Operatıonal procedures

01 GENERAL REQUİREMENT Question 1 of 275 Number: 4434 Question: The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:

1. when taking-off.

2. before the airplane is able to move by under its own power. 3. when the landing gear is retracted. 4. when lining up.

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Question 2 of 275 Number: 1241 Question: The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection systems is:

1. Powder. 2. CO2. 3. Water.

4. halon.

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Question 3 of 275 Number: 3058 Question: The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :

1. 2. 3. 4.

seats in the cabin. seat rows in the cabin. emergency exits in the cabin. passengers in the cabin.

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Question 4 of 275 Number: 4941

Question: An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to 500 seats must be equipped with at least:

1. 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 2. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.


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Question 5 of 275 Number: 4943 Question: An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be equipped with at least:

1. 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

2. 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 3. 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 4. 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

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Question 6 of 275 Number: 4947 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of oxygen in: 1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft. 2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. 3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft. 4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 4. 2. 1,4.

3. 1, 2, 3, 4. 4. 1, 2.

Question 7 of 275 Number: 4919 Question: An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped with at least:



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Question 10 of 275

Number: 4771 Question: In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located containing :

1. special fluids. 2. water. 3. powder.

4. halon.

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Question 11 of 275 Number: 16765 Question: In a aeroplane, each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts and harnesses provided 1 - during taxying 2 - during take-off 3 - during landing 4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety 5 - during other phases of the flight while at his station The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

2. 2, 3, 4. 3. 2, 3, 4, 5 4. 1, 2, 3, 4

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Question 12 of 275 Number: 16817 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, during a VOR procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond: 1. the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no middle marker.

2. the final path intersection. 3. the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no FAF.

4. 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport on the final approach segment.

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Question 13 of 275 Number: 16818 Question: In accordance with JAR OPS, where no outer marker or equivalent position exists, if the reported RVR/Visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:

1. the middle marker.

2. 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport. 3. the glide slope intersection. 4. the FAF.

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Question 14 of 275 Number: 16780 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, who is responsible for establishing Aerodrome Operating Minima for each aerodrome planned to be used for commercial purposes?

1. 2. 3. 4.

The Operator The designated local aerodrome authority The Commander The State Authority

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Question 15 of 275 Number: 16794 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the selection of a destination alternate is NOT required when:

1. the destination aerodrome has an ILS approach for each runway. 2. you have an adequate take-off alternate.

3. the destination is isolated and no adequate destination alternate exists. 4. the duration of the planned flight does not exceed 8 hours and the weather forecast calls for VMC conditions at the destination aerodrome.

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Question 16 of 275 Number: 16294 Question: Without ETOPS Approval, an operator shall not operate a two-engined Class A aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more over a route which contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, at a distance flown:

1. in 30 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed. 2. in 90 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed. 3. in 120 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

4. in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

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Question 17 of 275 Number: 16650 Question: The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the approved number of:

1. emergency exits in the cabin. 2. seat rows in the cabin. 3. passengers in the cabin.

4. seats in the cabin.

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Question 18 of 275 Number: 16641 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination aerodrome, if it is equipped with a non-precision approach only?

1. Circling minima. 2. RVR / visibility specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225. 3. RVR / visibility specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225, and the ceiling at or

above MDH. 4. Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m.

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Question 19 of 275 Number: 16642 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT I approach available?

1. Circling minima. 2. RVR according to Cat I.

3. Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH). 4. Non-precision minima plus 200 ft/1000 m.

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Question 20 of 275 Number: 16639 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, planning minima for a destination aerodrome with an applicable precision approach procedure is: 1. RVR / visibility specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225, Aerodrome Operating

Minima. 2. Non-precision minima. 3. Non-precision minima plus 200 ft /1000 m. 4. RVR / visibility and ceiling at or above DH specified in accordance with JAR-OPS 1.225, Aerodrome Operating Minima.

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Question 21 of 275 Number: 16624 Question: In the MNPS airspace, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

1. 2. 3. 4.

request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft. set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one. immediately climb or descend 1 000 ft. notify Air Traffic Control and wait for instructions within a reasonable period.

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Question 22 of 275 Number: 16555 Question: A flight via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle with no MNPS certification can be planned:

1. at FL 290.

2. at FL 280 or less. 3. outside OTS validity hours. 4. at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.

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Question 23 of 275 Number: 16407 Question: Which JAR prescribes requirements for approved maintenance organisations?

1. JAR-AMO 2. JAR-66 3. JAR-25

4. JAR-145

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Question 24 of 275 Number: 16513 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a non-precision approach available?

1. Circling minima. 2. RVR according to Cat I. 3. Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH) plus 200 ft/1000 m.

4. Non-precision minima (RVR and the ceiling at or above MDH).

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Question 25 of 275

Number: 16514 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, what is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a CAT II approach available?

1. Circling minima. 2. Non-precision minima plus 200 ft/1000 m. 3. Non-precision minima.

4. RVR according to Cat I.

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Question 26 of 275 Number: 16534 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, what minimum navigation equipment is required for operations under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks?

1. 2. 3. 4.

One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, one DME. One VOR receiving system, one ADF system, two DMEs. One VOR receiving system, one DME. One VOR receiving system, one ADF system.

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Question 27 of 275 Number: 389 Question: When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the pilot has to: 1. maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in the

oceanic clearance. 2. take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline. 3. take any Mach number. 4. take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.

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Question 28 of 275 Number: 390 Question: A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. An aircraft is following a true course of 330°. At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this system will be :

1. 276°.

2. 136°. 3. 164°. 4. 316°.

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Question 29 of 275 Number: 391 Question: On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :

1. 292°. 2. 301°. 3. 298°.

4. 295°.

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Question 30 of 275 Number: 392 Question: The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, is aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North is pointing in the direction of the geographic North (non standard grid). The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E. The true course followed at this moment is :

1. 100°. 2. 080°.

3. 360°. 4. 260°.

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Question 31 of 275

Number: 393 Question: MNPS is the abbreviation for:

1. Minimum Navigation Positioning System.

2. Minimum Navigation Performance Specification. 3. Maximum North-Atlantic Precision System. 4. Military Network Performance Structure.

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Question 32 of 275 Number: 394 Question: In MNPS airspace, the speed reference for turbo-jet aircraft is the:

1. true airspeed. 2. indicated airspeed. 3. ground speed.

4. Mach number.

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Question 33 of 275 Number: 444 Question: Aircraft may operate in MNPS airspace along a number of special routes, if the aircraft is equipped with at least:

1. two independent Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS). 2. two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).

3. one Long Range Navigation System (LNRS). 4. three Inertial Navigation System (INS).

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Question 34 of 275 Number: 409 Question: A category I precision approach (CAT I) has:

1. a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. 2. no decision height. 3. a decision height equal to at least 50 ft.

4. a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.

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Question 35 of 275 Number: 1342 Question: The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of VHF ground stations in NAT region is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

123.45 MHz. 118.5 MHz. 121.5 MHz. 243 MHz.

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Question 36 of 275 Number: 1343 Question: A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done:

1. On ATC request only. 2. As soon as possible after entering the NAT region. 3. Within 15 minutes after crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.

4. At or prior entering the oceanic airspace.

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Question 37 of 275 Number: 1344 Question: If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised tracks in the MNPS airspace, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the flight plan by:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned to the track. using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter assigned to the track. inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude. inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.

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Question 38 of 275 Number: 2295 Question: In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for air to air communications is:

1. 118.800 MHz. 2. 128.800 MHz.

3. 123.45 MHz. 4. 121.800 MHz.

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Question 39 of 275 Number: 3017 Question: The validity period of a night-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally at 30°W, between:

1. 11H30 UTC to 18H00 UTC

2. 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC 3. 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC 4. 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC

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Question 40 of 275 Number: 3018 Question: The validity period of a day-time organised track system in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace is normally, at 30°W, between:

1. 2. 3. 4.

11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC

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Question 41 of 275 Number: 3019 Question: During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:

1. within the polar track system.

2. outside of the validity period of the organised track system. 3. within the organised daytime flight track system. 4. within the organised night-time flight track system.

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Question 42 of 275 Number: 3020 Question: During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you will then normally be ;

1. within the organised night-time track system 2. within the polar track system

3. out of the validity period of organised flight track system 4. within the organised daytime track system

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Question 43 of 275 Number: 3021 Question: The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least:

1. One inertial navigation system. 2. Three inertial navigation systems. 3. One Global Navigation Satellite System

4. Two inertial navigation systems.

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Question 44 of 275 Number: 3022 Question: The minimum longitudinal separation of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the same Flight Level, on the same track and with the same Mach number is:

1. 20 minutes.

2. 10 minutes. 3. 5 minutes. 4. 15 minutes.

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Question 45 of 275 Number: 3023 Question: The minimum lateral separation to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is:

1. 120 NM. 2. 90 NM. 3. 30 NM.

4. 60 NM.

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Question 46 of 275 Number: 3024 Question: During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal separation must not be below:

1. 10 minutes 2. 20 minutes


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Question 47 of 275 Number: 3027 Question: The term decision height (DH) is used for:

1. a circling approach only. 2. a non-precision approach. 3. an indirect approach.

4. a precision approach.

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Question 48 of 275 Number: 3028 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must not be less than:

1. 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months 2. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used 3. 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the last 6 months 4. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved

simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

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Question 49 of 275 Number: 3030 Question: According to EU-OPS, a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:

1. 400 NM 2. 100 NM 3. 200 NM

4. 50 NM

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Question 50 of 275 Number: 3032 Question: A minimum time track is a :

1. rhumb line 2. great circle track

3. track determined according to weather conditions 4. spherical capable flight segment

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Question 51 of 275 Number: 3035 Question: A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

1. no decision height 2. a decision height of at least 50 ft 3. a decision height of at least 200 ft

4. a decision height of at least 100 ft

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Question 52 of 275 Number: 3039 Question: A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

1. 500 m 2. 350 m

3. 550 m 4. 800 m

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Question 53 of 275 Number: 3040 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, a category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

1. 100 m

2. 200 m 3. 50 m 4. 250 m

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Question 54 of 275 Number: 3041 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, a category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least:

1. 200 m 2. 250 m 3. 150 m

4. 75 m

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Question 55 of 275 Number: 3042 Question: With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you can read the following information: - Desired track (DTK) = 100° - Track (TK) = 120° You can conclude that the:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R) Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)

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Question 56 of 275 Number: 3222 Question: Which errors in "estimates" of minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic?

1. 2. 3. 4.

3 or more. 5 or more. 2 or more. 10 or more.

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Question 57 of 275 Number: 3223 Question: The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:

1. 60 NM between all aircraft operating below MNPS airspace. 2. 60 NM between aircraft meeting minimum navigation performance specifications.

3. 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region. 4. 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.

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Question 58 of 275 Number: 3224 Question: Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in MNPS airspace?

1. 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical. 2. 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.

3. 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical. 4. 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.

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Question 59 of 275 Number: 3225 Question: At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?

1. Between FL275 and FL400 inclusive. 2. Below FL290. 3. Between FL245 and FL410 inclusive.

4. Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.

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Question 60 of 275 Number: 3175 Question: The abbreviation MNPS means:

1. Maximum Navigation Performance Specification 2. Main Navigation Performance Specification 3. Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification

4. Minimum Navigation Performance Specification

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Question 61 of 275 Number: 3176 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for aeroplanes certified before the 1 April 1998, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), when required, must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last:

1. 25 hours of operation. 2. 48 hours of operation.

3. 30 minutes of operation. 4. flight.

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Question 62 of 275 Number: 3177 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than:

1. 10 000 ft 2. 12 000 ft 3. 11 000 ft

4. 13 000 ft

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Question 63 of 275 Number: 3178 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, 10% of the passengers shall be supplied with oxygen throughout the entire flight time, after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than:

1. 11 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

2. 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 3. 10 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft 4. 11 000 ft but not exceeding 12 000 ft

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Question 65 of 275 Number: 3180 Question: According to EU-OPS, in establishing the aerodrome operating minima which will apply to any particular operation, an operator must take full account of: 1. equipment available on the aircraft 2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways 3. composition of the flight crew 4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas 5. facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1. 1,2,4,5 2. 2,3,5

3. 1,2,3,4,5 4. 2,4,5

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Question 66 of 275 Number: 3181 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for the flight crew members, quick donning type of oxygen masks are compulsory on board any pressurised aeroplane operating at a pressure altitude above:

1. 29 000 ft 2. 10 000 ft

3. 25 000 ft 4. 13 000 ft

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Question 67 of 275 Number: 10721 Question: An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 390. Given that: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board = 200 Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180 According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum required number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) shall be:

1. 230 2. 180 3. 200

4. 220

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Question 68 of 275 Number: 10137 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

1. 2400 m 2. 1600 m 3. 1500 m

4. 3600 m

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Question 69 of 275 Number: 10138 Question: A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of:

1. passengers exceeded by 10% 2. passengers 3. seats

4. seats exceeded by 10%

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Question 70 of 275 Number: 10139 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, the minimum requirement for supplemental oxygen needed to supply 100 % of the passengers following a cabin pressurisation failure, is: 1. the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15000 ft, but in no

case less than 10 minutes. 2. the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitude greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000ft. 3. 30 minutes. 4. the entire flight time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13000 ft.

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Question 71 of 275 Number: 12772 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:

1. 200 ft 2. 300 ft 3. 350 ft

4. 250 ft

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Question 72 of 275 Number: 12773 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR/DME approach is not lower than:

1. 300 ft

2. 250 ft 3. 350 ft 4. 200 ft

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Question 73 of 275 Number: 12774 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:

1. 200 ft

2. 300 ft 3. 350 ft 4. 250 ft

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Question 74 of 275 Number: 12775 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

1. 15 minutes of remaining fuel. 2. fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.

3. final reserve fuel remaining. 4. fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aedrodrome.

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Question 75 of 275 Number: 12776 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS an operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a NDB approach is:

1. 300 ft 2. 250 ft

3. 350 ft 4. 200 ft

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Question 76 of 275 Number: 12777 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:

1. oxygen specifically carried for therapeutic purposes. 2. oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons. 3. oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation failure.

4. oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.

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Question 77 of 275 Number: 12779 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, for aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude of 39000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets shall exceed:

1. the number of passengers by at least 10%. 2. the number of seats. 3. the number of passengers.

4. the number of seats by at least 10%.

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Question 78 of 275 Number: 12786 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final reserve fuel for: 1. 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard

conditions. 2. 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140. 3. 30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140. 4. 45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

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Question 79 of 275 Number: 12720 Question: Regarding all weather operations, if VAT is from 141 kt to165 kt, the aeroplane is in:

1. Category E.

2. Category D. 3. Category B.

4. Category C.

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1. 2. 3. 4.

Category B. Category E. Category C. Category D.

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Question 81 of 275 Number: 12726 Question: In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes (EU-OPS 1), for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the destination aerodrome for: 1. 30 minutes at holding consumption at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in

standard conditions.

2. 2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel. 3. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel. 4. 2 hours at holding consumption at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

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Question 82 of 275 Number: 12727 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision approach? 1 - the required RVR 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descent height (MDH) 4 - the decision height (DH)

1. 1, 4. 2. 1, 3. 3. 1, 2, 4.

4. 1, 2, 3.

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Question 83 of 275 Number: 12728 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, when the flight data recorder is required, it must stop automatically to record the data:

1. when the aircraft clears the runway.

2. after the aircraft is unable to move by its own power. 3. when the main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway. 4. when the landing gear is extended and locked.

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Question 84 of 275 Number: 12738 Question: Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass and balance documentation?

1. The airline's dispatcher. 2. The flight engineer. 3. The operator.

4. The commander.

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1. Category B.

2. Category C. 3. Category E. 4. Category D.

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Question 86 of 275 Number: 12741 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:

1. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft 2. the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft 3. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft

4. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft

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Question 87 of 275 Number: 12743 Question: When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on board, the commander:

1. 2. 3. 4.

shall comply within a reasonable period of time. shall only comply if authorised by the operator. can refuse to present them. can request a delay of 48 hours.

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Question 88 of 275 Number: 12749 Question: Who is responsible for providing an Operation Manual in accordance with EUOPS Subpart P for the use and guidance of the operations personnel?

1. The owner of the aircraft.

2. The national authority.

3. The aircraft operator. 4. The aircraft producer.

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Question 89 of 275 Number: 12753 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9 seats and less than 200 seats must be equipped with a:

1. crow-bar on the flight deck and a crash axe in the passenger compartment.

2. crash axe or a crow-bar in the flight deck. 3. crash axe on the flight deck and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. 4. crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.

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Question 90 of 275 Number: 12757 Question: In accordance with EU OPS 1, the operator shall ensure that:

1. special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km. 2. for VFR flights conducted in class F airspace, vertical distance from clouds is at least 250m . 3. for VFR flights conducted in class E airspace, flight visibility at and above 3050m (10000ft) is at least 5 km (clear of cloud). 4. for VFR flights conducted in class B airspace, horizontal distance from clouds is at least 1000m.

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Question 91 of 275 Number: 12758 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or disembarking the aircraft:

1. 2. 3. 4.

is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely opened. is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station. is prohibited. is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency

evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.

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Question 92 of 275 Number: 12759 Question: If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:

1. not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast. 2. take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.

3. select two destination alternates. 4. take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.

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Question 93 of 275 Number: 12760 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be at least: 1. 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater

2. 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater 3. 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater 4. 5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater

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Question 94 of 275 Number: 12763 Question: For two-engined aeroplanes not approved for ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

1. 2. 3. 4.

one hour flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed. two hours flight time at one engine inoperative cruising speed. two hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. one hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.

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Question 95 of 275 Number: 12764 Question: For three- and four-engined aeroplanes, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

1. 2. 3. 4.

2 hours flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed. 1 hour flight time at one-engine-inoperative cruising speed. 1 hour flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating. 2 hours flight time at cruising speed with all engines operating.

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Question 96 of 275 Number: 12636 Question: The public address system must be audible and intelligible at: 1 - all passenger seats 2 - toilets 3 - cabin crew seats 4 - work stations The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3 2. 1, 2

3. 1, 2, 3, 4 4. 1

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Question 97 of 275 Number: 12646 Question: According to EU-OPS 1 Subpart K, in an aeroplane with a maximum configuration of more than 19 passengers, the door between the passenger compartment and the flight deck compartment shall have locking means

1. capable of being remotely locked by cabin crew from outside the flight deck

compartment. 2. capable of being locked only from outside the flight deck compartment. 3. capable of being remotely locked from either inside or outside the flight deck compartment. 4. to prevent passengers from opening it without permission of a member of the flight

crew.

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Question 98 of 275 Number: 12647 Question: According to JAR-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence takeoff unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above: 1. the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated

time of arrival at the aerodrome. 2. the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival. 3. the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome. 4. the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time.

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Question 99 of 275 Number: 12648 Question: According to EU-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: 1. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft and for any period exceeding

30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft 2. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13000 ft 3. the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft 4. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10000 ft

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Question 100 of 275 Number: 12655 Question: Astronomic precession:

1. is zero at the South pole 2. is zero at the North pole 3. causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the left in the

southern hemisphere 4. causes an apparent wander on the axis of the directional gyro to the right in the southern hemisphere

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Question 101 of 275 Number: 12657 Question: Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:

1. Flying above 3000 ft above ground. 2. Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace. 3. Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.

4. Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft above ground whichever is the higher.

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Question 102 of 275 Number: 12659 Question: During an ILS procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima, the approach shall not be continued beyond:

1. the glide slope intersection. 2. the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no FAF. 3. the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no middle marker. 4. the outer marker or equivalent, or 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no

outer marker or equivalent.

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Question 103 of 275 Number: 12661 Question: During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 0300 UTC ; you will normally be:

1. within the polar track system. 2. outside the validity period of the organised track system.

3. in a night-time organised track system. 4. in a day-time organised track system.

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Question 104 of 275 Number: 12662 Question: During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you will then normally be:

1. within the polar track system. 2. within the organised daytime flight track system. 3. within the organised night-time flight track system.

4. outside of the validity period of the organised track system.

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Question 105 of 275 Number: 12663 Question: A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:

1. at a Mach number of 0.70 or less. 2. at FL 290. 3. outside scheduled flight times.

4. at FL 280 or less.

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Question 106 of 275 Number: 12664 Question: At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within the NAT region?

1. Below FL290. 2. Between FL245 and FL410 inclusive. 3. Between FL275 and FL400 inclusive.

4. Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.

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Question 107 of 275 Number: 12665 Question: The recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an aeroplane by an operator must not be less than:

1. 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months 2. 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved simulator 3. 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months 4. 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aircraft or approved

simulator in the preceding 90 days

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Question 108 of 275 Number: 12668 Question: An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes:

1. the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.

2. a copy of the calculated take-off performance. 3. meteorological information.

4. mass and balance documentation, if required.

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Question 109 of 275 Number: 12670 Question: An aeroplane which has a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, shall be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder capable of retaining information recorded during at least the last:

1. 20 hours of its operation. 2. 30 minutes or 2 hours of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its

individual Certificate of Airworthiness. 3. 25 hours of its operation. 4. 30 minutes or 1 hour of its operation, depending upon the date of the first issue of its individual Certificate of Airworthiness.

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Question 110 of 275 Number: 12671 Question: An aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL370. In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required is at least:

1. 100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat block. 2. 100% of the seating capacity plus one additional mask per seat row.

3. 110% of the seating capacity. 4. 150% of the seating capacity.

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Question 111 of 275 Number: 12694 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, oxygen masks for use by flight crew members shall be a quick donning type of mask, in pressurised aeroplanes operating at pressure altitudes above:

1. 41000 ft. 2. 10000 ft. 3. 39000 ft.

4. 25000 ft.

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Question 112 of 275 Number: 12695 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:

1. all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes 2. all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating

configuration of more than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes 3. all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 4. all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes

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Question 113 of 275 Number: 12698 Question: To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by EU-OPS 1 is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1500 meters 2500 meters 5000 meters 3000 meters

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Question 114 of 275 Number: 15956 Question: A minimum time track is a:

1. spherical capable flight segment 2. rhumb line 3. great circle track

4. track determined according to wind conditions

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Question 115 of 275 Number: 15775 Question: According to North Atlantic MNPSA Operations Manual, what is the transponder code to be selected continuously 30 min after entry into NAT airspace?

1. The last assigned code prior to entry into NAT airspace

2. Code 2000 3. Code 7500 4. Code 7000

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1. Category E. 2. Category D.

3. Category B. 4. Category C.

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1. Category E. 2. Category B.

3. Category C. 4. Category D.

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Question 118 of 275 Number: 15718 Question: According to JAR-OPS, 'pre-flight inspection' is the inspection carried out:

1. by the fuel company to ensure that the aircraft is prepared for refuelling. 2. by the caterer to ensure that the aircraft is prepared with meals and beverages necessary for the flight. 3. before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight including defect rectification. 4. before flight to ensure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight. It does not include

defect rectification.

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Question 119 of 275 Number: 15693 Question: According to JAR-OPS, an aircraft must be equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to each required flight crew member: 1. when operating under IFR, or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to

visual landmarks. 2. when operating in controlled airspace.

3. when operating under IFR. 4. at all times when carrying passengers.

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Question 120 of 275 Number: 15574 Question: According to Annex 6, what is the definition of Required Navigation Performance (RNP)? 1. A statement of the navigation performance necessary for operation within a defined

airspace. 2. A statement of the navigation performance required during a pilot skill test. 3. A statement of the navigation performance required when installing a new navigation aid on the ground. 4. A statement of the navigation performance necessary during flight tests for a new aircraft type.

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Question 121 of 275 Number: 15404 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, for aeroplanes with a maximum certificated take-off mass over 5700 kg, flight data recorders shall be capable of retaining the data recorded during at least the last:

1. 10 flights. 2. 25 flights. 3. 30 hours of operation.

4. 25 hours of operation.

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Question 122 of 275 Number: 15406 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, for a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly at altitudes more than 25000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in no case less than:

1. 10 minutes 2. 1 hour

3. 2 hours 4. 30 minutes

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Question 123 of 275 Number: 15481 Question: Assuming 60 passengers on board a land aeroplane. The intended track will overfly water for a distance of 80 NM from the shore. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of passenger life jackets to be on board is:

1. 66 2. None if equipped with life rafts

3. 60 4. 0

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Question 124 of 275 Number: 15517 Question: According to Annex 6, what is the definition of an Air Operator Certificate? 1. A certificate automatically authorising an operator to carry out domestic air services in

any ICAO contracting State. 2. A certificate the crew will present to immigration officers, stating that all passengers on board fulfil the visa requirements needed. 3. A certificate needed to carry out specified commercial international air transport operations, but not for domestic commercial flights. 4. A certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercial air transport

operations.

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Question 125 of 275 Number: 1751 Question: The MNPS airspace extends from:

1. 27° North to 70° North. 2. 30° North to 70° North. 3. 30° North to 90° North.

4. 27° North to 90° North.

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Question 126 of 275 Number: 1752 Question: The MNPS airspace extends vertically between flight levels:

1. 280 and 400. 2. 275 and 400.

3. 285 and 420. 4. 280 and 390.

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Question 127 of 275 Number: 1370 Question: An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly rate corrector unit, indicates 000°. The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at Q will be :

1. 003°. 2. 345°.

3. 328°. 4. 334°.

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Question 128 of 275 Number: 1373 Question: You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E). The North of the directional gyro with no rate correction device, is aligned with the true North of point A. The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting from point A, given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min with a zero wind, is equal to: (NB - question very unlikely in UK Exams)

1. 085°.

2. 076°. 3. 066°. 4. 080°.

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Question 129 of 275 Number: 1376 Question: The chart type is polar stereographic with the grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro is not fitted with a rate correction device. The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off. The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :

1. +32.5°.

2. -32.5°. 3. +13°. 4. +73.5°.

Question 130 of 275 Number: 1378 Question: The pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart with grid parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of geographic North along this meridian. The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°, the grid route at this moment

1. 2. 3. 4.

240°. 110°. 060°. 340°.

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Question: In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial navigation system:

1. immediately climb or descend 1 000 ft. 2. request authorisation from Control to track another aircraft. 3. set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.

4. notify Air Traffic Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.

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Question 132 of 275 Number: 1384 Question: A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight can be planned:

1. 2. 3. 4.

at FL 280 or less. at a Mach number of 0.70 or less. at FL 290. outside scheduled flight times.

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Question 133 of 275 Number: 2240 Question: The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of:

1. 220°. 2. 70°.

3. 110°. 4. 140°.

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Question 134 of 275 Number: 3508 Question: Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:

1. operational flight plan. 2. flight manual. 3. journey logbook.

4. operations manual.

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Question 135 of 275 Number: 3549 Question: The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation / position lights, continuosly lit in flight and located to the rear of the aircraft, is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

140° 220° 110° 70°

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Question 136 of 275 Number: 3551 Question: During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

1. red and white flashing light 2. red light

3. green light 4. white light

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Question 137 of 275 Number: 3552 Question: During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

1. green steady light 2. white steady light 3. green and white flashing light

4. red steady light

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Question 138 of 275 Number: 3553 Question: The coverage angle of the red navigation / position light is:

1. 220°

2. 110° 3. 70° 4. 140°

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Question 139 of 275 Number: 3556 Question: When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of:

1. 1.5 2. 1.45 3. 1.15

4. 1.3

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Question: In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a:

1. straight map line

2. great circle line 3. rhumb line 4. spherical flight segment

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Question 141 of 275 Number: 3558 Question: Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The transport precession is equal to :

1. 15°/h.sin Lm

2. g.sin Lm 3. g/2.sin Lm 4. g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

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Question 142 of 275 Number: 3559 Question: Posit : g, the longitude difference, Lm, the average latitude, Lo, the latitude of the tangent. The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

1. g.sin Lm 2. 15°/h.sin Lm

3. g/2.sin Lm 4. g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

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Question 143 of 275 Number: 3560 Question: During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:

1. compass North 2. magnetic North 3. grid North

4. true North

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Question 144 of 275 Number: 3561 Question: During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the:

1. true North for a given chart

2. grid North for a given chart 3. true North for any chart 4. grid North for any chart

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Question 145 of 275 Number: 3562 Question: Astronomic precession is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying independent of the latitude zero when the aircraft is on the ground depending on the chart used

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Question: Posit : g, the longitude difference Lm, the average latitude Lo, the latitude of the tangent The correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :

1. g/2.sin Lm 2. 15°/h.sin Lm

3. g.sin Lm 4. g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)

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1. is zero at the North pole 2. is zero at the South pole

3. causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere 4. causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere

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1. is zero at the North pole 2. is zero at the South pole

3. causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere 4. causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere

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Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category D aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

1. 2400 m 2. 1500 m

3. 3600 m 4. 1600 m

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Question 150 of 275 Number: 3567 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category C aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

1. 1600 m

2. 2400 m 3. 1500 m 4. 3600 m

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Question 151 of 275 Number: 3568 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category B aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

1. 2400 m 2. 3600 m 3. 1500 m

4. 1600 m

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Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the lowest minima to be used by an operator for circling with a category A aeroplane is a meteorological visibility of:

1. 3600 m 2. 1600 m 3. 2400 m

4. 1500 m

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Question 153 of 275 Number: 3570 Question: During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at more than :

1. 4 m (14 ft) below the aerodrome altitude 2. 4 m (14 ft) above the aerodrome altitude 3. 2 m (7 ft) above the aerodrome altitude

4. 2 m (7 ft) below the aerodrome altitude

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Question 154 of 275 Number: 3572 Question: According to EU-OPS, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above: 1. the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated

time of arrival at the aerodrome. 2. the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival. 3. the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome. 4. the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time.

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Question 155 of 275 Number: 4215 Question: A polar track is a part of a track which is included in an area where the horizontal component of the earth magnetic field is less than:

1. 38 micro tesla 2. 17 micro-tesla 3. 10 micro-tesla

4. 6 micro-tesla

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Question 156 of 275 Number: 4290 Question: Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace (except Shanwick Oceanic) and not having yet received the oceanic clearance, the crew:

1. carries out a holding pattern

2. keeps flying in accordance with the current flight plan 3. keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the current flight plan 4. returns to base immediately

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Question 157 of 275 Number: 4291 Question: Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace in the applicable areas of the North Atlantic is defined between the following flight levels:

1. sea level and FL660 2. FL 280 and FL 475

3. FL 285 and FL 420 4. FL 270 and FL 400

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Question 158 of 275 Number: 4292 Question: Penetration into the NAT MNPS airspace is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

subject to a mandatory clearance subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not) not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled

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Question 159 of 275 Number: 4701 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that system minima for "non-precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF are no lower than MDH following value with:

1. VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft 2. VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft

3. NDB facility, lowest MDH=350 ft 4. ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft

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Question 160 of 275 Number: 4702 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, an operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is stored in an acceptable form for at least:

1. 24 months 2. 15 months 3. 12 months

4. 3 months

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Question 161 of 275 Number: 4705 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as commander unless: 1. he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or

an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days 2. he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the

preceding 90 days 3. he has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days 4. he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

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Question 162 of 275 Number: 4707 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be : 1. 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90

days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. 2. 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. 3. 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role. 4. 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

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Question 163 of 275 Number: 4708 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III B approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

1. 75 m 2. 50 m

3. 150 m 4. 100 m

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Question 164 of 275 Number: 4695 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are:

1. MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m 2. MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m 3. MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

4. MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

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Question 165 of 275 Number: 4696 Question: JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that : 1. for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft)

is 5 km at least (clear of cloud) 2. for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least 3. for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least

4. special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km

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Question 166 of 275 Number: 4697 Question: In accordance with EU OPS 1 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), for a Category III A approach, the RVR shall not be less than:

1. 200 m 2. 300 m

3. 250 m 4. 230 m

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Question 167 of 275 Number: 4399 Question: The North Atlantic airspace is regulated, among other, according to: 1. rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic

Ocean Airspace)

2. the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures) 3. Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in this airspace 4. rules issued by the bordering States (Document 6530)

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Question 168 of 275 Number: 4438 Question: An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

1. the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity. 2. meteorological information. 3. a copy of the calculated take-off performances.

4. mass and balance documentation.

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Question 169 of 275 Number: 4439 Question: An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information is preserved on the ground. This includes:

1. meteorological information. 2. a copy of the calculated take-off performance.

3. mass and balance documentation, if required. 4. the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.

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Question 170 of 275 Number: 4440 Question: After an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of:

1. 45 days. 2. 90 days.

3. 60 days. 4. 30 days.

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Question 171 of 275 Number: 4619 Question: Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly: 1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination, 2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet, 3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel report, 4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator, 5 - notification for special loadings, 6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1,2,3,4,5,6 2. 1,3,5

3. 2,3,4,5 4. 2,4

Question 172 of 275 Number: 4820 Question: An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants (including pilot). The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5 and 6 years old). The boarding of all passengers is:

1. authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same

seat belt. No other particular precautions are necessary. 2. authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.

3. forbidden. 4. authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to release their seat belt

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Question 173 of 275 Number: 4821 Question: In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual indicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?

1. if the aircraft is a twin-engine. 2. if part or all the flight is done at night.

3. never. 4. if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.

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Question 174 of 275 Number: 4823 Question: The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records: 1 - the training 2 - the test results 3 - a log of flying hours 4 - a summary of the training by reference period Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?

1. 2 - 3

2. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 3. 1 - 2 - 3 4. 3 - 4

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Question 175 of 275 Number: 4824 Question: The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a single pilot. The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of runway. The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) 900 metres and ceiling 200 feet. Is take-off possible?

1. No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure. 2. Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.

3. Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM. 4. No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.

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Question 176 of 275 Number: 4825 Question: The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights, high intensity centre line lights and multiple RVR information. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for takeoff is:

1. 300 m. 2. 200 m. 3. 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.

4. 150 m.

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Question 177 of 275 Number: 4826 Question: The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is : 1 RVR/Visibility 2 - the ceiling 3 - the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) 4 - the decision altitude/height (DA/H) Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1. 1 - 2 - 3 2. 1 - 2 - 4

3. 1 - 3 4. 1 - 4

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Question 178 of 275 Number: 4827 Question: For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:

1. 2. 3. 4.

60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable. 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running. 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running. 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.

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Question 179 of 275 Number: 4863 Question: You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2,3 2. 1,2,3

3. 1,2,3,4 4. 3,4

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Question 180 of 275 Number: 5803 Question: In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at

the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :

1. C

2. D 3. B 4. E

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Question 181 of 275 Number: 5804 Question: In airspace where MNPS is applicable, the minimum vertical separation between FL 290 and FL 410 is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1 000 ft 2000ft 1 500 ft 500 ft

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Question 182 of 275 Number: 5805 Question: An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 15 NM from its assigned route and :

1. 2. 3. 4.

climb or descend 500 ft climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft climb or descent 1 000 ft

Question 183 of 275 Number: 5807 Question: In case of total loss of communications, if an aircraft operating in MNPS airspace is unable to continue its flight in accordance with its ATC clearance, it must offset from the

assigned route by 15 NM and climb by 1000 ft or descend by 500 ft to a level which differs from those normally used if flying:

1. 2. 3. 4.

at FL410 at FL 430 above FL 410 below FL 410

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Question 184 of 275 Number: 11242 Question: A commander shall not take-off for an IFR flight unless information is available indicating that the expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are: 1. At the estimated time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for

aerodrome use. 2. At the estimated time of arrival, at or above the planning minima. 3. At the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. 4. during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of arrival at the

aerodrome, at or above the planning minima.

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Question 185 of 275 Number: 11244 Question: A public address system is required to operate an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than:

1. 61

2. 19 3. 30 4. 9

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Question 186 of 275 Number: 11245 Question: A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:

1. 240 (one additional mask per seat block). 2. 270 (150% of the seating capacity). 3. 210 (one additional mask per seat row).

4. 198 (110% of the seating capacity).

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Question 187 of 275 Number: 11246 Question: A public transport passengers aeroplane, with a seating configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 hand fire-extinguishers including:

1. 1 Halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent. 2. 3 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent. 3. no Halon fire-extinguisher.

4. 2 Halon fire-extinguishers or equivalent.

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Question 188 of 275 Number: 11251 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, a windshield wiper or equivalent means to maintain a clear portion of the windshield during precipitation is required at each pilot station to operate an aeroplane with a: 1. maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 30 after January

1st, 2000

2. maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than 5,700 kg 3. maximum certificated take-off mass is greater than 15,000 kg

4. maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than 9

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Question 189 of 275 Number: 11252 Question: Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ?

1. FL 100. 2. FL 390.

3. FL 250. 4. FL 300.

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Question 190 of 275 Number: 11256 Question: Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:

1. 15° of longitude. 2. 5° of longitude. 3. 10° of longitude.

4. 20° of longitude.

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Question 191 of 275 Number: 11257 Question: Air traffic services may require an aircraft to report position when flying east-west, south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every:


2. 10° of longitude. 3. 5° of longitude.


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Question 192 of 275 Number: 11259 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, regarding the first aid oxygen, the supply of undiluted oxygen carried on board a pressurised aeroplane with 8 passengers operated at pressure altitude 27000 ft, shall be sufficient for at least: 1. 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin

altitude only exceeds 14000 ft. 2. 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude only exceeds 14000 ft. 3. 2 passengers for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin altitude exceeds 8000 ft but does not exceed 15000 ft. 4. 1 passenger for the remainder of the flight after cabin depressurisation when the cabin

altitude exceeds 8000 ft but does not exceed 15000 ft.

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Question 193 of 275 Number: 11261 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 200 must be equipped with:

1. 2. 3. 4.

3 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment. 4 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment. 5 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment. 7 hand fire extinguishers in the passenger compartment.

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Question 194 of 275 Number: 11263 Question: An aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to 400 seats must be equipped with at least: 1. 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.



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Question 195 of 275 Number: 11266 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, an aeroplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to 600 seats must be equipped with at least: 1. 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.


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Question 196 of 275 Number: 11272 Question: An aircraft whose maximum approved seating configuration is 10 seats must be equipped with: 1. one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in

the passengers compartment. 2. one hand fire-extinguisher in the cockpit/flight deck and one hand fire-extinguisher in

the passengers compartment. 3. two hand fire-extinguishers in the cockpit/flight deck and two hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment. 4. three hand fire-extinguishers in the passengers compartment.

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Question: An operator shall not operate an aeroplane first issued with an individual Certificate of Airworthiness on or after 1 April 1998, which has a maximum certificated takeoff mass over 5700 kg, unless it is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder which records: 1 Voice communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio 2 - The aural environment of the flight deck 3 - The cabin attendants communications in the cabin using the aeroplane''s interphone system 4 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane''s interphone system 5 - Voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker 6 - Voice communications of flight crew members on the flight deck using the public address system, if installed The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1, 2, 3, 5, 6 2, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 6 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

Question 198 of 275 Number: 11277 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, the cockpit voice recorder, when required, must start to record automatically: 1. when the parking brake is released until the termination of flight when the parking

brake is set. 2. prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of the flight

when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power. 3. prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power until the termination of flight when the parking brake is set. 4. when full thrust is applied until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under its own power.

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Question 199 of 275 Number: 11282 Question: During a flight from Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1330 UTC ; you will normally be:

1. outside the validity period of the organised track system 2. in a night-time organised track system 3. in a polar track system

4. in a day-time organised track system

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Question 200 of 275 Number: 11285 Question: For a non pressurised aircraft, 100% of passengers shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: 1. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

2. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft 3. the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 4. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft

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Question 201 of 275 Number: 11286 Question: For a non pressurised aircraft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during: 1. the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but

not exceeding 13 000 ft

2. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft 3. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 4. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 500 ft

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Question 202 of 275 Number: 11287 Question: For a non pressurised aircraft, all required cabin crew members shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during:

1. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft

2. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 13 000 ft 3. the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than 10 000 ft but not exceeding 13 000 ft 4. the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft

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Question 203 of 275 Number: 11288 Question: According to EU-OPS, for a non pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons

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Question 204 of 275 Number: 11290 Question: For a pressurised aeroplane, certificated to fly above 25 000 ft, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen during a period in any case no less than:

1. 2. 3. 4.

2 hours 30 minutes 10 minutes 1 hour

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Question 205 of 275 Number: 11291 Question: For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to: 1. provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30

minutes. 2. protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.

3. provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might require

oxygen following a cabin depressurisation. 4. protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.

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Question 206 of 275 Number: 11292 Question: For a pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide. a therapeutic oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers. the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons. the oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in case of cabin pressurisation failure.

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Question 207 of 275 Number: 11293 Question: For a twin engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, when the weather conditions require a take-off alternate to be selected, it shall be located, in still air conditions, within:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1 hour of flight time at single engine cruising speed 2 hours of flight time at cruising speed 1 hour of flight time at cruising speed 2 hours of flight time at single engine cruising speed

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Question 208 of 275 Number: 11294 Question: For a twin-engine aeroplane, non ETOPS, the take-off alternate, if required, shall be located (in still air conditions) within:

1. two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. 2. two hours of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

3. one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with only one engine operative. 4. one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines operating.

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Question 209 of 275 Number: 11295 Question: An operator shall ensure that information relevant to the flight is preserved on the ground for the duration of each flight or series of flights. This includes: 1 appropriate meteorological information; 2 - a copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the mass and balance documentation; 3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft technical log; 4 route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the operator; 5 - special loads notification; 6 - copies of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 3, 5.

2. 2, 3, 4, 5. 3. 2, 4, 5. 4. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.

Question 210 of 275 Number: 11296 Question: If all long range navigation systems of an aircraft become unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if no instructions are received from the air traffic control, you must consider:

1. land at the nearest airport 2. return to departure airport 3. descend below the MNPS space

4. climbing or descending 500 feet

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Question 211 of 275 Number: 11301 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if required, the number of life rafts to be carried on board an aeroplane must allow the transportation of the entire aeroplane occupants:

1. plus 20 %. 2. plus 10 %. 3. plus 30 %.

4. in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.

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Question 212 of 275 Number: 11303 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, on aeroplanes intended to be operated at pressure altitude above 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units shall exceed the number of:

1. 2. 3. 4.

seats by 10 %. seats by 2 %. passengers by 2 %. passengers by 10 %.

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Question 213 of 275 Number: 11305 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

1. 15000 ft. 2. 14000 ft.

3. 13000 ft. 4. 10000 ft.

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Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

1. 14000 ft. 2. 15000 ft. 3. 13000 ft.

4. 10000 ft.

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Question 215 of 275 Number: 11307 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, for a pressurised aeroplane, during and following an emergency descent, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty shall be supplied with a minimum supplemental oxygen quantity: 1. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft. 2. In order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than 10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. 3. In no case less than 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly up to 25000 ft. 4. In no case less than 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly over 25000 ft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2.

2. 1, 2, 3, 4. 3. 1,4. 4. 1, 3, 4.

Question 216 of 275 Number: 11309 Question: In accordance with the JAR-OPS, a single deck aeroplane, equipped with an approved seating capacity of 61 seats and carrying passengers, must be equipped with at least:

1. 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board. 2. 3 megaphones. 3. 2 megaphones.

4. 1 megaphone.

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Question 217 of 275 Number: 11310 Question: In NAT region, a revised estimate should be transmitted to the ATS when the estimated time for the next position has changed by:

1. 10 minutes or more. 2. 2 minutes or more. 3. 5 minutes or more.

4. 3 minutes or more.

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Question 218 of 275 Number: 11311 Question: In order to operate an airplane at night, the airplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the airplane is: 1 - pressurised 2 - non-pressurised, and maximum take-off mass is more than 5,700 kg 3 - non-pressurised, and maximum approved seating configuration is more than 9 seats 4 - non-pressurised, operating for public transportation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1,4

2. 1,2,3 3. 4 4. 1.2

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Question 219 of 275 Number: 11312 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS 1, if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration about oxygen equipment must be completed before:

1. 2. 3. 4.

take-off. the aircraft reaches FL 250. the aircraft reaches FL 140. the aircraft reaches FL 100.

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Question 220 of 275 Number: 11315 Question: EU-OPS 1 applies to:

1. the operation by a JAA state member of any civil aeroplane. 2. aeroplanes proceeding from European states or flying over them. 3. the operation by a JAA state member of any civil commercial transport aeroplane.

4. aeroplanes used by police, customs and defence departments.

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Question 221 of 275 Number: 11316 Question: Minimum time route is a route calculated for:

1. aircraft flying in MNPS airspace 2. a period of 24 hours

3. a given flight from departure to destination 4. a period of 12 hours

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Question 222 of 275 Number: 11317 Question: On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:

1. protect the aircrew fighting fires 2. assist a passenger with breathing disorders 3. provide selected passengers with oxygen

4. provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurisation

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Question 223 of 275 Number: 11318 Question: On arriving overhead an isolated aerodrome, the commander of a turbojet engine aircraft should have a minimum quantity of fuel (additional reserve including the final reserve) sufficient for flying during:

1. 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft 2. 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption

3. 2 hours with normal cruise consumption 4. 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft

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Question 224 of 275 Number: 11319 Question: The climb or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft:

1. 2. 3. 4.

can be authorised when the aircraft has two long range navigation systems is forbidden in all circumstances can be authorised only if the pilot is in communication with the conflicting aircraft pilot can be authorised under radar control if the pilot is in VHF contact with the controller

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Question 225 of 275 Number: 11320 Question: The commander is required by the authority to present the aircraft documents. He

1. shall do so if authorised by the operator.

2. shall do so, within a reasonable period of time. 3. can refuse to present them. 4. can request a delay of 48 hours.

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Question 226 of 275 Number: 11327 Question: The minimum visibility required by EU OPS 1 and 3 to commence a special VFR flight is:

1. 5 km 2. 2.5 km

3. 3 km 4. 1.5 km

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Question 227 of 275 Number: 11328 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is:

1. 1 2. 4

3. 2 4. 3

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Question 228 of 275 Number: 11332 Question: The operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft technical log is stored for a minimum period of:

1. 2. 3. 4.

24 months 15 months 12 months 3 months

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Question 229 of 275 Number: 11333 Question: The operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:

1. 2. 3. 4.

3 months 1 year 1 month 6 months

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Question 230 of 275 Number: 14440 Question: In order to be operated at night in areas with potentially hazardous weather conditions, an aeroplane must be equipped with an airborne weather radar when the aeroplane is: 1 - pressurised 2 - non-pressurised with a maximum take-off mass of more than 5,700 kg 3 - non-pressurised with a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 9 seats 4 non-pressurised, operating for public transportation The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 4 2. 1 and 2 3. 1 and 4

4. 1, 2 and 3

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Question 231 of 275 Number: 14450 Question: If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:

1. 2. 3. 4.

great circle. curve of some type or other. spherical flight segment. rhumb line.

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Question 232 of 275 Number: 14397 Question: According to EU OPS 1 and assuming the following circumstances: for a category A airplane and aerodrome equipped with runway edge lighting and centre line lighting and multiple RVR information. An acceptable alternate aerodrome is available, the minimum RVR/Visibility required for take-off:

1. 200 m 2. 300 m 3. 250 m

4. 150 m

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1. causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere 2. is zero at the South pole

3. causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere 4. is zero at the North pole

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Question 234 of 275 Number: 14467 Question: In accordance with EU-OPS, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time after 30 minutes at pressure altitudes greater than:

1. 10000 ft but not exceeding 14000 ft. 2. 14000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft. 3. 10000 ft but not exceeding 15000 ft.

4. 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.

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Question 235 of 275 Number: 14272 Question: According to JAR-OPS, at least one of the following hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located on the flight deck:

1. a powder fire-extinguisher.

2. a halon fire-extinguisher or equivalent. 3. a foam fire-extinguisher. 4. a water fire-extinguisher.

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Question 236 of 275 Number: 14066 Question: At Reference. On the diagram where: TN = True North MN = Magnetic North GN = Grid North If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grivation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the different north is:

1. 2 2. 4

3. 3 4. 1

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Question 237 of 275 Number: 14068 Question: At Reference. The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates: Position: 71° 55.1''N 094°55.3''W Drift: 6°L (left) The route followed in order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station used: RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6''N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local geographic meridian. The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the

direction of geographic North Pole). The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at this moment: (the distance DME is in the box)

1. 2. 3. 4.

4 3 1 2

Question 238 of 275 Number: 14070 Question: A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone,and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E. The compass shift on this heading at this point in time is:

1. +15°.

2. -5°. 3. +5°. 4. -15°.

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Question 239 of 275 Number: 14075 Question: An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) in MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (d, but is able to maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 15 NM from its assigned route and :

1. climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

2. climb or descend 500 ft 3. climb or descent 1 000 ft 4. climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft

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Question 240 of 275 Number: 14077 Question: An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance, but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability, cannot obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :

1. 2. 3. 4.

below FL 410 at FL 410 at FL 430 above FL 410

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Question 241 of 275 Number: 14089 Question: In accordance with the EU-OPS 1 and with the exception of amphibians and seaplanes, the carriage of a life jacket for each person on board is compulsory when the aeroplane is: 1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be able to return in the case of an engine failure. 2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off shore. 3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem. 4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 40 NM off shore. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1, 2, 3, 4 3, 4 1, 2 2, 3

Question 242 of 275 Number: 14095 Question: In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC clearance cannot be obtained, an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned flight level should:

1. immediatelly descend below FL280 and then acquire a 15 NM offset track. 2. immediatelly descend below FL280 and then acquire a 60 NM offset track.

3. minimise its rate of descent while acquiring a 15 NM offset track. 4. minimise its rate of descent while acquiring a 60 NM offset track.

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Question 243 of 275 Number: 14102 Question: The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is:

1. 14000 ft 2. 15000 ft 3. 25000 ft

4. 13000 ft

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Question 244 of 275 Number: 14105 Question: When establishing an instrument approach procedure, five aeroplane categories are determined according to their speed at the threshold (VAT). This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing mass multiplied by a factor of:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1.3 1.5 1.15 1.45

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Question 245 of 275 Number: 14543 Question: According to EU-OPS, an operator shall ensure that each cabin crew member is at least:

1. 17 years of age. 2. 20 years of age.

3. 18 years of age. 4. 21 years of age.

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Question 246 of 275 Number: 14544 Question: According to EU-OPS, which of the following is the correct definition of "wet lease"?

1. The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessee. 2. The aircraft is leased from a non-JAA operator. 3. The aircraft is operated overseas.

4. The aircraft is operated under the AOC of the lessor.

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Question 247 of 275 Number: 15000 Question: Given: Flight in a twin-engine aircraft from PARIS to WASHINGTON ETOPS authorisation: 105 minutes at 420 kt TRACK A: Flight time 08h03 TRACK B: Flight time 08h10 TRACK C: Flight time 08h15 TRACK D: Flight time 08h20

1. Track A 2. Track B

3. Track C 4. Track D

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Question 248 of 275 Number: 15103 Question: Each crew member shall be properly secured by all safety belts AND harnesses provided 1 - during taxying 2 - during take-off 3 - during landing 4 - whenever deemed necessary by the commander in the interest of safety 5 - during other phases of the flight,

1. 1, 2, 3, 5

2. 2, 3, 4 3. 2, 3, 4, 5 4. 1, 2, 3, 4

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Question 249 of 275 Number: 15095 Question: According to EU-OPS, the minimum number of hand fire-extinguishers to be located in the passenger compartment of an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 31 is:

1. 0 2. 3 3. 1

4. 2

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Question 250 of 275 Number: 15106 Question: According to Annex 6, 'RNP type' is defined as a containment value expressed as a distance in ...(i)... from the intended position within which flights would be for at least ...(ii)... of the total flying time.

1. (i) kilometers (ii) 95% 2. (i) nautical miles (ii) 90% 3. (i) kilometers (ii) 90%

4. (i) nautical miles (ii) 95%

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Question: Unless sufficient life-rafts to carry all persons on board are carried, on overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is suitable for making an emergency landing, greater than that corresponding to ..(i)...minutes at cruising speed or ....(ii)... nautical miles, whichever is the lesser, for aeroplanes capable of continuing the flight to an aerodrome with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions.

1. 2. 3. 4.

(i) 120 minutes (ii) 400 nautical miles (i) 90 minutes (ii) 300 nautical miles (i) 30 minutes (ii) 100 nautical miles (i) 45 minutes (ii) 200 nautical miles

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Question 252 of 275 Number: 15134 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, the minimum number of crash axes or crowbars on board an aeroplane, whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is more than 200, is:

1. 4

2. 2 3. 1 4. 3

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Question 253 of 275 Number: 15062 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator must select a take-off alternate: 1. when conducting a flight over water of more than 2 hours or 400 NM, whichever is the

lesser. 2. when the flight duration exceeds 6 hours. 3. for an IFR flight with a single-engine aeroplane. 4. if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological

or performance reasons.

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Question 254 of 275 Number: 15065 Question: Under what circumstances may an operator introduce alternative procedures to those prescribed in EU-OPS Subpart M (maintenance)?

1. Never. Subpart M is mandatory and may not be modified. 2. When needed to expedite maintenance procedures. 3. When needed and when an equivalent safety case has first been approved by the

Authority and supported by JAA Member Authorities. 4. When needed and when an equivalent safety case has been established. No prior approval is needed from the Authority.

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Question 255 of 275 Number: 15350 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for an ILS approach without the glidepath (LLZ only) is not lower than:

1. 350 ft 2. 300 ft 3. 200 ft

4. 250 ft

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Question 256 of 275 Number: 15351 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, an operator must ensure that the MDH for a VOR approach is not lower than:

1. 350 ft 2. 250 ft

3. 300 ft

4. 200 ft

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Question 257 of 275 Number: 15297 Question: Assuming a multi-engine land aeroplane with 60 persons on board. The cruising speed is 180 kt. The aeroplane is capable of continuing the flight with the critical power-unit becoming inoperative. The track will overfly water for a distance of 380 NM from land which is suitable for making an emergency landing. According to EU-OPS 1, the minimum number of life rafts shall be:

1. 2. 3. 4.

3 life rafts of 30-seat capacity. 1 life raft of 30-seat capacity and 2 life rafts of 20-seat capacity. none, distance being less than 400 NM. 2 life rafts of 30-seat capacity.

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Question 258 of 275 Number: 15251 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A , with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of 20 or more, is the distance flown in ........ minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed.

1. 2. 3. 4.

60 90 30 120

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Question 259 of 275 Number: 15252 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance Class A , with a maximum take-off mass of 45360 kg or more, is the distance flown in .......... minutes at the one engine inoperative cruising speed in standard conditions.

1. 30 2. 120 3. 90

4. 60

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Question 260 of 275 Number: 15152 Question: The safety precautions to be taken when using 100% medical oxygen are: 1. refrain from smoking 2. avoid sparks 3. avoid operation of radio communication equipment 4. operate oxygen system shut off valves slowly The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 3, 4.

2. 1, 2, 4. 3. 1, 3, 4. 4. 1, 2, 3.

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Question 261 of 275 Number: 15183 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, for two-engined aeroplanes in Performance class B or C without an ETOPS approval, the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome is the distance flown in ....(i)... minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed, or...(ii)..n

1. (i) 60 (ii) 200 2. (i) 120 (ii) 200 3. (i) 60 (ii) 300

4. (i) 120 (ii) 300

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Question 262 of 275 Number: 15191 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate across areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, unless it is equipped with: 1 - signalling equipment 2 - at least one ELT 3 - at least 2 ELTs 4 - additional survival equipment for the route to be flown. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 4. 2. 2, 4. 3. 1, 3, 4.

4. 1, 2, 4.

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Question 263 of 275 Number: 15185 Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator must select two destination alternates when the appropriate weather reports or forecasts for the destination, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing ...(i)... hour(s) before and ending ...(ii)... hour(s) after the estimated ...(iii)... the weather conditions will be below the applicable planning minima.

1. (i) one (ii) one (iii) time of departure

2. (i) one (ii) one (iii) time of arrival 3. (i) two (ii) two (iii) time of departure 4. (i) two (ii) two (iii) time of arrival

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Question 264 of 275 Number: 15187 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, a Category I operation is a precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height (DH) not lower than ...(i)... and with a runway visual range (RVR) not less than .... (ii).....

1. 2. 3. 4.

(i) 200 ft (ii) 550 m (i) 100 ft (ii) 550 m (i) 200 ft (ii) 350 m (i) 100 ft (ii) 350 m

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Question: According to JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than ...(i)...., and when carrying ...(ii)... or more passengers, unless at least one cabin crew is included.

1. (i) 9 (ii) one

2. (i) 19 (ii) one 3. (i) 9 (ii) five 4. (i) 15 (ii) five

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Question 266 of 275 Number: 6548 Question: Who decides whether to fly under IFR or VFR in VMC?

1. 2. 3. 4.

The PIC Either A or B The Operator The ATS authority

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Question 267 of 275 Number: 6549 Question: If a JAA operator (A) provides an aeroplane and complete crew for lease to another JAA operator (B) (a wet lease-out situation), who is the operator of the aeroplane?

1. A - because it is their crew flying the aeroplane. 2. A - providing the functions and responsibilities of JAR OPS 2 are retained. 3. B - providing they absolve operator A of any responsibility in the manner in which the aeroplane is operated. 4. B - because they are charging the passengers for carriage.

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Question 268 of 275 Number: 6550 Question: What is a low visibility take-off?

1. A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 200m. 2. A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 400m.

3. A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 125m. 4. A take-off on a runway where the RVR is less than 50m.

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Question 269 of 275 Number: 6551 Question: A public transport aircraft shall not take-off unless the following minima for the departure airfield are satisfactory:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Cloud ceiling and RVR Cloud base and RVR MDH and RVR Cloud base and visibility

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Question 270 of 275 Number: 6552 Question: What is the lowest possible MDH for a VOR/DME non-precision approach?

1. 350ft 2. 200ft 3. 125ft

4. 250ft

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Question 271 of 275 Number: 6553 Question: Who is establishing the aerodrome operational minima for instrument approaches?

1. The appropriate authority of the State of the aircraft operator. 2. The State of Registry of the aircraft.

3. The operator.

4. The appropriate authority of the State of the aerodrome.

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Question 272 of 275 Number: 6554 Question: Runway visual range is reported when it falls below:

1. 800m 2. 1200m 3. 1000m

4. 1500m

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Question 273 of 275 Number: 6555 Question: The commander of a public transport aircraft must ensure that passenger seat belts are secure for:

1. Take-off and landing.

2. Take-off, landing, taxiing, turbulence and during emergencies. 3. Take-off, landing, taxiing and turbulence. 4. Take-off, landing and turbulence.

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Question 274 of 275 Number: 7521 Question: According to OPS regulation, a quality system:

1. is not mandatory for small operators (less than 50 persons). 2. Is not required for operations with aircraft below 5.7 t.

3. Shall be established by all operators. 4. Is not required for business jet operators.

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Question 275 of 275 Number: 7522 Question: According to OPS regulation, a pilot may not continue a Category I approach below DH unless at least one visual reference for the intended runway is distinctly visible and indentifiable to the pilot. What is the most complete combination of accepted visual references? 1 - one element of the approach light system 2 - the threshold 3 - end of runway lights 4 - the visual glide slope indicator

1. 1,2,3,4

2. 1,2,4 3. 2,3,4 4. 1,3,4

02- specıal operatıonal procedures and hazards Question 1 of 230 Number: 16863 Question: According to EU-OPS, if a piece of equipment on your aircraft becomes inoperative while you are still parked, before making the decision to proceed the reference document used is: 1. the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".

2. the flight manual. 3. the EU-OPS.

4. the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".

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Question 2 of 230 Number: 16756 Question: One of the primary factors causing dynamic hydroplaning is:

1. the aircraft's weight. 2. the strength of the crosswind.

3. the depth of the standing water on the runway. 4. the strength of the headwind.

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Question 3 of 230 Number: 16278 Question: The ICAO procedure designed to collect and disseminate information on bird strikes to aircraft is called:

1. IBSA (ICAO Bird Safety Alert). 2. IBHA (ICAO Bird Hazard Annex). 3. IBSR (ICAO Bird Strike Report).

4. IBIS (ICAO Bird Strike Information System).

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Question 4 of 230 Number: 16353 Question: In the case of overheating of the brakes following the landing, the appropriate action at the parking position is: 1. set parking brake on 2. set parking brake off, with chocks in position 3. spray water on the brakes 4. ventilate the brakes The combination regrouping of all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 3 2. 1, 3

3. 2, 4 4. 1, 4

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Question: In case of a cargo compartment fire, the system which should be switched off, is generally the:

1. 2. 3. 4.

ventilation of the cargo compartment trim air pressurisation total air-conditioning

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Question 6 of 230 Number: 16591 Question: Reference shall be made to the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for equipment found unserviceable at any time: 1. from engine start-up until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the

flight. 2. during the flight. 3. prior to the aircraft take-off.

4. prior to the flight time stage.

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Question 7 of 230 Number: 16406 Question: According to JAR-OPS, the Minimum Equipment List of an aircraft is found in the:

1. flight manual. 2. JAR OPS. 3. flight record.

4. operations manual.

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Question: According to JAR-OPS 1 terminology, a runway is considered damp when the runway surface is:

1. covered with water up to 1 mm deep.

2. not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. covered with water up to 3 mm deep. 4. not dry, and the surface appears reflective.

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Question 9 of 230 Number: 398 Question: Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

1. is very smooth and clean.

2. is very smooth and dirty. 3. the tyre treads are not in a good state. 4. is rough textured.

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Question 10 of 230 Number: 3043 Question: The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is:

1. Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration 2. Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration 3. Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration

4. Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration

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Question: To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuvre:

1. Below and upwind from the larger aircraft 2. Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

3. Above and upwind from the larger aircraft 4. Below and downwind from the larger aircraft

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Question 12 of 230 Number: 2936 Question: The information concerning dangerous goods that passengers may carry, are listed in the:

1. JAR-OPS documentation. 2. ICAO document titled "Technical safety instructions for the air transportation of

dangerous products" 3. IATA document "Dangerous products transportation". 4. aircraft's flight manual.

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Question 13 of 230 Number: 2937 Question: The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on: 1. the type and intensity of the showers 2. the ambient temperature 3. the relative humidity 4. the direction and speed of the wind 5. the temperature of the airplane skin 6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 3, 5, 6 2. 1, 2, 4, 6 3. 2, 3, 4, 5

4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

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Question 14 of 230 Number: 2938 Question: The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce the holdover time considerably:

1. when the aeroplane is parked facing into wind.

2. during strong winds or as a result of other aircraft engines jet blast. 3. when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C. 4. when the temperature of the aeroplane skin is close to 0 °C.

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Question 15 of 230 Number: 2933 Question: A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for: 1. a paper fire 2. a hydrocarbon fire 3. a fabric fire 4. an electrical fire 5. a wood fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 2. 2, 4, 5 3. 2, 3, 4

4. 1, 3, 5

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Question 16 of 230 Number: 2942 Question: Due to a risk of tyre explosions when the brakes are very hot, the landing gear should be approached:

1. from any direction. 2. from the inboard side. 3. from the outboard side.

4. either from the front or the rear.

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Question 17 of 230 Number: 10697 Question: As a commander, if you are notified that a package of dangerous goods appears to be damaged, you:

1. mention it on the shipper's declaration 2. accept it after a visual inspection 3. mention it on the Notification to Captain

4. ensure that arrangements are made for its removal

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Question 18 of 230 Number: 10141 Question: In accordance with JAR-OPS, the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by the operator should be:

1. different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.

2. for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes. 3. for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome. 4. for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.

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Question 19 of 230 Number: 12725 Question: In calm wind conditions, an aircraft at take-off creates tip vortices that:

1. 2. 3. 4.

separate outwards on each side of the runway. stagnate on the runway. separate outwards to the left side only. separate outwards to the right side only.

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Question 20 of 230 Number: 12737 Question: Wind shear is: 1. a variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large

distance. 2. a variation only in vertical wind velocity over a short distance. 3. a variation only in horizontal wind velocity over a short distance. 4. a large variation in vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a

short distance.

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Question 21 of 230 Number: 12740 Question: When there is a risk of hydroplaning the pilot of an aeroplane: 1. should make a positive landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as

quickly as possible 2. must wait for landing until the risk for hydroplaning is no longer existing 3. should use normal landing-,braking- and reverse technique 4. should use maximum reverse thrust, however should start braking below the hydroplaning speed

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Question 22 of 230 Number: 12761 Question: How is the uncleared part of a contaminated runway reported in a SNOWTAM?

1. By a four figure group added to item D, which gives the length in metres.

2. In plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM. 3. As a percentage of the total length of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM. 4. It is not reported.

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Question 23 of 230 Number: 12762 Question: Halon or equivalent fire extinguishers can be used in case of fire fighting in an aeroplane:

1. in the avionics bay and the wheel bays.

2. in the cockpit and cargo holds. 3. in the wheel bays and lavatories. 4. in the fuel tanks and in the cargo holds.

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Question 24 of 230 Number: 12766 Question: For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as:

1. Cross wind is greater than 15 kt.

2. Speed is greater than 138 kt. 3. Speed is greater than 117 kt. 4. Water depth is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.

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Question 25 of 230 Number: 12639 Question: A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the minimum equipment list. the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency procedures". the flight manual. the JAR OPS.

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Question: A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure?

1. Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.

2. Depart runway 09 with a tailwind. 3. Take-off is not possible under these conditions. 4. Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.

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Question 27 of 230 Number: 12642 Question: According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B", as established in ICAO PANS OPS 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:

1. 3 000 ft AGL 2. 500 ft AGL 3. 1 500 ft AGL

4. 1 000 ft AGL

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Question 28 of 230 Number: 12643 Question: According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9.3 km (5.0 NM) shall be applied when a: 1. LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than

300 m (1 000 ft) 2. MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft) 3. LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft) 4. HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

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Question 29 of 230 Number: 12644 Question: A slow decompression may be caused by: 1. a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight 2. loss of a cabin window 3. malfunction of all pressurised systems 4. loss of a door The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3 2. 1, 2, 3, 4 3. 2, 4

4. 1, 3

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Question 30 of 230 Number: 12654 Question: According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied: 1. Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the

LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off 2. to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross 3. to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold 4. to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a

parallel runway separated by less than 760 m

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Question 31 of 230 Number: 12658 Question: During the winter an aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening ice deposit on top of the wings or blades which appears translucent. Under these conditions:

1. there is no risk of ice accretion.

2. a longer starting procedure will be necessary to warm up the aircraft.

3. the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing fluid of the correct type. 4. the take off performance of the aircraft will not be affected.

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Question 32 of 230 Number: 12666 Question: Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

1. the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284). 2. the dangerous goods transport document is approved by the national authority prior to each flight. 3. no passengers and dangerous goods are carried on the same flight. 4. the operator has certified the dangerous goods.

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Question 33 of 230 Number: 12669 Question: An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is permitted in:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the approval conditions for return to service following maintenance. the Maintenance Schedule, in the Approval Specifications Section. JAR-OPS Subpart M. the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

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Question 34 of 230 Number: 12672 Question: After anti-icing has been completed, a pre-departure inspection reveals presence of frost, ice or snow. The correct action is to:

1. complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further

contamination 2. switch on all the aircraft anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne 3. complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditions and type of fluid used has not been exceeded

4. carry out a new de-icing/anti-icing procedure

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Question 35 of 230 Number: 12693 Question: The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods are specified in the:

1. flight manual. 2. air operator certificate.

3. operations manual. 4. AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).

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Question 36 of 230 Number: 12697 Question: To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:

1. 2. 3. 4.

shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment. discharge the fire extinguishers in the affected compartment. evacuate the smoke. confirm visually the fire.

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Question: The dangerous goods transport document regarding the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is specified in the:

1. 2. 3. 4.

technical instructions. operations manual. air transport permit. flight manual.

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Question 38 of 230 Number: 12705 Question: The commander shall not commence take-off in icing conditions: 1. unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.

2. even if the ice contamination does not lead to an excedence of mass and balance limits. 3. unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing. 4. unless the external surfaces are clear of any contamination, except as permitted by

Aircraft Flight Manual.

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Question 39 of 230 Number: 15863 Question: The type of hydroplaning that is most likely to occur at the touch down area located at both ends of the runway is called:

1. rubber steaming.

2. viscous. 3. dynamic. 4. rubber reversion.

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Question 40 of 230

Number: 15919 Question: A hand water fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of:

1. flammable liquids 2. flammable gases 3. metals

4. paper, fabric, carpet

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Question 41 of 230 Number: 15943 Question: Following a landing with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. For safety reasons, the landing gear wheels should be approached:

1. from left or right side. 2. under no circumstances.

3. from front or rear side. 4. from any side.

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Question 42 of 230 Number: 15763 Question: The permanent approval for the transport of dangerous goods is specified in the:

1. insurance certificate. 2. certificate of aircraft registration.

3. air operator certificate. 4. airworthiness certificate.

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Question: To fight a fire in an air-conditioned class E cargo hold, the correct initial action is to:

1. evacuate the smoke. 2. discharge the fire extinguishers in the affected compartment.

3. shut off the ventilating airflow within the affected compartment. 4. confirm visually the fire.

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Question 44 of 230 Number: 15611 Question: The content of the dangerous goods transport document is specified in the:

1. Air Transport Permit.

2. Technical Instructions. 3. JAR-OPS documentation. 4. Flight Manual.

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Question 45 of 230 Number: 15682 Question: Which of the following statements is correct concerning a take off from a contaminated runway?

1. The take off from a contaminated runway is forbidden. 2. In general the performance data for take off has been determined by means of

calculation and has not been verified by flight tests. 3. The performance corrections for contamination should be applied with any kind of measurable contamination. 4. As the amount of contamination increases at constant take off weight, V1 should decrease to compensate for decreasing friction.

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Question 46 of 230 Number: 15405 Question: According to JAR 25, if a fuel jettisoning system is required, it must be capable of jettisoning enough fuel within:

1. 60 minutes 2. 30 minutes 3. 45 minutes

4. 15 minutes

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Question 47 of 230 Number: 1898 Question: Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a runway, under the following circumstances : 1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds 15 knots. 2. when the tail wind component, including gust, exceeds 5 knots. 3. when the runway is not clear or dry. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1. 2,3. 2. 1,3. 3. 1,2.

4. 1,2,3.

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Question 48 of 230 Number: 1899 Question: If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Put on the mask and goggles. Cut off all air conditioning units. Begin an emergency descent. Determine which system is causing the smoke.

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Question 49 of 230

Number: 1900 Question: Malfunctioning of the automatic pressurization system is indicated by: 1. a change in environmental sounds. 2. the cabin altitude gauge indicates an abnormal rate of climb. 3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior of the aircraft decreases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1,3.

2. 1,2,3. 3. 2,3. 4. 1,2.

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Question 50 of 230 Number: 1381 Question: Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

1. only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets. 2. all available extinguishers in sequence. 3. all available liquids.

4. all available extinguishers simultaneously.

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Question 51 of 230 Number: 2163 Question: The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by:

1. the operator. 2. the captain. 3. the handling agent.

4. the shipper.

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Question 52 of 230

Number: 2165 Question: During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 1- flies above the intended approach path 2- flies below the intended approach path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :

1. 2. 3. 4.

2,4. 2,3. 1,4. 1,3.

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Question 53 of 230 Number: 2166 Question: During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with an increasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 1- flies above the intended approach path 2- flies below the intended approach path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is:

1. 2,4. 2. 1,4. 3. 2,3.

4. 1,3.

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Question 54 of 230 Number: 2167 Question: During a manual approach, the aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 1- flies above the intended approach path 2- flies below the intended approach path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed The combination of correct statements is :

1. 2. 3. 4.

1,3. 2,3. 2,4. 1,4.

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Question 55 of 230 Number: 3714 Question: The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer the operations manual the operator and approved by the certification authority

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Question 56 of 230 Number: 3715 Question: The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by: 1. the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List

(MMEL) 2. the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) 3. the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL) 4. the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List

(MMEL)

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Question 57 of 230 Number: 3838 Question: The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is:

1. A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire. 2. Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.

3. Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes. 4. Water may only be used for minor fires.

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Question 58 of 230 Number: 3509 Question: A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in:

1. the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

2. the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air. 3. Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention. 4. Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention.

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Question 59 of 230 Number: 3498 Question: What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) ?:

1. 7800 2. 7600 3. 7700

4. 7500

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Question 60 of 230 Number: 3389 Question: Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen supply at which flight crew efficiency is not impaired is:

1. 25000 ft

2. 8000 ft 3. 14000 ft 4. 2500 ft

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Question 61 of 230 Number: 3390 Question: Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?

1. 14000 ft

2. 32000 ft 3. 8000 ft 4. 25000 ft

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Question 62 of 230 Number: 3391 Question: The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of

1. 25000 ft 2. 14000 ft 3. 15000 ft

4. 13000 ft

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Question 63 of 230 Number: 3392 Question: Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the amount of control action that is required is:

1. null

2. substantial 3. small 4. medium

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Question 64 of 230 Number: 3393 Question: In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be necessary to:

1. slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb 2. climb away at Vat + 20 kt 3. increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below this angle

4. reduce speed to V2 and hold

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Question 65 of 230 Number: 3394 Question: For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?

1. 3.7 km (2 NM) 2. 9.3 km (5 NM)

3. 7.4 km (4 NM) 4. 11.1 km (6 NM)

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Question 66 of 230 Number: 3395 Question: For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more

than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

1. 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes 2. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

3. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes 4. 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes

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Question 67 of 230 Number: 3396 Question: For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum separation time if a light aeroplane (7000 kg or less) is following a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to landing ?

1. 5 minutes


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Question 68 of 230 Number: 4214 Question: One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it:

1. 2. 3. 4.

can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane

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Question 69 of 230 Number: 4366 Question: Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with icing conditions:

1. A meteorologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-

protection systems

2. The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems 3. The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly 4. The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid

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Question 70 of 230 Number: 4287 Question: The accumulation of frost, snow or ice on an aeroplane in flight induces, amongst other serious consequences, an increase in the:

1. value of the stall angle of attack 2. tuck under 3. roll rate

4. stalling speed

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Question 71 of 230 Number: 4289 Question: ICAO Annex 18 is a document dealing with:

1. the air transport of live animals

2. the safety of the air transport of dangerous goods 3. the technical operational use of aircraft 4. the noise pollution of aircraft

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Question 72 of 230 Number: 4293 Question: In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You 1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and

flaps) 2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps) 3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of stick shaker 4- avoid excessive attitude change The combination of correct statements is :

1. 1,4

2. 1,3 3. 2,3 4. 2,4

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Question 73 of 230 Number: 4294 Question: At a given configuration, the wake turbulence of an aeroplane is greater when the aeroplane is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

heavy at low airspeed. light at high airspeed. light at low airspeed. heavy at high airspeed.

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Question 74 of 230 Number: 4206 Question: When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends:

1. to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength 2. not to change its trajectory

3. to descend 4. to climb

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Question 75 of 230 Number: 4207 Question: Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the following is established:

1. lift destruction 2. spin up 3. drag

4. lift

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Question 76 of 230 Number: 4227 Question: Wake turbulence risk is highest: 1. when a preceding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off.

2. if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy crosswind. 3. following a preceding aircraft at high speed. 4. when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel

runway with a light crosswind.

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Question 77 of 230 Number: 4398 Question: During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action will be:

1. to set the transponder to 7700 2. to warn the ATC 3. to comfort your passengers

4. to put on the oxygen mask

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Question: In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of unlawful interference must immediately notify the:

1. State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only 2. State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO 3. State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.

4. State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO

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Question 79 of 230 Number: 4544 Question: The holdover time of an anti-icing procedure, for a given ambient temperature, will be longest in weather conditions of:

1. steady snow 2. freezing fog 3. rain on a cold soaked wing

4. frost

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Question 80 of 230 Number: 4546 Question: At any ambient temperature up to + 30° C and with a relative humidity as low as 40 %, in clear air, free of fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing:

1. can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings 2. can occur at any setting

3. can occur, but only at a low power setting 4. cannot occur

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Question 81 of 230 Number: 4547 Question: DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the maximum certificated take-off mass. Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of:

1. 135 000 Kg or more 2. less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg 3. 146 000 Kg or more

4. 136 000 Kg or more

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Question 82 of 230 Number: 4618 Question: As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and prevention are: 1 - ATIS. 2 - NOTAMs. 3 - BIRDTAMs. 4 - Weather radar. 5 - The report by another crew. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1. 1,3,4 2. 1,2,3,4,5 3. 2,5

4. 1,2,5

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Question 83 of 230 Number: 4620 Question: Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you will: 1 - remain on the runway, 2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway, 3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical power supply on, 4 - turn off all systems. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2,3. 2. 1,3.

3. 1,4.

4. 2,4.

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Question 84 of 230 Number: 4621 Question: While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must : 1. maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation, monitor the

speed evolution. 2. reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path. 3. reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing. 4. take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above.

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Question 85 of 230 Number: 4623 Question: The highest risk of bird strikes occurs:

1. 2. 3. 4.

under 500 m above 1 000 m between 500 and 1 000 m between 500 and 1 500 m

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Question 86 of 230 Number: 4624 Question: While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of a "microburst". You will expect to encounter:

1. 2. 3. 4.

windshears (vertical and horizontal). convection motion of air mass. supercooled water. wake turbulence .

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Question 87 of 230

Number: 4625 Question: If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:

1. under flight level 50 (FL50). 2. in a holding stack, after control clearance. 3. during final phase of approach.

4. in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.

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Question 88 of 230 Number: 4626 Question: Just after take-off an aircraft encounters a "microburst" situated directly ahead. The initial indications will be: 1 - an increase in head wind 2 - an increase in tail wind 3 - better climb performance 4 - a decrease in climb gradient. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1. 1,4

2. 1,3 3. 2,3 4. 2,4

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Question 89 of 230 Number: 4627 Question: When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will cause the following effects: 1 - an increase in the take-off distance 2 - a diminution of the take-off run 3 - an increase in the stalling speed 4 - a diminution of the stalling speed 5 - a diminution of the climb gradient The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

1. 2, 3, 5

2. 1, 3, 5 3. 2, 4, 5 4. 1, 2, 3

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Question 90 of 230 Number: 4628 Question: The application of a type II anti-icing fluid on an aircraft on the ground will provide a:

1. protection against icing for the duration of the flight. 2. protection time up to 24 hours. 3. limited time of protection independent of the outside temperature.

4. limited holdover time.

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Question 91 of 230 Number: 4537 Question: When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should takeoff: 1. at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of

the runway . 2. at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind side of the runway .

3. beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down. 4. in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.

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Question 92 of 230 Number: 4538 Question: An aircraft which experiences a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a windshear of:

1. 20 kt. 2. 60 kt.

3. 80 kt.

4. 40 kt.

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Question 93 of 230 Number: 4774 Question: The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:

1. the manufacturer and approved by the authority. 2. the Civil Aviation Authority of the European states.

3. the airline operator and approved by the authority. 4. the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.

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Question 94 of 230 Number: 4775 Question: A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:

1. damp. 2. wet.

3. contaminated. 4. flooded.

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Question 95 of 230 Number: 4767 Question: You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of : 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...) 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (sodium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2

2. 1 3. 3 and 4 4. 3

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Question 96 of 230 Number: 4769 Question: You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: 1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...) 2 liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) 3 - gas 4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...) The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1,2,4 2. 1,2,3,4

3. 1,2,3 4. 2,3,4

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Question 97 of 230 Number: 4770 Question: On most of the large modern aeroplanes, an engine fire warning system will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle. The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:

1. the fire-extinguisher has been triggered. 2. the fire shut-off handle has been pulled. 3. all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.

4. fire is no longer detected.

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Question 98 of 230 Number: 4789 Question: An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when:

1. it is implementing its own anti-icing devices. 2. leaving the icing zone. 3. releasing the brakes in order to take-off.

4. it is rotating (before taking-off).

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Question 99 of 230 Number: 4790 Question: An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the protection time of the anti-icing fluid:

1. must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off. 2. must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid for take-

off. 3. must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off. 4. need not undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.

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Question 100 of 230 Number: 4791 Question: The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

18 seconds. 5 minutes. 30 seconds. 1 minute.

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Question 101 of 230 Number: 4792 Question: In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain: 1. you increase your approach speed, 2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose gear, 3. you decrease your approach speed, 4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices, 5. you land as smoothly as possible, 6. you brake energically. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is

1. 1, 4, 5, 6

2. 2, 3, 4 3. 3, 5

4. 1, 2, 4,

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Question 102 of 230 Number: 4793 Question: In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations: 1. you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the

aircraft in a clean configuration until the final approach. 2. you descend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing

approach configuration. 3. you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude. 4. you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.

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Question 103 of 230 Number: 4795 Question: Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:

1. 2. 3. 4.

a rapid depressurization. an electrical fire. a plastic fire. a slow depressurization.

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Question 104 of 230 Number: 4778 Question: The main cause of wake turbulence is the result of: 1. An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices). 2. The engines power setting. 3. The position of the high lift devices (of the flaps, etc.). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 3.

2. 1. 3. 2 and 3. 4. 1, 2 and 3.

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Question 105 of 230 Number: 4800 Question: During a de-icing / anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the holdover time starts:

1. at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage). 2. at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage). 3. a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).

4. at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).

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Question 106 of 230 Number: 4798 Question: In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will : 1. evacuate women and children first. 2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts. 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability. 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

2, 3, 4 1, 2, 3, 4 1, 4 2, 3

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Question: In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using: 1. a dry powder fire extinguisher 2. a water spray atomizer 3. a water fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fireextinguisher to the maximum The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 3, 4 2. 1, 4 3. 2, 3, 4

4. 1, 2

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Question 108 of 230 Number: 4811 Question: In case of an engine tail pipe fire during start while on the ground you should abort the starting procedure and:

1. fight the fire with a water fire-extinguisher. 2. carry out a damp cranking. 3. pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.

4. carry out a dry motoring cycle.

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Question 109 of 230 Number: 4812 Question: When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the right side, you adopt, whenever possible: 1. a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its

path. 2. a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and

above its path. 3. an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft. 4. a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and under its path.

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Question 110 of 230 Number: 4813 Question: When taking-off behind a heavy aircraft, with the wind coming from the left side, you adopt, whenever possible: 1. a different flight path form the preceding aircraft, by remaining behind it and under its

path. 2. a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the right of and under its path. 3. a different flight path from the preceding aircraft, by remaining to the left of and above

its path. 4. an identical flight path to the one of the preceding aircraft.

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Question 111 of 230 Number: 4814 Question: The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:

1. 30 seconds.

2. 3 minutes. 3. 10 minutes. 4. 1 minute.

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Question 112 of 230 Number: 4815 Question: To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: 1. a water fire-extinguisher 2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher 3. a halon fire-extinguisher 4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 3, 4 2. 1, 2, 3, 4 3. 1, 2

4. 3, 4

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Question 113 of 230 Number: 4816 Question: A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 1. on himself/herself 2. in his/her hand luggage 3. in his/her checked luggage The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 3

2. 1 3. 1, 2, 3 4. 1, 2

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Question 114 of 230 Number: 4805 Question: A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for: 1. a paper fire 2. a fabric fire 3. an electric fire 4. a wood fire 5. a hydrocarbon fire. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 4, 5

2. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 3. 1, 3, 5 4. 2, 3, 4

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Question 115 of 230 Number: 4858 Question: The wake turbulence: 1. starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when retracting the drag devices.

2. starts during rotation and stops as soon as the aeroplane's wheels touch the ground.

3. starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing. 4. starts when the aeroplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.

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Question 116 of 230 Number: 4859 Question: In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at : 1. low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure

decreases by a few hectopascals. 2. high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals. 3. low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals. 4. low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure

increases by a few hectopascals.

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Question 117 of 230 Number: 4864 Question: You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for: 1. a paper fire 2. a plastic fire 3. a hydrocarbon fire 4. an electrical fire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 4

2. 1, 2, 3, 4 3. 2, 3 4. 1, 2, 3

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Question 118 of 230

Number: 4868 Question: In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will: 1. set the maximum take-off thrust 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick shaker 3. retract gear and flaps, if they are extended 4. keep gear, flaps and slats in current configuration and retract the speed brakes 5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 3, 5 2. 1, 3, 5 3. 2, 3

4. 1, 2, 4

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Question 119 of 230 Number: 4871 Question: A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements: 1. mist in the cabin 2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft 3. expansion of body gases 4. blast of air released violently from the lungs The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 4 2. 2, 3, 4 3. 1, 2, 3

4. 1, 2, 3, 4

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Question 120 of 230 Number: 4872 Question: A slow decompression may be caused by: 1. a leak in a doorseal during normal pressurised flight 2. loss of a cabin window 3. malfunction of all pressurised systems 4. loss of a door The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3

2. 1, 3 3. 2, 4

4. 1, 2, 3, 4

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Question 121 of 230 Number: 4964 Question: For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the:

1. 2. 3. 4.

Speed is greater than 129 kt. Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. Speed is greater than 95 kt. Tail wind is greater than 10 kt.

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1. Cross wind is greater than 10 kt. 2. Speed is greater than 83 kt.

3. Speed is greater than 119 kt. 4. Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

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1. Speed is greater than 96 kt. 2. Runway temperature is greater than 40°C. 3. Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves.

4. Speed is greater than 108 kt.

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1. Speed is greater than 127 kt.

2. Speed is greater than 98 kt. 3. Cross wind is greater than 20 kt. 4. Water depth is equal to the half of the depth of tyregrooves.

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Question 125 of 230 Number: 4968 Question: For an aeroplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, assuming a rotating tyre, there is a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as : 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. 2- speed is greater than 137 kt. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the tyre grooves. 4- speed is greater than 117 kt. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2 and 3. 2. 3 and 4. 3. 1 and 4.

4. 1 and 2.

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Question 126 of 230 Number: 4970 Question: The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip:

1. counter clockwise. 2. from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.

3. from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.

4. clockwise.

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Question 127 of 230 Number: 4972 Question: Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of birds ?

1. an area liable to flooding 2. short gang-mown grass 3. edible rubbish

4. long grass

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Question 128 of 230 Number: 4975 Question: Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168 the:

1. state of the operator 2. commander 3. state in which the aeroplane is operating

4. operator

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Question 129 of 230 Number: 4977 Question: A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is:

1. water

2. dry powder 3. foam

4. CO2 (carbon dioxide)

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Question 130 of 230 Number: 4978 Question: An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the operating crew ?

1. transmit a MAYDAY message

2. to put on oxygen masks 3. place the seat belts sign to ON 4. disconnect the autopilot

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Question 131 of 230 Number: 4979 Question: When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate:

1. 2. 3. 4.

a rate of climb a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm zero

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Question 132 of 230 Number: 4980 Question: If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure:

1. 2. 3. 4.

decreases attains its maximum permitted operating limit increases remains constant

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Question 133 of 230 Number: 4981 Question: In accordance with ICAO and PANS-ATM procedures, which letter should be entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than 136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg:

1. S

2. M 3. H 4. L

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Question 134 of 230 Number: 4982 Question: For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway ?

1. 2 minutes


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Question 135 of 230 Number: 4983 Question: Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a report to:

1. the Authority of the State of the operator only 2. the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful interference

3. both the local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator. 4. the local authority only.

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Question 136 of 230 Number: 5318 Question: Wake turbulence should be taken into account when: 1. a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres

over the runway. 2. a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a light

crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used. 3. during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft. 4. when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway.

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Question 137 of 230 Number: 5592 Question: If a packet is marked with the label shown in the appendix it is :

1. an explosive material 2. an infectious material 3. a corpse

4. a toxic material or gas

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Question 138 of 230 Number: 5602 Question: The correct definition of a safe forced landing is: 1. a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the

occupants 2. a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and its occupants 3. an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on board

4. an unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuries to

persons in the aircraft or on the surface.

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Question 139 of 230 Number: 5603 Question: The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) if this exists is established by: 1. the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority

2. the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority 3. the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer 4. the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

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Question 140 of 230 Number: 5604 Question: The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared by:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual

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Question 141 of 230 Number: 5612 Question: The tyre pressure of an aeroplane main landing gear is 10.8 bars. There is a risk of hydroplaning as soon as the speed reaches:

1. 145 kt 2. 56 kt

3. 113 kt 4. 87 kt

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Question 142 of 230 Number: 5041 Question: Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should pay attention to the:

1. 2. 3. 4.

temperature of the brakes. pressure of the hydraulic fluid. pressure of the pneumatic system. temperature of the hydraulic fluid.

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Question 143 of 230 Number: 5042 Question: In compliance with JAR OPS and ICAO annex 18, in order to carry dangerous materials on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied with a:

1. specialized handling employee. 2. representative of the company owning the goods. 3. system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature.

4. transport document for dangerous materials.

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Question 144 of 230 Number: 5043 Question: The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous materials are specified in the:

1. AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication). 2. flight manual.

3. operations manual. 4. air carrier certificate.

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Question 145 of 230 Number: 5044 Question: In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check that:

1. 2. 3. 4.

possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits. external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid. external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm. external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight

manual.

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Question 146 of 230 Number: 5045 Question: In the EU-OPS, a runway is considered wet when: 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of water. 2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance. 3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water. 4. it bears stagnant sheets of water. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2 2. 1, 2, 3 3. 4

4. 1, 3

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Question: In the EU-OPS, a runway is considered damp when: 1. its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny appearance.

2. it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm. 3. it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm. 4. surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.

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Question 148 of 230 Number: 5047 Question: According to the EU-OPS 1, when a commercial transport passenger aircraft is equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include: 1. a sealing system which, in case of depressurisation in the compartment area allows the

maintenance of the pressure in the cockpit for as long as possible. 2. a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.

3. a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access. 4. distinctive red or yellow coloured markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked door).

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Question 149 of 230 Number: 5049 Question: Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry runway must be increased by:

1. 18 %

2. 15 % 3. 17,6 % 4. 20 %

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Question 150 of 230 Number: 5050 Question: In the EU-OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4

2. 2, 3, 4 3. 1, 3, 4, 5 4. 1, 3, 4

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Question 151 of 230 Number: 5051 Question: The reference document you shall use when a piece of equipment on your aeroplane fails during taxy is:

1. the MMEL. 2. the JAR OPS 1. 3. the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency Procedures".

4. the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".

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Question 152 of 230 Number: 5054 Question: The minimum equipment list of a public transport aircraft is to be found in the:

1. 2. 3. 4.

operations manual. flight record. flight manual. JAR OPS.

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Question 153 of 230 Number: 4985 Question: What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference:

1. code A 7600 2. code A 7700 3. code A 2000

4. code A 7500

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Question 154 of 230 Number: 4988 Question: In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the specified approach and landing climb performance requirements:

1. 90 minutes


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Question 155 of 230 Number: 4991 Question: From the following list : 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Portable oxygen supplies 3. Firstaid kits 4. Passenger meals 5. Alcoholic beverages Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's for operating reasons :

1. 1,2 and 5 only

2. 1,2 and 3 only 3. 3,4 and 5 only

4. 2,3 and 4 only

Question 156 of 230 Number: 4992 Question: The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is:

1. 3 hours

2. 24 hours 3. 6 hours 4. 12 hours

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Question 157 of 230 Number: 4993 Question: Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's main wheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning may occur is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

129 kt 100 kt 80 kt 114 kt

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Question 158 of 230 Number: 4994 Question: Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is less than the published length, how is this reported : 1. as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a

SNOWTAM

2. by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres 3. in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM 4. it is not reported

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Question 159 of 230

Number: 4995 Question: A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

poor medium good unreliable

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Question 160 of 230 Number: 5797 Question: When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), shall be:

1. 4 MIN 2. 1 MIN

3. 3 MIN 4. 2 MIN

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Question 161 of 230 Number: 5798 Question: According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied : 1. to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of

parallel runway separated by less 760 m 2. Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off 3. to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold 4. to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross

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Question 162 of 230

Number: 5799 Question: According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied: 1. to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected

to cross 2. Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off 3. to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a runway with a displaced landing threshold 4. to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of a

parallel runway separated by less than 760 m

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Question 163 of 230 Number: 5800 Question: In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar separation minima of:

1. 4 NM

2. 5 NM 3. 2 NM 4. 3 NM

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Question 164 of 230 Number: 5801 Question: According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to:

1. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft 2. LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same runway 3. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole runway)

4. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft

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Question 165 of 230 Number: 5802 Question: According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a : 1. MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less

than 300 n (1 000 ft) 2. LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than

300 m (1 000.ft) 3. HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft) 4. LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)

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Question 166 of 230 Number: 11369 Question: Assuming that the operator is approved by his national authority, carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

1. no passengers and dangerous goods are carried on the same flight.

2. the operator complies with the technical instructions (ICAO DOC 9284). 3. the dangerous goods transport document is approved by the national authority prior to each flight. 4. the operator has certified the dangerous goods.

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Question 167 of 230 Number: 11247 Question: A runway is considered to be contaminated when its surface is covered more than:

1. 10 % with ice 2. 15 % with melted snow

3. 25 % with compacted snow 4. 20 % with melted snow

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Question 169 of 230 Number: 11254 Question: According to ICAO Doc 8168, a noise abatement departure procedure is NOT to be initiated at less than:

1. 2. 3. 4.

800 ft above aerodrome elevation 1 000 ft above aerodrome elevation 2 000 ft above aerodrome elevation 1 500 ft above aerodrome elevation

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Question 170 of 230 Number: 11258 Question: In icing conditions, if you have exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is to: 1. apply directly anti-icing fluid without conducting previous de-icing procedures.

2. de-ice the aircraft.

3. de-ice the aircraft again, then apply anti-icing fluid. 4. operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing systems.

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Question 172 of 230 Number: 11297 Question: If installed, the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being:

1. directly locked from outside the compartment 2. remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment 3. remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment

4. locked from within the compartment

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Question 173 of 230 Number: 11298 Question: If it exists, the M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

1. the aircraft state of registry. 2. the operator.

3. the manufacturer / the type certificate holder. 4. the aircraft manufacturer's list.

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Question 174 of 230 Number: 11299 Question: During the passenger briefing for a flight requiring life jackets, the passengers shall be instructed to inflate their life jackets:

1. 2. 3. 4.

when outside the aircraft. immediately on the opening of the exits. as soon as ditching is prepared. immediately on ditching.

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Question 175 of 230 Number: 11300 Question: In accordance with ICAO PANS OPS 8168, noise preferential routes are established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential routes:

1. no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated with a

noise abatement procedure. 2. turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt) 3. turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt) 4. turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the highest obstacle.

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Question 176 of 230 Number: 11313 Question: In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:

1. Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less

2. It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance 3. Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt 4. It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

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Question 177 of 230 Number: 11314 Question: Who initially is responsible for ensuring that cargo for air transportation as dangerous goods is not prohibited?

1. 2. 3. 4.

The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods. It is not specified. The commander, always using the list of prohibited items. The operator.

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Question 178 of 230 Number: 11321 Question: The dangerous goods regulations ICAO annex 18 and JAR OPS require that, when delivering cargo for transport, the responsibility for compliance with the regulations are to:

1. station manager. 2. aerodrome manager.

3. sender. 4. commander.

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Question 179 of 230 Number: 11322 Question: The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight. In the event of an aircraft serviceability problem, the commander must use the limitations provided by the MEL:

1. 2. 3. 4.

At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing. At any time during the flight. Until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight. Prior to take-off.

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Question 180 of 230 Number: 11334 Question: The operator shall include in the operations manual a minimum equipment list which shall be approved by the authority of:

1. 2. 3. 4.

The country of the operator. no approval is required. the country where the aircraft was manufactured. the countries where the aircraft is operated.

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Question 181 of 230 Number: 11342 Question: When a commander of an aircraft notices, after take-off, a flock of birds presenting a bird strike hazard, he/she shall:

1. submit a written hazard bird strike report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.

2. inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.

3. immediately inform the local ground station/ATS unit. 4. inform the other aircraft by radio.

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Question 183 of 230 Number: 11347 Question: When penetrating horizontal windshear, which parameter will change first?

1. Pitch angle. 2. Groundspeed. 3. Vertical speed.

4. Indicated airspeed.

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Question 184 of 230 Number: 11348 Question: According to ICAO noise abatement procedures during landing:

1. 2. 3. 4.

shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust. apply in case of visual approaches only. apply in case of instrument approaches only. prohibit the use of reverse thrust.

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Question 185 of 230 Number: 11349 Question: For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid, in which of the following conditions will the holdover (protection) time be the shortest?

1. Freezing rain

2. Steady snow 3. Frost 4. Freezing fog

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Question 186 of 230 Number: 14439 Question: According to the recommended "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure" NADP2, established in ICAO Doc 8168, acceleration and flaps/slats retraction is initiated:

1. at 3 000 ft 2. at 1 500 ft

3. not below 800 ft 4. not below 1 000 ft

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Question 187 of 230 Number: 14445 Question: Which of the following weather conditions will give the shortest holdover time for a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid?

1. Freezing fog 2. Steady snow 3. Frost

4. Light freezing rain

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Question 188 of 230 Number: 14266 Question: Articles and substances are considered to be dangerous goods if defined as such by:

1. JAA. 2. the UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".

3. the IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods by air". 4. the ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of dangerous

goods by air".

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Question 189 of 230 Number: 14267 Question: In a light crosswind (approximately 5 kt) from the right behind an aeroplane taking off:

1. The right and left wake vortices remain approximately on the runway. 2. The runway will be clear of any wake turbulence. 3. The left wake vortex remains approximately on the runway.

4. The right wake vortex remains approximately on the runway.

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Question 190 of 230 Number: 14268 Question: To avoid wake turbulence, when flying behind and close to a large aeroplane, the pilot should manoeuvre whenever possible:

1. 2. 3. 4.

above and upwind from the large aeroplane. below and upwind from the large aeroplane. below and downwind from the large aeroplane. above and downwind from the large aeroplane.

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Question 191 of 230 Number: 14269 Question: The ICAO Annex dealing with the safe transport of dangerous goods by air is:

1. Annex 8 2. Annex 17 3. Annex 1

4. Annex 18

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Question 192 of 230 Number: 14270 Question: According to EU-OPS, an operator shall not operate an aircraft in expected or actual icing conditions unless:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the aircraft is certificated and equipped to operate in icing conditions. the aircraft is sprayed with de-icing fluid before flight. the aircraft is sprayed with anti-icing fluid before flight. the flight is planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly.

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Question 193 of 230 Number: 14271 Question: The complete information regarding the types of goods which the passengers are forbidden from transporting aboard an aircraft is listed in the:

1. ICAO Annex 18. 2. ICAO document "Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by

Air". 3. aircraft''s flight manual. 4. JAR-OPS documentation.

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Question 194 of 230 Number: 14273 Question: A crew member is allowed to carry safety matches: 1. on himself 2. in his hand baggage 3. in his checked baggage 4. for his own use. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2, 3

2. 1, 4 3. 1, 2, 3, 4 4. 1, 2, 4

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Question 195 of 230 Number: 14274 Question: In regards to ICAO Annex 18, when offering dangerous goods for transportation by air, who initially is responsible for compliance with the regulations?

1. The pilot in command. 2. The station manager. 3. The aerodrome manager.

4. The shipper.

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Question 196 of 230 Number: 14275 Question: Regarding wake turbulence, what are the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and the minimum non-radar separation time for a MEDIUM aircraft behind a HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?

1. 2. 3. 4.

9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

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Question 197 of 230 Number: 14276 Question: Regarding wake turbulence, what is the ICAO minimum non-radar separation time for a LIGHT aircraft behind a MEDIUM or HEAVY aeroplane on approach to the same runway?

1. 4 minutes

2. 5 minutes


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Question 198 of 230 Number: 14277 Question: According to EU-OPS, the commander shall not commence take-off: 1. unless the external surfaces are clear of any deposit, except as permitted by Aircraft

Flight Manual. 2. unless the external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid and the aircraft is not to be operated in forecasted icing conditions greater than moderate icing. 3. even if the ice contamination does not exceed the mass and balance limits. 4. unless the external surfaces are free from any ice contamination greater than 5 mm.

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Question 199 of 230 Number: 14278 Question: Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall:

1. inform other aircraft in the vicinity by radio.

2. immediately inform the local ATS unit. 3. submit a written hazard bird strike report upon arrival and within 48 hours. 4. inform immediately the bird control unit (BCU) directly by radio.

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Question 200 of 230 Number: 14279 Question: A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher could be used to fight the fire of: 1- paper, fabric, carpet 2- flammable liquids 3- electrical equipment 4- metals, flammable gases, chemicals. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1. 1, 2, 3, 4 2. 3, 4

3. 1, 2, 3 4. 2, 4

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Question 201 of 230 Number: 14280 Question: The fire extinguisher types which may be used to fight fire on carbonaceous materials are:1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1. 2. 3. 4.

1, 2, 3, 4 3, 4 1 2, 3, 4

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Question 202 of 230 Number: 14281 Question: The fire extinguisher types which may be used to fight fire on flammable liquids are: 1 - H2O 2 - CO2 3 - dry-chemical 4 - halon. Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

1. 1, 2, 3, 4 2. 3, 4

3. 2, 3, 4 4. 2

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Question 203 of 230 Number: 14282 Question: H2O extinguishers are fit to fight fires on:

1. electrical equipment 2. metals, flammable gases, chemical products 3. flammable liquids

4. carbonaceous materials

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Question 204 of 230 Number: 14283 Question: CO2 type extinguishers are suitable to fight fire on: 1 - carbonaceous materials 2 flammable liquids 3 - electrical equipment 4 - metals. Which of the following combinations contains all the correct statements:

1. 2, 3, 4 2. 1, 2, 4 3. 1, 3, 4

4. 1, 2, 3

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Question 205 of 230 Number: 14284 Question: According to ICAO Doc 4444, a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to:

1. LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft. 2. MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m.

3. MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft. 4. LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same runway.

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Question 206 of 230 Number: 14285 Question: In accordance with ICAO Doc 4444, when a MEDIUM aircraft preceeds a LIGHT aircraft using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, the wake turbulence radar separation minima on the approach or departure phases of flight shall be:

1. 4 NM 2. 2 NM

3. 5 NM 4. 3 NM

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Question 207 of 230 Number: 14287 Question: As a commander, if you are notified that a package of dangerous goods appears to be damaged, you:

1. mention it on the shipper''s declaration. 2. mention it on the Notification to Captain. 3. accept it after a visual inspection.

4. ensure that arrangements are made for its removal.

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Question 208 of 230 Number: 14064 Question: At reference. Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

1. 2. 3. 4.

24500 ft 22500 ft 29000 ft 27000 ft

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Question 209 of 230 Number: 14065 Question: At Reference. Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming you don't want the cabin altitude being greater than 10000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately:

1. 15000 ft 2. 5000 ft 3. 12000 ft

4. 15100 ft

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Question 210 of 230 Number: 14073 Question: According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the ICAO PANS OPS 8168 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which results in the biggest noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport:

1. depends on the wind component

2. is procedure B 3. is procedure A 4. is either procedure A or B, because there is no difference

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Question 211 of 230 Number: 14079 Question: During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1. flies above the glide path 2. flies below the glide path 3. has an increasing true airspeed 4. has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is :

1. 1,4 2. 2,3 3. 1,3

4. 2,4

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Question 212 of 230 Number: 14082 Question: During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft: 1- flies above the glide path 2- flies below the glide path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed. The combination of correct statements is :

1. 1,4.

2. 2,4. 3. 1,3. 4. 2,3.

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Question 213 of 230 Number: 14083 Question: Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?

1. 25000 ft 2. 8000 ft 3. 14000 ft

4. 32000 ft

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Question 214 of 230 Number: 14084 Question: For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the approach to the same runway?

1. 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes 2. 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes 3. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes

4. 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes

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Question 215 of 230 Number: 14085 Question: Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in accordance with the relevant JARs, are classified as dangerous goods? 1. Fire extinguishers 2. Self-inflating life jackets 3. Portable oxygen supplies 4. First-aid kits. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 3 2. 2, 4

3. 1, 2, 3, 4 4. 1, 3, 4

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Question 216 of 230 Number: 14086 Question: During the certification flight tests regarding fuel jettisoning it must be shown that: 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from fire hazard 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane 3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part othe aeroplane 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect the controllability of the aeroplane. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1,2,3 and 4 2 and 3 1,3 and 4 1 and 4

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Question 217 of 230 Number: 14094 Question: In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on an aeroplane, the commander should: 1. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the engine jet blast of the preceding aeroplane 2. avoid positioning the aeroplane in the turbo-prop wash of the preceding aircraft. 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the preceding aircraft . 4.

positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding aircraft. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 4 2. 2, 3 3. 3, 4

4. 1, 2

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Question 218 of 230 Number: 14098 Question: In the JAR OPS, a runway is referred to as contaminated when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements: 1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway. 2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water. 3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further). 4. ice, including wet ice. 5. moist grass. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 3, 4, 5 2. 1, 2, 3, 4 3. 1, 3, 4

4. 2, 3, 4

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Question 219 of 230 Number: 14104 Question: The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of: 1. An aerodynamic effect (wing tip vortices). 2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas exhausts). 3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing gear, of the flaps, etc.). The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 2. 3. 4.

1 3 1, 2 and 3. 2 and 3.

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Question 220 of 230 Number: 14935 Question: Aeroplane wake turbulence during take off starts when:

1. 2. 3. 4.

the nose wheel lifts off the runway. slats and flaps are extended only. out of ground effect. the take off roll commences.

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Question 221 of 230 Number: 14915 Question: Viscous hydroplaning occurs primarily if the runway is covered with a thin film of water and:

1. the runway is very smooth and clean.

2. the runway is very smooth and dirty. 3. the tyre treads show minor cuts. 4. the runway has a rough surface.

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Question 222 of 230 Number: 15101 Question: A halon fire-extinguisher should be used on a fire of: 1 - paper, fabric, plastic 2 flammable liquids 3 - flammable gases 4 - metals The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4

2. 1, 2, 3 3. 1, 2, 4 4. 2, 3, 4

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Question 223 of 230 Number: 15315 Question: After take-off, an aeroplane is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aeroplane: 1- flies above the climb-out path 2- flies below the climb-out path 3- has an increasing true airspeed 4- has a decreasing true airspeed

1. 1, 4. 2. 2, 3. 3. 1, 3.

4. 2, 4.

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Question 224 of 230 Number: 15263 Question: According to EU-OPS 1, following a decompression, the maximum pressure altitude at which each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty are able to fly with no supplemental oxygen with no flight time limitation is:

1. 13000 ft 2. 15000 ft 3. 8000 ft

4. 10000 ft

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Question 225 of 230 Number: 15283 Question: Wake turbulence category HEAVY refers to aircraft which have a maximum certificated take-off mass of:

1. 146 000 kg or more. 2. between 136 000 kg and 186 000 kg.

3. 136 000 kg or more. 4. 186 000 kg or more.

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Question 226 of 230 Number: 15208 Question: The wake turbulence is the most severe when the generating aeroplane is: 1. flying slowly 2. heavy 3. in a clean configuration 4. flying with high thrust The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4 2. 2, 3, 4 3. 1, 4

4. 1, 2, 3

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Question 227 of 230 Number: 6556 Question: Wake turbulence is created by:

1. Behind high buildings less than 300m from the runway. 2. Wind forces greater than 50 kts.

3. The wingtips of heavy aircraft during the takeoff and landing. 4. Cumulonimbus clouds.

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Question 228 of 230 Number: 6558 Question: Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?

1. Annex 16 2. Annex 15 3. Annex 17

4. Annex 18

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Question 229 of 230 Number: 6559 Question: In compliance with EU-OPS, unless otherwise specified, when carrying dangerous goods on board a public transport aircraft, they must be accompanied by:

1. A certificate of compliance issued by IATA. 2. An approval document issued by the Operator.

3. A dangerous goods transport document. 4. An approval document issued by the Customs.

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Question 230 of 230 Number: 7221 Question: In case of an engine jet pipe fire while on the ground you:

1. Carry out a damp cranking. 2. Pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers.

3. Carry out a dry cranking. 4. Fight the fire with a water fire-extinguisher.

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03 HELICOPTER DEN SORU YOK

Operatıonal procedures

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