BCQs POOL

BCQs 1. Infants are born with a) Astigmatism b) Emetropia c) /Hypermetropia d) Myopia 2. The most common factor responsible for myopia is a) Refractive index of the ocular media b) Curvature of cornea and lens c) /Axial length of the eye ball d) Anterior displacement of the lens 3. Removal of crystaline lens surgically may be advocated in a) Presbyopia b) Astigmatism c) High hypermetropia d) /High myopia 4. The maifestation of presbyopia in hypermetropia occurs at a) A usual age of 40 years b) /An earlier age than usual c) A later age than usual d) Does not manifest at all 5. Anisekonia means a) /Difference in retinal image size b) Difference in refractive power c) Diffrence in curvature of cornea d) Difference in the depth of anterior chambers 6. With a slit lamp without any additional aid one can examine upto a) The retina b) /Anterior vitreous c) Posterior surface of lens d) Anterior surface of lens 7. The regurgitation test may be false negative in a) Conganital dacryocystitis b) /Chronic dacryocystitis with internal fistula c) Chronic dacryocystitis with external fistula d) All of above 8. Rose Bengal stains a) Mucus selectively b) Diseased and devitalized cells c) /Area of cornea which are denuded of epithelium d) All of the above

9. The average corneal endothalial cells count per sq.mm in the adult is a) /2800 cells b) 1900 cells c) 4000 cells d) 1000 cells 10. Dilated vertically oval pupil seen in a) Myopia b) Atropinisation c) Both of the above d) /Closed angle glaucoma 11. Anterior chamber is deep a) In hypermetrope b) In closed angle glaucoma c) /In myope d) In an infant 12. The aqueous flare is best seen by a) Streak retinoscope b) Operating microscope c) /Biomicroscope d) Ophthalmoscope 13. Irido donesis is seen in all the conditions except a) Subuxated lens b) /Iridodyialysis c) Aphakia d) Shrunken hypermature cataract 14. Gonioscopic use is to see the a) Depth of anterior chamber b) /Angle of anterior chamber c) Retinal lesions d) Any of the above 15. In indirect ophthalmoscopy the image formed is a) Virtual, inverted and between the convex lens and observed eye b) Virtual, erect and between the observer and convex lens c) Real, erect and between the convex lens and observed eye d) /Real, inverted and between the observer and convex lens 16. For biomicroscopic examination of the vitreous and the fundus the following lenses are used except a) /Koeppe lens b) Goldman three mirror contact lens c) Posterior fundus contact lens d) Hruby lens

17. Ultrasonic frequencies used for ophthalmic diagnosis are in the range of a) 12MHZ b) 18MHZ c) 15MHZ d) /10MHZ 18. In an eye with opaque ocular media the retinal detachment can be diagnosed by a) /Ocular ultrasonography b) Indirect ophthalmoscopy c) Distant direct ophthalmoscopy d) Direct ophthalmoscopy 19. The optic disc diameter is a) 1.00 mm b) 3.00 mm c) 2.00 mm d) /1.5 mm 20. Macula lutea is situated at a) 1 Disc diameter medial to optic disc b) /2 Disc diameter temporal to optic disc c) 1 Disc diameter medial to optic disc d) 2 Disc diameter medial to optic disc 21. Normally pulsations seen on the optic disc are a) /Venous pulsations b) Capillary pulsations c) Arterial pulsations d) All of above 22. Whole letter in snellen chart will subtend an angle at a) 2 min b) /5min c) 3 min d) 1 min 23. Snellens test types at a given distance subtend at the nodal point of the eye an angle of a) 4 min angle b) /1 min angle c) 2 min angle d) 3 min angle 24. All of the following are antiviral agents except a) Triflurothimidine b) Ara-A c) 5-Iodo-2-deoxyuridine d) /Diethylcarbamazine

25. Nystatin an antifingal agent is administered in patients of keratomycosis a) Intrathically b) Intramuscularly c) Intrvenously d) /Topically 26. Systemic administration of steroids have the following side effects except a) Precipitate hypertension b) /Precipitate seizures c) Precipitate diabetes d) Activate tuberculosis 27. All of the following are the ocular indications of local steroids except a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis b) /Retinitis pigmentosa c) Acute iridocyclitis d) Spring catarrh 28. All of the following can cause ophthamia neonatorum except a) Chlamydia oculogenitalis b) /Pseudomonas c) Streptococcus pneumoiae d) Neisseria gonorrhoeae 29. True membranous conjunctivitis is caused by a) Streptococcus b) Gonococcus c) Pneumococcus d) /Corynebacterium dipptheriae 30. All are the features of angular conjunctivitis except a) /Lid and corneal involvement do not occur b) Usually associated with the infection of nasal tract c) Bacillus produces a proteolytic ferment which macerates the epithelium d) Caused typically by a diplobacillus 31. Angular conjunctivitis is caused by a) Corynebacteria b) /Moraxella c) Pneumococcus d) Streptococcus 32. The treatment of angular conjunctivitis is a) Framycetin eye drops b) /Zinc sulphate eye drops c) Sulphacetamide eye drops d) Pencillin eye drops

33. Chlamydia is a) /Gram negative b) Gram positive c) Variable d) Any of the above 34. Regressive trachomatous pannus is seen in a) 1st stage b) 2nd stage c) /3rd stage d) 4th stage 35. Herbert pits seen in a) /Trachoma b) Phlyctanular conjunctivitis c) Tubercular conjunctivitis d) All 36. Acute conjunctivitis associated with urethritis and polyarthritis a) Still’s disease b) /Reiters disease c) Stevens johnson syndrome d) Behcet’s disease 37. Phlyctanular conjunctivitis is due to a) /Endogenous allergic reaction b) Infection due to virus c) Infection due to bacteria d) Exogenous allergic reaction 38. Phlyctens are most commonly in the a) Palpebral conjunctiva b) Fornices c) /Bulbar conjunctiva at or near limbus d) Cornea 39. Topical treatment of phlyctenular conjunctivitis is by a) Antibiotic drops b) Antiviral drops c) /Steroid drops d) Astringent drops 40. Marked itching is the hallmark of a) Trachoma b) /Spring catarrh c) Follicular conjunctivitis d) Mucopurulent conjuncitivitis

41. Subconjunctival haemorrhage seen in a) Malaria b) Purpura c) Scurvy d) /All of the above 42. All are known to cause xerophthalmia except a) /Acute catarrhal conjunctivitis b) Trachoma c) Lagophthalmos d) Vitamin A defeciency 43. Slight opacity of the cornea is termed as a) Macula b) /Nebula c) Leucoma d) Adherent leucoma 44. Hypopyon can be caused by all except a) Gonococcus b) /Acanthamoeba c) Pneumococcus d) Pseudomonas pyocyanea 45. The following causes lead to delayed healing of corneal ulcer except a) Diabetes mellitus b) Chronic dacryocystitis c) /Associated conjunctivitis d) Rise of IOP 46. Mooren’s ulcer is a) /Autoimmune b) Degenerative c) Infective d) None 47. All are the characteristic features of Herpes simplex keratitis except a) Hypoesthesis of cornea b) /Single corneal lesion c) Absence of vasculitis d) Dendritic keratitis 48. The reservoir of infection in herpes zoster is a) /Gasserian ganglion b) Superior cervical ganglion c) Inferior cervical ganglion d) Ciliary ganglion

49. In an established case of keratoconus the best treatment is a) Soft contact lens b) Hard contact lens c) /Spectacle lens d) Penetrating keratoplasty 50. Most common corneal endothelial dystrophy is a) /Fuch’s dystrophy b) Reis buckler dystrophy c) Salzman dystrophy d) None of the above 51. Adherent leucoma formed as a complication of a) Cornea ulcer b) /Small perforation c) Large perforation d) None of the above 52. Anterior staphyloma formed as a complication of a) Scleritis b) Ocular injury c) /Prforated corneal ulcer d) Intact corneal ulcer 53. Bullous keratopathy occurs as a complication of a) Cataract b) /Glaucoma c) Iritis d) Keratitis 54. Pigment deposition in Kayser Fleischer ring is a) Melanin b) Hemosiderin c) /Copper d) Iron 55. The circumscribed nodule of episcleritis is due to the infilteration of the episcleral tissue by a) Monocytes b) Eosinophils c) Neutrophils d) /Lymphocytes 56. Blue sclera seen in a) /Osteogenesis imperfecta b) Osteopetosis c) Ehler Danlos syndrome d) None of the above

57. The clinical presentation of scleritis in collagen disease is a) Massive granuloma of the sclera b) Sclermalacia perforans c) Necrotizing nodular scleritis d) /All of the above 58. Scleritis is a common implication of the following diseases except a) Rheumatoid arthritis b) Tuberculosis c) Herpes simplex infection d) Systemic lupus erythmatosus 59. All are complications of scleritis except a) Secondary glaucoma b) Uveitis c) Ciliary staphyloma d) /Dacryoadenitis 60. Rubiosis iridis leads to a) Ghost cell glaucoma b) Inverse glaucoma c) /Neovascular glaucoma d) Glaucoma capsular 61. All of the following are causes of rubeosis iridis except a) Sickle cell disease b) Central retinal vein occlusion c) Diabetes mellitus d) /Coat’s disease 62. Uveitis is found in association of all following diseases except a) /Osteoarthritis b) Behcet’s syndrome c) Ankylosing spondylitis d) Rheumatoid arthritis 63. All of the following can cause hypopyon except a) Acute endophthalmitis b) Acute iridocyclitis c) Acute pneumococcal keratitis d) /Acute papilitis 64. All are the causes of circumcorneal congestion except a) Acute narrow angle glaucoma b) Acute iridocyclitis c) Keratitis d) /Conjunctivitis

65. Night pain is the prominent symptom of a) Conjunctivitis b) /Iritis c) Cataract d) Optic neuritis 66. Granulomatous uveitis is seen in all of the following except a) Sympathetic ophthalmitis b) Syphilitic uveitis c) Tubercular uveitis d) /Collagen diseases with uveitis 67. A young adult complaining of severe headache and unilateral diminution of vision with raised IOP, positive aqueous flare and few KPs is suffering from a) Marfan’s syndrome b) Vogt-koyanagi syndrome c) /Posner and Schlossman syndrome d) Stevens-Johnson syndrome 68. Complications of anterior uveitis are the following except a) Macular edema b) Secondary glaucoma c) /Keratitis d) Complicated cataract 69. Bilateral punched out, heavily pigmented retinochoroidal scars in the macular area seen in a) Brucellosis b) Sarcoidosis c) Tuberculosis d) /Toxoplasmosis 70. Exudative retinal detachment occurs in all of the following except a) Retinopathy of pregnancy induced hypertension b) Exudative retinopathy of coats c) /Circinate retinopathy d) Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada disease 71. Typically coloboma of iris occurs a) Superotemporally b) Superonasally c) Inferotemporally d) /Inferonasally 72. Atropine helps in treatment of iritis because a) Keeps the iris and ciliary body at rest b) Diminishes the hyperemia c) Pevention and breakage of synechae d) /All of the above

73. All of the following are features of zonular cataract except a) Lenticular opacity is usually sharply demarcated b) /Usually unilateral c) Rider may run outwards towards equator d) The area of the lens within and around this opaque zone is clear 74. Drug known to cause acquired cataract are a) Corticosteroids b) Anticholine estrase miotics c) Dinitrophenol d) /All of above 75. All of the following lead to the formation of complicated cataract except a) Pigmentary retinal dystrophy b) Progressive myopia c) /Progressive hypermetropia d) Iridocyclitis 76. Complicated cataract occurs in the a) Equitorial region of the lens b) /Posterior part of the cortex c) Nuclear area of lens d) Anterior subcapsular region 77. The ring of sommering is theterm used for a) /After cataract b) Diabetic cataract c) Complicated cataract d) Traumatic cataract 78. Congenital rubella syndrome consists of a) Cataract b) Cranial malformations c) Patent ductus arteriosus d) /All of the above 79. Acquired cause of anterior polar cataract is a) Corneal ulcer b) /Perforated corneal ulcer c) Keratitis d) All of the above 80. Posterior vitreous detachment may be associated with a) Floaters b) Photopsiae c) /Both of above d) None of above

81. All of the following are proliferative retinopathies except a) /Retinopathy in toxemia of pregnancy b) Sickle cell retinopathy c) Eales’s disease d) Central retinal venous occlusion 82. Black spots floating infront of the eye is known as a) Synchiasis scintillans b) Asteroid hyalosis c) /Muscae volitants d) None of the above 83. Treatment of vitreous haemorrage consist of all except a) Bed rest b) Pad and bandage c) /Head down position d) Vitrectomy in unresponded cases after 6 months 84. Retinal vein occlusion leads to vitreous haemorrhage after a) One month b) Two months c) /Three months d) Four months 85. Eales disease is a) /Hypersensitive reaction to tuberculoprotein b) Autoimmune disease c) Degenerative disease d) Any of the above 86. Ocular findngs of sickle cell disease a) Angiod streaks b) Papilloedema c) Glaucoma d) /All of the above 87. All of the following are types of lens induced glaucoma except a) Lens paticle glaucoma b) Phacomorphic glaucoma c) /Glaucoma capsulare d) Lens protein glaucoma 88. The eyes which are vulnerable to have attack of narrow angle glaucoma are a) Myopic eyes b) Astigmatic eyes c) Emtropic eyes d) /Hypermetropic eyes

89. Phacolytic glaucoma seen with a) Hypermature cataract b) Premature cataract c) /Mature cataract d) All 90. Coloured haloes are seen in all of the following except a) /Acute iridocyclitis b) Immature senile cataract c) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis d) Narrow angle glaucoma 91. Water drinking test is used to detect a) Closed angle glaucoma b) /Open angle glaucoma c) Both d) None 92. All of the following develops painless rapid loss of vision except a) Total retinal detachment b) Central retinal vein occlusion c) /Open angle glaucoma d) Central retinal artery occlusion 93. Mydriatic test helps in diagnosis of a) /Closed angle glaucoma b) Secondary glaucoma c) Open angle glaucoma d) None of the above 94. Field defect in chronic simple glaucoma a) Baming of blind spot b) Roen step c) Bjerrum scotoma d) /All of the above 95. All of the following are the causes of cystoids macular oedema except: a. Postoperative case of cataract extraction b. ~Central retinal artery occlusion c. Central retinal venous occlusion d. Diabetes mellitus 96. All of the following are the symptoms of the retinal diseases except: a. ~Pain is almost invariably present b. Light sense is diminished c. Black sots may be present d. Metamorphopsia, micropsia, macropsia

97. Retinal hemorrhages with characterstic white centres are called as: a. ~Roth’s spot b. Taranta’ spot c. Bitot’s spot d. Koplick’s spot 98. Roth’s spots are seen in: a. Tay’s choroiditis b. Tay sach disease c. ~Retinopathy of sub acute bacterial endocarditis d. All of above 99. Phenomenon of nicking seen in: a. ~Hypertensive retinopathy b. Diabetic retinopathy c. Sickle cell retinopathy d. None of the above 100. The early sign of the background diabetic retinopathy is: a. Small dot and blot haemorrhage b. ~Micrroaneurysm in the macular area c. Hard exudates d. All of the above 101. Angioidstreaks are associated with all of the following conditions except: a. ~Presumed histoplasma syndrome b. Ehlers Danlos syndrome c. Paget’s disease of bone d. Pseudoxanthoma elasticum 102. Following can cause traction retinal detachment except: a. Plastic cyclitis b. Retero lental fibroplasias c. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy d. ~Degeneration of the vitreous 103. The most common quadrant to have retinal holes is: a. Superonasal b. Infero temporal c. Infero nasal d. ~Superotemporal 104. 90 days glaucoma or 3 months glaucoma seen in: a. Eclipse blindness b. Central retinal artery occlusion c. Both d. ~Central retinal vein occlusion

105. a. b. c. d. 106. a. b. c. d. 107. a. b. c. d. 108. a. b. c. d. 109. a. b. c. d. 110. a. b. c. d. 111. a. b. c. d. 112. a. b. c. d.

Earliest symptoms of Retinitis pigmentosa: ~Night blindness Tube vision Ring scotoma None Foster-Kennedy syndrome is caused by: Pontine tumors Midbrain tumors ~Tumors of the orbital surface of the frontal lobe Cerebellar tumors Centrocaecal scotoma particularly to red objects is seen in: ~Tobacco amblyopia Lead poisoning Quinine amblyopia Methyl alcohol poisoning The longest part of the optic disc is: ~Intracranial Intraobital Intracanalicular Intraocular Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy seen in: After massive haemorrhage Neglected acute attachk of closed angle glaucoma Severe Anemia ~All of the above Homonymous hemianopic field defects are seen in the lesions of: Lateral geniculate body to occipital lobe ~Optic chiasma to occipital lobe Optic chiasma to lateral geniculate body Optic nerve to optic chiasma Hamianopia means: Loss of visual field totally ~Loss of half of the visual field Partial loss of visual field Any of the above Scintillating scotoma seen in: ~Migraine Amblyopia Amaurosis None of the above


The most frequent site of metastases in malignant melanoma is: Bones Gastrointestinal tract Lungs ~Liver The most common mode of metastasis of retinoblastoma is: By direct extension: by continuity to the optic nerve ~Via blood stream Via lymphatics All of the above The most common type of presentation of retinoblastoma in a child is: Esotropia ~Leucocoria Severe uveitis Propiosis Classification is pathognamanic of: Persistent primary vitreous ~Retinoblastoma Both None Most common presentation of retinoblastoma: Squint Ovitis ~White pupil None The most distressing sequelae of chemical burns in eye is: ~Symblepharon Trichiasis Ectropian All of the above Vossius’s ring is the imprint of the contracted pupil on the anterior surface of the lensin: Heterochromic cyclitis of Fuchs Iridoshisis Iridocylitis ~Blunt trauma of eye Cha;cosis caused by: Mercury Bras Nickel ~Copper


Siderosis buibi caused by: ~Iron Mercury Alluminium All of the above Blow out fracture of maxilla results in: Exophthalmos ~Enophthalmos Miosis Any of the above Features of paralytic squint: Diplopia False orientation Vertigo ~All All is true about the complete third nerve palsy except: Diplopia occurs when the lid is raised Eye is deflected outwards and rotate internally ~Pupil is mobile and accommodation is intact There is no ptosis Exophoria ween in: ~Myopia Hypermetropia Presbyopia All If the latent deviation is convergence, the squint is known as: ~Esophoria Exophoria Hyperphoria None Exophoria treated by: Surgery Prism Orthoptics ~All Strabismic amblyopia is treated by: Occlusion of the squinting eye ~Occlusion of the good eye Antiprostaglandin eye drops Surgery

129. Squamous blepharitis is frequently associated with: a. Pityriasis b. Psoriasis c. ~Seborrhoeic dermatitis d. None of the above 130. Stye is also known as: a. ~Hordeolum externum b. Chalazion c. Hordelum internum d. None 131. The treatment of trichiasis is: a. Epilation b. Destruction of hair follicle by diathermy c. Destruction of hair follicle by electrolysis d. ~All of the above 132. The most common cause of congenital ptosis is: a. Paralysis of levatopalpebrae superioris b. Birth trauma c. Systemic disease d. ~Defective development of levator palpebrae sperioris 133. The commonest site for basal cell carcinoma is: a. ~Inner canthus b. Upper lid c. Outer canthus d. Lower lid 134. Dry eye caused by: a. Altered corneal Surface b. Deficiency of tears c. Deficiency of macus d. ~All of the above 135. In orbital cellulitis the most common nasal sinus from where the extension of inflammation occurs is: a. Sphenoidal sinus b. ~Ethmoidal sinus c. Maxillary sinus d. Frontal sinus 136. All of the following are the complications of orbital cellulitis except: a. ~Cartico-cavernous fistula b. Purulent meningitis c. Cavernous sinus thrombosis d. Cerebral abscess

137. a. b. c. d. 138. a. b. c. d. 139.

140.

141.

142.

143.

144.

Rhabdomysarcoma arise from Unstriated muscle Striated muscle ~Connective tissue All of the above The most frequent cause of pulsating exophthalmos is: Orbital varices Haemangioma Neurofibromatosis ~Carotico-cavernous fistula When the total refraction of the two eyes is unequal the condition is called: a. Myopia b. Hpermetropia c. ~Anisometropia d. Isometropia The major factor responsible for hypermetropia a. Curvature of the lens and cornea b. ~Axial length of the eyeball c. Loss of accomodation d. Displacement of the lens Bitot’s spots are signs of the a. Trachoma b. Spring catarrh c. Pterygium d. ~Vitamin A defociency Steroids are contraindicated in a. Iritis b. Optic neuritis c. ~Corneal ulcer d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis Treatment of aphakia does not include a. Spectacles b. Contact lenses c. ~Radial keratotomy d. Anterior chamber IOL Intraocular pressure rises as a result a. Increased outflow resistance b. Obstruction of trabecular meshwork c. Central retinal vein occlusion d. ~All of the above


Blue dot cataract is ~Congenital cataract Juvenile cataract Presenile cataract Senile cataract Steroid induced ctaracts are initially Anterior subcapsular Cortical Nuclear ~Posterior subcapsular Miotics may cause Posterior subcapsular cataract ~Anterior subcapsular cataract Cortical cataract Nuclear cataract Vitreous haemorrhage may be due to all except ~Cataract Diabetic retina Trauma Neo vessels on retina In infants follicles develop only after the age of 1 month ~3 months 2 years 3 years Distichiasis means Absent of eye lashes Inward turning of eye lashes ~Presence of extra row of lashes Scanty eye lashes Transparency of the cornea is maintained Irregular arrangement of collagen stromal fibres ~Corneal endothelial pump mechanism Vascularization of the cornea Single layer of precorneal tear film Aqueous humor ~Produced by ciliary body epithelium 80% production is thru diffusion and osmosis Anterior chamber is about 3.5mm deep Aqueous contain higher amount of sodium

153.

Regarding iris a. ~Sphincter pupillae is supplied by parasympathetic autonomous secretomotor fibers b. Dilator pupillae is supply by branch of trigeminal nerve c. Posterior synechiae means adhesion b/w the peripheral iris and the cornea d. Pilocarpine can cause dilatation of pupil 154. Sharp instrument passing through the superior orbital fissure would most likely severe the following nerve a. ~Abducent nerve b. Facial nerve c. Maxillary nerve d. Optic nerve 155. 70 year old lady came to emergency department complaining of sudden visual loss, she had severe pain in the temple region specially when combing. Her ESR is 55mm/hr. Diagnosis is a. Angle closure glaucoma b. ~Giant cell arteritis causing arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy c. Nonarteritic ischemic optic neuropathy d. Central retinal artery occlusion 156. Panphotocoagulation in diabetic mellitus is indicated for a. Preproliferative b. Ischemic maculopathy c. ~New vessels at the disc d. Retinal cotton wool spots 157. Microaneurysms are present in b/w a. Retinal pigment epithelium and inner plexiform layer b. Nerve fibre layer and outer limiting membrane c. Inner and outer plexiform layer d. Nerve fibre layer and R.P.E 158. Flame shaped haemorrhages arise from a. Middle layers of retina b. Deeper capillary arterioles c. ~Nerve fibre layer d. Retinal pigment epithelium 159. Ciliary congestion is most marked at a. Canthii b. Fornix c. /Limbus d. Plica semilunaris 160. Kayser Fleischer ring is seen in a. Fuchs endothelial dystrophy b. Keratoglobus c. Marfan’s syndrome d. /Wilson’s disease

161. a. b. c. d. 162. a. b. c. d. 163. a. b. c. d.

Most common age related degeneration of cornea includes Lipid keratopathy Band keratopathy /Arcus senilis Spheroidal degeneration The middle layer of normal tear film is produced by Goblet cells /Lacrimal and accessary lacrimal gland Meibomian gland Gland of Zeis Most important factor to maintain corneal transparency Regular arrangement of collagen fibres Intact epithelium Endothelial pump Avascularity

1. Cornea is supplied by: A. Lacrimal nerve B. Frontal nerve C. /Nasocilary nerve D. Trochlear nerve

2. The depth of the anterior chamber in the centre is about: A. /2.5 mm B. 1.5 mm C. 3.5 mm D. 4.0 mm

3. Color Vision is the function of: A. Bipolar cells B. Ganglion cells C. Rods D. /Cones

4. Normal crystalline lens is rich in all except: A. Glutathione B. /Sodium C. Potassium D. Ascorbic acid

5. Pupils are small in all except in: A. Old age B. During sleep C. Hypermetropes D. /Myopes

6. In presbyopia it is better that the condition is: A. Fully corrected B. Over corrected C. /Under corrected D. Left as such

7. The most common factor responsible for myopia is: A. /Axial length of the eye ball B. Refractive index of the ocular media C. Curvature of cornea and lens D. Anterior displacement of the lens

8. Folllowing are the features of degenerative myopia except: A. Vitreous synchisis and synresis B. Posterior staphyloma and myopic crescent C. /Small hyperaemic disc without any cup D. Peripheral retinal degenerations

9. After removal of lens the eye becomes: A. Highly astigmatic B. Highly myopic C. Emetropic D. /Highly hypermetropic

10. Ciliary congesion occurs in all the following conditions except: A. Iridocyclitis B. /Acute conjunctivitis C. Acute narrow angle glaucoma D. Suppurative keratitis

11. Anterior chamber is usually shallow in all except: A. In an infant B. In hypermetope C. In closed angle glaucoma D. /In myope

12. The aqueous flare is best seen by: A. Opthalmoscope B. /Biomicroscope/Slit lamp C. Operating microscope D. Streak retinoscope

13. Fluorescein angiography has special role to play in: A. Diabetic retinopathy B. Central serous retinopathy C. Cystoid macular oedema D. /All of above

14. In an eye with opaque ocular media the retinal detachment can be diagnosed by: A. Direct opthalmoscopy B. Distant direct opthalmoscopy C. Indirect opthalmoscopy D. /Ocular ultrasonography(B-Scan)

15. The most effective route of administration of drug in endophthalmitis is: A. Topical drops B. /Intravitreal injection C. Subconjunctival injection D. Systemic route

16. The ocular side effects of systemic steroid is: A. Cataract B. Glaucoma C. /Both of above D. None of above

17. All of the following can cause ophthalmia neonatorum except: A. Neisseria gonorrhoearrhoea B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. /Pseudomonas D. Chlamydia oculogenitalis

18. Complication of trachoma infection is: A. Trichiasis B. /Corneal ulcer C. Entropion

D. Xerosis conjunctivae

19. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is due to: A. Exogenous allergic reaction B. /Endogenous allergic reaction C. Infection due to virus D. Infection due to bacteria

20. Vernal conjunctivitis is common in A. Spring season B. /Summer season C. Winter season D. Rainy season

21. Secretions in the spring catarrh contains: A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. /Eosinophils D. Monocytes

22. In the aetiology of pterygium following factors have been blamed except: A. Pterygium frequently follows pingueculum B. Exposure to ultraviolet rays is one of the aetiological factors C. /It is viral aetiology D. Dry, hot, sandy and sunny climate is blamed

23. Vision in pterygium is impaired by: A. Fibrosis in pterygium resulting in astigmatism B. The encroachment of pupillary area C. /Both of abve D. None of above

24. All are known to cause xerophthalmia except: A. Vit. A deficiency B. Lagophthalmos C. Trachoma D. /Acute catarrhal conjunctivitis

25. The following causes lead to delayed healing of corneal ulcer except: A. Rise of IOP

B. Diabetes mellitus C. Chronic dacryosystitis D. /Associated conjunctivitis

26. Steroids are indicated topically in: A. Pneumococcal hypopyon ulcer B. Herpes simplex keratitis C. Mycotic ulcer D. /Disciform keratitis

27. Ocular complications are usually associated with the involvement of: A. /Nasociliary nerve B. Lacrimal nerve C. Frontal nerve D. Trochlear nerve

28. In an established case of keratoconus the best treatment is: A. /Penetrating keratoplasy B. Spectacle lens C. Hard contact lens D. Soft contact lens

29. Scleritis is a common association of the following diseases except; A. Systemic lupus erythematosis B. /Herpes simplex infection C. Tuberculosis D. Rheumatoid arthritis

30. All of the following are causes of rubeosis iridis except: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Central retinal venous occlusion C. /Coat’s disease D. Sickle cell disease

31. Bilateral, punched out, heavily pigmented retinochoridal scars in the macular area are seen in: A. /Toxoplasmosis B. Brucellosis C. Tuberculosis D. Sarcoidosis

32. Anterior chamber in intumescent cataract becomes: A. /Shallow B. Deep C. No change D. Irregular

33. Nuclear sclerosis causes change in the refractive state of the eye towards: A. /Myopia B. Hypermetropia C. Astisgmatism D. No change

34. Snow flake cataract is seen in: A. /Diabetes B. Tuberculosis C. Wilson’s disease D. Galactosaemia

35. The early symptom of senile cataract is: A. Seeing stationary spots before the eyes B. Uniocular polyopia C. Coloured haloes D. /All of above 36. Most common postoperative complication of extracapsular cataract extraction is: A. Endothelial decompensation B. /Posterior capsule thickening C. Cystoid macular oedema D. Retinal detachment

37. The type of laser employed for treatment of posterior capsule thickening is: A. Argon laser B. Krypton laser C. /YAG laser D. Excimer laser

38. Vitreous haemorrhage occurs in: A. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy B. Eales’ disease C. Trauma D. /All of above

39. All of the following lead to neovascular glaucoma except:

A. B. C. D.

Central retinal vein occlusion /Central serous retinopathy Proliferative diabetic retinopathy Sickle cell retinopathy

40. All of the following features may precipitate an attack of narrow angle glaucoma except: A. B. C. D.

/Narrow pupil Shallow anterior chamber with narrow angle Anterioly placed lens in a hypermetropic eye Closely apposed iris to the lens causing physiological iris bombe

41. Colored haloes are seen in all of the following except: A. Narrow angle glaucoma B. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis C. Immature senile cataract D. /Acute iridocyclitis

42. The dark room prone test is the provocative test for: A. Primary open angle glaucoma B. /Primary narrow angle glaucoma C. Both of above D. None of above

43. All of the following are cardinal signs of open angle glaucoma except: A. Rise of IOP B. /Frequent change of near vision glasses C. Field defects D. Cupping of the disc

44. Timolol eye drops are contraindicated in: A. Bronchial asthma B. Patients of bradycardia and heart blocks C. /Both of above D. None of above

45. The accepted treatment of clinically significant macular oedema of diabetes is: A. Cryotherapy B. Diathermy C. /Laser photocoagulation D. None of above

46. Roth’s spots are seen in: A. Anaemic retinopathy B. Leukaemic retinopathy C. Retinopathy of sub acute bacterial endocarditis D. /All of above

47. Cherry red spots in the macular area of the retina is seen in: A. Central retinal venous occlusion B. /Central retinal artery occlusion C. Central serous retinopathy D. Central chlorioretinitis

48. Obstruction of central retinal artery is nearly always: A. /At the lamina cribrosa B. Behind the lamina cribrosa C. Infront of the lamina cribrosa D. None of above

49. The early sign of the background diabetic retinopathy is: A. /Microaneurysm in the macular area B. Small dot and blot haemorrhage C. Hard exudates D. All of above

50. Indications of vitrectomy in more advanced proliferative diabetic retinopathy is: A. Non resolving vitreous haemorrhage B. Traction retinal detachment C. /Both of above D. None of above

51. Salt and pepper fundus is a characteristic of: A. Tubercular choroloretinitis B. /Congenital syphilitic retinal affection C. Presumed histoplasma syndrome D. Congenital toxoplasmosis

52. In the detachment of retina it is the: A. Pigment epithelium and sensory retina which separates from choroid B. /Pigment layer which separates from neurosensory retina C. Outer nuclear layer which separates from inner nuclear layer

D. None of above

53. Rhegmatogenous detachment is due to the formation of: A. Hole in the vitreous B. Hole in the pigment epithelial layer C. /Hole in the neurosensory retina D. None of above

54. Retinal tears are commonly associated with: A. Lattice degeneration B. Snail track degeneration C. While without pressure D. /All of above

55. The longest part of the optic neve is: A. Intraocular B. Intraorbital C. Intracanalicular D. /Intracranial

56. Night vision is a function of: A. /Rods B. Cones C. Rods and cones D. None of above.

57. Night blindness is a symptom of all of the following except: A. Pigmentary retinal dystrophy B. Vit. A deficiency C. Liver cirrihosis D. /All of above

58. The most common type of presentation of retinoblastoma in a child is: A. Esotropia B. Severe uveitis C. /Leucocoria D. Proptosis

59. All of the following are causes of leucocoria except: A. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous B. Coat’s disease C. /Buphthalmos D. Retinopathy of prematurity

60. The other mode of therapy of retinoblastoma else than surgery is: A. Chemotherapy B. Radiotherapy C. Photocoagulation D. /All of above

61. Following are the causes of uniocular diplopia except: A. Iridodialysis B. Subluxatd lens with the edge of the lens crossing the pupilliary area C. A hole in the iris D. /Paralytic squint

62. Metals which frequently lead to suppuration are the following except: A. /Tantalum B. Zinc C. Nickel D. Mercury

63. Capsulotomy (non-invasive) can be carried out by: A. /Argon laser B. Krypton laser C. YAG laser D. Hruby laser

64. Postoperative complications of the cataract surgery is: A. Prolapse of the iris B. Shallow anterior chamber C. Endophthalmitis D. /All of above

65. Evisceration is indicated in: A. Painful blind eye B. /Panophthalmitis

C. Badly mutilated eye D. Sympathetic ophthalmia

66. Strabismic amblyopia is treated by: A. Surgery B. Anti prostaglandin eye drops C. /Occlusion of the good eye D. Occlusion of the squinting eye

67. Hordeolum externum is an acute suppurative inflammation of: A. /Gland of Zeis B. Gland of Moll C. Gland of Wolfring D. Gland of Krause

68. The treatment of trichiasis is: A. Epilation B. Destruction of hair follicle by diathermy C. Destruction of hair follicle by electrolysis D. /All of above

69. If the eye ball is congenitally absent the condition is called as: A. /Congenital anophthalmos B. Congenital enophthalmos C. Congenital exophthalmos D. None of above

70. Nasolacrimal duct opens into: A. Middle meatus B. Superior meatus C. /Inferior meatus D. None of above

71. The systemic cause of dacryoadenitis is: A. Mumps B. Influenza C. Infectious mononucleosis D. /All of above

72. A standard Schirmer test is carried out for:

A. B. C. D.

1 minute 2 minutes 3 minutes /5 minutes

73. The most frequent cause of pulsating exophthalmos is: A. /Carotico-cavernous fistula B. Neurofibromaosis C. Haemangioma D. Orbital varices 74. The strongest attachment of the vitreous body is to the A. Macula B. /Vitreous base C. Posterior surface of lens D. Optic disc 75. Actively secreted aqueous humour is rich in any of the following as compared to plasma A. Bicarbonate B. /Ascorbic acid C. Pottassium D. Lactic acid

1. Pupil is markedly contricted in a. Myopia b. Dim illumination c. Sympathomimetic drugs d. /Parasympathomimetic drugs 2. Pupil is dialated in: a. Bright illumination b. CNS Syphilis c. Parasympathomimetic drugs d. /Sympathomimetic drugs 3. Total refractive power of the eye is a. 40D b. 50D c. /60D d. 70D 4. Features of Diabetic Cataract are a. Rosette Cataract

b. Nuclear Cataract c. Cortical Cataract d. /Snowflake Cataract 5. K.F ring is seen in: a. /Wilson disease b. Fabry disease c. Myotonic dystrophy d. Diabetes Mellitus 6. Late complication of cataract surgery a. Wound leak b. Iris prolapsed c. Keratitis d. /Posterior capsular opacity

7. Shallow A/C found in: a. Aphakia b. Retinal Detachment c. Hyphema d. /Wound leak (Post op cataract surgery) 8. Deep A/C found in a. /Aphakia b. Malignant glaucoma c. Choroidal effusion d. Acute congestive glaucoma 9. IOP is measured by a. /Applanation tonometer b. Exophthalmometer c. Gonioscopy d. Keratoscopy 10. Goniolens is used to examine a. /Anterior chamber angle b. Corneal layer c. Retinal layer d. Conjunctival layer 11. Most common treatment of Keratokonus is a. /Hard contact lens b. Soft contact lens c. Bandage contact lens d. LASIK surgery 12. Indications of lamellar Keratoplasty a. Corneal perforation

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b. Recurrent pterigium c. /Bullous keratopathy d. Keratoconus Central corneal scar indicates a. Superior limbic keratoconjunctivitis b. Trachoma c. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis d. /Keratoconus Which layer of cornea is secreted & regenerated by endothelium a. Bowman’s layer b. Stroma c. /Descmets membrane d. Endothelium Most common predisposing factor causing fungal keratitis is a. /Vegetative trauma b. Vth cranial nerve palsy c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Herpes simplex Most common cause of keratitis in contact lens wearer is a. /Acanthamoeba keratitis b. Moorens ulcer c. Marginal keratitis d. Herpes simplex keratitis Munson’s sign in keratoconus is a. Scissoring reflex b. Hydrops of the cornea c. Bulging of upper lid when patient looks up d. /Bulging of lower lid when patient looks down Oil droplet sign in keratoconus is seen by a. Torch examination b. Retinoscopy c. Keratoscopy d. /Direct ophthalmoscopy The unequal size of pupils is called a. Anisometropia b. Aniseikonia c. /Anisocoria d. Aniridia The most fast acting cycloplegic drug is a. Cyclopentolate b. Homatropine c. Atropine

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d. /Tropicamide Most infants are born with a. Myopia b. /Hypermetropia c. Astigmatism d. Emetropia After removal of the lens the eye becomes a. Highly astigmatic b. Highly myopic c. Emetropic d. /Highly hypermetropic Following are the features of degenerative myopia a. Vitreous synchisis & syneresis b. Posterior staphyloma & myopic crescent c. Peripheral retinal degeneration d. /All of the above The most common type of error of refraction is a. Myopia b. /Hypermetropia c. Astigmatism d. Emetropia Follicles in the lower fornix are more commonly seen in a. /Follicular conjunctivitis b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis c. Trachoma d. Allergic conjunctivitis Phylectunar conjunctivitis is due to a. Exogenous allergic reaction b. Infection due to virus c. /Endogenous allergic reaction d. Infection due to bacteria Phlyctens are most commonly seen in the a. Cornea b. /Bulbar conjunctiva at or near the limbus c. Fornices d. Palpebral conjunctiva Bitot’s spots are seen in a. Spring catarrh b. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis c. Membranous conjunctivitis d. /Vit- A deficiency Papillary conjunctivitis is seen in

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a. /Allergic conjunctivitis b. Bacterial conjunctivitis c. Viral conjunctivitis d. None of the above Acanthamoeba keratitis is a a. Fungal infection of the cornea b. Bacterial infection of the cornea c. /Protozoal infection of the cornea d. Chlamydial infection of the cornea Hard contact lenses are made of a. Hydroxyethylmethacrylate (HEMA) b. /Polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) c. Silicone d. Glass Contact lenses are useful in a. Myopia b. Anisometropia c. Keratoconus d. /All of the above The greatest incidence of severe microbial keratitis is found in patients with a. Hard contact lens b. /Soft contact lens c. Semi soft contact lens d. All of the above Ocular side effects of systemic steroids a. Cataract b. Glaucoma c. /Both of above d. None of abive Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by a. Pseudomonas b. Corynebacterium Diphtheria c. /Neisseria Gonorrhoea d. None of the above True membranous conjunctivitis is caused by a. Pneumococcus b. Streptococcus c. / Corynebacterium Diphtheria d. Gonococcus Marked itching is the hallmark of the symptomatology of a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis b. Follicular conjunctivitis

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c. /Spring catarrh d. Trachoma Secretions in the spring catarrh contains a. Neutrophils b. Basophils c. /Eosinophils d. Monocytes Examination of fundus is done by a. /Ophthalmoscope b. Retinoscope c. Keratoscope d. Amblyoscope Band keratopathy is seen in a. Upper part of the cornea b. /Interpalpebral area of the cornea c. Lower part of the cornea d. Peripheral part of the cornea Following test is helpful in the diagnosis of keratitis a. Conjunctival swab culture b. /Corneal scraping for gram staining & culture c. Impression cytology d. Blood culture Minute Corneal foreign body is detected by a. Torch examination b. Retinoscope c. /Slit lamp biomicroscope d. Keratoscope Chalazion is a. Infection of zeis gland b. /Chronic inflammatory granuloma of meibomian gland c. Suppurative inflammation of tarsal gland d. None of above Trichiasis is a. /Misdirection of lashes b. Decreased number of lashes c. Extra row of lashes d. Absent lashes Myasthenia gravis is a. Allergic reaction b. /Autoimmune disease c. Viral disease d. Fungal disease

46. Nasolacrimal duct opens into a. Middle meatus b. Superior meatus c. /Inferior meatus d. Inferior turbinate

47. Schrimer test is the test for diagnosis of a. /Dry eye b. Conjunctivitis c. Keratitis d. Dacryocystitis 48. In babies with congenital dadryocystitis the most common abnormality of the lacrimal passage is an obstruction at a. Punctum b. Canaliculus c. Lacrimal sac d. /Nasolacrimal duct 49. Dacryocystitis is an inflammation of a. Nasolacrimal duct b. /Lacrimal sac c. Lacrimal gland d. Canaliculi 50. Scrimmer test is done by a. /Whatman filter paper no. 41 b. Phenol red thread test c. Fluorescein strip d. None of the above

MU07b q Vascular smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle in:

A. Different source of Calcium

B. Absence of tropomyosin

C. Contraction not dependant on interaction between actin and myosin

D. Force developed is less

BCQs POOL

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