TEST PAPER-1
PRE-GPAT MOCK TEST
GPAT TEST SERIES BY PHARMAROCKS
PHARMAROCKS PRE-GPAT MOCK TEST PAPER 1
GPAT TEST SERIES AMAR RAVAL INSTRUCTIONS Test Paper Contain Total 125 MCQ. Each right answer having 4 marks. Total marks 500. Negative marking 1 mark for each wrong answer. Solve The MCQ carefully and improve your confidence. Fill up your answer in the answer sheet. ANS-KEY is forward on next day of test paper. Best of luck friends keep rocking always
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PHARMAROCKS GPAT SUCCESS TEST SERIES 2015 WELCOME TO PHARMAROCKS HELLO FRIENDS, PHARMAROCKS HAVE START ONLINE GPAT COATCHING FOR GPAT-2015. IT PROVIDES YOU ONLINE COATCHING AND GPAT TEST AS PER GPAT EXAM FORMAT
KEY FEATURE OF PHARMAROCKS ONLINE GPAT COATCHING
ONLINE COATCHING TILL GPAT 2015 EXAMINATION
PINPOINT MATERIAL
TOTAL 56 TEST AS PER GPAT FORMAT
125 MCQ IN EACH TEST PAPER
PREPARATION WITH TOTAL 7000 MCQ
40 WEEKLY TEST (125 MCQ IN EACH TEST)
10 SUBJECT WISE TEST
6 MOCK TEST (PRE-GPAT TEST)
ANS KEY AND SOLUTION OF IMPORTANT MCQ
YOU WILL ALSO RECEIVE YOUR TEST RESULT AS PER GPAT FORMAT FEE STRUCTURE 2000/- RS
FEE IS 2000 RS OF TOTA 56 TEST
NO ANY ADDITIONAL REGISTRATION FEE IMPORTANT DATES
REGISTRATION STARTS
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12/7/2014 (GURUPURNIMA)
LAST DATE OF REGISTRATION
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31/7/2014
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1. Effects seen only with depolarizing blockade include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Hypercaliemia b. A decrease in intraocular pressure c. Emesis d. Muscle pain 2. Correct statements about cortisol (hydrocortisone. include all of the following, EXCEPT: a. Cortisol is synthesized from cholesterol b. ACTH governs cortisol secretion c. Most cortisol is inactivated in the liver d. The half-life of cortisol in the circulations is normally about 60-90 hours 3. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated in patients with glaucoma? a. Tubocurarine b. Succinylcholine c. Pancuronium d. Gallamine 4. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a short- to medium-acting drug? a. Prednisolon b. Dexamethasone c. Triamcinolone d. All of the above 5. Which of the following diseases can augment the neuromuscular blockade produced by nondepolarizing musclerelaxants? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Burns c. Asthma d. Parkinsonism 6. the drug which belongs to nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors: a. Didanosine b. Gancyclovir c. Nevirapine d. Vidarabine
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7. The unwanted effects of zidovudine: a. Hallucinations, dizziness b. Anemia, neutropenia, nausea, insomnia c. Hypertension, vomiting d. Peripheral neuropathy 8. Indicate the agent, which effectively antagonizes the neuromuscular blockade caused by nondepolarizing drugs: a. Atropine b. Neostigmine c. Acetylcholine d. Pralidoxime 9. Which of the following sympathomimetics acts indirectly? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Ephedrine d. Methoxamine 10. Which of the following statements is not correct? a. ALFA receptors increase arterial resistence, whereas beta receptor promote smooth muscle relaxation b. The skin and splanchic vessels have predominantly alfa receptors c. Vessels in a skeletal muscle may constrict or dilate depending on whether alfa or beta receptors are activated d. Skeletal muscle vessels hav predominantly alfa receptors and constrict in the presence of epinephrine and norepinephrine 11. the group of hormonal drugs used for cancer treatment: a. Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids b. Glucocorticoids and gonadal hormones c. Gonadal hormones and somatotropin d. Insulin 12. Methotrexate is: a. A purine antagonist b. A folic acid antagonist c. An antibiotic d. An alkylating agent
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TEST PAPER-1
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13. The action mechanism of anticancer drugs belonging to plant alkaloids: a. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis b. Cross-linking of DNA c. Mitotic arrest at a metaphase d. Nonselective inhibition of aromatases 14. Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT: a. Acute peptic ulcers b. Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome c. Salicylism d. Hypomania or acute psychosis 15. Side effect of cyclosporine A is: a. Tremor b. Anorexia c. Chills d. Myalgia 16. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is contained in all of the following tissues EXCEPT: a. Bronchial muscles b. Heart c. Pupillary dilator muscle d. Fat cells
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20. Enzyme drug used for acute leukemia treatment: a. Dihydrofolate reductase b. Asparaginase c. Aromatase d. DNA gyrase 21. Which of the following antivitamins prevent a vitamin A from exerting its typical metabolic effects? a. Lipooxidase b. Oral contraceptives c. Antibiotics d. All of the above 22. Which of the following antienzymes is a proteolysis inhibitor? a. Contrical b. Sulbactam c. Aminocaproic acid d. Disulfiram 23. All pharmacy colleges conducting degree/diploma in pharmacy has to submitte SIF every year on OR before? A. 30 th August B. 30 th September C. 1 st April D. None
17. Which of the following statement is not correct? a.Αlfa agonists cause miosis b.Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis c. Beta antagonists decrease the production of aqueous humor d.Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of aqueous humor from the eye
24. The first pharmacy council of India was constituted by the central Government in A. 1948 B. 1949 C. 1991 D. 1956
18. drug used for influenza A prevention a. Acyclovir b. Rimantadine c. Saquinavir d. Foscarnet
25. Substance specified under which schedule be labeled with the words “Poison: For External Use Only” A. Schedule G B. Schedule H C. Schedule E D. Schedule P
19. A bronchial smooth muscle contains: a. Alfa 1 receptor b. Αlfa 2 receptor c. Beta 1 receptor d. Beta 2 receptor
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26. Life period of drug, Ampicillin Sodium” in Cool place is for A. 12 months B. 24 months C. 36 months D. 48 months
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27. Which color label is used for blood group “O” A. Blue B. Yellow C. Pink D. White
34. One of the following is a “Steroidal Glycoside” as phytoconstituents, it is A. Quilalia B. Senna C. Cascara D. Digitalis
28. rescription related to Narcotic drug has symbol on the top A. NRx B. PRx C. Rx D. Nx
35. Chemical test for Caffeine is: A. Keris test B. Hal-Phens test C. Murexide test D. Boarfoeds test
29. National Institute of Pharmaceutical education and research was first established at A. Ahmedabad B. Hyderabad C. Mohali D. Guwahati 30. Which section of D & C 1940 related with Adulterated drug? A. 33E B. 33EE C. 33D D. 33G 31. The drug controller general of India is a Ex-officio member of A. DTAB B. State Pharmacy council C. Technical Education Board of State D. Supreme court of India 32. Provision Applicable To The Production of Bacterial Vaccine Under Which Schedule of D & C Act A. Schedule E B. Schedule C1 C. Schedule C D. Schedule F 33. Haritaki is the Ayurvedic name of A. Tinospora cordifolia B. Terminalia belerica C. Terminelia Arjuna D. Terminelia chebula
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36. Total ash value in the case of crude drug signifies: A. Organic content of the drug B. Woody matters present in the drug C. Mineral matter in the drug D. All Above 37. Salkowski reaction is used for identify A. Steroids B. Tri-terpenes C. Alkaloids D. Guggul lipids 38. Which drug is not steroidal saponins? A. Dioscorea B. Brahmi C. Shatavari D. Gokhru 39. Which one of the following drug does not contain steroidal alkaloid? A. Kantakari B. Kada chhal C. Vacchanag D. Green hellebore 40. Multiseriate medullary rays and steroidal alkaloids are present in A. Veratrum B. Kurchi bark C. Ashwagandha root D. Kantakari 41. Creatinine level in urine is analyzed by A. Hay’s test B. Gmelin test C. Schiff’s test D. Jaffe’s test
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42. Vitiligo is treated by using A. Embellica officinalis B. Saraca Indica C. Azadirachta indica D. Psoralea corylifolia 43. Rutin is a example of A. Triterpenoid glycosides B. Tropane alkaloids C. Saponin glycoside D. Flavonoid glycoside 44. Theventia nerrifolia contain A. Anthraquinone nucleus B. Flavonol nucleus C. Steroid nucleus D. Triterpenoid nucleus
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50. Which solution is commonly known as cuoxam A. Copper Dioxide + Ammoniacal so lution B. Copper oxide + Silver nitrite solution C. Copper oxide + Ammoniacal so lution D. None of them 51. Swelling index is defined as the volume in A. Millilitres occupied by 1 g of a drug B. Millilitres occupied by 1 mg of a drug C. Millilitres occupied by 10 g of a drug D. Millimetres occupied by 1 g of a drug 52. Murexide test is used for detection of A. Tropane alkaloids B. Quinoline alkaloids C. Pyridine alkaloids D. Purine alkaloids
45. Chitin give yellowish brown colour with which reagent? A. sudan red B. chlor zinc chloride C. alcohol chlorophyll solution D. iodine solution + sulphuric acid
53. Family for tea plant is A. Rubiaceae B. Apocyanaceae C. Malvaceae D. Theaceae
46. PANAXADIOL is a constituenet of A. Ginger B. Paper C. Ginseng D. Jatamansi
54. Determination of swelling index is used for A. Opium B. Isbagul C. Senna D. Digitalis
47. Dragandroff’s reagent doesn’t give a positive test with A. Emetine B. Morphine C. Caffine D. Codeine
55. Lyophilization means a. Sterilization b. Freeze-drying c. Burning to ashes d. Exposure to formation
48. In libbermannen Burchard test upper layer shows ____________ colour which shows presence of steroids A. Red B. Green C. Violet D. Blue 49. Alcohol acts as a clearing agent by dissolving: A. Gums B. Mucilage C. Resins D. All of above
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56. The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pasteurization but does not grow at higher temperatures a. Thermophiles b. Extreme thermophiles c. Thermoduric d. Facultative thermophiles 57. Ergot disease is caused by a. Puccinia b. Rhizopus c. Claveceps d. Penicillium
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58. Nagler reaction detects a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae b. Clostridium tetani c. Clostridium perfringens d. Clostridium botulinum 59. Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a microorganism a. Nitrosomonas b. Nitrosococcus c. Nitrobacter d. Azatobacter 60. The main product of glycolysis under aerobic conditions is a. Pyruvate b. Lactate c. None of these d. Both a and b 61. Drug resistance in bacteria is mainly determined by factor: a. F b. R c. Col d. Lysogenic factor 62. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus? a. SV 40 b. T4 phage c. Tobacco mosaic virus d. Adeno virus 63. Prausnitz kustner reaction generated by a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgD
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66. Carcinoma refers to a. Malignant tumours of the connective tissue b. Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous membrane c. Malignant tumours of the colon d. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue 67. The general formula of carbohydrate is a. (CH2O.n b. (C4H2O.n c. (C6H2O.n d. (C2H2O.n COOH 68. Chitin consists of a. N-acetyl muramic acid b. N-acetyl glucosamine c. D-glucose units d. N-acetyl muramic acid & N-acet yl glucosamine 69. Amylopectin has a. β-1-4 and β-1-6 linkage b. β-1-2 linkage c. α-1-4 and α-1-6 linkage d. α-1-2 linkage 70. α-helix has a. 3.4 amino acid residues/turn b. 3.6 amino acid residues/turn c. 3.8 amino acid residues/turn d. 3.0 amino acid residues/turn 71. A dipeptide has a. 2 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds b. 2 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds c. 3 amino acids and 3 peptide bonds d. 2 amino acids and 4 peptide bonds
64. Natural killer cells a. Belongs to B-cell lineage b. Belongs to T-cell lineage c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour cell d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation
72. Which one of the following amino acids has a higher propensity for cis peptide bond formation? A. Histidine B. Cysteine C. Glycine D. Proline
65. Food poisoning is caused by a. Clostridum tetani b. Clostridum Welchi c. Diptheria d. Clostridium botulinum
73. Myoglobin is a a. protein with primary structure b. protein with secondary structure c. protein with tertiary structure d. protein with quaternery structure
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74. Which one of the following amino acid residues is specifically recognised by chymotrypsin during peptide bond cleavage? A. Phe B. Leu C. Val D. Asp
81. Which of the following medium is used for differentiation of lactose and non - lactose fermentors? a. Mac Conkey's medium b. Stuart medium c. Sugar medium d. Citrate medium
75. The major protein responsible for the storage of iron a. Ferredoxin b. Ferretin c. Hemosiderine d. Transferine
82. Which of the following semipermeable membrane used in haemodialysis? a. Cellophane b. Cellulose acetate c. Polyethene d. Polyvinyl acetate
76. Left handed DNA a. A-DNA b. B-DNA c. Z-DNA d. C-DNA 77. The Given reaction is an example for which of the following? -
83. Iron content of gelatine used for the preparation of soft capsule not be more than a. 15 ppm b. 20 ppm c. 25 ppm d. 30 ppm
+
CH3O Na + CH3Cl - CH3 - O - CH3 + NaCl
a. Williamson reaction b. Clemmenson reaction c. Wuotz's reaction d. Reformatsky reaction
84. X-rays generally interact with A. Nucleus B. Valence electron C. Inner most electrons D. Covalent bond
78. What is the principle involved in the VDRL test? a. Agglutination b. Precipitation c. Flocculation d. Opsonisation
85. Gonimeter is a component of ? A. UV-Visible spectroscopy B. IR spectroscopy C. Mass spectroscopy D. None of these
86. Size of the sample to be injected in GC with normal column is 79. LAL (Limulus Amebocyte Lysate. is a. In vitrotest for detecting pyrogenic endotoxins A. 0.02 microliter B. 1 to 10 microliter b.In vivo test for detecting pyrogenic endotoxins C. 1 to 10 ml c.In vitro test for detecting pyrogenic exotoxins D. 0.2 microliter d.In vivo test for detecting pyrogenic exotoxins 80. Calculate the amount of 95 % alcohol required to prepare 400 ml of 45 % alcohol? a. 190 ml b. 844 ml c. 240 ml d. 120 ml
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87. Kovat's retention index is used to characterise? A. Analyte B. Solvent C. Liquid stationary phase D. Column
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88. Which of the following group is detected by using Herzig Meyer method? a. Alkyl group b. Hydroxy group c. Alkoxy group d. N-alkyl group
95. Which of the following amino acids contains imidazole ring? a. Histidine b. Asparagine c. Tryptophan d. Proline
89. In GC, sample is injected using A. Rheodyne injector B. Micro syringe C. Flow injection D. None of these
96. Which of the following is not an example for synthetic hair dye? a. Para toluene diamine b. p-phenylenediamine c. Sulpho-ortho-amino phenol d. Lead acetate with precipitated sulphur
90. Metastable peaks are always present at a. Even mass numbers b. Integral mass numbers c. Odd mass d. Non-integral mass 91. In HPLC, which pump gives a mobile phase flow rate dependent on column permeability? a. Constant pressure pumps b. Constant displacement pumps c. Reciprocating pumps d. Pneumatic pumps 92. Which one is used as Cuticle Remover? a. Nitrocellulose b. Mineral oil c. Trisodium phosphate d. Acetoglyceride 93. Use of infusion of Tulsi leaves? a. Insecticidal b. Spasmolytic c. Stomachic d. Stimulant 94. Which of the following is the active metabolite of Quinidine? a. 3-Hydroxy quinidine b. 3-hydroxy quinine c. 2-Hydroxy quinidine d. 2-hydroxy quinine
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97. Which of the following drying method under controlled conditions results in changes in chemical composition? a. Processing b. Mulching c. Curing d. Fermentation 98. Polarogram of a solution containing an electro-reducible substance is obtained by plotting? a. Potential Vs Volume b. Current Vs Volume c. Resistance Vs Time d. Current Vs Potential 99. Which of the following is the IUPAC name for Progesterone? a. Pregn-2-ene-3, 20-dione b. Pregn-4, 6-dien-3, 20-dione c. Pregn-2, 6-diene-3, 20-dione d. Pregn-4-ene-3, 20-dione 100. Which of the following is an example for Thermal Conductivity Detector? a. Flame Thermocouple Detector b. Flame Thermionic Detector c. Katharometer d. Flame Ionization Detector
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101. site of oxidation in electrochemical cell. a. cathod b. anode c. electrode d. solt bridge
108. Column oven for HPLC works between A. 10 to 50 degree celcius B. 50 to 200 degree celcius C. 35 to 140 degree celcius D. None of these
102. A cell is bathed is a solution that has a greater osmolarity than that of the cytosol. This solution is best described as which one of the following? a) Isotonic b) Hypertonic c) Hypotonic d) None of the above
109. Antibodies can isolated in pure form by A. Affinity chromatography B. NP HPLC C. RP HPLC D. Ion exchange chromatography
103. the value of K for equilibrium A + B+
AB +
-
a. K = [AB] / [A ] [B ] b. K = [A+] [B-] / [AB] c. K = [AB] 2 / [A+] [B-] d. K = [AB] / [A+]2 [B-]2 104. Which of the following NSAIDs is a pyrazolone derivative? a. Ibuprofen b. Indomethacin c. Metamizol d. Diclofenac 105. Monochromatic light means A. One colour light B. One wavelength light C. One frequency D. All of above 106. If concentration and absorption are proportional, then it follows A. Beer's law B. Lambert's law C. Plank's law D. Einstein's law 107. Prism works on principle of A. Diffraction B. Absorption C. Refraction D. None
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110. Elek test is used for diagnosis of A. Diphtheria B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Leprosy D. T.B.
AMAR RAVAL 9016312020
111. Penicillin amidase enzyme P. Convert penicillin into 6-APA in alkaline conditions. Q. In acidic condition it is used to synthesise penicillin from 6-APA. A. P is true, Q is false B. P is false, Q is true C. P & Q are true D. P &Q are false 112. Which one of the following medicines does not rely on topical drug delivery? a. Nasal spray b. Anti-dandruff shampoo c. Insulin pen d. Nicotine patch 113. Express 50 mg in kg. a. 5 x 10-3 kg b. 5 x 10-4 kg c. 5 x 10-5 kg d. 5 x 10-6 kg 114. Which of the following provides the best definition of pharmaceutics? a. It is the study of dosage form design, including associated manufacturing techniques b. It is the study of the effect that drugs have on the body c. Its study of the effect that the body has on drugs d. It is the study of how drugs can be chemically synthesised
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115. A rectal suppository is used to treat a fever. It represent which type of drug delivery system? a. Parenteral and local b. Parenteral and systemic c. Enteral and local d. Enteral and systemic 116. Which one of the following is an example of the chemical modification of an active pharmaceutical ingredient? a. Converting a crystalline API into an amorphous form b. Combining a basic API with citric acid to produce the citrate salt of the API c. Mixing a poorly soluble API with water to produce a suspension d. Mixing a soluble API with water to produce a solution 117. The mesh size of USP disintegrator is a. 5-6 b. 2.5 c. 28-32 d. 10
GPAT TEST SERIES BY PHARMAROCKS
121. A tablet to treat a headache must first be dissolved in water before swallowing. Which one of the following best describes this type of tablet? a. Modified release b. Oral disintegrating c. Effervescent d. Buccal 122. Name two different types of inhaler? a. MDI & API b. IV & SC c. DPI & MDI d. GIT & ATP 123. Which one of the following equations defines the enthalpy of reaction, ΔH, for a reaction occurring at constant pressure that does expansion work? All terms have their usual meanings. a. ΔH = ΔU b. ΔH = ΔU + pΔV c. ΔH = ΔG - TΔS d. ΔH = q + w
124. Which of the four colligative properties 118. The thickness of tablets are measured by arises in systems where there is an a. Sliding caliper scale equilibrium between a liquid solution phase b. Rotating disc technique and a second liquid phase? c. Microscopic Technique a. Lowering of vapour pressure d. Techincon Auto analyser b. Lowering of melting point c. Raising of boiling point d. Osmotic pressure 119. Of the following oral liquid formulations which would be considered as an oropharyngeal formulation? 125. What is the typical osmolarity of a. Syrup physiological fluids? b. Elixir a. 300 Mosmol L-1 c. Mouthwash b. 0.3 mosmol L-1 d. Linctus c. 300 osmol L-1 d. 0.3 osmol L-1 120. Which of the following formulations would not be applicable to ocular administration? a. Solution b. Liniment c. Suspension P H A R M A R OCK S d. Ointment
B EST OF L U CK A M A R RA V A L
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HELLO FRIENDS WELCOME TO PHARMAROCKS GPAT TEST SERIES. REVISE YOUR PAPER AGAIN AFTER FILL UP ANSWER FORWARD YOUR ANS SHEET TO US AFTER FILL UP YOUR ANS TRY TO ATTEMP MORE MCQ FOR SCORE MORE IN GPAT EXAM WHICH IS IMPROVE YOUR ALL INDIA RANK IF U HAVE DOUBLE DOUT FOR ANY MCQ TAKE CHANCE TO ATTEMP IT AT LAST FIST SOLVE ALL THE MCQ IN WHICH YOU ARE SURE BEST OF LUCK.
PHARMAROCKS GPAT SUCCESS TEST SERIES 2015 ORGANISE BY PHARMAROCKS MR. AMAR RAVAL M.PHARM SEM IV BMCPER MODASA GUJARAT TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY AHMEDABAD WEBSITE http://pharmarocks.webnode.in/ OFFICIAL FACEBOOK PAGE www.facebook.com/pharmarocks CONTACT 9016312020 , 7778972213
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TEST PAPER-1
PRE-GPAT MOCK TEST
GPAT TEST SERIES BY PHARMAROCKS
PHARMA-ROCKS GPAT TEST SERIES ANSWER KEY PRE-GPAT MOCK TEST PAPER-1 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
B
D
B
A
A
A
B
B
C
D
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
B
B
C
C
A
C
A
B
D
A
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
A
A
C
A
C
C
A
A
C
B
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
A
C
D
D
C
D
A
B
C
B
41
42
43
44
45
46
47
48
49
50
D
D
D
C
B
C
C
B
D
C
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
A
D
D
D
B
C
C
C
C
A
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
69
70
D
C
B
C
D
D
A
B
C
B
71
72
73
74
75
76
77
78
79
80
A
D
C
A
B
C
A
B
A
A
81
82
83
84
85
86
87
88
89
90
A
A
A
B
D
B
A&C
D
B
D
91
92
93
94
95
96
97
98
99
100
A
C
C
A
A
D
C
A
D
C
101
102
103
104
105
106
107
108
109
110
B
B
B
C
D
A
C
A
A
A
111
112
113
114
115
116
117
118
119
120
C
C
C
A
D
B
D
A
C
B
121
122
123
124
125
C
C
B
D
A
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