. 5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a)

3-4-5

b)

3-5

c)

2-3-5

d)

1–4

Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The aircraft: a)

is cleared to land.

b)

must give way to another aircraft.

c)

must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.

d)

must land immediately and clear the landing area.


page: 93

C.A.T. 391.)

392.)

393.)

394.)

JAR-ATPL


The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done: a)

by agreement with the receiving unit.

b)

through a central control unit.

c)

automatically at the control zone boundary.

d)

with the pilot's consent.

Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): a)

its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.

b)

its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.

c)

it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.

d)

it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may it supply ATC services.

SSR special codes ATC has assigned you the transponder code 5320. In case of loosing two way radio communication, you have to squawk: a)

Mode A Code 7700

b)

Mode A Code 5320

c)

Mode A Code 7500

d)

Mode A Code 7600

When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading: a)

030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)

b)

030° true

c)

030° magnetic

d)

030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)


page: 94

C.A.T. 395.)

396.)

397.)

398.)

JAR-ATPL


The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to: a)

14 000 kg.

b)

20 000 kg.

c)

7 000 kg.

d)

5 700 kg for aeroplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.

If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight plan form... a)

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport

b)

write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport

c)

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.

d)

write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.

While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: a)

may continue to taxi to the take-off area.

b)

must return to its point of departure.

c)

must vacate the landing area in use.

d)

must stop.

While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light signal: a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft: a)

must return to its point of departure.

b)

must stop.

c)

is cleared for take-off.

d)

may continue to taxi towards the take-off area.


page: 95

C.A.T. 399.)

400.)

401.)

402.)

JAR-ATPL


Approach procedures - missed approach climb Normally the missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach climb gradient of: a)

2%

b)

5%

c)

3.3%

d)

2.5%

For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which the aircraft: a)

will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.

b)

will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.

c)

will land.

d)

will stop on the parking area.

Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels: a)

3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.

b)

FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.

c)

FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.

d)

3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.

Approach procedures - Minimum Sector Altitudes / MSA Minimum Sector Altitudes are established for each aerodrome. The MSA provides an obstacle clearance of at least 300m (984 ft) within a circle, associated with the homing facility for the approach procedure of that aerodrome. How many NM is the radius of this circle? a)

10 NM

b)

25 NM

c)

5 NM

d)

20 NM


page: 96

C.A.T. 403.)

404.)

405.)

406.)

JAR-ATPL


Approach procedures - MDH / OCH For a non-precision or circling approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) cannot be lower than: a)

400 ft

b)

200 ft

c)

the Obstacle Clearance Height (OCH)

d)

350 ft

When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the responsibility of: a)

air traffic control and flight information centres.

b)

search and rescue co-ordination centres.

c)

control centres only.

d)

air traffic co-ordination centres.

During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility of: a)

the approach controller.

b)

the radar controller.

c)

the pilot in command.

d)

the airport controller.

According to JAR-FCL, a professional flight crew licence license issued by a non JAA State may be rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA Member State a)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.

b)

At the discretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of basic licence

c)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year

d)

At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.


page: 97

C.A.T. 407.)

408.)

409.)

410.)

JAR-ATPL


According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise the privileges of their licences, related ratings or authorisations at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They shall without undue delay seek the advice of the authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or clinic admissions for: a)

More than one week

b)

More than 12 hours

c)

More than 12 days

d)

Any period

According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for a)

24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter

b)

24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

c)

60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter

d)

60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed and completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA Member State at least: a)

150 hours of flight time

b)

200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

c)

150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time

d)

200 hours of flight time

According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for: a)

Indefinitely

b)

The period of validity of the licence.

c)

one year

d)

two years


page: 98

C.A.T. 411.)

412.)

413.)

414.)

JAR-ATPL


According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A) including a night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours: a)

Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.

b)

Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

c)

Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

d)

Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating, including: a)

All self.-sustaining gliders.

b)

All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.

c)

Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.

d)

Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.

According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has: a)

Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

b)

Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member

c)

A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.

d)

A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.

According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date: a)

Of the last medical certificate

b)

Of issue

c)

Of the skill test

d)

The application is received by the Authority.


page: 99

C.A.T. 415.)

416.)

417.)

418.)

JAR-ATPL


According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for: a)

One year

b)

Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.

c)

Five years after licence issue.

d)

Two years

According to JAR-FCL, successful completion of multi-crew co-operation (MCC) training shall be required to: a)

Obtain a professional pilot licence

b)

Revalidate any rating or licence

c)

Obtain the first class rating on multi-engine aeroplanes

d)

Obtain the first type rating on multi-pilot aeroplanes

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL (A) shall have completed as a pilot of aeroplane at least 1.500 hours of flight time, including a)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23.

b)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, of which up to 150 hours may be as flight engineer.

c)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, as pilot-in-command

d)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes type certificated in accordance with JAR/FAR 25 or JAR/FAR 23, including 200 hours of night flight as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot.

According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for ATPL(A) shall have demonstrated the ability to perform as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of an aeroplane type certificated for: a)

operations by pilots under training.

b)

the carriage of passengers at night.

c)

a minimum crew of two pilots under IFR

d)

a minimum crew of two pilots plus a flight engineer.


page: 100

C.A.T. 419.)

420.)

421.)

422.)

JAR-ATPL


According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of a newly qualified Flight Instructor are restricted to carrying out instruction under the supervision of a FI(A), approved for this purpose. The restrictions may be removed from the rating: a)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed a competency test.

b)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has completed at least 100 hours flight instruction and , in addition, has supervised at least 25 student solo flights.

c)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights.

d)

On the recommendation of the supervising FI(A) after the holder of the restricted FI(A) rating has supervised at least 100 solo flights and completed a competency test.

According to JAR-FCL, the aeroplane instructor categories recognised are: a)

FE(A)/TRE(A)/CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation.

b)

FI(A) and IRI(A).

c)

FI(A)/TRI(A)CRE(A)/IRE(A) and SFI authorisation

d)

FI(A)/TRI(A)/CRI(A)/IRI(A) and SFI authorisation

According to JAR-FCL, the privileges of the holder of an unrestricted FI(A) rating are to conduct flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A): a)

Provided that the FI(A) has completed not less than 15 hours on the relevant type in the preceding 12 months.

b)

Provided that the FI(A) has completed 200 hours of flight instruction

c)

Provided that the FI(A) has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes including at least 200 hours of flight instruction

d)

Without restriction

According to JAR-FCL, an examiner's authorisation is valid for: a)

The period of validity of the class/type rating.

b)

Not more than two years

c)

Not more than three years

d)

The period of validity of the medical certificate.


page: 101

C.A.T. 423.)

424.)

425.)

426.)

JAR-ATPL


According to JAR-FCL, Medical certificates classes are: a)

1 and 2

b)

class 1 only.

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1,2,3 and 4

According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject to the: a)

Laws of the State in which is operated

b)

Laws of the State of registry and operation

c)

Laws of the State of registry

d)

Requirements laid down by ICAO

Each State of ICAO Annex 17 shall ensure the establishment of a security programme, a)

At each airport

b)

only for administrative staff of airport

c)

for every airline operating in the State

d)

That is common for all airports within State

The ICAO Annex 17 comprise rules in order to establish security measures for passengers a)

and baggage

b)

checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

c)

cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design

d)

checked baggage, cargo and other goods


page: 102

C.A.T. 427.)

428.)

429.)

430.)

JAR-ATPL


When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the: a)

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

b)

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

c)

Two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the aircraft and the ICAO

d)

Two aforementioned States and the ICAO

A State shall provide assistance to an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful seizure. This assistance includes: a)

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and refuelling

b)

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services and permission to land

c)

only permission to land

d)

provision of navigation aids, air traffic services, permission to land and catering for passengers

A State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference, a)

until their journey can be continued

b)

if is requested by an individual passenger

c)

and arrange for them to return to their country of origin

d)

during a period of investigation

Accident investigation, objective The sole objective of the investigation of an accident or incident shall be the: a)

prevention of accidents or incidents and establish the liability.

b)

prevention of accidents or incidents and to provide legal evidence for subsequent court cases.

c)

prevention of accidents or incidents.

d)

prevention of accidents or incidents and provide the manufacturer with investigation data for the improvement of the design.


page: 103

C.A.T. 431.)

432.)

433.)

434.)

JAR-ATPL


Select the acronym corresponding to the following definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption or a volcanic ash cloud. a)

GVATAM

b)

VULTAM

c)

ASHTAM

d)

NAVTAM

The system notifying in advance the circumstances requiring important changes in the methods of operation, based on common effective dates, is identified by the acronym: a)

IFPS

b)

EATCHIP

c)

NOTAM

d)

AIRAC

The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or more) and the short-term extensive or graphical information are published as follows: a)

Trigger NOTAM

b)

NOTAM

c)

AIP Amendments

d)

AIP Supplements

The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in _____ aeroplanes shall prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by instrumental rules and an engine _________. a)

Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.

b)

Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.

c)

Land/inactive.

d)

Single-engine/inactive.


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The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called: a)

Terminal.

b)

Manoeuvring area.

c)

Aeronautical part

d)

Security program.


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page: 109

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 021-1 FZK

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

005.)

In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a bending moment: a)

equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span

b)

highest at the wing root

c)

lowest at the wing root

d)

equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span

The trim tab: a)

increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

b)

reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.

c)

reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.

d)

increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: a)

reduce or to cancel control forces.

b)

trim the aeroplane during normal flight.

c)

lower manoeuvring control forces.

d)

trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.

A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to: a)

control the wheels.

b)

avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.

c)

absorb the spring tension.

d)

lock the landing gear.

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually: a)

Electrically driven.

b)

Hydraulically driven.

c)

Mechanically driven.

d)

Pneumatically driven.

Copyright H.J. Seibert, 20.Dezember 2004

page: 1

C.A.T. 006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

JAR-ATPL


Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. a)

By hydraulic accumulators.

b)

Electrically.

c)

Mechanically

d)

Pneumatically.

The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a: a)

Drum type brake.

b)

Multiple disk brake.

c)

Belt brake.

d)

Single disk brake.

The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they: a)

prevent the brakes from overheating.

b)

release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure.

c)

release air from the tyre in the event of overheating.

d)

prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

Thermal plugs are installed in: a)

cabin windows.

b)

fire warning systems.

c)

cargo compartments.

d)

wheel rims.


page: 2

C.A.T. 010.)

011.)

012.)

JAR-ATPL


The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces 2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike 3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems 4. immunity to different interfering signals 5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1 and 2

b)

3 and 5

c)

3, 4 and 5

d)

1 and 5

An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when: a)

the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.

b)

the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.

c)

the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.

d)

there is a trimmable stabilizer.

Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistant 4. good resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility 7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 5, 7

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 3, 4, 6


page: 3

C.A.T. 013.)

014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

JAR-ATPL


In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads: a)

4200 psi

b)

3000 psi

c)

1200 psi

d)

1800 psi

In a hydraulic system overheat detectors are mostly installed: a)

at the pumps.

b)

at the actuators.

c)

in the reservoirs.

d)

at the coolers.

Hydraulic fluids: a)

Do not require special care.

b)

Cause high fire risk.

c)

Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

d)

Are irritating to eyes and skin.

Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are: a)

Phosphate ester base fluids.

b)

Mineral base fluids.

c)

Water base fluids.

d)

Vegetable base fluids.

Hydraulic power is a function of: a)

Pump RPM only.

b)

System pressure and volume flow.

c)

System pressure and tank capacity.

d)

Pump size and volume flow.


page: 4

C.A.T. 018.)

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

JAR-ATPL


Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately: a)

2000 psi

b)

3000 psi

c)

4000 psi

d)

1000 psi

In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are: a)

Vegetable oil.

b)

Mineral oil.

c)

Water and glycol.

d)

Synthetic oil.

The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: a)

mixture of mineral oil and alcohol

b)

synthetic oil

c)

mineral oil

d)

vegetable oil

In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is: a)

To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.

b)

To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.

c)

To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.

d)

To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.

In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: a)

reduce fluid combustibility

b)

seal the system

c)

keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature

d)

prevent pump cavitation


page: 5

C.A.T. 023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Shuttle valves will automatically: a)

switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.

b)

reduce pump loads.

c)

shut down systems which are overloaded.

d)

guard systems against overpressure.

021-1 FZK

One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is: a)

to damp pressure surges in the system.

b)

to store fluid.

c)

to store pressure.

d)

to act as a pressure relief valve.

If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure: a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.

d)

remains constant

The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions: 1. control of cabin altitude, 2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change, 3. limitation of differential pressure 4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude 5. cabin ventilation 6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

5, 6, 1

b)

4, 5, 3

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

2, 6, 4


page: 6

C.A.T. 027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:

021-1 FZK

a)

the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant

b)

absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft

c)

the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached

d)

cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure

(For this question use annex 021-786A) In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altitude is: a)

FL 340

b)

FL 230

c)

FL 180

d)

FL 280

Main cabin temperature is: a)

Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.

b)

controlled by individual passenger.

c)

not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

d)

controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.

The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to: a)

discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.

b)

Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.

c)

regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

d)

regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.


page: 7

C.A.T. 031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

JAR-ATPL


Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained: a)

the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.

b)

the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.

c)

the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.

d)

the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

Cabin pressure is controlled by: a)

controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.

b)

the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).

c)

delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.

d)

the cabin air re-circulation system.

During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are: a)

fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.

b)

At the pre-set position for take-off.

c)

Partially open.

d)

Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

The cabin pressure is regulated by the: a)

Air conditioning pack.

b)

Air cycle machine.

c)

Outflow valve.

d)

Cabin inlet airflow valve.

Cabin pressurization is controlled by the: a)

cabin outflow valve.

b)

cabin inlet airflow.

c)

engine's RPM.

d)

engine's bleed valves.


page: 8

C.A.T. 036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: a)

cockpit and passenger cabin.

b)

actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.

c)

cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.

d)

cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.

021-1 FZK

Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed: a)

6000 ft

b)

8000 ft

c)

4000 ft

d)

10000 ft

Cabin altitude means the: a)

cabin pressure expressed as altitude.

b)

flight level the aircraft is flying at.

c)

flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.

d)

difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.

On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately: a)

3 - 5 psi

b)

7 - 9 psi

c)

22 psi

d)

13 - 15 psi

On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the: a)

RPM of the engine.

b)

Bleed air valve.

c)

Airflow leaving the cabin.

d)

Airflow entering the cabin.


page: 9

C.A.T. 041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

JAR-ATPL


If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum: a)

Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

b)

Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

c)

Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

d)

Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

The "cabin differential pressure" is: a)

the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.

b)

approximately 5 psi at maximum.

c)

cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

d)

approximately 15 psi at maximum.

The cabin rate of descent: a)

is always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.

b)

results in a cabin pressure decrease.

c)

is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

d)

results in a cabin pressure increase.

The maximum cabin differential pressure of a pressurised aeroplane operating at FL370 is approximately: a)

9.0 psi

b)

15.5 psi

c)

3.5 psi

d)

13.5 psi

Pneumatic mechanical ice protection system are mainly used for: a)

propellers.

b)

wings.

c)

pitot tubes.

d)

windscreens.


page: 10

C.A.T. 046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

JAR-ATPL


The purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system is to: a)

supply the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.

b)

supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.

c)

cool the APU compartment.

d)

supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.

In flight, the cabin air for modern airplanes with jet engines is usually supplied by: a)

ram air intakes.

b)

engine compressors.

c)

piston compressors.

d)

single radial compressors.

Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: a)

the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.

b)

the second fan stage.

c)

the high pressure compressor.

d)

the low pressure compressor.

In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for: a)

pressure.

b)

purity.

c)

temperature.

d)

humidity.

On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by: a)

Vinyl coating.

b)

Rain repellent system.

c)

Electric heating.

d)

Anti-icing fluid.


page: 11

C.A.T. 051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

JAR-ATPL


Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on: a)

pitot tubes.

b)

elevator leading edges.

c)

slat leading edges.

d)

fin leading edges.

On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: a)

centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.

b)

removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.

c)

electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.

d)

mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.

The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: a)

ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.

b)

maintain and improve fuel heating power.

c)

prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.

d)

prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.

On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type: a)

115 V DC

b)

115 V AC

c)

28 V AC

d)

28 V DC

The fuel cross-feed system: a)

is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.

b)

is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

c)

is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

d)

allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.


page: 12

C.A.T. 056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane's integral fuel tank is to: a)

prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.

b)

prevent overpressure in the tank.

c)

prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.

d)

restrict the fuel movements in the tank.

021-1 FZK

On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through: a)

Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.

b)

The return lines of the fuel pumps.

c)

Bleed air from the engines.

d)

A pressure regulator in the wing tip.

The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are: a)

Cell tanks.

b)

Fixed built-in tanks.

c)

Integral tanks.

d)

Combined fuel tanks.

The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to: a)

close the vent lines in case of turbulence.

b)

prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.

c)

damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

d)

prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.

On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: a)

Diaphragm pumps.

b)

Centrifugal pumps.

c)

Piston pumps.

d)

Gear type pumps.


page: 13

C.A.T. 061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The pressurization of fuel tanks is maintained by: a)

the fuel vent system.

b)

the fuel top off unit.

c)

the fuel tank drains.

d)

the fuel dump system.

021-1 FZK

In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the purpose of the heat exchangers is to: a)

cool the bleed air in front and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine.

b)

allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation.

c)

allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.

d)

cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system.

In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the main water separation unit is: a)

before the cooling turbine.

b)

after the cooling turbine.

c)

just after the heat exchangers.

d)

before the heat exchangers.

A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) includes two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows: a)

P: warms up engine bleed air S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.

b)

P: precools the engine bleed air S: cools air behind the pack's compressor.

c)

P: pre-cools the engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo compartment (animals).

d)

P: warms up engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack.


page: 14

C.A.T. 065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Cabin air for a large airplane, during flight: a)

has an increased oxygen ratio.

b)

is temperature controlled.

c)

has a constant oxygen ratio regulated to a preset value.

d)

has a reduced oxygen ratio.

021-1 FZK

When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is: a)

dependent on the degree of pressurisation.

b)

decreased.

c)

increased.

d)

unaffected.

The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the: a)

source of the charge air.

b)

cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

c)

means by which pressurisation is controlled.

d)

charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) the supply of air behind the primary heat exchanger is: a)

passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

b)

compressed, passed through a heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.

c)

compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally across a heat exchanger.

d)

passed across an expansion turbine, compressed and then passed through a heat exchanger.

In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the: a)

secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.

b)

turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

c)

compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

d)

secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.


page: 15

C.A.T. 070.)

071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

JAR-ATPL


Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the: a)

by-pass ducting.

b)

fan section.

c)

compressor section.

d)

turbine section.

In an air cycle machine: a)

the temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine.

b)

the turbine drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.

c)

the turbine drives the compressor of the machine which causes a higher temperature, and so increases the second heat exchanger efficiency.

d)

the turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.

In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by: a)

an evaporator.

b)

a condenser.

c)

a compressor.

d)

an expansion turbine.

In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to: a)

ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.

b)

ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

c)

maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

d)

increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.

A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) will: a)

cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.

b)

not affect the charge air pressure.

c)

decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.

d)

increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.


page: 16

C.A.T. 075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

JAR-ATPL


The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from: a)

an electrical heater system.

b)

a fuel heater system.

c)

hot air coming from the engine's turbines.

d)

hot air coming from the engine's compressors.

The pack cooling fan provides: a)

cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.

b)

cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation.

c)

air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).

d)

cooling air to the pre-cooler.

In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: a)

Electrical (electrical resistances).

b)

Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).

c)

Thermal (use of hot air).

d)

Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).

With regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only correct statement is: a)

They can be used as both de-icing and anti-icing devices.

b)

They can only be used as de-icing devices.

c)

They can only be used as anti-icing devices.

d)

They are used extensively on modern aircraft as they are inexpensive and easy to maintain.


page: 17

C.A.T. 079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

JAR-ATPL


Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is: a)

on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.

b)

on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).

c)

on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.

d)

on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very often used for large surfaces de-icing.

The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are: 1) engine air intake and pod. 2) front glass shield. 3) radome. 4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts. 5) leading edge of wing. 6) cabin windows. 7) trailing edge of wings. 8) electronic equipment compartment. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 8

b)

1, 2, 5, 6

c)

1, 2, 4, 5

d)

1, 4, 5, 7

The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: a)

Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.

b)

Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.

c)

Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components.

d)

Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.

On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are: a)

Installed in each tank.

b)

not necessary at all.

c)

Installed only in the centre tank.

d)

Located on the engines.


page: 18

C.A.T. 083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The automatic fuelling shut off valve: a)

cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.

b)

stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

c)

stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.

d)

stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent line.

021-1 FZK

During re-fuelling the automatic shut-off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when: a)

the surge vent tank is filled.

b)

fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.

c)

there is fire.

d)

the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.

(For this question use annex 021-980A) The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out: a)

in the fuel control unit (item 3).

b)

after low pressure valve (item 1).

c)

after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).

d)

after high pressure valve (item 4).

The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is: a)

compression.

b)

tension, and then compression.

c)

tension.

d)

compression, and then tension.

When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to: a)

1

b)

0.1

c)

0.5

d)

0


page: 19

C.A.T. 088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The colour of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluids is: a)

red.

b)

blue.

c)

purple.

d)

pink.

021-1 FZK

A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1. which requires solid or branched wheels 2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3. whose mounting rim must be flawless 4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device 5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 5, 6.

b)

1, 2, 5.

c)

2, 3, 6.

d)

3, 4, 5.

The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to: a)

withstand the shear stresses.

b)

assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.

c)

integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.

d)

provide sound and thermal isolation.

Landing gear torque links are used to: a)

maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

b)

take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

c)

prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.

d)

prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.


page: 20

C.A.T. 092.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Shimmy occurs on the nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground 2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions

021-1 FZK

This effect is overcome by means of: 3. the torque link 4. a damper associated with the steering cylinder The combination of correct statements is:

093.)

094.)

a)

1, 4.

b)

2, 3.

c)

2, 4.

d)

1, 3.

The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is: a)

locked-down and its door is locked.

b)

not in the required position.

c)

locked-down.

d)

in the required position.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate indicator reads -200ft/min. Given that: DELTA P: Differential pressure Zc: Cabin altitude a)

The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.

b)

The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.

c)

A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.

d)

DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.


page: 21

C.A.T. 095.)

096.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

021-1 FZK

a)

to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel blocking.

b)

to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.

c)

to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system normally powering the brakes does not function anymore.

d)

to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given : CAB V/S : Cabin rate of climb indication CAB ALT: Cabin pressure altitude DELTA P: Differential pressure This will result in a:

097.)

a)

CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease

b)

CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease

c)

CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT decrease DELTA P increase

d)

CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P increase

Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the: 1. normal bending stresses 2. tangent bending stresses 3. torsional moment 4. shear stresses The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 4


page: 22

C.A.T. 098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

JAR-ATPL


On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are: a)

the webs.

b)

the spars.

c)

the skin.

d)

the ribs.

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1. idle wheel speed (measured) 2. braked wheel speed (measured) 3. brake temperature (measured) 4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5. tire pressure The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4.

b)

1, 3.

c)

1, 2, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

VLO is the maximum: a)

cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.

b)

speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.

c)

speed with flaps extended in a given position.

d)

flight speed with landing gear down.

VLE is the maximum: a)

speed with flaps extended in a given position

b)

speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety

c)

flight speed with landing gear down

d)

speed authorized in flight


page: 23

C.A.T. 102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Flutter results from two deformation modes which are: a)

torsion and bending

b)

torsion and shearing

c)

shearing and elongation

d)

bending an elongation

021-1 FZK

(For this question use annex 021-4960A) Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by: a)

the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator, modulating the mix valve.

b)

the temperature selector only modulating the mix valve.

c)

the cabin sensors only modulating the mix valve.

d)

automatic control of the ram air.

The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is: a)

Oil.

b)

Nitrogen.

c)

Oxygen.

d)

Springs.

In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of: a)

An aural warning horn.

b)

A bolt.

c)

A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.

d)

A latch located in the landing gear lever.

The function of the selector valve is to: a)

automatically activate the hydraulic system.

b)

discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

c)

communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.

d)

select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.


page: 24

C.A.T. 107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

111.)

JAR-ATPL


The component that converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called: a)

An actuator or jack.

b)

A hydraulic pump.

c)

An accumulator.

d)

A pressure regulator.

The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: a)

high pressure and small flow.

b)

small pressure and small flow.

c)

high pressure and large flow.

d)

small pressure and large flow.

The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a: a)

shutoff valve.

b)

flow control valve.

c)

distribution valve.

d)

check valve.

The cross-feed fuel system is used to: a)

allow the unusable fuel elimination.

b)

allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency

c)

automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.

d)

feed every engine from any fuel tank.

One of the purpose of the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in the fuel is: a)

To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.

b)

To facilitate the priming of the pumps.

c)

To improve their efficiency.

d)

To cool the pumps.


page: 25

C.A.T. 112.)

113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

JAR-ATPL


The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the: a)

electrical resistance change.

b)

density variation of the fuel.

c)

resistivity variation of the fuel.

d)

dielectric change between fuel and air.

The vapour lock is: a)

The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.

b)

A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble.

c)

The effect of the water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation.

d)

The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.

The fuel system boost pumps are used to: a)

feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.

b)

feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.

c)

avoid the bubbles accumulation.

d)

avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.

The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is: a)

to enable the starting of hydraulic devices.

b)

to bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system.

c)

to damp the fluid pressure variations.

d)

to eliminate the fluid flow variations.

Torsion in a wing can be caused by a)

Wing tip vortex

b)

Dihedral

c)

Positive sweep

d)

Propwash


page: 26

C.A.T. 117.)

118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

'Fail safe construction' is:

021-1 FZK

a)

A type of construction for small aircraft only.

b)

A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

c)

A simple and cheap type of construction.

d)

A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.

Maximum power output and low mass of aeroplane hydraulic systems can be achieved with a)

medium system pressure and low volume flow.

b)

medium system pressure and high volume flow.

c)

high system pressure and low volume flow.

d)

low system pressure and high volume flow.

(For this question use annex 021-5248A) The hydraulic systems which works correctly is shown in the figure: a)

Figure c)

b)

a

c)

b

d)

d

The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as a)

a fluid storage.

b)

a pressure storage.

c)

a volume storage.

d)

an energy storage.

The type of hydraulic fluid which has the greatest resistance to cavitation is: a)

Synthetic fluid.

b)

Water and glycol based fluid.

c)

Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).

d)

Mineral oil based fluid.


page: 27

C.A.T. 122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be: a)

Pressure and RPM of the hydraulic pump.

b)

Pressure and hydraulic pump output.

c)

Pressure, fluid temperature and quantity.

d)

Pressure and fluid viscosity.

021-1 FZK

The working principle of the anti-skid system is: a)

Reduction of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

b)

Increase of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.

c)

Increase of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.

d)

Reduction of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.

The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the a)

Liquid de-icing system.

b)

Electrical de-icing system.

c)

Hot air system.

d)

Pneumatic system with expandable boots.

During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect a)

the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.

b)

a part of the whole leading edge.

c)

slats and the leading edge flaps only.

d)

the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.

In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by a)

ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.

b)

bleed air from the engines.

c)

turbo compressors.

d)

the APU.


page: 28

C.A.T. 127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

JAR-ATPL


The de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is: a)

Fluid de-icing.

b)

Electrical heating.

c)

Pneumatic boots.

d)

Thermal anti-icing.

The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works a)

electrically.

b)

with hot air.

c)

with anti-icing fluid.

d)

pneumatically.

On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a: a)

leading edge flap close to the wing root

b)

leading edge flap close to the wing tip

c)

trailing edge flap

d)

leading edge flap

"Conditioned" air is air that has: a)

been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.

b)

had the oxygen content increased.

c)

had the oxygen content reduced.

d)

had any moisture removed from it.

A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the: a)

position of the outflow valve(s).

b)

position of the duct relief valve(s).

c)

mass air flow into the cabin.

d)

position of the inward relief valve.


page: 29

C.A.T. 132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 021-6716A) In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side ? (The diagram is not to scale) a)

20 N.

b)

100 N.

c)

1 N.

d)

1000 N.

Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read: a)

1500 psi.

b)

500 psi.

c)

1000 psi.

d)

2500 psi.

Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause: a)

fluid loss.

b)

an increased fluid temperature.

c)

a decreased fluid temperature.

d)

an increased fluid pressure.

On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from: a)

pressure to the rudder pedals.

b)

the master cylinders.

c)

the aeroplane's hydraulic system.

d)

the brake actuators.


page: 30

C.A.T. 136.)

137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:

021-1 FZK

a)

Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.

b)

Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.

c)

All bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.

d)

Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available.

"Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as: a)

the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.

b)

the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.

c)

a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.

d)

aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the: a)

charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

b)

cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

c)

means by which pressurisation is controlled.

d)

source of the charge air.

In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first: a)

used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.

b)

compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.

c)

passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat exchanger.

d)

passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane: a)

has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.

b)

is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.

c)

has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.

d)

has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.


page: 31

C.A.T. 141.)

142.)

143.)

144.)

145.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by: a)

regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).

b)

pressurisation duct relief valve(s).

c)

engine rpm.

d)

inward relief valve(s).

021-1 FZK

Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained: a)

a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.

b)

the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

c)

the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.

d)

the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.

Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate: a)

zero.

b)

a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.

c)

a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.

d)

a rate of climb.

The level in a hydraulic reservoir will: a)

initially increase with system pressurisation.

b)

always remain the same.

c)

increase as ambient temperature decreases.

d)

fluctuate with accumulator pressure.

An accumulator in a hydraulic system will: a)

reduce fluid temperature only.

b)

increase pressure surges within the system.

c)

reduce fluid temperature and pressure.

d)

store fluid under pressure.


page: 32

C.A.T. 146.)

147.)

148.)

149.)

JAR-ATPL


Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be: a)

4000 psi.

b)

1000 psi.

c)

2000 psi.

d)

3000 psi.

(For this question use annex 021-6736A) The schematic diagram annexed illustrates an actuator and a selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic pressure throughout and no internal leakage: a)

the piston moves to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.

b)

since pressures are equal, the piston is free to move in response to external forces.

c)

the piston moves to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.

d)

a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the piston will take place.

In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve: a)

allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.

b)

regulates pump delivery pressure.

c)

is a non-return valve.

d)

enables an alternate system to operate the same actuators in case of normal system failure.

To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often incorporates a)

auxiliary hydraulic motors.

b)

a high pressure relief valve.

c)

an accumulator.

d)

a stand-by hydraulic pump.


page: 33

C.A.T. 150.)

151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for: a)

flap extension only.

b)

undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.

c)

nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

d)

flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.

021-1 FZK

In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 kg. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5%, the indicated fuel mass would: a)

remain the same.

b)

increase by 5%.

c)

decrease by 5%.

d)

increase by 10%.

Tyre "creep" may be described as the: a)

gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.

b)

the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature.

c)

the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.

d)

circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.

The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that a)

the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time

b)

in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way

c)

these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.

d)

the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum

The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing .. a)

by pilot action

b)

the system is always armed

c)

at a certain low speed

d)

automatically


page: 34

C.A.T. 155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:

021-1 FZK

a)

the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heatdissipation function.

b)

the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.

c)

the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.

d)

the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function

The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to a)

distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling

b)

increase the fuel level at the boost pump location

c)

trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank

d)

ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure

The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is a)

Taxiing with a small turning radius.

b)

Touch down with crosswind

c)

Gear down selection

d)

Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is a)

To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed

b)

To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.

c)

Because there are two trim motors.

d)

To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway


page: 35

C.A.T. 159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

163.)

JAR-ATPL


Assume that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that: a)

the pressure differential would go to the maximum value

b)

the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure

c)

the air supply would automatically be stopped

d)

the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

The function of an air cycle machine is to: a)

decrease the pressure of the bleed air.

b)

pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

c)

cool the bleed air.

d)

remove the water from the bleed air.

Hydraulic fluid, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to: a)

ensure sufficient pump output.

b)

prevent overheating of the pump.

c)

prevent vapour locking.

d)

prevent cavitation in the pump.

The function of a fusible plug is to a)

function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system

b)

protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.

c)

protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

d)

protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.

If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the: a)

negative pressure relief valve will close

b)

outflow valve open completely.

c)

air cycle machine will stop.

d)

negative pressure relief valve will open.


page: 36

C.A.T. 164.)

165.)

166.)

167.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Regarding a thermal wing anti-icing system, the correct statement is:

021-1 FZK

a)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is a reduction of maximum engine thrust.

b)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is no reduction of maximum engine thrust.

c)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is no reduction of maximum engine thrust.

d)

Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is a reduction of maximum engine thrust.

The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that: a)

wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows.

b)

rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy.

c)

the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

d)

the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

For a JAR25 aeroplane, spoilers are: a)

lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

b)

lower wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.

c)

upper wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.

d)

upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are: a)

trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip

b)

trailing edge flaps close to the wing root

c)

leading edge flaps close to the wing root

d)

leading edge flaps close to the wing tip


page: 37

C.A.T. 168.)

169.)

170.)

171.)

JAR-ATPL


Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 - lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheels The combination containing all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

3, 4.

On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is: a)

a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.

b)

a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.

c)

water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.

d)

the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre temperature.

The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if: a)

the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.

b)

there is a leak in the reservoir return line.

c)

the pump power accumulator is deflated.

d)

the pump output pressure is insufficient.

Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing evices, one can affirm that: 1 - They prevent ice formation. 2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds. 4 - There are more than ten cycles per second. The combination which regroups all the correct statements is: a)

1-4

b)

2-3

c)

2-4

d)

1–3


page: 38

C.A.T. 172.)

173.)

174.)

175.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: a)

will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed

b)

will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway

c)

it's tread will deteriorate faster

d)

will wear at the shoulders

021-1 FZK

A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to: a)

create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.

b)

make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20°.

c)

transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nose wheel.

d)

prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.

For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is: a)

the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.

b)

the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.

c)

the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve.

d)

the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm²).

The reservoirs of a hydraulic system can be pressurized: a)

by an auxiliary system.

b)

by bleed air from the engine.

c)

in flight only.

d)

by the air conditioning system.


page: 39

C.A.T. 176.)

177.)

178.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The cross-feed fuel system enables:

021-1 FZK

a)

the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.

b)

the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.

c)

the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.

d)

only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are: a)

low pressure variable swash plate pumps.

b)

centrifugal low pressure type pumps.

c)

centrifugal high pressure pumps.

d)

high pressure variable swash plate pumps.

For this question use annex 021-11494A) Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams: a)

1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork

b)

1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels

c)

1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels

d)

1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem


page: 40

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C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL



40: C (1 Pkt.)

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page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


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page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 021-2 ETEC

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies: a)

HF

b)

UHF

c)

VLF

d)

VHF

In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the following frequencies: a)

VHF

b)

UHF

c)

VLF

d)

HF

The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is: a)

2.46 m

b)

24.60 cm

c)

24.60 m

d)

2.46 cm

If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: a)

has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.

b)

has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.

c)

is unserviceable.

d)

has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.


page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the: a)

energizing current.

b)

voltage.

c)

frequency.

d)

torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is: a)

4

b)

12

c)

24

d)

8

In an AC power generation system, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD): 1 - can be disconnected from the drive shaft. 2 - can be disconnected from the generator. 3 - is a hydro-mechanical system. 4 - is an electronic system. 5 - can not be disconnected during flight. 6 - can be disconnected during flight. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 6

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 5

An inverter is a: a)

unit used to convert DC into AC.

b)

device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.

c)

filter against radio interference.

d)

static discharger.


page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: a)

mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.

b)

maintain a constant frequency.

c)

take part in the voltage regulation.

d)

take part in the balancing of reactive loads.

The type of gate which requires all conditions with logic 1 for engagement is: a)

AND.

b)

OR.

c)

NOR.

d)

NAND.

The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 12 cm is: a)

3600 MHz.

b)

2500 kHz.

c)

360 MHz.

d)

2500 MHz.

The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency of 75 MHz is: a)

40 m.

b)

7.5 m.

c)

75 m.

d)

4 m.

The wavelength of a radio signal transmitted at the frequency 118.7 MHz is: a)

2.53 m.

b)

25.3 m.

c)

2.53 cm.

d)

25.3 cm.


page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the: a)

torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).

b)

frequency or load controller.

c)

voltage controller.

d)

excitation current.

The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency alternators is directly controlled by: a)

the voltage regulator.

b)

a battery.

c)

an excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator.

d)

an AC generator.

The alternators, when connected, are usually connected: a)

In parallel mode.

b)

Dependant on the type of engine.

c)

Dependant on the type of generator.

d)

In series mode.

Alternating current can be derived from direct current by: a)

an inverter.

b)

an alternating current motor.

c)

the use of relays.

d)

a series wound motor.

When a persistent underexcitation fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains with another AC generator, the protection device opens: a)

the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

b)

the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

c)

the tie breaker.

d)

the generator control relay and the generator breaker.


page: 4

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

On detection of a persistent phase unbalance on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains, with another AC generator, the protection device opens: a)

the generator breaker.

b)

the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

c)

the exciter control relay and the generator breaker.

d)

the tie breaker.

A static converter is powered by: a)

alternating current on input, direct current on output.

b)

alternating current on input, alternating current on output.

c)

direct current on input, direct current on output.

d)

direct current on input, alternating current output.

In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay allows: a)

power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.

b)

connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.

c)

connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.

d)

connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.

Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the: a)

exciter control relay opens.

b)

exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.

c)

exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.

d)

generator breaker opens.


page: 5

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are: 1. Weight saving 2. Easy fault detection 3. Increase of short-circuit risk 4. Reduction of short-circuit risk 5. Circuits are not single-wired lines The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 5

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

2, 3, 5

d)

1, 2, 3

The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is: a)

800 revolutions per minute.

b)


c)


d)


Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to: 1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt 3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems 4. set the aircraft to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 4

c)

1, 3, 4

d)

3, 4

The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is: a)

1 metre.

b)

100 metres.

c)

1000 metres.

d)

10 metres.


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027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction finder is a: a)

cathode-ray tube.

b)

VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

c)

VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.

d)

VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.

The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: a)

hectometric.

b)

decimetric.

c)

metric.

d)

centimetric.

The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: a)

hectometric.

b)

centimetric.

c)

decimetric.

d)

metric.

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths: a)

centimetric.

b)

decimetric.

c)

hectometric.

d)

metric.

The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: a)

hectometric.

b)

metric.

c)

centimetric.

d)

decimetric.


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032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: a)

decimetric.

b)

myriametric.

c)

hectometric.

d)

metric.

The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths: a)

decimetric.

b)

hectometric or kilometric.

c)

metric.

d)

centimetric.

A thermal circuit breaker: a)

uses electromagnetic trip system to prevent over heating.

b)

can be re-engaged without any danger even if the fault remains.

c)

protects the system in the event of overload/overheating.

d)

limits any overcurrent.

The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator that: a)

must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter.

b)

is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.

c)

is driven at constant speed through a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.

d)

supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.

A magnetic circuit-breaker is: a)

a protection system that has a quick tripping response.

b)

permits an overcurrent limited in time.

c)

can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.

d)

is a system with a slow response time.


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037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are: 1. presence of a permanent field 2. closed electrical circuit 3. generator terminals short-circuited 4. minimum rotation speedThe combination of correct statements is: a)

1, 4

b)

1, 3

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2

A "Zener" diode is used for: a)

rectification.

b)

digital displays.

c)

reverse current protection.

d)

voltage stabilization.

To reverse the direction of rotation of shunt-type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is necessary to: a)

connect a phase-shift capacitor to the field circuit.

b)

reverse the polarity of either the stator and the rotor.

c)

change the connections from shunt to series.

d)

reverse the polarity of the motor connections.

The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1. simple connection 2. high starting torque 3. flexibility in use 4. lighter weight of equipment 5. easy to convert into direct current 6. easy maintenance of machinesThe combination of correct statements is: a)

3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 4, 6

c)

1, 2, 3, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6


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041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

Direct current generators are connected: a)

in series to provide maximum voltage.

b)

in parallel to provide maximum power.

c)

in series to provide maximum power.

d)

in parallel to provide maximum voltage.

On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are: 1. low risk of thermal runaway 2. high internal resistance, hence higher power 3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating 4. wider permissible temperature range 5. good storage capability 6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing 7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The combination of correct statement is: a)

3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 2, 5, 6, 7

c)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6

d)

3, 4, 6, 7

On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens: a)

The generator breaker and tie breaker.

b)

the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.

c)

The generator breaker.

d)

the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the: a)

shunt exciter and the series winding turn.

b)

generator and the series winding turn.

c)

voltage coil and the series winding.

d)

voltage coil and the series winding turn.


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045.)

046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens: a)

the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

b)

the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.

c)

the generator breaker.

d)

the tie breaker.

When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the: a)

exciter breaker.

b)

generator breaker.

c)

exciter breaker and generator breaker.

d)

exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.

The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in: a)

parallel with the armature.

b)

parallel with the shunt field coil.

c)

series with the shunt field coil.

d)

series with the armature.

On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by: a)

the main field winding.

b)

the auxiliary winding.

c)

a set of permanent magnets.

d)

the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.

The capacity of an accumulator is: a)

The quantity of electricity that the battery can supply during discharge.

b)

The number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.

c)

The no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.

d)

The intensity withstood by the battery during charging.


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050.)

051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

The purpose of static wick dischargers is to: a)

dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static electricity.

b)

provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.

c)

be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.

d)

dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.

The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are: a)

compound wound.

b)

shunt wound.

c)

series wound.

d)

series shunt wound.

The output of a generator is controlled by: a)

varying the field strength.

b)

the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

c)

varying the speed of the engine.

d)

varying the length of wire in the armature windings.

The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in: a)

volts.

b)

watts.

c)

ohms.

d)

amperes.

A relay is: a)

a magnetically operated switch.

b)

a device that is used to increase electrical power.

c)

a unit that is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.

d)

another name for a solenoid valve.


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055.)

056.)

057.)

058.)

The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is: a)

1,2 volts.

b)

2,2 volts.

c)

1,8 volts.

d)

1,4 volts.

The capacity of a battery is given in: a)

Ohms.

b)

Watts.

c)

Ampere hours.

d)

Amperes/volts.

It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if: a)

static noises can be heard on the radio.

b)

a circuit breaker pops out.

c)

there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.

d)

there is interference on the VOR receiver.

In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is: a)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.

b)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.

c)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.

d)

The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.


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059.)

060.)

061.)

062.)

Static dischargers: 1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential 2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical discharge 3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating0 volts 4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce interference with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum 5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and theelectrified clouds The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,5.

b)

1,3,4.

c)

2,4,5.

d)

3,4,5.

A relay is: a)

An electromagnetically operated switch.

b)

An electrical energy conversion unit.

c)

An electrical security switch.

d)

A switch specially designed for AC circuits.

The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is: a)

200 Hz.

b)

400 Hz.

c)

60 Hz.

d)

50 Hz.

Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will: a)

change the direction of the excitation current.

b)

maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.

c)

increase the intensity of the excitation current.

d)

decrease the intensity of the excitation current.


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063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: a)

automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.

b)

directly connected to the battery.

c)

kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.

d)

providing an alternative current.

In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the: a)

pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.

b)

pilot has to throttle back.

c)

pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.

d)

pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.

The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is .. a)

To change AC into DC.

b)

To avoid a short circuit.

c)

To change DC into AC.

d)

To change the DC voltage.

The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the: a)

induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.

b)

alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.

c)

induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.

d)

The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.

In an alternator rotor coil you can find: a)

Only induced current.

b)

Three-phase AC.

c)

AC.

d)

DC.


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068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

072.)

Skip distance is the: a)

thickness of the ionosphere

b)

range from the transmitter to the first sky wave

c)

wavelength distance of a certain frequency

d)

highest critical frequency distance

A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is called: a)

propagation

b)

attenuation

c)

refraction

d)

ducting

In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: a)

keyboard

b)

hard disk drive

c)

diskette drive

d)

screen unit

In computer technology, an input peripheral is a: a)

diskette drive

b)

hard disk drive

c)

printer

d)

keyboard

In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a: a)

key board

b)

screen unit

c)

hard disk drive

d)

printer


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073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

077.)

The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in circumstance occurs: a)

Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

b)

Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

c)

Lower frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

d)

Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer

A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve: a)

checking the battery voltage "off-load".

b)

checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".

c)

checking the level of the electrolyte.

d)

comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages.

When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the: a)

load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.

b)

loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.

c)

fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.

d)

component will operate normally, but will not switch off.

When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by: a)

the synchronous bus-bar.

b)

an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation current of the generators.

c)

carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.

d)

an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.

Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipments on an AC bus bar, isolation of individual equipments: a)

increases the bus bar voltage.

b)

decreases the bus bar voltage.

c)

increases the bus bar current consumption.

d)

decreases the bus bar current consumption.


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078.)

079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from: a)

a rectifier.

b)

an inverter.

c)

a TRU.

d)

a contactor.

If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field: a)

a force will be exerted on the conductor.

b)

the current will increase.

c)

the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.

d)

there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.

The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the: a)

rotor.

b)

stator.

c)

oscillator.

d)

slip ring.

The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to: a)

vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

b)

drive the generator at a constant speed.

c)

directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.

d)

vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between both generators: a)

must be synchronised.

b)

must be 120° out of phase.

c)

must be 240° out of phase.

d)

is unimportant.


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083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel: a)

only real loads need to be matched.

b)

both real an reactive loads must be matched.

c)

only reactive loads need to be matched.

d)

the matching of loads is unimportant.

A bus-bar is: a)

a device which may only be used in DC circuits.

b)

a distribution point for electrical power.

c)

the stator of a moving coil instrument.

d)

a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.

A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are: a)

slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

b)

excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.

c)

illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.

d)

low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.

A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight: a)

automatically resets at engine shut-down.

b)

may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.

c)

may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.

d)

automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.

(For this question use annex 021- 6660A) The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic): a)

an INVERT or NOT gate.

b)

a NOR gate.

c)

a NAND gate.

d)

an EXCLUSIVE gate.


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088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the: a)

"all or nothing" gate.

b)

"any or all" gate.

c)

"state indicator" gate.

d)

"inhibited" or "negated" gate.

When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter: a)

the load condition is unimportant.

b)

no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.

c)

a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.

d)

the battery should be isolated.

Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of: a)

12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.

b)


c)


d)


When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field: a)

the field will collapse.

b)

there will be no effect on the conductor.

c)

current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.

d)

an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.

In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that: a)

adequate voltage differences exists.

b)

the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.

c)

equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.

d)

their voltages are almost equal.


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093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the: a)

generator at varying loads and speeds.

b)

batteries at varying loads.

c)

TRU.

d)

generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.

A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to: a)

allow a short term overload before rupturing.

b)

limit the current in the armature.

c)

limit the current in the field circuit.

d)

instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.

The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to: a)

prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.

b)

isolate all components electrically.

c)

provide a single earth for electrical devices.

d)

provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.

A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at: a)

45°.

b)

90°.

c)

60°.

d)

120°.

On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring the: a)

oil temperature and synchronous speed.

b)

oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.

c)

output speed and oil pressure.

d)

low oil temperature and low oil quantity.


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098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

102.)

An AC generator driven by a CSD unit: a)

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.

b)

requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.

c)

does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.

d)

does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.

Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected: a)

at flight idle engine rpm only.

b)

on the ground only.

c)

when the AC generator voltage is outside limits.

d)

provided the engine is running.

When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each generator: a)

must be synchronous.

b)

must be 90° out of synchronisation.

c)

must be in opposition.

d)

is unimportant.

When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same: a)

amperage and kVAR.

b)

frequency and amperage.

c)

voltage and frequency.

d)

voltage and amperage.

The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are: a)

kVA and kVAR.

b)

volts and amperes.

c)

volts and kilowatts.

d)

amperes and kilowatts.


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103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

107.)

"Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator: a)

output frequency is too high.

b)

output frequency varies with engine speed.

c)

output frequency is too low.

d)

voltage regulator is out of adjustment.

When the supply frequency in a circuit with a capacitor is increased, the current in this circuit will: a)

remain the same.

b)

decrease.

c)

increase.

d)

be zero.

In an aeroplane fitted with a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a: a)

transformer rectifier unit (TRU).

b)

3 phase current transformer unit.

c)

rotary converter.

d)

static inverter.

On an aeroplane using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight from: a)

a DC transformer and rectifier.

b)

a static inverter.

c)

a Transformer Rectifier Unit.

d)

the AC bus via current limiters.

Regarding Ohm's law: a)

The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage.

b)

The current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage.

c)

The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.

d)

The power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.


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108.)

109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the: a)

electrolyte to "boil".

b)

current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.

c)

voltage to increase due to the current available.

d)

voltage to decrease under load.

Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery: a)

indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.

b)

indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.

c)

would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.

d)

indicates a faulty reverse current relay.

Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be: a)

used in AC and DC circuits.

b)

used only in AC circuits.

c)

used only in DC circuits.

d)

reset at any time.

A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which: a)

can be reset at any time.

b)

is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.

c)

will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.

d)

will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.

The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: a)

drive the generator at a constant speed.

b)

vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

c)

vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.

d)

directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.


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113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the: a)

number of individual poles and the field strength.

b)

number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.

c)

number of individual poles only.

d)

field strength and the speed of the moving part.

Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the: a)

"all or nothing" gate.

b)

"any or all" gate.

c)

"inhibited" or "negated" gate.

d)

"state indicator" gate.

The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to: a)

ensure the input signal is DC only.

b)

invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.

c)

ensure the input signal is AC only.

d)

ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.

A condenser in parallel with breaker points will a)

assist in negative feedback to secondary coil

b)

assist in collapse of secondary winding.

c)

permit arcing across points

d)

intensify current in secondary winding

A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is: a)

a thermistor.

b)

an AC generator.

c)

a transformer rectifier unit.

d)

an inverter.


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118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring a)

that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM

b)

that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.

c)

equal AC voltage from all generators.

d)

that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.

Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker: a)

(1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.

b)

(1) and (2) are not resettable.

c)

(1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents.

d)

(1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer essentially consists of: 1. an Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) 2. a control and timing unit 3. registers The combination which regroups all the correct statements is: a)

1,2

b)

2,3

c)

1,3

d)

1,2,3

In an on-board computer, the software is a)

resident in a random access memory (RAM)

b)

resident in a read-only memory (REPROM, EEPROM,...)

c)

loaded from a hard disk

d)

loaded from a floppy disk


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122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type: 1. AC generator over-voltage 2. AC generator under-voltage 3. over-current 4. over-speed 5. under-frequency 6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of correct statements is: a)

1,2,4,5

b)

1,2,4,6

c)

2,3,4,5,6

d)

1,3,5,6

The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery: 1 - from the bus when the battery charge has been completed 2 - when there is a battery overheat condition 3 - in case of an internal short circuit 4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a)

1 - 2 - 3 -4

b)

1

c)

1-2

d)

1 - 2 -3

The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on... a)

the strength of the excitation current

b)

its rotation speed

c)

its phase balance

d)

its load

The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula: a)

Req = R1 x R2

b)

1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)

c)

Req = R1 + R2

d)

1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2


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126.)

127.)

128.)

The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the: a)

generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true

b)

battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

c)

battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true

d)

alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true

In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found: a)

at night and when raining.

b)

at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.

c)

by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.

d)

by day and when raining.

The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics; a)

24 volt / 80 amp hours

b)


c)


d)



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Questionnaire 021-3 TW

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system of a large jet transport airplane is within the following range: a)

3000 to 5000 psi

b)

20 to 50 psi

c)

300 to 500 psi

d)

5 to 10 psi

In a gas turbine engine lubrication system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger provides: a)

automatic controlled fuel heating by engine oil to prevent icing in the fuel filter.

b)

fuel cooling to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.

c)

fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.

d)

oil cooling through thermal exchange with the fuel.

The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to: a)

maintain the correct fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.

b)

reduce the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.

c)

increase the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.

d)

maintain a constant fuel flow whatever the altitude is.

In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is: a)

stator - rotor

b)

rotor - stator

c)

stator - stator - rotor

d)

rotor - rotor - stator


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005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the: 1. tacho-generator N1 2. tacho-generator N2 3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors 4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD) 5. oil pumps 6. hydraulic pumps 7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 4, 5, 6, 7.

b)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

c)

2, 4, 5, 6.

d)

4, 5, 6, 7.

The correct formula to calculate the total displacement of a multi-cylinder piston engine is: a)

cylinder length * cylinder diameter

b)

cylinder volume * number of cylinders

c)

piston area * piston stroke

d)

piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders

When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by: a)

reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.

b)

adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.

c)

increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.

d)

increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.

The blade angle of a constant-speed propeller a)

is independent of the true air speed.

b)

increases with increasing true air speed.

c)

only varies with engine RPM.

d)

decreases with increasing true air speed.


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009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

A propeller blade is twisted, so as to a)

keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.

b)

decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip.

c)

allow a higher mechanical stress.

d)

avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.

When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller: a)

stays constant.

b)

increases.

c)

reduces.

d)

stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.

When TAS increases, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and throttle levers are not moved): a)

increase.

b)

remain constant.

c)

first decrease and after a short time increase to its previous value.

d)

decrease.

The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a: a)

high efficiency in a much wider speed range of the aeroplane.

b)

constant efficiency in the whole speed range of the aeroplane.

c)

lower propeller blade stress.

d)

higher efficiency in cruising range.

In case of engine failure during flight the blades of a constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system a)

move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.

b)

move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force and/or the spring force.

c)

move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamic force.

d)

move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.


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014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is: a)

(1) high (2) aft.

b)

(1) low (2) forward.

c)

(1) high (2) forward.

d)

(1) low (2) aft.

For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the: a)

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.

b)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

c)

mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

d)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of: a)

fuel flow and air flow.

b)

air flow.

c)

fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

d)

fuel flow.

As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to : a)

reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.

b)

increase the mixture ratio.

c)

increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.

d)

reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.

When applying carburettor heating: a)

a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.

b)

no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

c)

the mixture becomes richer.

d)

the mixture becomes leaner.


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019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the: a)

volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.

b)

amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.

c)

amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.

d)

volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.

When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of: a)

an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.

b)

an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.

c)

a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.

d)

a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.

A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in a a)

lower cylinder head temperature.

b)

higher torque.

c)

increase of power.

d)

higher efficiency.

Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with: a)

Full rich setting.

b)

Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.

c)

Cruising mixture setting.

d)

Mass ratio of 1/15.

For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: a)

quantity of oil.

b)

oil pressure.

c)

oil temperature.

d)

outside pressure.


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024.)

025.)

026.)

027.)

In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to: a)

maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.

b)

reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.

c)

maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.

d)

reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity V and static pressure Ps vary as follows: a)

V increases, Ps increases.

b)

V increases, Ps decreases.

c)

V decreases, Ps increases.

d)

V decreases, Ps decreases.

The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of: a)

the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

b)

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.

c)

the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.

d)

the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.

On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide: 1. electricity 2. air for starting system 3. hydraulic pressure 4. air for air conditioningThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a)

1.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.


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028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the: a)

inlet guide vanes.

b)

surge bleed valves.

c)

Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).

d)

variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

By-pass turbine engines are mainly used in commercial aviation, because: a)

they are lighter than straight jet engines.

b)

twin spool or triple spool jet engines require a high by pass ratio.

c)

they produce less noise.

d)

at high subsonic airspeeds they have a better propulsive efficiency than propeller or straight jet engines.

Below its design speed an axial compressor: a)

has a tendency to surge in the front stages.

b)

has a tendency to surge in the centre stages.

c)

has a tendency to surge in the rear stages.

d)

has no tendency to surge.

The purpose of a compressor bleed valve is to prevent surging: a)

at low compressor rpm.

b)

generated by foreign object ingestion.

c)

with altitude.

d)

of the first compressor stages.

(For this question use annex 021-4008A) In flight, with centre tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2). Rebalancing of the two tanks is: a)

impossible because there is no fuel in centre tank.

b)

possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps "OFF".

c)

impossible without causing the APU to stop.

d)

possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps "OFF" and tank 2 pumps "ON".


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033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR): 1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases 2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number 3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrustirrespective of engine wear due to ageing. 4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outletand the compressor inlet 5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR islower than the real EPR The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 5.

b)

3, 4, 5.

c)

2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 3.

Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. During deceleration: a)

with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.

b)

when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.

c)

at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.

d)

when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.

The octane rating of a fuel characterises the: a)

fuel electrical conductivity

b)

fuel volatility

c)

the anti-knock capability

d)

quantity of heat generated by its combustion

The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishes immediately, is the: a)

flash point

b)

self ignition point

c)

fire point

d)

combustion point


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037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change lines a)

2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.

b)

2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.

c)

2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.

d)

2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.

Ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre): a)

before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.

b)

before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

c)

behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

d)

behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.

The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by: a)

Torque times RPM.

b)

Force times distance.

c)

Pressure times arm.

d)

Work times velocity.

The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is: a)

Brake horse power.

b)

Indicated horse power.

c)

Friction horse power.

d)

Heat loss power.

The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the: a)

propeller blades.

b)

accessory gear box.

c)

gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.

d)

camshaft.


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042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

The power of a piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant power lever setting because of the decreasing: a)

air density.

b)

engine temperature.

c)

temperature.

d)

humidity.

The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are: a)

cold and dry air at high pressure.

b)

warm and humid air at low pressure.

c)

cold and humid air at high pressure.

d)

warm and dry air at high pressure.

The power output of a piston engine without supercharging increases with increasing altitude in standard atmosphere at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the: a)

lower losses during the gas change.

b)

increase of the air density behind the throttle valve.

c)

lower friction losses.

d)

leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) and RPM indications and at a constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine: a)

only stays constant if the propeller lever is pushed.

b)

decreases.

c)

increases.

d)

stays constant.

The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is: a)

a piston compressor.

b)

a hybrid compressor.

c)

a radial compressor.

d)

an axial compressor.


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047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

Assume an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller. What will happen if the altitude is decreased while the throttle remains fully open and the waste gate is seized in the cruise position: a)

The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value will stay constant.

b)

The blade angle may reach the full fine limit.

c)

The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.

d)

The power of the engine will decrease.

One of the advantages of a turbocharger is: a)

that there is no danger of detonation.

b)

to make the power available less dependent on altitude.

c)

that there is no torsion at the crankshaft.

d)

that it has a better propulsive efficiency.

With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller? a)

RPM indicator.

b)

Fuel Flow indicator.

c)

Cylinder head temperature indicator.

d)

RPM and MAP indicator.

An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to: a)

control the cylinder head temperature.

b)

control the carburettor inlet air flow.

c)

assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.

d)

control the fuel temperature.

During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the: a)

Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) increases.

b)

Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) decreases.

c)

RPM decreases.

d)

RPM increases.


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052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

The conditions which can cause knocking are: a)

Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

b)

High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.

c)

High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.

d)

Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.

During take-off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised for cruise condition is: a)

zero.

b)

relatively high.

c)

negative.

d)

relatively small.

The mechanism to change the propeller blade pitch of modern small piston engine aeroplanes is operated a)

hydraulically by engine oil.

b)

hydraulically by hydraulic fluid.

c)

by an electrical actuator.

d)

by a mechanical linkage.

What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a "constant speed propeller" if the manifold pressure is increased ? a)

It will decrease so that the engine can increase

b)

It will remain the same

c)

It will increase

d)

It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again

The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at: a)

low airspeeds with low power setting.

b)

low airspeeds with high power setting.

c)

high airspeeds with high power setting.

d)

high airspeeds with low power setting.


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057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. a)

Only for counterrotating propeller

b)

If there is an unbalanced propeller.

c)

If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.

d)

Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.

In respect of a constant speed propeller of a twin engine aeroplane controlled by a single-acting pitch control unit: a)

spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.

b)

oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

c)

aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.

d)

oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.

A pilot can actuate the feathering system by: a)

pulling the power levers rearwards.

b)

pulling the propeller control lever rearwards.

c)

pushing the propeller control lever forwards.

d)

pushing the power lever forwards.

The crank assembly consists of a)

crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.

b)

crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

c)

propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.

d)

Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.

Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are: a)

independent of the electrical system of the aircraft.

b)

dependent on the DC-Generator.

c)

dependent on the battery.

d)

dependent on the AC-Generator.


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062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

The ignition system generally used for small aircrafts is a: a)

High tension system.

b)

Low tension system.

c)

High intensity system.

d)

Battery ignition system.

The ventilation system in a fuel tank: a)

prevents vapour lock in the fuel lines.

b)

It prevents a surge in the tank of an iced aeroplane.

c)

prevents low pressure or overpressure in the tank.

d)

can be used to drain the tanks, for daily checks.

The fuel tanks of aircrafts must be checked for water a)

during refuelling.

b)

before the first flight of the day or after a long turnaround time.

c)

immediately after every refuelling.

d)

before each flight.

The task of the primer pump is to a)

inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.

b)

serve as an alternate pump in case of an engine driven pump failure.

c)

provide additional fuel for an engine start.

d)

to serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system.

Viscosity is a)

the flow velocity inside the oil lines.

b)

the temperature dependence of an oil.

c)

the resistance of a gas or liquid to flow.

d)

Viscosity is the pressure resistance of an oil.


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067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: a)

serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.

b)

provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.

c)

feed cooling air to the engine cowling.

d)

provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.

On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the: a)

piston displacement

b)

overall efficiency

c)

compression ratio

d)

engine RPM

In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke is: a)

induction

b)

exhaust

c)

power

d)

compression

Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at: a)

idling

b)

take-off

c)

full throttle

d)

cruising speed

If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that: a)

the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position

b)

the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position

c)

a still operating engine will run down

d)

the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced


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072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on: a)

a properly functioning thermostat

b)

a lean fuel/air mixture

c)

a rich fuel/air mixture

d)

the circulation of lubricating oil

In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are: a)

exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.

b)

intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.

c)

both valves open.

d)

both valves closed.

The main purpose of the mixture control is to: a)

increase the oxygen supplied to the engine.

b)

decrease the air supplied to the engine.

c)

decrease the oxygen supplied to the engine.

d)

adjust the fuel flow to obtain the correct fuel/air ratio.

In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur? a)

float chamber and fuel inlet filter

b)

main air bleed and main discharge nozzle

c)

accelerator pump and main metering jet

d)

venturi and the throttle valve

The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the: a)

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet

b)

increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure

c)

measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system

d)

automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude


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077.)

078.)

079.)

080.)

081.)

In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of: a)

vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor

b)

low volatility of aviation fuel

c)

compression of air at the carburettor venturi

d)

freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the: a)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

b)

volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.

c)

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.

d)

mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor

Which statement is correct concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat? a)

The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.

b)

The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture.

c)

The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture.

d)

The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.

On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum compression ratio of a piston engine is: a)

the maximum compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.

b)

the higher the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is

c)

the higher the octane rating is, the lower the maximum compression ratio is.

d)

the lower the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is

Vapour lock is: a)

the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor

b)

the formation of water vapour in a fuel system

c)

vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor

d)

vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor


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082.)

083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because: a)

it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls

b)

it fouls the spark plugs

c)

it drains the carburettor float chamber

d)

the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil

The primary purpose of a supercharger is to: a)

maintain power at altitude

b)

provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft

c)

provide a richer mixture at high altitudes

d)

increase quantity of fuel at metering jet

An excessively rich mixture can be detected by: a)

high cylinder head temperatures

b)

black smoke from exhaust.

c)

a long purple flame from exhaust.

d)

white smoke from exhaust.

A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures: a)

vacuum in the carburettor.

b)

fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.

c)

absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.

d)

absolute air pressure entering the carburettor.

A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the: a)

total volume to the swept volume.

b)

clearance volume to the swept volume.

c)

swept volume to the clearance volume.

d)

total volume to the clearance volume.


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087.)

088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when: a)

the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.

b)

the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.

c)

a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.

d)

the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the plug

Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively: a)

low barometric pressure.

b)

weak mixture.

c)

rich mixture.

d)

high barometric pressure.

A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned: a)

between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.

b)

upstream of the needle valve.

c)

between the needle valve and the metering jet.

d)

downstream of the discharge nozzle.

The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is: a)

induction, power, compression, exhaust.

b)

compression induction, power, exhaust.

c)

induction, compression, power, exhaust.

d)

induction, compression, expansion, power.

Specific fuel consumption is defined as the: a)

maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.

b)

mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.

c)

designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.

d)

quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.


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092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to: a)

prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.

b)

correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.

c)

weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.

d)

enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.

The purpose of an ignition switch is to: a)

connect the battery to the magneto

b)

connect the secondary coil to the distributor

c)

connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil

d)

control the primary circuit of the magneto

Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current: a)

directly from the aircraft batteries.

b)

from the booster coil.

c)

from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.

d)

from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller: a)

the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.

b)

manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.

c)

in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant.

d)

in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening the throttle.

The air in a piston engine supercharger enters the centrifugal compressor at: a)

the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.

b)

a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.

c)

the eye of the impeller and leaves it almost at a tangent to the periphery.

d)

the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.


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097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by: a)

a manifold pressure gauge only.

b)

a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings.

c)

both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.

d)

both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.

An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of: a)

jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.

b)

jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

c)

compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

d)

combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained: a)

in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.

b)

across the turbine.

c)

within the combustion chamber.

d)

at the entry to the exhaust unit.

The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which the: a)

pressure rises at a constant velocity.

b)

pressure rises and velocity falls.

c)

velocity rises and pressure falls.

d)

velocity, pressure and temperature rise.

A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by: a)

airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.

b)

the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.

c)

the low pressure turbine.

d)

the high pressure turbine.


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102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

In a free turbine engine: a)

there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.

b)

the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.

c)

its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.

d)

the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces: a)

none of the thrust.

b)

the lesser part of the thrust.

c)

the greater part of the thrust.

d)

half the thrust.

At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature: a)

may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.

b)

will fall.

c)

will be unchanged.

d)

will rise.

The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to: a)

cool the oil and heat the fuel.

b)

cool both the oil and the fuel.

c)

heat the fuel only.

d)

cool the oil only.


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106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It may be caused by: a)

failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter.

b)

an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently by the starter.

c)

the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.

d)

compressor surging.

A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates when: a)

the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.

b)

the reverser doors are locked.

c)

reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.

d)

the reverser doors are unlocked.

The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the: a)

diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.

b)

area of the piston to the cylinder volume.

c)

weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.

d)

volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead centre.

Prolonged running at low rpm can have an adverse effect on the functioning of the: a)

oil pump.

b)

carburettor.

c)

fuel filter.

d)

sparking plugs.


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110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: a)

create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.

b)

create the suction necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor main jets.

c)

prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.

d)

ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the injection system.

The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: a)

altering the depression on the main discharge tube.

b)

varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.

c)

varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.

d)

moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.

The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute: a)

primary current to the condenser.

b)

secondary current to the condenser.

c)

primary current to the sparking plugs.

d)

secondary current to the sparking plugs.

The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the: a)

distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.

b)

contact breaker points opening.

c)

contact breaker points closing.

d)

rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.

The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: a)

pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.

b)

difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.

c)

pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

d)

pressure in the oil tank reservoir.


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115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

119.)

A turbocharger system is normally driven by: a)

an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.

b)

an electric motor.

c)

the exhaust system.

d)

an hydraulic motor.

A turbocharger consists of a: a)

compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.

b)

turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.

c)

compressor and turbine on individual shafts.

d)

compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.

In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is: a)

less than turbine rpm.

b)

the same as turbine rpm.

c)

greater than turbine rpm.

d)

independent of turbine rpm.

When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the: a)

axial velocity of the flow decreases.

b)

pressure drops.

c)

temperature increases.

d)

pressure rises.

For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which the engine: a)

will run without any external assistance.

b)

operates most efficiently in the cruise..

c)

is designed to idle after starting.

d)

will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.


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120.)

121.)

122.)

123.)

The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow is to: a)

ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded.

b)

prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.

c)

prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.

d)

ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.

In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running due to: a)

the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.

b)

thermal expansion.

c)

oil pressure.

d)

blade creep.

If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor (engine N2 controlled), the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that: a)

EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.

b)

EPR remains constant and EGT increases.

c)

both EPR and EGT decrease.

d)

EPR decreases and EGT increases.

The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of an axial flow compressor, is to: a)

prevent stall in the LP compressor.

b)

enable to start the engine with an external air supply.

c)

prevent the engine from an overspeed.

d)

control the acceleration of the engine.


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124.)

125.)

126.)

127.)

Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse turbine stage: a)

the pressure remains constant across stator blades and rises across the rotor blades.

b)

the pressure rises across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.

c)

the pressure drops across the stator blades and remains constant across the rotor blades.

d)

the pressure remains constant across the stator blades and drops across the rotor blades.

A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification limitations) and on the ground: a)

air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.

b)

air conditioning and electrical services.

c)

air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air).

d)

either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.

With respect to a piston engine aircraft, ice in the carburettor: a)

will only form at OAT's below +10°C.

b)

may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.

c)

will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.

d)

will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.

The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed the: a)

camshaft

b)

piston

c)

reduction gear

d)

crankshaft


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128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine? a)

The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating.

b)

Using an engine with a low compression ratio.

c)

Slightly retarding the ignition timing.

d)

High cylinder head temperature.

In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be: a)

normal

b)

too weak to support combustion

c)

weak

d)

rich

To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the mass of air flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with: a)

a power jet

b)

a diffuser

c)

a mixture control

d)

an accelerator pump

The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted: a)

in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump

b)

after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine

c)

between the oil tank and the pressure pump

d)

after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump


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132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

136.)

When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause: a)

high manifold pressure

b)

high cylinder head

c)

high engine RPM

d)

low cylinder head

The first indication of carburettor icing in airplanes equipped with constant speed propellers would most likely be a: a)

decrease in rpm

b)

rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure

c)

rough running engine followed by loss in rpm.

d)

decrease in manifold pressure

What will eventually happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting full rich? a)

the engine will operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.

b)

fouling of spark plugs.

c)

the engine will overheat.

d)

increase of the power available.

With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising speed, one magneto fails completely. This will first cause: a)

engine to overheat.

b)

excessive vibration

c)

additional load on the other magneto

d)

loss of approximately 100 rpm

The use of too low an octane fuel may cause: a)

a cooling effect on cylinders

b)

detonation

c)

a prompt pre-ignition reaction.

d)

higher manifold pressure


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137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

141.)

The cylinder head and oil temperature gauges are to exceed the normal operating ranges if a pilot a)

uses fuel that has a rating higher-than-specified for the engine

b)

uses fuel that has a rating lower-than-specified for the engine

c)

operating wit higher-than-normal oil pressure

d)

operates with the mixture control set too rich.

If the engine, with a fixed pitch propeller, is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the normal corrective action would be to: a)

reduce the throttle

b)

lean the mixture

c)

increase the rate of climb

d)

apply carburettor heat.

As the flight altitude increases, if no leaning is made with the mixture control: a)

the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant

b)

the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the amount of fuel decreases

c)

the volume of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases

d)

the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.

When starting an engine or when the engine runs at an idle rpm on ground, the mixture is: a)

lean, to prevent hat the engine consumes too much fuel.

b)

rich, to make starting possible and to cool the engine sufficiently when idling

c)

rich, because carburettor heat is switched on

d)

rich, because the choke valve is closed

The application of carburettor heat reduces a)

the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture

b)

it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture

c)

the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.

d)

the volume of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture


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142.)

143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by a)

engine oil pressure

b)

centrifugal force

c)

a coil spring

d)

electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

An aircraft magneto is switched off by a)

opening the secondary circuit

b)

opening the primary circuit

c)

grounding the secondary circuit.

d)

grounding the primary circuit

Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the: a)

slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

b)

faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.

c)

faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

d)

faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs

An impulse magneto coupling a)

reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up

b)

gives a retarded spark at starting

c)

advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting

d)

gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be: a)

defective condenser

b)

switch wire grounded

c)

excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.

d)

fouled spark plugs


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147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine a)

will not operate at the left magneto

b)

cannot be started with the switch in the ON position

c)

will not operate at the right magneto

d)

cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to: a)

provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting.

b)

facilitate quick removal and installation.

c)

advance the ignition timing.

d)

absorb starting loads.

Aircraft magneto`s receive electrical energy from a)

rotating permanent magneto's.

b)

generators

c)

batteries

d)

condensers

Cooling air for a reciprocating engine can be obtained by means of: a)

ram air

b)

a supercharger

c)

a pneumatic system.

d)

a turbocharger

A chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that a)

the piston rings are worn

b)

to indicate that seals are worn

c)

there are metal particles in the oil

d)

the oil temperature is too high


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152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

Vents in oil tanks are primarily to a)

eliminate foaming.

b)

allow for expansion of hot oil

c)

prevent excessive pressure from building up in tank

d)

prevent overthrow

The lubricating system of an aircraft engine is used to a)

operate ground adjustable propellers.

b)

prevent inter-crystalline corrosion

c)

aid in dissipation of heat

d)

keep the engine warm

A pressure relief valve that does not fit on its seat properly would result in a)

low oil temperature.

b)

low oil pressure

c)

high oil pressure

d)

excessive oil consumption

A magnetic plug can be used to a)

collect static electricity.

b)

collect ferrous particles reaching the sump

c)

prevent metallic particles from entering the oil system

d)

collect carbon found in the oil


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156.)

157.)

158.)

159.)

The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are: 1 - more expensive to manufacture 2 - lower airflow 3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage 4 - lower pressure ratio The combination which regroups all of the correct answers is: a)

1, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

2, 4.

d)

2, 3.

A stage in an axial compressor: a)

has a compression ration in the order of 0.8 .

b)

consists of a row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc.

c)

consists of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades.

d)

has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 .

For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the: a)

external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

b)

internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass

c)

fuel flow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

d)

internal airflow mass divided by the fuel flow mass

In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal engine oil pressure. This higher pressure: a)

is normal, if it decreases after startup.

b)

is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.

c)

is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.

d)

requires an oil change.


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160.)

161.)

162.)

163.)

164.)

In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... a)

drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases

b)

drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.

c)

compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber

d)

clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust

The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between the: a)

reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.

b)

propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

c)

propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.

d)

propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.

When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be: a)

at zero drag.

b)

feathered.

c)

windmilling.

d)

transparent.

During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ... a)

high manifold pressure and high RPM.

b)

low manifold pressure and low RPM.

c)

low manifold pressure and high RPM.

d)

high manifold pressure and low RPM.

If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine continues to run normally, the most probable cause is that: a)

On a magneto, the grounding wire is broken.

b)

A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.

c)

There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).

d)

There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.


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165.)

166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

On a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates… a)

a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

b)

zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.

c)

a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

d)

a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.

The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the: a)

volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.

b)

mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.

c)

actual mixture ratio relative to the chemically correct ratio.

d)

volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.

Using compressor bleed air to power systems: a)

is limited to the phases of take-off and landing

b)

decreases aircraft performance

c)

increases aircraft performance

d)

has no influence on aircraft performance

A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended: a)

provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

b)

provided that the grade is lower

c)

never

d)

provided that the grade is higher

With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: a)

Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture

b)

Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture

c)

Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture

d)

Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture


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170.)

171.)

172.)

From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should: a)

increase

b)

remain the same

c)

increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

d)

decrease

(For this question use annex 021-11474A) The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type: a)

free turbine and centrifugal compressor

b)

free turbine and axial compressor

c)

single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor

d)

single shaft turbine and axial compressor

The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by: -a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine RPM -a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 – torque 6 - turbine temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a)

1-5-6

b)

1-3-5

c)

3-4-6

d)

2-4-5


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173.)

174.)

175.)

176.)

The static thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power: 1. equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity 2. is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air 3. produces zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving 4. is independent of the outside air temperatureThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a)

1-3

b)

1-2

c)

4

d)

2-3

The use of igniters is necessary or recommended on a turbo-jet: 1. throughout the operating range of the engine 2. for accelerations 3. for ground starts 4. for in-flight relights 5. during turbulence in flight 6. under heavy precipitation or in icing conditionsThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

3.

c)

3, 4, 5, 6.

d)

1.

Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if: a)

the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.

b)

the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.

c)

the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.

d)

power is increased too abruptly.

"Vapour lock" is the phenomenon by which: a)

water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime.

b)

burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the exhaust.

c)

abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.

d)

heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.


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177.)

178.)

179.)

180.)

In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in: a)

breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs.

b)

accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.

c)

obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.

d)

creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.

For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio of the mixture is: a)

1:9

b)

1:15

c)

1:10

d)

1:12

The thermal efficiency of a piston engine is about: a)

80%

b)

30%

c)

70%

d)

50%

(For this question use annex 021-11507A) On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point marked: a)

3

b)

4

c)

1

d)

2


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181.)

The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the: a)

C.H.T. (cylinder head temperature)

b)

oil temperature

c)

cabin temperature

d)

E.G.T (exhaust gas temperature)


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Questionnaire 021-4 EME

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection system is: a)

Powder

b)

Water

c)

Freon

d)

CO2

When a part of a continuous loop fire detection system is heated: 1. its resistance decreases. 2. its resistance increases. 3. the leakage current increases. 4. the leakage current decreases The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 3

d)

1, 4

In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment: a)

protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.

b)

gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.

c)

protects the members of the crew against smoke and noxious gases.

d)

protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.

When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is: a)

able to radiotelephone.

b)

only able to transmit.

c)

only able to receive.

d)

not able to do any radio communication.


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005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will: a)

activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.

b)

inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.

c)

automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire.

d)

activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.

In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the line is accidentally grounded: a)

the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.

b)

the fire alarm is triggered.

c)

the power supply is cut off automatically.

d)

there will be no effect on the system

When a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested: a)

a part of the wire is heated

b)

the whole wire is heated

c)

the wiring and the warning are tested.

d)

only the warning function is tested.

What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? a)

Cabin air and oxygen.

b)

A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

c)

Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.

d)

100% oxygen.

Regarding fire detection, Ion detectors are used to detect: a)

smoke.

b)

overtemperature.

c)

overtemperature and fire

d)

fire


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010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to: 1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI(low pressure system) 2. supply pure oxygen 3. supply diluted oxygen 4. supply oxygen at normal pressure 5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure 6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4, 6

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

3, 4, 5, 6

A diluter demand oxygen regulator: a)

delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.

b)

mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

c)

is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.

d)

delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.

In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state: a)

gaseous

b)

chemical

c)

liquid.

d)

chemical or gaseous.

A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by a)

heating up the sensor with test power connection.

b)

checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.

c)

checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.

d)

checking the sensor with pressurized gas.


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014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

Smoke detector systems are installed in the a)

fuel tanks.

b)

upper cargo compartments (class E).

c)

engine nacelles

d)

wheel wells

The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a: a)

gear warning.

b)

warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).

c)

warning bell.

d)

warning light.

In what state is the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes stored: a)

Gaseous.

b)

A chemical compound.

c)

A gaseous or chemical compound.

d)

Liquid.

If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the: a)

oxygen bottles will explode.

b)

oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

c)

oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.

d)

passenger oxygen masks will drop down.

The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to: a)

deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.

b)

be used only when smoke is present in the cockpit.

c)

mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

d)

deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.


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019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by: a)

opening the oxygen-bottle valves.

b)

switching the diluter demand regulator ON.

c)

switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.

d)

switching the passenger oxygen ON.

The passenger oxygen mask will supply: a)

a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.

b)

a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

c)

100 % oxygen.

d)

a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.

Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces: a)

a decrease in pressure

b)

a decrease in resistance

c)

a decrease in the reference current

d)

an increase in resistance

On a 13653 a fire detection system includes: a)

a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines

b)

a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine

c)

both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

d)

a single warning light and a single alarm bell

A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ? a)

if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes

b)

the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers

c)

manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible

d)

the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members


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024.)

025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is: a)

Water

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Halon

d)

Grease

The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its function is to: a)

activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top

b)

settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.

c)

free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.

d)

obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during evacuation.

Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the passenger must: a)

firmly pull the mask towards his face.

b)

operate the relevant switch in his armrest.

c)

turn the oxygen valve to open.

d)

firmly pull the door compartment of the oxygen mask storage.

A manual inflation handle: a)

operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide

b)

serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails

c)

is generally not applied on slides

d)

serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails

The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly: a)

a continuous flow system

b)

a pressure demand system

c)

portable equipment only

d)

an air recycle system


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029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

A continuous loop detector system is a: a)

fire fighting system.

b)

smoke detection system.

c)

carbon dioxide warning system.

d)

overheat detection system.

The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the: a)

pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi

b)

user requires 100 percent oxygen

c)

user breathes in

d)

diluter control is in normal position

The purpose of the „Pressure Relief Valve“ in a high pressure oxygen system is to: a)

act as a manual shut-off valve

b)

maximize the charging pressure of the system

c)

relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions

d)

reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator

Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are: 1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system 2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned 3. setting of extinguishing systems 4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves 5. isolation of the associated electric current generators 6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agentThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2,3,4,5

b)

1,3,4,5

c)

1,3,4

d)

1,2,5,6


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033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected: a)

only at an isolated point of the loops

b)

at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops

c)

on at least one loop

d)

only in a uniform way along the loops

Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type: a)

electrical

b)

magnetic

c)

optical or ionization

d)

chemical

In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located containing: a)

halon.

b)

powder.

c)

special fluids

d)

water

Oxygen systems on pressurized airplanes are used to provide oxygen: 1. In an emergency in the case of depressurization. 2. In an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger. 3. During a normal flight. 4. In an emergency in case of smoke or toxic gases in the cockpit.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

1,4

d)

3


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037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with: a)

only portable oxygen bottles.

b)

only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.

c)

two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.

d)

two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.

When selected to normal, the oxygen/air ratio of the mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator: a)

is 100%

b)

increases when the altitude increases

c)

decreases when the altitude increases

d)

is constant whatever the altitude

In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes: a)

cabin air under pressure.

b)

pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.

c)

pure oxygen under pressure.

d)

a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.

Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the: a)

cabin only.

b)

cockpit and the cabin.

c)

toilets only.

d)

cockpit only.

The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about: a)

30 minutes

b)

2 hours

c)

15 minutes

d)

5 minutes


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042.)

043.)

044.)

The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are: 1. reduced weight and volume, 2. easy storage and maintenance, 3. greater autonomy, 4. no risk of explosion, 5. reversible functioning, 6. no maintenance.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 5

c)

1, 2, 4, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are: 1. a flow which cannot be modulated, 2. a heavy and bulky system, 3. non reversible functioning, 4. risks of explosion, 5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are: 1. a greater autonomy, 2. no risk of explosion, 3. reversible functioning, 4. easy storage and maintenance, 5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5


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045.)

046.)

047.)

048.)

When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides in the armed position is opened from the outside, the slide: a)

unfolds and becomes inflated.

b)

is disarmed automatically

c)

unfolds but does not become inflated

d)

becomes inflated in its container thus preventing its unfolding.

The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is to: a)

replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.

b)

guide the emergency evacuation during night only.

c)

mark only the thresholds exits.

d)

give additional guidance during an emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.

The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as: a)

these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.

b)

these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.

c)

the oxygen system would be contaminated.

d)

these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.

The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is: 1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system, 2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system, 3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system, 4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 3

d)

2, 4


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049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

053.)

A passenger oxygen mask is: a)

a continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

b)

a continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

c)

an on demand type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

d)

an on demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.

A smoke mask is a: a)

continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

b)

mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.

c)

mask with flow on request and covers the whole face

d)

continuous flow mask and covers the whole face

(For this question use annex 021-10164A) The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. They are associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex. The repeating bell is activated when: a)

only one sensor detects smoke

b)

the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke

c)


d)


When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to: a)

wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire

b)

avoid false alarms in case of vibrations

c)

delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency

d)

allow temperatures to equalise

Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by: a)

a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.

b)

a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.

c)

pressurized air from the air conditioning system.

d)

the aircraft’s general pneumatic circuit.


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054.)

055.)

056.)

057.)

Regarding the oxygen systems of a JAR 25 aeroplane: a)

The seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.

b)

The passenger source of supply never uses chemically generated oxygen.

c)

The same source of supply is used by the crew and passengers.

d)

With the setting on „NORMAL“, the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.

An oxygen regulator has 3 controls: -a power lever: ON/OFF -an „O2“ lever: NORMAL/100% -an emergency lever: ON/OFF Among the following statements, the correct proposition is: a)

with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe.

b)

the „O2“ lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate.

c)

the power lever on ON, and, the „O2“ lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.

d)

the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.

The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they: a)

are electrical conductors.

b)

act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air’s oxygen.

c)

are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

d)

use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.

In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to: a)

100%

b)

on demand

c)

emergency

d)

normal


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058.)

059.)

The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that: 1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used 2 - in case of accidental drop of the „continuous flow“ passenger masks, no crew action is required 3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly 4 - the system’s filling adaptors must be greased with non-freezing or graphite grease The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: a)

1-3

b)

2-4

c)

1-4

d)

2-3

The contents of an oxygen bottle can be ensure by the: 1 - weight. 2 - pressure. 3 - level. 4 - volume. The combination containing all of the correct statements is: a)

1 and 2 only.

b)

2 and 3 only.

c)

1 and 4 only.

d)

1 and 3 only.


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Questionnaire 022 INSTR

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is known as: a)

position error.

b)

instrument error.

c)

barometric error.

d)

hysteresis effect.

If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: a)

under-read

b)

continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred

c)

indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale

d)

gradually indicate zero

If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will: a)

gradually return to zero

b)

under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became blocked

c)

continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred

d)

over-read

If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: a)

over-read

b)

continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage

c)

under-read

d)

read zero


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005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

When climbing at a constant Mach number: a)

CAS increases.

b)

difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS variation.

c)

CAS decreases.

d)

CAS remains constant.

Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in: a)

higher TAS because air density increases.

b)

lower TAS because air density increases.

c)

lower TAS because air density decreases.

d)

higher TAS because air density decreases.

In standard atmosphere, when descending at constant CAS: a)

TAS first increases and then remains constant above the tropopause.

b)

TAS increases.

c)

TAS remains constant.

d)

TAS decreases.

A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to: a)

under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.

b)

over-read.

c)

over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.

d)

under-read.

Machmeter readings are subject to: a)

density error.

b)

setting error.

c)

temperature error.

d)

position pressure error


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010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

The indications on a directional gyroscope are subject to errors. The most significant are: 1- apparent wander due to earth rotation. 2- apparent wander due to change of aircraft position. 3- gimballing errors. 4- north change. 5- mechanical defects. The combination regrouping the correct statement is: a)

1,2,4,5.

b)

2,3,5.

c)

3,4,5.

d)

1,2,3,5.

The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros, -one is a roll gyro (noted 1) -one is a pitch gyro (noted 2) -one is a yaw gyro (noted 3) The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is: a)

1C, 2B, 3A

b)

1B, 2C, 3A

c)

1B, 2A, 3C

d)

1A, 2B, 3C

While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a pendulous system: a)

with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.

b)

with damping and a period of 84 seconds

c)

without damping and a period of about 84 seconds

d)

without damping and a period of about 84 minutes

In order to align an inertial reference system (IRS), it is required to insert the local geographical coordinates. This enables the IRS to: a)

compare the longitude it finds with that entered by the operator.

b)

find true north.

c)

initialise the FMS flight plan.

d)

compare the latitude it finds with that entered by the operator.


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014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

The radio altimeter is required to indicate zero height AGL as the main wheels touch down on the runway. For this reason, it is necessary to: a)

adjust the gross height according to the aircraft instantaneous pitch.

b)

have a specific radio altimeter dedicated to automatic landing.

c)

compensate for residual height and cable length.

d)

change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.

The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches: 1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range. 2 are of the pulsed type. 3 are of the frequency modulation type. 4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft. 5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft and +/- 1.5% whichever is the greatest. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4

b)

1, 2, 5

c)

3, 5

d)

3, 4

The data supplied by a radio altimeter: a)

is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

b)

concerns only the decision height.

c)

indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

d)

is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.

Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument: a)

ADI Attitude Director Indicator.

b)

RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.

c)

HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.

d)

BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.


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018.)

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is: a)

595 kt.

b)

307 kt.

c)

686 kt.

d)

247 kt.

A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: a)

two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.

b)

a single-wire metal winding.

c)

a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.

d)

two metal conductors of different type connected at two points.

The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the: a)

generation of spurious signals at the commutator.

b)

influence of temperature on the indication.

c)

necessity of providing a power supply source.

d)

high influence of line resistance on the indication.

The principle of capacity gauges is based on the: a)

capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor.

b)

current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.

c)

flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.

d)

capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric.

A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: a)

reduce the vibration of each engine.

b)

achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.

c)

set several engines to the same speed.

d)

reduce the rpm of each engine.


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023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths: a)

decimetric.

b)

metric.

c)

myriametric.

d)

centimetric.

The gyroscope of a turn indicator has: (NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis) a)

2 degrees of freedom.

b)

0 degree of freedom.

c)

1 degree of freedom.

d)

3 degrees of freedom.

The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from: 1. magnetic masses 2. ferrous metal masses 3. non ferrous metal masses 4. electrical currents The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 4

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band: a)

HF (High Frequency).

b)

VLF (Very Low Frequency).

c)

UHF (Ultra High Frequency).

d)

SHF (Super High Frequency).


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027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: a)

engines and alarms.

b)

weather situation.

c)

systems.

d)

piloting.

(For this question use annex 022-3880A) The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex. For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the: a)

offset EPSILON at the computer input.

b)

real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).

c)

aircraft response S.

d)

pilot command E.

The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is: a)

4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.

b)

5 GHz.

c)

2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.

d)

5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.

The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by: a)

dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.

b)

multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.

c)

multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.

d)

dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.

When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), the altimeter will: a)

underestimate.

b)

be just as correct as before.

c)

show the actual height above ground.

d)

overestimate.


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032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from: a)

the air-data-computer.

b)

the flux valve.

c)

the flight director.

d)

a direct reading magnetic compass.

During descent, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked. In this case: 1 - IAS becomes greater than CAS 2 - IAS becomes lower than CAS 3 - maintaining IAS constant, VMO may be exceeded 4 - maintaining IAS constant, aircraft may stall The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3.

b)

2, 4.

c)

2, 3.

d)

1, 4.

In standard atmosphere, when climbing at constant CAS: a)

TAS decreases and Mach number increases.

b)

TAS and Mach number increase.

c)

TAS increases and Mach number decreases.

d)

TAS and Mach number decrease.

The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are: a)

VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

b)

VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

c)

VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

d)

VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit


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036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are: a)

VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit

b)

VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit

c)

VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit

d)

VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are: a)

VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

b)

VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit

c)

VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit

d)

VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit

The limit speed maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed as: a)

true airspeed (TAS).

b)

calibrated airspeed (CAS).

c)

computed airspeed (COAS).

d)

equivalent airspeed (EAS).

A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to: a)

a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure.

b)

a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure.

c)

a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.

d)

a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.

The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of: a)

the total pressure

b)

the differential pressure measurement

c)

the outside temperature

d)

the static pressure


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041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated airspeed: a)

decreases abruptly towards zero

b)

increases abruptly towards VNE

c)

increases steadily

d)

decreases steadily

The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio: a)

Pt/Ps

b)

(Pt - Ps)/Pt

c)

(Pt + Ps)/Ps

d)

(Pt - Ps)/Ps

The mach number is the: a)

equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound

b)

corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound

c)

indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound

d)

true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator becomes blocked; if the pilot maintains a constant indicated airspeed, the true airspeed: a)

decreases by 1% per 600 FT.

b)

decreases until reaching the stall speed.

c)

increases by 1% per 600 FT.

d)

increases until reaching VMO.

With constant weight and configuration, an aircraft always takes off at the same: a)

indicated airspeed.

b)

equivalent airspeed.

c)

ground speed.

d)

true airspeed.


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046.)

047.)

048.)

The indication of the directional gyro is valid only for a limited period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are: 1 - rotation of the earth 2 - longitudinal accelerations 3 - aircraft's moving over the surface of the earth 4 - mechanical imperfections 5 - vertical components of the earth's magnetic field 6 - geometry of the gimbal system The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,4,6.

b)

1,3,4,6

c)

2,3,5.

d)

1,2,3,4,6.

The artificial horizon uses a gyroscope with: (note: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spinaxis) a)

two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.

b)

two degrees of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.

c)

one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained to local vertical by an automatic erecting system.

d)

one degree of freedom, and its rotor spin axis is continuously maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.

The characteristics of the directional gyro used in a gyro stabilised compass system are: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis. a)

two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.

b)

one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.

c)

two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting system.

d)

one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.


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049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the: a)

position and density errors.

b)

density error.

c)

position and instrument errors.

d)

instrument error.

The most significant advantages of an air data computer (ADC) are: 1. Position error correction 2. Hysteresis error correction 3. Remote data transmission capability 4. Gimballing errors correction The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,3.

b)

1,2,4.

c)

1,3.

d)

2,3,4

VNO is the maximum speed: a)

not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.

b)

with flaps extended in landing position.

c)

at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

d)

which must never be exceeded.

VNE is the maximum speed: a)

not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution

b)

which must never be exceeded

c)

with flaps extended in landing position

d)

at which the flight controls can be fully deflected


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053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

057.)

At a given altitude, the hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the: a)

aircraft attitude.

b)

time passed at this altitude.

c)

static temperature.

d)

mach number of the aircraft.

The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to: a)

reduce the hysteresis effect

b)

reduce the effect of friction in the linkages

c)

allow damping of the measurement in the unit

d)

inform the crew of a failure of the instrument

The position error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies substantially with the: a)

Mach number of the aircraft.

b)

flight time at high altitude.

c)

static temperature.

d)

deformation of the aneroid capsule.

When flying in cold air (colder than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is: a)

the same as the true altitude.

b)

equal to the standard altitude.

c)

higher than the true altitude.

d)

lower than the true altitude.

When flying in warm air (warmer than standard atmosphere), indicated altitude is: a)

equal to the standard altitude.

b)

higher than the true altitude.

c)

lower than the true altitude.

d)

the same as the true altitude.


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058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

062.)

Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a: a)

a temperature altitude

b)

a true altitude

c)

a density altitude

d)

a pressure altitude

The density altitude is: a)

the altitude in the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere

b)

the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point

c)

the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the standard temperature

d)

the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point

The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by adding a: a)

bimetallic strip

b)

second calibrated port

c)

return spring

d)

correction based on an accelerometer sensor.

The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding: a)

in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.

b)

in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

c)

in ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.

d)

in ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.

During a deceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a a)

constant attitude.

b)

nose up attitude.

c)

nose down attitude.

d)

nose up followed by a nose down attitude.


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063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon: a)

too much nose-up and bank too high

b)

too much nose-up and bank correct

c)

attitude and bank correct

d)

too much nose-up and bank too low

When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon: a)

attitude and bank correct

b)

too much nose-up and bank too low

c)

too much nose-up and bank too high

d)

too much nose-up and bank correct

A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on: a)

a directional gyro unit

b)

a gyromagnetic indicator

c)

an artificial horizon

d)

a turn indicator

The latitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to 0 is: a)

latitude 45°

b)

the equator

c)

latitude 30°

d)

the North pole

The apparent wander of a directional gyro is 15°/h: a)

At the latitude 45°

b)

At the North pole

c)

At the equator

d)

At the latitude 30°


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068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

For a directional gyro, the system which detects the local vertical supplies: a)

a levelling erection torque motor.

b)

a torque motor on the sensitive axis.

c)

a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring.

d)

two torque motors arranged horizontally.

In a directional gyro, gimballing errors are due to: a)

a banked attitude

b)

an apparent weight and an apparent vertical

c)

the aircraft's movement over the earth

d)

the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field

Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-ofturn indicator indicates: 1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis 2. the bank of the aircraft 3. the direction of the aircraft turn 4. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2.

b)

3,4.

c)

1,3.

d)

2,4.

The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the: a)

weather radar.

b)

primary radar.

c)

high altitude radio altimeter.

d)

radio altimeter.


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072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

Given: - Ts the static temperature (SAT) - Tt the total temperature (TAT) - Kr the recovery coefficient - M the Mach number The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula: a)

Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)

b)

Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²)

c)

Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²)

d)

Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²)

In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon: a)

a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured.

b)

a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.

c)

a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.

d)

a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.

The Yaw Damper system: 1 - counters any wrong pilot action on the rudder pedals; 2 - counters dutch roll; 3 - is active only when autopilot is engaged. The combination regrouping all the correct statements are: a)

1, 2.

b)

2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

2, 3.

A blocked pitot head with a clear static source causes the airspeed indicator to: a)

react like an altimeter.

b)

read like a vertical speed indicator.

c)

freeze at zero.

d)

operate normally.


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076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

080.)

A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instrument (s): a)

airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

b)

vertical speed indicator only.

c)

airspeed indicator only.

d)

altimeter only.

The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device originates from the: a)

error detector.

b)

flux valve.

c)

directional gyro erection device.

d)

directional gyro unit.

The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the: a)

erector system.

b)

error detector.

c)

amplifier.

d)

heading indicator.

The gyromagnetic compass torque motor: a)

causes the heading indicator to precess

b)

feeds the error detector system

c)

is fed by the flux valve

d)

causes the directional gyro unit to precess

VFE is the maximum speed: a)

with the flaps extended in a given position.

b)

with the flaps extended in landing position.

c)

at which the flaps can be operated in turbulence.

d)

with the flaps extended in take-off position.


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081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

085.)

During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates: a)

an apparent turn to the north.

b)

an apparent turn to the south.

c)

no apparent turn.

d)

no apparent turn only on northern latitudes.

During deceleration following a landing in a northerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates: a)

no apparent turn.

b)

an apparent turn to the east.

c)

no apparent turn only on southern latitudes.

d)

an apparent turn to the west.

During deceleration following a landing in a southerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates: a)

an apparent turn to the west.

b)


c)

no apparent turn.

d)

an apparent turn to the east.

During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates: a)

no apparent turn.

b)


c)


d)


During deceleration following a landing in a westerly direction, a magnetic compass made for the northern hemisphere indicates: a)


b)

no apparent turn.

c)


d)



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086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

During deceleration following a landing in an easterly direction, a magnetic compass made for the southern hemisphere indicates: a)


b)


c)

no apparent turn.

d)


The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of: a)

the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field

b)

the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces

c)

the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron pieces

d)

the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field

The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure: a)

quantity.

b)

pressure.

c)

a flow rate.

d)

temperature.

Given: M is the Mach number Ts is the static temperature Tt is the total temperature a)

Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)

b)

Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)

c)

Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)

d)

Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)


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090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of: a)

200°

b)

150°

c)

180°

d)

170°

A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of: a)

160°

b)

170°

c)

190°

d)

200°

A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of: a)

015°

b)

330°

c)

030°

d)

355°

A pilot wishes to turn right through 90° on to North at rate 2 at latitude of 40 North using a direct reading compass. In order to achieve this the turn should be stopped on an indicated heading of approximately: a)

010°

b)

330°

c)

360°

d)

030°


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094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a: a)

map showing the isogonic lines

b)

magnetic variation correction card

c)

compass deviation card

d)

map showing the isoclinic lines

The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a: a)

map showing the isogonal lines

b)

compass swinging curve

c)

deviation correction curve

d)

map showing the isoclinic lines

Total Air Temperature (TAT) is: a)

higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT.

b)

lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SAT.

c)

higher or equal to Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on altitude and SAT.

d)

lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT), depending on mach number and SAT.

Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro: a)

consumes a lot of power

b)

is influenced by temperature

c)

has a fairly long starting cycle

d)

has a longer life cycle

The principle of a laser gyro is based on: a)

two rotating cavities provided with mirrors.

b)

a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for gimballing errors.

c)

frequency difference between two laser beams rotating in opposite direction.

d)

a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for apparent wander due to the rotation of the earth.


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099.)

100.)

101.)

102.)

103.)

The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft: a)

passes over the ILS inner marker.

b)

passes over the outer marker.

c)

descends below a pre-set radio altitude.

d)

descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.

If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably; a)

leak in pressure gauge line.

b)

too high float level.

c)

fuel of too low volatility.

d)

ice in induction system.

The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on: a)

frequency modulation of the carrier wave.

b)

amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

c)

a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.

d)

pulse modulation of the carrier wave.

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis. a)

a directional gyro

b)

an artificial horizon

c)

a turn indicator

d)

a fluxgate compass

An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis. a)

turn indicator

b)

fluxgate compass

c)

directional gyro

d)

gyromagnetic compass


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104.)

105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the turn indicator reading is: a)

proportional to the aircraft weight

b)

independent to the aircraft true airspeed

c)

proportional to the aircraft true airspeed

d)

inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed

At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the: a)

roll rate of the aircraft.

b)

yaw rate of the aircraft.

c)

pitch rate of the aircraft.

d)

bank of the aircraft.

The rate-of-turn is the: a)

pitch rate in a turn

b)

yaw rate in a turn

c)

change-of-heading rate of the aircraft

d)

aircraft speed in a turn

On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates: a)

needle to the right, ball to right

b)

needle in the middle, ball to right

c)

needle to the right, ball to left

d)

needle in the middle, ball to left

On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates: a)

needle in the middle, ball to the right

b)

needle to the left, ball to the left

c)

needle to the left, ball to the right

d)

needle in the middle, ball to the left


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109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is: a)

turning right with too much bank

b)

turning left with too much bank

c)

turning left with not enough bank

d)

turning right with not enough bank

When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is: a)


b)


c)


d)


When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is: a)


b)


c)


d)


When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: a)


b)


c)


d)


In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by the engine is: a)

fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering.

b)

directly proportional to engine speed.

c)

amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator.

d)

inversely proportional to engine speed.


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114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a Mach trim system: a)

It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.

b)

It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.

c)

It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.

d)

It operates over the full aircraft speed range.

A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as: a)

a servomechanism.

b)

a feedback control circuit.

c)

an amplifier.

d)

an autopilot.

In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a: a)

bourdon tube.

b)

ratiometer circuit.

c)

thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.

d)

wheatstone bridge circuit.

If an EPR is set at a constant barometric pressure, with an increasing OAT, the thrust a)

decreases.

b)

remains constant

c)

varies according to the characteristics of the engine

d)

increases

The yaw damper system controls: a)

the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.

b)

the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.

c)

the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.

d)

the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.


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119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

Considering an airspeed indicator, a second stripped needle, if installed, indicates: a)

maximum operating speed (VMO).

b)

never-exceed speed (VNE).

c)

never-exceed speed (VNE) or maximum operating speed (VMO), depending on which is the higher.

d)

never-exceed speed (VNE) or maximum operating speed (VMO), depending on which is the lowest.

The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL) , heading 180° selected. When heading is 160°, the vertical bar of the FD: a)

is cantered if the aircraft has a 20° right drift.

b)

is cantered if the aircraft has a 20° left drift.

c)

cannot be cantered.

d)

is cantered if the bank angle of the aircraft is equal to the bank angle computed by the flight director calculator.

The airspeed indicator of a twin-engine aircraft comprises different sectors and colour marks. The blue line corresponds to the: a)

minimum control speed, or VMC

b)

maximum speed in operations, or VMO

c)

speed not to be exceeded, or VNE

d)

optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy

The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc within the arc normally used (green arc) In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the: a)

propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden

b)

rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode

c)

rating is the minimum usable in cruise

d)

propeller efficiency is minimum at this rating


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123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or high) Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable: 1- bellows type 2- Bourdon tube type 3- aneroid capsule type a)

1,2,3

b)

3,2,1

c)

3,1,2

d)

2,1,3

TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) uses for its operation: a)

the replies from the transponders of other aircrafts.

b)

the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.

c)

the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.

d)

both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes.

The Mach number is: a)

a direct function of temperature ; it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute temperature

b)

the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

c)

the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

d)

the ratio of the aircraft conventional airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered

Mach Trim is a device to compensate for: a)

the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tail

b)

backing of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to noseup

c)

weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise

d)

the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach


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127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

When available, the yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the: a)

rudder displacement by the rudder pedals

b)

rudder position

c)

yaw damper action on the rudder

d)

yaw damper action only on the ground

In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from: a)

The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage

b)

Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage

c)

Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back

d)

Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)

Indication of Mach number is obtained from: a)

A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed

b)

Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer

c)

Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter type aneroid

d)

An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots

An aircraft is equipped with one altimeter that is compensated for position error and another one altimeter that is not. Assuming all other factors are equal, during a straight symmetrical flight : a)

the greater the speed, the lower the error between the two altimeters.

b)

the greater the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.

c)

the lower the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.

d)

the error between the two altimeters does not depend on the speed.

A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: a)

Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails

b)

Contains its own separate gyro

c)

Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation

d)

Only works of there is a complete electrical failure


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132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means: a)

System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing centre line

b)

Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centreline

c)

Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

d)

Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized

The purpose of Auto Throttle is: a)

automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature

b)

to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot

c)

to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed

d)

to synchronize engines to avoid "yawing"

The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to: a)

control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load

b)

trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation

c)

help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence

d)

tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required

The altitude alerting system: a)

alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre-selected altitude.

b)

generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre-selected altitude.

c)

alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity.

d)

alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement.


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136.)

137.)

138.)

139.)

The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is: a)

an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted

b)

a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer

c)

an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter

d)

a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scale

The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is: a)

an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted

b)

an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter

c)

a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer

d)

a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scale

A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the: a)

vibration period expressed in seconds

b)

vibration frequency expressed in Hz

c)

acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g

d)

vibration amplitude at a given frequency

The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively: a)

(i) total pressure

b)

(i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure

c)

(i) static pressure at time t

(ii) static pressure at time t - dt

d)

(i) static pressure

(ii) total pressure


(ii) static pressure

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140.)

141.)

142.)

The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of: 1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage 2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage 3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage 4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase voltage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,2,3

c)

1,4

d)

2,3,4

The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with: 1- aircraft attitude 2- accelerations 3- atmospheric pressure 4- temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,2,4

c)

1,2

d)

4

The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as: 1- the descent rate 2- the climb rate 3- the aircraft configuration 4- the selected engine rpm The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,4

b)

1,3

c)

2,4

d)

2,3


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143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

147.)

Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System): a)

In one of the system modes, the warning: "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is generated

b)

Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC

c)

No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR transponder

d)

In one of the system modes, the warning: "PULL UP" is generated

The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions: a)

in horizontal and vertical planes

b)

based on speed control

c)

only in the vertical plane

d)

only in the horizontal plane

In the event of a conflict, the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision alert and Avoidance System) presents warnings to the crew such as: a)

"Glide Slope"

b)

"Too low terrain"

c)

"Climb" or "Descent"

d)

"Turn left" or "Turn right"

The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of: a)

air traffic control radar systems

b)

F.M.S. (Flight Management System)

c)

airborne weather radar system

d)

transponders fitted in the aircraft

An aircraft is flying at flight level FL180 and Mach number 0.36. Its onboard thermometer reads TAT = - 5°C. Considering that the probe recovery coefficient is 0.84, the present weather conditions compared with the standard atmosphere are: a)

Standard + 20°C

b)

Standard

c)

Standard + 30°C

d)

Standard + 10°C


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148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

In the absence of position and instrumental errors, IAS is equal to: a)

KAS

b)

EAS

c)

CAS

d)

TAS

One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced. What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor, that is used a)

dither

b)

zero drop

c)

beam lock

d)

cavity rotation

A gyromagnetic compass is a system which always consists of: 1 - a horizontal axis gyro 2 - a vertical axis gyro 3 - an earth's magnetic field detector 4 - an erection mechanism to maintain the gyro axis horizontal 5 - a torque motor to make the gyro precess in azimuth The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4, 5.

b)

2, 3, 5.

c)

1, 4.

d)

2, 3.

A radio altimeter can be defined as a: a)

self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft

b)

ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft

c)

self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft

d)

ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft


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152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around: a)

WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only

b)

DON'T SINK repetitive only

c)

DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP

d)

DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second level

A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatory installed on board an aircraft, must in all cases generate: a)

a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be

b)

a sound alarm or a visual alarm

c)

a sound and visual alarm

d)

at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added

The essential components of a flight director are: 1- a computer 2- an automatic pilot 3- an auto-throttle 4- command bars The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2,3

b)

2,4

c)

1,2

d)

1,4

An aircraft is descending from FL 390 to ground level at maximum speed. The limits in speed will be: a)

the VMO only.

b)

initially the VMO, then the MMO below a certain flight level.

c)

the MMO only.

d)

initially the MMO, then the VMO below a certain flight level.


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156.)

157.)

158.)

The functions of the altitude alerting system is to alert the flight crew: 1 - upon approaching a pre-selected altitude 2 - upon approaching a pre-selected altitude, during climb only 3 - of a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach 4 - of a wrong landing configuration 5 - when deviating from the selected altitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3, 4.

b)

1, 5.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

2, 5.

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true: a)

altitude of the aircraft.

b)

height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

c)

height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

d)

height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.

The GPWS warns the crew in case of: 1 - an altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS. 2 - a dangerous ground proximity. 3 - a loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach. 4 - a wrong landing configuration. 5 - a descent below glidepath. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,3,4

b)

2,3,4,5

c)

2

d)

2,5


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159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

The rate of turn indicator uses a gyroscope: 1 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis. 2 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis. 3 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the roll axis. 4 - with one degree of freedom. 5 - with two degrees of freedom The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis. a)

3, 5.

b)

1, 5.

c)

2, 4.

d)

3, 4.

In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter: a)

keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations

b)

overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.

c)

overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information during symmetric flight.

d)

underreads the altitude.

In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the mass: a)

on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.

b)

on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.

c)

close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.

d)

close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from: a)

50 ft to 2 500 ft

b)

30 ft to 5 000 ft

c)

the ground to 1 000 ft

d)

the ground to 500 ft


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163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

167.)

On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the: a)

upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).

b)

upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).

c)

control panel of the flight director only.

d)

upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).

In order to know in which mode the auto-throttles are engaged, the crew will check the: a)

ND (Navigation Display).

b)

PFD (Primary Flight Display)

c)

throttles position.

d)

TCC (Thrust Control Computer).

The flight director provides information for the pilot: a)

to join a desired track with a 45° intercept angle.

b)

to join to a desired path with the optimum attitude.

c)

to join a desired track with a constant bank angle of 25°.

d)

to remain within the flight envelope.

(For this question use annex 022-9771A) The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere is: a)

942.13 hPa.

b)

644.41 hPa.

c)

781.85 hPa.

d)

1 013.25 hPa.

The QNH is by definition the value of the: a)

altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given, reads the elevation.

b)

atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

c)

atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.

d)

altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given, reads zero.


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168.)

169.)

170.)

171.)

172.)

To be as accurate as possible, an anemometer must be calibrated according to the following formula: a)

Bernoulli, taking into account the air compressibility.

b)

Saint-Venant, taking into account the air compressibility.

c)

Bernoulli, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid.

d)

Saint-Venant, considering the air as an uncompressible fluid.

Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on: a)

pressure.

b)

temperature and the pressure.

c)

density.

d)

temperature.

The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: a)

644 kt.

b)

332 kt.

c)

661 kt.

d)

1059 kt.

Given: Pt: total pressure Ps: static pressure Pd: dynamic pressure The altimeter is fed by: a)

Ps-Pt.

b)

Pt-Pd.

c)

Pd-Ps.

d)

Pd.

In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is: a)

higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

b)

equal to the true airspeed (TAS).

c)

lower than the true airspeed (TAS).

d)

independent of the true airspeed (TAS).


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173.)

174.)

175.)

176.)

The total pressure probe (pitot tube) is mounted at a distance from the aeroplane skin such that: a)

it is located outside the boundary layer.

b)

it is easily accessible during maintenance checks.

c)

it does not disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraft.

d)

it is protected from icing.

Below the tropopause, when descending at constant CAS: a)

Mach number increases and the velocity of sound decreases.

b)

Mach number decreases and the velocity of sound increases.

c)

Mach number and the velocity of sound decrease.

d)

Mach number and the velocity of sound increase.

The GPWS calculator receives the following signals: 1 - vertical speed 2 - radio altimeter height 3 - pressure altitude 4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps position 6 - flight path angle The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2,3,4,6

b)

1,2,4,5

c)

1,3,4,5,6

d)

1,2,5,6

The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes: 1- excessive descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure 3- excessive angle of attack 4- too high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off 6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 7- excessive glidepath deviation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3,4,5,6

b)

1,2,4,6,7

c)

1,2,5,6,7

d)

2,3,5,7


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177.)

178.)

179.)

The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are: 1- Mach Meter indication 2- Angle of Attack 3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS) 4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2

b)

1,4

c)

2,3

d)

2,4

The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: 1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory) 2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 4- ground proximity warning The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

1, 3

d)

1, 2, 3

The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information: 1 - about the aircraft true airspeed 2 - about the airplane configuration 3 - about the pressure altitude through the mode C transponder 4 - from the radio altimeter The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2,3.

b)

2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 2, 4.

d)

1, 3, 4.


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180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

The stall warning system receives information about the: 1- airplane angle of attack 2- airplane speed 3- airplane bank angle 4- airplane configuration 5- load factor on the airplane The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 5

b)

1, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a: a)

"traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".

b)

"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

c)

"traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

d)

"traffic advisory" only.

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a: a)

"traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".

b)

"traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".

c)

"traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

d)

vertical "traffic advisory" and an horizontal "resolution advisory".

The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following cases: 1- excessive rate of descent 2- excessive ground proximity rate 3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around 4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 5- excessive deviation under the glidepath 6- abnormal airbrakes configuration The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

c)

2, 4, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6


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184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": a)

asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.

b)

which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed rate.

c)

asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

d)

asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.

On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution advisory": a)

that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate but does not require any change to be made to that rate.

b)

asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.

c)

asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.

d)

asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.

On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a traffic advisory (TA) is represented by: a)

an amber solid circle.

b)

a red full square.

c)

a white or cyan empty lozenge.

d)

a white or cyan solid lozenge.

On the display of a TCAS 2 (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a resolution advisory (RA) is represented by: a)

a red full square.

b)


c)


d)



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188.)

189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

On the display of a TCAS II (Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System), a proximate traffic is represented by: a)


b)


c)

a red full square.

d)


The float type fuel gauges provide information on: a)

mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.

b)

mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.

c)

volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.

d)

volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.

The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are: a)

thermocouples.

b)

based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.

c)

based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.

d)

capacitors whose capacity varies proportionally with temperature.

The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the: a)

high pressure chamber intake.

b)

combustion chamber intake.

c)

combustion chamber outlet.

d)

high pressure turbine outlet.

The flight director indicates the: a)

path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.

b)

optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.

c)

path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance.

d)

optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.


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193.)

194.)

195.)

196.)

During an automatic landing, between 50 FT AGL and touch down, the autopilot maintains: a)

a vertical speed according to the GPS height.

b)

a vertical speed according to the radio altimeter height.

c)

a constant flight path angle with reference to the ground.

d)

a constant vertical speed.

The stick shaker calculator receives the following information: 1- mass of the airplane 2- angle of attack 3- wing flap deflection 4- position of the landing gear 5- total air temperature 6- pressure altitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3

b)

2, 3, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to: a)

set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.

b)

reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).

c)

automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.

d)

transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.

Magnetic compass errors are: a)

parallax errors due to compass rose oscillations.

b)

due to Schuler oscillations.

c)

due to the lateral gusts which occur when the airplane is heading eastward or westward.

d)

about north change, depending on the bank angle and magnetic heading.


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197.)

198.)

199.)

200.)

The elements which take part in the local vertical alignment of an inertial strap-down unit are: a)

the flow inductors.

b)

the accelerometers.

c)

the gyroscopes.

d)

the accelerometers and gyroscopes.

The range of a low altitude radio altimeter is: a)

500 ft.

b)

greater than 10 000 ft.

c)

10 000 ft.

d)

2 500 ft.

In an inertial reference system (IRS), the alignment sequence consists in: 1 - search and alignment on the local vertical 2 - search for the true North 3 - definition of the latitude 4 - definition of the longitude The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

3, 4.

The auto-throttle: 1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM 2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated airspeed (IAS) 4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1 and 4

b)

1, 3 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

1 and 3


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201.)

202.)

203.)

An aircraft is equipped with an autopilot and an auto-throttle. When the altitude hold mode (ALT HOLD) is active: a)

the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

b)

the indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

c)

the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

d)

the true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

An air data computer 1. supplies the ground speed and the drift (angle) 2. determines the total temperature and the true altitude 3. receives the static pressure and the total pressure 4. supplies the true airspeed to the inertial unit 5. determines the Mach number, the outside (static) air temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3 and 4

b)

3, 4 and 5

c)

2 and 5

d)

1 and 2

The mode selector of an inertial unit comprises the OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV – ATT positions: 1 - on "STBY", the unit aligns on the local geographic trihedron; 2 - the "ATT" position is used in automatic landing (mode LAND); 3 - on "NAV" the coordinates of the start position can be entered; 4 - the platform is levelled before azimuth alignment; 5 - in cruise, the unit can only be used in "NAV" mode. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 5.

b)

4.

c)

2, 5.

d)

1, 2, 4.


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204.)

205.)

206.)

The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes: 1. a microphone 2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards 3. an independent battery 4. a flight data recorder The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 4

c)

1, 2

d)

2, 4

The automatic synchronisation function of an autopilot control system: 1 - operates only when the autopilot is engaged 2 - prevents the aircraft's control system from jerking when disengaging the autopilot 3 - enables the cancellation of the rudder control signals 4 - prevents the aircraft's control system from jerking when engaging the autopilot The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 4.

b)

1, 4.

c)

1, 2.

d)

4.

A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions: 1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring) 2- automatic starting sequence 3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments 4- thrust management and protection of operation limits 5- monitoring of the thrust reversers The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 3, 5


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207.)

208.)

209.)

In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator: 1- the transmitter is a direct current generator 2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed 4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer 5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometer The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 4

b)

3, 5

c)

2, 5

d)

1, 2

The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the: a)

fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).

b)

fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.

c)

fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.

d)

high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).

The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are: 1- easy construction 2- independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude 3- independence of indications with regard to the accelerations 4- independence of indications with regard to temperature variations 5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1


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210.)

211.)

212.)

213.)

The disadvantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are: 1- the design is complex 2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations 3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations 4- the indications are influenced by temperature variations 5- that an alternative current supply is necessary The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

1

The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is to measure the: a)

frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.

b)

electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

c)

rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

d)

magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

The operating principle of the "induction" type of tachometer is to measure the: a)

frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.

b)

magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

c)

rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.

d)

electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

A flight control system which can, in the event of a failure, complete automatically the approach, flare and landing is called fail ... a)

soft.

b)

operational.

c)

hard.

d)

passive.


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214.)

215.)

216.)

217.)

An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...." a)

"OPERATIONAL"

b)

"PASSIVE"

c)

"SAFE"

d)

"REDUNDANT"

The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures the: a)

"total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the static temperature.

b)

"total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static temperature.

c)

"static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total temperature.

d)

"static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total temperature.

When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot: a)

remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.

b)

temporarily maintains a heading.

c)

is temporarily disconnected.

d)

is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.

An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew: 1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude 2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast 3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an aural warning) 4- in case of excessive vertical speed 5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4

b)

2, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 3


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218.)

219.)

220.)

(For this question use annex 022-10179A) Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal interception path calculated by a flight director is number: a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity: 1- turboprop-powered 2- piston-powered 3- jet-powered The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1

c)

3

d)

1, 3

The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as the relationship between the: a)

crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane).

b)

input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control deflection signals.

c)

computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.

d)

computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.


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221.)

222.)

223.)

224.)

In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following fundamental elements: 1- Airflow valve 2- Sensors 3- Comparators 4- Computers 5- Amplifiers 6- Servo-actuators The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4, 6

b)

1, 2, 6

c)

2, 3, 4, 5

d)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6

The basic principle of a capacitance fuel gauge system is that the: a)

capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.

b)

capacity of a capacitor depends only on the density of the liquid on which it is immersed.

c)

internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.

d)

electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.

Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded data for a minimum of the last: a)

10 hours.

b)

30 minutes.

c)

60 minutes.

d)

25 hours.

The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment of the: a)

elevator(s)

b)

elevator(s) and rudder(s)

c)

elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.

d)

rudder(s)


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225.)

226.)

227.)

228.)

If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate: a)

a mass equal to zero.

b)

the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.

c)

a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.

d)

a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.

A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will: a)

roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.

b)

restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.

c)

maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

d)

maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of: a)

guiding the airplane path.

b)

stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.

c)

stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.

d)

monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

The "guidance" functions of a autopilot consist in: a)

monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space.

b)

stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.

c)

stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.

d)

monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space.


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229.)

230.)

231.)

232.)

The automatic power control system (auto-throttle) of a transport airplane has thefollowing mode(s): 1- capture and holding of speeds 2- capture and holding of Mach number 3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack 4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio) 5- capture and holding of flight paths The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 4

b)

1, 2, 3, 5

c)

1, 4, 5

d)

2, 4

The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an: a)

RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)

b)

ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)

c)

HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)

d)

ILS (Instrument Landing System)

(For this question use annex 022-10217A) After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and: a)

increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.

b)

increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

c)

decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.

d)

decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory: a)

on multi-pilot airplanes.

b)

for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.

c)

on airplanes over 5.7 t.

d)

for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.


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233.)

234.)

235.)

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are: 1- pitch attitude holding 2- horizontal wing holding 3- displayed heading or inertial track holding 4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding 5- yaw damping 6- VOR axis holding The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3, 4, 5, 6.

b)

1, 2.

c)

2, 4, 5.

d)

1, 2, 5.

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are: 1- pitch attitude holding 2- horizontal wing holding 3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding 4- altitude holding 5- VOR axis holding 6- yaw damping The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 6.

b)

3, 4, 5.

c)

1, 2, 6.

d)

1, 3, 4, 5.

When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to: 1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator 2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator 3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1 and 3.

b)

1 and 2.

c)

1, 2 and 3.

d)

3.


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236.)

237.)

238.)

An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed: a)

increases.

b)

increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.

c)

remains constant.

d)

decreases.

An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed: a)

decreases.

b)

remains constant.

c)

decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.

d)

increases.

The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by: 1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number 2- the auto-throttles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number 3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path holding mode 4- the auto-throttles in the altitude or glide path holding mode The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2 and 4.

b)

1 and 4.

c)

2 and 3.

d)

1 and 3.


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239.)

240.)

241.)

When required, the ground proximity warning system (GPWS) must automatically provide distinctive warning to the flight crew of: 1 - impeding stall 2 - excessive sink rate 3 - altitude loss after take-off or go-around 4 - incorrect landing configuration 5 - dangerous ground proximity 6 - downward glide-slope deviation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

b)

1, 4, 5, 6.

c)

1, 2, 4, 5.

d)

3, 5, 6.

The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport airplane receives information about the: 1- angle of attack 2- engine R.P.M. 3- configuration 4- pitch and bank attitude 5- sideslip The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1 and 5.

b)

1, 2, 3 and 4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.

d)

1 and 3.

An angle of attack sensor may consist of: 1 - an inertial system computing the difference between flight path and flight attitude 2 - a conical slotted probe which positions itself to determine the angle of attack 3 - a vane detector which positions the rotor of a synchro The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 2.

d)

1, 3.


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242.)

243.)

244.)

245.)

The TCAS 2 data display devices can be in the form of: 1- a specific dedicated screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar 3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and Resolution Advisory (RA) 4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3 and 4.

b)

1 and 3.

c)

3 and 4.

d)

1, 2 and 3.

A TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: a)

a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.

b)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.

c)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.

d)

the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.

The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engine powerplant is: a)

a differential capsule.

b)

a bellows sensor.

c)

a Bourdon tube.

d)

an aneroid capsule.

A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction" and the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature values provided that the temperature of the: a)

hot junction is maintained constant.

b)

cold junction is maintained constant.

c)

hot junction is maintained at 15 °C.

d)

cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.


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246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

The electric float gauge: 1 - gives a mass information; 2 - gives information independent of aircraft's manoeuvres and attitude changes; 3 - gives information all the more accurate as the tank is full; 4 - is typically a DC powered system. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1.

b)

4.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is: a)

twice that of air and varies inversely with density.

b)

twice that of air and varies directly with density.

c)

the same as that of air and varies directly with density.

d)

the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.

When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel: a)

temperature.

b)

pressure.

c)

turbulent flow in the line.

d)

density.

The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are: 1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance 2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power supply 3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations 4- the option to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitter The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 4.


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250.)

251.)

252.)

253.)

The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: a)

a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.

b)

the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.

c)

the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.

d)

a circular magnet with four poles.

The automatic pitch trim: 1 - ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is engaged. 2 - permits the elevator to always be in neutral position with respect to horizontal stabiliser; 3 - ensures the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

1, 3.

The angle of attack transmitter placed laterally on the forward part of the fuselage supplies an electrical signal which can indicate the angular position of: 1 - a specific slaved pitot probe ; 2 - a vane detector ; 3 - a conical slotted probe . The combination regrouping all the correct statements is a)

1, 2.

b)

1, 3.

c)

2, 3.

d)

1, 2, 3.

The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning to the pilot when the: a)

airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.

b)

airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.

c)

proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.

d)

altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.


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254.)

255.)

256.)

The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are: 1- easy transmission of the information. 2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical power supply. 3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 3.

c)

1, 2.

d)

1, 2, 3.

The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are: 1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator 2- the importance of line resistance on the information value 3- the independence of the information in relation to the airborne electrical power supply 4- the ease of transmission of the information The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

2, 4.

c)

1, 3.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are: 1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator 2- the importance of line resistance on the information value 3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer information The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3.

b)

2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

1, 2.


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257.)

258.)

259.)

The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes: 1- an angle of attack sensor 2- a computer 3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer 4- an independent pitot probe 5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 5.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 4.

d)

1, 2, 4, 5.

The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are: 1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter 3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope) 4- NAV/VOR 5- Flap (position) 6- Weight of the aircraft 7- Landing Gear (position) The combination of correct statement is: a)

1,2,3,5,7

b)

2, 4, 5, 6.

c)

2, 5, 6.

d)

1, 4, 7.

If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides the following aural warning signals: a)

"SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)

b)

"TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW GEAR" (twice)

c)

"TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP" (twice)

d)

"DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"


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260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning "DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because: a)

the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected.

b)

at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent.

c)

during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose altitude.

d)

the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted.

(For this question use annex 022-11232A) After having programmed your flight director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars indicate that you must: a)

increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

b)

increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

c)

decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

d)

decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.

An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature increases, the Mach number: a)

decreases.

b)

increases.

c)

remains constant.

d)

decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if lower.

An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the static air temperature decreases, the Mach number: a)

decreases.

b)

remains constant.

c)

increases.

d)

increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if lower.


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264.)

265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: a)

remains constant.

b)

decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.

c)

increases.

d)

decreases.

An aeroplane is in steady descent. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number: a)

decreases.

b)

increases.

c)

increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher.

d)

remains constant.

An aeroplane is in steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number: a)

increases.

b)

decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.

c)

decreases.

d)

remains constant.

The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by: a)

dynamic pressure

b)

total pressure

c)

differential pressure

d)

static pressure

The altimeter is supplied with: a)

static pressure.

b)

total pressure.

c)

dynamic pressure.

d)

differential pressure.


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269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables: a)

aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.

b)

a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.

c)

aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic trim.

d)

all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course lines.

An autopilot system: a)

must provide at least aircraft guidance functions.

b)

may provide automatic take off functions.

c)

must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functions.

d)

must provide automatic take off functions.

An aircraft flies steadily on a heading 270°. The flight director is engaged in the heading select mode (HDG SEL), heading 270° selected. If a new heading 360° is selected, the vertical trend bar: a)

deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director.

b)

deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected heading.

c)

deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading 360°.

d)

disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but not immediately, are signalled by the colour: a)

flashing red

b)

red

c)

green

d)

amber


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273.)

274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

About a magnetic compass: a)

errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose

b)

acceleration errors are due to the angle of dip.

c)

acceleration errors are due to Schüler oscillations

d)

turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field.

A stall warning system is based on a measure of: a)

groundspeed.

b)

angle of attack.

c)

airspeed.

d)

attitude.

When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the automatic trim is to: a)

react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode

b)

relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect

c)

synchronize the longitudinal loop

d)

relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect

Torque can be determined by measuring the: a)

quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft.

b)

phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft.

c)

frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.

d)

oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearbox.

For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 5°S and 5°N parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to: a)

15°/hour

b)

approximately 0°/hour

c)

-5°/hour

d)

+5°/hour


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278.)

279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

The engine instrument utilising an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the: a)

fuel pressure gauge.

b)

oil temperature gauge.

c)

manifold pressure gauge.

d)

oil pressure gauge.

Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to the: a)

error detector.

b)

amplifier.

c)

erecting system.

d)

heading indicator.

The position of a Flight Director command bars: a)

only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

b)

indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.

c)

repeats the ADI and HSI information

d)

enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.

In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern hemisphere is: a)

none on a 090° heading in a right turn.

b)

none on a 270° heading in a left turn.

c)

equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.

d)

equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn.

(For this question use annex 022-11532A) The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is: a)

3

b)

4

c)

1

d)

2


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283.)

284.)

285.)

286.)

A directional gyro is: 1- a gyroscope free around two axis 2- a gyroscope free around one axis 3- capable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction 4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied direction The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis. a)

1-4

b)

1-3

c)

2-4

d)

2–3

The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is: a)

15°/hour

b)

180°/hour

c)

90°/hour

d)

5°/hour

In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronisation: a)

can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.

b)

intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.

c)

is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.

d)

prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.

Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro with: NB: the degree(s) of freedom of a gyro does not take into account its rotor spin axis. a)

2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis

b)

l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis

c)

1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis

d)

2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis


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287.)

288.)

289.)

290.)

A thermocouple can be made of: a)

a three wire coil.

b)

two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.

c)

two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at a single point.

d)

a single wire coil.

A flux valve detects the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field 1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars 2- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro 3- the flux gate valve signal comes from the magnetic compass 4- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5° The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 2.

d)

1, 4.

An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°; the compass is made for the northern hemisphere. During rolling take-off, the compass indicates: a)

a value above 045° in the northern hemisphere.

b)

a value above 045° in the southern hemisphere.

c)

a value below 045°.

d)

045°.

During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the control system of the artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a: a)

constant attitude

b)

nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude

c)

nose-up attitude

d)

nose-down attitude


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291.)

292.)

293.)

294.)

To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on the following principle: a)

liquid expansion

b)

gas pressure

c)

bi-metallic strip

d)

thermocouple

Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by... a)

10.5°/hour to the right.

b)

15°/hour to the right.

c)

7.5°/hour to the left.

d)

7.5°/hour to the right.

A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon: 1: bank angle 2: aeroplane speed 3: aeroplane weight The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a)

2 and 3.

b)

1 and 3.

c)

1 and 2.

d)

1, 2, and 3.

The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change of: a)

Dynamic pressure

b)

Static pressure

c)

Kinetic pressure

d)

Total pressure


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295.)

296.)

297.)

298.)

(For this question use annex 022-11567A) The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude is n° a)

3

b)

4

c)

1

d)

2

The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft. This error... a)

is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track

b)

is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected

c)

is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the latitude of the flight

d)

shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere

A "Bourdon Tube" is used in: a)

vibration detectors

b)

turbine temperature probes

c)

smoke detectors

d)

pressure sensors

A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on: a)

a directional gyro.

b)

an artificial horizon.

c)

a turn indicator.

d)

a gyromagnetic compass.


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299.)

300.)

301.)

302.)

Which of the following statements are correct for an aeroplane cruising at FL 60 with a true airspeed (TAS) of 100 kt in standard atmospheric conditions? 1 - The TAS is approximately 10% higher than the IAS. 2 - The difference between the equivalent airspeed (EAS) and the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is negligible. 3 - The speed displayed on the airspeed indicator is a calibrated airspeed (CAS) if the position error and instrument error are zero. a)

2 and 3 are correct.

b)


c)


d)

1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

During the ground run take-off phase, the auto-throttles allow to: a)

maintain V2 under 1,500 ft.

b)

hold and maintain the Mach number.

c)

hold N1.

d)

hold IAS.

The auto-throttles enables to hold: 1 - a true airspeed; 2 - a Mach number; 3 - an indicated airspeed; 4 - a N1 thrust. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3.

c)

2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 3, 4.

The Mach trim system allows to: a)

trim the pitch-up tendency at a high Mach number.

b)

search for the ideal C.G. location by transferring the fuel into the horizontal stabilizer.

c)

increase the longitudinal static stability of the aircraft by changing the horizontal stabilizer according to the Mach number.

d)

interlock the operation of the stick shaker at the oncoming of the high speed stall.


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303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

The parameters taken into account by the flight director computer in the altitude holding mode (ALT HOLD) are: 1. altitude deviation 2. roll 3. bank angle 4. pitch angle The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3.

b)

1.

c)

1, 4.

d)

1, 2.

On a modern transport category airplane, the engagement of the automatic pilot is checked on the display of: a)

the PFD (Primary Flight Display).

b)

the ECAM (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) left screen .

c)

the ND (Navigation Display) of the pilot in command.

d)

the ND (Navigation Display).

The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final approach to touch-down) actuated by: a)

the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System).

b)

the altimeter set to the QNH.

c)

the distance left before the touch down zone.

d)

the radio altimeter.

During a category III automatic approach, the position signals in the vertical plane under 200 ft are based on: a)

an altimeter set to the QNH.

b)

an altimeter set to the QFE.

c)

an altimeter set to 1013 hPa.

d)

a radio altimeter.


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307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

The purpose of a flight director is to: a)

reduce the pilots workload by presenting data in the form of control commands.

b)

provide an automatic landing system function.

c)

convey air traffic control information to the pilot.

d)

automatically steer the aircraft to waypoints selected on the CDU.

Command bars of the flight director may be present on the: 1 – HIS 2 – EICAS 3 – CDU 4 – ADI The combination containing all of the correct statements is: a)

1 and 3 only.

b)

1 only.

c)

4 only.

d)

1 and 4 only.

An outer loop Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS), is a system which: a)

contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and moves the control inputs only.

b)

controls the aircraft about the lateral axis only (PITCH).

c)

contains a parallel actuator which provides control through 100% of the control range and moves both the control inputs and the cockpit control stick.

d)

controls the aircraft about the longitudinal axis only (ROLL).

Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) series actuator is: a)

passed to the pilot via control stick position.

b)

displayed in the cockpit as a function of input and output signals.

c)

displayed to the pilot by movement on the ADI/EADI.

d)

not displayed in the cockpit due to short duration of operation.


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311.)

312.)

313.)

314.)

315.)

Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS) parallel actuator position is: a)

passed to the pilot via control stick position.

b)

displayed in the cockpit as a function of input and output signals.

c)

displayed to the pilot by movement on the ADI only.

d)

not displayed in the cockpit due to short duration of operation.

Should a defect arise in the stability augmentation system (SAS) during flight: a)

the pilot will be advised by an amber warning.

b)

an audio alarm will attract the pilots attention to check the AFCS control panel.

c)

the control stick will move to a pre-set patum causing the pilot to revert to manual control.

d)

the pilot is not informed unless the second channel fails also.

The most common system used to monitor turbine gas exhaust temperature is the: a)

hot junction Tungsten/copper system.

b)

hot and cold junction, alumel/chromel system.

c)

flame switch.

d)

fixed junction mercurial oxide/chromium system.

Electrical requirements for an alumel/chromel indicating system are a)

28VDC for sensor plus power for gauge lighting.

b)

3 phase AC for sensor plus 26VAC for gauge lighting.

c)

power for gauge lighting only.

d)

3 phase AC for sensor plus 28VDC for gauging.

Gas turbine engine rotational speed (RPM) is usually sensed using either a)

a 28VDC tachometer generator or a DC phonic wheel.

b)

a single phase AC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel system.

c)

a 28VDC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel.

d)

a 3 phase AC tachometer generator or an AC phonic wheel system.


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316.)

317.)

318.)

319.)

Parallax error is: a)

due to temperature effect.

b)

due to the effect of aircraft accelerations.

c)

due to pressure effect.

d)

a reading error.

An airspeed indicator displays: a)

TAS.

b)

CAS.

c)

IAS.

d)

EAS.

Given: Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Dynamic pressure is: a)

(Pt - Ps) / Ps

b)

Pt / Ps

c)

Pt - Ps

d)

(Pt - Ps) / Pt

Given: Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Pso = static pressure at sea level Dynamic pressure is : a)

(Pt - Pso) / Pso

b)

(Pt - Ps) / Ps

c)

Pt - Ps

d)

Pt – Pso


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320.)

321.)

322.)

323.)

Given: Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Pd = dynamic pressure a)

Pd = Pt + Ps

b)

Pt = Pd + Ps

c)

Pd = Pt / Ps

d)

Ps = Pt + Pd

In the absence of position and instrument errors, IAS is equal to: a)

CAS and EAS.

b)

EAS.

c)

CAS.

d)

TAS.

Given: Pt = total pressure Ps = static pressure Pso = static pressure at sea level Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is a function of: a)

Pt / Ps

b)

Pt - Pso

c)

Pt - Ps

d)

(Pt - Pso) / Ps

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for: a)

instrument error.

b)

position error.

c)

density error.

d)

compressibility error.


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324.)

325.)

326.)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the following errors: 1 – instrument 2 – position 3 – density 4 – compressibility The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3.

b)

1, 2, 4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2.

True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for the following errors: 1 – instrument 2 – compressibility 3 – position 4 – density The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4.

b)

4.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

2.

True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the following errors: 1 – instrument 2 – position 3 – compressibility 4 – density The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 4.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1, 2, 3, 4.

d)

3, 4.


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327.)

328.)

329.)

330.)

331.)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is: a)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error.

b)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

c)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility error.

d)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for position and instrument errors.

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is: a)

True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error.

c)

True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility error.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error.

True Air Speed (TAS) is: a)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility error.

b)


c)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error.


Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors.

c)

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error only.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error only


Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and density errors.

b)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, compressibility and density errors.

c)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility and density errors only.

d)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for instrument, position, compressibility and density errors.


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332.)

333.)

334.)

335.)

True Air Speed (TAS) is equal to Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) only if: a)

P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS > 200 kt.

b)

P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 273° K.

c)

P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 15°C.

d)

P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS < 200 kt.

The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is: a)

Mach number.

b)

OAT.

c)

density altitude.

d)

pressure altitude.

The compressibility correction to CAS to give EAS: 1 - may be positive 2 - is always negative 3 - depends on Mach number only 4 - depends on pressure altitude only The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 3.

d)

1, 4.

When climbing at a constant CAS: a)

Mach number increases.

b)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the Mach number variation.

c)

Mach number remains constant.

d)

Mach number decreases.


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336.)

337.)

338.)

339.)

Concerning the airspeed indicator, IAS is: a)

the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error only.

b)

the indicated reading on an instrument presumed to be perfect.

c)

the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors.

d)

the indicated reading on the instrument.

When descending at a constant CAS: a)


b)


c)


d)


Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is: a)

True Air Speed (TAS) corrected for compressibility error.

b)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for compressibility error.

c)


d)

Indicated Air Speed (IAS) corrected for position, instrument and compressibility errors.

True Air Speed (TAS) is obtained from Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) by correcting for: a)

instrument error.

b)

position and instrument errors.

c)

density error.

d)



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340.)

341.)

342.)

343.)

Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) is obtained from Indicated Air Speed (IAS) by correcting for the following errors: 1 – position 2 – compressibility 3 – instrument 4 – density The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a)

2, 3, 4.

b)

3.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 3.

Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for the following errors: 1 – position 2 – compressibility 3 – instrument 4 – density The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

4.

d)

2.

If OAT decreases when at a constant TAS: a)


b)


c)


d)


If OAT increases when at a constant TAS: a)


b)


c)


d)



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344.)

345.)

346.)

347.)

348.)

If OAT increases when at a constant Mach number: a)

TAS increases.

b)

TAS decreases.

c)

TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.

d)

TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.

If OAT decreases when at a constant Mach number: a)

TAS increases.

b)

TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.

c)

TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.

d)

TAS decreases.

Below the tropopause, with no temperature inversion, when descending at constant Mach number: a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the TAS variation.

b)

TAS decreases.

c)

TAS increases.

d)


When descending at a constant Mach number: a)

CAS increases.

b)

CAS decreases.

c)

CAS remains constant.

d)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the CAS variation.

When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere: a)


b)

TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause.

c)

TAS increases.

d)

TAS decreases.


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349.)

350.)

351.)

352.)

Below the tropopause with no temperature inversion, when climbing at constant Mach number: a)

the difference between surrounding conditions and ISA must be known to deduce the TAS variation.

b)


c)

TAS decreases.

d)

TAS increases.

Given: Zp = pressure altitude Zd = density altitude TAS can be obtained from the following data: a)

EAS and Zp.

b)

EAS and Zd.

c)

CAS and Zp.

d)

CAS and Zd.

With EAS and density altitude (Zd), we can deduce: a)

CAS.

b)

CAS and TAS.

c)

IAS

d)

TAS.

With EAS and pressure altitude (Zp), we can deduce: a)

TAS.

b)

IAS.

c)

CAS and TAS.

d)

CAS.


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353.)

354.)

355.)

356.)

When climbing at a constant CA in a standard atmosphere: 1 - TAS decreases 2 - TAS increases 3 - Mach number increases 4 - Mach number decreases The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 4.

d)

2, 4.

When descending at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere: 1 - TAS increases 2 - TAS decreases 3 - Mach number increases 4 - Mach number decreases The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3.

b)

2, 4.

c)

1, 4.

d)

2, 3.

For the same TAS, when pressure altitude increases below the tropopause: a)


b)


c)


d)


For the same TAS, when pressure altitude decreases below the tropopause: a)


b)


c)


d)



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357.)

358.)

359.)

360.)

361.)

When climbing at a constant CAS: a)

EAS does not depend on altitude.

b)

EAS increases.

c)

EAS decreases.

d)

EAS remains constant.

When descending at a constant CAS: a)

EAS decreases.

b)

EAS does not depend on altitude.

c)

EAS increases.

d)

EAS remains constant.

Considering the relationship between CAS and EAS: a)

EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on pressure altitude.

b)

EAS is always greater than or equal to CAS.

c)

EAS is always lower than or equal to CAS.

d)

EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on density altitude.

Given: Zp = pressure altitude Zd = density altitude CAS can be obtained from the following data: a)

EAS and Zd.

b)

TAS and Zd.

c)

TAS and Zp.

d)

EAS and Zp.

If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a cold air mass into warmer air: a)

TAS decreases.

b)


c)

TAS increases.

d)



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362.)

363.)

364.)

365.)

366.)

If OAT increases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level: a)

TAS decreases.

b)


c)


d)


If OAT decreases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level: a)

TAS increases.

b)


c)


d)


If an aircraft maintaining a constant CAS and flight level is flying from a warm air mass into colder air: a)


b)

TAS increases.

c)

TAS decreases.

d)


In the absence of position and instrument errors, CAS is equal to: a)

IAS and EAS.

b)

IAS.

c)

TAS.

d)

EAS.

In the absence of position and instrument errors: a)

CAS = EAS.

b)

IAS = CAS.

c)

CAS = TAS.

d)

IAS = EAS.


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367.)

368.)

369.)

370.)

The vertical command bar of a flight director: 1 - repeats the position information given by the EHSI 2 - repeats the position information given by the VOR 3 - gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 3.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

3.

The vertical command bar of a flight director: a)

gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the control commands.

b)

repeats the position information given by the VOR.

c)

gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraft.

d)

repeats the position information given by the EHSI.

The vertical command bar of a flight director: 1 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane 2 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane 3 - gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3.

b)

3.

c)

1, 3.

d)

1.

The vertical command bar of a flight director: a)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.

b)

gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the control commands.

c)

gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the bank of the aircraft.

d)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.


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371.)

372.)

373.)

374.)

The horizontal command bar of a flight director: 1 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane 2 - repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane 3 - gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of the aircraft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3.

b)

2, 3.

c)

2.

d)

1, 3.

The horizontal command bar of a flight director: a)

gives information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of the aircraft.

b)

gives information about the direction and the amplitude of the corrections to be applied on the pitch of the aircraft.

c)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.

d)

repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.

The command bars of a flight director: a)

are always displayed during take-off.

b)

are displayed only if the autopilot is engaged.

c)

may be displayed when flying manually.

d)

are always displayed when the autopilot is engaged.

The command bars of a flight director: a)

are displayed only when flying manually.

b)

are always displayed during take-off.

c)

are displayed only when the autopilot is engaged.

d)

may be displayed when flying manually or with the autopilot engaged.


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375.)

376.)

377.)

378.)

Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type: 1 - the vertical bar is always associated with the roll channel 2 - the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel 3 - the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channel 4 - the horizontal bar is always associated with the pitch channel The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 4.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1, 2, 4.

Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type: a)

the horizontal bar may be associated with the roll channel.

b)

the vertical bar is associated with the roll channel.

c)

the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel.

d)

the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel.

Considering a flight director of the "command bars" type: a)

the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel.

b)

the horizontal bar is associated with the pitch channel.

c)

the vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel.

d)

the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel.

During a final approach, if the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope), the position of the horizontal command bar indicates: a)

the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the ILS Glide Slope.

b)

the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope.

c)

the pitch attitude of the aircraft.

d)

the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope.


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379.)

380.)

381.)

382.)

During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). The position of the horizontal command bar indicates: 1 - the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope 2 - the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS Glide Slope 3 - the pitch attitude of the aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1.

d)

2.

During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of Localizer axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates: a)

the roll attitude of the aircraft.

b)

the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis.

c)

the position of the aircraft relative to the Localizer axis.

d)

the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the Localizer axis.

During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). The position of the vertical command bar indicates: 1 - the position of the aircraft relative to the localizer axis 2 - the roll attitude of the aircraft 3 - the correction on the bank to be applied to join and follow the Localizer axis The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2.

b)

1.

c)

2.

d)

1, 3.

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is left of the Localizer axis, the vertical command bar: a)

is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.

b)

deviates to the right, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

c)

deviates to the left, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

d)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis.


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383.)

384.)

385.)

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC mode (holding of localizer axis). If the aircraft is right of the Localizer axis, the vertical command bar: a)

cannot be centred.

b)

will be centred only when establish on the Localizer axis.

c)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the Localizer axis.

d)

is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is below the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar: a)

is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.

b)

deviates downward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

c)

deviates upward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.

d)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on the ILS Glide Slope.

Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is above the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar: a)

cannot be centred.

b)

will be centred only when establish on the ILS Glide Slope.

c)

may be centred if the pilot is correcting to come back on to the ILS Glide Slope.

d)

is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.


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341: D (1 Pkt.)

260: C (1 Pkt.)

301: C (1 Pkt.)

342: D (1 Pkt.)

261: B (1 Pkt.)

302: C (1 Pkt.)

343: D (1 Pkt.)

262: C (1 Pkt.)

303: C (1 Pkt.)

344: A (1 Pkt.)

263: B (1 Pkt.)

304: A (1 Pkt.)

345: D (1 Pkt.)

264: D (1 Pkt.)

305: D (1 Pkt.)

346: C (1 Pkt.)

265: A (1 Pkt.)

306: D (1 Pkt.)

347: A (1 Pkt.)

266: A (1 Pkt.)

307: A (1 Pkt.)

348: C (1 Pkt.)

267: D (1 Pkt.)

308: C (1 Pkt.)

349: C (1 Pkt.)

268: A (1 Pkt.)

309: C (1 Pkt.)

350: B (1 Pkt.)

269: C (1 Pkt.)

310: B (1 Pkt.)

351: D (1 Pkt.)

270: C (1 Pkt.)

311: A (1 Pkt.)

352: D (1 Pkt.)

271: A (1 Pkt.)

312: A (1 Pkt.)

353: B (1 Pkt.)

272: D (1 Pkt.)

313: B (1 Pkt.)

354: B (1 Pkt.)

273: D (1 Pkt.)

314: C (1 Pkt.)

355: A (1 Pkt.)

274: B (1 Pkt.)

315: D (1 Pkt.)

356: D (1 Pkt.)

275: D (1 Pkt.)

316: D (1 Pkt.)

357: C (1 Pkt.)


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358: C (1 Pkt.)

368: A (1 Pkt.)

378: B (1 Pkt.)

359: C (1 Pkt.)

369: B (1 Pkt.)

379: D (1 Pkt.)

360: D (1 Pkt.)

370: B (1 Pkt.)

380: B (1 Pkt.)

361: C (1 Pkt.)

371: A (1 Pkt.)

381: C (1 Pkt.)

362: B (1 Pkt.)

372: B (1 Pkt.)

382: D (1 Pkt.)

363: D (1 Pkt.)

373: C (1 Pkt.)

383: C (1 Pkt.)

364: C (1 Pkt.)

374: D (1 Pkt.)

384: D (1 Pkt.)

365: B (1 Pkt.)

375: A (1 Pkt.)

385: C (1 Pkt.)

366: B (1 Pkt.)

376: B (1 Pkt.)

367: D (1 Pkt.)

377: B (1 Pkt.)


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Questionnaire 031 M&B

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The centre of gravity of a body is that point a)

through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act.

b)

where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.

c)

where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero.

d)

which is always used as datum when computing moments.

For a given configuration, the stall speed of an aeroplane will be highest when loaded: a)

to the maximum allowable mass with the most aft CG.

b)

to a low total mass with the most aft CG.

c)

to a low total mass with the most forward CG.

d)

to the maximum allowable mass with the most forward CG.

Comparing a forward CG position with an aft one, the forward cg position will cause a a)

decrease of the stalling speed.

b)

decrease in the landing speed.

c)

decrease in range.

d)

tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

The maximum load per running metre of an aircraft is 350 kg/m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly on the floor? a)

A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m.

b)

A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.

c)


d)



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005.)

006.)

007.)

Given the following: - Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg -Taxi fuel: 600 kg -Contingency fuel: 900 kg -Alternate fuel: 800 kg -Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg -Trip fuel: 9 000 kg The actual TOM can never be higher than: a)

53 000 kg

b)

48 000 kg

c)

47 800 kg

d)

48 400 kg

The maximum zero-fuel mass: 1- is a regulatory limitation 2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g 3- is based on the maximum permissible bending moment at the wing root 4- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the outer wings tank first 5- is defined on the assumption that fuel is consumed from the centre wing tank first The combination of correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 5

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3

If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aircraft? a)

It will not affect the cg location.

b)

It will cause the cg to move aft.

c)

It will cause the cg to move forward.

d)

The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.


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008.)

009.)

010.)

011.)

At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available for determining the mass of the aircraft: 1- Dry operating mass 2- Operating mass Which statement is correct: a)

The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel.

b)

The operating mass includes the traffic load.

c)

The operating mass is the mass of the aircraft without take-off fuel.

d)

The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific flight.

Which of the following corresponds to zero fuel mass? a)

The take-off mass of an aeroplane minus all usable fuel.

b)

Operating mass plus passengers and cargo.

c)

Operating mass plus luggage of passengers and cargo.

d)

Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate.

Given that: - Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg - Trip fuel: 27 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg - Contingency fuel: 1350 kg - Alternate fuel: 2650 kg - Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg The actual TOM can never be higher than: a)

120 900 kg.

b)

146 000 kg.

c)

120 300 kg.

d)

121 300 kg.

On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related to: a)

the bending moment at the wing root.

b)

Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass.

c)

wing loaded trip fuel.

d)

variable equipment for the flight.


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012.)

013.)

014.)

015.)

Given are: - Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg - Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Trip fuel: 18 000 kg - Contingency fuel: 900 kg - Alternate fuel: 700 kg - Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg The actual take-off mass can never be higher than: a)

74 000 kg

b)

72 000 kg

c)

69 600 kg

d)

70 400 kg

(For this question use annex 031-1569A) Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the diagram? a)

26.57 cm forward of datum.

b)

32.29 cm aft of datum.

c)

32.29 cm forward of datum.

d)

26.57 cm aft of datum.

The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: a)

vertical axis.

b)

horizontal axis.

c)

longitudinal axis.

d)

lateral axis.

In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum? a)

It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity.

b)

It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity.

c)

It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the component acts.

d)

It is the point on the aircraft designated by the manufacturers from which all centre of gravity measurements and calculations are made.


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016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

An aircraft has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it has a weight of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is: a)

343 000 Nm.

b)

343 000 N/m.

c)

7000 Nm.

d)

1.43 Nm.

Which one of the following is correct? a)

Arm = Force X Moment

b)

Moment = Force / Arm

c)

Arm = Moment / Force

d)

Arm = Force / Moment

Given: Total mass 2900 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115 Aft cg limit station: 116 The maximum mass that can be added at station 130 is: a)

317 kg.

b)

207 kg.

c)

140 kg.

d)

14 kg.

Given: Total mass: 7500 kg Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit station: 79.5 How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg location to the aft limit? a)

65.8 kg.

b)

68.9 kg.

c)

62.5 kg.

d)

73.5 kg.


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020.)

021.)

022.)

(For this question use annex 031-1580A) A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference point. At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point. The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point A), is equal to: a)

35.5 %.

b)

27.5 %.

c)

30.4 %.

d)

16.9 %.

Given: Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg Trip fuel= 4 000 kg Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg The maximum traffic load is: a)

14 600 kg

b)

13 300 kg

c)

9 300 kg

d)

12 900 kg

The total mass of an aircraft is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line. What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit? a)

30.0 kg

b)

196 kg

c)

300 kg

d)

900 kg


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023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

Assume: Aircraft actual mass: 4750 kg Centre of gravity at station: 115.8 What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120? a)

Station 118.25

b)

Station 118.33

c)

Station 117.69

d)

Station 120.22

An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 meter. How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels? a)

4 meter.

b)

40 cm.

c)

25 cm.

d)

41.6 cm.

Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by: a)

Maximum take-off mass.

b)

Maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

Actual landing mass.

d)

Maximum landing mass.

Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by: a)

The maximum take-off mass.

b)

The maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

The maximum landing mass.

d)

The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.


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027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: a)

the maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.

b)

the take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass.

c)

the take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass.

d)

the take-off mass minus the mass of take-off fuel.

Given: Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg Trip fuel= 27 500 kg Block fuel= 35 500 kg Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg The maximum take-off mass is equal to: a)

120 900 kg

b)

120 300 kg

c)

113 900 kg

d)

121 300 kg

Given: Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m What is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to station 23? a)

It moves aft by 0.157 m.

b)

It moves forward by 0.157 m.

c)


d)


The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is: a)

10 %

b)

16 %

c)

60 %

d)

41 %


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031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass? a)

99 000 kg

b)

64 000 kg

c)

71 000 kg

d)

53 000 kg

A location in the aircraft which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as: a)

Station.

b)

MAC.

c)

Moment.

d)

Index.

The mass of an aircraft is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move: a)

34 cm.

b)

30 cm.

c)

40 cm.

d)

33 cm.

The Dry Operating Mass includes: a)

unusable fuel and reserve fuel.

b)

passengers baggage and cargo.

c)

crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

d)

fuel and passengers baggage and cargo.

Which is true of the aircraft basic empty mass? a)

It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.

b)

It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.

c)

It is a component of dry operating mass.

d)

It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.


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036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

In mass and balance calculations the "index" is: a)

the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.

b)

an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken.

c)

is a figure without unit of measurement which represents a moment.

d)

a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.

Loads must be adequately secured in order to: a)

avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.

b)

avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage.

c)

prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.

d)

allow steep turns.

Traffic load is the: a)

Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass.

b)

Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.

c)

Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.

d)

Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load.

Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity (cg). __________________________________________________________________ STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm) ___________________________________________________________________ Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350 Crew 145 -160 -23200 Freight 1 5455 +200 +1091000 Freight 2 410 -40 -16400 Fuel 6045 -8 -48360 Oil 124 +40 +4960 a)

56.53 cm aft datum.

b)

60.16 cm aft datum.

c)

56.35 cm aft datum.

d)

53.35 cm aft datum.


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040.)

041.)

042.)

Given are the following information at take-off ___________________________________________________________________ STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT (kgcm) ___________________________________________________________________ Basic Empty Condition 12 045 +30 +361 350 Crew 145 -160 -23 200 Freight 1 570 +200 +114 000 Freight 2 410 -40 -16 400 Fuel 6 045 -8 - 48 360 Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific density of fuel is 0.79. The "Fright 2" will be dropped during flight within the scope of a rescue action. Calculate the CG position at landing. a)

27 cm aft of datum.

b)

25 cm aft of datum.

c)

22 cm aft of datum.

d)

24 cm aft of datum.

Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits: a)

8 680 kg

b)

29 344 kg

c)

16 529 kg

d)

43 120 kg

(For this question use annex 031-2946A) The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the centre of gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum. The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to bring the out of limit centre of gravity position to the foremost limit: a)

7 500 kg

b)

3 500 kg

c)

35 000 kg

d)

62 500 kg


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043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

047.)

What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ? a)

The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.

b)

The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.

c)

The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.

d)

The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.

Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause a)

lower optimum cruising speed.

b)

reduced maximum cruise range.

c)

higher stall speed.

d)

increased cruise range.

While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aircraft, the term 'Basic Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus a)

all the oil and fuel.

b)

all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load.

c)

all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment installed by manufacturer.

d)

unusable fuel and full operating fluids.

The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of: a)

The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.

b)

The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items

c)

The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load

d)

The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load.

The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: a)

Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.

b)

Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.

c)

Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.

d)

Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.


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048.)

049.)

050.)

The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: a)

Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load

b)

Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel

c)

Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel

d)

Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load

Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following data: Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m Length of MAC: 8 m a)

63.4 % MAC

b)

36.3 % MAC

c)

23.1 % MAC

d)

47.0 % MAC

Given : Actual mass 116.500 lbs Original cg station 435.0 Compartment A station 285.5 Compartment B station 792.5 If 390 lbs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A (forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg). a)

506.3

b)

436.7

c)

433.3

d)

463.7


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051.)

052.)

(For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs Basic arm: 88.5 Inches One pilot: 160 lbs Front seat passenger: 200 lbs Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal. a)

4 120

b)

4 372

c)

4 390

d)

4 720

(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs. One pilot: 160 lbs. Front seat passenger: 200 lbs. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total) One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs. Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs. Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal. a)

30 888

b)

56 160

c)

9 360

d)

433 906


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053.)

054.)

(For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total moment (lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs. One pilot: 160 lbs. Front seat passenger: 200 lbs. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total) One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs. Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs. Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal. Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.In a)

433 906

b)

432 221

c)

377 746

d)

401 338

(For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4) With respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location at take off in the following conditions: Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs. One pilot: 160 lbs. Front seat passenger: 200 lbs. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total) One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs. Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs. Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs. Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In Block fuel: 100 US Gal. Trip fuel: 55 US Gal. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal. a)

91.92 inches aft of datum

b)


c)


d)



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055.)

056.)

057.)

(For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4) With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions: Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs. Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs. Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs. Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total) a)

2496,3

b)

6675

c)

2548,8

d)

2311,8

Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given : Basic Empty Mass: 1799 lbs Optional Equipment: 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger: 300 lbs Cargo Mass: 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel: 60 Gal. Trip Fuel: 35 Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal. a)

2449 lbs

b)

2659 lbs

c)

2589 lbs

d)

2414 lbs

Given: Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs Optional Equipment 35 lbs Pilot + Passenger 300 lbs Cargo 350 lbs Ramp Fuel ( Block Fuel) 60 Gal Trip Fuel 35 Gal Taxi Fuel 1.7 Gal Final Reserve Fuel 18 Gal Fuel density 6 lbs/Gal Determine the expected landing mass. a)

2557 lbs

b)

2589 lbs

c)

2472 lbs

d)

2599 lbs


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058.)

059.)

060.)

Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane. Given: Standard Empty Mass 1764 lbs Optional Equipment 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat passenger 300 lbs Cargo Mass 350 lbs Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel 60 Gal. Trip Fuel 35 Gal. Fuel density 6 lbs/Gal. a)

2764 lbs

b)

2809 lbs

c)

2659 lbs

d)

2799 lbs

The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: a)

strength of the fuselage

b)

total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing

c)

strength of the wing root

d)

allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking

With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following statements is always correct ? LM = Landing Mass TOM = Take-off Mass MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass DOM = Dry Operating Mass a)

Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel

b)

MTOM = ZFM + maximum full tank fuel mass

c)

LM = TOM - Trip Fuel

d)

MZFM = Traffic load + DOM


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061.)

062.)

063.)

Which of the following statements is correct? a)

The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage and the wing tip

b)

If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal stability increases.

c)

The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC

d)

A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane


If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces

b)

If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces

c)

The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity

d)

A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose heavy aeroplane


The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.

b)

The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.

c)

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.

d)

The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but including the crew.


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064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg Dry Operating Mass: 48000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg, Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: a)

77200 kg and 22200 kg

b)

75000 kg and 20000 kg

c)

75000 kg and 17200 kg

d)

77200 kg and 19400 kg

Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is 5000 kg. Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively: a)

125500 kg and 21500 kg

b)

130500 kg and 26500 kg

c)

130500 kg and 31500 kg

d)

125500 kg and 26500 kg

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass a)

plus the Trip Fuel Mass.

b)

less the Operating Mass.

c)

less the Trip Fuel Mass.

d)

plus the Operating Mass.

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus a)

Ramp (Block) Fuel Mass.

b)

Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.

c)

Trip Fuel Mass.

d)

Take-off Fuel Mass.


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068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined as the sum of the: a)

basic mass plus variable equipment mass

b)

standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus unusable fuel mass

c)

empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass

d)

basic mass plus special equipment mass

For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as: a)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and crew baggage.

b)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load.

c)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable fuel.

d)

The total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic load.

In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum is a)

calculated from the loading manifest.

b)

an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aircraft.

c)

a reference plane which is chosen by the aircraft manufacturer. Its position is given in the aircraft Flight or Loading Manual.

d)

calculated from the data derived from the weighing procedure carried out on the aircraft after any major modification.

The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located a)

at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aircraft.

b)

at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.

c)

at or near the natural balance point of the empty aircraft.

d)

at or near the focal point of the aircraft axis system.


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072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at which the mass is located. That point is known as a)

the datum.

b)

the centre of gravity of the aircraft.

c)

the focal point.

d)

the axis.

The centre of gravity of an aircraft is that point through which the total mass of the aircraft is said to act. The weight acts in a direction a)

parallel to the gravity vector.

b)

at right angles to the flight path.

c)

always parallel to the aircraft's vertical axis.

d)

governed by the distribution of the mass within the aircraft.

When an aircraft is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically a)

through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.

b)

through a point defined as the datum point.

c)

through its centre of pressure.

d)

through its centre of gravity.

The weight of an aircraft, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act a)

always along the vertical axis of the aircraft.

b)

vertically through the datum point.

c)

vertically through the centre of gravity.

d)

vertically through the centre of pressure.

The centre of gravity of an aircraft a)

is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aircraft loading.

b)

can be allowed to move between defined limits.

c)

may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aircraft's certificate of airworthiness.

d)

must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.


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077.)

078.)

079.)

080.)

In relation to an aircraft, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the aircraft structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aircraft configuration. Its value is a)

found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for modifications.

b)

inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered in the loading manifest.

c)

printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.

d)

found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in closed systems.

An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made: nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is a)

32505 kg

b)

30180 kg

c)

28400 kg

d)

31960 kg

If individual masses are used, the mass of an aircraft must be determined prior to initial entry into service and thereafter a)

at regular annual intervals.

b)

only if major modifications have taken place.

c)

at intervals of 9 years.

d)

at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.

The empty mass of an aircraft is recorded in a)

the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'.

b)

the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to modifications of the aircraft.

c)

the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'.

d)

the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aircraft must be reweighed always.


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081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

Prior to departure an aircraft is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aircraft is a)

heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high

b)

heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low.

c)

lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low

d)

lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high

An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds a)

are unaffected but V1 will be increased.

b)

will give reduced safety margins.

c)

will not be achieved.

d)

will be greater than required.

Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they will notice that a)

the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected.

b)

V1 will be reached sooner than expected

c)

speed at un-stick will be higher than expected

d)

V1 will be increased.

(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a)

Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC

b)


c)


d)



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085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches determine the position of the CG in relation to the datum. a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a)


b)


c)


d)


When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aircraft, which of the following is not required? a)

removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.

b)

drain all useable fuel.

c)

drain all engine tank oil.

d)

drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.

An aircraft is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the 'operational items' ? a)

The appropriate Aviation Authority.

b)

The commander of the aircraft.

c)

The Operator.

d)

The aircraft manufacturer or supplier.


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089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

An aircraft may be weighed a)

at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.

b)

in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.

c)

in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar.

d)

in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.

(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: a)

forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.

b)

forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.

c)

forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC

d)

forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC

(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold centroid is: a)

421.5 inches.

b)

257 inches.

c)

314.5 inches.

d)

367.9 inches.


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093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in flight ? a)

Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.

b)

Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.

c)

Lowering the landing gear.

d)

Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.

(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is: a)

13.15 kg per inch.

b)

7.18 kg per inch.

c)

13.12 kg per inch.

d)

14.65 kg per inch.

(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is: a)

150 kg per square foot.

b)


c)

3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment.

d)

7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment.

The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aircraft is given as 750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet that can be used ? a)

30 cm by 200 cm

b)

40 cm by 300 cm

c)

30 cm by 300 cm

d)

40 cm by 200 cm


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097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm? a)

41.6 kg

b)

101.6 kg

c)

1015.6 kg

d)

416.0 kg

The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as a)

the force.

b)

the moment arm or balance arm.

c)

the index.

d)

the moment.

(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x 200 cm. Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower deck forward cargo compartment. a)

158.3 kg must be off loaded.

b)

28.5 kg may be added.

c)

285.5 kg may be added.

d)

28.5 kg must be off loaded.

During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that : a)

the aeroplane is overloaded.

b)

the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.

c)

the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.

d)

the centre of gravity is too far forward.


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101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aircraft less a)

usable fuel.

b)

traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

c)

usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

d)

usable fuel and traffic load.

The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage; plus catering and removable passenger equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as: a)

Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass.

b)

Zero Fuel Mass.

c)

Dry Operating Mass.

d)

Maximum Zero Fuel Mass

The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with a)

the commander.

b)

the person compiling the weighing schedule.

c)

the operator.

d)

the authority of the state of registration.

If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: a)

benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.

b)

require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.

c)

tend to over rotate during take-off.

d)

require less power for a given airspeed.

An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to: a)

be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.

b)

be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.

c)

cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.

d)

be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.


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106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

The Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation but excluding a)

usable fuel and traffic load.

b)

potable water and lavatory chemicals.

c)

usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.

d)

usable fuel and crew.

The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is a)

41455 kg

b)

56200 kg

c)

42545 kg

d)

42000 kg

When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be: a)

extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.

b)

extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

c)

extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

d)

extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.

An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in: a)

a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.

b)

an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment

c)

a reduction in power required for a given speed.

d)

an increase in longitudinal stability.

An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this interval is a)

4 years for each aeroplane.

b)

whenever a major modification is carried out.

c)

whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.

d)

9 years for each aeroplane.


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111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing mass will be higher than planned and a)

the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.

b)

the landing distance will be unaffected.

c)

the landing distance required will be longer.

d)

the approach path will be steeper.

(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is: a)

68 Lbs per square foot.

b)

68 kg per square metre.

c)


d)


(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo compartment has a maximum total load of: a)

9232 kg

b)

4187 kg

c)

1568 kg

d)

3062 kg

(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm centroid at: a)

421.5 inches is 4541 kg.

b)


c)

421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs.

d)



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115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10 m/s^2) The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is: a)

50000 Nm

b)

80000 Nm

c)

130000 Nm

d)

30000 Nm

The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to engine start. It is: a)

a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.

b)

a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.

c)

a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude. Corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.

d)

a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated from data given in the Flight Manual.

The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is: a)

maximum certificated take - off mass.

b)

maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.

c)

maximum regulated take - off mass.

d)

maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.

The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by: a)

tyre speed and temperature limitations.

b)

taxi distance to take - off point.

c)

structural considerations.

d)

bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.


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119.)

120.)

121.)

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on board. It is a limitation which is: a)

governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive 'wing bending'.

b)

listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.

c)

tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature.

d)

governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of the aeroplane.

The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass a)

differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.

b)

differ by the value of the traffic load mass.

c)

are the same value.

d)

differ by the mass of usable fuel.

Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aircraft) may be determined from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of a)

passengers carried is less than 20.

b)

passenger seats available is less than 20.

c)

passengers carried is less than 6.

d)

passenger seats available is less than 10.


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122.)

123.)

124.)

(For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield limited. The following data applies: Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg Fuel on board at rampTaxi fuel 350 kg Trip fuel 9730 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg Alternate fuel 1600 kg Passengers on board 130 Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg Baggage per passenger 14 kg Traffic load Maximum possible Use the loading manual provided and the above data. Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass. a)

4530 kg.

b)

6350 kg.

c)

3185 kg.

d)

5400 kg

The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is: a)

23000 kg

b)

20700 kg

c)

19460 kg.

d)

18400 kg

(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane Dry Operational mass 60520 kg Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg Fuel on board at take-off Trip fuel 12500 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg Alternate fuel 1700 kg Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum traffic load that can be carried. a)

15730 kg

b)

7730 kg

c)

11730 kg

d)

7010 kg


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125.)

126.)

127.)

128.)

(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg Fuel requirements for flight Trip fuel 29300 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg Alternate fuel 2800 kg. The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this flight is: a)

7100 kg

b)

4800 kg

c)

12700 kg

d)

6300 kg

The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus a)

unuseable and crew standard mass.

b)

traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.

c)

traffic load and crew standard mass.

d)

traffic load and unuseable fuel.

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is: a)

93000 kg

b)

78000 kg

c)

79000 kg

d)

65200 kg.

'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as a)

35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.

b)

35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.

c)

35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.

d)

35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.


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129.)

The maximum certificated take - off mass is: a)

limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

b)

a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.

c)

a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.

d)

a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2

.

130.)

131.)

132.)

For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on board, other than unusable quantities, is: a)

a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.

b)

a variable value which is governed by the traffic load carried.

c)

a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual.

d)

a variable value which is governed by the traffic load carried.

An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ? a)

en route obstacle clearance requirements.

b)

maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.

d)

maximum certificated take - off mass.

On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is a)

84 kg

b)

76 kg

c)

88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).

d)

84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).


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133.)

134.)

135.)

The standard mass for a child is a)

35 kg for all flights.

b)

30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.

c)

38 kg for all flights.

d)

35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.

On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is a)

11 kg per passenger.

b)


c)


d)


The following data applies to a planned flight. Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg Fuel required at ramp:Taxi fuel 400 kg trip fuel 8600 kg contingency fuel 430 kg alternate fuel 970 kg holding fuel 900 kg Traffic load 16600 kg Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure is: a)

12700 kg

b)

10730 kg

c)

13230 kg

d)

15200 kg


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136.)

137.)

In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are a)

flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.

b)

flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage.

c)

flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an allowance for hand baggage.

d)

flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage allowance.

Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following data Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg Taxi fuel 250 kg Trip fuel 9250 kg Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg Alternate fuel 700 kg The maximum permissible traffic load is a)

12840 kg

b)

13090 kg.

c)

18040 kg

d)

16470 kg


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138.)

139.)

140.)

(For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 3.1) The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the maximum possible fuel load. Using the following data as appropriate, determine the mass of fuel on board at start of take off. Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60 400 kg Landing airfield -not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg Fuel required for flight Taxi fuel: 715 kg Trip fuel: 8600 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg Alternate fuel 1500 kg Additional reserve 400 kg Traffic load for flight 11000 kg a)

13 655 kg

b)

15 815 kg

c)

14 470 kg

d)

16 080 kg

An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be a)

121450 kg

b)

19650 kg

c)

39105 kg

d)

141100 kg

When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the following is true? a)

Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.

b)

Flight endurance will be increased.

c)

Stalling speeds will be higher.

d)

Stalling speeds will be lower.


page: 38

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


141.)

142.)

143.)

144.)

If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle of attack will a)

be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.

b)

remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.

c)

be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.

d)

remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.

In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be a)

increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will decrease.

b)

increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.

c)

unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.

d)

increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will remain the same.

The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft's tanks is given as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass of fuel which may be loaded is a)

14383 kg.

b)

11364 kg.

c)

13647 kg.

d)

18206 kg.

Conversion of fuel volume to mass a)

must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.

b)

may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Manual, if the actual fuel density is not known.

c)

may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1.

d)

must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E.


page: 39

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


145.)

146.)

147.)

Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if the aeroplane a)

is carrying 30 or more passengers.

b)

has 6 or more seats.

c)


d)


Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane? a)

Location of the undercarriage.

b)

The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.

c)

The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.

d)

Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight conditions.

A jet transport has the following structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the following requirements: -Taxi fuel: 400 kg -Trip fuel: 8400 kg -Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg -Alternate fuel: 1100 kg If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if departure and landing airfields are not performance limited. a)

16 370 kg

b)

16 430 kg

c)

16 570 kg

d)

17 070 kg


page: 40

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


148.)

149.)

150.)

A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79 kg/l. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 330 kg. The landing mass at London is not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg Taxi fuel: 250 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be: a)

16 770 kg

b)

9 830 kg

c)

13 240 kg

d)

14 331 kg

The term 'useful load' as applied to an aircraft includes a)

traffic load plus useable fuel.

b)

traffic load only.

c)

the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.

d)

the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.

An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is 64280 kg the useful load is a)

10080 kg.

b)

29280 kg.

c)

12200 kg.

d)

17080 kg


page: 41

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


151.)

152.)

153.)

(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4) For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel density value 0.78) a)

11646 litres

b)

8850 litres

c)

5674 litres

d)

11349 litres

An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this aeroplane? a)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg.

b)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg.

c)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg.

d)

operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.

An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg. Certificated maximum masses are as follows: Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg Maximum Landing mass 71520 kg Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg Fuel on board at ramp: Taxi fuel 600 kg Trip fuel 17830 kg Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is a)

21220 kg

b)

21080 kg

c)

20870 kg

d)

21500 kg


page: 42

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


154.)

155.)

156.)

The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is a)

68400 kg

b)

29600 kg

c)

70700 kg

d)

26900 kg.

The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg Crew baggage in hold 110 kg Fuel on board 60700 kg From this data calculate the mass of the useful load. a)

18200 kg

b)

78150 kg

c)

17450 kg

d)

78900 kg

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: a)

17 840 kg

b)

13 950 kg

c)

25 800 kg

d)

18 170 kg


page: 43

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


157.)

158.)

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg Taxi Fuel: 250 kg Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: a)

17 810 kg

b)

21 170 kg

c)

20 420 kg

d)

21 070 kg

A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg -Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg Taxi Fuel: 500 kg Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600 kg Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: a)

19 100 kg

b)

17 840 kg

c)

19 200 kg

d)

19 500 kg


page: 44

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


159.)

160.)

161.)

(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Planned loading data is as follows: Taxi fuel 350 kg Trip fuel 9250 kg Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg Alternate fuel 1000 kg Traffic load 18600 kg Check the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Changes in fuel loading due to mass change may be disregarded. The correct answer is: a)

the flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.

b)

the flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load.

c)

the flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500 kg.

d)

the flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.

The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest: Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg Fuel on board 16500 kg During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing mass a)

is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in overrunning the runway

b)

is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result

c)

must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.

d)

is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal scheduled landing.

At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely result of this action will be a)

a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.

b)

a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.

c)

a landing further along the runway than normal.

d)

a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.


page: 45

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


162.)

163.)

164.)

The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg Knowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to load on board is: a)

54 000 kg

b)

61 500 kg

c)

55 000 kg

d)

55 500 kg

The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Block fuel: 40 000 kg - Trip fuel: 29 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg - Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg - Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg - Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg The maximum traffic load for this flight is: a)

32 900 kg

b)

18 900 kg

c)

32 100 kg

d)

40 400 kg

The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg - Block fuel: 30 000 kg - Taxi fuel: 800 kg - Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg The traffic load available for this flight is: a)

25 800 kg

b)

25 000 kg

c)

55 800 kg

d)

55 000 kg


page: 46

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


165.)

166.)

167.)

The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension: a)

creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment

b)

creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment

c)

does not create a longitudinal moment

d)

creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or pitch-down) determined by the type of landing gear

The mass and balance information gives: Basic mass: 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm: 3.00 m Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m. In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the following information is given: Position Arm front seats: 2.5 m rear seats: 3.5 m rear hold: 4.5 m fuel tanks: 3.0 m The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres of petrol with a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied. Taxi fuel is negligible. The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is: a)

29 %

b)

22 %

c)

34 %

d)

17 %

The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of: a)

the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum

b)

the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edge

c)

the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge

d)

the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge


page: 47

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


168.)

169.)

170.)

The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass. a)

the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without correction

b)

the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the load calculation

c)

the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger

d)

the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the standard mass

The datum used for balance calculations is: a)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level

b)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the leading edge and trailing edge of the wing

c)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between the nose and the tail of the aircraft

d)

chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the nose and the tail of the aircraft

The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg. The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg, and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of traffic load is: a)

1 000 kg

b)

1 450 kg

c)

950 kg

d)

1 500 kg


page: 48

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


171.)

172.)

173.)

Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off mass limitations: Flaps: 0° 10° 15° Runway: 4100 4400 4600 Climb: 4700 4500 4200 Masses are in kg Structural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg The maximum take-off mass is: a)

4 200 kg

b)

4 100 kg

c)

4 300 kg

d)

4 700 kg

The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following items are: - catering: 300 kg - safety and rescue material: nil - fly away kit: nil - crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg - fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg - unusable fuel: 120 kg - passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg The Dry Operating Mass is: a)

30 300 kg

b)

30 665 kg

c)

38 300 kg

d)

30 785 kg

The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2. It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side. It's maximum gross mass must not exceed: (assume g=10m/s2) a)

800 kg

b)

80 kg

c)

320 kg

d)

32 kg


page: 49

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


174.)

175.)

176.)

177.)

To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a minimum of: a)

4 point of support

b)

2 points of support

c)

3 points of support

d)

1 point of support

During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe; a)

no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure

b)

a permanent deformation of the structure

c)

rupture of one or more structural components

d)

a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion

Longitudinal CG location can be expressed: a)

with respect to the neutral point.

b)

with respect to the centre of pressure.

c)

as a percentage of the MAC from its trailing edge.

d)

as a percentage of the MAC from its leading edge.

By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: a)

zero fuel mass

b)

take-off mass

c)

landing mass

d)

Dry operating mass


page: 50

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


178.)

179.)

180.)

181.)

The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2. It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m. Its maximum gross mass must not exceed: (assume g=10m/s2) a)

500 kg

b)

1 000 kg

c)

5 000 kg

d)

100 kg

An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg. The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg. The maximum traffic load is: a)

2 200 kg

b)

2 150 kg

c)

1 600 kg

d)

1 550 kg

To calculate a allowable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include: a)

the sum of the maximum zero fuel mass and the trip fuel.

b)

the sum of the maximum landing mass and the trip fuel.

c)

the maximum take-off mass minus the trip fuel.

d)

the sum of the maximum landing mass and the fuel on board at take-off.

In cruise flight, a centre of gravity moving aft will: a)

decrease longitudinal static stability

b)

have no effect on longitudinal static stability

c)

not change the manoeuvrability

d)

increase longitudinal static stability


page: 51

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


182.)

183.)

184.)

Given: Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg Fuel burn = 8 000 kg Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg The maximum allowed take-off mass and traffic load are respectively : a)

71 300 kg and 25 300 kg

b)

73 000 kg and 24 700 kg

c)

71 300 kg and 23 000 kg

d)

73 000 kg and 27 000 kg

Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is at 25% MAC To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold? a)

104 kg

b)

165 kg

c)

110 kg

d)

183 kg

(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at 14% MAC ? a)

35.5

b)

40.0

c)

33..0

d)

41.5


page: 52

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

(For this question use annex 031-12267A ) Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine which of the following gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre of gravity (% MAC) at that mass. a)

46130 Kg and 17,8%

b)

46130 Kg and 20,8%

c)

51300 Kg and 20,8%

d)

41300 Kg and 17,8%

(For this question use annex 031-12268A) Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, determine from the following the correct values for the take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at that mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is given as - 0.9 a)

20.3 %

b)

20.1 %

c)

22.6 %

d)

17.5 %

(For this question use annex 031-12269A) Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if the fuel index corrections (from ZFM index) are as follows 9500 kg - 0.9 6500 kg - 6.1 3500 kg - 4.7 3000 kg - 4.3 Which of the following represent the correct values for landing mass of the aeroplane and the position of the centre of gravity for this condition ? a)

52900kg and 19 %

b)

49130 kg and 19 %

c)

49130 kg and 21.8 %

d)

52900 kg and 21.6 %

(For this question use annex 031-12270A) Using the data given at the appendix, determine which of the following correctly gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at ZFM a)

48600 kg and 57.0

b)

46300 kg and 20.5

c)

51300 kg and 57.0

d)

35100 kg and 20.5


page: 53

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


189.)

190.)

191.)

(For this question use annex 031-12271A) From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine which of the following is the correct value (percentage MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off Mass. a)

14 %

b)

18 %

c)

19 %

d)

15 %

(For this question use annex 031-12272A) For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an operator's loading manual gives the following standard mass values for passengers. (These values include an allowance for hand baggage) Male 88 kg Female 70 kg Child 35 kg Infant 6 kg The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is 14 kg per piece The loading manifest shows the following details: Passengers loaded Males 40 Females 65 Children 8 Infants 5 Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces Using the standard mass values given and the data in the appendix, select from the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which constitutes the remainder of the traffic load a)

260 kg

b)

no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1

c)

280 kg

d)

210 kg

(For this question use annex 031-12273A) From the data contained in the attached appendix, the maximum allowable take – off mass and traffic load is respectively: a)

61600 kg and 12150 kg

b)

60425 kg and 10975 kg

c)

68038 kg and 18588 kg

d)

66770 kg and 17320 kg


page: 54

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


192.)

(For this question use annex 031-12274A) An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg Complete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic load a)

7000 kg

b)

8268 kg

c)

655 kg

d)

1830 kg


page: 55

031-12267 a.jpg

031-12267 a.jpg

031-12269 a.jpg

031-12269 a.jpg

031-12270 a.jpg

031-12270 a.jpg

031-12272 a.jpg

031-12272 a.jpg

031-12273 a.jpg

031-12273 a.jpg

031-1569 a.jpg

031-1569 a.jpg

031-1580 a.jpg

031-1580 a.jpg

031-2946 a.gif

031-2946 a.gif

031-4739 a.gif

031-4739 a.gif

031-6564 a.gif

031-6564 a.gif

031-9596 A, 9598 A, 9603 A, 9604 A

031-9605 A, 9608 A, 9609 A, 9613 A, 9629 A, 9630 A, 9631 A

031-9660 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY MASS & BALANCE

DATA SHEET MRJT1

2.2 Landing Gear Retraction/extension

negligible effect from operation of landing gear

1.3 Flap Retraction Figure 4.3 Effect of flap retraction From

To

Moment Change (Kg - inches x 1000)

5

0

-11

15

0

-14

30

0

-15

40

0

-16

1.4 Take-off Horizontal Stabiliser Trim Setting Figure 4.4 Graph of trim units for G.G. position

2.5 Mean Aerodynamic Chord

134. 5 inches Leading edge 625.6 inches aft of datum

3. MASS AND BALANCE LIMITATIONS 3.1 Mass Limits Maximum Structural Taxi Mass Maximum Structural Take-off Mass Maximum Structural Landing Mass Maximum Structural Zero Fuel Mass

63060 62800 54900 51300

031-9676 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY MASS & BALANCE

DATA SHEET MRJT1

3.2 Centre of Gravity Limits The centre of gravity for this aeroplane must at all times be within the limits prescribed by the CG envelope shown in fig. 4.11 on page 9. 4.

FUEL

4.1 Figure 4.5

Fuel Tank Location and Maximum Volume BA (füll tanks)

Volume (US Gallons)

Mass (Kg)

Left Wing Main Tank 1

650.7

1499

4542

Right Wing Main Tank 2

650.7

1499

4542

Centre Tank

600.4

2313

7008

Max. Total Fuel (assumes 3.03 Kg/US Gall.)

628.8

5311

16092

Caution - If centre tank contains more than 450 Kg the wing tanks must be füll. 4.2 Figure 4.6 Location

Unusable Fuel Quantities Volume (US Galls)

Mass (Kg)

BA

Wing Tank 1

4.6

14.0

599.0

Wing Tank 2

4.6

14.0

599.0

Centre Tank

7.9

24.0

600.9

FUEL TANK LOCATION DIAGRAM

031-9685 A

031-9640 a.gif

031-9640 a.gif

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL



39: A (2 Pkt.)

77: A (1 Pkt.)

2: D (1 Pkt.)

40: D (3 Pkt.)

78: B (1 Pkt.)

3: C (1 Pkt.)

41: B (3 Pkt.)

79: D (1 Pkt.)

4: C (1 Pkt.)

42: A (3 Pkt.)

80: B (1 Pkt.)

5: C (1 Pkt.)

43: D (1 Pkt.)

81: D (1 Pkt.)

6: B (2 Pkt.)

44: D (1 Pkt.)

82: B (1 Pkt.)

7: B (1 Pkt.)

45: D (1 Pkt.)

83: C (1 Pkt.)

8: D (1 Pkt.)

46: A (1 Pkt.)

84: C (1 Pkt.)

9: A (1 Pkt.)

47: B (1 Pkt.)

85: A (1 Pkt.)

10: C (1 Pkt.)

48: A (1 Pkt.)

86: A (1 Pkt.)

11: A (1 Pkt.)

49: B (1 Pkt.)

87: C (1 Pkt.)

12: C (2 Pkt.)

50: C (2 Pkt.)

88: C (1 Pkt.)

13: A (2 Pkt.)

51: D (1 Pkt.)

89: C (1 Pkt.)

14: C (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

90: C (1 Pkt.)

15: D (1 Pkt.)

53: D (1 Pkt.)

91: D (1 Pkt.)

16: A (1 Pkt.)

54: A (2 Pkt.)

92: D (1 Pkt.)

17: C (1 Pkt.)

55: C (2 Pkt.)

93: D (1 Pkt.)

18: B (2 Pkt.)

56: A (1 Pkt.)

94: C (1 Pkt.)

19: C (2 Pkt.)

57: B (1 Pkt.)

95: B (1 Pkt.)

20: B (2 Pkt.)

58: D (1 Pkt.)

96: D (1 Pkt.)

21: D (2 Pkt.)

59: C (1 Pkt.)

97: D (1 Pkt.)

22: C (2 Pkt.)

60: C (1 Pkt.)

98: B (1 Pkt.)

23: C (2 Pkt.)

61: D (1 Pkt.)

99: C (2 Pkt.)

24: B (2 Pkt.)

62: D (1 Pkt.)

100: C (1 Pkt.)

25: B (1 Pkt.)

63: A (1 Pkt.)

101: D (1 Pkt.)

26: A (1 Pkt.)

64: C (2 Pkt.)

102: C (1 Pkt.)

27: D (1 Pkt.)

65: B (2 Pkt.)

103: C (1 Pkt.)

28: A (2 Pkt.)

66: B (1 Pkt.)

104: B (1 Pkt.)

29: D (1 Pkt.)

67: D (1 Pkt.)

105: B (1 Pkt.)

30: B (1 Pkt.)

68: B (1 Pkt.)

106: A (1 Pkt.)

31: D (1 Pkt.)

69: B (1 Pkt.)

107: D (1 Pkt.)

32: A (1 Pkt.)

70: C (1 Pkt.)

108: D (1 Pkt.)

33: D (1 Pkt.)

71: A (1 Pkt.)

109: B (1 Pkt.)

34: C (1 Pkt.)

72: A (1 Pkt.)

110: D (1 Pkt.)

35: C (1 Pkt.)

73: A (1 Pkt.)

111: C (1 Pkt.)

36: C (1 Pkt.)

74: D (1 Pkt.)

112: D (1 Pkt.)

37: B (1 Pkt.)

75: C (1 Pkt.)

113: B (1 Pkt.)

38: A (1 Pkt.)

76: B (1 Pkt.)

114: B (1 Pkt.)


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115: B (1 Pkt.)

141: A (1 Pkt.)

167: B (1 Pkt.)

116: A (1 Pkt.)

142: A (3 Pkt.)

168: D (1 Pkt.)

117: D (1 Pkt.)

143: B (1 Pkt.)

169: C (1 Pkt.)

118: C (1 Pkt.)

144: B (1 Pkt.)

170: A (2 Pkt.)

119: B (1 Pkt.)

145: C (1 Pkt.)

171: C (1 Pkt.)

120: B (1 Pkt.)

146: D (1 Pkt.)

172: D (2 Pkt.)

121: D (1 Pkt.)

147: A (2 Pkt.)

173: B (2 Pkt.)

122: A (2 Pkt.)

148: D (2 Pkt.)

174: C (1 Pkt.)

123: D (1 Pkt.)

149: A (1 Pkt.)

175: B (1 Pkt.)

124: D (2 Pkt.)

150: B (1 Pkt.)

176: D (1 Pkt.)

125: B (2 Pkt.)

151: D (1 Pkt.)

177: D (1 Pkt.)

126: D (1 Pkt.)

152: B (1 Pkt.)

178: D (2 Pkt.)

127: C (1 Pkt.)

153: B (2 Pkt.)

179: C (2 Pkt.)

128: B (1 Pkt.)

154: A (2 Pkt.)

180: B (1 Pkt.)

129: C (1 Pkt.)

155: D (1 Pkt.)

181: A (1 Pkt.)

130: C (1 Pkt.)

156: A (3 Pkt.)

182: C (2 Pkt.)

131: C (1 Pkt.)

157: A (3 Pkt.)

183: C (3 Pkt.)

132: A (1 Pkt.)

158: B (3 Pkt.)

184: B (1 Pkt.)

133: A (1 Pkt.)

159: C (3 Pkt.)

185: A (1 Pkt.)

134: B (1 Pkt.)

160: B (2 Pkt.)

186: D (1 Pkt.)

135: A (2 Pkt.)

161: B (1 Pkt.)

187: B (2 Pkt.)

136: A (1 Pkt.)

162: A (1 Pkt.)

188: A (1 Pkt.)

137: B (2 Pkt.)

163: C (1 Pkt.)

189: B (1 Pkt.)

138: C (2 Pkt.)

164: A (1 Pkt.)

190: A (1 Pkt.)

139: D (2 Pkt.)

165: D (1 Pkt.)

191: A (1 Pkt.)

140: C (1 Pkt.)

166: B (3 Pkt.)

192: D (1 Pkt.)


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Questionnaire 032-PERF

001.)

002.)

003.)

Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is: a)

3426 kg/h

b)

3602 kg/h

c)

3259 kg/h

d)

3787 kg/h

(For this question use annex 032-915A) What is the vertical speed of a three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and -a mass of 75 000 kg? Using the following: g = 10 m/s² 1 kt = 100 ft/min SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight a)

-1267 ft / min.

b)

+3293 ft / min.

c)

+1267 ft / min.

d)

0 ft / min.

In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is: a)

based on pressure altitudes.

b)

the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed.

c)

the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle domain.

d)

the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.


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004.)

005.)

006.)

007.)

During certification flight testing of a transport aeroplane, the distances measured from brake release to the 35 feet point are equal to: 1547 m with all engines running 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged. The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: a)

1547 m.

b)

1978 m.

c)

1720 m.

d)

1779 m.

For a turboprop powered aeroplane (performance class A) on a commercial flight, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be wet. It must be ensured that the landing mass of the aeroplane allows a full stop landing on a dry runway within a landing distance of: a)

1771 m.

b)

1339 m.

c)

1147 m.

d)

1540 m.

At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is approximately increased by: a)

2.5%

b)

10%

c)

5%

d)

7.5%

Considering the take-off decision speed V1, which of the following is correct? a)

If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.

b)

V1 may not be less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.

c)

V1 is sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

d)

If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1, the take-off must be aborted.


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008.)

009.)

010.)

What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased? a)

It will increase the take-off ground run.

b)

It will decrease the take-off distance required.

c)

It will increase the take-off distance required.

d)

It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? a)

It will increase the take-off distance available.

b)

It will increase the take-off distance.

c)

It will decrease the take-off run.

d)

It will decrease the take-off distance.

Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as follows: Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine g = 10 m/s² Drag = 72 569 N Minimum steady gradient of climb (2nd segment) = 2.7% SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is: a)

209 064 kg

b)

74 064 kg

c)

101 596 kg

d)

286 781 kg


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011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters: 1 Gear up 2 Gear down 3 Wing flaps retracted 4 Wing flaps in take-off position 5 N engines at the take-off thrust 6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust 7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt 8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS 9 Speed over the path equal to V2 10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway The correct statements are: a)

1, 4, 6, 9

b)

1, 5, 8, 10

c)

1, 4, 5, 10

d)

2, 3, 6, 9

Minimum control speed on the ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by: a)

nose wheel steering only.

b)

primary aerodynamic control and nose wheel steering.

c)

primary aerodynamic control only.

d)

primary aerodynamic control, nose wheel steering and differential braking.

The take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are based upon: a)

one engine inoperative only.

b)

failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.

c)

failure of the critical engine only.

d)

all engines operating only.

Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1, but VR remains unchanged? a)

All Engine Take-off distance

b)

Take-off distance

c)

Accelerate Stop Distance

d)

Take-off run


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015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

Which of the following answers is true? a)

V1 is lower VMCG

b)

V1 is higher VR

c)

V1 is higher VLOF

d)

V1 is lower or equal to VR

The length of a clearway may be included in: a)

the accelerate-stop distance available.

b)

the take-off distance available.

c)

the take-off run available.

d)

the distance to reach V1.

How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting? a)

A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.

b)

A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

c)

An uphill slope increases the allowable take-off mass.

d)

Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.

The following parameters affect the take off ground run: 1 decreasing take off mass 2 increasing take off mass 3 increasing density 4 decreasing density 5 increasing flap setting 6 decreasing flap setting 7 increasing pressure altitude 8 decreasing pressure altitude Which parameters will decrease the take off ground run? a)

2, 4, 5 and 7

b)

2, 3, 6 and 7

c)

1, 3, 5 and 8

d)

1, 4, 6 and 8


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019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

What is the result of a large take off flap setting compared to a small take off flap setting on required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass (TOM)? a)

Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

b)

Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

c)

Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.

d)

Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.

How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude? a)

VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.

b)

VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.

c)

VMCA decreases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.

d)

VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.

Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind? a)

the obstacle limited take-off mass.

b)

the field limited take-off mass.

c)

the take-off run.

d)

the climb limited take-off mass.

Considering VR, which statement is correct? a)

VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.

b)

VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.

c)

VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.

d)

In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.


VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.

b)

VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.

c)

VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.

d)

VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.


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024.)

025.)

Which of the following represents the minimum for V1? a)

VMU

b)

VLOF

c)

VMCG

d)

VR

Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting? V2 VREF VR VMCA

026.)

027.)

During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual takeoff distances measured are: 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at V1 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being equal The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: a)

2938 m

b)

2555 m

c)

3513 m

d)

3050 m

In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: a)

reduce the engine thrust.

b)

reverse engine thrust.

c)

deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

d)

apply wheel brakes.


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028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true? a)

The accelerate stop distance decreases.

b)

It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance.

c)

Take-off with anti-skid inoperative is never permitted.

d)

The accelerate stop distance increases.

In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included? a)

In the take-off run available.

b)

In the all-engine take-off distance.

c)

In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.

d)

In the accelerate stop distance available.

Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-off mass? a)

Allowable take-off mass increases.

b)

There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.

c)

Allowable take-off mass decreases.

d)

Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft pressure altitude.

If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will: a)

not be affected.

b)

increase in the flaps extended case.

c)

decrease.

d)

increase.

Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM (every factor considered independently)? a)

Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.

b)

Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.

c)

Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.

d)

High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.


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033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

037.)

The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are only specified for: a)

the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.

b)

the failure of two engines on a multi-engine aeroplane.

c)

the failure of any engine on a multi-engine aeroplane.

d)

2 engine aeroplane.

At which minimum height will the second climb segment end? a)

400 ft above field elevation.

b)

35 ft above ground.

c)

1500 ft above field elevation.

d)

When gear retraction is completed.

A head wind will: a)

increase the angle of climb.

b)

increase the climb flight path angle.

c)

increase the rate of climb.

d)

shorten the time of climb.

Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle of climb? a)

Thrust and drag only.

b)

Weight, drag and thrust.

c)

Weight and thrust only.

d)

Weight and drag only.

How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing altitude for an aeroplane with a normal aspirated piston engine? a)

Both increase.

b)

Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.

c)

Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.

d)

Both decrease.


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038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The halfwidth of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at least: a)

0.125D

b)

90m + 0.125D

c)

90m + D/0.125

d)

90m + 1.125D

What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude? a)

The time to climb decreases.

b)

The time to climb does not change.

c)

The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.

d)

The time to climb increases.

The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will normally be: a)

Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.

b)

Larger.

c)

Smaller.

d)

Not change.

Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: a)

higher than that for clean configuration.

b)

changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.

c)

lower than that for clean configuration.

d)

same as that for clean configuration.

Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy in terms of TAS? a)

Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.

b)

Both will remain the same.

c)

Both will decrease.

d)

Both will increase.


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043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere (under ISA conditions) ? a)

TAS is constant.

b)

TAS increases.

c)

TAS decreases.

d)

TAS is not related to Mach Number.

The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: a)

is only dependent on the outside air temperature.

b)

is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.

c)

increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.

d)

is independent of the aeroplane mass.

Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors remaining constant, a)

both will decrease with increasing altitude.

b)

both will stay constant regardless of altitude.

c)

both will increase with increasing altitude.

d)

TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with increased altitude.

How does the specific range change when the altitude increases for jet aeroplane flying with the speed for maximum range? a)

Does not change.

b)

Increases only if there is no wind.

c)

First increases than decreases.

d)

Decreases.


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047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

(For this question use annex 032-1014A rev. 05.05.2003) Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust Required Curve". Mass m1 is higher than mass m2. a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: a)

a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.

b)

an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range.

c)

a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.

d)

a specific range which is approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed.

A twin engine aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should choose: a)

the speed at the maximum lift.

b)

the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.

c)

the long range speed.

d)

the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.

A commercial flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. The aeroplane mass must be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within: a)

1 250 m.

b)

1 090 m.

c)

1 655 m.

d)

1 440 m.


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051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

At the destination aerodrome the landing distance available is 3000m. The appropriate weather forecast indicates that the runway at the estimated time of arrival will be wet. For a commercial flight the mass of a turbojet aeroplane at landing must be such that the aeroplane can be landed within: a)

1800 m.

b)

2 070 m.

c)

2609 m.

d)

1565 m.

With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is: a)

equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance

b)

lower than the angle of attack corresponding to maximum endurance

c)

equal to the angle of attack corresponding to maximum lift to drag ratio.

d)

equal to the angle of attack corresponding to zero induced drag.

Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude. The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is: a)

3578 kg/h.

b)

3365 kg/h.

c)

4044 kg/h.

d)

3804 kg/h.

A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel consumption of 14 kg per NM. In the same flying conditions, the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel consumption per NM of: a)

8.17 kg/NM.

b)

14 kg/NM.

c)

10.7 kg/NM.

d)

11.7 kg/NM.


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055.)

056.)

057.)

The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following values: Flap angle: 5° 15° 25° Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500 2nd segment climb limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800 Wind correction: Head wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / kt Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle will be: a)

69 700 kg / 25 deg

b)

72 200 kg / 5 deg

c)

69 000 kg / 15 deg

d)

67 700 kg / 15 deg

The correct formula is: (Remark: "<=" means "equal to or lower") a)

1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1

b)

V2min<= VEF<= VMU

c)

1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR

d)

VMCG<=VEF < V1

Given: VS= Stalling speed VMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure) V1= take-off decision speed VR= Rotation speed V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed VLOF: Lift-off speed The correct formula is: a)

V2min< VMCA> VMU

b)

VMU<= VMCA< V1

c)

VR< VMCA< VLOF

d)

VS< VMCA< V2 min


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058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: a)

is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).

b)

is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .

c)

is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.

d)

is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off surface are: - 1747 m, all engines operating - 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged. Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance? a)

1950 m.

b)

2096 m.

c)

2243 m.

d)

2009 m.

An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the take-off distance available cannot be greater than: a)

4000 metres.

b)

6000 metres.

c)

4500 metres.

d)

5000 metres.

The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is: a)

1.20 VSR for all aeroplanes.

b)

1.20 VSR for all turbo-propeller aeroplanes.

c)

1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turbo-propeller and turbojet aeroplanes.

d)

1.15 VSR for all turbojet and turbo-propeller aeroplanes.


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062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

The net flight path gradient after take-off compared to the actual climb gradient is: a)

smaller.

b)

larger.

c)

depends on type of aircraft and may be smaller or larger respectively.

d)

equal.

Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical? The speeds for: a)

maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.

b)

maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.

c)

holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.

d)

maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.

The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly because the: a)

TAS decreases.

b)

IAS increases.

c)

glide angle increases.

d)

aircraft mass decreases.

(For this question use annex 032-2211A) Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 < H2) a)

Figure a

b)

Figure b

c)

Figure d

d)

Figure c


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066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio a)

increases / increases / constant

b)

decreases / constant / decreases

c)

increases / constant / increases

d)

increases / increases / decreases

An aeroplane is in a power off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide distance: a)

increases.

b)

decreases.

c)

remains the same.

d)

may increase or decrease depending on the type of aeroplane.

Maximum endurance for a piston engine aeroplane is achieved at: a)

The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.

b)

The speed for maximum lift coefficient.

c)

The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.

d)

The speed for minimum drag.

The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger, in level flight, is reached: a)

at the optimum cruise altitude.

b)

at the lowest possible altitude.

c)

at the practical ceiling.

d)

at the service ceiling.

During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will: a)

decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.

b)

increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.

c)

increase, because the lift coefficient increases.

d)

remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.


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071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

(For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 ) With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport? Given: Runway length: 1300 ft, Runway elevation: MSL Weather: assume ISA conditions Mass: 3200 lbs Obstacle height: 50 ft a)

10 kt.

b)

15 kt.

c)

No wind.

d)

5 kt.

A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change? a)

Remain constant / become larger.

b)

Reduce / decrease.

c)

Remain constant / decrease.

d)

Reduce / remain constant.

A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change? a)

Increase / decrease.

b)

Decrease / increase.

c)

Decrease / decrease.

d)

Increase / increase.

During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: a)

decrease.

b)

remain constant.

c)

increase at first and decrease later on.

d)

increase.


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075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will: a)

decrease / increase.

b)

increase / decrease.

c)

increase / increase.

d)

decrease / decrease.

An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270. How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent? Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects. a)

Increases in the first part; is constant in the second.

b)

Decreases in the first part; increases in the second.

c)

Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second.

d)

Increases in the first part; decreases in the second.

Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? a)

A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude.

b)

A step climb is executed in principle when, just after levelling off, the 1.3g altitude is reached.

c)

Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at g-loads greater than 1.

d)

A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude.

Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descentin a glide? (Ignore compressibility effects.) a)

Configuration and mass.

b)

Mass and altitude.

c)

Altitude and configuration.

d)

Configuration and angle of attack.


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079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ? a)

At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier aeroplane.

b)

There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.

c)

At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.

d)

At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter aeroplane.

What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? a)

Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays constant.

b)

Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

c)

Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.

d)

Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.

For a jet aeroplane, the maximum climb angle is achieved at a speed corresponding to: a)

1.2 Vs

b)

1.1 Vs

c)

the maximum CL/CD² ratio

d)

the maximum CL/CD ratio

The maximum speed in horizontal flight occurs when: a)

The thrust is equal to minimum drag.

b)

The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.

c)

The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.

d)

The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.


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083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is correct ? a)

An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.

b)

An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously during flight.

c)

An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result.

d)

An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude.

How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude? (No compressibility effects.) a)

Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

b)

The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.

c)

The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.

d)

The lift coefficient is independent of altitude.

What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off,constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.) a)

The drag increases considerably.

b)

The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.

c)

The drag decreases.

d)

The drag remains almost constant.

Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds) a)

Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.

b)

Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.

c)

Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.

d)

Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.


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087.)

088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a given mass which of the following will occur? a)

A lower cruise Mach number.

b)

An increased maximum range.

c)

An increased long range performance.

d)

A higher cruise Mach number.

For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ? a)

Longest flight duration.

b)

Minimum drag.

c)

Minimum fuel flow.

d)

Minimum specific fuel consumption.

The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in: a)

The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.

b)

The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.

c)

The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.

d)

The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.

What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number? a)

The lift coefficient increases.

b)

The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

c)

The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.

d)

IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.

Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? a)

The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.

b)

The speed for maximum rate of climb.

c)

1.2Vs.

d)

The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.


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092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed? a)

Tailwind.

b)

Increase of aircraft mass.

c)

Headwind.

d)

Decrease of aircraft mass.

Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? a)

Low mass.

b)

Headwind.

c)

High mass.

d)

Tailwind.

Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? a)

In order to achieve speed stability.

b)

In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

c)

It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed.

d)

The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.

Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) ......... a)

(i) V1

(ii) 1 second

(iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.

b)

(i) V1

(ii) 2 seconds

(iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.

c)

(i) V2

(ii) 3 seconds

(iii) Take-off distance available.

d)

(i) V1

(ii) 2 seconds

(iii) Take-off distance available.

If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is correct ? a)

V1 must be increased to at least the value of VMCG.

b)

The VMCG will be lowered to V1.

c)

The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.

d)

The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.


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097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

In accordance to JAR 25 which of the following listed speeds are used for determination of V2min: a)

VLOF, VMCA.

b)

VSR, VMCA

c)

VMCG, V2

d)

V1, VR.

Maximum Tyre Speed can limit the Lift-off Speed. Which kind of speed can be directly used to determine this limitation? a)

ESS.

b)

Groundspeed.

c)

IAS.

d)

TAS.

Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: a)

the runway is dry.

b)

windshear is reported on the take-off path.

c)

it is dark.

d)

the runway is wet.


the runway is wet.

b)

anti skid is not usable.

c)

the OAT is ISA +10°C

d)

it is dark.


it is dark.

b)

obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.

c)

the runway is wet.

d)

the runway is contaminated.


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102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if: a)

The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out at V1.

b)

The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.

c)

The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited TOM.

d)

The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM.

When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance: a)

increases / increases.

b)

remains constant / remains constant.

c)

decreases / decreases.

d)

decreases / remains constant.

Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is correct? a)

The usable length of the clearway is not limited.

b)

The field length limited take-off mass will increase.

c)

V1 is increased.

d)

V1 remains constant.

In certain conditions V2 can be limited by VCMA a)

High take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.

b)

Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation.

c)

High take-off mass, small flap extension, high field elevation.

d)

Low take-off mass, small flap extension, low field elevation.


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106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the takeoff? a)

Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.

b)

High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short runway.

c)

High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high ambient temperature.

d)

Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient temperature.

The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will achieve: a)

obstacle clearance in the approach area.

b)

manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

c)

manoeuvrability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.

d)

minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine inoperative.

How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°? a)

V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.

b)

V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

c)

V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.

d)

V2 has the same value in both cases.

What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off? a)

The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.

b)

The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.

c)

The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.

d)

The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.


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110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. a)

By selecting a lower flap setting.

b)

By selecting a higher V2.

c)

By selecting a lower V2.

d)

By selecting a higher flap setting.

Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off? a)

A high runway elevation and tail wind.

b)

A low runway elevation and a cross wind.

c)

A high runway elevation and a head wind.

d)

A low runway elevation and a head wind.

During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediately above the correct value of V1? a)

The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.

b)

It may lead to over-rotation.

c)

V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.

d)

The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.


The performance limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.

b)

The accelerate stop distance required is independent of the runway condition.

c)

The climb limited take-off mass is independent of the wind component.

d)

The take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component.


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114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

The drift down requirements are based on: a)

the landing mass limit at the alternate.

b)

the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed.

c)

the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.

d)

the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.

Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A aeroplane, is correct? a)

It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass.

b)

It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path".

c)

It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path.

d)

It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path".


VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.

b)

VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.

c)

VR should not be higher than V1.

d)

VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.

The 'maximum tyre speed' limits: a)

VLOF in terms of ground speed.

b)

V1 in kt TAS.

c)

V1 in kt ground speed.

d)

VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.


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118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct? a)

In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the required landing field length.

b)

When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.

c)

An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.

d)

The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.


The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.

b)

The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.

c)

The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: field length limited take-off mass climb limited take-off mass obstacle limited take-off mass.

d)

The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air temperature

Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph? a)

Economy.

b)

Aerodynamics.

c)

Theoretical ceiling.

d)

Service ceiling.

Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? a)

The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes.

b)

The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings.

c)

The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes.

d)

The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.


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122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

Why should the temperature of the wheel brakes be checked prior to take off?" a)

Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.

b)

To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.

c)

To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.

d)

To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? a)

VMCG, V1, VR, V2.

b)

V1, VMCG, VR, V2.

c)

V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

d)

V1, VR, VMCG, V2.

A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached? a)

The Stalling speed.

b)

The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

c)

The Maximum operating Mach number.

d)

The Minimum control speed air.

A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which speed limit will be exceeded? a)

Maximum Operating Speed

b)

High Speed Buffet Limit

c)

Maximum Operational Mach Number

d)

Never Exceed Speed

Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? a)

In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.

b)

Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.

c)

Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field length limited take-off mass.

d)

Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.


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127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? a)

The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.

b)

The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.

c)

50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass.

d)

On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.

Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is correct? a)

The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass.

b)

A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition.

c)

The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°.

d)

Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass.

Which statement regarding V1 is correct? a)

The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.

b)

V1 must not exceed VR.

c)

When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.

d)

V1 must not exceed VMCG.

When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: a)

the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all engine take-off distance".

b)

the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1.

c)

the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass.

d)

the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet point.


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131.)

132.)

133.)

134.)

For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is correct? a)

The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.

b)

Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.

c)

A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for contaminated runway is available.

d)

The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: a)

postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

b)

use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.

c)

make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible.

d)

use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.

What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ? a)

A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of an engine failure.

b)

For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available runway length.

c)

A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation.

d)

A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in the: a)

take-off distance available.

b)

take-off run available.

c)

landing distance available.

d)

accelerate-stop distance available.


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135.)

136.)

137.)

138.)

VR cannot be lower than: a)

V1 and 105% of VMCA.

b)

1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.

c)

105% of V1 and VMCA.

d)

1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.

The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is: a)

an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.

b)

an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.

c)

a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass.

d)

a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited take-off mass.

When the outside air temperature increases beyond the flat rated temperature of the engines, the: a)

field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.

b)

field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

c)

field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.

d)

field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.

The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point and: a)

the point where V2 is reached.

b)

the point half way between V1 and V2.

c)

the lift-off point.

d)

the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.


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139.)

140.)

141.)

142.)

The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: a)

at which the take-off must be rejected.

b)

at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.

c)

below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above which take-off must be continued.

d)

below which the take-off must be continued.

With regard to an unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statements is correct? (no compressibility effects) a)

The minimum drag is independent of the aircraft mass.

b)

The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.

c)

The minimum drag is a function of the density altitude.

d)

The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.

If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight, decreases: a)

the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.

b)

the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

c)

the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.

d)

the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.

The tangent from the origin to the power required against true airspeed curve, for a jet aeroplane, determines the speed for: a)

minimum power.

b)

critical angle of attack.

c)

maximum specific range.

d)

maximum endurance.


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143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

For a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is: a)

that corresponding to the point of the minimum drag at the Drag versus TAS curve.

b)

that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.

c)

that corresponding to the point of the minimum power required the Drag versus TAS curve.

d)

that corresponding to the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Power required versus TAS curve.

Which cruise system gives minimum fuel consumption during cruise between top of climb and top of descent? (still air, no turbulence)? a)

Long range.

b)

Maximum endurance.

c)

Maximum range.

d)

Holding.

A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct? a)

IAS decreases and TAS decreases.

b)

IAS decreases and TAS increases.

c)

IAS increases and TAS decreases.

d)

IAS increases and TAS increases.

With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to: a)

the minimum angle of descent.

b)

the minimum power required.

c)

the maximum lift.

d)

the critical Mach number.


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147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

(For this question use annex 032-2929A) Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engine aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A) determines the speed of: a)

critical angle of attack.

b)

maximum thrust.

c)

maximum endurance.

d)


For a piston engine aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is: a)

that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.

b)

1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.

c)

that which gives the maximum value of lift

d)

that which gives the minimum value of drag.

A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed a)

giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.

b)

for long-range cruise.

c)

of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.

d)

giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.

A four jet-engine aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14. Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newton. The gradient of climb is: (given: g= 10 m/s²) a)

12.86%.

b)

1.286%.

c)

27%.

d)

7.86%.


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151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

Density altitude is the a)

height above the surface

b)

pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature

c)

altitude read directly from the altimeter

d)

altitude reference to the standard datum plane

The Density Altitude a)

is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

b)

is used to determine the aeroplane performance.

c)

is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.

d)

is equal to the pressure altitude.

Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ? a)

High temperature and high relative humidity

b)

High temperature and low relative humidity

c)

Low temperature and high relative humidity

d)

Low temperature and low relative humidity

What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope a)

decreases the TAS for take-off.

b)

increases the IAS for take-off.

c)

has no effect on the take-off speed V1.

d)

decreases the take-off speed V1.

During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component a)

increases the amount of fuel for the climb.

b)

decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.

c)

increases the climb time.

d)

decreases the climb time.


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156.)

157.)

158.)

159.)

160.)

What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed? a)

The IAS will be increased.

b)

Tailwind only effects holding speed.

c)

No affect

d)

The IAS will be decreased.

During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called: a)

Service ceiling

b)

Absolute ceiling

c)

Maximum transfer ceiling

d)

Thrust ceiling

The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is: a)

125 ft/min

b)

100 ft/min

c)

0 ft/min

d)

500 ft/min

How does the thrust of a propeller vary during take-off run, assuming unstalled flow conditions at the propeller blades? The thrust a)

varies with mass changes only.

b)

has no change during take-off and climb.

c)

increases while the aeroplane speed builds up.

d)

decreases while the aeroplane speed builds up.

A twin engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed with take-off thrust on both engines. The critical engine suddenly fails. After stabilising the engine failure transient which parameter(s) must be maintainable? a)

Straight flight

b)

Straight flight and altitude

c)

Altitude

d)

Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min


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161.)

162.)

163.)

164.)

165.)

The speed V2 is a)

the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

b)

the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.

c)

that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure.

d)

the take-off safety speed.

Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or clearway ? a)

VMCG

b)

VMCA

c)

V1

d)

V2

What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain constant ? a)

The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.

b)

The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

c)

The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.

d)

The ROC and the ROC speed are independent of the mass.

The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise. a)

Depending on the OAT and net mass.

b)

Depending on density altitude and mass.

c)

Lower

d)

Higher

Approaching in turbulent wind conditions during manual flight requires a)

no change

b)

a steeper approach path

c)

an increase in VREF

d)

an increase in approach speed


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166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to: a)

180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.

b)

180 minutes flying time from a suitable airport in still air, with one engine inoperative.

c)

180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air, at the normal cruising speed.

d)

90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of a)

60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.

b)

60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

c)

75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

d)

30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.

(For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start at approximately 4 minutes at FL370? a)

All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.

b)

Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia involved.

c)

Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four minutes.

d)

Because at this mass it takes approximately 4 minutes to decelerate to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising level.

(For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C and PA 0 ft? a)

At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.

b)

At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.

c)

The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are temperature limited.

d)

At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.


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170.)

171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

(For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5) Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart? a)

There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.

b)

The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.

c)

The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.

d)

There is a built-in safety measure.

Field length is balanced when a)

take-off distance available equals accelerate stop distance available.

b)

one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.

c)

all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.

d)

calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1.

The second segment begins a)

when flaps are selected up.

b)

when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

c)

when flap retraction begins.

d)

when landing gear is fully retracted.

Which of the alternatives represents the correct relationship? a)

VMCG and V1 should not exceed VR

b)

VMCL and V1 should not exceed VR

c)

VMCA and V1 should not exceed V2

d)

V2 and V1 should not exceed VMCG

Take-off run is defined as the a)

distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.

b)

Distance from brake release to V2.

c)

horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.

d)

distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.


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175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

179.)

The minimum value of V2 must exceed VMC by: a)

30%

b)

20%

c)

15%

d)

10%

Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbo propeller powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? a)

Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.

b)

Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.

c)

Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

d)

Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).

For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles may be avoided a)

by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.

b)

by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

c)

by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.

d)

only by using standard turns.

Which of the following statements is correct ? a)

An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off.

b)

A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off.

c)

If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.

d)

A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.

According to JAR 25 the landing reference speed VREF may not be less than a)

1.2 VMCA

b)

1.23 VSRO for turbojet powered and 1.30 for turboprop powered aeroplanes

c)

VSRO and must be maintained down to 35 ft height

d)

1.23 VSRO and must be maintained down to 50 ft height


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180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

184.)

During take-off the third segment begins: a)

when landing gear is fully retracted.

b)

when flap retraction is completed.

c)

when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.

d)

when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.

Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)? a)

VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes

b)

The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient

c)

The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA

d)

Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed.

Which of the following will decrease V1? a)

Inoperative flight management system.

b)

Increased take-off mass.

c)

Inoperative anti-skid.

d)

Increased outside air temperature.

Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-off ? a)

Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components.

b)

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.

c)

Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.

d)

Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components.

According to JAR-OPS 1, for turbo-prop aeroplanes, the required runway length at a destination airport is: a)

less then that required at an alternate airport.

b)

more than that required at an alternate airport.

c)

the same as that required at an alternate airport.

d)

60% greater than that required at an alternate airport


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185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in: a)

a better climb and an equal take-off distance.

b)

a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

c)

a longer take-off distance and a better climb.

d)

a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.

The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with JAR 25, the following margins above reference stall speed in landing configuration: a)

15%

b)

20%

c)

10%

d)

23%

If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is a)

lower with a forward centre of gravity position.

b)

higher with a forward centre of gravity position.

c)

lower with an aft centre of gravity position.

d)

independent from the centre of gravity position.

(For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24) With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross weight at engine failure" ? a)

The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.

b)

The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.

c)

This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.

d)

The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C.


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189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

(For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.28) What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative? Elevation: 2000 ft QNH: 1013 hPa Landing mass: 50 000 kg Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance Runway condition: dry Wind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt, Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt a)

3100 m.

b)

2600 m.

c)

2900 m.

d)

2700 m.

(For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2) With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-off power is set? a)

Performance will be better than in the chart.

b)

No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.

c)

It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.

d)

Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.

(For this question use annex 032-4744A) Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean" configuration? a)

a

b)

d

c)

b

d)

c

What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'? a)

The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.

b)

The aeroplane will not stall.

c)

The speed is unstable.

d)

The altitude cannot be maintained.


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193.)

194.)

195.)

196.)

197.)

What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane? a)

The speed for best angle of descent increases.

b)

The gliding angle decreases.

c)

The lift/drag ratio decreases.

d)

There is no effect.

Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ? a)

the thrust

b)

the drag

c)

the lift

d)

the resultant from lift and drag

In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required equal to the drag? a)

In accelerated level flight

b)

In a climb with constant IAS

c)

In a descent with constant TAS

d)

In level flight with constant IAS

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on a)

the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

b)

the bank angle only.

c)

the true airspeed and the bank angle.

d)

the radius of the turn and the bank angle.

The induced drag of an aeroplane a)

decreases with increasing gross weight.

b)

increases with increasing airspeed.

c)

decreases with increasing airspeed.

d)

is independent of the airspeed.


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198.)

199.)

200.)

201.)

202.)

The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant mass in un-accelerated level flight is highest at: a)

VMO

b)

VS1

c)

VA

d)

the lowest achievable speed at a given configuration

The lowest point of the thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane is the point for: a)


b)

minimum drag.

c)

minimum specific range.

d)

maximum endurance.

The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is a)

on the "back side" of the drag curve.

b)

at stalling speed (VS).

c)

the lowest point of the drag curve.

d)

the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.

The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which "power required" is minimum a)

is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.

b)

is the same as the minimum drag speed.

c)

is always lower than the minimum drag speed.

d)

is always higher than the minimum drag speed.

The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve a)

is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.

b)

is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.

c)

is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.

d)

is the maximum drag speed.


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203.)

204.)

205.)

206.)

207.)

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass a)

the airspeed and the drag will be increased.

b)

the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.

c)

the lift/drag ratio must be increased.

d)

the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher gross mass a)

requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.

b)

a higher coefficient of drag is required.

c)

an increase in airspeed and power is required.

d)

an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change.

An aeroplane with reciprocating engines is flying at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration. With increasing altitude the drag a)

increases at constant TAS.

b)

decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density.

c)

remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

d)

remains unchanged but the CAS increases.

On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and configuration the power required a)

decreases slightly because of the lower air density.

b)

increases but TAS remains constant.

c)

increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.

d)

remains unchanged but the TAS increases.

Moving the centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged) a)

increases the induced drag.

b)

increases the power required.

c)

affects neither drag nor power required.

d)

decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.


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208.)

209.)

210.)

211.)

212.)

The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit a)

improves the maximum range.

b)

decreases the maximum range.

c)

increases the stalling speed.

d)

improves the longitudinal stability.

The critical engine inoperative a)

does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant.

b)

decreases the power required and increases the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.

c)

increases the power required and the total drag due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the compensation of the yaw moment.

d)

increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine.

The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet a)

decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.

b)

increases with increasing mass.

c)

is only limiting at low altitudes.

d)

decreases with increasing mass and increasing altitude.

The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet a)

has to be considered at take-off and landing.

b)

exists only above MMO.

c)

can be reduced by increasing the load factor.

d)

limits the manoeuvring load factor at high altitudes.

Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating? a)

Maximum Take-off Thrust

b)

Go-Around Thrust

c)

Maximum Cruise Thrust

d)

Maximum Continuous Thrust


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213.)

214.)

215.)

216.)

217.)

At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine a)

increases with decreasing OAT.

b)


c)

increases slightly with increasing airspeed.

d)

decreases slightly with increasing airspeed.

At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine a)

decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

b)

are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).

c)

increase with increasing altitude.

d)

increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature.

The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM a)

increases in proportion to the airspeed.

b)

is inversely proportional to the airspeed.

c)


d)

does not change with changing altitude.

The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating points of the aeroplane a)

in descent with constant IAS.

b)

in unaccelerated climb.

c)

in unaccelerated level flight.

d)

in accelerated level flight.

In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag: a)

the aeroplane cannot be controlled manually.

b)

a lower speed requires a higher thrust.

c)

the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.

d)

a higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag requires a higher thrust.


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218.)

219.)

220.)

221.)

222.)

A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires a)

more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.

b)

a higher coefficient of lift.

c)

less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

d)

more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift.

A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires a)

a lower angle of attack.

b)

a higher angle of attack.

c)

a lower coefficient of lift.

d)

a lower coefficient of drag.

When flying the "Backside of Thrust curve" means a)

the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.

b)

a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.

c)

a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.

d)

a lower airspeed requires more thrust.

"Maximum endurance" a)

is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.

b)

is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.

c)

can be flown in a steady climb only.

d)

can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.

The speed for maximum endurance a)

is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range.

b)

is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.

c)

is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.

d)

can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range.


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223.)

224.)

225.)

226.)

Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? a)

SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow

b)

SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow

c)

SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow

d)

SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow

Long range cruise is selected as a)

the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind.

b)

the speed for best economy.

c)

the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.

d)

specific range with tailwind.

The optimum altitude a)

decreases as mass decreases.

b)

is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.

c)

increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum.

d)

is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be a)

equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.

b)

higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.

c)

lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.

d)

reduced to the gust penetration speed.


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227.)

228.)

229.)

230.)

The take-off run is a)

1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.

b)

the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.

c)

the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

d)

1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take-off distance available ? a)

Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.

b)

No, unless its centreline is on the extended centreline of the runway.

c)

No.

d)

Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane.

May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ? a)

Yes.

b)

Only for take-off.

c)

Only for landing.

d)

No.

In case of an engine failure recognized below V1 a)

the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

b)

the take-off must be rejected.

c)

the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.

d)

the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.


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231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

235.)

In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1 a)

a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance.

b)

the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.

c)

the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.

d)

the take-off must be continued.

The take-off distance available is a)

the runway length plus half of the clearway.

b)

the runway length minus stopway.

c)

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.

d)

the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is a)

a higher V1.

b)

an increased acceleration.

c)

a longer take-off run.

d)

a shorter ground roll.

Reduced take-off thrust a)

has the benefit of improving engine life.

b)

is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).

c)

can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.

d)

can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass.

How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ? a)

Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.

b)

Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.

c)

Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.

d)

Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.


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236.)

237.)

238.)

239.)

240.)

A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature a)

decreases the field length limited take-off mass.

b)

has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

c)

increases the climb limited take-off mass.

d)

decreases the take-off distance.

A higher outside air temperature (OAT) a)

decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.

b)

increases the climb limited take-off mass.

c)

decreases the take-off distance.

d)

increases the field length limited take-off mass.

The take-off distance required increases a)

due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.

b)

due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.

c)

due to slush on the runway.

d)

due to lower gross mass at take-off.

Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be a)

unaffected.

b)

higher.

c)

only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

d)

lower.

On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased a)

by headwind.

b)

by uphill slope.

c)

by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1.

d)

by low outside air temperature.


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241.)

242.)

243.)

244.)

245.)

Uphill slope a)

increases the allowed take-off mass.

b)

decreases the take-off distance only.

c)

decreases the accelerate stop distance only.

d)

increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.

A balanced V1 is obtained when: a)

a stopway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.

b)

a clearway is used to obtain the highest runway length limited take off mass.

c)

the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.

d)

it is equal to V2.

A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: a)

The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

b)

The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

c)

The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.

d)

The clearway does not equal the stopway.

V2 has to be equal to or higher than a)

1.1 VMCA.

b)

1.15 VMCG.

c)

1.1 VSO.

d)

1.15 VR.

V1 has to be a)

equal to or higher than V2.

b)

higher than VR.

c)

equal to or higher than VMCA.

d)

equal to or higher than VMCG.


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246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

250.)

The speed VR a)

must be higher than V2.

b)

must be higher than VLOF.

c)

must be equal to or lower than V1.

d)

is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope would a)

have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.

b)

increase the maximum mass for take-off.

c)

decrease the required take-off distance.

d)

decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would a)

decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

b)

have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.

c)

increase the maximum mass for take-off.

d)

increase the required take-off distance.

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends a)

at completion of gear retraction.

b)

at completion of flap retraction.

c)

at 35 ft above the runway.

d)

at reaching V2.

The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by a)

selecting a lower VR.

b)

selecting a lower V1.

c)

a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.

d)

selecting a lower V2.


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251.)

252.)

253.)

254.)

In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed a)

10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft.

b)


c)


d)

15 degrees up to height of 400 ft.

You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ? a)

During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.

b)

The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to constant IAS.

c)

No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)

d)

The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the constant Mach-climb.

If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude will be a)

only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

b)

unchanged.

c)

higher.

d)

lower.

The optimum cruise altitude is a)

the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.

b)

the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.

c)

the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

d)

the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.


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255.)

256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

The optimum cruise altitude increases a)

if the temperature (OAT) is increased.

b)

if the aeroplane mass is decreased.

c)

if the tailwind component is decreased.

d)

if the aeroplane mass is increased.

Below the optimum cruise altitude a)

the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

b)

the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

c)

the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude.

d)

the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.

Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ? a)

If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.

b)

If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).

c)

If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected.

d)

If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be followed? a)

Emergency Descent Procedure.

b)

Long Range Cruise Descent.

c)

Drift Down Procedure.

d)

ETOPS.

'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied a)

to conduct a visual approach with one engine out.

b)

after cabin depressurization.

c)

to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.

d)

after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude.


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260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

264.)

If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down procedure a)

fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.

b)

the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.

c)

the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.

d)

fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.

Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? a)

The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.

b)

The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.

c)

The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.

d)

The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.

Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? a)

A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.

b)

A tailwind component increases the ground distance.

c)

A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.

d)

A headwind component increases the ground distance.

The maximum mass for landing could be limited by a)

the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.

b)

the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.

c)

the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.

d)

the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.

The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus a)

43%

b)

67%

c)

92%

d)

70%


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265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus a)

67%

b)

43%

c)

92%

d)

70%

On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is: a)

The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.

b)

The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.

c)

The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.

d)

The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.

With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is (assume altitude remains constant) a)

first improved and later reduced.

b)

not affected.

c)

improved.

d)

reduced.

In unaccelerated climb a)

thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

b)

lift is greater than the gross weight.

c)

lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.

d)

thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.


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269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

273.)

What is the equation for the climb gradient expressed in percentage during unaccelerated flight (applicable to small angles only) a)

Climb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100

b)

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100

c)

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100

d)

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100

The rate of climb a)

is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

b)

is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.

c)

is angle of climb times true airspeed.

d)

is the downhill component of the true airspeed.

If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight a)

the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.

b)

the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.

c)

the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.

d)

the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.

Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting, a)

decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.

b)

improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.

c)

decreases rate of climb and increases angle of climb.

d)

improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.

As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb a)

VY is always above VMO.

b)

VX may be greater or less than VY depending on altitude

c)

VX is always above VY.

d)

VX is always below VY.


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274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

278.)

The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass a)

is independent of altitude.

b)

increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.

c)

increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.

d)

decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to the lower air density.

The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of a)

rate of climb to true airspeed.

b)

the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage.

c)

the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage.

d)

true airspeed to rate of climb.

Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of climb whereas a)

VY and VX are decreased.

b)

VY and VX are increased.

c)

VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.

d)

VX is increased and VY is decreased.

A higher outside air temperature a)

does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance.

b)

reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

c)

reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

d)

increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb.

A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is constant) a)

has no effect on rate of climb.

b)

decreases angle and rate of climb.

c)

improves angle and rate of climb.

d)

does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb.


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279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

A constant headwind a)

increases the angle of the descent flight path.

b)

increases the angle of descent.

c)

increases the descent distance over ground.

d)

increases the rate of descent.

When compared to still air conditions, a constant headwind component: a)

increases the best rate of climb.

b)

increases the angle of flight path during climb.

c)

decreases the angle of climb.

d)

increases the maximum endurance.

The speed V1 is defined as a)

take-off climb speed.

b)

engine failure speed.

c)

speed for best angle of climb.

d)

take-off decision speed.

The speed VSR is defined as a)

speed for best specific range.

b)

design stress speed.

c)

safe rotation speed for take-off .

d)

as reference stall speed and may not be less than 1-g stall speed.

The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as a)

take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.

b)

critical engine failure speed.

c)

take-off decision speed.

d)

lift off speed.


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284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

288.)

The speed VLO is defined as a)

lift off speed.

b)

landing gear operating speed.

c)

design low operating speed.

d)

long distance operating speed.

VX is a)

the speed for best rate of climb.

b)

the speed for best angle of climb.

c)

the speed for best specific range.

d)

the speed for best angle of flight path.

The speed for best rate of climb is called a)

VX.

b)

VO.

c)

VY.

d)

V2.

The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as a)

VSO.

b)

VS.

c)

VMC.

d)

VS1.

The absolute ceiling a)

is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.

b)

is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.

c)

can be reached only with minimum steady flight speed

d)

is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%


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289.)

290.)

291.)

292.)

The aerodynamic ceiling a)

is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.

b)

is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero.

c)

is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed buffet are the same.

d)

depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust.

The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin a)

is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.

b)

is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.

c)

is dependent on the OAT.

d)

is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.

Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ? a)

To respect ATC flight level constraints.

b)

Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected.

c)

Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes; they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only.

d)

To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.

(For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given: O.A.T: 27 °C Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2900 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a)

approximately: 1370 feet

b)


c)


d)



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293.)

294.)

295.)

(For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given: O.A.T: ISA +15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Tailwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft Given: O.A.T: ISA Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a)


b)

approximately:1150 feet

c)


d)


(For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given: O.A.T: 0°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: Tarred and Dry a)


b)


c)


d)



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296.)

297.)

(For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height of 50 ft . Given: O.A.T: ISA +15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs Headwind component: 10 kt Flaps: Landing position (down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soil Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38 a)


b)


c)


d)

approximately:1794 feet

(For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft . Given: O.A.T: 30°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3450 lbs Tailwind component: 2.5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry a)


b)


c)


d)



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298.)

299.)

300.)

(For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the maximum allowable take off mass . Given: O.A.T: ISA Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry Factored runway length: 2000 ft Obstacle height: 50 ft a)

> 3650 lbs

b)

2900 lbs

c)

3240 lbs

d)

3000 lbs

(For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given: O.A.T: -7°C Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Tarred and Dry a)

approximately: 1150 ft

b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft. Given: O.A.T: ISA+10°C Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs Headwind component: 5 kt Flaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry a)

73 and 84 KIAS

b)

71 and 82 KIAS

c)

68 and 78 KIAS

d)

65 and 75 KIAS


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301.)

302.)

303.)

(For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft. Given: O.A.T: 38°C Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Dry Grass Correction factor: 1.2 a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the rate of climb. Given : O.A.T : ISA + 15°C Pressure Altitude: 0 ft Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs Flaps: up Speed: 100 KIAS a)

1370 ft/min

b)

1290 ft/min

c)

1150 ft/min

d)

1210 ft/min

(For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2) With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height. Given: O.A.T: 30°C Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs Tailwind component: 5 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions) a)

1900 ft

b)

2375 ft

c)

1600 ft

d)

2000 ft


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304.)

305.)

306.)

(For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T. at take-off: 25°C Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs Speed: 100 KIAS Wind component: 15 kts Headwind a)

21 505 ft

b)

18 347 ft

c)

24 637 ft

d)

18 832 ft

(For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T at Take-off: ISA Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs Speed: 100 KIAS Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind a)

18 909 ft

b)

18 073 ft

c)

16 665 ft

d)

20 109 ft

(For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T at Take-off: ISA Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs Speed: 100 KIAS a)

1030 ft/min and 8,4%

b)


c)

1310 ft/min and 11,3%

d)



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307.)

308.)

309.)

(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 13°C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300 a)

22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr

b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 13°C Pressure altitude: 8000 ft RPM: 2300 a)

159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr

b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1) Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the following conditions: Given: OAT: 3°C Pressure altitude: 6000 ft Power: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM a)


b)


c)


d)



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310.)

311.)

312.)

(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T.: ISA +16°C Pressure altitude: 4000 ft Power: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM a)

865 NM

b)

851 NM

c)

911 NM

d)

739 NM

(For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagram, for the single engine aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given: O.A.T.: ISA -15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ft Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM a)

860 NM

b)

875 NM

c)

902 NM

d)

908 NM

(For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Using the Landing Diagram, for single engine aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following conditions: Given: Pressure altitude: 4000 ft O.A.T.: 5°C Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs Headwind component: 15 kt Flaps: Approach setting Runway: tarred and dry Landing gear: down a)

1550 ft

b)

1400 ft

c)

880 ft

d)

1020 ft


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313.)

314.)

315.)

316.)

317.)

The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: a)

climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude.

b)

weight during landing at the alternate.

c)

engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs.

d)

obstacle clearance after engine failure.

The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: a)

manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.

b)

minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.

c)

manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

d)

obstacle clearance in the approach area.

Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct? a)

The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maintain the same safety margins as for a dry runway

b)

Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

c)

A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties

d)

In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used

Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram is correct? a)

Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed

b)

Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx

c)

Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx

d)

Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed

Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind) a)

Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

b)

Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.

c)

Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.

d)

No difference.


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318.)

319.)

320.)

321.)

When determining the maximum landing mass of an turbojet powered aeroplane during the planning phase what factor must be used on the landing distance available (dry runway) a)

115/100

b)

1.67

c)

0.60

d)

60/115

Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is correct? a)

The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.

b)

The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.

c)

The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.

d)

The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.

In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engine aeroplane only depends on: a)

speed and mass.

b)

speed, mass and fuel on board.

c)

altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.

d)

altitude, speed and mass.

Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb? a)

V2.

b)

The speed for maximum rate of climb.

c)

V2 + 10 kt.

d)

The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum.


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322.)

323.)

324.)

325.)

Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct? a)

An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest specific range.

b)

An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.

c)

An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive from an economy point of view.

d)

An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.

Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment ? a)

There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height.

b)

The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines operating.

c)

The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.

d)

The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.

Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope... a)

increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

b)

increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

c)

reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).

d)

reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).

If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance calculations may allow a)

the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1

b)

a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1

c)

the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1

d)

a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1


page: 76

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


326.)

327.)

328.)

329.)

The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component? a)

The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.

b)

None.

c)

The climb limited take-off mass would increase.

d)

The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off flight path.

Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct? a)

A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.

b)

There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.

c)

The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.

d)

The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.

According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct? a)

The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full stop.

b)

Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length.

c)

Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the landing distance required.

d)

When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of the available landing runway length should be taken into account.

Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct? a)

An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.

b)

The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.

c)

When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.

d)

The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.


page: 77

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


330.)

331.)

332.)

333.)

In accordance with JAR 25 the take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may not be less than: a)

1.2 VSR

b)

1.13 VSR

c)

VSR

d)

1.08 VSR

The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engine or three-engine turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be less than: a)

1.2 Vs

b)

1.15 Vs1

c)

1.15 Vs

d)

1.3 Vs

On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient? a)

102150 kg

b)

121310 kg

c)

106425 kg

d)

118455 kg

Which statement regarding V1 is correct ? a)

VR may not be lower than V1

b)

The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative

c)

V1 may not be higher than Vmcg

d)

When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric engines


page: 78

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


334.)

335.)

336.)

337.)

Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ? a)

Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3g buffet onset requirements.

b)

A step climb provides better economy than a optimum cruise.

c)

In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.

d)

A step climb can only be performed when the altitude exceeds the one engine out service ceiling.

Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following limitations with flap 10° selected: - runway limit: 5 270 kg - obstacle limit: 4 630 kg Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg. Considering a take-off with flaps at: a)

20°, both limitations are increased

b)

20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases

c)

5°, both limitations are increased

d)

5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases

A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately: a)

3,30 m/s

b)

3 300 ft/min

c)

33,0 m/s

d)

330 ft/min

Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient. It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of: a)

100 m

b)

It will not clear the obstacle

c)

115 m

d)

85 m


page: 79

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JAR-ATPL


338.)

339.)

340.)

A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow. The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry runway: a)

increased

b)

unchanged

c)

reduced

d)

substantially decreased

The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections: "± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation" "± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature" " - 1 % with wing anti-ice" " - 0,5% with engine anti-ice" The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is: a)

3,9 %

b)

4,3 %

c)

4,7 %

d)

4,9 %

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have: a)

a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

b)

an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

c)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

d)

an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance


page: 80

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JAR-ATPL


341.)

342.)

343.)

344.)

The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections: "± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " "- 5 m / kt headwind " "+ 10 m / kt tail wind " "± 15 m / % runway slope " "± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature " The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is: a)

810 m

b)

970 m

c)

870 m

d)

890 m

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a)


b)

an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance

c)

a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance

d)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a)

a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

b)

a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

c)

an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

d)

an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: a)

a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance

b)

a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

c)

an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance

d)

an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance


page: 81

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JAR-ATPL


345.)

346.)

347.)

348.)

The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Using the following corrections: "± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation" "- 5 m / kt headwind" "+ 10 m / kt tail wind" "± 15 m / % runway slope" "± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature" The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is: a)

715 m

b)

685 m

c)

555 m

d)

755 m

An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have: a)

a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance

b)

an increased landing distance and better go-around performance

c)


d)

a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance

The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be: a)

Unchanged

b)

Improved

c)

Degraded

d)

Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted

A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be: a)

decreased

b)

increased

c)

very significantly decreased

d)

unchanged


page: 82

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JAR-ATPL


349.)

350.)

351.)

352.)

Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%. It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 5 000m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance margin of: a)

90 m

b)

it will not clear the obstacle

c)

75 m

d)

105 m

The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg. If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be: a)

only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than 4000 m.

b)

higher than 4 000 m.

c)

less than 4 000 m.

d)

unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.

The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in: a)

an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.

b)

same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.

c)

same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.

d)

an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.

With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about: a)

8%

b)

3°

c)

5°

d)

3%


page: 83

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353.)

354.)

355.)

356.)

On a twin engine piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt. The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed: a)

inferior to 95 kts

b)

equal to 95 kt

c)

is between 95 and 125 kt

d)

equal to 125 kt

If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing distance must be increased by: a)

20 %

b)

15 %

c)

5%

d)

10 %

At a given mass, the reference stall speed of a twin engine turboprop aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: a)

125 kt

b)

120 kt

c)

115 kt

d)

123 kt

(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex. Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway Actual conditions are: pressure altitude: 1 500 ft outside temperature: +18°C wind component: 4 knots tailwind For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will be: a)

525 m

b)

615 m

c)

415 m

d)

440 m

Lösungen


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032-6579 A, 6581 A, 6582 A, 6583 A

4. CRUISE 4. 1 Requirements The aeroplane may not be assumed to be flying above the altitude at which a rate of climb of 300 ft/minute is attained. The net gradient of descent, in the event of engine failure, is the gross gradient +0,5%.

032-6584 A, 6585 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING Figure 2.2

DATA SHEET SEP 1

RECOMMENDED CRUISE POWER SETTINGS

TABLE 2.2.3

20° C LEAN

23.0 IN. HG (OR FULL THROTTLE) @ 2300 RPM Of Peak EGT

CRUISE LEAN MIXTURE 3400 Ibs. Press. Alt.

ISA 20° C (ISA 36° F)

Standard Day (ISA)

ISA + 20° C (ISA + 36° F)

NOTES:

IOAT

Man. Press.

Fuel Flow

Air Speed

Feet

°C

°F

IN. HG

PPH

GPH

KIAS

KTAS

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

-3 -7 -11 -15 -18 -23 -17 -31 -35

26 20 13 6 -1 -9 -16 -23 -31

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 16.4

67.6 69.7 72.1 74.4 73.8 68.4 63.8 60.0 56.3

11.3 11.6 12.0 12.4 12.3 11.4 10.6 10.0 9.4

152 152 153 153 150 143 135 127 117

144 149 154 158 160 157 153 148 141

65.4 67.4 69.4 71.7 71.1 66.2 61.8 58.5 55.3

10.9 11.2 11.6 12.0 11.9 11.0 10.3 9.8 9.2

147 147 148 148 145 137 129 120 109

145 149 154 159 160 157 152 146 137

63.2 65.1 67.1 69.0 68.5 64.0 60.0 57.1 -

10.5 10.9 11.2 11.5 11.4 10.7 10.0 9.5 -

142 143 143 142 140 132 123 113 -

145 149 154 158 160 156 151 142 -

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16,000

17 13 9 5 2 -3 -7 -11 -15

62 56 49 42 35 27 20 13 5

37 33 29 25 22 17 13 9 -

98 92 85 78 71 63 56 48

-

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2

17.8 16.4

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 -

1. Full throttle manifold pressure settings are approximate. 2. Shaded area represents Operation with full throttle. 3. Fuel flows are to be used for flight planning only and will vary from aeroplane to aeroplane. Lean using the EGT.

032-6586 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING Figure 2.3

DATA SHEET SEP 1

ECONOMY CRUISE POWER SETTINGS

TABLE 2.3.1

20° C LEAN



ISA 20° C (ISA 36° F)

Standard Day (ISA)

ISA + 20° C (ISA + 36° F)

NOTES:

IOAT

Man. Press.

Fuel Flow

Air Speed

Feet

°C

°F

IN. HG

PPH

GPH

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

-4 -8 -11 -15 -19 -23 -27 -31 -35

25 18 12 5 -2 -9 -17 -24 -32

21.0 21.0 21.0 21.0 21.0 20.8 19.3 17.9 16.5

52.7 54.0 55.4 56.9 58.9 60.1 56.7 54.5 52.2

8.8 9.0 9.2 9.5 9.8 10.0 9.5 9.1 8.7

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16,000

16 12 9 5 1 -3 -7 -11 -

61 54 48 41 34 27 19 12 -

36 32 29 25 21 17 13 -

97 90 83 77 70 63 55 -

-

21.0 21.0 21.0 21.0 21.0 20.8 19.3

17.9 -

21.0 21.0 21.0 21.0 21.0 20.8 19.3 -

KIAS

KTAS

126 128 130 131 132 132 123 113 95

120 125 130 136 141 144 139 132 114

51.8 53.1 54.4 55.7 57.3 58.5 55.6 53.5 -

8.6 8.9 9.1 9.3 9.6 9.8 9.3 8.9 -

120 123 124 125 126 126 116 103 -

118 124 129 134 140 143 137 125 -

50.8 52.1 53.4 54.7 55.9 56.8 54.5 -

8.65 8.7 8.9 9.1 9.3 9.5 9.1 -

114 116 118 119 120 119 108 -

115 121 127 132 137 141 131 -

1. Full throttle manifold pressure settings are approximate. 2. Shaded area represents Operation with full throttle. 3. Fuel flows are to be used for flight planning only and will vary from aeroplane to aeroplane. Lean using the EGT.

032-6587 A, 6588 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING

DATA SHEET SEP 1

4. RANGE PROFILE The graph at Figure 2.4 (page 9) provides a simple and rapid means of determining the still air range (nautical air miles) for the sample aeroplane. An example of the use of the graph is shown. Note that the figures make allowance for the taxi, run-up and 45 minutes reserve fuel. Figure 2. 4

RANGE

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287: A (1 Pkt.)

326: B (1 Pkt.)

249: A (1 Pkt.)

288: A (1 Pkt.)

327: C (1 Pkt.)

250: C (1 Pkt.)

289: C (1 Pkt.)

328: D (1 Pkt.)

251: D (1 Pkt.)

290: B (1 Pkt.)

329: C (1 Pkt.)

252: D (1 Pkt.)

291: D (1 Pkt.)

330: D (1 Pkt.)

253: D (1 Pkt.)

292: D (2 Pkt.)

331: A (1 Pkt.)

254: A (1 Pkt.)

293: B (2 Pkt.)

332: D (1 Pkt.)

255: B (1 Pkt.)

294: D (2 Pkt.)

333: A (1 Pkt.)

256: C (1 Pkt.)

295: D (2 Pkt.)

334: A (1 Pkt.)

257: C (1 Pkt.)

296: D (2 Pkt.)

335: D (1 Pkt.)

258: C (1 Pkt.)

297: C (2 Pkt.)

336: D (1 Pkt.)

259: D (1 Pkt.)

298: C (2 Pkt.)

337: C (2 Pkt.)

260: A (1 Pkt.)

299: C (2 Pkt.)

338: A (1 Pkt.)

261: B (1 Pkt.)

300: B (1 Pkt.)

339: A (1 Pkt.)

262: B (1 Pkt.)

301: D (2 Pkt.)

340: B (1 Pkt.)

263: A (1 Pkt.)

302: B (1 Pkt.)

341: B (1 Pkt.)

264: C (1 Pkt.)

303: B (2 Pkt.)

342: C (1 Pkt.)

265: C (1 Pkt.)

304: B (2 Pkt.)

343: C (1 Pkt.)

266: A (1 Pkt.)

305: C (1 Pkt.)

344: A (1 Pkt.)

267: D (1 Pkt.)

306: B (1 Pkt.)

345: D (1 Pkt.)

268: D (1 Pkt.)

307: B (1 Pkt.)

346: A (1 Pkt.)

269: D (1 Pkt.)

308: B (1 Pkt.)

347: C (1 Pkt.)

270: B (1 Pkt.)

309: C (1 Pkt.)

348: B (1 Pkt.)

271: C (1 Pkt.)

310: A (1 Pkt.)

349: D (2 Pkt.)

272: A (1 Pkt.)

311: C (1 Pkt.)

350: B (1 Pkt.)

273: D (1 Pkt.)

312: B (2 Pkt.)

351: A (1 Pkt.)

274: D (1 Pkt.)

313: D (1 Pkt.)

352: B (1 Pkt.)

275: B (1 Pkt.)

314: B (1 Pkt.)

353: B (1 Pkt.)

276: B (1 Pkt.)

315: C (1 Pkt.)

354: B (1 Pkt.)

277: C (1 Pkt.)

316: D (1 Pkt.)

355: D (1 Pkt.)

278: A (1 Pkt.)

317: B (1 Pkt.)

356: A (2 Pkt.)


page: 87

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 033-FPLN

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be: a)

0.80

b)

0.78

c)

0.72

d)

0.76

On a given path, it is possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0 The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is: a)

FL330

b)

FL270

c)

FL290

d)

FL370

A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines, the final reserve should be: a)

fuel to fly for 1 hour at holding speed

b)

fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed

c)

fuel to fly for 2 hours

d)

fuel to fly for 45 minutes

In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: a)

30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B

b)

30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B

c)

15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A

d)

30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome A


page: 1

C.A.T. 005.)

006.)

007.)

JAR-ATPL


The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? a)

13 000 kg

b)

13 230 kg

c)

14 730 kg

d)

11 730 kg

For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given: Taxi fuel 600 kg Fuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/h Fuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/h Alternate fuel 10 200 kg Planned flight time to destination 6 h Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m The minimum ramp fuel required is: a)

77 800 kg

b)

76 100 kg

c)

79 200 kg

d)

80 500 kg

If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of minutes is: a)

10

b)

30

c)

15

d)

45


page: 2

C.A.T. 008.)

009.)

010.)

JAR-ATPL


A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a rerouting of that flight to Limoges. a)

The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival.

b)

The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed.

c)

The airline's "Operations " Department has to transmit a change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure.

d)

It is not possible to plan another destination and the flight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered).

From the options given below select those flights which require ATC flight plan notification: I - Any Public Transport flight. 2 - Any IFR flight 3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue. 4 - Any cross-border flights 5 - Any flight which involves overflying water a)

1,5

b)

2,4

c)

3,4,5

d)

1,2,3

An aircraft flies at a TAS of 380 kt. It flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant. The duration of the flight will be: a)

2h 35min

b)

3h 00min

c)

2h 10min

d)

2h 32min


page: 3

C.A.T. 011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

JAR-ATPL


On an ATC flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked "speed" the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is: a)

The estimated ground speed

b)

The indicated airspeed

c)

The equivalent airspeed

d)

The true airspeed

Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be: a)

at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time

b)

at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so require

c)

laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in the operating manual

d)

at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time

During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the ground station and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is: a)

123.9 MHz.

b)

17286 kHz.

c)

11336 kHz.

d)

5649 kHz.

An aeroplane has the following masses: ESTLWT= 50 000 kg Trip fuel= 4 300 kg Contingency fuel= 215 kg Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg Taxi= 500 kg Block fuel= 7 115 kg Before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9 000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: a)

6 185 kg.

b)

6 400 kg.

c)

4 300 kg.

d)

9 000 kg.


page: 4

C.A.T. 015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

JAR-ATPL


According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA? a)

8800 ft.

b)

12800 ft.

c)

8200 ft.

d)

8500 ft.

During a flight the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel? a)

12 minutes.

b)

4 minutes.

c)

44 minutes.

d)

63 minutes.

During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the ATC flight plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-RAC, are: a)

TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes.

b)

TAS 5% and time 3 minutes.

c)

TAS 3% and time 3 minutes.

d)

TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.

How many hours in advance of EOBT should a ATC flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a)

1:00 hour.

b)

3:00 hours.

c)

0:30 hours.

d)

2 hours.


page: 5

C.A.T. 019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

JAR-ATPL


A "current flight plan" is a: a)

filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.

b)

flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC.

c)

filed flight plan.

d)

flight plan with the correct time of departure.

Which of the following statements regarding filing a ATC flight plan is correct? a)

A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed.

b)

A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.

c)

In case of ATFM (Air Traffic Flow Management) the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in advance of the EOBT.

d)

Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.

An aircraft is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible? a)

No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan.

b)

No, only ATC can order you to do this.

c)

Yes, but only with permission from ATC.

d)

Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "cancelling my IFR flight".

You have an ATC flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight planned route. Which of the following statements is correct? a)

The filed deviation is not accepted.

b)

You will get a separate clearance for the deviation.

c)

The route according to the flight plan is accepted.

d)

It is not allowed to file such a flight plan.


page: 6

C.A.T. 023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

JAR-ATPL


Mark the correct statement: If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning, a)

the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate.

b)

the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point.

c)

the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point.

d)

a destination alternate is not required.

An operator shall ensure that calculation of usable fuel for an IFR-flight with a turbojet aeroplane for which no destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for: a)

45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours whichever is less

b)

45 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions

c)

45 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions

d)

2 hours at normal cruise consumption

VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than a)

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.

b)

the highest obstacle.

c)

2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.

d)

500 ft above the highest obstacle.

How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Given: FL 75; departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft; QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1 hPa = 30 ft a)

6300 ft.

b)

6600 ft.

c)

7800 ft.

d)

6000 ft.


page: 7

C.A.T. 027.)

028.)

029.)

JAR-ATPL


The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: a)

Variable with wind velocity.

b)

60 min.

c)

45 min.

d)

30 min.

Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg The estimated landing mass at alternate should be: a)

42312 kg.

b)

42210 kg.

c)

42093 kg.

d)

42195 kg.

Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg Traffic Load= 8110 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg The estimated landing mass at alternate should be: a)

41110 kg.

b)

42210 kg.

c)

42195 kg.

d)

42312 kg.


page: 8

C.A.T. 030.)

031.)

032.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Traffic Load= 7600 kg Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg Alternate fuel= 1100 kg Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is correct? a)

Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.

b)

Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.

c)

Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg.

d)

Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.

Given: Fuel density = 0,78 kg/l Dry operating mass = 33500 kg Traffic load = 10 600 kg Maximum allowable take-off mass = 66200 kg Taxi fuel = 200 kg Tank capacity = 22 500 Litres The maximum possible take-off fuel is: a)

17 350 kg

b)

21 900 kg

c)

17 550 kg

d)

22 100 kg

The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel. What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? a)

13370 kg.

b)

14500 kg.

c)

13000 kg.

d)

13220 kg.


page: 9

C.A.T. 033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

JAR-ATPL


The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane: -standard taxi fuel: 600 kg. -average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h. -holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h. -flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is: a)

79 800 kg

b)

77 200 kg

c)

74 800 kg

d)

77 800 kg

A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition to contingency reserves, additional fuel of: a)

3500 kg.

b)

1845 kg.

c)

8120 kg.

d)

7380 kg.

A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for: a)

15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

b)

30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.

c)

30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required.

d)

20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.

(For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1) A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) to another in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL 110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with mixture rich. a)

12 US gallon

b)

9 US gallon

c)

3 US gallon

d)

6 US gallon


page: 10

C.A.T. 037.)

038.)

039.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6) A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude 3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising level will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C. Calculate the still air descent distance for: 145 KIAS Rate of descent 1000 ft/min Gears and flaps up a)

36 NM

b)

20 NM

c)

29 NM

d)

25 NM

During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The reserve fuel is 12 US gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip. a)

21.3 US gallons/hour

b)


c)


d)


Given: maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200 kg maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900kg minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel: a)

11 100 kg

b)

8 600 kg

c)

14 400 kg

d)

11 400 kg


page: 11

C.A.T. 040.)

041.)

042.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL 330 initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg; leg flight time 29 min Find: fuel consumption for this leg a)

1 200 kg

b)

1 680 kg

c)

1 100 kg

d)

1 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC). Temp. ISA -5° C Take-off mass 56 000 kg Climb fuel 1 100 kg Find: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption: a)

437 NAM; 2100 kg

b)

345 NAM; 2000 kg

c)

350 NAM; 2000 kg

d)

345 NAM; 2100 kg

(For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg; initial cruise FL 280; average temperature during climb ISA -10°C; average head wind component 18 kt Find: climb time a)

15 min

b)

13 min

c)

11 min

d)

14 min


page: 12

C.A.T. 043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: brake release mass 57 500 kg temperature ISA -10°C; head wind component 16 kt initial FL 280 Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the climb a)

67 NAM; 71 NM

b)

62 NAM; 59 NM

c)

71 NAM;67 NM

d)

59 NAM;62 NM

(For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: mass at brake release 57 500 kg; temperature ISA -10°C; average head wind component 16 kt initial cruise FL 280 Find: climb fuel a)

1040 kg

b)

1238 kg

c)

1387 kg

d)

1138 kg

Given: true course (TC) 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt Find: wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS) a)

WCA -2° ; GS 396 kt

b)

WCA -2° ; GS 426 kt

c)

WCA +2° ; GS 416 kt

d)

WCA +2° ; GS 396 kt

(For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: FL 330; long range cruise; OAT -63°C; gross mass 50 500 kg. Find: true airspeed (TAS) a)

431 kt

b)

420 kt

c)

418 kt

d)

433 kt


page: 13

C.A.T. 047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3312A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR flight plan ? a)

FL 310

b)

FL 300

c)

FL 320

d)

FL 330

(For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aircraft has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg ? a)

64NM

b)

38 NM

c)

62NM

d)

100 NM

(For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aircraft has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find: 141°. This is: a)

The magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin.

b)

The magnetic course from Biggin to Abbeville.

c)

The radial, referenced to true north, of Biggin to fly inbound.

d)

The average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville.

(For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aircraft has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ? a)

The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north.

b)

The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends.

c)

The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200.

d)

The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg.


page: 14

C.A.T. 051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aircraft has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct? a)

The figure 13.4 means that the minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft.

b)

The figure 13.4 means that the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft.

c)

The figure 108 means that the minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10800 ft above MSL.

d)

The figure 13.4 means that the minimum grid safe altitude in this sector is 13400 ft above MSL.

(For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An aircraft has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That means: a)

VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation.

b)

VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used.

c)

Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned, VOR is not available.

d)

ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation.

(For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: long range cruise; outside air temperature (OAT) -45 ° C in FL 350; mass at the beginning of the leg 40 000 kg; mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg. Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM). a)

TAS 431 kt; 1163 NAM

b)

TAS 423 kt; 227 NAM

c)

TAS 431 kt; 227 NAM

d)

TAS 423 kt; 936 NAM

Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg; maximum landing mass 56200 kg; maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg; dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 14 500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg; minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg. Find: maximum additional load a)

3 000 kg

b)

7 000 kg

c)

4 000 kg

d)

5 600 kg


page: 15

C.A.T. 055.)

056.)

057.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B and 033-3320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2) Given: estimated take-off mass 57 000 kg; still air distance 150 NAM; outside air temperature (OAT) ISA -10K; cruise at 0.74 Mach. Find: cruise altitude and expected true airspeed a)

22 000 ft; 451 kt

b)

25 000 ft; 435 kt

c)

25 000 ft; 445 kt

d)

22 000 ft; 441 kt

(For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B) Given: estimated zero fuel mass 50 t; estimated landing mass at alternate 52 t; final reserve fuel 2 t; alternate fuel 1 t; flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: long range FL 330, outside air temperature -30 ° C. Find: estimated trip fuel and time a)

4 750 kg; 02: 00

b)

4 800 kg; 01: 45

c)

4 600 kg; 02: 05

d)

4 400 kg; 02: 05

(For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 14 500 kg; final reserve fuel 1200 kg; distance to alternate 95 NM; average true track 219°; head wind component 10 kt Find: fuel and time to alternate. a)

800 kg; 24 min

b)

1 100 kg; 44 min

c)

1 100 kg; 25 min

d)

800 kg; 40 min


page: 16

C.A.T. 058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600 NM; headwind component 50 kt; FL 330; cruise 0.78 Mach; ISA + 20 ° C; estimated landing weight 55000 kg . Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip time. a)

12 400 kg. 04h 12 min

b)

12 400 kg. 03h 55 min

c)

11 400 kg. 04h 12 min

d)

11 400 kg. 03h 55 min

(For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 12 000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg; elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft; elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft. Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and give the elevation which is relevant. a)

2 360 kg; destination elevation

b)

1 180 kg; alternate elevation

c)

1 180 kg; destination elevation

d)

2 360 kg; alternate elevation

The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons. Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ? a)

The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact

b)

At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons

c)

At destination the required reserves remain intact.

d)

At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks


page: 17

C.A.T. 061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2) A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is 123 US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power. a)

852 NM

b)

602 NM

c)

610 NM

d)

752 NM

Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: a)

true headings

b)

magnetic course

c)

magnetic headings

d)

true course

Flight planning chart for an aircraft states, that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60kt ? a)

228 NM

b)

128 NM

c)

193 NM

d)

157 NM

You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ? a)

262°

b)

224°

c)

242°

d)

280°


page: 18

C.A.T. 065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

JAR-ATPL


The purpose of the decision point procedure is: a)

to increase the safety of the flight.

b)

to reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.

c)

to reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load.

d)

to increase the amount of extra fuel.

When using decision point procedure, you reduce the a)

reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%.

b)

holding fuel by 30%.

c)

contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision point and destination.

d)

contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport and destination.

If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at: a)

1203 UTC

b)

1221 UTC

c)

1233 UTC

d)

1213 UTC

If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is: a)

167 NM

b)

203 NM

c)

183 NM

d)

147 NM


page: 19

C.A.T. 069.)

070.)

071.)

072.)

JAR-ATPL


A descent is planned from 7500 ft AMSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft AMSL 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is: a)

11,7 NM

b)

15,0 NM

c)

30,2 NM

d)

27,1 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-DeGaulle (20-3)) Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow). Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome. a)

217 ft.

b)

2 ft.

c)

268 ft.

d)

387 ft.

(For this question use annex 033-9710 B or Route Manual chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2)) Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow). Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome. a)

100 ft.

b)

80 ft.

c)

77 ft.

d)

177 ft.

(For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Find the average true course from Paris to London. a)

343°.

b)

322°.

c)

330°.

d)

142°.


page: 20

C.A.T. 073.)

074.)

075.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the direct distance plus 10%. The preplanning distance is: a)

188 NM.

b)

207 NM.

c)

218 NM.

d)

308 NM.

(For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London Heathrow for a twin – jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg The holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions. Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate Manchester. a)

2 250 kg.

b)

48 125 kg.

c)

49 250 kg.

d)

48 675 kg.

(For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033-3911B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6) Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7) Preplanning: The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 kt The distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM. Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50 000 kg. Find the alternate fuel and the according time. a)

1 300 kg and 28 minutes.

b)


c)


d)



page: 21

C.A.T. 076.)

077.)

078.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033-3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A) Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Power setting: Mach= 0.74 Planned flight level FL 280 The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kg The trip distance used for calculation is 200 NM The wind from Paris to London is 280°/40 kt Find the estimated trip fuel. a)

1 550 kg.

b)

1 740 kg.

c)

1 900 kg.

d)

1 450 kg.

Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin – jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg Assume the following preplanning results: Trip fuel: 1 800 kg, Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg Traffic Load: 13 000 kg Catering: 750 kg Baggage: 3 500 kg Find the Take-off Mass (TOM): a)

55 765 kg.

b)

52 265 kg.

c)

51 425 kg.

d)

51 515 kg.

(For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered with: a)

Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.

b)

Still air distance, wind component, zero fuel mass.

c)

Distance (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass.

d)

Distance (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate.


page: 22

C.A.T. 079.)

080.)

081.)

JAR-ATPL


The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1h35min Taxi fuel: 3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: a)

2h 04min

b)

1h 35min

c)

2h 49min

d)

2h 52min

The navigation plan reads: Trip fuel: 136 kg Flight time: 2h45min Calculated reserve fuel: 30% of trip fuel Fuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board) Taxi fuel: 3 kg The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: a)

3h38min

b)

3h34min

c)

2h49min

d)

2h45min

For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 3h06min The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 8 kg Block fuel: 118 kg How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? a)

39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.

b)


c)


d)

39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.


page: 23

C.A.T. 082.)

083.)

084.)

JAR-ATPL


For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 2h42min The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel. Taxi fuel: 9 kg Block fuel: 136 kg How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? a)


b)

33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.

c)


d)


Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aircraft has done half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate necessary? a)

Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel.

b)

Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not sufficient.

c)

Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsibility.

d)

Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been used completely.

(For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min. Power setting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find the minimum block fuel. a)

470 US gallons.

b)

37 US gallons.

c)

47 US gallons.

d)

60 US gallons.


page: 24

C.A.T. 085.)

086.)

087.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min. Power setting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find the minimum block fuel. a)

91 US gallons.

b)

76 US gallons.

c)

86 US gallons.

d)

118 US gallons.

(For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5) Given: FL 75 Lean mixture Full throttle 2300 RPM Take-off fuel: 444 lbs Take-off from MSL Find: Endurance in hours. a)

05:20

b)

05:12

c)

04:42

d)

05:23

(For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3) Given: FL 75 OAT +10°C Lean mixture 2300 RPM Find: Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS. a)

68.5 GPH TAS: 160 kt

b)


c)


d)



page: 25

C.A.T. 088.)

089.)

090.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Given: FL 75 OAT: +5°C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs. Find: Time and fuel to climb. a)

9 min. 2,7 USG

b)

7 min. 2,6 USG

c)

9 min. 3,3 USG

d)

10 min 3,6 USG

(For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Given: FL 75 OAT: +5°C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs. Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using the graph "time, fuel, distance to climb". a)

16 NAM. 18 NM.

b)

14 NAM. 18 NM.

c)

18 NAM. 13 NM.

d)

18 NAM. 15 NM.

"Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is a)

to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass.

b)

to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost of the aeroplane.

c)

to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude.

d)

to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature deviations.


page: 26

C.A.T. 091.)

092.)

093.)

094.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters: a)

pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with minimum drag airspeed

b)

pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with maximum range speed

c)

pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with maximum range speed

d)

pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with minimum drag airspeed

For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as: a)

Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel.

b)

Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel.

c)

Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel.

d)

Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel.

(For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL shall be entered with: a)

distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass

b)

distance in nautical air miles (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternate

c)

distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel

d)

distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate

The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is a)

fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

b)


c)


d)



page: 27

C.A.T. 095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following statements is relevant for forming route portions in integrated range flight planning? a)

Each reporting point requires a new segment.

b)

A small change of temperature (2 °C) can divide a segment.

c)

The distance from take-off up to the top of climb has to be known.

d)

No segment shall be more than 30 minutes of flight time.

(For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2) Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) a)

12500 ft

b)

11000 ft

c)

7500 ft

d)

10000 ft

(For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2) Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) a)

27500 ft

b)

30000 ft

c)

21000 ft

d)

25000 ft

(For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74 MACH a)

33800 ft

b)

maximum operating altitude

c)

34500 ft

d)

35300 ft


page: 28

C.A.T. 099.)

100.)

101.)

102.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH a)

36200 ft

b)

36700 ft

c)

maximum operating altitude

d)

35500 ft

(For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1 and Figure 4.2.1) Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL . Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310 a)

0%

b)

4%

c)

10 %

d)

1%

(For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and using the following data. Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions a)

2994 NAM/1000 kg

b)

2807 NAM/1000 kg

c)

176 NAM/1000 kg

d)

187 NAM/1000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2) Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following data. Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA conditions a)

2300 kg/h

b)

2994 kg/h

c)

1497 kg/h

d)

1150 kg/h


page: 29

C.A.T. 103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9558A) Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h. a)

ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37

b)


c)


d)


A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still air distance? a)

499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)

b)


c)


d)


Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h a)

1125 NM

b)

1143 NM

c)

1463 NM

d)

1491 NM

The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind? a)

193 NM

b)

174 NM

c)

188 NM

d)

203 NM


page: 30

C.A.T. 107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT -54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind. Using long range cruise procedure what fuel is required? a)

2050 kg

b)

2250 kg

c)

2350 kg

d)

2150 kg

Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point. Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kt a)

408 NM

b)

375 NM

c)

403 NM

d)

342 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000 ft a)

25 min, 1875 kg, 148 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 391 kt

b)


c)


d)


Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h a)

2 h 59 min

b)

2 h 43 min

c)

2 h 51 min

d)

3 h 43 min


page: 31

C.A.T. 111.)

112.)

113.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Find: Final fuel consumption for this leg Given: Long range cruise, Temperature -63°C, FL 330, Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29 min a)

1107 kg

b)

1100 kg

c)

1000 kg

d)

1093 kg

(For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel consumption Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg. a)

345 NAM; 1994 kg

b)

345 NAM; 2000 kg

c)

349 NAM; 2000 kg

d)

345 NAM; 2006 kg

(For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280, average temperature during climb ISA -10°C, average head wind component 18 kt Find: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74 a)

11 min

b)

13 min

c)

15 min

d)

14 min


page: 32

C.A.T. 114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280 Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) for the enroute climb 280/.74 a)

59 NAM, 62 NM

b)

62 NAM, 59 NM

c)

62 NAM, 71 NM

d)

71 NAM, 67 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Average headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280 Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74 a)

1040 kg

b)

1238 kg

c)

1138 kg

d)

1387 kg

(For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Given: Leg Moulins(N46 42.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 E005 05.9). Find: Route designator and total distance a)

UG 21, 26 NM

b)

UG 21, 69 NM

c)

Direct route, 69 NM

d)

D, 44 NM

Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 kt Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS) a)

WCA +2°, GS 396 kt

b)

WCA -2°, GS 426 kt

c)

WCA +2°, GS 416 kt

d)

WCA -2°, GS 396 kt


page: 33

C.A.T. 118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass at the end of the leg 39000 kg Find: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM) for a twin jet aeroplane a)

TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM

b)

TAS 433 kt, 227 NAM

c)

TAS 433 kt, 1163 NAM

d)

TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM

(For this question use annex 033-9579A, 033-9579B, 033-9579C, and 033-9579D or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2) Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74 Mach Find: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed a)

33900 ft, 420 kt

b)

24000 ft, 445 kt

c)

33500 ft, 430 kt

d)

25000 ft, 435 kt

(For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise, Outside air temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500 kg Find: True air speed (TAS) a)

431 kt

b)

418 kt

c)

433 kt

d)

420 kt

Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kg Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel a)

14400 kg

b)

11400 kg

c)

8600 kg

d)

11100 kg


page: 34

C.A.T. 122.)

123.)

124.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kg Find: Maximum additional load a)

7000 kg

b)

3000 kg

c)

5600 kg

d)

4000 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-9694A and 033-9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 and Figure 4.3.1B) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg, Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel 2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination: Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt, Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature -30°C Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning a)

4400 kg, 02 h 05 min

b)

4800 kg, 01 h 51 min

c)

4750 kg, 02 h 00 min

d)

4600 kg, 02 h 05 min

(For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation +20°C and Landing mass 55000 kg Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight planning a)

11600 kg, 04 h 15 min

b)

12000 kg, 03 h 51 min

c)

11400 kg, 04 h 12 min

d)

12400 kg, 04 h 00 min


page: 35

C.A.T. 125.)

126.)

127.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg, Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10 kt Find: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING) a)

1000 kg, 24 min

b)

800 kg, 0.4 hr

c)

1000 kg, 40 min

d)

800 kg, 24 min

(For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL, Destination elevation 1500 ft Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time a)

1180 kg, 45 min

b)

1180 kg, 30 min

c)

2360 kg, 30 min

d)

2360 kg, 01 h 00 min

(For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft Find: Final reserve fuel a)

1150 kg

b)

1180 kg

c)

2300 kg

d)

2360 kg


page: 36

C.A.T. 128.)

129.)

130.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033-9699B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 5.1 and Figure 4.5.1) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC) a)

53 NM

b)

56 NM

c)

47 NM

d)

50 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC) a)

15 min

b)

3 min

c)

12 min

d)

11 min

(For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC) a)

1500 lbs

b)

1100 kg

c)

1000 lbs

d)

1000 kg


page: 37

C.A.T. 131.)

132.)

133.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London. Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A. a)

83 NM

b)

72.5 NM

c)

56 NM

d)

74.5 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 NM Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6. a)

31 NM

b)

24.5 NM

c)

33 NM

d)

36.5 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). a)

97 NM

b)

87 NM

c)

76 NM

d)

65 NM


page: 38

C.A.T. 134.)

135.)

136.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). a)

17 min

b)

10 min

c)

8 min

d)

19 min

(For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft). a)

320 kg

b)

263 kg

c)

210 kg

d)

273 kg

(For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74 Determine the TAS a)

427 kt

b)

430 kt

c)

440 kt

d)

417 kt


page: 39

C.A.T. 137.)

138.)

139.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London. SID is ABB 8A. Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and distance to top of climb 50NM Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6. a)

MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA -5°

b)

MC 169°, GS 450 kt, WCA +4°

c)

MC 169°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5°

d)

MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5°

(For this question use annexes 033-3908A, 033-9710B and 033-9710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow). Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS 430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM. Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent. a)

MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°

b)

MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA +3°

c)

MC 319°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°

d)

MC 321°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°

(For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow)) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow). Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route. a)

BIG 115.1 kHz

b)

EPM 316 kHz

c)

OCK 115.3 MHz

d)

BIG 115.1 MHz


page: 40

C.A.T. 140.)

141.)

142.)

143.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft, OAT +10°C, First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°C Find the time, fuel and still air distance to climb. a)

22 min, 6.7 GAL, 45 NAM

b)

23 min, 7.7 GAL, 50 NAM

c)

24 min, 7.7 GAL, 47 NAM

d)

16.5 min, 4.9 GAL, 34.5 NAM

(For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000 ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak EGT Calculate the range. a)

633 NM

b)

547.5 NM

c)

730 NM

d)

844 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055 and magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO 20 NM. Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC. a)

422 kHz

b)

118.60 MHz

c)

112.50 MHz

d)

118.80 MHz

(For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N, 010°14'E). a)

FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHz

b)

MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz

c)

MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHz

d)

MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHz


page: 41

C.A.T. 144.)

145.)

146.)

147.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9722A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. a)

Magnetic course 102°, distance 56 NM

b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). Find magnetic course and the distance. a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS. a)

112.250 MHZ

b)

135.775 MHz

c)

126.125 MHz

d)

126.125 kHz


page: 42

C.A.T. 148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

JAR-ATPL


((For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Give the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET. a)

127.20 MHz

b)

127.20 kHz

c)

128.525 MHz

d)

118.10 MHz

(For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ? a)

VOR/DME

b)

NDB

c)

TACAN

d)

VOR

(For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E? a)

VORTAC

b)

NDB

c)

VOR

d)

VOR/DME

(For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E? a)

VOR

b)

VOR/DME

c)

TACAN

d)

NDB


page: 43

C.A.T. 152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2) A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours and 12 minutes. Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM, 20°C lean. Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C. The minimum block fuel is: a)

252 lbs

b)

283 lbs

c)

268 lbs

d)

215 lbs

(For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the descent. Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 minutes. Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM, 20°C lean. Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C. The minimum block fuel is: a)

265 lbs

b)

250 lbs

c)

208 lbs

d)

270 lbs

(For this question use annex 033-9734A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the magnetic course. a)

176°

b)

004°

c)

356°

d)

185°


page: 44

C.A.T. 155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9735A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the distance. a)

28 NM

b)

24 km

c)

46 NM

d)

24 NM

(For this question use annex 033-9736A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. a)

1500 ft

b)

4200 ft

c)

2900 ft

d)

3900 ft

(For this question use annex 033-9737A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the magnetic course. a)

243°

b)

063°

c)

257°

d)

077°

(For this question use annex 033-9738A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the distance. a)

36 NM

b)

58 NM

c)

32 NM

d)

46 NM


page: 45

C.A.T. 159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-9739A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. a)

6900 ft

b)

6600 ft

c)

5500 ft

d)

5300 ft

(For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is: a)

UG1

b)

UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS

c)

UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS

d)

UG108 SPI UG1

(For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is: a)

UB284 VILAR UB28

b)

UA6 LSA UG52

c)

UB28

d)

UB282 DGN UB46

(For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is: a)

UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34

b)

UB19 CGC UA25

c)

UB19 POI UB195

d)

UA34


page: 46

C.A.T. 163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 10992A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Of the following, the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is: a)

UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111

b)

UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115

c)

UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9

d)

UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14

(For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is; a)

050°/47 NM

b)

230°/97NM

c)

052°/97 NM

d)

133°/85 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6 ) The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is: a)

157°/58 NM

b)

337°/46 NM

c)

337°/58 NM

d)

337°/31 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1 (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is: a)

352°/72 NM

b)

339°/80 NM

c)

339°/125 NM

d)

352°/96 NM


page: 47

C.A.T. 167.)

168.)

169.)

170.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 10996A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL 112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E) on airway A7 is: a)

023°/ 47 NM

b)

023°/ 157 NM

c)

024°/ 20 NM

d)

024°/ 73 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2) The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is: a)

349°/26 NM

b)

169°/68 NM

c)

169°/42 NM

d)

349°/42 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is: a)

279°/85 NM

b)

279°/114 NM

c)

311°/85 NM

d)

311°/114 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway UR3 is: a)

117°/71 NM

b)

297°/57 NM

c)

297°/70 NM

d)

117°/57 NM


page: 48

C.A.T. 171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is: a)

132°/43 NM

b)

105°/105 NM

c)

052°/50 NM

d)

007°/60 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is: a)

048°/46 NM

b)

041°/78 NM

c)

061°/28 NM

d)

061°/37 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is: a)

346°/43 NM

b)

166°/64 NM

c)

346°/45 NM

d)

346°/64 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is: a)

332°/76 NM

b)

332°/118 NM

c)

322°/60 NM

d)

152°/42 NM


page: 49

C.A.T. 175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is: a)

046°/ 70 NM

b)

113°/ 142 NM

c)

067°/ 122 NM

d)

094°/ 90 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1 ) The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a: TACAN only, channel 84, (frequency 113.7 MHz) a)

TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only

b)

TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only

c)

VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz

(For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a: a)

VOR only, frequency 115.6 MHz

b)

DME only, channel 115.6

c)

VOR/TACAN, frequency 115.6 MHz

d)

TACAN only, frequency 115.6 MHz

(For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 004°53'E) is a: a)

VOR, frequency 114.0 MHz, and TACAN channel 87

b)

TACAN, channel 87, frequency 114.0 MHz

c)

TACAN, channel 114.0

d)

TACAN, channel 87, and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz


page: 50

C.A.T. 179.)

180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) is: a)

a VOR only, frequency 115.0 MHz

b)

an NDB only, frequency 115.0 kHz

c)

a TACAN, frequency 115.0 MHz

d)

a VOR/DME, frequency 115.0MHz

(For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is: a)

a VOR/DME, on channel 386

b)

a TACAN, on channel 386

c)

a VOR, frequency 386 MHz

d)

an NDB, frequency 386 kHz

(For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a: a)

VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN frequency 408 MHz

b)

VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN channel 408

c)

VOR/DME only, frequency 114.1 MHz

d)

VOR/DME, frequency 114.1 MHz, and NDB frequency 408 kHz

(For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is a: a)

VOR/DME only, identifier LUL

b)

VOR only, identifier LUL

c)

VOR, identifier LUL, frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXI

d)

VOR/DME and NDB, identifier LXI

(For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 005°53'W) is: a)

an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, NOT continuous operation

b)

an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, continuous operation

c)

a fan marker, frequency 420 kHz

d)

a TACAN, channel 420


page: 51

C.A.T. 184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N 008°53'W) is: a)

an NDB, frequency 352 kHz

b)

a VOR only, frequency 113.3 MHz

c)

a TACAN, frequency 113.3 kHz

d)

a VOR/DME, frequency 113.3 MHz

(For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are: a)

frequency paired, and have different identifiers

b)

NOT frequency paired, and have different identifiers

c)

NOT frequency paired, and have the same identifier

d)

frequency paired, and have the same identifier

(For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on: a)

Channel 440, BFO off

b)

Frequency 440 kHz, BFO off

c)

Frequency 440 kHz, BFO on

d)

Channel 440, BFO on

(For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by: a)

a TACAN callsign RON

b)

a fan marker callsign LP

c)

an NDB callisign N

d)

an NDB callsign LF

From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ? a)

ATCC broadcasts

b)

AIP

c)

SIGMET

d)

NOTAM


page: 52

C.A.T. 189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

193.)

JAR-ATPL


From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active a)

SIGMET

b)

NOTAM and AIP

c)

RAD/NAV charts

d)

Only AIP

From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ? a)

NOTAM

b)

AIP

c)

SIGMET

d)

ATCC broadcasts

From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities ? a)

NAV/RAD charts

b)

AIP

c)

ATCC

d)

NOTAM

An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: a)

the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft

b)

the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft

c)

the airway base is 3500 ft MSL

d)

the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL

(For this question use annex 033-11023A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) The minimum enroute altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is: a)

FL260

b)

FL210

c)

FL250

d)

FL200


page: 53

C.A.T. 194.)

195.)

196.)

197.)

JAR-ATPL


((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is: a)

FL290

b)

FL250

c)

FL330

d)

FL245

(For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1) The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1 (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N 003°16'W) is: a)

4100ft MSL

b)

FL80

c)

FL110

d)

2900 ft MSL

An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: a)

the airway base is 1500 ft MSL.

b)

1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).

c)

the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80.

d)

the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80.

(For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2) The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is: a)

2800 ft MSL

b)

1000 ft MSL

c)

FL60

d)

FL140


page: 54

C.A.T. 198.)

199.)

200.)

201.)

JAR-ATPL


An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the: a)

base of the airway (AGL)

b)

minimum enroute altitude (MEA)

c)

maximum authorised altitude (MAA)

d)

minimum holding altitude (MHA)

(For this question use annex 033-11029A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G24 from KOLJA (56° 00'N 016°49'E ) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is: a)

FL100

b)

1000ft

c)

2500 ft

d)

FL60

(For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is: a)

FL260

b)

FL230

c)

FL250

d)

FL240

(For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight in RVSM airspace on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is : a)

FL310

b)

FL330

c)

FL300

d)

FL290


page: 55

C.A.T. 202.)

203.)

204.)

205.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE 114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is: a)

FL70

b)

FL60

c)

FL80

d)

FL50

(For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 in RVSM airspace from MENDENASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is : a)

FL280

b)

FL300

c)

FL320

d)

FL290

(For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is: a)

FL270

b)

FL290

c)

FL300

d)

FL310

(For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is: a)

FL80

b)

FL60

c)

FL70

d)

FL50


page: 56

C.A.T. 206.)

207.)

208.)

209.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N 012°24'E) to RODING RDG 114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is: a)

FL80

b)

FL70

c)

FL40

d)

FL50

(For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6) An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49°24'N 005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is: a)

FL60

b)

FL40

c)

FL70

d)

FL50

Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semicircular height rules on a course of 180° (M) is: a)

FL100

b)

FL90

c)

FL95

d)

FL105

Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semicircular height rules on a magnetic course of 200° is: a)

FL290

b)

FL310

c)

FL300

d)

FL320


page: 57

C.A.T. 210.)

211.)

212.)

213.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10-2B)) Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow the following route to EKRON int: a)

BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON int

b)

HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int

c)

WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int

d)

TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int

(For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route Manual SID chart for MUNICH(103C,10-3D)) Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L ? a)

KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC

b)

KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER

c)

KEMPTEN THREE ECHO

d)

KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA

(For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D)) The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are: a)

9000ft and 250kt

b)

7000ft and 250kt

c)

7000 ft and 220kt

d)

9000ft and 220kt

(For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (20-2)) The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is: a)

88 NM

b)

83 NM

c)

73 NM

d)

96 NM


page: 58

C.A.T. 214.)

215.)

216.)

217.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-3)) Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport? a)

East sector 2100 ft within 50 NM

b)

East sector 2300 ft within 50 NM

c)

West sector 2300 ft within 25 NM

d)

West sector 2100 ft within 25 NM

(For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-2A,B)) For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is: a)

CJN

b)

MOTIL

c)

CENTA

d)

VTB

(For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route Manual SID charts for ZURICH (10-3)) Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16? a)

ALBIX 6E

b)

ALBIX 6H

c)

ALBIX 7A

d)

ALBIX 7S

(For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3B)) The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is: a)

35 NM

b)

59 NM

c)

52 NM

d)

67 NM


page: 59

C.A.T. 218.)

219.)

220.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3)) Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L? a)

The distance to ANDIK is 25 NM

b)

Cross ANDIK below FL60

c)

Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude

d)

Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME

(For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (10-2A,B)) The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08 L/R is: a)

NDG 1T, IAF ROKIL

b)

DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL

c)

AALEN 1T, IAF ROKIL

d)

AALEN 1T, IAF MBG

Given: X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and B E = Endurance D = Distance A to B O = Groundspeed 'on' H = Groundspeed 'back' The formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is: a)

X=

ExOxH O+H

b)

X=

DxH O+H

c)

X=

DxO O+H

d)

X=

DxOxH O+H


page: 60

C.A.T. 221.)

222.)

223.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Course A to B 088° (T) distance 1250 NM Mean TAS 330 kt Mean W/V 340°/60 kt The time from A to the PET between A and B is: a)

2 hours 02 minutes

b)

1 hour 54 minutes

c)

1 hour 39 minutes

d)

1 hour 42 minutes

Given: Distance X to Y 2700 NM Mach Number 0.75 Temperature -45°C Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwind Mean wind component 'back' 35 kt tailwind The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is: a)

1350 NM

b)

1386 NM

c)

1425 NM

d)

1313 NM

Given: Distance A to B 2050 NM Mean groundspeed 'on' 440 kt Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is: a)

920 NM

b)

1025 NM

c)

1130 NM

d)

1153 NM


page: 61

C.A.T. 224.)

225.)

226.)

227.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance A to B 3060 NM Mean groundspeed 'out' 440 kt Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt Safe Endurance 10 hours The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is: a)

5 hours 20 minutes

b)

3 hours 55 minutes

c)

5 hours 45 minutes

d)

5 hours 30 minutes

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot. a)

Neither statement

b)

Statement 1 only

c)

Both statements

d)

Statement 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight planning computers ? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. In the event of in-flight re-routing the computer produces a new plan. a)

Both statements

b)

Statement 2 only

c)

Statement 1 only

d)

Neither statement

(For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2)) The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is: a)

400 ft

b)

200 ft

c)

480 ft

d)

280 ft


page: 62

C.A.T. 228.)

229.)

230.)

231.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6)) The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an altitude of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ---------a)

(i) 3000 ft (ii) 160°

b)

(i) 200 ft (ii) 223°

c)

(i) 3000 ft (ii) 223°

d)

(i) 2000 ft (ii) 160°

(For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1)) The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is: a)

3500 ft

b)

4000 ft

c)

2067 ft

d)

1567 ft

(For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-x) The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is: a)

300 ft

b)

100 ft

c)

188 ft

d)

88 ft

(For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1)) The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out, is: a)

480 ft

b)

405 ft

c)

275 ft

d)

200 ft


page: 63

C.A.T. 232.)

233.)

234.)

235.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11063A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 (21-2)) The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are: a)

Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft

b)

Cross at FL60 and maintain

c)

Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft

d)

Cross at FL80 descend to FL70

(For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4)) The ILS frequency and identifier are: a)

108.3 IMNW

b)

108.7 IMSW

c)

108.3 IMSW

d)

108.7 IMNW

(For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 (21-8)) The ILS localizer course is: a)

088°

b)

118°

c)

268°

d)

100°

(For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2)) The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, aircraft category A is: a)

720m

b)

800m

c)

1500m

d)

600m


page: 64

C.A.T. 236.)

237.)

238.)

239.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach (16-3)) The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approaches are: a)

112.3 MUN

b)

400 MSW

c)

338 MNW

d)

108.6 DMS

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel. 2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate. a)

Both statements

b)

Statement 1 only

c)

Statement 2 only

d)

Neither statement

(For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B, 033-11073C and 033-11073D) Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg; the ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt; ISA conditions. Fuel consumption will be: a)

26 950 kg

b)

22 860 kg

c)

30 117 kg

d)

24 900 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 033-11074C and 033-11074D) Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 160 000 kg. The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. ISA conditions. Fuel consumption will be: a)

30 117 kg

b)

27 577 kg

c)

30 371 kg

d)

32 657 kg


page: 65

C.A.T. 240.)

241.)

242.)

243.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11181A) Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ? a)

Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band

b)

Reduced visibility

c)

Engine flame out and windscreen damage

d)

There is no hazard

(For this question use annex 033-11182A) The surface weather system over England (53°N 002°W) is a)

a cold front moving east

b)

a warm front moving southeast

c)

an occluded front moving east

d)

a depression moving north

(For this question use annex 033-11183A) In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is at about a)

FL400

b)

FL350

c)

FL340

d)

FL380

(For this question use annex 033-11184A) Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N 008°W) ? a)

Moderate

b)

Nil

c)

Light

d)

Severe


page: 66

C.A.T. 244.)

245.)

246.)

247.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11185A) Which best describes the significant cloud, if any, forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E) a)

5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180

b)

Nil

c)

3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180

d)

5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180

(For this question use annex 033-11186A) Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E) ? a)

Severe

b)

Nil

c)

Moderate

d)

Light

(For this question use annex 033-11187A) Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ? a)

Light

b)

Nil

c)

Severe

d)

Moderate

(For this question use annex 033-11188A) The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is: a)

300/100

b)

300/160

c)

300/140

d)

290/110


page: 67

C.A.T. 248.)

249.)

250.)

251.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11189A) The wind velocity over ITALY is a)

110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart

b)

a maximum of 110 kt at FL380

c)

130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart

d)

a maximum of 160 kt at FL 380

(For this question use annex 033-11190A) The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 50°N 040°E is: a)

200/70

b)

020/70

c)

020/80

d)

350/70

(For this question use annex 033-11191A) The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 60°N 015°W is a)

290/155

b)

290/185

c)

110/155

d)

320/155

(For this question use annex 033-11192A) The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach 0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to 010°W is a)

40 kt headwind component

b)

35 kt tailwind component

c)

25 kt tailwind component

d)

55 kt headwind component


page: 68

C.A.T. 252.)

253.)

254.)

255.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11193A) What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the ISA over 50°N 010°W ? a)

-2

b)

+9

c)

+2

d)

+13

(For this question use annex 033-11194A) The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 40°N 040°E is a)

300/75

b)

330/85

c)

330/75

d)

150/75

(For this question use annex 033-11195A) What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ? a)

3 to 4 at 500

b)

5 to 7 at 1200

c)

5 to 7 at 500

d)

5 to 7 at 2000

(For this question use annex 033-11196A) What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR (EGLL) ? a)

1500

b)

10,000

c)

5000

d)

2200


page: 69

C.A.T. 256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11198A) What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ? a)

0800

b)

Nil forecast

c)

1000

d)

0600

A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 = Which of the following information is contained in this METAR? a)

runway in use

b)

period of validity

c)

temperature/dewpoint

d)

day/month

(For this question use annex 033-11201A) What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ? a)

-47

b)

-46

c)

-49

d)

-50

(For this question use annex 033-11202A) Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN (53°N 13°E) ? a)

None

b)

FL290

c)

FL 210

d)

FL250


page: 70

C.A.T. 260.)

261.)

262.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annexes 033-11204A, 033-11204B and 033-11204C) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NM Flight level FL 370; "Long range" flight regime Effective wind at this level: head wind of 50 kt Temperature: ISA Centre of gravity (CG): 37 % Pack flow: LOW (LO) Anti ice: OFF Reference landing mass: 140 000 kg Taxi fuel: 500 kg Final reserve fuel: 2 400 kg The fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the aircraft is: a)

51 860 kg

b)

41 950 kg

c)

52 060 kg

d)

46 340 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033-11207B) A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimize its savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is: a)

30 000 kg

b)

14 000 kg

c)

42 000 kg

d)

12 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11208A) A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%, Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass at start of descent is: a)

193 000 kg

b)

193 800 kg

c)

192 500 kg

d)

193 400 kg


page: 71

C.A.T. 263.)

264.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033-11209B) Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: -Cruise flight level: FL 350 -Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM -Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg) -Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg -Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg -Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be: a)

0 kg

b)

2 000 kg

c)

3 000 kg

d)

4 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033-11210B) Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering by using the following data: -Cruise flight level: FL 350 -Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM -Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg) -Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg -Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg -Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg The additional fuel quantity will be: a)

10 000 kg

b)

12 000 kg

c)

20 000 kg

d)

15 000 kg


page: 72

C.A.T. 265.)

266.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033-11211B ) Assuming the following data: -Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM -Cruise flight level: FL 330 -Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) -Head wind component: 30 kt -Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg -Temperature: ISA -CG: 37% -Total anti-ice: ON -Pack flow: HI Time needed to carry out such a flight is: a)

5 h 02 min

b)

4 h 10 min

c)

4 h 26 min

d)

4 h 43 min

(For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033-11212B) Assuming the following data: -Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM -Cruise flight level: FL 310 -Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) -Head wind component: 40 kt -Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg -Temperature: ISA + 15° C -CG: 37 % -Total anti-ice: ON -Pack flow: HI Fuel consumption for such a flight is: a)

21 700 kg

b)

23 500 kg

c)

19 900 kg

d)

21 500 kg


page: 73

C.A.T. 267.)

268.)

269.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033-11213B) Assuming the following data: -Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM -Cruise flight level: FL 350 -Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) -Tailwind component: 40 kt -Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg -Temperature: ISA -CG: 37% -Total anti-ice: OFF -Air conditioning: normal Fuel consumption for such a flight is: a)

28 300 kg

b)

27 800 kg

c)

29 200 kg

d)

27 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11214A and 033-11214B) Assuming the following data: -Ground distance to be covered: 2 600 NM -Cruise flight level: FL 370 -Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) -Wind: zero wind during flight -Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg -Temperature: ISA + 15° C -CG: 37 % -Total anti-ice: ON -Air conditioning: normal Fuel consumption for such a flight is: a)

29 100 kg

b)

29 400kg

c)

31 500 kg

d)

27 400 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11215A) A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: -optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg -temperature: ISA -tailwind component: 100 kt The fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are: a)

71 NM/1000 kg; 5330 kg/h

b)

105 NM/1000 kg; 6515 kg/h

c)

86 NM/1000 kg; 6515 kg/h

d)

105 NM/1000 kg; 5330 kg/h


page: 74

C.A.T. 270.)

271.)

272.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11216A) A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data: -flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of 150 000 kg -temperature: ISA -head wind component: 100 kt -remaining flight time: 1 h 40 min The ground distance that can be covered during the cruise flight is: a)

445 NM

b)

612 NM

c)

2031 NM

d)

841 NM

(For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033-11223B and 033-11223C) Given: -Take-off mass: 150 000 kg -Planned cruise at FL 350 -Long range MACH -Standard Atmosphere (ISA) -CG: 37 % Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from take-off to landing will be: a)

19 660 kg

b)

20 260 kg

c)

22 360 kg

d)

21 760 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B and 033-11224C) Given: -Take-off mass: 150 000 kg -Planned cruise at FL 350 -Long range MACH -Standard Atmosphere (ISA) -CG: 37 % You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM. Your flight time will be: a)

298 minutes

b)

304 minutes

c)

359 minutes

d)

288 minutes


page: 75

C.A.T. 273.)

274.)

275.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033-11226B) In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum altitude, your Mach number should be: a)

0.80

b)

0.84

c)

the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise)

d)

0.82

(For this question use annex 033-11228A) For a long distance flight at FL 390, "Long Range" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following characteristics: - segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind component: 50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 30 kt - segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind component: 100 kt - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 70 kt The air distance of the entire flight is approximately: a)

5 040 NM

b)

5 120 NM

c)

4 900 NM

d)

4 630 NM

(For this question use annex 031-11229A ) For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000 kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at flight level FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude calculated using the annex is: a)

37400 ft

b)

38600 ft

c)

34600 ft

d)

37800 ft


page: 76

C.A.T. 276.)

277.)

278.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 031-11231A) For a long distance flight at FL 370, "Long Range" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following specifications: - segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind component: 50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 30 kt - segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind component: 70 kt - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 20 kt The total air distance is approximately: a)

4 580 NM

b)

4 940 NM

c)

4 800 NM

d)

4 820 NM

(For this question use annex 033-11238A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime - (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg - Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM - Temperatures: ISA - Headwind component: 70 kt - "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight - no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumption The fuel required from take-off to landing is: a)

27 770 kg

b)

22 160 kg

c)

20 900 kg

d)

29 440 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031-11239B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 55 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departure The commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg in addition to that which is necessary. For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at arrival must be: a)

0.28 $/l

b)

0.27 $/l

c)

0.26 $/l

d)

0.33 $/l


page: 77

C.A.T. 279.)

280.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11240A and 033-11240B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 55 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destination The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel than that which is necessary. For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be: a)

0.28 $/l

b)

0.30 $/l

c)

0.29 $/l

d)

0.24 $/l

(For this question use annex 033-11241A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime - Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg - Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM - Temperatures: ISA - CG: 37% - Headwind component: 30 kt - "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight - No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel consumption The fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is: a)

34 430 kg

b)

30 440 kg

c)

32 480 kg

d)

28 720 kg


page: 78

C.A.T. 281.)

282.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033-11243B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure; 0.27 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a)

15 000 kg

b)

22 000 kg

c)

The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.

d)

8 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033-11244B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 50 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 170 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure; 0.30 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a)

18 000 kg

b)

8 000 kg

c)


d)

32 000 kg


page: 79

C.A.T. 283.)

284.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033-11245B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt - Headwind component at this level: 5 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure; 0.315 $/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a)


b)

22 000 kg

c)

15 000 kg

d)

8 000 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11252A, 033-11252B and 033-11252C) Knowing that: -Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg -Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach -Air distance: 3 000 NM -Cruise level: optimum -Air conditioning: standard -Anti-icing: OFF -Temperature: ISA -CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be: a)

394 minutes

b)

400 minutes

c)

389 minutes

d)

383 minutes


page: 80

C.A.T. 285.)

286.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 033-11253C and 033-11253D) Knowing that: -Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg -Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach -Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM -Cruise level: optimum -Air conditioning: standard -Anti-icing: OFF -Temperature: ISA -CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be: a)

203 minutes

b)

198 minutes

c)

209 minutes

d)

192 minutes

(For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 033-11254C and 033-11254D) Knowing that: -Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg -Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach -Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM -Cruise level: optimum -Air conditioning: standard -Anti-icing: OFF -Temperature: ISA -CG: 37% Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be: a)

170 200 kg

b)

169 200 kg

c)

171 200 kg

d)

174 800 kg


page: 81

C.A.T. 287.)

288.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11255A, 033-11255B, and 033-11255C) Knowing that: -Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg -Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach -Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM -Cruise level: optimum -Air conditioning: standard -Anti-icing: OFF -Temperature: ISA -CG: 37 Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be: a)

172 300 kg

b)

170 400 kg

c)

171 300 kg

d)

176 100 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11259A and 033-11259B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt - Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a)

The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case

b)

6 000 kg

c)

10 000 kg

d)

4 000 kg


page: 82

C.A.T. 289.)

290.)

291.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11260A and 033-11260B) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: - Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt - Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt - Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 195 000 kg - Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at destination To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is: a)

5 000 kg

b)

10 000 kg

c)

8 000 kg

d)

The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case

(For this question use annex 033-11261A) When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure, the time information which should be entered in item 13: "Time" is: a)

planned take-off time.

b)

the time of flight plan filing.

c)

planned engine start time.

d)

estimated off-block time.

(For this question use annex 033-11262A) Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ATC flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: "Total estimated time" is the time elapsed from: a)

take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.

b)

take-off until landing.

c)

taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.

d)

taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.


page: 83

C.A.T. 292.)

293.)

294.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-11270A) A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data: -flight level: FL 330, flight regime: "Long Range" (LR), mass: 156 500 kg -tailwind component at this level: 40 kt With a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at cruising speed is: a)

539 NM

b)

518 NM

c)

471 NM

d)

493 NM

(For this question use annex 033-11271A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: -Take-off mass: 210 500 kg -Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM -Flight level FL 330; "Long Range" flight regime -Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt -Total anti-ice set on "ON" -Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 400 kg -Ignore alternate fuel. The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption. The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking area is: a)

30 200 kg

b)

39 750 kg

c)

31 840 kg

d)

31 340 kg

(For this question use annex 033-11272A) The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data: -Take-off mass: 168 500 kg -Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM -Flight level FL 370; "Long Range" flight regime -Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt -Total anti-ice set on "ON" -Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 000 kg -Ignore alternate fuel. The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for consumption. The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is: a)

23 000 kg

b)

23 300 kg

c)

20 500 kg

d)

22 500 kg


page: 84

C.A.T. 295.)

296.)

297.)

298.)

299.)

JAR-ATPL


On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for "Heavy" a)

is of the highest wake turbulence category

b)

has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg

c)

has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg

d)

requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass

If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your ATC flight plan, you write: a)

XXXX

b)

ZZZZ

c)

AAAA

d)

////

On a VFR ATC flight plan, the total estimated time is: a)

the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport, plus 15 minutes

b)

the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airport

c)

the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination airport

d)

the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport

The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: a)

188 kg/h

b)

267 kg/h

c)

213 kg/h

d)

200 kg/h

On an ATC flight plan, the letter "Y" is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules. a)

IFR

b)

VFR followed by IFR

c)

VFR

d)

IFR followed by VFR


page: 85

C.A.T. 300.)

301.)

302.)

303.)

JAR-ATPL


Given the following: D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal Time GSo = groundspeed out GSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is: a)

X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)

b)

X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)

c)

X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr)

d)

X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)

When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into account: 1 - the wind 2 - foreseeable airborne delays 3 - other weather forecasts 4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing The combination which provides the correct statement is: a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

1, 3

d)

2, 4

For an ATC flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is: a)

the time at which the flight plan is filed.

b)

the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.

c)

the estimated off-block time

d)

the time of take-off.

The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan is: a)

calibrated air speed

b)

true air speed

c)

ground speed

d)

indicated air speed


page: 86

C.A.T. 304.)

305.)

306.)

307.)

JAR-ATPL


In the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time corresponding to: a)

the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes

b)

the total usable fuel on board

c)

the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel

d)

the required fuel for the flight

The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: a)

206 l/h

b)

176 l/h

c)

220 l/h

d)

235 l/h

On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the waypoint ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will write : a)

ROMEO/FL085N0120

b)

ROMEO/K0120FL085

c)

ROMEO/F085N0120

d)

ROMEO/N0120F085

The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence category on an ATC flight plan is: a)

2 700 kg

b)

7 000 kg

c)

5 700 kg

d)

10 000 kg


page: 87

C.A.T. 308.)

309.)

310.)

311.)

JAR-ATPL


In the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is: a)

S

b)

C

c)

A

d)

P

(For this question use annex 033-11702 A) The true course is 042°. The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm. The deviation card is reproduced in the annex. In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of: a)

052°

b)

044°

c)

040°

d)

058°

(For this question use annex 033-11704A) True Air speed: 170 kt Wind in the area: 270°/40 kt According to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via TGJ. The given wind conditions remaining constant. The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres. The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD will be: a)

1 326 litres

b)

1 182 litres

c)

1 600 litres

d)

1 545 litres

In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard. The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN of: a)

130 NM

b)

110 NM

c)

120 NM

d)

140 NM


page: 88

C.A.T. 312.)

313.)

314.)

315.)

JAR-ATPL


You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is: a)

90

b)

75

c)

80

d)

70

An aircraft, following a 215° true track at variation 3°W, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will be: a)

120

b)

130

c)

140

d)

150

It is possible, in flight, to: 1 - file an ATC flight plan 2 - modify an active ATC flight plan 3 - cancel an active ATC flight plan 4 - close an active ATC flight plan Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 4

d)

1, 2, 3

(For this question use annex 033-11717A) The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NM Based on the wind charts at altitude the following components are found: FL50: -30kt; FL100: -50kt; FL180: -70kt The Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's performances. Which of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best range performance: a)

Either FL 050 or FL 100

b)

FL 180

c)

FL 050

d)

FL 100


page: 89

C.A.T. 316.)

317.)

318.)

319.)

JAR-ATPL


On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the following information "80". This means that within this quadrant: a)

the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft

b)

the minimum flight level is FL 80

c)

the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft

d)

the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft

An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, GS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS remains constant in the descent, wind is negligible, temperature standard. At which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent? a)

38 NM

b)

48 NM

c)

45 NM

d)

41 NM

You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following conditions : - dry operating mass : 2800 kg - trip fuel : 300 kg - traffic load : 400 kg - maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg - maximum landing mass : 3700 kg a)

800 kg

b)

500 kg

c)

1000 kg

d)

700 kg

After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a)

20 min

b)

24 min

c)

16 min

d)

10 min 40 sec


page: 90

C.A.T. 320.)

321.)

322.)

323.)

JAR-ATPL


When a pilot fills in an ATC flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass? a)

maximum certified landing mass

b)

actual take-off mass

c)

estimated take-off mass

d)

maximum certified take-off mass

The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC The flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at: a)

1755 UTC

b)

1725 UTC

c)

1715 UTC

d)

1745 UTC

In the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to: a)

go off blocks

b)

pass the departure beacon

c)

start-up

d)

take-off

On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to: a)

15 NM

b)

25 NM

c)

10 NM

d)

20 NM


page: 91

C.A.T. 324.)

325.)

326.)

327.)

JAR-ATPL


An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the temperature is ISA, the minimum flight level you must fly is: a)

90

b)

80

c)

85

d)

100

(For this question use annex 033-12275A) In the ATC flight plan Item 10, "standard equipment" is considered to be: a)

VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS

b)

VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder

c)

VHF RTF, VOR, INS and transponder

d)

VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder

(For this question use annex 033-12276A) In the ATC flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route: a)

it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit.

b)

the letters "DCT" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS route

c)

the words "as cleared" should be entered

d)

it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route

(For this question use annex 033-12277A) In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATC flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered ? a)

OTHER INFORMATION

b)

ROUTE

c)

EQUIPMENT

d)

AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION


page: 92

C.A.T. 328.)

329.)

330.)

331.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATC flight plan its wake turbulence category is: a)

heavy "H"

b)

medium "M"

c)

heavy/medium "H/M"

d)

medium plus "M+"

For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATC flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is: a)

unclassified "U"

b)

heavy "H"

c)

light "L"

d)

medium "M"

(For this question use annex 033-12280A) When completing Item 9 of the ATC flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be entered: a)

the most descriptive abbreviation

b)

"XXXX" followed by an entry in Item 18

c)

"NONE"

d)

"ZZZZ" followed by an entry in Item 18

(For this question use annex 033-12281A) Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes "NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means: a)

the number of aircraft flying in a group

b)

the registration number of the aircraft

c)

the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL)

d)

the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643


page: 93

C.A.T. 332.)

333.)

334.)

335.)

336.)

JAR-ATPL


When completing an ATC flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as: a)

0115

b)

1H55

c)

115M

d)

0155

When completing an ATC flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to be expressed in: a)

Local mean time

b)

local standard time

c)

Central European Time

d)

UTC

In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters should be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight): a)

G

b)

X

c)

N

d)

N/S

(For this question use annex 033-12285A) In the ATC flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped aircraft, the identifier must always: a)

be the RTF callsign to be used

b)

include an indication of the aircraft type

c)

include the aircraft registration marking

d)

include the operating agency designator

In the ATC flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as: a)

10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more

b)

20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more

c)

5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more

d)

20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more


page: 94

C.A.T. 337.)

338.)

339.)

340.)

JAR-ATPL


In the ATC flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist: a)

neither SID nor STAR should be entered

b)

both should be entered in the ATC plan where appropriate

c)

SIDs should be entered but not STARs

d)

STARS should be entered but not SIDs

When an ATC flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by: a)

90 minutes or more

b)

30 minutes or more

c)

60 minutes or more

d)

45 minutes or more

(For this question use annex 033-12289A) In the ATC flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by: a)

placing a tick in the relevant box

b)

crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried

c)

listing the items carried on the "REMARKS" line

d)

circling the relevant box

When completing an ATC flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be: a)

X

b)

G

c)

N/S

d)

Y


page: 95

C.A.T. 341.)

342.)

343.)

344.)

345.)

JAR-ATPL


In the ATC flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing: a)

"TBN" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box

b)

the plan may not be filed until the information is available

c)

an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded

d)

the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank

In an ATC flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of: a)

full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres

b)

VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres

c)

VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles

d)

VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres

An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with: a)

EDDM0215

b)

EDDM2H15

c)

EDDM1415

d)

EDDM AT 0215

In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as: a)

41°35' N 04° 15'E

b)

4135N00415E

c)

N4135 E00415

d)

N04135E0415

In an ATC flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as: a)

S3200

b)

FL320

c)

F320

d)

32000


page: 96

C.A.T. 346.)

347.)

348.)

349.)

350.)

JAR-ATPL


When an ATC flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than: a)

15 minutes flying time or 100 km

b)

1 hour flying time or 500 km

c)


d)


In the ATC flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as: a)

KN470

b)

N0470

c)

0470K

d)

N470

In the ATC flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the departure time entered is the: a)

estimated time over the first point en route

b)

estimated take-off time

c)

estimated off-block time

d)

allocated slot time

In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is expressed as: a)

CAS

b)

Groundspeed

c)

TAS

d)

IAS

For a repetitive ATC flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular basis on at least: a)

30 occasions

b)

50 occasions

c)

20 occasions

d)

10 occasions


page: 97

C.A.T. 351.)

352.)

353.)

JAR-ATPL


In the ATC flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is: a)

P

b)

C

c)

B

d)

A

(For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033-12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1) Given: Distance C - D: 3200 NM Long Range Cruise at FL 340 Temperature Deviation from ISA: +12°C Tailwind component: 50 kt Gross mass at C: 55 000 kg The fuel required from C - D is: a)

14 500 kg

b)

17 500 kg

c)

17 800 kg

d)

14 200 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033-12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1)) Given: Distance C - D: 680NM Long Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA: 0° C Headwind component: 60 kt Gross mass at C: 44 700 kg The fuel required from C - D is: a)

3100 kg

b)

3400 kg

c)

3700 kg

d)

4000 kg


page: 98

C.A.T. 354.)

355.)

356.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass: 58 000 kg Temperature: ISA + 15 The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is: a)

1450 kg

b)

1250 kg

c)

1350 kg

d)

1400 kg

(For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) Given: Brake release mass: 62 000 kg Temperature: ISA + 15°C The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is: a)

1700 kg

b)

1750 kg

c)

1800 kg

d)

1650 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033-12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3) Given : Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Distance B - C : 800 NM Temperature : - 55°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg The fuel required from B - C is : a)

6090 kg

b)

4975 kg

c)

6125 kg

d)

4945 kg


page: 99

C.A.T. 357.)

358.)

359.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033-12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3) Given: Distance B - C: 1200 NM Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature Deviation from ISA: -14°C Tailwind component: 40 kt Gross mass at B: 50 200 kg The fuel required from B - C is: a)

5850 kg

b)

6150 kg

c)

7050 kg

d)

7300 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033-12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4) Given: Distance C - D: 540 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA: +20°C Headwind component: 50 kt Gross mass at C: 60 000 kg The fuel required from C to D is: a)

3350 kg

b)

3680 kg

c)

4200 kg

d)

4620 kg

(For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4) Given: Distance B - C: 350 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210 Temperature: - 40°C Tailwind component: 70 kt Gross mass at B: 53 200 kg The fuel required from B - C is: a)

1940 kg

b)

2800 kg

c)

2670 kg

d)

1810 kg


page: 100

C.A.T. 360.)

361.)

362.)

363.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12310A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) - HOLDING PLANNING The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is: a)

1310 kg

b)

1090 kg

c)

1010 kg

d)

2180 kg

(For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4) - HOLDING PLANNING) The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack pattern, at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is: a)

1090 kg

b)

1635 kg

c)

1125 kg

d)

1690 kg

(For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM Landing mass at Alternate: 45 000 kg Tailwind component: 50 kt The Alternate fuel required is: a)

3050 kg

b)

2750 kg

c)

2900 kg

d)

2500 kg

(For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Given: Distance to Alternate: 400 NM Landing mass at Alternate: 50 000kg Headwind component: 25 kt The alternate fuel required is: a)

2800 kg

b)

2550 kg

c)

2900 kg

d)

2650 kg


page: 101

C.A.T. 364.)

365.)

366.)

367.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12314A ) The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is: a)

310/85

b)

310/75

c)

290/75

d)

100/75

(For this question use annex 033-12315A) What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a true course of 270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ? a)

-50

b)

-54

c)

-52

d)

-48

(For this question use annex 033-12316A ) The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W is a)

155/40

b)

334/40

c)

135/40

d)

310/40

(For this question use annex 033-12317A ) What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over 50° N 010°E ? a)

-10

b)

+2

c)

-55

d)

+10


page: 102

C.A.T. 368.)

369.)

370.)

371.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12318A) The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is a)

300/60

b)

115/60

c)

320/60

d)

300/70

(For this question use annex 033-12319A) The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W is a)

tail wind 55 kt

b)

tail wind 70 kt

c)

tail wind 40 kt

d)

headwind 55 kt

(For this question use annex 033-12320A ) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ? a)

5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL180

b)

3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL160

c)

3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180

d)

5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180

(For this question use annex.033-12321A ) Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ? a)

severe

b)

nil

c)

moderate

d)

light


page: 103

C.A.T. 372.)

373.)

374.)

375.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12322A ) Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150 in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ? a)

moderate

b)

moderate or severe

c)

light

d)

nil

(For this question use annex 033-12323A ) The surface system over VIENNA (48°N016°E) is a a)

cold front moving west

b)

cold front moving east

c)

warm front moving north

d)

stationary occluded front

(For this question use annex 033-12324A ) In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N009°W) the tropopause is at about FL a)

300

b)

360

c)

350

d)

270

(For this question use annex 033-12325A ) Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E)? a)

broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL270

b)

5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270

c)

isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270

d)

well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270


page: 104

C.A.T. 376.)

377.)

378.)

379.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12326A ) Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E)? a)

moderate

b)

severe

c)

light

d)

nil

(For this question use annex 033-12327A ) The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) immediately north of TUNIS (36°N010°E) is a)

250/85

b)

280/110

c)

180/105

d)

190/95

(For this question use annex 033-12328A ) Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is: a)

270

b)

230

c)

360

d)

310

(For this question use annex 033-12329A ) What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC? a)

3 to 4 at 800

b)

3 to 4 at 400

c)

5 to 7 at 800

d)

5 to 7 at 400


page: 105

C.A.T. 380.)

381.)

382.)

383.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12330A ) The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE TAFs totals (hours) a)

27

b)

20

c)

18

d)

9

(For this question use annex 033-12331A ) The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were a)

1 to 2 at 3000

b)

3 to 4 at 2000

c)

3 to 4 at 800

d)

1 to 4 at 3000

(For this question use annex 033-12332A) The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 1330 UTC was a)

180/12

b)

300/05

c)

270/04

d)

270/08

(For this question use annex 033-12333A ) Which best describes the weather, if any, at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ? a)

frequent rain showers

b)

nil

c)

fog

d)

light rain associated with thunderstorms


page: 106

C.A.T. 384.)

385.)

386.)

387.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12334A ) What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ? a)

nil

b)

1800

c)

0800

d)

1300

(For this question use annex 033-12335A ) Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ? a)

heavy rain associated with thunderstorms

b)

nil

c)

light rain

d)

rain showers

(For this question use annex 033-12336A ) What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ? a)

30

b)

5

c)

25

d)

10

(For this question use annex 033-12337A ) What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ? a)

8000m

b)

6000m

c)

10km

d)

2000m


page: 107

C.A.T. 388.)

389.)

390.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12338A ) Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC? a)

CAVOK

b)

rain associated with thunderstorms

c)

patches of fog

d)

mist and/or fog

(For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component 15 kt Temperature ISA + 15°C Cruise altitude 35000 ft Landing mass 50000 kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are: a)

(a) 20000 kg (b) 7hr 00 min

b)

(a) 16200 kg (b) 6 hr 20 min

c)

(a) 17600 kg (b) 6 hr 50 min

d)

(a) 17000 kg (b) 6 hr 10 min

(For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component 20 kt Temperature ISA + 15°C Brake release mass 64700 kg The (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are: a)

(a) 15800 kg (b) 6hr 15 min

b)

(a) 17000 kg (b) 6hr 45 min

c)

(a) 16200 kg (b) 6hr 20 min

d)

(a) 18400 kg (b) 7hr 00 min


page: 108

C.A.T. 391.)

392.)

393.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component 10 kt Temperature ISA -5°C Trip fuel available 15000 kg Landing mass 50000kg What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be planned ? a)

10000 ft

b)

14000 ft

c)

17000 ft

d)

22000 ft

(For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Given the following: Head wind component 50 kt Temperature ISA + 10°C Brake release mass 65000kg Trip fuel available 18000kg What is the maximum possible trip distance ? a)

3480 NM

b)

2740 NM

c)

2540 NM

d)

3100 NM

(For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately: a)

+5%

b)

-5%

c)

-7%

d)

+8%


page: 109

C.A.T. 394.)

395.)

396.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by approximately: a)

-3.6%

b)

+2.3%

c)

+7.6%

d)

+5.3%

(For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately: a)

+3%

b)

+ 7%

c)

-4%

d)

-10%

(For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind component 45kt Temperature ISA - 10°C Cruise altitude 29000ft Landing mass 55000kg The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are: a)

(a) 16000kg (b) 6hr 25 min

b)

(a) 17100kg (b) 6hr 07 min

c)

(a) 20000kg (b) 6hr 40 min

d)

(a) 18000kg (b) 5hr 50 min


page: 110

C.A.T. 397.)

398.)

399.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following apply: Tail wind component 50 kt Temperature ISA +10°C Brake release mass 65000kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are: a)

(a) 21800 kg (b) 9hr 25 min

b)

(a) 18100 kg (b) 7hr 20 min

c)

(a) 15800 kg (b) 6hr 00 min

d)

(a) 19000 kg (b) 7hr 45min

(For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply: Temperature ISA +15°C Brake release mass 62000kg Trip time 5hr 20 min What is the trip fuel ? a)

13800kg

b)

13000kg

c)

13200kg

d)

13500kg

(For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Temperature ISA -10°C Cruise altitude 29000ft Landing mass 45000kg Trip fuel available 16000kg What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted ? a)

35 kt

b)

0

c)

70kt

d)

15kt


page: 111

C.A.T. 400.)

401.)

402.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) The following apply: Tail wind component 10kt Temperature ISA +10°C Brake release mass 63000kg Trip fuel available 20000kg What is the maximum possible trip distance ? a)

3740 NM

b)

3250 NM

c)

3500 NM

d)

3640 NM

(For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind 25kt Temperature ISA - 10°C Brake release mass 66000kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are: a)

(a) 14000kg (b) 5hr 35 min

b)

(a) 15000kg (b) 6hr 00 min

c)

(a) 15800kg (b)6hr 20 min

d)

(a) 14600kg (b) 5hr 45 min

(For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the initial great circle grid course is: a)

344

b)

353

c)

350

d)

347


page: 112

C.A.T. 403.)

405.)


(For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route Manual chart NAP) On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N054°32'W), the a)

(a) average true course, and (b) distance, are:

b)

a) 281° (b) 2730 NM

c)

a) 281° (b) 1877 NM

d)

a) 262° (b) 1720 NM

a)

404.)

JAR-ATPL

244° (b) 1520 NM

(For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be: a)

106°

b)

080°

c)

066°

d)

096°

(For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be: a)

172° (G)

b)

353° (G)

c)

177° (G)

d)

194° (G)


page: 113

C.A.T. 406.)

407.)

408.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Diversion distance 720NM Tail wind component 25kt Mass at point of diversion 55000kg Temperature ISA Diversion fuel available 4250kg What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ? a)

20000ft

b)

26000ft

c)

14500ft

d)

16000ft

(For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Diversion distance 650 NM Diversion pressure altitude 16 000 ft Mass at point of diversion 57 000 kg Head wind component 20 kt Temperature ISA + 15°C The diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are approximately: a)

(a) 6200kg (b) 2h 10min

b)

(a) 4400kg (b) 1h 35min

c)

(a) 4800kg (b) 2h 03min

d)

(a) 3900kg (b) 1h 45min

(For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) Given: Distance to alternate 950 NM Head wind component 20 kt Mass at point of diversion 50000kg Diversion fuel available 5800kg The minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is: a)

22000ft

b)

18000ft

c)

20000ft

d)

26000ft


page: 114

C.A.T. 409.)

410.)

411.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of diversion mass of 55000kg a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is: a)

LRC

b)

M/KIAS .74/290

c)

M/KIAS .74/330

d)

M/KIAS .70/280

(For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could divert a distance of: a)

584 NM

b)

603 NM

c)

608 NM

d)

563 NM

(For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is: a)

735 NM

b)

810 NM

c)

794 NM

d)

875 NM


page: 115

C.A.T. 412.)

413.)

414.)

415.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4) A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent? a)

150kg

b)

278kg

c)

290kg

d)

140kg

(For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a)

119°

b)

118°

c)

099°

d)

109°

(For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a)

109°

b)

119°

c)

120°

d)

099°

(For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a)

113°

b)

080°

c)

098°

d)

116°


page: 116

C.A.T. 416.)

417.)

418.)

419.)

420.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a)

278°

b)

116°

c)

098°

d)

080°

(For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route Manual chart NAP) The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a)

720

b)

690

c)

1590

d)

1440

(For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a)

279°

b)

271°

c)

247°

d)

259°

For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route Manual chart NAP) The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a)

079°

b)

271°

c)

247°

d)

259°

For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a)

275°

b)

267°

c)

262°

d)

271°


page: 117

C.A.T. 421.)

422.)

423.)

424.)

JAR-ATPL


For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route Manual chart NAP) The initial true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is a)

271°

b)

246°

c)

275°

d)

267°

For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route Manual chart NAP) The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is a)

760

b)

775

c)

725

d)

700

Given: Distance from departure to destination 250 NM GS Out 130 kt GS Home 100 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a)

192 NM

b)

109 NM

c)

141 NM

d)

125 NM


216 NM

b)

380 NM

c)

284 NM

d)

250 NM


page: 118

C.A.T. 425.)

426.)

427.)

JAR-ATPL



189 NM

b)

151 NM

c)

170 NM

d)

272 NM


199 NM

b)

236 NM

c)

218 NM

d)

368 NM


124 NM

b)

66 NM

c)

70 NM

d)

74 NM


page: 119

C.A.T. 428.)

429.)

430.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination 500 NM True track 090 W/V 090/20 TAS 150 kt What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a)

Distance: 250 NM Time: 88 min

b)


c)

Distance: 382 NM Time: 176min

d)




b)


c)


d)



176 NM

b)

104 NM

c)

128 NM

d)

152 NM


page: 120

C.A.T. 431.)

432.)

433.)

JAR-ATPL




b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)


Given: Distance from departure to destination 950 NM GS Out 275 kt GS Home 225 kt What is the time of the PET from the departure point? a)

39 min

b)

139 min

c)

93 min

d)

114 min


page: 121

C.A.T. 434.)

435.)

436.)

437.)

JAR-ATPL



132 min

b)

22 min

c)

147 min

d)

163 min


129 min

b)

171 min

c)

149 min

d)

28 min


125 min

b)

223 min

c)

167 min

d)

29 min


128 min

b)

50 min

c)

72 min

d)

96 min


page: 122

C.A.T. 438.)

439.)

440.)

JAR-ATPL



19 min

b)

188 min

c)

152 min

d)

123 min



b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)



page: 123

C.A.T. 441.)

442.)

443.)

JAR-ATPL




b)


c)


d)


Given: Distance from departure to destination 1100 NM True track 280 W/V 100/80 TAS 440 kt What is the distance time of the PET from the departure point? a)


b)


c)


d)


Given: Distance from departure to destination 95 NM True track 105 W/V 060/15 TAS 140 kt What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a)

51 NM

b)

47,5 NM

c)

82 NM

d)

44 NM


page: 124

C.A.T. 444.)

445.)

446.)

JAR-ATPL



92 NM

b)

82 NM

c)

90 NM

d)

98 NM


103 NM

b)

136 NM

c)

116 NM

d)

110 NM


91 NM

b)

59 NM

c)

75 NM

d)

65 NM


page: 125

C.A.T. 447.)

448.)

449.)

JAR-ATPL



153 NM

b)

123 NM

c)

131 NM

d)

143 NM


219 NM

b)

121 NM

c)

228 NM

d)

112 NM


73 NM

b)

83 NM

c)

92 NM

d)

132 NM


page: 126

C.A.T. 450.)

451.)

452.)

JAR-ATPL



79 NM

b)

134 NM

c)

75 NM

d)

71 NM


235 NM

b)

214 NM

c)

256 NM

d)

205 NM


176 NM

b)

148 NM

c)

139 NM

d)

167 NM


page: 127

C.A.T. 453.)

454.)

455.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 300 NM Endurance: 4 h TAS: 110 kt Ground Speed Out: 120 kt Ground Speed Home: 100 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

136 NM

b)

109 NM

c)

218 NM

d)

82 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 200 NM Endurance: 3 h TAS: 130 kt Ground Speed Out: 150 kt Ground Speed Home: 110 kt What is the distance PSR from the departure point? a)

85 NM

b)

95 NM

c)

190 NM

d)

10 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 400 NM Endurance: 2,5 h TAS: 115 kt Ground Speed Out: 130 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

255 NM

b)

179 NM

c)

145 NM

d)

73 NM


page: 128

C.A.T. 456.)

457.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 500 NM Endurance: 4 h TAS: 140 kt Ground Speed Out: 150 kt Ground Speed Home: 130 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a)


b)


c)


d)


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM Endurance: 2 h TAS: 120 kt Ground Speed Out: 135 kt Ground Speed Home: 105 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a)


b)


c)


d)



page: 129

C.A.T. 458.)

459.)

460.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 240 NM Endurance: 3,5 h TAS: 125 kt Ground Speed Out: 110 kt Ground Speed Home: 140 kt What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a)


b)


c)


d)


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 180 NM Endurance: 2,8 h True Track: 065 W/V: 245/25 TAS: 100 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

49 NM

b)

68 NM

c)

66 NM

d)

131 NM



b)


c)


d)



page: 130

C.A.T. 461.)

462.)

463.)

JAR-ATPL



185 NM

b)

262 NM

c)

131NM

d)

59 NM


10 NM

b)

200 NM

c)

125 NM

d)

100 NM


450 NM

b)

990 NM

c)

10 NM

d)

495 NM


page: 131

C.A.T. 464.)

465.)

466.)

JAR-ATPL



752 NM

b)

624 NM

c)

1040 NM

d)

1248 NM


2500 NM

b)

1111 NM

c)

2778 NM

d)

2222 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 3000 NM Endurance: 8 h TAS: 520 kt Ground Speed Out: 600 kt Ground Speed Home: 440 kt What is the time of the PSR from the departure point? a)

277 min

b)

117 min

c)

203 min

d)

173 min


page: 132

C.A.T. 467.)

468.)

469.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 1500 NM Endurance: 4,5 h TAS: 450 kt Ground Speed Out: 480 kt Ground Speed Home: 410 kt What is the time of the PSR from the departure point? a)

101 min

b)

124 min

c)

63 min

d)

66 min

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 2450 NM Endurance: 7,5 h TAS: 410 kt Ground Speed Out: 360 kt Ground Speed Home: 460 kt What is the time of the PSR from the departure point? a)

111 min

b)

252 min

c)

156 min

d)

198 min


2070 NM

b)

1128 NM

c)

2255 NM

d)

1495 NM


page: 133

C.A.T. 470.)

471.)

472.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 6340 NM Endurance: 15 h True Track: 090 W/V: 270/100 TAS: 520 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

1878 NM

b)

3756 NM

c)

2584 NM

d)

2560 NM



b)


c)


d)



1419 NM

b)

3211 NM

c)

6106 NM

d)

1966 NM


page: 134

C.A.T. 473.)

474.)

475.)

JAR-ATPL



319 NM

b)

116 NM

c)

231 NM

d)

305 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 260 NM Endurance: 4,1 h True Track:150 W/V: 100/30 TAS: 110 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

107 NM

b)

47 NM

c)

213 NM

d)

154 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 150 NM Endurance: 2,4 h True Track: 250 W/V:280/15 TAS: 120 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

98 NM

b)

83 NM

c)

142 NM

d)

71 NM


page: 135

C.A.T. 476.)

477.)

478.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance from departure to destination: 330 NM Endurance: 5 h True Track:170 W/V: 140/25 TAS: 125 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

30 NM

b)

194 NM

c)

303 NM

d)

150 NM

Given: Distance from departure to destination: 480 NM Endurance: 5 h True Track: 315 W/V: 100/20 TAS: 115 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a)

205 NM

b)

199 NM

c)

141 NM

d)

280 NM


172 NM

b)

64 NM

c)

88 NM

d)

127 NM


page: 136

C.A.T. 479.)

480.)

481.)

JAR-ATPL



102 NM

b)

169 NM

c)

203 NM

d)

207 NM


44 NM

b)

73 NM

c)

148 NM

d)

95 NM


112 NM

b)

103 NM

c)

205 NM

d)

9 NM


page: 137

C.A.T. 482.)

JAR-ATPL



308 NM

b)

52NM

c)

154 NM

d)

185 NM


page: 138

033-3301 A

033-3302 A

033-3305 A, 3306 A, 3311 A, 9571 A, 9691 A, 9694 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.5.3.1 All Engines

Long Range Cruise Maximum Cruise Thrust Limits

PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

A/C Auto

33000 Ft.

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 58200 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20 IS 66400 KG ADJUSTMENTS FOR OPERATION AT NON-STANDARD TEMPERATURESINCREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C ABOVE ISA DECREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C BELOW ISA INCREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C ABOVE ISA DECREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C BELOW ISA

033-3307 A - 3309 A, 9574 A, 9575 A, 9699 B, 9700 A, 9701 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.5.1

EN – ROUTE CLIMB

DATA SHEET MRJT 1 280/.74

ISA -6° C TO -15° C

033-3318 A, 9562 A, 9578 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.5.3.1 All Engines


PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

A/C Auto

35000 Ft.

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 53200 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER IS 64500 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20

IS 63100 KG IS 61400 KG

ADJUSTMENTS FOR OPERATION AT NON-STANDARD TEMPERATURESINCREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY DECREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY

0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C ABOVE ISA 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C BELOW ISA

INCREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C ABOVE ISA DECREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C BELOW ISA

033-3320 A, 9550 A - 9553 A, 9554 B, 9579A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.2.1

Figure 4.2.2

OPTIMUM ALTITUDE

SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

033-3320 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

Figure 4.5.3.2 All Engines

Mach 0.74 Cruise Maximum Cruise Thrust Limits

PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE

-

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

22000Ft

A/C Auto TAS

451 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20

EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT




033-3320 C, 9579 B, 9579 C CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING



PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

25000Ft

A/C Auto TAS

445 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT

THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20





033-3321 A, 9694 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.3.1B

SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT PLANNING

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

033-3322 A, 3911 B, 4616 A, 9546 A, 9696 A, 12312 A, 12313 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING 3.3

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

Alternate Planning (Fig. 4.3.6)

The fuel and time figures extracted from this chart include the following: o

o o o

Missed approach

Climb to cruise altitude Cruise at LRC Descent and straight on approach.

Method of use is similar to previous graphs. For distances greater than 500 NM use the LRC Simplified Flight Planning Charts.

Figure 4.3.6


ALTERNATE PLANNING LONG RANGE CRUISE

033-3323 A, 9695 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.3.3C

DATA SHEET MRJT 1


0.78 MACH CRUISE

033-3324 A, 3910 A, 9543 A, 9697 A - 9699 A, 12310 A, 12311 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

4. HOLDING FUEL PLANNING The table below provides fuel flow Information necessary for planning holding reserve fuel requirements.

Chart is based on racetrack pattern at minimum drag airspeed - minimum speed 210KIAS. For holding in straight and level reduce table values by 5%

Figure 4.4 FLAPS UP

Fuel flow is based on a racetrack pattern. For holding in straight and level flight reduce fuel values by 5%

5. DETAILED FUEL PLANNING

5.1

En-route Climb (Figures 4.5.1)

Tables are provided for a range of temperature deviations from ISA -15°C to ISA +25°C Fuel and time given in these tables are from brake release and distance from 1500 ft. with a climb airspeed schedule 280 KIAS/0.74 Mach. The stated TAS is the average for the climb and should be used to correct the still air distance shown.

033-3327 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING 3. RANGE AT STANDARD TEMPERATURES Method of Use 1. Enter graph (Fig.3.2) with cruise altitude 2. Move horizontally to power selected intersection (with or without reserve) 3. Move vertically to read range in nautical miles still air distance. Figure 3.2

RANGE

DATA SHEET MEP1

033-3911 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING 3.3

DATA SHEET MRJT 1



o o o

Missed approach



Figure 4.3.6



033-3912 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.3.2A

DATA SHEET MRJT 1


0.74 MACH CRUISE

033-4616 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING 3.3

DATA SHEET MRJT 1



o o o

Missed approach



Figure 4.3.6



033-4622 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING 4. POWER SETTING, FUEL FLOW AND TAS Enter the power setting table (fig. 3.3) with required % power to obtain fuel flow in US gallons per hour. Manifold Pressure is read off against pressure altitude and RPM in the correct % power column. Figure 3.3

POWER SETTING TABLE

To maintain constant power, add 1 % for each 6° C above Standard. Subtract 1 % for each 6° C below Standard. Do not exceed 34 inches MAP in cruise.

DATA SHEET MEP 1

033-4623 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING 4. POWER SETTING, FUEL FLOW AND TAS Enter the power setting table (fig. 3.3) with required % power to obtain fuel flow in US gallons per hour. Manifold Pressure is read off against pressure altitude and RPM in the correct % power column. Figure 3.3

POWER SETTING TABLE

To maintain constant power, add 1 % for each 6° C above Standard. Subtract 1 % for each 6° C below Standard. Do not exceed 34 inches MAP in cruise.

DATA SHEET MEP 1

033-4735 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING

DATA SHEET MEP 1

5. ENDURANCE PROFILE The graph at Figure 2.5 (page 1) provides a rapid method for determination of endurance for the sample aeroplane. An example is shown onthe graph. Figure 2.5 ENDURANCE

033-4736 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLICHT PLANNING & MONITORING Figure 2.2

DATA SHEET SEP 1


TABLE 2.2.3

20° C LEAN

23.0 IN. HG (OR FULL THROTTLE) @ 2300 RPM

Of Peak EGT


ISA - 20° C (ISA - 36° F)

Standard Day (ISA)

ISA + 20° C (ISA + 36° F)

NOTES:

IOAT

Man. Press.

Fuel Flow

Air Speed

Feet

°C

°F

IN. HG

PPH

GPH

KIAS

KTAS

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

-3 -7 11 15 18 23 17 31 35

26 20 13 6 -1 -9 16 23 31

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 16.4

67.6 69.7 72.1 74.4 73.8 68.4 63.8 60.0 56.3

11.3 11.6 12.0 12.4 12.3 11.4 10.6 10.0 9.4

152 152 153 153 150 143 135 127 117

144 149 154 158 160 157 153 148 141

147 147 148 148 145 137 129 120 109

145 149 154 159 160 157 152 146 137

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16,000

17 13 9 5 2 -3 -7 -11 -15

37 33 29 25 22 17 13 9 -

62 56 49 42 35 27 20 13 5

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 16.4

98 92 85 78 71 63 56 48

-

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 -

65.4 67.4 69.4 71.7 71.1 66.2 61.8 58.5 55.3

63.2 65.1 67.1 69.0 68.5 64.0 60.0 57.1 -

1. Füll throttle manifold pressure settings are approximate. 2. Shaded area represents Operation with full throttle. 3. Fuel flows are to be used for flight planning only and will vary from aeroplane to aeroplane. Lean using the EGT.

10.9 11.2 11.6 12.0 11.9 11.0 10.3 9.8 9.2

10.5 10.9 11.2 11.5 11.4 10.7 10.0 9.5 -

142 143 143 142 140 132 123 113 -

145 149 154 158 160 156 151 142 -

033-4737 A, 4738 A, 9715 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING & MONITORING

DATA SHEET SEP 1

033-6587 A, 9716 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING

DATA SHEET SEP 1

4. RANGE PROFILE The graph at Figure 2.4 (page 9) provides a simple and rapid means of determining the still air range (nautical air miles) for the sample aeroplane. An example of the use of the graph is shown. Note that the figures make allowance for the taxi, run-up and 45 minutes reserve fuel. Figure 2. 4

RANGE

033-9543 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

4. HOLDING FUEL PLANNING The table below provides fuel flow Information necessary for planning holding reserve fuel requirements.

Chart is based on racetrack pattern at minimum drag airspeed - minimum speed 210KIAS. For holding in straight and level reduce table values by 5% Figure 4.4

FLAPS UP

Fuel flow is based on a racetrack pattern. For holding in straight and level flight reduce fuel values by 5%

5. DETAILED FUEL PLANNING

5.1

En-route Climb (Figures 4.5.1)

Tables are provided for a ränge of temperature deviations from ISA -15°C to ISA

+25°C Fuel and time given in these tables are from brake release and distance from 1500 ft. with a climb airspeed schedule 280 KIAS/0.74 Mach. The stated TAS is the average for the climb and should be used to correct the still air distance shown.

033-9546 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING 3.3

DATA SHEET MRJT 1



o o o

Missed approach



Figure 4.3.6




DATA SHEET MRJT 1

1 AEROPLANE DATA AND CONSTANTS 1.1 Aeroplane Data • • •

Monoplane Twin turbo-jet engines Retractable undercarriage

Structural Limits: Maximum Taxi (Ramp) Mass Maximum Take Off Mass Maximum Landing Mass Maximum Zero Fuel Mass Maximum Fuel Load

63060 Kg. 62800 Kg. 54900 Kg. 51300 Kg. 5311 U.S. Gallons 16145 Kg. (@ 3.04 Kg./Gal.)

1.2

Constants Fuel Density (unless otherwise notified) 3.04 Kg./US Gallon 6.7 IbsAIS Gallon

2.

OPTIMUM ALTITUDES

2.1

Optimum Cruise Altitude (Fig. 4.2.1)

Enter graph with cruise mass (56800 Kg.) Move vertically to selected cruise profile (LRC) Move horizontally to read optimum altitude (33500 ft.) NB.

Fuel Penalties will be incurred by operating "off optimum" altitude as shown in table.

OFF - OPTIMUM CONDITION 2000 n. above Optimum 2000 n below 4000 ft. below 8000 ft. below 12,000 ft. below

2.2

FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY % LRC

0.74

1 0 1 4 10 15

1 0 2 4 11 20

Short Distance Cruise Altitude (Fig. 4.2.2)

Enter with trip distance (Nautical Air Miles). Move to temperature deviation. Move horizontally to reference line. Follow the trade lines to intersect with vertical through brake release weight. Move horizontally to read maximum pressure altitude.

033-9554 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.2.1

Figure 4.2.2

OPTIMUM ALTITUDE

SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

033-9556 A, 9557 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING Figure 4.5.3.2 All Engines


PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

31000Ft

TAS

A/C Auto 434 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 63500 KG






033-9558 A ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION Fuel (kg) Trip Fuel

Time (hh:mm)

5800

02:32

1800

00:42

Contingency Fuel Alternate Fuel Final Reserve Fuel

1325

Minimum T/O-Fuel Extra Fuel Actual T/O-Fuel Taxi FUEL

200

Ramp Fuel

10000

033-9564 A, 12304 A, 12305 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

Figure 4.5.1

EN - ROUTE CLIMB

DATA SHEET MRJT 1 280/.74

ISA +6° C TO +15° C

033-9571 A, 9691 A, 9694 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING



PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

A/C Auto

33000 Ft.

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 58200 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20

EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT IS 66400 KG







PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

A/C Auto

28000 Ft.

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT







DATA SHEET MRJT 1

033-9579 D CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING



PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

34000 Ft

A/C Auto

TAS 428 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 55500 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER IS 67100 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 IS 65700 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20 IS 64000 KG ADJUSTMENTS FOR OPERATION AT NON-STANDARD TEMPERATURESINCREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C ABOVE ISA DECREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C BELOW ISA INCREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C ABOVE ISA DECREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C BELOW ISA

033-9702 A, 9703 A,9709 A

033-9704 A - 9706 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

5.4

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

Descent

These tables (Fig. 4.5.4) provide tabulations of time, fuel and distance for "flight idle" thrust at 0.74 mach/250 KIAS (economy) and 0.70 Mach/280 KIAS (turbulence penetration) Allowances are made for a straight in approach with gear down. Figure 4.5.4 Descent .74M/250 KIAS

.70M/280/250 KIAS

BASED ON IDLE THRUST.

ALLOWANCES FOR A STRAIGHT-IN APPROACH ARE INCLUDED.

033-9707 B, 9710 C, 9712 B NOT FOR NAVIGATIONAL PURPOSES! COPYRIGHT !JEPPESEN GMBH EDITION NOVEMBER ' 99




PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

A/C Auto

28000Ft

TAS

440 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20





033-9710 B NOT FOR NAVIGATIONAL PURPOSES! COPYRIGHT 1999 JEPPESEN GMBH EDITION NOVENBER '99

033-9712 A NOT FOR NAVIGATIONAL PURPOSES! COPYRIGHT 1999 JEPPESEN GMBH EDITION NOVENBER '99

033-9721 A

033-9732 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING

Figure 2.2

DATA SHEET SEP 1


TABLE 2.2.2 20° C LEAN

25.0 IN. HG (OR FULL THROTTLE) @ 2100 RPM

Of Peak EGT


ISA - 20° C (ISA - 36° F)

Standard Day (ISA)

ISA + 20° C (ISA + 36° F)

IOAT

Feet

°C

°F

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

-3 -7 11 15 19 23 27 31 35

26 19 12 5 -2 -9 17 24 32

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16,000

17 13 9 5 1 -3 -7 -11 -

37 33 29 25 21 17 13 -

62 55 48 41 34 27 19 12 -

98 91 84 77 70 63 55 -

Man. Press. IN. HG 25.0 25.0 25.0 24.3 22.5 20.8 19.3 17.9 16.5

Fuel Flow PPH GPH

25.0 25.0 25.0 24.3 22.5 20.8 19.3 17.9 -

61.9 64.2 66.6 66.1 61.9 58.5 55.6 53.5 -

25.0 25.0 25.0 24.3 22.5 20.8 19.3 -

63.8 66.4 68.9 68.3 63.9 60.1 56.7 54.5 52.2

60.1 62.1 64.4 63.9 60.2 56.8 54.5 -

10.6 11.1 11.5 11.4 10.7 10.0 9.5 9.1 8.7

10.3 11.7 11.1 11.0 10.3 9.8 9.3 8.9 -

10.0 10.4 10.7 10.7 10.0 9.5 9.1 -

Air Speed KIAS KTAS 148 149 149 147 139 132 123 113 95

143 143 144 141 134 126 116 103 -

138 138 139 136 128 119 108 -

140 145 150 152 148 144 139 132 114

140 145 150 152 148 143 136 125 -

033-9733 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FLIGHT PLANNING & MONITORING

Figure 2.2

DATA SHEET SEP 1


TABLE 2.2.3 20° C LEAN


CRUISE LEAN MIXTURE 3400 Ibs.

Press. Alt.

ISA - 20° C (ISA - 36° F)

Standard Day (ISA)

ISA + 20° C (ISA + 36° F)

IOAT

Feet

°C

°F

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000

-3 -7 11 15 18 23 17 31 35

26 20 13 6 -1 -9 16 23 31

0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16.000 0 2000 4000 6000 8000 10,000 12,000 14,000 16,000

17 13 9 5 2 -3 -7 -11 -15 37 33 29 25 22 17 13 9 -

Man. Press. IN. HG 23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 16.4

62 56 49 42 35 27 20 13 5

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 16.4 98 92 85 78 71 63 56 48 -

23.0 23.0 23.0 23.0 22.4 20.7 19.2 17.8 -

Fuel Flow

Air Speed

PPH

GPH

KIAS

KTAS

67.6 69.7 72.1 74.4 73.8 68.4 63.8 60.0 56.3

11.3 11.6 12.0 12.4 12.3 11.4 10.6 10.0 9.4

152 152 153 153 150 143 135 127 117

144 149 154 158 160 157 153 148 141

65.4 67.4 69.4 71.7 71.1 66.2 61.8 58.5 55.3 63.2 65.1 67.1 69.0 68.5 64.0 60.0 57.1 -

10.9 11.2 11.6 12.0 11.9 11.0 10.3 9.8 9.2 10.5 10.9 11.2 11.5 11.4 10.7 10.0 9.5 -

147 147 148 148 145 137 129 120 109 142 143 143 142 140 132 123 113 -

145 149 154 159 160 157 152 146 137

033-11042 A NOT FOR NAVIGATIONAL PURPOSES! COPYRIGHT 1999 JEPPESEN GMBH EDITION NOVEMBER '99







NOT FOR NAVIGATIONAL PURPOSES! COPYRIGHT 1999 JEPPESEN GMBH EDITION NOVENBER '99






033-11063 A NOT FOR NAVIGATIONAL PURPOSES! COPYRIGHT 1999 JEPPESEN GMBH





033-11073 A, 11074 A, 11204 A JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING QUICK DETERMINATION OF FLIGHT PLAN

INTRODUCTION The following flight planning tables allow the planner to determine trip fuel consumption and trip time required to cover a given air distance. These tables are established for: - Takeoff - Climb profile : 250kt/300kt/M.80 - Cruise mach number: M.80, M.82, M.84, LR - Descent profile: Cruise Mach number/300kt/250kt - Approach and landing : 240 kg - 6 minute IFR - ISA - CG = 37 % - Normal air conditioning -Anti ice OFF Note: 1. In the tables, the asterisk (*} means that a step climb of 4000 feet must be flown to reach the corresponding FL. 2. To obtain a flight plan at optimum cruise level, the highest flight level desired within the flight has to be selected in the table. 3. For each degree Celsius above ISA temperature apply fuel correction 0.010 (kg/°C/NM) x ∆ISA(°C) x Air Distance (NM). CORRECTION FOR DEVIATION FROM REFERENCE LANDING WEIGHT The fuel consumption must be corrected when the actual landing weight is different from the reference landing weight If it is lover (or greater) man the reference landing weight subtract (or add) the value given in the correction part of the table per 1000 kg below (or above) the reference landing weight.

033-11073 B, 11074 B DATA SHEET LRJT 1 FLIGHT PLANNING GROUND DISTANCE/ AIR DISTANCE

SEQ A

033-11073 C, 11074 C DATA SHEET LRJT 1 FLIGHT PLANNING GROUND DISTANCE/ AIR DISTANCE

SEQ A

033-11073 D, 11074 D DATA SHEET LRJT 1 FLIGHT PLANNING GROUND DISTANCE/ AIR DISTANCE

SEQ A

033-11195 A -11198 A List of TAFs TAF EDDF ISSUED AT 042200 EDDF 0524 VRE03KT CAVOK BECMG 0609 20005KT 9999 SCT030 BKN045 = TAF EDDK ISSUED AT 042200 EDDK 0624 14005KT 7000 NSC BECMG 0608 CAVOK TEMPO 1115 9999 SCT040 =

TAF EDDL ISSUED AT 042200 EDDL 0624 16003KT 5000 NSC BECMG 0608 CAVOK =

TAF EDDM TSSUED AT 042200 EDCM 0624 26005KT 9999 SCT035 = TAF EDDN ISSUED AT 042200 EDDN 0624 26005KT 9999 SCT035 =

TAF EDDH ISSUED AT 042200 EDOH 0624 21010KT CAVOK BECMG 0810 9999 SCT025 SCT040 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 7000 -RADZ BKN012 BECMG 1620 7000 BKN020 TEMPO 1824 4000 RADZ BKN005 = TAF EDDS ISSUED AT 042200 EDDS 0624 26005KT 9999 SCT035 = TAF EGLL ISSUED AT 042200 EGLL 0624 17005KT 5000 SCT040 PROB30 TEMPO 0607 1500 BR BECMG 0811 23010KT 9999 BECMG 1619 BRNO15 = TAF EHAM ISSUED AT 042200 EH

033-11204 B, 11228 A, 11231 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING GROUND DISTANCE/AIR DISTANCE

LONG RANGE CRUISE ABOVE FL250

033-11204 C DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING GROUND DISTANCE/AIR DISTANCE

LONG RANGE CRUISE ABOVE FL250

033-11207 A, 11209 A, 11210 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL

FLIGHT

PLANNING

FUEL TANKERING

FUEL TANKERING

GENERAL Fuel tankering graphs allow to determine the Optimum fuel quantity to be tankered as a function of the fuel price ratio between departure and destination airports. The following pages present for one flight level per page the Optimum aircraft takeoff weight depending on the fuel price ratio (departure fuel price divided by destination fuel price) and on the air distance to fly. The computed optimum takeoff weight is based on the additional fuel consumption needed for the transport of the extra (tankered) fuel and it is the weight at which the maximum profit can be achieved. The quantity of extra fuel that can be loaded is calculated as the difference between the Optimum takeoff weight (including extra fuel) and the planned takeoff weight {without fuel tankering). The graphs are established for: - FL 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390 - Air distances from 500 to 5000 NM - Flight profile : Climb 250kt/300kt/M.80 Cruise M.80 Descent M.80/300kt/250kt

Note: 1. ff necessary, step climbs are performed to reach the indicated flight levels. 2. The crew/operator has to verify that the found aircraft weight complies with basic aircraft limitations (e.g. max fuel capacity) as well as with mission dependent restrictions (e.g. MLW at destination).

EXAMPLES 1. Fuel price ratio = 0.930 Cruising Altitude = FL310 Planned TOW = 200 000 kg (mission weight without fuel tankering) Air Distance = 2500 NM Enter graph For the given air distance, the optimum fuel tankering weight is 187 000 kg, which is lower than the planned takeoff weight d no fuel tankering recommended. 2. fuel price ratio = 0.890 Cruising Altitude = FL 350 Planned TOW = 190 000 kg (mission weight without fuel tankering) Air Distance = 3250 NM Enter graph For the given air distance, the optimum fuel tankering weight is 198 000 kg, which is 8 000 kg higher than the planned takeoff weight d optimum quantity of extra fuel is 8 000 kg. Check : a) new TOW less or equal MTOW from departure airport. b) total fuel to be loaded less or equal maximum fuel capacity. c) MLW at destination

033-11207 B, 11209 B, 11210 B DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING FUEL TANKERING

033-11211 A - 11214 A JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING QUICK DETERMINATION OF FLIGHT PLAN

INTRODUCTION The followtng flight planning tables allow the planner to determine trip fuel consumption and trip time required to cover a given air distance. These tables are established for: - Takeoff - Climb profile : 250kt/300kt/M.80 - Cruise mach number: M.80, M.82, M.84, LR - Descent profile: Cruise Mach number/300kt/250kt - Approach and landing : 240 kg - 6 minute IFR -ISA - CG = 37 % - Normal air conditioning -Anti ice OFF Note:

1. In the tables, the asterisk (*} means that a step climb of 4000 feet must be flown to reach the corresponding FL. 2. To obtain a ffight plan at optimum cruise level, the highest flight level desired within the flight has to be selected in the table. 3. For each degree Celsius above ISA temperature apply fuel correction 0.010 (kg/°C/NM) x ∆ISA(°C) x Air Distance (NM). CORRECTION FOR DEVIATION FROM REFERENCE LANDING WEIGHT The fuel consumption must be corrected when the actual landing weight is different from the reference landing weight If it is lover (or greater) man the reference landing weight suibtract (oradd) the value given in the correction part of the table per 1000 kg below (or above) the reference landing weight.

033-11211 B - 11214B DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING QUICK DETERMINTION OF F-PLN

033-11215 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING INTEGRATED CRUISE

033-11216 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR FCL


033-11223 A, 11224 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL


033-11223 B,11224 B, 11252 B, 11253 C, 11254 C, 11255 B DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL


CLIMB CORRECTION The planner must correct the values for the fuel and the time obtained from the integrated cruise tables with the numbers given in the following tables. The tables which are established for M.80, M.82, M.84 and long range speed take into account climbing from the brake release point at 250KT/300KT/M.80. LONG RANGE SPEED

CLIMB TO OPTIMUM FL

STEP CLIMB CORRECTION When the flight includes one or more step climbs (2000 feet below FL290, 4000 feet above), apply a correction of 160 kg per step climb to the fuel consurnption.

033-11223 C, 11224 C,11252 C, 11253 D, 11254 D,11255 C DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL


DESCENT CORRECTION Correct the fuel and the time values determined in the integrated cruise tables äs follows to take into account the descent down to 1500 feet followed by 6 min IFR approach and landing. LONG RANGE CRUISE

IRC, M.80, M.82. M.84 FROM OPTIMUM FL

033-11226 A, 11228 A, 11229 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLA CRUISE LEVEL

033-11226 B DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PL CRUISE LEVEL

033-11238 A, 11241 A

DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR - FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING INTERGRATED CRUISE

033-11239 A, 11240 A, 11243 A, 11244 A, 11245 A, 11259 A, 11260 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL


FUEL TANKERING GENERAL Fuel tankering graphs allow to determine the Optimum fuel quantity to be tankered as a function of the fuel price ratio between departure and destination airports. The following pages present for one flight level per page the Optimum aircraft takeoff weight depending on the fuel price ratio (departure fuel price divided by destination fuel price) and on the air distance to fly. The computed optimum takeoff weight is based on the additional fuel consumption needed for the transport of the extra (tankered) fuel and it is the weight at which the maximum profit can be achieved. The quantity of extra fuel that can be loaded is calculated as the difference between the Optimum takeoff weight (including extra fuel) and the planned takeoff weight {without fuel tankering). The graphs are established for: - FL 290, 310, 330, 350, 370, 390 - Air distances from 500 to 5000 NM - Flight profile : Climb 250kt/300kt/M.80 Cruise M.80 Descent M.80/300kt/250kt

Note: 1. ff necessary, step climbs are performed to reach the indicated flight levels. 2. The crew/operator has to verify that the found aircraft weight complies with basic aircraft limitations (e.g. max fuel capacity) as well as with mission dependent restrictions (e.g. MLW at destination). EXAMPLES 1. Fuel price ratio = 0.930 Cruising Altitude = FL310 Planned TOW = 200 000 kg (mission weight without fuel tankering) Air Distance = 2500 NM Enter graph For the given air distance, the optimum fuel tankering weight is 187 000 kg, which is lower than the planned takeoff weight d no fuel tankering recommended. 2. fuel price ratio = 0.890 Cruising Altitude = FL 350 Planned TOW = 190 000 kg (mission weight without fuel tankering) Air Distance = 3250 NM Enter graph For the given air distance, the optimum fuel tankering weight is 198 000 kg, which is 8 000 kg higher than the planned takeoff weight d optimum quantity of extra fuel is 8 000 kg. Check : a) new TOW less or equal MTOW from departure airport. b) total fuel to be loaded less or equal maximum fuel capacity. c) MLW at destination

033-11239 B, 11240 B, 11243 B, 11244 B, 11245 B,11259 B, 11260 B DATA SHEET LRJT 1 AR - FCL


033-11252 A, 11253 B, 11255 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL


033-11253 A, 11254 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1

JAR FCL


033-11254 B DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR - FCL


033-11261 A, 11262 A, 12275 A - 12277 A, 12280 A, 12281 A, 12285 A, 12289 A JAR FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING ICAO MODEL FLIGHT PLAN FORM

033-11270 A DATA SHEET LRJT 1 JAR FCL

FLIGHT PLANNING ICAO MODEL FLIGHT PLAN FORM





033-11702 A

033-11704 A

033-11717 A

033-12302 A, 12303 A, 12306 A - 12309 A DATA SHEET MRJT 1

CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

5.2

Wind Range Correction

(Fig. 4.5.2)

This graph is used for conversion of nautical ground miles to nautical air mtles. (This is intended for use in conjunctlon with the 'integrated ränge' tables). Enter graph with average TAS. Correct for wind component. Move to ground distance atthe rightthen verticafly down to read corresponding air distance. For longer distances than shown on the graph apply a factor of 10 to the tabulated values. Figure 4.5.2 WIND RANGE CORRECTION GRAPH

033-12302 B, 12303 B CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

Figure 4.5.3.1 Long Range Cruise All Engines

Maximum Cruise Thrust Limits

PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

A/C Auto

34000 Ft.

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS55500 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER IS 67100 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 IS 65700 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20 IS 64000 KG ADJUSTMENTS FOR OPERATION AT NON-STANDARD TEMPERATURESINCREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C ABOVE ISA DECREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C BELOW ISA INCREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C ABOVE ISA DECREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C BELOW ISA


DATA SHEET MRJT 1

Figure 4.5.3.3 Mach 0.78 Cruise All Engines PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

Maximum Cruise Thrust Limits 30000Ft

A/C Auto TAS

460 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 64200 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20 EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT ADJUSTMENTS FOR OPERATION AT NON-STANDARD TEMPERATURESINCREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C ABOVE ISA DECREASE FUEL REQUIRED BY 0.6 PERCENT PER 10 DEGREES C BELOW ISA INCREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C ABOVE ISA DECREASE TAS BY 1 KNOT PER DEGREE C BELOW ISA


Figure 4.5.3.4

LOW LEVEL CRUISE

All Engines PRESSURE ALTITUDE

NOTE -

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

300KIAS

Maximum Cruise Thrust Limits 21000Ft

A/C Auto TAS

406 Kts

OPTIMUM WEIGHT FOR PRESSURE ALTITUDE IS 64200 KG THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 10 AND COLDER EXCEEDS STRUCTURAL LIMIT THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 15 THRUST LIMITED WEIGHT FOR ISA + 20





033-12314 A - 12319 A

033-12320 A - 12328 A

033-12329 A - 12338 A

033-12339 A, 12341 A, 12343 A, 12344 A,12346 A,12349 A, 12352 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

Figure 4.3.1 C

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT PLANNING LONG RANGE CRUISE

033-12340 A, 12342 A, 12345 A, 12347A,12348 A, 12350 A, 12351 A CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY FUEL PLANNING

3.2

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

Step Climb simplified Fuel Planning (Fig. 4.3.5)

This chart allows the planner to optimise aeroplane performance by increasing the cruise altitude in 4000 ft. steps in order to allow for the increase in optimum altitude as aeroplane weight decreases. The graph is valid for altitudes with 'Step Climb' of 4000 ft. to 2000 ft above optimum altitude. The graph provides trip fuel and time, at LRC or 0.74M, from brake release to touchdown. The method of use is the same as that for the constant altitude charts except that the argument of 'brake release weight is used in place of cruise 'pressure altitude'- see example on chart Figure 4.3.5

SIMPLIFIED FLIGHT PLANNING STEPPED CLIMB CRUISE

VALID FOR ALL PRESSURE ALTITUDES WITH 4000 FT STEP CLIMB TO 2000 FT ABOVE OPTIMUM ALTITUDE


Figure 4.7.3 In Flight Diversion (LRC)

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE


Figure 4.7.2

Area of Operation - Diversion Distance

ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE

DATA SHEET MRJT 1


5.4

DATA SHEET MRJT 1

Descent

These tables (Fig. 4.5.4) provide tabulations of time, fuel and distance for "flight idle" thrust at 0.74 mach/250 KIAS (economy) and 0.70 Mach/280 KIAS (turbulence penetration) Allowances are made for a straight in approach with gear down. Figure 4.5.4 Descent .74M/250 KIAS

.70M/280/250 KIAS

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL



39: A (2 Pkt.)

77: D (2 Pkt.)

2: B (2 Pkt.)

40: C (2 Pkt.)

78: D (1 Pkt.)

3: D (1 Pkt.)

41: B (2 Pkt.)

79: C (2 Pkt.)

4: A (1 Pkt.)

42: B (1 Pkt.)

80: B (2 Pkt.)

5: B (1 Pkt.)

43: B (2 Pkt.)

81: B (2 Pkt.)

6: A (1 Pkt.)

44: D (1 Pkt.)

82: A (2 Pkt.)

7: B (1 Pkt.)

45: A (2 Pkt.)

83: B (1 Pkt.)

8: B (1 Pkt.)

46: B (1 Pkt.)

84: C (2 Pkt.)

9: B (1 Pkt.)

47: A (1 Pkt.)

85: A (2 Pkt.)

10: A (2 Pkt.)

48: D (2 Pkt.)

86: B (1 Pkt.)

11: D (1 Pkt.)

49: B (2 Pkt.)

87: C (1 Pkt.)

12: A (1 Pkt.)

50: D (2 Pkt.)

88: C (1 Pkt.)

13: D (1 Pkt.)

51: D (1 Pkt.)

89: D (2 Pkt.)

14: C (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

90: A (1 Pkt.)

15: A (2 Pkt.)

53: C (2 Pkt.)

91: A (1 Pkt.)

16: A (2 Pkt.)

54: A (3 Pkt.)

92: D (1 Pkt.)

17: B (1 Pkt.)

55: B (2 Pkt.)

93: D (1 Pkt.)

18: B (1 Pkt.)

56: B (3 Pkt.)

94: B (1 Pkt.)

19: A (1 Pkt.)

57: C (2 Pkt.)

95: C (1 Pkt.)

20: C (1 Pkt.)

58: B (2 Pkt.)

96: D (1 Pkt.)

21: D (1 Pkt.)

59: B (1 Pkt.)

97: B (1 Pkt.)

22: C (1 Pkt.)

60: A (1 Pkt.)

98: C (1 Pkt.)

23: B (1 Pkt.)

61: D (2 Pkt.)

99: D (1 Pkt.)

24: B (1 Pkt.)

62: B (1 Pkt.)

100: B (2 Pkt.)

25: A (1 Pkt.)

63: C (2 Pkt.)

101: C (1 Pkt.)

26: A (1 Pkt.)

64: D (2 Pkt.)

102: A (2 Pkt.)

27: D (1 Pkt.)

65: C (1 Pkt.)

103: C (3 Pkt.)

28: D (2 Pkt.)

66: C (1 Pkt.)

104: C (1 Pkt.)

29: C (2 Pkt.)

67: D (3 Pkt.)

105: A (3 Pkt.)

30: C (2 Pkt.)

68: B (3 Pkt.)

106: B (1 Pkt.)

31: A (2 Pkt.)

69: D (2 Pkt.)

107: D (3 Pkt.)

32: C (1 Pkt.)

70: D (1 Pkt.)

108: D (2 Pkt.)

33: D (2 Pkt.)

71: B (1 Pkt.)

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361: B (1 Pkt.)

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477: D (4 Pkt.)

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479: C (4 Pkt.)

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399: A (1 Pkt.)

440: D (3 Pkt.)

481: C (4 Pkt.)

400: A (1 Pkt.)

441: C (3 Pkt.)

482: A (4 Pkt.)

401: A (2 Pkt.)

442: A (3 Pkt.)


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Questionnaire 040-1 PHYS

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

005.)

The changes in atmospheric gas pressure with altitude are: a)

rises with altitude

b)

decreases in a linear manner with altitude

c)

non-linear, with a higher rate of change at lower levels

d)

decreases more slowly at lower altitudes compared with at higher levels

Breathing 100% oxygen at 40000 ft is equivalent to breathing ambient air at: a)

8 000 ft

b)

14 000 ft

c)

18 000 ft

d)

10 000 ft

At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? a)

Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.

b)

22 000 ft

c)

Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.

d)

Approximately 35 000 ft.

You can survive at any altitude, provided that a)

enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available

b)

the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10" C

c)

pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude

d)

21% oxygen is available in the air you breath in

At which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression ? a)


b)


c)


d)



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006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

010.)

When a pilot suffers from hypothermia (e.g. after loss of cabin heating) his/her demand for oxygen will be: a)

initially increased

b)

raised leading to an increased tolerance to hypoxia

c)

reduced giving a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes

d)

unaffected

Fatigue and stress a)

increase the tolerance to hypoxia

b)

lower the tolerance to hypoxia

c)

will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet

d)

do not affect hypoxia at all

The atmosphere contains the following gases: a)

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

b)

78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases

c)

78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases

d)

78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which a)

increases with increasing altitude

b)

decreases with increasing altitude

c)

is dependent on the present air pressure

d)

is constant at all altitudes for conventional aircraft

The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is: a)

5%

b)

42%

c)

10,5%

d)

21%


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011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

015.)

The respiratory process consists mainly of a)

the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cells and elimination of oxygen

b)

the transportation of oxygen to the cells and the elimination of nitrogen

c)

the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood, transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body

d)

the transportation of oxygen to the cells and the elimination of carbon monoxide

Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the following statements is correct? a)

Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood.

b)

With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning can be compensated for.

c)

Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.

d)

Carbon monoxide is odourless and colourless.

Carbon monoxide poisoning a)

is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency

b)

only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes

c)

occurs only above 15 degrees OAT

d)

is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heating is supplied by passing cabin air over the exhaust manifold(s)

Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning? a)

Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

b)

Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.

c)

A very early symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.

d)

The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.

How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood? a)

Plasma.

b)

Haemoglobin in the red blood cells.

c)

White blood cells.

d)

Blood fat.


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016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

020.)

Which gas most readily combines with haemoglobin? a)

carbon monoxide

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide? a)

It is always present in the lungs.

b)

It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.

c)

It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's "physiological altitude".

d)

It combines 5 times faster to the haemoglobin than oxygen.

An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to: a)

a decrease of acidity in the blood

b)

an increased respiratory rate

c)

an improving resistance to hypoxia

d)

a reduction of red blood cells

The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by: a)

the total atmospheric pressure

b)

the amount of nitrogen in the blood

c)

the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood

d)

the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood

In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into the lungs? a)

Carbon monoxide.

b)

Carbon dioxide.

c)

Ambient air.

d)

Oxygen.


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021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

Which statement is correct ? a)

Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on the partial oxygen pressure gradient.

b)

Oxygen is mainly transported in plasma.

c)

Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure.

d)

The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level.

How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ? a)

Tighten shoulder harness.

b)

Tightening of the stomach muscles.

c)

Relax the muscles and lean upper body forward.

d)

Take an upright seat position.

Hypoxia is caused by a)

an increased number of red blood cells

b)

a higher affinity of the red blood cells (haemoglobin) to oxygen

c)

reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung

d)

reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung

Hypoxia can be caused by: 1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen 2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide attached to the haemoglobin 3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz) 4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen a)

1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

b)

1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

c)

1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct


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025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

029.)

A pilot may suffer from hypoxia a)

after decompression at high altitude and not using additional oxygen in time

b)

if he/she is flying an unpressurised airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing 100 % oxygen

c)

after decompression to 30 000 feet and using 100 % oxygen via an oxygen mask

d)

if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min

Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo? a)

Difficulties in controlling the aircraft.

b)

Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect.

c)

A solo pilot is more prone to illusions.

d)

Hypoxia improves night vision therefore the pilot will have no indication of danger.

The symptoms of hypoxia include: a)

Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.

b)

Nausea and barotitis.

c)

Dull headache and bends.

d)

Dizziness, hypothermia.

Which of the following is/are the symptom(s) of hypoxia ? a)

Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria

b)

Pain in the joints

c)

Low blood pressure

d)

Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area

Which statement applies to hypoxia? a)

it is possible to predict when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in

b)

carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency

c)

sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person

d)

you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia


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030.)

031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

Hypoxia can be caused by a)

a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the haemoglobin to transport oxygen

b)

increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases

c)

a lack of nitrogen in ambient air

d)

too much carbon dioxide in the blood

Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ? a)

The degradation of reasoning and perceptive functions.

b)

Lack of adaptation.

c)

Dizziness.

d)

Lack of accommodation.

A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental oxygen will pass the "critical threshold" at approximately: a)

16 000 ft

b)

38 000 ft

c)

18 000 ft

d)

20 000 ft

Breathing 100% will elevate the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately: a)

10 000

b)

45 000 ft

c)

22 000 ft

d)

40 000 ft

The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are a)

euphoria and impairment of judgement

b)

sensation of heat and blurred vision

c)

breathlessness and reduced night vision

d)

hyperventilation


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035.)

036.)

037.)

038.)

With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress: a)

finger nails and lips will turn blue ("cyanosis")

b)

more oxygen will reach the brain

c)

peripheral and scotopic vision will be improved

d)

an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and even unconsciousness

Which of the following symptoms can mark the onset of hyperventilation? a)

Slow heart beat

b)

Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)

c)

Slow rate of breathing

d)

Dizzy feeling

Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most effective measure is: a)

speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly

b)

avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres

c)

breathe into a plastic or paper bag

d)

hold breath

What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)? 1. Pressure breathing. 2. Anxiety or fear. 3. Overstress. 4. Strong pain. 5. Jogging. a)

1and 5 are both false

b)

1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct

c)

1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false

d)

Only 2 and 3 are correct


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039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating? 1. Dizziness 2. Muscular spasms 3. Visual disturbances 4. Cyanosis a)

1 is false, all others are correct

b)

2 and 4 are false

c)

1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

d)


What could cause hyperventilation ? a)

Fear, anxiety and distress

b)

Abuse of alcohol

c)

Extreme low rate of breathing

d)

Fatigue

A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even become unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: a)

he/she is flying a tight turn

b)

the pilot is emotionally aroused

c)

there is an increased blood flow to the brain

d)

there is a low CO-pressure in the blood

Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of: a)

60000 FT

b)

45000 FT

c)

40000 FT

d)

80000 FT


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043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

047.)

TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is: a)

the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure loss

b)

the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets in

c)

the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency; measured from the moment at which he/she is exposed to hypoxia

d)

the time between the start of hypoxia and death

The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is: a)

less than 20 seconds

b)

approximately 3 minutes

c)

between 30 and 60 seconds

d)

approximately 5 minutes

The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness). It a)

is the same amount of time for every person

b)

varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude

c)

varies individually and does not depend on altitude

d)

is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure

After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: a)

45-60 seconds

b)

5-15 seconds

c)

60-90 seconds

d)

30-45 seconds

Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) a)

should be avoided because hypoxia may develop

b)

are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded

c)

are forbidden

d)

can be performed without any danger


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048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

Pain in the Joints ("bends") is a symptom of: a)

barotrauma

b)

air-sickness

c)

decompression sickness

d)

hypoxia

After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be approximately: a)

10-15 seconds

b)

30 -40 seconds

c)

3-4 minutes

d)

5 minutes or more

You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms. What should you do before flying ? a)

seek aeromedical advice only if the symptoms become apparent

b)

delay your next flight for 6 hours

c)

nothing, you may fly immediately

d)

seek prompt aeromedical advice

Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth) is forbidden because it: a)

has no influence on altitude flights

b)

prevents any dangers caused by DCS (decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT

c)

will always lead to hypoxia

d)

can cause decompression sickness even when flying at pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT


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052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

Symptoms of decompression sickness a)

are flatulence and pain in the middle ear

b)

are bends, chokes, creeps and neurological symptoms

c)

are only relevant when diving

d)

can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT

Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to a)

sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FT

b)

cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)

c)

emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss

d)

fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an unpressurised aeroplane

The function of the Eustachian tube is to equalise the pressure between the: a)

middle ear and the external atmosphere

b)

sinuses of the nose and the external atmosphere

c)

nose, throat and the external atmosphere

d)

sinuses

Disruptions of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called: a)

barotrauma

b)

hypoxia

c)

hyperventilation

d)

embolism

Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestines can lead to: a)

barotitis

b)

barosinusitis

c)


d)

pressure pain or flatulence


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057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

What counter-measure can be used against barotrauma of the middle ear? a)

Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the middle ear

b)

Increase rate of descent

c)

Stop climbing, start descent

d)

Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw

Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose a)

is caused by differences in pressure between the sinus cavities and the outside air pressure

b)

only arises in flying and not in diving

c)

is only caused by colds and their effects

d)

is an irritation of the sinuses caused by the over-use of nasal sprays

Even at normal cabin altitudes (i.e. around 8000 ft) you can get severe abdominal pain and flatulence after eating gas forming foods or fizzy drinks. The correct countermeasure is: a)

perform "valsalva manoeuvre"

b)

descend to a lower altitude

c)

climb to a higher altitude

d)

use supplemental oxygen

A barotrauma of the middle ear a)

is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately following the decompression will eliminate the problem

b)

is only caused by large pressure changes during climb

c)

is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during descent

d)

causes severe pain in the sinuses


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061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case? a)

Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels.

b)

During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 2 000 FT

c)

At lower altitudes.

d)

More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft.

Which counter-measure can a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the middle ear? a)

Stop chewing and swallowing movements

b)

Use drugs against a cold

c)

Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate

d)

Increase the rate of descent

Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur a)

during a long high altitude flight

b)

when descending rapidly

c)

when climbing

d)

in sudden steep turns

Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by a)

pain in the joints

b)

dizziness

c)

noises in the ear

d)

a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure

The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur a)

with colds and fast climbs

b)

with colds and slow ascents

c)

after a decompression

d)

with colds and rapid descents


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066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense involves receptors in the a)

skin only

b)

muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts

c)

utriculus and sacculus

d)

semicircular canals

Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when: a)

the Eustachian tube is blocked

b)

barotrauma exists in the sinuses

c)

the nose is pinched

d)

you breath through the mouth

A barotrauma of the middle ear is: a)

an acute or chronic trauma to the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the eardrum

b)

a dilatation of the Eustachian tube

c)

an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression

d)

a bacterial infection of the middle ear

The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor coordination. They a)

are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC

b)

allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition

c)

are important senses for flight training in IMC

d)

indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces

The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is a)

useful for instrument and contact flight

b)

not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost

c)

the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC

d)

only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC


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071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given by a)

subcutaneous pressure receptors and muscle activity sensors

b)

acceleration of the stomach (nausea)

c)

blood rushing into legs

d)

pressure of the heart on the diaphragm

Orientation in flight is accomplished by 1. eyes 2. utriculus and sacculus 3. semicircular canals 4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense a)

2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false

b)

only 1 and 4 are correct

c)


d)

2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct

What should a pilot do to optimise his/her night vision (scotopic vision)? a)

Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A

b)

Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C

c)

Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off

d)

Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness

During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to instruments because: a)

perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast

b)

pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information

c)

his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions

d)

the danger of a "greying out" will make it impossible to determine the height above the terrain


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075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense" a)

can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and instrument meteorological conditions

b)

is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in space

c)

can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost

d)

can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space

Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC a)

can cause colour-illusions

b)

can cause disorientation

c)

will effect the pilots binocular vision

d)

will improve the pilots depth perception

A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of illusion could the pilot get? a)

The source of light moves away from him

b)

The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed

c)

The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing

d)

The source of light stands still

A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to: a)

a steeper than normal approach dropping low

b)

a flatter than normal approach with the risk of "ducking under"

c)

the risk to land short of the overrun

d)

an early or high "round out"

The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the dark is called a)

"autokinesis"

b)

"white out"

c)

"oculogyral illusion"

d)

"oculografic illusion"


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080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

Generally, the time required for dark adaptation is: a)

10 min

b)

30 min

c)

10 sec

d)

1/10 sec

Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness, haze)? Under these conditions it is: a)

difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects

b)

impossible to detect objects

c)

no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects

d)

unlikely that visual illusions occur

A pilot approaching an upsloping runway a)

may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short.

b)

is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long

c)

establishes a higher than normal approach speed

d)

establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out

What illusion may occur if an aircraft is flying into fog, snow or haze? a)

Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality

b)

Objects seem to be farther away than in reality

c)

Objects seem to move slower than in reality

d)

Objects will appear closer than they really are

Adaptation is a)

the reflection of the light at the cornea

b)

the change of the diameter of the pupil

c)

the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination

d)

the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina


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085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

The time required for complete adaptation is a)

for day and night: 30 min

b)

for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min

c)

for night 10 sec and for day 30 min

d)

for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutes

The requirement of good sunglasses is to a)

absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity

b)

increase the time for dark adaptation

c)

fit to the pilots individual taste

d)

eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields

Scanning at night should be performed by: a)

scanning with one eye open

b)

concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea)

c)

slight eye movements to the side of the object

d)

avoiding food containing Vitamin A

A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching to a narrow runway, that he/she is at a: a)

greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short

b)

lower height and the impression of landing slow

c)

greater height and the impression of landing short

d)

lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot

Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades a)

should be avoided, because it may destroy the optic nerve

b)

can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on

c)

can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea

d)

has no effect


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090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities a)

can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia

b)

may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be identified

c)

will have no effect at all

d)

will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia

A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a a)

greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a compensatory glide path and land long

b)

flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot

c)

compensatory glide path and stall out

d)

higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot

The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense") a)

can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC

b)

give incorrect information, when outside visual reference is lost

c)

is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude

d)

can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC

When assessing an individual's risk of developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute: 1.obesity 2.chronic stress 3.smoking 4.family history a)

1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

b)


c)

Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false

d)



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094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

Resonance of the body parts can result from: a)

acceleration along the longitudinal body axis

b)

vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz

c)

angular velocity

d)

vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz

Hypoxia will effect night vision a)

at approximately 5000 FT

b)

and causes hyperventilation

c)

and causes the autokinetic phenomena

d)

less than day vision

The metabolisation of alcohol a)

is accelerated by consuming alcohol with a meal

b)

can be influenced by easily obtained medication

c)

is a question of time

d)

can be accelerated even more by coffee

What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells? a)

Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication)

b)

High speed

c)

Acceleration

d)

Oxygen deficiency

The fovea is a)

where the optic nerves come together with the pupil

b)

the area of best day vision and no night vision at all

c)

the area of best day vision and best night vision

d)

the area of the blind spot (optic disc)


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099.)

100.)

101.)

102.)

103.)

The retina of the eye a)

is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens

b)

is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision

c)

filters the UV-light

d)

only regulates the light that falls into the eye

The Eustachian tube is the passage way between the a)

throat and the middle ear

b)

nose, throat and inner ear

c)

sinuses and the throat

d)

nose, throat and the external auditory canal

Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus? a)

Linear acceleration and angular acceleration

b)

Angular acceleration

c)

Gravity and linear acceleration

d)

Gravity alone

The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor a)

movements with constant speeds

b)

relative speed and linear accelerations

c)

gravity

d)

angular accelerations

Which part of the ear could be affected by air pressure changes during climb and/or descent? a)

The cochlea

b)

The saccules and utricles

c)

The semicircular canals

d)

The Eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)


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104.)

105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of sound? a)

The cochlea

b)

The Eustachian tube

c)


d)

The sacculus and utriculus

Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear acceleration? a)


b)

The cochlea

c)


d)

The eustachian tube

Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the detection of angular acceleration? a)


b)


c)

The cochlea

d)

The Eustachian tube

The vestibular apparatus a)

reacts to vibrations of the cochlea

b)

reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity

c)

reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear

d)

gives the impression of hearing

Which is the audible range to human hearing? a)

Between 20 KHz and 20 KHz

b)

Between 20 Hz and 20 MHz

c)

Between 20 MHz and 20 000MHz

d)

Between 20 Hz and 20 KHz


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109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

Which of the following components belong to the middle ear? a)

Endolymph

b)

Ossicles

c)

Semicircular canals

d)

Otoliths

Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when altitude is changed? a)

Eustachian tube

b)

Cochlea

c)

Tympanic membrane

d)

External auditory canal

Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance a)

only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects are negligible

b)

the side effects only have to be considered

c)

medication has no influence on pilot´s performance

d)

the primary and the side effects have to be considered

What is understood by air-sickness? a)

An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear

b)

An illness caused by reduced air pressure

c)

An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood

d)

A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea and vomiting

Flying a coordinated level turn will a)

make the blood being pooled in the head

b)

make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body`s vertical axis

c)

make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s vertical axis

d)

first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descent


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114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a prolonged level turn? a)

Flying straight and level

b)

Turning into the original direction

c)

Turning in the opposite direction

d)

Climbing

How can a pilot overcome vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight? 1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check. 2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling. 3. Ignore arising illusions. 4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to "shake-off" illusions. a)

Only 4 is correct

b)


c)

1, 2 and 3 are correct

d)

1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of a)

"Oculogravic illusion"

b)

"Flicker-vertigo"

c)

"Nystagmus"

d)

"Pilot`s vertigo"

"Pilot's vertigo" a)

is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn

b)

announces the beginning of airsickness

c)

is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)

d)

is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration


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118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when flying in the clouds? a)

Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds

b)

Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections

c)

Switch strobe-lights off

d)

Fly straight and level and avoid head movements

What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s vertigo"? 1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check. 2. Believe the instruments. 3. Ignore illusions. 4. Minimize head movements. a)


b)


c)

Only 4 is false

d)


What is the correct action to counteract vertigo? a)

Rely on the information from the semicircular canals, since these will be transmitting correct information

b)

Believe the instruments

c)

Concentrate on the vertical speed indicator

d)

Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe again normally

The risk of spatial disorientation increases when: a)

information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored

b)

there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular organs

c)

the pilot is buckled tightly to his/her seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the aircraft by the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense

d)

the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions


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122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

Which flight-manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while a)

flying straight and level

b)

banking

c)

descending

d)

climbing

Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of a)

climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin

b)

straight and level flight

c)

spinning into the same direction

d)

spinning into the opposite direction

When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will a)

give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the aircraft going down)

b)

give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)

c)

give the illusion of banking

d)

give the illusion of straight and level flight

A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may experience: a)

the illusion to turning

b)

the feeling of rotation

c)

the illusion of climbing or descending

d)

the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left


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126.)

127.)

128.)

Which of the following symptoms may a pilot experience when subjected to hypoxia? 1. Fatigue. 2. Euphoria. 3. Lack of concentration. 4. Pain in the joints. 5. Pain in the inner ear a)

Only 5 is false

b)

4 and 5 are correct

c)


d)


Pilots should not take antihistamines because they may cause: 1. Drowsiness and dizziness 2. Hypoglycaemia 3. Hyperventilation 4. Flatulence Which of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

only 1

b)

2, 3 and 4

c)

3 and 4

d)

1 and 3

The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly for the following reasons: 1. The disease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification. 2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment. 3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety. 4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped. a)

Only 2 is false.

b)


c)

3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.

d)



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129.)

130.)

131.)

132.)

Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good night vision: 1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance 2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly 3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balanced diet containing sufficient vitamin A 4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not in scotopic vision a)

1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct

b)


c)

Only 4 is false

d)


Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get: a)

a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia

b)

a suppressed desire to eat and drink

c)

a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia

d)

a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxia

A pilot who smokes will lose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with haemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day? a)

12 - 18%

b)

5 - 8%

c)

20 - 25%

d)

0.5 - 2%

Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude a)

of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen

b)

lower than 10 000 FT

c)

of 10 000 FT

d)

above 10 000 FT


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133.)

134.)

135.)

136.)

137.)

Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed? a)

Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken

b)

Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcohol

c)

Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lost

d)

Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance

Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may a)

compensate for side effects of drugs

b)

increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood

c)

show undesired effects only during night flights

d)

intensify the effects of the drugs

The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a explained by: a)

Graham´s law

b)

Boyle Mariotte´s law

c)

Dalton´s law

d)

Henry´s law

Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because a)

it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract

b)

it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane

c)

it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys

d)

it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin

Hyperventilation causes a)

a reduction of carbon dioxide in the blood

b)

hypochondria

c)

acidosis

d)

an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood


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138.)

139.)

140.)

141.)

142.)

Anxiety and fear can cause a)

spatial disorientation

b)

hypoxia

c)

hypoglycaemia

d)

hyperventilation

One of the first effects to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial accelerations is a)

red-vision

b)

black-out

c)

grey-out

d)

loss of consciousness

To prevent vertigo in flight we should a)

keep breathing normally

b)

breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency

c)

look towards the sides when we make a turn

d)

not move the head suddenly while we are turning

When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the a)

proprioceptive sensitivity

b)

vision

c)

sense of balance

d)

cochlea

The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in cigarettes is a)

tar

b)

nicotine

c)

lead

d)

carbon monoxide


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143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

147.)

One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to? a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

Tar

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Carbonic anhydride

The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in a)

the inner ear

b)

the middle ear

c)

the maxillary sinus

d)

the outer ear

The semicircular canals form part of the a)

ear drum

b)

external ear

c)

inner ear

d)

middle ear

It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is: a)

swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss

b)

pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents

c)

swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic membrane

d)

gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum

The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs: a)

on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously

b)

on stimulating the cochlea intensely

c)

when no semicircular canal is stimulated

d)

on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear


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148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

152.)

When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation a)

that we are starting a spin in the opposite direction

b)

of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft

c)

of turning in the same direction

d)

of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft

When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a a)

spin

b)

turn

c)

descent

d)

climb

Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can result in: a)

presbycusis (effects of aging)

b)

noise induced hearing loss

c)

conductive hearing loss

d)

a ruptured ear drum

Presbycusis results in: a)

reduction in the perception of all tones equally

b)

reduction in the perception of low tones first

c)

will not affect a pilot's hearing if he/she is wearing ear-plugs all the time

d)

reduction in the perception of high tones first

The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies a)

20000 - 40000 Hz

b)

0 - 16 Hz

c)

30 - 15000 dB

d)

16 - 20000 Hz


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153.)

154.)

155.)

156.)

157.)

The intensity of a sound is measured in a)

curies

b)

decibels

c)

hertz

d)

cycles per second

The ozone-layer is situated in the a)

stratosphere

b)

troposphere

c)

ionosphere

d)

thermosphere

The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at a)

10 000 feet

b)

25 000 feet

c)

18 000 feet

d)

30 000 feet

Which of the following laws explains bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution in body tissues due to a decrease in atmospheric pressure? a)

Gay Lussac's law

b)

Henry's law

c)

Boyle's law

d)

Dalton's law

The normal rate of breathing when at rest is a)

60 to 100 cycles a minute

b)


c)


d)



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158.)

159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

The main function of the red blood cells is a)

to transport oxygen

b)

to contribute to the immune response of the organism

c)

the cellular defence of the organism

d)

to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood

Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not usually occur (indifferent phase) a)

between 3 000 m and 5 000 m

b)

below 3 000 m

c)

up to 5 000 m

d)

between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

"The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of: a)

CNS-disturbances

b)

loss of peripheral vision

c)

pain in the joints

d)

pain in the thorax and a cough

The primary symptom of Decompression sickness/illness is: a)

the Bends

b)

the Chokes

c)

red coloured cheeks and lips

d)

neurological damages to the CNS

The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision a)

are the cones

b)

are the rods

c)

are rods and cones

d)

is the cornea


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163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

167.)

The fovea a)

is the area responsible for night vision

b)

is an area in which cones predominate

c)

is an area in which rods predominate

d)

is sensitive to very low intensities of light

When the optical image forms in front of the retina; this results in: a)

hypermetropia

b)

astigmatism

c)

myopia

d)

presbyopia

Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by a)

the suddenness of onset of a noise

b)

the duration and intensity of a noise

c)

the intensity of the noise but not its duration

d)

the duration of a noise but not its intensity

In order to reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should: a)

be avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart

b)

triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week

c)

double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week

d)

double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week

Which of the following is most true? a)

Regular exercise and reduction in calorie consumption are both essential in order to lose weight

b)

Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing calorie consumption

c)

Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight

d)

Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate


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168.)

169.)

170.)

171.)

Hypoxia is: a)

a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate.

b)

often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning

c)

a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.

d)

a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions

Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the following symptoms: a)

a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate

b)

blue finger-nails and lips

c)

reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity

d)

dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision

In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed a)

24 hours

b)

36 hours after any scuba diving

c)

3 hours after non decompression diving

d)

48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made

During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome illusions is the: a)

visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator

b)

"Seat-of-the-pants-Sense"

c)

vestibular sense

d)

visual sense by looking outside


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172.)

173.)

174.)

175.)

Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight: a)

when flying in light rain below the ceiling

b)

if the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not believe the instruments

c)

when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check

d)

when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer

The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is a)

the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide

b)

tar

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

nicotine

It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is: a)

the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents

b)

because it will seriously affect peripheral vision

c)

swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in hyperventilation

d)

although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen, gentle descents at high altitude would result in damage to the ear drum

A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is correct: a)

They will cause a condition of over-arousal

b)

The side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by pilots

c)

They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flight

d)

A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from an aviation medical specialist if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time


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176.)

177.)

178.)

179.)

The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the gases in the mixture. This is: a)

Henry`s law

b)

Dalton´s law

c)

Graham´s law

d)

Boyle Mariotte´s law

The cabin pressure in airline operation is a)

normally between 2 000 to 3 000 feet

b)


c)


d)

always equivalent to sea level

Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct? a)

A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an aircraft.

b)

Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to it for a long period of time.

c)

When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are experienced

d)

Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste.

Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is: a)

insidious

b)

obvious

c)

sudden

d)

intense


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180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by external stimulations. This internal equilibrium is called: a)

Isothermy

b)

Metastasis

c)

Heterostasis

d)

Homeostasis

Which of the following systems are involved in motion sickness ? -1: Hearing -2: The vestibular system -3: Vision -4 The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense") -5: The gastrointestinal system a)

1,2,3

b)

1,2,5

c)

2,3,4,5

d)

2,3,4

Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system ? -1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft -2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving) -3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects -4: Illusions of rotation a)

3,4

b)

1,4

c)

2,3,4

d)

2

The vestibular system is composed of -1: two ventricles -2: a saccule -3: a utricle -4: three semicircular channels a)

2,3,4

b)

2,3

c)

1,3,4

d)

1,4


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184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? - 1: The retina has rods in its peripheral zone and cones in its central zone - 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods - 3: The rods allow for night-vision - 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina a)

2,3

b)

1,3

c)

1

d)

4

In order to perceive colour vision, it is necessary: -1: for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity) -2: at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15° -3: to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light -4: to avoid white light a)

1,2,3

b)

1

c)

2,4

d)

3

The retina allows for colour perception as a result of the: a)

rods located in its peripheral zone

b)

cones located in its central part

c)

crystalline lens

d)

rods located in its central part

Accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of the following? a)

The retina

b)

The cones

c)

The rods

d)

The crystalline lens


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188.)

189.)

190.)

191.)

With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it: -1: varies between 40 and 60% -2: varies between 5 and 15% -3: may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew -4: has no special effects on crew members a)

2,3,4

b)

1,3

c)

1,4

d)

2,3

The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 39°C: a)

nothing significant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at 39°C

b)

impairment of physical and mental performance

c)

apathy

d)

considerable dehydration

Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when exposed to extreme high environmental temperatures? -1: Shivering -2: Vaso-constriction of peripheral blood vessels -3: Sweating -4: Vaso-dilation of peripheral blood vessels a)

1

b)

3,4

c)

2,3

d)

1,3,4

The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35°C: a)

shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy

b)

mental disorders, and even coma

c)

the appearance of intense shivering

d)

profuse sweating


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192.)

193.)

194.)

195.)

We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia: a)

widespread pain in the joints

b)

greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere

c)

reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37°C

d)

a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral temperature at the skin is stable

Which of the following statements concerning barotrauma are correct? a)

It is caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease in altitude

b)

It is caused by pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and the ambient pressure

c)

It is mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its internal pressures

d)

It is more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descent

With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that: a)

physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness symptoms

b)

scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent flight

c)

age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors

d)

gender is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to it

The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must: a)

allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent hypoxia

b)

allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxia

c)

make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes

d)

make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygen


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196.)

197.)

198.)

199.)

What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft ? a)

Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot

b)

About 18 seconds

c)

About 30 seconds

d)

Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds

The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to: 1: physical activity of the subjected crew 2: the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question 3: the strength and time of decompression 4: the cabin temperature a)

3,4

b)

1,3

c)

1,2

d)

4

What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations? a)

A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood available

b)

An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level)

c)

Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders

d)

An improvement of peripheral vision

Which of the following statements are correct ? 1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities. 2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold. 3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy 4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35°C a)

2,4

b)

1,3,4

c)

2,3,4

d)

1,2,3


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200.)

201.)

202.)

203.)

Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for: a)

red vision, both during the day and at night

b)

good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)

c)

good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)

d)

precise vision of contours and colours

Of the following alternatives, which effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)? - 1: Decrease in heart rate - 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body - 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level - 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs a)

1

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,3,4

d)

1,2,3

What is hypoxia ? a)

A state characterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask

b)

The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness

c)

Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition

d)

The total absence of oxygen in the blood of the body

To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary: - 1: to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination - 2: to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting - 3: not to focus on the point to be observed - 4: to avoid blinding sources of light a)

1,3,4

b)

2

c)

1,2,4

d)

2,3,4


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204.)

205.)

206.)

207.)

Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to a)

the high sensitivity of the retina

b)

binocular vision

c)

peripheral vision

d)

interactions between cones and rods

What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000 ft? a)

Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse

b)

Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness

c)

Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, slowing of the rate of breathing

d)

Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination

Autokinetic illusion is: a)

poor interpretation of the surrounding world

b)

an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to move

c)

the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the opposite direction of the acceleration

d)

a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations

Which of the following statements are correct ? -1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is satisfactory for the body -2: Thirst is a symptom of dehydration -3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue -4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost a)

1,4

b)

1,2,4

c)

2,3,4

d)

2,3


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208.)

209.)

210.)

211.)

With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct ? -1: It is due to the functioning of rods -2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen -3: Its very active both during the day and at night -4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity a)

1,2,4

b)

1,3

c)

2,4

d)

2,3,4


40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel

b)

The kinesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying

c)

Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man

d)

70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel

What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive decompression? a)

Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft

b)

First inform ATC

c)

Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency

d)

Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight

What is the approximate Time of Useful Consciousness for a seated pilot following a rapid decompression at 35,000 ft ? a)

3 seconds

b)

45 seconds

c)

12 seconds

d)

5 minutes


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212.)

213.)

214.)

215.)

What is the Time of Useful Consciousness ? a)

The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression

b)

The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency, measured from the moment at which he/she loses his/her available oxygen supply

c)

The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes aware of it

d)

The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia

Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness occur? a)

Only medical treatment is of use

b)

Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary

c)

Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible

d)

Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before climbing again

What is decompression sickness? a)

The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's capabilities

b)

A condition resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude

c)

A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft

d)

A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern aircraft

Which of the following statements are correct: -1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction -2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety -3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying -4: Alcohol has no effect on the inner ear. a)


b)

2 and 3 are correct

c)


d)



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216.)

217.)

218.)

219.)

220.)

The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information: a)

is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle

b)

is limited to the foveal area of the retina

c)

is limited to daytime using the rod cells

d)

is almost equally shared by the entire retina

Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ? a)

Vasodilatation is the only mechanism which is capable of reducing body temperature.

b)

Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40°C or more.

c)

Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.

d)

Complete adaptation to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight.

The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure at sea level. In accordance with this statement, a)

the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled

b)

the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea level

c)

the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by 50 % too

d)

the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by one half also

You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between: a)

45.000 and 50.000 feet

b)

10.000 and 15.000 feet

c)

5.000 and 10.000 feet

d)

0 and 5.000 feet

Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by: a)

disorientation

b)

increased atmospheric pressure

c)

accelerations

d)

decreased atmospheric pressure


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221.)

222.)

223.)

224.)

225.)

The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial pressure of oxygen: a)

increases by expansion

b)

decreases significantly with lower temperatures

c)

decreases with decreasing barometric pressure

d)

remains constant, independent from altitude

Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately: a)

21% oxygen

b)

10% oxygen

c)

15% oxygen

d)

5% oxygen

Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about: a)

18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases

b)


c)

21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases

d)


Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of: a)

hyperventilation with increasing altitude

b)

the occurrence of decompression sickness at high altitude

c)

the occurrence of hypoxia with increasing altitude

d)

the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude

Dalton's law explains the occurrence of: a)

creeps

b)

bends

c)

altitude hypoxia

d)



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226.)

227.)

228.)

229.)

Henry's Law explains the occurrence of: a)


b)

hyperventilation

c)

diffusion

d)

hypoxia

Our body takes its energy from: 1: minerals 2: protein 3: carbonhydrates 4: vitamins a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,3

c)

1,4

d)

2,3

What is meant by metabolism? a)

Information exchange

b)

The generation and utilisation of energy by the body's cells and tissues

c)

Transfer of chemical messages

d)

Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood

One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is: a)

carbon dioxide

b)

sugar

c)

fat

d)

protein


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230.)

231.)

232.)

233.)

The body loses water via: 1. the skin and the lungs 2. the kidneys Which of the following lists all the correct answers ? a)

1 is not correct and 2 is correct

b)

both are false

c)

1 is correct and 2 is not correct

d)

1 and 2 are correct

Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli: a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

oxygen

The blood in the pulmonary artery is: a)

lacking in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide

b)

rich in oxygen and lacking in carbon dioxide

c)

rich in both oxygen and carbon dioxide

d)

lacking in both oxygen and carbon dioxide

The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for: a)

gases

b)

red blood cells

c)

protein

d)

platelets


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234.)

235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

The circulatory system, amongst other things, allows for: 1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide 2. transportation of information by chemical substances Which of the following lists all the correct statements ? a)

1 and 2 are correct

b)

1 is false and 2 is correct

c)

both are false

d)

1 is correct and 2 is false

Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by a)

white blood cells

b)

platelets

c)

blood plasma

d)

red blood cells

Haemoglobin is: a)

dissolved in the plasma

b)

in the red blood cells

c)

in the platelets

d)

in the white blood cells

Someone who has anaemia has: a)

not enough functional haemoglobin

b)

not enough platelets

c)

not enough plasma

d)

not enough white blood cells

The average pulse of a healthy adult at rest is about: a)

60 to 80 beats/min

b)

30 to 50 beats/min

c)

90 to 100 beats/min

d)

110 to 150 beats/min


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239.)

240.)

241.)

242.)

243.)

With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardiac output is about: a)

8 litres/min

b)

5 litres/min

c)

6 litres/min

d)

7 litres/min

At rest the cardiac output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately: a)

75 litres/min

b)

5 litres/min

c)

45 litres/min

d)

450 ml/min

The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: a)

the pulmonary veins

b)

the auricles

c)

the coronary arteries

d)

ventricles

The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic): a)

180/120 mm Hg

b)

120/80 mm Hg

c)

80/20 mm Hg

d)

220/180 mm Hg

Which of the following statements is correct? The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressure a)

in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)

b)

in the muscles of the upper arm

c)

in the veins of the upper arm

d)

in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body)


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244.)

245.)

246.)

247.)

Blood-pressure depends on: 1. the cardiac output 2. the resistance of the capillaries Which of the following lists all the correct answers ? a)

1 and 2 are both false

b)

1 and 2 are correct

c)

1 is false 2 is correct

d)

1 is correct 2 is false

The blood-pressure depends on: 1. the work of the heart 2. the peripheral resistance 3. the elasticity of the arterial walls 4. the blood volume and viscosity a)

1,2,3 and 4 are correct

b)


c)


d)


Changes in blood-pressure are measured by: a)

adrenal glands

b)

pacemakers

c)

arteriols

d)

pressoreceptors

The pressoreceptors are located in a)

the lungs

b)

the intestines

c)

the carotid and aortic arterial vessels

d)

the heart


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248.)

249.)

250.)

251.)

When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which result in: 1. an increase of respiratory activity 2. the arteriols to constrict 3. an increase of cardiac output 4. the heart rate to rise a)


b)


c)


d)


The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on: 1. the duration of the G-forces 2. the onset rate of the G-forces 3. the magnitude of the G-forces 4. the direction of the G-forces. a)


b)

1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false

c)

1and 4 are correct, 3 is false

d)


Positive g will cause the blood-pressure in the brain to: a)

decrease

b)

first increase, then decrease

c)

remain constant

d)

increase

During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is: a)

grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision

b)

unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out.

c)

grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness.

d)

black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness.


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252.)

253.)

254.)

255.)

256.)

The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about: a)

72 cycles per minute

b)


c)

4 cycles per minute

d)


The volume of air exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about: a)

500 ml of air

b)

75 ml of air

c)

150 ml of air

d)

350 ml of air

The primary factor in controlling the rate and depth of breathing is the: a)

partial pressure of nitrogen

b)

total air pressure in the blood

c)

pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

d)

partial pressure of oxygen in the blood

The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be described by: a)

Boyle's Law

b)

Dalton's Law

c)

the law of diffusion

d)

Henry's Law

The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by: a)

Dalton's Law

b)

the law of diffusion

c)

Henry's Law

d)

Boyles Law


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257.)

258.)

259.)

260.)

261.)

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is: a)

lower than in the blood

b)

higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

c)

the same as in the atmospheric air

d)

lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air.

The rate and depth of breathing is primarily regulated by the concentration of: a)

oxygen in the cells

b)

nitrogen in the air

c)

carbon dioxide in the blood

d)

water vapour in the alveoli

A pressurized cabin helps to prevent: 1. decompression sickness 2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines 3. hypoxia 4. coronary disease a)

1, 2 and 3 are correct.

b)


c)


d)


Healthy people are usually capable of compensating for a lack of oxygen up to: a)

20.000 feet

b)

10.000 - 12.000feet

c)

15.000 feet

d)

25.000 feet

When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because: a)

the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level.

b)

the composition of the air is different from sea level

c)

the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level

d)

the composition of the blood changes


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262.)

263.)

264.)

265.)

Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is approximately 98%. This saturation decreases with: 1. decreasing air pressure 2. carbon monoxide poisoning 3. increasing altitude 4. increasing air pressure a)


b)


c)


d)


Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells a)

have a shortage of oxygen

b)

are saturated with nitrogen

c)

have a shortage of carbon dioxide

d)

are saturated with oxygen

The severity of hypoxia depends on the: 1. rate of decompression 2. physical fitness 3. flight level 4. individual tolerance a)


b)


c)


d)


Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct? a)

It is a potential threat to safety.

b)

It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate for it.

c)

It activates the senses and makes them function better.

d)

It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft.


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266.)

267.)

268.)

269.)

Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbances a)

1,3 and 4 are correct

b)


c)


d)


One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is: a)

impaired judgement

b)

reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin

c)

hyperventilation, causing emotional stress

d)

cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear

Which of the following symptoms can indicate hypoxia? 1. Blue lips and finger nails. 2. Euphoria. 3. Flatulence. 4 .Unconsciousness.. a)


b)


c)


d)


Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia? a)

Hearing.

b)

Motor coordination.

c)

Speech.

d)

Night vision.


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270.)

271.)

272.)

273.)

You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because: a)

the blood-pressure can get too low

b)

you will get the bends

c)

your judgement could be impaired

d)

the blood-pressure can get too high

During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your visual acuity has decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by: a)

closing one eye

b)

breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask.

c)

dim the instrument lights

d)

scanning sectors of the field of vision

During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms: 1. blue lips 2. mental disturbances 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs 4. reduction of peripheral vision Which is the possible cause? a)

Hypothermia.

b)

Hypoglycaemia.

c)

Glaucoma.

d)

Hypoxia.

Which measure(s) will help to compensate for hypoxia? 1. Descend below 10 000 FT. 2. Breathe 100 % oxygen. 3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT. 4. Reduce physical activities. a)


b)


c)


d)

only 1 is correct


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274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

278.)

A pilot can prevent hypoxia by: a)

relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxia

b)

not exceeding a cabin pressure altitude of 20000 ft

c)

swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method

d)

using additional oxygen when flying above 10000 ft

A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because: a)

your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation

b)

your heart rate is too low after blood-donation

c)

you have an increased susceptibility to fainting

d)

the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation

Hyperventilation is: a)

a decreased lung ventilation

b)

an increased lung ventilation

c)

a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.

d)

a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood

Hyperventilation is: a)

a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain

b)

an increased heart rate caused by an increasing blood pressure

c)

a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)

d)

an increased heart rate caused by a decreasing blood-pressure

If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need a)

the acid-base balance of the blood will not change

b)

the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly

c)

the blood turns more alkaline

d)

the blood turns more acid


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279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

When hyperventilating you should: a)

apply the Valsalva method

b)

descend

c)

use the oxygen mask

d)

control your rate and depth of breathing

A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by: a)

controlling the rate and depth of breathing and/or breathing into a bag

b)

depending on instruments

c)

the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure

d)

increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide

You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The intention is: a)

to reduce blood pressure

b)

to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen

c)

to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lungs

d)

to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible

Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means: a)

a lesser sensitivity

b)

a greater selectivity

c)

a greater sensitivity

d)

a lesser selectivity

Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by: a)

the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or lying down

b)

the condition of the body itself

c)

a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical

d)

environmental stressors


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284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

288.)

The proprioceptors do not orient an individual to his/her surroundings, but informs him/her of a)

the relative motion and relative position of his body parts

b)

the condition in the body itself

c)

our surroundings

d)

a touch on the skin

A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors is called: a)

reflex

b)

change of stimulation level

c)

control system

d)

data processing

The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by: a)

the cornea

b)

the ciliary body

c)

the lens

d)

the pupil

When focussing on near objects: a)

the shape of lens gets flatter

b)

the pupil gets larger

c)

the cornea gets smaller

d)

the shape of lens gets more spherical

The ability of the lens to change its shape is called: a)

accommodation

b)

adaptation

c)

depth perception

d)

binocular vision


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289.)

290.)

291.)

292.)

The mechanism of accommodation is caused by: a)

the diameter of the pupil

b)

the functioning of the muscles of the eye

c)

the elasticity of the optic nerves

d)

the functioning of the ciliary muscle around the lens

Presbyopia is: a)

high intraocular pressure

b)

long sightedness linked with age

c)

short sightedness

d)

myopia

Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by: 1. anaemia 2. smoking in the cockpit 3. carbon monoxide poisoning 4. hypoxia a)


b)


c)


d)


Glaucoma 1. can lead to total blindness 2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field 3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage a)

1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false

b)


c)

1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

d)



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293.)

294.)

295.)

296.)

297.)

Glaucoma is: a)

high intra-ocular pressure

b)

disturbed night vision

c)

disturbed colour vision

d)

disturbed adaptation

The peripheral vision is important for: a)

detecting moving objects

b)

visual acuity

c)

binocular vision

d)

colour vision

Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to use the scanning technique, because a)

it is tiring to look continually in the same direction

b)

the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A

c)

only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearly

d)

only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly

The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about: a)

10 seconds

b)

5 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

25 - 30 minutes

The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called: a)

the fovea

b)

the cones and the rods

c)

the cones

d)

the rods


page: 66

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298.)

299.)

300.)

301.)

When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flashblindness by: a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights b) looking inside the cockpit c) wearing sunglasses d) using blinds or curtains when installed a)

a), b), c) and d) are correct

b)

a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false

c)

c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false

d)

a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false

Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night? a)

Blink your eyes.

b)

Look directly at the object.

c)

Look with one eye.

d)

Look to the side (10 - 15 deg) of the object.

The Eustachian tube connects: a)

the middle ear and the inner ear

b)

the semi circular canals

c)

the middle ear and the throat

d)

the auditory duct and the inner ear

Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an obstruction in the outer ear 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane a)


b)


c)


d)



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302.)

303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by: a)

damage to the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise

b)

reduced mobility of the ossicles

c)

pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum

d)

a blocked Eustachian tube

Excessive exposure to noise damages: a)

the sensitive membrane in the cochlea

b)

the ossicles

c)


d)

the eardrum

The inner ear is able to perceive: 1. angular acceleration 2. linear acceleration 3. Noise a)


b)

2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false

c)

1 and 2 and 3 are correct

d)


Angular accelerations are perceived by: a)

the cochlea

b)

the otholiths

c)

the receptors in the skin and the joints

d)


The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to: a)

angular speed

b)

linear acceleration and gravity

c)

constant speed only

d)

angular acceleration


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307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

Visual disturbances can be caused by: 1. hyperventilation 2. hypoxia 3. hypertension 4. fatigue a)


b)


c)


d)


Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is: 1. flying in IMC 2. frequently changing between inside and outside references 3. flying from IMC into VMC 4. approaching over still water at night a)


b)


c)


d)


Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of: a)

pitching up

b)

pitching down

c)

vertigo

d)

apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision

Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of: a)

spinning

b)

descending

c)

yawing

d)

climbing


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311.)

312.)

313.)

314.)

315.)

Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of: a)

undergoing positive G

b)

gazing in the direction of a flashing light

c)

simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres

d)

normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age

When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention against: a)

pressure vertigo

b)

autokinesis

c)

oculogyral illusion

d)

coriolis illusion

A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences: a)

autokinetic illusion

b)

pressure vertigo

c)

coriolis illusion

d)

barotrauma

Empty field myopia is caused by: a)

ozone at altitude

b)

flying over mountainous terrain

c)

atmospheric perspective

d)

lack of distant focal points

When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion that: a)

the light is moving

b)

the colour of the light is varying

c)

the size of the light is varying

d)

the intensity of the light is varying


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316.)

317.)

318.)

319.)

320.)

When you stare at a single light against the dark (i.e.. an isolated star) you will find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called: a)

black hole illusion

b)

leans

c)

coriolis illusion

d)

autokinetic phenomenon

How may haze effect perception? a)

Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity

b)

Objects seem to be closer than in reality.

c)

Objects will give better contrast.

d)

Objects seem to be further away than in reality.

The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking visual cues other than those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of a)

being too close, landing long

b)

being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short

c)

being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal

d)

climbing

You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: a)

low approach with overshoot

b)

high approach with overshoot

c)

high approach with undershoot

d)

low approach with undershoot

You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: a)

high approach with overshoot

b)

low approach with overshoot

c)

low approach with undershoot

d)

high approach with undershoot


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321.)

322.)

323.)

324.)

325.)

1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat-of-the-PantsSense. 2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the instruments you must believe the instruments. a)

1 is false, 2 is correct

b)

1 and 2 are false

c)

1 and 2 are correct

d)

1 is correct, 2 is false

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? a)

Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the time.

b)

Tilt your head to the side to get better information from the semicircular canals.

c)

Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.

d)

Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight? a)

Always try to catch outside visual cues.

b)

Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses.

c)

Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check.

d)

Rely on the "seat of the pants" sense.

If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should: a)

use your oxygen mask

b)

dim the cockpit lighting

c)

continue on instruments

d)

scan the surroundings

If you are disorientated during night flying you must: a)

check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast

b)

descend

c)

look outside

d)

rely on your instruments


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326.)

327.)

328.)

329.)

A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him to: 1. unbuckle and massage the belly 2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines 3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before flight in the future 4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight a)


b)


c)

1 and 3 not advisable

d)

only 4 is correct

On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will a)

shrink

b)

be absorbed by tissues and blood

c)

stay the same

d)

expand

Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of: 1. flatulence 2. pain in the ear during descent 3. vertigo 4. pain in the nasal sinuses a)

1 and 2 are correct

b)


c)


d)


Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect? a)

bends

b)

pain in the sinuses

c)

hypoxia

d)

chokes


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330.)

331.)

332.)

333.)

334.)

Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by: a)

levelling off and possibly climbing

b)

increasing the rate of descent

c)

using an oxygen mask

d)

blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand

Which symptom does not belong to the following list: a)

leans

b)

chokes

c)

creeps

d)

bends

The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression are called: a)

creeps

b)

chokes

c)

leans

d)

bends

Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called: a)

leans

b)

creeps

c)

bends

d)

chokes

Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the joints. Which of following answers is correct? a)

This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.

b)

You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of decompression sickness.

c)

This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.

d)

This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some exercise.


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335.)

336.)

337.)

338.)

Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by: 1. SCUBA diving 2. Obesity 3. Age 4. Body height a)

2 and 4 are correct

b)


c)

only 4 is correct

d)


Decompression symptoms are caused by: a)

dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body

b)

release of locked gases from joints

c)

low oxygen pressure of inhaled air

d)

low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air

In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is: a)

carry out check for structural damage

b)

transmit mayday call

c)

don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow

d)

descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA

The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of decompression sickness: 1. climb to higher level 2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as soon as possible 3. breathe 100 % oxygen 4. obtain medical advice about recompression after landing a)

1 and 3 are correct

b)


c)

1 and 4 are correct

d)



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339.)

340.)

341.)

342.)

Decompression sickness can normally be prevented by: 1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT 2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes 3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight 4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight a)

only 3 is correct

b)


c)


d)


Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be about: a)

10 to 12 minutes

b)

3 to 5 minutes

c)

5 to 10 minutes

d)

between 45 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds

After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is about: a)

5 minutes.

b)

30 to 60 seconds

c)

15 seconds or less

d)

10 minutes.

After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least: a)

6 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

48 hours

d)

12 hours


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343.)

344.)

345.)

346.)

Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting: a)

hypoxia

b)

stress

c)

decompression sickness without having a decompression

d)

hyperventilation

Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body? a)

Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of alcohol.

b)

A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.

c)

An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.

d)

When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.

Which statement is correct? 1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease 2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals physiological altitude during flight 3. Smokers have a greater chance of contracting lung cancer a)


b)


c)


d)


Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is because: a)

haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen

b)

the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract

c)

carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli

d)

carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli


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347.)

348.)

349.)

350.)

CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction of time of useful consciousness 2. hypoxia at a lower altitude than normal a)


b)


c)

1 and 2 are both correct

d)


Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1. loss of muscular power 2. headache 3. impaired judgement 4. pain in the joints 5. loss of consciousness a)

1, 2, 3, 4 are correct

b)

1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct

c)


d)


Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as: a)

relative humidity decreases

b)

altitude decreases

c)

air pressure increases

d)

altitude increases

If someone hyperventilates due to stress his/her blood will become: a)

more acid

b)

more alkaline

c)

less saturated with oxygen

d)

more saturated with carbon dioxide


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351.)

352.)

353.)

354.)

355.)

1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error. a)

1 is not correct, 2 is correct

b)

1 and 2 are both not correct

c)

1 is correct, 2 is not correct

d)


Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated by: a)

increasing the amount of nitrogen being physically dissolved in the blood

b)

breathing into a paper bag

c)

increasing the amount of oxygen being physically dissolved in the blood

d)

decreasing the amount of oxygen being combined with the hemoglobin in the blood

Ozone in the air of a pressurized cabin can be eliminated by: a)

ozone-converters

b)

climbing to altitudes above 45,000 ft

c)

avoiding flights along the equator

d)

spraying detergents

The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood is due to: a)

inspiration

b)

changes in atmospheric pressure

c)

physical exercise

d)

diffusion

The circulation of blood: 1. transports oxygen to the body cells 2. withdraws waste products from the cells 3. conveys nutrients to the cells Which of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

2 and 3

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

1 and 2

d)

1 and 3


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356.)

357.)

358.)

359.)

The total gas volume of the lung is the sum of: 1. tidal volume 2. inspiratory reserve volume 3. expiratory reserve volume 4. residual volume Which of the following lists the correct combination? a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

During hyperventilation: a)

acidity level of the blood is reduced

b)

alkalinity level of the blood is reduced

c)

oxygen concentration of the blood is below normal

d)

nitrogen concentration of the blood is above normal

Hypoxic hypoxia may be caused by: 1. climbing to a high altitude without using additional oxygen 2. malfunction in the oxygen supply system 3. loss of cabin pressurization at high altitude Which of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

2 and 3

b)

1 and 3

c)

1, 2 and 3

d)

1 and 2

Which of the following gases is fundamentally responsible for decompression sickness? a)

Oxygen.

b)

Carbon dioxide.

c)

Sodium.

d)

Nitrogen.


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360.)

361.)

362.)

363.)

364.)

What is the name of the functional connection between neurones? a)

Interconnnection.

b)

Occlusion.

c)

Synapse.

d)

By-pass.

Glaucoma is due to: a)

Increase in pressure of the liquid within the eye

b)

Excess light on the eyeball

c)

Drop in pressure of the liquid around the eye

d)

Damage to the eyeball due to high altitude

What can cause spatial disorientation? a)

Damage to the receptor cells in the eyes.

b)

Flying in clear daylight conditions.

c)

False perception of orientation of the aircraft with respect to spatial references.

d)

Reference to well-defined external visual references, such as the horizon.

What is meant by presbycusis? a)

Gradual loss of hearing with age.

b)

Total loss of hearing in one ear due to use of a headset in the cockpit.

c)

Gradual onset of long-sightedness with age.

d)

Total loss of hearing in both ears due to disease.

When might a pilot have the sensation of a nose-low attitude? a)

When decelerating in straight, horizontal flight.

b)

During linear acceleration.

c)

When turning (angular acceleration).

d)

When climbing at greater than 2000 FT / min


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365.)

366.)

367.)

368.)

369.)

What human function is most sensitive to lack of oxygen? a)

Hearing.

b)

Motor co-ordination.

c)

Touch.

d)

Night vision.

To avoid incapacity due to gastro-intestinal problems, it is recommended that a simple, easily digested meal before boarding the aircraft should be accompanied by: a)

no drinks, as fluids are not important

b)

non-carbonated water

c)

carbonated water.

d)

wine or beer

The dry atmosphere of the flight deck may cause dehydration, which may lead to a reduction in the ability to pay attention. To prevent this, it is appropriate to: a)

drink sufficient non-carbonated liquids

b)

drink tea

c)

drink plenty of coffee

d)

drink cool cola drinks

Caffeine may cause an increase in cardiac rate, restlessness/nervousness, insomnia, anxiety and intestinal irritability. Excessive consumption is considered to be in excess of: a)

250 mg/day

b)

40-65 mg/day

c)

3 mg/day

d)

150 mg/day

Physical exercise in high temperatures (tropical climates) may: a)

increase a pilot's resistance to decompression sickness

b)

cause the pilot to collapse, due to an excess of fluid in the body

c)

cause dysentery

d)

cause painful muscle and abdominal cramps


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370.)

371.)

372.)

373.)

To prevent gastro-intestinal problems in tropical climates you should: 1. not eat salad or raw vegetables 2. always peel fruit 3. only eat food that has been properly cooked 4. avoid ice-cream Which of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2

c)

2 and 4

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

By 'long duration acceleration', we mean that it lasts more than: a)

5 minutes

b)

1 second

c)

1 minute

d)

20 seconds

Night vision is significantly reduced (i.e. a loss of more than 25%) at 15,000 FT in which stage of hypoxia? a)

Anaemic phase

b)

Clinical manifestation phase

c)

Compensatory

d)

Indifferent

When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this physical stress? a)

By intense vasoconstriction.

b)

By increasing cardiac frequency.

c)

By speeding up the metabolic rate in the Autonomic Nervous System.

d)

By vasodilatation which permits a greater flow of blood to the periphery.


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374.)

375.)

376.)

377.)

Up to what altitude is blood oxygen saturation reduction unlikely to affect a pilot's judgement? a)

20,000 FT

b)

10,000 FT

c)

25,000 FT

d)

30,000 FT

By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer ear be balanced? a)

By breathing out.

b)

By swallowing.

c)

By coughing.

d)

By breathing in.

Barotrauma is caused by an increase or decrease in the volume of the gases contained in the body's cavities. Which, in practice, are the most frequent locations of such problems? a)

Inner ear, facial sinuses and stomach

b)

Facial sinuses, outer ear and stomach

c)

Facial sinuses, middle ear and dental cavities

d)

Dental cavities, outer ear and eyes

The system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate, etc., over which there is no voluntary control, is: a)

the critical nervous system

b)

non-existent, as all these functions are under conscious control

c)

the local nervous system

d)

the autonomic nervous system


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378.)

379.)

380.)

381.)

What factors can lead to a deterioration in vision? 1. Hypoxia 2. Smoking 3. Poor diet, lacking Vitamin A 4. Exposure to bright lights Which of the following lists all the correct statements? a)

1, 3 and 4

b)

1 and 3

c)

1, 2, 3 and 4

d)

2 and 4

The damaging effects of noise on the pilot depends on: 1. The intensity of the noise 2. The frequency of the noise 3. The exposure time to noise 4. Proper use of the headset in the cockpit Which of the following lists all the correct statements? a)

2, 3 and 4

b)

1 and 4

c)

1, 2, 3 and 4

d)

3 only

To prevent empty field myopia at higher altitudes: a)

one should book an appointment with an opthalmologist as soon as possible

b)

one should concentrate only on instruments

c)

it is recommended that a pilot uses short sharp scans, or periodically focuses on a distant object such as a wingtip or cloud edge

d)

it is recommended that a pilot focuses on an object known to be approximately one metre away

On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information: a)

there is a risk of you entering a spin

b)

there is a risk of you underestimating your speed

c)

estimation of height and distance is not a problem for a well-trained pilot

d)

judgement of height is extremely difficult


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382.)

383.)

384.)

385.)

386.)

In order to avoid hypoglycaemia: a)

peanuts are recommended because of their high energy value

b)

a pilot should eat regularly and ensure he/she has a balanced diet

c)

a pilot should never eat sugar or sweets

d)

a pilot should not take snacks between meals

Night vision: a)

is insensitive to short duration light sources

b)

requires up to 30 minutes to reach its best performance

c)

requires 5 minutes to reach its best performance

d)

is insensitive to lightning flashes in storms

In tropical zones, it is recommended that: a)

one eats fruit without peeling them, to ensure a supply of vitamins

b)

one uses ice cubes in cold drinks

c)

cold drinks be taken from sealed containers

d)

one eats raw vegetables

In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by: a)

chronic pulmonary disorders

b)

behavioural disorders

c)

cardio-vascular disorders

d)

acute gastrointestinal disorders

When considering the eating-habits of pilots: a)

low fibre and low protein/carbohydratediet is ideal

b)

breakfast should bring about 25% of the daily calorie intake

c)

high intake of chocolate is recommended before flight to prevent reactional hypoglycemia

d)

a heavy supper is best


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387.)

388.)

389.)

390.)

391.)

On experiencing a vestibular illusion in straight and level flight, it is recommended that: a)

you close your eyes for a moment so that the oculo-vestibular conflict disappears

b)

you avoid head movements and rely on your instruments

c)

you rely on your sensations only, as humans are much more reliable than flight instruments

d)

you tilt your head to the side opposite to the turn to nullify the stimulus causing the illusion

The low level of humidity found in a pressurised aircraft cabin: a)

must be compensated for by a regular supply of coffee or tea

b)

must be compensated for by breathing in to a paper bag

c)

requires a regular supply of water only for those who are in poor health. Healthy people compensate for this naturally.

d)

must be compensated for by drinking water before one gets thirsty

The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye: a)

cause the convergence of light rays onto the retina

b)

allow for the regulation of the amount of light admitted into the eye

c)

permit the reception and conversion of visual stimuli to images interpreted by the brain

d)

keep the retina clean and healthy

When the weather is foggy, on approach, a pilot may get a feeling of: a)

his/her eyes focusing on infinity

b)

aircraft altitude being lower than it actually is

c)

the airfield being further away than actually is

d)

his/her visual field shrinking (i.e. tunnel vision)

A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach although the aircraft is on the correct glidepath: a)

depending on the approach speed of the aircraft

b)

when the runway is unusually narrow

c)

on night approaches only

d)

when the runway is wider than he is used to


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392.)

393.)

394.)

395.)

396.)

During the cruise, at night, when the workload is low, it is recommended that: a)

the lighting in the cockpit be dimmed in order to reduce visual fatigue

b)

the lighting in the cockpit be dimmed in order to prevent low vigilance

c)

the lighting in the cockpit be increased in order to prevent low vigilance

d)

only those instruments that are vital to flying the aircraft be lit in order to avoid dividing one's attention

Vision of terrain relief (e.g. hills, valleys, etc.): a)

is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective for objects that are further away

b)

is impossible with only one eye

c)

is impossible if a pilot wears sunglasses

d)

is possible at only at distances over 200 m due to binocular vision

When suffering from Hypoxia short-term memory impairment starts at approximately at: a)

12,000 ft

b)

18,000 ft

c)

10,000 ft

d)

25,000 ft

Haemoglobin has an affinity for carbon monoxide of ...............times over oxygen a)

500 - 1,000

b)

50 - 75

c)

5 - 10

d)

210 - 250

The Peripheral Nervous System passes information from the: a)

brain to the sensory stores through sensory nerves

b)

brain to all parts of the body through sensory and autonomic nerves

c)

brain to all parts of the body through sensory nerves

d)

sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves


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397.)

398.)

399.)

400.)

401.)

The Vestibular Apparatus consists of the: a)

Cochlea and the auditory nerve

b)

Eustachian tube and the semi-circular canals

c)

Semi-circular canals and the otoliths

d)

Eustachian tube and the pinna

The "Leans" or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by: a)

Going into a turn too quickly

b)

Bunting the aircraft

c)

Reducing bank following a prolonged turn

d)

A carrier take-off

Among the factors which affect visual acuity are: a)

Smoking, colour blindness and angular distance from the fovea

b)

Colour blindness, alcohol and amount of light available

c)

Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea

d)

Colour blindness, visibility and angular distance from the fovea

Presbyopia results in: a)

a lack of empty field

b)

a decrease of accommodation

c)

a mis-shapened cornea

d)

a lack of vitamin A

Astigmatism is caused by: a)

A lack of accommodation

b)

A lack of empty field

c)

A mis-shapened cornea

d)

A lack of vitamin A


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402.)

403.)

404.)

405.)

406.)

Cataract is caused by: a)

A mis-shapened cornea

b)

A clouding of the lens

c)

A lack of accommodation at the cornea

d)

Lack of mobility of the cornea

Trace elements should be obtained through: a)

Vitamin pills

b)

Eating plenty of meat and vegetables

c)

A balanced diet

d)

Dairy products and vegetables

Among the symptoms of hypoglycaemia are: a)

Double vision and puffiness around the eyes

b)

Severe eye and head aches

c)

Headache and lack of concentration

d)

Difficulty in focussing on near-by objects

Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mgm/100ml take to return to normal ? a)

12 hours

b)

20 hours

c)

1 hour

d)

4 hours

Phobic states or obsessional disorders will : a)

may require successful treatment before flying may be permitted

b)

require immediate termination of all flying duties

c)

result in the loss of a Class I medical classification after successful treatment

d)

always result in permanent loss of a flying licence


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407.)

408.)

409.)

410.)

411.)

Cholera can be transmitted through: a)

Droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person

b)

Food or water which has been contaminated

c)

Insect bites

d)

Bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin

Tetanus is transmitted through: a)

Insect bites

b)

Food or water which has been contaminated

c)

Bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin

d)

Droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person

Hepatitis 'A' is transmitted through: a)

droplets in the air cause by the breath of an infected person.

b)

bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin.

c)

food or water which has been contaminated.

d)

insect bites.

Records of radiation are normally kept for flights above: a)

55,000 ft

b)

40,000 ft

c)

49,000 ft

d)

45,000 ft

Galactic Radiation is: a)

Unsteady and reasonably predictable

b)

Steady and reasonably predictable

c)

Steady but unpredictable

d)

Unsteady and unpredictable


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412.)

413.)

414.)

415.)

416.)

The effects of Galactic radiation: a)

Is unaffected by altitude

b)

Decreases with altitude

c)

Increases with altitude

d)

Remains steady up to 49,000 ft and thereafter increases

Excessive intake of aspirin can cause: a)

Memory impairment

b)

Gastric bleeding

c)

Sensory loss

d)

Fits

Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are: a)

visibility and distance.

b)

distance from the edge of the taxiway and cockpit lighting.

c)

relative movement and cockpit height above the ground.

d)

distance from the edge of the taxiway and taxi lighting.

The Somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of: a)

descending and turning to the right.

b)

climbing or descending.

c)

climbing and turning to the right.

d)

descending and turning to the left.

Autokinesis can give the pilot the impression that: a)

the aircraft is climbing

b)

a star is another aircraft

c)

lights are further away than in fact they are.

d)

lights from ships are stars


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417.)

418.)

419.)

One of the major protective measures against illusions is: a)

regular eye tests

b)

wearing of good quality sun glasses

c)

comprehensive briefing and de-briefing

d)

wearing of polaroid sun glasses

Alcohol degrades: a)

Slow wave sleep

b)

Stage 2 sleep

c)

Paradoxical sleep

d)

Stage 3 and 4 sleep

Below 70,000 ft., what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere ? a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Ozone

d)

Carbon dioxide


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381: D (1 Pkt.)

401: C (1 Pkt.)

362: C (1 Pkt.)

382: B (1 Pkt.)

402: B (1 Pkt.)

363: A (1 Pkt.)

383: B (1 Pkt.)

403: C (1 Pkt.)

364: A (1 Pkt.)

384: C (1 Pkt.)

404: C (1 Pkt.)

365: D (1 Pkt.)

385: D (1 Pkt.)

405: D (1 Pkt.)

366: B (1 Pkt.)

386: B (1 Pkt.)

406: A (1 Pkt.)

367: A (1 Pkt.)

387: B (1 Pkt.)

407: B (1 Pkt.)

368: A (1 Pkt.)

388: D (1 Pkt.)

408: C (1 Pkt.)

369: D (1 Pkt.)

389: A (1 Pkt.)

409: C (1 Pkt.)

370: D (1 Pkt.)

390: C (1 Pkt.)

410: C (1 Pkt.)

371: B (1 Pkt.)

391: D (1 Pkt.)

411: B (1 Pkt.)

372: C (1 Pkt.)

392: C (1 Pkt.)

412: C (1 Pkt.)

373: A (1 Pkt.)

393: A (1 Pkt.)

413: B (1 Pkt.)

374: B (1 Pkt.)

394: A (1 Pkt.)

414: C (1 Pkt.)

375: B (1 Pkt.)

395: D (1 Pkt.)

415: B (1 Pkt.)

376: C (1 Pkt.)

396: D (1 Pkt.)

416: B (1 Pkt.)

377: D (1 Pkt.)

397: C (1 Pkt.)

417: C (1 Pkt.)

378: C (1 Pkt.)

398: C (1 Pkt.)

418: C (1 Pkt.)

379: C (1 Pkt.)

399: C (1 Pkt.)

419: B (1 Pkt.)

380: C (1 Pkt.)

400: B (1 Pkt.)


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Questionnaire 040-2 HPL

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

005.)

The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is: a)

about 7 items

b)

about 30 items

c)

very limited - only 3 items

d)

unlimited

Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the third day? a)

UTC (universal time coordinated).

b)

MEZ (middle european time).

c)

ZT (zonal time).

d)

LT (local time).

Signs of stress include: a)

Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.

b)

Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.

c)

Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.

d)

Lowering of the blood pressure.

Stress management programmes usually involve: a)

the prevention and/or the removal of stress

b)

the use of psychoactive drugs

c)

only the removal of stress

d)

only the prevention of stress

In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require a)

about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift

b)

more time when flying from east to west

c)

about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift

d)

less time when flying from east to west


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006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

010.)

In his/her behaviour, the "ideal professional pilot" is: a)

both "person" and "goal" oriented

b)

neither "person" nor "goal" oriented

c)

"goal" rather than "person" oriented

d)

"person" rather than "goal" oriented

The first stage in the information process is a)

selective attention

b)

the recognition of information

c)

sensory stimulation

d)

perception

Attitudes are defined as: a)

the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity

b)

tendencies to respond to people, things or events in a particular manner

c)

a synonym for behaviour

d)

the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting

Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been received and understood ? a)

Feedback.

b)

Coding.

c)

Encoding.

d)

Synchronization.

The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is called a)

feedback

b)

redundancy

c)

transference

d)

synchronization


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011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

015.)

During paradoxical sleep a)

physical restoration and recuperation takes place

b)

rapid eye movements can be observed

c)

the rhythm of the heart is very regular

d)

respiration is very regular

Motor programmes are: a)

stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without continuous conscious control

b)

rules that enable us to deal with novel situations

c)

rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations

d)

stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous conscious control

Working memory enables us, for example, a)

to remember our own name

b)

to remember a clearance long enough to write it down

c)

to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds

d)

to ignore messages for other aircraft

The relationship between arousal and flying performance is a)

approximately the form of an inverted U

b)

approximately linear increasing

c)

approximately sinusoidal

d)

approximately exponential

In a complex task high levels of arousal a)

lead to better decision-making

b)

improve performance

c)

reduce failures

d)

narrow the span of attention


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016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

020.)

In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately a)

1 hour

b)

5 minutes

c)

a couple of days

d)

20 seconds

The 'cocktail party effect' is a)

the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world

b)

the tendency not to perceive relevant information

c)

the ability to drink too much at social gathering

d)

the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally

Once we have constructed a mental model we tend a)

to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model

b)

to alter that model unnecessarily frequently

c)

to give undue weight to information that confirms the model

d)

to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information

Very high ambition and need for achievement a)

improves the coping process with personal failures

b)

always promote teamwork

c)

fulfil the requirements of stress resistance

d)

disturb the climate of cooperation

Our mental model of the world is based a)

on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive

b)

entirely on past experiences

c)

entirely on the sensory information we receive

d)

on both our past experiences and our motor programmes


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021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

025.)

Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual interference? a)

Read and listen attentively.

b)

Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory.

c)

Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem.

d)

Listen attentively and solve a problem.

A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence is most likely? a)

His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have tobe incorporated.

b)

His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as acaptain.

c)

An upgrading never has psychological consequences.

d)

The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.

Cognitive and physical rehearsal of actions during training: a)

is more effective than practical training

b)

leads to an increased error rate

c)

is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills

d)

is most important for self-control

How can a pilot avoid automation complacency? a)

Nothing, because it is system-inherent

b)

Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods

c)

Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be crosschecked as well

d)

Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-machine loop

How can the process of learning be enhanced? a)

By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials

b)

By increasing the psychological pressure on the student

c)

By reinforcing errors

d)

By reinforcing successful performance


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026.)

027.)

028.)

029.)

Mental rehearsal is helpful to improve flying skills a)

only for instructor pilots

b)

only for student pilots

c)

only at a certain level of flying experience

d)

at all levels of flying proficiency

What is meant by the term 'complacency'? a)

Physiological effects on pilots because of fear of flying

b)

An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management

c)

Unjustified self-confidence

d)

To question possible solutions

'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following statements? 1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is frequently exercised 2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do so 3. The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social situations 4. The gaining of environmental skills a)


b)

1 and 2 are correct

c)

4 is correct

d)

2 and 3 are correct

A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that a)

the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced as a consequence of 'being out of the loop'

b)

it is guaranteed that the crew always maintains situational awareness

c)

Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromising safety

d)

the crew can pay more attention to problem-solving in an abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems


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030.)

031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly because a)

this reduces the amount of training required

b)

it makes the flight deck easier to design

c)

this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection

d)

such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances

When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should a)

always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible

b)

avoid making up his mind until the very last minute

c)

take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind

d)

make up his mind before consulting other crew members

The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly: a)

informing ATC thoroughly about the situation

b)

the whole crew to focus on the problem

c)

speed of reaction

d)

delegation of tasks and crew coordination

The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on a)

subjective perception and evaluation of situational factors

b)

the emergency checklist only

c)

external factors only

d)

situational factors only

Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will probably a)

find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data

b)

find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different interpretation of the data

c)

find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens

d)

find it easy to interpret the data in different ways


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035.)

036.)

037.)

038.)

To maintain good situational awareness you should: (1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data (2) gather as much data as possible from every possible source before makinginferences (3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and tryto make time to review the situation (4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct a)


b)

1 and 3 are correct

c)

all answers are correct

d)

1 and 4 are correct

Doing a general briefing in the pre-flight phase the captain should emphasize a)

avoidance inadequate handling of flight controls

b)

complete delegation of all duties

c)

particular requirements in the field of crew coordination and co-operation

d)

departure on schedule

During the pre-flight phase in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather inexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviouris is most appropriate? a)

The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailed instructions what to do

b)

The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions

c)

The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments

d)

The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him to ask for support

A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co-operative style will deal with conflict by: a)

trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved

b)

deciding what to do and pushes his own opinion through

c)

trying to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to re-establish a pleasant and friendly atmosphere within the team

d)

keeping a neutral position and does not participate in arguing


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039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

Informal roles within a crew a)

will always impair the captain's influence

b)

evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members characterize inefficient crews

c)

are explicitly set out by the crew

Which behaviour is most likely to promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts? a)

Responding with counter-arguments.

b)

Staying to the own point of view.

c)

Active listening.

d)

Giving up the own point of view.

The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on a)

both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals

b)

both pilots wearing the same uniform

c)

both pilots flying together very often for a long period

d)

both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude

During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a nonsmoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your problem', and continues smoking. What should the copilot do? a)

He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in the cockpit

b)

He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict during the debriefing

c)

He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit and should argue with the captain about this problem until the conflict is solved

d)

He should bring a cabin crew member in to arbitrate


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043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

How would you describe the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew freedom for own decisions? a)

High task-orientation and high relationship-orientation

b)

Low task-orientation and low relationship-orientation

c)

Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation

d)

High task-orientation and low relationship-orientation

If the co-pilot continuously feels unfairly treated by the Captain, he/she should: a)

point out the problem, concentrate on his/her duties and clarify the matter at a more appropriate time

b)

speak up and point out the possible consequences if the unfair behaviour pesists

c)

internally retire and think positive

d)

freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontation


Inconsistent communication improves flight safety.

b)

Personal conflict that takes place prior to take-off should wait to be addressed until the end of the flight.

c)

There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.

d)

Problems in the personal relationships between crew members are likely to hamper the communication process.

Metacommunication is defined as a)

having an assessment conversation

b)

those tools, other than the actual words, which compliment those words in order to communicate

c)

active listening

d)

balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the receiver


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047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style: 1. dominant behaviour 2. excellent role-behaviour 3. mastery of communication skills 4. "Laissez-faire" behaviour a)

2 and 3

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

2 and 4

Nonverbal communication a)

should be avoided by all means in the cockpit

b)

is always used intentionally

c)

supports verbal communication

d)

is of no meaning in the cockpit

How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'? a)

No meaningful communication can occur unless it is by verbal means.

b)

Being silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning.

c)

You cannot influence your own communication.

d)

Communication is always possible.

Discussing private matters in the cockpit a)

is appropriate in any phase of flight

b)

should be avoided by all means in the cockpit

c)

can improve team spirit

d)

decreases the captains role of leadership


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051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of about a)

3 - 3.5 hours a day

b)

2 - 2.5 hours a day

c)

4 - 4.5 hours a day

d)

1 - 1.5 hours a day

The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by a)

the amount of time you have been awake

b)

the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep

c)

the duration of your previous sleep

d)

the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system

A selective attentional mechanism is required a)

because of the limitations of the sense organs

b)

because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory

c)

because of limitations in our store of motor programmes

d)

because the capacity of the long term memory is limited

Working memory: a)

is unlimited in size

b)

is unlimited in duration

c)

is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its contents

d)

varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot

Motivation is an important attribute which contributes to flight safety. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to motivation? a)

A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in complete safety

b)

A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance

c)

Excessive motivation leads to stress which adversely affects performance

d)

Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions


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056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making? a)

Deciding means imposing one's point of view.

b)

Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions.

c)

Deciding means choosing between alternatives.

d)

Deciding means applying an automatic procedure.

Human errors are frequent and may take several forms: a)

an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the result of his/her actions

b)

all errors are avoidable through continuous and thorough training

c)

a violation is an error which is always involuntary

d)

representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure

The quality of learning: a)

depends on long-term memory capacity

b)

is dependent on age and professional role

c)

is independent of the level of motivation

d)

is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance

As a cause of accidents, the human factor a)

is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents

b)

plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in general aviation

c)

which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only

d)

has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has been involved has more than tripled since this date


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060.)

061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

Less experienced pilots differ from experienced pilots in the following way: a)

flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this deficiency

b)

task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's one

c)

experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that routine causes mistakes

d)

inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out the same task

Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that: a)

failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns

b)

only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation

c)

there is hardly ever a single cause responsible

d)

only front-line operators are involved

Thinking on human reliability is changing. a)

Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledge

b)

Human errors are now considered as being inevitable

c)

It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future

d)

The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety

Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid? a)

Word order is of little importance to its success. Only the words uttered are important.

b)

Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language, tailored to minimize misunderstandings.

c)

Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all circumstances

d)

Professional communication means to exchange information as little as possible.

Which of the following statements is true? a)

People are capable of living without stress.

b)

Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood of exhaustion.

c)

Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances.

d)

Stressors are independent from each other.


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065.)

066.)

067.)

In case of in-flight stress, one should: a)

always carry out a breathing exercise

b)

only trust in oneself; being sure to know the own limits

c)

demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew

d)

use all available resources of the crew

The behavioural effects of stress may include: -1: manifestation of aggressiveness. -2: a willingness to improve communication. -3: a willingness for group cohesion. -4: a tendency to withdrawal. The combination of correct statements is: a)

1 and 4 are correct

b)

3 and 4 are correct

c)


d)


The cognitive effects of stress may include: -1: excessive haste. -2: an improvement in memory. -3: a complete block: action is impossible. -4: a risk of focusing on a particular aspect. -5: ease of decision-making. -6: an increase in the rate of mistakes. The combination which brings together all correct statements is: a)

1,3,4,6

b)

2,3,5,6

c)

1,2,5

d)

3,4,5


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068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

What is the effect of stress on performance ? -1: It always reduces performance. -2: Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal. -3: Excessive stress weakens performance. -4: Insufficient stress weakens performance. The combination of correct statements is: a)

1,3,4

b)

1,2,4

c)

1,2,3

d)

2,3,4

What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions? -1: increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion. -2: an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose. -3: a decrease in stress resistance. -4: activation of the digestive system. -5: secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention. The combination of correct statements is: a)

1,2,3

b)

1,2

c)

2,4,5

d)

1,3,5

What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome ? a)

Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.

b)

Alert, resistance, performance.

c)

alert, resistance, exhaustion

d)

alarm, resistance, performance,

Stress occurs: -1: only in a situation of imminent danger. -2: only when faced with real, existing and actual situation. -3: sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome. -4: because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situation The correct statement(s) is (are): a)

2, 3

b)

1,2

c)

1,2,4

d)

3,4


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072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on: a)

the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available

b)

the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it

c)

the evaluation of the situation and the state of fatigue of the individual

d)

the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment

Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions? -1: noise. -2: conflict. -3: temperature. -4: an administrative problem. -5: hunger. The combination of correct statements is: a)

3,4,5

b)

1,3,4

c)

1,3,5

d)

2,3,5

Acute stress quickly leads to a)

a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the situation

b)

the mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor

c)

a permanent state of incapacitation

d)

a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower

Stress may be defined as: a)

a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate

b)

a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered situations

c)

a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities

d)

a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalities


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076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

What is a stressor? a)

All external stimuli are stressors since they modify the internal equilibrium

b)

A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger

c)

An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as being stressful

d)

The adaptation response of the individual to his environment

What may trigger stress in humans? a)

Always the reaction to upsetting emotions caused either by physiological or psychological conditions

b)

The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced

c)

Only objective stimulation from environmental factors

d)

Only strong stimulation of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise and the smell of smoke

With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said that age: a)

has little impact since normally the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight experience

b)

sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive capabilities

c)

increases in impact as speed of thought and memory deteriorate

d)

has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory

Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation? -1: It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the co-pilot. -2: It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew. -3: Communication here results in synchronised actions and the natural and easy distribution of responsibilities. -4: Communication is centred around the outside world. Which of the following lists all the correct statements? a)

1,2 and 4

b)

1 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

2 and 3


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080.)

081.)

082.)

Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends: a)

sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight situations

b)

the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions

c)

working in parallel to achieve one common objective

d)

working parallel to achieve individual objectives

In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to: -1: avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels. -2: send information in line with the receiver's decoding abilities. -3: always concentrate on the informational aspects of the message only. -4: avoid increasing the number of communication channels, in order to simplify communication. a)

The correct statement(s) is (are):

b)

1,2 and 3 are correct2 and 4 are correct

c)

only 2 is correct

d)

3 and 4 are correct

Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are correct? -1 If the sender perceives that the receiver is incompetent, he/she will increase the length of the message -2 If the receiver is of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more complicated words so as to optimize understanding -3 If the sender considers the receiver incompetent, he/she tends to simplify the content of the sentences -4 It is much safer to fly with a crew who know each other well because communication will always be excellent. The correct statement(s) is (are): a)

2 and 3 are correct

b)

1 and 2 are correct

c)

3 only is correct

d)

3 and 4 are correct


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083.)

084.)

085.)

Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example: -1: They use a limited vocabulary . -2: They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to ambiguities. -3: Their grammar is rather complicated and complex. -4: Context provides meaning and therefore reduces the risk of ambiguities. The correct statement(s) is (are): a)

1 and 4 are correct

b)

2 and 3 are correct

c)

only 4 is correct

d)

1 and 3 are correct

With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that: a)

all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable and are not much affected by changes in workload

b)

communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress

c)

communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to be carried out at the same time

d)

communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their number

What are the communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must: -1: contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible. -2: be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type. -3: be short and precise. -4: be understandable to the other crew member(s). The correct statement(s) is (are): a)

1 and 4 are correct

b)


c)

1 and 2 are correct

d)



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086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct? a)

All the items of a check list are equally important; their sequence is of no importance

b)

The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane

c)

The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since attention is usually focused here

d)

The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list? -1: The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts. -2: The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list. -3: Check lists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks. -4: Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied. -5: Use should be made of upper case/"bold"/italics/colour with care to emphasize critical items or points. The combination of correct statements is: a)


b)


c)


d)


The use of check lists should be carried out in such a way that: a)

their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions

b)

they should only be carried out when time is available

c)

their execution should be combined with other important tasks

d)

their execution should not be done simultaneously with other actions

According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s): a)

creative errors

b)

handling errors

c)

errors of technical knowledge

d)

routine errors


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090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based behaviour: a)

routine errors

b)

creative errors

c)

handling errors

d)

knowledge errors

In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to: -1: know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the crew. -2: divide up tasks among the crew. -3: ensure that the long-term memory is used as much as possible as short term memory will add to the stress. -4: drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities. a)

The correct statement(s) is (are):

b)

3 and 4 are correct

c)


d)

1, 2 and 4 are correct1 and 3 are correct

The available cognitive resources of the human brain: a)

are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time

b)

are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time

c)

are virtually unlimited

d)

allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness

The acquisition of a skill comprises three stages (Anderson model): a)

cognitive, associative and knowledge

b)

associative, autonomous and expert

c)

automatic, cognitive and knowledge

d)

cognitive, associative and automatic


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094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she: a)

has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in order to free his/her cognitive resources

b)

knows how to off-load all his/her resources to the automation of tasks

c)

is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight

d)

is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight

With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct? a)

It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the ICAO.

b)

Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective management of any flight's communication.

c)

The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official aeronautical language of the destination country.

d)

All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language.

Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error? Active error is: a)

produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected

b)

rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations

c)

produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action

d)

essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule by aeroplane designers

What are the main consequences of latent errors? They: -1: remain undetected in the system for a certain length of time. -2: may only manifest themselves under certain conditions. -3: are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors. -4: lull pilots into a false sense of security The correct statement(s) is (are): a)

1,2 and 4

b)

1 and 3

c)

2, 3 and 4

d)

1 and 2


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098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error? Latent errors: a)

have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are difficult to identify as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurrence of the error

b)

are rarely made by front-line operators, and are consequently readily identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links

c)

rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress

d)

are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected after advanced problem-solving

To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at the minimum to a)

report the deviation

b)

correct the deviation

c)

tolerate the deviation

d)

report its malfunction

When can a system be said to be tolerant to error? When: a)

the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety

b)

its safety system is too permeable to error

c)

latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety

d)

its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors

Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism? -1: It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error. -2: If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc. -3: It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and reducing future errors. -4: Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the future. The correct statement(s) is (are): a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

2 and 4


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102.)

103.)

104.)

What strategies can be used to combat human error? -1: Reducing error-prone mechanisms. -2: Improving the way in which error is taken into account in training. -3: Sanctions against the initiators of error. -4: Improving recovery from errors and its consequences. The combination of correct statements is: a)

2, 3 and 4

b)

1, 2 and 4

c)

1 and 2

d)

3 and 4

Concerning the relationship between performance and stress, which of the following statements is correct? a)

Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground.

b)

A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.

c)

A well trained pilot is able to eliminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly.

d)

A moderate level of stress may improve performance.

Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following circumstances does it occur? 1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does notimmediately have a solution 2. Stress occurs with inexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed theirindividual capabilities 3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a solution for theproblem he/she faces. a)


b)

1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

c)


d)

Only 1 is false


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105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

Divided attention is the ability: 1. to execute several mental activities at almost the same time (i.e. when switchingattention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel) 2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) ona relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level) 3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed. 4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on the procedures a)


b)


c)

Only 3 is false

d)


Human behaviour is determined by: a)

biological characteristics only

b)

the social environment only

c)

biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences

d)

cultural influences only

Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when: a)

they are not constrained by time

b)

making decisions independently of others

c)

they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are being observed and admired (e.g. air shows)

d)

making a flight over unfamiliar territory

Judgement is based upon: a)

the development of skills through constant practice of flight manoeuvres

b)

a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience

c)

the ability to interpret the flight instruments

d)

a decision-making process involving the 5 physical senses and their use to manually operate the aircraft controls


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109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when: a)

flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure

b)

flying an aircraft which you have flown recently

c)

flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before

d)

conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform

Which of the following responses is an example of "habit reversion" (negative habit transfer): a)

A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position

b)

Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions

c)

Turning the aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right

d)

habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item when two items are on the same line

Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select the response below which could lead to such a hazard: a)

anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.

b)

anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned

c)

mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated

d)

anticipating that the weather may deteriorate

With regards to stress, as it affects human beings, which of the folowing statements is correct? a)

Self imposed obligations will not create stress.

b)

Stressors relate purely to a pilot´s physical condition.

c)

All forms of stress should be avoided.

d)

´Stress´is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed uponhim/her.


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113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of "optimum arousal" he/she will be: a)

in a confused mental state

b)

prepared best to cope with a difficult task

c)

approaching a condition of complacency or fatigue

d)

unprepared to handle a difficult situation

The trend in aeroplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to: a)

the manufacturer

b)

the year of manufacture

c)

the number of engines

d)

the crew

Pilot stress reactions: a)

are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors where the top-ten items should be avoided by every means

b)

seem to be the same for most pilots

c)

differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular stressors

d)

do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with the characters themselves

What aircraft equipment marked a substantial decrease in hull loss rates in the eighties? a)

SSR

b)

DME

c)

GPWS

d)

TCAS

One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in: a)

complacency among the crewmembers

b)

pilots disregarding the automatic equipment

c)

less experienced crews because of more transparent system details

d)

constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasks


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118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

Which of the following human error rates can be described and pretty good realistic and pretty good, after methodical training a)

1 in 100000 times

b)

1 in 1000 times

c)

1 in 100 times

d)

1 in 10000 times

Between which components, with reference to the SHELL Concept, covers pilot misinterpretation of the old three-point altimeter? a)

Liveware - Software

b)

Liveware - Liveware

c)

Liveware - Environment

d)

Liveware - Hardware

The errors resulting from an illogical indexing system in an operations manual are related to an interface mismatch between a)

Liveware - Hardware

b)

Liveware - Software

c)

Liveware - Liveware

d)

Liveware - Environment

Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions? a)

The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory.

b)

The intensity of the stimuli.

c)

The separation of figure and background.

d)

The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory.

The effect of experience and repetition on performance: a)

is always negative

b)

is always beneficial

c)

is never negative

d)

can both be beneficial and negative


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123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern" are: 1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed 2. when situations are characterised by medium workload 3. when situations are characterised by stress a)

2. and 3.

b)

1. and 2.

c)

1. and 3.

d)

3.

The most dangerous characteristic ofperception is, that it a)

will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation

b)

will only occur under conditions of stress

c)

can easily be changed

d)

is frequently extremely resistant to correction

Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when: a)

stress and motivation are low

b)

stress is medium

c)

stress is high

d)

stress and motivation are medium

Which of the following concepts relating to human reliability is true ? a)

Response to a particular stressful influence does not vary from one person to another.

b)

Performance is totally independent of motivation.

c)

Expectation has no influence on perception.

d)

If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will be.


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127.)

128.)

129.)

Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than by automatic systems ? 1. Qualitative decision-making 2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon 3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded 4. Detection of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.) a)

3,4

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,4

d)

1,2

Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic systems than by people ? 1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon 2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of trajectory) 3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (e.g. holding of flightpath) 4. Qualitative decision-making a)

1,2,3

b)

2,3,4

c)

3,4

d)

2,4

As a result of automation in cockpits, a)

the need for communication between crew members has been decreased

b)

communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine relations

c)

communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of the crew members

d)

it is easier for the captain to monitor the work of the first officer and vice versa


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130.)

131.)

132.)

133.)

Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation ? 1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft 2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick 4. General decrease in technical reliability a)

1,2

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,3

d)

1,4

Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)? 1. Keep active open communication between man and machine 2. Use of amphetamines 3. Reducing the intensity of the light 4. Organising periods of rest during the flight a)

1,3

b)

3,4

c)

1,2

d)

1,4

What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ? 1. Decrease in sensory perception 2. Increase in selective attention 3. Sensation of muscular heaviness 4. Decrease in complacencyWhich of the following lists all the correct statements ? a)

2 and 4

b)

2 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

1 and 3

What is "divided attention"? a)

The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed

b)

Ease of concentrating on a particular objective

c)

Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective

d)

The management of several matters of interest dealt with individually one after the other


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134.)

135.)

136.)

137.)

Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct ? Hypovigilance: a)

usually occurs a number of minutes after a stressful take-off

b)

only affects certain personality types

c)

may occur at any time in the flight

d)

tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the crew's' attention

What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance) ? 1. The monotony of the task 2. Tiredness and the need for sleep 3. A lack of stimulation 4. Excessive stress a)

1,3

b)

2,4

c)

3,4

d)

1,2,3

Which of the following statements with regard to motivation is correct? a)

Excessive motivation in combination with high levels of stress will limit attention management capabilities

b)

Motivation will reduce risk

c)

Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities

d)

Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention

Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention? a)

It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal

b)

It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)

c)

Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness

d)

It increases alertness and attention


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138.)

139.)

140.)

141.)

What are the effects of excesive stress? a)

It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus attention inappropriately

b)

It activates resources stored in memory

c)

It reduces vigilance and focuses attention

d)

It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention

The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result in: a)

decision-making errors

b)

routine errors (slips)

c)

mistakes

d)

errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action

What is the main adverse effect of expectation with regards to perception? a)

Expectation often guides the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected

b)

Expectation is a tool that allows capture of all relevant information

c)

Expectations always lead to routine errors

d)

The attention area is enlarged by expectation, however it will therefore lead to uncertainties when a pilot is looking for a decision

The acquisition of a motor programme (skill) will mean that: a)

the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees resources

b)

the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees resources

c)

the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees resources

d)

the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and thus the more it frees mental resources


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142.)

143.)

144.)

Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), adjustment to destination time: 1. Takes longer when travelling west rather than travelling east 2. Takes longer when travelling east rather than travelling west 3. Varies little between individuals 4. Varies substantially among individualsWhich of the following lists all the correct statements ? a)

2 and 3

b)

2 and 4

c)

1 and 3

d)

1 and 4

What seems to be the main role of Orthodox sleep? a)

It includes physical and mental recuperation associate with fatigue

b)

It essentially allows for physical recovery

c)

Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and paradoxical phases

d)

Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and restoration of attention capabilities

What are the main effects of a lack of sleep on performance? a)

It causes muscular spasms

b)

It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours

c)

It increases fatigue, reduces concentration and increases the risk of sensory illusions

d)

It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management

by muscular relaxation

145.)

What is the effect of tiredness on attention ? a)

It leads to one's attention being shared between different centres of interest

b)

It increases the ability to manage multiple matters

c)

It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters

d)

It has no specific effects on attention


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146.)

147.)

148.)

149.)

Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct ? a)

Tiredness always effect people of the same age in a similar way

b)

Tiredness is the consequence of poor performance

c)

Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload

d)

Tiredness is a subjective sensation which may result in hypovigilance

Which of the following are strategies for resolving conflict? 1. Seeking arbitration 2. Actively listening to other people 3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a more emotional level 4. Becoming aware of cultural influences a)

2,4

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,2,3

d)

1,2,4

What elements establish synergy within the crew ? a)

Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)

b)

Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to debriefing

c)

It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew

d)

Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)

Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit? 1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew 2. There is little delegating of tasks 3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight 4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist with regard to leadership-style a)

2,3

b)

2,4

c)

1,4

d)

1,3,4


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150.)

151.)

152.)

153.)

Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centered cockpit ? a)

The egoistic and self-centered personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic cockpit

b)

Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his own thing while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or what is going on

c)

While decreasing communication, the independence of each member bolsters the crew's synergy

d)

The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes charge of a situation

What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" cockpit ? a)

Disengagement of the co-pilot

b)

Inversion of authority

c)

Increased captain's authority

d)

Appearance of aggressiveness

What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit ? a)

The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to tension between the various crew members

b)

The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation

c)

A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members

d)

Each member carries out actions and makes choices informing the other members about them

What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck ? a)

In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or aggression

b)

Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation and efficiency

c)

High group performance despite the strained relations

d)

A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is unassertive


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154.)

155.)

156.)

157.)

Which of the following describes an autocratic cockpit? a)

Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief that everyone is aware of what he is doing

b)

The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the various members of the crew

c)

Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to his natural leadership

d)

The captain's excessive authority considerably reduces communications and consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew

What optimises crew co-operation ? 1. Sharing and common task 2. Confidence in each others capability 3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew members role a)

1

b)

2,3

c)

1,2,3

d)

1,2

What distinguishes status from role ? a)

While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals, status defines the hierarchical position and its recognition by the group

b)

While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group, status defines - via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals

c)

Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew

d)

Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew

Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes: a)

are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated with them

b)

Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a situation

c)

are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality

d)

form part of personality and, as a result, cannot be changed in an adult


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158.)

159.)

160.)

161.)

Which of the following elements make up the personality of an individual ? 1. Heredity 2. Childhood environment 3. Upbringing 4. Past experience a)

2,3

b)

1,2,3,4

c)

2,3,4

d)

1,2,4

What is synergy in a crew ? a)

The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective

b)

A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions

c)

The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard task

d)

The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual performances

Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct ? a)

Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of involved parties

b)

The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities of one of the involved parties

c)

Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution

d)

Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional party if it is to be effective

Which of the following is most likely to be overlooked should a pilot make a rushed decision ? a)

analysis of the current actual situation and instead applying a decision prepared beforehand

b)

the skills of air traffic controllers

c)

the captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status

d)

the need to take account of every possible result or outcome


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162.)

163.)

164.)

165.)

In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to: a)

the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities

b)

a fast and decisive option

c)

the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members

d)

an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead

What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of stress? a)

A strategy of preparing decisions

b)

A Laissez-faire strategy

c)

A strategy of no commitment

d)

A non-sequenced strategy

Which biases relate to human decision making? 1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring 2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of actswhich contradict it 3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision 4. There is natural tendency to select only objective facts for decisionmakingpurposes a)

1,2

b)

1,2,3

c)

1,2,4

d)

3,4

Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that: a)

professional pilots will never question established procedures

b)

shows a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible result

c)

one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices

d)

habit is the product of experience and should be used as a primary consideration in all decisions


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166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors: 1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group theybelong to 2. people always keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors havemade in the past 3. people more easily tend to select data which meet their expectations 4. people rarely base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on rationalinformation Which of the following lists all the correct answers ? a)

1 and 3

b)

1 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

2 and 4

Decision-making is a concept which represents: a)

a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced with a defined problem

b)

a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions, for a given problem

c)

an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem

d)

an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures

In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends: 1. on objective and subjective criteria 2. on the objective to be achieved 3. on the risks associated with each solution 4. on the personality of the decision-maker a)

4

b)

1,2,3,4

c)

1,2,4

d)

1,3

Decision-making results in: a)

a choice always based on the experience of the PIC

b)

a choice between different options to achieve a goal

c)

a subjective choice between options to achieve a goal

d)

a totally objective choice between options to achieve a goal proposed by the Piot in Command


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170.)

171.)

172.)

173.)

In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rule-based activities to a knowledge-based activity? a)

The unsuitability of the automated actions

b)

Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed

c)

The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed

d)

Attentional capture

What are the main characteristics of active errors ? They: 1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators 2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress 3. occur at the human/machine interface 4. lie dormant and are undetected at first a)

3,4

b)

1,4

c)

2,3

d)

1,2

The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called: a)

Homeostasis

b)

Homeothermy

c)

Heterostasis

d)

Poikilothermy

The main limitation of the long-term memory is: a)

the data storage time

b)

unless information is accessed from time to time, retrieval of information can be difficult

c)

if enough information is entered at the same time, saturation may take place

d)

the quantity of data which may be stored


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174.)

175.)

176.)

177.)

What are the main limits of short-term memory ? It is: -1: very sensitive to interruptions and interference -2: difficult to access -3: limited in size -4: information is lost within approximately 20 seconds unless it is actively or deliberately placed into the long term memory. a)

1,2 ,3

b)

2,4

c)

2 ,3

d)

1,3 ,4

Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must: a)

only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies

b)

be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy

c)

be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraft

d)

only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures

Workload essentially depends on: a)

the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system

b)

the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system

c)

the pilot's knowledge

d)

the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc)

A pilot becomes skilled when he/she: -1: trains or practises regularly -2: knows how to manage himself/herself -3: possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft -4: knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected a)

1,2,4

b)

1,2,3,4

c)

2, 3,4

d)

1,2


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178.)

179.)

180.)

181.)

Stress is: a)

a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control

b)

a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his performance

c)

a phenomenon which is specific to modern man

d)

a mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to face

The individual's perception of stress depends on: a)

the pilot's increasing level of arousal

b)

the subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it

c)

the objective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it

d)

the conditions of the current situation only

Physiological stressors include: a)

Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation

b)

Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce

c)

Heat, humidity, fatigue, administrative problems

d)

Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death

General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases: -1: alarm -2: alert phase -3: resistance phase -4: exhaustion phase -5: vigilance phase a)

1,2,4,5

b)

2,3,4

c)

1,3,4

d)

2,3,4,5


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182.)

183.)

184.)

185.)

The following course of action should be taken if gastrointestinal complaints in flight crew occur before to take-off: -1: take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight -2: assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor -3: if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly! -4: reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration a)

1,4

b)

1,2,4

c)

1,3

d)

2,3

In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is moving is called: a)

illusion of relative movement

b)

autokinetic illusion

c)

cognitive illusion

d)

somato-gravic illusion

In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx): -1: do not exist -2: have slight physiological consequences -3: may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness -4: may cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis a)

3

b)

2,4

c)

1

d)

3,4

Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.: a)

expression of doubts or of a different opinion

b)

abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely

c)

the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's synergy

d)

unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions


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186.)

187.)

188.)

189.)

An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when: a)

the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level

b)

the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members

c)

decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other crew members

d)

decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew members

A non synergistic cockpit: a)

is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally

b)

is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication

c)

is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately with the outside

d)

always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere

CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is: a)

is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes

b)

intended solely to alter an individual's personality;

c)

not intended to change the individual's attitude at all

d)

intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes towards flight safety and human relationship management

The confirmation bias of decision making is a)

a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement

b)

a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a hypothesis or decision is poor;

c)

a tendency to agree with the decision made by the group

d)

a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision


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190.)

191.)

192.)

193.)

Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory ? -1: It is limited in time and size -2: It is unlimited in time and limited in size -3: It is stable and insensitive to disturbances -4: It is limited in time and unlimited in size a)

2,3

b)

1,3

c)

3,4

d)

1

With regard to short-term memory, we can say that: a)

it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining data

b)

it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the time for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity

c)

it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbance

d)

it stores mainly procedural knowledge (skills)

Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct? -1: Information is stored in the Semantic, Episodic and Procedural memories. -2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same information is used. -3: It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time. -4: Ease and speed of access is dependent upon, to a large extent, the frequency with which the information is recalled. a)

2 and 4 are correct

b)

1 and 2 are correct

c)

1 and 4 are correct

d)


The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about: a)

12 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

1.5 hours

d)

25 hours


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194.)

195.)

196.)

197.)

Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a: 1. bad night's sleep 2. day flight Amsterdam - New York 3. day flight Amsterdam – Johannesburg 4. night flight New York - Amsterdam a)

1 and 3 are correct

b)


c)


d)

2 and 4 are correct

The effects of sleep deprivation on performance: 1. increase with altitude 2. decrease with altitude 3. increase with higher workload 4. decrease with higher workloadWhich of the following lists all the correct statements ? a)


b)


c)


d)

1 and 3 are correct

Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns 1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration 2. will make an individual more prone to make errors a)


b)


c)


d)


Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal performancedegradation 2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after awaking from a shortsleep (nap) a)


b)


c)


d)



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198.)

199.)

200.)

201.)

The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's sleep. 1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM-sleep. 2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep may be harmful. a)


b)

1 isfalse, 2 is correct

c)


d)


Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night. 2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental functions than all theother sleep stages are. a)


b)


c)

1 and 2 are false

d)


A stress reaction is: a)

the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond

b)

the specific response of the body to demands placed on a person

c)

the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond

d)

the non-specific response of the body to demands placed on a person

A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive: a)

coping stress

b)

distress

c)

eustress

d)

stressors


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202.)

203.)

204.)

205.)

Stress will effect: 1. attention 2. concentration 3. memory 4. judgment a)

1 and 3 are correct

b)


c)

1 and 2 are correct

d)


The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General Adaptation Syndrome". The sequence is: a)

alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase

b)

exhaustion phase - resistance phase - adaptation phase

c)

alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phase

d)

resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase

According to the different phases of the "General Adaptation Syndrome" which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin) will cause a massiverelease of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing 2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type ofhormone (cortisol) assisting for the conversion of fat into sugar. 3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the wasteproducts which have been generated excessively during the two preceding phases. a)


b)


c)


d)

only 1 is correct

If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of: a)

adaptation

b)

hypoxia

c)

distress

d)

eustress


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206.)

207.)

208.)

209.)

Which of the following statements concerning stress are true ? 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressfulsituation. 2. An individual's anticipation of the situation and his/her perceived abilities to copewith it will determine the type and strength of stress. a)


b)

1 is false, 2 is true

c)

1 is true, 2 is false

d)

1 and 2 are both true

The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful a)

depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational demands

b)

depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the perceived demands

c)

depends on self-confidence alone

d)

does not depend on his capacity to absorb information

An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases: a)

the arousal level of both pilots will be raised

b)

the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to what may happen

c)

both pilots will experience the same amount of stress

d)

both pilots will loose their motor-coordination

Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be manifested inphysical reactions. 2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by psychologicalstress. a)


b)


c)


d)



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210.)

211.)

212.)

213.)

Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is a)

skill based behaviour

b)

coping behaviour

c)

knowledge based behaviour

d)

rule based behaviour

The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is: a)

skill and/or rule based behaviour

b)

knowledge based behaviour

c)

pressure based behaviour

d)

automated behaviour

The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development of a critical situation a)

makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway

b)

is necessary to maintain good situational awareness

c)

is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft

d)

is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world

Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will beevaluated. 2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory information may not get the attentionit really needs. 3. With increasing stress, attention is limited thereby reducing the flow of informationto the central decision maker. a)

1and 3 are correct

b)

2 and 3 are correct

c)

1 and 2 are correct

d)



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214.)

215.)

216.)

217.)

In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is: a)

very rare

b)

not applicable with old and experienced pilots

c)

not usual

d)

not possible since correct training should have eliminated this problem

Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Interesting information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mentalpicture than boring information. 2.The sequence in which information is presented is also important for the use the pilot makes of it. a)


b)


c)


d)


The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or standard behaviour of an individual is known as: a)

learning

b)

development

c)

heredity

d)

personality

The causes of human error can be abundant and complex. Which of the following factors could contribute to human error? 1. Personality. 2. Motivation and attitudes. 3. Emotional state. 4. External environmental factors.Which of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

1, 2, 3 and 4

b)

2 and 3

c)

2, 3 and 4

d)

1, 2 and 3


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218.)

219.)

220.)

221.)

Among the external factors that may contribute to an error, cockpit noise and the restriction of the field of view due to windscreen design correspond to: a)

organisational factors.

b)

ergonomic factors.

c)

psychobiological factors.

d)

social factors.

Organisational factors which affect or may have some influence on human error are: 1. malfunction of technical systems. 2. fuel-saving policies. 3. rostering. 4. weather phenomena.Which of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

3 and 4

b)

1 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

1 and 2

The autocratic leadership style is synonymous with: a)

an authoritarian style

b)

a "laissez-faire" style

c)

an anarchic style

d)

a democratic style

In the case of changes to circadian rhythms, the readjustment to a new time zone: a)

is most rapid when flying eastbound

b)

is the same in both westbound and eastbound flights

c)

occurs immediately, as circadian rhythms do not change depending on direction of flying

d)

is most rapid when flying westbound


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222.)

223.)

224.)

225.)

Which statement about acute or chronic fatigue is INCORRECT? a)

Acute fatigue is felt after a period of significant exertion or emotional excitement.

b)

Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots.

c)

Chronic fatigue may be caused by inadequate recuperation from periods of acute fatigue.

d)

Chronic fatigue may lead to a person being totally apathetic and indifferent to what goes on around them.

Of the following statements regarding stress, which is correct? a)

Stress and anxiety are the same in every sense.

b)

Stress and fatigue are synonymous.

c)

Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative.

d)

Stress always has a negative effect on performance.

To resynchronize a circadian rhythm, it takes more time after: a)

north-south flights

b)

eastbound flights

c)

westbound flights

d)

south-north flights

Environmental sources of stress in the cockpit could be: 1. noise and vibration 2. acceleration 3. radiation 4. extreme temperaturesWhich of the following lists all the correct answers? a)

2 and 3

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4


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226.)

227.)

228.)

229.)

Waiting for takeoff on the runway, a pilot is informed by the tower that the tail wind component is 12 kt. According to the manual, the limitation is 10 kt max. The pilot makes a decision to take-off anyway, as the runway is long. a)

This is neither an error or a violation - the pilot is using his initiative.

b)

This is an error of reasoning.

c)

This is a decision error.

d)

This is a violation.

A pilot experiences difficulties in the control of his aircraft and consequently omits to monitor the fuel level. This is caused by: a)

a lack of attention due to distraction

b)

both a lack of attention and a lack of alertness

c)

This pilot manages his attention well.

d)

a lack of alertness

A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the pilot has not been through flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the engineer as to the amount of fuel to be loaded, since he is used to flying this route. This behaviour results from: a)

a bias in selecting data

b)

a decision bias due to group (social) pressure

c)

a confirmation bias

d)

a decision bias due to habits (frequency bias)

Before takeoff, a briefing: a)

must be done systematically in order to refresh the memory of the crew members and to co-ordinate actions

b)

is not necessary when departing from home base because this is routine

c)

is not necessary if the crew members know each other

d)

is not required unless both crew members agree it is essential


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230.)

231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

A person's attitudes define a set of learned dispositions (likes and dislikes) which: a)

is exactly the same as a person's personality

b)

do not depend on a person's past experiences

c)

cannot be modified through training

d)

influence a person's reaction and response to people, situations, etc.

Planning: a)

in the cockpit typically results in plans that are always easy to modify when things are not as anticipated

b)

allows crew members to anticipate potential risky situations and decide on possible responses

c)

is dangerous in the cockpit, as it interrupts flight crew creativity

d)

is unnecessary in the cockpit, as crew members are so highly trained, they will always know what to do in unusual situations

The resistance phase of stress: a)

is characterised by the secretion of adrenalin, increased heart rate and blood pressure

b)

allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilization of energy in the body

c)

may cause a person to die by stopping the defence mechanisms of the body

d)

is very short duration and is unlikely to give a pilot the opportunity to resolve a problem

Free running circadian rhythms normally have a cycle of approximately: a)

6 hours

b)

36 hours

c)

8 hours

d)

25 hours

In the decision-making process, confirmation bias results in: a)

a tendency to look for approval by other crew-members, or by the ATC

b)

choosing familiar solutions, even if they are not the best ones

c)

overestimating the frequency of some events

d)

a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision


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235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

239.)

An experienced pilot: a)

prepares thoroughly for a flight and is able to anticipate the majority of possible problems

b)

seeks complex solutions to problems, thus using his capacities up to 100%

c)

functions exclusively in a reactive manner, as it is not resource-consuming

d)

avoids using automated systems as his experience allows him to perform all tasks manually

In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should: a)

maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning from past experiences

b)

forget about bad past experiences

c)

drop activities outside work so as to focus on his work better

d)

avoid anticipating events during a flight to manage his workload

The distribution of primary causes of accidents in the worldwide jet aircraft commercial fleet shows that human error is involved in: a)

about 90% of cases

b)

about 55% of cases

c)

all cases, one way or another

d)

about 70% of cases

Decisions made by pilots in a cockpit: a)

should always be made as quickly as possible

b)

are automatic when pilots are experts

c)

remain valid for a limited time only

d)

are always irreversible

Among the factors that increase tolerance to long-duration g forces are: a)

Anti-g suits and correct use of pilot's harness

b)

Correct use of pilot's harness and tensing of the abdominal muscles

c)

Bending forward or supine body position and tensing of the abdominal muscles

d)

Tensing the leg muscles and correct use of pilot's harness


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240.)

241.)

242.)

243.)

244.)

The ability to withstand g forces is reduced by a number of factors, among these factors are: a)

Low blood sugar, obesity and hypoxia

b)

Smoking, obesity and vibrations

c)

Physical fitness, heat and hypotension

d)

Hypoxia, fatigue and vibrations

What are the two types of attention ? a)

Cognitive and intuitive

b)

Intuitive and behavioural

c)

Divided and behavioural

d)

Selective and divided

The sleep pattern is closely associated with: a)

Glucose level

b)

Heart rate

c)

Body temperature

d)

Blood pressure

The normal sleep cycle is approximately every ................minutes a)

90

b)

60

c)

120

d)

180

If a stop-over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is to: a)

No adjustment is necessary

b)

Stay on home time and, on arrival, move to the new time

c)

Stay on home time

d)

Move to the new time as soon as possible


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245.)

246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

Mode Error is associated with: a)

Hardware

b)

Check lists

c)

Vertigo

d)

Automation

The two types of fatigue are: a)

Oppressive and negative

b)

Short-term and oppressive

c)

Chronic short-term and acute

d)

Heavy and light

The main purpose of lumbar support is to: a)

allow the most comfortable position for the upper spine

b)

allow the most comfortable position for the spine and shoulder bones

c)

produce an even pressure of the discs by allowing the lower spine to curve naturally.

d)

allow the most comfortable position for the spine and higher neck bones

Which of the following answers is correct? a)

Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is not adaptable.

b)

Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is adaptable.

c)

Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is adaptable.

d)

Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is not adaptable.

With too much cohesion, Groupthink can be: a)

negative

b)

positive and far-reaching

c)

popular and positive

d)

positive


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250.)

251.)

252.)

253.)

254.)

Cohesion is a major advantage in times of: a)

Success

b)

Personal advancement

c)

Difficulty

d)

Achievement

Differences of opinion should be regarded as ....................… a)

Stressful

b)

Confrontational

c)

Having negative influence on the group and are not to be encouraged

d)

Helpful

CRM and MCC training are designed to improve: a)

Individual efficiency and contribution

b)

Individual achievement

c)

The quality and a number of individuals' performance

d)

The quality of crew performance

Having made an important decision, a Commander of an aircraft should: a)

Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing

b)

Explain the reasons for the decision only if asked

c)

As the leader of the crew, never need explain the reasons behind the decision

d)

Explain the reasons for the decision only if time permits in the air

The three types of Authority Gradient Cockpits are: a)

Authoritative, Followership and Synergistic

b)

Authoritative, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic

c)

Autocratic, Followership and Synergistic

d)

Autocratic, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic


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255.)

256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

A Captain running an Autocratic cockpit is normally: a)

Under-worked

b)

A good leader

c)

Efficient

d)

Over-loaded

The "ideal" cockpit can be termed as: a)

Cohesive

b)

Co-operative

c)

Synergistic

d)

Communicative

A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHELL Concept of: a)

L and L

b)

L and S

c)

L and H

d)

L and E

The choice of words and their packaging become more important in the cockpit of an aircraft because: a)

Loss of body language

b)

Loss of hypertext

c)

Loss of perception

d)

Loss of situational awareness

Communication efficiency is most sensitive to: a)

Packaging of sentences

b)

Workload and interruptions

c)

Packaging of words

d)

Packaging of phrases


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260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

264.)

Internal conflict within oneself is termed as: a)

Intermediate-personal conflict

b)

Intra-personal conflict

c)

Inter-personal conflict

d)

Intro-personal conflict

The use of professional languages offers: a)

more precise grammar

b)

quick comprehension and simplified grammar

c)

better communication even if professionals are not from the same field

d)

longer attention span

Approximately ................... of all communication is achieved by factors other than words (metacommunications) a)

80%

b)

10%

c)

50%

d)

30%

Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew of two, good synergy is: a)

1-1=>2

b)

1+1=>2

c)

1+1=<2

d)

1 +/- 1 = < 2

With reference to the SHELL Model, S represents: a)

Security (which includes Safety)

b)

Software (which includes check lists)

c)

Symbology (which includes safety)

d)

Self-awareness (which includes Safety)


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265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

A pilot successfully completes a difficult and stressful landing at an aerodrome. The next time a landing is attempted under the same conditions and at the same aerodrome, is the pilot likely to experience: a)

the pilot should only attempt a landing at the same aerodrome if the conditions are improved

b)

the same stress level as the first landing

c)

a higher level of stress

d)

a lower level of stress

An important aspect of Situational Awareness is: a)

When the pilot perceives the situation both inside and outside the aircraft

b)

When the pilot perceives the instant and immediate situation both inside and outside the cockpit

c)

When a pilot's perception equals reality

d)

When a pilot is sure that the situation both inside and outside the aircraft is correct

Having interrupted the Captain for a sound reason, the co-pilot should: a)

Remind him/her of his/.her last action before the interruption

b)

Repeat the interruption twice so that the Captain's attention is focussed on the new information

c)

Ensure there is no ATC traffic on the radio that may be causing a possible distraction before continuing

d)

Never interrupt his/her Captain at a critical stage of flight

An unnoticed way-point error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of: a)

Active failure/error

b)

Pro-active failure/error

c)

Latent failure/error

d)

Re-active failure/error


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269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

273.)

If one error is allowed to effect a whole system, the system is described as: a)

Error-prone

b)

Vulnerable

c)

Error tolerant

d)

Corrupted

Active errors/failures are committed at: a)

the system/system interface and have a delayed effect

b)

the human/system interface and have a delayed effect

c)

the system/system interface and have an immediate effect

d)

the human/system interface and have an immediate effect

Ergonomics are associated with: a)

cognition

b)

the human/workplace interface

c)

communications

d)

information processing

The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress: a)

Cockpit entity

b)

Cockpit synergy

c)

Cockpit cohesion

d)

Cockpit communications

The best method to avoid Confirmation Bias is to: a)

Deliberately confirm that the receiver has understood the information that has been passed to him/her

b)

Double-check that you have not fitted the ground over which you are passing to yourmap

c)

Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis

d)

Precise and careful pre-flight briefings


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274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

278.)

The phases of learning a Motor Programme are: a)

1st, 2nd and 3rd phases

b)

Induction, Simulation and Practice phases

c)

Cognitive, Associative and Automatic phases

d)

Initial, Interim and Final phases

Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is called: a)

Sensory strength

b)

Sensory filter

c)

Sensory threshold

d)

Sensory volume

We generate Mental Models on: a)

Imagination

b)

Stereopsis

c)

3-D vision

d)

Past experience and learning

The errors of a motor programme are: a)

Action Slip and Confirmation Bias

b)

Confirmation error and Error of Commission

c)

Action Slip and Environmental Capture (Habituation)

d)

Habituation and Error of Commission

In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards presented a concept of the interface between flight crew and other parts of the airspace environment. What is this concept called and the names of those elements involved ? a)

The SHELL Concept. Software, hardware, economy and liveware

b)

The SHELL Concept. Software, hardware, environment, and liveware

c)

The SHELL Concept. Software, harmony, environment, and location

d)

The SHELL Concept. Software, hardware, environment and location


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279.)

Who in the Aviation Industry is responsible for flight safety ? a)

Aircrew

b)

Aircrew and GroundCrew

c)

Everyone involved

d)

Management, Aircrew, Groundcrew and ATC


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Questionnaire 050-MET

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

005.)

How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere? a)

It remains constant throughout the year.

b)

It remains constant from north to south.

c)

It increases from south to north.

d)

It decreases from south to north.

What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ? a)

11 km

b)

8 km

c)

16 km

d)

40 km

In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ? a)

Stratosphere.

b)

Troposphere.

c)

Tropopause.

d)

Stratopause.

At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is: a)

Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.

b)

Greater than the density of the ISA at FL 180.

c)

Less than the density of the ISA at FL 180.

d)

Equal to the density of the ISA at FL 180.

Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is: a)

-273°C

b)

-44.7°C

c)

-56.5°C

d)

-100°C


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006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

010.)

Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude ? a)

When the altimeter has no position error.

b)

At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.

c)

When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa.

d)

At standard temperature.

In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height a)

is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.

b)

is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.

c)

is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.

d)

remains constant at all levels.

Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level ? a)

FL 50.

b)

FL 390.

c)

FL 300.

d)

FL 100.

What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m ? a)

8 m (27 FT).

b)

64 m (210 FT).

c)

32 m (105 FT).

d)

15 m (50 FT).

In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ? a)

Elevation of the airfield.

b)

Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.

c)

Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.

d)

Temperature at the airfield.


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011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

015.)

What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate ? a)

1.5°C/1000 FT

b)

2.0°C/1000 FT

c)

3.0°C/1000 FT

d)

3.5°C/1000 FT

A layer is conditionally unstable if the air a)

becomes stable by lifting it.

b)

is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.

c)

is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.

d)

is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.

A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air? a)

It depends upon the QFE.

b)

Lower than the starting temperature.

c)

Higher than the starting temperature.

d)

The same as the starting temperature.

What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ? a)

It prevents vertical wind shear.

b)

It results in good visual conditions near the surface.

c)

It promotes vertical wind shear.

d)

It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.

The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? a)

-18°C.

b)

-9°C.

c)

-15°C.

d)

-6°C.


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016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

020.)

If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature is ISA +10°C in the lower troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120? a)

6240 FT.

b)

5900 FT.

c)

5760 FT.

d)

6000 FT.

Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion ? a)

Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

b)

Heating of the air by subsidence

c)

The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

d)

Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.

At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according to the Significant Weather Chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely temperature at FL 350 ? a)

-58°C.

b)

-54°C.

c)

-50°C.

d)

-56,5°C.

What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called? a)

Ionosphere.

b)

Atmosphere.

c)

Tropopause.

d)

Stratosphere.

Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL50? a)

850 hPa.

b)

300 hPa.

c)

500 hPa.

d)

700 hPa.


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021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

025.)

An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level? a)

10°C warmer than ISA.

b)

5°C warmer than ISA.

c)

5°C colder than ISA.

d)

10°C colder than ISA.

Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in a)

winter during the night and early morning.

b)

summer in the afternoon.

c)

summer during the night and early morning.

d)

winter in the afternoon.

Which of the following is a possible consequence of subsidence? a)

An inversion over a large area with haze, mist.

b)

CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area.

c)

Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes .

d)

Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation.

The polar front is the boundary between: a)

polar air and tropical air.

b)

arctic air and tropical air.

c)

arctic air and polar air.

d)

maritime polar air and continental polar air.

What does dewpoint mean? a)

The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation.

b)

The freezing level (danger of icing).

c)

The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same.

d)

The temperature at which ice melts.


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026.)

027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ? a)

Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100

b)

Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100

c)

Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100

d)

Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100

The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it? a)

It increases with increasing water vapour.

b)

It decreases with increasing water vapour.

c)

It is only influenced by temperature.

d)

It is not influenced by changing water vapour.

Relative humidity a)

does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant.

b)

is not affected by temperature changes of the air.

c)

changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant.

d)

is not affected when air is ascending or descending.

How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes? a)

It increases with increasing temperature.

b)

It is not influenced by temperature changes.

c)

It decreases with increasing temperature.

d)

It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.

How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature? a)

When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant.

b)

When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.

c)

When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.

d)

When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.


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031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

035.)

When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity? a)

It increases up to 100%, then remains stable.

b)

It decreases.

c)

It remains constant.

d)

It increases.

During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were measured. What temperature change must at least occur during the night in order to induce saturation? a)

It must decrease to +5°C.

b)

It must decrease by 5°C.

c)


d)


Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in meteorology)? a)

Liquid direct to vapour

b)

Liquid direct to solid

c)

Solid direct to vapour

d)

Solid direct to liquid

Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: a)

temperature and dew point are nearly equal.

b)

water vapour condenses.

c)

water vapour is present.

d)

relative humidity reaches 98%.

Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain? a)

Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C into air with a temperature above 0°C.

b)

An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through which rain is falling.

c)

Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.

d)

Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0°C.


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036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes? a)

Hail.

b)

Heavy rain with large drops.

c)

Moderate rain with large drops.

d)

Drizzle.

Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation? a)

The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.

b)

Occlusions.

c)

Frontal zones.

d)

The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.

Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land? a)

Unstable air.

b)

The release of latent heat.

c)

Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind.

d)

Convection during the day.

Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds? a)

Convection.

b)

Subsidence.

c)

Radiation.

d)

Frontal lifting within stable layers.

What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds? a)

Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.

b)

Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.

c)

Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.

d)

Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.


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041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions? a)

SC, NS.

b)

CU, CB.

c)

CI, SC.

d)

ST, CS.

Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions ? a)

AS, AC.

b)

SC, NS

c)

CI, CC.

d)

CS, ST.

(For this question use annex 050-1914A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus? a)

3.

b)

2.

c)

4.

d)

1.

What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"? a)

Ice crystals.

b)

Water droplets.

c)

Supercooled water droplets.

d)

Water vapour.

A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? a)

15000 - 25000 FT above the terrain.

b)


c)


d)



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046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer? a)

Stratus.

b)

Nimbostratus.

c)

Altocumulus.

d)

Cirrus.

Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation ? a)

SC.

b)

NS.

c)

CS.

d)

ST.

What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together? a)

Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.

b)

Strong and flowing across the isobars.

c)

Moderate and flowing parallel to the isobars.

d)

Strong and flowing parallel to the isobars.

Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds? a)

Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.

b)

Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.

c)

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.

d)

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.

How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? a)

Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily.

b)

Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times.

c)

Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.

d)

Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage.


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051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description? "There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's centre of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult." a)

Severe.

b)

Moderate.

c)

Light.

d)

Violent.

For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind? a)

Thunderstorms.

b)

Dust and poor visibility.

c)

Hail.

d)

Sand up to FL 150.

What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called? a)

Scirocco.

b)

Mistral.

c)

Bora.

d)

Ghibli.

In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows: a)

during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

b)

during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.

c)

during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.

d)

during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.


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055.)

056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon? a)

Land to sea.

b)

Variable.

c)

Sea to land.

d)

Parallel to the coastline.

A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows a)

up the slope during the day.

b)

up the slope during the night.

c)

down the slope during the day.

d)

down the slope during the night.

Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are south-westerly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions? a)

The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.

b)

Friction between the wind and the surface.

c)

Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

d)

A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.

Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in: a)

backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.

b)

veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.

c)

backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.

d)

veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface.

Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ? a)

Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.

b)

It decreases

c)

It increases.

d)



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060.)

061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause? a)

-35°C.

b)

-55°C.

c)

-25°C.

d)

-75°C.

Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous? a)

Warm depression.

b)

Cold low.

c)

Warm high.

d)

Cold high.

In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100? a)

Headwind with no drift.

b)

Tailwind with no drift.

c)

Wind from the right.

d)

Wind from the left.

What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100? a)

Light turbulence in ST cloud.

b)

Light turbulence in CB cloud.

c)

Moderate turbulence in NS cloud.

d)

Severe turbulence in CB cloud.

You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, the wind is 180°, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)? a)

South.

b)

Southwest.

c)

South-southeast.

d)

South-southwest.


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065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

What are the typical differences with regard to the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia ? a)

The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.

b)

The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air.

c)

The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores.

d)

The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air.

Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer? a)

Southern France.

b)

The southern Balkan region and the Near East.

c)

Southern Italy.

d)

The Azores region.

Where does polar continental air originate? a)

Siberian landmass.

b)

The region of Azores.

c)

Polar ice cap.

d)

The region of the British Isles.

In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered? a)

Polar maritime air.

b)

Arctic maritime air.

c)

Polar continental air.

d)

Tropical continental air.

With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? a)

Cumulonimbus.

b)

Stratus.

c)

Stratocumulus.

d)

Nimbostratus.


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070.)

071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur? a)

At sunset.

b)

Shortly after midnight.

c)

Late evening.

d)

Shortly after sunrise.

What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog? a)

5 000 FT.

b)

2 000 FT.

c)

10 000 FT.

d)

500 FT.

Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog? a)

Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.

b)

Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.

c)

Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.

d)

Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.

What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to fall? a)

High level cold fronts.

b)

Warm fronts, warm occlusions.

c)

Cold fronts.

d)

Cold occlusions.

Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level ? a)

Severe thunderstorms at low altitude.

b)

High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms.

c)

Low cloud base and poor visibility.

d)

Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground.


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075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter ? a)

A strong downdraught.

b)

Increasing temperatures.

c)

Strong, gusty winds.

d)

Decreasing temperatures.

What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass? a)

Altostratus.

b)

Nimbostratus.

c)

Cumulonimbus.

d)

Cumulus.

The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is: a)

1/300

b)

1/150

c)

1/50

d)

1/500

What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front? a)

A low on lee side of a mountain.

b)

Heat low.

c)

Polar front low.

d)

A cold air pool.

In which approximate direction does the centre of a non-occluded frontal depression move? a)

In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.

b)

In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.

c)

In the direction of the warm sector isobars.

d)

In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.


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080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics? a)

Ahead of the front.

b)

At the surface position of the front.

c)

At the junction of the occlusion.

d)

Behind the front.

What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest? a)

Warm front.

b)

Cold front.

c)

Cold occlusion.

d)

Warm occlusion.

Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter? a)

Fair weather CU.

b)

ST.

c)

CI, CS.

d)

CU, CB.

What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front? a)

8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.

b)

Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.

c)

Advection fog.

d)

Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS.

What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during a summer afternoon in western Europe ? a)

Good (greater than 10 km).

b)

Very good (greater than 50 km).

c)

Very poor (less than 1 km).

d)

Moderate (several km).


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085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct? a)

Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ.

b)

The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.

c)

The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.

d)

Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ.

In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro? a)

8° - 12°S.

b)

0° - 7°N.

c)

3° - 8°S.

d)

7° - 12°N.

What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India? a)

Fog.

b)

Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain.

c)

Sandstorms.

d)

Stratus clouds and drizzle.

After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter at FL 50, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature? a)

A backing in the wind direction.

b)

A decrease in tailwind.

c)

An increase in tailwind.

d)

A veering in the wind direction.

When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? a)

March to May and October to November.

b)

March to May and August to October.

c)

April to July and December to February.

d)

December to February and July to October.


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090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

094.)

Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ? a)

The zone where the Harmattan meets the north-easterly trade winds over Africa.

b)

The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.

c)

The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere.

d)

The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.

What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area? a)

West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.

b)

West deep into the USA.

c)

East then south.

d)

West in the earlier stages and later turning south east.

During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere? a)

All seasons.

b)

Winter.

c)

Summer and autumn.

d)

Winter and spring.

What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool? a)

Fine weather CU.

b)

Sky clear (SKC).

c)

Strong westerly winds.

d)

Showers and thunderstorms.

How do you recognize a cold air pool? a)

As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).

b)

A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.

c)

A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.

d)

As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).


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095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

099.)

What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area? a)

Subsidence.

b)

Convection.

c)

Convergence.

d)

Advection.

What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter? a)

A tendency for fog and low ST.

b)

The possibility of snow showers.

c)

Thunderstorms.

d)

NS with continuous rain.

In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ? a)

CB, TS.

b)

TS, SH.

c)

Calm winds, haze.

d)

NS.

At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally at their most southerly position? a)

Spring.

b)

Autumn.

c)

Summer.

d)

Winter.

What is the relationship between visibility and RVR in homogeneous fog? a)

The visibility generally is less than the RVR.

b)

The visibility generally is greater than the RVR.

c)

The visibility generally is the same as the RVR.

d)

There is no specific relationship between the two.


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100.)

101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed? a)

Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.

b)

On a mast 6-10 m above the runway.

c)

1 m above the runway.

d)

On the roof of the weather station.

You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable? a)

In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice.

b)

Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice.

c)

Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost.

d)

In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe clear ice.

You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a fine and hot summer day. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight? a)

Mid-day.

b)

Morning.

c)

Afternoon.

d)

Early evening.

At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America? a)

Winter.

b)

Autumn, winter.

c)

Spring, summer.

d)

Summer, autumn.

In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm updrafts? a)

Around midnight.

b)

Early morning.

c)

Mid - afternoon.

d)

Late morning.


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105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur ? a)

Cumulus stage and mature stage.

b)

Mature stage.

c)

Cumulus stage.

d)

Dissipating stage.

Where is a squall line to be expected? a)

In front of an active cold front.

b)

At the surface position of a warm front.

c)

In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels.

d)

Behind a cold front.

What are squall lines? a)

The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.

b)

Unusual intensive cold fronts.

c)

The paths of tropical revolving storms.

d)

Bands of intensive thunderstorms.

Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with strong winds from the south (Foehn)? a)

Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.

b)

Good visibility, turbulence.

c)

Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.

d)

Icing, huge mass of clouds.

What weather is prevalent in easterly waves? a)

Frontal weather.

b)

Clear skies.

c)

Thunderstorms and rain.

d)

Continuous rain.


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110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

114.)

What winds and air mass characteristics are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent? a)

North-westerly winds bringing dry and hazy air.

b)

North-easterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.

c)

South-westerly winds carrying warm and humid air.

d)

South-easterly winds carrying warm and humid air.

What is the meaning of the expression "FEW"? a)

1 - 2 oktas.

b)

5 - 7 oktas.

c)

8 oktas.

d)

3 - 4 oktas.

When is the RVR reported at most airports? a)

When the visibility decreases below 1500 m.

b)

When the RVR decreases below 2500 m.

c)

When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.

d)

When the visibility decreases below 2000 m.

How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ? a)

The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.

b)

The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots.

c)

The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour.

d)

The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour.

What positions are connected by contour lines on a weather chart? a)

Positions with the same air density.

b)

Positions with the same wind velocity.

c)

Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure.

d)

Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels.


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115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found? a)

500 hPa chart.

b)

300 hPa chart.

c)

24 hour surface forecast.

d)

Significant Weather Chart.

On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream? a)

Surface chart.

b)

Upper air chart.

c)

Wind / temperature chart.

d)

Significant weather chart.

What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250? a)

By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart.

b)

By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.

c)

By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts.

d)

By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart.

Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics? a)

The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown.

b)

The tropopause is always at the same height.

c)

The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very low and therefore not important.

d)

The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart.


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119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

123.)

In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance ? a)

60 minutes.

b)

120 minutes.

c)

20 minutes.

d)

10 minutes.

How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart? a)

FRQ CB.

b)

OCNL CB.

c)

EMBD CB.

d)

ISOL CB.

(For this question use annex 050-2055A rev. 20.01.2003) The cold front is indicated by: a)

number 3

b)

number 1

c)

number 2

d)

number 4

(For this question use annex 050-2056A) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog: a)

4

b)

3

c)

1

d)

2

(For this question use annex 050-2058A) What does the symbol indicate on a Significant Weather Chart? a)

The centre of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at FL 400.

b)

The centre of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.

c)

The lower limit of the tropopause.

d)

The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.


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124.)

(For this question use annex 050-2059A) a)

Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart ? (Spacing of the

b)

isobars: 5 hPa)

c)

Warm south wind condition (Foehn).

d)

Cutting wind.

West wind condition. Uniform pressure pattern.

125.)

126.)

127.)

(For this question use annex 050-2060A) Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left ? a)

Track C-A

b)

Track B-C

c)

Track B-A

d)

Track D-A

(For this question use annex 050-2061A) Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B? a)

1

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

(For this question use annex 050-2064A) Assuming the usual direction of movement, where will this polar frontal wave have moved to (after a certain time)? a)

Position 4

b)

Position 3

c)

Position 1

d)

Position 2


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128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

132.)

(For this question use annex 050-2065A) What is the classification of the air mass affecting position "Q" ? a)

Polar maritime.

b)

Tropical continental.

c)

Polar continental.

d)

Tropical maritime.

Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere? a)

Altostratus

b)

Cirrostratus

c)

Altocumulus

d)

Cumulonimbus

Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause? a)

It is, by definition, an isothermal layer

b)

It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere

c)

It is, by definition, a temperature inversion

d)

It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate

The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6° C? a)

FL 20

b)

FL 100

c)

FL 80

d)

FL 110

What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart? a)

Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level

b)

Positions with the same temperature at a given level

c)

Positions with the same air pressure at a given level

d)

Positions with the same relative pressure heights


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133.)

134.)

135.)

136.)

A vertical spacing of 1000 FT is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical separation be? a)

More than 1000 FT

b)

It remains 1000 FT

c)

Less than 1000 FT

d)

Without QNH information, it can not be determined

At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude? a)

In a very cold area with a QNH of 1015 hPa

b)

In a cold low pressure region

c)

At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013.25 hPa

d)

At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013.25 hPa

What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream? a)

The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front

b)

Strong winds in the upper atmosphere

c)

The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region

d)

The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over Iceland

Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system? a)

The equatorial jet stream

b)

The subtropical jet stream

c)

The easterly jet stream

d)

The polar front jet stream


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137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

141.)

At approximately what flight level is the subtropical jet stream found? a)

FL 200

b)

FL 300

c)

FL 400

d)

FL 500

A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes ? a)

Absolute humidity

b)

Mixing ratio

c)

Specific humidity

d)

Relative humidity

In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ? a)

Gas to liquid

b)

Solid to liquid

c)

Liquid to gas

d)

Solid to gas

How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ? a)

Through water vapour released during fuel combustion

b)

Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases

c)

In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases

d)

Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air

What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS and AS cloud coverage? a)

Sinking

b)

Convection process

c)

Radiation

d)

Lifting


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142.)

143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ? a)

ST

b)

AS

c)

CS

d)

CC

In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered? a)

In Nimbostratus cloud

b)

Below the freezing level in clear air

c)

Within cloud of any type

d)

In clear air above the freezing level

What flying conditions are normally encountered when flying in cirrus clouds? a)

Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing.

b)

Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing.

c)

Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to moderate rime ice.

d)

Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing.

Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ? a)

A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass

b)

A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground

c)

A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground

d)

Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night

Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)? a)

Cold air moving over warm water

b)

The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun

c)

Warm air moving over cold water

d)

The coastal region of the sea cools at night


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147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

151.)

How does freezing rain develop? a)

Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C

b)

Through melting of snow grains

c)

Snow falls through a layer where temperatures are above 0°C

d)

Through melting of ice crystals

What type of cloud can produce hail showers? a)

CB

b)

NS

c)

CS

d)

AC

In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ? a)

Black Sea

b)

Region of British Isles

c)

Baltic Sea

d)

East of Greenland

In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ? a)

Behind a warm front in the summer

b)

Ahead of a cold front in the winter

c)

Ahead of a warm front in the winter

d)

Ahead of a cold front in the summer

How do air masses move at a warm front ? a)

Cold air overrides a warm air mass

b)

Cold air undercuts a warm air mass

c)

Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

d)

Warm air overrides a cold air mass


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152.)

153.)

154.)

155.)

156.)

What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front? a)

Drizzle

b)

Light to moderate continuous rain

c)

Freezing rain

d)

Showers associated with thunderstorms

What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front ? a)

Cold air pushes under a warm air mass

b)

Cold air slides over a warm air mass

c)

Warm air pushes under a cold air mass

d)

Warm air pushes over a cold air mass

What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over Central Europe in the summer ? a)

Sky clear

b)

BKN CU and CB

c)

ST with drizzle

d)

Fair weather CU

Which of the following describes a warm occlusion? a)

The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front

b)

The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front

c)

The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front

d)

The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front

When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe? a)

Winter

b)

Winter and spring

c)

Summer

d)

Autumn and winter


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157.)

158.)

159.)

160.)

161.)

In which main direction does a polar front depression move? a)

Along the front towards the west

b)

Across the front towards the north

c)

Along the front towards the east

d)

Across the front towards the south

(For this question use annex 050-2388A rev. 20.01.2003) What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour? a)

A drop in pressure

b)

Approximately constant pressure

c)

A rise in pressure

d)

Irregular fluctuations

What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high? a)

Instability

b)

Sinking air

c)

Rising air

d)

Divergence at higher levels

On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest? a)

W coast

b)

SE coast

c)

N coast

d)

NE coast

What is characteristic of the pamperos? a)

Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains

b)

A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America

c)

A marked advance of cold air in South America

d)

Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees


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162.)

163.)

164.)

165.)

166.)

Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered? a)

At the latitudes of Gibraltar

b)

At the latitudes of Algeria

c)

Near the Canary Islands

d)

In the vicinity of Dakar

Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator? a)

SE trade winds and NE trade winds

b)

SW monsoon and NW monsoon

c)

SW monsoon and NW trade winds

d)

NW monsoon and SW trade winds

From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere? a)

N

b)

SW

c)

NE

d)

SE

What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south? a)

Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps

b)

Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps

c)

Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps

d)

Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps

Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB? a)

Close to the freezing level

b)

Between -30°C and -40°C

c)


d)



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167.)

168.)

169.)

170.)

171.)

Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of: a)

small supercooled water drops

b)

large supercooled water drops

c)

snow

d)

water vapour

What weather conditions would you expect at a squall line? a)

Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels

b)

Continuous heavy rain

c)

Fog

d)

Thunderstorms

What is the approximate maximum diameter of a the area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a microburst ? a)

400 m

b)

4 km

c)

50 km

d)

20 km

In general, the visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is a)

the same

b)

in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km

c)

less

d)

greater

Which weather chart gives information about icing ? a)

Significant weather chart

b)

700 hPa chart

c)

Surface chart

d)

500 hPa chart


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172.)

173.)

174.)

175.)

176.)

(For this question use annex 050-2421A rev. 20.01.2003) Which of the following symbols represents a squall line? a)

Symbol 1

b)

Symbol 3

c)

Symbol 4

d)

Symbol 2

What is a trend forecast? a)

An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours

b)

A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours

c)

A routine report

d)

A route forecast valid for 24 hours

What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean? a)

3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered

b)


c)


d)

Nil significant cloud cover

What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean? a)

No report received

b)

Not signed by the meteorologist

c)

No weather related problems

d)

No significant changes

In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? a)

GAFOR

b)

METAR

c)

SIGMET

d)

TAF


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177.)

178.)

179.)

180.)

In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? a)

22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =

b)

00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =

c)

VRB02KT 2500 HZ SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =

d)

VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR =

Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) a)

LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =

b)

LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =

c)

LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 BR =

d)

LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT) a)

LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000-RA=

b)

LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =

c)

LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =

d)

LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =

Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports? a)

The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed

b)

The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET

c)

The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI

d)

The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning


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181.)

182.)

183.)

184.)

(For this question use annex 050-2432A) At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 = a)

LEMD

b)

LFPO

c)

EDDL

d)

LOWW

(For this question use annex 050-2433A) What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC? a)

23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =

b)

26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =

c)

22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW=

d)

20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =

(For this question use annex 050-2493A) Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200 ? a)

Moderate turbulence, moderate icing

b)

Moderate turbulence, light icing

c)

Severe turbulence, severe icing

d)

Severe turbulence, moderate icing

(For this question use annex 050-2496A) Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation? a)

LSZH

b)

ENFB

c)

ESSA

d)

EFHK


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185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

(For this question use annex 050-2503A) Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map? a)

FL 330

b)

FL 300

c)

FL 150

d)

FL 280

(For this question use annex 050-2504A) What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart? a)

FL 360

b)

FL 340

c)

FL 160

d)

FL 220

(For this question use annex 050-2505A) Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich? a)

FL 160

b)

FL 220

c)

FL 320

d)

FL 140

(For this question use annex 050-2506A) What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik and Helsinki? a)

FL 350

b)

FL 360

c)

FL 320

d)

FL 300


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189.)

190.)

191.)

192.)

Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam? TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = a)

500 m

b)

500 FT

c)

800 FT

d)

250 FT

(For this question use annex 050-2509A) You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing? a)

FL 180

b)

FL 320

c)

FL 260

d)

FL 140

(For this question use annex 050-2510A) In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2? a)

From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate

b)

From below FL 130 to FL 270, light

c)

From FL 240 to FL 370, light

d)

From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate

(For this question use annex 050-2511A) At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern Scandinavia ? a)

FL 300

b)

FL 280

c)

FL 360

d)

FL 330


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193.)

194.)

195.)

196.)

(For this question use annex 050-2512A) At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds? a)

Position A, FL 200.

b)

Position B, FL 270.

c)

Position D, FL 290.

d)

Position C, FL 200.

(For this question use annex 050-2513A) At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt? a)

FL 240

b)

FL 300

c)

FL 350

d)

FL 330

(For this question use annex 050-2522A) Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL 280. a)

220/60

b)

040/60

c)

160/90

d)

250/80

(For this question use annex 050-2529A) The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be a)

-45°C

b)

-57°C

c)

-39°C

d)

-33°C


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197.)

198.)

199.)

200.)

(For this question use annex 050-2539A) The front labelled "Z" is a: a)

Warm occlusion

b)

Warm front

c)

Cold occlusion

d)

Cold front

(For this question use annex 050-2541A) What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B) ? a)

Arctic jet stream

b)

Polar front jet stream

c)

Sub-tropical jet stream

d)

Equatorial jet stream

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ? TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = a)

Heavy rain showers

b)

Light drizzle and fog

c)

Continuous moderate rain

d)

Moderate snow showers

Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ? TAF LFBD 281400Z 281524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = a)

10 NM

b)

8 km

c)

8 NM

d)

10 or more km


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201.)

202.)

203.)

204.)

(For this question use annex 050-2545A) What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris ? a)

240/20

b)

190/40

c)

030/40

d)

210/40

(For this question use annex 050-2547A) What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo and Paris ? a)

-25°C

b)

-23°C

c)

-19°C

d)

-15°C

(For this question use annex 050-2548A) What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the ICAO Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt ? a)

ISA -2°C

b)

ISA +2°C

c)

ISA +13°C

d)

ISA -13°C

(For this question use annex 050-2549A) What is the speed of the front located over France ? a)

25 kt

b)

15 kt

c)

30 kt

d)

10 kt


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205.)

206.)

207.)

208.)

(For this question use annex 050-2550A) Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London ? a)

050° / 120 km/h

b)

050° / 120 kt

c)

230° / 120 m/sec

d)

220° / 120 kt

Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ? TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = a)

140° / 10 kt

b)

120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt

c)

300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt

d)

250° / 20 kt

Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam ? TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = a)

6 km

b)

5 km

c)

5 NM

d)

3 km

(For this question use annex 050-2554A) Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220 ? a)

Individual cumulonimbus

b)

Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus

c)

Scattered towering cumulus

d)

Scattered castellanus


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209.)

210.)

211.)

212.)

(For this question use annex 050-2555A) Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160 ? a)

5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence

b)

4 oktas broken cumulus

c)

Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers

d)

Isolated cumulonimbus only

(For this question use annex 050-2556A) To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ? a)

5 to 7 oktas

b)

5 to 8 oktas

c)

1 to 4 oktas

d)

3 to 5 oktas

(For this question use annex 050-2558A) What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ? a)

-16°C

b)

-28°C

c)

-24°C

d)

-20°C

The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100. What is the true altitude of FL 100? a)

11410 FT.

b)

9790 FT.

c)

8590 FT.

d)

10210 FT.


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213.)

214.)

215.)

216.)

What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level? a)

Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA

b)

Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA

c)

Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.

d)

Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.

What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT below sea level? a)

No clear relationship exists.

b)

QFE is greater than QNH.

c)

QFE is smaller than QNH.

d)

QFE equals QNH.

You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15°C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What approximate indication should the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read? a)

16230 FT.

b)

13830 FT.

c)

15690 FT.

d)

14370 FT.

During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that: a)

the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca.

b)

one of the two QNH values may be incorrect.

c)

the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested.

d)

the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca.


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217.)

218.)

219.)

220.)

221.)

An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate: a)

1375 FT.

b)

1105 FT.

c)

1280 FT.

d)

1200 FT.

At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan? a)

January to May.

b)

July to November.

c)

September to January.

d)

May to July.

What units are used to report vertical wind shear? a)

kt.

b)

m/100 FT.

c)

kt/100 FT.

d)

m/sec.

Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ? a)

ATIS.

b)

TAF.

c)

SIGMET.

d)

SPECI.

In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ? a)

Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.

b)

Severe mountain waves.

c)

A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.

d)

Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.


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222.)

223.)

224.)

225.)

After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome? a)

1013 hPa.

b)

1028 hPa.

c)

1015 hPa.

d)

998 hPa.

You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude? a)

15900 FT.

b)

14100 FT.

c)

14370 FT.

d)

13830 FT.

You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ? a)

ISA +/-0°C

b)

ISA +12°C

c)

ISA -20°C

d)

ISA +20°C

Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of a)

snow.

b)

small supercooled water drops.

c)

large supercooled water drops.

d)

water vapour.


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226.)

227.)

228.)

229.)

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land? a)

He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.

b)

He descends to the warm air layer below.

c)

He continues to fly at the same altitude.

d)

He ascends to the cold air layer above.

(For this question use annex 050-3017A) What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A) ? a)

Polar front jet stream.

b)

Sub-tropical jet stream.

c)

Arctic jet stream.

d)

Equatorial jet stream.

An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight? a)

It increases.

b)


c)

It first increases, then decreases.

d)

It decreases.

What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core? a)

20000 FT .

b)

40000 FT.

c)

50000 FT.

d)

30000 FT.


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230.)

231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section? a)

1/1000

b)

1/1

c)

1/100

d)

1/10

Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere? a)

The polar night jet stream.

b)

The arctic jet stream.

c)

The subtropical jet stream.

d)

The equatorial jet stream.

What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream? a)

50000 FT.

b)

30000 FT.

c)

20000 FT.

d)

40000 FT.

An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced ? a)

It increases.

b)

It decreases and then increases.

c)

It stays the same.

d)

It decreases.

A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as: a)

not unusual in polar regions.

b)

a common occurrence.

c)

possible but a very rare phenomenon.

d)

not possible.


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235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

Does the following report make sense? METAR LSZH 182320Z VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG a)

The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew point of 2°C there must be uniform fog.

b)

The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported.

c)

The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level.

d)

The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the visibility is more than 2 km.

You receive the following METAR: LSGG 120750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG = What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC? a)

700 m.

b)

The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer to RVR.

c)

300 m.

d)

900 m.

Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR ? LSZH 050820Z 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000 FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 BR = a)

RVR for runway 14 1500 m, visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kt.

b)

Visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2°C.

c)

Visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m with no distinct tendency, dew point -2°C, freezing fog.

d)

RVR for runway 16 1000 m with no distinct tendency, visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C.

An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is a)

from the right

b)

from the left.

c)

headwind.

d)

tailwind.


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239.)

240.)

241.)

242.)

(For this question use annex 050-3030A) To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable ? TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1517 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030 a)

LEMD

b)

EKCH

c)

LOWW

d)

LFPG

What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ? a)

Monsoon.

b)

Westerly winds.

c)

Trade winds.

d)

Doldrums.

In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ? a)

About 12000 FT above the core.

b)

On the tropical air side of the core.

c)

Exactly in the centre of the core.

d)

On the polar air side of the core.

What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream? a)

70 kt.

b)

60 kt.

c)

100 kt.

d)

50 kt.


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243.)

244.)

245.)

A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following wind profile (Northern hemisphere). 900hPa 220/20kt 800hPa 220/25kt 700hPa 230/35kt 500hPa 260/60kt 400hPa 280/85kt 300hPa 300/100kt 250hPa 310/120kt 200hPa 310/80kt Which system is the jet stream associated with? a)

With a ITCZ.

b)

With a cold front.

c)

With a warm front.

d)

With an easterly wave.

Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm? a)

Anywhere in the eye.

b)

About 600 km away from the eye.

c)

In the centre of the eye.

d)

In the wall of clouds around the eye.

In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time: EISN SIGMET 2 VALID 140800/141100 EINNSHANNON FIR LOC SEV TURB FCST BLW FL050 S OF N53 WKN LIMM SIGMET 2 VALID 140900/141500 LIMMMILANO UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST FL250/430 STNR NC EGTT SIGMET 1 VALID 140800/141200 EGRBLONDON FIR/UIR EMBD TS FCST BTN N52 AND N54 E OF E002 TOP FL300 MOV E WKN Which decision is correct? a)

You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown.

b)

Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).

c)

You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers.

d)

Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.


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246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

250.)

In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect? a)

Strong northerly winds.

b)

Tailwinds.

c)

Light winds diagonal to the route.

d)

Headwinds.

What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ? a)

Wind speed.

b)

Vertical dimension.

c)

Horizontal dimension.

d)

Wind direction.

Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round? a)

Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream.

b)

Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream.

c)

Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream.

d)

Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream.

Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic because a)

of the strong southeast wind.

b)

there is no coriolis force present.

c)

of the low water temperature.

d)

the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.

Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC? a)

2000 m.

b)

Between 0 m and 1000 m.

c)

500 m.

d)

Between 500 m and 2000 m.


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251.)

252.)

253.)

254.)

255.)

Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean? a)

RVR less than 100 m.

b)

Vertical visibility 100 FT.

c)

RVR greater than 100 m.

d)

Vertical visibility 100 m.

What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm? a)

Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.

b)

Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt.

c)

Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.

d)

The equatorial jet stream.

Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ? a)

Halo.

b)

Red cirrus.

c)

AC castellanus.

d)

AC lenticularis.

Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by a)

frontal lifting (warm front).

b)

thermal triggering.

c)

frontal lifting (cold front).

d)

frontal occlusion.

Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? a)

Orographic thunderstorms.

b)

Thermal thunderstorms.

c)

Frontal thunderstorms.

d)

Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes.


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256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

What does the term METAR signify? a)

A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.

b)

A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.

c)

A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.

d)

A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.

How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid? a)

9 hours.

b)

2 hours.

c)

1 hour.

d)

30 minutes.

A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures? a)

Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.

b)

Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.

c)

Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents.

d)

Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.

At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with a CB? a)

From the base of the clouds up to about FL 200.

b)

From the ground up to about FL 200.

c)

From the ground up to about FL 100.

d)

From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.


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260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

What is a downburst? a)

An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.

b)

A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air.

c)

A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air.

d)

A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.

What is a SPECI? a)

A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.

b)

An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.

c)

A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.

d)

A special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed.

Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame? a)

Many long term changes in the original weather.

b)

The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC

c)

Many short term changes in the original weather.

d)

A quick change to new conditions between 1800 and 1900 UTC.

Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean? a)

4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.

b)

1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.

c)

5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.

d)

1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.


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264.)

265.)

266.)

267.)

Refer to the following TAF extract; BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 PROB30 TEMPO 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean? a)

Probability of 30%.

b)

Change expected in less than 30 minutes.

c)

Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.

d)

The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.

Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found? a)

In the polar air mass.

b)

In the tropical air mass.

c)

Just below the cold-air tropopause.

d)

Just above the warm-air tropopause.

How long does a typical microburst last? a)

1 to 5 minutes.

b)

Less than 1 minute.

c)

About 30 minutes.

d)

1 to 2 hours.

You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely changes. Which of the following statements is correct ? a)

You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no temperature difference between the two air masses.

b)

Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will have the instruments tested after landing.

c)

This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences are possible at these heights.

d)

This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core.


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268.)

269.)

270.)

271.)

The Hurricane season is mainly from a)

October until January.

b)

July until November.

c)

April until July.

d)

January until April.

In which month does the humid monsoon in India start? a)

In December.

b)

In March.

c)

In October.

d)

In June.

At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies? a)

80°N.

b)

50°N.

c)

10°N.

d)

30°N.

During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason for this difference? a)

The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream.

b)

The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse wind conditions.

c)

The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system.

d)

The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable conditions.


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272.)

273.)

274.)

275.)

What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in July ? a)

A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.

b)

A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar front jet stream.

c)

One subtropical jet stream.

d)

A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.

While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind? a)

A tailwind.

b)

A headwind.

c)

Crosswind from the right

d)

Crosswind from the left

What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? a)

Change of course.

b)

Change of flight level.

c)

Increase of speed.

d)

Decrease of speed.

Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? a)

In the core of the jet stream.

b)

Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air.

c)

Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core.

d)

Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core.


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276.)

277.)

278.)

279.)

Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile: 3000 FT +15°C 6000 FT +8°C 10000 FT +1°C 14000 FT -6°C 18000 FT -14°C 24000 FT -26°C At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest? a)

FL 150

b)

FL 80

c)

FL 220

d)

FL 180

On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing? a)

Yes, between ground level and 3000 FT/AGL.

b)

No, flights clear of cloud experience no icing.

c)

Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL.

d)

No, absolutely no icing will occur.

In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and the temperature at 1000 m/AGL is 13°C. This layer of air is: a)

a layer of heavy turbulence

b)

stable

c)

unstable

d)

conditionally unstable

Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first a)

3 km

b)

5 km

c)

8 km

d)

11 km


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280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

284.)

The thickness of the troposphere varies with a)

the wind

b)

latitude

c)

rotation of the earth

d)

longitude

In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature a)

decreases with altitude

b)

is almost constant

c)

increases at first and decreases afterward

d)

increases with altitude

How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ? a)

The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level.

b)

The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level.

c)

The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level.

d)

The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above ground level.

If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at a)

a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.

b)

a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.

c)

the same rate as if the air mass were dry.

d)

a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat.

What characterizes a stationary front ? a)

The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front

b)

The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air

c)

The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front

d)

The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front


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285.)

286.)

287.)

288.)

The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is: a)

a low level temperature inversion.

b)

surface cooling.

c)

an increasingly stable atmosphere.

d)

increasing surface wind speed.

The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the a)

coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient

b)

centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient

c)

centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient

d)

coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force

The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because the a)

centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient

b)

effect of coriolis is added to friction

c)

centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient

d)

coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force

An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from ? a)

From the left and slightly on the nose

b)

From the right and slightly on the nose

c)

From the right and slightly on the tail

d)

From the left and slightly on the tail


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289.)

290.)

291.)

292.)

What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog ? a)

Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.

b)

Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.

c)

Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling.

d)

Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.

Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind a)

at the apex of the wave

b)

in front of the warm front

c)

in the warm sector

d)

behind the cold front

What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front ? a)

Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin

b)

At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front

c)

At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS

d)

At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB

A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect ? a)

Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front.

b)

Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours.

c)

Continuous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.

d)

Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front.


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293.)

294.)

295.)

296.)

297.)

What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ? a)

Area of active storms

b)

Stability

c)

Instability

d)

Clear ice

What pressure is defined as QFE? a)

The pressure at field elevation

b)

The pressure of the altimeter

c)

The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures

d)

The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures

In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure area because: a)

turbulence is formed and pressure decreases

b)

the pressure gradient increases

c)

turbulence is formed and pressure increases

d)

wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases

The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the: a)

mountain at night.

b)

valley during daylight as much as at night.

c)

mountain during daylight hours.

d)

valley during daylight hours.

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure a)

at height of observatory

b)

at a determined density altitude

c)

reduced to sea level

d)

at flight level


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298.)

299.)

300.)

301.)

302.)

What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog? a)

Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range

b)

High relative humidity and an unstable air mass

c)

Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.

d)

Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity

What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ? a)

50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses

b)


c)


d)


How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? a)

Remains constant

b)

Decreases

c)

Increases

d)

At first it increases and higher up it decreases

Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ? a)

Cirrocumulus

b)

Stratocumulus

c)

Altocumulus lenticularis

d)

Nimbostratus

Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown ? a)

Air temperature lower than standard.

b)

Air temperature higher than standard

c)

Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

d)

Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.


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303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves? a)

Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.

b)

Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge.

c)

Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.

d)

Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.

An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL 310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by: a)

Maintain FL 270

b)

Turn right

c)

Descending

d)

Climbing

The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by a)

a constant outside air temperature

b)

dust or haze at high level

c)

a high-pressure centre at high level

d)

long streaks of cirrus clouds.

During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves toward the a)

north and speed decreases

b)

north and speed increases

c)

south and speed decreases

d)

south and speed increases


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307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars ? a)

Greater density of the air at the surface

b)

Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface

c)

Coriolis force

d)

Surface friction

Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ? a)

Radiation fog

b)

Steam fog

c)

Advection fog

d)

Frontal fog

In addition to a lifting action, what are two other requirements necessary for thunderstorm formation ? a)

Unstable conditions and high atmospheric pressure

b)

Unstable conditions and high moisture content

c)

Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure

d)

Stable conditions and high moisture content

If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest ? a)

9000 feet

b)

5000 feet

c)

3000 feet

d)

12000 feet


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311.)

312.)

313.)

314.)

From the following TAF you can assume that visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be: EGBB 261000Z 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2224 26010KT a)

more than 10 km

b)

not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.

c)

a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.

d)

a maximum 5 km.

What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas ? a)

The pressure gradient force

b)

Coriolis force

c)

Katabatic force

d)

Surface friction

Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around highand low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart. a)

Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.

b)

Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.

c)

When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.

d)

When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds.

What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ? a)

Radiation.

b)

Steam.

c)

Advection.

d)

Orographic.


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315.)

316.)

317.)

318.)

319.)

In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion ? a)

Cirrus clouds.

b)

Snow.

c)

Freezing rain.

d)

Stratus clouds.

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that a)

a warm front has passed

b)

there are thunderstorms in the area

c)

a cold front has passed

d)

freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude

Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the a)

mature stage.

b)

initial stage.

c)

dissipating stage.

d)

period in which precipitation is falling.

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the a)

period in which precipitation is not falling.

b)

mature stage.

c)

cumulus stage.

d)

dissipating stage.

The most dangerous form of airframe icing is a)

hoar frost.

b)

dry ice.

c)

rime ice.

d)

clear ice.


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320.)

321.)

322.)

323.)

324.)

The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the a)

height of the aircraft

b)

stability of the air

c)

intensity of vertical and horizontal wind shear

d)

intensity of the solar radiation

In an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is: a)

strong wind associated with an almost clear sky

b)

light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling

c)

strong wind with subsidence at low levels

d)

strong wind shear, convection and snow showers

Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour? a)

Upper stratosphere

b)

Ozone layer

c)

Lower stratosphere

d)

Troposphere

The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? a)

0°C

b)

-6°C

c)

+2°C

d)

-4°C


+7°C

b)

-3°C

c)

+3°C

d)

0°C


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325.)

326.)

327.)

328.)


-8°C

b)

+4°C

c)

0°C

d)

-4°C

A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level? a)

0°C

b)

+2°C

c)

-2°C

d)

+4°C

How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over western Europe? a)

Low

b)

High

c)

Within +/-5°C of ISA

d)

20°C below standard



b)

Low

c)

Very low

d)

High


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329.)

330.)

331.)

332.)

333.)



b)

High

c)

Very high

d)

Low

What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude? a)

Advection

b)

Adiabatic

c)

Subsidence

d)

Inversion

The station pressure used in surface weather charts is a)

QFE

b)

QNH

c)

QNE

d)

QFF


FL 50

b)

FL 100

c)

FL 300

d)

FL 390


FL 390

b)

FL 180

c)

FL 160

d)

FL 100


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334.)

335.)

336.)

337.)

338.)


FL 390

b)

FL 300

c)

FL 100

d)

FL 180


FL 50

b)

FL 390

c)

FL 300

d)

FL100

The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? a)

1016 hPa

b)

It is not possible to give a definitive answer

c)

Less than 1016 hPa

d)

More than 1016 hPa

The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? a)

Less than 1016 hPa

b)

More than 1016 hPa

c)

1016 hPa

d)


The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? a)

More than 1009 hPa

b)

Less than 1009 hPa

c)

1009 hPa

d)



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339.)

340.)

341.)

342.)

343.)

The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF? a)

1022 hPa

b)

Less than 1022 hPa

c)


d)

More than 1022 hPa

The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF? a)

More than 1022 hPa

b)


c)

Less than 1022 hPa

d)

1022 hPa

The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? a)

1018 hPa

b)

More than 1018 hPa

c)


d)

Less than 1018 hPa

The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? a)

Less than 1030 hPa

b)

1030 hPa

c)


d)

More than 1030 hPa

If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH ? a)

1015 hPa

b)

1000 hPa

c)

1010 hPa

d)

1005 hPa


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344.)

345.)

346.)

347.)

348.)

If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? a)

990 hPa

b)

985 hPa

c)

1025 hPa

d)

1035 hPa

If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? a)

995 hPa

b)

1005 hPa

c)

1000 hPa

d)

990 hPa

If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? a)

1005 hPa

b)

1025 hPa

c)

995 hPa

d)

1000 hPa

If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? a)

-60°C

b)

-45°C

c)

-30°C

d)

-15°C

If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? a)

+15°C

b)

-15°C

c)

-10°C

d)

+5°C


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349.)

350.)

351.)

352.)

If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be? a)

FL 150

b)

FL 90

c)

FL 110

d)

FL 130

An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that: a)

the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested

b)

the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille

c)

one of the two QNH values may be incorrect

d)

the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille

During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken ? a)

Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong

b)

Compensate by heading further to the left

c)

Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong

d)

None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseille

During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this ? a)

The air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille

b)

One of the QNH values must be wrong

c)

The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca

d)

The altimeter is faulty


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353.)

354.)

355.)

356.)

During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? a)

Its average temperature is the same as ISA

b)

There is insufficient information to make any assumption

c)

It is warmer than ISA

d)

It is colder than ISA

An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ? a)


b)

There is insufficient information to make any assumption

c)


d)


An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ? a)


b)


c)

There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

d)


An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying ? a)


b)


c)

Its average temperature is about ISA

d)

There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion


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357.)

358.)

359.)

360.)

An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a very cold winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit? a)

The same altitude as the elevation of the summit

b)

There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion

c)

A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit

d)

A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit

An aircraft is flying over the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summit's elevation? a)

A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit

b)

A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit

c)

The same altitude as the elevation of the summit

d)

There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion

An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ? a)

It will decrease

b)

It will increase

c)

It will not be affected

d)


During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure ? a)

It will decrease

b)

It will increase

c)


d)



page: 79

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361.)

362.)

363.)

364.)

During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure? a)


b)

It will increase

c)


d)

It will decrease

(For this question use annex 050-4246A) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? a)

Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B

b)

The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

c)

Wind speed at A is higher than at B

d)

The true altitude will be higher at A than at B



b)

Wind speed at A and at B is the same

c)

Wind speed at A is higher than at B

d)



Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A

b)


c)


d)

Wind speed at B is higher than at A


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365.)

366.)

367.)

368.)


Wind speed at A and at B is the same

b)


c)

Wind speed at B is higher than at A

d)


You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude? a)

21740 feet

b)

20660 feet

c)

19340 feet

d)

18260 feet

You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude? a)

15630 feet

b)

16370 feet

c)

15090 feet

d)

16910 feet

You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude? a)

12210 feet

b)

11790 feet

c)

11520 feet

d)

11250 feet


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369.)

370.)

371.)

372.)

373.)

An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ? a)

0 FT

b)

700 FT

c)

380 FT

d)

1080 FT

After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level ? a)

660 feet.

b)

2280 feet.

c)

1200 feet.

d)

1740 feet.

What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour? a)

60 km/h

b)

45 km/h

c)

35 km/h

d)

55 km/h

What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots? a)

70 kt

b)

55 kt

c)

60 kt

d)

50 kt

What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec? a)

15 m/sec

b)

30 m/sec

c)

20 m/sec

d)

25 m/sec


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374.)

375.)

376.)

377.)

378.)

What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on? a)

The actual speed at the time of recording

b)

The strongest gust in the previous hour

c)

The average speed of the previous 10 minutes

d)

The average speed of the previous 30 minutes

Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground? a)

At the centre of a low-pressure system

b)

At the centre of a high-pressure system

c)

In the transition zone between two air masses

d)

Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months

An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure ? a)

In front.

b)

To the left.

c)

Behind.

d)

To the right.

Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt ? a)

55° - 75°.

b)

35° - 55°.

c)

25° - 35°.

d)

10° - 15°.

Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems during summer? a)

15° - 25°

b)

10° - 15°

c)

25° - 45°

d)

45° - 70°


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379.)

380.)

381.)

382.)

383.)

Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ? a)

Close to the ground

b)

Just below the tropopause

c)

In the stratosphere

d)

At about 5500 metres altitude

If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ? a)

25025KT

b)

16020KT

c)

22010KT

d)

22030KT


08005KT

b)

08015KT

c)

11020KT

d)

05020KT

If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground? a)

19040KT

b)

17015KT

c)

14020KT

d)

16030KT


23030KT

b)

33025KT

c)

27020KT

d)

30025KT


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384.)

385.)

386.)

387.)

Which of the following is true of a land breeze? a)

It blows from water to land

b)

It blows by day

c)

It blows only at noon

d)

It blows from land to water

An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon? a)

Headwind

b)


c)


d)

Tailwind

An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield (northern hemisphere) whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon ? a)


b)

Tailwind

c)

Headwind

d)


Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass? a)

It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown

b)

It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity

c)

It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass

d)

It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass


page: 85

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388.)

389.)

390.)

391.)

Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions? a)

ST, AS

b)

CU, CB

c)

NS, CU

d)

CB, CC

(For this question use annex 050-4273A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis? a)

2

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

(For this question use annex 050-4274A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus? a)

1

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels ? a)

ST

b)

CB

c)

AC

d)

CI


page: 86

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392.)

393.)

394.)

395.)

396.)

A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? a)

15000 - 25000 FT above ground

b)


c)


d)


A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? a)

1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain

b)


c)


d)


Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels? a)

CU

b)

SC

c)

CI

d)

AS

Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ? a)

ST

b)

SC

c)

AS

d)

CS

Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog? a)

The passage of fronts

b)

Heat loss from the ground on clear nights

c)

Dry, warm air passing over warm ground

d)

Cold air passing over warm ground


page: 87

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397.)

398.)

399.)

400.)

401.)

With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" precipitation most commonly associated? a)

AC

b)

NS

c)

SC

d)

ST

With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most commonly associated? a)

AS

b)

ST

c)

CC

d)

CB

With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most commonly associated? a)

CC

b)

CU

c)

CB

d)

ST

Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ? a)

CI

b)

CB

c)

NS

d)

AS

With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months ? a)

SC, AS

b)

NS, CC

c)

AS, NS

d)

CB, ST


page: 88

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402.)

403.)

404.)

405.)

With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most commonly associated? a)

NS

b)

SC

c)

AS

d)

CB

Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is being described? a)

A blizzard

b)

Weather at the back of a cold front

c)

A warm front

d)

A cold front

What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front ? a)

It will have decreased.

b)

It will show a small increase or decrease.

c)

It will have increased.

d)

It will remain unchanged.

What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes? a)


b)

It will be decreasing.

c)

It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.

d)

It will be increasing.


page: 89

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406.)

407.)

408.)

409.)

What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing? a)

It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.

b)

It will first decrease then increase.

c)


d)

It will first increase then decrease.

Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ? a)

Mainly towering clouds

b)

Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed

c)

Mainly layered clouds

d)

Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed

(For this question use annex 050-4297A) Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this crosssection to be expected? a)

Track A-E

b)

Track A-D

c)

Track B-D

d)

Track B-C

(For this question use annex 050-4298A rev. 20.01.2003) Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have moved ? a)

Position 4

b)

Position 3

c)

Position 2

d)

Position 1


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410.)

411.)

412.)

413.)

In a situation with a weak pressure gradient and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes? a)

Increase rapidly.

b)

Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.

c)

Decrease rapidly.

d)

Show strong fluctuations.

(For this question use annex 050-4305A) Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply? a)

Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe.

b)

Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps.

c)

Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter.

d)

Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe.

In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's surface? a)

-35°C to -50°C

b)

0°C to -10°C

c)

+10°C to 0°C

d)

-20°C to -35°C

Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing? a)

It always occurs in altostratus cloud

b)

It will occur in clear-sky conditions

c)

It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud

d)

It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation


page: 91

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414.)

415.)

416.)

417.)

418.)

Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing? a)

It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation

b)

It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud

c)

It will not occur in clear-sky conditions

d)

It always occurs in altostratus cloud

In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? a)

CU

b)

SC

c)

NS

d)

CI

In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? a)

AS

b)

SC

c)

CS

d)

NS

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ? a)

PE

b)

GR

c)

SHSN

d)

+FZRA

(For this question use annex 050-4314A rev. 20.01.2003) Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned? a)

Diagram 3

b)

Diagram 4

c)

Diagram 2

d)

Diagram 1


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419.)

420.)

421.)

422.)

423.)

At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be followed? a)

Extreme

b)

Moderate

c)

Severe

d)

Light

At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed? a)

Moderate

b)

Severe

c)

Light

d)

Extreme

At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of course and altitude necessary" recommendation be followed? a)

Light

b)

Moderate

c)

Severe

d)

Extreme

When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ? a)

When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed

b)

When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed

c)

With gusts of at least 25 knots

d)

With gusts of at least 35 knots

(For this question use annex 050-4319A) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low stratus: a)

3

b)

4

c)

1

d)

2


page: 93

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424.)

425.)

426.)

427.)

428.)

What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for? a)

To locate precipitation zones

b)

To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations

c)

To measure wind currents on the ground

d)

To help provide 14-day forecasts

Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens? a)

Hail

b)

Any cloud

c)

Fog

d)

Water vapour

Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL 100? a)

850 hPa

b)

500 hPa

c)

700 hPa

d)

300 hPa


500 hPa

b)

700 hPa

c)

200 hPa

d)

300 hPa


500 hPa

b)

200 hPa

c)

700 hPa

d)

300 hPa


page: 94

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429.)

430.)

431.)

432.)

433.)


300 hPa

b)

500 hPa

c)

700 hPa

d)

200 hPa

If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ? a)

500 hPa

b)

700 hPa

c)

300 hPa

d)

850 hPa

If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level ? a)

300 hPa

b)

500 hPa

c)

850 hPa

d)

700 hPa

When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ? a)

500 hPa

b)

700 hPa

c)

300 hPa

d)

850 hPa

When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ? a)

500 hPa

b)

850 hPa

c)

700 hPa

d)

300 hPa


page: 95

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434.)

435.)

436.)

437.)

438.)

(For this question use annex 050-4331A rev. 20.01.2003) A convergence line is indicated by: a)

number 1

b)

number 3

c)

number 4

d)

number 2

(For this question use annex 050-4332A rev 20.01.2003) The warm sector is indicated by: a)

number 2

b)

number 4

c)

number 3

d)

number 1

(For this question use annex 050-4333A) Which of the following best describes Zone A? a)

Ridge of high pressure

b)

Col

c)

Depression

d)

Trough of low pressure

(For this question use annex 050-4334A) Which of the following best describes Zone B? a)


b)


c)

Col

d)

Depression

(For this question use annex 050-4335A) Which of the following best describes Zone C? a)


b)

Col

c)


d)

Depression


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439.)

440.)

441.)

442.)

(For this question use annex 050-4336A) Which of the following best describes Zone D? a)

Depression

b)


c)

Anticyclone

d)


(For this question use annex 050-4337A rev. 20.01.2003) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing ? a)

Symbol 3

b)

Symbol 2

c)

Symbol 1

d)

Symbol 4

(For this question use annex 050-4338A rev. 20.01.2003) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical revolving storm? a)

Symbol 2

b)

Symbol 1

c)

Symbol 3

d)

Symbol 4

(For this question use annex 050-4339A rev. 20.01.2003) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? a)

Symbol 3

b)

Symbol 1

c)

Symbol 2

d)

Symbol 4


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443.)

444.)

445.)

446.)

(For this question use annex 050-4340A rev. 20.01.1003) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR) ? a)

Symbol 4

b)

Symbol 2

c)

Symbol 1

d)

Symbol 3

What does the term SIGMET signify? a)

A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at halfhourly intervals

b)

A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report

c)

A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

d)

A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

What does the term TREND signify? a)

It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

b)

It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals

c)

It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily

d)

It is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report

Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? a)

FZFG

b)

HZ

c)

BCFG

d)

SN


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447.)

448.)

449.)

450.)

451.)


+SHSN

b)

BR

c)

MIFG

d)

VA


DZ

b)

TS

c)

SQ

d)

SA

Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway? a)

FG

b)

HZ

c)

MIFG

d)

+FZRA

Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning? a)

+RA

b)

BCFG

c)

SA

d)

FG

Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours? a)

201350Z 04012KT 3000 BR OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 6000 =

b)

201350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30KT TS =

c)

201350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG =

d)

201350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG =


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452.)

453.)

454.)

455.)

In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest? a)

201850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR =

b)

201850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =

c)

201850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =

d)

201850Z 06018G30KT 5000-RA OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =

Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z = a)

Visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.

b)

Severe rainshowers, visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots.

c)

Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.

d)

Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C.

TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC? a)

Visibility 2,5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots

b)

Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots

c)

Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm

d)

Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 feet

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? a)

29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG =

b)

15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =

c)

04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =

d)

24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 =


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456.)

457.)

458.)

459.)

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"? a)

00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =

b)

26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =

c)

34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =

d)

27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW = a)

Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23°C

b)

Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa

c)

Broken, cloud base 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18°C

d)

Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°C

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = a)

Visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres

b)

Visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost

c)

Visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres

d)

RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ? LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZHSWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL 260/380 STNR INTSF a)

Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380

b)

Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380

c)

Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps

d)

Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260


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460.)

461.)

462.)

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ? LGGG SIGMET 3 VALID 121420/121820 LGATATHINAI FIR EMBD TS OBS AND FCST IN W PART MOV E NC a)

Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west

b)

Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant

c)

Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC

d)

The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR

Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice: TAF 240600Z 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS = What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports ? a)

That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF

b)

That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF

c)

That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF

d)

That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morning

(For this question use annex 050-4362A) At which airport is the following weather development taking place? TAF 231200Z 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 1619 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 = a)

EKCH

b)

EINN

c)

LSZH

d)

ESSA


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463.)

464.)

465.)

466.)

(For this question use annex 050-4363A) Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC? a)

16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 =

b)

23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =

c)

21002KT 5000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG =

d)

26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA =

(For this question use annex 050-4364A) Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night? a)

LSZH

b)

ESSA

c)

EKCH

d)

ENGM

(For this question use annex 050-4365A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110. a)

250/20

b)

200/30

c)

040/10

d)

230/10

(For this question use annex 050-4366A) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL 110. a)

-12°C

b)

-9°C

c)

+5°C

d)

-6°C


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467.)

468.)

469.)

470.)

(For this question use annex 050-4367A) Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Shannon be found? a)

FL 20

b)

FL 120

c)

FL 140

d)

FL 60

(For this question use annex 050-4368A rev. 10.11.2002) Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170. a)

030/35

b)

200/50

c)

050/40

d)

230/40

(For this question use annex 050-4369A rev. 10.11.2002) Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found? a)

FL 100

b)

FL 180

c)

FL 260

d)

FL 20

(For this question use annex 050-4370A rev. 10.11.2002) What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL 180? a)

4°C warmer than ISA

b)


c)

10°C colder than ISA

d)



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471.)

472.)

473.)

474.)

(For this question use annex 050-4371A rev. 10.11.2002) Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 160. a)

240/40

b)

210/25

c)

260/40

d)

050/35

(For this question use annex 050-4372A rev. 10.11.2002) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 150. a)

-14°C

b)

-11°C

c)

-21°C

d)

-27°C

(For this question use annex 050-4373A rev. 10.11.2002) What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA? a)


b)


c)


d)


(For this question use annex 050-4374A) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240. a)

200/15

b)

230/20

c)

260/25

d)

020/20


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475.)

476.)

477.)

(For this question use annex 050-4375A) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200. a)

-30°C

b)

-41°C

c)

-33°C

d)

-49°C

(For this question use annex 050-4376A rev. 10.11.2002) Select from the map the average wind for the route Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290. a)

340/90

b)

030/70

c)

360/80

d)

190/75

(For this question use annex 050-4377A rev. 10.11.2002) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Geneva -Stockholm at FL a)

260.

b)

-55°C

c)

-63°C

d)

-51°C

-47°C

478.)

(For this question use annex 050-4378A) On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart? a)

Tunis - Rome

b)

Copenhagen - Helsinki

c)

Hamburg - Oslo

d)

Rome - Frankfurt


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479.)

480.)

481.)

482.)

(For this question use annex 050-4379A) Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located? a)

FL 360

b)

FL 390

c)

FL 410

d)

FL 330

(For this question use annex 050-4380A) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? a)

Isolated thunderstorms

b)

Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight

c)

Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence

d)

CAT for the first half of the flight

(For this question use annex 050-4384A) Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL 310 above London ? a)

140 kt

b)

110 km/h

c)

300 kt

d)

90 kt

(For this question use annex 050-4385A) Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate CAT at FL 300? a)

Zurich - Athens

b)

Zurich - Stockholm

c)

Madrid - Bordeaux

d)

London - Zurich


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483.)

484.)

485.)

486.)

(For this question use annex 050-4386A) If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be? a)

Constantly in the stratosphere

b)

First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere

c)

Constantly in the troposphere

d)

In the stratosphere for part of time

(For this question use annex 050-4387A) Which of these statements is true? a)

Freezing level above London (EGLL) is higher than FL 065

b)

Local snow and severe aircraft icing can be expected over Germany

c)

Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 400 over Malaga (LEMG)

d)

The front to the east of Paris (LFPO) is moving south

(For this question use annex 050-4388A) On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 170? a)

Paris - Lisbon

b)

London - Stockholm

c)

Madrid - Vienna

d)

Zurich - Athens

(For this question use annex 050-4389A) This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? a)

TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 =

b)

TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =

c)

TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 =

d)

TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =


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487.)

488.)

489.)

In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS = 161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG = What do you conclude based on these observations? a)

Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station

b)

A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon

c)

A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon

d)

A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon

(For this question use annex 050-4391A) Which typical weather situation is shown by the design for the area of Central Europe ? a)

Easterly waves

b)

Westerly waves

c)

cold air pool

d)

Uniform pressure pattern

(For this question use annex 050-4392A) Which typical weather situation is shown by the design for northern Italy? a)

Warm southerly wind

b)

Easterly wind

c)

High pressure

d)

Westerly wind


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490.)

491.)

492.)

493.)

(For this question use annex 050-4393A) The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport (LSZH) ? a)

TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 =

b)

TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =

c)

TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =

d)

TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =

You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25°C. Which of the following statements is true? a)

In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5°C

b)

If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloud

c)

Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions

d)

Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions

Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if a)

the cold air is convectively unstable.

b)

the warm air is convectively stable.

c)

the warm air is convectively unstable.

d)

the cold air is convectively stable.

Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest a)

at the top of the friction layer.

b)

at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.

c)

at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.

d)

at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.


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494.)

495.)

496.)

497.)

On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching a)

QFE increases and QNH decreases.

b)

QFE decreases and QNH increases.

c)

QFE and QNH increase.

d)

QFE and QNH decrease.

The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects a)

western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July.

b)

the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year.

c)

western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on the time of the year.

d)

western Africa between 10°N and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July.

An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air a)

ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude.

b)

at the rear of the occlusion is less cold than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude.

c)

at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude.

d)

at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead.

The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is a)

the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA.

b)

the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese coastline.

c)

the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.

d)

the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.


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498.)

499.)

500.)

501.)

8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. What change in these clouds is likely at 1200 UTC in summer and winter? a)

Winter: SCT, base 3000 FT/AGL; summer: OVC, base 500 FT/AGL.

b)

Winter: OVC, base 500 FT/AGL; summer: SCT, base 3000 FT/AGL.

c)

Winter: BKN, base 2500 FT/AGL; summer: BKN, base 3500 FT/AGL.

d)

Winter: clear sky; summer: BKN CB, base 1500 FT/AGL.

What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC ? LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= a)

6 NM.

b)

10 km.

c)

4 km.

d)

6 km.

What is the lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich 1200 UTC ? LSZH 060900Z 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1113 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= a)

1000 FT.

b)

5000 FT.

c)

1500 FT.

d)

1500 m.

The following weather message EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 is a: a)

24 hour TAF.

b)

9 hour TAF.

c)

SPECI.

d)

METAR.


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502.)

503.)

504.)

505.)

In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the a)

QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.

b)

QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa.

c)

QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa.

d)

QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.

An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be a)

4194 FT.

b)

4278 FT.

c)

2922 FT.

d)

3006 FT.

In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is a)

967 hPa.

b)

948 hPa.

c)

942 hPa.

d)

961 hPa.

An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately a)

8600 FT.

b)

8350 FT.

c)

7650 FT.

d)

8000 FT.


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506.)

507.)

508.)

509.)

The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa. The reading on the altimeter on the ground will be: a)

11 FT.

b)

20 FT.

c)

560 FT.

d)

-10 FT.

A microburst phenomenon can arise in the a)

downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.

b)

updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.

c)

downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.

d)

updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage.

While approaching your destination aerodrome you receive the following message: RVR runway 23: 400m This information indicates the a)

visibility on runway 23.

b)

length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23.

c)

minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.

d)

portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service.

What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT" ? a)

5 - 7 oktas

b)

1 - 2 oktas

c)

1 - 4 oktas

d)

3 - 4 oktas


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510.)

511.)

512.)

513.)

An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of a)

cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail

b)

stratocumulus and its vertical development

c)

all clouds

d)

zones of precipitation, particularly liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity

The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about a)

34 000 FT

b)

32 000 FT

c)

30 000 FT

d)

39 000 FT

Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 1600 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa. Calvi: wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa. The ceilings are therefore: a)

1000 FT at Ajaccio and 500 FT at Calvi

b)


c)


d)


Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of: a)

surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression

b)

surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression

c)

surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression

d)

surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression


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514.)

515.)

516.)

517.)

The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs: a)

during the whole year in the southern hemisphere

b)

only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FT

c)

only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30 000 FT

d)

during the whole year in the northern hemisphere

All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as a)

severe

b)

light

c)

moderate

d)

extreme

Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause a)

increases and its temperature increases

b)

decreases and its temperature decreases

c)

increases and its temperature decreases

d)

decreases and its temperature increases

(For this question use annex 050-4725A) Considering the route indicated from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a a)

warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa.

b)

localised depression giving squally winds.

c)

SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast south of 15°N.

d)

NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust.


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518.)

519.)

520.)

521.)

522.)

The troposphere is the a)

boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere

b)

boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere

c)

part of the atmosphere below the tropopause

d)

part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere

The tropopause is a level at which a)

temperature ceases to fall with increasing height

b)

water vapour content is greatest

c)

pressure remains constant

d)

vertical currents are strongest

The tropopause is lower a)

over the equator than over the South Pole

b)

in summer than winter in moderate latitudes

c)

south of the equator than north of it

d)

over the North Pole than over the equator

The temperature at 10000 FT in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere is: a)

-5°C

b)

-35°C

c)

-20°C

d)

0°C

What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ? a)

Nitrogen

b)

Water vapour

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen


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523.)

524.)

525.)

526.)

527.)

The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about a)

11 km

b)

14 km

c)

16 km

d)

8 km

The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of a)

8 km and - 75°C over the poles

b)

8 km and -40°C over the equator

c)

16 km and -75°C over the equator

d)

16 km and -40°C over the poles

An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature a)

increases with height

b)

decreases with height less than 1°C/100m

c)

decreases with height more than 1°C/100m

d)

remains constant with height

An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature a)

remains constant with height

b)

decreases with height at a constant rate

c)

increases with height

d)

increases with height at a constant rate

An inversion is a layer of air which is a)


b)

conditionally stable

c)

absolutely unstable

d)

absolutely stable


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528.)

529.)

530.)

531.)

532.)

The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere a)

has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT

b)

varies with time

c)

has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m

d)

has a fixed value of 1°C/100m

The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of a)

0.65°C/100m

b)

2°C/1000FT

c)

0.5°C/100m

d)

1°C/100m

The dry adiabatic lapse rate a)

is greater during the night than during the day

b)

has a variable value

c)

is greater in summer than in winter

d)

has a constant fixed value

An air mass is called stable when a)

the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents

b)

the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height

c)

the pressure in a given area is constant

d)

the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears

In the ICAO Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is a)

0.5°C per 100m

b)

0.65°C per 100m

c)

0.6°C per 100m

d)

1°C per 100m


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533.)

534.)

535.)

536.)

537.)

Which statement is correct regarding the ICAO Standard Atmosphere ? a)

At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

b)

At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

c)

At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per 100m

d)

At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa

QNH is defined as a)

QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere

b)

QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere

c)

pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere

d)

pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere

Which of the following statements is true ? a)

QNH is always equal to QFE

b)

QNH is always higher than QFE

c)

QNH is always lower than QFE

d)

QNH can be equal to QFE

Which statement is true ? a)

QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time

b)

QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa

c)

QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPa

d)

QNH can be 1013.25 hPa only for a station at MSL

When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates a)

elevation while landing

b)

zero while landing

c)

elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere

d)

zero while landing only if conditions are as in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere


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538.)

539.)

540.)

541.)

542.)

Advection is: a)

the same as subsidence

b)

vertical motion of air

c)

the same as convection

d)

horizontal motion of air

Subsidence is: a)

the same as convection

b)

horizontal motion of air

c)

vertically upwards motion of air

d)

vertically downwards motion of air

The radiation of the sun heats a)

the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present

b)

the water vapour in the air of the troposphere

c)

the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere

d)

the air in the troposphere directly

The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when a)

the sky is overcast and the wind is weak

b)

the sky is clear and the wind is weak

c)

the sky is overcast and the wind is strong

d)

the sky is clear and the wind is strong

Rising air cools because a)

surrounding air is cooler at higher levels

b)

it becomes more moist

c)

it expands

d)

it contracts


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543.)

544.)

545.)

546.)

547.)

A layer can be a)

stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air

b)

unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air

c)

unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable

d)

stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air

In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being a)

absolutely stable

b)


c)

conditionally stable

d)

absolutely unstable

Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer? a)

The environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C/100m

b)

The layer is unstable for unsaturated air

c)

The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65°C/100m

d)

The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65°C/100m

The stability in a layer is increasing if a)

warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part

b)

warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part

c)

cold and dry air is advected in the upper part

d)

warm and moist air is advected in the lower part

Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct ? a)

Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels

b)

Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m

c)

Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m

d)

Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels


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548.)

549.)

550.)

551.)

552.)

When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the a)

wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere

b)

stability increases in the layer

c)

wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere

d)

stability decreases in the layer

Relative humidity a)

decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

b)

increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant

c)

is higher in warm air than in cool air

d)

is higher in cool air than in warm air

The dewpoint temperature a)

can not be equal to the air temperature

b)

is always higher than the air temperature

c)

is always lower than the air temperature

d)

can be equal to the air temperature

Relative humidity depends on a)

moisture content and temperature of the air

b)

moisture content of the air only

c)

moisture content and pressure of the air

d)

temperature of the air only

The dewpoint temperature a)

can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant

b)

can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant

c)

can not be lower than the air temperature

d)

can not be equal to the air temperature


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553.)

554.)

555.)

556.)

557.)

When water evaporates into unsaturated air a)

relative humidity is decreased

b)

relative humidity is not changed

c)

heat is released

d)

heat is absorbed

A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by a)

lowering the parcel to a lower level

b)

moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature

c)

lifting the parcel to a higher level

d)

moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature

A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by a)

lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant

b)

expanding it adiabatically

c)

compressing it adiabatically

d)

raising the temperature

Precipitation in the form of showers occurs from a)

clouds containing only ice crystals

b)

convective clouds

c)

stratified clouds

d)

cirro-type clouds

A super-cooled droplet is a)

a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below 0°C

b)

a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C

c)

a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent

d)

a water droplet that is mainly frozen


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558.)

559.)

560.)

561.)

562.)

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from a)

convective clouds with little or no turbulence

b)

convective clouds with moderate turbulence

c)

stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence

d)

stratiform clouds with severe turbulence

The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the a)

relative humidity

b)

air temperature

c)

dewpoint

d)

stability of the air

Convective clouds are formed a)

in summer during the day only

b)

in unstable atmosphere

c)

in mid-latitudes only

d)

in stable atmosphere

Altostratus clouds are classified as a)

low level clouds

b)

convective clouds

c)

medium level clouds

d)

high level clouds

The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by a)

subsidence

b)

convection

c)

a decrease in temperature

d)

a decrease in pressure


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563.)

564.)

565.)

566.)

567.)

A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitudes in summer contains a)

only ice crystals

b)

ice crystals and water droplets but never supercooled water droplets

c)

ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets

d)

only water droplets

Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of a)

the presence of warm air aloft

b)

instability in the atmosphere

c)

the presence of a low level inversion

d)

poor surface visibility

Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it a)

is heated by expansion

b)

reaches warmer layers

c)

is heated by compression

d)

loses water vapour

The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the a)

saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating

b)

warm air moving over a cold surface

c)

saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating

d)

reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds

Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from a)

1000 to 2000 FT

b)

500 to 1000 FT

c)

the surface to 6500 FT

d)

100 to 200 FT


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568.)

569.)

Which of the following are medium level clouds ? a)

All convective clouds

b)

Altostratus and altocumulus

c)

Cumulonimbus

d)

Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus

In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds a)

depends on the

b)

wind direction

c)

thickness of the unstable layer

d)

air pressure at the surface

pressure at different levels

570.)

571.)

572.)

Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a mountain range ? a)

Stratified clouds

b)

Areas of severe turbulence

c)

Showers and thunderstorms

d)

Inversions

The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by a)

temperature at surface and air pressure

b)

wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface

c)

temperature and dewpoint at the surface

d)

wind and dewpoint at the surface

Cumulus clouds are an indication for a)

the approach of a warm front

b)

up and downdrafts

c)

stability

d)

the approach of a cold front


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573.)

574.)

575.)

576.)

577.)

What type of cloud is being described ? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches. a)

Altostratus

b)

Cirrostratus

c)

Stratus

d)

Nimbostratus

The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates a)

subsidence in a large part of the troposphere

b)

stability in the higher troposphere

c)

instability in the middle troposphere

d)

strong convection at low height

The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the a)

presence of valley winds

b)

development of thermal lows

c)

presence of mountain waves

d)

risk of orographic thunderstorms

When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind a)

continually from land to water

b)

from the water in daytime and from the land at night

c)

continually from water to the land

d)

from the land in daytime and from the water at night

The greater the pressure gradient the a)

closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures

b)

closer the isobars and the stronger the wind

c)

further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind

d)

further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature


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578.)

579.)

580.)

581.)

582.)

When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be a)

strong

b)

light

c)

changing direction rapidly

d)

blowing perpendicular to the isobars

In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from a)

directly ahead

b)

right and behind

c)

about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead

d)

left and behind

In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows a)

from a low pressure area to a high pressure area

b)

counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area

c)

clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area

d)

counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area.

Wind is caused by a)

friction between the air and the ground

b)

the movements of fronts

c)

horizontal pressure differences

d)

the rotation of the earth

During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage, northern hemisphere), the wind normally a)

backs and increases

b)

veers and decreases

c)

veers and increases

d)

backs and decreases


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583.)

584.)

585.)

586.)

587.)

The Foehn wind is a a)

warm anabatic wind

b)

cold anabatic wind

c)

cold katabatic wind

d)

warm katabatic wind

The sea breeze is a wind from the sea a)

that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime

b)

occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime

c)

occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime

d)

blowing at night in mid-latitudes

Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night a)

in association with radiation inversions

b)

and early morning only in summer

c)

in unstable atmospheres

d)

and early morning only in winter

In an area of converging air a)

clouds can be formed

b)

stratified clouds can be dissolved

c)

clouds can not be formed

d)

convective clouds can be dissolved

You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct? a)

If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude

b)

If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude

c)

If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude

d)

If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude


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588.)

589.)

590.)

591.)

592.)

Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are a)

curved lines and friction is involved.

b)

curved lines and no friction is involved

c)

straight lines and friction is involved.

d)

straight lines and no friction is involved.

Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of a)

a high risk of thunderstorms

b)

smooth flying conditions below the cloud level

c)

turbulence at and below the cloud level

d)

poor visibility at surface

What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind? a)

They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles

b)

The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker.

c)

They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction

d)

The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker.

The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because a)

the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system

b)

the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the gradient force.

c)

the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force

d)

contour lines are lines that connect points with the same wind speed in the upper air

The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being the same) a)

always lower

b)

higher if curvature is anticyclonic

c)

higher if curvature is cyclonic

d)

always higher


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593.)

594.)

595.)

596.)

597.)

Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in a)

falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds

b)

rising pressure and likely formation of clouds

c)

falling pressure and likely formation of clouds

d)

rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds

The geostrophic wind depends on a)

geographic latitude, centripetal force, height

b)

centripetal force, height, pressure gradient

c)

density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude

d)

earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force

In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows a)

during the day down from the mountains

b)

at night down from the mountains

c)

during the day up from the valley

d)

at night up from the valley

Ahead of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind a)

backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer

b)

veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer

c)

veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer

d)

backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer

The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by a)

curvature of isobars

b)

friction

c)

slope of pressure surfaces

d)

horizontal temperature gradients


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598.)

599.)

600.)

601.)

602.)

The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on a)

wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature

b)

stability, wind speed, roughness of surface

c)

temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate

d)

roughness of surface, temperature, local time

During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the a)

surface wind speed tends to be highest at night

b)

surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon

c)

wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon

d)

angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoon

The Chinook is a a)

warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers

b)

downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes

c)

warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains

d)

very cold wind with blowing snow

The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the a)

curvature of isobars

b)

sine of latitude

c)

horizontal pressure gradient

d)

density of the air

A strong, dry and warm downslope wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a a)

Foehn

b)

Bora

c)

Mistral

d)

Scirocco


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603.)

604.)

605.)

606.)

607.)

A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is known as a a)

Scirocco

b)

Harmattan

c)

Pampero

d)

Khamsin

Geostrophic wind a)

is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force

b)

veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere

c)

always increases with increasing height

d)

is directly proportional to the density of the air

In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by a)

frictional forces

b)

the curvature of the isobars

c)

centripetal forces

d)

the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force

An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is a)

continuously veering

b)

initially backing, then veering

c)

continuously backing

d)

initially veering, then backing

When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be a)

unlimited visibility

b)

high scattered clouds

c)

clear and cool

d)

fog or low cloud


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608.)

609.)

610.)

611.)

612.)

The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce a)

good clear weather

b)

advection fog

c)

a cold front

d)

radiation fog

Advection fog can be formed when a)

cold moist air flows over warmer water

b)

warm moist air flows over a warmer surface

c)

cold moist air flows over a warmer surface

d)

warm moist air flows over a colder surface

Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air a)

with warm mass properties

b)

that is absolutely stable

c)

with cold mass properties

d)

that is stable

Frontal fog is most likely to occur a)

in rear of a warm front

b)

in winter in the early morning

c)

in advance of a warm front

d)

in summer in the early morning

Visibility is reduced by haze when a)

a light drizzle falls

b)

dust particles are trapped below an inversion

c)

a cold front just passed

d)

small water droplets are present


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613.)

614.)

615.)

616.)

617.)

Freezing fog exists if fog droplets a)

are frozen

b)

freeze when temperature falls below zero

c)

are freezing very rapidly

d)

are supercooled

Runway Visual Range (RVR) is a)

measured with ceilometers alongside the runway

b)

usually better than visibility

c)

reported when visibility is less than 2000m

d)

reported in AIRMET and METAR

Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog? a)

Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea

b)

Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea

c)

Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain

d)

Moist air over land during clear night with little wind

In a warm front occlusion a)

the cold air is lifted

b)

the warm front becomes a front aloft

c)

the warm front overtakes the cold front

d)

the warm air is lifted

The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These phenomena describe the approach of a a)

sea-breeze front

b)

warm front

c)

cold front

d)

trade wind front


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618.)

619.)

620.)

621.)

622.)

If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a a)

warm low

b)

warm high

c)

cold low

d)

cold high

A cold pool a)

develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems

b)

is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart

c)

occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream

d)

normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer

The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called a)

subsidence inversion

b)

trade wind inversion

c)

radiation inversion

d)

friction inversion

A blocking anticyclone in the northern hemisphere is a)

a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N

b)

a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia

c)

quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone

d)

situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions

The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in a)

February, March, April

b)

July, August, September

c)

December, January, February

d)

September, October, November


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623.)

624.)

625.)

626.)

Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true? a)

It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity

b)

It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in January

c)

There are frequent occurrences of CB

d)

It does not change its position over the oceans during the year

An easterly wave is a a)

disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough

b)

small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough

c)

wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough

d)

wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough

The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a a)

NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer

b)

SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer

c)

SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter

d)

NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter

What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart? a)

The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart

b)

The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart

c)

The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart

d)

The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart


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627.)

628.)

629.)

630.)

631.)

The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered a)

when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms

b)

in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt

c)

during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys

d)

near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.

Vertical wind shear is a)

a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance

b)

a horizontal shear of vertical wind

c)

a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distance

d)

a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height

The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is a)

cirrus

b)

stratocumulus

c)

cumulonimbus

d)

cumulus

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts? a)

Mature stage

b)

Tornado stage

c)

Dissipating stage

d)

Initial stage

What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm? a)

Frequent lightning

b)

Rain or hail at the surface

c)

Continuous updraft

d)

Roll cloud


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632.)

633.)

634.)

635.)

636.)

Large hail stones a)

only occur in frontal thunderstorms

b)

are entirely composed of clear ice

c)

are typically associated with severe thunderstorms

d)

only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes

Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ? a)

For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued

b)

Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast

c)

Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics

d)

For severe squall lines a TAF is issued

A gust front is a)

characterized by heavy lightning

b)

another name for a cold front

c)

formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm

d)

normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm

In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered ? a)

Temperate

b)

Tropical

c)

Polar

d)

Subtropical

A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface a)

has a diameter up to 4 km

b)

is always associated with thunderstorms

c)

has a life time of more than 30 minutes

d)

occurs only in tropical areas


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637.)

638.)

639.)

640.)

641.)

Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the a)

cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate

b)

cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate

c)

warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate

d)

warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate

With which type of cloud are tornadoes associated ? a)

Stratus

b)

Cumulus mediocris

c)

Nimbostratus

d)

Cumulonimbus

The diameter of a typical tornado is a)

100 to 150 metres

b)

in the order of 10 km

c)

about 2 to 6 km

d)

only a few metres

In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously? a)

Cumulus stage

b)

In all stages

c)

Dissipating stage

d)

Mature stage

Fallstreaks or virga are a)

gusts associated with a well developed Bora

b)

water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground

c)

strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks

d)

strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation


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642.)

643.)

644.)

645.)

646.)

At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds are in the order of a)

1-5 minutes and 4 km

b)


c)


d)


Supercooled droplets can occur in a)

precipitation but not in clouds

b)

clouds, fog and precipitation

c)

clouds but not in precipitation

d)

clouds but not in fog

During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze a)

rapidly and do not spread out

b)

slowly and do not spread out

c)

slowly and spread out

d)

rapidly and spread out

Supercooled droplets are always a)

small and at a temperature below freezing

b)

at a temperature below -60°C

c)

large and at a temperature below freezing

d)

at a temperature below freezing

Supercooled droplets can be encountered a)

only in winter at high altitude

b)

at any time of the year

c)

only in winter above 10000 FT

d)

in winter only in high clouds


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647.)

648.)

649.)

650.)

Clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are a)

of any size at temperatures below -35°C.

b)

small and freeze rapidly

c)

small and at a temperature just below freezing

d)

large and at a temperature just below freezing

During an adiabatic process heat is a)

added but the result is an overall loss

b)

added

c)

lost

d)

neither added nor lost

The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is a)

0.65°C

b)

0.5°C

c)

2°C

d)

1°C

The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately a)

0.6°C

b)

1°C

c)

0.35°C

d)

1.5°C


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651.)

652.)

653.)

654.)

The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 surface+15. Which of the following statements is correct ? a)

The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere.

b)

Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude.

c)

The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable

d)

The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT.

In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by a)

haze

b)

drizzle

c)

showers of rain or snow

d)

low stratus

A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile a)

intersects the 0°C isotherm twice

b)

indicates temperatures above 3°C

c)

coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate

d)

indicates temperatures below -40°C

A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in a)

SWC and SIGMET

b)

METAR and SIGMET

c)

TAF and METAR

d)

TAF and SIGMET


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655.)

656.)

657.)

658.)

659.)

Freezing precipitation occurs a)

only in the precipitation of a warm front

b)

mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow

c)

mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle

d)

only in the precipitation of a cold front

In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when a)

cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon

b)

the surface wind is strong and gusty

c)

a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area

d)

there is a low level inversion

The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because: a)

water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air

b)

water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun

c)

moist air is heavier than dry air

d)

heat is released during the condensation process

If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current of ascending unsaturated air is: a)

-15°C

b)

-5°C

c)

5°C

d)

0°C

An inversion is a)

a decrease of pressure with height

b)

an increase of pressure with height

c)

an increase of temperature with height

d)

a decrease of temperature with height


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660.)

661.)

662.)

663.)

664.)

In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called: a)

saturated adiabatic lapse rate

b)

environmental lapse rate

c)

dry adiabatic lapse rate

d)

normal lapse rate

Freezing fog consists of a)

supercooled water droplets

b)

frozen water droplets

c)

ice crystals

d)

frozen minute snow flakes

Clear ice is dangerous because it a)

spreads out and contains many air particles

b)

is not translucent and forms at the leading edges

c)

is translucent and only forms at the leading edges

d)

is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces

Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of a)

droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing

b)

freezing rain striking the aircraft

c)

water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface

d)

small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft

An air mass is unstable when a)

temperature and humidity are not constant

b)

pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area

c)

temperature increases with height

d)

an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height.


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665.)

666.)

667.)

668.)

669.)

An air mass is stable when a)

pressure is constant

b)

temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height

c)

the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m

d)

the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears.

On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced a)

during the early afternoon

b)

about midmorning

c)

during early morning hours before sunrise

d)

immediately after sunset

A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of a)

the passage of cold front

b)

nocturnal radiation

c)

advection fog

d)

cumulus clouds

Clear ice forms as a result of a)

supercooled droplets freezing on impact

b)

water vapour freezing to the aircraft

c)

supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process

d)

ice pellets splattering on the aircraft

From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be derived? a)

Dry adiabatic lapse rate

b)

Environmental lapse rate

c)

Pressure at the surface

d)

Surface temperature


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670.)

671.)

672.)

673.)

The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be a)

rime ice

b)

hoar frost

c)

clear ice

d)

cloudy ice

In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ? a)

Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL

b)

Temperature at the airfield

c)

Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield

d)

Elevation of the airfield

Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic? a)

They intensify rapidly after landfall

b)

Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter

c)

From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings

d)

The diameter is 50-500 m

Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is correct? a)

If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true altitude is increasing

b)


c)


d)



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674.)

675.)

676.)

677.)

678.)

Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct? a)

In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur

b)

In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur

c)

In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur

d)

In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur

Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced ? a)

A curved jet stream near a deep trough

b)

A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms

c)

A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer

d)

A straight jet stream near a low pressure area

An aircraft is flying at FL 180 in the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ? a)

It remains constant

b)

It decreases

c)

It increases

d)

Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered.

A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is a)

0.65°C per 100m

b)

between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m

c)

less than 0.65°C per 100m

d)

more than 1°C per 100m

A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is a)

neutral

b)

absolutely stable

c)

unstable

d)



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679.)

680.)

681.)

682.)

683.)

A layer in which the temperature increases with height is a)

absolutely stable

b)

neutral

c)

absolutely unstable

d)


A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m increasing altitude is a)

absolutely unstable

b)


c)

neutral for dry air

d)

absolutely stable

If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at the top of the layer is 8°C then this layer is a)

absolutely unstable

b)

neutral

c)

absolutely stable

d)


An inversion is a)

a layer that can be either stable or unstable

b)

an absolutely stable layer

c)

an unstable layer

d)

a conditionally unstable layer

Below a low level inversion visibility is often a)

very good at night

b)

very good in the early morning

c)

moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.

d)

moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange


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684.)

685.)

686.)

687.)

Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to a)

change in speed but not in direction

b)

change significantly in speed and direction

c)

experience little or no change in speed and direction

d)

change in direction but not in speed

Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant ? a)

There is a cross wind from the left

b)

There is no cross wind

c)

Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered

d)

There is a cross wind from the right

Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct ? a)

It and its surface projection lie in the warm air

b)

It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum

c)

It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core

d)

It lies in the cold air; the wind reverses direction at the height of the core

On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that a)

below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south

b)

above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south

c)

the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet

d)

the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet


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688.)

689.)

690.)

691.)

692.)

An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This means that for all points on the isohypse the a)

topography is 552 meters above MSL

b)

pressure is 552 hPa

c)

pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT

d)

topography is 552 decameters above MSL

Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct? a)

They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents

b)

They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans

c)

They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents

d)

They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans

In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds are a)

SW winds throughout the whole year

b)

NE trade winds

c)

NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer

d)

SE trade winds

Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the a)

SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January

b)

SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January

c)

SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January

d)

NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January

On the West coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows a)

the whole year from the South East

b)

the whole year from the North East

c)

for six month from the North West and for six month from the South East

d)

for six month from the North East and for six month from the South West


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693.)

694.)

695.)

696.)

697.)

The validity of a TAF is a)

stated in the TAF

b)

2 hours

c)

9 hours from the time of issue

d)

between 6 and 9 hours

ATIS information contains a)

meteorological and operational information

b)

operational information and if necessary meteorological information

c)

only operational information

d)

only meteorological information

If CAVOK is reported then a)

no clouds are present

b)

no low drifting snow is present

c)

low level wind shear has not been reported

d)

any CB's have a base above 5000 FT

Runway visual range can be reported in a)

a TAF

b)

a METAR

c)

a SIGMET

d)

both a TAF and a METAR

SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to a)

VFR operations only

b)

all aircraft

c)

heavy aircraft only

d)

light aircraft only


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698.)

699.)

700.)

701.)

702.)

The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to a)

true north

b)

magnetic north

c)

the 0-meridian

d)

grid north

A SPECI is a)

a warning for special weather phenomena

b)

an aviation routine weather report

c)

an aviation special weather report

d)

a forecast for special weather phenomena

On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of a)

1 hour

b)

0.5 hour

c)

3 hours

d)

2 hours

The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the a)

highest value of the A-, B- and C-position

b)

lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position

c)

value representative of the touchdown zone

d)

average value of the A-, B- and C-position

The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above a)

airfield level

b)

the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station

c)

the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation

d)

mean sea level


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703.)

704.)

705.)

706.)

707.)

The QNH is equal to the QFE if a)

T actual = T standard

b)

T actual > T standard

c)

T actual < T standard

d)

the elevation = 0

Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH? a)

QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m)

b)


c)


d)


The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if a)

the outside air temperature is standard for that height

b)

the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface

c)

the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

d)

standard atmospheric conditions occur

You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale? a)

0 FT

b)

4000 FT

c)

More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT

d)

Less than 0 FT

The troposphere a)

reaches the same height at all latitudes

b)

has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles

c)

contains all oxygen of the stratosphere

d)

is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere


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708.)

709.)

710.)

711.)

712.)

What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels? a)

Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots

b)

Direction relative to grid north and speed in km/h

c)

Direction relative to true north and speed in knots

d)

Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in km/h

A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to a)

sand/dust in the engines

b)

a very strong temperature inversion

c)

low relative humidity

d)

very pronounced downdrafts

Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG Which of the following statements is correct ? a)

RVR on runway 26R is increasing

b)

Visibility is reduced by water droplets

c)

There is a distinct change in RVR observed

d)

Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR

Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal a)

about 500 metres

b)

about 1000 metres

c)

about 200 metres

d)

tens of metres

In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated? a)

400 - 300 hPa

b)

600 - 500 hPa

c)

500 - 400 hPa

d)

300 - 200 hPa


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713.)

714.)

715.)

716.)

717.)

Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal a)

QNH

b)

QNE

c)

QFF

d)

QFE

The Bora is a a)

cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass

b)

cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers

c)

squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer

d)

cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts

The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is: a)

between 5 and 10 kt

b)

between 10 and 15 kt

c)

above 15 kt

d)

below 5 kt

When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located? a)

In the rotor zone

b)

Just above the cap cloud

c)

On the windward side of the mountain range

d)

Just below the tropopause

Which of the following quantities remains unchanged if unsaturated air is lifted until it reaches the lifting condensation level? a)

Maximum vapour pressure

b)

Maximum mixing ratio

c)

Mixing ratio

d)

Difference between temperature and dewpoint temperature


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718.)

719.)

720.)

721.)

722.)

Which of the following statements about lightnings and lightning strikes is correct? a)

The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory

b)

Compasses and electronics are always affected

c)

Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft

d)

Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage


Airframe icing can occur in clear air

b)

Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs

c)

Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour

d)

Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor clouds


At the equator horizontal motions do not induce any horizontal Coriolis force

b)

The Coriolis force is inversely proportional to the sine of latitude

c)

The Coriolis force is directed in the same sense at all latitudes

d)

In gradient wind the Coriolis force is in balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force and the frictional force


When BR is reported then the visibility is more than 1000 m but less than 8000 m

b)

VC denotes not at the aerodrome but not within 8 nm

c)

FG is reported only when visibility is reduced by water droplets or ice crystals to less than 1000 m

d)

HZ is reported only when visibility is reduced to 2000 m or less

Which statement is correct for microbursts ? a)

They occur in the tropics only

b)

Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings

c)

The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km

d)

They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain


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723.)

724.)

725.)

726.)

727.)

Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere? a)

If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected

b)

The jet streams are Easterly

c)

The wind veers at the passage of a cold front

d)

In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height

With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air? a)

Anvil stage

b)

Dissipating stage

c)

Initial stage

d)

Mature stage

During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening on top of the wings. The wings look clear though. The pilot should, under these conditions, appreciate that: a)

nothing particular will happen during take-off

b)

the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing with fluid of the correct type

c)

the aircraft will take off within the normal runway length

d)

there is no risk of ice accretion

The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively a)

1000 nautical miles, 150 nautical miles, 18000 feet

b)


c)


d)

1000 nautical miles, 5000 to 8000 feet, 30000 feet

During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the a)

wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon

b)

surface wind speed tends to be highest at night

c)

surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid afternoon

d)

angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the mid afternoon


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728.)

729.)

730.)

731.)

732.)

A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel a)

decreases 0.65°C per 100 m

b)

decreases 1°C per 100 m

c)

remains constant

d)

becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer

A cumulus congestus is a)

a cumulus with little vertical development

b)

a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ

c)

a cumulus that is of great vertical extent

d)

a remnant of a CB

Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain wave has been reported ? a)

There are always rotor clouds

b)

The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain tops

c)

The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains

d)

Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence at the level of these clouds

You are flying at FL 340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true altitude will a)

increase

b)

decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route

c)

increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route

d)

decrease

If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value, a)

the airport must be at MSL

b)

the 1013.25 hPa level must be at MSL

c)

the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA

d)

the conditions must be as in the ISA


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733.)

734.)

735.)

736.)

Which statement is correct for an absolutely unstable atmosphere? a)

clouds are mainly of the stratiform type

b)

visibility is good between showers

c)

the dry adiabatic lapse rate is more than 1°C / 100 m

d)

the environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C / 100 m

Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when a)

the wind speed is greater than 10 kt and the condensation level is situated just above the turbulent layer

b)

the wind speed is less than 10 kt and the air is heated by the earth's surface

c)

absolute instability exists at low level

d)

in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer

The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively a)

frontal fog and advection fog

b)

arctic smoke and frontal fog

c)

advection fog and radiation fog

d)

advection fog and steaming fog

The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is a)

greater over the water surface

b)

equal over both surfaces

c)

smaller over the water surface

d)

the same over both surfaces if the air pressure is the same


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737.)

738.)

739.)

740.)

A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The centre of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind a)

initially veers, then backs

b)

backs

c)

veers

d)

initially backs, then veers


The Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference of maximum vapour pressure over water and over ice of the same temperature

b)

The principle of the Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference in size of the cloud elements

c)

In the tropics stratiform precipitation does not occur

d)

At mid-latitudes the coalescense process is usually the initial process in the formation of precipitation

The pressure system indicated when, in a vertical cross section, the lower situated pressure surfaces bulge upward and the higher situated pressure surfaces bulge downward is a a)

warm low pressure area

b)

cold high pressure area

c)

warm high pressure area

d)

cold low pressure area

After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you take-off from an airfield at midlatitudes in the northern hemisphere an hour before sunrise. The field is not situated close to the coast. Though the pressure gradient is rather large, the easterly surface wind is weak. What do you expect? a)

A squally wind up to great heights

b)

A sudden strong increase in wind speed and strong veering of the wind a short time after take-off

c)

A little increase in wind speed and little veering of the wind up to a height of 5000 FT

d)

A large but gradual increase in wind speed and large but gradual veering of the wind up to a height of 5000 FT


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741.)

742.)

743.)

744.)

745.)

In mature Cb's the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature range: a)

0°C to -23°C

b)

-23°C to -40°C

c)

-40°C to -60°C

d)

+5°C to 0°C

Convective weather phenomena include a)

thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog

b)

thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikes

c)

hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind maximum

d)

heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large area

What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco? a)

Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea

b)

Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps

c)

High pressure area over Italy

d)

High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea

Which type of fog can NOT be formed over water? a)

Frontal fog

b)

Advection fog

c)

Radiation fog

d)

Arctic smoke

The stability in a layer increases by advection of a)

dry air in the upper part

b)

cold air in the lower part

c)

warm air in the lower part

d)

moist air in the lower part


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746.)

747.)

748.)

749.)

750.)

Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur ? a)

Caribbean Sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian Ocean east of Madagascar

b)

Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic Ocean at 20°S

c)

India, Arabic Sea, Atlantic Ocean at 2°S

d)

Caribbean Sea, Indian Ocean at 20°S, Pacific Ocean at 2°N

Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct? a)

Their eye can be well observed by weather satellites

b)

They move with a speed of at least 60 kt

c)

They intensify after landfall

d)

They move towards the equator

Cold air pools a)

can easily be recognized on synoptic surface charts

b)

only occur in winter

c)

only occur at mid-latitudes

d)

are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels

During the approach of Bombay ( 19°N - 73°E ) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 LT. Which of the following reports is most likely ? a)

30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR=

b)

02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG=

c)

25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG=

d)

05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000=

Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct? a)

Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs

b)

In the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies lower over the Poles than over the equator

c)

The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable

d)

The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80°C over the Poles and approximately -40°C over the equator


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751.)

752.)

753.)

754.)

755.)

What is the temperature at 20.000 FT in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere? a)

-30°C

b)

-20°C

c)

-25°C

d)

-15°C

Frontal fog can be formed by a)

evaporation of moisture at the surface

b)

cooling at night

c)

condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation

d)

condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling

Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe ? a)

Arctic air

b)

Equatorial air

c)

Tropical air

d)

Polar air

With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases with increasing a)

temperature

b)

relative humidity

c)

air pressure

d)

stability

For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is a)

600 metres

b)

160 metres

c)

120 metres

d)

540 metres


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756.)

757.)

758.)

759.)

In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ? a)

Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer.

b)

Flying in dense cirrus clouds.

c)

Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C.

d)

Flying in heavy drizzle.

Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets? a)

Altocumulus and altostratus.

b)

Stratus and cumulonimbus

c)

Altostratus and cirrocumulus

d)

Stratocumulus and cirrostratus

A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect: a)

A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing may occur in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets.

b)

Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.

c)

Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals

d)

Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds

Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct ? a)

Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C.

b)

A cloud consisting of both supercooled water droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing

c)

Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud.

d)

Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds.


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760.)

761.)

762.)

763.)

Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft ? a)

Relative humidity inside the cloud

b)

Cloud temperature and droplet size

c)

Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets

d)

Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil

Hoar frost is most likely to form when a)

flying in supercooled drizzle.

b)

taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion (sky clear).

c)

flying inside stratiform clouds.

d)

flying inside convective clouds.

Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ? a)

Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets.

b)

Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing

c)

Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.

d)

Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.

While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called: a)

Rime ice.

b)

Frost.

c)

Clear ice.

d)

Mixed ice.


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764.)

765.)

766.)

767.)

A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely a)

travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.

b)

freeze immediately and create rime ice.

c)

travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.

d)

freeze immediately and create clear ice.

What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe? a)

Typhoon.

b)

Bora.

c)

Mistral.

d)

Foehn.

What are the characteristics of the Bora ? a)

It is a warm and moist, south-westerly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation.

b)

It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland downwards to the Adriatic

c)

It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a north-westerly direction in the Mediterranean

d)

It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust.

The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front depression is normally lower in winter than in summer is that a)

the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows.

b)

the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.

c)

converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.

d)

the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter.


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768.)

769.)

770.)

771.)

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa? a)

It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in July

b)

It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.

c)

It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.

d)

It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in January

What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation? a)

South-east trade wind.

b)

Indian, maritime tropical air mass.

c)

South-west monsoon.

d)

Winter monsoon.

When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered ? a)

In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain.

b)

In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.

c)

In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.

d)

Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high.

What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region ? a)

Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July.

b)

Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year

c)

Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January.

d)

Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.


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772.)

773.)

774.)

A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure ? a)

Take-off is not possible under these conditions.

b)

Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.

c)

Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.

d)

Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.

The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers? a)

The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant.

b)

The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.

c)

The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.

d)

The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.

Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct? a)

An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a "Faradays cage", which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock.

b)

Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.

c)

Aircraft made by composite material can't conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.

d)

An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.


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775.)

776.)

777.)

778.)

779.)

Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60°N during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately a)

56 000 FT

b)

29 000 FT

c)

37 000 FT

d)

20 000 FT

Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50°N during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately a)

43 000 FT

b)

54 000 FT

c)

23 000 FT

d)

31 000 FT

Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause? a)

It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions

b)

It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions

c)

It is highest in mid-latitudes

d)

There is no significant difference with change of latitude

The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in a)

cumulus

b)

stratus

c)

cirrus

d)

freezing fog

Absolute instability is said to exist whenever the environmental lapse rate a)

is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate

b)

is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate

c)

is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate

d)

exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate


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780.)

781.)

782.)

783.)

Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is a)

greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate

b)

less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate

c)

less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate

d)

greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate

For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the a)

environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate

b)

dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than environmental lapse rate

c)

environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate

d)

environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate

In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate - the air mass is described as being a)

unstable

b)


c)

absolutely unstable

d)

stable

Surface-based temperature inversions are common during a)

cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet

b)

cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet

c)

cloud-free nights in winter when the ground is dry

d)

cloud-free days in summer when the ground is dry


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784.)

785.)

786.)

787.)

An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5500 FT from A (1050 FT/AMSL QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 FT/AMSL - QNH 1016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 968 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B will be a)

6796 FT

b)

6146 FT

c)

4854 FT

d)

7446 FT


5175 FT

b)

3135 FT

c)

4485 FT

d)

4815 FT


6474 FT

b)

6204 FT

c)

6876 FT

d)

4824 FT

An aircraft flying at FL 45 (OAT 6°C) obtains a reading of 1860 FT on its radio altimeter when flying over ground 3090 FT above mean sea level. What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point? a)

1030

b)

1013

c)

1042

d)

996


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788.)

789.)

790.)

791.)

For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be a)

greater at 60°N than at 30°N

b)

the same at all latitudes north or south of 15°

c)

greater at 30°N than at 60°N

d)

equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component

For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be a)

greatest at 60°N

b)

the same at all latitudes

c)

greatest at 40°N

d)

least at 50°N

Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is a)

greater than the geostrophic wind

b)

less than the geostrophic wind

c)

the same as the thermal component

d)

proportional only to the Coriolis force

In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer? a)

Azores, SE USA, SW Europe

b)

Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada

c)

Iceland, SW USA, Azores

d)

Greenland, Azores, NE Canada


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792.)

793.)

794.)

795.)

(For this question use annex 050-10720A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "x" is an area of a)

the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)

b)

travelling low pressure systems

c)

subtropical high pressure systems

d)

NE trade winds

(For this question use annex 050-10721A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone a)

v

b)

u

c)

w

d)

t

(For this question use annex 050-10722A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "t" is an area of a)

NE trade winds

b)


c)

SE trade winds

d)


(For this question use annex 050-10723A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zone a)

t and x

b)

s and y

c)

t only

d)

u and w


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796.)

797.)

798.)

799.)

(For this question use annex 050-10724A) Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of a)

subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of westerly waves

b)

Antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and Antarctica

c)

disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain

d)

equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over central Australia

(For this question use annex 050-10725A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "y" is an area of a)


b)


c)

SE trade winds

d)

NE trade winds

(For this question use annex 050-10726A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone a)

u

b)

w

c)

t

d)

v

(For this question use annex 050-10727A) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of a)

NE trade winds

b)

SW trade winds

c)

subtropical high pressure

d)

travelling depressions


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800.)

801.)

802.)

803.)

In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate a)

030/28

b)

340/20

c)

030/20

d)

340/28

In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be a)

075/12

b)

060/18

c)

045/12

d)

060/12

During summer an anticyclone covers the British Isles giving mainly clear skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an east/west direction. During the next twelve hours the surface wind is likely to a)

increase from the north by mid-morning becoming calm towards evening

b)

veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon

c)

back to NW and strengthen by mid-afternoon

d)

become southerly to south-westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon

During summer, a weak pressure gradient covers a coastal airfield in Eastern England resulting in mainly clear skies. The surface wind at dawn was calm. If the alignment of the coastline in the vicinity of the airfield is predominantly north/south, the surface wind is likely to become a)

easterly and then westerly by afternoon

b)

easterly to south-easterly and increase in velocity by afternoon

c)

westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon

d)

westerly and then southerly by evening


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804.)

805.)

806.)

807.)

The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the a)

polar air above the tropopause

b)

polar air below the tropopause

c)

tropical air below the tropopause

d)

tropical air above the tropical tropopause

Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located in the a)

polar air below the tropopause

b)

tropical air above the tropopause

c)

tropical air below the tropopause

d)

polar air above the tropopause

At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the South Pacific usually strongest? a)

There is no annual variation

b)

October

c)

July

d)

January

Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL 300 and FL 400 is most correct? a)

The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of greatest wind speed reduces in winter

b)

The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest speeds moves south in winter

c)

The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the winter. The latitude of the axis of greatest wind speed is also further north in summer than in winter

d)

The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summer


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808.)

809.)

810.)

811.)

In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located a)

above the tropopause at about 100 hPa

b)

below the tropopause at about 300 hPa

c)

above the tropopause at about 250 hPa

d)

below the tropopause at about 200 hPa

In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of wind shear is most likely to occur a)

5000 FT or more above the core

b)

on the tropical side of the core

c)

close to the core on the polar side

d)

well below the core

The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are a)

wind direction parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range - wind speed increasing with height - intense surface heating

b)

wind speed less than 15 kt and wind direction at right angles to mountains – intense radiation cooling at night particularly at the higher levels

c)

wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range - wind speed 30 kt and steadily increasing with height - an inversion just above the crest level with less stable air above and below

d)

wind direction parallel to the mountain range - wind speed increasing with height extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the tropopause

A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by a)

adiabatic cooling due to subsidence

b)

absorption of solar radiation in the stratus layer

c)

the release of latent heat due to precipitation

d)

insolation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level


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812.)

813.)

814.)

815.)

Advection fog is most likely to form when a)

a mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than 10 kt

b)

warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt

c)

cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kt

d)

cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs

Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog? a)

A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 kt

b)

Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 kt

c)

Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area

d)

A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kt

Which is true of advection fog? a)

It can appear suddenly by day or by night

b)

It usually forms by night and clears by day

c)

It develops slowly and clears fast

d)

It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled

The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud: a)

Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.

b)

Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.

c)

Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.

d)

Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.


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816.)

817.)

818.)

819.)

820.)

(For this question use annex 050-10748A) The air mass affecting position "A" is most likely to be a)

Polar Maritime

b)

Polar Continental

c)

Tropical Continental

d)

Tropical Maritime

(For this question use annex 050-10749A) The air mass affecting position "C" is most likely to be a)

Tropical Maritime

b)

Polar Maritime

c)


d)

Polar Continental

(For this question use annex 050-10750A) The air mass affecting position "S" is most likely to be a)

Tropical Continental and unstable

b)

Polar Maritime and stable

c)

Polar Maritime and unstable

d)

Tropical Maritime and stable

(For this question use annex 050-10751A) The air mass affecting position "P" is most likely to be a)


b)

Tropical Maritime

c)

Polar Maritime

d)

Polar Continental

(For this question use annex 050-10752A) The air mass affecting position "R" is most likely to be a)


b)

Polar Maritime

c)

Tropical Maritime

d)

Polar Continental


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821.)

822.)

823.)

824.)

825.)

Considering the North Atlantic between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of the polar front during winter extends from a)

Newfoundland to Iceland

b)

Iceland to Norway

c)

NE Canada to Portugal

d)

Florida to SW England

Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of the polar front during summer extends from a)

Newfoundland to N Scotland

b)

NE Canada to Iceland

c)

Florida to SW England

d)

Greenland to Spain

(For this question use annex 050-10758A) The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is a)

CS

b)

CB

c)

AS

d)

CI

(For this question use annex 050-10759A) The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is a)

CS

b)

AS

c)

CU

d)

CB

(For this question use annex 050-10760A) The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is a)

AS

b)

AC

c)

CB

d)

NS


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826.)

827.)

828.)

829.)

830.)

(For this question use annex 050-10762A) The occurrence of freezing rain at FL 60 is most likely in square a)

3C

b)

3B

c)

2D

d)

2A

(For this question use annex 050-10763A) During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is a)

CS

b)

CB

c)

AC

d)

ST

(For this question use annex 050-10765A) The weather most likely to be experienced at position A is a)

radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind

b)

cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to strong winds

c)

mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to strong winds

d)

clear skies, good visibility in light winds

(For this question use annex 050-10766A) The weather most likely to be experienced at position "S" is a)

overcast with drizzle and orographie fog

b)

small amounts of CU with generally good visibility

c)

increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rain

d)

scattered thunderstorms and good visibility

(For this question use annex 050-10768A) The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is a)

NS

b)

AS

c)

SC

d)

CS


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831.)

832.)

833.)

834.)

(For this question use annex 050-10769A) What flight conditions are most likely to be experienced in square 2B by an aircraft at FL 120? a)

VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions

b)

VMC below an overcast of AS and CS, generally smooth air

c)

IMC in NS with risk of light icing

d)

IMC in layers of AS and isolated CB risk of severe turbulence and icing

(For this question use annex 050-10770A) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the most likely weather conditions are a)

showers of rain and hail

b)

moderate continuous rain

c)

scattered AC base 2000 FT, good visibility

d)

low cloud, mist

(For this question use annex 050-10771A) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter are: a)

scattered SC and CU, good visibility

b)

prolonged periods of heavy rain and hail

c)

generally overcast, moderate continuous rain and risk of low level wind shear

d)

poor visibility in mist and drizzle

(For this question use annex 050-10772A) The weather most likely to be experienced near to position "A" is a)

frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation

b)

overcast layer cloud - rain later

c)

clear skies - radiation fog at night

d)

advection fog and drizzle


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835.)

836.)

837.)

838.)

839.)

(For this question use annex 050-10773A) The weather most likely to be experienced at position "B" is a)

advection fog and drizzle

b)

early morning fog lifting to low stratus later

c)

frequent showers of rain or snow

d)

poor visibility in anticyclonic circulation

(For this question use annex 050-10774A) The weather most likely to be experienced at position "B" is a)

scattered stratocumulus with good visibility

b)

mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle

c)

clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility

d)

frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers

(For this question use annex 050-10775A) The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position "Q" is a)

mainly clear skies with fog developing overnight

b)

mainly overcast with poor visibility

c)

showery with generally good visibility

d)

thundery showers particularly at night

(For this question use annex 050-10777A) The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is a)

CB

b)

SC

c)

NS

d)

CS

(For this question use annex 050-10778A) The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is a)

CS

b)

CB

c)

CU

d)

AS


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840.)

841.)

842.)

843.)

(For this question use annex 050-10779A) The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is a)

SC

b)

CB

c)

CS

d)

ST

What is signified if an occlusion is described as "cold"? a)

The air ahead of the associated warm front is less cold than the air behind the associated cold front

b)

On meeting the warm front, the cold front moves up the warm frontal surface

c)

It derives from a polar depression

d)

The air ahead of the associated warm front is colder than the air behind the associated cold front

Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over a)

USA

b)

Azores

c)

Iceland / Greenland

d)

Siberia

(For this question use annex 050-10784A) The pressure system at position "D" is a a)

trough of low pressure

b)

ridge of high pressure

c)

secondary low

d)

col


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844.)

845.)

846.)

847.)

Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are a)

Azores high and weak low over NE Canada

b)

Azores low and Icelandic high

c)

Scandinavian high and Azores high

d)

weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high

Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is a)

Siberia, Iceland, Canaries

b)

Greenland, Iberian peninsula

c)

Azores, Siberia

d)

NE Canada, Iceland

(For this question use annex 050-10788A) The arrows labelled "r" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from a)

December to April and are called cyclones

b)

June to October and are called hurricanes

c)

December to April and are called tornadoes

d)

June to October and are called typhoons

Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere? a)

It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary

b)

It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense

c)

It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary

d)

It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense


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848.)

849.)

850.)

851.)

Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans? a)

Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation

b)

Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea

c)

Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds long sea passage

d)

Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive wind shear with increase of height

(For this question use annex 050-10791A) The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from a)

May to November and are called cyclones

b)

May to November and are called hurricanes

c)

December to April and are called typhoons

d)

December to April and are called cyclones

(For this question use annex 050-10792A) The arrows labelled "t" represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from a)

June to October and are called hurricanes

b)

December to April and are called hurricanes

c)

June to October and are called tornadoes

d)

June to October and are called cyclones

(For this question use annex 050-10793A) The arrows labelled "u" represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from a)

January to March and are called willy-willies

b)

July to October and are called typhoons

c)

December to April and are called tornadoes

d)

May to July and are called cyclones


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852.)

853.)

854.)

855.)

When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia? a)

Not experienced at Darwin

b)

May to July

c)

December to April

d)

August to October

(For this question use annex 050-10795A) Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are most likely to be a)

light easterlies

b)

a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt

c)

a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt

d)

variable in direction and less than 30 kt

(For this question use annex 050-10797A) The dotted line designated "Z" represents the a)

mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January

b)

northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January

c)

northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during July

d)

mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July

(For this question use annex 050-10798A) The dotted line labelled "Y" represents the a)

axis of the equatorial jet stream during July

b)

axis of the subtropical jet stream during January

c)

mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January

d)

mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July


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856.)

857.)

858.)

859.)

860.)

(For this question use annex 050-10799A) What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July? a)

Generally clear skies - NW trade winds

b)

Wet and thundery due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)

c)

Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system

d)

Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan

(For this question use annex 050-10800A) Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the a)

NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ

b)

passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian ocean

c)

high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian gulf

d)

SW monsoon

(For this question use annex 050-10801A) Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the a)

NE monsoon

b)

SW monsoon

c)

SE monsoon

d)

NW monsoon

(For this question use annex 050-10803A) The weather most likely to be experienced at position "R" is a)

fine and warm at first - AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms

b)

early morning fog lifting to low stratus

c)

increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain

d)

overcast with drizzle and hill fog

Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? a)

Harmattan

b)

Bora

c)

Chinook

d)

Scirocco


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861.)

862.)

863.)

864.)

Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures a)

between 0°C and -17°C in AS

b)

between 0°C and -17°C in ST

c)

between 0°C and -23°C in large CU

d)

below -40°C in CB

The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the a)

relatively slow freezing of small supercooled water droplets and ice crystals

b)

relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets

c)

instantaneous freezing of large supercooled water droplets and snow crystals

d)

instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water droplets

What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL 170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -20°C? a)

Light - rime

b)

Severe - clear

c)

Moderate - clear

d)

Moderate - hoar frost

(For this question use annex 050-10810A) In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the occurrence of low level wind shear? a)

3 B and 3 C

b)

3 A and 3 B

c)

3 A and 3 C

d)

3 B and 3 D


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865.)

866.)

867.)

868.)

(For this question use annex 050-10811A) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situated near high ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3 B, a potential hazard exists in the form of a)

low level wind shear

b)

clear air turbulence (CAT)

c)

radiation fog

d)

rotor streaming

Assuming that an initial "trigger" force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are a)

high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate

b)

rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals

c)

high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer

d)

intense surface heating, anticyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing level

Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms? a)

Mountain waves

b)

Advection of warm air over a cold sea

c)

Advection of cold air over a warm sea

d)

Low level wind shear

Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below CB clouds situated a)

in continental interiors in middle latitudes

b)

over the sea in middle latitudes

c)

in continental interiors near the equator

d)

over the sea near the equator


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869.)

870.)

871.)

872.)

Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence? a)

Stratospheric inversions

b)

Areas of high level clear air turbulence

c)

Mountain waves

d)

Jet streams

Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves? a)

Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with headwind toward high ground

b)

Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground

c)

Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with tailwind toward high ground

d)

The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain waves

In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing waves are likely to be experienced a)

just above the lenticular cloud on the windward side

b)

between the troughs of the waves particularly 30 NM to 50 NM downwind and close to the tropopause

c)

on the windward side of the mountain just above the "cap" cloud

d)

in the vicinity of the "roll" cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the leeward side

(For this question use annex 050-10819A) The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is a)

an occlusion above the surface

b)

a cold front

c)

a warm front

d)

an occlusion on the surface


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873.)

874.)

875.)

876.)

The temperature at the surface is given as +15°C and at 4000 FT it is +9°C, the state of this layer is said to be: a)


b)

absolutely unstable

c)

stable

d)

unstable

Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by a)

an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levels

b)

gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at the lower levels

c)

terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night

d)

compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud

The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of a)

2°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT and will then increase at 0,3°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT

b)

2°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT after which it will remain constant to 104987 FT

c)

1,98°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT after which it remains constant to 65617 FT

d)

1,98°C per 1000 FT up to 36090 FT and will then rise at 0,3°C per 1000 FT up to 65617 FT when it will remain constant


6515 FT

b)

4625 FT

c)

5225 FT

d)

5555 FT


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877.)

878.)

879.)

880.)

For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars the gradient wind speed will be least at: a)

50°N in an anticyclone

b)

30°N with a cyclonic circulation

c)

30°N in an anticyclone

d)

50°N with a cyclonic circulation

When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface wind to a)

back and decrease

b)

veer and decrease

c)

back and increase

d)

veer and increase

Sea breezes are most likely to occur when a)

a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist

b)

a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist

c)

a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist

d)

slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures

From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves a)

towards the south and the speed decreases

b)

towards the north and the speed increases

c)

towards the north and the speed decreases

d)

towards the south and the speed increases


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881.)

882.)

883.)

884.)

Where is the projection of the polar front jet on the surface stream most likely to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression? a)

Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front

b)

50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front

c)

Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front

d)

300 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm front

The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is a)

well below the core

b)

on the tropical side of the core

c)

close to the core on the side facing the polar air

d)

5000 feet or more above the core

In addition to a stable layer of air over a substantial mountain range, the conditions most favourable to the development of standing waves are a)

significant moisture loss due to precipitation, rapid lowering of the tropopause in the area of the mountain range

b)

conditional instability, wind speed constant from a direction parallel to the mountain range

c)

steep dry adiabatic lapse rate, wind speed increasing and changing direction rapidly with increase in height

d)

wind speed excess of 20 kt at the surface and increasing with height, wind direction perpendicular to the general direction of the range

Dew point is defined as a)

the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure

b)

the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity

c)

the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat

d)

the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure


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885.)

886.)

887.)

888.)

889.)

The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as a)

sublimation

b)

radiation cooling

c)

supercooling

d)

supersaturation

When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1000 metres it is classified as a)

fog

b)

mist

c)

dust fog

d)

haze

An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by a)

stratiform cloud

b)

poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels

c)

cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation

d)

continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud

(For this question use annex 050-10839A) The air mass at position "X" is most likely to be a)


b)

Polar Maritime

c)

Tropical Maritime

d)

Polar Continental

(For this question use annex 050-10842A) The air mass type indicated by arrow number 4 is designated a)

Polar Maritime

b)

Tropical Maritime

c)

Polar Continental

d)



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890.)

891.)

892.)

893.)

(For this question use annex 050-10843A) The air mass affecting position "R" is most likely to be a)


b)

Tropical Maritime

c)

Polar Continental

d)

Polar Maritime

(For this question use annex 050-10844A) For an aircraft at FL 80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight conditions are a)

overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence with the possibility of thunderstorms

b)

high CI and CS type cloud, light turbulence and poor visibility

c)

below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitation

d)

IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulence with a risk of rime icing

(For this question use annex 050-10845A) For an aircraft at FL 40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of a)

clear ice accretion to the airframe

b)

severe downdrafts from subsiding air

c)

severe turbulence associated with CB

d)

severe turbulence and wind shear

(For this question use annex 050-10847A) What conditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square 3B? a)

6 - 8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzle

b)

Intermittent thunderstorms otherwise generally clear skies with good visibility

c)

Broken CU base 2000 FT, visibility more than 5 km, occasional showers of rain or snow

d)

Mainly overcast at 8000 FT, visibility less than 5 km in continuous moderate rain


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894.)

895.)

896.)

897.)

898.)

For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front will usually be indicated by a)

rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty

b)

rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and increasing

c)

a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and decreasing

d)

rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreases

(For this question use annex 050-10849A) When front "G" passes position "T" the surface wind should a)

veer and decrease

b)

back and decrease

c)

back and increase

d)

veer and increase

A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of a)

convergence and subsidence

b)

convergence and widespread ascent

c)

divergence and widespread ascent

d)

divergence and subsidence

Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression? a)

It forms over land in summer

b)

It forms over the ocean in summer

c)

It forms over land in winter

d)

It forms over the ocean in winter

A Foehn wind occurs on the a)

windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating

b)

leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side

c)

leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud

d)

windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow


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899.)

900.)

901.)

902.)

What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descend rapidly from FL 320 (temp. -45°C) to FL 60 in warm, moist clear air? a)

Light opaque rime and light clear ice

b)

Nil ice

c)

Light or moderate hoar frost

d)

Moderate opaque rime

Thunderstorms are often preceded by: a)

Altocumulus Lenticularis

b)

Nimbostratus

c)

Altocumulus Castellanus

d)

Altostratus

Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms? a)

Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds

b)

Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below the freezing level and orographic lifting

c)

Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below 0°C and considerable surface heating

d)

Environmental lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process

(For this question use annex 050-10870A) From indications shown on the chart, when front "S" passes position "V" the surface wind should a)

veer and remain more or less at the same speed

b)

veer and increase

c)

back and decrease

d)

back and remain more or less at the same speed


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903.)

904.)

905.)

906.)

(For this question use annex 050-10872A) By the time the front "Z" has passed point "Q" the surface wind will have a)

veered and decreased

b)

backed and decreased

c)

veered and increased

d)

backed and increased

(For this question use annex 050-10875A) At 40°N 20°W, the forecast wind at FL 390 is a)

060°/45 kt

b)

090°/45 kt

c)

270°/45 kt

d)

070°/30 kt

(For this question use annex 050-10876A) The front located from 10°W to 10°E is most likely to be a)

an active occlusion moving south

b)

an active warm front moving north

c)

a quasi-stationary front

d)

a cold front moving south

(For this question use annex 050-10879A) The front labelled "E" is a a)

warm front

b)

cold front

c)

warm occlusion

d)

cold occlusion


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907.)

908.)

909.)

910.)

What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC ? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK a)

Variable/15 to 25 kt

b)

Variable/05 kt

c)

Calm

d)

260°/10 kt

What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC ? KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK. a)

1300 feet

b)

1000 feet

c)

1500 feet

d)

3000 feet

What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC ? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK a)

9000 metres

b)

4000 metres

c)

1000 metres

d)

1600 metres

What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK a)

1500 feet

b)

5000 feet

c)

3000 feet

d)

500 feet


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911.)

912.)

913.)

914.)

What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC? MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2224 34010KT FEW025= a)

Heavy rain showers

b)

Continuous moderate rain

c)

Intermittent light rain

d)

Light drizzle

(For this question use annex 050-10891A) Considering the route between Valencia and Charleston at FL 340, the forecast mean temperature is a)

-40°C

b)

-50°C

c)

-45°C

d)

-55°C

(For this question use annex 050-10892A) For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to position "T". a)

19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004=

b)

18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000=

c)

27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004=

d)

24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002=

(For this question use annex 050-10896A) What is the average wind forecast for FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid? a)

280/30

b)

180/20

c)

240/25

d)

300/45


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915.)

916.)

917.)

918.)

(For this question use annex 050-10897A) What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 300 between Edinburgh and Madrid? a)

-12°C

b)

+2°C

c)

-2°C

d)

+12°C

What is the lowest forecast visibility that can be expected during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC ? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008 a)

10 kilometres or more

b)

8000 metres

c)

6000 metres

d)

Greater than 10 kilometres

What is the most likely forecast lowest cloud base that can be expected during an approach to Madrid into 2300 UTC ? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008 a)

2000 feet

b)

800 feet

c)

1500 feet

d)

3000 feet

(For this question use annex 050-10900A) The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL 390 is a)

270/50

b)

310/50

c)

320/70

d)

270/30


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919.)

920.)

921.)

922.)

(For this question use annex 050-10901A) What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL 390 between Madrid and Dhahran? a)

-5°C

b)

+5°C

c)

-1°C

d)

+2°C

What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC ? TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA= a)

4000 yards

b)

4 km

c)

10 km or more

d)

7 km

What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC ? TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000= a)

1200 metres

b)

10 km or more

c)

5 km

d)

6 km

What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC ? TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000= a)

1200 feet

b)

1400 feet

c)

900 feet

d)

1800 feet


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923.)

924.)

925.)

926.)

(For this question use annex 050-10916A) Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP) At 40°N 20°W, the temperature deviation from ISA at FL 390 is a)

+6°C

b)

-2°C

c)

0°C

d)

+2°C

(For this question use annex 050-10918A) Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP) Considering the route segment between 60°W and 70°W, at FL 390 the forecast mean temperature is a)

-55°C

b)

-58°C

c)

-61°C

d)

-52°C

What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston? MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025= a)

360° / 10 kt

b)

340° / 10 kt

c)

140° / 20 kt gusts 34 kt

d)

140° / 27 kt

What is the lowest probable cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston ? TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025= a)

1500 m

b)

1000 m

c)

1500 FT

d)

1000 FT


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927.)

928.)

929.)

930.)

What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= a)

1000 FT

b)

500 m

c)

1000 m

d)

500 FT

What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= a)

6 NM

b)

10 km

c)

8 NM

d)

8 km

What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC) ? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= a)

Radiation fog

b)

Roll cloud associated with standing waves

c)

Anabatic winds

d)

Low level wind shear

(For this question use annex 050-10934A) The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is a)

270/70

b)

240/90

c)

220/70

d)

245/55


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931.)

932.)

933.)

934.)

935.)

(For this question use annex 050-10935A) The mean temperature that may be expected to affect that segment of the route from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL 270 is a)

-38°C

b)

-30°C

c)

-42°C

d)

-34°C

(For this question use annex 050-10936A) At FL 300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind would be most likely? a)

225/25

b)

245/50

c)

265/25

d)

265/40

The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are: a)

25 or 35

b)

30 or 40

c)

20 or 30

d)

35 or 50

Isotachs are lines joining equal a)

horizontal wind speed gradients

b)

wind speed lapse rates

c)

sea-level pressures

d)

wind speeds

The visibility transmitted in a METAR is a)

the lowest observed in a 360° scan from the meteorological station.

b)

given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metres.

c)

measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the runway.

d)

the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360° scan at the horizon.


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936.)

937.)

938.)

939.)

940.)

Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter, is +3°C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be a)

slightly below +3°C.

b)

significantly above +3°C.

c)

significantly below 0°C.

d)

slightly above +3°C.

On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately a)

one hour before sunrise

b)

at the moment the sun rises

c)

half an hour before sunrise

d)

half an hour after sunrise

An isohypse (contour) a)

indicates the true altitude of a pressure level

b)

indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm

c)

is the longest slope line of a frontal surface

d)

is the limit between two air masses of different temperature

In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is a)

50%

b)

99%

c)

25%

d)

1%

Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates a)

the flight level.

b)

the height of the aircraft's wheels above the runway.

c)

the aircraft's altitude above the mean sea level.

d)

in standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevation.


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941.)

942.)

(For this question use annex 050-11849A) In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is a)

030°/30 kt (diagram A)

b)

030°/30 kt (diagram C)

c)

210°/30 kt (diagram B)

d)

210°/30 kt (diagram D)

On the Significant Weather Chart, we see the following indications:

SCT CU

100 060

The forecast charts for FL 050 and FL 100 both indicate a wind from 320°/15 kt. In flight at FL 055 over an area of plains (flat country) during the validity period of the Significant Weather Chart, we observe moderate turbulence. This turbulence is caused by

943.)

944.)

a)

a wind shear.

b)

the instability of the air mass between the surface and the top of Cumulus clouds.

c)

system waves.

d)

the surface radiation.

Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between a)

water vapour weight and humid air volume

b)

water vapour weight and dry air weight

c)

actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content

d)

dew point and air temperature

In mid-latitudes, the tops of Cumulus are often limited by a)

a layer of unstable air

b)

a temperature inversion

c)

a radiation inversion

d)

the tropopause


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945.)

946.)

947.)

948.)

949.)

Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm ? a)

Orographic lift

b)

Convection

c)

Convergence

d)

Ground radiation

From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ? a)

Cirrostratus.

b)

Cumulus

c)

Altostratus

d)

Stratus.

The lowest cloud type observed in Stratus fractus, and there is moderate continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is a)

the warm sector

b)

the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusion

c)

the high pressure area

d)

behind the cold front

For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are: a)

flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear ice formation

b)

flight into supercooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation

c)

flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0°C, resulting in rime ice formation

d)

flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation

The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in a)

icy clouds at high levels.

b)

unstable clouds at medium levels.

c)

supercooled precipitation.

d)

zones where the air temperature is below -15°C.


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950.)

951.)

952.)

Mountain waves should be expected a)

directly over the mountain chain

b)

on the downwind side of the mountain chain

c)

when instability is high

d)

on the upwind side of the mountain chain

When a front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity a)

decreases when it reaches the mountains.

b)

is not disturbed by the mountains.

c)

strengthens "upwind" of the mountains.

d)

ceases immediately.

On a Significant Weather Chart, we see the following for the area where a VFR-flight will take place:

BKN CU SC

100 023

If the flight is planned at FL 85, we can estimate that

953.)

a)

we will probably have to divert around some cumulus tops.

b)

we will fly just below the cloud base where the cloud cover is between 5 and 7 oktas.

c)

we will fly above a solid cloud cover.

d)

we will be in solid clouds and consequently a VFR flight is not possible.

(For this question use annex 050-11873A ) According to the extract of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction over the sea is approximately a)

140°

b)

110°

c)

220°

d)

310°


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954.)

955.)

956.)

957.)

958.)

The TAF weather messages are a)

hourly or semi-hourly weather observations

b)

landing forecasts of the "trend" type

c)

special weather observations

d)

airport forecasts

In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively: a)

BR = mist HZ = widespread dust

b)

BR = fog HZ = haze

c)

BR = mist HZ = haze

d)

BR = mist HZ = smoke

The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is: a)

-2°C/1000 FT

b)

-2,5°C/1000 FT

c)

-3°C/1000 FT

d)

-6,5°C/1000 FT

A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of a)

40 m/sec

b)

10 m/sec

c)

50 km/h

d)

10 km/h

You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2000 FT over a flat country area. An anticyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you, will be a)

from your left

b)

from ahead

c)

from your right

d)

from behind


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959.)

960.)

961.)

962.)

963.)

When flying at 5000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an anticyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be a)

a head wind.

b)

from the left.

c)

a tail wind.

d)

from the right.

When fog is reported, the visibility is below a)

1 km

b)

1.5 km

c)

0.8 km

d)

3 km

What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ? a)

Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.

b)

Altostratus and stratus.

c)

Towering cumulus and altostratus.

d)

Nimbostratus.

What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ? a)

Cumulus and cumulonimbus

b)

Nimbostratus

c)

Cumulus and altostratus

d)

Altostratus and stratus

(For this question use annex 050-11897A ) The diagram of the system in annex represents a a)

cold occlusion.

b)

warm front.

c)

warm occlusion.

d)

cold front.


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964.)

965.)

966.)

967.)

968.)

An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when: a)

the cold air ahead is lifted

b)

the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead

c)

the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead

d)

the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air

After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you encounter? a)

Smooth icing

b)

Hoar frost

c)

Rime ice

d)

Clear ice

An aircraft flies into supercooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0°C. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is a)

rime ice

b)

hoar frost

c)

clear ice

d)

granular frost

(For this question use annex 050-11907A ) On a Significant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means: a)

Wind from 230° true at 20 knots

b)

Wind from 230° magnetic at 20 knots

c)

Wind from 230° true at 10 miles per hour

d)

Wind from 230° magnetic at 10 miles per hour


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969.)

970.)

971.)

972.)

Refer to the following TAF message. LFxx 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214 24025KT 2000 RA BKN009 OVC070= At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be a)

between 900 and 1500 feet AMSL

b)

between 900 and 1500 feet AGL

c)

at 900 feet AGL

d)

at 1500 feet AGL

In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from a)

85 to more than 200 km

b)

50 to 85 km

c)

0 to 11 km

d)

11 to 50 km

At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is a)

cumulus mediocris.

b)

altocumulus lenticularis.

c)

cirrus.

d)

cirrostratus.

About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is essentially horizontal and at FL 30, and their tops at FL 150. These clouds are a)

broken Cumulus humilis

b)

Altocumulus castellanus

c)

towering Cumulus

d)

Stratocumulus


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973.)

974.)

975.)

976.)

977.)

The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if a)

the sky is overcast

b)

air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another

c)

the wind is strong

d)

the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate

An air mass acquires its basic properties a)

by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristics

b)

by the influence of jet streams

c)

by widespread thunderstorms

d)

in the westerlies of the mid-latitudes

(For this question use annex 050-11931A ) At Lyon (LFLY, N4545 E00500), at 1200 UTC, the sky is overcast with Stratocumulus and Altostratus and it is raining. Using the SWC in appendix, valid at 1200 UTC, we can estimate a weather improvement for Lyon at around a)

2100 UTC

b)

1215 UTC

c)

1330 UTC

d)

0300 UTC the following day

Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the ground are: a)

Stratocumulus.

b)

Altostratus.

c)

Stratus.

d)

Nimbostratus.

In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is a)

good and the precipitation is showers.

b)

good and the precipitation is steady rain.

c)

low and the precipitation is steady rain.

d)

low and the precipitation is showers.


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978.)

A METAR message is valid a)

at the time of observation

b)

for the hour following the observation

c)

for 9 hours

d)

for 2 hours


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050-10876 A

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

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C.A.T.

050-3017 A

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

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050-10738 A, 10739 A, 10796 A

050-10754 A

050-10755 A

050-10796 A

050-10854 A

050-10873 A, 10874 A

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


Lösungen 1: D (1 Pkt.)

40: C (2 Pkt.)

79: C (1 Pkt.)

2: C (1 Pkt.)

41: B (1 Pkt.)

80: D (1 Pkt.)

3: B (1 Pkt.)

42: A (1 Pkt.)

81: B (1 Pkt.)

4: B (2 Pkt.)

43: A (1 Pkt.)

82: B (1 Pkt.)

5: C (1 Pkt.)

44: A (1 Pkt.)

83: B (1 Pkt.)

6: D (1 Pkt.)

45: C (1 Pkt.)

84: D (1 Pkt.)

7: A (1 Pkt.)

46: B (1 Pkt.)

85: D (1 Pkt.)

8: B (1 Pkt.)

47: B (1 Pkt.)

86: B (1 Pkt.)

9: D (1 Pkt.)

48: B (1 Pkt.)

87: B (1 Pkt.)

10: A (1 Pkt.)

49: D (1 Pkt.)

88: D (1 Pkt.)

11: C (1 Pkt.)

50: B (1 Pkt.)

89: A (1 Pkt.)

12: D (1 Pkt.)

51: B (1 Pkt.)

90: C (1 Pkt.)

13: D (1 Pkt.)

52: B (1 Pkt.)

91: A (1 Pkt.)

14: C (1 Pkt.)

53: C (1 Pkt.)

92: C (1 Pkt.)

15: D (1 Pkt.)

54: D (1 Pkt.)

93: D (1 Pkt.)

16: A (2 Pkt.)

55: C (1 Pkt.)

94: D (1 Pkt.)

17: D (1 Pkt.)

56: D (1 Pkt.)

95: A (1 Pkt.)

18: B (2 Pkt.)

57: B (1 Pkt.)

96: A (1 Pkt.)

19: C (1 Pkt.)

58: A (1 Pkt.)

97: C (1 Pkt.)

20: A (1 Pkt.)

59: B (2 Pkt.)

98: D (1 Pkt.)

21: D (1 Pkt.)

60: D (1 Pkt.)

99: A (1 Pkt.)

22: B (1 Pkt.)

61: B (1 Pkt.)

100: B (1 Pkt.)

23: A (1 Pkt.)

62: C (1 Pkt.)

101: A (2 Pkt.)

24: A (1 Pkt.)

63: D (2 Pkt.)

102: B (1 Pkt.)

25: A (1 Pkt.)

64: C (1 Pkt.)

103: C (1 Pkt.)

26: D (1 Pkt.)

65: D (1 Pkt.)

104: C (1 Pkt.)

27: A (1 Pkt.)

66: B (1 Pkt.)

105: B (1 Pkt.)

28: C (1 Pkt.)

67: A (1 Pkt.)

106: A (1 Pkt.)

29: C (1 Pkt.)

68: C (1 Pkt.)

107: D (1 Pkt.)

30: A (1 Pkt.)

69: A (1 Pkt.)

108: B (2 Pkt.)

31: B (1 Pkt.)

70: D (1 Pkt.)

109: C (1 Pkt.)

32: A (1 Pkt.)

71: D (1 Pkt.)

110: B (1 Pkt.)

33: C (1 Pkt.)

72: D (1 Pkt.)

111: A (1 Pkt.)

34: B (1 Pkt.)

73: B (1 Pkt.)

112: A (1 Pkt.)

35: D (1 Pkt.)

74: C (1 Pkt.)

113: A (1 Pkt.)

36: D (1 Pkt.)

75: D (1 Pkt.)

114: C (1 Pkt.)

37: A (1 Pkt.)

76: B (1 Pkt.)

115: D (1 Pkt.)

38: C (1 Pkt.)

77: B (1 Pkt.)

116: D (1 Pkt.)

39: A (1 Pkt.)

78: C (1 Pkt.)

117: A (1 Pkt.)


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118: A (1 Pkt.)

159: B (1 Pkt.)

200: B (2 Pkt.)

119: A (1 Pkt.)

160: B (1 Pkt.)

201: D (2 Pkt.)

120: B (1 Pkt.)

161: C (1 Pkt.)

202: C (1 Pkt.)

121: C (1 Pkt.)

162: D (1 Pkt.)

203: D (1 Pkt.)

122: D (1 Pkt.)

163: A (1 Pkt.)

204: B (1 Pkt.)

123: A (1 Pkt.)

164: D (1 Pkt.)

205: D (1 Pkt.)

124: D (1 Pkt.)

165: C (2 Pkt.)

206: B (2 Pkt.)

125: D (1 Pkt.)

166: D (2 Pkt.)

207: D (2 Pkt.)

126: B (1 Pkt.)

167: B (1 Pkt.)

208: A (1 Pkt.)

127: B (1 Pkt.)

168: D (1 Pkt.)

209: C (1 Pkt.)

128: D (1 Pkt.)

169: B (1 Pkt.)

210: B (1 Pkt.)

129: D (1 Pkt.)

170: D (1 Pkt.)

211: C (1 Pkt.)

130: B (1 Pkt.)

171: A (1 Pkt.)

212: C (2 Pkt.)

131: C (1 Pkt.)

172: A (1 Pkt.)

213: C (1 Pkt.)

132: C (1 Pkt.)

173: B (1 Pkt.)

214: B (1 Pkt.)

133: C (1 Pkt.)

174: B (1 Pkt.)

215: A (2 Pkt.)

134: D (2 Pkt.)

175: D (1 Pkt.)

216: A (2 Pkt.)

135: A (1 Pkt.)

176: B (1 Pkt.)

217: A (1 Pkt.)

136: D (1 Pkt.)

177: D (2 Pkt.)

218: B (1 Pkt.)

137: C (1 Pkt.)

178: C (2 Pkt.)

219: C (1 Pkt.)

138: D (1 Pkt.)

179: A (2 Pkt.)

220: C (1 Pkt.)

139: A (1 Pkt.)

180: B (1 Pkt.)

221: B (1 Pkt.)

140: A (1 Pkt.)

181: C (2 Pkt.)

222: B (1 Pkt.)

141: D (1 Pkt.)

182: A (2 Pkt.)

223: B (2 Pkt.)

142: A (1 Pkt.)

183: A (2 Pkt.)

224: C (2 Pkt.)

143: A (1 Pkt.)

184: A (1 Pkt.)

225: B (1 Pkt.)

144: B (1 Pkt.)

185: B (1 Pkt.)

226: A (2 Pkt.)

145: B (1 Pkt.)

186: D (2 Pkt.)

227: D (1 Pkt.)

146: A (1 Pkt.)

187: B (2 Pkt.)

228: D (1 Pkt.)

147: A (1 Pkt.)

188: C (1 Pkt.)

229: A (1 Pkt.)

148: A (1 Pkt.)

189: B (2 Pkt.)

230: C (1 Pkt.)

149: D (1 Pkt.)

190: C (2 Pkt.)

231: C (1 Pkt.)

150: C (2 Pkt.)

191: A (2 Pkt.)

232: B (1 Pkt.)

151: D (1 Pkt.)

192: B (1 Pkt.)

233: D (1 Pkt.)

152: D (1 Pkt.)

193: B (2 Pkt.)

234: C (1 Pkt.)

153: A (1 Pkt.)

194: D (1 Pkt.)

235: C (2 Pkt.)

154: D (1 Pkt.)

195: A (2 Pkt.)

236: B (2 Pkt.)

155: D (1 Pkt.)

196: A (2 Pkt.)

237: C (3 Pkt.)

156: C (1 Pkt.)

197: B (1 Pkt.)

238: A (2 Pkt.)

157: C (1 Pkt.)

198: C (1 Pkt.)

239: C (3 Pkt.)

158: C (1 Pkt.)

199: A (2 Pkt.)

240: C (1 Pkt.)


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241: D (1 Pkt.)

282: A (2 Pkt.)

323: D (1 Pkt.)

242: B (1 Pkt.)

283: A (1 Pkt.)

324: A (1 Pkt.)

243: C (2 Pkt.)

284: C (1 Pkt.)

325: A (1 Pkt.)

244: D (1 Pkt.)

285: D (1 Pkt.)

326: B (1 Pkt.)

245: D (3 Pkt.)

286: C (1 Pkt.)

327: A (1 Pkt.)

246: D (1 Pkt.)

287: A (1 Pkt.)

328: D (1 Pkt.)

247: D (1 Pkt.)

288: A (1 Pkt.)

329: A (1 Pkt.)

248: A (1 Pkt.)

289: B (1 Pkt.)

330: D (1 Pkt.)

249: C (1 Pkt.)

290: C (1 Pkt.)

331: D (1 Pkt.)

250: C (1 Pkt.)

291: B (1 Pkt.)

332: C (1 Pkt.)

251: B (1 Pkt.)

292: B (2 Pkt.)

333: B (1 Pkt.)

252: C (1 Pkt.)

293: B (1 Pkt.)

334: C (1 Pkt.)

253: C (1 Pkt.)

294: A (1 Pkt.)

335: A (1 Pkt.)

254: B (1 Pkt.)

295: D (1 Pkt.)

336: D (2 Pkt.)

255: C (1 Pkt.)

296: C (1 Pkt.)

337: A (2 Pkt.)

256: C (1 Pkt.)

297: C (1 Pkt.)

338: A (2 Pkt.)

257: B (1 Pkt.)

298: C (1 Pkt.)

339: C (2 Pkt.)

258: A (1 Pkt.)

299: B (1 Pkt.)

340: D (1 Pkt.)

259: D (2 Pkt.)

300: B (1 Pkt.)

341: B (2 Pkt.)

260: C (1 Pkt.)

301: C (1 Pkt.)

342: D (2 Pkt.)

261: D (1 Pkt.)

302: B (1 Pkt.)

343: D (1 Pkt.)

262: B (1 Pkt.)

303: A (1 Pkt.)

344: C (1 Pkt.)

263: C (1 Pkt.)

304: C (2 Pkt.)

345: D (1 Pkt.)

264: A (1 Pkt.)

305: D (1 Pkt.)

346: D (1 Pkt.)

265: B (1 Pkt.)

306: D (1 Pkt.)

347: C (1 Pkt.)

266: A (1 Pkt.)

307: D (1 Pkt.)

348: D (1 Pkt.)

267: D (2 Pkt.)

308: C (1 Pkt.)

349: C (1 Pkt.)

268: B (1 Pkt.)

309: B (1 Pkt.)

350: D (2 Pkt.)

269: D (1 Pkt.)

310: D (2 Pkt.)

351: D (2 Pkt.)

270: B (1 Pkt.)

311: B (2 Pkt.)

352: C (2 Pkt.)

271: C (2 Pkt.)

312: B (1 Pkt.)

353: D (2 Pkt.)

272: A (1 Pkt.)

313: C (1 Pkt.)

354: B (2 Pkt.)

273: D (2 Pkt.)

314: A (1 Pkt.)

355: D (1 Pkt.)

274: B (1 Pkt.)

315: C (2 Pkt.)

356: A (2 Pkt.)

275: C (2 Pkt.)

316: D (1 Pkt.)

357: C (2 Pkt.)

276: A (2 Pkt.)

317: B (1 Pkt.)

358: B (2 Pkt.)

277: A (3 Pkt.)

318: B (1 Pkt.)

359: A (1 Pkt.)

278: B (1 Pkt.)

319: D (1 Pkt.)

360: A (1 Pkt.)

279: B (1 Pkt.)

320: C (1 Pkt.)

361: B (1 Pkt.)

280: B (1 Pkt.)

321: D (1 Pkt.)

362: D (2 Pkt.)

281: B (1 Pkt.)

322: D (1 Pkt.)

363: D (2 Pkt.)


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364: B (2 Pkt.)

405: D (1 Pkt.)

446: D (1 Pkt.)

365: D (2 Pkt.)

406: D (1 Pkt.)

447: A (1 Pkt.)

366: C (2 Pkt.)

407: A (1 Pkt.)

448: A (1 Pkt.)

367: C (2 Pkt.)

408: C (1 Pkt.)

449: D (1 Pkt.)

368: C (2 Pkt.)

409: B (1 Pkt.)

450: A (1 Pkt.)

369: D (1 Pkt.)

410: B (1 Pkt.)

451: B (1 Pkt.)

370: A (1 Pkt.)

411: D (2 Pkt.)

452: A (1 Pkt.)

371: B (1 Pkt.)

412: B (2 Pkt.)

453: D (3 Pkt.)

372: D (1 Pkt.)

413: C (2 Pkt.)

454: A (3 Pkt.)

373: C (1 Pkt.)

414: C (2 Pkt.)

455: B (1 Pkt.)

374: C (1 Pkt.)

415: D (1 Pkt.)

456: D (1 Pkt.)

375: C (1 Pkt.)

416: C (1 Pkt.)

457: D (3 Pkt.)

376: A (1 Pkt.)

417: D (1 Pkt.)

458: D (3 Pkt.)

377: C (1 Pkt.)

418: B (1 Pkt.)

459: A (3 Pkt.)

378: D (1 Pkt.)

419: B (2 Pkt.)

460: B (3 Pkt.)

379: B (1 Pkt.)

420: B (2 Pkt.)

461: D (2 Pkt.)

380: D (1 Pkt.)

421: A (2 Pkt.)

462: B (2 Pkt.)

381: C (1 Pkt.)

422: B (1 Pkt.)

463: C (2 Pkt.)

382: A (1 Pkt.)

423: A (1 Pkt.)

464: A (1 Pkt.)

383: B (1 Pkt.)

424: B (1 Pkt.)

465: D (2 Pkt.)

384: D (1 Pkt.)

425: A (1 Pkt.)

466: B (1 Pkt.)

385: C (2 Pkt.)

426: C (1 Pkt.)

467: D (1 Pkt.)

386: D (2 Pkt.)

427: A (1 Pkt.)

468: D (2 Pkt.)

387: D (1 Pkt.)

428: D (1 Pkt.)

469: A (1 Pkt.)

388: A (1 Pkt.)

429: D (1 Pkt.)

470: D (1 Pkt.)

389: A (1 Pkt.)

430: A (1 Pkt.)

471: A (2 Pkt.)

390: B (1 Pkt.)

431: A (1 Pkt.)

472: A (1 Pkt.)

391: B (1 Pkt.)

432: D (1 Pkt.)

473: C (1 Pkt.)

392: B (1 Pkt.)

433: C (1 Pkt.)

474: B (2 Pkt.)

393: D (1 Pkt.)

434: A (1 Pkt.)

475: C (1 Pkt.)

394: C (1 Pkt.)

435: C (1 Pkt.)

476: C (2 Pkt.)

395: C (1 Pkt.)

436: D (1 Pkt.)

477: D (1 Pkt.)

396: B (1 Pkt.)

437: C (1 Pkt.)

478: C (2 Pkt.)

397: B (1 Pkt.)

438: A (1 Pkt.)

479: A (1 Pkt.)

398: D (1 Pkt.)

439: A (1 Pkt.)

480: A (2 Pkt.)

399: D (1 Pkt.)

440: C (1 Pkt.)

481: D (1 Pkt.)

400: A (1 Pkt.)

441: D (1 Pkt.)

482: A (2 Pkt.)

401: A (1 Pkt.)

442: C (1 Pkt.)

483: A (2 Pkt.)

402: D (1 Pkt.)

443: D (1 Pkt.)

484: B (2 Pkt.)

403: C (1 Pkt.)

444: C (1 Pkt.)

485: B (2 Pkt.)

404: A (1 Pkt.)

445: D (1 Pkt.)

486: C (3 Pkt.)


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487: C (3 Pkt.)

528: B (1 Pkt.)

569: B (1 Pkt.)

488: B (1 Pkt.)

529: D (1 Pkt.)

570: A (1 Pkt.)

489: C (1 Pkt.)

530: D (1 Pkt.)

571: C (1 Pkt.)

490: D (3 Pkt.)

531: D (1 Pkt.)

572: B (1 Pkt.)

491: C (2 Pkt.)

532: B (1 Pkt.)

573: C (1 Pkt.)

492: C (1 Pkt.)

533: D (1 Pkt.)

574: C (1 Pkt.)

493: B (1 Pkt.)

534: B (1 Pkt.)

575: C (1 Pkt.)

494: D (1 Pkt.)

535: D (1 Pkt.)

576: B (1 Pkt.)

495: D (1 Pkt.)

536: C (1 Pkt.)

577: B (1 Pkt.)

496: B (2 Pkt.)

537: A (1 Pkt.)

578: A (1 Pkt.)

497: B (1 Pkt.)

538: D (1 Pkt.)

579: D (1 Pkt.)

498: B (2 Pkt.)

539: D (1 Pkt.)

580: B (1 Pkt.)

499: D (2 Pkt.)

540: C (1 Pkt.)

581: C (1 Pkt.)

500: C (2 Pkt.)

541: B (1 Pkt.)

582: D (1 Pkt.)

501: B (1 Pkt.)

542: C (1 Pkt.)

583: D (1 Pkt.)

502: B (1 Pkt.)

543: D (1 Pkt.)

584: B (1 Pkt.)

503: D (1 Pkt.)

544: D (1 Pkt.)

585: A (1 Pkt.)

504: C (1 Pkt.)

545: A (1 Pkt.)

586: A (1 Pkt.)

505: C (1 Pkt.)

546: A (1 Pkt.)

587: A (2 Pkt.)

506: B (1 Pkt.)

547: D (1 Pkt.)

588: D (1 Pkt.)

507: A (1 Pkt.)

548: B (1 Pkt.)

589: C (1 Pkt.)

508: B (1 Pkt.)

549: B (1 Pkt.)

590: D (1 Pkt.)

509: D (1 Pkt.)

550: D (1 Pkt.)

591: C (1 Pkt.)

510: D (1 Pkt.)

551: A (1 Pkt.)

592: B (1 Pkt.)

511: A (1 Pkt.)

552: B (1 Pkt.)

593: C (1 Pkt.)

512: B (2 Pkt.)

553: D (1 Pkt.)

594: C (1 Pkt.)

513: B (2 Pkt.)

554: C (1 Pkt.)

595: B (1 Pkt.)

514: B (1 Pkt.)

555: B (1 Pkt.)

596: C (1 Pkt.)

515: C (1 Pkt.)

556: B (1 Pkt.)

597: A (1 Pkt.)

516: D (1 Pkt.)

557: A (1 Pkt.)

598: B (1 Pkt.)

517: D (1 Pkt.)

558: C (1 Pkt.)

599: B (1 Pkt.)

518: C (1 Pkt.)

559: B (1 Pkt.)

600: C (1 Pkt.)

519: A (1 Pkt.)

560: B (1 Pkt.)

601: C (1 Pkt.)

520: D (1 Pkt.)

561: C (1 Pkt.)

602: A (1 Pkt.)

521: A (1 Pkt.)

562: A (1 Pkt.)

603: B (1 Pkt.)

522: B (1 Pkt.)

563: C (1 Pkt.)

604: A (1 Pkt.)

523: A (1 Pkt.)

564: B (1 Pkt.)

605: A (1 Pkt.)

524: C (1 Pkt.)

565: C (1 Pkt.)

606: C (1 Pkt.)

525: A (1 Pkt.)

566: C (1 Pkt.)

607: D (1 Pkt.)

526: A (1 Pkt.)

567: C (1 Pkt.)

608: D (1 Pkt.)

527: D (1 Pkt.)

568: B (1 Pkt.)

609: D (1 Pkt.)


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610: C (1 Pkt.)

651: B (2 Pkt.)

692: D (1 Pkt.)

611: C (1 Pkt.)

652: C (1 Pkt.)

693: A (1 Pkt.)

612: B (1 Pkt.)

653: A (1 Pkt.)

694: A (1 Pkt.)

613: D (1 Pkt.)

654: A (1 Pkt.)

695: B (1 Pkt.)

614: B (1 Pkt.)

655: C (1 Pkt.)

696: B (1 Pkt.)

615: D (1 Pkt.)

656: D (1 Pkt.)

697: B (1 Pkt.)

616: D (1 Pkt.)

657: D (1 Pkt.)

698: A (1 Pkt.)

617: B (1 Pkt.)

658: A (1 Pkt.)

699: C (1 Pkt.)

618: B (1 Pkt.)

659: C (1 Pkt.)

700: B (1 Pkt.)

619: B (1 Pkt.)

660: B (1 Pkt.)

701: C (1 Pkt.)

620: A (1 Pkt.)

661: A (1 Pkt.)

702: A (1 Pkt.)

621: A (1 Pkt.)

662: D (1 Pkt.)

703: D (1 Pkt.)

622: D (1 Pkt.)

663: C (1 Pkt.)

704: A (1 Pkt.)

623: C (1 Pkt.)

664: D (1 Pkt.)

705: D (1 Pkt.)

624: C (1 Pkt.)

665: D (1 Pkt.)

706: D (2 Pkt.)

625: C (1 Pkt.)

666: A (1 Pkt.)

707: B (1 Pkt.)

626: C (1 Pkt.)

667: B (1 Pkt.)

708: C (1 Pkt.)

627: A (2 Pkt.)

668: C (1 Pkt.)

709: B (1 Pkt.)

628: D (1 Pkt.)

669: B (1 Pkt.)

710: B (2 Pkt.)

629: C (1 Pkt.)

670: C (1 Pkt.)

711: D (1 Pkt.)

630: C (1 Pkt.)

671: D (1 Pkt.)

712: D (1 Pkt.)

631: C (1 Pkt.)

672: C (1 Pkt.)

713: C (1 Pkt.)

632: C (1 Pkt.)

673: B (2 Pkt.)

714: D (1 Pkt.)

633: A (1 Pkt.)

674: C (1 Pkt.)

715: D (1 Pkt.)

634: C (1 Pkt.)

675: A (1 Pkt.)

716: A (1 Pkt.)

635: B (1 Pkt.)

676: B (2 Pkt.)

717: C (1 Pkt.)

636: A (1 Pkt.)

677: D (1 Pkt.)

718: A (1 Pkt.)

637: D (1 Pkt.)

678: B (1 Pkt.)

719: A (1 Pkt.)

638: D (1 Pkt.)

679: A (1 Pkt.)

720: A (1 Pkt.)

639: A (1 Pkt.)

680: C (1 Pkt.)

721: C (1 Pkt.)

640: D (1 Pkt.)

681: A (1 Pkt.)

722: C (1 Pkt.)

641: B (1 Pkt.)

682: B (1 Pkt.)

723: D (2 Pkt.)

642: A (1 Pkt.)

683: D (1 Pkt.)

724: C (1 Pkt.)

643: B (1 Pkt.)

684: B (1 Pkt.)

725: B (2 Pkt.)

644: A (1 Pkt.)

685: B (2 Pkt.)

726: C (1 Pkt.)

645: D (1 Pkt.)

686: B (2 Pkt.)

727: C (1 Pkt.)

646: B (1 Pkt.)

687: D (2 Pkt.)

728: B (1 Pkt.)

647: D (1 Pkt.)

688: D (1 Pkt.)

729: C (1 Pkt.)

648: D (1 Pkt.)

689: D (1 Pkt.)

730: D (1 Pkt.)

649: D (1 Pkt.)

690: B (1 Pkt.)

731: A (2 Pkt.)

650: A (1 Pkt.)

691: A (1 Pkt.)

732: A (1 Pkt.)


page: 225

C.A.T.

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733: B (1 Pkt.)

774: B (1 Pkt.)

815: C (1 Pkt.)

734: D (1 Pkt.)

775: B (1 Pkt.)

816: A (1 Pkt.)

735: A (1 Pkt.)

776: D (1 Pkt.)

817: A (1 Pkt.)

736: A (1 Pkt.)

777: A (1 Pkt.)

818: D (1 Pkt.)

737: B (1 Pkt.)

778: C (1 Pkt.)

819: D (1 Pkt.)

738: A (1 Pkt.)

779: D (1 Pkt.)

820: A (1 Pkt.)

739: B (1 Pkt.)

780: A (1 Pkt.)

821: D (1 Pkt.)

740: B (2 Pkt.)

781: C (1 Pkt.)

822: A (1 Pkt.)

741: A (1 Pkt.)

782: B (1 Pkt.)

823: D (1 Pkt.)

742: B (1 Pkt.)

783: C (1 Pkt.)

824: B (1 Pkt.)

743: A (1 Pkt.)

784: B (2 Pkt.)

825: D (1 Pkt.)

744: C (1 Pkt.)

785: C (2 Pkt.)

826: A (1 Pkt.)

745: B (1 Pkt.)

786: D (2 Pkt.)

827: B (1 Pkt.)

746: A (1 Pkt.)

787: A (3 Pkt.)

828: C (1 Pkt.)

747: A (1 Pkt.)

788: C (1 Pkt.)

829: A (1 Pkt.)

748: D (1 Pkt.)

789: C (1 Pkt.)

830: C (1 Pkt.)

749: C (2 Pkt.)

790: A (1 Pkt.)

831: A (1 Pkt.)

750: C (1 Pkt.)

791: A (1 Pkt.)

832: D (1 Pkt.)

751: C (1 Pkt.)

792: C (1 Pkt.)

833: D (1 Pkt.)

752: C (1 Pkt.)

793: C (1 Pkt.)

834: A (1 Pkt.)

753: B (1 Pkt.)

794: D (1 Pkt.)

835: C (1 Pkt.)

754: C (1 Pkt.)

795: B (1 Pkt.)

836: D (1 Pkt.)

755: B (1 Pkt.)

796: A (1 Pkt.)

837: C (1 Pkt.)

756: C (1 Pkt.)

797: B (1 Pkt.)

838: D (1 Pkt.)

757: A (1 Pkt.)

798: A (1 Pkt.)

839: D (1 Pkt.)

758: A (2 Pkt.)

799: A (1 Pkt.)

840: B (1 Pkt.)

759: B (1 Pkt.)

800: B (1 Pkt.)

841: A (1 Pkt.)

760: B (1 Pkt.)

801: C (1 Pkt.)

842: C (1 Pkt.)

761: B (1 Pkt.)

802: D (1 Pkt.)

843: D (1 Pkt.)

762: C (1 Pkt.)

803: B (1 Pkt.)

844: A (1 Pkt.)

763: A (1 Pkt.)

804: C (1 Pkt.)

845: C (1 Pkt.)

764: B (1 Pkt.)

805: C (1 Pkt.)

846: A (1 Pkt.)

765: C (1 Pkt.)

806: C (1 Pkt.)

847: B (1 Pkt.)

766: B (1 Pkt.)

807: D (1 Pkt.)

848: C (1 Pkt.)

767: D (1 Pkt.)

808: D (1 Pkt.)

849: A (1 Pkt.)

768: A (1 Pkt.)

809: C (1 Pkt.)

850: D (1 Pkt.)

769: C (1 Pkt.)

810: C (1 Pkt.)

851: B (1 Pkt.)

770: B (1 Pkt.)

811: D (1 Pkt.)

852: C (1 Pkt.)

771: D (1 Pkt.)

812: A (1 Pkt.)

853: C (1 Pkt.)

772: B (2 Pkt.)

813: D (1 Pkt.)

854: D (1 Pkt.)

773: A (2 Pkt.)

814: A (1 Pkt.)

855: C (1 Pkt.)


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856: B (1 Pkt.)

897: A (1 Pkt.)

938: A (1 Pkt.)

857: D (1 Pkt.)

898: C (1 Pkt.)

939: A (1 Pkt.)

858: A (1 Pkt.)

899: C (1 Pkt.)

940: D (1 Pkt.)

859: A (1 Pkt.)

900: C (1 Pkt.)

941: A (1 Pkt.)

860: C (1 Pkt.)

901: D (1 Pkt.)

942: B (1 Pkt.)

861: C (1 Pkt.)

902: A (1 Pkt.)

943: C (1 Pkt.)

862: B (1 Pkt.)

903: C (1 Pkt.)

944: B (1 Pkt.)

863: A (1 Pkt.)

904: B (1 Pkt.)

945: D (1 Pkt.)

864: C (1 Pkt.)

905: C (1 Pkt.)

946: D (1 Pkt.)

865: A (1 Pkt.)

906: B (1 Pkt.)

947: B (1 Pkt.)

866: C (1 Pkt.)

907: D (1 Pkt.)

948: D (2 Pkt.)

867: C (1 Pkt.)

908: B (1 Pkt.)

949: C (1 Pkt.)

868: A (1 Pkt.)

909: A (1 Pkt.)

950: B (1 Pkt.)

869: C (1 Pkt.)

910: B (1 Pkt.)

951: C (1 Pkt.)

870: C (1 Pkt.)

911: A (1 Pkt.)

952: A (1 Pkt.)

871: D (1 Pkt.)

912: B (2 Pkt.)

953: A (1 Pkt.)

872: D (1 Pkt.)

913: A (2 Pkt.)

954: D (1 Pkt.)

873: C (1 Pkt.)

914: A (2 Pkt.)

955: C (1 Pkt.)

874: C (1 Pkt.)

915: C (1 Pkt.)

956: A (1 Pkt.)

875: C (1 Pkt.)

916: A (2 Pkt.)

957: B (1 Pkt.)

876: B (2 Pkt.)

917: C (2 Pkt.)

958: C (1 Pkt.)

877: D (1 Pkt.)

918: A (2 Pkt.)

959: A (1 Pkt.)

878: A (1 Pkt.)

919: C (2 Pkt.)

960: A (1 Pkt.)

879: D (1 Pkt.)

920: B (2 Pkt.)

961: A (1 Pkt.)

880: D (1 Pkt.)

921: C (2 Pkt.)

962: A (1 Pkt.)

881: B (1 Pkt.)

922: C (1 Pkt.)

963: C (1 Pkt.)

882: C (1 Pkt.)

923: C (1 Pkt.)

964: B (1 Pkt.)

883: D (1 Pkt.)

924: A (1 Pkt.)

965: B (1 Pkt.)

884: A (1 Pkt.)

925: C (1 Pkt.)

966: C (1 Pkt.)

885: A (1 Pkt.)

926: D (2 Pkt.)

967: A (1 Pkt.)

886: A (1 Pkt.)

927: D (2 Pkt.)

968: A (1 Pkt.)

887: C (1 Pkt.)

928: D (2 Pkt.)

969: C (1 Pkt.)

888: C (1 Pkt.)

929: D (2 Pkt.)

970: D (1 Pkt.)

889: B (1 Pkt.)

930: C (2 Pkt.)

971: B (1 Pkt.)

890: D (1 Pkt.)

931: A (2 Pkt.)

972: C (1 Pkt.)

891: C (1 Pkt.)

932: B (2 Pkt.)

973: B (1 Pkt.)

892: A (1 Pkt.)

933: B (1 Pkt.)

974: A (1 Pkt.)

893: A (1 Pkt.)

934: D (1 Pkt.)

975: A (2 Pkt.)

894: D (1 Pkt.)

935: A (1 Pkt.)

976: A (1 Pkt.)

895: D (1 Pkt.)

936: A (1 Pkt.)

977: A (1 Pkt.)

896: B (1 Pkt.)

937: D (1 Pkt.)

978: A (1 Pkt.)


page: 227

C.A.T.

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Questionnaire 061-ANAV

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are? a)

53°20'N 169°22W

b)

45°00'N 172°38'E

c)

53°20'N 172°38'E

d)

45°00'N 169°22W

The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, is: a)

5.2°

b)

15.6°

c)

9°

d)

7.8°

Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°W What will be the approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude 025°W? a)

060°11'S

b)

060°06'S

c)

059°49'S

d)

060°00'S

What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt? a)

1 HR 45 MIN

b)

5 HR 00 MIN

c)

2 HR 30 MIN

d)

1 HR 15 MIN


page: 1

C.A.T. 005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft is following the 45°N parallel of latitude. The track followed is a: a)

constant-heading track

b)

rhumb line

c)

great circle

d)

constant-drift track

Given: value for the flattening of the Earth is 1/298. Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis of the poles? a)

6 378.4

b)

6 356.9

c)

6 367.0

d)

6 399.9

Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E. Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of 225°(T). The coordinates of position B are: a)

01°11'N 131°11'E

b)

01°11'N 128°49'E

c)

01°11'S 128°49'E

d)

01°11'S 131°11'E

In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N, 050°00'W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly: a)

a rhumb line track

b)

a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart

c)

the great-circle route

d)

the constant average drift route


page: 2

C.A.T. 009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

JAR-ATPL


The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N, 010°00'W) and position B (48°30'N, 015°00'W) is approximately: a)

330

b)

300

c)

345

d)

315

The diameter of the Earth is approximately: a)

18 500 km

b)

12 700 km

c)

6 350 km

d)

40 000 km

The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at about: a)

90° North and South

b)


c)

0° North and South (equator)

d)


The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the: a)

mean scale between pole and equator

b)

scale at the standard parallels

c)

scale at the equator

d)

mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone

The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a: a)

Gnomonic projection

b)

Stereographical projection

c)

Lambert conformal projection

d)

Direct Mercator projection


page: 3

C.A.T. 014.)

015.)

016.)

017.)

JAR-ATPL


A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1: 3 704 000. What is the scale at latitude 60° S? a)

1: 3 208 000

b)

1: 1 852 000

c)

1: 7 408 000

d)

1: 185 200

The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the chart is 1:1 600 000. The actual distance between these two point is approximately: a)

3.69 NM

b)

36.30 NM

c)

67.20 NM

d)

370.00 NM

The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20' N. The constant of the cone for this chart is: a)

0.60

b)

0.39

c)

0.42

d)

0.92

On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians: a)

is zero throughout the chart

b)

equals earth convergency at the standard parallels

c)

is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin

d)

varies as the secant of the latitude


page: 4

C.A.T. 018.)

019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

JAR-ATPL


A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The chart scale is: a)

1: 3 000 000

b)

1: 5 000 000

c)

1: 6 000 000

d)

1: 1 000 000

On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is approximately: a)

330° (T)

b)

030° (T)

c)

150° (T)

d)

210° (T)

On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a: a)

straight line

b)

curve convex to the nearer pole

c)

spiral curve

d)

small circle concave to the nearer pole

The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is: a)

10 800 NM

b)

5 400 NM

c)

10 800 km

d)

2 700 NM

On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are: a)

curves concave to the pole of projection

b)

straight lines regardless of distance

c)

curves concave to the parallel of origin

d)

straight lines within the standard parallels


page: 5

C.A.T. 023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

JAR-ATPL


On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a certain length represents 70 NM. At latitude 30° North, the same length represents approximately: a)

70 NM

b)

57 NM

c)

86 NM

d)

81 NM

Given: Position A 45°N, ?°E Position B 45°N, 45°15'E Distance A-B = 280 NM B is to the East of A Required: longitude of position A? a)

40°33'E

b)

49°57'E

c)

38°39'E

d)

51°51'E

On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S 065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W). The true course on departure from position A is approximately: a)

225°

b)

250°

c)

315°

d)

135°

On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N is 8 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately: a)

1: 3 500 000

b)

1: 7 000 000

c)

1: 4 750 000

d)

1: 6 000 000


page: 6

C.A.T. 027.)

028.)

029.)

030.)

JAR-ATPL


Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80°N 000°) and B (70°N 102°W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035°W. At point B, the true course is: a)

203°

b)

247°

c)

023°

d)

305°

How does the scale vary in a Direct Mercator chart? a)

The scale decreases with increasing distance from the Equator.

b)

The scale increases south of the Equator and decreases north of the Equator.

c)

The scale increases with increasing distance from the Equator.

d)

The scale is constant.

Given: Magnetic heading 311° Drift angle 10° left Relative bearing of NDB 270° What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft? a)

211°

b)

208°

c)

221°

d)

180°

Given the following: True track: 192° Magnetic variation: 7°E Drift angle: 5° left What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track? a)

180°

b)

190°

c)

194°

d)

204°


page: 7

C.A.T. 031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

JAR-ATPL


Given the following: Magnetic heading: 060° Magnetic variation: 8°W Drift angle: 4° right What is the true track? a)

072°

b)

064°

c)

048°

d)

056°

An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are: a)

225 kt, 7° left

b)

192 kt, 7° left

c)

192 kt, 7° right

d)

200 kt, 3.5° right

Given: FL 350, Mach 0.80, OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound (LSS)? a)

461 kt , LSS 296 kt

b)

461 kt , LSS 576 kt

c)

237 kt, LSS 296 kt

d)

490 kt, LSS 461 kt

Given: Magnetic heading = 255° VAR = 40°W GS = 375 kt W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt Calculate the drift angle? a)

6° right

b)

6° left

c)

3° left

d)

9° left


page: 8

C.A.T. 035.)

036.)

037.)

038.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: True Heading = 180° TAS = 500 kt W/V 225° / 100 kt Calculate the GS? a)

435 kt

b)

600 kt

c)

450 kt

d)

535 kt

Given: True heading = 310° TAS = 200 kt GS = 176 kt Drift angle 7° right. Calculate the W/V? a)

270° / 33 kt

b)

090° / 33 kt

c)

360° / 33 kt

d)

180° / 33 kt

If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of: a)

550 kt

b)

960 kt

c)

480 kt

d)

240 kt

Given: True Heading = 090° TAS = 180 kt GS = 180 kt Drift 5° right Calculate the W/V? a)

185° / 15 kt

b)

355° / 15 kt

c)

005° / 15 kt

d)

190° / 15 kt


page: 9

C.A.T. 039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: True Heading = 090° TAS = 200 kt W/V = 220° / 30 kt. Calculate the GS? a)

230 kt

b)

180 kt

c)

220 kt

d)

200 kt

An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°. The W/V is 045° / 50kt. How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour? a)

88 NM

b)

176 NM

c)

56 NM

d)

85 NM

The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System: GS 520 kt, True HDG 090°, Drift angle 5° right, TAS 480 kt. SAT (static air temperature) -51°C. The W/V being experienced is: a)

220° / 60 kt

b)

225° / 60 kt

c)

320° / 60 kt

d)

325° / 60 kt

The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°). What is the cross-wind component? a)

24 kt

b)

30 kt

c)

27 kt

d)

21 kt


page: 10

C.A.T. 043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

047.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on route to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W). What is the great circle track on departure from A? a)

261°

b)

270°

c)

288°

d)

279°

A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B (61°S 148°W). What is the difference between the great circle track at A and B? a)

It decreases by 3°

b)

It increases by 6°

c)

It increases by 3°

d)

It decreases by 6°

What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W? a)

093°48.5'W

b)

093°54.0'W

c)

094°12.0'W

d)

093°53.1'W

An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat terrain; its height is approximately: a)

3640 FT

b)

680 FT

c)

1890 FT

d)

2210 FT

An aircraft is descending down a 6% slope whilst maintaining a G/S of 300 kt. The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately: a)

3600 FT/MIN

b)

10800 FT/MIN

c)

900 FT/MIN

d)

1800 FT/MIN


page: 11

C.A.T. 048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

JAR-ATPL


The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is approximately: a)

23.5°

b)

25.3°

c)

66.5°

d)

27.5°

The duration of civil twilight is the time: a)

between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon

b)

agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes

c)

needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°

d)

between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizon

On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at: a)

2143 UTC

b)

0243 UTC

c)

0523 UTC

d)

0743 UTC

An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt. The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which AB track is active. On route AB, the true track: a)

decreases by 6°

b)

increases by 5°

c)

varies by 10°

d)

varies by 4°

The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is: a)

300 NM

b)

150 NM

c)

600 NM

d)

450 NM


page: 12

C.A.T. 053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), where YYR VOR (53°30'N 060°15'W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at YYR. What is the radial from YYR? a)

031°

b)

208°

c)

332°

d)

028°

Given: TAS = 485 kt, OAT = ISA +10°C, FL 410. Calculate the Mach Number? a)

0.87

b)

0.90

c)

0.85

d)

0.825

(For this question use annex 061-1818A) Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian. An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 NM. Its position is now approximately: a)

80°00'N 080°E

b)

78°45'N 087°E

c)

79°15'N 074°E

d)

70°15'N 080°E

Given: A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian. Grid track 344°, Longitude 115°00'W, Calculate the true course? a)

279°

b)

049°

c)

229°

d)

099°


page: 13

C.A.T. 057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data for 1215 UTC) 1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI reads 178°, range 135 NM. Calculate the aircraft position at 1215 UTC? a)

41°05'N 027°50'W

b)

41°00'N 028°10'W

c)

40°55'N 027°55'W

d)

40°50'N 027°40'W

(For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data for 1300 UTC) 1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W) TAS 450 kt, Forecast W/V 360°/30kt. Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB? a)

1341

b)

1348

c)

1344

d)

1354

For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed "out" of 385 kt, a ground speed "back" of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is: a)

1685 NM

b)

1532 NM

c)

1865 NM

d)

930 NM

Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt. On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind is -20 kt. On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent headwind is +40 kt. What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the Point of Equal Time (PET)? a)

455 NM

b)

470 NM

c)

530 NM

d)

500 NM


page: 14

C.A.T. 061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: AD = Air distance GD = Ground distance TAS = True Airspeed GS = Groundspeed Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground distance (GD) gone? a)

GD = (AD X GS)/TAS

b)

GD = TAS/(GS X AD)

c)

GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS

d)

GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS

An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS computer: WPT 1: 60°N 030°W WPT 2: 60°N 020°W When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be: a)

60°05.7'N

b)

60°11.0'N

c)

60°00.0'N

d)

59°49.0'N

The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the position given by this unit. "t" being the elapsed time. The total error is: a)

proportional to t

b)

sinusoîdal

c)

proportional to t/2

d)

proportional to the square of time, t²

With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is: a)

required to provide a W/V read out

b)

not required

c)

required for Polar navigation

d)

required for rhumb line navigation


page: 15

C.A.T. 065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

JAR-ATPL


The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of: a)

gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift

b)

vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift

c)

aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis

d)

movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation

An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W) have been entered. The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest degree, is: a)

263°

b)

270°

c)

277°

d)

284°

Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as "strapdown". This means that: a)

the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure

b)

only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure

c)

gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference

d)

gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft

As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'W are input instead of 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on the INS will be: a)

080° 27.4'E

b)

099° 32.6'W

c)

099° 32.6'E

d)

080° 27.4'W


page: 16

C.A.T. 069.)

070.)

071.)

072.)

JAR-ATPL


In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform incorporates a device: a)

with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC

b)

without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN

c)

without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC

d)

with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN

The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is: a)

1400 FT

b)

1350 FT

c)

1300 FT

d)

1450 FT

A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is: a)

130°

b)

310°

c)

220°

d)

160°

Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the horizon and set every day? a)

68°

b)

66°

c)

62°

d)

72°


page: 17

C.A.T. 073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

077.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-2304A) The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG (Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is: a)

0930

b)

0113

c)

2230

d)

1413

(For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061-2305B) When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard Time in Algeria is: a)

0700

b)

0800

c)

1200

d)

1300

The value of magnetic variation: a)

varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West

b)

has a maximum of 180°

c)

must be 0° at the magnetic equator

d)

cannot exceed 90°

When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn: a)

clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south

b)

clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

c)

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south

d)

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented? a)

23°18'

b)

66°42'

c)

21°35'

d)

68°25'


page: 18

C.A.T. 078.)

079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

JAR-ATPL


On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates: a)

1: 6 000 000

b)

1: 2 000 000

c)

1: 5 000 000

d)

1: 3 750 000

The Great Circle bearing from A (70°S 030°W) to B (70°S 060°E) is approximately: a)

132°(T)

b)

312°(T)

c)

048°(T)

d)

090°(T)

In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately: a)

1: 700 000

b)

1: 7 000 000

c)

1: 1 300 000

d)

1: 130 000

At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1: 3 000 000. What is the scale at the equator? a)

1: 3 000 000

b)

1: 1 500 000

c)

1: 6 000 000

d)

1: 3 500 000

What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 5 000 000 at the equator? a)

106 mm

b)

133 mm

c)

167 mm

d)

72 mm


page: 19

C.A.T. 083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

JAR-ATPL


The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S? a)

1: 25 000 000

b)

1: 21 000 000

c)

1: 18 000 000

d)

1: 30 000 000

A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels: a)

shows all great circles as straight lines

b)

shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines

c)

the scale is only correct along the standard parallels

d)

the scale is only correct at parallel of origin

What is the constant of the cone for a Lambert conic projection whose standard parallels are at 50°N and 70°N? a)

0.766

b)

0.500

c)

0.866

d)

0.941

The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle between longitudes 010°E and 030°W is 30°, is: a)

0.64

b)

0.50

c)

0.40

d)

0.75

Question to be deleted: Isogonals converge at the: a)

North magnetic pole only

b)

North and South magnetic poles only

c)

North and South geographic and magnetic poles

d)

Magnetic equator


page: 20

C.A.T. 088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

092.)

JAR-ATPL


A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic variation is zero is called an: a)

isotach

b)

aclinic line

c)

agonic line

d)

isogonal

The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field: a)

weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole

b)

is stronger closer to the magnetic equator

c)

is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°

d)

weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading magnetic compass should read: a)

more than 060°

b)

more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used

c)

less than 060°

d)

060°

When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will: a)

under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect

b)

over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect

c)

under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect

d)

over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect

When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn: a)

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north

b)

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south

c)

clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south

d)

clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north


page: 21

C.A.T. 093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

097.)

JAR-ATPL


The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at latitude 65° North is 3.75 inches. The chart scale at this latitude approximates: a)

1: 5 000 000

b)

1: 2 500 000

c)

1: 6 000 000

d)

1: 3 000 000

On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted scale is correct: a)

along the prime meridian

b)

along the two standard parallels

c)

along the parallel of origin

d)

in the area between the standard parallels

A direct reading compass should be swung when: a)

there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude

b)

there is a large change in magnetic longitude

c)

the aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently moved

d)

the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings

The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by: a)

keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using damping wires

b)

using long magnets

c)

using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid

d)

pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly

The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when: a)

setting the 'heading' pointer

b)

setting local magnetic variation

c)

compensating for deviation

d)

synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements


page: 22

C.A.T. 098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

JAR-ATPL


The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535. At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented? a)

80°39'

b)

51°45'

c)

52°05'

d)

38°15'

At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° apart is 5 inches. The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates: a)

1: 6 000 000

b)

1: 3 000 000

c)

1: 8 000 000

d)

1: 2 500 000

On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a: a)

complex curve

b)

curve convex to the equator

c)

curve concave to the equator

d)

straight line

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should read: a)

more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used

b)

more than 225°

c)

225°

d)

less than 225°


page: 23

C.A.T. 102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

JAR-ATPL


When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn: a)

clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

b)

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south

c)

anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north

d)

clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south

On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately represented at the: a)

north and south limits of the chart

b)

standard parallels

c)

parallel of origin

d)

Equator

On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the: a)

prime meridian and the equator

b)

datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it

c)

Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical

d)

meridian of tangency

265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80) a)

895 kg

b)

803 kg

c)

940 kg

d)

862 kg

730 FT/MIN equals: a)

2.2 m/sec

b)

3.7 m/sec

c)

5.2 m/sec

d)

1.6 m/sec


page: 24

C.A.T. 107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

111.)

JAR-ATPL


How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ? a)

0 MIN 34 SEC

b)

1 MIN 55 SEC

c)

1 MIN 07 SEC

d)

2 MIN 30 SEC

An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed? a)

183 kt

b)

209 kt

c)

131 kt

d)

160 kt

An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total distance travelled is? a)

2040 NM

b)

5420 NM

c)

1788 NM

d)

3720 NM

Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have: a)

the same variation

b)

the same grivation

c)

O° magnetic dip

d)

the same horizontal magnetic field strength

What is the meaning of the term "standard time" ? a)

It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country

b)

It is another term for UTC

c)

It is an expression for local mean time

d)

It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA


page: 25

C.A.T. 112.)

113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W at 2200 UTC? a)

1345

b)

0615

c)

0815

d)

2200

An Agonic line is a line that connects: a)

points of equal magnetic dip

b)

positions that have 0° variation

c)

positions that have the same variation

d)

points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength

When is the magnetic compass most effective? a)

In the region of the magnetic North Pole.

b)

About midway between the magnetic poles

c)

On the geographic equator

d)

In the region of the magnetic South Pole.

When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to: a)

indicate a turn towards the south

b)

indicate a turn towards the north

c)

to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft

d)

lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft

What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330? a)

-51°C

b)

-56°C

c)

-81°C

d)

-66°C


page: 26

C.A.T. 117.)

118.)

119.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: True Track = 095°, TAS = 160 kt, True Heading = 087°, GS = 130 kts; Calculate W/V a)

124°/36 kt

b)

057°/36 kt

c)

307°/36 kt

d)

237°/36 kt

Given: TAS 487kt, FL 330, Temperature ISA + 15. Calculate the MACH Number? a)

0.76

b)

0.81

c)

0.78

d)

0.84

Given: M 0.80, OAT -50°C, FL 330, GS 490 kt, VAR 20°W, Magnetic heading 140°, Drift is 11° Right. Calculate the true W/V? a)

200°/95 kt

b)

020°/95 kt

c)

025°/47 kt

d)

025°/45 kt


page: 27

C.A.T. 120.)

121.)

122.)

123.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Pressure Altitude 29000 FT, OAT -55°C. Calculate the Density Altitude? a)

27500 FT

b)

33500 FT

c)

31000 FT

d)

26000 FT

Given: Compass Heading 090°, Deviation 2°W, Variation 12°E, TAS 160 kt. Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station, the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN. What is the W/V °(T)? a)

340°/98 kt

b)

160°/50 kt

c)

340°/25 kt

d)

155°/25 kt

How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt? a)

2.36

b)

3.94

c)

39.0

d)

3.25

Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are: a)

straight lines converging above the pole

b)

arcs of concentric circles equally spaced

c)

parallel straight lines equally spaced

d)

parallel straight lines unequally spaced


page: 28

C.A.T. 124.)

125.)

126.)

127.)

128.)

JAR-ATPL


A chart has the scale 1: 1 000 000. From A to B on the chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch equals 2.54 centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is: a)

20.6

b)

38.1

c)

44.5

d)

54.2

Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points: a)

of equal latitude

b)

having the same longitude

c)

having the same elevation above sea level

d)

with the same variation

A Rhumb line is: a)

the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection

b)

a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle

c)

any straight line on a Lambert projection

d)

a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection

A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning purposes: a)

is a Rhumb line

b)

is approximately a Great Circle

c)

is a Loxodromic line

d)

can only be a parallel of latitude

Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL. What is the endurance? a)

2 HR 15 MIN

b)

3 HR 53 MIN

c)

4 HR 32 MIN

d)

3 HR 12 MIN


page: 29

C.A.T. 129.)

130.)

131.)

132.)

133.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ? a)

1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres

b)

1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL

c)

1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres

d)

1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL

Given: true track is 348°, drift 17° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4°E. What is the compass heading? a)

337°

b)

033°

c)

007°

d)

359°

The circumference of the earth is approximately: a)

43200 NM

b)

5400 NM

c)

10800 NM

d)

21600 NM

Isogonic lines connect positions that have: a)

the same elevation

b)

the same variation

c)

the same angle of magnetic dip

d)

0° variation

The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 UTC, is: a)

0621:20 previous day

b)

0621:20 same day

c)

1738:40 same day

d)

1738:40 previous day


page: 30

C.A.T. 134.)

135.)

136.)

137.)

138.)

JAR-ATPL


5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of: a)

81°10'

b)

78°45'

c)

75°00'

d)

80°05'

What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ? a)

90°

b)

60°

c)

0°

d)

45°

The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in: a)

the vertical and horizontal plane

b)

the horizontal plane

c)

the vertical plane

d)

any plane

The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is due to the: a)

inclination of the ecliptic to the equator

b)

earth's rotation

c)

gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth

d)

relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic

The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are called: a)

isotachs

b)

isogrives

c)

isoclines

d)

isogonals


page: 31

C.A.T. 139.)

140.)

141.)

142.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a constant true track of 270º at a ground speed of 120 kt. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 HR? a)

N40º 00´ E070º 30´

b)

N40º 00´ E068º 10´

c)

N40º 00´ E064º 20´

d)

N40º 00´ E060º 00´

The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by: a)

parabolic lines

b)

hyperbolic lines

c)

arcs of concentric circles

d)

straight lines

The ICAO definition of ETA is the: a)

estimated time of arrival at destination

b)

estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix

c)

estimated time en route

d)

actual time of arrival at a point or fix

An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215 NM? a)

50 MIN

b)

100 MIN

c)

80 MIN

d)

90 MIN


page: 32

C.A.T. 143.)

144.)

145.)

146.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: TAS = 220 kt; Magnetic course = 212 º, W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt, Calculate the GS? a)

290 kt

b)

246 kt

c)

186 kt

d)

250 kt

Given: FL250, OAT -15 ºC, TAS 250 kt. Calculate the Mach No.? a)

0.40

b)

0.39

c)

0.44

d)

0.42

During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft: a)

position

b)

groundspeed

c)

drift

d)

track

Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN? a)

16.0 NM

b)

19.2 NM

c)

38.4 NM

d)

26.7 NM


page: 33

C.A.T. 147.)

148.)

149.)

150.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Magnetic track = 315 º, HDG = 301 º(M), VAR = 5ºW, TAS = 225 kt, The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the W/V(°T)? a)

355 º/15 kt

b)

190 º/63 kt

c)

195 º/63 kt

d)

195 º/61 kt

One purpose of compass calibration is to determine the deviation: a)

on any heading

b)

on a given heading

c)

on N, S, E and W only

d)

at any latitude

An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the magnetic variation 12°W? a)

234°

b)

054°

c)

318°

d)

038°

Given: True track 180° Drift 8°R Compass heading 195° Deviation -2° Calculate the variation. a)

9°W

b)

25°W

c)

21°W

d)

5°W


page: 34

C.A.T. 151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL


Compass deviation is defined as the angle between: a)

True North and Magnetic North

b)

True North and Compass North

c)

the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field

d)

Magnetic North and Compass North

Given: True course 300° drift 8°R variation 10°W deviation -4° Calculate the compass heading. a)

322°

b)

278°

c)

294°

d)

306°

Given: true track 352° variation 11° W deviation is -5° drift 10°R. Calculate the compass heading? a)

025°

b)

018°

c)

346°

d)

358°

Given: true track 070° variation 30°W deviation +1° drift 10°R Calculate the compass heading? a)

100°

b)

089°

c)

091°

d)

101°


page: 35

C.A.T. 155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL


The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called: a)

deviation

b)

variation

c)

compass error

d)

drift

Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives: a)

compass heading

b)

true heading

c)

magnetic course

d)

magnetic track

A nautical mile is: a)

1500metres

b)

1852 metres

c)

1012 metres

d)

1609 metres

An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 04°00'N 030°00'W: 600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West. The final position of the aircraft is: a)

04°00'N 030°00'W

b)

03°58'N 030°02'W

c)

04°00'N 030°02'W

d)

04°00'N 029°58'W


page: 36

C.A.T. 159.)

160.)

161.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60°00'N 030°00'W? South for 3600 NM, East for 3600 NM, North for 3600 NM, West for 3600 NM. The final position of the aircraft is: a)

59°00'N 090°00'W

b)

60°00'N 090°00'W

c)

59°00'N 060°00'W

d)

60°00'N 030°00'E

Given: TAS = 270 kt, True HDG = 270°, Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt, Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

6R - 259kt

b)

6R - 251kt

c)

8R - 259kt

d)

6L - 256kt

Given: TAS = 270 kt, True HDG = 145°, Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

6°R - 259 kt

b)

6°L - 256 kt

c)

8°R - 261 kt

d)

6°R - 251 kt


page: 37

C.A.T. 162.)

163.)

164.)

165.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: TAS = 470 kt, True HDG = 317° W/V = 045°(T)/45kt Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

5°L - 470 kt

b)

5°R - 475 kt

c)

5°L - 475 kt

d)

3°R - 470 kt

Given: TAS = 140 kt, True HDG = 302°, W/V = 045°(T)/45kt Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

9°R - 143 kt

b)

16°L - 156 kt

c)

18°R - 146 kt

d)

9°L - 146 kt

Given: TAS = 290 kt, True HDG = 171°, W/V = 310°(T)/30kt Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

4°R - 310 kt

b)

4°L - 314 kt

c)

4°R - 314 kt

d)

4°L - 310 kt

Given: TAS = 485 kt, True HDG = 226°, W/V = 110°(T)/95kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

8°L - 435 kt

b)

9°R - 533 kt

c)

7°R - 531 kt

d)

9°R - 433 kt


page: 38

C.A.T. 166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: TAS = 472 kt, True HDG = 005°, W/V = 110°(T)/50kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS. a)

6°R/462 kt

b)

6°L/402 kt

c)

6°L/490 kt

d)

6°R/490 kt

Given: TAS = 190 kt, True HDG = 085°, W/V = 110°(T)/50kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

4°L - 145 kt

b)

4°L - 168 kt

c)

8°L - 146 kt

d)

7°L - 156 kt

Given: TAS = 132 kt, True HDG = 257° W/V = 095°(T)/35kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

4°R - 165 kt

b)

3°L - 166 kt

c)

2°R - 166 kt

d)

4°L - 167 kt

Given: TAS = 370 kt, True HDG = 181°, W/V = 095°(T)/35kt. Calculate the true track and GS? a)

189 - 370 kt

b)

192 - 370 kt

c)

186 - 370 kt

d)

176 - 370 kt


page: 39

C.A.T. 170.)

171.)

172.)

173.)

JAR-ATPL



123 - 320 kt

b)

125 - 322 kt

c)

125 - 318 kt

d)

126 - 320 kt


002 - 98 kt

b)

345 - 100 kt

c)

348 - 102 kt

d)

005 - 102 kt

Given: TAS = 198 kt, HDG (°T) = 180, W/V = 359/25. Calculate the Track(°T) and GS? a)

180 - 183 kt

b)

181 - 180 kt

c)

180 - 223 kt

d)

179 - 220 kt

Given: TAS = 135 kt, HDG (°T) = 278, W/V = 140/20kt Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? a)

279 - 152 kt

b)

283 - 150 kt

c)

275 - 150 kt

d)

272 - 121 kt


page: 40

C.A.T. 174.)

175.)

176.)

177.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: TAS = 225 kt, HDG (°T) = 123°, W/V = 090/60kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? a)

128 - 180 kt

b)

120 - 190 kt

c)

134 - 188 kt

d)

134 - 178 kt

Given: TAS = 480 kt, HDG (°T) = 040°, W/V = 090/60kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? a)

034 - 445 kt

b)

032 - 425 kt

c)

036 - 435 kt

d)

028 - 415 kt

Given: TAS = 155 kt, HDG (T) = 216°, W/V = 090/60kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS. a)

224 - 175 kt

b)

226 - 186 kt

c)

222 - 181 kt

d)

231 - 196 kt

Given: TAS = 170 kt, HDG(T) = 100°, W/V = 350/30kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? a)

103 - 178 kt

b)

109 - 182 kt

c)

098 - 178 kt

d)

091 - 183 kt


page: 41

C.A.T. 178.)

179.)

180.)

181.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: TAS = 235 kt, HDG (T) = 076° W/V = 040/40kt. Calculate the drift angle and GS? a)

5R - 207 kt

b)

5L - 255 kt

c)

7L - 269 kt

d)

7R - 204 kt

Given: TAS = 440 kt, HDG (T) = 349° W/V = 040/40kt. Calculate the drift and GS? a)

5L - 385 kt

b)

2L - 420 kt

c)

6L - 395 kt

d)

4L - 415 kt

Given: TAS = 465 kt, HDG (T) = 124°, W/V = 170/80kt. Calculate the drift and GS? a)

8L - 415 kt

b)

4L - 400 kt

c)

6L - 400 kt

d)

3L - 415 kt


8R - 104 kt

b)

9R - 108 kt

c)

10L - 104 kt

d)

9L - 105 kt


page: 42

C.A.T. 182.)

183.)

184.)

185.)

JAR-ATPL



9R - 140 kt

b)

11R - 140 kt

c)

10R - 146 kt

d)

11R - 142 kt


1R - 175 kt

b)

1R - 165 kt

c)

1L - 225 kt

d)

1L - 215 kt


2R - 223 kt

b)

1L - 225 kt

c)

1R - 221 kt

d)

2L - 224 kt


4L - 195 kt

b)

3L - 190 kt

c)

6L - 194 kt

d)

7L - 192 kt


page: 43

C.A.T. 186.)

187.)

188.)

189.)

JAR-ATPL



1L - 265 kt

b)

1L - 205 kt

c)

1R - 295 kt

d)

1R - 205 kt

Given: TAS = 132 kt, HDG (T) = 053°, W/V = 205/15kt. Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? a)

051 - 144 kt

b)

052 - 143 kt

c)

050 - 145 kt

d)

057 - 144 kt


006 - 95 kt

b)

358 - 101 kt

c)

359 - 102 kt

d)

346 - 102 kt


175 - 432 kt

b)

175 - 420 kt

c)

173 - 424 kt

d)

174 - 428 kt


page: 44

C.A.T. 190.)

191.)

192.)

193.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: TAS = 155 kt, Track (T) = 305°, W/V = 160/18kt. Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS? a)

309 - 170 kt

b)

305 - 169 kt

c)

301 - 169 kt

d)

309 - 141 kt


357 - 168 kt

b)

002 - 173 kt

c)

359 - 166 kt

d)

001 - 170 kt


311 - 230 kt

b)

312 - 232 kt

c)

310 - 233 kt

d)

313 - 235 kt


017 - 490 kt

b)

001 - 435 kt

c)

357 - 502 kt

d)

358 - 428 kt


page: 45

C.A.T. 194.)

195.)

196.)

JAR-ATPL



075 - 213 kt

b)

079 - 211 kt

c)

077 - 210 kt

d)

077 - 214 kt


099 - 199 kt

b)

121 - 199 kt

c)

121 - 207 kt

d)

097 - 201 kt


264 - 241 kt

b)

262 - 241 kt

c)

264 - 237 kt

d)

262 - 237 kt


page: 46

C.A.T. 197.)

198.)

199.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: True HDG = 307°, TAS = 230 kt, Track (T) = 313°, GS = 210 kt. Calculate the W/V? a)

257/35kt

b)

265/30kt

c)

260/30kt

d)

255/25kt


105/75kt

b)

115/70kt

c)

110/80kt

d)

110/75kt


075/45kt

b)

075/50kt

c)

070/45kt

d)

070/40kt


page: 47

C.A.T. 200.)

201.)

202.)

JAR-ATPL



185/35kt

b)

180/35kt

c)

180/40kt

d)

180/30kt


180/05kt

b)

180/10kt

c)

000/10kt

d)

000/05kt


005/50kt

b)

010/45kt

c)

010/50kt

d)

010/55kt


page: 48

C.A.T. 203.)

204.)

205.)

JAR-ATPL



115/35kt

b)

360/35kt

c)

180/35kt

d)

295/35kt


090/20kt

b)

095/25kt

c)

090/15kt

d)

095/20kt


335/55kt

b)

340/50kt

c)

335/45kt

d)

340/45kt


page: 49

C.A.T. 206.)

207.)

208.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: course required = 085° (T), Forecast W/V 030/100kt, TAS = 470 kt, Distance = 265 NM. Calculate the true HDG and flight time? a)

076°, 34 MIN

b)

095°, 31 MIN

c)

096°, 29 MIN

d)

075°, 39 MIN

Given: True course from A to B = 090°, TAS = 460 kt, W/V = 360/100kt, Average variation = 10°E, Deviation = -2°. Calculate the compass heading and GS? a)

068° - 460 kt

b)

078° - 450 kt

c)

070° - 453 kt

d)

069° - 448 kt

For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt. VAR is 13°E. Calculate the cross wind component? a)

20 kt

b)

26 kt

c)

15 kt

d)

22 kt


page: 50

C.A.T. 209.)

210.)

211.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 kt. Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic). The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°. Variation is 17°E. Calculate the maximum allowable wind speed that can be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit? a)

11 kt

b)

8 kt

c)

18 kt

d)

15 kt

Given: Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt. Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M). Wind direction 100°(M) Calculate the maximum allowable wind speed? a)

26 kt

b)

33 kt

c)

37 kt

d)

25 kt

Given: True course A to B = 250° Distance A to B = 315 NM TAS = 450 kt. W/V = 200°/60kt. ETD A = 0650 UTC. What is the ETA at B? a)

0716 UTC

b)

0736 UTC

c)

0810 UTC

d)

0730 UTC


page: 51

C.A.T. 212.)

213.)

214.)

215.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: GS = 510 kt. Distance A to B = 43 NM What is the time (MIN) from A to B? a)

7

b)

5

c)

4

d)

6

Given: GS = 122 kt. Distance from A to B = 985 NM. What is the time from A to B? a)

8 HR 04 MIN

b)

7 HR 49 MIN

c)

8 HR 10 MIN

d)

7 HR 48 MIN

Given: GS = 236 kt. Distance from A to B = 354 NM What is the time from A to B? a)

1 HR 40 MIN

b)

1 HR 30 MIN

c)

1 HR 09 MIN

d)

1 HR 10 MIN


4 HR 10 MIN

b)

3 HR 26 MIN

c)

3 HR 25 MIN

d)

4 HR 25 MIN


page: 52

C.A.T. 216.)

217.)

218.)

219.)

JAR-ATPL



11 HR 00 MIN

b)

11 HR 02 MIN

c)

10 HR 05 MIN

d)

10 HR 19 MIN


11 HR 06 MIN

b)

11 HR 15 MIN

c)

11 HR 07 MIN

d)

11 HR 10 MIN


5 HR 03 MIN

b)

5 HR 00 MIN

c)

5 HR 08 MIN

d)

4 HR 59 MIN


01 HR 01 MIN

b)

00 HR 59 MIN

c)

00 HR 58 MIN

d)

00 HR 57 MIN


page: 53

C.A.T. 220.)

221.)

222.)

223.)

JAR-ATPL



00 HR 44 MIN

b)

00 HR 42 MIN

c)

00 HR 43 MIN

d)

00 HR 45 MIN


3 HR 19 MIN

b)

3 HR 12 MIN

c)

3 HR 25 MIN

d)

3 HR 20 MIN

A straight line is drawn on a Lamberts conformal conic chart between two positions of different longitude. The angular difference between the initial true track and the final true track of the line is equal to: a)

earth convergency

b)

difference in longitude

c)

chart convergency

d)

conversion angle

An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is: a)

960 FT/MIN

b)

920 FT/MIN

c)

890 FT/MIN

d)

860 FT/MIN


page: 54

C.A.T. 224.)

225.)

226.)

227.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned. Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to: a)

M0.74

b)

M0.80

c)

M0.76

d)

M0.78

A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was: a)

30 NM and 060°

b)

30 NM and 240°

c)

40 NM and 290°

d)

40 NM and 110°

An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80. Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is: a)

59 NM

b)

69 NM

c)

79 NM

d)

49 NM

An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to: a)

169 kt

b)

165 kt

c)

174 kt

d)

159 kt


page: 55

C.A.T. 228.)

229.)

230.)

231.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Runway direction 083°(M), Surface W/V 035/35kt. Calculate the effective headwind component? a)

24 kt

b)

34 kt

c)

31 kt

d)

27 kt

Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale of 1: 2 000 000? a)

150

b)

329

c)

43

d)

130

An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is: a)

1240 FT/MIN

b)

1290 FT/MIN

c)

1390 FT/MIN

d)

1340 FT/MIN

An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the reporting point, what Mach Number is required? a)

M0.73

b)

M0.75

c)

M0.81

d)

M0.79


page: 56

C.A.T. 232.)

233.)

234.)

235.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the runway is 60°, Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds? a)

12 kt and 38 kt

b)

20 kt and 40 kt

c)

15 kt and 43 kt

d)

18 kt and 50 kt

An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence? a)

63 NM

b)

58 NM

c)

53 NM

d)

68 NM

Given: Runway direction 230°(T), Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt. Calculate the effective cross-wind component? a)

21 kt

b)

26 kt

c)

36 kt

d)

31 kt

An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at FL120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately: a)

1650 FT/MIN

b)

1550 FT/MIN

c)

2400 FT/MIN

d)

1000 FT/MIN


page: 57

C.A.T. 236.)

237.)

238.)

239.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the reporting point the IAS should be reduced by: a)

15 kt

b)

30 kt

c)

25 kt

d)

20 kt

A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A; course at B is 055°(T). What is the longitude of B? a)

34°W

b)

41°W

c)

36°W

d)

38°W

Given: Runway direction 210°(M), Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt. Calculate the cross-wind component? a)

19 kt

b)

13 kt

c)

10 kt

d)

16 kt

At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80. For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at which to commence descent is: a)

0448

b)

0454

c)

0445

d)

0451


page: 58

C.A.T. 240.)

241.)

242.)

243.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft at FL330 is required to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100. The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? a)

1950 FT/MIN

b)

1750 FT/MIN

c)

1650 FT/MIN

d)

1850 FT/MIN

An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same NDB is 270°. Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840? a)

40 NM

b)

60 NM

c)

50 NM

d)

30 NM

The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately: a)

145 kt

b)

136 kt

c)

210 kt

d)

35 kt

An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? a)

1700 FT/MIN

b)

1900 FT/MIN

c)

1800 FT/MIN

d)

2000 FT/MIN


page: 59

C.A.T. 244.)

245.)

246.)

247.)

JAR-ATPL


A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T). What is the longitude of B? a)

019°E

b)

009°36'E

c)

008°E

d)

011°E

Given: Runway direction 305°(M), Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt. Calculate the cross-wind component? a)

18 kt

b)

21 kt

c)

24 kt

d)

27 kt

An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the minimum rate of descent required? a)

1600 FT/MIN

b)

1800 FT/MIN

c)

1900 FT/MIN

d)

1700 FT/MIN

An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic variation 17°W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island? a)

302°

b)

122°

c)

088°

d)

268°


page: 60

C.A.T. 248.)

249.)

250.)

251.)

JAR-ATPL


The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60 NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at position B? a)

2° Left

b)

4° Right

c)

6° Right

d)

8° Right

Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation. The charted values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to: a)

magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase.

b)

magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or decrease

c)

a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease.

d)

an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass? a)

Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes

b)

Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes

c)

Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes

d)

Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes

Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass? a)

Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude

b)

After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has been struck by lightning

c)

Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content

d)

After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability


page: 61

C.A.T. 252.)

253.)

254.)

255.)

JAR-ATPL


Question to be deleted: Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely correct? a)

An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip

b)

An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip

c)

An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the aclinic connects places with the same magnetic field strength

d)

An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation; the agonic line is the line of zero magnetic dip

On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 10°N, a distance of: a)

122.3 NM

b)

124.2 NM

c)

118.2 NM

d)

117.7 NM

On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance of: a)

73.5 NM

b)

45 NM

c)

78 NM

d)

110 NM

In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated: a)

from TAS and W/V from RNAV data

b)

by integrating measured acceleration

c)

by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively

d)

from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)


page: 62

C.A.T. 256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

260.)

JAR-ATPL


In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? a)

June and December

b)

February and November

c)

April and August

d)

March and September

What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the horizon at some time during the year? a)

23°

b)

45°

c)

0°

d)

66°

Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S). At which time of year is the relationship between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of the sun, changing at the greatest rate? a)

Winter solstice and autumn equinox

b)

Spring equinox and autumn equinox

c)

Summer solstice and spring equinox

d)

summer solstice and winter solstice

At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)? a)

Beginning of July

b)

End of June

c)

End of March

d)

Beginning of January

At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)? a)

End of September

b)

Beginning of January

c)

End of December

d)

Beginning of July


page: 63

C.A.T. 261.)

262.)

263.)

264.)

265.)

JAR-ATPL


A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 180°E/W. The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately: a)

1000

b)

804

c)

540

d)

1222

An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km. On completion of the flight the longitude will be: a)

005°15'E

b)

000°15'E

c)

000°40'E

d)

002°10'W

The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 'x' is 900 NM. What is the longitude of 'x'? a)

145°E

b)

170°W

c)

140°W

d)

175°E

An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be: a)

04°10'S

b)

04°30'S

c)

09°05'S

d)

03°50'S

An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/Hr. What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR? a)

22°00'N

b)

03°50'N

c)

02°00'N

d)

12°15'N


page: 64

C.A.T. 266.)

267.)

268.)

269.)

270.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/Hr. What will be its latitude after 3 HR? a)

02°00'S

b)

03°50'S

c)

12°15'S

d)

22°00'S

The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is: a)

to maximise the units exposure to the earth's magnetic field

b)

to minimise the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits

c)

by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by the aircraft structure

d)

to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft for ease of maintenance

On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the: a)

equator and parallel of origin

b)

meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to it

c)

prime meridian and the equator

d)

meridians of tangency

On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as: a)

straight lines

b)

parabolas

c)

hyperbolic lines

d)

ellipses

An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce: a)

radio navigational charts in equatorial regions

b)

plotting charts in equatorial regions

c)

topographical maps of large east/ west extent

d)

charts of the great circle route between two points


page: 65

C.A.T. 271.)

272.)

273.)

274.)

JAR-ATPL


Transverse Mercator projections are used for: a)

radio navigation charts in equatorial areas

b)

maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas

c)

plotting charts in equatorial areas

d)

maps of large north/south extent

Given: Distance A to B = 120 NM, After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course. What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point 'B'? a)

8° right

b)

4° right

c)

6° right

d)

8° left

An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 kt Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is: a)

1657

b)

1744

c)

1721

d)

1846

An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM True airspeed 470 kt Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt Safe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is: a)

1611 NM

b)

2141 NM

c)

2844 NM

d)

1759 NM


page: 66

C.A.T. 275.)

276.)

277.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM Groundspeed 'out' 420 kt Groundspeed 'back' 500 kt The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is: a)

183 MIN

b)

173 MIN

c)

193 MIN

d)

163 MIN

Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is: a)

1940 NM

b)

1630 NM

c)

1908 NM

d)

1736 NM

An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is: a)

1752

b)

1756

c)

1742

d)

1820


page: 67

C.A.T. 278.)

279.)

280.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt Safe endurance 10:00 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'Q' is: a)

2290 NM

b)

1310 NM

c)

2370 NM

d)

1510 NM


162 MIN

b)

145 MIN

c)

130 MIN

d)

181 MIN

Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt Safe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is: a)

1664 NM

b)

1490 NM

c)

1698 NM

d)

1422 NM


page: 68

C.A.T. 281.)

282.)

283.)

JAR-ATPL



167 MIN

b)

197 MIN

c)

219 MIN

d)

290 MIN

Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is: a)

219 MIN

b)

197 MIN

c)

209 MIN

d)

290 MIN

Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is: a)

106 MIN

b)

114 MIN

c)

110 MIN

d)

102 MIN


page: 69

C.A.T. 284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NM Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt Safe endurance 9 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) between 'Q' and 'R' is: a)

1642 NM

b)

1838 NM

c)

1467 NM

d)

1313 NM


323 MIN

b)

263 MIN

c)

238 MIN

d)

288 MIN

A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°. The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt. What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and the ground feature? a)

6 NM

b)

9 NM

c)

3 NM

d)

12 NM

An island is observed to be 30° to the right of the nose of the aircraft. The aircraft heading is 290°(M), variation 10°(E). The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is: a)

270

b)

330

c)

310

d)

250


page: 70

C.A.T. 288.)

289.)

290.)

291.)

JAR-ATPL


An island is observed to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W). The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is: a)

268

b)

302

c)

088

d)

122

An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs 'A' at 1000 UTC. After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'? a)

1206

b)

1203

c)

1153

d)

1157

An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC. After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'? a)

1401 UTC

b)

1347 UTC

c)

1333 UTC

d)

1340 UTC

An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B', distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC. After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time. Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'? a)

1115 UTC

b)

1050 UTC

c)

1044 UTC

d)

1110 UTC


page: 71

C.A.T. 292.)

293.)

294.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Magnetic track = 075°, HDG = 066°(M), VAR = 11°E, TAS = 275 kt Aircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN. Calculate the true W/V °? a)

210°/15 kt

b)

340°/45 kt

c)

320°/50 kt

d)

180°/45 kt

Given: Magnetic track = 210°, Magnetic HDG = 215°, VAR = 15°E, TAS = 360 kt, Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN. Calculate the true W/V? a)

195°/50 kt

b)

300°/30 kt

c)

265°/50 kt

d)

235°/50 kt

Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1000 UTC, 1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track. What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'? a)

320 kt.

b)

360 kt.

c)

340 kt

d)

300 kt


page: 72

C.A.T. 295.)

296.)

297.)

298.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM, Planned GS 315 kt, ATD 1130 UTC, 1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track. What GS must be maintained from the fix in order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'? a)

335 kt

b)

355 kt

c)

395 kt

d)

375 kt

Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM, Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course. What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'? a)

9° Right

b)

18° Right

c)

15° Right

d)

6° Right

Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM, Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of course. What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'? a)

8° Left

b)

12° Left

c)

4° Left

d)

16° Left

(For this question use annex 061-9437A) Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG'; positions 'A' to 'B'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? a)

282° - 1128 UTC

b)

268° - 1114 UTC

c)

282° - 1114 UTC

d)

268° - 1128 UTC


page: 73

C.A.T. 299.)

300.)

301.)

302.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-9438A) Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'C' to 'D'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? a)

HDG 183° - ETA 1159 UTC

b)

HDG 188° - ETA 1229 UTC

c)

HDG 193° - ETA 1239 UTC

d)

HDG 193° - ETA 1249 UTC

(For this question use annex 061-9439A) Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'E' to 'F'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? a)

HDG 095° - ETA 1155 UTC

b)

HDG 115° - ETA 1145 UTC

c)

HDG 106° - ETA 1215 UTC

d)

HDG 105° - ETA 1205 UTC

(For this question use annex 061-9440A) Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'G' to 'H'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? a)

HDG 344° - ETA 1336 UTC

b)

HDG 034° - ETA 1336 UTC

c)

HDG 344° - ETA 1303 UTC

d)

HDG 354° - ETA 1326 UTC

(For this question use annex 061-9441A) Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'J' to 'K'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? a)

HDG 337° - ETA 1322 UTC

b)

HDG 320° - ETA 1432 UTC

c)

HDG 337° - ETA 1422 UTC

d)

HDG 320° - ETA 1412 UTC


page: 74

C.A.T. 303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-9442A) Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'L' to 'M'. What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? a)

HDG 075° - ETA 1452 UTC

b)

HDG 070° - ETA 1459 UTC

c)

HDG 064° - ETA 1449 UTC

d)

HDG 075° - ETA 1502 UTC

The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is: a)

vehicle longitude

b)

change of longitude

c)

velocity along the local parallel of latitude

d)

departure

Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is completely correct? a)

There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not suffer from 'lock in' error

b)

There is little or no 'spin up' time and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces

c)

It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces

d)

The platform is kept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather than mechanically but it has a longer 'spin up' time

The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/ Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to: a)

only to 'strapdown' laser gyro systems

b)

only gyro-stabilised systems

c)

both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non 'strapdown' mode

d)

both gyro-stabilised platform and 'strapdown' systems


page: 75

C.A.T. 307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

JAR-ATPL


The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is: a)

change latitude

b)

groundspeed

c)

velocity along the local meridian

d)

latitude

Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give: a)

distance north/south

b)

vehicle longitude

c)

velocity east/west

d)

distance east/west

During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment: a)

will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude

b)

will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial longitude

c)

will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial longitude

d)

will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude

Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)? a)

Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.

b)

Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.

c)

Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.

d)

Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it can differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.


page: 76

C.A.T. 311.)

312.)

313.)

314.)

JAR-ATPL


With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the initial great circle track between computer inserted waypoints will be displayed when the control display unit (CDU) is selected to: a)

XTK/TKE

b)

DSRTK/STS

c)

TK/GS

d)

HDG/DA

Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to: a)

ON

b)

STBY

c)

ALIGN

d)

ATT/REF

The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS). WPT 1: 60°N 30°W WPT 2: 60°N 20°W WPT 3: 60°N 10°W The inertial navigation system is connected to the automatic pilot on route (1-2-3). The track change when passing WPT 2 will be approximately: a)

a 9° decrease

b)

a 4° decrease

c)

zero

d)

a 9° increase

The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S 080°00'W). Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final track (°T) at 080°00'W, the difference between them is that the initial track is approximately: a)

9° greater than the final one

b)

9° less than the final one

c)

5° greater than the final one

d)

5° less than the final one


page: 77

C.A.T. 315.)

316.)

317.)

318.)

JAR-ATPL


The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of 10°? a)

30°S to 25°S

b)

60°N to 60°N

c)

30°S to 30°N

d)

60°N to 50°N

The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs of an inertial navigation system (INS). The aircraft is flying between waypoints No. 4 (45°00'N 040°00'W) and No.5 (45°00'N 030°00'W). If a constant drift angle were experienced between the two waypoints, on arrival over waypoint No. 5 the track has: a)

decreased by less than 10°

b)

decreased by more than 10°

c)

increased by less than 10°

d)

remained unchanged

The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS). The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W). With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be: a)

270°

b)

274°

c)

278°

d)

266°

Which of the following lists the order of available selections on the Mode Selector switches of a 737-400 Inertial Reference System? a)

OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV

b)

OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV

c)

OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV

d)

OFF - ALIGN - NAV – ATT


page: 78

C.A.T. 319.)

320.)

321.)

322.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? a)

Mach number increases; TAS remains constant

b)

Mach number increases; TAS increases

c)

Mach number decreases; TAS decreases

d)

Mach number remains constant; TAS increases

Given: TAS = 197 kt, True course = 240°, W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM. What is the approximate rate of descent? a)

1500 FT/MIN

b)

1400 FT/MIN

c)

950 FT/MIN

d)

800 FT/MIN

Given: ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, GS = 150 kt. What is the approximate rate of descent? a)

700 FT/MIN

b)

1000 FT/MIN

c)

900 FT/MIN

d)

800 FT/MIN

Given: aircraft height 2500 FT, ILS GP angle 3°. At what approximate distance from THR can you expect to capture the GP? a)

14.5 NM

b)

8.3 NM

c)

13.1 NM

d)

7.0 NM


page: 79

C.A.T. 323.)

324.)

325.)

326.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management System (FMS)? a)

The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in the wingtip

b)

Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading

c)

The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position

d)

Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the respective IRS

Where and when are the IRS positions updated? a)

Only on the ground during the alignment procedure

b)

IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the take-off roll

c)

During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC

d)

Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)

ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing: a)

only attitude information

b)

navigation information

c)

only attitude and heading information

d)

altitude, heading and position information

Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial Reference System (IRS) display is correct? a)

It is updated when 'go-around' is selected on take-off

b)

It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV

c)

The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a 'best position' which is displayed on the IRS

d)

It is constantly updated from information obtained by the FMC


page: 80

C.A.T. 327.)

328.)

329.)

330.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct? a)

It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight

b)

The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried out in flight

c)

The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, is inoperative for the remainder of the flight

d)

The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order to obtain an in-flight realignment

An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E? a)

046°

b)

226°

c)

026°

d)

086°

An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W? a)

239°

b)

329°

c)

059°

d)

101°

An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E? a)

130°

b)

160°

c)

190°

d)

220°


page: 81

C.A.T. 331.)

332.)

333.)

334.)

JAR-ATPL


An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 020° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W? a)

205°

b)

195°

c)

145°

d)

325°

Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from: a)

hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field, whilst under construction

b)

the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth's magnetic field

c)

the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms

d)

exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal operation

The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to: a)

place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft

b)

reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits

c)

facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth's magnetic field

d)

place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors

What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout? a)

Mach Number

b)

IAS

c)

TAS

d)

Altitude and OAT


page: 82

C.A.T. 335.)

336.)

337.)

338.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure? a)

Solid state

b)

Strapdown

c)

Rigid

d)

Ring laser

The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser ring gyros is approximately: a)

20 MIN

b)

5 MIN

c)

2 MIN

d)

10 MIN

Which of the following statements concerning the alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid-latitudes is correct? a)

INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or NAV mode

b)

INS/IRS can only be aligned in NAV mode

c)

INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT mode

d)

INS/IRS can only be aligned in the ALIGN mode

Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct? a)

NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-off

b)

NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or freight

c)

NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the gate

d)

NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is commenced


page: 83

C.A.T. 339.)

340.)

341.)

342.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the CDU is correct? a)

The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from different sources

b)

The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting the present position at the departure airport

c)

The positions will be the same because they are an average of three different positions

d)

The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled because of a detected malfunction

Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routeing and performance parameters? a)

Inertial Reference System

b)

Multi-Function Control Display Unit

c)

Flight Director System

d)

Flight Management Computer

What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical information stored in the FMC In the B737-400 Flight Management System? a)

3 calendar months

b)

one calendar month

c)

28 days

d)

14 days

In a Flight Management System (FMS), control Display Units (CDUs) are used preflight to a)

manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information

b)

manually initialise the IRSs, FMC and Air Data Computer with dispatch information

c)

manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information

d)

automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information


page: 84

C.A.T. 343.)

344.)

345.)

346.)

JAR-ATPL


How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? a)

DME/DME or VOR/DME

b)

VOR/DME range and bearing

c)

DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearings

d)

VOR/VOR or ADF bearings

What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? a)

Priority and Alerting

b)

Urgent and Routine

c)

Alerting and Advisory

d)

Urgent and Advisory

Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? a)

PERF INIT

b)

IDENT

c)

INITIAL

d)

POS INIT

Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? a)

POS INIT - RTE - IDENT

b)

IDENT - RTE - DEPARTURE

c)

POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE

d)

IDENT - POS INIT – RTE


page: 85

C.A.T. 347.)

348.)

349.)

350.)

351.)

JAR-ATPL


One purpose of a compass calibration is to reduce the difference, if any, between: a)

compass north and the lubber line.

b)

true north and magnetic north.

c)

compass north and magnetic north.

d)

compass north and true north.

Magnetic compass calibration is carried out to reduce: a)

deviation.

b)

variation.

c)

parallax error.

d)

acceleration errors.

At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a direct reading pivot suspended compass: a)

underreads the heading

b)

indicates a turn to the south

c)

indicates the correct heading

d)

overreads the heading

On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is approximately: a)

1: 185 000

b)

1: 18 500 000

c)

1: 1 000 000

d)

1: 1 850 000

Given: Chart scale is 1: 1 850 000. The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres. Earth distance is approximately: a)

100 NM

b)

40 NM

c)

74 NM

d)

4 NM


page: 86

C.A.T. 352.)

353.)

354.)

355.)

JAR-ATPL


The force acting on the needle of a direct reading compass varies: a)

directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field

b)

directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

c)

inversely with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field

d)

inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field

Given: An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°); The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.; TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's heading (°M) should be: a)

326°

b)

322°

c)

328°

d)

316°

On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately: a)

1: 5 560 000

b)

1: 556 000

c)

1: 2 780 000

d)

1: 278 000

An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure before sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is: a)

115 NM

b)

105 NM

c)

84 NM

d)

97 NM


page: 87

C.A.T. 356.)

357.)

358.)

359.)

JAR-ATPL


Assume a Mercator chart. The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1: 9 260 000. What is the latitude of A and B? a)

45° N or S

b)

60° N or S

c)

30° N or S

d)

0°

On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), with respect to the straight line drawn on the map between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°), the: a)

great circle and rhumb line are to the south

b)

great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south

c)

rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south

d)

great circle and rhumb line are to the north

Given: ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC GS is 441 kt TAS is 491 kt At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC. The reduction to TAS will be approximately: a)

60 kt

b)

75 kt

c)

90 kt

d)

40 kt

The flight log gives the following data: "True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass heading" The right solution, in the same order, is: a)

119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116°

b)

115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121°

c)

125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117°

d)

117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°


page: 88

C.A.T. 360.)

361.)

362.)

363.)

JAR-ATPL


Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere, it can be said that: a)

on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South

b)

on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent turn to the North

c)

on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South

d)

on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North

At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME station. At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 NM. Magnetic variation is zero. The true track and ground speed are: a)

088° - 232 kt

b)

080° - 226 kt

c)

090° - 232 kt

d)

085° - 226 kt

A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM. The scale of this chart is approximately: a)

1: 3 500 000

b)

1: 6 000 000

c)

1: 5 000 000

d)

1: 7 000 000

From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is: a)

inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back

b)

proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back

c)

inversely proportional to ground speed back

d)

inversely proportional to the total distance to go


page: 89

C.A.T. 364.)

365.)

366.)

367.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Required course 045°(M); Variation is 15°E; W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt; CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere. What are the heading (°M) and GS? a)

055° and 147 kt

b)

056° and 137 kt

c)

052° and 154 kt

d)

036° and 151 kt

Given: Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa. What is the approximate airport pressure altitude? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT) a)

320 FT

b)

1680 FT

c)

680 FT

d)

320 FT

The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately: a)

34 641 NM

b)

18 706 NM

c)

10 800 NM

d)

20 000 NM

Morning Civil twilight begins when: a)

the centre of the sun is 6° below the celestial horizon

b)

the sun's upper edge is tangential to the celestial horizon

c)


d)



page: 90

C.A.T. 368.)

369.)

370.)

371.)

JAR-ATPL


Seasons are due to the: a)

Earth's rotation on its polar axis

b)

Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun

c)

inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane

d)

variable distance between Earth and Sun

Given: Position 'A' N60 W020, Position 'B' N60 W021, Position 'C' N59 W020. What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C? a)

52 NM and 60 NM

b)

30 NM and 60 NM

c)

60 NM and 52 NM

d)

60 NM and 30 NM

Given: True altitude 9000 FT, OAT -32°C, CAS 200 kt. What is the TAS? a)

200 kt

b)

210 kt

c)

215 kt

d)

220 kt

Given: An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M), 2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station, 2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station. At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the station is: a)

less than it was at 2254 UTC

b)

randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC

c)

greater than it was at 2254 UTC

d)

the same as it was at 2254 UTC


page: 91

C.A.T. 372.)

373.)

374.)

375.)

JAR-ATPL


The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM, To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead of 2°W. Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint? a)

0 NM

b)

21 NM

c)

14 NM

d)

7 NM

The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart: a)

varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude

b)

is constant along a meridian of longitude

c)

is constant across the whole map

d)

is constant along a parallel of latitude

A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is: a)

spherical

b)

conical

c)

cylindrical

d)

concentric

Given: Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport Elevation of airport 720 FT. QNH is 1003 hPa. OAT at FL150 -5°C. What is the true altitude of the aircraft? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT) a)

15 280 FT

b)

14 160 FT

c)

14 720 FT

d)

15 840 FT


page: 92

C.A.T. 376.)

377.)

378.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C). Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately: a)

6 500 FT

b)

4 000 FT

c)

6 800 FT

d)

6 300 FT

Given: Distance A to B is 360 NM. Wind component A - B is -15 kt, Wind component B - A is +15 kt, TAS is 180 kt. What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B? a)

195 NM

b)

180 NM

c)

165 NM

d)

170 NM

Given: Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the following information: TAS 360 kt, W/V 330°/80kt, Compass heading 237°, Deviation on this heading -5°, Variation 19°W. What is the average ground speed for this leg? a)

360 kt

b)

354 kt

c)

373 kt

d)

403 kt


page: 93

C.A.T. 379.)

380.)

381.)

382.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-11993A) Given: TAS is120 kt. ATA 'X' 1232 UTC, ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC, ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC. What is ETA 'Z'? a)

1303 UTC

b)

1257 UTC

c)

1300 UTC

d)

1302 UTC

A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that: a)

Compass North is East of Magnetic North

b)

True North is West of Magnetic North

c)

Compass North is West of Magnetic North

d)

True North is East of Magnetic North

In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate: a)

an apparent turn to the South

b)

a decrease in heading

c)

a heading of East

d)

an increase in heading

Given: The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are N48°50' E002°16.5'. What are the coordinates of the position directly on the opposite side of the earth? a)

S48°50' E177°43.5'

b)

S41°10' E177°43.5'

c)

S41°10' W177°43.5'

d)

S48°50' W177°43.5'


page: 94

C.A.T. 383.)

384.)

385.)

386.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: Course 040°(T), TAS is 120 kt, Wind speed 30 kt. Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of: a)

145°

b)

130°

c)

120°

d)

115°

Given: CAS 120 kt, FL 80, OAT +20°C. What is the TAS? a)

120 kt

b)

102 kt

c)

132 kt

d)

141 kt

Isogonals are lines of equal: a)

magnetic variation.

b)

compass deviation.

c)

wind velocity.

d)

pressure.

At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation: a)

depends on the magnetic heading

b)

varies slowly over time

c)

depends on the type of compass installed

d)

depends on the true heading


page: 95

C.A.T. 387.)

388.)

389.)

390.)

JAR-ATPL


Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are: a)

are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles

b)

both Rhumb lines and Great circles

c)

Rhumb lines

d)

Great circles

Given:FL120, OAT is ISA standard, CAS is 200 kt, Track is 222°(M), Heading is 215°(M), Variation is 15°W. Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN. What is the W/V? a)

040°(T) / 105 kt.

b)

055°(T) / 105 kt .

c)

065°(T) / 70 kt.

d)

050°(T) / 70 kt.

At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1: 5 000 000. The length on the chart between 'C' N60° E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is: a)

35.6 cm

b)

16.2 cm

c)

17.8 cm

d)

19.2 cm

Given: A is N55° 000° B is N54° E010° The average true course of the great circle is 100°. The true course of the rhumbline at point A is: a)

107°

b)

100°

c)

096°

d)

104°


page: 96

C.A.T. 391.)

392.)

393.)

394.)

JAR-ATPL


The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'. The cone constant of this chart is approximatively: a)

0.44

b)

0.66

c)

0.18

d)

0.90

Given: Position 'A' is N00° E100°, Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'. What is the position of 'B'? a)

S01°40' E101°40'

b)

N01°40' E097°07'

c)

N01°40' E101°40'

d)

S01°40' E097°07'

A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this incident: a)

it can only be used for attitude reference

b)

everything returns to normal and is usable

c)

the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update

d)

no useful information can be obtained from the INS

The sensors of an INS measure: a)

precession

b)

velocity

c)

the horizontal component of the earth's rotation

d)

acceleration


page: 97

C.A.T. 395.)

396.)

397.)

398.)

399.)

JAR-ATPL


Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats. In which of the following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs? a)

hexadecimal

b)

geographic coordinates

c)

bearing and distance

d)

by waypoints name

The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called: a)

compass deviation

b)

alignment error

c)

magnetic variation

d)

compass error

The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface where: a)

a position where the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is a maximum

b)

the value of magnetic variation equals 90°

c)

a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal

d)

a freely suspended compass needle would stand vertical

On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are: a)

parallel, unequally spaced, vertical straight lines

b)

inclined, unequally spaced, curved lines that meet at the nearer pole

c)

inclined, equally spaced, straight lines that meet at the nearer pole

d)

parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines

On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the north or south poles? a)

Lambert's conformal

b)

Direct Mercator

c)

Transverse Mercator

d)

Polar stereographic


page: 98

C.A.T. 400.)

401.)

402.)

403.)

404.)

JAR-ATPL


Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is correct? a)

They are all curves concave to the equator

b)

They approximate to straight lines between the standard parallels

c)

With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the equator

d)

They are all curves convex to the equator

On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of degrees apart: a)

expands between, and reduces outside, the standard parallels

b)

reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallels

c)

is constant throughout the chart

d)

is constant between, and expands outside, the standard parallels

Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the pole ? a)

The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line

b)

Any straight line is a great circle

c)

They are curves convex to the Pole

d)

They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Pole

Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart? a)

Straight lines

b)

Curves concave to the Pole

c)

Curves convex to the Pole

d)

Ellipses around the Pole

What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart? a)

1.0

b)

0.0

c)

0.866

d)

0.5


page: 99

C.A.T. 405.)

406.)

407.)

JAR-ATPL


On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are: a)

curves concave to the equator

b)

curves convex to the equator

c)

ellipses

d)

straight lines

A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and: a)

fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained

b)

fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained

c)

set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway

d)

fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained

A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1: 1 000 000 at 60°N. The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is: a)

66.7 cm

b)

36.0 cm

c)

33.4 cm

d)

38.5 cm


page: 100

C.A.T. 408.)

409.)

410.)

411.)

JAR-ATPL


Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an angle of 35° with longitude 026°E. Variation at A is 3°E. What is the initial magnetic track from A to B? a)

038°

b)

032°

c)

322°

d)

328°

Given: Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1: 200 000 at equator; Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm. What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'? a)

14 NM

b)

22 NM

c)

21 NM

d)

12 NM

An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from way-point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units (CDU) shows: - XTK on INS 1 = 0 - XTK on INS 2 = 8L (XTK = cross track) From this information it can be deduced that: a)

only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting

b)

at least one of the inertial navigation systems is drifting

c)

only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting

d)

the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the radial and DME distance from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220 W00810? a)

014° - 33 NM

b)

220° - 40 NM

c)

048° - 40 NM

d)

030° - 33 NM


page: 101

C.A.T. 412.)

413.)

414.)

415.)

JAR-ATPL



295° - 38 NM

b)

170° - 22 NM

c)

311° - 38 NM

d)

350° - 22 NM


023° - 48 NM

b)

017° - 43 NM

c)

039° - 48 NM

d)

024° - 43 NM


104° - 76 NM

b)

106° - 38 NM

c)

293° - 39 NM

d)

113° - 38 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the radial and DME distance from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300 W00940? a)

057° - 27 NM

b)

293° - 33 NM

c)

324° - 17 NM

d)

309° - 33 NM


page: 102

C.A.T. 416.)

417.)

418.)

419.)

JAR-ATPL



207° - 31 NM

b)

070° - 58 NM

c)

035° - 30 NM

d)

019° - 31 NM


139° - 35 NM

b)

129° - 46 NM

c)

212° - 26 NM

d)

132° - 36 NM


214° - 37 NM

b)

354° - 34 NM

c)

346° - 34 NM

d)

198° - 37 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the radial and DME distance from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430 W00900? a)

358° - 36 NM

b)

049° - 45 NM

c)

214° - 26 NM

d)

169° - 35 NM


page: 103

C.A.T. 420.)

421.)

422.)

423.)

JAR-ATPL



094° - 64 NM

b)

320° - 8 NM

c)

088° - 29 NM

d)

260° - 30 NM


119° - 42 NM

b)

140° - 23 NM

c)

311° - 22 NM

d)

240° - 24 NM


165° - 27 NM

b)

025° - 38 NM

c)

233° - 35 NM

d)

335° - 43 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710? a)

320° - 44 NM

b)

236° - 44 NM

c)

223° - 36 NM

d)

333° - 36 NM


page: 104

C.A.T. 424.)

425.)

426.)

427.)

JAR-ATPL



090° - 46 NM

b)

098° - 45 NM

c)

278° - 10 NM

d)

278° - 44 NM


296° - 65 NM

b)

315° - 34 NM

c)

222° - 48 NM

d)

126° - 33 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5)? a)

090° - 91 NM

b)

098° - 90 NM

c)

278° - 90 NM

d)

270° - 89 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)? a)

357° - 89 NM

b)

169° - 91 NM

c)

177° - 92 NM

d)

349° - 90 NM


page: 105

C.A.T. 428.)

429.)

430.)

431.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0)? a)

142° - 95 NM

b)

315° - 94 NM

c)

322° - 95 NM

d)

135° - 96 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9)? a)

018° - 153 NM

b)

026° - 71 NM

c)

206° - 71 NM

d)

198° - 72 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)? a)

197° - 71 NM

b)

017° - 70 NM

c)

205° - 71 NM

d)

025° - 70 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)? a)

316° - 96 NM

b)

308° - 98 NM

c)

262° - 86 NM

d)

128° - 99 NM


page: 106

C.A.T. 432.)

433.)

434.)

435.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°M) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)? a)

238° - 130 NM

b)

058° - 128 NM

c)

229° - 125 NM

d)

089° - 95 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7 W00613.8)? a)

293° - 98 NM

b)

113° - 97 NM

c)

063° - 101 NM

d)

071° - 100 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)? a)

348° - 46 NM

b)

191° - 45 NM

c)

011° - 47 NM

d)

020° - 46 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0 W00911.7)? a)

294° - 80 NM

b)

075° - 81 NM

c)

286° - 81 NM

d)

277° - 83 NM


page: 107

C.A.T. 436.)

437.)

438.)

439.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0)? a)

336° - 137 NM

b)

156° - 136 NM

c)

344° - 139 NM

d)

164° - 138 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1)? a)

002° - 72 NM

b)

010° - 71 NM

c)

006° - 71 NM

d)

358° - 72 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5)? a)

278° - 89 NM

b)

270° - 90 NM

c)

272° - 89 NM

d)

268° - 91 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6 W00820.4)? a)

327° - 124 NM

b)

325° - 128 NM

c)

320° - 127 NM

d)

335° - 128 NM


page: 108

C.A.T. 440.)

441.)

442.)

443.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What is the average track (°T) and distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6 W00738.7)? a)

031° - 81 NM

b)

044° - 82 NM

c)

035° - 80 NM

d)

042° - 83 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223°, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5230 W00910

b)

N5220 W00920

c)

N5210 W00930

d)

N5210 W00910


N5118 W00913

b)

N5205 W00915

c)

N5215 W00917

d)

N5210 W00910


N5230 W00800

b)

N5240 W00750

c)

N5225 W00805

d)

N5220 W00750


page: 109

C.A.T. 444.)

445.)

446.)

447.)

JAR-ATPL



N5220 W00750

b)

N5205 W00755

c)

N5215 W00755

d)

N5210 W00750


N5205 W00805

b)

N5200 W00800

c)

N5155 W00810

d)

N5210 W00800

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°/35 NM. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5230 W00800

b)

N5250 W00950

c)

N5300 W00945

d)

N5225 W00805


N5317 W00908

b)

N5210 W00830

c)

N5208 W00840

d)

N5315 W00915


page: 110

C.A.T. 448.)

449.)

450.)

JAR-ATPL



N5303 W00810

b)

N5220 W00930

c)

N5305 W00815

d)

N5228 W00935


N5328 W00820

b)

N5155 W00915

c)

N5200 W0925

d)

N5330 W00830


N5300 W0830

b)

N5225 W00917

c)

N5228 W00920

d)

N5258 W00825


page: 111

C.A.T. 451.)

452.)

453.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7 Aircraft position N5220 W00910 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? a)

SHA 205° CRK 321°

b)

SHA 214° CRK 330°

c)

SHA 033° CRK 149°

d)

SHA 025° CRK 141°


SHA 304° CRK 189°

b)

SHA 124° CRK 009°

c)

SHA 131° CRK 017°

d)

SHA 312° CRK 197°


SHA 068° CRK 145°

b)

SHA 240° CRK 137°

c)

SHA 060° CRK 138°

d)

SHA 248° CRK 325°


page: 112

C.A.T. 454.)

455.)

456.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1 Aircraft position N5330 W00800 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? a)

SHA 221° CON 318°

b)

SHA 213° CON 310°

c)

SHA 033° CON 130°

d)

SHA 042° CON 138°

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1 Aircraft position N5320 W00950 Which of the following lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? a)

SHA 317° CON 226°

b)

SHA 145° CON 055°

c)

SHA 325° CON 235°

d)

SHA 137° CON 046°

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM, Aircraft heading 270°(M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5215 W00745

b)

N5235 W00750

c)

N5215 W00940

d)

N5200 W00935


page: 113

C.A.T. 457.)

458.)

459.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM, CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM, Aircraft heading 270°(M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5215 W00915

b)

N5215 W00805

c)

N5205 W00915

d)

N5225 W00810

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM, Aircraft heading 270°(M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5310 W00830

b)

N5252 W00923

c)

N5355 W00825

d)

N5307 W00923

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM, Aircraft heading 090°(M), Both DME distances increasing. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5310 W00820

b)

N5305 W00930

c)

N5255 W00815

d)

N5250 W0030


page: 114

C.A.T. 460.)

461.)

462.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM, CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM, Aircraft heading 270°(M), Both DME distances decreasing. What is the aircraft position? a)

N5337 W00820

b)

N5335 W00925

c)

N5330 W00820

d)

N5343 W00925

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4) What is the CRK radial and DME distance when overhead Kerry aerodrome? a)

299° - 42 NM

b)

119° - 44 NM

c)

127° - 45 NM

d)

307° - 43 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754) What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Birr aerodrome? a)

248° - 42 NM

b)

240° - 41 NM

c)

068° - 41 NM

d)

060° - 42 Nm


page: 115

C.A.T. 463.)

464.)

465.)

466.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928) What is the SHA radial and DME distance when overhead Connemara aerodrome? a)

333° - 37 NM

b)

154° - 38 NM

c)

326° - 37 NM

d)

146° - 38 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917) What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome? a)

257° - 17 NM

b)

077° - 18 NM

c)

265° - 17 NM

d)

086° - 18 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Given: CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739) What is the CON radial and DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome? a)

116° - 47 NM

b)

304° - 47 NM

c)

296° - 46 NM

d)

123° - 46 NM

(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211 W00931? a)

Connemara aerodrome

b)

KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome

c)

Punchestown aerodrome

d)

Waterford NDB


page: 116

C.A.T. 467.)

468.)

469.)

470.)

JAR-ATPL




b)

Clonbullogue aerodrome

c)

WTD NDB

d)

TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB



b)

Punchestown aerodrome

c)

Connemara aerodrome

d)



Castlebar aerodrome

b)

Brittas Bay aerodrome

c)

Connaught aerodrome

d)

Connemara aerodrome


Belmullet aerodrome

b)


c)

EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB

d)

Carnmore aerodrome


page: 117

C.A.T. 471.)

472.)

473.)

474.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7? a)

VOR: DME: NDB: ILS

b)

civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting point

c)

VOR: DME: NDB:compulsory reporting point

d)

civil airport: VOR: non-compulsory reporting point


military airport: VOR: NDB

b)

military airport: VOR: DME

c)

civil airport: VOR: DME

d)

VOR: DME: danger area


civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point

b)

VOR: DME: NDB: non-compulsory reporting point

c)

civil airport: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting point

d)

VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point


civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point

b)


c)

civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point

d)



page: 118

C.A.T. 475.)

476.)

477.)

478.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 061-12549A to 061-12613A) Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5211 W00705? a)

civil airport: ILS

b)

VOR: NDB

c)

NDB: ILS

d)

civil airport: NDB; ILS

(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR/DME? a)

2

b)

7

c)

1

d)

6

(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a DME? a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

6

(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VOR? a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

6


page: 119

C.A.T. 479.)

480.)

481.)

482.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an NDB? a)

4

b)

3

c)

6

d)

2

(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a basic, non-specified, navigation aid? a)

6

b)

2

c)

5

d)

3

(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a TACAN? a)

7

b)

2

c)

6

d)

1

(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A to 061-12620A) Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a VORTAC? a)

7

b)

1

c)

3

d)

6


page: 120

C.A.T. 483.)

484.)

485.)

486.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight Information Region (FIR) boundary? a)

3

b)

5

c)

1

d)

4

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control Zone boundary? a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

4

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an uncontrolled route? a)

5

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary of advisory airspace? a)

4

b)

5

c)

3

d)

2


page: 121

C.A.T. 487.)

488.)

489.)

490.)

491.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non-compulsory reporting point? a)

7

b)

8

c)

15

d)

6

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a compulsory reporting point? a)

15

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point? a)

6

b)

15

c)

7

d)

8

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted obstacle? a)

10

b)

12

c)

9

d)

11

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted obstacle? a)

11

b)

9

c)

10

d)

12


page: 122

C.A.T. 492.)

493.)

494.)

495.)

496.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of unlighted obstacles? a)

9

b)

11

c)

12

d)

13

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of lighted obstacles? a)

11

b)

12

c)

10

d)

9

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high unlighted obstacle? a)

11

b)

9

c)

14

d)

13

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an exceptionally high lighted obstacle? a)

13

b)

10

c)

14

d)

12

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 15? a)

Aeronautical ground light

b)

Visual reference point

c)

Hazard to aerial navigation

d)

Lighthouse


page: 123

C.A.T. 497.)

498.)

499.)

500.)

501.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No. 16? a)

Lightship

b)

Off-shore helicopter landing platform

c)

Off-shore lighthouse

d)

Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an aeronautical ground light? a)

15

b)

10

c)

14

d)

16

(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A to 061-12638A) Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship? a)

10

b)

16

c)

14

d)

12

The purpose of the TAS input, from the air data computer, to the Inertial Navigation System is for: a)

the calculation of wind velocity

b)

position update in Attitude mode

c)

position update in Navigation mode

d)

the calculation of drift

The full alignment of the stable platform of an Inertial Navigation System: a)

may be carried out at any time so long as an accurate position is inserted into the system.

b)

may be carried out during any phase of flight

c)

is only possible on the ground when the aircraft is at a complete stop

d)

may be carried out on the ground or when in straight and level flight


page: 124

C.A.T. 502.)

503.)

504.)

505.)

506.)

JAR-ATPL


After alignment of the stable platform of an Inertial Navigation System, the output data from the platform is: a)

latitude, longitude and attitude

b)

acceleration north/south and east/west and true heading

c)

acceleration north/south and east/west, attitude and true heading

d)

latitude, longitude and true heading

After alignment of the stable platform of the Inertial Navigation System, the output data from the INS computer to the platform is: a)

accelerations from the accelerometers

b)

latitude and longitude

c)

rate corrections to the gyros

d)

attitude

Inertial Reference System sensors include: a)

laser gyros mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis

b)

accelerometers mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis

c)

one east-west and one north-south gyro; one east-west and one north-south accelerometer

d)

accelerometers, and laser gyros, mounted in the direction of the aircraft axis

The data that needs to be inserted into an Inertial Reference System in order to enable the system to make a successful alignment for navigation is: a)

aircraft position in latitude and longitude

b)

aircraft heading

c)

the position of an in-range DME

d)

airport ICAO identifier

In an Inertial Reference System, accelerations are measured in relation to: a)

the direction of true north

b)

local vertical at the aircraft position

c)

aircraft axis

d)

WGS 84 Earth co-ordinates


page: 125

C.A.T. 507.)

508.)

509.)

510.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft is flying at FL150, with an outside air temperature of -30°, above an airport where the elevation is 1660 ft and the QNH is 993 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. (Assume 30 ft = 1 hPa) a)

15 210 ft

b)

14 120 ft

c)

17 160 ft

d)

13 660 ft

An aircraft must fly 2000 ft above an obstacle of which the elevation is 13 600 ft. The QHN at the nearest airfield is 991 hPa, the elevation is 1500 ft and the temperature is 20°C. Calculate the minimum altitude required. a)

14 080 ft

b)

15 600 ft

c)

19 400 ft

d)

17 300 ft

In 8 hours and 8 minutes the mean sun has moved how many degrees (°) along the celestial equator? a)

122°

b)

18°

c)

56°

d)

148°

The great circle bearing of position B from position A in the Northern Hemisphere is 040°. If the Conversion Angle is 4°, what is the great circle bearing of A from B? a)

220°

b)

228°

c)

224°

d)

212°


page: 126

C.A.T. 511.)

512.)

513.)

514.)

515.)

JAR-ATPL


A great circle on the Earth running from the North Pole to the South Pole is called: a)

a parallel of latitude.

b)

a difference of longitude.

c)

a longitude.

d)

a meridian.

How many small circles can be drawn between any two points on a sphere? a)

None.

b)

Two.

c)

One.

d)

An unlimited number.

How does the convergency of any two meridians on the Earth change with varying latitude? a)

It changes as cosine of latitude.

b)

It changes as sine of latitude.

c)

It is of constant value and does not change with latitude.

d)

It increases with decrease of latitude.

In which occasions does the rhumb line track and the great circle track coincide on the surface of the Earth? a)

On East - West tracks in the northern hemisphere north of the magnetic equator.

b)

On high latitude tracks directly East - West.

c)

On tracks directly North - South and on East - West tracks along the Equator.

d)

On East - West tracks in polar areas.

What is the rhumb line distance, in nautical miles, between two positions on latitude 60°N, that are separated by 10° of longitude? a)

520 NM

b)

866 NM

c)

600 NM

d)

300 NM


page: 127

C.A.T. 516.)

517.)

518.)

519.)

520.)

JAR-ATPL


The initial great circle track from A to B is 080° and the rhumb line track is 083°. What is the initial great circle track from B to A and in which Hemisphere are the two positions located? a)

260° and in the southern hemisphere.

b)

266° and in the southern hemisphere.

c)

260° and in the northern hemisphere.

d)

266° and in the northern hemisphere.

If you are flying along a parallel of latitude, you are flying: a)

a great circle track.

b)

a rhumb line track.

c)

on a north - south track.

d)

on a track which is constantly changing direction.

In the Northern Hemisphere the rhumb line track from position A to B is 230°, the covergency is 6° and the difference in longitude is 10°. What is the initial rhumb line track from B to A? a)

056°

b)

053°

c)

050°

d)

047°

What is the length of one degree of longitude at latitude 60° South? a)

30 NM

b)

52 NM

c)

90 NM

d)

60 NM

The distance along a meridian between 63°55'N and 13°47'S is: a)

7702 NM

b)

5008 NM

c)

3008 NM

d)

4662 NM


page: 128

C.A.T. 521.)

JAR-ATPL


When flying on a westerly great circle track in the Southern Hemisphere you will: a)

always have the rhumb line track between the departure point and the destination to

b)

the left of your great circle track.

c)

fly a spiral and finally end up at the south pole.

d)

experience an increase in the value of true track.

experience a decrease in the value of true track.

522.)

523.)

524.)

525.)

Which of the following alternatives is correct when you cross the international date line? a)

The date will increase if you are crossing on a easterly heading.

b)

If you are crossing from westerly longitude to easterly longitude the date will remain the same.

c)

The date will always be the same.

d)

The date will increase if you are crossing on a westerly heading.

When the time is 2000 UTC, it is: a)

0800 LMT at the Prime meridian.

b)

2400 LMT at 120° West.

c)

1200 LMT at 60° East.

d)


When the time is 1400 LMT at 90° West, it is: a)


b)

0600 LMT at the Prime meridian.

c)

1400 LMT at 90° East.

d)


If the Compass Heading is 265°, variation is 33° W and deviation is 3°E, what is the True Heading? a)

295°

b)

229°

c)

235°

d)

301°


page: 129

C.A.T. 526.)

527.)

528.)

529.)

530.)

JAR-ATPL


How does the chart convergency change with latitude in a Lambert Conformal projection? a)

It changes with sine of latitude.

b)

It changes with cosine of latitude.

c)

It is constant and does not change with latitude.

d)

It increases with increase of latitude.

On a Direct Mercator projection a particular chart length is measured at 30°N. What earth distance will the same chart length be if measured at 60°N? a)

A smaller distance.

b)

Twice the distance.

c)

The same distance.

d)

A larger distance.

Where on a Direct Mercator projection is the chart convergency correct compared to the earth convergency? a)

At the two parallels of tangency.

b)

At the poles.

c)

At the equator.

d)

All over the chart.

A rhumb line on a Direct Mercator chart appears as a: a)

straight line.

b)

complex curve.

c)

small circle concave to the nearer pole.

d)

curve convex to the nearer pole.

On a chart a straight line is drawn between two points and has a length of 4.63 cm. What is the chart scale if the line represents 150 NM? a)

1 : 3 000 000

b)

1 : 1 000 000

c)

1 : 5 000 000

d)

1 : 6 000 000


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C.A.T. 531.)

532.)

533.)

534.)

535.)

JAR-ATPL


If the chart scale is 1 : 500 000, what earth distance would be represented by 7 cm on the chart? a)

0.35 km

b)

3.5 km

c)

35 NM

d)

35 000 m

Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is Indicated Airspeed (IAS) corrected for: a)

instrument error and position error.

b)

temperature and pressure error.

c)


d)

density.

Grid heading is 299°, grid convergency is 55° West and magnetic variation is 90° West. What is the corresponding magnetic heading? a)

154°

b)

334°

c)

084°

d)

264°

An aircraft is flying at FL180 and the outside air temperature is -30°C. If the CAS is 150 kt, what is the TAS? a)

195 kt

b)

155 kt

c)

180 kt

d)

115 kt

True Heading of an aircraft is 265° and TAS is 290 kt. If W/V is 210°/35kt, what is True Track and GS? a)

260° and 315kt

b)

259° and 305kt

c)

271° and 272kt

d)

259° and 272kt


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C.A.T. 536.)

537.)

538.)

539.)

JAR-ATPL


Given: True Track 239° True Heading 229° TAS 555 kt G/S 577 kt Calculate the wind velocity. a)

165°/100kt

b)

130°/100kt

c)

300°/100kt

d)

310°/100kt

Given: True Track 245° Drift 5° right Variation 3° E Compass Hdg 242° Calculate the Magnetic Heading. a)

253°

b)

237°

c)

247°

d)

243°

Given: True Track 245° Drift 5° right Variation 3° E Compass Hdg 242° Calculate the deviation. a)

1° E

b)

11° E

c)

5° E

d)

5° W

The distance between point of departure and destination is 340 NM and wind velocity in the whole area is 100°/25kt. TAS is 140kt, True Track is 135° and safe endurance 3 hr and 10 min. How long will it take to reach the Point of Safe Return? a)

5 hr and 30 min

b)

1 hr and 37 min

c)

1 hr and 49 min

d)

1 hr and 21 min


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JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 062 F-NAV

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

If a failed RMI rose is stuck on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°, the relative bearing to the station will be: a)

135°.

b)

315°.

c)

225°.

d)

Impossible to read, due to the RMI failure.

A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial: a)

185°

b)

195°

c)

190°

d)

180°

A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370 in ISA conditions which is 15 NM away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of: a)

15 NM

b)

17 NM

c)

16 NM

d)

14 NM

Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground speed? a)

An ADF sited on the flight route

b)

A DME station sited across the flight route

c)

A DME station sited on the flight route

d)

A VOR station sited on the flight route


page: 1

C.A.T. 005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is: a)

1300 Hz, blue

b)

3000 Hz, blue

c)

400 Hz, amber

d)

400 Hz, blue

062 F-NAV

An RMI indicates aircraft heading and bearing. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is: a)

NDB: beacon position VOR: aircraft position

b)

NDB: beacon position VOR: beacon position

c)

NDB: aircraft position VOR: aircraft position

d)

NDB: aircraft position VOR: beacon position

An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E. The aircraft is on VOR radial: a)

255°

b)

262°

c)

278°

d)

285°

Given: Magnetic heading 280° VOR radial 090° What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a "TO" indication? a)

090°

b)

280°

c)

100°

d)

270°


page: 2

C.A.T. 009.)

010.)

011.)

012.)

JAR-ATPL


A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W. An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W. The aircraft is on VOR radial: a)

360

b)

180

c)

212

d)

208

In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation: a)

at both the VOR and aircraft

b)

at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station

c)

at the VOR

d)

at the aircraft location

An aeroplane flies over position A which is due North of a VOR station sited at position B. The magnetic variation at A is 18°W, and at B is 10°W. What radial from B is the aircraft on? a)

018°

b)

350°

c)

342°

d)

010°

An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from the ground because: a)

the pulse recurrence rates are varied

b)

DME transmits twin pulses

c)

they are not on the receiver frequency

d)

DME uses the UHF band


page: 3

C.A.T. 013.)

014.)

015.)

016.)

JAR-ATPL


The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following frequencies: a)

329 to 335 MHz

b)

962 to 1213 kHz.

c)

962 to 1213 MHz

d)

108 to 118 MHz

A DME is located at MSL. An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately: a)

8 NM

b)

7 NM

c)

6 NM

d)

11 NM

During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from a DME station located approximately 220 NM away. The reason for this is that the: a)

altitude is too high

b)

aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude

c)

range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM

d)

aeroplane is circling around the station

What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a minimum distance of 10 NM? a)

3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

b)

0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

c)

1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the localiser centreline

d)

0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline


page: 4

C.A.T. 017.)

018.)

019.)

020.)

JAR-ATPL


When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional information transmitted is: a)

altitude based on regional QNH

b)

flight level based on 1013.25 hPa

c)

height based on QFE

d)

aircraft height based on sub-scale setting

The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies: Transmitter

Receiver

a)

1090 MHz

1090 MHz

b)

1090 MHz

1030 MHz

c)

1030 MHz

1090 MHz

d)

1030 MHz

1030 MHz

Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of light is 300 000 km/second) a)

1333 km

b)

666 km

c)

333 km

d)

150 km

What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL? a)

150 NM

b)

180 NM

c)

220 NM

d)

120 NM


page: 5

C.A.T. 021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

JAR-ATPL


In ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can expect to obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility sited 325 ft above MSL ? a)

114 NM

b)

134 NM

c)

107 NM

d)

158 NM

A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM? a)

Eight

b)

Four

c)

Six

d)

Two

'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is due to: a)

static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band

b)

the effect of the Aurora Borealis

c)

interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB

d)

skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk

Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by: a)

skywave/groundwave contamination

b)

misalignment of the loop aerial

c)

signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces

d)

signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring


page: 6

C.A.T. 025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

029.)

JAR-ATPL


Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB is: a)

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

b)

near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle

c)

inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

d)

near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: a)

difference in depth of modulation

b)

phase comparison

c)

beat frequency discrimination

d)

envelope matching

Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions? a)

UHF

b)

SHF

c)

VHF

d)

HF

Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by: a)

night effect

b)

uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces

c)

quadrantal error

d)

static interference

If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be caused by: a)

sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency

b)

interference from other transmitters

c)

sky wave interference from the same transmitter

d)

noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter


page: 7

C.A.T. 030.)

031.)

032.)

033.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide) a)

4.5

b)

6.0

c)

1.5

d)

3.0

An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is approximately: a)

105 NM

b)

165 NM

c)

50 NM

d)

210 NM

An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator? a)

104° with the TO flag showing

b)

284° with the FROM flag showing

c)


d)


An aircraft, on a heading of 180°M is on a bearing of 270°M from a VOR. The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation needle is: a)

090°

b)

270°

c)

360°

d)

180°


page: 8

C.A.T. 034.)

035.)

036.)

037.)

038.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to: a)


b)


c)


d)


What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL? a)

184 NM

b)

220 NM

c)

156 NM

d)

147 NM

A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is: a)

10 MHz

b)

100 GHz

c)

100 MHz

d)

1000 MHz

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the: a)

SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques

b)

UHF band and uses one frequency

c)

VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison

d)

UHF band and uses two frequencies

For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the number of aircraft interrogations exceeds: a)

80

b)

60

c)

100

d)

200


page: 9

C.A.T. 039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

JAR-ATPL


The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because: a)

aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each other

b)

the time interval between pulse pairs is unique to that particular aircraft

c)

pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration

d)

transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft

The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the ground because: a)

DME pulse recurrence rates are varied

b)

aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different frequencies

c)

reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift

d)

DME transmits twin pulses

The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should not exceed: a)

+ or - 0.25 NM

b)

+ or - 1.25 NM

c)

+ or - 3 NM

d)

+ or - 1.5 NM

In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400? a)

When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more

b)

When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it

c)

When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit

d)

When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM


page: 10

C.A.T. 043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

JAR-ATPL


The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay. The slant range from the ground transponder was: a)

158 NM

b)

186 NM

c)

296 NM

d)

330 NM

The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during good weather operations is: a)

heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals

b)

aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals

c)

to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions

d)

to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations

Which of the following correctly describes the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser radiation pattern? a)

Two overlapping lobes on the same UHF carrier frequency

b)

A pencil beam comprising a series of smaller beams each carrying a different modulation

c)

Two overlapping lobes on the same VHF carrier frequency

d)

Two overlapping lobes on different radio carrier frequencies but with the same modulation

An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: a)

only glide path information is available

b)

will receive signals without identification coding

c)

may receive false course indications

d)

can expect signals to give correct indications


page: 11

C.A.T. 047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

JAR-ATPL


The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series of: a)

alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing

b)

dots and a white light flashing

c)

dashes and an amber light flashing

d)

two dashes per second and a blue light flashing

The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of: a)

75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

b)

300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second

c)

75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second

d)

200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? a)

600 FT/MIN

b)

550 FT/MIN

c)

950 FT/MIN

d)

800 FT/MIN

Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order to: a)

detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large

b)

transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range

c)

obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam

d)

detect the larger water droplets

The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to: a)

inhibit unwanted ground returns

b)

give an indication of cloud tops

c)

extend the mapping range

d)

detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud


page: 12

C.A.T. 052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a: a)

pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM

b)

pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM

c)

fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range

d)

fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM

062 F-NAV

Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather radar when using the 'weather beam'? a)

altostratus

b)

cirrocumulus

c)

stratus

d)

cumulus

Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter? a)

A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns

b)

The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources

c)

The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar

d)

The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources

In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to code: a)

7000

b)

7600

c)

7500

d)

7700

In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to: a)

7000

b)

7600

c)

7500

d)

7700


page: 13

C.A.T. 057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

JAR-ATPL


An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur when: a)

the receiver moves towards the transmitter

b)

the transmitter moves towards the receiver

c)

the transmitter moves away from the receiver

d)

both transmitter and receiver move towards each other

An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The available information from the VOR is: a)

Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°

b)

Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown

c)

Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°

d)

Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown

The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM represents a width of: a)

2.5 NM

b)

2.0 NM

c)

3.5 NM

d)

3.0 NM

An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing: a)

left drift

b)

a wind from the west

c)

zero drift

d)

right drift


page: 14

C.A.T. 061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

065.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316° from an aircraft. Given: Compass heading 270° At aircraft deviation 2°W, Variation 30° At station Variation 28°E, Calculate the true bearing of the NDB from the aircraft a)

254°

b)

074°

c)

072°

d)

252°

062 F-NAV

In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate? a)

UHF

b)

SHF

c)

VHF

d)

EHF

A Primary radar operates on the principle of: a)

pulse technique

b)

continuous wave transmission

c)

transponder interrogation

d)

phase comparison

What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ? a)

8m

b)

8000 m

c)

80 m

d)

800 m

In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit? a)

EHF

b)

UHF

c)

VHF

d)

SHF


page: 15

C.A.T. 066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy? a)

Frequency drift at the ground station

b)

Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night

c)

Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day

d)

Mutual interference between aircraft aerials

Assuming a five dot display on either side of the CDI on the ILS localiser cockpit display, what does each of the dots represent approximately ?: a)

1.5 degrees

b)

0.5 degrees

c)

2.0 degrees

d)

2.5 degrees

Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of: a)

1300 Hz

b)

400 Hz

c)

3000 Hz

d)

2000 Hz

In order to enter a phantom waypoint that is designated by a VOR/DME simple RNAV system, the VOR/DME a)

does not have to be in range when entered or used

b)

has to be positively identified by one of the pilots

c)

must be in range

d)

does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used

An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station? a)

SW

b)

SE

c)

NE

d)

NW


page: 16

C.A.T. 071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

JAR-ATPL


An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial? a)

less than 10°

b)

10° or more

c)

2.5 or more

d)

1.5° or more

In accordance with Doc 8168, a pilot flying an NDB approach must achieve a tracking accuracy within……… of the published approach track. a)

+/-2°

b)

+/-10°

c)

+/-2.5°

d)

+/-5°

What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix? a)

4

b)

5

c)

3

d)

6

In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz? a)

Decca

b)

Doppler

c)

GPS

d)

Loran C


page: 17

C.A.T. 075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon? a)

amber - white - green

b)

blue - amber - white

c)

blue - green - white

d)

white - amber – blue

Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct? a)

It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of four ground stations

b)

It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential range by pulse technique

c)

It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles; position lines are obtained in sequence from up to eight ground stations

d)

It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by phase comparison

In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained by: a)

timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the aircraft's receiver

b)

the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a minimum number of satellites

c)

timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a satellite in a known position

d)

the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a known position

In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position information that is available to civil aircraft? a)

UHF

b)

EHF

c)

VHF

d)

SHF


page: 18

C.A.T. 079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

JAR-ATPL


The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are: a)

the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using TCAS II

b)

collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.

c)

air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability

d)

continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance using TCAS II

Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)? a)

It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not possible to use an ILS

b)

It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter

c)

There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available

d)

The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to determine range

A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne weather radar system because: a)

the larger water droplets will give good echoes

b)

static interference is minimised

c)

enables the aircraft to detect clear air turbulence

d)

greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets

What is the minimum number of satellites required for the NAVSTAR/GPS to carry out two dimensional operation? a)

5

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3


page: 19

C.A.T. 083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

JAR-ATPL


In an Airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on the screen by: a)

colour zones of green and yellow

b)

areas which are coloured black

c)

colour zones of red and magenta

d)

blank areas where there is no colour

The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fanshaped horizontal approach zone which is usually: a)

+ or - 60° of the runway centre-line

b)


c)


d)


Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna stabilisation axes? a)

pitch and yaw

b)

roll and pitch

c)

roll, pitch and yaw

d)

roll and yaw

In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from: a)

green to red to black

b)

yellow to orange to red

c)

yellow to amber to blue

d)

green to yellow to red


page: 20

C.A.T. 087.)

088.)

089.)

090.)

JAR-ATPL


When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight level in increments of: a)

250 FT

b)

150 FT

c)

100 FT

d)

200 FT

Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is correct? a)

The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal

b)

The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates

c)

The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it rotates

d)

The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes? a)

DME/DME

b)

NDB/VOR

c)

VOR/DME

d)

VOR/VOR

A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately: a)

135 NM

b)

27 NM

c)

270 NM

d)

69 NM


page: 21

C.A.T. 091.)

JAR-ATPL


The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is: 190 NM 170 NM 230 NM 151 NM

092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C navigation system? a)

Differential range by phase comparison

b)

Differential range by pulse technique

c)

Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions

d)

Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions

The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is: a)

1120 +/- 0.6 MHz

b)

1030 +/- 0.2 MHz

c)

1090 +/- 0.3 MHz

d)

1050 +/- 0.5 MHz

Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment? a)

Elapsed time on route.

b)

ATA

c)

ETD

d)

ETO

The Doppler Navigation System is based on: a)

radar principles using frequency shift

b)

radio waves refraction in the ionosphere

c)

phase comparison from ground station transmissions

d)

Doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System


page: 22

C.A.T. 096.)

097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

JAR-ATPL


The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse: a)

repetition rate

b)

length

c)

amplitude

d)

frequency

Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is: (pps = pulses per second) a)

405 pps

b)

375 pps

c)

308 pps

d)

782 pps

Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers? a)

300 - 3000 kHz

b)

200 - 2000 kHz

c)

255 - 455 kHz

d)

190 - 1750 kHz

ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not exceed: a)

+ or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater

b)

+ or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured

c)

+ or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM

d)

+ or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured

In order to obtain an ADF bearing on a system using sense and loop aerials, the: a)

signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials

b)

sense aerial must be tuned separately

c)

BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'

d)

mode selector should be switched to 'loop'


page: 23

C.A.T. 101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

JAR-ATPL


Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an approximate: a)

increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

b)

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

c)

increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN

d)

decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN

MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of: a)

+ or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM

b)


c)


d)


Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) ......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen. a)

(i) SHF

(ii) 60

(iii) sometimes

b)

(i) SHF

(ii) 10

(iii) always

c)

(i) EHF

(ii) 30

(iii) never

d)

(i) EHF

(ii) 100 (iii) never

Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ….. ° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) …. NM minimum from the threshold. a)

(i) 8

(ii) 10

b)

(i) 35

(ii) 25

c)

(i) 5

(ii) 8

d)

(i) 25

(ii) 17


page: 24

C.A.T. 105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

109.)

JAR-ATPL


The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately: a)

850 FT/MIN

b)

760 FT/MIN

c)

700 FT/MIN

d)

670 FT/MIN

Airborne weather radars are generally based on the use of: a)

secondary radar in the VHF band

b)

primary radar in the UHF band

c)

secondary radar in the SHF band

d)

primary radar in the SHF band

The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the mapping mode for the determination of ground features: a)

beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower beam

b)

beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode

c)

when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

d)

beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition

Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include: a)

static interference - station interference - latitude error

b)

static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system

c)

height error - station interference - mountain effect

d)

coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect

The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is: (pps = pulses per second) a)

3240 pps

b)

1620 pps

c)

610 pps

d)

713 pps


page: 25

C.A.T. 110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

JAR-ATPL


Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of: a)

3000

b)

330

c)

6000

d)

167

Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search radar? a)

long pulse length and wide beam

b)

short pulse length and wide beam

c)

long pulse length and narrow beam

d)

short pulse length and narrow beam

Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)? a)

Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation

b)

Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation

c)

Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to ground time lag

d)

Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation; satellite clock

In ISA conditions, approximately what is the maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may expect to receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level ? a)

204 NM

b)

183 NM

c)

245 NM

d)

163 NM


page: 26

C.A.T. 114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

JAR-ATPL


What are the modulation frequencies of the two overlapping lobes that are used on an ILS approach? a)

90 HZ 150 HZ

b)

328mHZ 335 mHZ

c)

75kHZ 135 kHZ

d)

63 mHZ 123 mHZ

An aircraftis flying a 3° glidepath and experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a decrease of approximately: a)

100 FT/MIN

b)

250 FT/MIN

c)

150 FT/MIN

d)

50 FT/MIN

The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)......... a)

(i) pulse length

(ii) pulse recurrence frequency

b)

(i) pulse length

(ii) length of the timebase

c)

(i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency

d)

(i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output

Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when: a)

the transmitter moves away from the receiver

b)

the transmitter moves toward the receiver

c)

there is no relative movement between the transmitter and the receiver

d)

the transmitter and receiver move towards each other


page: 27

C.A.T. 118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

JAR-ATPL


Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The number of satellites is: a)

5

b)

7

c)

4

d)

6

A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately: a)

27 NM

b)

270 NM

c)

67 NM

d)

135 NM

The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii).......... a)

(i) the same

(ii) modulation frequencies

b)

(i) different

(ii) phases

c)

(i) the same

(ii) phases

d)

(i) different

(ii) modulation frequencies

Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The number of satellites is: a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

5


page: 28

C.A.T. 122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

JAR-ATPL


Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally situated? a)

On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the extended centreline

b)

At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline

c)

At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the extended centreline

d)

At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown

In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant radiation pattern. a)

CONTOUR

b)

MANUAL

c)

MAPPING

d)

WEATHER

There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast. Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be: a)

greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

b)

greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland

c)

the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°

d)

the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°

If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a: a)

line of constant bearing

b)

great circle track

c)

constant magnetic track

d)

rhumbline track


page: 29

C.A.T. 126.)

127.)

128.)

129.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of: a)

123 NM

b)

113 NM

c)

90 NM

d)

98 NM

An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate maximum range of: a)

130 NM

b)

137 NM

c)

145 NM

d)

123 NM

What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL? a)

FL80

b)

FL50

c)

FL60

d)

FL100

An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly': a)

right with 'TO' showing

b)

left with 'TO' showing

c)

right with 'FROM' showing

d)

left with 'FROM' showing


page: 30

C.A.T. 130.)

131.)

132.)

133.)

134.)

JAR-ATPL


Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings? a)

Coastal effect

b)

Local thunderstorm activity

c)

Quadrantal error

d)

Precipitation interference

Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°. From/To indicator indicates "TO". CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft? a)

265

b)

095

c)

275

d)

085

Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ? a)

It is of no use to civil aviation

b)

It can provide DME distance

c)

It can provide a magnetic bearing

d)

It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing

The frequency range of a VOR receiver is: a)

108 to 111.95 MHz

b)

108 to 135.95 MHz

c)

118 to 135.95 MHz

d)

108 to 117.95 MHz

Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency? a)

109.15 MHz

b)

108.25 MHz

c)

110.20 MHz

d)

112.10 MHz


page: 31

C.A.T. 135.)

136.)

137.)

138.)

139.)

JAR-ATPL

The maximum range of primary radar depends on: a)

pulse recurrence frequency

b)

frequency

c)

wave length

d)

pulse length


A frequency of airborne weather radar is: a)

9375 MHz

b)

93.75 MHz

c)

9375 kHz

d)

9375 GHz

In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by: a)

measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver

b)

measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft's receiver

c)

measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites received in a specific sequential order

d)

the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of satellites in known positions

Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system? a)

978 - 1213 MHz

b)

90 - 110 kHz

c)

10.2 - 13.6 kHz

d)

1750 - 1950 kHz

GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals. Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation? a)

L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)

b)

L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)

c)

L1-precise (P)

d)

L2-for communications purpose


page: 32

C.A.T. 140.)

141.)

142.)

143.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the NAVSTAR/GPS receiver to calculate position (latitude, longitude and altitude)? a)

PZ 90

b)

ED 87

c)

WGS 84

d)

ED 50

Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites? a)

Latitude, longitude and time

b)

Latitude, longitude, altitude and time

c)

Latitude, longitude and altitude

d)

Latitude and longitude

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt? a)

400 FT/MIN

b)

450 FT/MIN

c)

700 FT/MIN

d)

600 FT/MIN

ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path: a)

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these

b)

outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids

c)

outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid

d)

within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid


page: 33

C.A.T. 144.)

145.)

146.)

147.)

148.)

JAR-ATPL

Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of: a)

+/- 5NM or better throughout the flight

b)

+/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time

c)


d)



The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is: a)

another source of aircraft position; it is independent of other navigation sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, etc)

b)

the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time

c)

the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)

d)

the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS

Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate: a)

warnings; cautions and abnormal sources

b)

warnings; flight envelope and system limits

c)

flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes

d)

cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes

Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate: a)

flight envelope and system limits

b)

warnings

c)

cautions, abnormal sources

d)

engaged modes

Under JAR-25 general colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic Flight Information System should indicate: a)

the earth

b)

the ILS deviation pointer

c)

engaged modes

d)

cautions, abnormal sources


page: 34

C.A.T. 149.)

150.)

151.)

152.)

JAR-ATPL


Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate: a)

engaged modes

b)

the flight director bar(s)

c)

flight envelope and system limits

d)

the sky

Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of precipitation are coloured in the order: a)

green, red, magenta, black

b)

green, amber/yellow, red, magenta

c)

black, amber/yellow, magenta, red

d)

amber/yellow, magenta, black

(For this question use annex 062-9905A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? a)

Figure 3

b)

Figure 2

c)

Figure 1

d)

Figure 4

(For this question use annex 062-9906A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? a)

Figure 3

b)

Figure 1

c)

Figure 2

d)

Figure 4


page: 35

C.A.T. 153.)

154.)

155.)

156.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 062-9907A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected? a)

Figure 4

b)

Figure 3

c)

Figure 2

d)

Figure 1

(For this question use annex 062-9908A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected? a)

Figure 4

b)

Figure 3

c)

Figure 2

d)

Figure 1

(For this question use annex 062-9909A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected? a)

Figure 4

b)

Figure 5

c)

Figure 1

d)

Figure 6

(For this question use annex 062-9910A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? a)

Figure 6

b)

Figure 4

c)

Figure 3

d)

Figure 2


page: 36

C.A.T. 157.)

158.)

159.)

160.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 062-9911A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? a)

Figure 4

b)

Figure 3

c)

Figure 5

d)

Figure 2

(For this question use annex 062-9912A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected? a)

Figure 4

b)

Figure 5

c)

Figure 6

d)

Figure 1

(For this question use annex 062-9913A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected? a)

Figure 3

b)

Figure 6

c)

Figure 2

d)

Figure 5

(For this question use annex 062-9914A) Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected? a)

Figure 6

b)

Figure 3

c)

Figure 2

d)

Figure 5


page: 37

C.A.T. 161.)

162.)

163.)

164.)

165.)

JAR-ATPL

(For this question use annex 062-9915A) What drift is being experienced? a)

20° Left

b)

8° Left

c)

12° Right

d)

20° Right


(For this question use annex 062-9916A) What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB? a)

280°(T)

b)

170°(M)

c)

097°(T)

d)

140°(M)

(For this question use annex 062-9917A) What wind velocity is indicated? a)

105°(M)/20KT

b)

285°(M)/20KT

c)

030°(M)/20KT

d)

255°(M)/20KT

(For this question use annex 062-9918A) What is the value of the selected course? a)

280°(M)

b)

260°(M)

c)

299°(M)

d)

272°(M)

(For this question use annex 062-9919A) What is the aircraft track? a)

260°(M)

b)

272°(M)

c)

280°(M)

d)

300°(M)


page: 38

C.A.T. 166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

170.)

JAR-ATPL

(For this question use annex 062-9920A) The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a: a)

Airport

b)

TACAN

c)

VOR/DME/VORTAC

d)

VOR


(For this question use annex 062-9921A) The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate: a)

the destination airport

b)

an off-route airport

c)

a designated alternate airport

d)

an off-route VOR/DME

(For this question use annex 062-9922A) What is the heading bug selected to? a)

280°(M)

b)

300°(M)

c)

272°(M)

d)

260°(M)

(For this question use annex 062-9923A) The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the: a)

right of the localizer and above the glidepath

b)

left of the localizer and above the glidepath

c)

left of the localizer and below the glidepath

d)

right of the localizer and below the glidepath

In which screen modes of an Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) on a B737-400 will radar returns not be shown? a)

FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP

b)

FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN

c)

FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN

d)

EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP


page: 39

C.A.T. 171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

JAR-ATPL


What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be flown? a)

none

b)

VHF radio

c)

VOR

d)

VOR/DME

Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down? a)

It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft

b)

It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft

c)

It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC

d)

It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground

In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate? a)

UHF

b)

VHF

c)

SHF

d)

EHF

In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to navigation in the FMC is provided by: a)

GPS Aircraft Weather Radar Navigation radios

b)

Inertial Reference Systems Aircraft Weather Radar Navigation radios

c)

Inertial Reference Systems Navigation radios Terrain Collision Alerting System

d)

Navigation radios GPS Inertial Reference Systems Inertial Reference Systems


page: 40

C.A.T. 175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

JAR-ATPL


How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver? a)

The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently

b)

The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears

c)

It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the display

d)

The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears

Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI? a)

Navigation database

b)

Symbol Generator

c)

Flight Management Computer

d)

Flight Control Computer

For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary radar the power output must be increased by a factor of: a)

16

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary radar is the: a)

size of parabolic receiver aerial

b)

height of the transmitter above the ground

c)

pulse recurrence rate

d)

power output


page: 41

C.A.T. 179.)

180.)

181.)

182.)

JAR-ATPL

Given: VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E; Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E. What VOR radial is the aircraft on? a)

167°

b)

347°

c)

193°

d)

160°


The BFO selector switch on the ADF control panel must be in the 'on' position to enable the pilot to: a)

hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A1A transmissions

b)

adjust the loop to the aural null position

c)

hear the IDENT of NDBs using NON A2A transmissions

d)

stop the loop rotation

An aircraft is on the 120° radial from a VOR station. Course 340° is selected on the HIS (Horizontal Situation Indicator). If the magnetic heading is 070°, the deviation bar relative to the aeroplane model, will be: a)

in front.

b)

left.

c)

behind.

d)

right.

You are on a compass heading of 090° on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course 190° on your OBS. The deviation bar will show: a)

Full scale deflection right with a 'to' indication

b)

Full scale deflection left with a 'from' indication

c)

Full scale deflection left with a 'to' indication

d)

Full scale deflection right with a 'from' indication


page: 42

C.A.T. 183.)

184.)

185.)

186.)

JAR-ATPL


A pilot flying an aircraft at FL 80, tunes in a VOR which has an elevation of 313 m. Given ISA conditions, what is the maximum theoretical distance at which a pilot might expect to receive the VOR signals? a)

100 NM

b)

151 NM

c)

180 NM

d)

120 NM

The OBS is set to 235°. The indications of the VOR are half full scale deflection left and 'to'. The aircraft is on the radial: a)

060°

b)

230°

c)

050°

d)

240°

An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 feet above the station. At that time, the DME reading will be: a)

approximately 2 NM.

b)

fluctuating and not significant.

c)

FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.

d)

0 NM.

GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible according to user (civil or military). Commercial aviation uses: a)

the two carrier waves and one public code

b)

only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes

c)

only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code

d)

only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code


page: 43

C.A.T. 187.)

188.)

189.)

190.)

JAR-ATPL


A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should: a)

decrease in area but not change in position on the screen

b)

increase in area and move to the top of the screen

c)

decrease in area and move to the top of the screen

d)

increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen

A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of an aeroplane can cause certain navigation systems to give false indications. This is particularly true of the: a)

ADF

b)

DME

c)

VOR

d)

weather radar

In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables: a)

a greater radar range to be achieved

b)

scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically independent of distance

c)

higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture

d)

better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea

An ADF provides the aircraft with bearing information with respect to a ground station. To do this, the ground station emits a signal pattern which is: a)

frequency modulated at 30 Hertz

b)

a beam rotating at 30 Hertz

c)

unidirectional

d)

omnidirectional


page: 44

C.A.T. 191.)

192.)

193.)

194.)

195.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft, at FL 410 is passing overhead a DME station at mean sea level. The DME -indicates approximately: a)

6.1 NM

b)

6.8 NM

c)

6.8 km

d)

6.1 km

A VOR and an ADF are co-located. In NIL wind conditions you cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360°(M). In the vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of: a)

240

b)

120

c)

060

d)

300

The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of: a)

amplitude differences

b)

frequency differences

c)

pulses

d)

phase differences

The Flight Management System (FMS) is organised in such a way that the pilot can: a)

modify the database every 14 days

b)

modify the data in the database between two updates

c)

read and write at any time in the database

d)

insert navigation data between two database updates

The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the: a)

frequency change between the emitted wave and reflected wave

b)

time between the transmission and reception of radio pulses

c)

phase difference between emitted wave and reflected wave

d)

frequency of the reflected wave


page: 45

C.A.T. 196.)

197.)

198.)

199.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

DME channels operate in the frequency band which includes: a)

600 MHz

b)

300 MHz

c)

110 MHz

d)

1 000 MHz

062 F-NAV

You are on a magnetic heading of 055° and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325°. The QDM is: a)

020°

b)

055°

c)

235°

d)

200°

An aircraft at FL300, with a groundspeed of 300 kt, is about pass overhead a DME station at MSL. The DME receiver is capable of determining ground-speed. One minute before the overhead, DME speed and distance indications are respectively: a)

less than 300 kt and 7 NM.

b)

300 kt and 7 NM.

c)

300 kt and 5 NM.

d)

less than 300 kt and 5 NM.

Given: W/V (T) 230/ 20 kt, Var. 6E, TAS 80 kt What relative bearing from an NDB should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257°(M) from overhead the beacon? a)

172

b)

188

c)

352

d)

008


page: 46

C.A.T. 200.)

201.)

202.)

203.)

JAR-ATPL


On the QDR of 075° (in the vicinity of the station) with a magnetic heading of 295°, the relative bearing on the ADF indicator is: a)

320°

b)

220°

c)

140°

d)

040°

When flying at 6000 feet above ground level, the DME indicates 5 NM. What is the horizontal distance from the aircraft to overhead the DME? a)

4.6 NM

b)

5.2 NM

c)

4.3 NM

d)

4.9 NM

An aircraft is situated at 30°N - 005°E with a magnetic variation of 10°W. A VOR is located at 30°N - 013°E with a magnetic variation of 15°W. The aircraft is situated on the VOR radial: a)

256°

b)

281°

c)

101°

d)

286°

Your aircraft is heading 075°M. The OBI is set to 025°. The VOR indications are 'TO' with the needle showing right deflection. Relative to the stations, you are situated in a quadrant defined by the radials: a)

205° and 295°

b)

115° and 205°

c)

295° and 025°

d)

025° and 115°


page: 47

C.A.T. 204.)

205.)

206.)

207.)

JAR-ATPL


The OBS is set on 048°, TO appears in the window. The needle is close to full right deflection. The VOR radial is approximately: a)

218°

b)

038°

c)

238°

d)

058°

Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance from the runway threshold? a)

Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft

b)

Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions

c)

Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station

d)

A precision facility DME

Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)? a)

Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons

b)

Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility

c)

Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility

d)

Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons

In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate? a)

UHF

b)

EHF

c)

VHF

d)

SHF


page: 48

C.A.T. 208.)

209.)

210.)

211.)

JAR-ATPL


The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately: a)

300-400 NM

b)

100-200 NM

c)

50-100 NM

d)

200-300 NM

In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a cloud will be detected are: a)

rotational speed of radar scanner; range from cloud

b)

range from cloud; wavelength/frequency used

c)

size of the water drops; wavelength/frequency used

d)

size of the water drops; diameter of radar scanner

In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height of the aircraft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a beam width of 5°) a)

0°

b)

2.5° up

c)

2.5° down

d)

5° up

Loran C coverage is: a)

confined to certain limited areas of the world

b)

unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S

c)

global

d)

unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental land masses


page: 49

C.A.T. 212.)

213.)

214.)

215.)

JAR-ATPL


Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? a)

True airspeed; drift angle

b)

Wind velocity

c)

Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course deviation

d)

Aircraft position in latitude and longitude

Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? a)

Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

b)

Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

c)

Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

d)

Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station'

(For this question use annex 062-12409A) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station'? a)

11 NM

b)

12 NM

c)

10 NM

d)

21 NM

(For this question use annex 062-12410A) Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'? a)

11 NM

b)

8 NM

c)

14 NM

d)

9 NM


page: 50

C.A.T. 216.)

217.)

218.)

219.)

JAR-ATPL


Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DMEbased Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station': a)

when the Phantom Station is out of range

b)

when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station

c)

because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information

d)

when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the reference station

Which of the following is one of the functions of the Computer in a basic RNAV system? a)

It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint

b)

It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme

c)

It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches

d)

It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air

Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the most accurate position fixes in air navigation? a)

NNSS-Transit and GLONASS

b)

NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

c)

NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit

d)

GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT

The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on: a)

6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane

b)


c)


d)

6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane


page: 51

C.A.T. 220.)

221.)

222.)

223.)

224.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct? a)

It is the same throughout the globe

b)

It is greatest at the poles

c)

It varies, depending on the time and observer's location

d)

It is greatest at the equator

How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS? a)

24

b)

12

c)

30

d)

18

Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe? a)

GLONASS

b)

NNSS-Transit

c)

NAVSTAR/GPS

d)

COSPAS-SARSAT

The different segments of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the: a)

antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)

b)

main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas

c)

control, space and user

d)

atomic clock, power supply and transponder

One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a)

monitor the status of the satellites

b)

manufacture and launch the satellites

c)

manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix

d)

grant and monitor user authorisations


page: 52

C.A.T. 225.)

226.)

227.)

228.)

JAR-ATPL


The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a)

transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the satellite

b)

to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time

c)

monitor the orbital planes of the satellites

d)

select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver

One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a)

transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously

b)

monitor the satellites' orbits and status

c)

transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time, position and velocity

d)

compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed position back to the user segment

The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is: a)

a geoid

b)

a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth

c)

a sphere

d)

an ellipsoid

In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the: a)

flight level

b)

height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid

c)

geometric height above ground

d)

height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)


page: 53

C.A.T. 229.)

230.)

231.)

232.)

233.)

JAR-ATPL


In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the: a)

orbital plane and the earth's axis

b)

orbital plane and the equatorial plane

c)

horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

d)

horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite

How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth? a)

Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)

b)

Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)

c)

365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit

d)

12 days

At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth? a)

10900 km

b)

36000 km

c)

19500 km

d)

20200 km

The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are: a)

inclined 55° to the earth axis

b)

parallel to the equatorial plane

c)

inclined 55° to the equatorial plane

d)

inclined 90° to the equatorial plane

In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message? a)

UHF

b)

EHF

c)

SHF

d)

VHF


page: 54

C.A.T. 234.)

235.)

236.)

237.)

JAR-ATPL


In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal? a)

PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites

b)

PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetic background noise that exists in space

c)

PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver

d)

PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from different directions (multipath effect)

Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers? a)

P and Y

b)

P

c)

C/A- and P

d)

C/A

Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: a)

recognition whether Selective Availability (SA) is operative

b)

assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite

c)

correction of receiver clock error

d)

fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites

How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of the received signals belongs to which satellite? a)

The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this information with the calculated positions of the satellites

b)

Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

c)

The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite

d)

Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code


page: 55

C.A.T. 238.)

239.)

240.)

241.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? a)

time; positions of the satellites

b)

data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data

c)

almanac data; satellite status information

d)

time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites? a)

12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)

b)

25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

c)

24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)

d)

12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)

Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and codes is correct? a)

The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

b)

The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes

c)

The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code

d)

C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies

Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies? a)

Receiver noise

b)

Multipath

c)

Tropospheric

d)

Ionospheric


page: 56

C.A.T. 242.)

243.)

244.)

245.)

JAR-ATPL


Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)? a)

It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellites

b)

It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations (ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message

c)

It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation information

d)

It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground segment

The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is: a)

determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of light

b)

calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite and the receiver

c)

calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies

d)

determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite multiplied by the speed of light

In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a receiver: a)

is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best geometric coverage

b)

requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes

c)

is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost signal with another already being monitored

d)

is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously

The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the: a)

calculated range includes receiver clock error

b)

measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code

c)

calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit

d)

movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account


page: 57

C.A.T. 246.)

247.)

248.)

249.)

JAR-ATPL


What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft? a)

Multiplex

b)

Any hand held type

c)

Sequential

d)

Multichannel

What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3-D position fix? a)

24

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted: a)

in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines

b)

under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations

c)

on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity

d)

inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, re-use of Selective Availability would give the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by: a)

using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing

b)

shutting off selected satellites

c)

offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount

d)

dithering the satellite clock


page: 58

C.A.T. 250.)

251.)

252.)

253.)

JAR-ATPL


In the event of the re-use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ? a)

It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites

b)

It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiver

c)

It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is quicker

d)

It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals

In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error: a)

is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected

b)

can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks

c)

is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites

d)

is corrected by using signals from four satellites

The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is: a)

minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing signals transmitted by the satellites

b)

minimised by computing the average of all signals

c)

negligible

d)

only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon

Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational system (INS)? a)

The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS

b)

The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy

c)

The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS

d)

The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall accuracy


page: 59

C.A.T. 254.)

255.)

256.)

257.)

JAR-ATPL


What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? a)

It causes multipath propagation

b)

The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and information from unaffected signals

c)

It may prevent the reception of signals

d)

It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected

Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix? a)

4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon

b)

3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the horizon

c)

3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from each other together with a fourth directly overhead

d)

4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon

In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-GPS)? a)

The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine an error correction

b)

Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristic receiver noise error

c)

Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for multipath errors

d)

Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft

Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is correct? a)

Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'

b)

The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS ground station

c)

A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix

d)

The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate the position fix


page: 60

C.A.T. 258.)

259.)

260.)

261.)

JAR-ATPL


How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna? a)

The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna

b)

It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites

c)

The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation message

d)

The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code

In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a: a)

continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon

b)

procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite data available

c)

procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational

d)

continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites

What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not available? a)

A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are again available

b)

The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems

c)

The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System manually

d)

The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions

Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system? a)

The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information continuously displayed

b)

The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation systems

c)

The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational

d)

Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions


page: 61

C.A.T. 262.)

263.)

264.)

265.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable amount? a)

The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off the faulty system

b)

It must be continued under VFR conditions

c)

It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next flight all systems must be checked

d)

It may be continued using conventional navigation systems

What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system? a)

If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude

b)

Barometric altitude

c)

Radar altitude

d)

GPS altitude

Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system? a)

The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude

b)

GPS altitude

c)

Barometric altitude

d)

GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude

The Captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at the destination airfield (0ft) from the airfield's VOR. Assuming ISA conditions, what is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which it can be expected to obtain this information? a)

123 NM

b)

123 km

c)

12.3 NM

d)

1230 km


page: 62

C.A.T. 266.)

267.)

268.)

269.)

270.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to: a)

find the loop 'null' position

b)

hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal

c)

stop loop rotation

d)

hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON

062 F-NAV

An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is: a)

bi-lobal circular

b)

a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz

c)

a beam rotating at 30 Hz

d)

omnidirectional

DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately: a)

600 MHz

b)

110 MHz

c)

1000 MHz

d)

300 MHz

A VOR and DME are co-located. You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the: a)

DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times

b)

DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation

c)

VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch

d)

DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once

The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°. Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle will be: a)

centred with the 'fail' flag showing

b)

centred

c)

left of centre

d)

right of centre


page: 63

C.A.T. 271.)

272.)

273.)

274.)

JAR-ATPL


In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: a)

delay after which the process re-starts

b)

number of pulses per second

c)

ratio of pulse period to pulse width

d)

the number of cycles per second

The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to: a)

eliminate the need for azimuth slaving

b)

have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection

c)

simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams

d)

virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy in the main beam

What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes in Mode A? a)

4096

b)

3600

c)

760

d)

1000

Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by radar? a)

wet snow and turbulence in cloud that has precipitation

b)

turbulence in cloud that has precipitation

c)

precipitation

d)

clear air turbulence


page: 64

C.A.T. 275.)

276.)

277.)

278.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Given: Aircraft heading 160°(M), Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR, Selected course on HSI is 250°. The HSI indications are deviation bar: a)

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

b)

behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

c)

behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing

d)

ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing

062 F-NAV

Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board, system? a)

Pressure altitude

b)

VOR/DME radial/distance

c)

Magnetic heading

d)

Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained? a)

VOR/DME

b)

Inertial Navigation System

c)

GPS

d)

Basic RNAV system

In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air Data input? a)

True airspeed

b)

VOR/DME radial/distance

c)

Doppler drift

d)

Inertial Navigation System (INS) position


page: 65

C.A.T. 279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles? a)

Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)

b)

Airborne weather radar (AWR)

c)

Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)

d)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

062 F-NAV

Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder principle? a)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

b)

Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar

c)

Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

d)


In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to: a)

7600

b)

7500

c)

7000

d)

7700

The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by the: a)

pulse recurrence frequency

b)

carrier wave frequency

c)

pulse length

d)

beamwidth

The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates: a)

unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight

b)

radio communication failure

c)

transponder malfunction

d)

an emergency


page: 66

C.A.T. 284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

288.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire



b)


c)


d)

an emergency

062 F-NAV



b)

an emergency

c)


d)


In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines: a)

maximum measurable range

b)

target discrimination

c)

minimum measurable range

d)

beam width

In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) determines: a)

target discrimination

b)

minimum range

c)

beam width

d)

maximum theoretical range

In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of: a)

aerial rotation rate

b)

beam width

c)

Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)

d)

pulse length


page: 67

C.A.T. 289.)

290.)

291.)

292.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique? 1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar 2. Airborne Weather Radar 3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) 4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar a)

1, 2, 3 and 4

b)

2, 3 and 4 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

1, 2 and 4 only

On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return? a)

Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)

b)


c)

Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)

d)

Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to flight plans is stored in the: a)

air data database

b)

performance database

c)

auto flight database

d)

navigation database

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to V1, VR and V2 speeds is stored in the: a)


b)

air data computer

c)

navigation database

d)

auto flight computer


page: 68

C.A.T. 293.)

294.)

295.)

296.)

297.)

JAR-ATPL


In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to STARs and SIDs is stored in the: a)

navigation database

b)

auto flight computers

c)

air data computer

d)


In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to aircraft flight envelope computations is stored in the: a)

navigation database

b)


c)


d)

air data computer

In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to waypoints is stored in the: a)

air data computer

b)

navigation database

c)


d)


In the Flight Management Computer (FMC) of the Flight Management System (FMS), data relating to cruising speeds is stored in the: a)

air data computer

b)


c)


d)

navigation database

Apart from radials and distances from VOR/DME stations, what information is required by the VOR/DME Area Navigation computer in order to calculate the wind? a)

Heading from the aircraft compass system and true airspeed from the air data computer

b)

Heading from the aircraft compass system

c)

Vertical speed from the air data computer

d)

True airspeed from the air data computer


page: 69

C.A.T. 298.)

299.)

300.)

301.)

JAR-ATPL


On what data is a VOR/DME Area Navigation system operating in the dead reckoning mode? a)

TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass.

b)

TAS from the Air Data Computer; heading from the aircraft compass; the last computed W/V.

c)

Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs.

d)

Radial from one VOR; distances from two DMEs; TAS from the Air Data computer; heading from the aircraft compass.

Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode? a)

VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is receiving neither radial nor distance data information from VOR/DME stations.

b)

When 'DR' is selected by the pilot.

c)

VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the Air Data Computer.

d)

VOR/DME Area Navigation computer is not receiving information from the aircraft compass system.

Under which of the following circumstances does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system switch to Dead Reckoning mode? a)

The system is receiving information from the two DMEs

b)

The system is receiving information from one VOR and one DME

c)

The system is receiving information from one VOR and two DMEs

d)

The system is receiving information from only one VOR

How does a VOR/DME Area Navigation system obtain DME information? a)

The VOR/DME Area Navigation system has its own VHF NAV tuner and the system itself tunes the DME stations providing the best angular position lines.

b)

The VOR/DME Area Navigation system uses whatever stations are tuned on the aircraft's normal VHF NAV selector.

c)

The VOR/DME Area Navigation System has its own VHF NAV tuner and it always tunes the DME stations closest to the aircraft position.

d)

the pilot tunes the closest VOR/DME stations within range on the VOR/DME Area navigation control panel.


page: 70

C.A.T. 302.)

303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following lists all the stages of flight when is it possible to change the route in the active flight plan on an FMS equipped aircraft? a)

Only once the aircraft is airborne.

b)

At any time before take-off and throughout the flight

c)

Only before the flight plan is activated

d)

Only before take-off

What type of clock is used in NAVSTAR GPS satellites? a)

Mechanical

b)

Quartz

c)

Laser

d)

Atomic

How many satellites form the nominal NAVSTAR GPS constellation? a)

36

b)

24

c)

12

d)

6

How many clocks are installed in each NAVSTAR GPS satellite? a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

4

What is the inclination to the equatorial plane of the satellite's orbit in the NAVSTAR GPS constellation? a)

45°

b)

65°

c)

35°

d)

55°


page: 71

C.A.T. 307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

311.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

In what type of nominal orbit are NAVSTAR GPS satellites placed? a)

Elliptical

b)

Circular

c)

Pole to pole

d)

Geo-stationary

062 F-NAV

Which of the following affects VDF range? a)

The height of the transmitter and of the receiver.

b)

Strength of the pilot's voice when transmitting.

c)

Coastal refraction.

d)

Sky wave propagation.

What is the "Q" code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station? a)

"Request QNH".

b)

"Request QTE".

c)

"Request QDR".

d)

"Request QDM".

What according to ICAO Annex 10 is the range of a locator? a)

10 - 25 NM

b)

100 - 300 NM

c)

25 - 50 NM

d)

50 - 100 NM

According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator normally transmit? a)

HF

b)

HF/VHF

c)

MF/HF

d)

LF/MF


page: 72

C.A.T. 312.)

313.)

314.)

315.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Which of the following is correct regarding the range of an NDB?

062 F-NAV

a)

The range of an NDB will most likely increase at day time compared to night time.

b)

The transmitter power of the NDB station has no affect on the range.

c)

Aircraft height is not limiting for the reception of signals from the NDB.

d)

The range is limited to the line of sight.

In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft VOR receiver a)

measures the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and receiving the transponder signal.

b)

uses pulse technique to determine the radial.

c)

measures the time difference between reception of the two signals transmitted from the ground installation.

d)

measures the phase difference between the reference phase and the variable phase of the signal.

Which of the following errors is associated with the use of VOR? a)

Night effect.

b)

Coastal refraction.

c)

Quadrantal error.

d)

Scalloping.

Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true? a)

DME operates in the VHF frequency band.

b)

The transponder reply carrier frequency differs by 63 MHz from that of the interrogation signal.

c)

When passing overhead the DME station the DME will indicate 0.

d)

The DME measures the phase difference between the reference and variable phase signals to calculate the distance.


page: 73

C.A.T. 316.)

317.)

318.)

319.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Which one of the statements below is correct regarding the DME?

062 F-NAV

a)

Two lines of position obtained from two different DME's give an unambiguous fix.

b)

The DME operating frequencies are in the UHF frequency band.

c)

The indicated distance is the ground distance measured from the aircraft's projected position on the ground to the DME ground installation.

d)

The DME ground station is always co-located with a VOR station.

What is measured in order to establish aircraft position in relation to the localizer beam on an ILS? a)

The difference in depth between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz modulation.

b)

The difference in time between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz modulation.

c)

The bearing to the localizer antenna found by means of a loop antenna.

d)

The difference in phase between the 90Hz modulation and the 150Hz modulation.

According to ICAO 8168, what is regarded as the maximum safe deviation below the glide path during ILS approach? a)

Full scale deflection.

b)

Half scale deflection.

c)

Three quarter scale deflection.

d)

One quarter scale deflection.

Which range facility associated with the ILS may be identified by a two-letter identification group? a)

Glide path.

b)

Inner marker.

c)

Outer marker.

d)

Locator.


page: 74

C.A.T. 320.)

321.)

322.)

323.)

324.)

JAR-ATPL


Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right? a)

1.0° to the left.

b)

2.0° to the left.

c)

1.0° to the right.

d)

2.0° to the right.

According to the ILS coverage area as defined by ICAO Annex 10, in which of the following situations will the pilot be guaranteed a reliable signal from the localiser? a)

19NM from touchdown inbound and 13° displaced from the localiser centreline.

b)


c)


d)


Full deflection on a glide slope indicator indicates that the aircraft is: a)

2.5° above or below the correct glide path.

b)


c)


d)


Which of the following is correct regarding false beams on a glide path? a)

False beams will only be found below the correct glide path.

b)

False beams are only present when flying a back-beam ILS approach.

c)

False beams will only be found more than 10 degrees to the left or to the right of the localiser centreline.

d)

False beams will only be found above the correct glide path.

Full scale deflection of the localiser needle indicates that the aircraft is approximately: a)

10° offset from the localiser centreline.

b)

5° offset from the localiser centreline.

c)

2.5° offset from the localiser centreline.

d)

1.25° offset from the localiser centreline.


page: 75

C.A.T. 325.)

326.)

327.)

328.)

329.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

On what carrier frequency does the inner marker transmit? a)

Same frequency as the glide path.

b)

3000 Hz.

c)

75 MHz.

d)

Same frequency as the localizer.

062 F-NAV

What is the audio frequency of the inner marker? a)

3000 Hz

b)

1300 Hz

c)

75 MHz

d)

400 Hz

Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio- and visual signals in cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker? a)

Audio: 400 Hz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes.

b)

Audio: 75 MHz, 2 dashes per second. Visual: Blue light flashes.

c)

Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes.

d)

Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes. Visual: Amber light flashes.

In relation to primary radar, what does the term Pulse Recurrence Frequency signify? a)

The number of revolutions performed by the radar antenna per minute.

b)

The number of pulses transmitted per second.

c)

The time between each transmission of pulses.

d)

The radar frequency used.

What information may be displayed on an ATC radar screen connected only to a primary radar system? a)

Aircraft position only.

b)

Aircraft altitude.

c)

Aircraft position, SSR code and altitude.

d)

Aircraft position and SSR code.


page: 76

C.A.T. 330.)

331.)

332.)

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire

Considering a primary radar system, what kind of aerials are used?

062 F-NAV

a)

An omnidirectional antenna for transmitting, and a directional antenna for receiving.

b)

One directional antenna for transmitting and one for receiving.

c)

A directional antenna for transmitting, and an omnidirectional antenna for receiving.

d)

One directional antenna both for transmitting and for receiving.

Which one of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system when compared to a primary radar system? a)

The required power of transmission from the ground equipment is reduced.

b)

Is not limited to line of sight.

c)

The relatively small ground antenna transmits no side lobes, thus eliminating the danger of false replies from the airborne transponder.

d)

Possibility of obtaining speed information for aircraft within range.

The indicated range from a DME station is: a)

0 when passing overhead the station.

b)

ground range.

c)

slant range.

d)

ground range only if the beacon is co-located with VOR.


page: 77

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JAR-ATPL



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page: 80

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 070 OPS

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: a)

8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)

b)

10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)

c)

14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)

d)

12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: a)

25 hours of its operation.

b)


c)


d)

30 minutes of its operation.

The risk of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the: a)

depth of the standing water on the runway.

b)

aircraft's weight.

c)

strength of the headwind.

d)

amount of the lift off speed.

Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in question are defined as such by: a)

The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air".

b)

The directives of the Community Union.

c)

The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".

d)

The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air".


page: 1

C.A.T. 005.)

006.)

007.)

JAR-ATPL


If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a: a)

great circle.

b)

curve of some type or other.

c)

spherical flight segment.

d)

rhumb line.

An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°. The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be: a)

334°.

b)

345°.

c)

328°.

d)

003°.

A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E. The compass deviation at this heading is: a)

+15°.

b)

+5°.

c)

-5°.

d)

-15°.


page: 2

C.A.T. 008.)

009.)

010.)

011.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 071-2070A) On the diagram where: Nt = True North Nm = Magnetic North Ng = Grid North If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the different north is: a)

4

b)

2

c)

1

d)

3

You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E). The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to: a)

076°.

b)

066°.

c)

080°.

d)

085°.

When a course is plotted at minimum time track, one passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to the air isochrone a vector which is equal to: a)

mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.

b)

wind at K'.

c)

mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.

d)

wind at K.

When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to: a)

take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline.

b)

take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.

c)

maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the oceanic clearance.

d)

take any Mach number.


page: 3

C.A.T. 012.)

013.)

014.)

015.)

JAR-ATPL


A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330°. At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be: a)

136°.

b)

164°.

c)

276°.

d)

316°.

On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is: a)

298°.

b)

295°.

c)

301°.

d)

292°.

MNPS is the abbreviation for: a)

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.

b)

Minimum Navigation Positioning System.

c)

Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System.

d)

Military Network Performance Structure.

In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the: a)

ground speed.

b)

Mach number.

c)

indicated airspeed.

d)

true airspeed.


page: 4

C.A.T. 016.)

017.)

018.)

JAR-ATPL


(For this question use annex 071-2083A) To comply with the approved airline Operations Manual in a twin-engine aircraft (1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the shortest possible time. Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be: a)

Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.

b)

Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.

c)

Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.

d)

Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.

(For this question use annex 071-2084A) The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W Drift: 6°L (left) The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box) a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and: a)

the runway is very smooth and clean.

b)

the tyre treads show minor cuts.

c)

the runway is very smooth and dirty.

d)

the runway has a rough surface.


page: 5

C.A.T. 019.)

020.)

021.)

022.)

JAR-ATPL


The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the appearance of: a)

rubber reversion hydroplaning.

b)

viscous hydroplaning.

c)

rubber steaming hydroplaning.

d)

dynamic hydroplaning.

The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro does not comprise a rate correction device. The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off. The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be: a)

+73.5°.

b)

+32.5°.

c)

+13°.

d)

-32.5°.

On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is: a)

4.0 NM.

b)

30 NM.

c)

4.0 NM.

d)

9.2 NM.

In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian. The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is: a)

340°.

b)

240°.

c)

110°.

d)

060°.


page: 6

C.A.T. 023.)

024.)

025.)

026.)

027.)

JAR-ATPL


To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is: a)

possible and recommended.

b)

useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.

c)

useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.

d)

useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.

Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with: a)

all available liquids.

b)

all available extinguishers simultaneously.

c)

only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.

d)

all available extinguishers in sequence.

In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system: a)

immediately climb or descend 1 000 ft.

b)

notify Air Traffic Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.

c)

request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft.

d)

set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.

A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNONGANDER great circle. The flight can be planned: a)

at FL 280 or less.

b)

at FL 290.

c)

at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.

d)

outside scheduled flight times.

After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: a)

under no circumstances.

b)

from any side.

c)

only from left or right side.

d)

only from front or rear side.


page: 7

C.A.T. 028.)

029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

JAR-ATPL


The responsibility to provide flight operations personnel with the relevant parts of the operations manual and to ensure the issue of the amendments rests with: a)

Aircraft producer.

b)

Owner of the aircraft.

c)

The national authority.

d)

Aircraft operator.

Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least: a)

three Inertial Navigation System (INS).

b)

two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).

c)

one Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).

d)

two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft: a)

The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

b)

The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.

c)

The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

d)

The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.

Who shall be satisfied, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a)

The airline's dispatcher.

b)

The operator.

c)

The commander.

d)

The flight engineer.

For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within: a)

one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

b)

two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.

c)

two hours of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

d)

one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative.


page: 8

C.A.T. 033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

JAR-ATPL


A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are: a)

At the estimated time of arrival, at or above the planning minima.

b)

during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome, at or above the planning minima.

c)

At the estimated time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

d)

At the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.

When refuelling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, one of the requirements is: a)

The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.

b)

Refuelling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.

c)

All flight crew shall remain at their station.

d)

The ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.

The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list which shall be approved by the authority of: a)

The country where the aircraft was manufactured.

b)

None, no approval is required.

c)

The country where the aircraft is operated.

d)

The country of the operator.

If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be: a)

Not available.

b)

Equal to the actual.

c)

Greater than the actual.

d)

Less than the actual.


page: 9

C.A.T. 037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

JAR-ATPL


Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing ? a)

These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust .

b)

These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.

c)

These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only.

d)

There are no noise abatement procedures for landing.

Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances: 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2,3.

b)

1,2,3.

c)

1,2.

d)

1,3.

If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to: a)

Begin an emergency descent.

b)

Determine which system is causing the smoke.

c)

Cut off all air conditioning units.

d)

Put on the mask and goggles.

Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by: 1. a change in environmental sounds. 2. the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb. 3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft decreases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2.

b)

2, 3.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

1, 3.


page: 10

C.A.T. 041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

JAR-ATPL


Initially, who is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited? a)

The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

b)

It is not specified.

c)

The operator.

d)

The commander, always using the list of prohibited items.

A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is: a)

270 (150% of the seating capacity).

b)

240 (one additional mask per seat block).

c)

210 (one additional mask per seat row).

d)

198 (110% of the seating capacity).

For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to: a)

provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30 minutes.

b)

provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin depressurisation.

c)

protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.

d)

protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.

A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board= 200 Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180 The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be: a)

180.

b)

230.

c)

220.

d)

200.


page: 11

C.A.T. 045.)

046.)

047.)

048.)

JAR-ATPL


Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? a)

FL 390.

b)

FL 250.

c)

FL 100.

d)

FL 300.

An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than: a)

30 minutes at cruising speed.

b)


c)


d)


An aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt, and it is capable to join the diversion aerodrome. a)

The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case.

b)

Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.

c)

Life rafts must be available for all occupants.

d)

Life jackets must be available for all occupants.

The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is: 1. slow 2. heavy 3. in a clean configuration 4. flying with a high thrust The combination of correct statement is: a)

1, 4

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

1, 2, 3, 4


page: 12

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from: a)

27° North to 70° North.

b)


c)


d)


The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight levels: a)

285 and 420.

b)

275 and 400.

c)

280 and 400.

d)

280 and 390.

In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is: a)

118.800 MHz.

b)

128.800 MHz.

c)

123.45 MHz.

d)

121.800 MHz.

In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must: a)

return to the flight plan route if it is different from the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.

b)

continue the flight in compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and acknowledged.

c)

change the flight level in accordance with predetermined instructions.

d)

join one of the so-called "special" routes.


page: 13

C.A.T. 053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

JAR-ATPL


A category I precision approach (CAT I) has: a)

a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

b)

no decision height.

c)


d)


The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is produced by: a)

the state of the operator

b)

the operator

c)

the manufacturer

d)

the aircraft state of registry

If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by: a)

the aircraft manufacturer's list.

b)

the operator.

c)

the aircraft state of registry.

d)

the manufacturer / the type certificate holder.

The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by: a)

the operator.

b)

the shipper.

c)

the captain.

d)

the handling agent.


page: 14

C.A.T. 057.)

058.)

059.)

JAR-ATPL


During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. flies above the glide path 2. flies below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is: a)

2,3

b)

2,4

c)

1,4

d)

1,3

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the glide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is: a)

2,4.

b)

2,3.

c)

1,4.

d)

1,3.

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the glide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is: a)

1,4.

b)

1,3.

c)

2,4.

d)

2,3.


page: 15

C.A.T. 060.)

061.)

062.)

JAR-ATPL


During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the glide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed the combination of correct statements is: a)

1,3.

b)

1,4.

c)

2,3.

d)

2,4.

After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the climb-out path 2- flies below the climb-out path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is: a)

2,4.

b)

1,4.

c)

2,3.

d)

1,3.

A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of: a)

passengers.

b)

seats exceeded by 10%.

c)

passengers exceeded by 10%.

d)

seats.


page: 16

C.A.T. 063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

JAR-ATPL


An aeroplane with 8 passangers on board is operated at FL 270. The supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board shall be sufficient for at least: a)

2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 10000 ft.

b)

no first aid required.

c)

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft.

d)

1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft.

In regard to passengers briefing in public transport aeroplane, information about oxygen must be given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before: a)

take-off.

b)

the aircraft reaches FL 250.

c)


d)


The validity period of a nigh-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between: a)

01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

b)


c)


d)


The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between: a)


b)


c)


d)



page: 17

C.A.T. 067.)

068.)

069.)

070.)

JAR-ATPL


During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be: a)

within the polar track system.

b)

within the organised daytime flight track system.

c)

within the organised night-time flight track system.

d)

outside of the validity period of the organised track system.

During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ; a)

within the organised night-time track system

b)

within the polar track system

c)

within the organised daytime track system

d)

out of the validity period of organised flight track system

The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least: a)

Three inertial navigation systems.

b)

One Global Navigation Satellite System

c)

One inertial navigation system.

d)

Two inertial navigation systems.

The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is: a)

15 minutes.

b)

20 minutes.

c)

5 minutes.

d)

10 minutes.


page: 18

C.A.T. 071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

075.)

JAR-ATPL


The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is: a)

30 NM.

b)

120 NM.

c)

60 NM.

d)

90 NM.

During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below: a)

5 minutes

b)

20 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

10 minutes

If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider: a)

climbing or descending 500 feet

b)

land at the nearest airport

c)

descend below the MNPS space

d)

return to departure airport

Minimum time route is a route calculated for: a)

a period of 12 hours

b)

a period of 24 hours

c)

a given flight from departure to destination

d)

aircraft flying in MNPS airspace

The term decision height (DH) is used for: a)

a circling approach only.

b)

a non precision approach.

c)

a precision approach.

d)

an indirect approach.


page: 19

C.A.T. 076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

JAR-ATPL


The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than: a)

6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator

b)

3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months

c)

6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months

d)

3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator in the preceding 90 days

A life jacket is mandatory for each person on board an aeroplane when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than: a)

50 NM

b)

400 NM

c)

200 NM

d)

100 NM

On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than that corresponding to: a)

300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.

b)


c)


d)


A minimum time track is a: a)

track determined according to wind conditions

b)

rhumb line

c)

spherical capable flight segment

d)

great circle track


page: 20

C.A.T. 080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

JAR-ATPL


At the alternate aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a fuel quantity (final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a)

30 minutes at cruising speed

b)

45 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft

c)

45 minutes at cruising speed

d)

30 minutes at holding flight speed at 1500 ft

On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during: a)

30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

b)

2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

c)

30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

d)

2 hours with normal cruise consumption

For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a takeoff alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within: a)

1 hour of flight time at single engine cruising speed

b)

2 hours of flight time at single engine cruising speed

c)

2 hours of flight time at cruising speed

d)

1 hour of flight time at cruising speed

When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on takeoff, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an equivalent distance not exceeding: a)

1 hour of flight time at single engine cruising speed

b)

2 hours of flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed

c)

1 hour of flight time at cruising speed

d)

2 hours of flight time at cruising speed


page: 21

C.A.T. 084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

JAR-ATPL


A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least: a)

550 m

b)

350 m

c)

500 m

d)

800 m

A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least: a)

100 m

b)

250 m

c)

50 m

d)

200 m

A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least: a)

150 m

b)

250 m

c)

200 m

d)

75 m

With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following information: - Desired track (DTK) = 100° - Track (TK) = 120° You can conclude that the: a)

Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course

b)

Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course

c)

Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)

d)

Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)


page: 22

C.A.T. 088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

JAR-ATPL


The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is: a)

Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

b)

Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

c)

Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

d)

Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration

To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre: a)

Below and upwind from the larger aircraft

b)

Above and upwind from the larger aircraft

c)

Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

d)

Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the approved number of: a)

seat rows in the cabin.

b)

seats in the cabin.

c)

emergency exits in the cabin.

d)

passengers in the cabin.

During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC ; you will normally be: a)

in a day-time organised track system.

b)

in a night-time organised track system.

c)

outside the validity period of the organised track system.

d)

within the polar track system.


page: 23

C.A.T. 092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

JAR-ATPL


During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC ; you will normally be: a)

in a polar track system

b)

in a night-time organised track system

c)

outside the validity period of the organised track system

d)

in a day-time organised track system

The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle of: a)

110°.

b)

220°.

c)

70°.

d)

140°.

Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least the last: a)

flight.

b)

30 hours of operation.

c)


d)


The abbreviation MNPS means: a)

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

b)

Main Navigation Performance Specification

c)

Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification

d)

Maximum Navigation Performance Specification

For aeroplane certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last: a)

flight.

b)


c)


d)

30 minutes of operation.


page: 24

C.A.T. 097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

JAR-ATPL


On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than: a)

13 000 ft

b)

11 000 ft

c)

10 000 ft

d)

12 000 ft

On board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than: a)

11 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

b)


c)


d)


On board a pressurised aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurisation, throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than: a)

13 000 ft.

b)

11 000 ft.

c)

12 000 ft.

d)

10 000 ft.

To establish the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular operation, an operator must take full account of: 1. equipment available for navigation 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas 5. means to determine and report the meteorological conditions The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,4,5

b)

1,2,3,4,5

c)

2,4,5

d)

2,3,5


page: 25

C.A.T. 101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

JAR-ATPL


For the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurized aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above: a)

13 000 ft

b)

10 000 ft

c)

25 000 ft

d)

29 000 ft

All aeroplanes which individual certificates of airworthiness were issued after 1 January 1989 must be fitted with a flight data recorder when their maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than: a)

5 700 kg

b)

14 000 kg

c)

20 000 kg

d)

27 000 kg

The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is: a)

243 MHz.

b)

121.5 MHz.

c)

118.5 MHz.

d)

123.45 MHz.

A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done: a)

At or prior entering the oceanic airspace.

b)

As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.

c)

On ATC request only.

d)

Within 15 minutes after crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.


page: 26

C.A.T. 105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

JAR-ATPL


If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by: a)

inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.

b)

using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

c)

inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude.

d)

the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track.

In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight level should: a)

If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

b)

If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

c)

If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

d)

If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

In the event of a contingency which requires an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained, an aeroplane capable of maintaining its assigned flight level 410 should: a)

climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

b)

descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

c)

climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

d)

climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should: a)

Start its climb or descent while turning to acquire an offset by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.

b)


c)

Descend below FL275.

d)



page: 27

C.A.T. 109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

JAR-ATPL


Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every: a)

20° of longitude.

b)

5° of longitude.

c)

10° of longitude.

d)

15° of longitude.

Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every: a)

15° of longitude.

b)

10° of longitude.

c)

20° of longitude.

d)

5° of longitude.

In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by: a)

5 minutes or more.

b)

3 minutes or more.

c)

10 minutes or more.

d)

2 minutes or more.

The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is: a)

60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.

b)

90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.

c)

60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications.

d)

90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace? a)

90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

b)


c)


d)



page: 28

C.A.T. 114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

JAR-ATPL


At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region? a)

Between FL245 and FL410 inclusive.

b)

Below FL290.

c)


d)


Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when: a)

Flying above 3000 ft above ground.

b)

Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.

c)

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.

d)

Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.

According to the JAR-OPS requirement, the route of a twin-engine aircraft, non ETOPS, with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 45360 kg or a maximum seating configuration of 20 passengers or more must be planned in such a way that on one engine an adequate aerodrome can be reached within: a)

90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

b)


c)


d)


Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the: a)

operations manual.

b)

journey logbook.

c)

flight manual.

d)

operational flight plan.

A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in: a)

the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.

b)

Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention.

c)

Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.

d)

the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.


page: 29

C.A.T. 119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

123.)

JAR-ATPL


The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation / position lights, located to the rear of the aircraft, is: a)

220°

b)

140°

c)

70°

d)

110°

The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft: a)

is forbidden in all circumstances

b)

can be authorised only if the pilot is in communication with the conflicting aircraft pilot

c)

can be authorised under radar control if the pilot is in VHF contact with the controller

d)

can be authorised when the aircraft has two long range navigation systems

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: a)

red light

b)

white light

c)

green light

d)

red and white flashing light

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the: a)

green steady light

b)

red steady light

c)

white steady light

d)

green and white flashing light

The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is: a)

140°

b)

220°

c)

70°

d)

110°


page: 30

C.A.T. 124.)

125.)

126.)

127.)

JAR-ATPL


When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of: a)

1.5

b)

1.15

c)

1.3

d)

1.45

In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a: a)

rhumb line

b)

great circle line

c)

spherical flight segment

d)

straight map line

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport precession is equal to: a)

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

b)

15°/h.sin Lm

c)

g/2.sin Lm

d)

g.sin Lm

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to: a)

g.sin Lm

b)

15°/h.sin Lm

c)

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

d)

g/2.sin Lm


page: 31

C.A.T. 128.)

129.)

130.)

131.)

JAR-ATPL


During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the: a)

magnetic North

b)

compass North

c)

grid North

d)

true North

During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the: a)

true North for a given chart

b)

grid North for any chart

c)

grid North for a given chart

d)

true North for any chart

Astronomic precession is: a)

zero when the aircraft is on the ground

b)

existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying

c)

depending on the chart used

d)

independent of the latitude

Posit: g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to: a)

g/2.sin Lm

b)

15°/h.sin Lm

c)

g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

d)

g.sin Lm


page: 32

C.A.T. 132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

136.)

JAR-ATPL


Astronomic precession: a)

causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere

b)

is zero at the North pole

c)

is zero at the South pole

d)

causes an apparent spin of heading gyro to the left in the southern hemisphere

Astronomic precession: a)

causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere

b)

is zero at the South pole

c)

causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere

d)

is zero at the North pole

A category D aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to: a)

3600 m

b)

2400 m

c)

1500 m

d)

1600 m

A category C aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to: a)

3600 m

b)

1500 m

c)

1600 m

d)

2400 m

A category B aeroplane can carry out a circling approach only if the meteorological visibility is higher than or equal to: a)

3600 m

b)

2400 m

c)

1600 m

d)

1500 m


page: 33

C.A.T. 137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

JAR-ATPL


A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to: a)

3600 m

b)

2400 m

c)

1500 m

d)

1600 m

During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDA) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than: a)

4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude

b)

2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude

c)

4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude

d)

2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude

According to the JAR-OPS requirements, an IFR flight with no alternate aerodrome can be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions (VMC) are effective for at least: a)

3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

b)

2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival

c)

3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival

d)

1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by: a)

the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority

b)

the operator and approved by the certification authority

c)

the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer

d)

the operations manual


page: 34

C.A.T. 141.)

142.)

143.)

144.)

JAR-ATPL


The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by: a)

the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

b)

the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

c)

the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)

d)

the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is: a)

Water may only be used for minor fires.

b)

Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes.

c)

Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.

d)

A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire.

The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is generally the: a)

pressurization

b)

trim air

c)

ventilation of the cargo compartment

d)

total air-conditioning

When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends: a)

to descend

b)

to climb

c)

not to change its trajectory

d)

to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength


page: 35

C.A.T. 145.)

146.)

147.)

148.)

149.)

JAR-ATPL


Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established: a)

lift

b)

drag

c)

lift destruction

d)

spin up

One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it: a)

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane

b)

can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane

c)

occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

d)

can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes

A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than: a)

6 micro-tesla

b)

38 micro tesla

c)

10 micro-tesla

d)

17 micro-tesla

Which parameter will change first, when penetrating an horizontal windshear ? a)

Groundspeed.

b)

Pitch angle.

c)

Vertical speed.

d)

Indicated airspeed.

Wake turbulence risk is highest: a)

when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

b)

if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind.

c)

following a preceding aircraft at high speed.

d)

when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.


page: 36

C.A.T. 150.)

151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

JAR-ATPL


What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) ?: a)

A 7500

b)

A 7800

c)

A 7600

d)

A 7700

The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst other serious consequences, an increase in the: a)

roll rate

b)

stalling speed

c)

tuck under

d)

value of the stall angle of attack

The regulations for transportation of dangerous goods are contained in: a)

ICAO Appendix 8

b)

ICAO Annex 18

c)

ICAO Annex 17

d)

the Washington Convention

ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document dealing with: a)

the safety of the air transport of dangerous goods

b)

the air transport of live animals

c)

the technical operational use of aircraft

d)

the noise pollution of aircraft

Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew: a)

returns to base immediately

b)

keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan

c)

carries out a holding pattern

d)

keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the current flight plan


page: 37

C.A.T. 155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

JAR-ATPL


Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic is defined between the following flight levels: a)

sea level and FL660

b)

FL 280 and FL 475

c)

FL 270 and FL 400

d)

FL 285 and FL 420

Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is: a)

not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled

b)

subject to a mandatory clearance

c)

subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed

d)

subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)

In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You 1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and flaps) 2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4- avoid excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is: a)

1,4

b)

2,3

c)

1,3

d)

2,4

For a given aeroplane, the wake turbulence increases when the aeroplane has a: a)

low mass and low airspeed

b)

high mass and high airspeed

c)

low mass and high airspeed

d)

high mass and low airspeed


page: 38

C.A.T. 159.)

160.)

161.)

162.)

JAR-ATPL


Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions: a)

A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection systems

b)

The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems

c)

The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid

d)

The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly

During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be: a)

to set the transponder to 7700

b)

to comfort your passengers

c)

to put on the oxygen mask

d)

to warn the ATC

The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to: a)

rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace)

b)

Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace

c)

the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)

d)

rules issued by the bordering States (Document 6530)

As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, pilots may obtain information on bird strike hazards by means of: 1 - ATIS. 2 - NOTAMs. 3 - BIRDTAMs. 4 - Weather radar. 5 - The report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,5

b)

1,2,3,4,5

c)

2,5

d)

1,3,4


page: 39

C.A.T. 163.)

JAR-ATPL


For flight preparation, each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. Some of these information must be retained on the ground, at least for the duration of the flight. Which of the following must be retained ? 1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination, 2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet, 3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report, 4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator, 5 - notification for special loadings, 6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

164.)

165.)

a)

1,3,5

b)

2,3,4,5

c)

1,2,3,4,5,6

d)

2,4

While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must: a)

reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.

b)

reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing.

c)

take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.

d)

maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.

The highest risk of bird strikes occurs: a)

between 500 and 1 000 m

b)

between 500 and 1 500 m

c)

above 1 000 m

d)

under 500 m


page: 40

C.A.T. 166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

JAR-ATPL


While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a "microburst". You will expect to encounter: a)

wake turbulence .

b)

supercooled water.

c)

convection motion of air mass.

d)

windshears (vertical and horizontal).

If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so: a)

under flight level 50 (FL50).

b)

during final phase of approach.

c)

in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.

d)

in a holding stack, after control clearance.

Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be: 1 - an increase in head wind 2 - an increase in tail wind 3 - better climb performance 4 - a decrease in climb gradient The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3

b)

2, 4

c)

1, 4

d)

2, 3

When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice, snow or frost will cause the following effects: 1 - an increase in the take-off distance 2 - a decrease of the take-off run 3 - an increase in the stalling speed 4 - a decrease of the stalling speed 5 - a decrease of the climb gradient The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 5

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

2, 4, 5

d)

1, 3, 5


page: 41

C.A.T. 170.)

171.)

172.)

JAR-ATPL


The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a: a)

limited holdover time.

b)

protection against icing for the duration of the flight.

c)

limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature.

d)

protection time up to 24 hours.

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records: 1 - Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio 2 - The aural environment of the flight deck 3 - The cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane's interphone system 4 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane's interphone system 5 - Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker 6 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if installed The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4, 6

b)

2, 4, 5, 6

c)

1, 2, 3, 5, 6

d)

1, 2, 4, 5, 6

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which starts to record automatically: a)

prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.

b)

prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set.

c)

when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set.

d)

when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.


page: 42

C.A.T. 173.)

174.)

175.)

176.)

JAR-ATPL


The operations requirements in regard to the supply of oxygen, for a pressurized aeroplane intended to be operated at FL 260, 150 passengers on board are . As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen: 1. each crew member will have available a quick donning type of mask. 2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 13 000ft. 3 . the quantity of oxygen on board shall be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole flight time at cabin pressure altitude above 15 000 ft (not less than 10 minutes). 4. the first aid quantity of oxygen shall be sufficient for the supply of two passengers during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,3

b)

1,2,3,4

c)

3,4

d)

2, 3

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are: a)

MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

b)


c)


d)


JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that: a)

special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

b)

for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least

c)

for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least

d)

for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of cloud)

In accordance with JAR OPS 1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category III A approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than: a)

230 m

b)

250 m

c)

200 m

d)

300 m


page: 43

C.A.T. 177.)

178.)

179.)

180.)

JAR-ATPL


According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in ICAO PANS OPS 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching: a)

1 500 ft

b)

3 000 ft

c)

1 000 ft

d)

500 ft

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operational Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with: a)

NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

b)

VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

c)

VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft

d)

ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least: a)

15 months

b)

24 months

c)

3 months

d)

12 months

According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport: a)

is procedure B

b)

depends on the wind component

c)

is procedure A

d)

is either procedure A or B, because there is not dif difference in noise distribution


page: 44

C.A.T. 181.)

182.)

183.)

JAR-ATPL


In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless: a)

he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

b)

he has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

c)

he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days

d)

he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing unless: a)

he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30 days

b)

he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90 days.

c)

he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.

d)

he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be: a)

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

b)

3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

c)

5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

d)

5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.


page: 45

C.A.T. 184.)

185.)

186.)

187.)

JAR-ATPL


In accordance with JAR-OPS1(Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach and landing, the RVR shall not be less than: a)

75 m

b)

150 m

c)

100 m

d)

50 m

A water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) can be used on a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ... ) 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ... ) 3 – gas 4 - metals (sodium, ... ) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3

b)

1

c)

3 and 4

d)

2

You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ... ) 2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ... ) 3 – gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ... ) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,3,4

b)

1,2,3

c)

2,3,4

d)

1,2,4

An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when: a)

fire is no longer detected.

b)

all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.

c)

the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.

d)

the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.


page: 46

C.A.T. 188.)

189.)

190.)

191.)

JAR-ATPL


In accordance with the JAR-OPS, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least: a)

2 megaphones.

b)

3 megaphones.

c)

2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.

d)

1 megaphone.

In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes, the carriage of a life jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the aeroplane is: 1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure. 2. is flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than 50 NM. 3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem. 4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3, 4

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 2

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by: a)

the manufacturer and approved by the authority.

b)

the airline operator and approved by the authority.

c)

the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.

d)

the Civil Aviation Authority of the European states.

A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: a)

damp.

b)

flooded.

c)

contaminated.

d)

wet.


page: 47

C.A.T. 192.)

193.)

194.)

195.)

JAR-ATPL


The minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is: a)

3

b)

1

c)

2

d)

0

The number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is 201, is: a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of: 1. An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices). 2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts). 3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc. ). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1.

b)

3.

c)

1, 2 and 3.

d)

2 and 3.

An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when: a)

it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.

b)

it is rotating (before taking-off).

c)

leaving the icing zone.

d)

releasing the brakes in order to take-off.


page: 48

C.A.T. 196.)

197.)

198.)

199.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid: a)

need not undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

b)

must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for takeoff.

c)

must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.

d)

must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is: a)

1 minute.

b)

12 seconds.

c)

5 minutes.

d)

30 seconds.

In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. you increase your approach speed, 2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear, 3. you decrease your approach speed, 4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. you land as smoothly as possible, 6. you brake energically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3, 5

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 4, 5, 6

In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations: a)

you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach configuration.

b)

you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

c)

you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.

d)

you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the aircraft in a clean configuration until the final approach.


page: 49

C.A.T. 200.)

201.)

202.)

203.)

JAR-ATPL


Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise: a)

a rapid depressurization.

b)

a slow depressurization.

c)

a plastic fire.

d)

an electrical fire.

In a ditching situation, except for infants, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets: a)

immediately on ditching.

b)

when exiting the aircraft.

c)

immediately on the opening of the exits.

d)

as soon as ditching is prepared.

In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants should: 1. evacuate women and children first. 2. have the passengers embark directly in the life rafts. 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the aircraft's flotation ability. 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the aircraft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 4

The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: a)

provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.

b)

supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.

c)

provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin depressurisation.

d)

provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization.


page: 50

C.A.T. 204.)

205.)

206.)

207.)

JAR-ATPL


During a de-icing / anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts: a)

at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

b)

a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

c)

at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).

d)

at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a fabric fire 3. an electric fire 4. a wood fire 5. a hydrocarbon fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4, 5

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 3, 5

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4

b)

1, 3, 5

c)

2, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is: a)

the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.

b)

the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons.

c)

a therapeutic oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers.

d)

the oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in case of cabin pressurisation failure.


page: 51

C.A.T. 208.)

209.)

210.)

211.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with: a)

two hand fire-extinguishers in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment.

b)

one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment.

c)

one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and one hand fire-extinguisher in the passengers compartment.

d)

three hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment.

A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 4, 5

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 3, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

An aeroplane whose maximum approved configuration is 200 passenger seats must be equipped with: a)

5 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.

b)


c)

3 hand fire extinguishers in the compartment.

d)


he information concerning dangerous goods that passengers may carry, are listed in the: a)

aircraft's flight manual.

b)

JAR-OPS documentation.

c)

IATA document "Dangerous products transportation".

d)

ICAO document titled "Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of dangerous products"


page: 52

C.A.T. 212.)

213.)

214.)

215.)

JAR-ATPL


The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. the type and intensity of the showers 2. the ambient temperature 3. the relative humidity 4. the direction and speed of the wind 5. the temperature of the aircraft skin 6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4, 5

b)

1, 2, 4, 6

c)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

d)

1, 3, 5, 6

The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably: a)

when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.

b)

when the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0 °C.

c)

when the aeroplane is parked facing into wind.

d)

during strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast.

Due to risk of tyres explosion, after landing, when the brakes are at a very high temperature, one should approach the landing gear: a)

either from aft or fore.

b)

from the inboard side.

c)

from any direction.

d)

sidewards.

In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4

b)

3, 4

c)

1, 2

d)

1, 4


page: 53

C.A.T. 216.)

217.)

218.)

219.)

JAR-ATPL


In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you: a)

pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.

b)

carry out a dry cranking.

c)

fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

d)

carry out a damp cranking.

When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the right side, you adopt, whenever possible: a)

a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its path.

b)

an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.

c)

a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and under its path.

d)

a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and above its path.

When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the left side, you adopt, whenever possible: a)

a different flight path form the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its path.

b)

a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and under its path.

c)

an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.

d)

a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and above its path.

The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about: a)

30 seconds.

b)

3 minutes.

c)

10 minutes.

d)

1 minute.


page: 54

C.A.T. 220.)

221.)

222.)

223.)

JAR-ATPL


To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

3, 4

b)

1, 2

c)

2, 3, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

1, 2

In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on an aeroplane, the commander should: 1. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane 2. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aeroplane 3. position the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane 4. position the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aeroplane The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2

b)

1, 4

c)

2, 3

d)

3, 4

In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that: a)

stagnate on the runway.

b)

separate outwards on each side of the runway.

c)

separate outwards to the right side only.

d)

separate outwards to the left side only.


page: 55

C.A.T. 224.)

225.)

226.)

227.)

JAR-ATPL


In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is to: a)

operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems.

b)

apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures.

c)

de-ice the aircraft.

d)

de-ice again the aircraft, then apply anti-icing fluid.

The wake turbulence: a)

starts at rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground.

b)

starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.

c)

starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 35 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.

d)

starts as soon as the aeroplane commences rolling and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.

In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at: a)

low altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

b)

low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.

c)

low altitude diverge from the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.

d)

high altitude converge on the centre of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.

You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1,2,3

b)

3,4

c)

2,3

d)

1,2,3,4


page: 56

C.A.T. 228.)

229.)

230.)

JAR-ATPL


You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 3

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

1, 4

In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. retract gear and flaps, if they are extended 4. keep gear, flaps and slats in current configuration and retract the speed brakes 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3, 5

b)

3, 5

c)

2, 3

d)

1, 2, 4

A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 4

b)

2, 3, 4

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

1, 2, 3, 4


page: 57

C.A.T. 231.)

232.)

233.)

234.)

JAR-ATPL


A slow decompression may be caused by: 1. a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight 2. loss of a cabin window 3. malfunction of all pressurised systems 4. loss of a door The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3

b)

1, 2, 3

c)

2, 4

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

The flight data recorder must start automatically to record the data: a)

when taking-off.

b)

prior to the aircraft being capable of moving under its own power.

c)

when the landing gear is retracted.

d)

when lining up.

The flight data recorder must stop automatically to record the data: a)

when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.

b)

when the aeroplane clears the runway.

c)

after the aeroplane is unable to move by its own power.

d)

when the landing gear is extended and locked.

JAR-OPS 1 applies to: a)

aircraft used by police, customs and defence departments.

b)

the operation by a JAA state member of any civil aircraft.

c)

the operation by a JAA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane.

d)

aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.


page: 58

C.A.T. 235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

239.)

JAR-ATPL


The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to: a)

commander.

b)

station manager.

c)

aerodrome manager.

d)

sender.

An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required: a)

a copy of the calculated take-off performances.

b)

meteorological information.

c)

mass and balance documentation.

d)

the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.

After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a)

30 days.

b)

60 days.

c)

45 days.

d)

90 days.

The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He a)

shall do so if authorised by the operator.

b)

can refuse to present them.

c)

can request a delay of 48 hours.

d)

shall do so, within a reasonable period of time.

An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped with at least: a)

4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

b)


c)


d)

1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.


page: 59

C.A.T. 240.)

241.)

242.)

243.)

244.)

JAR-ATPL




b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)



page: 60

C.A.T. 245.)

246.)

247.)

248.)

JAR-ATPL




b)


c)


d)


An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: a)


b)


c)


d)


An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be equipped (including flight deck) with at least: a)

4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers or equivalent.

b)


c)


d)

1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher or equivalent.

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a: a)

crash axe in the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.

b)

crash axe or a crow-bar in the flight deck.

c)

crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.

d)

crow-bar in the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.


page: 61

C.A.T. 249.)

250.)

251.)

JAR-ATPL


In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen quantity: 1. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft. 2. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. 3. In no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft. 4. In no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 2, 3, 4.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1, 3, 4.

d)

1,4.

In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is: a)

the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13000 ft.

b)

30 minutes.

c)

the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000ft.

d)

the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no case less than 10 minutes.

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants: a)

plus 30 %.

b)

in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.

c)

plus 30 %.

d)

plus 10 %.


page: 62

C.A.T. 252.)

253.)

254.)

JAR-ATPL


In accordance with JAR-OPS, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurized aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above: a)

10000 ft.

b)

13000 ft.

c)

15000 ft.

d)

14000 ft.

In accordance with JAR-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above: a)

10000 ft.

b)

14000 ft.

c)

13000 ft.

d)

15000 ft.

In accordance with JAR-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than: 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft. 10000 ft but not exceeding 14000 ft. 10000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft. 14000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.

255.)

In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of: a)

seats by 2 %.

b)

passengers by 10 %.

c)

passengers by 2 %.

d)

seats by 10 %.


page: 63

C.A.T. 256.)

257.)

258.)

259.)

260.)

JAR-ATPL


For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the: a)

Speed is greater than 95 kt.

b)

Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

c)

Tail wind is greater than 10 kt.

d)




b)

Cross wind is greater than 10 kt.

c)


d)



Runway temperature is greater than 40°C.

b)


c)


d)




b)


c)


d)

Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of tyregrooves.

For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as: a)

Water depth is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

b)


c)


d)



page: 64

C.A.T. 261.)

262.)

263.)

264.)

JAR-ATPL


The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip: a)

counter clockwise.

b)

from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

c)

clockwise.

d)

from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.

When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-off: a)

at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the runway .

b)

at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the runway .

c)

in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

d)

beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of: a)

60 kt.

b)

20 kt.

c)

80 kt.

d)

40 kt.

In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the: a)

State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO

b)

State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only

c)

State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.

d)

State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO


page: 65

C.A.T. 265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

JAR-ATPL


The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather conditions of: a)

frost

b)

steady snow

c)

freezing fog

d)

rain on a cold soaked wing

After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to: a)

complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded

b)

carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure

c)

switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne

d)

complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further contamination

At any ambient temperature up to + 30° C and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing: a)

cannot occur

b)

can occur at any setting

c)

can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings

d)

can occur, but only at a low power setting

Which of the following weather conditions will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of anti-icing fluid? a)

Light freezing rain

b)

Frost

c)

Steady snow

d)

Freezing fog


page: 66

C.A.T. 269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

273.)

JAR-ATPL


Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ? a)

edible rubbish

b)

short gang-mown grass

c)

an area liable to flooding

d)

long grass

Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ? a)

maintaining the grass on the airfield

b)

the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel

c)

a opened refuse tip in close vicinity

d)

modern and close sewage treatment centre in close proximity

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the: a)

operator

b)

state of the operator

c)

commander

d)

state in which the aeroplane is operating

In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when: a)

Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt

b)

It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

c)

It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance

d)

Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less

A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is: a)

foam

b)

water

c)

dry powder

d)

CO2 (carbon dioxide)


page: 67

C.A.T. 274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

JAR-ATPL


An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ? a)

place the seat belts sign to ON

b)

transmit a MAYDAY message

c)

disconnect the autopilot

d)

to put on oxygen masks

When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate: a)

zero

b)

a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm

c)

a rate of climb

d)

a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure

If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure: a)

attains its maximum permitted operating limit

b)

increases

c)

remains constant

d)

decreases

Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is: a)

2500 ft

b)

8000 ft

c)

25000 ft

d)

14000 ft


page: 68

C.A.T. 278.)

279.)

280.)

281.)

JAR-ATPL


Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ? a)

8000 ft

b)

14000 ft

c)

25000 ft

d)

32000 ft

The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is: a)

13000 ft

b)

15000 ft

c)

25000 ft

d)

14000 ft

Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is: a)

small

b)

substantial

c)

null

d)

medium

In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to: a)

increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle

b)

climb away at Vat + 20 kt

c)

reduce speed to V2 and hold

d)

slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb


page: 69

C.A.T. 282.)

283.)

284.)

285.)

JAR-ATPL


For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ? a)

11.1 km (6 NM)

b)

9.3 km (5 NM)

c)

7.4 km (4 NM)

d)

3.7 km (2 NM)

For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ? a)

11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes

b)


c)


d)


For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ? a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

5 minutes

d)

2 minutes

In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg: a)

H

b)

S

c)

L

d)

M


page: 70

C.A.T. 286.)

287.)

288.)

289.)

JAR-ATPL


For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ? a)

3 minutes

b)

2 minutes

c)

4 minutes

d)

5 minutes

Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to: a)

the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

b)

both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator

c)

the local authority only

d)

the Authority of the State of the operator only

According to ICAO Annex 17, following an unlawful interference, who shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft, until their journey can be continued? The: a)

J.A.A.

b)

contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs

c)

aircraft's operator

d)

Commander of the aircraft

What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference: a)

code A 7500

b)

code A 7600

c)

code A 7700

d)

code A 2000


page: 71

C.A.T. 290.)

291.)

292.)

293.)

JAR-ATPL


If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being: a)

locked from within the compartment

b)

remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

c)

directly locked from outside the compartment

d)

remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment

In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements: a)

30 minutes

b)

90 minutes

c)

15 minutes

d)

60 minutes

From the following list: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. Which of the above are requirements that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests: a)

1,2,3 and 4

b)

1,3 and 4

c)

1 and 4

d)

2 and 3

Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any other language ? a)

English

b)

French

c)

Spanish

d)

English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese


page: 72

C.A.T. 294.)

295.)

296.)

297.)

JAR-ATPL


From the following list: 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. First-aid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aircraft in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons: a)

1,2 and 3 only

b)

3,4 and 5 only

c)

1,2 and 5 only

d)

2,3 and 4 only

The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is: a)

24 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

3 hours

Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is: a)

80 kt

b)

100 kt

c)

114 kt

d)

129 kt

Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported: a)

as a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM

b)

in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM

c)

it is not reported

d)

by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres


page: 73

C.A.T. 298.)

299.)

300.)

301.)

302.)

JAR-ATPL


A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is: a)

medium

b)

unreliable

c)

poor

d)

good

A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including: a)

no halon fire-extinguisher.

b)

3 halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.

c)

2 halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.

d)

1 halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent.

In accordance with JAR OPS, the noise abatement procedures specified by the operator should be: a)

for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.

b)

different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.

c)

for an aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes.

d)

for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome.

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the: a)

temperature of the brakes.

b)

temperature of the hydraulic fluid.

c)

pressure of the hydraulic fluid.

d)

pressure of the pneumatic tyres.

In compliance with JAR OPS and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a: a)

system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.

b)

transport document for dangerous goods.

c)

specialized handling employee.

d)

representative of the company owning the goods.


page: 74

C.A.T. 303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

JAR-ATPL


The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the: a)

AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).

b)

air operator certificate.

c)

flight manual.

d)

operations manual.

The commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions: a)

even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits.

b)

unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing.

c)

unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by Aircraft Flight Manual.

d)

unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1, 3

b)

1, 2

c)

4

d)

1, 2, 3

In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: a)

it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.

b)

it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

c)

surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

d)

its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.


page: 75

C.A.T. 307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

JAR-ATPL


According to the JAR OPS 1, when a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include: a)

a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.

b)

a sealing system which, in case of depressurisation in the compartment area allows the maintenance of the pressure in the cockpit for as long as possible.

c)

a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.

d)

distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).

When a commander of an aircraft notices, after take-off, a flock of birds presenting a bird strike hazard, he/she shall: a)

inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.

b)

inform the other aircraft by radio.

c)

submit a written hazard bird strike report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.

d)

immediately inform the local ground station/ATS unit.

Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by: a)

15 %

b)

20 %

c)

18 %

d)

17,6 %

In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

2, 3, 4

b)

1, 3, 4

c)

1, 3, 4, 5

d)

1, 2, 3, 4


page: 76

C.A.T. 311.)

312.)

313.)

314.)

JAR-ATPL


A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is: a)

the minimum equipment list.

b)

the flight record.

c)

the operations manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".

d)

the JAR OPS.

A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is: a)

the flight manual.

b)

the JAR OPS.

c)

the minimum equipment list.

d)

the operations manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".

The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the: a)

air operator certificate.

b)

registration certificate.

c)

insurance certificate.

d)

airworthiness certificate.

The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the: a)

flight manual.

b)

operations manual.

c)

flight record.

d)

JAR OPS.


page: 77

C.A.T. 315.)

316.)

317.)

318.)

JAR-ATPL


Wake turbulence should be taken into account when: a)

during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.

b)

when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway.

c)

a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.

d)

a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: a)

you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.

b)

Extinguish fire only.

c)

Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.

d)

Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an airconditioned cargo hold is forbidden.

An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual certificate of airworthiness before 1 April 1998 with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which shall be capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last: a)


b)

30 minutes of its operation.

c)


d)


(For this question use annex 071-12057A) If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix it is: a)

a toxic material

b)

a corpse

c)

an infectious substance

d)

an explosive substance


page: 78

C.A.T. 319.)

320.)

321.)

322.)

JAR-ATPL


Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authorities, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: a)

the airline is approver to and complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284)

b)

no passenger is carried on the same flight

c)

government permission has been granted and compliance with the technical instructions

d)

national aviation administration permission has been granted

In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is: a)

A 7500

b)

A 7600

c)

A 7700

d)

A 2000

A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight: 1- class A fires 2- class B fires 3- electrical source fires 4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a)

1-2-3

b)

2-4

c)

3-4

d)

1-2-3–4

The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 – halon Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a)

1

b)

1-2-3-4

c)

2-3-4

d)

3–4


page: 79

C.A.T. 323.)

324.)

325.)

326.)

JAR-ATPL


The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 – halon Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a)

3-4

b)

1-2-3-4

c)

2

d)

2-3–4

H2O extinguishers are fit to fight: a)

Class A fires

b)

electrical source fires

c)

Class B fires

d)

special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight: 1 - class A fires 2 - class B fires 3 - fires with an electrical origin 4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical products Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements: a)

1-2-3

b)

2-3-4

c)

1-2-4

d)

1-3–4

A class A fire is a fire of: a)

solid material, generally of organic nature

b)

metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

c)

electrical origin

d)

liquid or liquefiable solid


page: 80

C.A.T. 327.)

328.)

329.)

330.)

331.)

JAR-ATPL


A class B fire is a fire of: a)

electrical source fire

b)

special fire: metal, gas, chemical product

c)

liquid or liquefiable solid

d)

solid material usually of organic nature

The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) if this exists is established by: a)

the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority

b)

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer

c)

the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

d)

the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by: a)

the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual

b)

the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual

c)

the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual

d)

the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual

Wind shear is: a)

a variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short distance

b)

a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance

c)

a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance

d)

a variation in vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance

On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to: a)

provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation

b)

provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation

c)

protect an aircrew who fights a fire

d)

assist a passenger with breathing disorders


page: 81

C.A.T. 332.)

333.)

334.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is: a)

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.

b)

authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt.

c)

forbidden.

d)

authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.

In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ? a)

never.

b)

if the aircraft is a twin-engine.

c)

if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

d)

if part or all the flight is done at night.

The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1 - the training 2 - the test results 3 - a log of flying hours 4 - a summary of the training by reference period Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers? a)

1-2-3-4

b)

2-3

c)

1-2-3

d)

3–4


page: 82

C.A.T. 335.)

336.)

337.)

338.)

JAR-ATPL


The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are: DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet. Is take-off possible? a)

Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM.

b)

No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure.

c)

Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.

d)

No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.

The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is: a)

150 m.

b)

200 m.

c)

150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

d)

300 m.

The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is: 1 - RVR/Visibility 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) 4 - the decision altitude/height (DA/H) Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements? a)

1-3

b)

1-2-3

c)

1-4

d)

1-2–4

For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than: a)

60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

b)

60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.

c)

30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

d)

30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.


page: 83

C.A.T. 339.)

340.)

341.)

342.)

JAR-ATPL


During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is: a)

the FAF.

b)

the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

c)

the middle marker.

d)

the outer marker (OM).

An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are: MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres: Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 metres: The pilot may start the final approach... a)

regardless the ceiling given by ATC.

b)

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.

c)

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.

d)

if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.

The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10,8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches: a)

87 kt

b)

56 kt

c)

145 kt

d)

113 kt

In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes: a)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

b)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.

c)

no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a noise abatement procedure.

d)

turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)


page: 84

C.A.T. 343.)

344.)

345.)

346.)

JAR-ATPL


When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence nonradar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be: a)

2 MIN

b)

3 MIN

c)

1 MIN

d)

4 MIN

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied: a)

to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold

b)

Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off

c)

to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m

d)

to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

According to DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to: a)

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway

b)

MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m

c)

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

d)

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of: a)

2 NM

b)

3 NM

c)

5 NM

d)

4 NM


page: 85

C.A.T. 347.)

348.)

349.)

350.)

JAR-ATPL


According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to: a)

LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway

b)

LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

c)

MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

d)

LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a: a)

MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

b)

HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

c)

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

d)

LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is: a)

D

b)

C

c)

E

d)

B

In the Airspace where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is: a)

1 000 ft

b)

1 500 ft

c)

500 ft

d)

2000ft


page: 86

C.A.T. 351.)

352.)

353.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (d, but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and: a)

climb or descent 1 000 ft

b)

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

c)

climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft

d)

climb or descend 500 ft

An aircraft flying above FL 410 in North Atlantic (NAT) Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and: a)

climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

b)

climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft

c)

climb or descent 500 ft

d)

climb or descend 1 000 ft

An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if: a)

at FL410

b)

at FL 430

c)

above FL 410

d)

below FL 410


page: 87

C.A.T. 354.)

355.)

356.)

357.)

JAR-ATPL


An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if: a)

at FL 410

b)

below FL 410

c)

at FL 430

d)

above FL 410

DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of: a)

136 000 Kg or more

b)

less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg

c)

135 000 Kg or more

d)

146 000 Kg or more

The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight operation. The commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL: a)

At any time during the flight.

b)

Until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight.

c)

At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing.

d)

Prior to the aircraft take-off.

During a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by JAR OPS is: a)

5.000 meters

b)

1.500 meters or more

c)

3.000 meters

d)

2.500 meters


page: 88

C.A.T. 358.)

359.)

360.)

361.)

362.)

JAR-ATPL


The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of: a)

6 months

b)

1 year

c)

1 month

d)

3 months

The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of: a)

3 months

b)

24 months

c)

15 months

d)

12 months

A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than: a)

30

b)

9

c)

19

d)

61

The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be: a)

20 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 2

b)


c)

5 % of the number fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1

d)


A windshield wiper or an equivalent device is required at each pilot position in order to operate an aeroplane with a: a)

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 6 seats

b)

maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 15,000 kg

c)

maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 seats

d)

maximum certificated take-off mass of more than 5,700 kg


page: 89

C.A.T. 363.)

364.)

365.)

366.)

JAR-ATPL


A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than: a)

15 % with melted snow

b)

25 % with compacted snow

c)

20 % with melted snow

d)

10 % with ice

The public address system must be audible and intelligible at: 1 - all passenger seats 2 – toilets 3 - cabin crew seats 4 - work stations The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1

b)

1-2-3

c)

1-2

d)

1-2-3-4

In order to be operated at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, an aeroplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is: 1 – pressurised 2 - non-pressurised with a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700 kg 3 - non-pressurised with a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 9 seats 4 - non-pressurised, operating for public transportation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a)

1 and 4

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

4

d)

1 and 2

For a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is: a)

used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide

b)

available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons

c)

therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers

d)

required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft


page: 90

C.A.T. 367.)

368.)

369.)

JAR-ATPL


For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: a)

the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

b)

the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

c)

the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 500 ft

d)


For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: a)


b)


c)


d)


For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: a)


b)


c)


d)



page: 91

C.A.T. 370.)

371.)

372.)

373.)

JAR-ATPL


For a pressurised aeroplane, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: 1 - the entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13 000 ft but not less than 30 minutes 2 - the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 3 - the flight time minus 30 minutes when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 4 - the flight time when cabin pressure altitude is greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft after the first 30 minutes at these altitudes The combination regrouping all correct statements is: a)

1, 3

b)

1, 4

c)

2, 4

d)

2, 3

For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than: a)

10 minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

30 minutes

d)

2 hours

As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has been damaged during its loading, you: a)

mention it on the shipper's declaration

b)

ensure that arrangements are made for its removal

c)

accept it after a visual inspection

d)

mention it on the Notification to Captain

The minimum visibility required by JAR OPS 1 and 3 to commence a special VFR flight is: a)

5 km

b)

2.5 km

c)

3 km

d)

1.5 km


page: 92

C.A.T. 374.)

375.)

376.)

377.)

JAR-ATPL


You intend to operate a public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The track will overfly water at 80 nautical miles from the shore. The minimum number of approved life jackets to be on board is: a)

66

b)

0

c)

60

d)

None if equipped with life rafts

You intend to operate a multi-engine public transport aeroplane (land aeroplane) with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight one engine inoperative. The track will overfly water at 380 NM from an emergency landing place. The minimum equipment configuration complying with JAR OPS is: a)

none, distance being less than 400 NM

b)

two 30-seat life rafts

c)

one 30-seat life raft and two 20-seat life raft

d)

three 30-seat life rafts

According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than: a)

2 000 ft above aerodrome elevation

b)

800 ft above aerodrome elevation

c)


d)


According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure" NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated: a)

not below 1 000 ft

b)

not below 800 ft

c)

at 3 000 ft

d)

at 1 500 ft


page: 93

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C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL



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C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


361: D (1 Pkt.)

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page: 97

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL

Questionnaire 080-AERO

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle between the: a)

chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow.

b)

bottom surface and the relative airflow.

c)

bottom surface and the horizontal

d)

bottom surface and the chord line.

In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ...: a)

(I) increase, (II) decrease.

b)

(I) decrease, (II) increase.

c)

(I) increase, (II) decrease.

d)

(I) increase, (II) increase.

The SI units of air density (I) and force (II) are: a)

(I) kg / m², (II) kg.

b)

(I) N / kg, (II) kg.

c)

(I) N / m3, (II) N.

d)

(I) kg / m3, (II) N.

The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are: a)

(I) kg / m, (II) N / m².

b)

(I) N / m3, (II) kg / m².

c)

(I) N / m², (II) N / m².

d)

(I) N / m, (II) kg.


page: 1

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)? a)

F=m. a

b)

F=m / a

c)

m=F.a

d)

a=F. m

Static pressure acts: a)

in all directions.

b)

only in the direction of the total pressure.

c)

only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.

d)

only in direction of the flow.

Lift is generated when: a)

a certain mass of air is retarded.

b)

a symmetrical aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream at zero angle of attack.

c)

a certain mass of air is accelerated in its flow direction.

d)

the flow direction of a certain mass of air is changed.

Consider the steady flow through a stream tube where the velocity of the stream is V. An increase in temperature of the flow at a constant value of V will: a)

increase the mass flow.

b)

not affect the mass flow.

c)

decrease the mass flow.

d)

increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.

Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct? a)

The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.

b)

The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.

c)

The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.

d)

The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.


page: 2

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

If in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static pressure in the flow will: a)

not change.

b)

increase.

c)

decrease.

d)

increase initially, then decrease.

Bernoulli's equation can be written as: (pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure) a)

pt = ps + q

b)

pt = ps / q

c)

pt = ps - q

d)

pt = q – ps

Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct? a)

The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer.

b)

The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.

c)

The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.

d)

The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.

Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at high angles of attack? a)

lower side leading edge.

b)

lower side trailing edge.

c)

upper side leading edge.

d)

upper side trailing edge.

On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane): a)

move aft.

b)

remain unaffected.

c)

remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.

d)

move forward.


page: 3

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph: a)

nowhere.

b)

below the origin.

c)

above the origin.

d)

in the origin.

The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between: a)

the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.

b)

the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.

c)

the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.

d)

the fuselage centreline and the free stream direction.

The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is: a)

glide path angle.

b)

same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.

c)

angle of attack.

d)

climb path angle.

The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the: a)

climb path angle.

b)

angle of attack.

c)

glide path angle.

d)

angle of incidence.

With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are: a)

(I) up, (II) forward.

b)

(I) down, (II) forward.

c)

(I) down, (II) aft.

d)

(I) up, (II) aft.


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020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where: a)

changes of lift due to variations in angle of attack are constant.

b)

aerodynamic forces are constant.

c)

the aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.

d)

the pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.

"Flutter" may be caused by: a)

distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.

b)

roll control reversal.

c)

high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

d)

low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" phenomenon: a)

is caused by wingtip stall.

b)

never occurs, since a swept wing is a "remedy" to pitch up.

c)

is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.

d)

is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.

Low speed pitch up is caused by the: a)

Mach trim system.

b)

wing tip vortex.

c)

spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.

d)

spanwise flow on a swept back wing.

The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately: a)

W(1-sin.gamma).

b)

Wcos.gamma.

c)

W(1-tan.gamma).

d)

W/cos.gamma.


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025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

029.)

The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be: a)

0.74

b)

1.49

c)

1.71

d)

2.49

The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the: a)

induced drag is lowest.

b)

induced drag is equal to zero.

c)

parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.

d)

parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.

Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitching moment when Cl=0 is: a)

equal to zero.

b)

negative (nose-down).

c)

infinite

d)

positive (nose-up).

On a un-swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic centre: a)

slightly shifts forward.

b)

remains unchanged.

c)

shifts aft by about 10%.

d)

shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.

On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitching moment for which Cl=0 is: a)

negative (pitch-down)

b)

positive (pitch-up)

c)

zero

d)

equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.


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030.)

031.)

032.)

033.)

The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be: a)

1.09

b)

2.13

c)

2.0

d)

3.18

An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be: a)

x 2.0

b)

x 0.5

c)

x 4.0

d)

x 0.25

The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows: a)

No effect

b)

Negative dihedral effect

c)

Destabilizing dihedral effect

d)

Stabilizing effect

The effect on static stability of an aeroplane with a high wing as compared to a low wing is: a)

zero dihedral effect

b)

no effect as it is only used to improve aeroplane loading

c)

a positive dihedral effect

d)

a negative dihedral effect


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034.)

035.)

036.)

037.)

The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree would increase CL by 0.079. If a vertical gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees, the load factor will be: a)

1.45

b)

0.45

c)

0.9

d)

1.9

When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) would be: a)

59%.

b)

169%.

c)

130%.

d)

77%.

The lift formula is: a)

L= n W

b)

L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S

c)

L= CL 2 RHO V² S

d)

L= W

An aeroplane is in a level turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is: (given: g= 10 m/s²) a)

4743 metres.

b)

3354 metres.

c)

9000 metres.

d)

2381 metres.


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038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

042.)

Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct? a)

The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.

b)

The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases.

c)

At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.

d)

The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft weight.

Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the: a)

chord line.

b)

relative wind/airflow.

c)

horizon.

d)

longitudinal axis.

If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes: a)

a roll to the right.

b)

a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing.

c)

a roll to the left.

d)

an increase in lift on the left wing.

At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and parasite drag Dp? Di/Dp= a)

1/1

b)

2/1

c)

It varies between aeroplane types.

d)

½

The correct drag formula is: a)

D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S

b)

D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S

c)

D= CD 1/2 RHO V S

d)

D= CD 2 RHO V² S


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043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

047.)

The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the: a)

square of the angle of attack.

b)

angle of attack.

c)

square of the speed.

d)

speed.

An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors: a)

(i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16

b)

(i) 1/4 (ii) 2

c)

(i) 4 (ii) 1/2

d)

(i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4

What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's wing on induced drag? a)

It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area.

b)

It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash.

c)

It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced.

d)

It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag.

In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing speed in straight and level flight ? a)

(1) decreases and (2) increases.

b)

(1) increases and (2) decreases.

c)

(1) decreases and (2) decreases.

d)

(1) increases and (2) increases.

Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors constant) a)

Elliptical.

b)

Rectangular.

c)

Circular.

d)

Tapered.


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048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

052.)

If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span) a)

decrease.

b)

increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.

c)

increase.

d)

remain the same.

The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with: a)

1/V

b)

V²

c)

1/V²

d)

V

Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: a)

aeroplane wing location.

b)

engine thrust.

c)

aeroplane weight.

d)

angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line.

Which of the following will reduce induced drag? a)

Extending the flaps.

b)

Low aspect ratio.

c)

Elliptical lift distribution.

d)

Flying at high angles of attack.

Induced drag is created by the: a)

spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices.

b)

interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage.

c)

separation of the boundary layer over the wing.

d)

propeller wash blowing across the wing.


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053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

057.)

Vortex generators: a)

reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.

b)

change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.

c)

transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.

d)

take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.

How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight? a)

Decreasing, then increasing.

b)

Increasing.

c)

Increasing, then decreasing.

d)

Decreasing.

A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will: a)

improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap.

b)

increase the critical Mach Number.

c)

improve the high speed characteristics.

d)

improve the low speed characteristics.

In order to perform a steady level turn at constant speed in an aeroplane, the pilot must: a)

increase thrust/power and angle of attack.

b)

increase thrust/power and decrease angle of attack.

c)

increase angle of attack and keep thrust/power unchanged.

d)

increase thrust/power and keep angle of attack unchanged.

When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be: a)

upwards.

b)

downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity.

c)

downwards.

d)

zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.


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058.)

059.)

060.)

061.)

062.)

In a twin engine jet aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to maintain the pitching moment zero ? a)

Up.

b)

Down.

c)

No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains unchanged.

d)

It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.

In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value ? a)

Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

b)

Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.

c)

Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.

d)

Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: a)

upwards.

b)

zero.

c)

upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.

d)

downwards.

The centre of gravity moving aft will: a)

increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location.

b)

increase the elevator up effectiveness.

c)

decrease the elevator up effectiveness.

d)

not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.

If the total sum of moments about one of its axes is not zero, an aeroplane would: a)

not be affected because the situation is normal.

b)

experience an angular acceleration about that axis.

c)

be difficult to control.

d)

fly a path with a constant curvature.


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063.)

064.)

065.)

066.)

067.)

During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the greatest elevator up deflection is normally required when the flaps are: a)

fully down and the cg is fully forward.

b)

up and the cg is fully aft.

c)

fully down and the cg is fully aft.

d)

up and the cg is fully forward.

Rotation about the lateral axis is called: a)

slipping.

b)

yawing.

c)

rolling.

d)

pitching.

Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the: a)

vertical axis.

b)

lateral axis.

c)

longitudinal axis.

d)

wing axis.

An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip to the right, initially the: a)

nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.

b)

nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.

c)

right wing tends to go down.

d)

nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.

The cg of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct? a)

An increase of 10kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more effect on the stick force than an increase of 10kt from the trimmed position at high speed.

b)

Increase of speed generates pull forces.

c)

Stick force stability is not affected by trim.

d)

Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.


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068.)

069.)

070.)

071.)

072.)

The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by: a)

(1) trimming the aeroplane nose up (2) trimming the aeroplane nose up.

b)

(1) aft C.G. movement (2) aft CG. movement.

c)

(1) forward C.G. movement (2) forward CG. movement.

d)

(1) forward C.G. movement (2) trimming the aeroplane nose up.

The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2,5 from steady level flight is: a)

450 N.

b)

225 N.

c)

375 N.

d)

150 N.

For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located: a)

aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.

b)

at the neutral point of the aeroplane.

c)

between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.

d)

with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.

The maximum aft position of the centre of gravity is, amongst others, limited by the: a)

inability to achieve maximum rotation rate during take-off.

b)

maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.

c)

maximum elevator deflection.

d)

required minimum value of the stick force per g.

Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the: a)

centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.

b)

centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.

c)

aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.

d)

wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.


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073.)

074.)

075.)

076.)

077.)

Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that following a disturbance from the equilibrium condition: a)

the initial tendency is to return towards its equilibrium condition.

b)

the tendency is to move with an oscillatory motion of decreasing amplitude.

c)

the tendency is to move with an oscillatory motion of increasing amplitude.

d)

the initial tendency is to diverge further from its equilibrium condition.

Following a disturbance, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude. The aeroplane is: a)

statically unstable - dynamically neutral

b)

statically stable - dynamically unstable

c)

statically stable - dynamically neutral

d)

statically unstable - dynamically stable

Which statement on dynamic longitudinal stability of a conventional aeroplane is correct? a)

Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.

b)

Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.

c)

Damping of the short period oscillation is normally very weak.

d)

Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.

The "short period mode" is an: a)

oscillation about the longitudinal axis.

b)

oscillation about the vertical axis.

c)

unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot.

d)

oscillation about the lateral axis.

An aeroplane that has positive static stability: a)

is always dynamically unstable.

b)

is never dynamically stable.

c)

is always dynamically stable.

d)

can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable.


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078.)

079.)

080.)

081.)

082.)

A statically unstable aeroplane is: a)

never dynamically stable.

b)

sometimes dynamically stable.

c)

always dynamically stable.

d)

sometimes dynamically unstable.

One of the requirements for positive dynamic stability is: a)

positive static stability.

b)

a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim.

c)

a small cg range.

d)

an effective elevator.

"Tuck under" is: a)

the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.

b)

the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.

c)

shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.

d)

the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime.

"Tuck under" may happen at: a)

all Mach numbers.

b)

high Mach numbers.

c)

only at low altitudes.

d)

low Mach numbers.

"Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer. a)

(i) aft (ii) increasing

b)

(i) aft (ii) decreasing

c)

(i) forward (ii) increasing

d)

(i) forward (ii) decreasing


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083.)

084.)

085.)

086.)

087.)

Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct? a)

Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns.

b)

The "effective dihedral" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static lateral stability.

c)

Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line and the lateral axis of the aeroplane.

d)

Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.

How does positive camber of an aerofoil affect static longitudinal stability ? It has positive effect, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack. a)

negative effect, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.

b)

positive effect, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.

c)

no effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment

d)

coefficient, independent of angle of attack.

Which of the following lists contain aeroplane design features that all increase static lateral stability? a)

Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.

b)

High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.

c)

Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.

d)

Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.

Which wing design feature decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane? a)

Increased wing span.

b)

Anhedral.

c)

High wing.

d)

Dihedral.

The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the: a)

C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.

b)

flaps are down.

c)

speed is low.

d)

C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.


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088.)

089.)

090.)

091.)

The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows: (1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) a)

1: no effect, 2: positive, 3: negative

b)

1: negative, 2: positive, 3: positive

c)

1: no effect, 2: negative, 3: positive

d)

1: positive, 2: negative, 3: negative

Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct? a)

The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of each other because they take place about different axes.

b)

Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.

c)

An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to "Dutch roll".

d)

An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive (spiral instability).

Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? a)

Rolling and yawing.

b)

Pitching and yawing.

c)

Pitching and rolling.

d)

Pitching and adverse yaw.

(For this question use annex 081-1331A) A jet transport aeroplane weighing 100 tons carries out a steady level 50 degree bank turn at FL350. The buffet free speed range from low speed to high speed buffet extends from: a)

M 0.65 to > M 0.84

b)

M 0.72 to > M 0.84

c)

M 0.74 to M 0.84

d)

M 0.69 to > M 0.84


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092.)

093.)

094.)

095.)

096.)

Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce: a)

no pitching moment.

b)

a nose-down pitching moment.

c)

a force which reduces drag.

d)

a nose-up pitching moment.

Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct? a)

A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to MMO.

b)

A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number.

c)

A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers.

d)

The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up.

With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will: a)

(1) increase (2) increase.

b)

(1) increase (2) decrease.

c)

(1) decrease (2) increase.

d)

(1) decrease (2) decrease.

Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"? a)

Roll spoilers.

b)

Spoiler mixer.

c)

Yaw damper.

d)

Rudder limiter.

Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ? a)

Buffeting.

b)

Tuck under.

c)

Dutch roll.

d)

Spiral dive.


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097.)

098.)

099.)

100.)

101.)

Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as follows: a)

(1) increases (2) increases.

b)

(1) decreases (2) decreases.

c)

(1) decreases (2) increases.

d)

(1) increases (2) decreases.

Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will: a)

(1) move aft, (2) not move.

b)

(1) move aft, (2) move aft.

c)

(1) not move (2) move forward.

d)

(1) move aft, (2) move forward.

Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ? a)

Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.

b)

Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed.

c)

Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed.

d)

Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..

Which of the following statements about the spin is correct? a)

During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position.

b)

Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin.

c)

An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root.

d)

In the spin, airspeed continuously increases.

During an erect spin recovery: a)

the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.

b)

the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.

c)

the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.

d)

the ailerons are held in the neutral position.


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102.)

103.)

104.)

105.)

106.)

Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct? a)

The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.

b)

Buffeting is the result of tailplane flow separation..

c)

Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have an increased nose-down tendency.

d)

The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation.

How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane ? a)

stick pusher.

b)

stick shaker and/or aerodynamic buffet.

c)

stall warning light only.

d)

aural warning only.

The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the: a)

stagnation point.

b)

centre of pressure.

c)

point of lowest pressure.

d)

centre of gravity.

Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall? a)

Straight wings and a T-tail.

b)

Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines

c)

Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.

d)

Swept back wings and a T-tail.

When a strongly swept back wing stalls and the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be a(n): a)

nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.

b)

tendency to increase speed after initial stall.

c)

nose down tendency.

d)

increase in sensitivity of elevator inputs.


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107.)

108.)

109.)

110.)

111.)

The function of the stick pusher is: a)

to vibrate the controls.

b)

to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.

c)

to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack.

d)

to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.

Dangerous stall characteristics, in large transport aeroplanes that require stick pushers to be installed, include: a)

pitch down and yaw.

b)

excessive wing drop and deep stall.

c)

pitch down and increase in speed.

d)

distinct aerodynamic buffet.

By what percentage does the lift increase in a level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight? a)

52%.

b)

19%.

c)

41%.

d)

31%.

In a steady level, co-ordinated turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be: a)

n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.

b)

n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.

c)

n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.

d)

n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.

On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the "Full extended" position will produce: a)

an increase in wing area and camber.

b)

an increase in wing area only.

c)

an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.

d)

an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.


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112.)

113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually: a)

remain the same.

b)

increase.

c)

first increase and then decrease.

d)

decrease.

When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will: a)

increase.

b)

vary as the square of IAS.

c)

remain the same.

d)

decrease.

Trailing edge flap extension will: a)

increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.

b)

decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.

c)

increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.

d)

decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.

Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? a)

Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.

b)

Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.

c)

Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.

d)

Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.

What is the most effective flap system? a)

Fowler flap.

b)

Plain flap.

c)

Single slotted flap.

d)

Split flap.


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117.)

118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will: a)

just turn down.

b)

turn down, then move aft.

c)

move aft, then turn down.

d)

just move aft.

A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by: a)

increasing the critical angle of attack.

b)

increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.

c)

decreasing the skin friction.

d)

increasing the camber of the aerofoil and re-energising the airflow.

In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack must be: a)

increased or decreased depending upon the type of flap

b)

held constant

c)

increased

d)

decreased

What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ? a)

extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded.

b)

assist the ailerons during rolling.

c)

provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off.

d)

ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the "ground" position.

The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to: a)

reduce the wing loading.

b)

allow space for vibration of the slat.

c)

cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer.

d)

slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing.


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122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

Given the following aeroplane configurations: 1. Clean wing 2. Slats only extended 3. Flaps only extended Place these configurations in order of stall angle of attack: a)

2, 1, 3.

b)

2, 3, 1.

c)

1, 3, 2.

d)

3, 1, 2.

An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can also be selected. Which of the following selections will most adversely affect the CL/CD ratio? a)

Flaps from 15° to 30°.

b)

The slats.

c)


d)


After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why ? a)

Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

b)

Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.

c)

Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.

d)

Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.

Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing: a)

only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected).

b)

CD is increased and CL is decreased.

c)

both CL and CD are increased.

d)

CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.


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126.)

127.)

128.)

129.)

130.)

When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes: a)

at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.

b)

at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

c)

CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.

d)

they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.

During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: a)

on the upgoing wing only.

b)

on the downgoing wing only.

c)

upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.

d)

downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.

Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on: a)

elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.

b)

stabilizer position, static pressure.

c)

elevator deflection, static pressure.

d)

stabilizer position, total pressure.

For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference section: a)

decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).

b)

is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).

c)

is always positive during idling descent.

d)

is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.

Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip? a)

To ensure that the root produces most thrust.

b)

To maintain a constant angle of attack along the whole length of the propeller blade.

c)

To ensure the angle of attack is greatest at the tip.

d)

To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.


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131.)

132.)

133.)

134.)

135.)

Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they: a)

produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.

b)

produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.

c)

have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.

d)

have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.

If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: a)

increase and the rate of descent will increase.

b)

decrease and the rate of descent will increase.

c)

increase and the rate of descent will decrease.

d)

decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.

If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: a)


b)


c)


d)


Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between: a)

the usable (power available) power and the maximum power.

b)

the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.

c)

usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power.

d)

the thrust and the maximum thrust.

An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a feathered (2) propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct? a)

(2) is larger than (1).

b)

(1) is larger than (2).

c)

impossible to say which one is largest.

d)

(1) is equal to (2).


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136.)

137.)

138.)

139.)

140.)

When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position: a)

the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.

b)

the windmilling RPM is the maximum.

c)

the drag of the propeller is then minimal.

d)

the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.

Increasing the number of propeller blades will: a)

increase the maximum absorption of power.

b)

decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power.

c)

increase the noise level at maximum power.

d)

increase the propeller efficiency.

The torque effect during the take off run in respect of a right hand propeller, when viewed from behind, will tend to: a)

roll the aeroplane to the left.

b)

pitch the aeroplane nose up.

c)

pitch the aeroplane nose down.

d)

roll the aeroplane to the right.

Gyroscopic precession of a propeller is induced by: a)

pitching and yawing.

b)

increasing RPM and yawing.

c)

pitching and rolling.

d)

increasing RPM and rolling.

Asymmetric propeller blade effect is mainly induced by: a)

large angles of yaw.

b)

large angles of climb.

c)

high speed.

d)

the inclination of the propeller axis to the relative airflow.


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141.)

142.)

143.)

144.)

A propeller is turning to the right when viewed from behind. The asymmetric blade effect in the climb at low speed will: a)

roll the aeroplane to the right.

b)

yaw the aeroplane to the right.

c)

roll the aeroplane to the left.

d)

yaw the aeroplane to the left.

A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: a)

VMO.

b)

MD.

c)

MMO.

d)

VA.

How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude? a)


b)

It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

c)

It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.

d)

It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.

What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart? a)

The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes.

b)

The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.

c)

The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.

d)

The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different weights and altitudes.


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145.)

146.)

147.)

148.)

149.)

Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: a)

shockstall occurs.

b)

somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.

c)

the critical angle of attack is reached.

d)

Mach buffet occurs.

Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values? a)

(1) thick and (2) large.

b)

(1) thin and (2) small.

c)

(1) thin and (2) large.

d)

(1) thick and (2) small.

Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack? a)

Accelerated stall.

b)

low-speed stall.

c)

shockstall.

d)

deep stall.

When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur: a)

on the upper surface at the wing root.

b)

somewhere on the horizontal tail.

c)

on the lower surface of the wing.

d)

somewhere on the fin.

The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be: (assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight) a)

buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.

b)

an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.

c)

buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.

d)

engine unbalance and buffeting.


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150.)

151.)

152.)

153.)

154.)

A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates during an inadvertent increase in load factor ? a)

Deep stall.

b)

Shock stall.

c)

Accelerated stall.

d)

Low speed stall.

Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack? a)

Deep stall.

b)

Low speed stall.

c)

Accelerated stall.

d)

Shock stall.

The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding that altitude: a)

a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.

b)

turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.

c)

Mach buffet will occur immediately.

d)

turbulence may induce Mach buffet.

If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move: a)

to the mid chord position.

b)

forward.

c)

to a position near the leading edge.

d)

to a position near the trailing edge.

Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will: a)

decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.

b)

increase the critical Mach Number.

c)

decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.

d)

increase the magnitude of the shock wave.


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155.)

156.)

157.)

158.)

159.)

Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing: a)

increase wave drag.

b)

increase critical Mach Number.

c)

decrease critical Mach Number.

d)

decrease wave drag.

The aft movement of the centre of pressure during acceleration through the transonic range will: a)

decrease the longitudinal stability.

b)

increase the static lateral stability.

c)

decrease the static lateral stability.

d)

increase the static longitudinal stability.

In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is: a)

triangular.

b)

the same as in subsonic flight.

c)

rectangular.

d)

irregular.

Shock stall is: a)

separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers.

b)

separation of the flow behind the bow wave.

c)

separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave.

d)

separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach Numbers.

In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by: a)

the Mach Number.

b)

the TAS.

c)

the IAS.

d)

the CAS.


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160.)

161.)

162.)

163.)

164.)

Which of the following flight phenomena can only occur at Mach numbers above the critical Mach number? a)

Dutch roll.

b)

Elevator stall.

c)

Speed instability.

d)

Mach buffet.

Which of the following flight phenomena can occur at Mach numbers below the critical Mach number? a)

Shock stall.

b)

Mach buffet.

c)

Tuck under.

d)

Dutch roll.

The Mach trim system will: a)

adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number.

b)

keep the Mach Number automatically constant.

c)

pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.

d)

adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.

The Mach trim system will prevent: a)

buffeting.

b)

shock stall.

c)

tuck under.

d)

dutch roll.

When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is: a)

increased.

b)

decreased.

c)

unchanged.

d)

decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.


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165.)

166.)

167.)

168.)

169.)

The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence of: a)

shock wave.

b)

supersonic flow.

c)

local sonic flow.

d)

buffet.

The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by: a)

control deflection

b)

vortex generators.

c)

dihedral of the wings.

d)

sweep back of the wings.

In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are: a)

very weak and negligible.

b)

outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.

c)

in front of the aeroplane.

d)

in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.

In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because: a)

aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.

b)

behind the shock wave pressure is lower.

c)

aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.

d)

aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.

To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the: a)

EAS.

b)

IAS.

c)

TAS.

d)

Mach Number.


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170.)

171.)

172.)

173.)

174.)

The formula for the Mach Number is: (a= speed of sound) a)

M= a / TAS

b)

M= TAS*a

c)

M= IAS / a

d)

M= TAS / a

Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will: a)

remain constant.

b)

first increase, then decrease.

c)

decrease.

d)

increase.

The speed of sound is affected by the: a)

pressure of the air.

b)

humidity of the air.

c)

density of the air.

d)

temperature of the air.

An aeroplane is flying through the transonic range. As the Mach Number increases the centre of pressure of the wing will move aft. This movement requires: a)

a pitch up input of the stabilizer.

b)

much more thrust from the engine.

c)

a stability augmentation system to improve dynamic stability.

d)

a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.

The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is due to: a)

wave drag.

b)

increased skin friction.

c)

increased interference drag.

d)

increased angle of attack.


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175.)

176.)

177.)

178.)

179.)

Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct? a)

The velocity increases.

b)

The static pressure decreases.

c)

The static temperature increases.

d)

The static temperature decreases.

The bow wave will first appear at: a)

Mach 1

b)

a Mach number just below M = 1

c)

the critical Mach number

d)

a Mach number just above M = 1

Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are: a)

thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.

b)

positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing.

c)

thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.

d)

thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing.

A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach number with constant mass. The operational speed limit that may be exceeded is: a)

VNE.

b)

VMO.

c)

MMO.

d)

VD.

The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: (SQRT= square root) a)

VA <= VS SQRT(2.5)

b)

VA > VS SQRT(2.5)

c)

VA >= VS SQRT(2.5)

d)

VA < VS SQRT(2.5)


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180.)

181.)

182.)

183.)

184.)

By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%? a)

no change

b)

4.36% lower.

c)

10% lower.

d)

19% lower.

Which load factor determines VA? a)

manoeuvring ultimate load factor.

b)

gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.

c)

manoeuvring limit load factor.

d)

manoeuvring flap limit load factor.

Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration) ? a)

65 ft/sec at all speeds.

b)

50 ft/sec and VC.

c)

55 ft/sec and VB.

d)

66 ft/sec and VD.

The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed: a)

VMO

b)

Vflutter

c)

VD

d)

VC

What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ? a)

It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic pressure.

b)

It will collapse if a turn is made.

c)

It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.

d)

It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards


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185.)

186.)

187.)

188.)

189.)

What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram? a)

3.75

b)

6

c)

1.5

d)

2.5

The most important problem of ice accretion on a transport aeroplane during flight is: a)

reduction in CLmax.

b)

increase in drag.

c)

increase in weight.

d)

blocking of control surfaces.

The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: a)

increase of CLmax and decrease of drag.

b)

decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag.

c)

decrease of CLmax and increase of drag.

d)

increase of CLmax and increase of drag.

While flying under icing conditions, the largest ice build-up will occur, principally, on: a)

The upper and lower rudder surfaces.

b)

The pitot and static probes only.

c)

The upper and lower surfaces on the rear of the wing.

d)

The frontal areas of the aircraft.

The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: a)

6.

b)

9.

c)

1.5 .

d)

3.


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190.)

191.)

192.)

193.)

194.)

The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on: a)

The weight of the body.

b)

The specific mass of the body.

c)

The airstream velocity.

d)

The c.g. location of the body.

A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: a)

16 .

b)

12 .

c)

8.

d)

4.

A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor: a)

1.4 .

b)

4.

c)

8.

d)

2.

The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: a)

the c.g. location.

b)

the centre of pressure.

c)

the point of maximum thickness of the wing.

d)

the suction point of the wing.

The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will: a)

shift in spanwise direction.

b)

shift forward.

c)

not shift.

d)

shift aft.


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195.)

196.)

197.)

198.)

199.)

The unit of density is: a)

kg/cm²

b)

kg/m³

c)

Bar

d)

psi

The unit of measurement of pressure is: a)

psi

b)

kg/m³

c)

lb/gal

d)

kg/dm²

The boundary layer of a wing is: a)

a turbulent flow around the wing.

b)

a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity.

c)

caused by suction on the upper wing surface.

d)

created by the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.

A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: a)

the temperature varies constantly.

b)

the vortices are weak.

c)

no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.

d)

the velocity is constant.

Total pressure is: a)

static pressure minus dynamic pressure.

b)

½ rho V²

c)

measured at a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.

d)

static pressure plus dynamic pressure.


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200.)

201.)

202.)

203.)

204.)

The (subsonic) static pressure: a)

increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

b)

is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.

c)

is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.

d)

decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.

The true airspeed (TAS) is: a)

equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level.

b)

lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level.

c)

higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.

d)

lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.

The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section: a)

vary linearly with the angle of attack.

b)

are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack.

c)

are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.

d)

depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section.

The lift force, acting on an aerofoil: a)

is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.

b)

increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.

c)

is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.

d)

is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.

The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: a)

camber.

b)

degrees cross section tail angle.

c)

meters.

d)

% chord.


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205.)

206.)

207.)

208.)

209.)

The aerofoil polar is: a)

a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack.

b)

a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient.

c)

the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.

d)

a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord.

The aspect ratio of the wing: a)

is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord.

b)

is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span.

c)

is the ratio between chord and root chord.

d)

is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord.

Dihedral of the wing is: a)

the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.

b)

the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon.

c)

the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis.

d)

the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.

The induced drag: a)

increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.

b)

increases as the lift coefficient increases.

c)

has no relation to the lift coefficient.

d)

increases as the aspect ratio increases.

Flap selection at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will increase the: a)

maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.

b)

lift coefficient and the drag.

c)

lift and the drag.

d)

stall speed.


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210.)

211.)

212.)

213.)

214.)

The Mach number: a)

increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

b)

is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.

c)

is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.

d)

is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.

A normal shock wave: a)

can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.

b)

is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.

c)

is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.

d)

is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.

If the sum of all the moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about the: a)

aerodynamic centre of the wing.

b)

centre of pressure of the wing.

c)

neutral point of the aeroplane.

d)

centre of gravity.

Dihedral of the wing: a)

is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings.

b)

decreases the static lateral stability.

c)

is the only way to increase the static lateral stability.

d)

increases the static lateral stability.

A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to: a)

an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).

b)

a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.

c)

an increasing static longitudinal stability.

d)

a better recovery performance in the spin.


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215.)

216.)

217.)

218.)

If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents: a)

neutral.

b)

nose-down.

c)

nose-up.

d)

nose-left.

Differential aileron deflection: a)

increases the CLmax.

b)

is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.

c)

is required to achieve the required roll-rate.

d)

equals the drag of the right and left aileron.

An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: a)

Left aileron: 5° down Right aileron: 2° up

b)

Left aileron: 2° up Right aileron: 5° down

c)

Left aileron: 2° down Right aileron: 5° up

d)

Left aileron: 5° up Right aileron: 2° down

Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence? a)

Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.

b)

No.

c)

Yes strongly.

d)

Yes slightly.


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219.)

220.)

221.)

222.)

223.)

When trailing edge flaps are selected down whilst maintaining straight and level flight at constant IAS: a)

the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.

b)

the stall speed increases.

c)

the total boundary layer becomes laminar.

d)

the centre of pressure moves aft.

Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)? a)

decreasing weight.

b)

increasing air density.

c)

increasing altitude.

d)

increasing load factor.

Two identical aircraft A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level coordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and that of B is 200 kt: a)

the lift coefficient of A is less than that of B.

b)

the turn radius of A is greater than that of B.

c)

the load factor of A is greater than that of B.

d)

the rate of turn of A is greater than that of B.

Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct? a)

The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.

b)

The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.

c)

The blade angle increases with increasing aeroplane speed.

d)

The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.

The difference between IAS and TAS will: a)

increase with decreasing temperature.

b)

decrease with increasing speed.

c)

increase with increasing air density.

d)

decrease with decreasing altitude.


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224.)

225.)

226.)

227.)

228.)

Increase of wing loading will: a)

decrease take off speeds.

b)

decrease the minimum gliding angle.

c)

increase the stall speeds.

d)

increase CLmax.

An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to coordinate the turn is to apply: a)

less right bank.

b)

more right rudder.

c)

more left rudder.

d)

a higher turn-rate.

A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will: a)

turn at the same turn radius.

b)

turn at a bigger turn radius.

c)

turn at a smaller turn radius.

d)

turn at a higher turn rate.

Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level ? a)

turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.

b)

turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.

c)

turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.

d)

turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.

The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on: a)

load factor.

b)

weight.

c)

wind.

d)

TAS.


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229.)

230.)

231.)

232.)

233.)

Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct? a)

The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.

b)

The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip direction.

c)

Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.

d)

The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.

VA is: a)

the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.

b)

the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.

c)

the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.

d)

the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.

The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach number at which: a)

a "supersonic bell" appears on the upper surface.

b)

a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.

c)

the maximum operating temperature is reached.

d)

sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil.

Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is: a)

1.12 VS.

b)

1.20 VS.

c)

1.30 VS.

d)

greater than VS.

VMO: a)

should not be less than VD.

b)

should be chosen in between VC and VD.

c)

is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.

d)

should be not greater than VC.


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234.)

235.)

236.)

237.)

238.)

The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as: a)

the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing

b)

the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow.

c)

the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.

d)

the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio

The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are: a)

dynamic pressure and the area of the wing

b)

static pressure and wing surface area

c)

static pressure and dynamic pressure

d)

square root of surface and wing loading

The critical angle of attack: a)

decreases if the CG is moved aft

b)

changes with an increase in gross weight

c)

increases if the CG is moved forward

d)

remains unchanged regardless of gross weight

Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack: a)

CL is lower than CD

b)

CL is much lower than CD

c)

CL has approximately the same value as CD

d)

CL is much greater than CD

Which statement is correct in respect of Cl and angle of attack? a)

For an asymmetrical aerofoil with positive camber, if the angle of attack is greater than zero, Cl is zero.

b)

For a symmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, Cl is not zero.

c)

For a symmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, Cl is zero.

d)

For an asymmetrical aerofoil, if the angle of attack is zero, Cl is zero.


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239.)

240.)

241.)

242.)

243.)

The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between: a)

CD and angle of attack

b)

CL and CD

c)

Angle of attack and CL

d)

TAS and stall speed

The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is a)

the chord of a large rectangular wing

b)

the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift

c)

the wing area divided by the wing span

d)

the average chord of the actual aeroplane

The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from: a)

the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge

b)

beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge

c)

the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge

d)

beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip

Induced drag may be reduced by: a)

an increase in the taper ratio of the wing

b)

an increase in aspect ratio

c)

the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil

d)

a decrease of the aspect ratio

The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: a)

an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag

b)

induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value

c)

there is no relationship

d)

a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag


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244.)

245.)

246.)

247.)

248.)

A high aspect ratio wing produces: a)

less sensitivity to gust effects

b)

an increase in induced drag

c)

a decrease in stall speed

d)

a decrease in induced drag

What is the effect on induced drag of mass and speed changes? (all other factors of importance remaining constant) a)

Increases with increasing speed and decreasing mass.

b)

Decreases with increasing speed and decreasing mass.

c)

Decreases with decreasing speed and decreasing mass.

d)

Increases with increasing speed and increasing mass.

What will happen in ground effect? a)

The thrust required will increase significantly.

b)

The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases.

c)

The wing tip vortices increase in strength.

d)

The induced angle of attack and induced drag decrease.

Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur: a)

when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface

b)

at a speed approaching the stall

c)

when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface

d)

when a higher than normal angle of attack is used

Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer: a)

friction drag is lower in the laminar layer

b)

friction drag will be equal in both types of layers

c)

separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer

d)

friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer


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249.)

250.)

251.)

252.)

253.)

After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer a)

the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases

b)

the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases

c)

the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases

d)

the mean speed and friction drag increases

The stall speed: a)

does not depend on weight

b)

increases with an increased weight

c)

decreases with an increased weight

d)

increases with the length of the wingspan

At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): a)

remains the same

b)

increases

c)

decreases until the tropopause

d)

decreases

When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed: a)

increases with the square root of load factor

b)

increases with the load factor squared

c)

increases with flap extension

d)

decreases with increasing bank angle

The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor: a)

2.00

b)

1.07

c)

1.30

d)

1.41


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254.)

255.)

256.)

257.)

258.)

The trailing edge flaps when extended: a)

degrade the best angle of glide

b)

increase the zero lift angle of attack

c)

significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift

d)

significantly lower the drag

When trailing edge flaps are extended in level flight, the change in pitching moment, ignoring any effects on the tailplane, will be: a)

nose down.

b)

dependent on cg location.

c)

zero.

d)

nose up.

Deflection of leading edge flaps will: a)

decrease CLmax.

b)

increase critical angle of attack.

c)

decrease drag.

d)

not affect critical angle of attack.

Slat extension will: a)

reduce tip vortices.

b)

decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing.

c)

increase the critical angle of attack.

d)

create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.

Spoiler deflection causes: a)

an increase in lift only

b)

an increase in lift and drag

c)

decrease in lift and drag

d)

an increase in drag and decrease in lift


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259.)

260.)

261.)

262.)

263.)

An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this condition: a)

lift is equal to weight

b)

lift is less than drag

c)

drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward

d)

weight is greater than lift

An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ? a)

It decreases as altitude decreases

b)

It increases as temperature increases

c)

It decreases as pressure increases

d)

It remains constant

A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental the pilot must: a)

fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number

b)

fly at a larger angle of attack

c)

extend the flaps to the first selection

d)

fly at a higher Mach-number

One disadvantage of wing sweep is the stalling characteristics. At the stall: a)

wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment

b)

leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

c)

tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment

d)

tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.

For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is: a)

the maximum speed in smooth air

b)

the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW.

c)

the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor

d)

just another symbol for the rough air speed


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264.)

265.)

266.)

267.)

268.)

What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide ? a)

The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the weight

b)

The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack

c)

The wind and CLmax

d)

The wind and the aeroplane's mass

The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as: a)

Newton

b)

Joule

c)

Pascal

d)

Watt

Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of: a)

CL²and S (wing surface)

b)

CL and b (wing span)

c)

CL and CD

d)

CL² and AR (aspect ratio)

Critical Mach number is the free stream Mach number at which: a)

local supersonic flow first exists on any part of the aeroplane.

b)

there is supersonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane.

c)

the aeroplane has zero buffet margin.

d)

there is subsonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane.

One important advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar layer is that: a)

skin friction drag is less

b)

energy is less

c)

it is thinner

d)

it has less tendency to separate from the surface


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269.)

270.)

271.)

272.)

273.)

The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of: a)

changes in the position of centre of pressure

b)

compressibility effects on the stabilizer

c)

uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting

d)

increased drag due to shock wave formation

When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of: a)

Higher critical Mach number

b)

Increased longitudinal stability

c)

Greater strength

d)

Lower stalling speed

Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered flight controls ? a)

Spring tab

b)

Anti-balance tab

c)

Servo tab

d)

Balance tab

Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ? a)

The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic

b)

The airflow changes direction

c)

The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil

d)

The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic

High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of: a)

Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack

b)

Increasing lift and drag

c)

Increasing lift and critical angle of attack

d)

Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack


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274.)

275.)

276.)

277.)

278.)

What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence: a)

wing dihedral

b)

straight wings

c)

swept wings

d)

elliptical wing

"A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil". This definition is applicable for: a)

the chord line

b)

the camber line

c)

the mean aerodynamic chord line

d)

the upper camber line

One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with an elevator trim system is that: a)

the system's complexity is reduced

b)

the complete system (structure and control mechanism) weighs less

c)

it leads to greater stability in flight

d)

it is a more effective means of trimming

An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs ? a)

78 KCAS

b)

67 KCAS

c)

57 KCAS

d)

91 KCAS

Which statement is correct about a spring tab ? a)

Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g

b)

At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab

c)

At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator

d)

At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab


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279.)

280.)

281.)

282.)

283.)

How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn ? a)

Servo tabs

b)

Differential aileron deflection

c)

Anti-balanced rudder control

d)

Horn-balanced controls

What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of: a)

flaps

b)

fuselage mounted speed-brakes

c)

spoilers

d)

slats

What is the unit of measurement for power ? a)

kgm/s²

b)

Nm/s

c)

Pa/m²

d)

N/m

The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because: a)

it changes the camber of the wing

b)

the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker

c)

it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air

d)

it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack

The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when: a)

forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing

b)

velocity and RPM increase

c)

velocity and RPM decrease

d)

RPM increases and forward velocity decreases


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284.)

285.)

286.)

287.)

288.)

What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ? a)

80 000 N

b)

50 000 N

c)

60 000 N

d)

70 000 N

Load factor is: a)

1/Bank angle

b)

Wing loading

c)

Lift/Weight

d)

Weight/Lift

Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being constant) a)

Increased aeroplane mass

b)

Vertical gusts

c)

Increased air density

d)

Rearward CG location

In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers a)

the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.

b)

the left engine is the critical motor.

c)

the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine.

d)

the right engine is the critical motor.

The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the subsonic and incompressible flow inside is a)

increasing.

b)

sonic.

c)

not changing.

d)

decreasing.


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289.)

290.)

291.)

292.)

If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow) a)

rho1 < rho2

b)

rho1 = rho2

c)

rho1 > rho2

d)

The density depends on the change of the tube area.

Bernoulli's equation can be written as: (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure) a)

pt - q = ps

b)

pt = q - ps

c)

pt = ps - q

d)

pt + ps = q

Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the surface? a)

No difference

b)

Transition boundary layer

c)

Turbulent boundary layer

d)

Laminar boundary layer

(For this question use annex 081-6239A) Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag? a)

Body a

b)

Body c

c)

Body b

d)

Body d


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293.)

294.)

295.)

296.)

297.)

Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant): a)

drag increases across the whole speed range.

b)

none

c)

at speeds greater than the minimum drag speed, drag increases.

d)

drag decreases across the whole speed range.

Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body in an airstream (angle of attack and TAS are constant): a)

the drag increases.

b)

this has no effect.

c)

the drag is only affected by the ground speed.

d)

the drag decreases.

Which of the following aeroplane parts affect induced drag most? a)

Landing gear

b)

Engine cowling

c)

Wing tip

d)

Wing root junction

Winglets a)

decrease the static lateral stability.

b)

create an elliptical lift distribution.

c)

decrease the induced drag.

d)

increase the manoeuvrability.

Interference drag is the result of: a)

separation of the induced vortex.

b)

downwash behind the wing.

c)

the addition of induced and parasite drag

d)

aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage).


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298.)

299.)

(For this question use annex 081-6249A) Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane? a)

Line c

b)

Line a

c)

Line b

d)

Line d

(For this question use annex 081-6250A) The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered a)

the axis X shows

b)

the lift force.

c)

the total drag.

d)

the parasite drag.

the induced drag.

300.)

301.)

(For this question use annex 081-6253A) How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V? a)

V1 = 0 and V2 > V

b)

V1 < V2 and V2 < V

c)

V1 = 0 and V2 = V

d)

V1 > V2 and V2 < V

Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur ? a)

In the stagnation point

b)

In front of the stagnation point

c)

Lower side

d)

Upper side


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302.)

303.)

304.)

305.)

306.)

The forces of lift and drag on an aerofoil are, respectively, normal and parallel to the: a)

chord line.

b)

horizon.

c)

longitudinal axis.

d)

relative wind/airflow.

If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect a)

drag and lift are reduced.

b)

the effective angle of attack is decreased.

c)

the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.

d)

the induced angle of attack is increased.

Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance: a)

increases.

b)

increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.

c)

does not change.

d)

decreases.

An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects) a)

the TAS at the higher altitude is higher

b)

the TAS at the higher altitude is lower

c)

the TAS at both altitudes is the same

d)

the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determined

(For this question use annex 081-6261A) Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed? a)

Point b

b)

Point a

c)

Point d

d)

Point c


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307.)

308.)

309.)

310.)

311.)

(For this question use annex 081-6262A) Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate (assume zero thrust) ? a)

Point 2

b)

Point 1

c)

Point 3

d)

Point 4

(For this question use annex 081-6263A) Which point in the diagram corresponds to the minimum (zero thrust) glide angle ? a)

Point 3

b)

Point 2

c)

Point 1

d)

Point 4

(For this question use annex 081-6264A) Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight? a)

Point 4

b)

Point 2

c)

Point 3

d)

Point 1

What is the correct relationship between the true airspeed for (i) minimum sink rate and (ii) minimum glide angle, at a given altitude? a)

(i) is less than (ii)

b)

(i) can be greater than or less than (ii) depending on the type of aeroplane

c)

(i) is equal to (ii)

d)

(i) is greater than (ii)

If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will a)


b)


c)


d)



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312.)

313.)

314.)

315.)

316.)

If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will a)


b)


c)


d)



The lift to drag ratio determines the endurance speed.

b)

horizontal glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind and zero thrust.

c)

horizontal distance in the climb up to a given altitude.

d)

maximum rate of climb.

(For this question use annex 081-6269A) Which type of flap is shown in the picture? a)

Split flap

b)

Fowler flap

c)

Plain flap

d)

Double slotted flap

(For this question use annex 081-6270A) Which type of flap is shown in the picture? a)

Split flap

b)

Plain flap

c)

Fowler flap

d)

Single slotted flap

(For this question use annex 081-6271A) The high lift device shown in the figure is a a)

Fowler flap

b)

Krueger flap

c)

Slotted flap

d)

Slat


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317.)

318.)

319.)

320.)

321.)

(For this question use annex 081-6272A) The high lift device shown in the figure below is a a)

Slotted flap

b)

Slot or slat

c)

Krueger flap

d)

Fowler flap

A plain flap will increase CLmax by a)

boundary layer control.

b)

increasing the camber of the aerofoil.

c)

increasing angle of attack.

d)

centre of lift movement.

During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant) a)

sink suddenly.

b)

bank.

c)

climb.

d)

yaw.

During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant) a)

climb.

b)

sink suddenly.

c)

bank.

d)

yaw.

Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLmax with trailing edge flaps extended is: a)

larger.

b)

smaller.

c)

smaller or larger depending on the degree of flap extension.

d)

unchanged.


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322.)

323.)

324.)

325.)

326.)

A slat will a)

increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.

b)

prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack.

c)

increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.

d)

provide a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing.

One method to compensate adverse yaw is: a)

a differential aileron.

b)

a balance tab.

c)

an anti-balance tab.

d)

a balance panel.

Flaperons are controls which combine the function of: a)

flaps and speed brakes.

b)

ailerons and flaps.

c)

flaps and elevator.

d)

ailerons and elevator.

The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the a)

transition region.

b)

centre of gravity.

c)

centre of lift.

d)

stagnation point.

Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall? a)

Swept wings.

b)

A canard wing.

c)

A low horizontal tail.

d)

A T-tail.


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327.)

328.)

329.)

330.)

331.)

The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: a)

500 kts

b)

480 kts

c)

320 kts

d)

600 kts

When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is a)

higher than before.

b)

equal to 1.

c)

lower than before but still greater than 1.

d)

less than 1.

When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will a)

stay constant.

b)

decrease.

c)

decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

d)

increase.

When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will a)

decrease.

b)

stay constant.

c)

increase.

d)

decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

When air has passed through a shock wave the local speed of sound is a)

not affected

b)

increased.

c)

decreased.

d)

decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again


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332.)

333.)

334.)

335.)

336.)

If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the Mach cone angle will: a)

decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

b)

increase.

c)

decrease.

d)

stay constant.

The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that a)

the friction in the boundary layer is higher.

b)

kinetic energy in the flow is converted into heat energy.

c)

the speed reduction is too high.

d)

the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.

When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will a)

stay constant.

b)

increase.

c)


d)

decrease.

When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will a)

decrease.

b)


c)

stay constant.

d)

increase.

When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will a)

stay constant.

b)

decrease.

c)

increase.

d)



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337.)

338.)

339.)

340.)

341.)

Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a a)

smaller expansion.

b)

smaller compression.

c)

higher compression.

d)

higher expansion.

Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a a)

higher total temperature.

b)

higher total pressure.

c)

higher loss in total pressure.

d)

lower static temperature.

In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is a)

lower than 1.

b)

exactly 1.

c)

small but still supersonic.

d)

high (supersonic).

The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to approximately M = 1.3 is called the: a)

supersonic range.

b)

transonic range.

c)

subsonic range.

d)

hypersonic range.

Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the a)

trailing edge of the wing.

b)

upper side of the wing.

c)

lower side of the wing.

d)

leading edge of the wing.


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342.)

343.)

344.)

345.)

346.)

As the Mach number increases in straight and level flight, a shock wave on the upper surface of the wing will: a)

disappear.

b)

not move.

c)

move towards the leading edge.

d)

move towards the trailing edge.

Shock induced separation results in a)

increasing lift.

b)

decreasing drag.

c)

constant lift.

d)

decreasing lift.

In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the a)

attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing.

b)

separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves.

c)

appearance of the bow wave.

d)

first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing.

Is a transport aeroplane allowed to fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number in 1g flight? a)

Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.

b)

Yes, but only during approach.

c)

Yes, this causes no problems.

d)

No, this is not acceptable

To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should a)

have a large camber.

b)

have a large leading edge radius.

c)

be used with a high angle of attack.

d)

have a low thickness to chord ratio.


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347.)

348.)

349.)

350.)

351.)

The critical Mach number can be increased by a)

an increase in wing aspect ratio.

b)

positive dihedral of the wings.

c)

a T-tail.

d)

sweepback of the wings.

Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to a)

increase the strength of the wing root junction.

b)

apply area rule.

c)

fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.

d)

improve the low speed characteristics.

Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will a)

decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.

b)

decrease the shock wave induced separation.

c)

decrease the stalling speed by increasing spanwise flow on the wing.

d)

increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.

The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the a)

skin friction drag.

b)

induced drag.

c)

wave drag.

d)

form drag.

Tuck under will happen a)

only at the critical Mach number.

b)

above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.

c)

only above the critical Mach number.

d)

only below the critical Mach number.


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352.)

353.)

354.)

355.)

356.)

High speed buffet is induced by a)

boundary layer separation due to shock wave formation.

b)

expansion waves on the wing upper surface.

c)

a shift of the centre of gravity.

d)

boundary layer control.

The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the a)

wing root stalling first.

b)

aft movement of the centre of gravity.

c)

wing tip stalling first.

d)

forward movement of the centre of gravity.

A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this case a)

only the outboard aileron are active.

b)

only the inboard ailerons are active.

c)

only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.

d)

the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.

If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the aerodynamic centre will move a)

aft to the trailing edge.

b)

forward to the mid of the chord.

c)

aft to the mid of the chord.

d)

forward to the leading edge.

What is the effect of an aft shift of the centre of gravity on (1) static longitudinal stability and (2) the required control deflection for a given pitch change? a)

(1) increases (2) increases

b)

(1) increases (2) reduces

c)

(1) reduces (2) increases

d)

(1) reduces (2) reduces


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357.)

358.)

359.)

360.)

Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct ? a)

The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.

b)

The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.

c)

Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

d)

The servo tab can also be used as a balance tab.

Assuming an initial condition in straight and level flight with CL=1. What will be the new value of CL after the value of the speed has doubled? a)

2.00.

b)

1.00.

c)

0.25.

d)

0.50.

An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and in- and outboard ailerons. Roll control during cruise is provided by: a)

outboard ailerons and roll-spoilers.

b)

inboard and outboard ailerons.

c)

outboard ailerons only.

d)

inboard ailerons and roll-spoilers.

The airload on the horizontal tailplane (tailload) of an aeroplane in straight and level flight: a)

is in general directed downwards and will become less negative when the c.g. moves aft.

b)

will in principle be zero on transport aeroplanes without an electronic flight control system (Fly-by-Wire) due to the trim system.

c)

is in general directed upwards and will increase when c.g. is moved forward.

d)

is in general directed downwards and will always become less negative in a linear fashion with increasing airspeed.


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361.)

362.)

363.)

364.)

365.)

The aerodynamic contribution to the static longitudinal stability of the nacelles of aft fuselage mounted engines is: a)

negative.

b)

maximum during cruise.

c)

positive.

d)

zero.

Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: a)

seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance

b)

Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder

c)

weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance

d)

upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface

At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface? a)

The true air speed of the aeroplane.

b)

The speed of sound at flight level.

c)

The ground speed of the aeroplane.

d)

The speed of sound at ground level.

In straight and level flight, as speed is increased: a)

the elevator and trim tab do not move.

b)

the elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards.

c)

both elevator and trim tab are deflected further downwards.

d)

the elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.

Which of the following statements concerning control is correct? a)

In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection.

b)

On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.

c)

Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.

d)

In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.


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366.)

367.)

368.)

369.)

370.)

When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ? a)

Landing gear retracted.

b)

Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value..

c)

Landing gear extended.

d)

Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.

Mach buffet occurs: a)

when the stalling angle of attack is exceeded.

b)

directly after exceeding Mcrit.

c)

when the Mach Number has increased to Mcrit.

d)

at the Mach Number at which shockwave induced boundary layer separation occurs.

In what flight phase are the outboard ailerons (if present) not operated ? a)

During take-off, until lift-off.

b)

In the approach phase, before landing.

c)

During cruise flight.

d)

During a landing with strong and gusty crosswind to avoid overcontrolling the aeroplane.

How can wing flutter be prevented? a)

By installing the fuel tanks in the fuselage.

b)

By locating mass in front of the torsion axis of the wing.

c)

By increasing the aspect ratio of the wing.

d)

By mounting the engines on the fuselage.

Increase of the delta load factor due to a given vertical upgust at a given EAS occurs when: a)

the slope of the CL-alpha graph becomes steeper.

b)

the wing loading increases.

c)

the weight increases.

d)

the altitude increases.


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371.)

372.)

373.)

374.)

375.)

For shallow climb angles the following formula can be used: (gamma = climb angle) a)

sin gamma = T/W - CL/CD.

b)

sin gamma = T/W - CD/CL.

c)

sin gamma = W/T - CL/CD.

d)

sin gamma = W/T - CD/CL.

Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to: a)

roll to the left in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the left).

b)

roll to the right in a right turn.

c)

roll to the right in the case of a positive sideslip angle (aeroplane nose to the right).

d)

roll to the left in a right turn.

Static lateral stability should not be too large, because: a)

the roll trim sensitivity would increase sharply.

b)

too much rudder deflection would be required in a crosswind landing.

c)

constant aileron deflection would be required during cruise in case of crosswind.

d)

too much aileron deflection would be required in a crosswind landing.

Static lateral stability should not be too small, because a)

the stick force per g would become unacceptably small.

b)

after a disturbance around the longitudinal axis the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to return to the original attitude.

c)

the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency for Dutch Roll.

d)

the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to spiral dive.

What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS ? a)

Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.

b)

Mcrit decreases.

c)

Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.

d)

Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.


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376.)

377.)

378.)

379.)

380.)

Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct ? a)

At constant IAS the TAS decreases

b)

At constant IAS the Mach number increases

c)

At constant TAS the Mach number decreases

d)

At constant Mach number the IAS increases

What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ? a)

if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.

b)

choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting for landing.

c)

choose a lower landing speed than normal.

d)

use the Mach trimmer until after landing.

In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because: a)

trim tab deflection increases Mcrit

b)

mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems

c)

the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all

d)

effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes

At a constant angle of attack, which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide and with zero thrust ? a)

Tailwind

b)

Headwind

c)

Increase of aeroplane mass

d)

Decrease of aeroplane mass

In case the Mach trimmer fails: a)

try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.

b)

the speed must be kept constant.

c)

the Mach number must be limited.

d)

the aeroplane weight must be limited.


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381.)

382.)

383.)

384.)

Which of the following parameters can be read from the parabolic polar diagram of an aeroplane? a)

The induced drag and the parasite drag.

b)

The minimum glide angle and the parasite drag coefficient.

c)

The minimum rate of descent and the induced drag.

d)

The aspect ratio of the wing and the induced drag coefficient.

An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a horizontal coordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the: a)

angle of attack increases by a factor of 1/4.

b)

induced drag increases by a factor of 4.

c)

lift increases by a factor of 4.

d)

total drag increases by a factor of 4.

Bernoulli's law states: (note: rho is the mean sea level density under ISA conditions; pstat is static pressure; pdyn is dynamic pressure; ptot is total pressure) a)

pstat + ½rhoTAS² = constant.

b)

pstat + ½rhoV²= constant.

c)

ptot+ ½rhoV²= pstat.

d)

pdyn+ ½rhoV²= constant.

During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach Number: a)

decrease initially and increase subsequently.

b)

increase initially and remain constant subsequently.

c)

increase.

d)

remain constant.


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385.)

386.)

387.)

388.)

389.)

The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as.... a)

the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.

b)

there is a nose-down attitude.

c)

the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.

d)

the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.

The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: a)

CLmax

b)

CL²

c)

CL

d)

square root (CL)

The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant) a)

weight decreases.

b)

spoilers are retracted.

c)

minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.

d)

pulling out of a dive.

When power assisted controls are used for pitch control: a)

a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.

b)

aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces is meaningless.

c)

they only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.

d)

trimming is superfluous.

Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when: a)

the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.

b)

the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.

c)

the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.

d)

the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak.


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390.)

391.)

392.)

393.)

A Machtrimmer: a)

increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.

b)

is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers.

c)

corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers.

d)

has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully hydraulic controlled aeroplane.

Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ? a)

The horizontal tailplane.

b)

The engine.

c)

The wing.

d)

The fuselage.

Which statement about stick force per g is correct? a)

If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane.

b)

The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to ensure acceptable control characteristics.

c)

The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.

d)

The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value.

Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected? a)

Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground.

b)

Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.

c)

Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.

d)

Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways.


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394.)

395.)

396.)

397.)

398.)

By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ? a)

41%

b)

52%

c)

31%

d)

19%

An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is: a)

82 kt.

b)

122 kt.

c)

141 kt.

d)

150 kt.

Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local lift coefficient at the wing root ? a)

Positive angle of sweep.

b)

Elliptical.

c)

Tapered.

d)

Rectangular.

The speed range between high- and low speed buffet: a)

increases during a descent at a constant IAS.

b)

decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number.

c)

is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.

d)

increases during climb.

Whilst flying at a constant IAS and at n = 1, as the aeroplane mass decreases the value of Mcrit: a)

is independent of the angle of attack.

b)

increases.

c)

decreases.

d)

remains constant.


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399.)

400.)

401.)

402.)

403.)

Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: a)

servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface.

b)

spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.

c)

mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.

d)

balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.

In straight and level flight, as speed is reduced: a)

the elevator and trim tab do not move.

b)

both elevator and trim tab are deflected further upwards.

c)

the elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.

d)

the elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards.

The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration is: a)

4.4

b)

6.0

c)

2.5

d)

3.8

Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance remaining constant) ? 1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases. 2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases. a)

1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.

b)

1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

c)


d)

1 and 2 are incorrect.

The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between: a)

The undisturbed airflow and the chordline.

b)

The local airflow and the chordline.

c)

The local airflow and the mean camberline.

d)

The undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline.


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404.)

405.)

406.)

407.)

Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ? 1. The static temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the static temperature behind it. 2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it. a)


b)


c)


d)


An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is: a)

a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.

b)

less influence of thrust changes on longitudinal control.

c)

easier maintenance of the engines.

d)

less influence on lateral/directional stability characteristics such as dutch roll.

Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection? a)

Turn co-ordination.

b)

Adverse yaw.

c)

Aileron reversal.

d)

Sensitivity for spiral dive.

An aeroplane has a servo tab controlled elevator. What will happen if the elevator jams during flight? a)

Pitch control sense is reversed.

b)

The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.

c)

The pitch control forces double.

d)

Pitch control is lost.


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408.)

409.)

410.)

411.)

Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being constant) ? 1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor. 2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor. a)


b)


c)


d)



Flap extension has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only TAS has to be taken into account.

b)

Flap extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the maximum glide distance.

c)

Spoiler extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum descent angle.

d)

Flap extension will increase (CL/CD)max thus causing a reduction in the minimum rate descent.

What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll? a)

An increased static directional stability.

b)

An increased anhedral.

c)

An increased static lateral stability.

d)

A forward movement of the centre of gravity.

In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? a)

The take-off run.

b)

All phases of the take-off are equally critical.

c)

The last part of the rotation.

d)

During climb with all engines operating.


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412.)

413.)

414.)

415.)

416.)

Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ? a)

Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.

b)

Is independent of altitude.

c)

Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.

d)

Increases always if the density of the air decreases.

Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ? a)

Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.

b)

The CL/CD ratio is minimum (assume zero thrust).

c)

Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.

d)

The gliding angle is minimum (assume zero thrust).

From a polar diagram of the entire aeroplane in the clean configuration one can read: a)

the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.

b)

the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient.

c)

the minimum drag and the maximum lift.

d)

the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag.

An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is: a)

282 kt

b)

200 kt

c)

141 kt

d)

70 kt

The induced angle of attack is the result of: a)

downwash due to tip vortices.

b)

downwash due to flow separation.

c)

change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.

d)

a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.


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417.)

418.)

419.)

420.)

A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose: a)

to decrease stick forces.

b)

to obtain mass balancing.

c)

to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.

d)

to prevent flutter.

Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ? a)

the required lateral control force does not change.

b)

the required lateral control force increases.

c)

the required lateral control force decreases.

d)

the stick force per g decreases.

What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabiliser of a power assisted aeroplane that is in trim? a)

The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero.

b)

At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected downward.

c)

The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position of the centre of gravity.

d)

The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining flare capability.

The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is: a)

2.5

b)

2.0

c)

1.5

d)

3.75


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421.)

422.)

423.)

424.)

425.)

Mass-balancing of control surfaces is used to: a)

increase the stick force stability.

b)

prevent flutter of control surfaces

c)

limit the stick forces.

d)

ensure that the control surfaces are in the mid-position during taxiing .

An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 kt. The turn radius is 2000 m. The load factor (n) is approximately: a)

1.4.

b)

1.1.

c)

2.0.

d)

1.8.

Amongst the following factors, which will decrease the ground distance covered during a glide (assume zero power/thrust)? a)

Tailwind.

b)

Headwind.

c)

An increase in aeroplane mass.

d)

A decrease in aeroplane mass.

An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of attack changes: a)

the change in total aeroplane lift acts aft of the centre of gravity.

b)

the change in total aeroplane lift acts through the centre of gravity.

c)

the change in wing lift is equal to the change in tail lift.

d)

the resulting moment is positive.

If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force per g, this problem can be resolved by installing: a)

a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick forwards.

b)

a spring which pushes the stick forwards.

c)

a spring which pulls the stick backwards.

d)

a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick backwards.


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426.)

427.)

428.)

429.)

430.)

The effect of the wing downwash on the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is: a)

smallest at high values of the lift coefficient.

b)

positive.

c)

negative.

d)

negligible.

In a slipping turn (nose pointing outwards), compared to a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the "ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively: a)

(i) too large, (ii) displaced towards the high wing.

b)

(i) too large, (ii) displaced towards the low wing.

c)

(i) too small, (ii) displaced towards the low wing.

d)

(i) too small, (ii) displaced towards the high wing.

For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of VMCG? a)

Air density and runway length.

b)

Airport elevation and temperature.

c)

Engine thrust and rudder deflection.

d)

Engine thrust and gear position.

During the take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a four engine jet aeroplane with wing mounted engines experiences an engine failure above V1. Which engine causes the greatest control problem? a)

The left inboard engine.

b)

The right outboard engine.

c)

The right inboard engine.

d)

The left outboard engine.

A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased from an equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the: a)

CG.

b)

drag line of action.

c)

neutral point.

d)

centre of pressure.


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431.)

432.)

433.)

434.)

435.)

The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the: a)

longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.

b)

longitudinal axis and the chord line.

c)

speed vector axis and the longitudinal axis.

d)

chord line and the horizontal plane.

Consider subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi: I The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat. II The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat. a)

I is correct, II is incorrect.

b)

I is correct, II is correct.

c)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

d)

I is incorrect, II is correct.

An aeroplane has the following flap positions: 0°, 15°, 30°, 45°. Slats can also be selected. Generally speaking, which selection provides the highest positive contribution to the CLMAX? a)

The flaps from 30° to 45°.

b)


c)

The slats from the retracted to the take-off position.

d)


An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight and level flight whilst maintaining constant indicated airspeed. The: a)

lift becomes four times its original value.

b)

induced drag doubles.

c)

total drag becomes four times its original value.

d)

lift doubles.

Which statement is correct regarding a shockwave on a lift generating wing? a)

It is located at the greatest wing thickness when the aeroplane reaches the speed of sound.

b)

It reaches its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number.

c)

It moves slightly aft when an aileron is deflected downward.

d)

It moves forward when the Mach number is increased.


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436.)

437.)

438.)

439.)

Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane, while all other factors of importance remain constant? I When the mass increases, the gust load increases. II When the altitude decreases, the gust load increases. a)


b)


c)


d)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

An aeroplane is in a steady horizontal turn at a TAS of 194.4 kt. The turn radius is 1000 m. The bank angle is: (assume g = 10 m/sec2) a)

45°

b)

60°

c)

30°

d)

50°

An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if: a)

at transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional elevator stick force characteristics.

b)

stick force per g strongly decreases at low Mach numbers.

c)

stick force stability is independent of the airspeed and -altitude.

d)

at high airspeed and low altitude the aeroplane demonstrates unconventional elevator stick force characteristics.

The manoeuvre stability of a large jet transport aeroplane is 280 N/g. What stick force is required, if the aeroplane is pulled to the limit manoeuvring load factor from a trimmed horizontal straight and steady flight? (cruise configuration) a)

1050 N

b)

770 N

c)

420 N

d)

630 N


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440.)

441.)

442.)

443.)

444.)

Upward deflection of a trim tab in the longitudinal control results in: a)

the stick position stability remaining constant.

b)

increasing the stick position stability.

c)

increasing the stick force stability.

d)

the stick force stability remaining constant.

Which statement is correct? I Stick force per g is independent of altitude. II Stick force per g increases when the centre of gravity moves forward. a)


b)


c)

I is incorrect, II is incorrect

d)


The following factors increase stall speed: a)

increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.

b)

a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.

c)

an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.

d)

a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.


The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the centre of pressure is not.

b)

As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves downwards.

c)

The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up.

d)

The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.

How will the density and static temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it ? a)

Density will increase, static temperature will decrease.

b)

Density will decrease, static temperature will increase.

c)

Density will increase, static temperature will increase.

d)

Density will decrease, static temperature will decrease.


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445.)

446.)

447.)

448.)

Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct during take-off with the cg at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) positioned at the maximum allowable aeroplane nose down position? a)

Rotation will be normal.

b)

Early nose wheel raising will take place.

c)

The rotation will require extra stick force.

d)

If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system will be activated.

When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface: a)

above the hinge.

b)

below the hinge.

c)

behind the hinge.

d)

in front of the hinge.

How can the designer of an aeroplane with straight wings increase the static lateral stability? a)

By increasing anhedral.

b)

By increasing the aspect ratio of the vertical stabiliser, whilst maintaining a constant area.

c)

By applying wing twist.

d)

By fitting a ventral fin (a fin at the under side of the aeroplane).

Positive static longitudinal stability means that a: a)

nose-up moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack.

b)

nose-up moment occurs after encountering an up-gust.

c)

nose-down moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack.

d)

nose-down moment occurs after encountering an up-gust.


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449.)

450.)

451.)

452.)

Which statement in respect of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct? a)

An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower than for one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition.

b)

An aeroplane with a forward cg requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher than for one with an aft cg in the same trimmed condition.

c)

Because take-off speeds do not vary with centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment is dependant on flap position only.

d)

At the forward C.G. limit , stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose down to obtain maximum elevator authority at rotation during take-off.

Which definition of propeller parameters is correct? a)

Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis.

b)

Critical tip velocity is the propeller speed at which flow separation first occurs at some part of the blade.

c)

Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance a propeller blade element would travel in a forward direction during one revolution.

d)

Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane.

The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between the blade chord line and the: a)

aeroplane heading.

b)

principal direction of the propeller blade.

c)

direction of propeller axis.

d)

local air speed vector.

Given two identical aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one fitted with jet engines and the other with counter rotating propellers, what happens following an engine failure? a)

The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure.

b)

More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.

c)

Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane.

d)

The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes.


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453.)

454.)

455.)

456.)

The stall speed (IAS) will change according to the following factors: a)

May increase when the cg moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slipstream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing

b)

May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the cg moves forward

c)

Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn

d)

Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the cg moves aft

The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: a)

Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing

b)

Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location

c)

Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle in a turn

d)

Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location

The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: a)

Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location

b)

Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located forward of the wing

c)

Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps

d)

May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn

Which of the following statements is true? a)

Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being exceeded

b)

By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence at constant speed the stall speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased

c)

Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed increases both the stall speed and the structural limitation margins

d)

Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed moves the centre of pressure aft, which increases the structural limitation margins


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457.)

458.)

459.)

A conventional stabiliser on a stable aeroplane in a normal cruise condition: 1 - always provides negative lift. 2 - contributes to the total lift of the aeroplane. 3 - may stall before the wing, in icing conditions, with large flap settings, unless adequate design and/or operational precautions are taken. 4 - is necessary to balance the total pitch moment of the aeroplane. Which of the following lists all the correct statements ? a)

2, 3 and 4

b)

1 and 4

c)

1, 3 and 4

d)

1 and 3

Which statements are correct for a straight steady climb? 1 - lift is less than weight. 2 - lift is greater than weight. 3 - load factor is less than 1. 4 - load factor is greater than 1. 5 - lift is equal to weight. 6 - load factor is equal to 1. Which of the following lists all the correct statements ? a)

1 and 6

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 4

d)

5 and 6

Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1.4 VS. The maximum bank angle attainable without stalling in a steady co-ordinated turn, whilst maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately: a)

30°.

b)

44°.

c)

32°.

d)

60°.


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460.)

461.)

462.)

463.)

464.)

A 50 ton twin engine aeroplane performs a straight, steady, wings level climb. If the lift/drag ratio is 12 and the thrust is 60 000N per engine, the climb gradient is: (assume g = 10m/s²) a)

12%.

b)

3.7%.

c)

24%.

d)

15.7%.

An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The point on the wing, where the instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is known as the: a)

centre of thrust.

b)

neutral point.

c)

aerodynamic centre of the wing.

d)

centre of gravity.

In a straight steady descent, which of the following statements is correct ? a)

Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than 1.

b)

Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to 1.

c)

Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than 1.

d)

Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to 1.

VLE is defined as the: a)

maximum landing gear extended speed.

b)

maximum flap extended speed.

c)

maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended or retracted.

d)

maximum authorised speed.

When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of attack, the following changes will occur: a)

CL and CD increase.

b)

CL increases and the centre of pressure moves forward.

c)

CD decreases and the centre of pressure moves aft.

d)

CL increases and CD remains constant.


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465.)

466.)

467.)

468.)

An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a mass of 1000 kg. If the mass is increased to 2000 kg, the new value of the stall speed will be: a)

123 kt.

b)

150 kt.

c)

141 kt.

d)

200 kt.

When an aeroplane performs a straight steady climb with a 20% climb gradient, the load factor is equal to: a)

1.

b)

1.02.

c)

0.83.

d)

0.98.

In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur: Ps = static pressure. Pdyn = dynamic pressure. Ptot = total pressure. a)

Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, static temperature increases.

b)

Ps decreases, Ptot increases, static temperature decreases.

c)

Ps increases, Pdyn decreases, Ptot remains constant.

d)

Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant.

An aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude and maximum climb thrust, (assume no supercharger). How do the following variables change during the climb? (gamma = flight path angle) a)

gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS remains constant.

b)

gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases.

c)

gamma decreases, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases.

d)

gamma remains constant, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases.


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469.)

470.)

471.)

472.)

473.)

The point, where the single resultant aerodynamic force acts on an aerofoil, is called: a)

aerodynamic centre.

b)

neutral point.

c)

centre of gravity.

d)

centre of pressure.

Which statement about minimum control speed is correct? a)

The nose wheel steering control may used to determine VMCG.

b)

VMCA may not be lower than VMCL

c)

Crosswind is taken into account to determine VMCG.

d)

VMCA depends on the airport density altitude, and the location of the engine on the aeroplane (aft fuselage or wing).

The manoeuvring speed VA expressed in indicated airspeed, of a transport aeroplane: a)

is a constant value.

b)

is independent of aeroplane mass, but dependent on pressure altitude.

c)

depends on aeroplane mass and pressure altitude.

d)

depends on aeroplane mass and is independent of pressure altitude.

Which of the following statements is correct ? I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection. a)

I is correct, II is incorrect

b)

I is incorrect, II is correct

c)


d)

I is correct, II is correct

Which of the following statements is correct ? I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate a)


b)


c)


d)



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474.)

475.)

476.)

Which of the following statements is correct ? I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate a)


b)


c)


d)


The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that corresponds to: (assume zero thrust; ^ … denotes power of …) a)

(CL^3/CD^2)max

b)

(CL/CD)max

c)

CLmax

d)

(CL/CD^2)max

How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature ? a)

increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required rudder force

b)

decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.

c)

decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS which decreases with constant TAS and decreasing density

d)

increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density decreases


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Questionnaire 090-1 Com-VFR

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

What does the term "aeronautical station" mean ? a)

An airborne station forming part of the aeronautical fixed telecommunication network (AFTN)

b)

A station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications

c)

Any station established to exchange radiotelephony communications

d)

A station in the aeronautical mobile service located on land or, in certain instances, on board of a ship or on a platform at sea.

What does the term "blind transmission" mean? a)

A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission.

b)

A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

c)

A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

d)

A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.

Which abbreviation is used for the term "control zone"? a)

CZ.

b)

CTR.

c)

CTA.

d)

CTZ.

What does the abbreviation "AFIS" mean? a)

Aerodrome flight information service.

b)

Aerodrome flashing identification signal.

c)

Automatic flight information service.

d)

Aeronautical flight information system.


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005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

What does the abbreviation "FIR" mean? a)

Flight information region.

b)

Flight information required.

c)

Flow information received.

d)

Flight information radar.

What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean? a)

Continuous day and night service.

b)

Sunrise to sunset.

c)

Sunset to sunrise.

d)

No specific working hours.

What does the abbreviation "HX" mean? a)


b)

Sunrise to sunset.

c)

Sunset to sunrise.

d)


Which abbreviation is used for "Co-ordinated universal time"? a)

CUT.

b)

UTC.

c)

COUT.

d)

GMT.

If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you refer ? a)

QDM

b)

QBI

c)

QFE

d)

QNH


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010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

Which Q-code is used to report altitude ? a)

QNJ

b)

QFF

c)

QNH

d)

QFE

What does QDM mean? a)

True heading to the station (no wind)

b)

True bearing from the station

c)

Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

d)

Magnetic bearing from the station

What is the Q-code for "magnetic heading to the station (no wind)? a)

QDM.

b)

QNE.

c)

QTE.

d)

QDR.

What does QTE mean? a)

True heading to the station (no wind).

b)

Magnetic heading to the station.

c)

True bearing from the station.

d)

Magnetic bearing from the station.

What is the Q-code for "true bearing from the station"? a)

QFE

b)

QTE

c)

QDR

d)

QDM


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015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

What does QDR mean? a)

Magnetic bearing from the station

b)

True heading to the station

c)

True bearing from the station

d)

Magnetic heading to the station (no wind)

What is the Q-code for "magnetic bearing from the station"? a)

QDM

b)

QFE

c)

QTE

d)

QDR

A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is: a)

a flight regularity message.

b)

a flight safety message.

c)

a flight security message.

d)

an urgency message.

Flight safety messages are: a)

Operation messages concerning non-routine landings.

b)

Air traffic control messages.

c)

Messages relating to direction finding.

d)

Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person.

A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called: a)

Distress message.

b)

Class B message.

c)

Urgency message.

d)

Flight safety message.


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020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service? a)

Urgency messages.

b)

Radio teletype messages.

c)

Meteorological messages.

d)

Flight safety messages.

The message to an aeronautical ground station "please call a taxi-cab for us. We will arrive at 1045" is: a)

A flight safety messages.

b)

An unauthorized message.

c)

An urgency message.

d)

A flight regularity message.

The priority of the instruction "taxi to runway 05" is: a)

less than "cleared to land".

b)

greater than "caution, construction work left of taxiway".

c)

greater than "transmit for QDM".

d)

the same as "line-up runway 07 and wait".

How shall a pilot ask for a QFE ? a)

request Quebec Foxtrot Echo

b)

request Quebec Fox Easy

c)

request Queen Fox Easy

d)

request Quebec Fox Echo

What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message? a)

Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie

b)

Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie

c)

Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie

d)

Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo


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025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

029.)

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an altitude or an height ? a)

three five double zero

b)

three five zero zero

c)

three five hundred

d)

three thousand five hundred

What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ? a)

QNH one zero zero one

b)

QNH one thousand and one

c)

QNH one double zero one

d)

QNH one double "O" one

When transmitting time, which time system shall be used? a)

Local time (LT), 24-hour clock

b)

Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)

c)

Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.

d)

No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required

The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion about the hour? a)

Two zero this hour.

b)

Twenty.

c)

Nine twenty A.M.

d)

Two zero.

What does the phrase "Go ahead" mean: a)

Pass me the following information...

b)

Proceed with your message

c)

Taxi on

d)

Yes


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030.)

031.)

032.)

033.)

034.)

What does the phrase "Roger" mean: a)

Cleared for take-off or cleared to land

b)

I have received all of your last transmission

c)

A direct answer in the negative

d)

A direct answer in the affirmative

Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase "Standby" ? a)

Permission granted for action proposed

b)

Continue on present heading and listen out

c)

Wait and I will call you

d)

Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder

What does the phrase "Read back" mean: a)

Check and confirm with originator

b)

Did you correctly receive this message?

c)

Let me know that you have received and understood this message

d)

Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I should like to know..." or "I wish to obtain..."? a)

Report

b)

Request

c)

Acknowledge

d)

Confirm

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Pass me the following information...": a)

Check

b)

Say again

c)

Report

d)

Request


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035.)

036.)

037.)

038.)

039.)

Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly: a)

Affirm

b)

That is right

c)

Correct

d)

That is affirmative

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "An error has been made in this transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ...": a)

QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016

b)

QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016

c)

QNH 1017, negative 1016

d)

QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016

Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required: a)

Repeat your last transmission

b)

Repeat your message

c)

What was your message?

d)

Say again

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "I understand your message and will comply with it": a)

Wilco

b)

OK, will do it

c)

Roger

d)

Will comply with your instruction

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Yes": a)

Roger

b)

Affirm

c)

Yes

d)

Affirmative


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040.)

041.)

042.)

043.)

044.)

How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off: a)

Ready for take-off

b)

Ready to go

c)

Ready for departure or ready

d)

Ready to line-up

Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a missed approach: a)

Will make another approach

b)

Going around

c)

Overshooting

d)

Pulling up

What does the instruction "Go around" mean ? a)

Carry out a missed approach

b)

Proceed with your message

c)

Overtake the aircraft ahead

d)

Make a 360° turn

What does the instruction "Orbit right" mean ? a)

Leave the runway to the right

b)

Turn right to avoid other traffic

c)

Make 360° turns to the right

d)

Right-hand circuits are in use

What does the instruction "Vacate left" mean ? a)

Give way to aircraft from the left

b)

Hold position on the left side of the runway

c)

Clear the runway immediately

d)

Turn left to leave the runway


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045.)

046.)

047.)

048.)

049.)

What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control service: a)

TOWER

b)

APRON

c)

CONTROL

d)

AERODROME

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight information service: a)

CONTROL

b)

INFORMATION

c)

FLIGHT CENTRE

d)

FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area: a)

GROUND

b)

CONTROL

c)

APPROACH

d)

TOWER

When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an aeronautical station be omitted ? a)

Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign

b)

Never

c)

When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not be confusing to do so

d)

In dense traffic during rush hours

Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct: a)

XY-BC

b)

X-BC

c)

ABC

d)

BC


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050.)

051.)

052.)

053.)

054.)

Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct: a)

Cherokee BC

b)

Cherokee X-ABC

c)

Cherokee XY-BC

d)

Cherokee X-BC

When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ? a)

Only after satisfactory communication has been established

b)

After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station

c)

Provided no confusion is likely to result

d)

In dense traffic

How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ? a)

Stephenville XY-ABC

b)

Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC

c)

Stephenville TOWER X-BC

d)

TOWER XY-ABC

Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ? a)

118.7 X-BC

b)

Will change to TOWER X-BC

c)

Stephenville TOWER X-BC

d)

Changing over X-BC

Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ? a)

Checking 123.25 X-BC

b)

Monitoring 123.25 X-BC

c)

Will contact 123.25 X-BC

d)

Changing to 123.25 X-BC


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055.)

056.)

057.)

058.)

059.)

What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF channel separated by 25 KHz): a)

One two zero decimal three seven

b)

One two zero three seven

c)

One two zero decimal three seven five

d)

One twenty decimal three seven

Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission: a)

Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7

b)

Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC pre-flight check

c)

Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check

d)

Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check

On the readability scale what does "Readability 3" mean: a)

Readable but with difficulty

b)

Loud and clear

c)

No problem to understand

d)

Unreadable

On the readability scale what does "Readability 5" mean: a)

Readable but with difficulty

b)

Unreadable

c)

Problem to understand

d)

Perfectly readable

Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ? a)

Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings

b)

Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes

c)

Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speedinstructions

d)

Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and speed instructions


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060.)

061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back: a)

No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise

b)

Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned

c)

No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. StandardInstrument Departure Route/SID)

d)

No, if the communication channel is overloaded

An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ? a)

Wilco

b)

Will stop before

c)

Holding short

d)

Roger

Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: "X-BC climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take-off". What is the correct read back: a)

Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BC

b)

Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC

c)

Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC

d)

Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC

How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ? a)

With the word "wilco"

b)

With his own aircraft call sign

c)

With the ATC ground station call sign

d)

With the word "roger"

An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet. TOWER requests heading and level. What is the correct response: a)

Heading 45 at 2500 feet

b)

Heading 045 at 2500 feet

c)

Heading north-east at level 25

d)

045 and 2500


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065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

What does the phrase "Squawk 1234" mean: a)

Give a short count for DF (direction finder)

b)

Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz

c)

Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder

d)

Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz

RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC identified". What does this mean: a)

X-BC should perform an identification turn

b)

X-BC should operate the IDENT-button

c)

Radar identification has been achieved

d)

X-BC is not visible on the radar screen

RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk ident". What does this mean: a)

X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees

b)

Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC

c)

X-BC shall operate the IDENT button

d)

X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code

RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: "X-BC squawk standby ". What does this mean? a)

X-BC is requested to switch to standby position

b)

X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy

c)

X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency

d)

X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors

RADAR instructs aircraft XY-ABC: "X-BC reset squawk 1015". What does this mean: a)

X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015

b)

X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)

c)

X-BC is requested to set new code 1015

d)

X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015


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070.)

071.)

072.)

073.)

074.)

How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with transponder: a)

Negative squawk

b)

Negative transponder

c)

Transponder not available

d)

No SSR

When the term "Scattered" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: a)

More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)

b)

Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)

c)

No clouds below 5000 feet/GND

d)

Sky entirely covered (8 octas)

When the term "Broken" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: a)

8 octas below 10000 feet

b)

1 to 4 octas

c)

5 to 7 octas

d)

No clouds below 5000 feet

When the term "Overcast" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: a)

Less than 50%

b)

No clouds but poor ground visibility

c)

50% or more

d)

100%

When the term "CAVOK" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are: a)

Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND

b)

Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND

c)

Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND

d)

Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND


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075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in plain language: a)

In feet and nautical miles

b)

Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres

c)

In nautical miles only

d)

Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres

What is the correct way of expressing visibility ? a)

Visibility 1200 metres

b)

Visibility 1.2 nautical miles

c)

Visibility 1.2 kilometres

d)

Visibility 1200 feet

What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ? a)

Voice channel of an ILS

b)

NDB frequencies

c)

Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR

d)

DME voice channel

How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight: a)

VOLMET

b)

SIGMET

c)

ATIS

d)

AFIS

Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET: a)

SPECI and TAF

b)

Runway reports

c)

SIGMET

d)

Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports


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080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

What is the transponder code for radio communication failure: a)

7700

b)

6700

c)

7500

d)

7600

An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: a)

It is requesting immediate level change

b)

It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure

c)

It is about to make a forced landing

d)

It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome

An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot: a)

Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit

b)

Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication

c)

Return to the airport of departure

d)

Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency

What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ? a)

Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight

b)

Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations

c)

Squawk mode A code 7500

d)

Divert to the alternate airport

A message preceded by the phrase "transmitting blind due to receiver failure" shall be transmitted: a)

on the international emergency frequency.

b)

on the regional guard frequency.

c)

on the frequency in use at the time.

d)

to all available aeronautical stations.


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085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase: a)

"How do you read?"

b)

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

c)

"Read you one, read you one"

d)

"Transmitting blind"

In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be made: a)

Only once on the designated frequency

b)

On the emergency frequency only

c)

During VFR flights only

d)

Twice on the designated frequency

When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also: a)

Advise the time of its next intended transmission

b)

Return to the airport of departure

c)

Land at the nearest airfield/airport

d)

Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing

Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ? a)

In case of radio communication failure

b)

When entering bad weather areas

c)

When flying over desert areas

d)

When approaching a prohibited area

When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a watch for instructions passed by visual signals? a)

When entering a CTR.

b)

When flying within a control area.

c)

When crossing a FIR boundary.

d)

When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome.


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090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

094.)

Distress is defined as: a)

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance

b)

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and requiring immediate assistance

c)

A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

d)

A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach

A radiotelephony distress message should start with the following signal: a)

DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA

b)

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

c)

URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY

d)

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be: a)

The distress frequency 121.5 MHz

b)

Any other international emergency frequency

c)

Any frequency at pilot's discretion

d)

The frequency currently in use

The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/details: a)

Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required

b)

Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport

c)

Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level

d)

Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading

Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency: a)

121.500 MHz

b)

122.500 MHz

c)

121.050 MHz

d)

6500 KHz


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095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

099.)

An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk: a)

7500

b)

7600

c)

6700

d)

7700

Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ? a)

When passing the transition level

b)

When following a SID

c)

In distress

d)

When flying within controlled airspace

Urgency is defined as: a)

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on board, but which does not require immediate assistance

b)

A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS approach

c)

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

d)

A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance

An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal: a)

PAN PAN, spoken three times

b)

ALERFA, spoken three times

c)

URGENCY, spoken three times

d)

MAYDAY, spoken three times

Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call: a)

The international emergency frequency

b)

Any frequency at pilot's discretion

c)

The regional guard frequency

d)

The air-ground frequency in use at the time


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100.)

101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service? a)

108.000 - 117.975 MHz

b)

118.000 - 136.975 MHZ

c)

11650 - 13200 KHz

d)

1810 - 2850 KHz

To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ? a)

Low frequency

b)

Very low frequency

c)

Very high frequency

d)

Medium frequency

Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF band: a)

250 KHz

b)

75 KHz

c)

25 KHz

d)

50 KHz

What are the propagation characteristics of VHF: a)

Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance

b)

The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-waves

c)

Practically straight-line similar to light waves

d)

The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have no influence

Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ? a)

The ionosphere

b)

Day-and night effect

c)

Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms

d)

Level of aircraft and terrain elevations


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105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.2 MHz: a)

Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill

b)

Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill

c)

Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station

d)

Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station

Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 50: a)

About 150 NM

b)

About 8 NM

c)

About 85 NM

d)

About 15 NM

Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100: a)

About 12 NM

b)

About 120 NM

c)

About 30 NM

d)

About 300 NM

Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on a runway in the direction opposite to that in use ? a)

"Clearance to backtrack".

b)

"Backtrack clearance".

c)

"Request backtrack on runway".

d)

"To enter back runway".


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109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

113.)

The message addressed to an Area Control Centre "request radar vectors to circumnavigate adverse weather" is: a)

A flight safety message.

b)

A message relating to direction finding.

c)

An urgency message.

d)

A meteorological message.

Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of: a)

Class B messages.

b)

Service messages.

c)

Flight regularity messages.

d)

Flight safety messages.

The clearance: "cleared for immediate take-off runway 03" is: a)

An urgency message.

b)

An unauthorized message.

c)

A flight safety message.

d)

A flight regularity message.

The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: a)

Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.

b)

Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.

c)

Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.

d)

Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.

The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is: a)

Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.

b)

Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.

c)

Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.

d)

Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.


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114.)

115.)

116.)

117.)

118.)

The priority of the pilot's message "request QDM" is: a)

Less than "descend to flight level..."

b)

Less than "request climb to flight level..."

c)

Greater than "turn left heading..."

d)

Same as "latest QNH 1018".

My message will be more effective and understandable if I: a)

Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level

b)

Stress the end of message

c)

Stress every beginning of message

d)

Use the words twice method

What is meant by good microphone technique ? a)

Make large use of hesitation sounds as "er".

b)

Keep the microphone far away since it improves the readability.

c)

Speak very loudly into the microphone.

d)

Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly.

During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point: a)

The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.

b)

The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.

c)

The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.

d)

The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.

Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Wait and I will call you"? a)

Roger.

b)

Standby.

c)

Go ahead.

d)

Wilco.


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119.)

120.)

121.)

122.)

123.)

What does the word "report" mean? a)

Pass me the following information.

b)

Listen out on (frequency).

c)

Proceed with your message.

d)

Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.

Select the air traffic service in charge of control of local traffic, take-offs and landings at an airport. a)

Radar

b)

Control

c)

Air Traffic Centre

d)

Tower

Select the letter code for HB-FBO. a)

Hotel Bravo Foxy Romeo Oscar

b)

Hector Brasil Fox-trot Romeo Oscar

c)

Hotel Bravo Fox Roma Olka

d)

Hotel Bravo Fox-trot Romeo Oscar

In order to avoid CB a pilot wants to turn right to a magnetic heading of 100 degrees. The correct way to ask the ATC unit for permission is: a)

Request right turn to heading one-point-zero-zero

b)

Request right turn, heading one-zero-zero

c)

Request right turn to heading one-hundred degrees

d)

Request right turn to heading one-double-0

From your cruising altitude at FL 240, you want to descend to flight level 100. Your transmission to the radar controller is: a)

request to descend one-hundred

b)

we would like to start descent to flight level one-zero-zero

c)

request descent to flight level one-zero-zero

d)

request flight level one-hundred


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124.)

125.)

126.)

127.)

128.)

Regardless of your position, time figures are transmitted with reference to: a)

UTC

b)

Winter time

c)

Greenwich time

d)

Local time

You have been calling a station without getting an answer. How long time it is recommended to wait at least before making a second call? a)

3 sec.

b)

30 sec.

c)

Wait until the station calls you.

d)

10 sec.

When the aircraft registration marking is used as a call-sign, your first contact with a station shall be in the following form: a)

The first three characters of the aircraft registration marking.

b)

The first letter and the last two characters of the aircraft registration marking.

c)

The last three characters of the aircraft registration marking.

d)

All characters of the aircraft registration marking.

The radar controller is transmitting: "Confirm squawk". What does he mean? a)

The controller wants you to transmit your bearing.

b)

The controller requests the registration of the aircraft.

c)

The controller wants you to repeat your last transmission once again.

d)

The controller wants to know which code is set on the transponder.

What is "VOLMET"? a)

Meteorological station.

b)

Volume control meter.

c)

A device used for measuring cloud base.

d)

Meteorological information for aircraft in flight.


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129.)

130.)

When an aircraft station is unable to establish communication due to receiver failure, the following procedure should be undertaken: a)

Land at the nearest uncontrolled airfield.

b)

Transmit at regular times or positions, the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure".

c)

Change to frequency 121.5 MHZ and squawk 7700.

d)

Transmit reports at scheduled times or positions, preceded by the phrase "Transmitting blind due to receiver failure".

What action should be taken by the aircraft station first receiving a distress message? a)

Immediately acknowledge the distress message.

b)

Request position of the station in distress.

c)

Ask the station to change to frequency 121.5 MHZ.

d)

Request the nature of emergency in progress, and request further intentions.


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Questionnaire 090-2 COM-IFR

001.)

002.)

003.)

004.)

What does the term "broadcast" mean? a)

A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.

b)

A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.

c)

A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.

d)

A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.

What does the term "air-ground communication" mean? a)

Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface ofthe earth

b)

Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

c)

One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of theearth

d)

One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth

What does the abbreviation "IMC" mean? a)

In most cases.

b)

In meteorological conditions.

c)

Instrument meteorological conditions.

d)

International meteorological channel.

What does the abbreviation "H24" mean? a)

Sunset to sunrise.

b)


c)


d)

Sunrise to sunset.


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005.)

006.)

007.)

008.)

009.)

What does the abbreviation "AIS" mean? a)

Aerodrome information service.

b)

Aeronautical information service.

c)

Airport information system.

d)

Aerodrome identification signal-area.

What does the abbreviation "SAR" mean? a)

Search and rescue.

b)

Surveillance airport radar.

c)

Standard arrival route.

d)

Secondary altimeter responder.

What does the abbreviation "ATIS" mean? a)

Automatic terminal information system.

b)

Air traffic information service.

c)

Airport terminal information service.

d)

Automatic terminal information service.

What is the correct way of spelling out FRI-VOR in a radio message ? a)

Foxtrot Romeo Juliett – VOR

b)

Foxtrot Romeo India – VOR

c)

Fox Romeo Yankee – VOR

d)

Fox Romeo India – VOR

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ? a)

one one eight point one

b)

one eighteen one

c)

one one eight one

d)

one one eight decimal one


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010.)

011.)

012.)

013.)

014.)

What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13.500 to indicate an altitude or cloud height ? a)

one three five hundred

b)

one three thousand five hundred

c)

thirteen thousand five hundred

d)

one three five zero zero

The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is any possibility of confusion about the hour ? a)

One six one five

b)

Four fifteen in the afternoon

c)

Four fifteen P.M.

d)

Sixteen fifteen

What does the phrase "Verify" mean: a)

Repeat your last transmission

b)

Read back VDF bearing

c)

Consider that transmission as not sent

d)

Check and confirm with originator

Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: "Consider that transmission as not sent": a)

My last transmission is cancelled

b)

Disregard

c)

Cancel my last message

d)

Forget it

When shall the phrase "Take-off" be used by a pilot: a)

To inform TOWER when ready for departure

b)

Never, it is used only by the control tower

c)

Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway

d)

To acknowledge take-off clearance only


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015.)

016.)

017.)

018.)

019.)

How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre: a)

Aborting take-off

b)

Cancelling take-off

c)

Abandoning take-off

d)

Stopping

What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received: a)

We have the Information

b)

We have the ATIS Golf

c)

Information Golf

d)

Weather Golf received

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control (no radar service) ? a)

RADAR

b)

CONTROL

c)

ARRIVAL

d)

APPROACH

When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC should use the following phrase: a)

The values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metres

b)

RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres

c)

RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metres

d)

RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres

What does "Friction coefficient 45" in a runway report mean: a)

Braking action poor

b)

Braking action not measurable

c)

Braking action medium

d)

Braking action good


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020.)

021.)

022.)

023.)

024.)

What does "Friction coefficient 20" in a runway report mean: a)

Braking action good

b)

Braking action medium

c)

Braking action unreliable

d)

Braking action poor

Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be "Unreliable": a)

Runway covered with ice

b)

Runway conditions normal

c)

Runway covered with dry snow

d)

Runway covered with wet snow and slush

If you are requested to "Report flight conditions", what does that mean: a)

Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing

b)

Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC

c)

Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR

d)

Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature

A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY means: a)

Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required

b)

The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or vehicle

c)

The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure

d)

The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight

The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be on: a)

The air-ground frequency in use at the time

b)

The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned

c)

The regional guard frequency

d)

The emergency frequency in any case


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025.)

026.)

027.)

028.)

The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as: a)

An airline operation frequency

b)

An international emergency frequency

c)

A frequency for air-to-air communication

d)

A regional UHF frequency

An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that: a)

The aircraft is being hijacked

b)

There is a sick passenger on board

c)

The aircraft is in distress

d)

The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable

A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN means: a)

Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required

b)

An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure

c)

The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance

d)

The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required

On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall: a)

Monitor the frequency to offer assistance if required

b)

Acknowledge the message immediately

c)

Impose radio silence on the frequency in use

d)

Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use


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029.)

030.)

031.)

032.)

What does the term "Expected Approach Time" mean: a)

The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated

b)

The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing

c)

The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing

d)

The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual approach" ? a)

An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach

b)

An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC

c)

An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain

d)

A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima

What does the term "clearance limit" mean: a)

The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced

b)

The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance

c)

The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance

d)

The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance

An "Automatic Terminal Information Service" provides: a)

Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR).

b)

Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation.

c)

Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air navigation within a FIR.

d)

Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous and repetitive broadcast .


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033.)

034.)

035.)

036.)

What does the term "way point" mean: a)

A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation

b)

A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use

c)

A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport

d)

A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system

What does the abbreviation "INS" mean: a)

International NOTAM system

b)

Instrument navigation system

c)

Inertial navigation system

d)

International navigation service

What does the abbreviation "MLS" mean: a)

Minimum sector level

b)

Minimum safe level

c)

Microwave landing system

d)

Mean sea level

What does "SELCAL" mean: a)

A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units

b)

A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously

c)

A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft

d)

A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only


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037.)

038.)

039.)

040.)

041.)

What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean: a)

Standard snow report

b)

Surface strength of runway

c)

Search and surveillance radar

d)

Secondary surveillance radar

What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean: a)

Radio navigation

b)

Area navigation

c)

Radar aided navigation

d)

Route navigation

What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean: a)

Recleared via route...

b)

Radar vectors requested

c)

Runway visibility report

d)

Runway visual range

What does the word "Monitor" mean: a)

Listen out on (frequency).

b)

Wait and I will call you

c)

Establish radio contact with...

d)

Examine a system or procedure

What does the instruction: "Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER" mean: a)

Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9

b)

Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being broadcast

c)

Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate further communications

d)

Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency


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042.)

043.)

044.)

045.)

046.)

Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction: a)

Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345

b)

Changing over Fastair 345

c)

118.0 Fastair 345

d)

Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345

Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out: a)

Disregard

b)

Impossible to make it

c)

Unable to comply

d)

Negative instruction

Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure: a)

Going around

b)

Pulling up

c)

Overshooting

d)

Missed approach

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area control centre (no radar): a)

APPROACH

b)

RADAR

c)

CENTRE

d)

CONTROL

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures: a)

APPROACH

b)

RADAR

c)

DEPARTURE

d)

CONTROL


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047.)

048.)

049.)

050.)

051.)

What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals: a)

APPROACH

b)

RADAR

c)

DIRECTOR

d)

ARRIVAL

What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ? a)

Fastair 45

b)

Fastair 345

c)

2345

d)

No abbreviated form

What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off weight of more than 136 tonnes: a)

Fastair 345

b)

Fastair 345 heavy

c)

Heavy Fastair 345

d)

Fastair 345 widebody

When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word "Heavy" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy: a)

In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit

b)

In all calls

c)

Never

d)

In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit

Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ? a)

SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions

b)

QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability

c)

QNH, weather information, runway-in-use

d)

ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information


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052.)

053.)

054.)

055.)

056.)

What shall the pilot's read back be for "Climb to FL 280": a)

Climbing to flight level two eight zero

b)

Climbing to two eighty

c)

Climbing two eight zero

d)

Climbing to flight level two eighty

What shall the pilot's rea-dback be for "climb to 2500 feet": a)

Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet

b)

Climbing to two point five

c)

Climbing to two thousand five hundred

d)

Up to two thousand five hundred

ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot: a)

Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345

b)

Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345

c)

Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345

d)

Descending to 80, Fastair 345

Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted ? a)

Aircraft identification, position, time

b)

Aircraft identification, position, time, level

c)

Aircraft identification, position, next position

d)

Aircraft identification, position, level

Blind transmission shall be made: a)

On regional guard frequencies only

b)

To all available aeronautical stations

c)

During IFR flights only

d)

On the designated frequency (frequency in use)


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057.)

058.)

059.)

060.)

An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is assumed to: a)

Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace

b)

Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case

c)

Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome

d)

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival

An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The aircraft is assumed to: a)

Land at the alternate aerodrome

b)

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

c)

Land at the destination aerodrome

d)

Return to the aerodrome of departure

An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is assumed to: a)

Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules

b)

Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome

c)

Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight

d)

Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome

An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome: a)

3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

b)

Under no circumstances

c)

5 minutes in any case

d)

Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged


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061.)

062.)

063.)

064.)

An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC and not expecting any approach delay must start descent over the designated navigational aid serving the destination aerodrome: a)

at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) resulting from the Current Flight Plan (CPL).

b)

4 minutes after reaching the Initial Approach Fix (IAP).

c)

immediately after reaching the navigation aid in any case.

d)

at or as close as possible to the Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) based on the Filed Flight Plan (FPO).

An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within: a)

30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later

b)

30 minutes after waiting for the EAT

c)

30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

d)

15 minutes after vacating the transition layer

Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and: a)

Land at the departure aerodrome in any case

b)

Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in accordance with the flight plan

c)

Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then climb in accordance with the flight plan

d)

Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan

A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight under radar vectors has to: a)

Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

b)

Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan in the most direct manner

c)

Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way

d)

Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan


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065.)

066.)

067.)

068.)

069.)

In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall: a)

Continue the flight in VMC

b)

Inform the current ATC unit immediately

c)

Squawk 7600

d)

Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair

In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall: a)

Inform ATC after departure

b)

Inform FIS for relay to AIS

c)

Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight

d)

Insert under item 18 of the flight plan "transponder unserviceable"

What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ? a)

The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport

b)

The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation

c)

The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land

d)

The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony

A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal: a)

PAN PAN TRANSPORT

b)

MEDICAL TRANSPORT

c)

PAN PAN MEDICAL

d)

PROTECTED TRANSPORT

QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate: a)

The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.

b)

The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.

c)

The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.

d)

The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).


page: 15

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070.)

071.)

QNH is the Q-code to indicate: a)

The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).

b)

The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome.

c)

The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).

d)

The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.

Before transmitting the pilot should...: a)

Always write the message and read it during the transmission.

b)

Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station already

c)

transmitting will occur.

d)

Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.

Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.

072.)

073.)

074.)

What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched "on") ? a)

None.

b)

The frequency can not be used by others.

c)

Other stations will have to use the "words twice" technique.

d)

Readability will improve for all stations.

What does the phrase "break break" mean ? a)

It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.

b)

It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.

c)

My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

d)

The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.

Which of the following calls is a "general call" ? a)

YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.

b)

YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.

c)

YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.

d)

ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.


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075.)

076.)

077.)

078.)

079.)

Must a "general call" be acknowledged"? a)

Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.

b)

No.

c)

Yes, but only from the station first called.

d)

Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been addressed.

What is meant by the phrase "readability 2"? a)

Readable.

b)

Unreadable

c)

Readable but with difficulty.

d)

Readable now and then.

On the readability scale what does "readability 1" mean ? a)

Readable.

b)

Unreadable.

c)

Perfectly readable.

d)


What is meant by the phrase " readability 4"? a)

Perfectly readable.

b)


c)

Readable now and then.

d)

Readable.

What does the word "acknowledge" mean ? a)

Repeat all of your last transmission.

b)

Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.

c)

Pass me the following information.

d)

Let me know that you have received and understood this message.


page: 17

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080.)

081.)

082.)

083.)

084.)

What does the word "approved" mean ? a)

That is correct.

b)

Permission for proposed action granted.

c)

Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.

d)

I repeat for clarity or emphasis.

Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a message ? a)

Stop.

b)

I say again.

c)

Over.

d)

Break.

What does the word "cancel" mean ? a)

Consider that transmission as not sent.

b)

A change has been made to your last clearance.

c)

Annul the previously transmitted clearance.

d)

Wait and I will call you.

What does the word "check" mean ? a)

Confirm your last transmission.

b)

Examine a system or procedure.

c)

Read back my last instruction.

d)

I understand your message.

Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under specified conditions ? a)

Go ahead.

b)

I say again: proceed.

c)

Approved.

d)

Cleared.


page: 18

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085.)

086.)

087.)

088.)

089.)

Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance, instruction, etc ? a)

Confirm.

b)

Correct.

c)

Verify.

d)

Acknowledge.

What does the word "contact" mean ? a)

Establish radio contact with ... .

b)

Radar contact established .

c)

That is correct .

d)

Listen out on (frequency) .

Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ? a)

Confirm .

b)

Read back .

c)

Verify .

d)

I say again .

What does the word "correct" mean ? a)

Negative, the correct version is ... .

b)

Permission for proposed action not granted.

c)

That is correct.

d)

An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ... .

Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission or message ? a)

Correction.

b)

Disregard.

c)

Correct.

d)

Negative.


page: 19

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090.)

091.)

092.)

093.)

094.)

What does the word "disregard" mean ? a)


b)


c)

Wait and I will call you.

d)

An error has been made in this transmission.

What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ? a)

Read you loud and clear .

b)

Read back .

c)

How do you read ?

d)

Report readability .

What does the word "negative" mean ? a)

Proposed action granted.

b)


c)

Disregard last instruction.

d)

Permission not granted.

What does the word "negative" mean ? a)

I say again.

b)


c)

That is not correct.

d)


Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or part thereof ? a)

Recleared.

b)

Break break.

c)

Approved.

d)

Cleared.


page: 20

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095.)

096.)

097.)

098.)

099.)

What does the word "recleared" mean ? a)

Permission for proposed action granted.

b)


c)

A change has been made to your last clearance.

d)

An error has been made in my last transmission.

Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say: "Reduce your rate of speech" ? a)

Words twice.

b)

Speak slower.

c)

Say again.

d)

Repeat.

What does the word "wilco" mean ? a)

I read you five.

b)

I understand your message and will comply with it.

c)

I have received all of your last transmission.

d)

As communication is difficult, I will call you later.

What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing radar service (in general) ? a)

RADAR.

b)

CONTROL.

c)

RADAR-SERVICE.

d)

RADAR-CONTROL.

What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating clearance delivery ? a)

DELIVERY

b)

RADIO.

c)

CLEARANCE.

d)

CLEARANCE DELIVERY.


page: 21

C.A.T.

JAR-ATPL


100.)

101.)

102.)

103.)

104.)

When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, stop transmitting MAYDAY" it is requested: a)

To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.

b)

To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic.

c)

Not to interfere with the distress communication.

d)

To leave the frequency in use.

When an aircraft station receives the call "ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR, distress traffic ended": a)

the aircraft station has to advice the other stations in the vicinity.

b)

the aircraft station has to call Stephenville RADAR to request frequency change.

c)

receipt of this message must be acknowledged.

d)

normal communication with Stephenville RADAR may be resumed.

Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose silence ? a)

Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY

b)

All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic

c)

Stop transmitting, MAYDAY

d)

Stop transmitting, DISTRESS

The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include ? a)

Emergency communication finished

b)

Distress traffic ended

c)

MAYDAY traffic ended

d)

Disregard distress communication, OUT

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ''Communication is difficult. Please send every word or group of words twice'' ? a)

Say again, say again

b)

Words twice

c)

Repeat twice

d)

Message second time


page: 22

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105.)

106.)

107.)

108.)

When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the distress condition. Which words shall this message include ? a)

... MAYDAY, resuming normal operations

b)

... distress condition terminated

c)

... cancel distress

d)

... MAYDAY cancelled

The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall contain at least the following elements/details: a)

Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present position, level and heading

b)

Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading

c)

Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight

d)

Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required


The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications, except distress

b)

ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications

c)

The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications

d)

There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency communications

To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to the controller: a)

Runway cleared.

b)

Runway vacated.

c)

Runway free.

d)

Clear of runway.


page: 23

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109.)

110.)

111.)

112.)

During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is: a)

Heading three six zero, X-BC.

b)

Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.

c)

Heading north, X-BC.

d)

A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified

Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of: a)

Overload of the frequency.

b)

Technical difficulties.

c)

Urgency communication.

d)

Distress traffic.

Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read back? 1 - "descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet" 2 - "wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 knots" 3 - "turn right heading 210" 4 - "reduce speed to 160 knots" 5 - "squawk 1723" 6 - "braking action poor" a)

1, 3, 4, 5, 6

b)

1, 2, 3, 5

c)

1, 3, 4, 5

d)

all

The expression " transmitting blind due to receiver failure" implies that no answer is expected. It shall be used by: a)

A radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach.

b)

An aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a "non-towered" airfield

c)

An aircraft station being aware of receiver failure

d)

A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.


page: 24

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113.)

114.)

115.)

116.)

When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the call starts with: a)

"Please listen"

b)

"All stations

c)

"General broadcast"

d)

"Message to all aircraft on this frequency"

Fastair 345 has been instructed "Standby 118.9 for TOWER". What does this instruction mean ? a)

Fastair 345 shall change to frequency 118.9 on which information is being broadcast.

b)

Fastair 345 shall squawk standby and then establish radio contact with TOWER on frequency 118.9.

c)

Fastair 345 shall establish radio contact with TOWER on frequency 118.9.

d)

Fastair shall change to frequency 118.9 and listen out, but the TOWER will initiate further communications.

How will an ATS unit instruct Fastair 345 to contact Stephenville RADAR on frequency 132.0083 (8.33 KHz frequency spacing) ?: a)

Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.010.

b)

Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR channel 132.0083.

c)

Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR frequency 132.010.

d)

Fastair 345 contact Stephenville RADAR on 132.010.

What does the instruction "Fastair 345 recycle 1240" mean ?: a)

RADAR informs Fastair 345 that radar service is terminated at time 1240.

b)

Fastair 345 is requested to reselect assigned mode and code 1240.

c)

Fastair 345 is requested to set new code 1240.

d)

RADAR instructs Fastair 345 to stop squawk 1240 immediately.


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117.)

118.)

119.)

120.)

121.)

What is the maximum distance at which you may expect strong VHF reception over flat terrain at FL 140 ? a)

About 140 NM

b)

About 300 NM

c)

About 40 NM

d)

About 240 NM

Fastair 345 is instructed to contact Stephenville RADAR on channel 132.010 MHz. How would Fastair 345 advise RADAR that it is not 8.33 KHz equipped ? a)

Negative channel 132.0083.

b)

Negative on 132.008

c)

Negative frequency 132.010.

d)

Negative eight point three three.

How shall a pilot inform the ATS unit that his aircraft does not have 8.33 KHz capability ?: a)

We do not have this frequency.

b)

Negative eight point three three frequency equipment.

c)

My aircraft is not equipped with eight point three three.

d)

Negative eight point three three.

Among the following, select the ATC unit in charge of controlling the traffic: a)

AIS

b)

ATIS

c)

Departure

d)

AFIS

Which of the following is the correct suffix for the ATC unit controlling the traffic on the ground at an airport? a)

Ground

b)

Delivery

c)

Radar

d)

Approach


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122.)

123.)

124.)

125.)

126.)

The time is now 1123. Radar Control requests your estimate for next reporting point, which is AAL VOR/DME. You look at your operational flight plan and estimate 12 minutes (36 NM) to go to the reporting point. Your transmission is: a)

estimate AAL at three-five.

b)

estimate AAL at eleven-thirty-five.

c)

estimate AAL VOR/DME in one-two minutes.

d)

have one-two minutes to go to AAL.

What is the correct suffix to be used when establishing radio contact in an area control centre? a)

Control centre

b)

Radio

c)

Centre

d)

Control

What is the meaning of the phrase "Radar service terminated"? a)

ATC wants you to reset transponder.

b)

You will no longer be provided with radar control.

c)

You are now leaving the Terminal Area.

d)

ATC wants you to continue VFR.

A read back is not needed for the following message: a)

Clearance to take off.

b)

Wind velocity

c)

Clearance to backtrack on RWY in use.

d)

Altimeter setting.

The aircraft has started a descent. Select the correct radiotelephony transmission. a)

LEAVING FL 200.

b)

LEAVING FL 200, DESCENDING TO FL 120

c)

LEAVING LEVEL 200 FOR LEVEL 120.

d)

STARTING DESCENT.


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