API 510 572 576 Questions Answers

itcSkills API 510, 572, 576, QUESTIONS COPYRIGHT 2005 - itcSkills - ALL RIGHTS RESERVED - DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE

API 510 QUESTIONS ALL CLOSED BOOK SELECT THE BEST ANSWER 1. The application of API 510 is restricted to organizations that: a. fabricate or build pressure vessels according to ASME B&PV Code. b. employ or have access to an authorized inspection agency. c. manufacture or inspect pressure vessels according to NBIC. d. hire or have access to an unsanctioned inspection agency. 2. API 510 Inspection Code is only applicable to pressure vessels used by the petroleum and chemical process industries that: a. are being fabricated for the petroleum/chemical industries. b. can be fabricated to ASME B&PV Code and inspected by NBIC inspectors. c. will be place in service after fabrication to the ASME B&PV Code. d. have been placed in service; inspected and/or repaired by an authorized agency. 3. The following is an example of a pressure vessel not excluded from coverage by API 510. (All of the vessels are in-service.) 0

a. Pressure vessel on an ocean-going ship, operates at 100 psig & 100 F. 0 b. Pressure vessel in a oil refinery, operates at 5 psig and 70 F. 0 c. Pressure vessel in a oil refinery, operates at 100 psig and 200 F. 0 d. Pressure vessel in a oil refinery, vol. of 4 cu. ft., & operates at 70 psig and 70 F. 4. If there is a conflict between the ASME Code and API 510 for vessels that have been placed in service, the requirements of: a. API 510 shall take precedence over the ASME Code. b. ASME Code shall take precedence over API 510. c. NBIC shall be used as an arbitration Code. d. the owner/user shall take precedence over both Codes. 5. One type of Authorized Inspection Agency is: a. An inspection organization that does inspections. b. An insurance/inspection agency, which does not write pressure vessel insurance. c. An owner/user of pressure vessels who maintains an inspection organization only for his own equipment. d. An independent third party consultant. 6. The term “minimum allowable shell thickness” is the thickness: a. essential for the shell and heads of a vessel. b. required for each element of a vessel. c. necessary for the shell of a vessel. d. including the corrosion allowance for the shell of a vessel.

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7. Lowering of the maximum allowable working pressure or temperature rating of a vessel or both below the design conditions is: a. a not a permissible way to provide for corrosion. b. the preferred way to provide for corrosion. c. the only way to keep a vessel in service when it is corroded. d. a permissible way to provide for corrosion. 8. An owner-user is responsible for developing, documenting, implementing, executing, and assessing pressure vessel inspection systems and inspection procedures that will meet the requirements of API 510. These systems and procedures will be: a. maintained in a engineering procedure document. b. kept as a standard procedure. c. contained in a quality assurance inspection manual. d. in hand and available at owner-user headquarters. 9. Safety precautions are important in pressure vessel inspection because of the limited access to and the confined spaces of pressure vessels. Out of the organizations listed, which is the primary one that should be reviewed and followed? a. ASME b. OSHA c. NFPA d. NBIC 10. ___________ may occur if equipment is subjected to temperatures above those for which it is designed. a. Creep b. Brittle fracture c. Stress Corrosion d. Erosion 11. If a probable corrosion rate cannot be determined from reviewing data from the same or similar service vessels or estimated form published data, on-stream determinations shall be made after approximately __________ hours of service by using NDE methods and a corrosion rate is established. a. 500 b. 1000 c. 5000 d. 10000 12. The maximum allowable working pressure for the continued use of a pressure vessel shall be based on computations determined by using the: a. latest edition of the National Boiler Inspection Code or the construction code to which the vessel was built. b. latest edition of the ASME Code or the construction code to which the vessel was built. c. latest edition of the API/ASME Code or the construction code to which the vessel was built. d. latest edition of the Underwriters Laboratories Code or the construction code to which the vessel was built. COPYRIGHT 2005 – itcSkills - ALL RIGHTS RESERVED - DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE

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13. Out of the many methods of inspection ___________ is considered the most important and the most universally accepted method of inspection. a. radiographic examination b. careful visual inspection c. ultrasonic thickness measurement d. hammer testing 14. If external or internal coverings, such as insulation, refractory protective linings, and corrosion resistant linings are in good condition and there is no reason to suspect that an unsafe condition is behind them. a. it is not necessary to remove them for inspection. b. it is necessary to remove them completely for inspection. c. it is necessary to partially remove them for inspection. d. it is required to remove them completely for inspection on some set interval. 15. What API standard provides more information on the inspection of piping, valves and fittings associated with pressure vessels? a. API Recommended Practice 576. b. API Recommended Practice 575. c. API Recommended Practice 574. d. API Recommended Practice 573. 16. For a corroded area of considerable size in which the circumferential stresses govern, the least thickness along the most critical element of the area may be averaged over a length not exceeding the following: 16a. For vessels with inside diameters less than or equal to 60 inches-a. 1/4 the vessel diameter or 5 inches, whichever is less. b. 1/2 the vessel diameter or 10 inches, whichever is less. c. 1/4 the vessel diameter or 15 inches, whichever is less. d. 1/2 the vessel diameter or 20 inches, whichever is less. 16b. For vessels with inside diameters greater than 60 inches-a. 1/3 the vessel diameter or 40 inches, whichever is less. b. 1/4 the vessel diameter or 30 inches, whichever is less. c. 1/3 the vessel diameter or 50 inches, whichever is less. d. 1/4 the vessel diameter or 25 inches, whichever is less. 17. For corrosion calculations the surface of the weld is considered to be: e. 1 inch on either side of the weld or twice the minimum thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater. f. 2 inches on either side of the weld or 2 times the minimum thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater. g. 4 inches on either side of the weld or 4 times the minimum thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater. h. 6 inches on either side of the weld or 6 times the minimum thickness on either side of the weld, whichever is greater.


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18. Under what conditions is an internal field inspection of a newly installed pressure vessel waived? a. The contractor installing the vessel assures the owner-user that the vessel is satisfactory for its intended service. b. A manufacturers data report assuring the vessel is satisfactory for its intended service is available. c. The owner-user assures the inspector that the vessel is satisfactory for its intended service. i. The manufacturer orally assures the owner-user that the vessel is satisfactory for its intended service. 19. An above ground pressure vessel shall be given a visual external inspection, preferably while in operation, at least every _____ years or at the same interval as the internal/on-stream inspection, whichever is less. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 20. The period between internal or on-stream inspections shall not exceed one-half the estimated remaining life of the vessel based on corrosion rate or _______ years whichever is less. a. 10 b. 15 c. 5 d. 12 21. In cases where the remaining safe operating life is estimated to be less than 4 years, the inspection interval may be the full remaining safe operating life up to a maximum of _____ years. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 22. If both the ownership and the location of a vessel are changed, what must happen before it is reused? a. It must be internally and externally inspected. b. All the records must be reviewed. c. It must be thoroughly ultrasonically checked. d. It must have all the paper work transferred to the new owner. 23. A pressure vessel has been in service for 12 years and has shown a history of corrosion over its service life. The original thickness was 1.9375” thick and the present thickness is 1.405”. What is the corrosion rate for this vessel? a. 0.266250 inches/year b. 0.532500 inches/year c. 0.088750 inches/year d. 0.044375 inches/year


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24. When must a pressure test be performed on a pressure vessel? a. When the contractor working on the vessel deems it is necessary. b. When the API authorized pressure vessel inspector believes that it is necessary. c. When the safety group of the owner-user requests it. d. When the NFPA requests it. 25. Who is authorized to test and repair a pressure relief valve? a. An organization experienced in PRV maintenance. b. A valve repair shop. c. A certified pressure vessel inspector. d. A contractor with valve mechanics. 26. What is the maximum inspection interval of a pressure-relieving device? a. 15 years. b. 12 years, c. 10 years. d. 20 years. 27. What determines the inspection interval of a pressure-relieving devices? a. The interval is determined by the authorized pressure vessel inspector. b. The interval is determined by the owner-user. c. The interval is determined by the performance of the device. d. The interval is determined by the size of the device. 28. The following is not normally found in pressure vessel records. a. Manufacturers data reports. b. Vessel identification numbers c. Piping past the first vessel flange. d. Relief valve information. 29. When repairs or alterations are to be performed on a pressure vessel, all materials, and all welding procedures that are to be used must be approved by: a. the insurance carrier for the company that the pressure vessel belongs to and the owner-user of the pressure vessel. b. the owner-user and the contractor performing the repairs or alterations to the pressure vessel. c. the API authorized pressure vessel inspector and, if necessary, by an engineer experienced in pressure vessel design, fabrication, or inspection. j. the original vessel fabricator and the insurance carrier for the company that owns the pressure vessel. 30. What type of repairs can an authorized inspector give prior general authorization for? a. major repairs that require pressure tests. b. alterations that require pressure tests. c. major alterations that require pressure tests. d. limited or routine repairs that will not require pressure tests.


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31. When does an inspector normally approve all specified repair and alteration work. a. Work is approved after the work contractor certifies the work to be satisfactory and the contractor has pressure tested the vessel. b. Work is approved by a process/chemical engineer for the owner-user and the contractor has pressure tested the vessel. c. Work is approved after an inspection by the authorized inspector has proven the work to be satisfactory and any required pressure test has been witnessed by him b. Work is approved after an inspection and test by the contractor and the unit operators accept the vessel. 32. Who should be consulted before repairing a crack at a discontinuity, where stress concentrations may be serious? a. The operators of the vessel. b. The owner-user. c. An engineer experienced in the operation of the vessel. d. An engineer experienced in pressure vessel design. 33. All repair and alteration welding shall be in accordance with: a. NBIC Welding Code b. AWS D1.1 Welding Code c. Original Construction Code d. NFPA Welding Code 34. The repair organization shall use qualified welders and welding procedures qualified in accordance with the applicable requirements of: a. Section V of the ASME Code. b. Section IX of the ASME Code. c. AWS D1.1 Welding Code. d. API Standard 1104, Welding. 35. The repair organization shall maintain records of its qualified welding procedures and its welding performance qualifications. These records shall be available to the ____________ prior to the start of welding. a. operator b. owner-user c. welder d. inspector 36. For alterations or repairs of vessels initially postweld heat treated as a code requirement and constructed of P-1 and P-3 steels listed in the ASME Code, preheating to not less than _______ degrees F may be considered as an alternative to PWHT. a. 200 b. 300 c. 400 d. 500


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37. A 2 1/4 % chrome material (P-5) vessel must be repaired by welding in a flush patch (replacing a corroded area). The vessel is in caustic service and was originally post weld heat treated. Notch toughness is not a consideration. Which of the following is correct. a. No post weld heat treatment (PWHT) is required. b. The repair may be pre-treated to 300 degrees F. while welding and PWHT waived. c. The repair may be made by using the temper-bead welding technique. d. The repair must be post weld heat treated. 38. If local post weld heat treatment is approved for a vessel repair (a complete 360 degree band around the vessel is not used--only a localized spot), what are the minimum number of thermocouples required around the localized area to monitor the temperature? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 6 39. When repairing vessels with stainless steel weld overlay and cladding (vessels constructed of P-3, P-4, or P-5 base materials) the base metal in the area of repair should be examined for cracking by UT per ASME Section V. This UT inspection should be made________ hours after repairs have been completed for equipment in hydrogen service, especially for chromiummolybdenum alloys that could be affected by delayed cracking. a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 42 40. When are fillet welded patches (lap patches) allowed. a. They may be only used in vessels with shells 3/8” thick or less. b. They may be used only if approved by the operators. c. They may be used only on low pressure vessels. d. They are used for only temporary repairs – unless approved for longer use by the Engineer/Inspector 41. Carbon or alloy steel with a carbon content over _____ percent shall not be welded. a. 0.30 b. 0.35 c. 0.40 d. 0.45 42. Acceptance criteria for a welded repair or alteration should include NDE techniques that are in accordance with the: a. applicable section of the NBIC. b. applicable section of the ASME Code. c. jurisdiction. d. owner-user.


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43. A pressure test is normally required after: a. an alteration. b. a repair. c. a lightning strike. d. a unit upset. 44. When is a rerating of a pressure vessel considered complete? a. When the pressure vessel engineer approves the rerating. c. When the authorized construction organization attaches the nameplate to the rerated vessel. c. When the API authorized PV inspector oversees the attachment of an API 510 nameplate. d. When the owner-user accepts the rerating from the rerating organization. 45. An API certified inspector who has not been actively engaged, as such, within the previous three years can be recertified by: a. being employed by a refinery. b. being licensed by the jurisdiction. c. an oral examination. d. a written examination. 46. An Examiner is normally: a. an API 510 Inspector b. A UTT Level II NDE Examiner d. A person that assists the API 510 Inspector, but does not necessarily have to qualify as an API 510 Inspector d. An independent API 510 Inspector 47. The minimum number of TML’s on any given vessel is: a. b. c. d.

determine by the API 510 Inspector determined by the owner/user at least one at least 4 on each shell and head

48. If a short-term corrosion rate reflects a .001” per year corrosive environment currently exists and the long-term corrosion rate is .009” per year, the corrosion rate used in calculating the inspection interval should be: a. b. c. d.

the long term the short term both terms as defined by the Inspector for the process

49. Risk Based Inspection may be conducted to evaluate: a. b. c. d.

consequence of a failure likelihood of a failure possibility of a failure a & b above


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50. Which assessment should be repeated each time equipment or process changes are made that could affect the degradation or failure of the vessel? a. b. c. d.

consequence probability likelihood internal/external

51. RBI assessments shall be reviewed and approved by the ________________ when used to increase the 10 year inspection limit. a. b. c. d.

pressure vessel owner/user pressure vessel engineer pressure vessel inspector both b and c above

52. “Actively Engaged” is defined as __________________. e. a minimum of 30% of time spent performing/supervising inspections over the 3 year certification period. b. performing/supervising inspections on 65 pressure vessels over the 3 year certification period. c. conducting 20 repair/alteration pressure tests per year for each of the 3 years. d. none of the above 53. What is the maximum carbon content of a material that will be used for a welded repair? a. b. c. d.

.34% .35% .40% .30%

54. If a pressure-relieving device is in clean (non-fouling), non-corrosive service, what is the maximum inspection interval in accordance with API 510? a. b. c. d.

5 Years 1 Year 10 Years At the same interval as the internal or on-stream inspection.

55. If a pressure vessel was constructed in accordance with ASME Section VIII Division 1 in 1966, can it be rerated in accordance with the latest edition / addendum of ASME Section VIII Division 1? a. b. c. d.

Yes No Maybe Homework Sucks

56. Any welding technique used to obtain controlled grain refinement and tempering of the underlying heat affected zone in the base metal is? a. Heat refinement welding COPYRIGHT 2005 – itcSkills - ALL RIGHTS RESERVED - DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE

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b. Postweld heat treatment c. Annealing d. Controlled-deposition welding 57. Who must give prior authorization for all alteration work to be done on pressure vessels that comply with ASME Section VIII Division 1? a. b. c. d.

Authorized pressure vessel inspector Pressure vessel engineer Authorized pressure vessel inspector and pressure vessel engineer The examiner

58. When using preheat as an alternative to postweld heat treatment, which of the following welding techniques cannot be used? a. b. c. d.

SMAW GTAW GMAW FCAW

59. A pressure vessel is constructed with a shell thickness of 2 ½”, the vessel has an MDMT of 30 8F, what is the minimum temperature at which a pressure test should be performed? a. 50 8F b. 60 8F c. 30 8F d. 40 8F 60. For pressure vessels that have no nameplate, minimal or no design and construction documentation, and the extent of radiography originally performed is not known, what joint factor should be used for butt welds? a. b. c. d.

0.70 0.75 0.85 0.90

61. A pressure vessel has an established corrosion rate of .012” per year. The vessel was last inspected in 2001 and had a measured wall thickness of .375”. The minimum required thickness for this vessel based on calculation performed in accordance with the original construction code is .265”. Utilizing this information, what is the remaining life of this pressure vessel? a. b. c. d.

9 Years 5 Years 15 Years 7 Years

62. Which of the following is characterized as a loss of ductility and notch toughness due to postweld heat treatment or high temperature service. a. b. c. d.

Stress Corrosion Cracking Carburization Graphitization Temper Embrittlement


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63. If both the ownership and the location of a pressure vessel are changed, what inspection(s), if any, will need to be performed? a. The pressure vessel does not need to be inspected if current documentation is available to insure the pressure vessels integrity. b. The pressure vessel shall have an internal and external inspection. c. The pressure vessel shall have an external inspection. d. The pressure vessel shall have an internal inspection and an on-stream inspection. 64. In accordance with API 510, to what extent must NDE examiners be trained or certified? a. b. c. d.

NDE examiners must be certified in accordance with ASNT SNT-TC-1A. NDE examiners must be certified in accordance with ASNT CP-189. NDE examiners must be trained and competent. NDE examiners must be trained and certified in accordance with the referencing code.

65. Which of the following vessels is not exempt from the specific requirements of API 510? a. A vessel that does not exceed 5 cubic feet in volume and 600 PSI design pressure. b. A vessel that is on moveable structures covered by other jurisdictional regulations. c. A vessel listed for exemption from the construction in the scope of ASME Section VIII, Division 1, of the ASME Code. f. A vessel that does not exceed 1 ½ cubic feet in volume and 600 PSI design pressure 66. Before local postweld heat treatment is used in lieu of 360-degree banding on local repairs, what type of review must be conducted to determine if a vessel was postweld heat treated due to the characteristics of the fluid being handled? a. b. c. d.

Welding Procedure Specification review. Past inspection reports review. Pressure Test review. Metallurgical review.

67. A pressure vessel rerating will not be considered complete until? a. The pressure vessel engineer certifies that all inspections and examinations have been performed in accordance with API 510. g. The pressure vessel inspector oversees the attachment of an additional nameplate or additional stamping. c. The pressure vessel inspector certifies that all inspections and examinations have been performed in accordance with API 510. d. The examiner completes all required NDE examinations. 68. A pressure vessel was placed into service in 1989 and was constructed with a design thickness of .750”. In 2001 the wall thickness was measured at .630”. Based on this information and a minimum thickness of .550”, when is the next internal inspection due for this pressure vessel? a. b. c. d.

4 Years 2 Years 8 Years 10 Years


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69. Which of the following NDE methods is the most important and the most universally accepted? a. b. c. d.

RT VT MT PT

70. When making welded repairs to a pressure vessel, who is responsible for maintaining the records for welding procedures and welder performance qualifications? a. b. c. d.

The owner/user. The inspector. The pressure vessel engineer. The repair organization.

71. What is the time interval between the issuance of an edition, revision, or addenda of an API standard and when it goes into effect? a. b. c. d.

Immediately upon issuance. 1 month after issuance. 6 months after issuance. 1 Year after issuance.

72. The work necessary to restore a vessel to a condition suitable for safe operation at the design conditions is considered a? a. b. c. d.

Repair Alteration Quality Assurance/Quality Control review Rerating

73. Which of the following is not considered an acceptable means of determining the probable corrosion rate of a new vessel? a. From data collected on vessels providing the same or similar service. b. On-stream determination after 6 months of service using appropriate NDE. h. From the owner/users experience or published data on vessels providing comparable service. d. On-stream determination after 1000 hours of service using appropriate NDE.

74. If a pressure vessel is to have a pressure test and there is no available information as to the vessel’s minimum design metal temperature, what should be used to determine the minimum temperature at which the pressure test should be performed? a. Published information on the material of construction. b. The minimum acceptable operating temperature. c. A material sample should be taken from the vessel and a metallurgical analysis performed. d. The pressure test should be performed at a minimum temperature of 72 8F. COPYRIGHT 2005 – itcSkills - ALL RIGHTS RESERVED - DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE

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75. How many years is an API certificate valid for an authorized pressure vessel inspector? a. b. c. d.

2 Years from issuance. 3 Years from issuance. 4 Years from issuance. 5 Years from issuance.

76. When should “Industry-qualified” UT shearwave operators be used per API 510? a. b. c. d.

Mandatory as of Dec. 2001. Mandatory as of Dec. 2002. Mandatory as of Dec. 2003. Mandatory as of Dec. 2004.

77. RP 579 covers: a. b. c. d.

RBI UT Shearwave Operators FFS Assessments IRE II Assessments

78. An industry-qualified UT shearwave operator may be qualified in accordance with: a. b. c. d.

API rules CP-189 SNT-TC-1A Any of the above if acceptable to the owner/user


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API 572 QUESTIONS ALL CLOSED BOOK SELECT THE BEST ANSWER 1. Several different methods are used to construct pressure vessels. Most pressure vessels are constructed today using ____________ construction. a. welded b. hot forged c. riveted d. multilayer 2. The most common material used to construct pressure vessels is: a. titanium b. austenitic stainless steel c. Monel d. carbon steel. 3. Construction codes are periodically revised as the designs of pressure vessels improve and as new construction materials become available. A pressure vessel should be maintained according to the: a. requirements under which it was designed and constructed. b. standards and specifications of the owner/user. c. principles and specifications of the jurisdiction. d. guidelines of the NBIC. 4. The basic reasons for inspection are: a. to meet the prerequisites of the ASME Code. b. to fulfill the provisions of the API 510. c. to satisfy the requirements of OSHA. i. to determine the physical condition of the vessel and to determine the type, rate, and causes of deterioration. 5. The most common environmental cracking in pressure vessels in refineries are: a. wet H2S and CUI. b. polythionic cracking in ferritic stainless steel. c. amine stress cracking in stress relieved vessels. d. caustic embrittlement under 400°F. 6. Erosion is the attrition of a surface caused by: a. loss of material caused by sulfur and chloride compounds. b. attrition of material cased by acid or caustic attack. c. the impingement of solid particles or liquid drops. d. wearing down of a material caused by oxidation.


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7. Many problems with pressure vessels are caused by faulty fabrication. Which item on the following list is not related to faulty fabrication. a. poor welding. b. chloride stress corrosion cracking. c. improper heat treatment. d. dimensional intolerance. 8. The external inspection of a pressure vessel should start with: a. vessel foundation and anchor bolts. b. ladders, stairways, platforms, or walkways connected or bearing on the vessel. c. nozzles and connecting piping. d. protective coatings and insulation. 9. If an internal inspection of a vessel is not the initial one, the first step is to: a. make a walk around visual check of the vessel. b. review the previous records of the vessel to be inspected. c. check with the vessel operators for unusual operating conditions. d. make a preliminary manway inspection. 10. Which of the following is not a tool for measuring thickness of vessel shells? a. acoustic emission transducers. b. ultrasonic instruments. c. radiography with step gages. d. corrosion buttons and depth drilling. 11. What is the primary method used to obtaining thickness measurements on process equipment?

a. Calipers b. Profile Radiography c. Ultrasonic instruments d. Depth drilling 12. Which of the following may leave high residual stresses near welds and may affect the physical properties and corrosion resistance of a metal? a. b. c. d.

Stress corrosion cracking Galvanic corrosion Carburization Improper heat treatment

13. Titanium vessels may lose ductility due to absorption of hydrogen and the resulting formation of: a. hydride phases b. caustic embrittlement c. polythionic acid embrittlement d. Sigma phase


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14. Which pressure vessel component is normally the most likely to suffer deformation? a. b. c. d.

Heads Shell Nozzles Manways

15. What is the suggested spacing of wire rope clips used on guy wire cables? a. b. c. d.

At least 4 rope diameters apart. At least 6 rope diameters apart. At least 8 rope diameters apart. At least 10 rope diameters apart

16. High temperature sulfidic corrosion will normally take place above what temperature? a. b. c. d.

300°F 200°F 450°C 450°F

17. Which of the following vessels is the most likely to undergo uneven settlement? a. b. c. d.

A vessel that is supported by a short concrete slab A vessel that is supported by a short fireproofed concrete slab. A vessel that is supported by a steel reinforced concrete slab. A vessel that is supported by two separate concrete slabs.

18. If a crack is found in a pressure vessel, to what extent must the crack be removed prior to welded repair? a. The crack must be removed entirely. b. The crack shall be removed sufficiently enough to prevent further propagation. c. The removal of cracks shall be to the extent as agreed upon between the repair organization and the authorized inspector. d. If a crack is found in a pressure vessel, a metallurgist shall be consulted as to the extent of crack removal. 19. This method of deterioration is usually localized, but at times is very general. It can occur at cyclone separator internals, exchanger tubes, impingement baffles and mixing columns. This deterioration is: a. b. c. d.

Corrosion Dezincification Erosion Carburization

20. The three types of information that should make-up a complete record file are? a. b. a. b.

Basic data, field notes, and the data that accumulates in a “continuous file”. Metallurgical reviews, original construction drawings, and inspection reports. The original construction radiographs, U-1 report, and ultrasonic examination reports. The “as built” drawings, in-service inspection reports, and engineering design reports.


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21. The limits of wall thickness loss that may be tolerated should be based on: a. b. c. d.

Fatigue strength. Retiring thickness of the vessel. Rate of deterioration. Both B & C, above.

22. Grounding systems should be tested to insure that the resistance to ground does not exceed? a. b. c. d.

5 ohms 10 ohms 20 ohms 25 ohms

23. Which of the following would be used to aid an inspector in locating hydrogen blistering? a. b. c. d.

Thermal imaging A flash light Magnetic Particle Examination Radiography

24. Incomplete penetration, lack of fusion, and slag inclusion are all deficiencies associated with? a. b. c. d.

Improper heat treatment Poor welding Corrosion Metallurgical changes

25. Dealloying is a degradation characterized by the loss of one or more alloys. 3 common forms are commonly found in copper alloys. One of these is: a. b. c. d.

Creep. Dezincification. Decarburization. Deschindlerization.

26. The most important biological mechanism that directly influences the rate of corrosion is: a. b. c. d.

H2S. SRB. S04. PMS.

27. Where are leaks on a pressure vessel most likely to occur? a. b. c. d.

At piping attachments to the vessel wall. At the “start-stop” locations in a weld seam. At intersecting weld seams (tee junctions). Around the data plate attachment welds.


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28. What are the primary reasons for scheduling units for inspection, per API RP 572? a. b. c. d.

Economics Safety and Reliability OSHA regulations To satisfy local environmental concerns

29. Determining the physical condition of a pressure vessel and determining the type, rate, and causes of deterioration are the basic reasons for? a. b. c. d.

Metallurgical analysis NDE examinations Inspections Impact test

30. Which of the following is not a code or standard used for the design and construction of heat exchangers and condensers in the United States? a. b. c. d.

TEMA ASME Code API Standard 660 BOCA

31. When performing an inspection, the two most important factors in determining the limits of corrosion and any other type of deterioration that may be tolerated are? a. b. c. d.

The retirement thickness of the part considered and the rate of deterioration. The modules of elasticity and the hoop stress. The amount of NDE originally performed and the type of discontinuities found. The type of welding process used in the original construction and the name of the manufacturer.

32. Under which of the following conditions would external corrosion most likely occur. a. b. c. d.

On a vessel that is maintained at elevated temperatures. On a vessel that is in cryogenic service. On a vessel that is located directly downwind of a cooling tower. On a vessel that is epoxy coated.

33. Which of the following methods could be used to detect de-carburization of austenitic stainless steels? a. b. c. d.

Metallurgical examinations Ultrasonics Acoustic Emissions None of the above

34. The bottom head and shell of fractionators processing high-sulfur oils are susceptible to what type of deterioration? a. b. c. d.

Hydrogen Embrittlement Sulfide Corrosion Chloride Stress Corrosion Cracking Sulfur De-oxidation


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35. Which of the following types of corrosion is normally not found on the external surfaces of operating pressure vessels? a. b. c. d.

Soil corrosion CUI Atmospheric corrosion Hydrogen blistering

36. What NDE technique can be utilized to determine if creep cracking is prevalent, per RP 572? a. b. c. d.

MT PT AE Any of the above

37. When a vessel is supported with guy wires, how should the wire rope clips be attached to the wire rope? a. With the base against the dead or short end and the u-bolt against the live or long end of the wire rope. b. With the base against the live or long end and the u-bolt against the dead or short end of the wire rope. c. The orientation of the wire rope clip in regards to the wire rope is irrelevant. d. Two wire rope clips should be used to secure the wire rope. One clip needs to be oriented with the base against the dead or short end and one clip needs to be oriented with the base against the live or long end. 38. Which of the following is not considered to be a metallurgical or physical change of a pressure vessel metal? a. b. c. d.

Carbide precipitation High-temperature hydrogen attack Embrittlement Amine cracking

39. When profile radiography is performed, what has to be shown on the developed film of the vessel part, per RP 572? a. b. c. d.

Image Quality Indicator Location markers Step gauge of known thickness All of the above

40. Which magnetic particle analysis is the most sensitive in finding cracks, per RP 572? a. b. c. d.

Wet fluorescent magnetic particle Dry fluorescent magnetic particle Dry color contrast magnetic particle Wet color contrast magnetic particle


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41. Which of the following would not be considered a process that could change the hardness of a metal? a. b. c. d.

Temper embrittlement Neutralization Graphitization Decarburization

42. What is PMI used for per RP 572? a. b. c. d.

To check for correct alloy materials To check for correct steel materials To check for correct pressure monitoring installations To check for correct valve installation

43. If amine materials are used or stored in a pressure vessel, where is cracking most likely to occur? a. b. c. d.

Welds and HAZ’s. Base metal of stress relieved nozzles. Skirts. Flanges.

44. Which of the following inspection methods would be best suited for the inspection of internal linings such as paint, glass, plastic, and rubber? a. b. c. d.

Magnetic Particle Liquid Dye Penetrant Profile Radiography Spark Tester

45. When settlement of pressure vessel foundations and/or supports is found, and routine monitoring is taking place, at what time should the taking of settlement measurements be suspended? a. When sufficient information has been obtained to reliably predict the amount of settlement occurring. b. When sufficient information has been obtained to calculate the amount of settlement that will take place over the life of the vessel. c. When the information obtained reveals that uniform settlement is taking place. d. Measurements should be taken until the settlement stops. 46. What type of pressure vessel is constructed with a casing or outer shell that forms a space between itself and the main shell? a. b. c. d.

A cylindrical pressure vessel. A jacketed pressure vessel. A spheroidal pressure vessel. A spherical pressure vessel.


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47. Above what operating temperature would catalytic reformer equipment be susceptible to creep embrittlement damage? a. b. c. d.

500 8F 750 8F 800 8F 900 8F

48. If vibration is noted on auxiliary equipment associated with a pressure vessel and supports cannot be added to reduce the vibration, what should be done? a. The inspector should consult with operations personnel to determine if the auxiliary equipment can be removed. b. The auxiliary equipment should be placed on a preventive maintenance schedule to monitoring for fatigue cracking. c. A qualified engineer should perform calculation to assure that the vibrations will not cause fatigue cracking. d. The auxiliary equipment should be radiographed on a routine basis to ensure no fatigue cracking is taking place. 49. Which of the following inspection techniques should not be used on pressure vessels that are under pressure? a. b. c. d.

Magnetic Particle Examination Hammer testing Ultrasonic Examination Acoustic Emissions

50. Tube sheets that are in water service are generally constructed from what types of metal? a. b. c. d.

Naval brass or steel. Stainless steel or Aluminum Copper or Chrome Monel or Nickel

51. CUI would not be a factor in which of the following conditions? a. b. c. d.

Vessels operating at -4°C - 120°C Aus. stainless steel vessels operating at 450°F Insulated vessels downwind from a cooling tower Carbon steel vessels with damaged insulation

52. What are the most important conditions to check for when examining metallic linings? a.

That the lining is applied evenly, it has sufficient ductility, and no film lifting is visible. b. There is no corrosion, it was properly installed, and that no holes or cracks exist. c. That the lining is of sufficient strength to resist mechanical forces and there are no blisters caused by inadequate surface preparations. d. All of the above.


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53. What type of deterioration can be expected on the shell of exchangers next to bundle baffles and impingements plates? a. b. c. d.

Stress Corrosion Cracking Hydrogen Blistering Erosion Intergranular Corrosion

54. What must the manufacturers of pressure vessels constructed in accordance with ASME Section VIII Division 1 and Division 2 have? a. An on-site Authorized Inspector. b. A quality control system. c. Employees trained and certified in accordance with SNT-TC-1A to perform nondestructive examinations. d. All of the above. 55. If external or internal coatings or linings appear visually to be in good condition, with no evidence of corrosion or deterioration, the Inspector should: a. b. c. d.

“Spot” clean, and then inspect the metal. Chip off a large area for UT examination. Schedule a ET to check for coating thickness. Leave it alone.

56. If a pressure vessel has historical records of past inspections, little or no corrosion is evident, and the vessel has operated under normal conditions, what is the least amount of thickness measurements that should be taken? a. b. c. d.

Measurements taken in each quadrant of each shell ring and head. One measurement in each shell ring and one measurement on each head. In each quadrant of each head and at least one measurement in each shell ring. In each quadrant of each shell ring and at least one measurement in each head.

57. In exchanger pressure testing, when is a “test ring” used? a. b. c. d.

On floating head exchangers On stationary head exchangers On drum-type exchangers On fin-fan air coolers

58. When should a service history record be established for a pressure vessel? a. b. c. d.

As soon as the pressure vessel is placed into service. Prior to the pressure vessel being stamped with the ASME Code symbol. After the first on-stream or internal inspection. Following the initial pressure test.


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59. When performing an external inspection, what type of corrosion would be expected around the heads of bolts and nuts, at brackets connections between stair treads and angle supports, and at connections between intermediate supports and pressure vessel walls? a. b. c. d.

Crevice Corrosion Biological Corrosion Galvanic Corrosion Intergranular Corrosion

60. When performing a pneumatic pressure test in lieu or a hydrostatic pressure test, the recommendations set forth in which code or standard should be followed? a. b. c. d.

API 510 API 574 API 576 ASME Code


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API 576 QUESTIONS ALL CLOSED BOOK SELECT THE BEST ANSWER 1. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. The spring is fully exposed; it is used on steam boiler drums; it is also used for general air and steam service in a refinery. a. Rupture Disk. b. Safety Relief Valve. c. Relief Valve. d. Safety Valve. 2. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. They are used in liquid or incompressible fluid service. They have closed bonnets. They should not be used in steam, air, gas, or vapor service. a. Rupture Disk. b. Safety Relief Valve. c. Relief Valve. d. Safety Valve. 3. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. They are used in gas or vapor service and liquid service. They have closed bonnets. They should not be used on steam boilers. They are used in corrosive refinery service. a. Rupture Disk. b. Relief Valve. c. Safety Relief Valve. d. Safety Valve. 4. Using the following description, pick the type pressure-relieving device from the list. They are used in refinery process industries for gas, vapor, air or liquids. They can be used in corrosive refinery service. They minimize the effects of back pressure on its operation characteristics. They should not be used as pressure control or bypass valves. a. Safety Valve. b. Balanced Safety Relief Valve. c. Relief Valve. d. Rupture Disk. 5. What is the common limitation for use on the following pressure relief devices: Safety Valve, Relief Valve, Safety Relief Valve, Balanced Safety Relief Valves. a. use in corrosive refinery service. b. use as a pressure control or bypass valve. c. use as on steam boiler drums or superheaters. d. use in liquid service. 6. Which of the following in NOT a cause of a pressure-relieving devices improper performance? a. corrosion. b. proper maintenance. c. damaged seating surfaces d. failed spring. COPYRIGHT 2005 – itcSkills - ALL RIGHTS RESERVED - DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE

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7. Why is a definite time interval between inspections of pressure-relieving devices necessary? a. To insure proper performance. b. To satisfy OSHA requirements. c. To fulfill owner-user limitations. d. To meet manufacturers conditions. 8. An inspection or testing of a pressure-relieving device is required by API 510 at least every ________ years maximum. a. 7 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 9. Which one of the following list is not an item to be checked when a visual on-stream inspection of a pressure-relieving device. a. Check to make sure the inlet nozzle of the valve and/or the piping to the valve inlet is not plugged. b. Check to make sure the correct relief device was installed. c. Check to make sure no gags, blinds, closed valves or piping obstruction prevent the relief device from working. d. Check to make sure the seals installed to protect the spring setting have not been broken. 10. When a pressure-relief valve is first received in the shop, what should be done prior to dismantling? a. dismantle and clean the valve. b. check the valve spring for corrosion. c. dip the valve in a cleaning solution. d. test pop the valve to determine the “as received” relieving pressure. 11. A self locking seal that when placed in position and closed, locks and must be physically cut or broken to be removed is a ? a. b. c. d.

Lock-Out Car Seal Locking Pin Cotter Key

12. Which of the following should be on a pressure relieving device’s identification tag? a. b. c. d.

Test dates. Unit designation. Set pressure. All of the above.

13. Which of the following is not a limitation of a relief valve? a. b. c. e.

It should not be used as a pressure control or bypass valve. It should not be used for incompressible fluids. It should not be used in steam, air, gas or other vapor services. It should not be used in services piped to a closed header without consideration of the effects of back pressure. COPYRIGHT 2005 – itcSkills - ALL RIGHTS RESERVED - DO NOT COPY OR DISTRIBUTE

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14. Which of the following pressure-relieving devices is characterized as having a bonnet that encloses the spring and forms a pressure tight-cavity, with the bonnet cavity being vented to the discharge side of the valve? a. b. c. d.

Conventional Safety Relief Valve Balanced Safety Relief Valve Pilot-Operated Safety Relief Valve Rupture Disk

15. If a pressure relief valve is received and the valve’s inlet and outlet are not covered, what should be done? a. Provisions should be made to ensure that in the future they are covered before leaving the shop. b. The relief valve shall be sent back to the shop to verify the set pressure. c. The inlet and outlet of the relief valve should be flushed with water, steam or another suitable medium. d. The relief valve should be dismantled and cleaned. 16. Which of the following may cause the improper performance of a pressure-relieving device? a. b. c. d.

Damaged seating surfaces Failed springs Rough handling All of the above

17. Pressure gauges to be used for the setting of pressure relief valves should be calibrated by what means? a. By utilizing a calibrated gauge in conjunction with the test gauge to insure uniformity. b. With a regularly calibrated dead weight tester. c. Gauges should be sent to an outside testing agency for calibration. d. Gauges should be calibrated in accordance with the manufacturers recommendations. 18. Which of the following pressure-relieving devices would be used to protect the upstream side of a pressure relief valve against corrosion? a. b. c. d.

Safety Valve Relief Valve Rupture Disk Conventional Safety Relief Valve

19. How should pressure relief valves be shipped? a. b. c. d.

In an upright position. Incased in a protective compartment On their side to prevent the relief device from falling over during shipment. UPS ground.


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20. What is the reason(s) for inspecting pressure relief devices? a. To determine if the devices were manufactured in accordance with ASME and API requirements. b. To determine the general physical and operating conditions of the devices, and to ensure that their performance meets the requirements for a given installation. c. To ensure the devices ability to withstand external shock loadings. d. All of the above. 21. A pressure-relieving device whose spring is fully exposed outside of the valve bonnet and is normally used on stream boiler drums and super-heaters. a. b. c. d.

Relief Valve Safety Relief Valve Safety Valve Conservation Vent

22. Which of the following would not be a precaution taken when removing a pressure-relieving device while the equipment is in operation? a. The space between the relief device and any adjacent block valve should be vented to a safe location. b. The bonnet of the relieving device should be removed and tested for hazardous materials or explosive mixtures. c. A blind should be inserted between the pressure relief device and any adjacent upstream block valve. d. An authorized person should isolate a relief device by closing any adjacent block valves upstream or downstream. 23. What is essential to the effective administration and control of any pressure-relieving device program in a process industry? a. b. c. d.

The use of preventive maintenance software. Personnel trained in observing pressure relief valve maintenance. Authorized Inspectors. A suitable system of keeping records and making reports.

24. What normally causes the failure of pressure relief valve springs? a. b. c. d.

Over tightening of the set screw. Improper assembly Lack of maintenance Corrosion

25. Which of the following pressure relieving devices is normally used for the protection of atmospheric storage tanks? a. b. c. d.

Pressure and/or vacuum vent valves Safety Valves Relief Valves Rupture Disk


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26. A visual on-stream inspection should be performed on pressure relieving devices at what intervals? a. As determined by the performance of the devices in the particular service concerned with a maximum interval of 10 years. b. As determined by previous on-stream inspections - with a maximum interval of 5 years. c. In accordance with manufacturers recommendations. d. As determined by previous on-stream inspection - with a maximum interval of 10 years. 27. What is the usual service life of a pre-bulged metal rupture disk under normal operating conditions? a. b. c. d.

1 Year 2 Years 3 Years As determined from previous inspections.

28. When is the best time to perform inspections on pressure relieving devices? a. When the owner/user specifies. b. During plant emergency drills. c. When the inspection least interferes with the process and maintenance manpower is readily available. d. When environmental conditions are best suited for outside activities. 29. Which of the following shall be installed between a rupture disk device and the inlet of a pressure relief valve to detect disk rupture or leakage? a. b. c. d.

Try cock Pressure gauge A free vent All of the above

30. If a rupture disk’s manufacturer specifies a bolting torque procedure and the tightened bolts are loosened, the rupture disk should be what? a. Replaced b. Disassembled and inspected to insure no damage has occurred. c. The bolting should be retightened in accordance with the manufacturers recommendations. d. The rupture disk and housing should be externally visually inspected to insure no damage has occurred.


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31. What type of pressure relief valve should be installed in a system that is corrosive and may contain foreign particles? a. b. c. d.

Conventional Safety Relief Valve Balanced Bellows Safety Relief Valve Safety Valve Pilot Operated Safety Relief Valve

32. The annular pressure chamber located downstream of the seat of a pressure relief valve for the purpose of assisting the valve to achieve lift is? a. b. c. d.

Bonnet Chamber Huddling Chamber Try Cock Chamber Seating Chamber

33. Which side of a conventional domed rupture disk (pre-bulged) is designed for pressure? a. b. c. d.

The convex side. The concave side. Both sides of the disk are designed for pressure. Pressure cannot be placed on this type of rupture disk.

34. If unusual corrosion, deposits, or conditions are noted during the shop maintenance/inspection of a pressure relief valve, who should be called upon to assist in the inspection? a. b. c. d.

The Inspector The Employer The Pressure Relief Valve Engineer The Pressure Vessel Engineer

35. When operating pressures are as high as 90% of a disks design bursting pressure, what type of rupture disk should be used? a. b. c. d.

Pre-bulged metal rupture disk. Graphite rupture disk. Tension loaded rupture disk. Reverse buckling rupture disk.

36. Why is the size (capacity) of a pressure relief valve test stand important? a. Insufficient surge volume could damage a pressure relief valve’s internal parts. b. Insufficient surge volume could produce inaccurate test gauge readings. c. Insufficient surge volume might not cause a distinct “pop”, and may cause an incorrect set pressure. d. The size of the pressure relief valve test stand is irrelevant. 37. For pressure relief valves that comply with ASME Section VIII, Division 1, what is the minimum and maximum deviation between the “pop” pressure and the set pressure? a. b. c. d.

Not less than 0% or greater than 10% of the set pressure. No more than 10% above or 10% below the set pressure. Not less than 5% or greater than 5% of the set pressure. Not less than 10% or greater than 0% of the set pressure.


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38. In accordance with the ASME Code, liquid service pressure relief valves installed after this date have to have their capacity certified and stamped on the nameplate? a. b. c. d.

January 1, 1990 January 1, 1986 January 1, 1998 January 1, 1989

39. What is the relieving capacity used as the basis for the application of a pressure relief device determined in accordance with the applicable code or regulation? a. b. c. d.

Rated relieving capacity. Stamped relieving capacity. The set pressure The specified burst pressure.

40. When inspecting reverse acting rupture disk that utilizes knife blades, what should the inspector look for? a. A reduction of the void between the knife blades and the disk. b. The inspector should verify the orientation of the knife blades. c. Misalignment between the diaphragm and knife blades, which can cause the reduction of the available cutting surface. d. Dulling of the knife edges, which could cause the knife not to sever the disk.


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API 510

1. b (Para. 1.1) 2. d (Para. 1.1) 3. c (Para. 1.2.2) 4. a (Para. 3.2) 5. c (Para. 3.4) 6. b (Para. 3.10) 7. d (Para. 3.17) 8. c (Para. 4.3) 9. b (Para. 5.1) 10. a (Para. 5.2) 11. b (Para. 5.3) 12. b (Para. 5.4) 13. b (Para. 5.5) 14. a (Para. 5.5) 15. c (Para. 5.6) 16. A) d B) a (Para. 5.7) 17. a (Para. 5.7) 18. b (Para. 6.1) 19. c (Para. 6.3) 20. a (Para. 6.4) 21. b (Para. 6.4) 22. a (Para. 6.4) 23. d (Para. 6.4) 24. b (Para. 6.5) 25. a (Para. 6.6) 26. c (Para. 6.6) 27. c (Para. 6.6) 28. c (Para. 6.7) 29. c (Para. 7.1) 30. d (Para. 7.1.1) 31. c (Para. 7.1.2) 32. d (Para. 7.1.3) 33. c (Para. 7.2) 34. b (Para. 7.2.1) 35. d (Para. 7.2.2) 36. b (Para. 7.2.3.1) 37. d (Para. 7.2.3) 38. b (Para. 7.2.5) 39. b (Para. 7.2.6) 40. d (Para. 7.2.7) 41. b (Para. 7.2.8) 42. b (Para. 7.2.9) 43. a (Para. 7.2.10) 44. c (Para. 7.3) 45. d (Para. B.5.1) 46. c (Para. 3.18) 47. a (Para. 6.4) 48. a (Para. 6.4) 49. d (Para. 6.2) 50. c (Para. 6.2)

ANSWER KEY 51. d 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. b 56. d 57. c 58. d 59. b 60. a 61. a 62. d 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. d 67. b 68. a 69. b 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. b 76. c 77. c 78. d

(Para. 6.2) (Para. B.5 (Para. 7.2.8) (Para. 6.6) (Figure 7-1) (Para. 3.19) (Para. 7.1.1) (Para. 7.2.3.1) (Para. 6.5) (Para. 6.7) (Para. 6.4) (Para. 5.2) (Para. 6.4) (Para. 3.18) (Para. 1.2.2) (Para. 7.2.5 note) (Para. 7.3) (Para. 6.4) (Para. 5.5) (Para. 7.2.2) (Forward) (Para. 3.15) (Para. 5.3) (Para. 6.5 note) (Appendix B – B.2.3) (Para. 5.5) (Para. 5.8) (Para. 3.21)


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API 572 ANSWER KEY 51. b (Para. 8.2.1) 52. b (Para. 10.4.5) 53. c (Para. 10.4.4) 54. b (Section 5) 55. d (Para. 8.2.4) 56. b (Para. 10.3.12) 57. a (Para. 10.8.3) 58. c (Para 9.1) 59. a (Para. 10.3.2) 60. d (Para. 10.8.2)

1. a (Para. 4.2.2) 2. d (Para. 4.2.3) 3. a (Section 6) 4. d (Para. 7.1) 5. a (Para. 8.2.3) 6. c (Para. 8.2.2) 7. b (Para. 8.5) 8. b (Para. 10.3.2) 9. b (Para. 10.4.3) 10. a (Para. 10.5) 11. c (Para. 10.5) 12. d (Para. 8.5.3) 13. a (Para. 8.3.7) 14. b (Para. 10.4.4) 15. b (Para. 10.3.7) 16. d (Para. 8.2.8) 17. d (Para. 10.3.3) 18. a (Section 11) 19. c (Para. 8.2.2) 20. a (Para. 12.1) 21. d (Para. 10.9) 22. d (Para. 10.3.9) 23. b (Para. 10.4.4) 24. b (Para. 8.5.2) 25. b (Para. 8.3.3) 26. b (Para. 8.2.10) 27. a (Para. 10.3.8) 28. b (Para. 9.3) 29. c (Para. 7.1) 30. d (Section 5) 31. a (Para. 10.9) 32. c (Para.10.3.13) 33. d (Para. 8.3.1) 34. b (Para. 10.4.3) 35. d (Para. 10.3.13) 36. d (Para. 8.2.6) 37. b (Para. 10.3.7) 38. d (Para. 8.3) 39. c (Para. 10.5) 40. a (Para. 10.3.13) 41. b (Para. 8.3) 42. a (Para. 8.5.7) 43. a (Para. 10.4.4) 44. d (Para. 10.4.6) 45. d (Para. 10.3.3) 46. b (Para. 4.1) 47. d (Para. 10.3.8) 48. c (Para. 10.3.10) 49. b (Para. 10.8.1) 50. a (Para. 4.3)


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API RP 576 ANSWER KEY

1. d 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. a 15. a 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. c 20. b 21. c 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. d 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. d

(Para. 4.2) (Para. 4.3) (Para. 4.4) (Para. 4.6) (Para. 4.2 – 4.6) (Section 5) (Para. 6.4) (Para. 6.4) (Para. 6.3) (Para. 6.2.8) (Para. 3.1.1) (Figure 37) (Para. 4.3.2) (Para. 4.5) (Para. 5.8.3) (Section 5) (Para. 5.4) (Para. 5.8.1) (Para. 4.9.2) (Para. 6.1) (Para. 4.2) (Para. 6.2.4) (Para. 7.1) (Para. 5.3) (Para. 4.8) (Para. 6.4.2) (Para. 4.9.3) (Para. 6.5.1) (Para. 4.9.2) (Para. 6.2.21) (Para. 4.6.1) & (Para. 5.5) (Para.3.2.2) (Para. 4.9.1.1) (Para. 6.2.9 Caution Note) (Para. 4.9.3) (Para. 5.4) (Para. 6.2.14) (Para. 4.3) (Para. 3.3.6) (Para. 4.9.1.4)


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API 510 572 576 Questions Answers

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