API 576 Practice Pr actice Exam Questions Quest ions Instructions:
Choose the most correct answer for each question. You may only choose one answer for each question. 1.
What recommended practice practice describes describes the inspection and repair practices for automatic pressure-reli pressur e-relieving eving devices devi ces commonly commo nly used in the oil and petr ochemical ochemi cal industr ies? a)
API RP 520
b) API RP 521 c)
API RP 574
d) API RP 576
2.
What is the term that is described by the pressure increase over the set pressure of the pressure relief device allowed to achieve rated flow? a) overpressure b)
set pressure pres sure
c) opening pressure d) closing pressure
3.
Which of the the following is a location where safety safety valves valves should not be used? used? a) in corrosive services services not isolated isolated from the process by a rupture disk b) where the th e discharge disch arge must mus t be piped pip ed to remote re mote locations loc ations or a closed s ystem c)
where the escape of process fluid around blowing valves valves is not desirable desirable
d) all of the above 4.
Where should pressure relief valves not be used? a)
in steam, air, gas, or other vapor services
b) in services servi ces piped pipe d to a clos ed header head er without with out back pressure pressu re consideratio consi deration n c) as bypass valves d)
5.
all of the above
What is the normal operation setting setting for a safety safety relief valve in gas or vapor service? a) fully open at 1% overpressure b) fully open o pen at 5% 5 % overpressure overpr essure c) fully open at 10% overpressure d) fully closed closed at 10% overpressure
6.
Where can a conventional safety safety relief valve be used in a refinery and petrochemical process? a) flammable service b)
hot service
c)
toxic material service
d)
all of the above
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7.
Which of the following is not suitable for a conventional safety relief valve?
7.
8.
Which of the following is not suitable for a conventional safety relief valve? a)
where any built-up back pressures are within the allowable overpressure
b)
on ASME Section VIII Div. 1 pressure vessels
c)
as a bypass valve
d)
all of the above
Which of the following would nor mally be used in refinery with a hot flammable liquid service where high back pressures are present at the valve discharge? a)
relief valve
b)
safety valve
c) balanced safety r elief valve d) 9.
rupture disk device
Which of the following services is suitable for a balanced safety relief valve? a)
on ASME Section I steam boiler drums
b)
on ASME Section I superheaters
c)
on ASME Section VIII Div. 1 pressure vessels
d)
all of the above
10. What type of pressure relief device would be most appropriate where a large relief area, high set
pressures, and very short blowdo wn are required? a)
composite rupture disk
b) pilot-o perated safety relief valves c)
conventional safety relief valve
d)
vacuum vent valve
11. Where would a pilot-operated safety relief v alve generally not be used?
a)
in low viscosity liquid service
b)
in low corrosive environments
c)
in dirty fluid service without a filtering system
d)
all of the above
12. What type of valve is normally used to protect atmospheric and low-pressure storage tanks
against a pressure large enough to damage the tank? a) pressure vent valve b) pilot-o perated safety relief valve c)
conventional safety relief valve
d)
all of the above
13. Which of the following valves wo uld not be used at a set pressure of 150 psi?
a) pilot-o perated safety relief valve b)
conventional safety relief valve
c) pressure vent valve d)
all of the above
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14. A rupture disk device is made up of which of the following items?
14. A rupture disk device is made up of which of the following items?
a)
rupture disk and flange
b)
rupture disk and coupling
c)
rupture disk and holder
d)
rupture disk and control spring
15. Which of the following best describes the operation of a rupture disk device?
a)
a non-reclosing pressure r elief device actuated by the static differential pressure between the inlet and outlet of the device
b)
a relief device actuated by the static differential pressure between the inlet and o utlet of the device to allow a spring loaded disk to open and close as required
c)
a relief device actuated by the dynamic differential pressure between the inlet and outlet of the device to allow a non-reclosing disk to bust open when overpressured
d)
a disk that ruptures when corrosion becomes accelerated
16. What will happen to the conventional domed rupture disk reaching its burst pressure?
a)
it will immediately close completely to protect the system
b) c) d)
it will fragment it will open, then close when the pressure subsides it will bulge but not break, sending an electronic signal to a warning alarm
17. What is the purpose of the scoring in a scored rupture disk?
b)
to appropriately size the disk to control the burst pressure and pattern
c)
to rate the disk (more scores provide higher rating)
d)
to control the dome radius
a)
18. Which side of a flat composite rupture disk is designed to burst when it is overpressured?
a)
on the concave side
b)
on the convex side
c)
on the side closest to the next control valve
d)
on the side designated by the manufacturer
19. What typical maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a domed composite rupture disk generally permitted to operate? a) 70% b) 80% c)
85%
d) 90%
20. Which side of a reverse-acting rupture disk is designed to burst when it is overpressured?
a)
on the concave side
b)
on the convex side
c)
on the side closest to the next control valve
d)
on the side designated by the manufacturer
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21. What maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a reverse -acting rupture disk generally
21. What maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a reverse -acting rupture disk generally
permitted to operate? a) 70% b) 80% c)
85%
d) 90%
22. Which of the following rupture disk devices is designed not to fragment upon overpressuring?
a)
conventional domed rupture disk
b) c)
graphite rupture disk reverse-acting rupture disk
d)
composite rupture disk
23. How is a graphite rupture disk designed to burst?
a)
when it is overpressured on the con cave side
b)
when it is bended or sheared
c)
when it is overpressured on the side designated by the manufacturer
d)
when it is overpressured on the convex side
24. What type of rupture disk is resistant to most acids, alkalis, and organic solvents?
a)
reverse-acting rupture disk
b)
scored rupture disk
c)
composite rupture disk
d)
graphite rupture disks
25. What maximum level of the rated burst pressure is a graphite rupture disk generally permitted
to operate? a) 70% b) 80% c)
85%
d) 90%
26. Which of the following is a good application for rupture disk devices?
to protect the downstream side of pressure relief valves against a pulsating flow and potential for fatigue cracki ng b) to protect pressure relief valves from low viscosity fluids a)
c)
instead of pressure relief valves if slow response is desirable
d)
to minimize process leakage and reduce fugitive emissions
27. Under normal operating conditions, what is the usual service life of pre -bulged metal rupture
disks? a)
6 months
b)
12 months
c)
18 months
d)
at routine inspection intervals
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28. When rupture disk devices are not replaced periodically, what may occur wh en operating at
28. When rupture disk devices are not replaced periodically, what may occur wh en operating at
normal pressures? a)
they become brittle and may not fragment
b)
they become stiffer and may not fragment
c)
they may fail without warning
d)
they may not fail after 2 years of service
29. When a relief valve is removed for service maintenance, what should be done with the
accompanying rupture disk? a)
discard the rupture disk since it can be easily damaged and can fail prematurely if reused
b)
visually inspect the rupture disk, and if satisfactory, return it to service
c)
inspect the rupture disk with LT, and if satisfactory, return it to service
d)
inspect the rupture disk with UT, and if satisfactory, return it to service
30. What is the advantage of installing a rupture disk device on the inlet or outlet of a pressure
relief valve? a) b) c)
may provide added fouling protection of the valve internals allows for higher operating pressures allows for higher operating temperatures
d)
may provide added corrosion protection of the valve internals
31. Which of the following is a common cause of damaged valve seats?
a)
corrosion
b)
foreign particle damage
c)
improper piping to the valve inlet
d)
all of the above
32. What is the consequence of a pressure relieving valve spring failure?
a)
a jammed valve
b)
uncontrolled valve opening
c)
uncontrolled valve closing
d)
decrease in flow rate and loss of production
33. Generally, where should direct spring -loaded valves be set?
a)
in-situ
b)
in the valve maintenance sho p
c)
at the manufacturer's shop
d)
all of the above
34. Which of the following is a frequent cause of improper valve setting?
a)
over-tightening of the wheel nut
b)
under-tightening of the wheel nut
c)
incorrect calibration of pressure gauges
d) poor material selection
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35. Which of the following are common causes of improper pressure-relieving device performance?
35. Which of the following are common causes of improper pressure-relieving device performance?
a)
corrosion, damaged seating surfaces, and failed springs
b)
improper setting/adjustment, plugging and sticking
c)
misapplication of materials, rough handling, and improper differential between operating and set pressures
d)
all of the above
36. What should be done before disconnecting pressure-relieving devices to ensure that they are
sufficiently supported? b)
measure the pressure at the device measure the pressure and temperature at the device
c)
the connected piping and block valves should be checked
d)
all of the above
a)
37. For each pressure relief valve, what information since its last inspection should the operating
history include? a)
information on upsets and their effect on the valve
b) c) d)
the extent of any leakage while in service any other evidence of malfunctioning all of the above
38. What should be do ne with a safety-relief valve in hydrofluoric acid ( HF) service after it is
removed from service for repair? a)
it must be corr ectly acidized immediately
b)
any corrosion product must be hand scrapped and collected
c)
it must be correctly neutralized immediately
d)
any fouling product m ust be hand scrapped and collected
39. What can happen when pressure relief valves are damaged during transportation to the shop?
a)
may result in failing the "as received" pop pressure test
b)
may result in passing "as received" pop pressure test
c)
may result in inaccurate "as received" pop pressure test may decrease repair time
d)
40. Under what circumstances may the user waive the "as received" pop pressure test for a pressure
relief valve and instead reduce the inspection interval? a)
if the valve is extremely fouled and dirty and the "as received" popping of the valve may damage the valve's seats
b)
at the inspector's discretion when the valve has been damaged during transportation
c)
at the valve repair mechanic's discretion when the valve has been damaged during transportation
d)
if the valve is an acid service
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41. After pressure relief valve has been "as received" pop tested after being removed from service,
41. After pressure relief valve has been "as received" pop tested after being removed from service,
how should it be inspected to estimate its condition? a)
VT
b)
EC
c)
UT
d)
AE
42. When inspecting a pressure relief valve that has been removed from service, how is the seat
flatness checked? a)
VT
b)
with a straight-edge
c)
with calibrated flatness blocks
d)
with suitable lap rings recommended by the manu facturer
43. After a pressure relief valve has been inspected an d its have been reassembled, what should not
be done to the nozzle and disk seating surfaces? a)
should not be sand blasted clean
b) c) d)
should not be lead-shot blasted clean should n ot be oiled should not be scrapped with a carbon steel brush
44. What is the normal deviation of a pressure relief valve pop pressure for a set pressure of
70
psi? a)
±2 psi
b)
±3 psi
c)
±5 psi
d) 0% to +10% 45. For pressure relief valves that comply with ASME Section VIII Div. 1, UG 12 5(c)(3), what is the
permissible deviation of the pop pressur e from t he set pressure? a) 0% to +5% b) 0% to +10% c) ±5% d) ±10% 46. Once a pressure relief valve is set to pop at its CDTP and the seat tightness be checked for
leakage on the test block, what pressure should be applied on the valve to obser ve the discharge side of the valve for evidence of leakage? a)
50% of the CDTP
b)
75% of the CDTP
c)
90% of the CDTP
d)
110% of the CDTP
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47. When a pressure relief valve is tested on- stream by hydraulically lifting the valve stem while
47. When a pressure relief valve is tested on- stream by hydraulically lifting the valve stem while
the valve remains in service, which of the following needs to be considered? a) potential failure of the r upture disk in r upture disk/relief valve combinations b) possible introduction of foreign material int o the valve seating area which may result mechanical damage and/or leakage through the valve upon reseat c) possible release of process mater ial to atmosp here d)
all of the above
48. Which of the following should be considered wh en inspecting a pilot-operated pressure relief
valve? a)
check for plugging in pilot assembly an d external tubing
b) c)
check for material trapped in main valve dome area inspect the pressure pick-up device and its orientation
d)
all of the above
49. For a pressure or vacuum vent valve that has a flame arrester on the inlet nozzle, what should
the inspector look for to ensure the valve is not dam aged in service? a) b) c)
excessive fouling or plugging excessive flame length
d)
insufficient flame length and intensity
excessive flame intensity
50. How often should rupture disks be replaced?
a)
on a regular schedule based on their application
b)
on a regular schedule based on the external inspection interval
c)
on a regular schedule based on the on-stream inspection interval
d)
on a regular schedule based on the internal inspection interval
51. Which of the following should be done as part of a visual on-stream inspection of a pressurerelief device?
a)
if not clear from the records, that the established test interval has not been exceeded
b)
no gags, blinds, closed valves, or piping obstructions would prevent the valves from functioning properly
c) d)
seals installed to protect the spring setting and ring pin setting have not been broken all of the above
52. On what basis is th e interval between shop inspection/overhaul of pressure-relieving devices
determined? a) normal basis b)
manufacturer's basis
c)
regulatory body basis
d)
all of the above
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53. What is the maximum interval for visual on-stream inspections of pressure-relieving devices?
53. What is the maximum interval for visual on-stream inspections of pressure-relieving devices?
a)
on a regular schedule based on their application
b)
on a regular schedule based on the on-stream inspection interval
c)
5 years
d)
10 years
54. What type of records sho uld be kept for each pressure-relieving device?
a)
a complete and permanent record
b)
manufacturer's recommended record
c)
repair record
d)
maintenance and operation record
55. Which of the following is typically a responsibility of engineering personnel for pressure-r elief
devices? a)
to specify test intervals
b)
to initiate work requests
c)
to furnish test reports
d)
to prepare in-service reports
56. Which of the following is typically a responsibility of process unit operators for pressure-relief
devices? b)
to prepare in-service reports to specify test intervals
c)
to record service data
d)
to maintain specification records to facilitate repairs
a)
57. Which of the following is typically a responsibility of craftsmen for pressure-relief devices?
a)
to maintain specification records to facilitate repairs
b)
to check for leaking valves
c)
to check vents and drains for operability
d)
all of the above
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Answer Key - API 576 Practice Exam Questions Practice Problem
Practice Problem
Answer
Answer
1
D
1
41
A
6.2.9
2
A
3.3.5
42
D
6.2.11
3
D
4.2.2
43
C
6.2.13
4 5
D C
4.3.2 4.4
44 45
A B
6.2.14 6.2.14
6
D
4.5.1
46
C
6.2.15
7
C
4.5.2
47
D
6.2.17
8
C
4.6.1
48
D
6.2.19
9
C
4.6.2
49
A
6.2.20
10
B
4.7.1
50
A
6.2.21
11
C
4.7.2
51
D
6.3
12
A
4.8.1
52
D
6.4.1.1, 6.4.1.2, 6.4.1.3
13
C
4.8.2
53
C
6.4.2
14
C
4.9
54
A
7.2
15
A
4.9
55
A
7.3
16
B
4.9.1.1
56
A
7.3
17
B
4.9.1.2
57
A
7.3
18 19
D B
4.9.1.3 4.9.1.3
20
B
4.9.1.4
21
D
4.9.1.4
22
C
4.9.1.4
23
B
4.9.1.5
24
D
4.9.1.5
25
A
4.9.1.5
26
D
4.9.2
27
B
4.9.3
28
C
4.9.3
29
A
4.9.3
30
D
5.1
31
D
5.2
32
B
5.3
33
B
5.4
34
C
5.4
35
D
5.1 to 5.8
36
C
6.2.1
37
D
6.2.3
38
C
6.2.5(b)
39
C
6.2.7
40
A
6.2.8
Reference Paragraph
Reference Paragraph
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