1st Part Arab Board Exam, June 2007 – PAPER 1 1.
The Rt. Phrenic nerve passes through which opening in the diaphragm? b. IVC opening c. Esophagus opening d. Aortic opening e. Lt. crus of the diaphragm f. Rt. crus of the diaphragm
2.
Regarding ITP all are correct EXCEPT a. Presence of megakaryocytes in the Bone Marrow b. Presence of mraked splenomegaly c.
d. e.
Hemoarthrosis in not a complication INR is normal
3.
Normal urine output in an adult is a. 2cc/kg/hr b. 0.5cc/kg/hr c. 3cc/kg/hr d. 4cc/kg/hr e. 5cc/kg/hr
4.
Rate of wound infection in a clean wound is a. 1.5-3% b. 0.1-0.2% c. 3-7% d. 8-10 e. 10-15%
5.
Best IVF for initial resuscitation is a. Hypertonic Saline b. Albumin c. Starch d. Ringer Lactate e. Dextrose
6.
How many lobules are present in each breast? a. 2-3 b. 4-8 c. 15-20 d. 30-40 e. 50-60
7.
Major blood supply to the breast is a. Internal thoracic artery b. Intercostal arteries c. Vertebral arteries d.
e.
8.
Winging of the scapula occurs due to injury of the a. Long thoracic nerve b. Thoracodorsal nerve c.
d. e.
9.
During Ingiunal hernia repair which nerve is most likely to be injured? a. Ilioingiunal nerve b. Obturator nerve c. Femoral nerve d. Lateral cutanous nerve of the thiegh e.
10. Regarding Littismus Dorsi muscle all are correct EXCEPT
a. Origin from Lumbar fascia b. Nerve supply derived from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus c. Blood supply is from the 2 nd part of the axillary artery d. It functions as an adductor and medial rotation of the arm e.
11. The quickest way to secure an airway in a multi trauma patient is a. Orotracheal intubation b. Nasotracheal intubation c. Tracheostomy d. Cricothyroidotomy e.
12. Treatment of an ICU a ptient with aspiration pneumonia due to pseudomonas argenose should be a. Clindamycin b. Pipracillin c. Vancomycin d. Metronidazole e. 2nd generation Cephalosporine
13. Treatment of an ICU a ptient with aspiration pneumonia due to pseudomonas argenose should be a. Clindamycin b. Pipracillin c. Vancomycin d. Metronidazole e. 3rd generation Cephalosporine
14. High PCWP occurs in a. Cardiogenic shock b. Hypovolumeic shock c. Neurogenic shock d. Early septic shock e. Late septic shock
15. Distended neck veins occurs in a. Cardiogenic shock b. Hypovolumic shock c. Late septic shock d. Neurogenic shock e. Open valve pnuemthorax
16. High Cardiac output occurs in a. Early septic shock b. Late Septic shock c. Cardiogenic shock d. Hemorrhagic shock e. Neurogenic shock
17. Which of the following will cancel an elective surgery if not properly done? a. CXR b. EKG c. CBC d. Coags e. Informed Concent
18. Regarding hemophilia all are true EXCEPT a. It is and X-linked disorder b. Can present with heamoarthrosis c. Prothrombin time is prolonged d.
e.
To perform surgery it is needed to have at least 30% of the deficient factor
19. The primary effect of LMWH is by inhibiting a. IX b. XI c. II d. VII e. V
20. Which of the following factors is labile in stored blood? a. VII b. XII
d. e.
II V
21. Massive blood transfusion cuases all of the fallowing EXCEPT a. Hypothermia b. Acidosis c. Hypocalcemia d. Hypokalemia e. Coagulopathy
22. Blood is stored at what temperature? a. 0 degrees b. 4 degrees c. 6 degrees d. 8 degrees e. -4 degrees
23. Most common site of GI carcinoids is a. Stomach b. Colon c. Ileum d. Appendix e. Jujenum
24. Most common site of GI lymphoma is a. Stomach b. Colon c. Ileum d. Appendix e. Jujenum
25. Most dangerous fistula is a. Doudenal b. Jujenal c. Ileal d. Rectal e. Colonic
26. Site of protein digestion and absorbtion is a. Proximal ileum b. Jujenum c. Distal leum d. Colon e. Duodenum
27. All of the f ollowing are normal colonic functions EXCEPT a. Absorb water b. Absorb potassium c. Absorb sodium d. Secret bicarb e. Secete mucus
28. All of the f ollowing are included in the treatment of hyperkalemia EXCEPT a. Calcium Gluconate IV (10% in 10 cc NS over 2-5 minutes) b. Insulin and dextrose c. Hydrocortisone d. Binding Resins e. Dialysis
29. During thyroidectomy which of the following is a landmark for the recurrent laryngeal nerve? a. Vagus nerve b. Superior thyroidal artery c. Inferior thyroidal artery d. Middle thyroidal vien e. Cricoid cartilage
30. In treating hypercalcemia these can be given EXCEPT a. Mithramycin b. Hydration c. Loop diuretics d. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol
e.
31. Regarding hypercalcemia all of the fallowing are true EXCEPT a. Symptoms can be identical to some of the symptoms of hyperglycemia b. Occurs with sarcoidosis c. Calcitonin is useful as a long term treatment d. Hydration is useful e.
32. An ulcer in the medial aspect of the leg. Most likely due to a. Atherosclerosis b. Venous hypertension c. Burger’s disease d.
e.
Diabetes
33. Which muscle contribute to the rotator cuff? a. Infraspinatous b. Supraspinatous c. Teres minor d. Teres major e. Subscapularis
34. A radial nerve injury in the arm will produce all of the following EXCEPT a. Drop wrist b. Inability to extend the MCPJ c. Inability to extend the forearm d. Atrophy of the extensor muscles e.
35. Regarding canulation of the radial artery all of the fallowing are true EXCEPT a. Most common site for arterial canulzation b. Allen test must be done pre procedure c. Risk of thrombosis is increased if a 20 gauge canula or larger was used d. If thrombosis occurs frequent manual NS flushes should be done e.
36. Most common CVC line is inserted in a. Internal jugular b. External jugular c. Subclavian d. Femoral e.
37. In a multiple trauma patient the most appropriate IV access is a. Antecubital fossa 16 gauge b. Subclavian c. Femoral d. Internal jugular e.
38. A 60 year old female was ivolved in an MVA. She is complaining of severe anterior chest pain. BP 110/80 HR 100. Next step is a. Percardiocentesis b. Angiogram c. Conventional CT d. US e. IV access
39. Regarding post splenectomy overwhelming sepsis all are true EXCEPT a. Pneumo-vaccine is helpful b. Can happen within the first 2 years post op c. Occurs in children d. Occurs in post trauma splenectomy e. Mortality is 20% in adults
40. All of the f ollowing are true about hepatic needle biopsy EXCEPT a. Pain b. Shock c. IVC injury
e.
Peritonitis
41. All of the f ollowing about sciatic nerve injury are true EXCEPT a. Inability to dorsiflex the foot b. Inability to adduct the foot c. Loss of sensation at the sole of the foot d. Trophic ulcer in the sole of the foot e. Loss of sesation in the medial aspect of the foot
42. Regarding the adductor canal, all of the following are correct EXCEPT a. Contains femoral artery, vein and nerve b. Origin is the femoral triangle apex c. Ends at the adductor hiatus d. Floor is made up of the adductor magnus and longus e. Roofed by the deep fascia
43. All are associated with H. Pylori EXCEPT a. Doudenal ulcer b. Gastric Ulcer c. Primary gastric lymphoma d. Gastric carciniods e.
44. H. Pylori occurs with a. MALT B b. Hypergastrinemia c. Abundunt in the antrum d.
e.
45. regarding Penecillins and Cephalosporines all are false EXCEPT a. Both are bacteroicidal b. Cephalosporines are inefective for pnuemococci c. Cephalosporines are contraindicated in pregnancy d. Cephalosporines are recommended for those who are having Penecillin allergy e.
46. Regarding MRSA all are true EXCEPT a. Virulance is identical to Methicillin sensitive staph b. Gloving is required in handeling MRSA patients c. Assosiated with higher mortality rates d. A common nosocomial infection e. Vancomycin is the treatment of choice
47. Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies all of the following EXCEPT a. Parotid b. Mucosa of the internal auditory canal c. Glossohyoid muscle d.
e.
48. 33 year old male with abdominal pain and high amylase levels. Best medication to treat his pain is a. Morphine b. Aspirin c. Paracetamol d. Pethidine e. NSAID
49. 12 year old boy complains of pain post dental extraction. Treatment for pain shouldbe a. Morphine b. Pethidine c. Tramadol d. Nitric oxide e. Paracetamol
50. Which if the following does not effect platelet function a. Furosimide b. Warferrin c. Heparin d.
e.
51. When would you remove a tunneled CVC line? a. Asymptomatic bacteremia b. Septic thrombophlebitis c. Infection at site d. Pain e. Pus coming from the insertion site
52. In prostate surgery, INR should be less than a. 1.2 b. 0.8 c. 1.5 d. 1.8 e. 2.0
53. Indications for Pulmonary catheter insertion include all of the following EXCEPT a. Pulmonary edema b. Post cardiac surgery with poor LV function c. ESRD d. Shock e.
54. Risks of DVT increases with a. Parathyroid hyperplasia b. Cardiac failure c. Splenic artery aneurysm d. Peptic Ulcer e.
55. All of the f ollowing about TNF-alpha are true EXCEPT a. From megakaryocytes b. Is an Interferon c. Causes fever and anorexia d.
e.
56. Regarding wound healing all are true EXCEPT a. Steroids impair wound healing b. Chemotherapy impairs wound healing c. Irradiation enhances wound healing d. Malnutrition delyes wound healing e.
57. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to evaluate the nutrional status of a surgical patient? a. Albumin b. Prealbumin c. Glutamine d. Retinol Binding Protein (RBP) e.
58. Regarding wound contraction all are true EXCEPT a. Needed in sutured wounds b. Requires specialized myofibroblasts c. Occurs in the first few days post injury d.
e.
59. Regarding suture granuloma, all are correct EXCEPT a. Diagnosed clinically b. Can cause infection c. Reqiures surgical excision d. Topical antibiotics are useful e. Pain
60. Which of the following have been shown to be useful in the preoperative preparation of a patient with high rcardiac risk? a. Digoxin
b. c. d.
Lasix Beta blockers
e.
61. A pteint is having a 6 cm AAA. Which of the following is the MOST important to evaluate and estimate surgical risk? a. Cardiac b. Renal c. Pulmonary d. Coagulation e.
62. Regarding the Superior Mesenteric Artery, all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Crossing infront of the 3rd part of the duodenum
b. c. d.
Passes the neck of the pancrease The first branch is the right colic artery
e.
63. In the investigation of Pheochromocytom the most sensitive test is a. 24hr urine chatecholamines b. 24hr VMA c. CT brain d. urine chatecholamines e. Serum chatecholamines
64. Regarding Pheochromocytoma in MEN II whih of the following is true a. Urine potassium b. HIAA c.
d. e.
65. GIST occurs commonly in a. Stomach b. Ileum c. Jujenum d. Appendix e. Colon
66. Regarding hyperacute rejection all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Cyclosporine A is useful b. Happens in hours c. Hydrocortisone is useful d. Removal of the graft is done e. Is due preformed antibodies
67. One of the following is considered a controversy in the workup for allograft transplant a. Blood group matching b. HLA typing c. Mixing the recepient’s serum with the donor cells d.
e.
68. Which of the following is true regarding the ratio of hepatic arterial flow to the entire blood flow to the liver? a. 5% b. 10% c. 25% d. 40% e. 55%
69. Wound healing is worst in a. Eye lid b. Sternum c. Anterior neck d. Limbs e. Lips
70. Most common cause of acidosis in the surgical patient?
a.
Shock
b. c. d.
Intestinal obstruction Fistula
e.
71. Platelets survive in stored blood for a. 24hrs b. 3 days c. 7 days d. 15 days e. 21 days
72. In early post burn period, all are correct EXCEPT a. High Glucagon b. High Cortisone c. High Thyroxine d. High IGg e. High Catecholamines
73. Regarding antibiotics in a burn patient, all are true EXCEPT a. For anarobes it is rarely indicated b. Systemic antibiotics should not be started unless cultures are available c. Local antibiotics… d.
e.
74. Lab values in DIC, all are true EXCEPT a. Increase BT b. Hypofibrenogenemia c. Low vit-K factors d. Fibrin split products increase e. Thrombocytosis
75. NSAID can cause a rise in a. Bleeding time b. PT c. PTT d. Coagulation time e. Thromben time
76. Aminoglycosides… a.
b. c. d. e.
1st Part Arab Board Exam, June 2007 – PAPER 2 77. T Lymphocytes activation occurs by a. Cytokines stimulation b. Antigen recognition c. Antibody stimulation d. T cell receptor complex antigen e. Apoptosis of T lymphocytes
78. Vasodilatation occurs by which one of the f ollowing a. Epinephrine b. Nitric Oxide c. Endothelin d. Vasopressin e. Thromboxin A2
79. In the treatment of hypopituatirism all of the following are correct EXCEPT a. Glucocorticoids b. Testosterone in men c. Estrogen in women d. Prolactin in men and women e. Thyroxin
80. TB of the genitourinary system is suggested by a. Miroscopic hematuria b. Unilateral renal cyst c. Pneumaturea d. Painful epidydemal cyst e. Bacteria without pyuria
81. Bowel obstruction just distal to the duodenum present with a. High acidic vommeting b. Constipation c. Abdominal distension d.
e.
82. Central line infection is commonly associated with a. Sterilirty of technique b. Way of insertion c. Other focal infection d. Care of the catheter of the catheter after insertion e.
83. The least common complication of the hydatid cyst a. Metastasis b. Secondary bacterial infection c. Intrabilliary rupture d. Intraperitoneal rupture e. Bronchobilliary fistula
84. All of the f ollowing regarding SIRS are true EXCEPT a. 10% immature WBC b.
c. d. e.
85. All are true about treatment of Pulmonary Embolism EXCEPT a. Thrombolytics should not be considered in an unstable patient b. Thorocotomy and Embolectomy can be lifesaving if patient remains unstable even after resuscitation and thrombolytics c. IVC filter should be inserted in a ptient who had recent surgery d.
e.
86. Increased indirect bilirubin in neonates occurs with all of the following EXCEPT a. Criggler-Najjar Syndrome b. Choledocal cyst c. Heamolysis d. Breast feeding e.
87. Which is true regarding apoptosis? a. Phagocytosis in early phase b. Nucleus and Cytoplasm of the cell are not effected c. Release of cellular content and moderate inflammation reaction d. Physiologically important to prevent uncontrolled T cell activation e. Decreased Lymphoid pool through life time
88. 67 year old male patient presents to you with a posterior triangle neck mass for 2 months, which of the following would be your first line of management? a. FNA b. CT neck c. Examination under GA d. Ultrasound e. Antibiotics and observation
89. Which of the following is true regarding Anaphylactic shock a. Sudden release of cytokines b. Plasma cells responsible in pathogenesis
c. d. e.
90. A 20 year old female presents in the emergency room after being stabbed in the neck just above the angle of the mandible. After stabllization you notice a significant expansion at the site of injury. What is your next step? a. Immediate exploration b. CT c. Duplex US d. Angiogram e. 91. Which is true regarding Metabolic Alkalosis? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hyperchloremia c. Gain in fixed acids d. Loss of base e. Raise in base access
92. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of raised intra abdominal pressure? a. High cardiac output b. High ICP c. Decreased preload d. Decreased mesenteric perfusion e. Decreased renal perfusion
93. One of the following is NOT a complication of hypospadius? a. Retrograde ejaculation b. Urethrocutanous fistula c. Urethero diveticulum d. Meatul stenosis e. Penile curvature
94. Which is true about Polymorphic adenoma of the minor salivary glands a. No risk of cancer b. Rapidly growing c. Hard mass d. Treated by simple enaculation e.
95. the major protein in the early catabolic phase in a multi-trauma pt. from a. Plasma b. Fat c. Skeletal muscles d. Liver e. Kidney
96. Regarding Wilms Tumor all true EXCEPT a. 20% Hereditary b. Success rate in treatment reach 90% c. Usually happen 1 year earlier than Neuroblastoma d. It’s Treatment has been a major success in modern Surgery e. Corner Stone in management is primary resection of the tumor
97. Regarding Gastrochiasis All are True EXCEPT: a. C-Section for safe delivery b. Abdominal wall defect is 2-4 cm c. Defect is to right of the umbilicus d. All patient have malrotation e. Diagnosis can be done antenatally by ultrasound
98. The Least important for monitoring of a patient under GA is a. ECG b. Pulse Oximetry c. Non invasive automated BP cuff d. Capnography e. Multialarm warnings
99. The cardinal Sign in cardiac arrest intraoperatively is a. Hypercapnia b. Hypoxia
c. d. e.
Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic acidosis Hypercalimia
100. The most successful treatment in cardiac arrest is a. calcium chloride b. Sodium Bicarbonate c. Atropine d. Dopamine e. Epinephrine
101. Which if the fallowing will eventually develop a breast cancer a. Age at Menarche less than 13 b. Apocrine Metaplasia c. BRCA I gene mutation d. 1st degree relative with breast cancer
e.
Florid metaplasia
102. Which of the fallowing is most important in the prognosis of malignant melanoma a. Age b. Gender c. Clark level d. Site e. Breslow thickness
103. Regarding Ulcerative Collitis all true EXCEPT a. Can affect the rectum b. It has a high tendency to cause fistula c. The pathology is involving the mucosa only d. Pathology doesn’t show skip lesions e.
104. Regarding Chron’s disease, all are correct EXCEPT a. Pathology involve the mucosa and submucosa b. Has Skip lesions c. Has a tendency for fistula f ormation d. Associated with development of pereanal abscess e. Terminal ileum is the most affected part
105. The Risk of malignancy in a Solitary thyroid nodule is high in which of the fallowing a. Age above 40 b. History of radiation to the neck c. Cold nodule in thyroid scan d. Positive family history e. Symptoms of tracheal compression
106. Regarding a 1.5cm ureteric stone with epsilatral hydronephrosis which of the following is correct a. Conservative treatment is unlikely to be effective b. Serial KUB is needed for evaluation c. Urine analysis is always show Hematouria d. High BUN AND Createnine e. Extraction is with Dormia Basket
107. Which of the following is the initial treatment for Flaced neurogenic bladder a. intermittent catheterization b. suprapubic catheter c. restrict fluid intake to 300cc/day d. augmentation surgery e. surgery to the neck of the bladder
108. Regarding Scalens Anterior muscle which is true a. Has no role in respiration b. Inserted in the 2nd rip
c. d. e.
Divide the subclavian vein from the subclavian artery and brachial plexus Pierced by phrenic nerve
109. Which of the fallowing is the most common cause of Vasicovaginal Fistula a. Instrumental delivery b. Prolonged labor Hysterectomy
d. e.
110.
Ca. Cervices Rectal resection
Classical Symptoms of Cystitis is a. Frequency b. Micro Hematouria c. Urgency d. Supra Pubic Pain e.
111. Lucid interval is characteristic of a. Extradural Hemorrhage b. Subdural Hemorrhage c. Subarachenoid Hemorrhage d. Intracerebral Hemorrhage e.
112. Which of the following is the line in management of CSF Rhinorhea a. Nasal Packing b. Exploration c. Starting Antibiotics d. Lumber Puncture e. Laser puncture
113. the most earliest symptom of intracranial tumor a. Headache b. Epilepsy c. Vomiting d. Anosmia e.
114. Which of the following is not effecting the prognosis of thyroid cancer? a. Age b. Gender c. Capsular invasion d. Vascular invasion e. Lymphnode Invasion
115. Which of the following happens in early sepsis? a. Low cardiac output b. Hypocalcemia c. Respiratory Acidosis d. Increased arterio-venous oxygen difference e. Vasodilatation
116. All of the f ollowing happens in SIRS EXCEPT a. Teprature 36 degrees b. Metabolic Acidosis c. Low catecholamines d.
e.
117. The most common cause of unilateral hydronephrosis is a. Ureteric stone b. PUJ obstruction c. Retroperitneal fibrosis d.
e.
118. In PE, which is the least helpful in diagnosis? a. CXR b. EKG c. CT with contrast d. VQ scan e. Angiography
119. A patient who had major abdominal surgery develops a temperature of 38.9 degrees 48hrs post
op, the most likely cause is a. Pneumonia b. UTI c. DVT d. PE
e.
Anastamotic leak
120. All are true regarding ARDS EXCEPT a. Low surfactant b. Needs Mechanichal ventilation c. Calssical Xray finding d. ABG needed e.
121. Regarding Gas gangrene, all are true EXCEPT a. Commonly can be caused by C. Prefernges b. Due to Endotoxin c.
d. e.
122. Regarding Compartment syndrome, all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Can occur in a patient with a cast b. Pain is usually the first sign c. Angio is essential for diagnosis d. Peripheral pulses can be palpable e. Can be due to tight elastic plaster
123. The highst tensile strength is on which of the following sutures? a. Silk b. Polyglycolic Acid c. Polydexanone d. Polyglactin e. Chromic Gut
124. All are true regarding DIC EXCEPT a. Happens in septic shock b. Low fibrinogen c. High Fibrenogen degredation products d. High PT, PTT e. High Platelets
125. Recurrence of pnemothorax is highest among a. COPD b. Number of episodes in the past c. Location of the bleb d. TB e. Age
126. Gas gangre, all are true EXCPET a. C. Wilchii b.
c. d. e.
127. All are true regarding Hornor’s Syndrome EXCEPT a. Ptosis b. Mydriasis c. Enophthalmos d. Anhydrosis e.
128. Which of the following has no role in the treatment of rased ICP a. Hyperventilation b. Barbiturites c. Crainectomy d. Hydrocortisone e. Trendelinberg postion
129. Regarding Renal cell carcinoma all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Radio resistant b. Can extend to the ureter c. They present with painless heamturea
d. e.
130. Regarding osteod osteoma, all are true EXCPET a. Precancerous b. OSteolytic lesion with sclerotic margins on x-ray c. The pain can be controlled by Asprin d. Treted by resection e.
131. All of the f ollowing about a simple bone cyst are true EXCEPT a. Radiolgical findings include radiolucent lesion with new bone formation around it b. Pathological fractures are common c. Common in the proximal femur d. Treated by curettage and bone grafting e.
132. In treating prostatic cancer, which is true a. Estrogen b. LH c. Androgen d. Antiandrogen e. Estilbsterol
133. Regarding wound healing, which is true a. Monocyte has an essential role b.
c. d. e.
134. Wound infection increase in all EXCEPT a. Keeping the wound open after debridement b.
c. d. e.
135. All true about Erysipelas EXCEPT a. Caused by MRSA b. VInfectoius c. Sensative to Penecillin d. Spreads without pus formation e. Rose pink patches of the skin with vesicles at the edge of the wound
136. Which of the following is an Anarobic organism? a. E-coli b. Klebsiella c. Staph d. Bacteroids e. Strept
137. Source of staphelococci a. Nose and skin b. Colon c. Stomach d. UT e.
138. Regarding Carpel Tunnel Syndrome all of the following are correct EXCEPT
a. b.
Both sexes are effected equally
c. d.
e.
139. Regarding ulnar nerve injuries at the wrist all of te following are true EXCEPT a. Inability to appose the thumb b. Inability to adduct the thumb c. Affect the function of the interossie muscles d. Affect the sensation in the medial 1/3 e. Effect part of the dorsum of the hand
140. In prophylactic antibiotics for wounds all of the folowing are true EXCEPT a. Best to be given before surgery b. Should be continued postop for 7 days c. Should be given before the incision and 48hrs after d. Mandatory in clean contaminated wounds e.
141. All are true regarding tetanus EXCEPT a. Can effect the neonate b. Muscular spazm an stop respiration c. Treated by blood transfusion d. Caused by Cl. Tetani e. Caused by a powerful neurotoxin
142. Strawberry mark all are true EXCPET a. Can be precancerous b. Usually effects the face c. Laser therapy may be succeful d. Sterids can be used e. Regress spontanoiusly in a few years
143. In testicular torsion, all of the following are true EXCPET a. Can observe for 8 hours b. Can occur in a horizontally lying testis c. Unilateral in adolescents d. Can present smilar to emidydemo-orchitis e.
144. In primary hyperparathyroidism all of the following are correct EXCPET a. Hypercalcemia b. Hyperphosphatemia c. Hyperchloremia d. High urinary phosphates e. Mild metabolic acidos
145. Regaridng the indications for liver transplant all of the following are correct EXCEPT a. Chirrosis b. Acute fulminant hepatitis c. Primary biliary sclerosis d. Primary biliary atresia e.
146. Which of the following combinations most likely would be positive in a patient with choledocal cyst a. Jandice – Abdominal mass – Abdo pain b. Janudice – Abdominal mass – Fever c. Abdominal mass – abdominal pain – Fever d. Jaundice – Pancreatitis e. Janudice – Abdominal pain - Fever
147. In treatment of inhalation injury a. Endotracheal intubation b.
c. d. e.
148. TIA symptoms will resolve on
a. b. c. d. e.
12 hrs 24hrs 1 week 1 month 1 year
149. Regarding pulse Ox the following would effect the readings, EXCEPT a. Nail polish b. Hyperpigmented skin c. Anemia d. Arrythmia e. Janudice 150. All of the f allowing an cause Ca. Tongue a. Leukoplakia b. Hairy Tongue c. Methanol d. Smoking e.
151. All of the f allowing cause loss of water and Sodium EXCEPT a. Intestinal obstruction b. Entrocutanous fistula c. Hyperthyroidism d.
e.
152. Which is the most common injured in blunt abdominal trauma a. Spleen b. Kidney c. Small Bowel d. Pancrease e.
153. After a major abdominal Surgery you would expect all of the following EXCEPT a. Kidney Losses water b. Conserve Sodium c. Hyperkalemia d.
e.
154. Which of the following is the most worrying in a pt. with fat embolism a. Fat in the Urine b. Fat in the sputum c. Dyspnoia d. Chest pain e. Confusion
155. A pt. suffers partial and full thickness burn 50% of his BSA. Given that his wt. is 60Kg which of the fallowing will be in your admission orders a. 450 cc/hr b. 750 cc/hr c. 900 cc/hr d. 100 cc/hr e. 1200 cc/hr
156. the most common cause of pyogenic liver abscess is a. Portal Payemia b. Ascending colingitis c. Hematological Spread d. Hydated rupture e.
157. Regarding Ewing sarcoma all true EXCEPT a. Common from 40-50 yrs b.
c. d. e.
158. The Caudate lobe of the Liver drains to a. IVC b. Portal Vein c. Lt. Hepatic Vein d. Rt. Hepatic Vein e.
159. Which of the following is the most common cause of Skin graft failure a. Hematoma b. Infection c. Disruption d. Sheer forcing e.
160. in a multi trauma pt. the 1st maneuver to secure the airway is a. Suctioning with mandibuler thrust b. ETT with cuff c. ETT without a cuff d. Trachiostomy e. Oropharengial airway
161. Which is not a complication of the Lipid IV given with TPN a. Thromboflebitis b. Ventilatory complication c. Coagulation complication d.
e.
162. Widened Medistinum in CXR after a raped deceleration injury is characteristic of a. Aortic Injury b. Myocardial Injury c. Hemothorax d.
e.
163. Regarding Hyperpyloric stenosis all of the following are true EXCPET a. Anorexia b. Non-billios projectile vometting c. Coffee ground vomitus d.
e.
164. Which is a contraindication to heparin therapy a. Head truama 2 weeks ago b. HIT c. Thrombosis of the subclavian d.
e.
165. Regarding testicular cancer, all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Lymphnode dissection is only useful for staing b. In radical orchiodectomy you should remove the lymphnodes c. It’s through a scrotal approach d. Seminoma is radio sensitive e. Choriocarcinoma is radio resistant
166. Which is the most common injury in pelvic fractures
a. b. c. d.
Prostatic urethra Urinary bladder Vagina
e.
167. In Small bowel malignancy, all of the following are true EXCEPT
a. b. c.
Most common is adeno carcinoma Carcinoma is most…
d. e.
168. Small bowel has low malegancy potesial because a. Short transit time b. Alkaline enviromnet c. Has Benzo… enzyme d.
e.
169. Regarding Sickle cell anemia all of the following are true EXCEPT a. Splenectomy is an excellent therapeutic measure b. HbA is replaced by HbS c. Crisis can be precipitated by hypoxia d.
e.
