nbde part 2

Compiled By:- Dr. Prakash Subedi

Pedodontics 1. Crowded teeth in primary dentition, chances of crowding in permanent dentition a) 7/10 b) 8/10 c) 9/10 d) 10/10 2. Late mesial shift- leeway space of Nance 3. In 7 years old boy, how many permanent and primary teeth are present? Permanent- 12 Primary – 12 4. Cleft lip seen in- 4th week of intrauterine life 5. Which malocclusion shouldn’t be ignored and corrected as soon as possibleAnterior cross bite 6. Interceptive and preventive orthodontics cannot becarried out after eruption of: a) Second premolars b) First molars c) Second molars d) Third molars 7. Pit and fissure sealants given at a) 3-9 years b) 6-12 years c) 9-14 years 8. Tooth that commonly resembles its permanent counterpart- maxillary 1st molar 9. What is the maximum operating time for child?????????? a. 1 hour b. 30 min c. 15 min d. 2 hours


10. A child with avulsed tooth came with tooth in buccal vestibule within 24 hrs. a) What should be done to clean tooth? Saline and running tap water b) If blood clot is still present in socket, what should be done? Bone curettage, light debridement and aspiration, vigorous irrigation

c) What is best media for tooth storage? HBSS d) Which wire is used for splinting? Soft arch wire, rigid, lab cart wire, 32 gauge wire.

e)

After how much time would you go for RCT? 1 week, 1-2 weeks, 1 month?????

11. How long does an intruded deciduous tooth take to re-erupt? a) 1-2 weeks b) 2-3 weeks c) 8-12 weeks d) 12-24 weeks


Oral Medicine, Pathology & Surgery 1. Which steroid has longest duration of action? a. Hydrocortisone (short) b. Dexamethasone c. Prednisolone (intermediate)

2. Nikolsky’s sign is seen in – pemphigus

3. Erythematous candidiasis is not associated with a. Antibiotics sore mouth?????? b. Denture sore mouth c. Median rhomboid glossitis d. Mucocutanoeus candiasis 4. Patch test- Lichenoid reaction 5. Which is associated with Gardner’s syndrome? (autosomal dominant) a. Dilacerations b. Jaw cyst c. Multiple impacted teeth


6. Rootless teeth – dentin dysplasia 7. Enlarged pulp chamber and elongated crown – taurodontism

8. Physiologic xerostomia is seen in a. Talking @Salivary flow rate is decreased during sleep, which may lead b. Working to a transient sensation of dry mouth upon waking. c. Sleeping d. Chewing 9. Cobblestone appearance – crohn’s disease 10. Most common malignancy in skin a. Basal cell carcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma (in oral cavity) c. Malignant melanoma 11. Most common malignant salivary gland tumour – Mucoepidermoid carcinoma 12. Ball in hand radiograph appearance – pleomorphic adenoma 13. Sunray radiographic appearance a. Osteosarcoma b. Ewing’s sarcoma c. Central hamangioma d. All of the above 14. Complication of dentigerous cyst - Ameloblastoma 15. A patient while extracting mandibular 3rd molar complains of sharp pain and he has fear to touch on site. a. Most probable diagnosis – trigeminal neuralgia b. 1st line of drug – carbamazepine c. Side effect of carbamazepine – blood disorder ( aplastic anaemia Agranulocytosis) d. How is diagnosis made? – CT scan - MRI - Bone scan - USG e. TENS is meant for – to activate nerve fiber


16. Leukoedema is most commonly seen in a. Corner of mouth b. In occlusal plane c. In buccal mucosa d. In region of premolar and molar 17. Size of occlusal radiograph – 57x76mm 18. Anode is positively charged 19. Size of x-ray reduced by – collimation 20. History of Burkitt’s lymphoma – starry sky appearance 21. Malignancy associated with HIV/AIDS – lymphoma 22. Radiation caries is due to – radiation of salivary gland. 23. Sequestrum is seen in – osteomyelitis 24. Most common non- odontogenic cyst is a. Globulomaxillary cyst b. Nasopalatine cyst c. Anterior maxillary cyst 25. Greenstick fracture seen in children commonly in a. Mandible b. Maxilla c. Long bone 26. If palatal mucosa is teared near 1st maxillary molar area, which nerve gets damaged?? Greater Palatine nerve 27. Clinical feature in temporomandibular joint ankylosis is – Retrognathic mandible 28. Sublingual crescent is affected by – Genioglossus 29. CSF rhinorrhea seen in a. ZMC fracture b. Le Fort I c. Le Fort II

30. Moon face is seen in – Le Fort II & Le Fort III 31. Ankylosis of TMJ is common in a. Intracapsular Fracture b. Extracapsular fracture c. Subcondylar fracture d. Condyle fracture


32. Most common site of fracture in mandible – Angle fracture 33. Lead foil – to prevent back scattering of X-ray 34. 10 rotatory movement for extraction a. Maxillary central b. Mandibular lateral c. Mandibular 2nd premolar 35. Syncope – is vasovagal shock 36. Loss of Lamina Dura seen in a. Periapical abscess b. Periapical granuloma c. Periapical cyst d. All 37. Disadvantage of semilunar flap – less accessibility to working site 38. Partsch II – Marsupialisation followed by enucleation

39. Sharp pain – Delta fibers

40. Mechanism of action of autoclave – coagulation and denaturation of proteins

41. Organisms associated with maxillary sinusitis of odontogenic origin a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic


42. Early morning appointment is not given for hypertensive patient because a) Epinephrine is more b) Epinephrine is less

43. A patient taking 55mg of hydrocortisone came for extraction, this dose one day before extraction a) ½ b) ¼ c) Remain unchanged d) Consult physician and extract 44. A patient came with swelling on mandible. On examination 38 was missing 37was filled distally. On radiograph, a large circumorbital radiolucency was present on 38 and 37 root was resorbed. a) What is diagnosis for 38? – dentigerous cyst b) Treatment of choice – Enucleation of cyst and extraction of 38 c) Complication of this cyst – Ameloblastoma d) Carnoy’s solution is used in – OKC e) Most common cyst of developmental origin – dentigerous cyst 45. Access cavity in maxillary 1st molar a. Rhomboidal b. Triangle c. Square


46. Most common organism – A. viscous 47. A patient came to clinic 5 days after surgical extraction for removal of suture and complains of paraesthesia in tip of tongue a. Reason for paraesthesia – damage to lingual nerve b. How can it be prevented – by placing incision more buccally c. After how many days should suture be removed????? -5 days -7 days -5-7 days

Periodontics A. Arc shaped resorption seen in – Juvenile Periodontitis B. Acellular afibrillar cementum- coronal cementum

C. The sign of TFO commonly seen1. Tooth mobility 2. PDL widening 3. Cusp fracture


D. Gingivitis in pregnancy- angiogranuloma

E. Horizontal bone loss- in chronic periodontitis F. Regeneration successful in a) Three walled defect infrabony pocket b) Two walled defect infrabony pocket c) One walled defect infrabony pocket d) Suprabony pocket G. Cementum permeability a) Increases with age b) Decreases with age c) Remains constant H. A 14 year old female patient came to clinic. On examination, there was deep pocket with respect to 36 46 21 11 with minimal deposit. a) Diagnosis- Juvenile periodontitis b) Lack of clinical inflammation with deep pocket c) Treatment plan- Antibiotics, scaling/ root planning, flap surgery, maintenance???? d) Bone loss pattern in radiograph- Arc shaped bone loss with respect to 36 46 21 11 e) First clinical sign- pathological migration, Tooth mobility??????? I.

Width of attached gingiva is maximum in central incisor- 3.5-4.5mm

J.

Organisms of Juvenile periodontitis- A. actinomycetemcomitans

K. Concentration of glucose in gingival crevicular fluid- 3-4 times that of serum


Orthodontics 1. Orthopedic appliance should be worn for – 12-14hrs

2. Tug of war exercise ???

3. Mandibular plane in Tweed’s Analysis – tangent to lower border of mandible

4. Which analysis explains the position of LI – Tweed’s Analysis

5. SNA- 830, SNB- 780, Mandibular plane- 370, Interincisal angle- 1390 a) What does SNA signifies in this case? –Ant. Post relation of maxilla to cranial base and is prognathic b) What does SNB signifies in this case?- Ant. Post relation of mandible to cranial base and is retrognathic c) What does mandibular plane signifies in this case?- Vertical growth pattern of mandible


d) ANB in this case signifies- skeletal class II with vertical growth pattern e) Dental parameter in this case – Interincisal angle


Prosthodontics 1) Functional cusp bevel is given –to provide adequate thickness in that region because that area is subjected to high occlusal forces 2) In case of hypermobile ridge in anterior region of maxilla, which impression technique is used? a) selective pressure technique b) muco-compressive c) window technique d) none 3) While constructing CPD, undercut on a tooth is more than repeated, what should be done? a) undercut should be blocked b) wrought wire c) gingival approaching clasp d) occlusal approaching clasp 4) Minimum number of clasp in RPD for retention -2 5) 00cusp tooth is preferred in - Diabetes 6) To record buccal vestibule of upper denture which muscle activated a) Buccinator b) Temporalis c) Pterygomandibular raphe d) Superior constrictor muscle 7) Thick denture subsurface porosity seen when a) denture is placed in boiling water at 1000 b) P:M ratio 8) Fully adjustable articulator a) Denar b) Dentatus c) Whipmire 9) Indirect retainer is compulsory in -In Kennedy class I and II

10) Ideal crown: root ratio in FPD -1:2


11) Pontic which is connected to retainer in one side only -Cantilever FPD 12) Endo osseous implants Submerged and anchored in mandible 13) Interim obturator can be used for a) 6 months b) 8 months c) 12 months 14) i. If an edentulous patient comes to dental clinic, which of the following should be done in series? -Initial impression, Final impression. Jaw relation, denture try in ii. Which impression technique should be used in case of flabby maxillary anterior ridge? a) type I plaster {Agar (rim locked technique)} b) alginate c) heavy body addition silicon iii. Shape and size of teeth is selected on basis of -Facial form iv. Mandible is moved right and left while taking impression of upper to a) record action of masseter b) record depth of buccal vestibule c) record action of buccinator v. Upward, outward, downward movement of lip is made while taking impression -to obtain labial vestibule and labial frenum 15) Boxing of impression is done for following reasons except a) to record depth and width of sulcus b) to save material c) to save time d) to obtain smooth base 16) A patient comes with missing 24 and 26 in upper arch and 44 45 and 46 in lower arch. Which Kennedy classification for upper n lower arch? -upper arch and lower arch Kennedy class III modification 1 17) What is 25 CD in prosthodontics?


-pier abutment

18) What type of pontic is suitable for 26? -Modified ridge lap 19) One of denture cleanser -sodium perborate 5% 20) Main constituent of porcelain -feldspar

Cons and Endo 1. Function of coupling agent in composite – bonding between filler particles and resin. 2. GIC is also called????? a. Temporary restoration b. Semi-permanent restoration c. Intermediate therapeutic restoration d. Permanent therapeutic restoration 3. MTA can be used as a. Root canal sealer b. Root canal medicaments c. Reparative material 4. According to Ellis and Dewey, traumatized tooth nonvital with or without crown fracture is classified as a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV


1. Watch winding motion- back and forth oscillating 2. Marginal leakage in amalgam decreases with time but increases with time in composite 3. Coupling agent- bind resins and fillers 4. C-shaped canal seen in 37 and 47 (most common) and 36 and 46 (common) 5. Two canals most commonly seen in mandibular lateral incisors 6. Hunter-Shregar Bands seen in cervical third of incisor 7. Rubber dam introduced by S C Barnum 8. In three digit formulae of instrument, 3rd number indicates angle between shank and blade in centigrade 9. Isolation of tooth in conservative treatment by rubber dam- At least 3 teeth 10. Access cavity in maxillary 1st molar- rhomboidal 11. Pulp protecting base is placed when the remaining dentine after cavity preparation is a) 0.5mm b) 1mm c) 1.5mm d) 2mm 12. Most common organism found in root- A. viscosus 13. Cavosurface angle for amalgam restoration- 900 14. The sure fracture of amalgam is due to a) Overtrituration b) Overcondensation c) More residual mercury in restoration 15. A patient came to dental clinic with complaints of continuous pain at night. On examination, there was pit and fissure sealant on 35, deep caries management on 36 and GIC restoration on cervical caries on 37. a) What is responsible for pain? -- 36 b) What is to be done in 36? -- Access opening, placing devitaliser and make it out of occlusion c) C-shaped canal seen in -- 33 36 37 38 d) Out of 4 roots, which is curved in mandibular molar? i. Mesiobuccal ii. Mesiolingual iii. Distobuccal iv. distolingual


Community 1. 2. 3. 4.

Survey age -5,12,15 35-44,65-74 Lottery-simple random sampling Hypothesis-descriptive epidemiology LLD for 20 kg boy 32-64mg/kg=32X20-64x20 640-1280mg 5. Which one of the following belongs to central tendency? A) Mode B) Standard deviation C) Variation 6. Concentration of APF=1.23% 7. What is done to prevent bias? Blinding 8. ART is not done in A) Class I B) Class II

C) Deep cavities

nbde part 2

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