Quiz Anatomy Part 1 of 3

Gross Anatomy – Part 1

14Mar2009

General Concepts #1 – Anatomical Terminology and Body Organization 1) What plane does a patient move in when going from anatomical position to supine? a) Sagittal b) Transverse c) Coronal d) Oblique 2) The wrist is ____ to the arm. a) Deep b) Proximal c) Superficial d) Distal e) Lateral 3) The shoulder is ____ to the sternum. a) Deep b) Proximal c) Superficial d) Medial e) Lateral 4) A patient presents with a lesion on the right side of their brain. Vision in the ipsilateral eye has been affected. Which eye(s) does this refer to? a) Left b) Right c) Both 5) The thoracic mediastinum can be divided into what structures? a) Lungs and heart b) Left and right lungs c) Heart and great vessels d) Digestive and urinary/reproductive 6) What type of membrane adheres directly to the organs? a) Serous b) Parietal c) Visceral d) Pharyngeal e) Cranial 7) All of the following locations contain membranes EXCEPT: a) Pericardial b) Retroperitoneal c) Peritoneal d) Vertebral e) Pleural 8) All of the following are considered cavities EXCEPT: a) Orbital b) Inguinal c) Oral d) Nasal e) Synovial

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9) Buccal refers to the: a) Cheek b) Mouth c) Nose d) Chin d) Arm 10) Pollex refers to the: a) Big toe b) Chin c) Palm d) Hip e) Thumb 11) Olecranal refers to the: a) Back bone b) Heel c) Elbow d) Back of knee e) Calf of leg General Concepts #2 – Skeletal System 1) All of the following are functions of the skeletal system EXCEPT: a) Hematopoiesis b) Allow movement c) Storage of 90% of potassium d) Support soft tissue e) Protect organs 2) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton? a) Thoracic cage b) Pectoral girdle c) Pelvic girdle d) Arms e) Legs 3) What type of bone is described as two parallel compact bone segments “sandwiching” a spongy bone segment? a) Sesamoid (patella) b) Irregular (vertebrae) c) Long (humerus) d) Short (wrist) e) Flat (sternum) 4) On a long bone, the medullary cavity is bounded superficially/distally by: a) Periosteum b) Endosteum c) Metaphysis d) Diaphysis e) Epiphysis 5) Osteoblasts:

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a) Arise from osteoids b) Create osteoprogenitors c) Dissolve bone matrix d) Build bone matrix e) Are in the bone lacunea 6) Which of the following best describes when new bone arises from cartilage? a) Intramembranous ossification b) Bone compaction c) Endochondral ostification d) Spongy compaciton e) Osteoclastification 7) What type of artery pierces the diaphysis to supply the medullary cavity? a) Nutrient artery b) Epiphysial artery c) Metaphysial artery d) Endosteal artery e) Periosteal artery General Concepts #3 – Articulation and Movements 1) What term refers to a slightly moveable joint? a) Synarthrosis b) Ampiarthrosis c) Diarthrosis d) Cartilaginous e) Synovial 2) The gomphosis joint (between tooth and jaw) is made of dense connective tissue. Which of the following is the best description of this joint? a) Ampiarthrosis b) Diarthrosis c) Cartilaginous d) Fibrous e) Synovial 3) A symphysis joint, or secondary cartilaginous joint, is a mix of fibrous and cartilaginous which usually occurs midsaggital. Which of the following is a symphysis joint? a) Shoulder b) Knee c) Interosseous membrane d) Skull sutures e) Intervertebral disc 4) Sacks or packets of synovial fluid near most synovial joints are called: a) Articular cartilage b) Joint cavity c) Bursae d) Fibrous capsule e) Synovial membrane

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5) Which of the following is considered a multiaxial joint? a) Hip b) Elbow c) Knee d) Carpal/Tarsal e) Cervical vertebra 6) All of the following are types of uniaxial synovial joints EXCEPT: a) Planar b) Pivot c) Saddle d) Hinge 7) A connection between separate blood vessels, such as in the intestines, is called a(n): a) Articulation b) Innervation c) Primary pathway d) Anastomosis e) Symphysis 8) From anatomical position, abduction of the shoulder moves it: a) Forward b) Backward c) Toward the body d) Away from the body e) In a circular motion 9) Shrugging the shoulders is considered what type of motion? a) Flexion b) Extension c) Elevation d) Depression e) Adduction 10) Inversion refers to the ____ and has ____ range of motion than eversion. a) Foot; Less b) Foot; More c) Hand; Less d) Hand; More 11) From anatomical position, pronation and supination move the forearm and wrist in what plane? a) Transverse b) Sagittal c) Coronal d) Oblique e) Radial General Concepts #4 – Muscular System 1) Which of the following is the name for the structure surrounding each muscle fiber? a) Epimysium b) Perimysium

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c) Endomysium d) Fasicle e) Fascia 2) A muscle connection with a flat, fibrous tissue is called a(n): a) Origin b) Insertion c) Reference reversal d) Tendon e) Aponerosis 3) What type of muscle contraction is taking place when muscle resistance is higher than muscle tension, thus the muscle remains at the same length? a) Reflexive contraction b) Tonic contraction c) Phasic contraction d) Isometric contraction e) Isotonic contraction 4) The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an example of naming based on: a) Action or Function b) Body region c) Attachments d) Shape or size e) Heads or tendons 5) All of the following are specific types of muscle fiber organizations EXCEPT: a) Fusiform b) Pennant c) Quadrilateral d) Rhomboid e) Triangular 6) In muscle function, what opposes the prime mover? a) Antagonist b) Agonist c) Fixator d) Synergist e) Opponent 7) All of the following are types of deep fascia EXCEPT: a) Retinacula b) Fibrous sheath c) Intermuscular septa d) Neurovascular sheath e) Fatty layer General Concepts #5 – Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems 1) Which component of blood plasma accounts for the SECOND highest percentage? a) Water b) Protein c) Other solutes

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d) Electrolytes e) Platelets 2) Once interstitial fluid has been pushed into special capillaries, it is called: a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Lymph d) Platelets e) Plasma 3) What chamber of the heart first receives oxygenated blood? a) Right ventricle b) Right atrium c) Left ventricle d) Left atrium 4) After blood leaves the right ventricle, what structure does it enter next? a) Pulmonary artery b) Left atrium c) Right atrium d) Aorta e) Pulmonary trunk 5) What layer of the heart is considered visceral? a) Myocardium b) Pericardium c) Endocardium d) Epicardium e) Cardium 6) What great vessel receives blood from the arms? a) Superior vena cava b) Inferior vena cava c) Aorta d) Greater vena cava e) Lesser vena cava 7) What type of tissue is the tunica media made of? a) Endothelium b) Smooth muscle c) Connective d) Skeletal muscle e) Cardiac muscle 8) Baroreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They are responsible for sensing: a) CO2 changes b) O2 changes c) Vasoconstriction d) Vasodilation e) Pressure changes 9) Certain vessels of the eye, kidney, and endocrine glands have standard endothelial cells but holes for the movement of molecules. These vessels are called:

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a) Venules b) Sinusoid c) Fenestrated capillary d) Continuous capillary e) Vasa vasorium 10) During an abdominal procedure, a surgeon ligates (cuts) the single terminal arterial branch to an organ. This organ will: a) Anastomose b) Backup from collateral circulation c) Become a vascular shunt d) Remain intact e) Necrose (die) 11) Lymphatic vessels are drained from: a) The inferior vena cava (IVC) b) The superior vena cava (SVC) c) Arteries d) Capillaries e) Veins 12) All lymph from the body drains to the thoracic duct except the: a) Right arm b) Right leg c) Left arm d) Left leg e) Abdomen 13) Movement of lymph through the lymphatic system involves all of the following EXCEPT: a) Contraction of muscles b) Lymph node dilation c) Respiratory movement d) Arterial pulsation e) Smooth muscle in the vessels General Concepts #6 – Nervous System 1) The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is comprised of ____ cranial nerves and ____ spinal nerves and their associated ganglia. a) 7; 31 b) 7; 33 c) 12; 31 d) 12; 33 e) 10; 31 2) Sympathetic nerves arise from what spinal segments? a) Cranial and Thoracic b) Cranial and Sacral c) Thoracic and Lumbar d) Thoracic and Sacral e) Lumbar and Sacral

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3) Parasympathetic nerves arise from what spinal segments? a) Cranial and Thoracic b) Cranial and Sacral c) Thoracic and Lumbar d) Thoracic and Sacral e) Lumbar and Sacral 4) Neurotransmitters are released from: a) Cell body b) Organelles c) Dendrites d) Axons e) Synaptic knobs 5) There are ____ nerves in the cervical region and ____ in the coccygeal region. a) 7; 3 b) 7; 1 c) 8; 3 d) 8; 1 e) 6; 3 6) Spinal cord levels that directly innervate bone are called: a) Sclerotomes b) Osteotomes c) Myotomes d) Dermatomes e) Chronotomes 7) In infants the spinal cord runs the entire canal but in adults it ends at: a) T10 b) T12 c) L2 d) L4 e) S1 8) Vertebral canal enlargements at C3-T2 and L1-S3 are due to: a) Secondary curves b) Limb nerves c) Weight bearing stress d) Embryologic differentiation e) Cardiac innervation 9) The outer meningeal layer of the spinal cord that is dense and inelastic is called the: a) Dura mater (tough mother) b) Pia mater (tender mother) c) Arachnoid d) Conus medularis e) Cauda equina 10) Denticulate ligaments span ____ and attach to the dura mater to support the spinal cord. a) Medially b) Laterally

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c) Superiorly d) Inferiorly e) Superficially 11) The connection of a dorsal root and ventral root form a: a) Rootlet b) Ganglion c) Spinal nerve d) Gray matter e) White matter 12) Sensory impulses enter the ____ root and motor impulses exit the ____ root. a) Ventral; Ventral b) Dorsal; Dorsal c) Ventral; Dorsal d) Dorsal; Ventral General Concepts #7 – Autonomic Nervous System 1) The autonomic nervous system is considered a ____ neuron system. a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4 2) In general, sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ____ than postganglionic fibers. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers usually synapse at the ____. a) Longer; Chain ganglia b) Shorter; Chain ganglia c) Longer; Organ wall d) Shorter; Organ wall 3) The intermediolateral cell column (IML) is present from: a) All 31 levels b) C1-T2 c) T1-L2 d) L1-S2 e) Cervical and Sacral 4) Which sympathetic pathway involves pregalionic general visceral efferent (GVE) fibers NOT synapsing before exiting the sympathetic chain to their target? a) Pathway to the body wall b) Pathway to cavity organs above the diaphragm c) Pathway to cavity organs below the diaphragm d) Pathway to the thymus gland e) Pathway to the brain 5) All of the following are origins of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers EXCEPT: a) S2-S4 b) T1-L2 c) CN X (Vagus) d) CN III (Oculomotor)

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e) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) 6) Parasympathetic GVE fibers enter the spinal cord via ____ roots and exit the spinal cord via ____ roots. a) Dorsal; Ventral b) Ventral; Dorsal c) Dorsal; Dorsal d) Ventral; Ventral e) Depends on reflex 7) Referred pain is radiated from an organ to a dermatome because the brain cannot differentiate ____ from _____. a) General somatic afferents (GSA) from general visceral efferent (GVE) b) General somatic afferents (GSA) from general somatic efferent (GSE) c) General visceral afferents (GVA) from general somatic efferent (GSE) d) General visceral afferents (GVA) from general visceral efferent (GVE) General Concepts #8 – Radiology 1) It is common practice to take two radiographic images at ____ degree angles. a) 45 b) 90 c) 135 d) 180 e) 270 2) Which of the following would be the most radio-opaque? a) Air b) Fluid c) Muscle d) Fat e) Bone 3) What type of imaging uses x-rays and computer technology to create a threedimensional image of soft-tissue structures? a) Plain film b) Ultrasound c) Computed tomography d) Magnetic resonance imaging e) Digital subtraction angiography 4) What type of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) technique is used to look at soft tissues where fat would show as white and soft tissues as gray? a) T1 b) T2 c) T3 d) DSA e) CT 5) What type of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) technique is used to look for pathology where water would show as light graph and fat as graph? a) T1 b) T2

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c) T3 d) DSA e) CT 6) What type of imagining uses radioactive dye to show where glucose is most used and thus to determine the metabolic state of a tissue? a) Digital subtraction angiography b) Magnetic resonance imaging c) Computed tomography d) Positron emission tomography e) Digital subtraction angiography Gross Anatomy #1 – Osteology (Back) 1) How many lumbar vertebrae are there? a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7 e) 12 2) Which of the following spinal segments have primary curves? a) Cervical and thoracic b) Cervical and lumbar c) Thoracic and sacral d) Thoracic and lumbar e) Lumbar and sacral 3) An elderly patient is having their back examined. Upon bending over, no lateral deviation is seen. When standing, there appears to be an exaggerated “hump back.” Which of the following best describes the patient’s condition? a) Normal b) Scoliosis c) Lordosis d) Kyphosis e) Military posture 4) What regional vertebra would have a heart-shaped body and superior facets that are directed posteriorly and laterally? a) Cervical b) Thoracic c) Lumbar d) Sacral e) Coccyx 5) What vertebral segment corresponds to the inferior scapular angle? a) C7 b) T3 c) T7 d) T12 e) L4

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14Mar2009

6) The vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen of the atlas and descends the cervical column passing through transverse foramen of all cervical vertebrae EXCEPT: a) C7 b) C6-C7 c) C5-C7 d) C4-C7 e) C3-C7 7) During a practical exam, you are given a black bag with a single vertebra inside and asked to identify the vertebra. You feel normal transverse processes and a small spinous process. You also feel a bony prominence arising perpendicular to the anterior (body) surface of the vertebra. What is the most likely answer? a) Atlas b) Axis c) C7 d) Typical thoracic e) Typical lumbar 8) Concentric lamellae are part of the ____ and the fibers of each layer runs ____ to the next layer. a) Annulus fibrosus; Perpendicular b) Annulus fibrosus; Parallel c) Nucleus pulposus; Perpendicular d) Nucleus pulposus; Parallel 9) A disc herniation of the nucleus pulposus comes out to the side because what structure blocks a direct posterior hernia? a) Ligamentum flavum b) Anterior longitudinal ligament c) Posterior longitudinal ligament d) Cauda equina e) Filum terminale 10) Which ligament is the most likely to be damaged in a whip-lash injury when the driver of a car is hit from behind? a) Ligamentum flavum b) Anterior longitudinal ligament c) Posterior longitudinal ligament d) Cruciform ligament e) Alar ligament 11) Which of the following locations (articulations) is responsible for the largest portion of rotational “no” movement of the head? a) Atlanto-occipical b) Atlanto-axial c) C2-C3 d) C6-C7 e) C7-T1 12) A 19-year-old female presents two days following an automobile accident. She indicates that she had a stiff neck that has since receded, but now she claims her neck

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feels “loose”. Physical exam reveals excessive rightward rotation of the head and atlas. What ligament has most likely been damaged? a) Ligamentum flavum b) Anterior longitudinal ligament c) Posterior longitudinal ligament d) Cruciform ligament e) Alar ligament 13) What ligament holds the dens against the atlas? a) Ligamentum flavum b) Anterior longitudinal ligament c) Posterior longitudinal ligament d) Cruciform ligament e) Alar ligament 14) In what region could vertebra slide over each other and lock without breaking the articular facets? a) Cervical b) Thoracic c) Lumbar d) Sacral e) Coccyx 15) Which of the following would be most at risk if there was stenosis of the intervertebral foramen or spondylophyte growth into the foramen? a) Vertebral arteries b) Vertebral veins c) Spinal nerves d) Joints of Luschka e) Alar ligament 16) In the lumbar region, the pars interarticularis is on the ____ and in the cervical region it is on the ____. a) Lamina; Pedicle b) Pedicle; Lamina c) Lamina; Lamina d) Pedicle; Pedicle 17) In an oblique radiograph of the lumbar spine, what makes the eye of the “Scotty dog”? a) Par interarticularis b) Lamina c) Pedicle d) Inferior articular process e) Superior articular process 18) Which of the following is a defect of the pars interarticularis with vertebral displacement? a) Spondylolysis b) Spondylolisthesis c) Osteocytes d) Hangman fracture

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e) Jefferson fracture 19) The Jefferson fracture involves cervical vertebra ____ and the hangman fracture involves cervical vertebra ____. a) 1; 1 b) 2; 2 c) 1; 2 d) 2; 1 e) 1; 7 Gross Anatomy #2 – Superficial Back 1) An 18-year-old male presents following a mountain biking accident. History reveals he was thrown from the bike and landed on the side of his head (he was wearing a helmet). Physical exam reveals a fracture clavicle. On a follow-up visit, the fracture has healed but he has weakness in shrugging his shoulder and in retracting the scapula. Physical exam reveals atrophy of the trapezius. What nerve was most likely damaged in the accident? a) Dorsal scapular nerve b) Suboccipital nerve c) Greater occipital nerve d) Lesser occipital nerve e) Spinal accessory nerve 2) Which of the following actions would mostly use the latissimus dorsi muscle? a) Pushing off from a wall b) Picking up a heavy bag c) Pulling yourself up onto a ledge d) Compressing a basketball in your hands e) Doing pushups 3) Which of the following attaches on the floor of the intertubercular groove of the humerus? a) Trapezius b) Latissimus dorsi c) Levator scapula d) Rhomboids e) Serratus posterior superior 4) What nerve innervates the rhomboid major muscle? a) Dorsal scapular nerve b) Suboccipital nerve c) Greater occipital nerve d) Lesser occipital nerve e) Spinal accessory nerve 5) Hernias in the lumbar triangle include Petit (inferior lumbar triangle) and GrynfelttLesshaft (superior lumbar triangle). Which of the following is NOT a border of the lumbar triangle? a) Internal abdominal oblique b) External abdominal oblique c) Iliac crest d) Lumbar spinous processes

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e) Latissimus dorsi 6) How many ribs does serratus posterior (superior or inferior) attach to? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 7) In the anatomical variation of the transverse cervical artery, a superficial cervical artery would arise from the thyrocervical trunk going to the ____ muscle and a descending scapular artery would arise from the subclavian artery going to the ____ muscle. a) Rhomboid; Serratus posterior superior b) Rhomboid; Trapezius c) Trapezius; Serratus posterior superior d) Serratus posterior superior; Rhomboid e) Trapezius; Rhomboid Gross Anatomy #3 – Deep Back 1) The thoracolumbar fascia (lumbodorsal fascia) is deep to which of the following? a) Erector spinae b) Quadratus lumborum c) Psoas major d) Psoas minor e) Serratus posterior 2) Which of the following is the deepest muscle? a) Longissimus b) Spinalis c) Semispinalis d) Multifidus e) Rotatores 3) What is the cranial attachment of splenius capitis? a) Mastoid process b) Styloid process c) Inion d) Inferior nuchal line e) External occipital protuberance 4) Ligamentum nuchae extends from the median nuchal line as well as the: a) Mastoid process b) Styloid process c) External occipital protuberance d) Inferior nuchal line e) Superior nuchal line 5) A 35-year-old male presents with the main complaint of lower back discomfort. Physical exam reveals that L1–L4 are side-bent left (SBL) and rotated right (RR). Dysfunction of which of the following muscles is the most likely to be responsible for this finding?

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a) Splenius capitus b) Iliocostalis c) Longissimus d) Semispinalis e) Spinalis 6) Which of the following muscles is NOT a direct border of the suboccipital triangle? a) Rectus capitis posterior major b) Rectus capitis posterior minor c) Obliquus capitis superior d) Obliquus capitis inferior 7) Which of the following moves the skull but does not have an attachment on the skull? a) Rectus capitis posterior major b) Rectus capitis posterior minor c) Obliquus capitis superior d) Obliquus capitis inferior 8) The vertebral artery is within the suboccipital triangle, which is innervated by posterior rami of what vertebral nerve? a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4 e) C5 9) What muscle is pierced by the greater occipital nerve? a) Rectus capitis posterior major b) Rectus capitis posterior minor c) Splenius capitis d) Obliquus capitis e) Semispinalis capitis Gross Anatomy #4 – Spinal Cord/Meninges 1) In the adult, the spinal cord extends down to what level? a) T12 b) L2 c) L4 d) S1 e) S5 2) How many spinal nerves are there? a) 30 b) 31 c) 32 d) 33 e) 34 3) How many cervical spinal nerves are there? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7

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d) 8 e) 9 4) What spinal cord segments have enlargements? a) Cervical and thoracic b) Thoracic and lumbar c) Cervical and lumbar d) Lumbar and sacral e) Thoracic and sacral 5) A disc herniation at the level of L4-L5 will most affect which spinal nerve? a) L3 b) L4 c) L5 d) S1 e) S2 6) What part of the spinal cord would be affected with a compression fracture at the L3 vertebra? a) L1 b) L2 c) L3 d) L4 e) The spinal cord is not affected 7) Where is the most consistent location of the artery of Adamkiewicz? a) T8 b) T10 c) L2 d) L4 e) S2 8) How many venous channels are usually seen in the spinal cord? a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 e) None 9) In the venous drainage of the spinal cord (Batson’s plexus), where is the most common location of valves? a) Liver b) IVC/SVC c) Azygous d) Head e) There are no valves 10) Which of the following spaces contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? a) Epidural b) Subdural c) Subarachnoid d) Subpial 11) At what level does the dura mater end?

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a) T8 b) T10 c) L2 d) L4 e) S2 12) Lumbar punctures can have severe consequences such as cranial herniation (leading to coma) in a patient with increased intracranial pressure. What level is common for inserting the lumbar puncture needle in an adult, measured at the iliac spines and entering into the lumbar cistern? a) T12 b) L2 c) L4 d) S2 e) S4 Gross Anatomy #5 – Pectoral Region/Shoulder 1) Which of the following muscles inserts between the lateral and the medial lip of the intertubercule grove? a) Pectoralis major b) Pectoralis minor c) Teres major d) Teres minor e) Latissamus dorsi 2) An adolescent with difficulty breathing places their arms on a table to fix their scapula (“tripod position”). Which muscle attaches to ribs 3-5 and would be used to elevate the rib cage in this position? a) Pectoralis major b) Pectoralis minor c) Teres major d) Teres minor e) Latissamus dorsi 3) A tumor of the breast can put pressure on which of the following, giving the breast a dimpled appearance reminiscent of orange peel (peau d’orange)? a) Suspensory ligaments (of Cooper) b) Sudoriferous (sweat) glands c) Areolar glands (of Montgomery) d) Lactiferous duct e) Axillary tail 4) Which of the following veins runs under the deltoclavicular triangle, pierces the costocoracoid membrane, and is sometimes cannulated for cardiac procedures? a) Axillary b) Subclavian c) Cephalic d) Internal jugular e) External jugular

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5) Shoulder dislocations are most commonly ____ and can affect the ____ nerve, which is near the site of dislocation. a) Anterior; Radial b) Posterior; Radial c) Anterior; Ulnar d) Posterior; Ulnar 6) Which of the following is NOT a shoulder muscle of the rotator cuff? a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus c) Teres major d) Subscapularis 7) A carpenter presents with complaints of difficulty carrying objects. When the patient carries paint buckets, the buckets constantly bump into his knees. What muscle is most likely affected? a) Subclavius b) Subscapularis c) Supraspinatus d) Teres major e) Teres minor 8) 180 degrees of shoulder abduction normally consist of ____ degrees of glenohumeral (GH) joint motion and ____ degrees of scapulothoracic (ST) joint motion, a ratio of ____. a) 90; 90; 1 to 1 b) 120; 60; 2 to 1 c) 60; 120; 1 to 2 d) 135; 45; 3 to 1 e) 45; 135; 1 to 3 9) Which of the following is/are found within the quadrangular space of the shoulder? a) Posterior circumflex humeral artery b) Circumflex scapular artery c) Axillary nerve d) A & C e) B & C 10) Which of the following is found in the triangular interval (not triangular space) of the shoulder? a) Deep brachial profunda artery b) Circumflex scapular artery c) Radial nerve d) A & C e) B & C 11) Which of the following is true regarding the superior transverse scapular ligament? a) The suprascapular artery and nerve run above the ligament b) The suprascapular artery and nerve run under the ligament c) The suprascapular artery runs above and the nerve runs below the ligament d) The suprascapular artery runs below and the nerve runs above the ligament 12) A patient presents some time after a football injury to the side. They are having difficulty washing behind their ears. The patient is asked to push against a wall with their

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hands and their right scapula “wings” out. Which of the following is most likely involved? a) Pectoralis minor, medial pectoral nerve, roots C6-C8 b) Pectoralis minor, medial pectoral nerve, roots C8-T1 c) Serratus anterior, long thoracic nerve, roots C3-C5 d) Serratus anterior, long thoracic nerve, roots C5-C7 e) Pectoralis major, medial and lateral pectoral nerves, roots C5-T1 13) A patient presents with a shoulder injury after fall off of a motorcycle. Upon examination, the shoulder appears to step-off from the normal shoulder line. Palpation reveals a popping sensation as the joint shifts. An x-ray is scheduled to confirm the dislocation. Which of the following is most likely? a) Anterior shoulder dislocation b) Posterior shoulder dislocation c) Grade 1 acromioclavicular joint separation d) Grade 2 acromioclavicular joint separation e) Grade 3 acromioclavicular joint separation 14) A medical student compresses and blocks her axillary artery while sleeping on her side. Which of the following arteries provides an alternate route (anastomosis) to get blood flow past the shoulder joint? a) Dorsal scapular artery b) Suprascapular artery c) Transverse cervical artery d) Circumflex scapular artery e) Subclavian artery Gross Anatomy #6 – Axilla 1) Which of the following muscles does NOT border the axilla (axillary wall)? a) Subscapularis b) Serratus anterior c) Pectoralis major d) Teres major e) Trapezius 2) The axilla contains axillary lymph nodes, the axillary artery and nerve, the proximal heads of biceps brachii and coracobrachialis, and the ____ of the brachial plexus. a) Roots & Trunks b) Trunks & Divisions c) Divisions & Cords d) Cords & Branches 3) Which of the following axillary artery segments has two branches (thoracodorsal and circumflex scapular artery)? a) Supreme thoracic artery b) Thoracoacromial artery c) Lateral thoracic artery d) Anterior circumflex humeral artery e) Posterior circumflex humeral artery f) Subscapular artery

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4) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the thoracoacromial artery? a) Acromial artery b) Clavicular artery c) Scapular artery d) Pectoral artery e) Deltoid artery 5) A patient presents with an infected cut on the medial side of her hand. Lymphangitis is seen as a red streak along the path of the basilic vein. Infection drainage is likely traveling to which of the following nodes? a) Supratrochlear nodes b) Humeral (lateral) axillary nodes c) Infraclavicular nodes d) Apical axillary nodes e) Inguinal nodes 6) Breast cancer will most likely metastasize through what lymph nodes, that initially take about 75-80% of breast lymph drainage? a) Pectoral (anterior) nodes b) Humeral (lateral) nodes c) Subscapular (posterior) nodes d) Apical nodes e) Supraclavicular nodes f) Parasternal nodes g) Abdominal nodes Gross Anatomy #7 – Brachial Plexus 1) What nerve roots (anterior rami) correspond to the radial nerve? a) C5-C7 b) C5-T1 c) C6-T1 d) C7-T1 e) C8-T1 2) The brachial plexus is leaves the neck: a) Anterior to the anterior scalene muscle b) Between the anterior and middle scalene muscles c) Between the middle and posterior scalene muscles d) Posterior to the posterior scalene muscles e) After piercing the middle scalene muscle 3) Which section of the brachial plexus is named based on their location around the axillary artery? a) Roots b) Trunks c) Divisions d) Cords e) Branches 4) Which branch of the brachial plexus pierces the coracobrachialis muscle? a) Musculocutaneous nerve

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b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 5) A patient with cardiac angina feels referred pain on the medial portion of their forearm. What nerve root is involved? a) C5 b) C6 c) C7 d) C8 e) T1 6) What nerve root corresponds to the outside deltoid region, also known as the “regimental patch” region? a) C5 b) C6 c) C7 d) C8 e) T1 7) What nerve accounts for sensation on the top of the hand (posterior aspect) between the thumb and first two fingers? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 8) A 33-year-old male presents two weeks following a motorcycle crash with a chief complaint of limited functional use of his right arm. Physical exam reveals a right arm that is adducted and internally rotated with some flexion of the wrist. History reveals that during the accident he landed on the upper right shoulder and neck, sustaining significant skin abrasions to the area of his right lateral neck down to his acromion process. Which of the following is most likely? a) Erb-Duchenne Palsy b) Dejerine-Klumpke Palsy c) Parsonage-Turner Syndrome d) Hand of Benediction e) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome f) Volkmann Contracture g) Dupuytren Contracture 9) A young child presents with history of weakness of the left arm after traumatic birth. Questioning reveals birth started with the left arm and it was pulled to aid in birth. Currently, the child shows flexion and supination of the elbow, extension of the wrist, hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints, and flexion of the interphalangeal joints with the “claw hand” posture. What nerve roots are likely involved? a) C5-C6 b) C6-C7 c) C7-C8

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d) C8-T1 Gross Anatomy #8 – Arm (Brachium) & Cubital Fossa 1) In a cross section of the arm, what nerve would be found in the space between the brachialis muscle and the long head of the biceps brachii muscle? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 2) The tendon of what muscle runs through the bicipital groove of the humeral head? a) Lateral head of triceps brachii b) Medial head of triceps brachii c) Long head of triceps brachii d) Short head of biceps brachii e) Long head of biceps brachii 3) Which of the following describes the anastomoses of the ulnar recurrent arteries? a) Anterior anastomosis with posterior, Superior anastomosis with inferior b) Anterior anastomosis with superior, Inferior anastomosis with posterior c) Anterior anastomosis with inferior, Superior anastomosis with posterior 4) Which of the following veins runs on the lateral aspect of the arm? a) Cephalic vein b) Basilic vein c) Median cubital vein d) Axillary vein e) External jugular vein 5) A patient presents with a midshaft humerus fracture. What nerve is the most likely to be damaged? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 6) Which of the following is in the correct order from lateral to medial within the cubital fossa? (Brachial artery, median nerve, biceps tendon) a) Tendon, artery, nerve b) Artery, nerve, tendon c) Nerve, tendon, artery d) Nerve, artery, tendon e) Artery, tendon, nerve 7) The biceps tendon reflex mainly tests what nerve root? a) C8 b) C7 c) C6 d) C5 e) C4

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8) The brachioradialis reflex mainly tests what nerve root? a) C8 b) C7 c) C6 d) C5 e) C4 9) The triceps reflex mainly tests what nerve root? a) C8 b) C7 c) C6 d) C5 e) C4 10) Wrist flexion mainly involves what nerve root? a) C5 b) C6 c) C7 d) C8 e) T1 11) Finger flexion mainly involves what nerve root? a) C5 b) C6 c) C7 d) C8 e) T1 Gross Anatomy #9 – Forearm (Antebrachium) 1) A patient presents with a minor crush injury to the forearm. They are complaining of pain out of proportion to the injury. A S.T.I.C. catheter is inserted into the forearm and high pressure is found within the affected fascial compartment. Which of the following structures is the first to lose function in compartment syndrome? a) Nerves b) Veins c) Arteries d) Bones e) Kidneys 2) What muscle makes up the floor of the cubital fossa and is the primary flexor of the forearm? a) Palmaris longus b) Pronator teres c) Biceps brachii d) Brachioradialis e) Brachialis 3) What muscle is the primary supinator of the forearm? a) Palmaris longus b) Pronator teres c) Biceps brachii

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d) Brachioradialis e) Brachialis 4) A patient presents with damage to tendons of his right forearm. The clinician asks the patient to touch their left thumb and left pinky together and slightly flex their wrist. The maneuver enhances visualization of which of the following, whose function is minor and can be used to replace the damaged tendons of the other forearm? a) Flexor digitorum superficialis b) Flexor carpi ulnaris c) Flexor carpi radialis d) Pronator teres e) Palmaris longus 5) Injury to the median nerve would affect which of the following muscles? a) Biceps brachii b) Flexor carpi ulnaris c) Supinator d) Pronator quadratus e) Brachioradialis 6) A patient is asked to flex their wrists and put the tops (posterior aspect) of their hands together for 90 seconds. After a positive test, surgery is scheduled to make a transverse incision through the flexor retinaculum. This will relieve pressure on what nerve passing through this structure? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 7) Which of the following extends the pinky finger only? a) Extensor carpi radialis longus b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis c) Extensor digitorum d) Extensor digiti minimi e) Extensor carpi ulnaris 8) Which of the following is found at the elbow and works to extend the elbow? a) Abductor pollicis longus b) Extensor pollicis brevis c) Extensor pollicis longus d) Extensor indicis e) Supinator f) Anconeus 9) A patient presents after falling off a skateboard onto an outstretched hand. The clinician presses into the anatomic snuff box near the thumb and pain is felt. An MRI is scheduled of the scaphoid bone and measures are made to prevent avascular necrosis. What tendon lies in the middle of the area that was palpated? a) Abductor pollicis longus b) Extensor pollicis brevis c) Extensor pollicis longus

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d) Extensor indicis e) Extensor carpi radialis 10) Prior to performing a puncture for an arterial blood gas sample, the clinician performs an Allen test to ensure patency to the superficial palmar arch of the hand. What two arteries contribute to this arch? a) Anterior interosseous and deep radial b) Superficial radial and Superficial ulnar c) Deep ulnar and anterior interosseous d) Anterior and posterior interosseous e) Radial recurrent and superficial ulnar 11) Which of the following best describes the distribution of a common palmar digital (superficial) artery? a) Lateral aspect of middle finger and lateral aspect of ring finger b) Medial aspect of middle finger and medial aspect of ring finger c) Lateral aspect of middle finger and medial aspect of ring finger d) Medial aspect of middle finger and lateral aspect of ring finger e) Lateral and medial aspect of middle finger 12) What nerve runs between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 13) What nerve runs deep, piercing the supinator muscle? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 14) The ulnar nerve runs between the two heads of what muscle? a) Extensor carpi radialis longus b) Extensor carpi radialis brevis c) Extensor digitorum d) Extensor digiti minimi e) Extensor carpi ulnaris Gross Anatomy #10 & 11 – Hand 1) Which of the following attaches to the distal phalanx? a) Flexor digitorum superficialis b) Flexor digitorum profundus c) Flexor retinaculum d) Fibrous flexor sheath e) Interossei muscles 2) Which of the following finger infections involves the pulp space of the finger tip pad? a) Paronychia b) Felon

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c) Herpetic whitlow d) Cellulitis e) Flexor tendosynovitis 3) A 40-year-old male presents with lost function of the left ring finger. History reveals presence of a tender bump on the palm which has progressed and now pulls the ring finger into flexion. Which of the following is the most likely? a) Erb-Duchenne Palsy b) Dejerine-Klumpke Palsy c) Parsonage-Turner Syndrome d) Hand of Benediction e) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome f) Volkmann Contracture g) Dupuytren Contracture 4) Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the thenar eminence? a) Lumbrical b) Opponens pollicis c) Abductor pollicis brevis d) Flexor pollicis brevis e) Adductor pollicis 5) The dorsal and palmar interossei move fingers away from midline, centered around what digit? a) Digit 1 b) Digit 2 c) Digit 3 d) Digit 4 e) Digit 5 6) Most of the fingers are supplied by what artery? a) Radial artery of the superficial palmar arch b) Ulnar artery of the superficial palmar arch c) Radial artery of the deep palmar arch d) Ulnar artery of the deep palmar arch 7) The palmar branch of the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel. a) True b) False 8) What nerve provides sensation over the region of the anatomic snuff box? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 9) A bicyclist presents with deficits of the hand. The clinician suspects Guyon canal syndrome. What nerve passes through the tunnel of Guyon? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve

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e) Ulnar nerve 10) A patient presents with a claw-like appearance of the hand. When asked to hold a piece of paper between their finger and thumb, they flex their thumb at the interphalangeal joint (Froment sign). Which of the following nerves is likely damaged? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 11) A patient presents with deficits of the hand. When asked to hold their arm out parallel to the ground, they are unable to move their fingers to the ceiling (wrist-drop). What nerve is likely damaged? a) Musculocutaneous nerve b) Axillary nerve c) Radial nerve d) Median nerve e) Ulnar nerve 12) A patient presents with deficits of the hand. When asked to make a fist, they are only able to fully flex digits 4 and 5 (Hand of Benediction). Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged? a) Proximal radial nerve b) Distal radial nerve c) Proximal median nerve d) Distal median nerve e) Proximal ulnar nerve f) Distal ulnar nerve 13) A patient presents with inability to extend their fingers. The patient states they were throwing an opponent during a Judo competition and the opponent did not let go, thus pulling hard on the patient’s outstretched arm. Examination reveals loss of sensation along the medial aspect of the arm and an inability to span the fingers. Which of the following is most likely? a) Erb-Duchenne Palsy b) Dejerine-Klumpke Palsy c) Parsonage-Turner Syndrome d) Hand of Benediction e) Thoracic Outlet Syndrome f) Volkmann Contracture g) Dupuytren Contracture Gross Anatomy #12 – Articulations (Upper Limb) 1) When falling onto an outstretched arm, which of the following is the most likely? a) Sternoclavicular joint dislocation b) Humerus fracture c) Clavicle fracture d) Posterior shoulder dislocation e) Acromion fracture

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2) Which of the following joints is the weakest? a) Sternoclavicular (SC) b) Acromioclavicular (AC) c) Coracoclavicular (CC) 3) In addition to the coracohumeral ligament, there is/are ____ glenohumeral ligament(s), acting to strengthen the joint capsule. a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 e) 5 4) Which of the following rotator cuff muscles attaches to the inferior tubercle of the humerus? a) Supraspinatus b) Infraspinatus c) Teres minor d) Subscapularis 5) A patient presents with fractured bone. History reveals the patient was defending them self from an attack with a metal pipe. Which of the following bones is the most likely to be involved? a) Proximal phalanx of first digit b) Humerus c) Radius d) Ulna e) Scaphoid 6) A preschool-aged girl presents with history of being swung around by the arms by a by their father to mimic Superman. Examination reveals difficulty with pronation and supination movement. The arm is flexed and pronated and the child refuses to use the limb. Which ligament near the cubital fossa is most likely involved? a) Radial collateral ligament b) Ulnar collateral ligament c) Anular ligament of radius 7) Which of the following carpal bones is closest to the thumb? a) Scaphoid b) Trapezoid c) Pisiform d) Lunate e) Trapezium 8) Which of the following best describes the 1st carpometacarpal joint (thumb)? a) Synovial saddle b) Synovial condyloid c) Synovial hinge d) Synovial plane e) Synovial ellipsoid 9) Which of the following best describes the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints? a) Synovial saddle

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b) Synovial condyloid c) Synovial hinge d) Synovial plane e) Synovial ellipsoid Gross Anatomy #13 – Correlations (Upper Limb) 1) What nerve root is associated with the ability to hold a dollar bill between your fingers without it slipping out? a) C5 b) C6 c) C7 d) C8 e) T1 2) Which of the following muscle grades is described as motion against the force of gravity? a) Grade 0 b) Grade 1 c) Grade 2 d) Grade 3 e) Grade 4 f) Grade 5 3) A patient presents with neurologic deficits. They have difficulty pushing outward with their arm (abduction) and flexing their elbow. Their bicep reflex is diminished and they have some lost sensation on the lateral aspect of the upper arm. Which of the following discs would account for these findings if it were herniated? a) C2-C3 b) C3-C4 c) C4-C5 d) C5-C6 e) C6-C7 4) A young child presents with motor deficits of the right arm. The arm appears to be in a “Waiter’s Tip” or “Secret Smoker” position with arm extended, internally rotated, and wrist flexed. Which of the following likely occurred during birth? a) Radial nerve lesion b) Ulnar nerve lesion c) Median nerve lesion d) Upper brachial plexus lesion e) Lower brachial plexus lesion 5) Which of the following types of fractures occurs from falling on an outstretched hand and gives a “dinner fork” appearance? a) Scaphoid b) Lunate c) Colles d) Greenstick e) Radial head

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6) A patient presents with radial deviation, minor clawing of the hand, and loss of sensation over the 5th digit. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured? a) Proximal radial nerve b) Distal radial nerve c) Proximal median nerve d) Distal median nerve e) Proximal ulnar nerve f) Distal ulnar nerve 7) A volleyball player presents after trying to block a spike and jamming their finger (as shown). The clinician believes the extensor digitorum tendon was hyperextended. Which of the following is most likely? a) Trigger finger b) Mallet finger c) Swan-neck finger d) Boutonnière finger Gross Anatomy #14 – Radiology (Upper Limb) 1) Which of the following signs would most likely be seen in the patient with this x-ray? a) Hand of Benediction b) Ulnar deviation c) Wrist drop d) Ape hand e) Klumpke Palsy 2) What does this x-ray show? a) Anterior shoulder dislocation b) Posterior shoulder dislocation c) AC joint separation d) CC joint separation e) Clavicular fracture 3) Displacement of the fat pad showing a spinnaker (sail) sign on x-ray is indicative of: a) Shoulder fracture b) Elbow fracture c) Wrist fracture d) Clavicular fracture e) Acromion fracture Gross Anatomy #15 & 16 – Gluteal Region & Thigh 1) Which of the following muscles is NOT a hip flexor? a) Iliacus b) Psoas major c) Gracilis d) Rectus femoris e) Sartorius 2) Which of the following muscles is the longest in the body? a) Iliacus

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b) Psoas major c) Gracilis d) Rectus femoris e) Sartorius 3) Which of the following adductors of the thigh is innervated by the obturator nerve as well as the sciatic nerve? a) Adductor longus b) Adductor magnus c) Adductor brevis d) Pectineus e) Gracilis 4) Which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the pubic ramus near the pubic tubercle? a) Gracilis b) Pectineus c) Adductor brevis/longus d) Adductor magnus e) Sartorius 5) Which of the following is NOT enclosed in the femoral sheath within the subinguinal hiatus? a) Femoral vein b) Femoral artery c) Femoral nerve d) Femoral lymph nodes 6) Which of the following makes up the roof of the femoral triangle? a) Inguinal ligament b) Sartorius c) Adductor longus d) Tensor fascia lata e) Pectineus f) Iliopsoas 7) Which of the following does NOT leave the femoral triangle through the saphenous hiatus? a) Lacuna lymphatica b) Great saphenous vein c) External pudendal artery d) Superficial epigastric artery e) Superficial circumflex iliac artery 8) Femoral hernias are more commonly seen in women. a) True b) False, inguinal canal hernias are more commonly seen 9) What muscle makes up the lateral border of the femoral triangle? a) Inguinal ligament b) Sartorius c) Adductor longus d) Tensor fascia lata

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e) Pectineus f) Iliopsoas 10) Which of the following is NOT a branch of the external iliac artery? a) Obturator artery b) Popliteal artery c) External pudendal artery d) Deep femoral artery e) Superficial circumflex iliac artery 11) Which of the following arteries forms an anastamotic ring around the femoral neck? a) Artery of ligamentum capitis femoris b) Descending geniculate artery c) Ascending branch of medial circumflex femoral artery d) Ascending branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery e) Perforating femoral arteries (I, II, III) 12) Which of the following arteries is NOT matched correctly with its origin from the lumbar plexus? a) Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerve, L1 b) Genitofemoral nerve, L1-2 c) Lateral curaneous femoral nerve, L1-2 d) Femoral nerve, L2-4 e) Obturator nerve, L2-4 13) What nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscle? a) Superior gluteal nerve b) Inferior gluteal nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Femoral nerve e) Genitofemoral nerve 14) What nerve innervates the gluteus minimus muscle? a) Superior gluteal nerve b) Inferior gluteal nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Femoral nerve e) Genitofemoral nerve 15) Which of the following potentially absent muscles can be found on the posterior abdominal wall? a) Palmaris longus b) Plantaris c) Peroneus tertius d) Pyrimidalis e) Psoas minor 16) Which of the following muscles does NOT attach (insert) onto the greater trochanter? a) Piriformis b) Gluteus maximus c) Gluteus medius d) Gluteus minimus

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17) Which muscle (muscle tendon) can be found between the superior and inferior gemellus muscles? a) Quadratus femoris b) Obturator externus c) Obturator internus d) Piriformis e) Gluteus medius 18) Which of the following muscles does NOT attach (originate) onto the ichial tuberosity? a) Gracilis b) Biceps femoris c) Semitendinosus d) Semimembranosus 19) Pes anserinus (“goose’s foot”) is a term for the facial nerve as well as the leg. Regarding the leg, which of the following muscles does NOT attach to the pes anserinus (superficialis)? a) Sartorius b) Gracilis c) Semitendinosus d) Semimembranosus 20) Which of the following describes the root levels of the sciatic nerve? a) L4-S1 b) L4-S3 c) L5-S2 d) S1-S3 e) S2-S4 21) Which of the following is most likely to be compressed by the piriformis muscle (piriformis syndrome)? a) Posterior cutaneous femoral nerve b) Superior gluteal nerve c) Inferior gluteal nerve d) Pudendal nerve e) Sciatic nerve Gross Anatomy #17 – Bones of the Lower Limb 1) Which of the following best describes the femoral angle of inclination seen in young children? a) 190 degrees b) 145 degrees c) 126 degrees d) 120 degrees e) 90 degrees 2) Which of the following hip bone (innominate) landmarks is used to determine at what level a lumbar puncture (spinal tap) should be performed? a) Acetabulum b) Greater sciatic notch

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c) Pubic symphysis d) Posterior superior iliac spine e) Iliac crest 3) Which of the following bones has a surface called sustentaculum tali? a) Talus b) Cuboid c) Calcaneus d) Navicular e) Cuneiform Gross Anatomy #18 & 19 – Leg & Foot 1) Which of the following is the strongest pronator of the foot? a) Tibialis anterior b) Extensor digitorum longus c) Extensor hallucis longus d) Peroneus longus e) Peroneus brevis 2) Triceps surae is the strongest plantar flexor of the foot and is comprised of the gastrocnemius and the: a) Plantaris b) Tibialis c) Soleus d) Peroneus e) Popliteus 3) Which of the following muscles originates near the knee, has a small belly, and has a long tendon, which may be mistaken for a nerve? a) Plantaris b) Tibialis c) Soleus d) Peroneus e) Popliteus 4) Which of the following fascial compartments is most likely to have minor compartment syndrome seen in athletes or during a workout? a) Posterior compartment of the arm b) Anterior compartment of the arm c) Posterior compartment of the leg d) Lateral compartment of the leg e) Anterior compartment of the leg 5) Which of the following muscles is NOT innervated by the tibial nerve a) Triceps surae b) Tibialis posterior c) Popliteus d) Extensor hallucis brevis e) Flexor hallucis longus 6) Which of the following is NOT a border of the popliteal fossa? a) Biceps femoris

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b) Semimembranosus c) Semitendinosus d) Gastrocnemius e) Soleus 7) Which geniculate artery supplies most of the cruciate ligaments? a) Medial superior geniculate artery b) Lateral superior geniculate artery c) Median geniculate artery d) Medial inferior geniculate artery e) Lateral inferior geniculate artery 8) What landmark can be used to find the dorsalis pedis artery for palpation? a) Medial to extensor hallucis longus tendon b) Lateral to extensor hallucis longus tendon c) Posterior to medial malleolus d) Posterior to lateral malleolus e) Superior to medial malleolus 9) Which of the following describes the neurovascular structures of the popliteal fossa from lateral to medial? a) Vein, artery, nerve b) Vein, nerve, artery c) Nerve, artery, vein d) Nerve, vein, artery e) Artery, nerve, vein 10) What nerve accounts for sensation between the first two toes? a) Sural b) Deep peroneal c) Medial plantar d) Superficial peroneal e) Tibial 11) Which of the following is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve? a) Abductor hallucis b) Flexor hallucis longus c) Quadratus planae d) Flexor digitorum brevis e) Lumbricles 12) Which of the following form the plantar arch? a) Lateral plantar artery and deep medial plantar artery b) Lateral plantar artery and superficial medial plantar artery c) Anterior tibial artery and posterior tibial artery d) Dorsalis pedis artery and peroneal artery e) Medial malleolar artery and lateral plantar artery Gross Anatomy #20 – Articulations (Lower Limb) 1) Which of the following joints of the lower limb has a zona orbicularis? a) Sacroiliac b) Hip joint

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c) Knee joint d) Ankle joint e) Tarsometatarsal joints 2) Which of the following hip ligaments is the strongest ligament in the body? a) Iliofemoral b) Ishiofemoral c) Pubofemoral d) Liagementum teres capitis femoris 3) Which of the following is attached to the medial meniscus? a) Tibial collateral ligament b) Fibular collateral ligament c) Anterior cruciate ligament d) Posterior cruciate ligament e) Ligamentum patellae 4) Which of the following attaches from the lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle to the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia? a) Tibial collateral ligament b) Fibular collateral ligament c) Anterior cruciate ligament d) Posterior cruciate ligament e) Medial meniscus 5) Excessive anterior displacement of the tibia on the femur indicates damage to which of the following? a) Tibial collateral ligament b) Fibular collateral ligament c) Anterior cruciate ligament d) Posterior cruciate ligament e) Medial meniscus 6) When the knee is flexed, the ____ are relaxed and the ____ are taut. a) Cruciate ligaments; Collateral ligaments b) Collateral ligaments; Cruciate ligaments c) Cruciate ligaments; Menisci d) Menisci; Collateral ligaments e) Collateral ligaments; Menisci 7) When one’s legs are bent out laterally at the knee (bowlegged) it is described as: a) Genu valgum b) Genu rectum c) Genu varum 8) Which of the following is NOT a component of the deltoid ligament? a) Anterior tibiotalar ligament b) Posterior tibiotalar ligament c) Tibionavicular ligament d) Tibiocalcaneal ligament e) Calcaneofibular ligament 9) Damage at the Lisfranc joint line is seen in automobile accidents, military personnel, runners, and contact sports. What joint line is this?

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a) Calcaneocuboid joint b) Ligamentum bifurcatum c) Intermetatarsal joint d) Tarsometatarsal joint e) Subtalar joint 10) Laxity in which of the following ligaments would most lead to pes planus (flatfoot)? a) Long plantar calcaneocuboid b) Short plantar calcaneocuboid c) Plantar calcaneonavicular d) Calcaneofibular e) Deltoid Gross Anatomy #21 – Clinical Correlations (Lower Limb) 1) Which of the following scenarios would most likely cause a posterior femoral head dislocation? a) Falling 5 metes and landing on your feet b) Falling 5 meters and landing on your backside c) A head-on car accident with your knees hitting the dashboard d) Being tackled from the side by an American football player e) A forceful kick to the back of the thigh during a soccer game 2) Which of the following ligaments is NOT usually associated with an “unhappy triad” or “terrible triad” knee injury, seen in American football when a lateral force is placed on the knee while the foot is fixed and externally rotated? a) Anterior cruciate ligament b) Tibial collateral ligament c) Fibular collateral ligament d) Medial meniscus 3) A patient presents after being struck with a beer bottle to the lateral portion of the knee. Examination reveals foot drop. What nerve is likely damaged? a) Sciatic nerve b) Tibial nerve c) Femoral nerve d) Obturator nerve e) Peroneal nerve 4) Pott fracture is an archaic term used to describe an injury where an eversion force is applied while the foot is abducted and externally rotated, such as during an American football tackle. Which of the following is/are fractured in this type of injury? a) Tibia b) Fibular c) Medial malleolus d) A & C e) B & C 5) What cutaneous innervation level covers the anterior knee? a) L1 b) L2 c) L3

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d) L4 e) L5 6) What cutaneous innervation level covers the back of the thigh and leg? a) S1 b) S2 c) S3 d) S4 e) S5 7) What cutaneous innervation level covers the big toe? a) L1 b) L2 c) L3 d) L4 e) L5 8) The superficial vein that is found on the anterior aspect of the medial malleolus is the: a) Small saphenous b) Popliteal c) Great saphenous d) Anterior tibial e) Posterior tibial 9) A patient presents with pain down the lateral side of the left calf, decreased sensation on the skin between the 1st and 2nd toes, and weakness on heel walking. The most likely cord level compromised is: a) L4 b) L5 c) S1 d) S2 e) S3 10) A patient presents with decreased patellar reflex and weakness on hip flexion against resistance. The most likely compromised nerve is the: a) Obturator b) Femoral c) Tibial d) Sural e) Common fibular 11) During the stance phase of gait, which of the following groups of muscles would be least active? a) Dorsi flexors b) Flantar flexors c) Hip flexors d) Evertors e) Hip extensors 12) Of the six actions that occur at the hip joint, which muscle group would be least active in providing stability to the lower extremity during the stance phase of gait? a) Abductors b) Adductors

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c) Flexors d) Extensors e) Medial rotators 13) Which muscle of the medial compartment of the thigh also crosses the knee joint? a) Adductor magnus b) Sartorius c) Gracilis d) Semitendinosus e) Adductor longus 14) Which muscle of the anterior compartment also flexes the hip a) Articularis genu b) Vastus lateralis c) Tensor fascia lata d) Sartorius e) Adductor longus 15) Which muscle functions to unlock (flex) the knee from full extension? a) Vastus medialis b) Vastus lateralis c) Gastrocnemius d) Popliteus e) Semitendinosus 16) Which tendon helps to give support to both the lateral longitudinal and transverse arches of the foot? a) Tibialis anterior b) Tibialis posterior c) Flexor hallucis longus d) Flexor digitorum longus e) Fibularis longus 17) The ability to sit down gracefully on the toilet is due in part to paradoxical relaxation of the: a) Gluteus maximus b) Piriformis c) Tibialis anterior d) Biceps femoris e) Iliopsoas 18) The part of the foot and ankle where inversion occurs is the: a) Forefoot b) Midfoot c) Hindfoot d) Medial malleolus e) Lateral malleolus 19) Which muscle helps eversion of the foot but does NOT pass around the lateral malleolus? a) Tibialis anterior b) Extensor hallucis longus c) Fibularis brevis

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d) Fibularis tertius e) Soleus 20) Stroking the skin on the lateral side of the foot is activating sensory fibers from which cord level? a) L4 b) L5 c) S1 d) S2 e) S3 21) The major blood supply of the deep structures of the foot is the: a) Dorsalis pedis artery b) Medial plantar artery c) Anterior tibial artery d) Lateral plantar artery e) Popliteal artery 22) The hip joint is most easily dislocated if the femur is fully: a) Flexed b) Extended c) Adducted d) Abducted e) Medially rotated 23) A carpenter presents after falling three meters and landing on the balls of his feet. He now complains of a sharp pain in the plantar aspect of his foot, especially on toe-off. He probably has contusion of which structure? a) Tendon of the abductor hallucis longus b) Sesamoid bones in the flexor hallucis brevis c) Common plantar digital nerves from the lateral plantar nerve d) Fibularis longus tendon e) Adductor hallucis tendon 24) Spasm in which muscle is most likely to mimic sciatic pain? a) Quadratus femoris b) Piriformis c) Gastrocnemius d) Gluteus medius e) Iliopsoas Gross Anatomy #22 – Radiology (Lower Limb) 1) What nerve is likely damaged in this x-ray? a) Sciatic nerve b) Tibial nerve c) Femoral nerve d) Obturator nerve e) Common peroneal nerve 2) Which of the following imaging methods would be used for infection or hip pain of unknown etiology? a) X-ray

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b) CT c) MRI d) SPECT e) Bone scan 3) When looking an AP x-ray of the foot, there appear to be two white structures on the first toe. Which is the most likely? a) Bursitis b) Osteophytes c) Sesamoid bones d) Gouty calcification e) Hammer toe f) Hallux valgus James Lamberg

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AnswerKey Gen #1 1) A 2) D 3) E 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) E 11) C

1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) D 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) C 10) E 11) D 12) A 13) B

Gen #2 1) C 2) A 3) E 4) B 5) D 6) C 7) A

Gen #6 1) C 2) C 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) D

Gen #3 1) B 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) C 10) B 11) A

Gen #7 1) C 2) D 3) C 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) D

Gen #4 1) C 2) E 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) E

Gen #8 1) B 2) E 3) C 4) A 5) B 6) D

Gen #5

Anat #1

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1) E 2) C 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) A 7) B 8) A 9) C 10) B 11) B 12) E 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) C Anat #2 1) E 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) E Anat #3 1) E 2) E 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) B 7) D 8) A 9) E Anat #4 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) C

6) E 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) C 11) E 12) C Anat #5 1) E 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) D 11) C 12) D 13) E 14) D Anat #6 1) E 2) D 3) F 4) B 5) B 6) A Anat #7 1) B 2) B 3) D 4) A 5) E 6) A 7) C 8) A 9) D Anat #8 1) A 2) E

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Gross Anatomy – Part 1 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) A 7) D 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D Anat #9 1) B 2) E 3) C 4) E 5) D 6) D 7) D 8) F 9) B 10) B 11) D 12) D 13) C 14) E Anat #10-11 1) B 2) B 3) G 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) E 11) C 12) C 13) B Anat #12 1) C 2) B 3) C 4) D

14Mar2009 5) D 6) C 7) E 8) A 9) B Anat #13 1) E 2) D 3) C 4) D 5) C 6) E 7) B Anat #14 1) C 2) E 3) B Anat #15-16 1) C 2) E 3) B 4) E 5) C 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) B 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) A 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) D 20) B 21) E Anat #17 1) B 2) E

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3) C Anat #18-19 1) B 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) D 6) E 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) B 11) C 12) A

18) B 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) B Anat #22 1) C 2) E 3) C

Anat #20 1) B 2) A 3) A 4) D 5) C 6) B 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) C Anat #21 1) C 2) C 3) E 4) E 5) C 6) B 7) E 8) C 9) B 10) B 11) C 12) E 13) C 14) D 15) D 16) E 17) A

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Quiz Anatomy Part 1 of 3

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