CEBU INSTITUTE OF MEDICINE Department of Pathology NAME _________________________________ GROUP NO. ____ I.D. NO. ________ DIRECTION: Each question below is followed by four possible answers. Select the one best response and mark the appropriate spaces on the answer sheet provided for. 1. The morphologic pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction is : A. Coagulative necrosis C. Fat necrosis B. Liquefactive necrosis D. Caseation necrosis (Answer: A/ Reference: p. 17 / MPL 90) 2. The most common cause of fatty change in the liver is: A. CC14 poisoning C. Diabetes mellitus B. Alcohol abuse D. Protein malnutrition (Answer: B/Reference: p. 39 / MPL 90) 3. The cellular adaptation that occurs in the respiratory tract of a chronic cigarette smoker is: A. Hyperplasia C. Metaplasia B. Hypertrophy D. Atrophy (Answer: C/Reference: p. 36 / MPL 90) 4. The first manifestation of almost all forms of cell injury is: A. Fatty change C. Dystrophic caicification B. Hyaline change D. Cellular swelling (Answer: D/Reference: p. 7 / MPL 90) 5. Refers to the focal accumulation of cholesterol-laden macrophages in the lamina propia of the gallbladder: A. Steatosis C. Xanthoma B. Cholesterolosis D. None of these (Answer: D/Reference: p. 895 / MPL 90) 6. Which is granulomatous disease? A. Leprosy B. Schistosomiasis (Answer: D/Reference: p. 65 / MPL 90)
C. Tuberculosis D All of these
7. Antipyretics inhibit inflammatory process by inhibiting: A. Cyclooxygenase pathway C. Lipooxygenase pathway B. Dismutase D. A & C (Answer: A/Reference: p. 50 / MPL 33) 8.
Chronic granulomatous disease is characterized by impaired microbicidal ability due to: A. NADH oxidase deficiency C. Lack of adhesion molecules B. T cell immunodeficiency D. Complement deficiency (Answer: A/Reference: p. 65 / MPL 33)
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9. Increased susceptibility to infection in diabetic patients is due to: A. Deficiency of emigration and chemotaxis of neutrophils B. B cell deficiency C. Impaired microbicidal activity D. Nitric oxide deficiency (Answer: A/Reference: p. 55 / MPL 60) 10. Which is not associated with chronic inflammation? A. Fibrosis C. Granuloma B. Neutrophilic infiltration D. Macrophages and epithelioid cells (Answer: B/Reference: p. 79 / MPL 60) 11. Redness is: A. Calor B. Tumor (Answer: D/Reference: p. 50 / MPL 90)
C. Dolor D. None of these
12. Brown atrophy of the heart in aging is due to: A. Amyloid deposits C. Hemosiderin pigments B. Lipofuscin D. Basophilic degeneration (Answer: B p 26 /MPL 90 ) 13. 47, XXY is : A. Cri-du-chat syndrome B. Klinefelter’s syndrome (Answer: B p 170/MPL 60)
C. Turner’s syndrome D. Normal female
14. Tall stature and arachnodactyly are characteristic of: A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome C. Prader-Willi syndrome B. Trisomy 21 D. Marfan syndrome (Answer: D p 147 /MPL 90 ) 15. Transplant rejection is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? A. type I C. type III B. type II D. type IV (Answer: D p 206 /MPL 60 ) 16. Which is NOT a major (Jones) criterion of rheumatic fever? A. Carditis C. arthralgia B. erythema marginatum D. sydenham’s chorea (Answer: C p 570 /MPL 90) 17. Thymic hypoplasia is a feature of: A. Sjogren’s syndrome B. SLE (Answer: C p 173 /MPL 60 )
C. Di George syndrome D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
18. CREST syndrome is related to: A. Hyper-IgM syndrome B. Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia (Answer: C p 226 /MPL 33)
C. scleroderma, localized D. preeclampsia
19. Which is not oncogenic? A. Human papilloma virus B. Hepatitis B virus (Answer: C/Reference: p. 311 / MPL 60)
C. Herpes virus D. Epstein-Barr virus
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20. Which is not a malignant tumor? A. Lymphoma B. Melanoma (Answer: D/Reference: p. 261 / MPL 90)
C. Leiomyosarcoma D. Hamartoma
21. Features of malignant cells, EXCEPT: A. Hyperchromatic and pleomorphic nuclei C. Anaplasia B. Tumor giant cell D. No exception (Answer: D p 264/MPL 90) 22. Leading type of cancer in men: A. skin cancer B. prostate cancer (Answer: B p 261 /MPL 60)23.
C. lung cancer D. testicular cancer
23. Which of the following refers to the degree of cellular differentiation of tumor cells? A. Stage C. grade B. Metastasis D. Doubling time (Answer: C p 261 /MPL 90) 24. Warthin-finkeldey cells are seen in: A. Chicken pox B. Mumps (Answer: D p 370 /MPL 60)
C. herpes simplex infection D. Measles
25. Ghon complex is associated with: A. Leprosy B. Tuberculosis (Answer: B p 723/MPL 90)
C. HIV infection D. all of these
26. Ultraviolet rays are implicated in: A. Gastric cancer B. Urinary bladder cancer (Answer: C p 310/MPL 90)
C. Squamous cell carcinoma, skin D. Bronchogenic carcinoma
27. Trenchfoot is due to: A. Blast injury B. Mercury poisoning (Answer: D p 435/MPL 90)
C. greenhouse effect D. Hypothermia
28. The disease of the displaced child: A. Marasmus B. Kwashiorkor (Answer: B p 437 /MPL 90 )
C. Keshan diseae D. Bulimia
29. Bends and chokes are features of: A. Fat embolism B. Paradoxic embolism (Answer: C p 131 /MPL 90)
C. air embolism D. amniotic fluid embolism
30. Risk factors for atherosclerosis: A. Cigarette smoking B. Hypertension (Answer: D p 498 /MPL 90 )
C. Diabetes D. All of these
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31. Which typically presents with headache and facial pain? A. Temporal arteritis C. Kawasaki disease B. Polyarteritis nodosa D. Takayasu arteritis (Answer: A p 516 /MPL 60) 32. Rib-notching on chest x-ray is a finding in: A. Tetralogy of Fallot C. aortic coarctation B. Patent ductus arteriosus D. all of these (Answer: C p 596 /MPL 90) 33. Mid-systolic click can be heard in: A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Atrial septal defect (Answer: A p 568 /MPL 90 )
C. Ventricular septal defect D. Carcinoid heart disease
34 Coronary artery spasm is noted in: A. Stable angina B. Prinzmetal angina (Answer: B p 554 /MPL 60)
C. unstable angina D. All of these
35. Troponin rises after: A. Acute myocardial infarction B. Angina pectoris (Answer: A p 561 /MPL 90)
C. Pancreatitis D. Liver necrosis
36. Hemoglobin H disease is a variant of: A. Alpha-thalassemia B. Sickle cell disease (Answer: A p 619 /MPL 60)
C. Beta-thalassemia D. Immunohemolytic anemia
37. Hemolysis with antimalarial drug administration can occur in: A. Iron deficiency anemia C. mycosis fungoides B. G6PD deficiency D. Pernicious anemia (Answer: B p 610 /MPL 90) 38. Pancytopenia is a feature of: A. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria B. Hereditary spherocytosis (Answer: D p 630 /MPL 90)
C. Folate deficiency D. Aplastic anemia
39. Which can lead to DIC? A. Septic abortion B. Extensive surgery (Answer: D p 640 /MPL 90)
C. Gram negative sepsis D. All of these
40. Which causes relative polycythemia? A. High-altitude living B. Renal cell carcinoma (Answer: C p 633 /MPL 90)
C. Gaisbock syndrome D. Cyanotic heart disease
41. The most common cause of microcytic, hypochromic anemia is: A. Vitamin B12 deficiency C. Pure red cell aplasia B. Iron deficiency D. Leukemia (Answer:B p 627 /MPL 90 )
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42. Evaluates the intrinsic coagulation pathway and is most commonly used to monitor heparin therapy: A. Prothrombin time C. APTT B. Bleeding time D. Clotting time (Answer: C p 633 /MPL 60) 43. Defective platelet aggregation occur in: A. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia B. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (Answer: A p 122 /MPL 60)
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome D. vonWillebrand disease
44. Which is not a cause of eosinophilic leukocytosis? A. Allergic disorders C. Viral infection B. Parasitism D. drug reaction (Answer: C p 647 /MPL 90) 45. M spike on protein electrophoresis is noted in: A. Multiple myeloma C. Hodgkin’s disease B. Burkitt’s lymphoma D. All of these (Answer: A p 664 /MPL60) 46. Auer rods are diagnostic of: A. Acute myeloblastic leukemia B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (Answer: A p 678 /MPL 90)
C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia D. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
47. Reed-Sternberg cells are diagnostic of: A. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma B. Polycythemia vera (Answer: D p 670 /MPL 90)
C. Myelodysplastic syndrome D. None of these
48. Variants of Langerhans cell histiocytosis include the ff., EXCEPT: A. Eosinophilic granuloma C. Letterer-Siwe disease B. Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia D. Hand-Schuller disease (Answer: B p 685 /MPL 60) 49. Cor pulmonale is associated with: A. L-sided heart failure B. R-sided heart failure (Answer: B p 565 /MPL 60)
C. Both A & B D. Neither A nor B
50. Presence of rheumatoid nodules and pneumoconiosis constitutes: A. Goodpasture’s syndrome C. Loeffler’s syndrome B. Mickulicz syndrome D. Caplan syndrome (Answer: D p 729 /MPL 60) 51. May produce pulmonary hypertension, EXCEPT: A. Mitral stenosis C. Emphysema B. Recurrent pulmonary emboli D. No exception (Answer: D p 704 /MPL 60) 52. Low levels of serum alpha-1 antitrypsin can cause: A. Bronchiectasis C. Chronic bronchitis B. Emphysema D. All of these (Answer: B p 707 /MPL 60)
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53. Intrinsic asthma is initiated by: A. Pulmonary viral infection B. Aspirin ingestion (Answer: D p 707 /MPL 60)
C. Inhaled irritants D. All of these
54. True of adult respiratory distress syndrome, EXCEPT: A. Diffuse alveolar capillary damage B. Deficiency of pulmonary surfactant C. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema D. No exception (Answer: B p 760 /MPL 60) 55. Failure of involution of the vitelline duct leads to: A. Herniation C. Meckel’s diverticulum B. Volvulus D. All of these (Answer: C p 804 /MPL 90) 56. One segment of the small intestine constricted by a wave of peristalsis suddenly became telescoped into the distal segment happen in: A. Intussusception C. Volvulus B. Diverticula D. Strangulation (Answer: A p 804 /MPL 90) 57. Absence of ganglion cells in the large bowel leading to functional obstruction with colonic dilatation: A. Achalasia C. Hirschsprung disease B. Ulcerative colitis D. Angiodysplasia (Answer C: p 805 /MPL 90) 58. A portion of the abdominal wall fails to form altogether with extrusion of the intestine: A. Omphalocele C. Meckel’s diverticulum B. Herniation D. Gastroschisis (Answer: D p 804 /MPL 60) 59. Complications of colonic diverticula, EXCEPT: A. Obstruction C. Bleeding B. Peritonitis D. Malignancy (Answer: D p 823 /MPL 60) 60. Causes of hematemesis, EXCEPT; A. Mallory-Weiss syndrome B. Esophageal Varices (Answer: D p 783 /MPL 60)
C. Peptic ulcer D. Barrett’s esophagus
61. Nutmeg liver is due to: A. Inflammation B. Neoplasm (Answer: C p 117/MPL 90)
C. congestion D. cirrhosis
62. Bronze diabetes refers to: A. Wilson’s disease B. Budd-Chiari syndrome (Answer: C p 873 / MPL 60)
C. Primary hemochromatosis D. Reye’s syndrome
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63. There is conjugated hyperbilirubinemia in: A. Dubin-Johnson’s syndrome C. Rotor’s syndrome B. Gilbert’s syndrome D. A & C ( Answer : D p 850 /MPL 90) 64. Most common predisposing cause of ascending cholangitis: A. Acute pancreatitis C. Choledocholithiasis B. Benign stricture D. Tumors (Answer: C p 879 /MPL 90) 65 . Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses are seen in: A. Rheumatic heart disease B. Chronic Cholecytitis (Answer: B p 892 /MPL 90)
C. Biliary atresia D. Criggler-Najjar syndrome
66. Etiologic factors in acute pancreatitis include the ff., EXCEPT: A. Alcoholism C. Gall stones B. Genetic D. No exception (Answer: D p 904 /MPL 90) 67. Late complications of chronic pancreatitis include the ff., EXCEPT:\ A. Diarrhea (Malabsorption) C. Diabetes B. Pseudocyst D. Hemorrhage (Answer: D p 907 /MPL 90) 68. Azotemia, hypocalcemia and hyperparathyroidism are associated with: A. Acute renal failure C. Nephretic syndrome B. Chronic renal failure D. Nephrotic syndrome (Answer: B p 935 /MPL 60) 69. Associated with Proteus infection, also called Staghorn calculi: A. Calcium stones C. Struvite stones B. Uric acid stones D. None of these (Answer: C p 989 /MPL 90) 70. Which is not associated with diabetic nephropathy? A. Kimmelsteil-Wilson disease C. Papillary necrosis B. Acute pyelonephritis D. Renal artery stenosis (Answer: D p 966 /MPL 60) 71. IgA deposit in mesangium can be appreciated by: A. Immunofluorescence microscopy C. Light microscopy B. Electron microscopy D. All of these (Answer: A p 961 /MPL 60) 72 .Nephritic factor, dense deposits are related to: A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis B. Lipoid nephrosis C. Focal segmental glomerulonephritis D. Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (Answer: A p 958 /MPL 90) 73. Maturation index determination is done with: A. Paps smear C. Tzanck smear B. Gram stain D. All of these (Answer: A p 322 / MPL 90)
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74. Orifice of the prepuce is too small to permit its normal retraction: A. Epispadias C. Paraphemosis B. Chondyloma D. None of these (Answer: D p 1012 / MPL 60) 75. Positively identified as cause of the cancer of the cervix: A. Cytomegalovirus C. Herpes virus B. Candidiasis D. Human papilloma virus (Answer: D p 1012 /MPL 60) 76. Features of toxemia of pregnancy, EXCEPT: A. Anemia C. Hypertension B. Edema D. Proteinuria (Answer: A p 1082 / MPL 90) 77. Hormone used to determine pregnancy: A. FSH B. Beta-HCG (Answer: B p 1079 / MPL 90)
C. Progesterone D. All of these
78. Not seen in secretory endometrium: A. Mitosis and gland proliferation B. Subnuclear vacuole (Answer: A p 1037 / MPL 90)
C. Secretion D. Prominent spiral arteriole
79. The most common complication of gonorrhea in women: A. Endometriosis C. Vulvovaginitis B. Endometritis D. Pelvic inflammatory disease (Answer: D p 1017 / MPL 90) 80. All are important in semen analysis, EXCEPT: A. Sperm count C. Volume B. Morphology D. Motility (Answer: C p 510 / MPL 90) 81. Most common site of endometriosis: A. Ovaries B. Uterine ligament (Answer:A p 1057 / MPL 90)
C. Peritonium D. Rectovaginal septum
82. Clinical indicator of hyperestrinism: A. Mastitis B. Fat necrosis (Answer: D p 1117 / MPL 90)
C. Nipple inversion D. Gynecomastia
83. Morphologic patterns of fibrocystic change of the breast, EXCEPT: A. Adenosis C. Fibrosis B. Cyst formation D. Papilloma (Answer: D p 1098 / MPL 90) 84. Acquired retraction of the nipple occur in: A. Lactation B. Silicon breast implant (Answer: C p 1104 / MPL 90)
C. Breast cancer D. All of these
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85. There is insulin resistance in: A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus (Answer: B p 913 /MPL 9 )
C. A & B D Neither A nor B
86. Ischemic necrosis of the anterior pituitary leads to: A. Cushing’s disease C. Sheehan syndrome B. SIADH D. Cretinism (Answer: C p 642 /MPL 90) 87. Believe to be cause by viral infection or post viral inflammatory process: A. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis C. Reidel thyroiditis B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis D. All of these (Answer: A p 1135 / MPL 60) 88. Most frequent type of hyperfunctioning pituitary adenoma: A. Somatostatinoma C. Prolactinoma B. Corticotroph adenoma D. Thyrotroph adenoma (Answer: C p 1123 / MPL 60) 89. Chronic adrenal insufficiency leads to: A. Waterhouse-Friederichsen syndrome B. Addison’s disease (Answer: B p 1160 / MPL 90)
C. Cushing’s syndrome D. Hyperaldosteronism
90. A cause of primary osteoporosis: A. Post menopausal B. Hyperparathyroidism (Answer: A p 1222 / MPL 90)
C. Malnutrition D. Rheumatologic disease
91. A genetic derangement in epiphysial cartillagenous growth resulting in dwarfism: A. Osteogenesis imperfecta C. Achondroplasia B. Osteopetrosis D. Paget’s disease (Answer: C p 1220 /MPL 60) 92. Failure in bone mineralization resulting in exist unmineralize matrix and abnormally wide osteioid seems occur in: A. Rickets C. Osteomalasia B. Ostitis deformans D. A & C (Answer: D p 1227 / MPL 60) 93. Saber shin is due to: A. Rickets B. Pyogenic osteomyelitis (Answer: C p 1233 / MPL 90)
C. Syphilis D. Pott’s disease
94. Chronic tophaceous gout and arthritis occur in: A. Hyperuresimia C. Hyperglycemia B. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperproteinemia (Answer: A p 1253 / MPL 60) 95. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition occur in: A. Gout C. Pseudogout B. Rheumatoid arthritis D. All of these (Answer: C p 1257 /MPL 90)
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96. Degenerative joint disease is: A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Marie-Strumpel disease (Answer: D p 1246 / MPL 90)
C. Gouty arthritis D. Osteoarthritis
97. Infection of CNS in neonate during delivery occur in which condition: A. Syphilis C. Gonorrhea B. Herpes simplex condition D. Chlamydial infection (Answer: B p 1318 / MPL 60) 98. CSF albuminucytologic dissociation occur in: A. Multiple sclerosis C. Guillain- Barre syndrome B. Pyogenic meningitis D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (Answer: C p 1275 / MPL 60) 99. The counterpart of mad cow disease in human is: A. Creutzfetldt-Jacob disease B. Progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy (Answer: C p 1323 / MPL 90 ) 100. Gemistocytic astrocytes are noted in: A. Hypoglycemia B. Ethanol abuse (Answer: C p 1297 / MPL 60)
C. Rabies D. None of these
C. Damaged brain D. All of these
References: 1. Robbin’s Pathologic Basis of Disease 6th Edition 2. Henry’s Clinical Diagnosis and Management 19th Edition
