Quiz Anatomy Part 3 of 3

Gross Anatomy – Part 3

14Mar2009

Gross Anatomy #46 – Cranial Nerves 1) What cranial nerves are both sensory and motor (contain a GSA functional component)? a) III, IV, VI b) I, II, V, XI, XII c) V, VII, IX, X d) XII e) V only 2) What cranial nerves carry GVE-P axons (preganglionic parasympathetic)? a) X only b) III, VII, IX, X c) III, IV, VI, X d) VI, X, XI, XII e) I, II, III, VI, X 3) A patient presents in the Emergency Room with a possible aneurysm. You can test CN III, CN IV, and CN VI by having them follow a target through the six principle positions of gaze; covering all the muscles involved. Which shape should you have them trace? a) T b) P c) O d) A e) H 4) What cranial nerve provides general visceral afferent innervation to root of the tongue? a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII 5) What cranial nerves innervate tongue muscles? a) X, XII b) XI, XII c) IX, X d) XII only e) VII, IX, X 6) A patient presents with a traumatic head injury. The neurologist strikes a tuning fork and places it on the middle of the patient’s forehead. The neurologist says he is checking for unilateral neurosensory loss and unilateral conductive loss. What nerve is she testing? a) CN VIII b) CN VII c) CN V d) CN II e) CN I 7) What cranial nerve has a special somatic efferent (SSE) component? a) CN I b) CN II c) CN V

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d) CN VII e) CN VIII 8) A “brain freeze” is a phenomenon that some people experience after consuming cold beverages. As the cold beverage hits the roof of the mouth, the vasculature contracts to conserve heat. As the arteries return to size (vasodilate) the nerves in this region sense pain and transmit the sensation to the associated ganglia. This pain is referred pain to the forehead, below the orbits, and some other surrounding regions. Which cranial nerve is associated with this phenomenon? a) CN VII b) CN IX c) CN V d) CN XII e) CN X 9) What cranial nerve innervates the palatoglossal muscle of the tongue? a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII 10) What cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the sublingual salivary gland? a) Oculomotor b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 11) A patient presents with unilateral arm drive, unilateral facial droop, and mumbled words. The physician asks a nurse to go into the break room for vanilla extract, peppermint, or coffee grounds. What nerve does this physician plan to test? a) CN VIII b) CN VII c) CN V d) CN II e) CN I 12) What cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland? a) CN XII b) CN X c) CN IX d) CN VII e) CN III 13) Where are the neurons situated that provide GSE innervation to the pharynx and larynx muscles? a) Brainstem b) Superior ganglion of the vagus c) Inferior ganglion of the vagus d) Trigeminal ganglion

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e) Jugular ganglion 14) What cranial nerve provides general sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3s of the tongue? a) V b) VII c) IX d) X e) XII 15) Suicide disease is a historical name for a cranial nerve neuralgia that causes episodes of intense pain in the eyes, lips, nose, scalp, forehead, and jaw. Prior to effective treatments for this neuralgia, a significant percentage of people took their own lives. What cranial nerve is associated with suicide disease? a) Optic b) Trigeminal c) Facial d) Glossopharyngeal e) Vagus 16) You are testing a patient’s corneal reflex by gently touching each cornea with a cotton wisp and observing any asymmetries in the blink response. This tests the sensory portion of which nerve: a) CN II b) CN IV c) CN V d) CN VI e) CN VII 17) Corneal reflex testing tests the motor portion of which nerve: a) CN III b) CN IV c) CN V d) CN VI e) CN VII 18) What cranial nerve has sensory components (proprioceptive) that do NOT go to a ganglion but relay information directly to the brainstem? a) CN I b) CN II c) CN V d) CN VII e) CN X 19) What cranial nerve innervates muscles of facial expression? a) CN VII b) CN V c) CN IX d) CN III e) CN XII 20) A patient presents post-surgery for an examination. The clinician asks the patient to turn their head away as the clinician resists the motion. The clinician then palpates the

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prominent neck muscle, doing the same test on the other side and noting any deficits. What cranial nerve is the clinician testing? a) CN XII b) CN XI c) CN IX d) CN VII e) CN V 21) The facial cranial nerve has all of the following ganglion EXCEPT: a) Geniculate b) Submandibular c) Ptergopalatine d) Chorda tympani 22) Taste sensation from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue goes to what ganglion? a) Otic b) Trigeminal c) Geniculate d) Superior glossopharyngeal e) Inferior glossopharyngeal 23) You are checking on a patient with metastatic squamous cell cancer of the head and neck. While testing their cranial nerves, you notice their left eye is deviating inward (esotropic). The patient complains of double vision that gets worse as they gaze to the left (horizontal diplopia). The image below shows the patient trying to look to the left.

Which nerve do you suspect is injured? a) CN III b) Right CN IV c) Left CN IV d) Right CN VI e) Left CN VI 24) A patient presents with a history of meningitis. There is eyelid ptosis and the right pupil is more dilated than the left. The patient presents as shown in the image below.

Which nerve do you suspect is injured? a) CN IV b) Right CN III c) Left CN III d) Right CN VI e) Left CN VI 25) GVA innervation to the middle ear and auditory tube (internal surface of tympanic membrane) is associated with what cranial nerve? DO NOT DISTRIBUTE

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a) Olfactory b) Auditory c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 26) Sensory information from the dura mater of the posterior cranial fossa is associated with what cranial nerve? a) Olfactory b) Auditory c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 27) A patient is being shown a set of colored slides. What cranial nerve allows them to see the different colors? a) CN II b) CN III c) CN IV d) CN VI e) CN VII 28) Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for depression of the eyeball? a) CN III b) CN IV c) CN VI d) CN V e) None of the above 29) A patient presents after having a stroke. You ask them to open their mouth and say “Ahh.” You notice that their uvula is deviated to their right side. The left side of their palate is at a lower level than the right side. Which nerve do you suspect is injured? a) Left CN X b) Right CN X c) Left CN IX d) Right CN IX e) CN VII 30) Which of the following cranial nerves is necessary for elevation of the eyeball? a) CN III b) CN IV c) CN VI d) CN V e) None of the above 31) Which of the following is NOT a function of CN III? a) Elevation of eyes b) Constriction of pupil c) Adduction of eyes d) Dilatation of pupil e) Changing the shape of the lens

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32) Which of the following is NOT a sign/symptom of dysfunction of CN III? a) Downward and outward deviation of the eyeball b) Loss of papillary light reflex c) Constricted pupil (miosis) d) Ptosis (drooping of the upper lid) 33) A patient presents with damage to CN III on the left side due to cavernous sinus syndrome. Which of the following muscles on the left side will still be functional? a) Ciliary muscle b) Lateral rectus c) Superior oblique d) Superior rectus e) Superior oblique and lateral rectus 34) Which of the following statements is true? a) All cranial nerves carry motor, sensory, and parasympathetic fibers b) All cranial nerves have sensory ganglia attached to them c) All cranial nerves carry sympathetic preganglionic fibers d) All spinal nerves carry motor fibers e) All spinal nerves carry parasympathetic fibers 35) The trigeminal nerve: a) Has a sensory ganglion b) Is a mixed cranial nerve with both motor and sensory functions c) Innervates the muscles of mastication d) Does not carry preganglionic parasympathetic fibers e) All of the above 36) Damage to the motor fibers in the trigeminal nerve may cause: a) Flattening of the side of the jaw due to atrophy of the masseter muscle b) Difficulty in closing the eyes c) Slight deviation of the jaw toward the affected side when the mouth is open d) Both A & B e) Both A & C 37) A patient presents after having a stroke. You ask them to stick out their tongue and notice it is deviated to their left side. Which nerve do you suspect is inured? a) Left CN XII b) Right CN XII c) Left CN IX d) Right CN IX e) CN VII 38) Which of the following is NOT supplied by the vagus nerve (along with the cranial accessory nerve)? a) Mucous membrane of the larynx b) Mucous membrane of the nasal cavity c) Muscles of the larynx d) Muscles of the soft palate e) Constrictor muscles of the pharynx 39) A normal gag reflex is dependent on which of the following nerves being intact? a) CN V only

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b) CN IX only c) CN IX, CN X d) CN V, CN IX e) CN V, CN IX, CN XI 40) Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT carry motor fibers to skeletal muscle? a) Optic b) Facial c) Hypoglossal d) Vagus e) Mandibular branch of trigeminal 41) The facial nerve contains all of the following types of fibers EXCEPT: a) Motor b) Parasympathetic preganglionic c) Special sensory from taste buds d) General sensory from the facial skin e) General sensory from the mucous membranes 42) Parasympathetic fibers contained in the facial nerve are responsible for innervating all of the following EXCEPT: a) Lacrimal gland b) Nasal and oral mucous glands c) Submandibular salivary gland d) Sublingual salivary gland e) Parotid salivary gland 43) The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates: a) Taste buds in the posterior third of the tongue b) General sensory receptors in the posterior third of the tongue c) Stylopharyngeus muscle d) Baroreceptors in the carotid sinus e) All of the above 44) You ask a patient to stick out their tongue. Upon doing so, you notice their tongue deviates to the right side and has wasting (atrophy) of the right half. Which of the following nerves would you expect NOT to be fully functional? a) Left hypoglossal b) Right hypoglossal c) Left glossopharyngeal d) Right glossopharyngeal e) Vagus Gross Anatomy #47 – Fascia & Spaces 1) The Sellick Maneuver is performed during endotracheal intubation to prevent regurgitation. It is done by applying direct pressure to the cricoid cartilage. What anatomical structure can be palpated directly superior to the cricoid cartilage to ensure accurate location? a) Epiglottis b) Hyoid bone

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c) Thyrohyoid ligament d) Thyroid cartilage e) Tracheal rings 2) A medical examiner is performing an autopsy and finds a fractured hyoid bone. What is this finding a strong indicator of? a) Drowning b) Hangman’s fracture c) Strangulation d) Cervical spondylolisthesis e) CPR being performed 3) The thyroid cartilage projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)? a) C3 b) C4 c) C3-C4 d) C5 e) C4-C5 4) The hyoid bone projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)? a) C3-C4 b) C4-C5 c) C5-C6 d) C2 e) C6 5) The cricoid cartilage projects back to what cervical vertebral level(s)? a) C3-C4 b) C4-C5 c) C5-C6 d) C2 e) C6 6) What fascial layer of the neck contains lymph nodes and the platysma muscle? a) Superficial cervical fascia b) Deep investing fascia c) Deep infrahyoid fascia d) Deep cervical fascia e) Deep prevertebral fascia 7) What fascial layer completely surrounds the neck and spans from the superior to inferior border of the neck? a) Superficial cervical fascia b) Deep investing fascia c) Deep infrahyoid fascia d) Deep cervical fascia e) Deep prevertebral fascia 8) What fascial layer attaches to the base of the skull and encloses the deep muscles? a) Superficial cervical fascia b) Deep investing fascia c) Deep infrahyoid fascia d) Deep cervical fascia

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e) Deep prevertebral fascia 9) During a surgical dissection of the neck, the cervical branch of the facial nerve is damaged. Post-surgery, the skin of the patient has fallen away from the neck in slack folds. What muscle is paralyzed? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Digastric c) Platisma d) Trapezius e) Masseter 10) What fascia connects the two carotid sheaths together (transversely)? a) Pretracheal fascia b) Prevertebral fascia c) Alar fascia d) Deep investing fascia e) Bucchopharyngeal fascia 11) Which of the following is NOT contained in the carotid sheath? a) Common carotid artery b) External jugular vein c) Internal jugular vein d) Vagus nerve e) Internal carotid artery 12) What fascial layer has specializations forming the axillary sheath and Sibson’s fascia? a) Superficial cervical fascia b) Deep investing fascia c) Deep infrahyoid fascia d) Deep cervical fascia e) Deep prevertebral fascia 13) The infrahyoid fascial sling holds the ____ muscle to the hyoid and the pretracheal fascial sling holds the ____ muscle to the clavicle and first rib. a) Digastric; Omohyoid b) Sternocleidomastoid ; Scalenus anterior c) Mylohyoid; Sternohyoid d) Sternocleidomastoid; Omohyoid e) Digastric; Scalenus anterior 14) The pretracheal (visceral) space allows infection in the neck anterior to the trachea to travel inferior to the top of: a) The cupula of the lungs b) The sternum c) The scapular spines d) The pericardium e) The diaphragm 15) A patient presents with an abscess tooth. The infection has spread from the neck into the space bounded by alar fascia anteriorly and prevertebral fascia posterioly. The infection could possibly descend to the level of: a) The cupula of the lungs

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b) The sternum c) The scapular spines d) The pericardium e) The diaphragm 16) What space is located posterior to the retropharyngeal visceral space, which is bounded anteriorly by buccopharyngeal fascia? a) Masticatory space b) Pretracheal space c) Danger space d) Suprasternal space e) Visceral space Gross Anatomy #48 – Triangles & Superficial Structures 1) Which of the following is NOT part of the deep wall of the posterior neck triangle? a) Omohyoid muscle b) Levator scapulae muscle c) Digastric muscle d) Splenius capitus muscle e) Scalene muscles 2) What nerve innervates the muscles that border the posterior triangle anteriorly and posteriorly? a) Cervical nerves b) Ansa cervicalis c) Dorsal scapular nerve d) Axillary nerve e) CN XI 3) A patient presents with a history of Parkinson disease and current, spasmodic, torticollis. Their head is tilted to the left side with the chin elevated and turned toward the right side. What muscle is causing these symptoms? a) Left sternocleidomastoid b) Right sternocleidomastoid c) Left levator scapulae and right splenius capitus d) Right levator scapulae and left splenius capitus e) Left Platisma 4) What muscle forms the border between the carotid triangle and the muscular triangle? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Omohyoid c) Trapezius d) Digastric e) Scalenes 5) Which of the following triangles is NOT bilateral? a) Muscular b) Carotid c) Occipital d) Submental e) Supraclavicular

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6) What two veins come together to form the external jugular vein? a) Communicating vein and common facial vein b) Common facial vein and facial vein c) Facial vein and posterior auricular vein d) Posterior auricular vein and retromandibular vein e) Anterior jugular vein and communicating vein 7) A patient is being seen by a cardiologist to measure their right atrial pressure to determine the effectiveness of a cardiac pacemaker during vagal stimulation. The patient has carotid disease on their left side. Which vessel on the right side would be the best option for catheterization to measure pressure? a) Common carotid b) Internal carotid c) External carotid d) Internal jugular e) External jugular 8) What vein fuses with the facial vein to form the common facial vein? a) Posterior auricular vein b) Communicating vein c) Retromandibular vein d) Anterior jugular vein e) Internal jugular vein 9) A male patient presents to the Emergency Department with a great deal of bleeding on the lateral aspect of their neck after accidentally cutting themselves while shaving. What vein was likely damaged and what pressure-related complication should considered? a) External jugular; Air embolism b) Internal jugular; Air embolism c) External jugular; Pulmonary clot embolism d) Internal jugular; Pulmonary clot embolism e) External jugular; Pneumothorax 10) All of the following dermatome areas (nerves) meet at the nerve point of the neck directly behind the sternocleidomastoid EXCEPT: a) Greater auricular (C2-3) b) Dorsal rami (C3-5) c) Transverse cutaneuous (C2-3) d) Lesser occipital (C2) e) Supraclavicular (C3-4) 11) An anesthesiologist is prepping a patient for a superficial cervical plexus nerve block for a carotid endarterectomy. Where should the physician inject the anesthesia? a) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the midpoint of the muscle b) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the lower border of the muscle c) Anterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the upper border of the muscle d) Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the midpoint of the muscle e) Posterior to the sternocleidomastoid at the lower border of the muscle 12) What muscles do the trunks of the brachial plexus pass between? a) Sternocleidomastoid and anterior scalene b) Anterior scalene and middle scalene

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c) Middle scalene and posterior scalene d) Posterior scalene and levator scapulae e) Levator scapulae and trapezius 13) The superficial lymph nodes make a ring around the head passing through the occipital nodes at the back of the skull and through what other anatomical area? a) Subnasal b) Suborbital c) Supraorbital d) Apex of head e) Submental 14) On the left side, lymph ultimately drains into the ____ prior to entering the venous system. a) Thoracic duct b) Jugulo-omohyoid node c) Jugulo-digastric “monster” node d) Lymphatic angle e) Stellate node 15) What nerve is the cutaneous sensory innervation for the angle (corner) of the mandible? a) Supraclavicular b) Transverse cutaneous c) Greater occipital d) Lesser occipital e) Great auricular 16) What nerve is the cutaneous sensory innervation for most of the anterior triangle? a) Supraclavicular b) Transverse cutaneous c) Greater occipital d) Lesser occipital e) Great auricular Gross Anatomy #49 – Posterior & Anterior Triangles 1) Which of the following is NOT true about the posterior scalene muscle? a) Attaches to the second rib b) Is adjacent to the levator scapulae muscle c) Is deep to the trapezius muscle and sternocleidomastoid muscle d) The brachial plexus passes directly anterior to it e) Is part of the posterior neck triangle 2) All of the scalene muscles attach superiorly to: a) Spinous processes b) Transverse processes c) The atlas d) The hyoid bone e) The nuchal line 3) What is the relation of the subclavian vein to the scalene muscles? a) Posterior to the posterior scalene muscle

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b) Between the posterior and middle scalenes c) Through the middle scalene muscle d) Between the middle and anterior scalenes e) Anterior to the anterior scalene muscle 4) What landmark can be used to find the descending scapular artery when it is a branch of the subclavian artery? a) Runs on top of the clavicle b) Runs along sternocleidomastoid on the anterior border of the posterior triangle c) Runs through the brachial plexus d) Runs out between anterior and middle scalene muscles then dives deep between middle and posterior scalene muscles e) Runs along trapezius on the posterior border of the posterior triangle 5) You are performing neck surgery and cannot find a superficial cervical artery or a descending scapular artery. What artery would you find in place of these? a) Transverse cervical artery b) Suprscapular artery c) Deep cervical artery d) Occipital artery e) Dorsal scapular artery 6) What artery runs along the superior part of the posterior triangle? a) Transverse cervical artery b) Suprscapular artery c) Deep cervical artery d) Occipital artery e) Dorsal scapular artery 7) Which of the following is NOT a direct branch off of the thyrocervical trunk? a) Ascending cervical artery b) Transverse cervical artery c) Inferior thyroid artery d) Superficial cervical artery e) Suprascapular artery 8) Which of the following nerves is NOT in the posterior triangle? a) CN XI b) Subscapular c) Phrenic d) Nerve to subclavius e) Long thoracic 9) What nerve runs out of the jugular foramen with the internal jugular vein? a) CN XI b) Dorsal scapular c) Brachial plexus d) Suprascauplar e) Long thoracic 10) The cervical plexus provides proprioceptive fibers to what nerve? a) CN XI b) Dorsal scapular

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c) Accessory phrenic d) Suprascauplar e) Long thoracic 11) What muscle does the dorsal scapular nerve pierce through in the posterior triangle? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Anterior scalene c) Middle scalene d) Posterior scalene e) Trapezius 12) A volleyball player presents with difficulty moving her rotator cuff. She said the problem was getting worse with each serve and eventually she stopped playing completely. It has been over a month since she has last played. Upon examination, the posterior scapular muscles show signs of wasting on the affected side. What nerve is likely damaged? a) Long thoracic b) Median c) Axillary d) Suprascapular e) Dorsal scapular 13) All of the following muscles elevate the hyoid bone EXCEPT: a) Digastric b) Sternohyoid c) Stylohyoid d) Mylohyoid e) Geniohyoid 14) Which of the following muscles has the same function as the omohyoid muscle? a) Stylohyoid b) Plastisma c) Digastric d) Scalenus anterior e) Thyrohyoid 15) The thyroid is an ____ shaped gland sitting on the front of the ____. a) O; Trachea b) H; Trachea c) L; Trachea d) O; Esophagus e) H; Esophagus 16) The thyroid gland is supplied by ____ arteries and ____ veins. a) 2; 2 b) 2; 3 c) 2; 4 d) 3; 2 e) 4; 2 17) What variable artery runs superiorly off the internal carotid artery to the thyroid? a) Superior thyroid artery b) Inferior thyroid artery

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c) Posterior thyroid artery d) Middle thyroid artery e) Thyroid ima 18) A patient presents with lateral masses over the sternocleidomastoid in the area of the 2nd and 3rd tracheal cartilage rings. Which of the following is most likely? a) Branchial cleft cyst b) Thyroglossal duct cyst c) Pyramidal lobe cyst d) Hyoid bone fracture e) Glottic degeneration 19) A patient presents with a history of differentiated thyroid cancer. The reason for this visit is their hoarse voice. They noticed a twang in their voice over the last couple of weeks and it has gotten much worse recently. What nerve do you suspect is being impinged? a) Dorsal scapular b) Long thoracic c) Recurrent laryngeal d) Ansa cervicalis e) Facial nerve 20) During a thyroidectomy, the surgeon is making extra sure not to cause trauma to a nerve that causes a hoarse voice. The surgeon needs to completely remove the artery that runs in that vicinity. What artery is she going to ligate? a) Superior thyroid b) Inferior thyroid c) Thyrocervical trunk d) Superior laryngeal artery e) Dorsal scapular artery 21) A patient presents with a minor cut in the middle of their neck near the superior portion of the thyroid gland. The cut appears is red, puffy, pus filled, and painful. To what nodes is the lymph from this injury initially draining? a) Prelaryngeal nodes b) Pretracheal nodes c) Parotid nodes d) Bucchal nodes e) Submandibular nodes 22) During a thyroidectomy, the surgeon inadvertently removes all of the parathyroid glands. Without intervention, what is the likely outcome for the patient? a) A goiter will develop b) System infection c) Denervation of the neck muscles d) Respiratory failure e) Hypovolemic shock 23) At what vertebral level does the pharynx end and the esophagus begin? a) T1 b) C7 c) C6

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d) C5 24) In the neck, what is the arterial supply to the esophagus? a) Aortic esophageal branches b) Superior thyroid artery c) Deep cervical artery d) Occipital artery e) Inferior thyroid artery 25) During a tracheostomy procedure, the patient begins to bleed from the neck. The blood is deep blue in color and flows constantly. What vessel was likely severed? a) Superior thyroid artery b) Superior thyroid vein c) Inferior thyroid artery d) Inferior thyroid vein e) Thyroid ima Gross Anatomy #50 – Area Under the Sternocleidomastoid 1) The carotid sheath contains all of the following EXCEPT: a) Deep cervical lymph nodes b) Superior root of ansa cervicalis c) Phrenic nerve d) Internal jugular vein e) Common and internal carotid arteries 2) At what level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external? a) C1 b) C2-C3 c) C4-C5 d) C6-C7 3) At what location does the external carotid artery terminate (bifurcate)? a) At the superior border of the parotid gland b) At the apex of the ear c) At the middle of the temple d) At the superior border of the posterior triangle e) At the posterior occipital protuberance 4) You are thinking about a question during an anatomy exam with your hand under your jaw supporting the weight of your head (“The Thinker”). You feel your pulse against the ramus of your mandible. What branch of the carotid artery is this? a) Buccal b) Lingual c) Maxillary d) Facial e) Occipital 5) A patient presents the day after a tonsillectomy with complaints of a metallic taste and black, tarry, stools (melana). The physician thinks there is an open bleed at the surgical site. What artery is likely bleeding? a) Deep lingual b) Sublingual

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c) Dorsal lingual d) Ascending palatine e) Tonsillar 6) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the facial artery? a) Tonsillar b) Sublingual c) Glandular d) Muscular e) Submental 7) What branch of the occipital artery provides an anastamoses with the cervical artery as well as the vertebral artery? a) Meningeal b) Auricular c) Descending d) Mastoid e) Muscular 8) What nerve runs over the top of the occipital artery? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 9) The carotid sinus (baroreceptor) is a dilation at the ____ end of the internal carotid where the tunica intima is ____ and adventitia is ____. The tunica adventitia includes nerve endings (mainly CN IX). a) Lower; Thinner; Thicker b) Upper; Thinner; Thicker c) Lower; Thicker; Thinner d) Upper; Thicker; Thinner e) Lower; Thinner; Thinner 10) The carotid body (chemoreceptor) is located at the ____ and is innervated by CN IX, CN X, and pre-ganglionic sympathetics. a) Carotid sinus b) Carotid crotch (bifurcation) c) Mid-common carotid d) Mid-internal carotid e) Mid-external carotid 11) A patient presents with a knife wound to the neck. The subclavian artery has been severed proximal to the thyrocervical trunk. The patient feels tingling in his arm, but there is still adequate perfusion for the limb to survive. What vessel is providing collateral circulation to the upper limb? a) Occipital branch of posterior auricular artery b) Auricular branch of occipital artery c) Descending branch of occipital artery d) Superior thyroid artery from non-damaged side e) Facial artery from non-damaged side

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12) A patient presents with an industrial machine injury to the neck and face. A piece of hot metal shrapnel has penetrated the patient’s neck, severed the right external carotid artery proximal to the bifurcation, and seared the vessel shut. Which of the following is the most likely anastamose for the right side of the head? a) Occipital branch of posterior auricular artery b) Auricular branch of occipital artery c) Descending branch of occipital artery d) Superior thyroid artery from non-damaged side e) Facial artery from non-damaged side 13) A patient is undergoing a carotid endarterectomy (CEA) to relieve atherosclerotic obstruction. Although all of the following cranial nerves could possibly be damaged during the procedure, which one is the most likely to be damaged? a) CN X b) CN XII c) CN IX d) CN XI 14) You are viewing a left common carotid arteriograph (lateral view) for a patient with possible arterial occlusion. You see a branch coming off of the external carotid taking a tortuous, transverse path. What is it? a) Lingual b) Occipital c) Ascending palatine d) Facial e) Superior thyroid 15) What vessel begins at the jugular foramen? a) Brachicephalic vein b) External jugular vein c) Internal jugular vein d) External carotid artery e) Internal carotid artery 16) The internal jugular vein receives all of the following tributaries EXCEPT: a) Inferior thyroid vein b) Middle thyroid vein c) Lingual vein d) Pharangeal veins e) Facial vein 17) After an internal jugular vein puncture procedure, the patient is having difficulty tasting when they drink from a straw. They say they can taste normally when sipping juice, but when they use a straw the taste is diminished. What nerve may have been damaged during the procedure? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Hypoglossal d) Vagus e) Ansa cervicalis

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18) What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle and is closely associated with the superior thyroid artery? a) Vagus b) Internal laryngeal (from superior) c) External laryngeal (from superior) d) Inferior laryngeal e) Recurrent laryangeal 19) What nerve provides sensory innervation to the larynx? a) Vagus b) Internal laryngeal (from superior) c) External laryngeal (from superior) d) Inferior laryngeal e) Recurrent laryangeal 20) After an internal carotid artery puncture procedure, the patient is having difficulty talking and cannot depress their hyoid bone. What nerve was likely damaged? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Hypoglossal d) Vagus e) Ansa cervicalis 21) What nerve lies on top of the carotid sheath and passes into the mandibular region towards the tongue? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Hypoglossal d) Vagus e) Ansa cervicalis 22) The first cervical nerve “hitches a ride” with what cranial nerve before innervating the thyrohyoid and geniohyoid muscles? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 23) What lymph nodes running along the internal jugular vein would be enlarged with an infection to the face, scalp, tongue, mouth, tonsils, or pharynx? a) Deep cervical b) Retropharyngeal c) Submandibular d) Tracheal e) Parotid Gross Anatomy #51 – Root 1) All of the following are borders of the root of the neck EXCEPT: a) 1st ribs b) 1st costal cartilages

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c) Body of C7 d) Manubrium e) Sternum 2) Which of the following muscles is the most superficial? a) Longus capitus b) Longus colli c) Rectus capitus anterior d) Rectus capitus lateralis e) Splenius capitis 3) Which of the following muscles can rotate the vertebra to the same side with its superior fibers and the opposite side with its inferior fibers? a) Rotatores b) Rectus capitus lateralis c) Rectus capitus anterior d) Longus colli e) Longus capitus 4) What veins do the inferior thyroid veins drain into? a) Brachiocephalic b) Subclavian c) Axillary d) Internal jugular e) External jugular 5) Which of the following is NOT true regarding a subclavian venipuncture? a) The suprapleural fascia is very close to the puncture site b) Subclavian arteriopuncture is not a direct risk c) The vein runs over the first rib d) The vein runs under the clavicle e) The insertion site is just below the clavical 6) The three parts of the subclavian artery are named based on their anatomical relation to what muscle? a) Sternocleidomastoid b) Anterior scalene c) Middle scalene d) Posterior scalene e) Levator scapulae 7) The internal thoracic artery and thyrocervical trunk are branches off of the: a) Aorta b) First part of subclavian artery c) Second part of subclavian artery d) Third part of subclavian artery e) Axillary artery 8) What artery runs backwards behind the anterior scalene over the dome of the pleura? a) Descending scapular artery b) Vertebral artery c) Costocervical trunk d) Deep cervical artery

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e) Suprascapular artery 9) Preglanglionic sympathetic fibers destined for viscera in the head arise from: a) C1-C4 b) C4-C7 c) T1-T4 d) T4-T7 e) T1-L2 10) All sympathetic fibers going to the head are ____ and synapse in the ____. a) Postganglionic; Cervical sympathetic chain b) Postganglionic; IML c) Preganglionic; Cervical sympathetic chain d) Preganglionic; IML 11) Which of the following cervical sympathetic chain levels is NOT correct? a) Superior cervical C1-C4 b) Middle cervical C4 c) Inferior cervical C7-C8 d) Stellate C8-T1 12) The small deep petrosal nerve (caroticotympanic) has sympathetic nerve branches coming from around what vessel? a) Common carotid artery b) Internal carotid artery c) External carotid artery d) Internal jugular vein e) External jugular vein 13) The pterygopalatine ganglion (PPG) is an autonomic motor ganglia associated with what cranial nerve? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 14) A pancoast tumor could interrupt the thoracic chain at the inlet, leading to Horner’s syndrome. All of the following are signs of a disruptions of the cervical sympathetic trunk EXCEPT: a) Constricted pupil (miosis) b) Drooping eyelid (ptosis) c) Increased vagus nerve activity d) Red/flushed face e) No sweating of the face (anhydrosis) Gross Anatomy #52 & 53 – Skull & Cranial Vault 1) Which of the following bones can be seen in an anterior, inferior, and lateral view of the skull? a) Frontal b) Occipital c) Sphenoid

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d) Nasal e) Vomer 2) What is the name of the craniometric point formed by the left and right parietal bones with the occipital bone? a) Pterion b) Nasation c) Glabella d) Bregma e) Lambda 3) What is the name of the suture formed by the parietal bone and temporal bone? a) Coronal b) Lambdoidal c) Saggital d) Squamosal 4) A patient arrives in the Emergency Department with trauma to the lateral side of their head near the temple. The physician determines that the pterion has been damaged and bleeding is taking place inside of the head. What artery is the most likely to have been damaged in this area? a) Superficial temporal artery b) Middle meningeal artery c) Inferior alveolar artery d) Anterior deep temporal artery e) Posterior deep temporal artery 5) Which part of the sphenoid bone can be seen in an anterior view of the skull through the orbit? a) Greater wing b) Lesser wing c) Body d) Sphenoidal conchae e) Vaginal process 6) How many bones articulate to form the orbit? a) 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7 e) 8 7) Which of the following foramen does NOT contain an artery, vein, and nerve with the same name? a) Mental foramen b) Infraorbital foramen c) Mandibular foramen d) Zygomaticotemporal foramen e) Posterior ethmoidal foramen 8) Which of the following contains the second branch of the trigeminal nerve? a) Optical canal b) Supraorbital foramen

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c) Superior orbital fissure d) Infraorbital foramen e) Inferior orbital fissure 9) What view of the skull is necessary for seeing the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone? a) Superior b) Inferior c) Lateral d) Anterior e) Posterior 10) A patient presents with a superficial laceration that starts at the apex of the skull and travels two inches along a line to the external occipital protuberance. The bleeding is constant and dark blue in color. Which of the following vessels was most likely damaged? a) Occipital vein b) Occipital artery c) Parietal vein d) Parietal artery e) Lambdoidal vein 11) Which of the following sits directly in the hypophyseal fossa on the sella turcica (“Turkish saddle”)? a) Pons b) Medulla c) Hypothalamus d) Substantia nigra e) Pituitary gland 12) Which of the following could be seen the best in multiple views due to its radiodensity? a) Foramen magnum b) Cribriform plate c) Nasal bone d) Crista gali e) Petrose bone 13) Which of the following foramen can NOT be seen from an inferior view? a) Rotundum b) Ovale c) Spinosum d) Magnum e) Lacerum 14) What lies in the channel between the meningeal and periosteal dura? a) Arterial blood b) Venous blood c) Lymph d) Cerebral spinal fluid e) Nervous tissue 15) The arachnoid granulations allow for some drainage of: a) Arterial blood

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b) Venous blood c) Lymph d) Cerebral spinal fluid e) Nervous tissue 16) Where does the falx cerebri attach anteriorly? a) Crista galli b) Sella turcica c) Lesser wing of sphenoid d) Greater wing of sphenoid e) Diploe 17) The dural venous sinus, between the two dural layers, drains all of the following EXCEPT: a) Diploe b) Vertebral column c) Face, orbit, nasal cavity d) Meninges e) Internal jugular vein 18) Most of the arachnoid granulations are located in the: a) Tentorium cerebelli b) Superior sagittal sinus c) Sigmoid sinus d) Intercavernous sinus e) Basilar plexus 19) Which of the following is located at the posterior inferior border of the falx cerebri? a) Internal jugular vein b) Sphenoparietal sinus c) Confluens of sinuses d) Superior petrosal sinus e) Inferior petrosal sinus 20) A patient presents with an infection that has traveled from his scalp into the dura. What veins have communications that allow for this to happen? a) Cerebral veins b) Meningeal veins c) Diploe veins d) Emissary veins e) Parietal veins 21) A patient presents with a traumatic head injury after a motor vehicle crash. The attending physician is concerned about swelling and mentions the sharp tentorial notch within the brain. What structure is at risk from being severed by this notch as the brain swells? a) Circle of Willis b) Brain stem c) Facial nerve d) Trigeminal nerve e) Optic nerve

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22) All of the following are within the cavernous sinus. Which of the following is NOT in the outer wall of the cavernous sinus? a) CN III b) CN IV c) CN V1 d) CN V2 e) CN VI 23) Thrombophlebitis of a facial vein within the “Danger Triangle of the Face” can travel intracranially via the ____ to the cavernous sinus. This could lead to thrombophlebitis of the cavernous sinus which is fatal in more than 1/3 of cases. a) Superior ophthalmic vein b) Superior ophthalmic artery c) Anterior ethmoidal vein d) Anterior ethmoidal artery e) Nasolacrimal vein 24) All of the supratentorial dura is supplied by: a) Anterior meningeal arteries b) Middle meningeal arteries c) Accessory meningeal arteries d) Posterior meningeal arteries 25) Because of the shape of the dura, ____ hematomas are crescent-shaped, usually venous, and have a center of radius on the ____ side of the skull. a) Epidural; Contralateral b) Epidural; Ipsilateral c) Subdural; Contralateral d) Subdural; Ipsilateral 26) An infant presents in the Emergency Department with a babysitter who says the child “isn’t crying or moving much anymore.” The child appears very listless and doesn’t track objects well. Radiographic imaging shows a subdural hemotoma, which can occur with shaken baby syndrome. What vessels were likely damaged to cause this problem? a) Middle meningeal arteries b) Middle meningeal veins c) Cerebral arteries d) Cerebral veins e) Emissary veins 27) A patient presents in the Emergency Department (ED) with a headache. Records show they were in the day before and received a spinal tap. Notation on the patient care report does not show explanation of what to expect after they left the ED last night. You explain to the patient that headaches can be expected and to get into the ____ position to help relieve the pain. a) Fowler position (sitting at 45 angle, semi-upright) b) Trendelenburg position (lying with feet up) c) Left lateral recumbent (recovery position) d) Right lateral recumbent e) Prone

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Gross Anatomy #54 & 55 – Scalp & Face/Parotid 1) What layer of the scalp is considered the “danger layer” as infection can spread easily? a) Skin b) Connective tissue c) Aponeurosis d) Loose connective tissue e) Pericranium 2) Scalp lacerations can bleed profusely due to abundant anastomoses. Arteries that are lacerated are held open, and thus bleed from both ends, by what layer of the scalp? a) Skin b) Connective tissue c) Aponeurosis d) Loose connective tissue e) Pericranium 3) The supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries come off of the: a) Superficial temporal artery b) Posterior auricular artery c) Opthalmic artery d) Occipital artery e) External carotid artery 4) Which of the following nerves is NOT a branch of the trigeminal nerve? a) Supratrochlear b) Supraorbital c) Zygomaticotemporal d) Auriculotemporal e) Lesser occipital 5) Which of the following veins drains to the deep cervical and deep vertebral veins? a) Occipital b) Posterior auricular c) Superficial temporal d) Supraorbital e) Supratrochlear 6) The veins that drain into the superior ophthalmic vein then drain into the: a) External jugular vein b) Internal jugular vein c) Cavernous sinus d) Subclavian vein e) Vertebral vein 7) Which of the following facial sensory nerves comes from C2-3 of the cervical plexus? a) Great auricular b) Mental c) Buccal d) Infraorbital e) Supratrochlear 8) The trigeminal ganglion houses ____ of pseudounipolar ____ neurons. a) Cell bodies; motor

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b) Cell bodies; sensory c) Nerve fibers; motor d) Nerve fibers; sensory 9) A patient presents with stabbing, “lightning bold-like pain” in their face when applying powdered makeup. After several tests, the clinician suspects the middle meningeal artery is constricting the sensory root of a nerve. What nerve could this be? a) C2 b) C2-C3 c) C3-C4 d) Trigeminal e) Facial 10) Which of the following arteries covers the area over the nasolacrimal duct heading toward the eye? a) Superior labial artery b) Inferior labial artery c) Lateral nasal artery d) Transverse facial artery e) Angular facial artery 11) Which of the following is supplied by the internal (NOT external) carotid artery? a) Forehead b) Temple c) Cheeks d) Upper lip e) Chin 12) Which of the following veins drains into the common facial vein? a) Occipital b) Posterior retromandibular c) Anterior retromandibular d) Posterior auricular e) Superior opthalmic 13) A patient presents with impingement of the lesser petrosal nerve after the nerve has exited foramen ovale and before it has reached the otic ganglion. Which of the following is the most likely clinical presentation? a) Increased salivation b) Reduced salivation c) Increased lacrimation d) Decreased lacrimation e) Denervation of the platisma muscle 14) Since the ____ artery branches from the internal carotid artery near the cavernous sinus, a cavernous sinus thrombus or thrombophlebitis could cause enlarged arteriole vessels in the ____. a) Posterior communicating; cerebral arterial circle (of Willis) b) Anterior cerebral; cerebral arterial circle (of Willis) c) Ascending pharyngeal; throat d) Opthalmic; eyes e) Lingual; tongue

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15) How many (paired) lymph nodes are there in the scalp? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 e) 0 16) Most of the motor innervation to the face (muscles of facial expression) arises from branchial arch: a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 6 17) Which of the following muscles raises the eyebrows, as seen in disbelief or surprise? a) Epicranius (occipitofrontalis) b) Obicularis oris c) Procerus d) Zygomaticus major e) Nasalis 18) Which of the following muscles puckers the lips, as in making a kissing face? a) Epicranius (occipitofrontalis) b) Obicularis oris c) Procerus d) Zygomaticus major e) Nasalis 19) This variable muscle draws the corner of the mouth laterally when grinning, such as during a weak or incencere smile that does not involve the skin around the eyes. a) Mentalis b) Frontalis c) Risorius d) Procerus e) Nasalis 20) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the facial nerve? a) Temporal b) Zygomatic c) Lingual d) Mandibular e) Cervical 21) At what point does the facial nerve bifurcate into its two major branches? a) Temporal region b) Superior to the parotid gland c) In the parotid gland d) Anterior to the parotid gland e) Buccal region 22) What component of the facial nerve is motor to the muscles of facial expression? a) SVA

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b) GVE c) SVE d) GSA e) GVA 23) Which of the following would NOT occur with a CN VII lesion (Bell Palsy)? a) Eyelid droop and inability to close eyelid b) Atrophy of facial expression muscles c) Food falls out of mouth due to orbicularis oris muscle d) Chewing is inefficient due to buccinator muscle e) Sounds may appear quieter due to stapedius muscle 24) Which of the following is the largest structure running transversely across the face? a) Transverse facial artery b) Transverse facial vein c) Facial artery d) Facial vein e) Parotid duct 25) Which of the following is the least likely to be damaged during a paratoidectomy? a) Facial artery and vein b) Transverse facial artery and vein c) CN VII d) Retromandibular vein e) External carotid artery 26) Parasympathetic innervation (GVE-P) to the parotid gland comes from: a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII Gross Anatomy #56 – Muscles of Mastication & Infratemporal Fossa 1) Which of the following is NOT a motion of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)? a) Torsion b) Gliding (side to side) c) Protrusion d) Retraction e) Hinge (elevation and depression) 2) What ligament covers the loose TMJ capsule laterally? a) Temporomandibular b) Stylomandibular c) Sphenomandibular 3) What TMJ ligament attaches from the base of the skull to the lingual of the mandible? a) Temporomandibular b) Stylomandibular c) Sphenomandibular 4) When you put your teeth together and clench your jaw, what muscle can be felt protruding on the sides of your cheeks?

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a) Temporalis b) Lateral pterygoid c) Medial pterygoid d) Masseter e) Buccinator 5) The deep arteries that supply the temporalis muscle are branches from what artery? a) Facial b) Maxillary c) Temporal d) Lingual e) Mandibular 6) What muscle is involved in protrusion of the mandible as well as side-to-side motion? a) Temporalis b) Pterygoids c) Stylomandibular d) Masseter e) Buccinator 7) All of the following are involved in depression of the mandible EXCEPT: a) Gravity b) Digastric muscle c) Geniohyoid muscle d) Mylohyoid muscle e) Lateral and medial pterygoid muscles 8) All of the following are at the roof of the infratemporal fossa EXCEPT: a) Petrotympanic fissure b) Greater wing of the sphenoid c) Foramen rotundum d) Foramen ovale e) Foramen spinosum 9) The infratemporal fossa contains all of the following EXCEPT: a) Chorda tympani (CN VII) b) Mandibular nerve (V3) c) Mandibular artery and its branches d) Pterygoid venous plexus e) Lesser petrosal nerve (CN IX) 10) The lower head of the lateral pterygoid muscle is ____ to the deep head of the medial pterygoid muscle and ____ to the superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle. a) Deep; Deep b) Deep; Superficial c) Superficial; Superficial d) Superficial; Deep 11) All of the following are branches off the first part of the maxillary artery EXCEPT: a) Buccal artery b) Middle meningeal artery c) Inferior alveolar artery d) Deep auricular artery

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e) Anterior tympanic artery 12) All of the following are branches off the third part of the maxillary artery EXCEPT: a) Pharyngeal artery b) Masseteric artery c) Descending palantine artery d) Posterior superior alveolar arteries e) Sphenopalatine artery 13) Which of the following veins originates in the pterygoid venous plexus? a) Supraorbital vein b) Angular vein c) Retromandibular vein d) Superifical temporal vein e) Deep facial vein 14) The recurrent meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve re-enters the cranial cavity through what foramen? a) Foramen magnum b) Foramen rotundum c) Foramen ovale d) Foramen spinosum e) Foramen lacerum 15) All of the following mandibular nerve branches are primarily motor EXCEPT: a) Deep temporal b) Lateral pterygoid c) Buccal d) Masseteric 16) Which of the following branches of the mandibular nerve (V3) often pierces the tendon of the temporalis muscle? a) Recurrent meningeal branch b) Medical pterygoid nerve c) Masseteric nerve d) Lateral pterygoid nerve e) Buccal nerve 17) What branch of the mandibular nerve (V3) is sensory for the lower teeth? a) Inferior alveolar nerve b) Lingual nerve c) Auriculotemporal nerve d) Buccal nerve e) Masseteric nerve 18) The chorda tympani nerve always merges with what other nerve? a) Incisive b) Mental c) Inferior alveolar d) Lingual e) Nerve to mylohyoid 19) The chorda tympani nerve innervates the sublingual glands, the submandibular glands, and carries taste from what part of the tongue?

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a) Anterior 1/3 b) Anterior 2/3 c) Posterior 1/3 d) Posterior 2/3 e) Entire tongue Gross Anatomy #57 – Pharynx 1) What structure marks the beginning of the laryngopharynx? a) Torus tubarius b) Palatine tonsil c) Palatopharyngeal arch d) Epiglottis e) Laryngeal inlet 2) What structure marks the opening to the auditory tube? a) Torus tubarius b) Salpingopharyngeal fold c) Salpingopalantine fold d) Adenoids (pharyngeal tonsils) e) Tubule tonsils 3) The oropharynx is bounded posteriorly by the bodies of what vertebra? a) C1 b) C2-C3 c) C4-C5 d) C6 e) C7 4) The palatopharyngeal muscle and palatoglossus muscle are innervated by: a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII 5) Damage to what nerve would result in sagging of the palatine arch and the uvula to point to the ipsilesional side? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Glossopharyngeal d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 6) A teenage patient presents with middle ear pain and extensive palatine tonsil swelling. What nerve is referring pain from the adenoids to the middle ear? a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII

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7) A patient is having their palatine tonsils surgically removed. During the procedure the patient begins to bleed profusely. The bleeding is rhythmic and bright red in color. What vessel should the surgeon put pressure on to slow the bleeding? a) Facial vein b) Facial artery c) Maxillary vein d) Maxillary artery e) Tonsillar vein 8) Waldeyer’s ring is a ring of ____ in the area of the ____. a) Lymphatic tissue; Vertebral column (C1-C4) b) Arteries; Oropharynx and laryngopharynx c) Lymphatic tissue; Oropharynx and laryngopharynx d) Arteries; Nasopharynx and oropharynx e) Lymphatic tissue; Nasopharynx and oropharynx 9) During endotracheal intubation, an anesthesiologist uses a MacIntosh (curved) blade on a laryngoscope to hold open and visualize the airway. The tip of the blade should extend into the recess anterior to the laryngeal opening. What is this recess called? a) Median glossoepiglotic fold b) Lateral glossoepiglotic fold c) Piriform recess d) Epiglottis e) Valleculae 10) A patient presents with severe pain in their neck. They say they were eating fish from a recent fishing trip and felt as if a piece of bone got stuck on the way down. They are able to breath, but with pain. The patient tries to drink fluid, but cannot keep it down and starts to cough violently. Which of the following is the most likely obstructed area? a) Median glossoepiglotic fold b) Lateral glossoepiglotic fold c) Piriform recess d) Valleculae e) Inside the trachea 11) The stylopharyngeus, stylohyoid ligament, and CN XI connect at the larynx: a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the trachea e) Inferior to the trachea 12) The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve and the superior laryngeal artery traverse the larynx: a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the trachea e) Inferior to the trachea 13) The recurrent laryngeal nerve and inferior laryngeal artery traverse the larynx: a) Superior to the superior constrictor muscle

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b) Between the superior and middle constrictor muscles c) Between the middle and inferior constrictor muscles d) Between the inferior constrictor muscle and the trachea e) Inferior to the trachea 14) All of the following arteries supply the pharynx EXCEPT: a) Inferior thyroid b) Ascending pharyngeal c) Superior thyroid d) Facial e) Maxillary 15) Poking the back of the oropharynx initiates the gag reflex. Sensory for this reflex is: a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII 16) The cough reflex is a vital part of the body’s defense mechanism with the function being to dislodge foreign objects. Some cough lozenges incorporate a mild anesthetic to help reduce sensory innervation of what nerve: a) CN V b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII Gross Anatomy #58 – Larynx 1) Which of the following cartilages is the most prominent (“Adam’s Apple”)? a) Thyroid b) Cricoid c) Arytenoid d) Cuneiform e) Corniculate 2) In subglottic stenosis, there is a congenital narrowing of the entire ring of cartilage associated with the disorder. What cartilage does this affect? a) Thyroid b) Cricoid c) Arytenoid d) Cuneiform e) Corniculate 3) What nerve pierces the thyrohyoid membrane? a) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve d) Inferior laryngeal nerve e) Hypoglossal nerve 4) What structure ends inferiorly as the vestibular ligament?

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a) Conus elasticus b) Superior cricothyroid ligament c) Inferior cricothyroid ligament d) Aryepiglottic fold e) Quadrangular membrane 5) What holds the epiglottis to the tongue? a) Vocal ligament b) Quadrangular membrane c) Median glossoepiglotic fold d) Rima vestibuli e) Rima glottis 6) A laryngocele is a mucus-filled cysts that can arise from pathological blockage of the larynx ventricle. Infection in this area can ascend the larynx and enter the surrounding fascial space. Once in this space, how far can the infection descend inferiorly? a) Sternum b) Vertebral level C6 c) Diaphragm d) Superior mediastinum e) It cannot descend 7) What nerve innervates the infraglottic laryngeal mucosa? a) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve d) Inferior laryngeal nerve e) Hypoglossal nerve 8) Where does lymph drainage from the supraglottic laryngeal mucosa go? a) Upper deep cervical nodes b) Lower deep cervical nodes c) Upper superficial cervical nodes d) Lower superficial cervical nodes e) Facial nodes 9) What nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle? a) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve b) Internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve c) Recurrent laryngeal nerve d) Inferior laryngeal nerve e) Hypoglossal nerve 10) Contraction of which of the following muscles would give your voice a high pitch? a) Transverse arytenoid b) Oblique arytenoid c) Cricoarytenoid d) Cricothyroid e) Thyroarytenoid 11) The lateral arytenoids close the rima glottis when they contract. a) True b) False

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Gross Anatomy #59 & 60 – Palate and Sphenopalatine fossa 1) Which of the following is situated in the saggital plane? a) Palatine rugae b) Incisive papilla c) Palatine raphe d) Incisors e) Molars 2) Which of the following is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve of the mandibular nerve (V3)? a) Tensor veli palitini b) Levator veli palatini c) Musculus uvulae d) Palatopharyngeus e) Palatoglossus 3) What muscle originates at the posterior nasal spine of the hard palate? a) Tensor veli palitini b) Levator veli palatini c) Palatopharyngeus d) Musculus uvulae e) Palatoglossus 4) While testing the vagus nerve, a patient is asked to say “Ah”. It is noted that the patient’s palate deviates toward the right side, suggesting a left side lesion. What muscle on the left side is not functioning properly? a) Tensor veli palitini b) Levator veli palatini c) Musculus uvulae d) Palatopharyngeus e) Palatoglossus 5) What two muscles narrow the isthmus faucium and depress the soft palate? a) Palatopharyngeus and Tensor veli palitini b) Palatoglossus and Tensor veli palitini c) Palatopharyngeus and Levator veli palatini d) Palatoglossus and Levator veli palatini e) Palatopharyngeus and Palatoglossus 6) Which of the following muscles opens the pharyngotympanic tube (yawning and swallowing)? a) Palatoglossus b) Palatopharyngeus c) Musculus uvulae d) Tensor veli palitini e) Levator veli palatini 7) What nerve innervates the gingiva anterior to the first premolar? a) Nasopalatine nerve b) Greater palatine nerve c) Lesser palatine nerve

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d) Glossopharyngeal nerve e) Hypoglossal nerve 8) What nerve innervates the glands of the posterior 2/3s of the hard palate? a) Nasopalatine nerve b) Greater palatine nerve c) Lesser palatine nerve d) Glossopharyngeal nerve e) Hypoglossal nerve 9) What type of fibers are carried by the petrosal nerves? a) Preganglionic sympathetics b) Postganglionic sympathetics c) Preganglionic parasympathetics d) Postganglionic parasympathetics 10) What artery gives a branch to the incisive canal for the nasal cavity? a) Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery b) Lesser palatine branch of the descending palatine artery c) Palatine branch of the ascending palatine artery d) Ascending palatine artery branches e) Ascending pharyngeal artery 11) What artery loops over the top of the superior constrictor muscle? a) Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery b) Lesser palatine branch of the descending palatine artery c) Palatine branch of the ascending palatine artery d) Ascending palatine artery branches e) Ascending pharyngeal artery 12) What makes up the medial wall of the spenopalatine fossa ? a) Maxilla bone b) Sphenoid bone c) Palatine bone d) Infratemporal fossa e) Molars 13) Which of the following is situated before the entrance to the nasal cavity? a) Sphenopaltine fossa b) Infratemporal fossa c) Sphenopaltine foramen d) Pterygomaxillary fissure e) Mandibular foramen 14) Which of the following is NOT contained within the sphenopalatine fossa? a) Maxillary nerve b) Sympathetic fibers from T1 c) Pterygoid nerve branches d) Parasympathetic fibers form trigeminal nerve e) Pterygoid venous plexus branches 15) Which of the following communicates with the nasopharynx? a) Foramen rotundum b) Pterygoid canal

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c) Palatovaginal canal d) Palatine canal e) Pterygomaxillary fissure 16) Which of the following communicates with the nasal cavity? a) Foramen rotundum b) Inferior orbital fissure c) Palatine canal d) Sphenopalatine foramen e) Pterygomaxillary fissure 17) Which of the following communicates with the infratemporal fossa? a) Foramen rotundum b) Inferior orbital fissure c) Palatine canal d) Sphenopalatine foramen e) Pterygomaxillary fissure 18) Which of the following communicate with the middle cranial fossa? a) Foramen rotundum and pterygoid canal b) Pterygoid canal and palatovaginal canal c) Palatovaginal canal and sphenopalatine foramen d) Sphenopalatine foramen and Palatine canal e) Palatine canal and pterygomaxillary fissure 19) Maxillary nerve (V2) fibers in the sphenopalatine fossa are: a) Preganglionic sympathetics b) Postganglionic sympathetics c) Preganglionic parasympathetics d) Postganglionic parasympathetics 20) Maxillary nerve (V2) fibers in the sphenopalatine fossa going to salivary glands of the nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, and lacrimal glands are: a) Preganglionic sympathetics b) Postganglionic sympathetics c) Preganglionic parasympathetics d) Postganglionic parasympathetics 21) What branch of the maxillary nerve (V2) supplies the mucosa after entering the nasopharynx? a) Nasal nerve b) Pharyngeal nerve c) Zygomatic nerve d) Infraorbital nerve e) Posterior superior alveolar nerve 22) What branch of the maxillary nerve (V2) supplies the posterior upper teeth? a) Nasal nerve b) Pharyngeal nerve c) Zygomatic nerve d) Infraorbital nerve e) Posterior superior alveolar nerve

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23) A patient presents with extremely dry eyes. They have been using eye drops constantly over the past day. Upon examination, the clinician believes damage has occurred in the pterygoid canal and is concerned as the patient could eventually lose their vision. What type of fibers are the most likely affected? a) Preganglionic sympathetic b) Postganglionic sympathetic c) Preganglionic parasympathetic d) Postganglionic parasympathetic 24) The deep petrosal nerve fibers are: a) Preganglionic sympathetic b) Postganglionic sympathetic c) Preganglionic parasympathetic d) Postganglionic parasympathetic 25) What artery supplies the upper teeth through its branches? a) Posterior superior alveolar artery b) Infraorbital artery c) Descending palatine artery d) Sphenopalatine artery e) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery 26) What artery anastomoses with the terminal branch of the greater palatine artery? a) Posterior superior alveolar artery b) Infraorbital artery c) Descending palatine artery d) Sphenopalatine artery e) Artery of the pterygoid canal 27) What artery supplies the posterior part of the nasal cavity? a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery b) Artery of the pterygoid canal c) Descending palatine artery d) Sphenopalatine artery e) Posterior superior alveolar artery 28) What artery supplies the medial and lateral walls of the nasal cavity? a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery b) Posterior superior alveolar artery c) Artery of the pterygoid canal d) Descending palatine artery e) Sphenopalatine artery 29) What artery, along with the greater petrosal nerve, pierces the cartilage of the foramen lacerum? a) Pharyngeal branch of the maxillary artery b) Posterior superior alveolar artery c) Artery of the pterygoid canal d) Descending palatine artery e) Sphenopalatine artery 30) What structure do the veins of the sphenopalatine fossa associate with before entering the pterygoid plexus?

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a) Infratemporal fossa b) Orbits of the eye c) Pterygomaxillary fissure d) Nasal cavity e) Hard palate Gross Anatomy #61 – Oral & Nasal 1) What nerve innervates the cheek (mucosa) within the oral cavity? a) Posterior superior alveolar nerve b) Zygomaticofacial nerve c) Anterior superior alveolar nerve d) Buccal nerve e) Middle superior alveolar nerve 2) The fungiform papillae are mainly found in what part of the tongue? a) Anterior 1/3 b) Middle 1/3 c) Posterior 1/3 d) Root e) Underside 3) What nerve senses heat and pain for the anterior 2/3s of the tongue? a) Chorda tympani b) Lingual c) CN IX d) CN X e) CN XII 4) What nerve is involved in sticking out the tongue? a) Hypoglossus b) Genioglossus c) Styloglossus d) Geniohyoid e) Mylohyoid 5) After surgery involving dissection of the internal carotid artery, a patient is seen by a neurologist. The patient is instructed to stick out their tongue and it is noted to deviate to the left side. It is most likely that the ____ is injured on the ____ side. a) Hypoglossal; Right b) Hypoglossal; Left c) Glossopharyngeal; Right d) Glossopharyngeal; Left 6) A stroke patient is being seen by a neurologist the day after treatment. The patient is instructed to stick out their tongue and it is noted to deviate to the left side. It is most likely that the ____ is injured on the ____ side. a) Hypoglossal; Right b) Hypoglossal; Left c) Glossopharyngeal; Right d) Glossopharyngeal; Left 7) Which of the following muscles is innervated by C1 via the hypoglossal nerve?

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a) Hypoglossus b) Genioglossus c) Styloglossus d) Geniohyoid e) Mylohyoid 8) What artery supplies the tip of the tongue and anastmoses the left and right sides? a) Superior alveolar artery b) Inferior alveolar artery c) Sublingual artery d) Dorsal lingual artery e) Deep lingual artery 9) Sublingual drug administration is a good option for drugs with a displeasing taste, such as nitroglycerine. It is also a good option for drugs with a high first-pass metabolism. The idea is that drugs can bypass what metabolic organ? a) Spleen b) Kidneys c) Liver d) Gallbladder e) Pancreas 10) Where does lymph from the tip of the tongue initially drain? a) Superior deep cervical nodes b) Inferior deep cervical nodes c) Submental nodes d) Buccal nodes e) Parotid nodes 11) Where does lymph from the posterior 1/3 of the tongue drain? a) Superior deep cervical nodes b) Inferior deep cervical nodes c) Submental nodes d) Buccal nodes e) Parotid nodes 12) What makes up the floor (deep) of both the submandibular and submental triangles? a) Anterior belly of the digastric muscle b) Posterior belly of the digastric muscle c) Inferior margin of the mandible d) Cervical (investing) fascia e) Mylohyoid muscle 13) Which of the following is NOT contained in the paralingual space? a) Lingual nerve b) Stylohyoid muscle c) Submandibular duct d) Sublingual gland e) Hypoglossal nerve 14) What structure crosses the submandibular duct twice? a) Mylohyoid muscle b) Omyhyoid muscle

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c) Lingual nerve d) Facial artery e) Inferior alveolar nerve 15) Which branch of the facial artery to the sublingual gland ascends between the styloglossus muscle and the stylopharyngeus muscle (also arches over superior constrictor muscle)? a) Ascending palatine b) Tonsillar c) Submental d) Glandular 16) Secretions of the submandibular gland are decreased by ____, which are associated with the ____ ganglion. a) Sympathetics; Submandibular b) Parasympathetics; Submandibular c) Sympathetics; Superior cervical d) Parasympathetics; Superior cervical 17) What cartilage forms the tip of the nose? a) Lateral cartilage b) Greater alar cartilage c) Lesser alar cartilage d) Quadrangular cartilage e) Vomernasal cartilage 18) What three components make up the nasal septum? a) Ethmoid bone, internal part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular plate of the vomer bone b) Ethmoid bone, external part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular plate of the vomer bone c) Vomer bone, internal part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone d) Vomer bone, external part of the cartilaginous nasal septum, perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone e) Choanae, hard palate, paranasal sinuses 19) The superior and middle nasal conchae are part of which bone? a) Vomer bone b) Maxillary bone c) Frontal bone d) Zygomatic bone e) Ethmoid bone 20) Which of the following does NOT open into the semilunar hiatus? a) Frontal sinus b) Ethmoidal cells c) Maxillary sinus d) Sphenoid sinus 21) A patient is undergoing an operation on their pituitary gland. To access the gland, the surgeon will enter through the nose, break through a sinus, and break through the sella tursica. What sinus is being pierced prior to the sella tursica?

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a) Orbital sinus b) Ethmoid air cells c) Maxillary sinus d) Sphenoid sinus e) Frontal sinus 22) A physician numbs the back of a patient’s throat for a posterior rhinoscopy. Which of the following structures is least likely to be seen during the procedure from the posterior view? a) Nares b) Nasal conchae (inferior, middle, superior) c) Pharyngeal tonsils d) Tensor veli palatini e) Levator veli palatini 23) Which of the following is NOT part of the Kiesselbach plexus (arterial plexus on the nasal septum)? a) Greater palatine artery b) Lesser palatine artery c) Anterior ethmoidal artery d) Superior labial artery e) Sphenopalatine artery 24) Blood from the internal nose area closest to the nares would drain to the: a) Cavernous sinus b) Pterygoid plexus c) Facial vein d) Lesser palatine vein e) Infratemporal fossa 25) A patient presents with a nosebleed where blood flows down into their throat. Which of the following is the most likely artery involved? a) Greater palatine artery b) Lesser palatine artery c) Anterior ethmoidal artery d) Superior labial artery e) Sphenopalatine artery 26) What GVE-P nerve branch provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to the nasal mucosal glands? a) Chorda tympani b) Lesser petrosal c) Greater petrosal d) Vagus e) Oculomotor 27) Lymph from the posterior nasal cavity would initially travel to what area? a) Facial nodes b) Submandibular nodes c) Submucosal plexus d) Jugulodigastric nodes e) Superior deep cervical nodes

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Gross Anatomy #62 & 63 – Orbit & Eye 1) A young boy is playing “monster” by flipping his eyelids upward and chasing after his sister. What structure is being locked upon itself to keep the boys eyelids inverted? a) Tendon of levator palpebrae superioris muscle b) Orbital septum c) Superior conjunctival fornix d) Conjunctiva e) Tarsal plate 2) Horner syndrome leads to ptosis due to sympathetic nervous disruption. Lesion to what cranial nerve would lead to an even more severe ptosis? a) Optic b) Oculomotor c) Trochlear d) Abducens e) Facial 3) Which of the following is associated with tarsal (meibomian) gland blockage? a) Stye b) Hordeolum c) Chalazion d) Blepharitis e) Conjunctivitis 4) Parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland is accomplished by the ____ nerve, which hitches a ride on the trigeminal nerve on its way to the gland. a) Optic b) Oculomotor c) Facial d) Vagus e) Hypoglossal 5) What edge of the orbit contains the puncta and canaliculi? a) Superior b) Inferior c) Lateral d) Medial 6) What structure is a thickening of fascia that supports the underside of the eye? a) Suspensory ligament b) Lateral check ligament c) Medial check ligament d) Tenon’s capsule e) Tendon of levator palpebrae superioris 7) Which of the following best describes the location of the superior rectus muscle on the common tendinous ring (annulus) of the eye? a) Between superior rectus and levator palpebae superiors b) Between superior rectus and medial rectus c) Between superior rectus and lateral rectus d) Between inferior rectus and medial rectus

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e) Between inferior rectus and lateral rectus 8) The main motion of the inferior oblique muscle is: a) Intorsion b) Extorsion c) Abduction d) Adduction e) Elevation 9) The superior rectus muscle moves the eye in which two directions? a) Superior and medial b) Superior and lateral c) Inferior and medial d) Inferior and lateral e) Anterior and posterior 10) To test the medial rectus muscle, the physician should ask the patient to look in what direction? a) Superior b) Inferior c) Lateral d) Medial 11) To test the inferior rectus muscle, the physician should ask the patient to look in what directions? a) Look medial then lateral b) Look in then up (elevation & abduction) c) Look in then down (depression & abduction) d) Look out then up (intersion & adduction) e) Look out then down (extorsion & adduction) 12) To test the superior oblique muscle, the physician should ask the patient to look in what directions? a) Look medial then lateral b) Look in then up (elevation & abduction) c) Look in then down (depression & abduction) d) Look out then up (intersion & adduction) e) Look out then down (extorsion & adduction) 13) A patient presents with complains of diplopia (double vision). They have their head tilted toward the left side because “it helps them see straight.” When the head is level, the right eye appears slightly higher than the left eye. What do you suspect the problem is? a) CN III right side b) CN IV left side c) CN IV right side d) CN VI left side e) CN IV right side 14) A patient presents with their right eye deviated medially when looking forward. You ask the patient to gaze to their right. The left eye gazes to the nose and the right eye gazes to midline. What do you suspect the problem is? a) CN III right side b) CN IV left side

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c) CN IV right side d) CN VI left side e) CN IV right side 15) A patient presents with right-sided ptosis secondary to a cavernous sinus infection. Upon lifting their eyelid, you notice the right eye is deviated laterally and dilated. What do you suspect the problem is? a) CN III right side b) CN IV left side c) CN IV right side d) CN VI left side e) CN IV right side 16) Parasympathetic fibers associated with CN III (intrinsic eye muscles) involve what ganglion? a) Ciliary b) Otic c) Ptergyopalatine d) Submandibular e) Sphenopalatine 17) The main sensory nerves within the orbit are from the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve. Which of the following is NOT a sensory nerve in the orbit? a) Nasociliary b) Frontal c) Lacrimal d) Optic e) CN III 18) A patient presents with difficulty seeing colors after a traumatic head injury. You shine a light in the patient’s right eye and neither pupil constricts. You shine a light in the left eye and both pupils constrict. What do you suspect the problem is? a) CN II right side b) CN II left side c) CN III right side d) CN III left side e) Horner syndrome 19) A patient presents after a stroke for a neurological examination. You shine a light in the patient’s right eye and the left eye constricts. You shine a light in the left eye and it constricts but the right eye does not. What do you suspect the problem is? a) CN II right side b) CN II left side c) CN III right side d) CN III left side e) Horner syndrome 20) What coat of the eye contains the sclera and cornea, where a contact lens would touch? a) Fibrous b) Vascular c) Nervous

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21) What is the likely result of blockage of the sclera venous sinus (aqueous humor drainage)? a) Cataract b) Myopia c) Nystagmus d) Glaucoma e) Papilledema 22) Creating a more disc-shaped (flattened) lens requires ____ of the zonular fibers and is used to accommodate for ____ objects. a) Tension; Near b) Tension; Distant c) Laxity; Near d) Laxity; Distant 23) Which of the following is NOT associated with improved vision? a) Macula lutea b) Fovea centralis c) Optic (nerve) disc d) Increased number of cones e) Increased number of photoreceptors 24) A patient presents with an occlusion of the central retinal vein. When looking into their eye with an opthalmoscope, you see a donut-shaped mound around the fovea centralis. What condition does this patient likely have? a) Cataract b) Myopia c) Nystagmus d) Glaucoma e) Papilledema 25) What condition involves clouding of the lens? a) Cataract b) Myopia c) Nystagmus d) Glaucoma e) Papilledema 26) Which of the following describes the accommodation reflex (near triad)? a) Accommodation of the lens, divergence of the eyes, constriction of the pupil b) Accommodation of the lens, divergence of the eyes, dilation of the pupil c) Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, constriction of the pupil d) Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, dilation of the pupil 27) A patient presents with ptosis of the right eye. Upon lifting the eyelid, you note that the eye is constricted. What do you suspect the problem is? a) CN II right side b) CN II left side c) CN III right side d) CN III left side e) Horner syndrome

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Gross Anatomy #64 – Ear 1) A college student visits a tattoo shop on their 18th birthday to get a piercing. When asked what they want pierced the student points to the small, cartilaginous pointed eminence anterior to the auditory canal. What structure is this? a) Helix b) Antihelix c) Tragus d) Concha e) Lobule 2) The extrinsic ligaments of the ear connect cartilage to what bone? a) Sphenoid b) Parietal c) Occipital d) Temporal e) Mandible 3) Some animals are able to swivel their ears toward sounds of interest. In humans, this feature is diminished and usually only seen as a feeble wiggle. What nerve is involved in moving these muscles? a) Trigeminal b) Facial c) Auditory d) Vagus e) Accessory 4) What makes up the lateral 1/3 of the external auditory meatus? a) Elastic cartilage b) Fibrous cartilage c) Hyaline cartilage d) Bone e) Ligaments 5) A child is brought to the primary care clinic by a concerned mother. Whenever the mother uses a cotton swab to clean the child’s ear, the child vomits. What nerve innervating the auditory canal is responsible for this response? a) Auriculotemporal (V3) b) CN VII c) CN IX d) Auricular branch of X e) Great auricular (C2-3) 6) What structure is associated with the middle cranial fossa and located just inferior to the tegmen tympani? a) Tympanic cavity proper b) Facial nerve canal c) Styloid d) Epitympanic recess e) Tympanic membrane 7) What bone pushes directly on the tympanic membrane (only bone you can visualize)? a) Malleus

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b) Incus c) Stapes 8) What bone is NOT crossed by the chorda tympani nerve? a) Malleus b) Incus c) Stapes 9) Originating near the area of the umbo on the tympanic membrane, the cone of light seen through an otoscope will point anteriorly and: a) Superiorly b) Inferiorly c) Laterally d) Medially 10) Most of the external surface of the tympanic membrane is innervated by ____ and the internal surface is innervated by ____. a) CN V3; CN V3 b) CN IX; CN X c) CN X; CN IX d) CN IX; CN V3 e) CN V3; CN IX 11) The pyramidal eminence is: a) The entryway to the mastoid process b) Where the stapedius muscle sits c) Where the malleus sits d) Where the incus sits e) Where the stapes sits 12) A child presents with a middle ear infection (otitis media) with inflamed auditory tube. The infection just entered the aditus ad antrum. Where can the infection progress into next? a) Jugular foramen b) Tympanic nerve foramen c) Carotid canal d) Mastoid cells e) Stylomastoid foramen 13) What wall of the middle ear is pierced by chorda tympani and has openings for the auditory tube and tensory tympani muscle? a) Anterior b) Posterior c) Lateral d) Medial 14) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the pharyngotympanic tube? a) The tube connects the tympanic cavity and the nasopharynx b) Innervation is by the tympanic plexus c) Innervation is by pharyngeal branches from the PPG d) The tube courses in an anteromedial direction e) The bony parts starts from the posterior tympanic wall and is medial to the carotid canal

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15) A SCUBA diver is descending from the surface to a shipwreck. The diver plugs their nose and blows into it to help equalize air pressure as it changes. What structure is involved in opening the pharyngotympanic tube to equalize pressure? a) Tensor tympani b) Levator veli palatini c) Tensor veli palatini d) Mastoid air cells e) Mastoid antrum 16) A fracture of which of the following leads to a rupture of the tympanic membrane? a) External meatus b) Incus c) Stapes d) Middle fossa e) Internal meatus 17) A fracture of which of the following results in bleeding from the ear and leakage of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF)? a) External meatus b) Incus c) Stapes d) Middle fossa e) Internal meatus 18) A child presents with an infection of the nasopharynx. The infection has spread to the mastoid antrum and closed behind itself due to inflammation. Which of the following is the only escape for the infection now? a) Auditory tube b) Tympanic membrane c) Jugular foramen d) Carotid canal e) Stylomastoid foramen 19) There are two synovial joints associated with the ear ossicles (incudomallealar and incudostapedial). There are also a number of ligaments that hold the ossicles in place within the middle ear. Paralysis of these ligaments and muscles of the ossicles would lead to what clinical presentation? a) Difficulty hearing high frequencies b) Difficulty hearing low frequencies c) Hyperacusis d) Hypoacusis e) Deftness 20) The handle of the ____ ossicle attaches to the ____ muscle, which is innervated by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. a) Malleus; Tensor tympani b) Incus; Tensor tympani c) Stapes; Tensor tympani d) Malleus; Tensor veli palatini e) Stapes; Tensor veli palatini

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21) The tympanic arterial branch, which supplies the middle ear, comes directly from which artery? a) Maxillary b) Posterior auricular c) Middle meningeal d) Occipital e) Internal carotid Gross Anatomy #65 – Autonomics 1) Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT have an autonomic component? a) CN III b) CN V c) CN VII d) CN IX e) CN X 2) Which of the following ganglia is not involved in parasympathetic innervation? a) Ciliary b) Otic c) Geniculate d) Pterygopalatine e) Submandibular 3) The greater petrosal nerve is associated with what cranial nerve? a) CN III b) CN V c) CN VII d) CN IX e) CN X 4) The lesser petrosal nerve is associated with what cranial nerve? a) CN III b) CN V c) CN VII d) CN IX e) CN X 5) How many sympathetic fibers synapse within ganglia in the head? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1 e) 0 6) Autonomic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion to the lacrimal gland hitch a ride with: a) CN VII b) CN IX c) V1, V2 d) V3 e) CN XII

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7) Salivary gland are innervated by: a) CN V and CN VII b) CN VII and CN IX c) CN IX and CN X d) CN V and CN IX e) CN VII and CN XII 8) Incomplete Horner syndrome (ptosis and miosis without anhidrosis) would involve a sympathetic lesion at what location? a) Superior to the superior cervical ganglion b) Between the superior and middle cervical ganglia c) Between the middle and inferior cervical ganglia d) Between the inferior cervical ganglion and the stellate ganglion e) At the level of T1-T4 Gross Anatomy #66 – CN Review 1) A 37-year-old female presents with the chief complaint of difficulty walking. History reveals that she is a heavy crack user and supports her habit through prostitution. Physical exam reveals a gait ataxia; patellar reflex is 1/4 bilaterally. Examination of the eye shows no direct or consensual response to light shined in both eyes individually. Upon convergence of the eyes, the pupils constrict. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) CN II damage b) CN III damage c) CN IV damage d) CN VI damage e) Syphilis 2) Anesthesia at the angle of the mandible involves which of the following? a) Facial nerve b) CN V1 c) CN V2 d) CN V3 e) Cervical plexus 3) A patient is asked to open their mouth and the physician taps on their chin. The jaw jerks slightly closed reflexively. Which of the following is involved as both the efferent and afferent limb of this reflex? a) Facial nerve b) CN V1 c) CN V2 d) CN V3 e) Cervical plexus 4) If the facial nerve is damaged in the temporal zone (after geniculate ganglia), which of the following would NOT occur? a) Dry mouth b) Dry eyes c) Expression diminished d) Hyperacusis

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5) If the facial nerve is damaged as it leaves the skull, which of the following would be seen? a) Dry mouth b) Dry eyes c) Expression diminished d) Hyperacusis e) Loss of sensation in the ear 6) A patient presents to the neurologist for a follow-up exam. A tumor in the patient’s neck near the jugular foramen has grown large enough to affect other nerves in the area (all of the following options are possible). The neurologist has the patient stick out their tongue and say “Ah”, during which a tongue depressor is used to better visualize the oral structures. When the clinician pushes the depressor into the back of the throat, no reflex is seen. Which of the following is most likely damaged? a) CN IX b) CN X c) CN XI d) CN XII e) Superior cervical ganglion 7) The tearing reflex involves ____ as the afferent limb and ____ as the efferent limb, which is the same as the corneal reflex. a) CN V1; CN VII b) CN V2; CN VII c) CN V3; CN VII d) CN II; CN VII e) CN III; CN VII Gross Anatomy #67 – Radiology 1) In a PA straight-on (Caldwell) radiograph, what structure is between the frontal sinus and slightly inferior to them? a) Ethmoid bone b) Temporal bone (petrous) c) Crista gali d) Superior orbital fissure e) Vomer bone 2) Which of the following could be a reason to do an AP radiograph of the skull when facial structures need to be viewed? a) Better view of the frontal sinuses b) Better view of the vomer bone c) Better view of the ethmoid sinuses d) Better view of the maxilla e) Patient is strapped to a backboard 3) In a PA (Caldwell) radiograph, you see two black lines that begin medial above the frontal air sinuses and traverse inferiorly and laterally. What structure is this? a) Vomer bone b) Temporal bone (petrous) c) Crista gali

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d) Superior orbital fissure e) Lambdoidal sutures 4) You are looking at a PA (Caldwell) radiograph and see a white structure midline above the frontal sinuses. It looks similar to the crista gali, but is not in the right location. You determine that it is a pathologic calcification of the: a) Faux cerebri b) Tentorium cerebelli c) Straight sinus d) Transverse sinus e) Faux cerebelli 5) You are looking at a radiographic scan of the orbit (PA view). What muscle in the orbit is seen superiorly and medially? a) Levator palpebrae b) Superior rectus c) Medial rectus d) Superior oblique e) Inferior oblique 6) During a bar fight, a 24-year-old male was punched in the zygomatic process. Upon radiographic examination, an orbit blowout fracture is seen. Blood from the orbit will flow into what sinus? a) Frontal b) Ethmoid c) Maxillary d) Sphenoid James Lamberg

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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 AnswerKey Anat #46 1) C 2) B 3) E 4) D 5) A 6) A 7) E 8) C 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) D 13) A 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) E 18) C 19) A 20) B 21) D 22) E 23) E 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) E 36) E 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) D 42) E 43) E 44) B

Anat #47 1) D 2) C 3) E 4) A 5) E 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) D 15) E 16) C Anat #48 1) C 2) E 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) D 7) E 8) C 9) A 10) B 11) D 12) B 13) E 14) A 15) E 16) B Anat #49 1) D 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) A

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14Mar2009 10) A 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) C 24) E 25) D

4) A 5) B 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) C

Anat #50 1) C 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) E 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) E 21) C 22) E 23) A

Anat #52– 53 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) C 11) E 12) E 13) A 14) B 15) D 16) A 17) E 18) B 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) A 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) B

Anat #51 1) C 2) E 3) D

Anat #54– 55 1) D 2) B

3) C 4) E 5) A 6) C 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) E 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) E 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) C 21) C 22) C 23) E 24) E 25) A 26) C Anat #56 1) A 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) C 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) E 14) D 15) C 16) E 17) A 18) D 19) B

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Gross Anatomy – Part 3 Anat #57 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) D 6) C 7) B 8) E 9) E 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) D

14) D 15) C 16) D 17) E 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) B 26) D 27) A 28) E 29) C 30) C

Anat #58 1) A 2) B 3) B 4) E 5) C 6) D 7) C 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) A

Ana #61 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) E 9) C 10) C 11) C 12) E 13) B 14) C 15) A 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) E 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) E 26) C 27) C

Anat #59– 60 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) C 10) A 11) E 12) C 13) C

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14Mar2009

Anat #62– 63 1) E 2) B 3) C 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) B 9) A 10) D 11) E 12) C 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) E 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) B 23) C 24) E 25) A 26) C 27) E Anat #64 1) C 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) A 8) C 9) B 10) E 11) B 12) D 13) A 14) E

15) C 16) D 17) A 18) B 19) C 20) A 21) C 22) E Anat #65 1) B 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) E 6) C 7) B 8) E Anat #66 1) E 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) A Anat #67 1) C 2) E 3) E 4) A 5) D 6) C

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Quiz Anatomy Part 3 of 3

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