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Objective General Knowledge
Q. Which of the following condition/condition must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India? 1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise. 2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote. 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up from 6-A 6- A with electoral registration office. Select the correct answer using the code given below1 1, 2 and 3 2 1 and 3 only 3 2 only 4 3 only Ans: 2 Q. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct? The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the 1 executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states
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The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head o f the category D states
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The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states
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The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive h
Ans: 3 Q. The Constituent Assembly of India was chosen on the basis of the provincial elections of 1946. With the withdrawal of the Muslim League from the Constituent Assembly Assembly it turned out that majority of the Assembly members were also members of the Congress. Under that circumstance, how was the Constituent Assembly Assembly given a broader social basis? 1 By nominating independent members from various minority groups 2 By nominating independent from various caste and religious groups By nominating independent members of different castes, religious groups and women and also by 3 taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission form the public at large
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By taking in representatives of the princely states and asking for written submission from the public at large
Ans: 3 Q. What was the 'privy purse' in the context of the history of Modern India? 1 A purse given privately by one organization to another 2 A purse given by the government of India to dignitaries for service rendered 3 A grant given by the Government of India to the erstwhile Princes of India 4 A gift given by an erstwhile Prince of India to the Government of India Ans: 3 Q. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
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1 Freedom to move freely throughout the country 2 Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms 3 Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country 4 Freedom to practice any trade or profession Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution Constitution of India the Governor of a state may 1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature. 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the president. 3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below1 1 only 2 1 and 2 only 3 2 and 3 only 4 1, 2 and 3 Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right ' Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India'? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interest of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the code given below1 1 and 2 2 1 and 3 3 1 and 4 4 2, 3 and 4 Ans: 3 Q. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations? 1 Keshavananda Bharati case 2 Vishakha case 3 S.R.Bommai case 4 Indira Sawhney case Ans: 3 Q. Consider the following statements statements about the powers of the President of India 1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers. Ministers. 2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament. 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating relating to the administration administration of the U 1 1, 2 and 3 only
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1 Freedom to move freely throughout the country 2 Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms 3 Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country 4 Freedom to practice any trade or profession Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution Constitution of India the Governor of a state may 1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature. 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the president. 3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below1 1 only 2 1 and 2 only 3 2 and 3 only 4 1, 2 and 3 Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the 'Right ' Right against Exploitation' in the Constitution of India'? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 2. Abolition of untouchability. 3. Protection of the interest of the minorities. 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines. Select the correct answer using the code given below1 1 and 2 2 1 and 3 3 1 and 4 4 2, 3 and 4 Ans: 3 Q. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations? 1 Keshavananda Bharati case 2 Vishakha case 3 S.R.Bommai case 4 Indira Sawhney case Ans: 3 Q. Consider the following statements statements about the powers of the President of India 1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers. Ministers. 2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation. 3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament. 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating relating to the administration administration of the U 1 1, 2 and 3 only
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2 1 and 3 only 3 2 and 4 only 4 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: 3 Q. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India the term 'closure' refers to 1 suspension of debate at the termination of a day's sitting of the Parliament 2 a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted 3 the termination of a parliamentary session 4 refusal on the part of the government to have the opposition look at important documents Ans: 2 Q. According to the Administrative Administrative Tribunal Act 1985, the Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes and complaints with respect to the service of person who are1
appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union except members of the defence forces
2 official and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Courts 3 members of the Secretarial staff of the Parliament or any state legislature 4 members of the defence forces Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following statements with respect to the j udiciary in India is/are correct? 1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts. 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states. 3. The organization of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state. Select the correct answer using the code given below 1 1, 2 and 3 2 1 only 3 1 and 2 only 4 2 and 3 only Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following Committees are Committees of Parliament? 1. Public Accounts Committee 2. Estimates Committee 3. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer using the code given below1 1, 2 and 3 2 1 and 2 only 3 1 and 3 only 4 2 and 3 only Ans: 1 Q. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of -
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1 six years 2 during the pleasure of the President 3 for six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier 4 for five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier Ans: 3 Q. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be 1 An Economist of high calibre 2 A person having experience in Public Affairs 3 An expert from Judiciary-level of High Court Judge 4 A person of Finance and Banking field Ans: 2 Q. The First Election Commissioner of India was 1 Dr.Nagendra Singh 2 S.P.SenVerma 3 Sukumar Sen 4 K.V.K.Sundaram Ans: 3 Q. A law made by the Judiciary is known as 1 Ordinary law 2 Rule of law 3 Administrative law 4 Case law Ans: 4 Q. One of the important attributes attributes of Parliamentary from of government is 1 Executive is answerable to the people 2 Executive is separate from the legislature 3 Fixed tenure for the executive 4 Collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers of the Parliament Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following does not come under legislative control over administration? 1 Adjournment motion 2 Budget session 3 Formulation of a Bill 4 Zero hour Ans: 2 Q. From which fund can the unanticipated expenditure be met without the prior approval of the Parliament? 1 Vote-on-Account 2 Consolidated Fund of India
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3 From the Treasury 4 Contingency Fund of India Ans: 4 Q. "The Right to Public Office" is a 1 Moral right 2 Civil right 3 Political right 4 Economic right Ans: 2 Q. The judge of the Supreme Court of India now retire at the age of 1 62 years 2 60 years 3 65 years 4 58 years Ans: 3 Q. Who is the Chief Law Officer of India? 1 Advocate General 2 Solicitor General 3 Secretary, Law Department 4 Attorney General Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following bills cannot be introduced first in the RajyaSabha? 1 Bill bringing a State under the President's rule 2 Money Bill 3 Bill pertaining to the removal of the President by impeachment 4 Bill proclaiming all the State of emergency arising out of war or external aggression. Ans: 2 Q. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India? 1 The President 2 The Home Minister 3 The Defence Minister 4 The Prime Minister Ans: 1 Q. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was? 1 Added by the 42nd Amendment 2 A part of the original constitution 3 Added by the 24th Amendment 4 Added by the 1st Amendment
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Ans: 4 Q. What can be the maximum period of gap between any two session of the Indian Parliament? 1 One year 2 Three Months 3 Four months 4 Six months Ans: 4 Q. Finances are distributed between the Center and the States on the basis of the recommendations of the 1 National Development Council 2 Public Accounts Committee 3 Finance Commission 4 Planning Commission Ans: 3 Q. The finance Commission is constituted by the President every 1 5 years 2 4 years 3 2 years 4 3 years Ans: 1 Q. The Sarkaria Commission was set up for the review of the relation between 1 The Legislative and the Executive 2 The Executive and the Judiciary 3 The Center and the States 4 The Prime Minister and the President Ans: 3 Q. The speaker of the LokSabha 1 Has no right to vote 2 Votes like any other member of the LokSabha 3 Has two votes-one in ordinary course and another in case of tie 4 Votes only in case of tie Ans: 4 Q. The final approval to the draft Five Year Plan is given by the 1 President 2 Parliament 3 Planning Commission 4 National Development Council Ans: 4 Q. The first state in India which was created on linguistic basis -
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1 Gujarat 2 Kerala 3 Haryana 4 Andhra Pradesh Ans: 4 Q. The 10th Plan allocations gave the maximum boost to 1 Energy 2 Social Services 3 Communications 4 Agriculture Ans: 4 Q. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of children in any factory below the age of 1 7 years 2 12 years 3 15 years 4 14 years Ans: 4 Q. Which Amendment of the Constitution reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years? 1 61st Amendment 2 63rd Amendment 3 62nd Amendment 4 60th Amendment Ans: 1 Q. During which Five Year Plan was Green Revolution initiated in India? 1 5th 2 6th 3 4th 4 3rd Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following committees is concerned withthe regularity of the expenditure of the government? 1 Estimates Committee 2 Committee on the Public Undertakings 3 Public Accounts Committee 4 All of the above Ans: 3 Q. 'Equal pay for equal work for both men and women is a 1 Statutory Provision in Labour Law
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2 Directive Principle of State Policy 3 Fundamental Right 4 None of the above Ans: 3 Q. Planing Commission is a 1 Political body 2 Non-political body 3 Quasi-political body 4 Statutory body Ans: 3 Objective General Knowledge
Q. Panchayats 1 Are entitled to Government grants only 2 Are authorised to levy and collect taxes, duties, tolls and fees 3 Have no power to levy taxes 4 Are authorised to levy taxes only Ans: 2 Q. The Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List provided it is in the 1 Interest of the concerned State 2 Interest of the underpriviledged 3 Interest of the minority 4 National interest Ans: 4 Q. In which among the following cases the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned? 1. To amend the constitution. 2. When a bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other 3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a bill 4. When a bill is passes by one House and is rejected by the other. select the correct answer using the codes given below: 1 2, 3 and 4 2 1,2 and 3 3 2 and 3 only 4 1 and 4 Ans: 1 Q. Which among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister? 1 Parliamentary Democracy 2 Federalism 3 Representative Legislature 4 Universal Adult Franchise Ans: 1
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Q. When were the Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens incorporated in the Constitution? 1 1952 2 1981 3 1976 4 1979 Ans: 3 Q. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly? 1 Jawaharlal Nehru 2 Dr. Rajendra Prasad 3 C. Rajagopalachari 4 Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Ans: 4 Q. A list of national languages can be traced in the ---------- of the indian Constitution. 1 5th Schedule 2 6th Schedule 3 7th Schedule 4 8thSchedule Ans: 4 Q. who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the abolition of the legislative Council in a State? 1 The President of India 2 The Governor of the Concerned State 3 The Legislative Council of the concerned State 4 The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State Ans: 2 Q. National Development council was constituted on1 August 16, 1950 2 April 1,1951 3 August 6, 1952 4 august 16, 1952 Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following is the first state to have been formed on linguistic basis? 1 Gujarat 2 Punjab 3 Odisha 4 Andhra Pradesh Ans: 4 Q. The concept of "Minimum Needs" was an innovation of which one of the following Five Year Plans? 1 Four
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2 Fifth 3 Sixth 4 Seventh Ans: 2 Q. The 97th Constitutional Amendment dealt with 1 Elementary Education 2 Powers of the Vice-President 3 Powers of the Election Commission 4 Anti-Defection Bill Ans: 4 Q. Who approves the Draft outline of Five Year Plan? 1 The Finance Commission 2 The Planning Commission 3 The National Development Council 4 The Ministry of Finance Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following tax gives the maximum revenue to the Union Budget? 1 Income Tax 2 Custom Duty 3 Excise Duty 4 Corporation Tax Ans: 3 Q. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee for the Constitution of India was 1 Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru 2 Dr. Rajendra Prasad 3 Shri K.M. Munshi 4 Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Ans: 4 Q. In which year was the Tashkent Pact signed between India and Pakistan? 1 1964 2 1965 3 1966 4 1967 Ans: 3 Q. Holding of elections for the Village panchayat is decided by 1 The Collector 2 The Election Commission 3 The Central Government
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4 The State Government Ans: 4 Q. The Colours of Indian Flags in ascending order are 1 Saffron,white and green 2 White, green and saffron 3 Green, white and saffron 4 Saffron, green and white Ans: 3 Q. The ' President Rule ' in the State means that the State is ruled by 1 The President directly 2 A Caretaker Government 3 The Chief Minister nominated by the President 4 The Governor of the State Ans: 4 Q. The members of RajyaSabha are 1 Elected by the elected members of LokSabha 2 Elected by the elected members of the State Assemblies 3 Elected by the members of the lokSabha and the State Assemblies 4 Nominated by the governors of each State Ans: 2 Q. Indian Constitution does not provide any procedure to remove the 1 President 2 Vice-President 3 Judges of the Supreme Court 4 Governors Ans: 4 Q. Which on of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in article 19 of the Constitution? 1 Freedom of speech and expression 2 Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms 3 Freedom to move freely 4 Freedom of the press Ans: 4 Q. Article 356 of the constitution of India provides for 1 Reservation of jobs for Backward Classes 2 Protection of religious monuments 3 A special status for Jammu and Kashmir 4 Imposition of President's Rule in a State Ans: 4
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Q. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the RajyaSabha? 1 President of India 2 Vice-President of India 3 Ministe of Parliamentary Affairs 4 Leader of Opposition Ans: 2 Q. In which year were the Indian States reorganised on the linguistic basis? 1 1947 2 1951 3 1956 4 1966 Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following is not a tool of legislative control over administration in india? 1 Dissoluton of House 2 Resolutions 3 Questions 4 No confidence Motion Ans: 1 Q. AGMARK Act came into force in India in1 1937 2 1952 3 1957 4 1965 Ans: 1 Q. Mandal Commission established for reservation for backward classes submitted its report in 1 1980 2 1990 3 1992 4 1993 Ans: 1 Q. National Commission for Scheduled Castes/scheduled Tribes was constituted1 On the basis of 65th Amendment of constitution 2 On the basis of Article 338 of constitution 3 On the basis of Article 340 of constitution 4 Not based on any of the above Ans: 1 Q. Which of Constitutional Provisions allows the propagation of one's own religion ? 1 Indian constitution Article 14(A)
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2 Article 370 3 Article 25(1) 4 Article 16(1) Ans: 3 Q. Panchayat Raj System was made constitutional through1 73rd Amendment of the Constitution 2 45th Amendment of the Constitution 3 61st Amendment of the Constitution 4 None of the above amendments Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following laws is helpful in women empowerment? 1 Hindu Succession Act,1956 2 Gains of Learning Act,1930 3 61st constitutional Amendment Act,1989 4 45th Constitutional Amendment Act,1980 Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following criteria has been the basis of identifying 'Backward classes' by Mandal commission? 1 Caste and economic backwardness 2 Social, educational and economic backwardness 3 Social and Political backwardness 4 All of the above Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following Articles of Constitution provides the rights of running their own educational institutions to religious minorities? 1 Article 29(1) 2 Article 30(1) 3 Article 350 A 4 Article 359 B Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following Articles is the basis of representation of S.C./S.T. in LokSabha elections? 1 Art 332 2 Art 330 3 Art 331 4 Art 336 Ans: 2 Q. Which article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the Power the objects to ammendCostitution? 1 376
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2 370 3 368 4 390 Ans: 3 Q. Information Technology Act in India was introduced in the Year1 2000 2 2001 3 2002 4 2003 Ans: 1 Q. Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was passed in 1 1965 2 1966 3 1967 4 1968 Ans: 2 Q. Note issuing department of Reserve Bank of India should always posses the minimum gold stock worth1 85 crore 2 115 crore 3 200 crore 4 None of the above Ans: 2 Q. Narsinham committee related to1 Higher education reforms 2 Tax structure reforms 3 Banking structure reforms 4 Planning implementation reforms Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following states does not have a bicameral Legislature? 1 Uttar pradesh 2 Madhya Pradesh 3 Bihar 4 Karnatka Ans: 2 Q. The number of High court of Judicature in India is1 Twenty 2 Twenty one 3 Twenty two
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4 Twenty three Ans: 2 Q. The distribution of legislative power between the centre and the states in the Constituion is given in1 Sixth Schedule 2 Seventh Schedule 3 Eighth Schedule 4 Ninth Schedule Ans: 2 Q. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar had how many other members? 1 7 2 6 3 5 4 4 Ans: 2 Q. The Constitution is silent in the Directive Principle of state policy about1 Adult Education 2 Living Wages for workers 3 Free legal aid to the poor 4 Primary education to children till they complete the age of 6 ye ars Ans: 1 Q. Education which was initially a state subject was transferred to the Concurrent list by the 1 24th Amendment 2 25th Amendment 3 42th Amendment 4 44th Amendment Ans: 3 Q. The Fundamental duties of a citizen do not include duty1 To protect and improve the natural environment 2 to cherish and follow the noble ideas which inspired our national struggle for freedom 3 to strive towards abolition of untouchability 4 to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform Ans: 3 Q. Scheduled Tribe status is1 Restricted to Hindus 2 Religiously Neutral 3 Religiously to Hindus and Christmas 4 Religiously to Hindus and Muslims Ans: 3
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Q. One of the following is not a Union Territory1 Tripura 2 Daman and Diu 3 Lakshadweep 4 Puducherry Ans: 1 Q. The Members of RajyaSabha are elected for a term of 1 Two Years 2 Four Years 3 Six Years 4 Five Years Ans: 3 Q. Who Interprets the constitution? 1 Legislature 2 Executive 3 judiciary 4 President Ans: 3 Q. The Constitution of India assures economic justice to Citizens through 1 Fundamental Rights 2 Fundamental Duties 3 Preamble 4 Directive Principles of State Policy Ans: 3 Q. In Which of the Parliamentary Financial Committees is the RajyaSabha not represented? 1 Public Accounts Committee 2 Estimates Committee 3 Committee on public undertakings 4 Expenditure Committee Ans: 2 Q. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? 1 Election Commission 2 President 3 Parliament 4 Parliament and Assemblies Ans: 3 Q. Citizens and foreigners both enjoy 1 Legal Rights
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2 Civil Rights 3 Political Rights 4 Fundamental Rights Ans: 2 Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: I. 1st Plan (a) Rapid Industrialisation II. 2nd Plan (b) Community Development II. 3rd Plan (c) Expansion of basic industries IV. 4th Plan (d) Minimum Needs Programme V. 5th Plan (e) Achievement of self-reliance and growth with stability 1 I-A, II-B, II-C, IV-D, V-E 2 I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-E, V-C 3 I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D, V-E 4 I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-E, V-D Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following procedures will enable the adoption of a Money Bil that was once passed by the LokSabha but was amended by the RajyaSabha? 1 It will go to the President 2 The LokSabha will have to pass it with 2/3rd majority of the members sitting and voting 3 A joint session of the two Houses will be called 4 It will be deemed to have been passed if the LokSabha passes it again either by accepting or reject Ans: 4 Q. Judicial review implies the right of the court to 1 declare any law or order invalid if it is in conflict with the Constitution 2 review the order of the lower courts 3 hear appeals against the decision of the lower courts 4 review the laws to see that they have been passed as per the procedure laid down Ans: 1 Q. The citizenship, provided by the Constitution of India, is 1 Dual citizenship 2 Single citizenship 3 Both of the above 4 None of the above Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the RajyaSabha? 1 One-third of its members retire every two years 2 One-half of its members retire every two years 3 One-half of its members retire every three years 4 One-third of its members retire every three years Ans: 1
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Q. Which one of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights? 1 Right to property 2 Right to form association 3 Right of assembly 4 Right to move and stay in any part of the country Ans: 1 Q. In the Indian Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy, were borrowed from 1 Britain 2 Ireland 3 Russia 4 France Ans: 2 Q. The first woman film star nominated or elected to the RajyaSabha was 1 Jayalalitha 2 NargisDutt 3 Vijayanthimala 4 HemaMalini Ans: 2 Q. Ten Rupee notes contain the signature of 1 Finance Secretary, GOI 2 Chairman, State Bank of India 3 Governor, Reserve Bank of India 4 Finance Minister, GOI Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following is not a Panchayati Raj Institution? 1 Gram Sabha 2 Gram Panchayat 3 Gram Cooperative Society 4 Nyaya Panchayat Ans: 3 Q. The draft of Five Year Plans in India is approved by the 1 National Development Council 2 Planning Commission 3 National Productivity Council 4 Ministry of Finance Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following is an extra-constitutional and non statutory body? 1 Finance Commission
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2 Planning Commission 3 Union Public Commission 4 Election Commission Ans: 2 Q. Consent of the People means consent of 1 Majority of the people 2 A few people 3 All people 4 Leader of the people Ans: 1 Q. Only one of the following can be the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission. He is the .... 1 Minister for Planning and Development 2 Home Minister 3 Prime Minister 4 Finance Minister Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following states does not have legislative council? 1 Andhra Pradesh 2 Jammu & Kashmir 3 Kerala 4 Uttar Pradesh Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following language was added to the Eighth schedule to the Constitution of India by 21st Constitutional Amendment Act 1967? 1 Sindhi 2 Punjabi 3 Malyalam 4 Tamil Ans: 1 Q. The criminal Procedure Code(Amendment) Act 2008 came into effect in 1 January 2010 2 January 2009 3 January 2008 4 None of the above Ans: 1 Q. The Provision of Contingency Fund of India has been made under 1 Article 266 2 Article 265 3 Article 267
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4 Article 268 Ans: 3 Q. By which Constitutional Amendment Acts, was it provide that Parliament has the power to abridge or take away any of the enactment of Constitutional Amendment Act? 1 The 25th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971 2 The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971 3 The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 4 None of the above Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following Articles provides for securing for all citizen a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India? 1 Article 44 2 Article 45 3 Article 46 4 Article 47 Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following words was not added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976? 1 Sovereign 2 Socialist 3 Secular 4 Integrity Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following is known as the Act for the Good Government of India? 1 Indian Council Act 1861 2 Government of India Act 1885 3 Pitts India Act of 1784 4 Government of India Act 1919 Ans: 2 Q. Who among the following was the advisor to the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly? 1 B. Shiva Rao 2 Dr. B. R. Ambedkar 3 SachidanandaSinha 4 B. N. Rau Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament? 1 The Public Accounts Committee 2 The Estimates Committee 3 The Committee on Public Undertakings
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4 The Committee on Petitions Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following Committees / Commissions was formed to study and suggest pricing pattern for oil and natural gas sectors in India? 1 B.K. Chaturvedi Committee 2 SacharCommitee 3 B.N. Srikrishna Commission 4 Shah Commission Ans: 1 Q. The VeerapaMoily Commission in its report on Administrative Reforms among other aspects has suggested doing away with which one of the following pairs of Articles of the Constitution of India? 1 Articles 305 and 306 2 Articles 307 and 308 3 Articles 308 and 309 4 Articles 310 and 311 Ans: 4 Q. Right to Information Act was passed in the year 1 2001 2 2005 3 2004 4 2002 Ans: 2 Q. What is quorum required for convening the LokSabha? 1 1/6 2 1/8 3 1/8 4 1/5 Ans: 3 Q. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the President of India? 1 58 years 2 60 years 3 62 years 4 There is no maximum age limit Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following does not fall within the purview of ordinance making power of the President? 1 Enactment of a New Law 2 Imposition of a New tax 3 Passing of the budget 4 amendment of the Constitution
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Ans: 4 Q. The President of India can exercise his veto power in respect of1 All the bills, passed by the Parliament 2 Constitution-amending bills only 3 Money bills only 4 Ordinary bills only Ans: 4 Q. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available only to Citizens in India? 1 Equality before the law 2 Equality of opportunity (in matter of public employment) 3 Freedom of religion 4 Right against exploitation Ans: 2 Q. Who is the dejure sovereign in a parliamentary form of government? 1 Prime Minister 2 parliament 3 President 4 Supreme Court Ans: 3 Q. Indian Constitution does not clearly provide for the 'Freedom of Press' but this freedom is implicit in the Article. 1 19 (1) a 2 19 (1) b 3 19 (1) c 4 19 (1) d Ans: 1 Q. The ideal condition for the success of parliamentary system is1 One dominant party 2 Two-party system 3 Single-party system 4 Multiple party system Ans: 2 Q. Who among the following can participate in the proceedings of the both Houses of the Parliament? 1 Chief Justice of Supreme Court 2 Vice-President 3 Solicitor-General 4 Attorney-General Ans: 4 Q. Which theory believes that 'state originates in war'?
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1 Social contract theory 2 Force theory 3 Divine theory 4 Evolutionary theory Ans: 2 Q. Under what circumstances can the Indian President proclaim emergency according to article 352 of the Constitution? i) External Aggression ii) Armed Rebellion iii) Instability of Government iv) Financial Crisis 1 (i) and (ii) 2 (i) and (iii) 3 (ii) and (iv) 4 Only (i) Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following are the functions of the 'supreme Court of India? i) Protection of Fundamental Rights of Citizens ii) Judicial Review iii) Grant of clemency to condemned prisoners iv) Arbitration between states and states and the centre 1 (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct 2 (i) and (iii) are correct 3 (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct 4 (iii) and (iv) are correct Ans: 3 Q. The definition of political party was given for the first time by1 Burke 2 Bentham 3 Laski 4 Hegel Ans: 1 Q. Under which constitutional amendment Panchayati Raj in India has been given a constitutional basis1 42nd 2 52nd 3 67th 4 73rd Ans: 4 Q. Who reconciled Rousseau's theory of General Will with Austin's theory of a determinate sovereign power? 1 T.H. Green
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2 H. J. Laski 3 Sir Henry Haine 4 E. Barker Ans: 1 Q. A Minister who wants to resign from the council of Ministers in India shall address his resignation letter to1 Prime Minister 2 President 3 Speaker of the LokSabha 4 Party President Ans: 2 Q. The Indian constitution provides for the appointment of Ad Hoc judges in the1 Supreme Court 2 High Court 3 District and Session Court 4 All the above Ans: 1 Q. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution is violated if there is1 Inordinate delay by the state in bringing an accused to trial 2 Imprisonment of a declared insane 3 Impounding of a citizen's passport for an indefinite period of time 4 All the above Ans: 4 Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 1 The president of India can dissolve the council of states 2 Money bill can be introduced only in the LokSabha 3 The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the LokSabha 4 The Governor can be removed by the president Ans: 1 Q. Under the Indian Constitution it has been mentioned that minister are individually and collectivity responsible to the House of the People, in1 Article 74 2 Article 75 3 Article 76 4 Article 77 Ans: 2 Q. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by 1 President 2 Speaker of the LokSabha
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3 Chairman of the Planning Commission 4 Finance Minister Ans: 1 Q. The Panchayati Raj is based on the principal of 1 Decentralisation 2 Deconcentration 3 Democratic Decentralisation 4 Democratic Centralization Ans: 3 Q. The Council of Ministers is to aid and advice in the first instance 1 President is not bound by the advice in the first instance 2 President may make his own decision 3 President may not seek the advice of the Council of Ministers 4 President may send back the advice for reconsideration Ans: 4 Q. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to regulate the right of Citizenship? 1 8 2 9 3 10 4 11 Ans: 4 Q. Under which constitutional amendment 30% seats in village panchyats have been reserved for women in India? 1 70 2 71 3 73 4 74 Ans: 3 Q. All revenues received and loans raised by the Union Government go into 1 Public Accounts of India 2 Consolidated Fund of India 3 Contingency Fund of India 4 None of these Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following ensures personal freedom? 1 Mandamus 2 Habeas Corpus 3 Quo Warranto 4 None of These
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Ans: 2 Q. A common High Court for two or more states and/or Union Territories may be established by the 1 President 2 Parliament by making law 3 Governor of State 4 Chief Justice of India Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right? 1 Habeas Corpus 2 Mandamus 3 Prohibition 4 Certiorari Ans: 1 Q. Who is the Chief Law Officer of the Government of India? 1 The Chief Justice of India 2 The Registrar of the Supreme Court 3 The Law Minister of India 4 The Attorney General of India Ans: 4 Q. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form? 1 Article 16 2 Article 17 3 Article 18 4 Article 15 Ans: 2 Q. The meeting of the RajyaSabha are presided over by the 1 President 2 Vice President 3 Prime Minister 4 Speaker Ans: 2 Q. Among the following who was the Speaker in two LokSabhas? 1 Rabi Ray 2 ShivrajPatil 3 P. A. Sangma 4 G. M. C Balyogi Ans: 4 Q. Which one of the following states has only one representatives each in LokSabha?
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1 Manipur, Meghalaya 2 Himachal Pradesh and Jammu Kashmir 3 Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura 4 Mizoram and Nagaland Ans: 4 Q. The Preamble of the Constitution after 42nd amendment declares India 1 Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic 2 Sovereign Democratic Republic 3 Federal Democratic Republic 4 Federal Socialist Democratic Republic Ans: 1 Q. The real executive power under a Parliamentary Government rests with 1 The Parliament 2 The King 3 The Council of Ministers 4 The Civil Servants Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following is not a fundamental right of the Indian citizens? 1 Right to property 2 Right to freedom of expression 3 Right to vote 4 Right to remain silence Ans: 1 Q. The Supreme Court has interpreted constitutional right to education as 1 Fundamental right under directive principles 2 Right to life 3 Right to equality 4 Right to Employment Ans: 1 Q. Which one of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee? 1 Demands for Grants Committee 2 Committee on Public Accounts 3 Committee on Public Undertakings 4 Committee on Estimates Ans: 1 Q. Right to Information Act was passed in the year 1 2001 2 2002
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3 2004 4 2005 Ans: 2 Q. In the Parliamentary form of Government "He is the first among equals." Who is he? 1 President 2 Prime Minister 3 Leader of Opposition 4 Speaker of Lower House Ans: 1 Q. What is quorum required for convening the LokSabha? 1 1/6 2 1/8 3 1/10 4 1/5 Ans: 3 Q. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the president of India? 1 58 years 2 60 years 3 62 years 4 There is no maximum age limit Ans: 4 Q. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by 1 First Amendment 2 Eighth Amendment 3 Ninth Amendment 4 Forty second Amendment Ans: 1 Q. Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories? 1 First 2 Second 3 Third 4 Fourth Ans: 1 Q. Survey of India is under the Ministry of 1 Defence 2 Environment and Forests 3 Home Affairs 4 Science & Technology
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Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of Members of LokSabha to be elected from the states? 1 6th & 22nd 2 13th & 38th 3 7th & 31th 4 11th & 42nd Ans: 3 Q. Who Presides over the meeting of the council of Ministers? 1 The Prime Ministers 2 The President 3 Cabinet Secretary 4 LokSabha Speaker Ans: 1 Q. Attorney General of India is Appointed by 1 Chief Justice of Supreme Court 2 Parliament 3 Law Minister 4 President Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following Articles Provide "Right to Equality"? 1 Article-14 2 Article-19 3 Article-20 4 Article-18 Ans: 1 Q. Under which Article of Indian Constitution did the President give his assent to the ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without making any changes (in the year 2002)? 1 Article 121 2 Article 122 3 Article 123 4 Article 124 Ans: 3 Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article 108 of the Constitution 2. The first joint sitting of LokSabha and RajyaSabha was held in year 1961. 3. The second joint sitting of two houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill. Which of the statements is/are correct? 1 1&2 2 2&3
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3 1&3 4 1, 2 & 3 Ans: 4 Q. The Kelkar proposals were 1 recommendations for reforms in the power sector 2 recommendations for tax reforms 3 guidelines for the privatization of public sector undertakings 4 guidelines for reducing vehicular pollution, and the production of CNG use Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? 1 Only the RajyaSabha and not the LokSabha can have nominated members 2
There is a constitutional provision for nomonating two members belonging to the Anglo-Indian community to the RajyaSabha.
3 There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed Union minister 4 A nominated member can vote both in the presedential and Vice Presidential elections Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately, by special majority? 1 Ordinary Bill 2 Money Bill 3 Finance Bill 4 Constitution Amendment Bill Ans: 4 Q. Match List-I with List-II: List-I: A. Directive Principles of state policy B. Fundamental Rights C. Concurrent List in Union State Relations D. India as a Union of states with greater power to Union List-II: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. Ireland 4. United Kingdom 5. United states of America 1 A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2 2 A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1 3 A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1 4 A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2 Ans: 4 Q. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that 'It shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance'? 1 Article 215 2 Article 275 3 Article 325 4 Article 355 Ans: 4 Q. As per Indian protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
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1 Deputy Prime Minister 2 Former President 3 Governor of a State within his state 4 Speaker of LokSabha Ans: 3 Q. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the union ministry of 1 Agriculture 2 Environment and Forests 3 Commerce and Industry 4 Rural Development Ans: 2 Q. Consider the following statements: 1. while member of the RajyaSabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirly from LokSabha. 2.The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. 3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates member of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in t 1 1&2 2 2&3 3 1&3 4 1, 2 & 3 Ans: 1 Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court's opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002 )? 1 Article 142 2 Article 143 3 Article 144 4 Article 145 Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following High Court has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands? 1 Andhra Pradesh 2 Calcutta 3 Madras 4 Orissa Ans: 2 Q. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Power rests with 1 The president of India
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2 The Chief Justice of India 3 The Parliament 4 The Union Ministry of Law justice and Company Affairs Ans: 3 Q. Which amendment of the constitution deals with the Scheduled Tribes and the other Forest Dwellers Rights Act 2005 ? 1 105th Amendment 2 104th Amendment 3 106th Amendment 4 109th Amendment Ans: 1 Q. Part XIV A of the constitution deals with 1 Tribunals 2 Services under the Union and the States 3 Election 4 Special provision relating to certain cases Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following statements are correct: I The SC was first set up in the Chambers of the Princes within the Parliament building. II. It was set up two days after India become independent. 1 Both are correct 2 Both are incorrect 3 Only I. is correct 4 Only II. is correct Ans: 1 Q. The logo of the Dharmachakra was adopted by Supreme court of India on 1 26th Jan 1950 2 15th Aug 1947 3 26th Nov 1950 4 28th Jan 1950 Ans: 4 Q. The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution withdraw the Fundamental Right 1 To freedom of religion 2 To constitutional remedies 3 To property 4 Against exploitation Ans: 3 Q. The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee, whose permission is required for cultivation of any genetically modified crop such as Bt-Cotton in India, is under the union ministry of 1 Agriculture
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2 Environment and Forests 3 Commerce and Industry 4 Rural Development Ans: 2 Q. Consider the following statements: 1. while member of the RajyaSabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn entirly from LokSabha. 2.The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs. 3. The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs nominates member of Parliament on Committees, Councils, Boards and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of India in t 1 1&2 2 2&3 3 1&3 4 1, 2 & 3 Ans: 1 Q. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the Supreme Court to seek the Court's opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election Commission's decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly elections (in the year 2002 )? 1 Article 142 2 Article 143 3 Article 144 4 Article 145 Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following High Court has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands? 1 Andhra Pradesh 2 Calcutta 3 Madras 4 Orissa Ans: 2 Q. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any matter included in the Union List of Legislative Power rests with 1 The president of India 2 The Chief Justice of India 3 The Parliament 4 The Union Ministry of Law justice and Company Affairs Ans: 3 Q. Which amendment of the constitution deals with the Scheduled Tribes and the other Forest Dwellers Rights Act 2005 ? 1 105th Amendment 2 104th Amendment
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3 106th Amendment 4 109th Amendment Ans: 1 Q. Part XIV A of the constitution deals with 1 Tribunals 2 Services under the Union and the States 3 Election 4 Special provision relating to certain cases Ans: 1 Q. Which of the following statements are correct: I The SC was first set up in the Chambers of the Princes within the Parliament building. II. It was set up two days after India become independent. 1 Both are correct 2 Both are incorrect 3 Only I. is correct 4 Only II. is correct Ans: 1 Q. The logo of the Dharmachakra was adopted by Supreme court of India on 1 26th Jan 1950 2 15th Aug 1947 3 26th Nov 1950 4 28th Jan 1950 Ans: 4 Q. The 44th Amendment of the Indian Constitution withdraw the Fundamental Right 1 To freedom of religion 2 To constitutional remedies 3 To property 4 Against exploitation Ans: 3 Q. The Concept of 'Judicial Review' in the Indian Constitution can be traced to 1 Rule of Law 2 Procedure established by law 3 Precedents and Conventions 4 Writ Jurisdiction of Courts Ans: 4 Q. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution speaks about 'Equal Protection of the Law' which means 1 All are equal in the eyes of law 2 Law shall traet all equally 3 Equality of treatment within a class 4 Equal application of rule of law for all
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Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following is found under the Indian Constitution? 1 Judicial Supremacy 2 Parliamentary Sovereignty 3 Preponderance of Executive 4 Popular Sovereignty Ans: 4 Q. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India had discover the 'Due Process' found in the American Constitution? 1 Minerva Mills Vs. Union of India 2 Keshavananda Bharti Vs. State of Kerala 3 Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of india 4 GolakNath Vs. State of Punjab Ans: 3 Q. Under the Indian Federation, which institution can rightly be called the ' Balance-Wheel'? 1 Inter- State Council 2 Election commission of India 3 Judiciary 4 President of India Ans: 3 Q. The Concept of 'Popular Sovereignty' refers to the power of the 1 People as a whole 2 electorates Only 3 State 4 Legal Power Of the Judiciary Ans: 1 Q. Which one of the following Constitutes limitation upon the concept of 'judicial Review' in India? 1 Rule of Law 2 Due Process 3 Procedure established by law 4 Equal Protection of law Ans: 3 Q. The president can delegate any function in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the union extends to the states, with the prior consent of the 1 Parliament 2 State Governors 3 State Legislatures 4 RajyaSabha supported by a majority of not less than two-third of the members present and v oting Ans: 2
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Q. The Comptroller and Auditor General exercises Control over state Finances through his power to 1 recommend allocation of grants-in-aid to the states 2 prescribe the forms or norms in which the accounts of the States have to be maintained 3 re-allocation of revenues between the Centre and the States from time to time 4 make suggessions for affecting economics in expenditure of the States Ans: 2 Q. The Proper authority to specify which caste or Tribe shall be deemed to be scheduled castes or tribes is the: 1 Parliament 2 President of India 3 National commission for schduled Castes and schduled Tribes 4 Committee on the Welfare of SC &ST Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following is empowered to entertain any disputes relating to elections of the Prime Minister and the Speaker to the Parliament on an elections petitions? 1 Supreme Court of India 2 High Courts 3 Central Administrative Tribunal 4 President of India in Consultation with the Election Commission Ans: 2 Q. Which on of the following authorities has the power to prescribe the tenure of office of the Chief Election Commissioner? 1 The President 2 The Parliament 3 The Council of Ministers 4 The President subject to law made by the Parliament Ans: 2 Q. The Supreme Court Entertains petitions for the enforcement pf Fundamental Rights under the 1 Original Jurisdiction 2 Appellate Jurisdiction 3 Revisory Jurisdiction 4 Writ Jurisdiction Ans: 4 Q. The Zonal Councils were Provided by 1 an act of Parliament 2 President of India 3 Constitutions of India 4 Finance of Commission Ans: 1
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Q. The 'Planning Commission' was provided by 1 an act of Parliament 2 a resolution of the Union Cabinet 3 a Presidential order 4 the Constituton Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following authorities can provide for the Grants-in-Aid to the States if it deems necessary? 1 The Finance Commission 2 The Planing Commission 3 The President from the Contingency Fund of India 4 The Parliament Ans: 4 Q. What is the qualifying age for a citizen to contest in the elections to the Panchayats? It is not less than 1 18 years 2 21 years 3 25 years 4 30 years Ans: 2 Q. The Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Parliament and State Legislature is now Available upto the Year: 1 2010 2 2015 3 2020 4 2005 Ans: 1 Q. The Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission enjoys the status similar to that of the/a 1 Comptroller and Auditor General of India 2 Governor 3 Supreme Court Judge 4 CabinetMinister Ans: 4 Q. who is the 'ex-officio Chairman' of the zonal Councils? 1 Prime Ministerof India 2 Vice President of India 3 Union Home Minister 4 President of India Ans: 3
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Q. Which Parliamentary Committee is describe as 'Watch-dog' and guardian of the people against official negligence of corruption? 1 Committee on Estimates 2 Public Accounts Committee 3 Committee on Public Undertaking 4 Commitee on 'Consolidated fund of india' Ans: 2 Q. The 'Inter-State Council' is provided by the 1 President of India 2 Parliament 3 Constitution of India 4 Planning Commission Ans: 3 Q. 'National Human Right Commission' is a 1 Statutory body 2 Constitutional body 3 Quasi-Judicial body 4 Extra-constitutional and Extra Statutory body Ans: 1 Q. The units under a unitary system of government enjoy 1 Original powers 2 Delegated powers 3 Powers bestowed by the Constitution 4 Powers not surrendered by them at the time of joining the union Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following is the proper authority to effect deprivation of some of the fundamental rights of the armed forces? 1 The Parliament of India 2 The President of India 3 The Defence Ministe 4 The Council of Ministers Ans: 1 Q. The power of the judiciary to entertain petitions for Public Interest Litigation can be traced to 1 Rule of Law 2 Due Process of Law 3 Procedure established by Law 4 Writ jurisdiction Ans: 4 Q. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Act accorded primacy to some of the Directive
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Principles of State Policy? 1 24th Constitutional Amendment 2 25th Constitutional Amendment Act 3 42th Constitutional Amendment Act 4 44th Constitutional Amendment Act Ans: 2 Q. Under the Indian Constitution, it is whose function to see that no money is spent out of the Consolidate Fund of the state without the authority of the legislature? 1 Governor of the State 2 Public Accounts Committee 3 Comptroller and Auditor General of india 4 Estimates Committee Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following is correct about the expenses of a State Public Service Commission? 1 Budget of the state 2 Public Account of the state 3 Consolidated Fund of India 4 Consolidated Fund of State Ans: 4 Q. Though India adopted the Parliamentary System from U.K. But the major difference between the parliamentary systems obtained in U.k.and India is that of the 1 role of the Head of the state 2 role of the judiciary 3 nature of rule of Law 4 relevance of the second chamber Ans: 2 Q. "The Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy are complementary to each other .it is not necessary to sacrifice either of them for teh sake of the other." This statement can be traced to 1 Maneka Gandhi Case 2 Minerva Mills Case 3 Golaknath Case 4 KesananandaBharti case Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following is the meaning of 'to be informed'? 1 Certiorari 2 Prohibition 3 Quo Warranto 4 Mandamus Ans: 1
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Q. In which of the following elections, the system of Proportional Representation with single transferable voting has been provided ? (i)President and vice Prersident (ii)Speaker (iii)RajyaSabha (iv)Chairman of State Legislature Council 1 1 and 2 only 2 2 and 3 only 3 1 and 3 only 4 1, 3 and 4 only Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following amendment Acts added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and santhali Languages in the Eight Schedule to the Constitution? 1 100th Amendment Act 2003 2 97th Amendment Act 2003 3 92nd Amendment Act 2003 4 91st Amendment Act 2003 Ans: 3 Q. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court had ruled that the parliament cannot amend the fundamental rights? 1 KesavanandBharti Vs. State of Kerala 2 Minerva Mills' Vs. union of india 3 GolaknathVs State of Punjab 4 Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following is the "House" whose presiding officer is not its member? 1 Legislative Council 2 LokSabha 3 RajyaSabha 4 Legislative Assembly Ans: 3 Q. The first Chief Election Commissioner of India was 1 S.P. Sen Verma 2 Sukumar Sen 3 Dr. Nagendra Singh 4 K.V.K. Sundaram Ans: 2 Q. How many items are contained in the Union List ? 1 66 items 2 96 items 3 97 items 4 67 items
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Ans: 3 Q. The Indian Citizenship Act was passed in 1 1950 2 1952 3 1955 4 1960 Ans: 3 Q. The 42nd amendment act(1976) was practically a revision of the indian constitution because 1 The amendment of Preamble ignored the principles of federal parliamentary system 2 Fundamental rights were reinterpreted as natural rights 3 almost a quarter of the constitution including Preamble and VII Schedule was overhauled 4 the power of judicial review was restricted Ans: 3 Q. Which one of the following defines the rationale of emergency Provisions in the constitution of india? 1 Socio-economic backwardness neccessitates firm control 2 Unforseens situations force to take unified step 3 Federation means weak government and therefore requires strong measures 4 A democratic polity cannot guarantee the will of the people Ans: 2 Q. Which one of the following correctly explains the meaning of 'Socialist' in premble? 1 Nationalisation of all means of production 2 Abolition of private property 3 Socialistic pattern of society 4 Eradication of exploitation and vested interest Ans: 4 Q. The Constitution of India enjoins upon the Councils of Ministers to dicharge 'double responsibility' 1 individually to the President and collectively to the Parliament 2 collectively to the lower chamberand individually to the Prime Minister 3 collectively to the lower chamber and individually to the President. 4 collectively both to the LokSabha and the President Ans: 3 Q. Who is tha following participate in the election of the president of india but not in his impeachment? 1 The nominated members of the Parliament and State Legislatures 2 The members of RajyaSabha 3 The elected members members of the State Legislative Assemblies 4 The members of the State Legislative Councils Ans: 3 Q. The power of Speaker on disqualification under anti detection law( X schdule)is:
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1 Absolute 2 Open to judicial review 3 Subject to the content of the election commision 4 Subject to the consent of the president Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following are the basic characterstics of the parliamentary system of government? 1 co-existence of head of the state and government 2 Fusion of the executive and legislature 3 Collective responsibility of council of ministers 4 Existence of multiparty system Ans: 3 Q. in which one of the following is the second chamber an indispensable part of the legislature? 1 Unitary government. 2 Fedal form of government 3 Parlimentary form of government 4 Presidental form of government Ans: 1 Q. in which one of the following is the second chamber an indispensable part of the legislature? 1 Unitary government. 2 Fedal form of government 3 Parlimentary form of government 4 Presidental form of government Ans: 1 Q. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution 1 High Court 2 Chief Metropolitan Magistrate 3 District Court 4 Supreme Court of India Ans: 4 Q. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution 1 State Legislature 2 RajyaSabha 3 Legislative Council 4 State Assembly Ans: 2 Q. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable 1 Supreme Court of India 2 Calcutta High Court
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3 Madras High Court 4 Allahabad High Court Ans: 1 Q. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368) 1 GolakNathvs State of Punjab 2 Kesavanandavs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India 3 Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India 4 All the above Ans: 4 Q. Who was the first Lok-Ayukt of Uttar Pradesh? 1 VishambarDayal 2 KailashNathGoyal 3 Vijai-Luxmi-Pandit 4 Pt. Dwarika Pd. Mishra Ans: 1 Q. In the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Consitution, how many languages have been officially recognised ? 1 15 2 18 3 22 4 24 Ans: 3 Q. In 1989, who became the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India ? 1 Leila Seth 2 M.S. Fatima Beevi 3 Cornelia Sorabji 4 Anna Chandy Ans: 2 Q. The recomendations of the Kelkar Task Force relate to 1 Trade 2 Banking 3 Foreign investment 4 Taxes Ans: 4 Q. Equal Pay for Equal Work has been ensured in the Indian Constitution as one of the 1 Fundamental Rights 2 Directive Principles of State Policy 3 Fundamental Duties 4 Economic Rights
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Ans: 2 Q. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees freedom of press? 1 Art. 16 2 Art. 19 3 Art. 22 4 Art. 31 Ans: 2 Q. According to the Preamble of its Constitution, India is a : 1 Sovereign democratic socialist republic 2 Sovereign scoialist secular republic 3 Sovereign democratic republic 4 Sovereign in socialist secular democratic republic Ans: 4 Q. The electoral college that elects the Vice-President of India consists of: 1 Members of RajyaSabha only 2 Elected Members of both the Houses of Parliament 3 Elected Members of both the Houses of Parliament 4 Members of the Rajyasabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States Ans: 3 Q. Who presides over the joint sitting of the LokSabha and the RajyaSabha? 1 The Speaker of the LokSabha 2 The Vice-President 3 The President 4 The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs Ans: 1 Q. A Money Bill in the Parliament can be introduced only with the recomendations of the: 1 President of India 2 Union Cabinet 3 Speaker of the LokSabha 4 Union Finance Minister Ans: 1 Q. Who finally approves the draft five-year plans? 1 Prime Minister 2 Planning Commission 3 President 4 National Development Council Ans: 2 Q. Who presides over the meeting of LokSabha?
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1 Speaker 2 Vice - President 3 Prime Minister 4 President Ans: 1 Q. The meaning of the word 'Secular' used in the Preamble of the Constitution is 1 Freedom of religion and worship to all citizen 2 Monotheism 3 Polytheism 4 Abnegation of all religions Ans: 1 Q. The Council of the Ministers is collectively responsible to 1 The Prime Minister 2 The President 3 The LokSabha 4 The RajyaSabha Ans: 3 Q. Which of the following is a Union Territory 1 Pondicherry 2 Mizoram 3 Tripura 4 Sikkim Ans: 1 Q. The President can make laws through ordinances 1 Only on subjects contained ibn the concurrent list 2 On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session 3 During the recess of Parliament 4 Under no Circumstances Ans: 3 Q. The theory of fundamental rights implies 1 Sovereignty of the people 2 Equality of opportunity for all 3 Limited government 4 Equality of all before law Ans: 3 Q. The words "Socialist", "Secular" were introduced in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 1 38th amendment 2 40th amendment
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3 42nd amendment 4 44th amendment Ans: 3 Q. In Indian policy the Concept of welfare is reflected in the 1 Directive Principles of State Policy 2 Fundamental Rights 3 Judicial Review 4 Rule of Law Ans: 1 Q. Provincial Autonomy was a significant feature of 1 The Government of India Act, 1935 2 The Indian Independence Act, 1947 3 The Government of India Act, 1919 4 The Government of India Act, 1909 Ans: 1 1. Under Article 356, President’s rule can be imposed in a state initially for how long?
A. Six months B. One year C. Two years D. Three years 2. How many kinds of emergencies are there according to our constitution? A. Three B. Four C. Two D. Five 3. The Attorney General for India is appointed by the President of India under which article of the Constitution of India? A. Article 66(1) B. Article 76(1) C. Article 86(1) D. Article 96(1) 4. By which amendment the voting age was reduced to 18 from 21? A. 52nd amendment B. 56th amendment C. 61st amendment D. 73rd amendment 5. The First Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted in 1951, made several changes to A. Fundamental duties provisions of t he constitution B. Creation of new states C. Fundamental rights provisions of the constitution D. National emergency provisions of the constitution
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6. By which amendment was primary education added to the list of Fundamental Rights? A. 91st amendment B. 92nd amendment C. 93rd amendment D. 94th amendment 7. Who appoints the members of the Union Public Service Commission? A. President B. Chairman of UPSC C. Chief Justice of Supreme Court D. Union cabinet 8. Part IV of Indian Constitution deals with? A. Fundamental duties B. Citizenship C. Directive principles of State Policy D. Fundamental rights 9. From which constitution did our constitution borrow the concept of the Directive Principles of State Policy? A. United Kingdom B. United States C. Ireland D. Germany 10. Which writ can be issued by a High Court to direct a public official or the government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional? A. Certiorari B. Prohibition C. Quo Warranto D. Mandamus Which of the following words was added into the Pre-amble of the Constitution by the 42ndAmendment Act, 1976? Socialist. The word "socialist" along with "secular", was added to the Pre-amble of theConstitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, ostensibly to reflect the rationale for thepolicies of the Indira Gandhi government during the Emergency period between 1975 -1977. Several commentators have criticized the inclusion of these two words into the Pre-amble as they are vague, unclear concepts, which could cause confusion whileinterpreting the Constitution. Which important human right is protected in Article 21 of the Constitution of India? Right to life and liberty. Article 21 states that no one maybe deprived of their life or libertyunless it is by due procedure of law. In the first 25 years or so, this Article was verynarrowly interpreted by the Supreme Court to mean that no matter what the procedure of law stated, as long as it was followed, deprivation of one's life and liberty was not illegal.This view, however, changed with the landmark decision in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India in 1979, wherein Justice Bhagwati introduced the American concept of due process,i.e., the law itself should be fair and non-violative of the other provisions of theConstitution, into the interpretation of Article 21. This opened the floodgate for theexpansive interpretation of Article 21, by the Supreme Court, which has been used toprotect not just civil and political rights of the citizens, but also guarantee socio-economicrights which were not originally justiciable in the Constitution.
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From which Constitution was the Concept of a Five Year Plan borrowed into the IndianConstitution? USSR. A simple one actually. The framers of the Constitution were amazed at thesuccess of the Five Year Plans in industrializing the USSR and wished to follow theplanned economy model of the Soviet Union in modernizing India. Jawaharlal Nehru,India's first Prime Minister, was also a huge fan of the Soviet Five Year Plans and wanted a similar Planning Commission in India to oversee economic growth andIndustrialization of the country. Which of the following Constitutional posts is enjoyed for a fixed term? President. The President, according to Article 56 of the Constitution, enjoys his post for 5years and can only be removed by a complicated impeachment process, akin to thePresident of the USA. The Prime Minister's term lasts only as long as his Cabinet enjoysthe confidence of the Parliament. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court holds his posttill the retirement age of 65. The Governor of a State, appointed by the President, holdshis position only at the pleasure of the President and may be recalled by the President atany time. A custom or usage, inconsistent with the principles of the Constitution can be struckdown as unconstitutional. True. Article 13(3) which refers to kinds of laws which may be struck down as being ultravires the Constitution include custom and usage. However, the Supreme Court has beena little wary of d oing so, especially in case of religious personal laws, after the uproar among the conservative elements of the Muslim Community after the decision of theSupreme Court in the Shah Bano case in 1987. The womenfriendly decision in this case,was overturned by Parliament under pressure from the Muslim Community by passing alaw abrogating the rights of Muslim women to maintenance upon divorce by their husbands. Even this however, was interpreted in a women-friendly manner b y manylower courts, and in 2003 by the Supreme Court itself in the case of DanialLaitifi v. Unionof India. How many judges sat on the bench to hear the landmark case of Keshavananda Bharati v.State of Kerala in 1973? 13. The largest ever Bench of the Supreme Court was constituted to hear what would,out of the thousands of cases involving Fundamental Rights, be called THE FundamentalRights case. The question to be considered was Parliament's power to amend theConstitution with regard to Fundamental Rights, especially in the light of recent LandReform Legislation which kept getting struck down by the Supreme Court as beingviolative of the Right to Property. A previous judgment of the Supreme Court in 1967,Golaknath v. Union of Indian, given by a 11 Judge Bench had stated that FundamentalRights could not be amended at all and caused some concern among commentators andParliament alike. In the Keshavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court overruled theGolaknath case, but introduced a new concept which would change the face of Constitutional law in India and abroad forever. Which famous doctrine was introduced by the Supreme Court in the landmark 1973 caseof Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala? Basic Structure. The roots of the Basic Structure doctrine can be traced to the argumentsof eminent Supreme Court lawyer, MK Nambyar in the very first Fundamental Rightscase, AK Gopalan v. Union of India in 1950. It kept appearing in limited forms in other landmark Fundamental Rights cases, but was fully enunciated by the Supreme Courtonly in Kesavananda Bharati. BY a 7-6 majority, the Supreme Court held that there weresome parts of the Constitution which constitute the very heart of the existence of theIndian State and Polity, such as democracy, judicial review of executive action,separation of powers, etc. This was based on the fact that some parts of the Constitutioncould not be amended as easily as others and this, thus meant that the framers originallyintended for some parts to be more vital to the existence of the Indian State than others.The doctrine was extended, again by a majority of 7 -6, to state that Fundamental Rightswere included in this Basic Structure. However, by a majority of 7-6, it was also held thatthe right to property was not a Fundamental Right of the same kind as the Right to lifeetc., and
