Pre GPAT Test 2011

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

1. Minute opening of the tubular structure playing an important role in germination of seeds is a) Arillode b) Caruncle c) Micropyle d) Hilum 2. Polyuronic acids are the salts of a) Sod & calcium b) Calcium & magnesium c) Sodium & Magnesiu Magnesium m d) Potasium & Calcium 3. Type of o f endorphins helpful in relieving pain are a) alpha b) gamma c) delta

d) beta

4. Opium alkaloids are derived from a) Tyrosine b) phenylalan phenylalanine ine

d) mevalonic acid

c) ornithine

5. Number of Hydroxyl groups present in Pyrogallal Pyrogallal are a) three b) two c) four

d) one

6. “Liliaceae” is the family of a) Ginseng b) Bitter almond

d) red squill

c) Cascara

7. During Nitric acid test of o f aloe, color obtained was Brownish-green. variety of aloe is a) Zanzibar b) Cape c) Curacao d) Socotrine 8. Carsara contains Cascarosides, which are reported to have a) O-glycos O-glycosides ides b) C-glycos C-glycosides ides c) both a & b

d) N-glycosides

9. All statements about Digitalis thapsi are false except a) it is 3 times more potent than Digitalis Purpurea b) does not possess calcium oxalate crystals c) presence of non-glandular non-g landular trichomes d) absence of cuticle 10. Enzymati E nzymaticc biotransformation of pervoside from thevetia gives g ives a) digitoxin b) digoxin c) encordin

d) neriifolin

11. All microscopical statements are true for “Rattlesnake root” except a) starch grains are present b) absence of phloe phloem m fibres c) medullary rays are lignified d) presence of diarch primary xylem 12. Vanillin shows all IR peaks (cm-1) in the region below, except one a) 1050-1150 (COR stretch stretch)) b) 1720 (C=O stretch stretch)) c) 3650 (OH stretch) d) 1650 (NH bend) 13. A test that differentiate between pale catechu & black catechu is a) vanillin & Hydrochloric acid gives Pinkish red color b) green fluorescence with petroleum ether & ethanolic sodium hydroxide c) reddish brown fluorescence with chloroform d) Brownish red color with ferric chloride. 14. Chief active constituent present in Anethum graveolens is a) Fenchone b) carvone c) anetho anethole le d) cineole

www.rudrangispharmacy.blogspot.com

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

15. Abietic acid present in colophony is the t he salt of a) calcium b) potassium c) copper

d) sodium

16. Under Deuterium lamp, Rhapontic Rhapont ic rhubarb will give color a) deep violet b) deep blue c) black

d) yellowish

17. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Eugenia caryophillus are a) Cluster b) Rossett Rossettee c) acicular d) prismatic 18. In Jala Jalap, p, Convolvulin Co nvolvulin on hydrolysis yields rhamnoconvolvulic acid, exogenic acid & a) atropine b) abietic acid c) tiglic acid d) umbellic acid 19. Number of basic isoprene units present in Bixin are a) six b) eight c) ten

d) five

20. Type T ype of steroisomer steroisomer cinchonine is a) + b) -

d) ±

d) optically inactive

21. Characterstic odour of cocaine is due to a) methyl benzoat benzoatee b) methyl salicyalte

c) vanillin

d) asiragali asiragalinn

22. Artemisinin is a sesquiterpene lactone from Artemisia annua, should contain active constituent not less than a) 0.75 % b) 1 % c) 0.1% d) 0.05 % 23. All statements are true for Bromelain except a) inhibits COX enzyme c) Source is Serratia bromosus

b) mixture of prot proteolytic eolytic enzymes d) family is bromeliaceae

24. A water soluble component from Claviceps purpurea is a) ergocorn ergocornine ine b) ergocrist ergocristine ine c) ergotamine

d) ergometrine

25. Murexide test is done for the presence of caffine, uses potassium chlorate & Hydrochloric acid treatment with the drug gives characterstic characterstic a) yell yellow ow color b) purple color c) purple ppt d) green ppt 26. During fri friability ability studies, tablets are supposed to be best that lose weight less than a) 1.3 % b) 0.5-1 % c) 5 % d) 2-3 % 27. Find the sparingly soluble category of 1 mg drug tested t ested for its solubility solubility a) 100-1000 ml b) 10-30 ml c) 30-100 ml d) more than 1000 ml 28. A tablet exci excipient pient that is disin d isintegrant tegrant as well as binder a) acacia b) PVP c) PEG 29. A diluent used in vitamin tablets is a) anhydro anhydrous us lactose b) mannito mannitoll

d) carnoba wax

c) calcium phosp phosphate hate d) cellulose


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

30. Veegum “HV” is a) o/w

b) w/o

c) both

d) none

31. All Ranges of Tablet efficiency of a sugar coated tablet are acceptable except one a) 61 % b) 57 % c) 67 % d) 73 % 32. Kaolin, cocoa powder po wder are used in one step of tablet sugar coating co ating a) seal coating b) syrup coating c) sub co coating ating d) polishing 33. A problem of tablet coating that can be relieved by replacing low melting point substances with higher melting point substances is a) orange peel effect b) lamination c) blistering d) picking 34. Hard gelatin capsule size possessing lesser volume (ml) is of size a) 00 b) 0 c) 2 d) 5 35. Propellent number of o f dichlorotetrafluoroethane dichlorotetrafluoroethane is a) 114 b) 14 c) 112

d) 11

36. All statements are wrong regarding DOT test, except a) is the evaluation test of aerosols b) is “Di octyl thalate” test, very important test carried out for HEPA filter effeciency c) is done at -25’F d) best technique to produce class 100 room 37. All equations best suits to Fisher subsieve sizer for surface area determination except a) BET equation b) Poiseuill Poiseuille’s e’s equation c) stokes equation d) kozeny carman equation 38. Critical micelle concentration (CMC) gets decreased by a) branching of hydro hydrocarbon carbon chain b) putting dou double ble bond in hydrocar hydrocarbon bon chain c) increasing increasing hydrocarbon chain length length d) adding OH substitution to the hydrocarbon hydrocarbon chain 39. Find the deflocculated sedimentation sedimentation volume vo lume of paracetamol suspension suspension in water. initial volume was 100 ml, final volume was find to be 44 ml (degree of flocculation is 1.5) a) 2.9 b) 1.2 c) 0.90 d) 0.29 40. Arrange the following processes in order of their formation a) Dissolution, disintegration, disintegration, deaggregation, absorption b) Disin Disintegration, tegration, dissoluti d issolution, on, deaggregation, absorption c) Disin Disintegration, tegration, deaggregation, dissolution, d issolution, absorption d) Dissolution, deaggregation, disintegration, absorption 41. The drug with faster absorption is a) Phenyto Phenytoin in b) Barbiturat Barbiturates es

c) Aspirin

d) Imipramine

42. The drug with high protein binding is a) A parentr parentral al solut solution ion b) Phenytoin tablet given in epilepsy


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

c) Nitroglyce Nitroglycerine rine sublingual tablet d) Di sodium cromoglycate soft gelatin capsule 43. The drug which is not excreted rapidly in urine is a) Di sodium chromoglycate b) mecamylami mecamylamine ne c) guanithidine

d) loperam loperamide ide

44. Two statem statements ents are true regarding Urinary excretion data 1. Study is supposed to best if at least 5 half lives are determined 2. Study is supposed to best if at least 7 half lives are determined 3. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in changed/metabolite form 4. At least 10% drug should be excreted in urine in unchanged form a) 1 & 3 b) 2 & 3 c) 2 & 4 d) 1 & 4 45. 500 mg Paracetamol Paracetamol was given to a patient. patient. First order o rder elimination rate constant is 10 and clearance is 50 ml/min. Find the plasma drug concentration. a) 10 mg b) 50 mg c) 100 mg d) 5 mg 46. An agent helpful in retention of powder over face is a) glycerine b) lanolin c) butyl stearate

d) lactose

47. A poly po ly uronic acid acid derivative from Astragalus gummifer is a) gum acacia b) tragacanth c) Bentonite

d) sodium alginat alginatee

48. Kaolin is the silicate of a) magnesium b) aluminium

d) both a & b

c) fluorine

49. Pearlscent agents & sequestrants are added in the formulation of a) nail laquers b) depilato depilatories ries c) shampoo d) hair gels & lotion 50. Polyoxyl stearates esters of polyoxyethylene glycols are named a) macrogols b) spans c) tweens d) poloxalko poloxalkols ls 51. Identify the aprotic solvent a) chlorofo chloroform rm b) triethyla triethylamine mine

c) ferric chloride

d) ammonia

52. An indicator used in Volhard method of precipitation reaction is a) pot permagnate b) ferric ammoniu ammonium m sulphat sulphatee c) pot dichromate d) crystal violet 53. All are Reference electrode except a) silver silver chloride electro electrode de c) glass membrane electrode 54. Identify the demasking agent a) iodide b) hydrazine

b) saturated calomel electro electrode de d) standard hydrogen electrode c) formaldeh formaldehyde yde

d) cyanide

55. A graph between current and active ions in solution (ml) keeping voltage constant is p lotted in a) polarography b) conductometery c) amperom amperometery etery d) potentiome potentiometry try 56. 0.001Å-0.005Å range is exhibited by type of rays


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

a) x-rays

b) radiowave

57. Near IR region ( cm-1) is a) 12500-4000 b) below 667

c) microwave

d) gamma rays

c) 4000-667

d) 1250

58. 11-cis retinal shows an alkene (CH bending) range at cm-1 a) 900 b) 3030 c) 600

d) 1350

59. NMR delta value of NH2 group is a) 2-3 b) 1-2

d) 1-5

c) 6-8

60. detector used in IR spectroscopy is a) Bolometer b) Gieger muller counter

c) PMT

d) flame ionization detector

61. In interference filter, high dielectric constant films are suspended between two parallel rodes, these rodes are made up of a) gold b) silver c) Silicon oxide d) calcium fluoride 62. A term best describe for a decrease in the intensity of absorption is a) hypsochro hypsochromic mic shift b) hypochro hypochromic mic shift c) bathochro bathochromic mic shift

d) hyperchro hyperchromic mic shift

63. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below CH2

a) 245 nm

b) 240 nm

c) 275nm

d) 270 nm

64. Find the lambda max value for the compound given below O

C

Cl

a) 240 nm

b) 256 nm

CH3

c) 270 nm

d) 275 nm

65. Nujol oil o il is used a sampling technique in a) IR b) UV c) mass spectrosco spectroscopy py 66. Unit of chemical shift is a) tesla b) PPM

c) hertz

d) NMR d) dyne/cm


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

67. All are the t he solvent used in H-NMR except a) DMSO b) chlorofor chloroform m c) carbon disulp disulphide hide 68. λ=2ήb/m is the equation of

a) IR

b) NMR

c) mass

d) carbon tetrachlor tetrachloride ide d) UV

69. In mass spectroscopy, spectroscopy, graph is plotted between a) m/e ratio vs velocity of ions b) m/e ratio vs magnetc field c) m/e ratio vs intensities of ions d) m/e ratio vs potent potential ial difference among ions 70. Number of H-NMR signals given by the compound shown below is CH3

O

H2C O

a) 4

b) 2

CH3

c) 3

4) 5

71. All functional groups decreases fluorescence, except a) NH2 b) NO2 c) COOH

d) bromine

72. Amide-1 band (C=O stretch) is observed observed at cm-1 cm -1 a) 1650 b) 1725 c) 1740

d) 1590

73. A coating substance that produces mid IR range is a) KBr coated zirconium b) KBr coated germanium c) polyethylene terpthalate d) polyoxyethyl polyoxyethylene ene barium 74. Spraying agent used for the detection of lipids in chromatographic plate is a) diphenyl hydrazine b) bromocresol green c) bromophenol blue d) anili aniline ne p hthalate 75. Gradient technique is the techni t echnique que of elution that includes a) changing adsorbent for diffe different rent substances b) changing solvent composition c) keeping solvent system system same throughout the process process d) rising evaporating evaporating temperature 76. Techni T echnique que used to improve the process of separation by the column/detector in gas chromatography is done by a) derivitisation by treatment with tetramethyl silane (TMS) b) making the component more volatile c) increasing active sites on solid support d) decreasing the thickness/amount thickness/amount of o f liquid film on solid support 77. Bragg’s law associated with X-ray diffraction studies is b) 2d sin θ=nλ a) mλ =d =d (sin i±sin r) c) x/m=kc 78. Kernicterus is caused by a) dapsone b) chloram chloramphenicol phenicol

c) prednisolone


d) ν=γBo/2П

d) phenytoin

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

79. Beta carbolines are the a) partial agonist of benzodiaz benzodiazepines epines c) pure antagonist of benzod benzodiazepines iazepines

b) pure agonist of benzodiazepines d) inverse agonist of benzod benzodiazepines iazepines

80. An anticholinesterase mostly preferered in myasthenia gravis is a) physost physostigmine igmine b) pilocarpine c) pyridostigm pyridostigmine ine d) neostigmine 81. Vasamicol act by a) blocking choline transport in to storage vesicles vesicles b) blocking choline cho line uptake in nerves c) blocks releases of Ach from nerve endings d) stimulates releases of Ach from nerve endings 82. Phenylepherine is an a) α1 agonist b) β1 agonist

c) α1 antagonis antagonistt

d) α2 agonist

83. Bretylium a) prevent the release of NA from nerve endings b) displaces NA from nerve endings c) stimulates the release of NA from nerve nerve endings d) reduces the formation formation of NA 84. Ondansetron is a) 5-HT agonist

b) 5-HT antagonist

c) AT1 agonist

d) H1 antagoni antagonist st

85. A prostaglandi prostaglandinn useful in inducing abortion is a) carboprost b) misoprostol c) alprostadi alprostadill

d) dinoprostone

86. All are vasodilator except a) nitric oxide b) bradykinin

d) histamine

c) captopril

87. An effective antidote in cyanide poisoning po isoning is a) pralidoxi pralidoxime me b) erythrit erythrityl yl trinitrat trinitratee c) atropine 88. Hypertrichosis is the side effect of a) sildenafil b) minoxidil

c) diazoxide

89. Most potent steroisomer of warfarin is a) R b) S c) Racemic

d) flumazenil d) phenyto phenytoin in d) none

90. Colestipol is a hypolipidimic agent, act by a) inhibiting HMG-Co HMG-CoA A reduct reductase ase b) breaking cho cholesterol lesterol in to bile acids c) catalys catalysee the hydrolysis of triglyceride triglyceridess d) inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol 91. Flecainide is an antiarrhythmic drug, comes under the category a) class 1B b) class 1C c) class 2 d) class 4 92. Anti-platelet effect of aspirin is mediated by inhibiting a) prostaglandins b) thromoxanes c) leucotei leucoteines nes

d) epoprostinol

ilson’s disease is caused due to the abnormal metabolism of an ion in body 93. W ilson’s


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

a) copper

b) cobalt

c) mercury

d) iron

94. The startin st artingg materials required for the synthesis of chlorphinramine are a) 4-chlorobenzylcyanide 4-chlorobenzylcyanide & 2-bromopyridine 2-bromopyridine b) 2-chlorobenzylcyanide 2-chlorobenzylcyanide & 4-bromopyridine c) 4-chloropyridine 4-chloropyridine & 2-bromobenzylcyanide d) 2-chloropyridine 2-chloropyridine & 4-bromobenzylcyanide 95. An active metabolite metabolite of o f Sulindac is a) methyl methyl sulphate sulphate b) methyl sulphur monoxide monoxide c) sulphur sulphur dioxide d) methyl methyl sulphide 96. Permanent deafness is the side effect of a) amphoter amphotericin icin B b) strepto streptomycin mycin

c) ofloxac ofloxacillin illin

d) erythromy erythromycin cin

97. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme isoleucyl tRNA synthetase is a) sodium fusidate b) cycloserine c) fosfomycin d) mupirocin 98. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase is a) cephalaxin b) novobio novobioscin scin c) ofloxacilin d) rifabut rifabutin in 99. Clofazimine is the choice of drug in a) tubercu tuberculosis losis b) epilepsy

c) laprosy

d) fungal infections

100. Nevirapine belongs to the t he class of anti viral drugs a) protease inhibitor b) nucleoside reverse transcriptas transcriptasee inhibitor c) non nuclease reverse transcript transcriptase ase inhibito inhibitorr d) nucleot nucleotide ide reverse transcript transcriptase ase inhibito inhibitorr 101. The drug act by inhibiting an enzyme haeme polymerase is a) mefloquine b) miconazole c) ethambuto ethambutoll

d) atovaquo atovaquone ne

102. A novel PPAR agonist helpful in relieving hyperglycemia is a) metformin b) repaglinide c) rosig rosiglitazone litazone d) acetoxamide 103. Mifepristone is a) estrogen estrogen antagonist antagonist b) estrogen estrogen agonist agonist c) progesterone progesterone agonist d) progesterone antagonist 104. Match the following carbon numbers 1. Estrad Estradiol iol 2. Testosterone 3. Progesterone 4. cardenolides a) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

a. C19 b. C18 c. C21 d. C23 b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d d) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

105. Increased risk of artherosclerosis is associated with the decreased level of a) HDL b) LDL c) VLDL d) triglycerides 106. 3,20-dione,11β,17α-hydroxy,6α-flouro,16α-methyl is a) Paramethasone b) dexametaso dexametasone ne c) Prednisolon Prednisolonee

d) Corticostero Corticosterone ne


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

107. An ultra short acting barbiturate is a) pentobarb pentobarbital ital b) butabarbita butabarbitall

c) Phenobarbita Phenobarbitall

d) hexobarbito hexobarbitone ne

108. A vitamin possessing benzopyran basic ring is a) vitamin E b) vitamin C c) vitamin D 109. Progabide act by a) inhibits GABA reuptake in to nerve endings c) inhibits GABA metabolizing enzymes 110. Proglumide is useful in GIT problems, it is a) gastrin antagonist c) substance P antagonist

d) vitamin B6

b) GABA agonist d) GABA antagonist b) neurokinin-1 antagonist d) prodrug of omeprazole

111. A precursor for the synthesis of nalidixic acid is a) 2-amin 2-aminoo pyridine b) 2-methyl quinoline c) 2-methyl pyridine

d) 2-methyl isoquinoline

112. Probenici Probenicid-penicillin d-penicillin show drug interacti interaction on as a) probenicid increases its metabolism b) proben probenicid icid decreases its absorpt absorption ion c) probenicid increases its urinary excret excretion ion d) probenicid decreases its urinary excret excretion ion 113. A cardiovascular agent from Remijia padunculata is a) quinine b) stropant stropanthidine hidine c) quinidine

d) ouabain

114. All statements statements regarding the SAR of benzodiazepin benzod iazepines es are correct co rrect except one, identify R3

O

N

CH2

2 B

A 7 R1

5

4

C

N

C

a) electron withdrawing group at C7 in ring A increases the potency b) saturation of C=N bond in ring B reduces activity c) if branched phenyl ring is replaced by heterocyclic ring, activity rises d) C=O group at position 2 is essential for activity


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

115. An anticancer agent act by causing defected de fected microtubules microtubules polymerization due to essen essential tial protein consumption inhibition is a) topot topotecan ecan b) paclitaxal c) vincristine d) etoposide 116. About the t he correct answer answer of above question one thing is true, identi identify fy a) inhibits to topoisomerase poisomerase 1 b) inhibits topo topoisomerase isomerase 2 b) possesses crucifero cruciferous us stomata d) is a diterpeno diterpenoid id 117. A drug that is agonist as well as antagonist antagonist to opioid receptor is a) meperidine b) pentazo pentazocine cine c) propoxyp propoxyphene hene d) fentanyl 118. COMT’s inhibitor useful in Parkinson diseases is a) selegiline b) tolcapo tolcapone ne c) deprenyl

d) pergyline

119. Morphine under HCl treatment, 140’c/pressure 14 0’c/pressure gives a) heroin b) codeine c) apomorph apomorphine ine

d) phencyclid phencyclidine ine

120. All statements about prodrug are correct correct except one a) dipiveferine is the prodrug of adrenaline b) bambuterol is the prodrug of salbutamol c) hexamine is the prodrug releasing formaldehyde used in urinary tract infections d) hemisuccinate prodrug of propanolol is resistant to esterases in liver 121. Ritodrine and metaraminol metaraminol are a) β2 agonist & α1 antagonist c) β2 agonist & β1 agonist

b) β1 agonist & β2 antagonist d) β2 agonist & β1 antagonist

122. An ester of veratric acid (3,4-dimethoxy benzoic acid) relaxing smooth muscles is a) papaverine b) mebeverine c) tubo tubocurarine curarine d) dantrolene 123. Amrinone is a potent inotropic agent, act by a) inhibiting Na-K ATPase b) inhibiting guanyl cyclase c) inhibiting phosp phosphodiasterase hodiasterase enzyme d) activates adenyl cyclase 124. Forskolin reduces intraocular pressure & also causes bronchodilation. it is a a) sesquitepe sesquitepenoid noid b) sesterpeno sesterpenoid id c) ditepeno ditepenoid id d) alkaloid 125. Propanolol can be assayed as per IP using a) 0.01 m methano methanolic lic NaOH b) 0.1 m TBAH

c) 0.1 m NaOH

d) 0.1 m HCl

126. A drug that is metabolized by sulphotransferase to active N-O sulphate is a) guanethidin guanethidinee b) minoxidi minoxidill c) chlorthiazide d) losartan 127. Angiotensin 3 is a a) heptapept heptapeptide ide b) nonapept nonapeptide ide

c) decapeptide

d) octapep octapeptide tide


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

128. Find the odd one a) phenindi phenindiones ones b) enoxapoarin

c) protamine sulphate

d) dicouma dicoumarol rol

129. Co-trimoxazole is the combination of o f trimethoprim with with a) sulphisoxazo sulphisoxazoll b) sulphadiazen sulphadiazenee c) sulphametho sulphamethoxazole xazole 130. Streptomyces veneszulae is the source of a) Tetracyclin b) Chloramp Chloramphenico henicoll c) Nystatin

d) progu proguanil anil

d) Mitomycin

131. Configurati Configuration on of o f chloramphenicol most effective is a) D-threo R,R b) D-threo S,R c) D-threo S,S d) D-threo R,S 132. A beta lactamase/suicide inhibitor having oxazolidine moitee is a) tazobact tazobactam am b) salbactam c) clavulinic acid d) imipenam 133. The starting materials required for the synthesis of chlorambucil are a) P-aminophenyl P-aminophenylbutyric butyric acid & ethylene oxide b) P-aminophenyl P-aminophenylbenzoic benzoic acid & methylene oxide c) P-aminophenyl P-aminophenylbenzoic benzoic acid & ethylene oxide d) P-aminobenzylphen P-aminobenzylphenolic olic acid & ethylene oxide 134. An anticancer anticancer agent possessi possessing ng Radiomimetic activity is a) mitotane b) cisplatin c) procar procarbazine bazine

d) thiotepa

135. A folic acid derivative is a) lomustine b) busalp busalphan han

d) methotrexat methotrexatee

c) tegafur

136. A schedule describing describing factory premises for ayurvedic drugs comes under a) T b) U c) Q d) FF 137. A schedule describing describing labeling of o f drugs comes under a) D b) E c) G

d) M

138. A schedule describing contraceptives standards comes under a) W b) X c) R d) Q 139. Application for wholesale of drugs under category C, C1 but not in X is applied in a) 20 B b) 21 B c) 21 BB d) 20 BB 140. One is not an ex-officio member of pharmacy council of india. Identify a) the director general of health services b) the drug controller of india c) the director, pharma pharmacy cy council of india d) the director of central drug laboratory 141. Michael’s index for grade B HEPA filter is

a) 6.5

b) 5.5

c) 4.5

142. Identify an optically inactive amino acid


d) 3.5

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

a) alanine

b) valine

c) glycine

d) trypto tryptophan phan

143. Paper chromatography is based upon the t he principle of a) absorpt absorption ion b) adsorption c) partition

d) ion exchange

144. SGOT is associated with a) liver infection b) Myocardial infaction c) peptic ulcer

d) kidney failure

145. Nitric oxide releasing amino acid is a) citruline b) arginine

d) methionine

c) cystine

146. A precursor for cori cycle is a) succinate b) pyruvate c) lactate d) glucose 147. All statements regarding gram negative bacteria are correct except a) multi layered b) Tiechoic acid is absent c) Lipopo Lipopolysacchride lysacchride content very high d) example is Vibrio cho cholrae lrae 148. Gentamycin can be assayed using a) Staphylococus epidermis b) Staphylococus aurecus c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Bacillus pumilus 149. Immunological product for rabie rabiess is available as a) antiviral serum b) antibacterial serum c) antitoxin

d) toxo toxoid id

150. Measles vaccine is tested for checking freedom from neuro virulance on a) ox b) monkey c) horse d) pig 151. Roye’s sachet is used for the chemical validation of sterilization technique a) dry heat b) moist heat c) gaseous d) radiation 152. Microbe used for the t he biological validation validation of o f moist heat sterilization sterilization is a) Clostridium sporugenes b) Bacillus pumulis c) Pseudomonas dimnuta d) Serratia mercesense 153. Cold sterilisation is a) contineous dry heat sterilisation uder UV radiation b) continuous moist heat sterilization sterilization under u nder UV radiati rad iation on c) continuous moist heat sterilization under IR radiation d) continuous dry heat sterili sterilization zation under IR radiation 154. The number of degree of temperature change to produce a ten fold change in D-value is called a) F-value b) lethal value c) Z-valu Z-valuee d) R-value 155. An ideal emulsion emulsion parentral should have a drop d rop size of a) 3 μm b) 5 μm c) 2 μm

d) 7 μm

156. Pyrogens can be effectively expelled out from a parentral solution solution by methods b) Passing throu through gh membrane filter a) Dry heat at 250’c for 30 min


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

c) Reverse osmos osmosis is

d) All above

157. Maximum bubble pressure test is done do ne for checking the efficiency of a) parentrals b) aerosols c) HEPA filter d) membrane filter 158. One statement is correct regarding parentrals a) High volume of distribution, high protein binding, high absorption b) Low volume of distribution, high protein binding, low absorption c) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, no absorption d) High volume of distribution, no protein binding, high absorption 159. Pyrogens are a) endoto endotoxin xin & dec bod bodyy temp b) exotoxin & inc bod bodyy temp c) endoto endotoxin xin & inc body temp d) exotoxin & dec body temp 160. A solution was shaken with high stress, soon it converted to thick gel. The solution was a) Pseudop Pseudoplastic lastic b) Plastic c) Dilatent d) Newtonian 161. Find the correct statement a) Adhesive force are the forces between particles of same types b) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of same types c) Cohesive forces are the forces between two rough surfaces d) Cohesive forces are the forces between the particles of different types 162. Match the following data of o f angle of repose & flow properties 1. Less than 25 a) very poor 2. 25-30 b) passabl passablee 3. 30-40 c) good 4. More than 40 d) excellent a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a d) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a 163. Hausner index is a) Poured densi density-tapped ty-tapped density b) Tapped densi densityty- poured density c) Tapped densi density/ ty/ poured densi density ty d) Poured densi density/ ty/ tapped density density 164. Match the following HLB values 1. 3-8 a) sodium lauryl sulphat sulphatee 2. 7-9 b) detergent 3. 13-16 c) span 4. Greater than 16 d) wetting agents a) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a b) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b d) 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a 165. Zeta potential of a solution so lution can be a) Positive b) Negative 166. Match the following 1. Viscosit Viscosityy 2. Surface tension 3. Surface area

c) Zero

d) All of above

a) stokes equation b) BET equation c) stalagmometer


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

4. Surface diameter d) ostward viscometer a) 1-d, 2-c, 2-c, 3-a, 3-a, 4-b 4-b b) 1-d, 2-b, 2-b, 3-c, 3-c, 4-a 4-a c) 1-d, 2-b, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 167. The T he tablets tablets with very high bioavailability bioavailability is a) Omeperazo Omeperazole le chewab chewable le tablet b) Nitroglycer Nitroglycerine ine subling sublingual ual tablet c) Ammonium Ammo nium chlor chloride ide troches d) Nemusilide dispens dispensing ing tablet 168. A cardiac glycoside obtained from Stropanthus gratus or Acocanthera schimperi is a) digoxin b) G-stropant G-stropanthin hin c) ouabain d) b & c 169. Starting materials required for synthesis of Nifedipine are a) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzoic acid b) Methyl acetic acid & 2-nitrobenzaldehyde c) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-nitrobenzal 2-nitrobenzaldehyde dehyde d) Methyl acetoacetate & 2-ni 2 -nitrobenzoate trobenzoate 170. Calcium channel blocker with benzothiazipene ring is a) nifedipine b) amlodipine c) verapamil

d) diltiazem

171. Starting materials for synthesis of Propanolol are a) α-napthol & epichlorohydrazine b) α-napthol & epichlorohydrin c) β-napthol & epichlorohydrazine d) β-napthol & epichlorohydrin 172. Isoxuprine is a uterine relaxant. It is a) β2 agonist

b) β1 agonist

c) β1 blocker

d) β2 blocker

173. Guggulsterones are the steroids containing carbon numbers a) 18 b) 19 c) 21

d) 24

174. An antidote for diazepam poisoning is a) dessferioxi dessferioxime me b) dimercaprol

d) flumazenil

c) furosemide

175. A substance that causes the problem of transplant rejection is a) calcitrol b) colcalcifero colcalciferoll c) calcineurin 176. Heparin a) inhibits ant antithrombin ithrombin 3 c) inhibits vitamin k epoxide reduct reductase ase 177. All are true about sulfinpyrazole except a) COX inhibitor b) uricosuric agent

d) substance P

b) activates antithro antithrombin mbin 3 d) activates vitamin k epoxide reduct reductase ase c) antiplatelet

d) anti fungal

178. An indicator chiefly used in iodimetery is a) pot dichromate b) crystal violet c) carboxy methyl starch d) methylene blue 179. A compound used as a solvent in UV spectroscopy is a) saturated aldehydes b) cyclohexane c) clycloha clyclohaxene xene


d) alkyl halides

PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

180. The value of Geminal coupling (Hz) ranges from a) 0-15 b) 1-18 c) 5-18 181. M/e ratio is dependent over o ver a) magnetic field b) voltage & velocit velocityy 182. Mclefferty arrangement is migration of γ bond, breaking of β bond bond a) migration c) migration migration of α bond, breaking of β bond bond

c) radius

d) 0-20

d) magnetic field, radius & voltage

b) migration migration of β bond, breaking of γ bond d) migration migration of γ bond, breaking of α bond bond

183. Match the following 1. Beer’s lambert law a. M/e= r²h²/2v 2. Fabrey parrot b. Λ=2ήb/m 3. Mass spectroscopy c. γH/2п 4. NMR frequency d. A=abc a) 1-d, 2-b, 2-b, 3-c, 3-c, 4-a b) 1-d, 2-b, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c c) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 3-a, 4-c d) 1-d, 2-c, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a 184. T- shaped trichomes are present in a) artemisia & clove b) clove & feverfew c) feverfew & artemisia d) feverfew 185. The active constituent of plectranthus plectranthus barbalus is a) taxol b) baccatin c) forskholin 186. Smell of Ferula foetida is due to a) asaresinotanno asaresinotannoll b) umbelliferone

c) disulphide disulphidess

d) bixin d) umbe umbellic llic acid

187. Gibberelli Gibberellicc acid a) induces beta amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose g lucose formation b) inhibits beta amylase, induces hydrolytic enzymes & glucose formation c) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & glucose g lucose formation d) induces alpha amylase, hydrolytic enzymes & inhibits gluconeogenesis 188. The T he precursor for cynogenetic glycosides glycosides is a) squaline b) mevalonic acids c) shikmic acid

d) phenylalanine

189. Lignifie Lignifiedd trichomes t richomes are present in a) nux vomica b) digitalis purpur purpurea ea

d) belladonna

c) digitallis thapsi

190. St. John wort is the common name of a) senna b) rhubarb c) hypericum

d) aloe

191. Type of calcium oxalate crystals present in Urgenia indica are a) rosette b) cluster c) acicular d) raphids 192. A selective MAO B inhibitor is a) deprenyl b) tranylcypr tranylcypromine omine c) phenelzine

d) isocarboxaz isocarboxazid id


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011

193. Sel Selective ective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is a) phenelzine b) pergyline c) paroxetine

d) imipramine

194. The formation of esters from ketones is a) bayer villager rearrangeme rearrangement nt b) backmann rearrangeme rearrangement nt c) curtius rearrange rearrangement ment d) Hoffmann rearrangeme rearrangement nt 195. identify the named reaction OH OH CHO

CHCl3

NaOH

a) Perkin’s reaction

b) Hell wolhard zensticky reaction

c) Riemer tiemann reactio reactionn

d) Hoffmann bromamid bromamidee reaction.

196. Find the odd one that t hat is not the isoster of rest rest 3 options. a) NH b) CH2 c) O d) CH3 197. Identify the named reaction OCOC6H5

OH

C6H5COCl

NaOH

HCl

a) wolf kishn kishner er reduction

b) kolbe reaction

c) friedel craft’s acylation

d) schotten baumann reaction

198. Benorylate is a prodrug of a) paracetamo paracetamoll & aspirin b) aspirin & sulin sulindac dac c) nemiuslide 199. Lysuride is a) D1 agonis agonistt b) D2 agonist

c) D1, D2 agonist

200. Find the odd one a) clonidine b) methyl dopa

c) yohimbine

d) aspirin & nemiuslid nemiuslidee

d) antagonist of both d) guanabenz


PRE-GPAT TEST 2011 ANSWERS

1-c 2-b 3-d 4-a 5-a 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-a 10-b 11-a 12-d 13-b 14-b 15-c 16-b 17-a 18-c 19-b 20-a 21-a 22-c 23-c 24-d 25-b 26-b 27-c 28-b 29-b 30-c 31-b 32-c 33-d 34-d

35-a 36-a 37-a 38-c 39-d 40-c 41-c 42-b 43-d 44-c 45-c 46-b 47-b 48-b 49-c 50-a 51-a 52-b 53-c 54-c 55-c 56-c 57-a 58-c 59-d 60-a 61-b 62-b 63-a 64-b 65-a 66-b 67-b 68-d

69-c 70-c 71-a 72-a 73-b 74-c 75-b 76-b 77-b 78-a 79-d 80-c 81-a 82-a 83-a 84-b 85-d 86-d 87-b 88-b 89-b 90-b 91-b 92-b 93-a 94-a 95-d 96-b 97-d 98-d 99-c 100-c 101-a 102-c

103-d 104-d 105-a 106-a 107-d 108-a 109-b 110-a 111-c 112-d 113-c 114-c 115-b 116-d 117-c 118-b 119-c 120-b 121-c 122-b 123-c 124-c 125-c 126-b 127-a 128-c 129-c 130-b 131-a 132-c 133-a 134-b 135-d 136-a

137-c 138-c 139-b 140-c 141-c 142-c 143-c 144-b 145-b 146-c 147-a 148-a 149-a 150-b 151-c 152-a 153-d 154-c 155-a 156-d 157-d 158-c 159-c 160-c 161-b 162-a 163-c 164-b 165-d 166-d 167-b 168-d 169-c 170-d

171-b 172-b 173-c 174-d 175-c 176-b 177-d 178-c 179-b 180-d 181-d 182-a 183-b 184-c 185-c 186-c 187-c 188-c 189-a 190-c 191-d 192-a 193-c 194-a 195-c 196-d 197-d 198-a 199-c 200-c

***ALL THE BEST ***

Thanks and Regards, Rudrangi's Pharmacy Blogspot.


Pre GPAT Test 2011

Recommend Documents