MMUP Final for civil Engineers

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‫تجميع امتحانات‬

‫بسم هللا الرحمن الرحيم‬ MMUP Questions (Civil Engineering) ‫الحمد هلل رب العالمين حمداً كما يحبه ربي ويرضاه والصالة والسالم على حبيبي وشفيعي وسيدي رسول هللا محمد صلى هللا‬ ...‫عليه وسلم وعلى آله وصحبه أجمعين‬

This file is only a collecting question on civil engineering from consulting offices and from Engineers exams and finally some of my exam questions: What have been done in this file? 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Repeated questions are terminated Missing & in-complete questions have been corrected Questions in red color are with correct answers Questions in green color are all right but I don’t know how to prove it Questions in violet color are answered but not sure about it Answers in blue color are information’s , I have searched for them before exempting he exam

ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


1. Question on pavement design using AASHTO Method SN = a1D1 + a2D2 + a3D3 + --------SN = structural No. a = coefficient for layer D = Overlay depth You are required to find the overlay depth (D1) for a new wear course Asphalt Given: SN, a1, a2, D2 2. Maximum Value for PHF = 1, Minimum Value for PHF = 0.25 PHF = 3. Last component added for Cement production : Gypsum (calcium Sulphate) 4. Last component added for concrete : Pozzolans(Silica fume, Fly Ash, Slag Cement, Metakoalin) 5. Question on Manning Equation Q= Q= Discharge n= Coefficient for channel material R=  A: Cross sectional area P: Wetted Perimeter S= Slope of channel 6. Flow Rate of WEIR: a) Rectangular: √ b) Triangular √ = 900 )

c) Triangular ( √ Where; Q = Discharge b = width (m) h = head of weir (m) g = 9.81 = V-Notch Angle


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


7. Calculate the maximum moment (Values are given for loads & dimensions)

Maximum moment = (WL)(L/2) + P(L/2)

Maximum moment = (WL) (L/2) + PL 8. Weaving in length on interchanges is necessary for: Changing Lane 9. Water Concentration : 55.6 (mol/l) 10. Water Molar Mass : 18 (g/mol) 11. Deepest utility in infrastructure works: a) Water Pipes b) Telecom c) Electricity d) Drainage 12. Why Cross-sections in Road projects are important? To calculate cut & fill Quantities 13. Project manager characteristics should include all except : a) Skills b) Repeatability c) Speed d) Innovation 14. Hydraulic Jump is always : a) Critical b) Sub-Critical c) Super-Critical d) Depends


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


15. For this Vertical Curve Find the elevation at EVC??

⁄

a= b= C = 132

X = distance u want to get elevation from = 400 Therefore; ⁄

⁄

⁄ Y = -10 + 8 + 132 = 130 ft

16.

Calculate Stress on Surface? Volume = X*Y*Z Weight = γconcrete * Volume Stress =

17.

Traffic Where: q = Volume (Veh / hr) k = density (Veh / mile) u = Speed (mile / hr)

18. What is the meaning of Crashing a project a) To increase project resources in order to reduce project total duration b) Project will not finish on time c) Project will not achieve its scope d) None of the above


Civil Engineering

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19. Fast track project is a) A project (construction) that starts before design is complete b) A cost – plus – fee project c) A project that starts with huge manpower d) None of the above 20. What is the meaning of resource leveling : a) A technique used to determine required resources for project tasks b) A technique used to examine unbalanced use of resources over time c) A report given to project manager about resources d) None of the above 21. In precedence Diagramming Method, activities are represented as: a) Lines b) Nodes c) Point d) None of the above 22. Critical path means: a) Longest sequence of activities path in a project b) Shortest sequence of activities path in a project c) The path that have the maximum resources assigned d) The path with the longest activities 23. In PERT chart, activity durations are calculated by: a) Normal Distribution b) Binomial Distribution c) Logarithmic Distribution d) None of the above 24. For pipe network Q= 10 m3 / sec d (main) = 1 m QB = 3 m3 / sec dB = 0.5 m dA = 0.5 m Therefore; Q = QA + QB QA = Q – QB = 10 – 3 = 7 m3/sec QA = VA * AA VA = QA / AA AA = = 0.196 m2 VA = QA/AA =

= 35.7 m/sec

25. The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after casting is known as: a) Finishing of concrete b) Curing of concrete c) Placing of concrete d) None of the above ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


26. A Cantilever beam with a rectangular cross-section is subjected to a concentrated load at its free end. If the width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of : a) 8 b) 1/8 c) 1/2 d) 2 27. The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force is: a) Maximum b) Minimum c) Changing Sign d) None of the above 28. What does QCS stands for?? Qatar Construction Specification 29. What is the common yield strength of reinforcement steel? a) 100 MPa b) 200 MPa c) 275 MPa d) 460 MPa 30. What is the maximum allowable moment redistribution in RCC beams? a) 10 % b) 20 % c) 30 % d) 40 % 31. What is QSAS? Qatar Sustainability Assessment System 32. Safe design load for pile drilled in hard rock depends on: a) Strength of rock b) Crushing strength of concrete c) Buckling of pile d) None of the above 33. RQD = 100 represents : a) Intact rock b) Fractural rock c) Gravel d) None of the above RQD = Rock Quality Designation RQD =


∑

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


34. If the liquid limit of clay is 50 , and the plasticity index is 30, then the plastic limit is: a) 20 b) 30 c) 50 d) 80 PI = L.L – P.L. = 50 – 30 = 20 35. Generally, weight of reinforcement concrete in Kg/m3 is: a) 1500 b) 1600 c) 2000 d) 2400 36. Why steel is used as reinforcement in reinforced concrete: a) Easily available b) Good bond to concrete c) Coefficient of thermal expansion is the same for steel & concrete d) All the above 37. Slump test of concrete is used to test: a) Workability b) Durability c) Strength d) Water content 38. If the water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 liters, the water-cement ratio is: a) 0.4 b) 0.5 c) 0.6 d) None of the above Weight of 1 bag of cement = 50 KG Therefore; water cement ratio =

= 0.6

39. Stress means: a) The internal forces developed in a material due to external forces = (force/Area) b) Ability to resist external forces c) Deformation in a material due to external forces d) Forces applied perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of a member 40. The value if concrete cube strength is given at: a) 1 day b) 8 days c) 28 days d) 35 days


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


41. For a simply supported beam, the shear and flexural stresses will be equal to zero at: a) End supports b) Middle of span & above neutral axis c) Middle of span and on the neutral axis d) End supports and below neutral axis 42. Nominal moment of resistance, Mn for a rectangular section is given by: a) Mn = fc a b (d - ) b) Mn = As Fy (d -

)

c) Mn = As Fy (d -

) + fc a b (d -

d) Mn = ρ b d2 Fy ( 1 - 0.59 ρ

)

)

43. Strength of concrete primarily depends on : a) Quality of water b) Quantity of aggregates c) Quantity of cement d) Water-Cement ratio Common range is 0.38  0.5 44. If a T-shaped beam passes over many supports, the section above the support should be designed as: a) Rectangular section b) T-Section c) I-section d) None of the above 45. Soundness of cement is tested by: a) Vicat’s apparatus b) Le – chatelier apparatus c) Compressive strength testing apparatus d) None of the above 46.

Air entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs to make them: a) Heat insulated b) Sound insulated c) None of the above d) (a) & (b)

47. In the cantilever truss shown, the horizontal component of the reaction @ A is: a) 30 tonnes b) 60 tonnes c) 90 tonnes d) 120 tonnes = (10*15)/5


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


48. A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load is propped at the center of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of the prop will be: a) Half of the distributed load b) 3/8 the distributed load c) 5/8 the distributed load d) None of the above 49. Four columns of a building are to be located within a plot size 10m*10m.The expected load of each column is 4000 KN. Allowable bearing capacity of soil is 100 KPa. The suitable type of foundation is: a) Isolated footing b) Raft footing c) Pile foundation d) Combined footing Total plot area = 10*10 = 100 m2 Total column load = 4*4000 = 16000 KN Required bearing area = = 160 m2 > 100 m2 So, it is not possible to achieve safe bearing on the soil within the plot area 50. For the beam below, the deflection @ point B is: a) b) c) none of the above 51. for the beam below, the slope at the middle of the beam is: a) zero b) c) 52. For the beam below, find the deflection @ point B: a) b) c)


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS

53. Find the moment @ the middle of the beam a) 100 KN.m b) 50 KN.m c) 64 KN.m d) 0 KN.m Mmidspan =

=

= 64 KN.m

54. Ultra – Sonic testing of concrete is: a) Non-Destructive test b) Used on smooth concrete surfaces c) A destructive test d) Used for soil testing I. 1&2 II. 3 only III. 3 & 4 55. How many slump layers of concrete are required in slump test: a) 4 layers b) 2 layers c) 3 layers d) 7 layers 56. Summary of beam Moment, Slope & deflection: Beam Type

Moment

Slope

Deflection

PL


Civil Engineering

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57. Foundations are placed below ground level to increase: a) Strength b) Workability c) Stability of structure d) All of the above 58. Compaction of backfill is used to: a) Reduce water content in backfill material b) Reduce air content in backfill material c) Crushing of stones in backfill material d) None of the above 59. The un-drained shear strength of clay is equal to: a) Half of the unconfined compressive strength of clay b) Twice the unconfined compressive strength of clay c) One & a half the un-confined compressive strength of clay d) None of the above 60. A 5-m high retaining wall is backfilled with sand (unit weight (γ) = 19 KN/m3) with angle ( ) of 300 with angle of friction (δ) of 150 Ka = tan (45 - ) = tan (45 -

) = 1/3

Lateral earth pressure = Ka * γ * h = 1/3 * 19 * 5 = 31.667 Lateral earth Force (RH) = 1/2 * Ka * γ * h2 = 0.5 * 1/3 * 19 * 52 = 79.16667 Vertical pressure (RV) = Σ W  W1 = γ (conc) * width1 * length1  W2 = γ (conc) * width2 * length2  W3 = γ (conc) * width3 * length3 Therefor; (RV) = W1 + W2 + W3 Then Factor of safety = (FS) =


where;

µ = tan δ

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


61. Two columns 50cm*50cm & 60cm*60cm carry 80 tonnes & 120 tonnes of loads respectively. The center to center distance between columns is 5m.The permissible bearing capacity of the soil is 20 t/m2. If the footing is not to project more than 25 cm beyond the outside of the smaller column, pick up the correct design parameters of the footing from the following: a) Distance of C.G. of the loads from the smaller column = 3m b) The length of the foundation slab = 7m c) Area of the footing = 11 m2 d) Width of the footing = 1.57 m e) All of the above = 11 m2

Area of footing, A =

Length of footing = 5+1+1 = 7 m Width for footing =

1.57 m

C.G. = 0.25 + 0.5/2 + 5/2 = 3m 62. For dense sand, the number of blows from standard penetration test is: a) 0  10 b) 20  40 c) 50 d) 100 63. What are the magnitudes of the horizontal & vertical reactions, repectively at support A of the frame shown below: a) 16 KN , 18 KN b) 16 KN , 6 KN c) 6 KN , 16 K d) 8 KN , 6 KN Summation of moments about B=0 ΣMB = 0 = (16KN*1.5) – (24*2) + (RA*4) = 0 RA = 6KN↑ 64. Consider the following statements: Shrinkage of concrete depends on : a) Relative humidity of the atmosphere b) Passage of time c) Applied stress I. 1&2 II. 2&3 III. 1,2& IV. 3 65. A pin-jointed truss is loaded as shown in the given figure. The force induced in member DF is: a) 1.5KN (tension) b) 4.5KN (tension) c) 1.5KN (compression) d) 4.5KN (compression)


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


66. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform cross-section produced under its own weight to the elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is: a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 1/4 67. Two simply supported beams B1 and B2 have spans L and 2l respectively. Beam B1 has a cross-section of 1*1 and B2 has a cross-section of 2*2. These beams are subjected to concentrated loads (w) at the center of their spans. The ratio of maximum flexural stress in their beams is: a) 4 b) 2 c) 1/2 d) 1/4 68. What is the meaning of concrete hydration: a) The reaction between cement & water b) Curing of concrete c) Setting of concrete 69. What is poison’s Ratio? The ration of transverse (or horizontal) strain to axial (or vertical) strain 70. Plywood is used in formwork because: a) The tensile strength is equal in all directions b) The tensile strength is maximum in the short direction c) The tensile strength is minimum in the long direction 71. What is poison’s ratio for normal concrete: a) 0.2 b) 0.3 c) 0.4 d) 0.5 72. Mastic asphalt is normally used for: a) Waterproofing b) Paving c) None of the above 73. In SPT, N34 refers to: a) Soil bearing b) Shear capacity c) Others 74. For better rock sampling, we should use: a) Double sleeve barrel b) Single sleeve barrel c) Main barrel


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


75. What are the critical activities of the bar chart shown below: a) Activities A,C,E b) Activities B & E c) Activity F

76. Temperature (Allowable) of asphalt during lining? 135175 77. Time cost curve is representing the relation between? Earned cost & planning cost 78. Elevation of leveling device is 106:23 what is the ground level if reading of the stand is 6:52? 106.232-6.52 = 99.71 79. The direct cost includes the following: Labors & staff cost, project materials (supplies), plants, transportation and consultant services 80. Indirect cost & expense during: The project, overhead, profit and administrative equipment rental , audit and legal 81. The nearest 100 feet is a) 4400 Ft b) 4000 Ft c) 440 Ft d) 40000 Ft 82. PERT is: Program Evaluation & Review Technique 83. If the load magnitude I a traditional R.C. column increases continuously, the allowable moment in one plane is constant Zero (0)


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


84. If the design speed of road is 60 mile and r = 8% , t = 1. Then the minimum radius is equal to?

Therefore;

16.2 R = 3600

R =222.22 (Ft) or 67.19 (m)

85. Good timer used for construction the moisture content 10  12 % 86. The delay time for a series of activities that would not affect if occurred the project timing called: a) Total Slack b) Total Slag c) Critical Float d) Float Pad e) Critical Slag 87. What is the maximum value for PH? a) 1 b) >1 c) <1 d) Zero 88. ASHGAL responsible for? a) Public work b) Public housing c) High population area d) None of the above 89. Use the correct sequence of the following: a) Concrete pouring b) Shutter striplings c) Shutter erection d) Curing c-a-d-b 90. How many layers required for slump test: a) 4 layers b) 2 layers c) 3 layers d) 1 layers


Civil Engineering

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91. For isolated foundation area of foundation as per calculation required to be 2.25 m2 and the column dimension is 0.25*0.8. What is the best foundation size? a) 1.5m * 1.5m b) 1m * 2.25m c) 1.25m * 1.8m d) None of the above 92. Separation of water or water sand cement from freshly concrete is known as: a) Bleeding b) Creeping c) Segregation d) Flooding 93. Method ………. Beam a) Bernoulli-Fouler b) Filler c) Other 94. What is QCS? Qatar Construction Specification (2010) Qatar Construction Standards (2007) 95. Management definition include all except: a) Speed b) Progress c) Quality d) Repeating 96. As-Built drawing submitted for: a) Construction b) Additional work c) Record & Maintenance 97. Maximum backfilling height per QCS: Champers & Pit  300 mm Trenches  150 mm Non coefficient soil  100 mm 98. Interdisciplinary nature of engineering projects: a) All engineers should be experienced for all activities regardless the discipline b) All engineers should work & co-operate together and solve all engineering issues c) None of the above 99. The summation of internal angles 6 side polygon: a) 360 b) 540 c) 720 d) 180 = (n-2)*180 = (6-2)*180 = 4*180 = 720


Civil Engineering

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100. How to calculate a continuous T beam? a) Supported at various points b) Simply supported c) Flanged section d) Rectangular section 101. What is the degree of curve? 100 Ft Chord angle 102. What are cross-sections used for: For cut & fill quantities 103. What is perception & reaction time for calculating the sight distance: 1 sec 104. In a work, If the property decides to make a change in scope, what is the procedure to do? a) Change order b) Modification c) None of the above 105. For why steel is preferred as reinforcement in concrete? a) Because it is inexpensive and resistant b) Because it is easily accessible c) Because it adheres well to concrete d) Because it has the same coefficient of expansion of the concrete All are right but u have to choose the best answer 106. What is concrete density? 2.4 107. What factors influence the compressive strength of concrete? a) Resistance is inversely proportional to the water-cement ratio b) The resistance is proportional at the cement content c) Cracks appears on the surface due to excessive water content d) All of the above 108. On relation to the use of air-entraining agents in concrete, which of the following statements are true? a) Improve the workability b) Improving long-term durability c) Makes a less dense mixture d) All of the above 109. The immediate …………. Are necessary to develop the following tasks in a breaking down of a project a) Critical activities b) Predecessor activities c) Burst activities d) None of the above


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS

110. Which of the following is a false statement for a work package? a) Allocating resources must b) It should designate a work manager c) It should set deadlines definitive d) None of the above 111. On work break down structure relative to project, which of the following statements are false? a) Breaks up the project in a “top-down” b) It breaks down the draft as “down-top” c) Used to handle large projects 112. What is the logical sequence of activities? a) 1,2,3,4 b) 3,2,4,1 c) 2,4,3,1 d) 4,3,2,1 113. if in a plane I measure

inches and is

scale, what is the distance between

the two points in miles a) b) c) d)

7.25 7.15 7.05 7.35 7.15

114. Problem of a cross-section of concrete. What is the moment of resistance? M=Ast σst (d-d’) 115. What is the advantage of using concordant cable in pre-stressed concrete? Deflection of beam 116. What is ABET? Accreditation Board of Engineering & Technology 117. Why in two way slab, lifting of corner slab happens from? Shear at edges 118. 10#@10/mm to change to 12#. How much is the new space? 14.4 mm round down = 14mm 119. 6#@10/mm to change to 12#. How many steel bars? 4.2 mm round up = 5 bars 120. What is the last stage of sewage treatment plant? Sludge treatment


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


121. The expression used in roads engineering followed capacity? Road capacity 122. When design RC section, whether the concrete at tension side will be neglected or considered? Neglected Tension 123. At project-time frame; what type of cost estimation being used? Budget cost 124. Air-Entrained concrete is used to …… Freeze thaw resistance 125. How many compaction tests are required in 1000 m2? 10 times 126. Calculate stopping distance when moving @ speed 60 mi/hr Factor= 1 + (0.5*V/10) = 1+(0.5*6/2) = 1+3 = 4 Therefore; d = (V*F) – V = (4*60) – 60 = 180 Ft 127. What is the weight of concrete? 2400 Kg 128. What is the yield strength of steel? 460 MPa 129. What is the strength of concrete? 2.4 130. Tensile strength in wood? Direct with grains 131. Ethical? Should report anything wrong 132. Consideration of long pile in Rock a) Rock b) Buckling c) Strength of concrete 133. Over flow rate 35 m3/w/day and tank 2.5*4*16m. so, the flow rate is? a) 2240 m3/day b) 800 m3/day c) 350 m3/day d) 0.22 m3/day Over flow = flow rate/Area 35 = flow rate / (2.5*4) Flow rate = 10*35 = 350 m3/day 134. Two way slab to consider? a) Shear at edges b) Sleep in middle c) Compression in middle ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


135. At traffic junction and intersection other than volume of traffic you look? a) Safety b) Cost c) Speed 136. Grades in streets? a) In angle b) In percentage 137. Meaning of QSAS? Qatar sustainability assessment syetem 138. Activities in program designed by: a) Lines b) Notes c) Points d) All of the above 139. What is FTH? a) 0.25 b) 0.35 c) 1 140. Calculate quality? a) Before b) After c) During d) All of above 141. Bricks a) b) c) d)

Mortar is an effect to strength of brick wall Limestone is an effect of strength of bricks Mortar is considered the main effect of strength of brick wall All of the above

142. What is the first thing you do after you take a project? a) Arrange for meeting with the owner b) Assign staff c) Prepare WBS d) None of the above 143. What is WBS used for? a) Only for complex project b) Used for planning c) Top to down list of activities d) Down to top items for projects 144. Concrete cubes usually crushed at: a) 2 days b) 8 days c) 28 days d) 30 days


Civil Engineering

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145. What governs in intersection design after capacity? a) Speed b) Safety c) Cost d) Volume 146. Level of service of roads? a) Quality of road b) Quantitative of vehicles’ c) Others 147. Timber used in frames for building has moisture content of : a) 14 % b) 812% c) 1425% d) Above 25% Moisture content 1218 % 148. Ethics means: a) Good manner and behavior b) Good practice in engineering which depends in the environment c) Others 149. Activity can be described as: a) Arrow b) Line c) Node d) All of the above 150. What is the critical path? a) Shortest path b) Longest path c) Others 151. Bleeding can be controlled by: a) Adding cement b) More vibrating concrete c) Adding aggregates d) Adding fresh concrete 152. Increasing concrete strength is affected by: a) Increasing water cement ratio in high workability concrete b) Vibrating concrete in high water cement ratio c) Bad aggregates sieve & gradation 153. What is the shear span? a) Moment is zero b) Shear is zero c) Moment is maximum


Civil Engineering

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154. What is the maximum value of PHF? a) 1 b) 0.35 c) 0 d) 0.25 155. What is fast track project? Starts project before design is completed 156. What is resource leveling? Limitation of resources for activities 157. What is the factor not to be taken consideration in mix design? a) Degree of control of concrete b) Strength of concrete c) Time of first set of cement d) Workability 158. Calculate the length of arc, radius 250m , first tangent 25030’, second tangent 30025’. θ = 30025’ – 25030’ = 4095’ L=

21.6 = 22 m

159. Car going on a speed of 60 mi/hr on a curve high way. After passing a midpoint the driver saw an accident in front of him. The distance that will be passed from the moment the driver saw the accident until he hit the brakes equal to? D = 0.278 * V * t (m) D = 1.47 * V * t (Ft) Therefore; D = 1.47 * V * t = 1.47 * 60 * 2.5 = 220 ft 160. What is AASHTO? American Association of Standards Highway & Transportation officials 161. What is the factor affecting hardness of water? Magnesium & Calcium 162. Who make testing of product in the factory? a) Testing engineer b) Research engineer c) Product engineer 163. Required compaction for soil? 98  99 % 164. Spliced beam? Resist large shear & bending moment


Civil Engineering

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165. Pick up the correct statements from the following: a) The theory of formation of concrete is based on the phenomena of formation of voids b) The bulking of sand is taken into account while volumetric proportioning of the aggregates c) The dry sand and the sand completely flooded with water, have practically the same volume d) The expansion and contraction joints are provided if concrete structures exceed 12 m in length e) All of the above 166. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than: a) 30 min. b) 50 min. c) 75 min. d) 90 min. 167. Pick up the correct statements regarding low heat cement from the following: a) It possesses less compressive strength b) Its initial setting time is about 1 hr c) Its final setting time is about 10 hrs. d) It’s mainly used for mass concrete work e) All of the above 168. Name the type of cement rom the following for canal lining : a) Sulphate resistance cement b) Rapid hardening cement c) Quick setting cement d) Pozzolans cement 169. The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth is about: a) 1200 Kg b) 1500 Kg c) 1800 Kg d) 2000 Kg 170. Mastic asphalt is normally used for: a) Sound insulation b) Water proofing c) Fire proofing d) None of these 171. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends on: a) Quality of water b) Quantity of aggregate c) Quantity of cement d) Water-cement ratio 172. In case of raymond pile: a) Lengths vary from 6 m to 12m b) Diameter of top of piles varies from 40cm to 60 cm c) Diameter of pile at bottom varies from 20 cm to 28 cm d) Thickness of outer shell depends upon pile diameter e) All of the above ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


173. The foundations are placed below ground level to increase: a) Strength b) Workability c) Instability of structure d) All of the above 174. The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the soft area is smaller than: a) The column spacing b) One – third the column spacing c) Half the column spacing d) Three-fourth the column spacing e) None of the above 175. The concrete slump recommended for beams & slabs: a) 25  50 mm b) 25  75 mm c) 30  125 mm d) 50  100 mm e) None of the above 176. For providing a raft foundation, the following activities are involved: a) Ramming the foundation bed b) Excavation of the soil up to required depth c) Laying the reinforcement over the foundation bed d) Curing the cement concrete placed over reinforcement e) Pouring the cement concrete over the reinforcement I. 1,2,3,4,5 II. 5,4,3,2,1 III. 2,1,3,5,4 IV. 3,2,5,1,4 177. During percussion drilling: a) Ground water observation are hindered due to the entry of the slurry in below the bottom of the hole b) Caving or mixing od strata is caused in soft soils or cohesion less soils c) The soil to a considerable depth below the bottom of the hole gets distributed d) All of the above 178. Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual footing is more than: a) 25 % to total area b) 30 % to total area c) 40 % to total area d) 50 % to total area


Civil Engineering

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179. Pick up the correct statement of the following: a) The retaining wall should be structurally capable to resist the applied earth pressure b) The section of the retaining wall should be so proportioned that it may not overturn by the lateral pressure c) The retaining wall should be safe against sliding d) The foundation of the retaining wall should not be stressed beyond safe bearing capacity due to its weight and the force resulting from the earth pressure e) To drain off water from the earth retained, weep holes are provided near the top of the retaining wall 180. The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after its finishing is known as: a) Finishing of concrete b) Curing of concrete c) Placing of concrete d) Compaction of concrete e) None of these 181. Raft foundation are used for: a) Providing increased area of foundation over poor bearing capacity of soil b) Spanning over small soft or loose pockets c) Counter acting the hydrostatic effect d) All of the above 182. The foundation which consists of a thick reinforcement cement slab covering whole area to support heavy concentrated structural loads is known as: a) Combined footings b) Strap footing c) Raft footing d) None of these 183. For a wall carrying heavy load on low bearing capacity soil a) Lean concrete bed is provided b) Thick concrete bed is provided c) Reinforced concrete bed is provided d) (a) & (c) of the above e) (b) & (c) of the above 184. The bearing capacity of water logged soil, may be improved by a) Grouting b) Chemical action c) Drainage d) Compaction 185. The form work including the props can be removed from beams, only after a) 3 days b) 7 days c) 14 days d) 21 days


Civil Engineering

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186. The concrete slump for foundation is: a) 25  50 mm b) 30  125 mm c) 50  100 mm d) 75  125 mm e) None of these 187. The construction joints in buildings are provided after: a) 10 m b) 15 m c) 20 m d) 40 m e) 60 m Should be 40  45 m 188. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Cracks appear on the plastered surface in the form of hair cracks b) In brick work, the efflorescence is removed by applying a solution of zinc Sulphate and water c) Excessive thermal variations in the backing or plaster cause the plaster to fall d) All of the above 189. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Plain cement concrete is equally strong in compression as well as in tension b) Slump test is performed to check concrete strength c) Curing of concrete is done for proper compaction of cemen d) Fineness modulus is the index number expressing the relative sizes of both coarse & fine aggregates e) Concrete is a mixture of binding material, coarse aggregates and water 190. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Isolated footing is provided under column to transfer the load safely to the soil bed b) Column footings may have steps or projections in the concrete base c) Heavily loaded column base must be provided steel reinforcement in both directions d) The concrete offset should be at least 15 cm on all sides e) All of the above 191. If h is the difference in level between end points separated by l, then the slope correction is (

(

) The second term may be neglected if the value of h in a

20 m distance is less than a) b) c) d)

1/2 m 1m 2m 3m


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192. The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend upon a) Length of the offset b) Scale of the plotting c) Importance of features d) General layout of the chain lines 193. Offsets are measured with an accuracy of 1 in 40. If the point on the paper from both sources of error (due to angular and measurement errors) is not to exceed 0.05 cm on a scale of 1 cm = 20m, the maximum length of offsets should be limited to: a) 14.14 m b) 28.28 m c) 200 m d) None of these Maximum length of offsets= = 28.28 √

194. Ranging in chain survey means a) Looking at an isolated point not on the line b) Establishing an intermediate point on the line c) Determining the distance between end points d) Determining the offset distance e) None of these 195. The operation of resection involves the following steps: a) Rough orientation of the plane table b) The three lines form a triangle of error c) Drawing lines back through the three control points d) Select a point in the triangle of error such that each ray is equally rotated either clockwise or anti clock wise e) The points obtained by three rays is the correct location I. A,c,b,d,e II. A,b,c,d,e III. A,d,c,b,e IV. C,b,d,e,a 196. If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of radius 500 m is 90 m, the maximum perpendicular offset for the transition curve is: a) 0.7 m b) 1.7 m c) 2.7 m d) 3.7 m e) 4.7 m Offset = (R/2l) = (500/2*90) = 2.7 m 197. For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is: a) Setting time b) Soundness c) Tensile strength d) Consistency e) All of the above ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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198. If 1500 g of water is required to have cement paste 1875 g of normal consistency, the percentage of water is: a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 35% e) 40% Cement = 1875 – 1500 = 375 g Therefore; 375/1500 = 0.25 =25% 199. Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with: a) Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate b) Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate c) Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferrite d) All of the above 200. Curing a) Reduces the shrinkage of concrete b) Preserves the properties of concrete c) Prevents the loss of water by evaporation d) All of the above 201. Curing a concrete for long period ensures better a) Volume stability b) Strength c) Water resistance d) Water tightness and durability e) All of the above 202. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix harsh b) Insufficient quantity of water makes the concrete mix unworkable c) Excess quantity of water makes the concrete segregated d) Excess quantity of water causes bleeding in concrete e) All of the above 203. Workability of concrete is measured by: a) Vicat’s apparatus test b) Slump test c) Minimum void method d) Talbot Richard test 204. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using: a) Low water cement ratio b) Less cement in the concrete c) Proper concrete mix d) Pre-saturated aggregates e) All of the above 205. A construction joint is provided where; a) Bending moment is small b) Shear force is small c) The member is supported by other member d) All of the above ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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206. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) According to the petrological characteristics, concrete aggregates classified as heavy weight, normal weight & light weight b) According to the shape of the particles, concrete aggregates are classified as rounded irregular, angular & flaky c) According to the surface texture of the particles, the concrete aggregates are classified as glassy, smooth, granular, rough, crystalline, honey combed & porous d) All the above 207. Pick up the incorrect statement of the following: a) The degree of grinding of cement is called fineness b) The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as setting of cement c) The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission of sound is known as soundness of cement d) The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water is known as heat of hydration e) None of these 208. Permissible compressive strength of M150 concrete grade is: a) 100 Kg/cm2 b) 150 Kg/cm2 c) 200 Kg/cm2 d) 250 Kg/cm2 e) 300 Kg/cm2 209. Slump test of concrete is a measure of its : a) Consistency b) Compressive strength c) Tensile strength d) Impact value 210. Water cement ratio is : a) Volume of water to that of cement b) Weight of water to that of cement c) Weight of concrete to that of water d) Volume of concrete to that of water e) Both (a) & (b) are right 211. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known as: a) Bleeding b) Creeping c) Segregation d) Flooding e) None of these 212. According to water cement ratio law, the strength of workable plastic concrete: a) Depends upon the amount of water used in the mix b) Does not depends upon the quality of cement mixed with aggregates c) Does not depends upon the quantity of cement mixed with aggregates d) All the above


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213. High temperature: a) Increases the strength of concrete b) Decreases the strength of concrete c) Has no effect on the strength of concrete d) None of these 214. Allowable shear strength of concrete depends on: a) Shear strength b) Tensile strength c) Compressive strength d) None of these 215. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by: a) Tensile strength test b) Slump test c) Compaction factor test d) Flexural strength test e) None of these 216. While designing an air entrained concrete: a) Water cement ratio is reduced b) Proportion of aggregates is reduced c) An allowance for the entrained air is made d) Strength of the concrete is reduced e) All of the above 217. Concrete gains strength due to : a) Chemical reaction of cement with sand & coarse aggregates b) Evaporation of water from concrete c) Hydration of cement d) All of the above 218. Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds: a) 10 m b) 15 m c) 35 m d) 45 m 219. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is: a) Very low b) Low c) Medium d) High e) None of these 220. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam b) Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom hunching c) Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middle third d) Construction joints are generally provided in positions subjected to least shear force e) All of the above ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

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221. The shortest distance between two places measured along the surface of the earth is: a) Length of the equator between their longitudes b) Length of the parallel between their longitudes c) Length of arc of the great circle passing through them d) None of these 222. The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid any tensile stress is: a) One half of the base b) One fifth of the base c) On fourth of the base d) One sixth of the base 223. The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum a) At the center of the section b) At distance r/2 from the center at the top of the surface c) At a distance 3/4 r from the center d) None of these 224. The region of the cross section of a column in which compressive load may be applied without producing any tensile stress is known as the core of the cross section. In circular column the radius of the core is: a) One half of the radius b) One third of the radius c) One quarter of the radius d) One fifth of the radius e) One sixth of the radius 225. The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported beams occurs: a) At the mid span b) At the supports c) Under the load d) Anywhere on the beam e) None of these 226. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body, tend to elongate it, the stress produced is called: a) Shear stress b) Compressive stress c) Tensile stress d) Transverse stress 227. Stress in a beam due to simple bending is: a) Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional c) Curvilinear related d) None of these


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228. A district road with a bituminous pavement has a horizontal curve of 1000 m for a design speed of 75 Kmph. The super elevation is: a) 1 in 40 b) 1 in 50 c) 1 in 60 d) 1 in 70 229. The total length of a valley formed by two gradients -3% and +2% curve between the two tangent points to provide a rate of change of centrifugal acceleration 0.6m/sec2, for a design speed of 100 Km ph, is a) 16.0 m b) 42.3 m c) 84.6 m d) None of these Length =

√

=

√

= 84.53 m

230. The advantage of providing super elevation on roads is: a) Higher speed of vehicles b) Increased volume of traffic c) Reduced maintenance cost of the roads d) Draining off rain water quickly e) All of the above 231. For a vehicle moving with a speed 80 Km per hour, the brake reaction time in ordinary cases is: a) 1.0 sec b) 1.5 sec c) 2.0 sec d) 2.5 sec e) 3.0 sec 232. The strength of material is defined as: a) Ability of material to resist external forces b) Ability of material to resist deformation c) Ability of material to withstand external loads d) None of the above 233. Critical path means: a) Longest sequence of activities path in a project b) Shortest sequence of activities path in a project c) The path that have the maximum resources assigned d) The path with the longest tasks in project 234. Add-Mixture is used in concrete for: a) Increasing strength of concrete b) Reduce heat of concrete c) To increase workability of concrete d) Increase air content I. 1 & 2 II. 2 & 3 III. 3 & 4 IV. 1 & 4 ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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235. Ministry of urban planning need to construct an exhibition center , the location of this center should be next to: a) Airport b) Bus station c) In a high population area d) In a remote area 236. ASHGAL responsible for: a) Public housing b) Electrical and water services c) Urban planning d) None of these 237. Compaction in backfilling is used for: a) Reducing water content in backfilled material b) Reducing air content in backfilled material c) Crushing of stones in backfilled material d) None of these 238. One of the following is not a gypsum board characteristic’s: a) Low cost in construction b) Can be easily formed in different shapes c) Can be recycled d) Fire resistance 239. Super elevation is used at: a) Straight highways b) Car parking’s c) Bus stations d) Horizontal curves 240. Minor limit design method for rectangular section will provide: a) Minimum steel area, minimum section dimension b) Minimum steel area, maximum section dimension c) Maximum steel area, maximum section dimension d) Maximum steel area, minimum section dimension 241. A sample of 200 ml waste water is given in a container (weight of container = 22.00 g) and was inserted in oven, after water evaporated the weight of sample was given as = 24.502 g then the sample was inserted in a burning oven and the weight changed to = 22.606 g the volatile solids content for this sample is equal to: a) 0.0095 g/ml b) 0.0584 g/ml c) 0.0081 g/ml d) None of the above = = 0.0095


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242. For subcritical flow in an open channel, the control section for gradually varied flow profiles is: a) At the downstream b) At the upstream c) At both downstream & upstream d) At any intermediate section 243. What is system? Group of known inputs & outputs 244. To change from metric to inch Divide by 2.54 245. In Timber where we can find moisture? In cell & wall 246. If a specification clause of project is conflict with drawing? a) Specification will precedence over drawing b) Drawing notes will precedence over specification 247. What is plastic movement? Shrinkage & settlement 248. Plywood is preferred on concrete shutter because its: a) Tensile stress on both direction b) Tensile stress on long direction c) Tensile stress on short direction 249. Which of the following executed on infrastructure work on deepest level? a) Electricity b) Drainage c) Telephone d) Storm water 250. Which of the next terminology you feel likely when making a repoints? a) planning b) initial 251. Which of the following statements is correct when corrosion happens? a) Water/cement ratio and air content is high b) Concrete cover above steel is less than required c) (a) only d) (a) & (b) 252. Asphalt bleeding happens during? a) Cold weather b) Hot weather c) Normal weather d) None of the above


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253. Modulus of elasticity of a mass of rock compared to rock substance: a) Higher b) Lower c) Equivalent d) Non correlated 254. The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any immediately following schedule activity Free float 255. An activity that determines the start date of first date of next activity based on logical relationship Predecessor activity 256. What is the quantity of embankment if 100000 m3 of backfilling is used with shrinkage & swell factors of backfilling are known (shrink factor = 10%) (Swell Factor = 25 %) a) 100000 m3 b) 110000 m3 c) 125000 m3 d) 135000 m3 Only we add swelling factor = 100000*1.25= 125000 257. Uplifting of slab on grade will happen because? a) Differences of shear at the slab ends b) Un balanced moments c) Soil resistance 258. WBS is : a) Graphical presentation of all the project b) All other answer not logical 259. What is the most important factor for project end state: a) Choosing a project manager b) Budget achievement c) Meeting safety requirement d) Accomplishing project within time frame 260. What is TQM? a) Total quality management b) Tool quality management c) Test quality manager d) Total quality manager


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261. V(aquifer) = 1 m/day Hydraulic gradient = 0.0004 and sample of aquifer is tested and formed to have porosity of 15 %, estimate the hydraulic conductivity of this aquifer? a) 400 m/day b) 0.0027 m/day c) 375 m/day d) 0.00006 m/day Volume = K ( Where; K = hydraulic conductivity K(

= hydraulic gradient

Therefore; 1 = K * 0.0004

K= 2500 * Porosity = 2500 * 15% = 375

262. Strength of Material is defined as: Ability of Material to Resist External Forces (Ability of Material to Resist the Deformations due to external forces) 263. Stress Means: Is the internal forces developed in material due to external loads 264. The SPT-N (Soil Penetration Test ): Indication of the relative density of granular deposits (for dense sand =20 40) 265. Critical Path: Longest sequence of activities path in a project 266. Add-Mixture are Used in Concrete for : Both (to increase workability of concrete + increase air content) 267. In PERT Chart the time estimate of activity is calculated by : Probability (not normal or binomial or logarithmic) 268. The value of concrete cube strength is given at : 28 days 269. For simply supported beam the shear and flexural stresses will equal to zero at : Middle of span & on neutral axis 270. The summation of internal angles at any polygon equal to : 180 * (n-2), where “n” is the number of faces 271. ASGHAL is responsible for : Public Work 272. Compaction in backfilling is used for: Reducing air content in backfilled material 273. Last component that is added to cement production process is : Calcium sulfate (Gypsum) ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

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274. Ultra Sonic pulse test is : Both (Nondestructive test, used in smooth concrete surfaces) {It is used to inspect the depth and width of concrete, and detection of steel bars location in concrete} 275. Slump test is used for : Testing of workability of concrete 276. No. of layers of concrete required in slump test: 3 layers 277. The following is not a gypsum board characteristic: Fire resistance 278. Super elevation is used at: Horizontal curves **to avoid centrifugal force at high speeds 279. Moisture content range for timber that is used in construction is equal to: 14-18% 280. Plywood is preferred as construction material because : The strength of the panel consistent across all directions 281. Fast Track project means: Design/Built (Activities are parallel) 282. The meaning of crashing in project: To increase project resource in order to reduce project total duration 283. The meaning of resource leveling : Technique used to examine unbalanced use of resources over time 284. Minor limit design method for rectangular section will provide: Minimum steel area, Maximum section dimension 285. Nominal moment for rectangular concrete cross section is given by : Mn=Fs As (d-a/2) 286. The un-drained shear strength for clay is equal to : One and a half the unconfined compressive strength of clay 287. Moment distribution method is devolved by : Hardy Cross 288. The error in measuring tape due to shortage of tape is called: Systematic error 289. Poisson’s Ratio is : The transverse strain / the longitudinal strain 290. Initial setting time of cement for asbestos cement products should be not less than : 30 minutes ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

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291. Type of cement using for canal lining is: Sulphate resisting cement 292. If water required for 1 bag of cement is 30 liters , the water cement ratio is : 0.6 293. The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about: 1800 kg 294. Mastic asphalt is normally used for : Water proofing 295. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon: Water-Cement ratio 296. Soundness of cement is tested by: Le-chatelier apparatus 297. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine: Workability 298. The foundations are placed below ground level, to increase: Stability of structure 299. The loose pockets in soil mass can be bridged safely by providing a raft foundation provided the soft area is smaller than: One-third the column spacing 300. The concrete slump recommended for beams and slabs is: 30 to 125 mm 301. The entrained concrete is used in lining walls and roofs for making: Both (Heat insulated – sound insulated) 302. What is the maximum value of PHF (Peak Hour Factor): 1 303. What is the minimum value of PHF (Peak Hour Factor): 0.25 304. What is the factor not to be taken in consideration in mix design: Time of initial setting 305. What to take in consideration to safe design for long pile in a drilled rock soil: Strength of concrete 306. What is the factor effecting the hardness of water? Calcium &Magnesium 307. The road cross section is used for : Cut and fills quantity 308. What is RQD 100% refer to : High quality rock ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

*RQD = Rock Quality Designation Page 38

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309. Activity is followed by two activities is called: Diversion activity 310. At project time frame , type of cost estimation is: Budget cost 311. Maximum backfilling height for chambers and pit as per QCS is: 300mm 312. Amount of time that an activity may be delayed from early start without delaying the project is: Total float 313. Amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of its successor is: Free float 314. What is hydration in concrete? It is the reaction between cement and water 315. What is Project scope definition? It is the sum total of all its product and their requirements or features 316. What is the yield strength of steel? The ability of a metal to tolerate gradual progressive force without permanent deformation 317. Perfect sampling for Rock Soil: Double Sleeve 318. What is the perception and reaction time for calculating the sight distance? 2.5 seconds 319. For why steel is preferred as reinforcement in concrete? Because it has the same coefficient of expansion of the concrete. 320. In infrastructure works , the utility with the lowest level is : Drainage 321. Who makes the tests to ensure the reliability and suitability of the product? Testing Engineer 322. QCS: (2010): Qatar Construction Specification 323. QCS: (2007): Qatar Construction Standards 324. PERT: Program Evaluation and Review Technique 325. CPM: Critical Path Method 326. PWA: Public Works Affairs 327. AASHTO: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

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328. ASTM: American Society for Testing and Materials 329. QSAS: Qatar Sustainability Assessment System 330. BS: British Standards 331. ABET: Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology 332. Problems 1. A sample of 200 ml wastewater is given in a container (Weight of container = 22.00 g) and was inserted in oven, after water evaporated the weight of sample was given as = 24.502 g then the sample was inserted in a burning oven and the weight changed to = 22.606 g, the Volatile solids content for this sample is equal to: =24.502-22.606=1.896 g Volatile solids content= 1.896 g/200 ml =0.0095 g/ml 2. A car going on a speed of 60 mile/Hr on a curve highway. After passing midpoint the driver saw an accident in front of him. The distance that will be passed from the moment the driver saw the accident until he hit the brakes equal to: The perception and reaction time for calculating the sight distance=2.5 seconds -60 mile/hr *5280 ft/3600 seconds=88 ft/sec The distance that will be passed from the moment the driver saw the accident until he hit the brakes = 88 ft/sec *2.5 sec = 220 ft


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333. Beam types:


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334. If your boss allocate a new assignment of which part of it you are not sure about a) Tell your boss to retrieve it from you b) Take the assignment and do your best to complete c) As for professional help on the part which you do not know about d) Do the part that you know and learn about the part you do not know and do it 335. Which statement is true? a) Project management is used only for primary projects. b) Project management is replacing the middle management in controlling projects c) Project management is… (a true statement!!!!) d) (b) & (c) 336. What will a change over changes? a) The duration of a project b) The Scope c) The cost of project d) The design of a project e) A & B 337. Which is the authority/organization/person responsible to ensure that the standards, codes,Procedures are being applied a) Committee of professional engineers b) National Fire Prevention Association c) Qatar Civil Defense d) ------338. What is the unit of Strain a) Dimensionless b) N c) m d) mm 339. What does the ratio of stress over strain a) Bulk Modulus b) Poisson's ratio c) Viscosity ratio 340. Interdisciplinary nature of Engineering project is defined The integrates between different disciplines within the project like civil, mechanical. Architect, electrical department in information, data, techniques, tools, concept, .etc. to solve problems whose solutions are beyond the scope of a single discipline. Also, we can call the Interdisciplinary engineer as coordinator engineer. The course of interdisciplinary encourages you to combine (integrate) your knowledge and experience with that of others. Also, it is the interconnections among different departments within the project organization, work with others from different backgrounds and sections to pose and evaluate resolutions to complex problems. It is how to work within a team. The collaboration between all departments within the construction of the project. ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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341. Which one of the following represents an activity a) excavation for foundation b) curing of concrete c) setting of question paper d) preparation of breakfast e) all the above 342. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: a) An activity of a project is denoted by an arrow on the net work b) The tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity c) The head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity d) The arrows are drawn to scale from left to right e) Each activity consumes a given time 343. In the given figure, the network of a project represents a) activity of an excavation of a footing b) activity of an excavation which starts at event No. 1 and ends at even No. 2 c) activity of excavation which takes 8 units of time d) None of these 344. The cost of a project is more than a) one lac b) two lacs c) three lacs d) four lacs e) five lacs 345. Pick up the PERT event from the following: a) Digging of foundation started b) Digging of foundation completed c) Laying of concrete started d) Laying of concrete completed e) All the above 346. If D is the duration, ES and EF are the earliest start and finish, LS and LF are latest start and latest finish time, then the following relation holds good a) EF = ES + D b) LS = LF - D c) LF = LS + D d) D = EF - ES e) all the above 347. Final technical authority of a project lies with a) Assistant Engineer b) Executive Engineer c) Superintending Engineer d) Chief Engineer


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348. The performance of a specific task in CPM, is known a) Dummy b) Event c) Contract d) Activity 349. Pick up the correct statement from the following a) The float may be positive, zero or negative b) If the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal to its total float, the completion of project is not delayed c) If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is bound to delay the completion of project d) If the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay the whole project e) All the above 350. A Milestone chart a) shows the interdependencies of various jobs b) depicts the delay of jobs, if any c) points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any d) None of these 351. Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known a) Event b) Node c) Connector d) All the above 352. A dummy activity a) is artificially introduced b) is represented by a dotted line c) does not consume time d) All the above 353. Military organization is known as a) line organization b) line and staff organization c) functional organization d) None of these 354. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following a) The activity is the time consuming part of a project b) The beginning and end of a job, are called events c) The activity which consumes maximum time, is called a node d) Logically and sequentially connected activities and events form a network e) None of these 355. Various activities of a project, are shown on bar charts by a) vertical lines b) horizontal lines c) dots d) Crosses ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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356. Time and progress chart of a construction, is also known as a) Bar chart b) Gantt chart c) Modified Mile stone chart d) Critical path method chart e) All the above 357. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer a) to concentrate his attention on critical activities b) to divert the resources from non-critical advanced activities to critical activities c) to be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to avoid delay of the whole project d) All the above 358. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of succeeding activities, is known as a) duration b) total flat c) free float d) Interfering float 359. The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started unless the preceding activity is complete, is known as a) event b) free float c) dummy d) constant 360. Henry Gantt developed Bar charts for planning and scheduling of projects in a) 1800 b) 1900 c) 1920 d) 1940 e) 1950 361. The most popular type of organization used for Civil Engineering Constructions, is a) line organization b) line and staff organization c) Functional organization d) Effective organization 362. The difference between the time avail-to do a job and the time required to do the job, is known as a) Event b) Float c) Duration d) Constraint


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363. The object of technical planning, is a) preparation of specifications b) preparation of estimates c) initiating the procurement action of resources d) taking remedial action for likely bottleneck in the execution e) All the above 364. The salient feature of functional organization is a) strict adherence to specifications b) separation of planning and design part c) each individual maintains functional efficiency d) work is properly planned and distributed e) All the above 365. Critical path method a) is an improvement upon bar chart method b) provides a realistic approach to daily problems c) avoids delays which are very common in bar charts d) was invented by Morgan R. Walker of Dupot and James E. Kalley or Remington U.S.A. in 1957 e) All the above 366. CPM is a) synthesizing in concepts b) is built of activities oriented program c) is based on time estimate d) is used for repetitive works e) All the above 367. Critical path lies along the activities having total float a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Same 368. Construction team means a) an engineer b) an architect c) an owner d) a contractor e) all the above


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369. Pick up the correct network for the activities of pouring concrete, erection of form work, removal of form work and curing of concrete from the following: a) 1. Pouring of Concrete 2. Erection of form work 3. Curing of concrete 4. Removal of form work b) 1. Erection of form work 2. Pouring of concrete 3. Curing of concrete 4. Removal of form work c) 1. Removal of form work 2. Erection of form work 3. Pouring of concrete 4. Curing of concrete d) 1. Pouring of concrete 2. Curing of concrete 3. Erection of form work 4. Removal of form work 370. A construction schedule is prepared after collecting a) number of operations b) output of labor c) output of machinery d) quantity of various items e) All the above 371. Site order book is used for recording a) instructions by the executive engineers b) construction measurements c) issue of store equipment’s d) Names of the casual labor 372. An Executive Engineer may have powers up to a) Rs. 25,000 b) Rs. 50,000 c) Rs. 100,000 d) Rs. 200,000 e) Rs. 500,000 373. The main principle of an organization, is a) unity of command b) coherency c) effective control at all levels d) delegation of authority e) All the above 374. The estimated time required to perform an activity, is known as a) Event b) Dummy c) Duration d) Float


Civil Engineering

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375. A CPM family includes a) CPA (Critical Path Analysis) b) CPP (Critical Path Plotted) c) MCE (Minimum Cost Expenditure) d) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling) e) All the above 376. The time which results in the least, possible construction cost of an activity, is known a) normal time b) slow time c) crash time d) Standard time 377. If the total float and duration of an activity are 5 and 10 days respectively, the particular activity can be a) started 5 days later b) completed 5 days later c) performed at slower rate in 15 days d) All the above 378. Works costing less than Rs. 20,000 are treated as a) projects b) major projects c) minor projects d) All the above 379. A critical ratio scheduling a) establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a common basis b) determines the status of each activity c) adjusts automatically changes in activity progress d) is a dynamic system e) None of these 380. Bar charts are suitable for a) minor works b) major works c) large projects d) All the Above 381. The first method invented for planning projects, was a) Bar chart method b) Milestone chart c) Critical path method (CPM) d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) 382. If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack(s), is equal to a) LST-EST b) LFT-EFT c) TL-EFT d) All the above


Civil Engineering

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383. The Overall in-charge of an organization at the site responsible for the execution of the works, is a) Executive Engineer b) Engineer c) Junior Engineer d) Sub overseer e) Assistant Engineer 384. Modular co-ordination of construction means proper a) planning b) designing c) execution d) All the above 385. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) CPM analysis is activity oriented b) PERT analysis is event oriented c) CPM does not make any allowance for the uncertainties in the duration of time d) In CPM, the time is related to cost e) All the above 386. If t is the duration of an activity, t1 is the latest finish possible moment of its preceding activity and t2 is the earliest start possible moment, the independent float of the activity is a) (t1 - t2) - t b) t - (t1 - t2) c) (t1 + t2) - t d) t + (t1 - t2) 387. Pick up the correct statement from the following a) Earliest expected time is denoted by TE b) Latest occurrence time is denoted by TL c) Contractual obligation time is denoted by Ts d) Latest occurrence time is taken as contractual obligation time e) All the above 388. For the supply of materials for concrete, form work reinforcing and placing of concrete, removal of form work and curing of concrete, number of bar(s) required on bar chart, is a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 389. For the execution of a project, a contractor is a) a person b) a firm c) an agency d) All the above


Civil Engineering

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390. Railway projects are treated as a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) None of these 391. Pick up the correct statement from the following a) Optimistic time estimate refers to activities b) Pessimistic time estimate refers to activities c) Most likely time estimate refers to activities d) Expected time estimate refers to activities e) All the above 392. The critical activity has a) maximum float b) minimum float c) zero float d) None of these 393. The main disadvantage of line organization, is a) rigid structure b) extraordinary delay in communications c) top level executions over work d) All the above 394. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) The difference of latest occurrence time and earliest expected time, is called slack b) The activities connecting the events having zero slack, lie on the critical path c) The critical path consumes the maximum time d) All the above 395. Pre-tender stage requires a) acquisition of land b) selection of site c) fmalisation of alignment of work d) fmalisation of designs and preparation of estimate e) All the above 396. The final selection of a construction site, is done by a) departmental representative or user b) local civil authority representative c) representative of engineer authority d) representative of administration e) All the above


Civil Engineering

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397. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) The duration between the earliest start time of the preceding event and latest finish time of the succeeding event, is called 'float' b) The duration of time by which an activity can be delayed without affecting the succeeding activity, is called free float c) The float which affects neither the processor nor the successor activities, is called independent float d) The difference between total float and free float, is called interfering float e) All the above 398. The first stage of a construction, is a) preparation of estimate b) survey of the site c) initiation of proposal d) preparation of tender e) Allotment of funds 399. PERT is a) an analytic in concept b) limited of event oriented diagrams c) used for research and development projects d) based on three time estimates for activities linking up two events e) All the above 400. Residential buildings are treated as a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) Private construction 401. The main advantage of line organization, is a) effective command and control b) defined responsibilities at all levels c) rigid discipline in the organization d) ability of quick decision at all levels e) All the above 402. PERT analysis is based on a) optimistic time b) pessimistic time c) most likely time d) All the above 403. For completion of a project, the critical path of the network represents a) minimum time b) maximum time c) maximum cost d) Minimum cost


Civil Engineering

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404. In CPM analysis a) emphasis is given to activities b) uncertainties are not allowed c) activities are represented by arrows d) beginning and end of an activity, are denoted by nodes e) All the above 405. A golden rule for the procurement of construction stones, suggests a) 100% at the site b) 67% at the site and 33% under procurement c) 50% at the site and 50% under procurement d) 33% at the site and 67% under procurement e) None of these 406. Power stations are generally treated as a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) Electrical construction 407. An event is indicated on the network by a number enclosed in a) a circle b) a square c) a triangle d) an ellipse e) All the above 408. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following a) The difference between the earliest start time and latest finish time of any activity, is the maximum time available for the activity b) The difference between the maximum time available for the job and actual time it consumes, is called total float c) The difference between the latest start time and earliest start time of an activity, is called total float d) The difference between the earliest finish time of an activity and the earliest start time of its successor activity, is called free float of the activity e) None of these 409. While scheduling a project by C.P.M. a) a project is divided into various activities b) required time for each activity is established c) sequence of various activities is made according to their importance d) network is drawn by connecting the activities and the events e) All the above


Civil Engineering

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410. Pick up the correct statement from the following with regards to C.P.M. network analysis of projects a) Earliest occurrence time of the event from which the activity arrow' originates, is called earliest start time of the activity b) Earliest occurrence time of the event from which the activity arrow originates plus the duration of the activity, is called earliest finish time of the activity c) The latest occurrence time of the node of which the activity arrow terminates minus the duration of the activity, is called latest start time d) The latest occurrence time for the node at which the activity arrow terminates, is called latest finish time e) All the above 411. Pick up the correct statement from the following a) Forward pass is used for calculating earliest expected time b) Backward pass is used for calculating the latest occurence time c) Maximum value of earliest expected time is used if there are more than one value of any event d) Minimum value of latest occurrence time is used if there are more than one value of any event e) All the above 412. Which one of the following represents an event? a) concrete cured b) fixing of door c) plastering of walls d) selecting sites e) All the above 413. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: a) The various functions under each activity, are shown by one bar on Bar Charts b) Bar chart establishes the interdependency of one event on another c) Only approximate percentage of the completed work is reported d) None of these 414. For the network shown in the given figure, the expected time for the activity a) 1-2 is 4 b) 2-3 is 7 c) 3-4 is 8 d) All the above 415. Frequency distribution curves a) having a single lump, are called Uniondale curves b) if symmetrical, are called normal curves c) if not symmetrical, are called skew curves d) All the above 416. Pick up the correct statement from the following: a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique, is event oriented b) Program Evaluation and Review Technique is not event oriented c) Critical Path Method is event oriented d) Critical Path method is event oriented


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417. The three time estimates for the activities of the network shown in the given figure are shown above their arrows. The earliest expected time for the event 4, is a) 19 b) 14 c) 24 d) None of these = 4+7+8 = 19 418. Optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic times for the activities of a network in the given figure are written above their arrows. If the contractual obligation time for the project is 75, the latest occurrence time for the event 2, is a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30 =75-35-15 = 25 419. While filling the tender for any work, the contractor considers a) site survey b) availability of construction materials c) availability of labor d) study of specifications e) All the above 420. Which type of light energy is effectively absorbed by CO2 in the lower boundary of the troposphere a) X-Rays b) UV- Rays c) Visible light d) Infrared Rays 421. The following steps are involved in laying a sewer in a trench: 1. transferring the center line of the sewer to the bottom trench. 2. Setting sight rails over the trench. 3. Driving pegs to the level of the invert line of the sewer. 4. Placing the sewer of these steps is The correct sequence of these steps is a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2, 3, 4, 1 c) 4, 2, 3, 1 d) 2, 3, 1, 4 422. A horizontal rod AB carries three loads of 3.0 kg, 7.0 kg and 10.0 kg at distances of 2.0 cm, 9.0 cm and 15 cm respectively from A where it is hinged. Neglecting the weight of the rod, which is the point at which the rod will be balance? a) 10.95 cm form A b) 11.25 cm from A c) 12.55 cm from A d) 13.25 cm form A = (2-x)*3 + (9-x)*7 + (15-x)*10 = 0, Therefore; 219 = 20x Therefore; x=10.95 cm ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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423. Distemper is used to coat a) external concrete surfaces b) interior surfaces not exposed to weather c) woodwork d) compound walls 424. Two simply supported beams B1 and B2 have spans l and 2l respectively. Beam B1has a cross-section of 1 x 1 units and beam B2 has a cross-section of 2 x 2 units. These beams are subjected to concentrated loads W each at the center of their spans. The ratio of the maximum flexural stress in these beams is a) 4 b) 2 c) 1/2 d) 1/4 425. A soil has a liquid limit of 45% and lies above the A-line when plotted on a plasticity chart. The group, symbol of the soil as per Soil Classification is a) CH b) CI c) CL d) ML 426. A high efficiency pump is required for low discharge, high head and low maintenance cost. Delivery of water need not be continuous. The pump need not run at high speed. Which one of the following is the correct choice? a) Centrifugal pump b) Reciprocating pump c) Air lift pump d) Hydraulic ram 427. For total reaction time of 2.5 seconds, coefficient of friction 0.35, design speed 80 km/h, what is the stopping sight distance on a highway? a) 127 m b) 132 m c) 76 m d) 56 m SSD= 0.278 * 80 * 2.5 +

= 55.6+71.991=127.59 m

428. What is the use of a station pointer? a) For making soundings in water bodies b) For plotting of soundings in harbor area c) For marking sunken shipping hazards d) For making tidal observations


Civil Engineering

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429. The plastic modulus of a section is 5 x 10-4m3. Its shape factor is 1.2 and the plastic moment capacity is 120 KN.m. What is the value of the yield stress of the material? a) 100 N/mm2 b) 200 N/mm2 c) 240 N/mm2 d) 288 N/mm2 = 12000/5 = 240 430. According to ICAO recommendations, what is the rate of elevation correction for the runway above MSL? a) 1 % for every 100 m of elevation above MSL b) 7 % for every 300 m of elevation above MSL c) 2 % for every 500 m of elevation above MSL d) 2 % for every 300 m of elevation above MSL

431. The absolute maximum Bending Moment in a simply supported beam of span 20 m due to moving udl of 4 t/m spanning over 5 m is a) 87.5 t-m at the support b) 87.5 t-m near the midpoint c) 3.5 t-m at the midpoint d) 87.5 t-m at the midpoint 432. The following steps are involved in making a spigot and socket joint of cast iron pipes used in water supply systems: 1. Tarred gasket or hemp yarn in wrapped around the spigot. 2. The spigot end is centered into the socket end of the preceding pipe. 3. A joining ring end is placed around the barrel and against the face of the socket. 4. The gasket or hemp yarn in caulked slightly. 5. Molten pig lead is poured and then caulked. The correct sequence of these steps is a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5 b) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5 c) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 433. Consider the following statements: A: In masonry, bricks are joined together by cement mortar. B : Cement mortar adheres more effectively to brick surface than any other material a) both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true 434. In the force system shown in the figure, the force CA should be a) 5 t b) 5 t c) 4 t d) - 4 t


Civil Engineering

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435. A cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate of 100 cm diameter is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 10 kg/cm2. If the material yields at 2000 kg/cm2, assuming factor of safety as four and using maximum principal stress theory, thickness of the plate will be a) 5 mm b) 10 mm c) 15 mm d) 20 mm Stress=((P*D)/(2*t) )*4 , 2000 = (10*100*2)/( t) , t= 1cm = 10mm 436. A plot of land 60°m x 20 m is measure steel tape. If the standard error of length width measurements is taken as ± 1 cm, the standard error of the area of the plot be a) ± 0.1414 m2 b) ± 0.566 m2 c) ± 0.632 m2 d) ± 0.8484 m2 437. The graphical condition for equilibrium of concurrent forces is that a) both the force polygon and the funicular polygon must be closed figures b) funicular polygon should be a closed figure c) force polygon need not be a closed figure d) force polygon should be a closed figure 438. In a tilted aerial photograph, if the swing is 230°, then the rotation angle is equal to a) 25° b) 50° c) 140° d) 130° 439. Cold drawn seamless steel tubing subject to internal pressure has a diameter of 6 cm and wall thickness of 0.2 cm. The ultimate strength of steel is 3600 kg/cm2. The bursting pressure (in kg/cm2) is a) 120 b) 240 c) 480 d) 960 Stress = (P*d)/(2*t) 3600= (P*6)/(2*0.2) 440. Which of the following factors are associated with the behavior of sand mass during earthquake to cause liquefaction? 1. Number of stress cycles 2. The frequency, and amplitude of vibration of waves generated by an earthquake 3. Characteristics of sand 4. Relative density Select the correct answer using the codes given below : a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 3 and 4


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441. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform cross-section produced under its own weight to the elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is a) 2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 1/4 442. The figure refers to a channel section of uniform thickness of 1 cm used as a beam with the cross-sectional dimensions shown in cm units. If the Moment of Inertia of channel Ixx be equal to 246 cm4 and C be the shear center, then the value of e in cm is equal to a) b) c) d)

1.5 2.5 2.25 1.67

443. The shear force diagram of a beam is given figure. The absolute maximum moment in the beam is a) (2P x a) b) (5P x a) c) (4P x a) d) (7P x a)

shown in the bending

444. A locomotive has four pairs of driving wheels carrying an axle load of 24 x 104 N. The maximum load that can be pulled if the coefficient of friction is 1/6, is a) 32 x 104 N b) 16 x 104 N c) 8 x 104 N d) 4 x 104 N =24 * 1/6 = (4 x 104 N) * 4pairs = 16 x 104 N 445. A bar of circular cross-section of diameter D is subjected to a torque T at B as in the figure given. What is the angle of twist a) Same as that at B b) Zero c) Twice as that at B d) Half as that at B


Civil Engineering

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446. Consider the following statements regarding Plane Table surveying: 1. it is less accurate than chain surveying. 2. It is not necessary to do accurate centering of plane table for small scale survey. 3. Compass rule may be made use for adjusting the plane table transverse. 4. From the instrument station, resectors are drawn to plot the position of object in the field. Of these statements : a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct 447. A particle of mass 3 kg moving in a straight line decelerates uniformly from a speed of 40 m/s to 20 m/s in a distance of 300 m. Before it comes to rest, it will travel a further distance pf a) 10 m b) 20 m c) 50 m d) 100 m 448. For designing end bearing piles of square cross-section in clays having average unconfined compressive strength of 6 t/m2, the net ultimate bearing capacity may be taken as a) 15 t/m2 b) 18 t/m2 c) 20 t/m2 d) 27 t/m2 449. Consider the following statements: Collision diagram is used to 1. Study accident pattern 2. Eliminate accidents 3. Determine remedial measures 4. make statistical analysis of accidents Of these statements : a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct c) 3 and 4 are correct d) 2 and 4 are correct 450. Consider the following statements: 1. an ascending gradient of 1 in 100 meets an ascending gradient of 1 in 120 to form a Valley curve. 2. A falling gradient of 1 in 25 meets a falling gradient of 1 in 50 to form a summit curve. 3. The length of summit curve is determined on the basis of head light sight distance. Which one of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 2 only


Civil Engineering

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451. The maximum energy stored at elastic limit of a material is called a) resilience b) proof resilience c) modulus of resilience d) bulk resilience 452. Activated sludge is the a) resultant sludge removable from the aeration unit b) sludge settled in the humus tank c) sludge in the secondary tank post-aeration rich in microbial mass d) sludge in the secondary tank post aeration, rich in nutrients 453. What is the effective height of a free-standing masonry wall for the purpose of computing slenderness ratio? a) 0.5 L b) L c) 2.0 L d) 2.5 L 454. To generate 10, 000 hp under a head of 81 m while working at a speed of 500 rpirt, the turbine of choice would be a) Pelton b) Kaplan c) Bulb d) Francis 455. Consider the following statements: Sand in mortar is needed for 1. Decreasing the quantity of cement. 2. Reducing shrinkage. 3. Decreasing the surface area of the binding material. 4. Increasing the strength. which of these statements is correct : a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct 456. The given figure shows gradually varied flow in an open channel with a beak in bed slope. Types of water surface profiles occurring from left to right are a) H2 , S3 b) H2 , S2 c) H2 , M2 d) H3 , M2


Civil Engineering

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457. Consider the following strengths of concrete: 1. Cube strength 2. Cylinder strength 3. Split-tensile strength 4. Modulus of rupture The correct sequence in increasing order of these strengths is a) 3, 4, 2, 1 b) 3, 4, 1, 2 c) 4, 3, 2, 1 d) 4, 3, 1, 2 458. A reinforced concrete slab is 75 mm thick. The maximum size of reinforcement bar that can be used is a) 12 mm diameter b) 10 mm diameter c) 8 mm diameter d) 6 mm diameter 75/8 = 9.375  8 mm choose the next smaller size of steel bar 459. Consider the following methods of preservation of timber: 1. Dipping 2. Brushing or spraying 3. Pressure impregnation The correct sequence in decreasing order of the effectiveness of these methods of preservation is a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 1, 3 c) 3, 1, 2 d) 3, 2, 1 460. Purlins are provided, in industrial buildings, over roof trusses to carry dead loads, live loads and wind loads. As per IS code, what are they assumed to be? a) Simply supported b) Cantilever c) Continuous d) Fixed 461. Ratio of bearing capacity of double Under Reamed (U.R.) pile to that of single U.R. pile is nearly a) 2 b) 1.5 c) 1.2 d) 1.7 462. A soil has a bulk density of 1.80 g/cm3 at water content of 5%. If the void ratio remains constant, then its bulk density for a water content of 10% will be a) 1.88 g/cm3 b) 1.80 g/cm3 c) 1.98 g/cm3 d) 1.70 g/cm3


Civil Engineering

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463. The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 m. The material of the dam has a specific gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam? a) 64 m b) 40 m c) 164 m d) 80 m 464. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined smooth for complete bearing, the axial load is transferred to base slab : a) Fully through fastening b) Fully by direct bearing c) 50 % by direct bearing and 50% through fastening d) 60 % by direct bearing and 40% through fastening 465. Which of the following assumptions are made in the analysis of jet impinging normally on a moving plate? 1. Friction between jet and plate is neglected 2. Flow is steady 3. Momentum of jet is unchanged 4. Plate moves at a constant velocity Choose the correct answer using the codes given below : a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 3 and 4 466. 3000 m long line lying at an elevation of 450 m measures 10 cm on a vertical photograph. The focal length of the camera is 21 cm. The scale of the photograph for the area having an elevation of 1000 m will be a) 1: 27381 b) 1 : 25008 c) 1: 20606 d) 1 : 30421 467. While driving a large number of piles in loose sand a) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the inner piles are driven first and then proceed outwards b) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that the piles near the periphery are driven first and inner piles are driven later c) It is advantageous to follow a sequence of pile driving such that alternately inner and outer piles are driven d) Driving of piles can be done in any random order 468. Surface tension of water when in contact with air is 0.0737 N/m. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a droplet of rain water 1 mm in diameter is nearly equal to a) 0.15 kN/m2 b) 0.20 kN/m2 c) 0.25 kN/m2 d) 0.30 kN/m2 ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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469. The upstream slope of an earth dam under steady seepage condition is a) equipotential line b) phreatic line c) flow-line d) seepage line 470. Consider the following statements: Shrinkage of concrete depends upon the 1. Relative humidity of the atmosphere. 2. Passage of time. 3. applied stress. Which of these statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1alone d) 1, 2 and 3 471. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purpose of 1. Runway orientation. 2. Estimating the runway capacity 3. Geometric design of holding apron. Of these statements : a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 3 are correct d) 1 alone is correct 472. The discharge per meter width at the foot of a spillway is 10 m3/s at a velocity of 20 m/s. A perfect free hydraulic jump will occur at the foot of the spillway when the tail water depth is approximately equal to a) 4.50 m b) 5.00 m c) 5.50 m d) 6.50 m 473. Which one of the following is the appropriate tri-axial test to assess the immediate stability of an unloading problem, such as an excavation of a clay slope? a) UU test b) CU test c) CD test d) Unconsolidated drained test 474. Mild steel flat subjected to a tensile force of 84 tonnes is connected to a gusset plate using rivets. If the forces required to shear a single rivet, to crush the rivet and to tear the plate per pitch length are 5000 kg, 8000 kg and 6000 kg respectively, then the number of rivets required is a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 17


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475. What does the confining pressure used in tri-axial compression tests on an undisturbed soil sample represent? a) The in-situ total normal stress b) The in-situ total lateral stress c) The in-situ effective average principal stress d) The in-situ shear stress 476. The distance between two bench marks is 1000 m. If during leveling, the total error due to collimation, curvature and refraction is found to be + 0.120 m, then the magnitude of the collimation error is a) 0.00527 m b) 0.0527 m c) 0.527 m d) 0.673 m 477. Mercury (density = 13600 kg/m3, σ = 0.49N/mm internal diameter open-ended capillary tube is inserted in the middle of the beaker into the mercury. The meniscus in the tube will be below the external mercury surface by how much distance? a) 4.2 mm b) 5.7 mm c) 6.8 mm d) 7.3 mm 478. Which one of the following is considered to be an advantage of the heading and benching method of tunes construction? a) It is suitable for construction in unstable rocks b) In this method, it is easy to install timber support c) Tunneling can be continuous and the work can be expedited d) In case of excessive water, it is easy to take corrective steps 479. In a close-coiled helical spring subjected to an axial load, other quantities remaining the same, if the wire diameter is doubled, then the stiffness of the spring when compared to the original one, will become a) twice b) four times c) eight times d) sixteen times 480. The plastic section modulus of a rectangular section of width 100 mm and depth 12 mm is a) 1000 mm3 b) 1800 mm3 c) 2400 mm3 d) 3600 mm3


Civil Engineering

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481. Consider the following factors pertaining to flow through soil: 1. Hydraulic gradient 2. Grain size 3. Void ratio 4. Cross-sectional area of the sample. Of these, the factors affecting permeability include a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2, 3 and 4 482. In drawing AOA networks and making time computations, the following processes are involved: 1. Activity listing 2. Work breakdown structure 3. Activity time allotment 4. Consideration of available resources for each activity 5. Activity dependencies 6. Float computations 7. Backward path computation 8. Project duration 9. Forward path computation what is the correct sequence of the processes given above? a) 1, 2, 4, 3, 9, 7, 5, 6, 8 b) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5, 9, 8, 7, 6 c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 9, 5, 7, 8, 6 d) Any sequence can be followed but 6 and 7 will be the last two ones 483. Timber can be made more fire resistant by a) dipping and steeping process b) hot and cold open tank treatment c) charring d) Sir Abel's process 484. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the influence line for the bending moment at one-fourths of the span from left support of a prismatic beam simply supported at ends? a) It is composed of straight lines only b) It is composed of curved lines only c) It is composed of straight and curved line d) It is parabolic


Civil Engineering

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485. Consider the following statements: In an un-dimensional stress system, the principal plane is defined as one on which the 1. Shear stress is zero. 2. Normal stress is zero. 3. Shear stress is maximum 4. Normal stress is maximum Of these statements : a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 4 are correct d) 3 and 4 are correct 486. Which one of the following pairs relating to flumes carrying open channel flow is correctly matched? a) N-modular flume....Flow is unaffected by drowning b) Ventura flume....Standing wave forms at the throat c) Ventura flume....Flow at the throat is at less than critical velocity d) Standing wave flume....Hump is not provided at the throat 487. A cylindrical vessel with a constant plane area of 1 m2 is rotated about its vertical axis such that the liquid inside the vessel is about to spill. If the height of the vessel is 2 m and the height of the parabolic at 1 m, then the volume (in m3) of the liquid in the vessel will be a) 2 b) 1.5 c) 1.0 d) 0.5 488. Consider the following statements with reference to oxidation ponds: 1. they require high initial investments 2. They have low operational cost 3. They are also called stabilization ponds. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1, 2 and 3 489. The length, coefficient of thermal expansion and Young's modulus of bar 'A' are twice that of bar 'B'. If the temperature of both bars is increased by the same amount while preventing any expansion, then the ratio of stress developed in bar A to that in bar B will be a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16


Civil Engineering

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490. A constant angle arch dam when compared to a constant radius arch dam utilizes concrete quantity of about a) 33% b) 43% c) 73% d) 143% 491. In a simply supported wooden beam under uniformly distributed load, a hole has to be made in the breadthwise direction at mid-span to provide a pipeline. From structural strength point of view, it would be advisable to have the hole made at a) the bottom b) the top c) mid-depth d) 1/4 depth either from the top or the bottom 492. The water supply to a house begins with the connection of the service pipe with the municipal water mains. The connections comprises: 1. Stopcock 2. Goose neck 3. Ferrule 4. Water meter The correct statement of these connections is : a) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 3, 1, 2, 4 c) 3, 2, 1, 4 d) 1, 2, 4, 3 493. A point load applied at shear center induces : a) Zero shear force b) Zero bending c) Pure twisting d) Pure bending 494. Cross sections of two beams A (600mm x 200mm) and B (800mm x 60mm) are shown in the given figure. Both the beams have the same material. By how many times is the beam A stronger than the beam B in resisting bending? a) 80 b) 60 c) 50 d) 25 495. Viewing watershed as a system, which one of the following assumptions is made in the unit graph theory? a) Non-linearity b) Both linearity and time variance c) Both time invariance and non-linearity d) Both linearity and time invariance


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496. Following statements certain to the position of Sun when it lies over the First Point of Aries: 1. it’s hour angle is zero. 2. Its right ascension is zero. 3. Its declination is zero. Of these statements : a) 1 and 3 are correct b) 2 and 3 are correct c) 1 and 2 are correct d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 497. The bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of: a) width and depth of footing b) density of soil c) cohesion of soil d) angle of internal friction of soil 498. Budgeting with Bar chart is a tool to find a) total cost of project b) total time along with cost of project c) indirect cost of project d) direct cost of project 499. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed : a) 100 b) 200 c) 145 d) 180 500. The acceleration components of a fluid particle are denoted as 1. Local tangential acceleration. 2. Convective tangential acceleration. 3. Local normal acceleration. 4. Convective normal acceleration. In a curved nozzle fitted to the end of straight pipeline carrying water under variable head, the acceleration component that are present would include a) 1 and 2 b) 3 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 501. In the truss shown in the given figure, the forces in the members AB and BC will be respectively (plus denotes tension) a) zero and zero b) - W/cos 60° and + W tan 60° c) - W/cos 60° and zero d) zero and + W tan 60°


Civil Engineering

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502. Consider the following statements: In the beam shown in the given figure, for all positions of load W (except x = 0) 1. Bending moment is maximum at B 2. Bending moment is maximum under load 3. Deflection is zero at A 4. deflection is zero at B these statements : a) and 3 are correct b) and 4 are correct c) and 4 are correct d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Of

503. In a three-layered soil, water flows parallel to stratification. The thickness of the middle layer is twice that of top and bottom layer. The coefficient of permeability of middle layer (2K) is twice that of top and bottom layer (K). What is the average coefficient of permeability for this flow? a) K b) 1.33 K c) 1.5 K d) 0.66 K 504. Which type of brick masonry bond is provided for heavy loads on masonry? a) English bond b) Zigzag bond c) Single Flemish bond d) Double Flemish bond 505. In the set up shown in the above figure, assuming the specific weight of water as 10, 000 N/m3, the pressure difference between the points A and B will be a) 10 N/m2 b) -10 N/m2 c) 20 N/m2 d) -20 N/m2 506. The ratio of the "standard error of a single observation of unit weight" to the standard error of the arithmetic mean of 'n' observation all of unit weight, will be a) (1/n) b) n2 c) 3n d) n 507. If the azimuths of the two tangents to a circular curve of radius 100 m are due north and due east, then the area bounded by the two tangents and the circular curve will be a) 7857 sq. m b) 5000 sq. m c) 3143 sq. m d) 2143 sq. m


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


508. In the truss shown. If the temperature of member B-C changed by 100 F0. The displacement of point E is equal to: a) 3.52 mm b) 9.83 mm c) 8.3 mm d) None of the above

509. Calculate the deflection a point A: a) 9.75P/EA b) 21P/EA c) 42P/EA = (P*L3)/3EA = (64 P)/ 3EA = 21P/EA

510. What proctor test used for? To obtain maximum dry density (MDD) for backfilling material 511. One of the following is not acceptable reason of delay or non-performance of the work: a) Frustration of an object (‫)اإلحباط‬ b) Death of party c) Destruction of deliverable d) Strike of labors 512. Lowest level in WBS: a) Work package b) Deliverable c) Element 513. Fiber saturation happens when: No free water in cells, but walls are filled with bound water 514. Main cause to reduce concrete durability? a) Corrosion of reinforcement b) Sulfate and ground water c) Fire d) All of the above 515. The diagram represents: a) Shear b) Moment c) Deflection d) Slope


Civil Engineering

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516. Archimedes principle for buoyancy is based on: a) Area b) Moment of inertia c) Intensity of water d) Weight 517. Load carrying & deflection design is known for: a) Euler-Bernoulli b) Galileo Galilee c) Xxxxx d) Xxxxx 518. Calculate the value of deflection @ B: a) 110 P/EA b) 210 P/EA c) 310 P/EA d) Zero 519. Richter scale used to measure: Seismic energy 520. Using concordant cables in pre-stressed concrete for beams : a) Initial support for member b) No initial support for member c) Cracks of beam d) Deflection of beam 521. One of the following is not part of the project life cycle: a) Object b) Planning c) Execution d) Deliverable closure 522. The following is very critical to structure: a) Settlement b) Differential settlement c) Settlement rate d) None of the above 523. Plastic behavior of concrete: a) Shrinkage cracks b) Settlement c) A & B d) None of the above 524. Factors affecting bearing capacity while design of foundation: a) Shear b) Specific weight of soil c) Dimensions of foundation d) All of above


Civil Engineering

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525. Cause of corrosion a) Availability of water & moisture b) Small cover of concrete c) A & B d) None of the above 526. If $ 1000000 deposited, what will be the total amount after 5 years accumulated on monthly basis with annual rate of return of 9% a) $1565681 b) $1538623 c) $1546742 d) $1900000 (P) = $1000000 (i) = 0.09/12 = 0.0075 )monthly (n) = 5*12 = 60 months F = P(1+i)n = 1000000(1+0.0075)60 = $1565681 527. Calculate the discharge for the channel below, where: channel is 2m wide & velocity u is given as a functional channel depth (u = y1/3) Channel depth (y) = (sin 600)* 1 = 0.866 m A = channel width * channel depth = 2*((Sin 600)*1) = 1.732 m2 Q = A*u = 1.732 * (sin 600 * 1 )1/3 = 1.651 m3/sec 528. Why a concrete beam is designed as doubly reinforced beam? a) High bending moment b) Limitation of beam depth c) Xxxxx d) Xxxxx 529. While lifting a precast slab, where the highest shear may happen At edges (slab ends) 530. Which type of rollers to be used for sand compaction? a) Roller with vibrator b) Roller without vibrator 531. Land to be surveyed, which method to be used? a) Vertical b) Horizontal c) Geodesic 532. Required CPI value for a project is 1.02, where actual value is 0.95, what does this indicates? Actual cost performance indicator (CPI) is less than planned, which means that project actual cost is more than budgeted cost due to miss-use of project resources 533. What is the cement type used for concrete exposed to soil? Type II : Moderate Sulphate resistance 534. What effects on suspension system in hungers? Tension ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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535. What is the slope of sedimental tank: a) 1:20 b) 1:40 c) 1:60 d) 1:80 536. What is a sedimentation rock? a) Granite b) Marble c) Sand rock d) Clay 537. What effects on QSAS? a) Environmental b) Social c) Cost d) Time 538. Calculate the rotation at member AB: a) 0.0378 deg b) 0.02601 rad c) 0.00046 rad d) Zero 539. Station PI=18+259.025, T=90m, calculate station PC PC=PI – T = 18259.025-90 = 18169.025 = 18+169.025 PC = PI – T PT = PI + T 540. The ultimate compression capacity of a pile in clay is given by Qs=9ApC+αC(πDL), where C= cohesion, Ap=cross-sectional area at the pile top, α = skin friction, D=pile diameter & L=pile length C=60KN/m3 , α = 0.7 , D=0.4m a) 595 KN b) 651 KN c) 528 KN d) 461 KN Ap = (π * D2 ) / 4 Qs= (9*(π * 0.42/4)*60)+(0.7*60+(π*0.4*10)) = 595 KN 541. In automobile factory, who is the right person to take decision a) Electrical engineer b) Mechanical engineer c) Petroleum engineer d) Super-intended foreman 542. Kilo watt-hour is unit for: Electrical energy 543. Line connecting the same elevation on the drawing known as: a) Super elevation b) Grade line c) Contour line ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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544. What is the reaction in ceiling fan a) Bending moment b) Shear c) Tension d) Compression 545. CPM used for : a) Find out the duration of the project b) Relation between the time & activity 546. One of the following is not characteristics of the project a) Design b) Complex activities c) Internal use d) Never done before 547. What is the last component added in process of making OPC concrete? a) Silica b) Calcium Sulphate c) Aggregates d) Cement 548. Compaction equipment can be used for sand or clay material as following, a) Roller for sand & clay b) Foot-shape for sand & clay c) Foot-shape for sand d) Roller for sand 549. This question is regarding the deflection of car speed 60mile/hr when it reach the roundabout: a) 150 ft b) 300 ft c) 480 ft d) 500 ft 550. This question about the method for in-situ test of rock? a) Coring b) Textile 551. Calculate the deflection at B: a) 72 mm b) 666 mm c) 6.66 mm d) 85 mm 552. 2-way slab sides lifting caused by? a) High punching shear b) Torsion c) Unbalanced moment d) Resulting moment e) Resulting shear


Civil Engineering

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553. Top of WBS: a) The project b) Deliverables c) Work package d) None of the above 554. High W/C ratio leads to: a) Reduce strength b) Better workability c) Increase strength d) None of the above 555. Air – entrained admixture used in concrete to: a) Increase workability b) Increase durability c) Eliminates segregation d) Reduce density of concrete 556. Timber important factor to be used as a beam member: a) Strength b) Hard to bend c) Smooth surface 557. Clayish a) Good for usage in road b) Bad for usage in road c) Used in road d) None of the above 558. What is the steel strength which used for reinforced concrete? a) 100 N/mm2 b) 200 N/mm2 c) 300 N/mm2 d) 500 N/mm2 559. If there is a short measuring tape, what is the error with the results? Cumulative error 560. If there is a project in the tender stage and the planned CPI>1, but the actual value of CPI <1 in the final stage , what this means: a) The project resources are utilized with bad efficiency b) The project resources are utilized with good efficiency c) The project team for the work remaining can be stringent d) The project team for the work remaining can be lenient 561. What is the meaning of the pert analysis? a) Project management schedule that provide the project actual time b) Project management tools that provide a graphical representation of a project time line c) Project management team that provide the project floats d) Project management tools that provide the actual value of the activities ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


562. The standard deviation is factor of: a) The pessimistic estimate value b) An optimistic estimate value c) Most likely estimate value d) 1 & 2 e) None of the above 563. What is the maximum allowable tensile stress in the wooden building? a) 100 MPa b) 40 MPa c) 25 N/mm2 d) 60 N/mm2 e) None of the above Between 25  60 N/mm2 564. The steel reinforcement in the concrete is very important in: a) Maximum positive bending moment b) Zero value of bending moment c) Maximum tension stress d) Max compression stress e) 1 & 3 of the above 565. What is the type of cement used in sub-structure reinforcement concrete? a) WPC b) OPC c) SRC d) PFA 566. What is the type of cement used in sub-structure binding concrete? a) WPC b) OPC c) SRC d) PFA 567. What is the minimum thickness in blinding concrete in sub-structure concrete? a) 100 mm b) 50 mm c) 75 mm d) 125 mm 568. What is the maximum live load have to be concerned in the design stage: a) Residential building b) Commercial building c) High raise building d) None of the above


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


569. Consider the following statements: A critical activity in a CBM network has 1. The longest duration of all activities 2. Zero total float 3. Zero for float 4. The shortest duration of all activities which one of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4 570. The modules of elasticity (E) of concrete is given by a) E = 1000 fck b) E = 57000 fck c) E = 5700 fck d) E = 10, 000 fck 571. In the design of two-way slab restrained at all edges, torsional reinforcement required is : a) 0.75 times the area of steel provided at Mmidspan in the same direction b) 0.375 times the area of steel provided at Mmidspan in the same direction 572. The rate of an item of work depends on a) Specifications of works b) Specifications of materials c) Proportion of mortar d) Method of construction e) All the above. 573. Two bars AO and BO are of uniform area 'A' each and are hinged at O as shown in the given figure. A load W is applied at O. The vertical deflection of O will be a) WL/AE b) WL/2AE c) W2L/AE 574. Consider the following statements: The effect of sea water on hardened concrete is to 1. Increase its strength 2. Reduce its strength  3. Retard setting 4. Decrease its durability. Of these statements : a) 1 & 3 are correct b) 2 & 3 are correct c) 2 & 4 are correct


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


575. Consider the following statements: A: For beams, I-sections are more economical than rectangular section. R: Most of the material is concentrated away from the centroid. Of these statements : a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct EXPLATION of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A c) A is try but R is false d) A is false but R is true 576. General shrinkage in cement concrete is caused by a) carbonation b) stresses due to external load c) drying the starting with a stiff consistency d) D-drying starting with a wetter consistency 577. Laterite is a/an a) volcanic rock b) argillaceous rock c) calcareous rock 578. A dumpy level was set up at mid-point between pegs A and B, 80 m apart and the staff reading were 1.32 and 1.56. When the level was set up at a point 10 m from A on BA produced, the staff readings obtained at A and B were 1.11 and 1.39. The correct staff reading from this set up at S should be a) 1.435 b) 1.345 c) 1.425 d) None of these =(

)= 1.345

579. Theoretical oxygen demand (TOD) O2 required to completely oxidize a chemical substance to CO2 & H2O 580. Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) O2 consumed by a substance test using microorganisms for oxidation 581. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) Standard test using chemical oxidants 582. Nutrients Phosphorous is typically the limiting nutrient in lakes, and algae growth is linked to phosphorous inputs 583. Problems of nutrients a) Taste & odor in drinking water b) Can be toxic, especially to farm animals c) Fouling


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


584. P sources a) Fertilizers b) Detergents 585. Pollutants are measured by oxygen demand potential or total organic content a) BOD b) COD c) TOC (total organic carbon) 586. Coagulation: a) Process of adding chemicals and rapid mixing b) Chemical treatment process that destabilizes colloidal particles 587. Flocculation: Process of gently mixing the water and coagulant, allowing the formation of large particles of floc 588. Sedimentation basin (primary treatment) a) Waste water is held in a quiet tank for several hours allowing the particles to settle to the bottom and the greases to float to the top b) The solids drawn off the bottom and skimmed off the top receive further treatment as sludge 589. Water hardness is principally caused by: a) Calcium ions b) Magnesium ions 590. Dis-advantages of hardness: a) Excessive soap consumption during laundering b) Scale-formation in hot water heaters and pipes 591. Filtration a) The final step in removing particles b) Removal of those particles that are too small to be effectively removed during sedimentation 592. Rapid sand filtration: a) As particles are removed, filter become clogged- head loss increases, turbidity increases b) Must back-wash once per day c) Must design to handle flow with one filter out of service 593. How do treatment plants protect our water? a) Remove solids b) Reduce organic matter & pollutants c) Restores oxygen


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


594. Properties of air-entrained concrete: a) Improve freeze-thaw resistance b) Improve resistance to deicers & salts c) Improve Sulphate resistance d) Improve resistance to alkali-silica reactivity e) Reduces the compressive strength of concrete f) Improve workability of fresh concrete 595. Water reducing admixture: a) Used to reduce the quantity of mixing water required to produce concrete of a certain slump b) reduce water cement ratio c) increase slump d) increase workability of fresh concrete without addition of more cement or water e) Achieve high compressive strength without increasing the cement content or reducing the workability of fresh concrete f) Reduce cement content without reducing the strength or workability g) Produce high early strength by using super plasticizers 596. Retarding admixtures: a) Used to reduce the rate of hydration, so that retards the rate of setting of concrete b) To offset the accelerating effect of hot weather on the setting of concrete c) To delay the initial set of concrete or grout when more time is needed to placement & finishing d) To offset the accelerating effect of other admixtures 597. Accelerating admixtures: a) Used to develop early strength of concrete b) To expedite the start of finishing operation and application of insulation for protection c) To reduce the time required for proper curing and protection d) To permit early removal of forms and earlier opening of the construction for service e) To permit more sufficient plugging of leaks against hydraulic pressure 598. Function of aggregates in concrete: a) Economy b) Strength c) Reduction in shrinkage & expansion 599. Flakiness: Describes the relationship between the smallest & largest dimension of the aggregates 600. Soundness & Durability The ability of aggregates to withstand weathering


Civil Engineering

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601. Toughness & abrasion resistance a) The ability of aggregates to resist damaging effect of loads is related to the hardness of aggregates b) LOS Angeles abrasion test evaluates the aggregates toughness & abrasion resistance 602. Gradation: a) Describes the particle size distribution of the aggregates b) Sieve analysis test used to determine gradation of aggregates 603. Finess modulus The same as gradation but used only for fine aggregates 604. Production of concrete: a) Batching of ingredients b) Mixing c) Fresh concrete d) Placing & curing e) Hardened concrete 605. VIP notes: a) The higher the water content, the higher the slump b) Low cement content, produce a harsher mix which is harder to finish c) Increasing cement content, tends to give better cohesiveness’ but higher sickness d) Increasing the maximum size of aggregates, increase the slump e) Higher angularity and roughness, produces stiffer fresh concrete f) Water reducing, air-entraining & fly ash admixtures, increase the slump of fresh concrete 606. Why we make curing? a) To keep concrete moist b) To control the temperature of concrete 607. Segregation: Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar 608. Bleeding: Separation of water from concrete 609. Methods to reduce bleeding: a) Use air entrainment b) Increase the proportion of sand and / or cement in concrete mix c) Use mineral admixtures such as fly ash or ground blast furnace slag 610. Method to reduce segregation: a) Don’t use a mix that is too dry b) Use well graded aggregates c) Use proper placement & compaction techniques


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS

611. Effect of hot weather: a) Increase rate of setting b) Increase possibility of plastic cracking c) Increase loss of moisture during curing d) Difficulties in controlling air-entrained content 612. Creep: A time-dependent deformation that begins immediately but continuous at a decreasing rate for as long as the concrete is loaded 613. Effects of using sea water: a) Strength of concrete may be lower at later ages b) Increase the risk of corrosion of reinforcing steels 614. Types of Portland cement: a) Type (I)  normal b) Type (II)  moderate Sulphate resistance (exposed to soil) c) Type (III)  high early strength d) Type (IV)  low heat of hydration e) Type (V) high Sulphate resistance (sea water) 615. Stopping sight distance: a) In (ft) (

)

b) In metric

( Where:

)

T=2.5 sec

616. Types of intersection: a) Intersection at grade b) Grade separations without ramp c) Interchanges 617. Curves At-Grade intersection: a) Angle of turn b) Turning speed c) Traffic volume d) Design vehicle 618. Minimum road length for one way 15 m ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


619. Level of service a) Is a letter designation that describes a range of operating conditions on a particular type of facility b) LOS (A)best c) LOS (F)worst or system breakdown d) Defined by a single measure of effectiveness (MOE) 620. While designing intersection: a) Speed/travel time b) Density c) Delay 621. Capacity is The maximum sustained 15-min rate of flow (PC/mi/ln) 622. Minimum lane width 12 Ft 623. A systematic process: a) Initiating b) Planning c) Executing d) Controlling e) Closing 624. First thing to do after talking a project: a) Project charter b) Project plan c) WBS d) Risk management e) Communications f) Controlling the project 625. Planning involves 4 main steps: a) Performing WBS b) Identifying proper sequence by which the activities should be executed c) Activities representation d) Estimating the resources, time & cost of each individual activity 626. WBS: A hierarchical structure which is designed to logically subdivide all work elements of the project into a graphical presentation 627. OBS organizational breakdown structure Defines the different responsibility levels and their appropriate reporting 628. Activities are classified into three types: a) Production activities (excavation, formwork, reinforcement, concreting, steel fixing…) b) Procurement activities (concrete procurement, steel reinforcing bar procurement, brick procurement, boiler manufacturing delivery, …) c) Management activities (approvals, vacations, …) ENG. AHMED Al-BARBARY

Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


629. Activity mean completion time

630. Activities completion time varience (

)2

631. The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended as: 30 liters/person/year 632. The PH value of fresh sewage is usually More than 7 633. For poorly graded sub-base, thickness of sub-base is: 30 cm 634. The independent float affects only on: The particular activity involved 635. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting the preceding and succeeding activities Independent float 636. Slump test: a) Reinforced foundation wall & footing  25-75 b) Plain footing  25-75 c) Pavements & slabs  25-75 d) Mass concrete  25-50 e) Beams & reinforcement walls  25-100 f) Columns  25-100

637. In cutting & filling information Balance point : cut quantities equal to fill quantities


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


638. Calculate the total net cut/fill between two points a) Step 1 I. Cut 1 area = AC1 ft2 , fill 1 area = AF1 ft2 II. Cut 2 area = AC2 ft2 , fill 2 area = AF2 ft2 b) Step 2 I. Volume cut = ( ) *100 ft = VC.AVE. II.

Volume fill = (

) * 100 ft = VF.AVE.

c) Step 3 I. II.

Total cut or fill = volume cut – volume fill = …. Ft3)‫(الكبير – الصغير‬ CY (soil) =

639. Total length of valley (

)1/3

where: N= G2-G1 = …% = …% / 100 = … V=….*1000 / 60 / 60 =.... m/sec 640. Maximum perpendicular offset of the transition of curve is: = (R)/2L 641. To get maximum length of offset L=(accuracy*error*scale)/√ =(40*0.05*20)/ √ 642. The maximum size of reinforcement bar that can be used in slab: =thickness of slab / 8  if 9.9 use 8mm 643. Spliced Beam a) Typically resist large bending moments & shear forces 644. In open channel flow, the area equations: a) Rectangle  2y2 b) Triangle  y2 c) Trapezoid  1.73 y2 d) Semi-circle  0.5 π y2


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


645. Ingredients of concrete: a) Cement  reduce bleeding b) Aggregates  reduce shrinkage c) Water  increase slump d) Admixtures  primary ingredients 646. The intersection between WBS & OBS a) Responsibility matrix b) Priority matrix c) Work package or sub deliverable d) Cost account e) Project overlap 647. When earth quake happens what acceleration type happens under building: Peak ground acceleration 648. The road of a one way one road : a) 15 m b) 16 m c) 17 m d) 18 m 649. Loads to be designed in construction a) Dead load , wind load , earthquake load & live load b) Dead load, wind load , earthquake load & live load during construction c) Dead load , wind load , seismic load & live load d) Dead load , wind load , seismic load & live load during construction 650. Shape of moment in simple supported beam: a) Concentrated load  triangular b) Distributed load  parabolic. 651. In the following truss, when the building is subjected to earth quake and joint A is subjected to two forces one is (+10 KN) and the other is (-5 KN) , so what will be the force in member AB a) Always tension b) Always compression c) Sometime tension & sometime compression d) Zero member My answer was (c), since that was the earthquake characteristics & unless that happen no building will fall down due to earthquake loads Since, earthquake subject the building to different forces in different directions


Civil Engineering

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MMUP QUESTIONS


652. How to calculate the stress at a point under any foundation, with depth (z) due to a load (P) a) If rectangular with dimensions (B * L)

b) If circular footing with diameter (D) ( [


) ( )

]

Civil Engineering

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MMUP Final for civil Engineers

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