Chapter 1: Microbiology: Then and Now 1. Who was the first person to see bacterial cells with the microscope? a. Pasteur b. Koch c. Leeuwenhoek d. Hooke 2. What process was studied by Redi and Spaltanzani? a. Spontaneous generation b. Fermentation c. Variolation d. Antisepsis 3. What is the name for the field of study established by Semmelweis and Snow in the mid l800s? a. immunology b. Bacteriology c. Virology d. Cpidcniology 4. The process of___________involved inoculation of dried small pox scabs under the skin. a. vaccination b. antisepsis c. variolation d. immunization 5. The process of controlled heating, called__________ was used to keep wine from spoiling. a. curdling b. fermentation c. pasteurization d. variolation 6. What surgical practice was established by Lister? a. antisepsis b. chemotherapy c. variolation d. sterilization 7. Which one of the following is not a part of Koch‘s postulates?
a. The microorganism must be isolated from a dead animal and pure cultured b. The microorganism and disease can be identified from a mixed culture c. The pure cultured organism is inoculated into a healthy susceptible animal. d. The same microorganism must be present in every case of the disease. 8. Match the lab with the correct set of identified diseases. a. Pasteur: tetanus and tuberculosis b. Koch: anthrax and rabies c. Koch: cholera and tuberculosis d. Pasteur: diphtheria and typhoid 9. What group of microbial agent was identified from the work of Ivanowsky a Beijerinck? a. Viruses b. Fungi c. Protozoa d. Bacteria 10. What microbiological field was established by Winogradsky and Beijerinck? a. Virology b. Microbial ecology c. Bacteriology d. Mycology 11. What group of microorganisms has a variety of internal cell compartments and acts as decomposers? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Archaea d. Fungi 12. Which one of the following organisms was NOT a model organism related the birth of molecular genetics? a. Streptococcus b. Penicillium c. Escherichia d. neurospora 13. Which group of microbial agents is eukaryotic? a. Bacteria
a. The microorganism must be isolated from a dead animal and pure cultured b. The microorganism and disease can be identified from a mixed culture c. The pure cultured organism is inoculated into a healthy susceptible animal. d. The same microorganism must be present in every case of the disease. 8. Match the lab with the correct set of identified diseases. a. Pasteur: tetanus and tuberculosis b. Koch: anthrax and rabies c. Koch: cholera and tuberculosis d. Pasteur: diphtheria and typhoid 9. What group of microbial agent was identified from the work of Ivanowsky a Beijerinck? a. Viruses b. Fungi c. Protozoa d. Bacteria 10. What microbiological field was established by Winogradsky and Beijerinck? a. Virology b. Microbial ecology c. Bacteriology d. Mycology 11. What group of microorganisms has a variety of internal cell compartments and acts as decomposers? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Archaea d. Fungi 12. Which one of the following organisms was NOT a model organism related the birth of molecular genetics? a. Streptococcus b. Penicillium c. Escherichia d. neurospora 13. Which group of microbial agents is eukaryotic? a. Bacteria
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b. Viruses c. Archaea d. Algae The term antibiotic was coined by _________to refer to antimicrobial substances naturally derived from _______. a. Waksman; bacteria and fungi b. Domagk; other living organisms c. Fleming; fungi and bacteria d. Ehrlich; bacteria Which one of the following is NOT considered an emerging infectious disease? a. Polio b. Hantavirus pulmonary disease c. Lyme disease d. AIDS A ________is a mixture of________ that form as a complex community. a. genome;genes b. biofilm; microbes microbes c. biofilm; chemicals chemicals d. miasma; microbes Microbiology includes which of the following groups of microorganisms? a. bacteria b. fungi c. algae d. protozoa e. all the above Which of the following early natural philosophers coined the term cells? a. Lister b. Koch c. Hooke d. Leeuwenhoek Which of the following surgeons stopped a cholera epidemic in London by removing the pump handle of a contaminated pump? pu mp? a. Lister b. Snow c. Koch
d. Pasteur 20. Which early physician used vaccination with the mild cowpox to prevent the deadly smallpox? a. Jenner b. Snow c. Lister d. Semmelweis 21. One of the reasons Koch was able to show the cause of disease was that he could grow them a. in a pure culture b. in an animal host c. in a tissue culture d. in chicken eggs 22. Which of the following scientists came up with the first vaccine for rabies? a. Koch b. Pasteur c. Lister d. Snow 23. Ivanowsky, Beijerinck and Reed all began studies with particles smaller than the filters they were working with. This began the study of _____. a. measles b. viruses c. prions d. bacteria 24. Which classification would include prokaryote cells that live in extreme conditions like hot springs and the Dead sea? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Viruses d. Archaea 25. Which group includes single celled protozoa and algae? a. Bacteria b. Archaea c. Fungi d. Protista
Chapter 2: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life
1. These positively charged particles are found in the atomic nucleus. a. Protons only b. Electrons only c. Protons and neutrons d. Neutrons only 2. Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons are called _______ a. b. c. d.
isotopes ions isomers inert elements
3. If an element has two electrons in the first shell and seven in the second shell, the element is said to be what? a. b. c. d.
Unstable Unreactive Stable Inert
4. For _______ bonding, one or more electrons are transferred between atoms. a. hydrogen b. ionic c. peptide d. covalent 5. The covalent bonding of atoms forms a/an a. b. c. d.
Molecule. Ion. Element. Isomer.
6. The bond is a weak bond that can exist between poles of adjacent molecules.
a. hydrogen b. ionic c. polar covalent d. non polar covalent 7. In what type of chemical reaction are the products of water removed during the formation of covalent bonds? a. b. c. d.
Hydrolysis Ionization Dehydration synthesis Decomposition
8. A _____ dissolves in water. a. b. c. d.
solvent hydrophobic molecule solute non polar molecule
9. The pH scale relates the measure of _______ of a chemical substance. a. ionization b. denaturation c. acidity d. buffering 10. Which one of the following statements about buffers is false? a. b. c. d.
They work inside cells. They consist of a weak acid and weak base. They prevent pH shifts. They enhance chemical reactions.
11. A functional group designated — COOH is known as a/an a. b. c. d.
Carboxyl. Carbonyl. Amino. Hydroxyl.
12. Which one of the following is NOT a polysaccharide? a. Chitin
b. Glycogen c. Cellulose d. Lipid 13. How do the lipids differ from the other organic compounds? a. b. c. d.
They are the largest organic compounds. They are nonpolar compounds. They have no biological role. They are not used for energy storage.
14. Both DNA and RNA are composed of _______ a. polynucleotides b. genes c. polysaccharides d. polypeptides 15. The _______ structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary 16. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Protein - amino acids b. Nucleic acid - nucleotides c. Fats - glycogen d. Starch - glucose 17. A nucleic acid has a "backbone" consisting of _____. a. The nitrogenous bases. b. sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate-... c. N-C-N-C-N-C-N-C-... d. functional groups. 18. Proteins are chains of _____ that sometimes function as _____. a. monosaccharaides; energy compounds b. lipids; structural materials c. amino acids; enzymes
d. disaccharides; enzymes 19. The sum of the mass numbers of the atoms in a molecule equals the ______, which is measured in units called _______. a. b. c. d.
Atomic Number; Milligrams Mass Weight; Micrograms Chemical Weight; Moles Molecular Weight; Daltons
20. An inert element has electron shells that a. b. c. d.
Overlap The Shells Of Other Atoms. Are Completely Filled With Electrons. Yield Hydrogen Ions. Form Covalent Bonds.
21. Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly? a. b. c. d.
Ions - covalent bonds Carbon - organic compounds Glucose - enzyme Thymine - amino acid
22. When sulfuric acid, a strong acid, is added to water, the pH of the solution a. b. c. d.
Goes Up. Remains The Same. Goes Down. Cannot Be Determined.
23. The double helix is a structural arrangement associated with _____. a. b. c. d.
A Polysaccharide. The DNA Molecule. Glucose Molecules In Starch. A Protein.
24. In order to become a/an ______, an atom of chlorine must ______ an electron. a. Ion; Gain
b. Molecule; Lose c. Ion; Lose d. Molecule; Gain 25. Atoms with varying mass numbers are called ________. a. Electrons b. Ions c. Isotopes d. Neutrons 26. The elements with filled electron shells are called _______ a. b. c. d.
Inert Elements. Active Elements. Radioactive Elements. Bonded Electrons.
27. When two or more atoms are linked together the force holding them together is called a _____. a. b. c. d.
charged particle chemical bond. electric attraction. magnetic bond.
28. Equal sharing of electrons is called _____. a. b. c. d.
ionic bonds covalent bonds bonds double bonds triple bonds
29. What is the weak bond holding the nucleic acids together in DNA? a. ionic bonds b. covalent bonds bonds c. polar bond d. hydrogen bond 30. What is the name for a chemical reaction that builds up larger molecules?
a. dehydration synthesis b. hydrolysis c. reactants d. products 31. An ___________ solution which consists of solutes in water, is essential for chemical reactions to occur. a. b. c. d.
hydrophobic aqueous covalent vitreous
32. What prevents extremes of pH in biological systems? a. acid b. bases c. buffers d. neutrons 33. What is needed in order for reactions to occur at body temperatures? a. buffers b. acids c. bases d. enzymes 34. What are the building blocks of proteins? a. b. c. d.
monosaccharaides amino acids fatty acids glycerol
35. Denaturation refers to the loss of the ______ structure of a ______ molecule. a. primary; carbohydrate b. molecular; fat c. secondary; starch d. tertiary; protein
Chapter 3: Concepts and Tools for Studying Microorganisms 1. What is the term that describes the ability of organisms to maintain a stable internal state? a. b. c. d.
Metabolism Homeostasis Biosphere Ecotype
2. Which one of the following is NOT an organizational pattern common to all organisms? a. b. c. d.
Genetic organization Protein synthesis Compartmentation Microcompartments
3. Which one of the following is NOT found in bacterial cells? a. b. c. d.
Ribosomes DNA Mitochondria Cytoplasm
4. Who is considered to be the father of modern taxonomy? a. b. c. d.
Woese Whittaker Haeckel Linnaeus
5. _______ was first used to catalog organisms into one of three domains. a. Photosynthesis b. Ribosomal RNA genes c. Nuclear DNA genes d. Mitochondrial DNA genes 6. Which one of the following is the correct genus name for the bacterial organism that causes syphilis? a. pallidum
b. Treponemo c. pallidum d. T. pallidum 7. Several classes of organisms would be classified into one a. order. b. genus. c. phylum. d. family. 8. An important method used in the rapid identification of a pathogen is a. RNA gene sequencing b. polymerase chain reaction c. molecular taxonomy d. biochemical tests 9. Most bacterial cells are measured using what metric system of length? a. Millimeters (mm) b. Micrometers (µm) c. Nanometers (nm) d. Centimeters (cm) 10. Resolving power is the ability of a microscope to a. b. c. d.
Estimate cell size. Magnify an image. See two close objects as separate. Keep objects in focus.
11. Before bacterial cells are simple stained and observed with the light microscope, they must be a. b. c. d.
Smeared on a slide. Heat fixed. Air dried. All the above (A — C) are correct.
12. If you wanted to study bacterial motility you would most likely use
a. b. c. d.
A transmission electron microscope. A tight microscope with dark-field optics. A scanning electron microscope. A light microscope with phase-contrast optics.
13. If you wanted to study the surface of a bacterial cell, you would use a. b. c. d.
A transmission electron microscope. A light microscope with phase-contrast optics. A scanning electron microscope. A light microscope with dark-field optics.
14. The ability to maintain a relatively stable internal state is called _____. a. b. c. d.
Homeostasis Metabolism Equilibrium Balancing
15. A _____ is a communal association of microbes. a. b. c. d.
Domain Biofilm Division Species
16. Which one of the following is not an organizational property common to all living organisms? a. b. c. d.
Genetic organization Metabolic organization Compartmentation A cell nucleus
17. In eukaryotic microbes, energy metabolism is associated with the _____. a. b. c. d.
Golgi apparatus flagella cytoskeleton mitochondria
18. All of the following are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, except a. b. c. d.
acell (plasma) membrane mitochondria cytoplasm ribosome
19. The second word in a species name is referred to as the _____. a. genus b. order c. specific epithet d. biotype 20. In the three domain system, fungi would belong to the _____. a. Eukarya b. Bacteria c. plants d. Archaea 21. _____ is an example of a differential stain technique. a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Contrast staining d. Gram staining 22. The _____ microscope would be used to view cell structures within ultrathin sections of cells. a. scanning electron b. transmission electron c. bright-field d. dark-field 23: Bacterial cells in biofilms can communicate with each other through a. b. c. d.
osmosis quorum sensing diffusion enzymes
24: How can biofilms can be useful? a. preventing tooth decay b. keeping surgical sites sterile c. bioremediation d. A-C are correct 25: Which of the following statements supports the cell theory? a. b. c. d.
all living things are made of cells all living things have a chromosome in the nucleus all living things have cellular metabolism in the mitochondria A-C are correct
26: Where does protein synthesis take place in all cells? a. b. c. d.
mitochondria cell membranes ribosomes Golgi apparatus
27: Which of the following do some bacterial cells use for motility? a. flagella b. cillia c. fimbriae d. pseudopodia 28: In the 18th century Carl Linnaeus started classifying organisms based a. b. c. d.
Similarities in form DNA RNA Enzymes
29: How many domains do we currently have? a. b. c. d. e.
5 4 3 2 1
30: What is evidence for the endosymbiotic theory? a. Ribosomes are the same size in eukaryotes and prokaryotes b. Organelles like mitochondria and cholorplasts have their own dna and ribosomes c. Flagella are the same in both types of cells d. A-C are correct 31: Place the classification categories in order from large - small. a. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species b. domain, kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species c. genus, species, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain d. phylum, kingdom, domain, family, class, order, genus, species
Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function in the Bacteria and Achaea
1. Which one of the following is NOT a genus within the gram-positive bacteria? a. b. c. d.
Staphylococcus Methanogens Mycoplasma Bacillus and Clostridium
2. The domain Archaea includes all the following groups except the a. b. c. d.
Mycoplasmas. Extreme halophiles. Crenarchaeota. Euryarchaeota.
3. Spherical bacterial cells in chains would be a referred to as a _______ arrangement. a. b. c. d.
Vibrio Streptococcus Staphylococcus Tetrad
4. Intracellular organization in bacterial and archaeal species is centered a. b. c. d.
Compartmentation of metabolism. Growth and reproduction. Sensing and responding to environment. All the above (A — C) are correct.
5. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to Pilli? a. b. c. d.
Pilli are made of protein. Pilli allow for attachment to surfaces. Pilli facilitate nutrient transport. Pilli contain adhesions.
6. Flagella are
a. b. c. d.
Made of carbohydrate and lipid. Found on all bacterial cells. Contain dextran fiber Important for chemo taxis.
7. Capsules are similar to pili because both a. b. c. d.
Contain DNA. Are made of protein. Contain dextran fibers. Permit attachment to surfaces.
8. Gram-negative bacteria would stain_________ with the Gram stain and have _______in the wall. a. orange-red; Teichoic acid b. orange-red; lipopolysaccharide c. purple; peptidoglycan d. purple; Teichoic acid 9. The cell membrane of archaeal cells contains a. b. c. d.
A monolayer. Sterols. Ester linkage All of the above (A — C are correct.)
10. The movement of glucose into a cell occurs by a. b. c. d.
Facilitated diffusion. Active transport. Simple diffusion. Phospholipid exchange.
11. When comparing bacterial and archaeal cell membranes, only bacterial cell membranes a. b. c. d.
Have three layers of phospholipids. Have a phospholipid bilayer. Are fluid. Have ether linkages.
12. Which one of the following statements about the nucleoid is NOT true?
a. b. c. d.
It contains a DNA chromosome. It represents a nonmembranous subcompartment. It represents an area devoid of ribosomes. It contains nonessential genetic information.
13. Plasmids a. b. c. d.
Replicate with the bacterial chromosome. Contain essential growth information. May contain antibiotic resistance genes. Are as large as the bacterial chromosome.
14. Which one of the following is NOT a structure or subcompartment found in bacterial cells? a. b. c. d.
Micro compartments Volutin Ribosomes Mitochondria
15. The bacterial cytoskeleton a. b. c. d.
transport vesicle helps determine cell shape Is organized identical to its eukaryotic counterpart. Centers the nucleoid.
16. The bacterial cell is capable of a. b. c. d.
Spatial separation of metabolic processes. Carrying out complex metabolic processes. Sub compartmentalizing biochemical processes. All the above (A — C) are correct.
17. The Rickettsias are transmitted to humans by _________. a. b. c. d.
arthropods flies mosquitoes viruses
18. The group Firmicutes means _______ skin. a. soft
b. strong c. hard d. rough 19. The phylum Cyanobacteria are unique because they _____. a. convert nitrogen to a useable form b. are poisonous c. photosynthesize d. have a waxy cell wall 20. The phylum Spirochaetes _____. a. b. c. d.
move by a corkscrew pattern cause gonorrhea can photosynthesize A-C are correct
21. Where might extreme halophiles be found? a. b. c. d.
at the bottom of a lake in antartica in the Dead sea in hot springs
22. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 basic shapes of bacteria? a. bacillus b. coccus c. spirillum d. square 23. What is a packet of 8 cocci called? a. b. c. d.
diplococcus tetrad sarcina Staphylococcus
24. What is the function of the cell envelope? a. growth and reproduction b. protection from osmotic pressure
c. sensing and responding to the environment d. acquiring nutrients 25. How can bacteria exchange pieces of DNA? a. mitosis b. budding c. meiosis d. conjugation 26. What is the process called, when cells will move toward attractants and away from danger? a. b. c. d.
run and tumble chemotaxis Brownian movement gliding
Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Nutrition
1. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to bacterial reproduction? a. b. c. d.
A fission ring apparatus is present. Septum formation occurs. A spindle apparatus is used. Symmetrical cell division occurs.
2. If a bacterial cell in a broth tube has a generation time of 40 minutes, how many cells will there be after 6 hours of optimal growth? a. b. c. d.
18 64 128 512
3. A bacterial species generation time would be determined during the phase. a. b. c. d.
decline lag log stationary
4. Which one of the following is NOT an event of sporulation? a. b. c. d.
Symmetrical cell divisions Mother cell disintegration DNA replication Prespore engulfment by the mother cell
5. A microbe that is a microaerophilic mesophile would grow optimally at and a. b. c. d.
high 02; 30°C low 02; 20°C no 02; 30°C low 02; 37°C
6. If the carbon source in a growth medium is beef extract, the medium must be an example of a/an medium. a. b. c. d.
complex chemically defined enriched synthetic
7. A medium would involve the addition of the antibiotic methicillin to identify methicillin-resistant bacteria. a. b. c. d.
differential selective thioglycollate VBNC
8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the streak-plate method? a. b. c. d.
Making four sets of streaks on a plate. Diluting a mixed culture in molten agar. Using a mixed culture. Using a sterilized loop.
9. Direct methods to measure bacterial growth would include all the following except the a. b. c. d.
total bacterial count microscopic count turbidity measurements most probable number
10. Reproduction in bacterial cells occurs by the sequence of events known as _____. a. mitosis b. binary fission c. selfing d. budding 11. Psychrophilic bacteria species grow well at 10 degrees C, while mesophilic bacteria species grow well at _____ degrees C. a. 37 b. 50
c. 75 d. 98 12. During the stationary phase of bacterial growth, the population of living cells is _____ the population of dying cells. a. b. c. d.
greater than smaller than equal to increasing faster than
13. Organisms that practice heterotrophy are able to synthesize their own food from _____. a. b. c. d.
light simple carbon sources carbon monoxide oxygen gas
14. When nutrients are limiting, some bacterial species can form resistant structures called _____. a. b. c. d.
endospores cysts seeds capsules
15: Facultative anaerobes can live with or without _____ gas. a. b. c. d.
carbon dioxide hydrogen nitrogen oxygen
16. Barophiles are prokaryotes that withstand high _____. a. Oxygen concentrations. b. Nitrogen gas concentrations. c. Hydrostatic pressures. d. Salt concentrations. 17. In terms of temperature tolerance, human pathogens tend to be a. Psychrophilic
b. Thermophiles c. Mesophylls d. Hyper thermophiles 18. Prokaryotes that can withstand very high salt concentrations are called ___ a. b. c. d.
Capnophiles Barophiles Halophiles Microaerophiles
19: The inward pinching to the cell envelope en velope in reproduction is called a. b. c. d.
Binary fission Cytokinesis Mitosis Asexual reproduction
20. The interval of time between successive reproductions is called a. b. c. d.
Doubling time Generation time Incubation time Fission time
21. What is the period where there is the least amount a mount of growth in the growth curve? a. b. c. d.
Lag phase Log phase Stationary phase Decline phase
22. Which of the following diseases result from germination of endospores? a. b. c. d.
Pneumonia Strep throat Meningitis Anthrax
23. Which of the following conditions are important for the growth of microbes?
a. Temperature b. Gas c. pH d. Oxygen e. All the above 24. An example of an anaerobe that causes c auses disease in humans is _____. Clostridium a. E.coli b. Salmonella c. Pseudomonas 25. Which kind of organisms will grow best in a candle jar? a. b. c. d.
Aerobes Microaerophiles Anaerobes A-C are correct
26. Which kind of organisms will grow everywhere in a thioglycollate broth? a. b. c. d.
Aerobes Microaerophiles Anaerobes Facultative anaerobes
27. What is a medium that contains ingredients that inhibit the growth of some organisms while allowing the growth of others? a. b. c. d. e.
Differential General purpose Enriched Selective All the above
28. one way to get a pure culture is by using _____. a. b. c. d. e.
Aseptic technique Pour-plate method Streak-plate method A and C B and C
Chapter 6: Metabolism of Microorganisms 1. Enzymes are a. b. b. a.
Inorganic compounds. Destroyed in a reaction. Proteins. Vitamins.
2. Enzymes combine with a ___________at the___________ site to lower the activation energy. a. b. c. d.
Substrate; Active Product; Noncompetitive Product; Active Coenzyme; Active
3. Which one the following is NOT a metabolic pathway? a. b. c. d.
Citric Acid Cycle The Carbon-Fixing Reactions Glycolysis Sucrose Glucose + Fructose
4. If an enzyme‘s active site becomes deformed, inhibition was likely was likely responsible. a. Metabolic b. Competitive c. Noncompetitive Noncompetitive d. Cellular 5. Which one of the following is NOT part of an ATP MOLECULE? a. b. c. d.
Phosphate group Cofactor Ribose Adenine
6. The use of oxygen gas (02) in an exergonic e xergonic pathway generating ATP is called a. Anaerobic Respiration. b. Photosynthesis.
c. Aerobic Respiration. d. Fermentation. 7. Which one of the following is NOT produced during glycolysis? a. ATP b. NADH c. Pyruvate d. Glucose 8. All the following are produced during the citric acid cycle except: a. CO2. b. 02. c. ATP. d. NADH. 9. The electron transport chain is directly involved with a. b. c. d.
ATP Synthesis CO2 Production. + H Pumping Generating Oxygen Gas.
10. Which one of the following macromolecules would NOT normally be used for microbial energy metabolism. a. b. c. d.
DNA Proteins Carbohydrates Fats
11. Anaerobic respiration does NOT a. b. c. d.
Use An Electron Transport System. Use Oxygen Gas (02) Occur In Bacterial Cells. Generate ATP Molecule
12. In fermentation, the conversion of pyruvate into a final end product is critical for the production of a. CO2. b. glucose
c. NAD. d. 02. 13. Which one of the following is correct sequence for the flow of electrons in the energy-fixing reactions of photosynthesis? a. Water — photosystem 1 — photosystem II — NADPH b. Photosystem I — NADPH — water — photosystem II c. Water------ photosystem II------ photosystem I — NADPH d. NADPH — photosystem Il — photosystem I — water 14. Microorganisms that use organic compounds as energy and carbon sources are a. b. c. d.
Chemoheterotrophs. Chemoautotrophs. Photoautotrophs. Photoheterotrophs.
15. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? a. Alcohol-fermentation b. Pyruvate-glycolysis c. Carbon dioxide-glycolysis d. NADH-citric acid cycle 16. The photosynthetic pigments used by the green sulfur bacteria and some archaeal species are a. b. c. d.
Chlorophyll Bacteriochlorophyll Cytochrome Sulfate
17. A key energy compound in bacterial photosynthesis by cyanobacteria is ______ and a major end-product is ______. a. b. c. d.
GTP; protein citrate; lactose glucose; chlorophyll ATP; glucose
18. Which one of the following statements is false about enzymes?
a. All enzyme names end in -ase. b. Some enzymes are made entirely of protein. c. Enzymes lower the amount of activation energy needed for a reaction to take place. d. Enzymes are reusable. 19. A molecule of ATP contains a. b. c. d.
Ribose But No Adenine. Phosphate But No Ribose. Adenine But No Deoxyribose. Deoxyribose But No Thymine.
20. In fermentation reactions occurring in yeast, two products of metabolism are ______ and ______. a. b. c. d.
Acid; Hydrogen Gas Hydrogen Gas; Sucrose Ethyl Alcohol; Methane Carbon Dioxide; Ethyl Alcohol
21. Glucose is to photosynthesis as pyruvate is to _____. a. b. c. d.
Oxidative Phosphorylation Glycolysis Fermentation Citric Acid Cycle
22. Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain the energy they need from a. b. c. d.
The Reactions Of Photosynthesis. Sunlight. Carbon Dioxide In The Atmosphere. Inorganic Chemicals.
23: All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration except: a. Carbonate. b. Oxygen gas. c. Nitrate. d. Sulfate. 24: Anabolism involves the
a. b. c. d.
Synthesis of larger organic compounds. Release of energy. Hydrolysis of organic compounds. Synthesis of organic compounds without enzymes.
25 What is the breakdown of molecules into smaller particles called? a. b. c. d.
Anabolism Catabolism Fantabolism Metabolism
26 A reaction that requires energy to take place is called ______. a. b. c. d.
Endergonic Exergonic Andergonic Catagonic
27 What part of the enzyme forms the enzyme substrate complex? a. b. c. d.
Allosteric Site Active Site Productive Site Alternate Site
28 How do enzymes work? a. b. c. d.
They Lower The Activation Energy They Raise The Activation Energy They Cancel Energy Requirements They Generate ATP
29: Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme? a. Mg b. Fe c. NAD d. Ag
30: What is it called when an enzyme is blocked at its active site so the normal substrate can't bind? a. Competitive Inhibition b. Feedback Inhibition c. Noncompetitive Inhibition d. Pathway Modulation 31: Where is ATP produced in prokaryotic cells? a. b. c. d.
In The Mitochondria In The Chloroplast On The Cell Membrane On The Ribosomes
32. If cells can use oxygen in cellular respiration it is called _____. a. b. c. d.
Anaerobic Respiration Alcoholic Fermentation Acid Fermentation Aerobic Respiration
33: What is the product of glycolysis? a. pyruvate and 2 ATPs b. AcetylCoA and 4 ATPs c. CO2 and H20 and 36 ATPs d. pyruvic acid and 6 ATPs 34: Where is the most ATP produced in cellular respiration? a. b. c. d.
Fermentation Electron Transport Chain Glycolysis Citric Acid Cycle
Chapter 7: Control of Microorganisms: Physical and Chemical Methods
1. All the following terms apply to microbial killing except: a. b. c. d.
Sterilization. Microbicidal. Bactericidal. Fungistatic.
02. The thermal death time is a. The Time To Kill A Microbial Population At A Given Temperature. b. The Time To Kill A Microbial Population In Boiling Water. c. The Temperature To Kill All Pathogens. d. The Minimal Temperature Need To Kill A Microbial Population. 3. At 160°C, it takes about minutes to kilt bacterial spores in a hot-air oven. a. b. c. d.
30 60 90 120
4. An autoclave normally sterilizes material by heating the material to_____°C for minute‘s at__________ psi. a. b. c. d.
100; 10 30 121.5; 15; 15 100; 15; 0 110; 30; 5
5. Air filtration typically uses a filter. a. b. c. d.
HEPA Membrane Sand Diatomaceous Earth
6. For bactericidal activity,__________ has/have the ability to cause thymine dimer formation. a. b. a. b.
X rays B ultraviolet light Gamma Rays Microwaves
7. The elimination of pathogens in foods by irradiation is called a. b. c. d.
The D Value. The Pasteurizing Dose. Incineration. Sterilization.
8. Preservation methods such as salting result in the microbial cells. a. b. c. d.
Loss Of Salt From Gain Of Water Into Loss Of Water From Lysis Of
9. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to antiseptics? a. b. c. d.
They Are Used On Living Objects. They Usually Are Microbicidal. They Should Be Useful As Dilute Solutions. They Can Sanitize Objects.
10. All the following are chemical parameters considered when selecting an antiseptic or disinfectant except: a. b. c. d.
Dehydration. Temperature. Stability. Ph.
11. If a chemical has a phenol coefficient (PC) of 63, it means the chemical a. ‗Is Better Than One With A PC Of 22., b. Will Kill 63P/O Of Bacteria. c. Kills Microbes At 63°C.
d. Will Kill All Bacteria In 63 Minutes. 12. Which one of the following is NOT a halogen? a. b. c. d.
Iodine Mercury Clorox Bleach Chlorine
13. Phenolics include chemical agents a. b. c. d.
Such As The Iodophores. Derived From Carbolic Acid. Used As Tiñctures. Such As Formaldehyde. ,
14 Heavy metals, such as____work by _____ ‗‗ a. b. c. d.
Mercury; Disrupting Membranes Copper; Producing Toxins Iodine; Denaturing Proteins Silver; Binding Protein Molecules Together
15. Alcohols are a. b. c. d.
Surfacants. Heavy Metals. Denaturing Agents. Detergents.
16. All the following statements apply to quats except: a. b. c. d.
They React With Cell Membranes. They Are Positively Charged Molecules. They Are Types Of Soaps. They Can Be Used As Disinfectants.
17. Hdrogen peroxide a. b. c. d.
Is An Effective Sterilant. Cross-Links Proteins And Nucleic Acids. Can Emulsify And Solubilize Pathogens. Is Not Recommended For Use On Open Wounds.
18. Ethylene oxide can be used to
a. b. c. d.
Kill Bacterial Spores. Clean Wounds. Sanitize Work Surfaces. Treat Water Supplies.
19 Which of the following terms best fits the destruction of all living micobes, spores and viruses. a. Sanitization b. Sterilization c. Aseptic Technique d. Pasteurization 20. Which of the following descriptions would tell you all microbes are killed? a. Bacteriostatic b. Fungistatic c. Microbicidal d. Microbistatic 21. What is the thermal death time? a. The Time Necessary To Kill Bacteria At A Specific Temperature b. The Temperature Necessary To Kill Microbes In A Specific Time c. The Average Amount Of Time To Kill Microbial Cells d. It Is The Same As The Thermal Death Point 22. Which of the following describes incineration? a. Flaming The Loop Before Transferring Bacteria b. Burning Medical Waste c. Burning Cattle That Died Of Anthrax d. A-C Are Correct 23 Why is moist heat more versatile than dry heat? a. It More Easily Penetrates Materials. b. Water Molecules Conduct Heat Better Than Air c. It Denatures Proteins By Changing Their Structure And Chemical Bonds d. A-C Are Correct 24 What is the setting for most autoclaves?
a. b. c. d.
o
121 C at 15 psi for 15-30 minutes o 100 C at 10 psi for 10-20 minutes o 110 C at 21 psi for 20-30 min o 150 C at 20 psi for 10-15 minutes
25 What is the advantage of flash pasteurization? a. It Doesn't Get As Hot b. It Is Faster c. It Is Also Used For Solids, Not Just Liquids d. It Also Sterilizes The Liquid 26 When is a HEPA filter used? a. To Filter Bacteria Out Of A Vaccine b. To Trap Particles In The Air c. To Protect Burn Victims d. To Separate Bacteria And Viruses 27: What needs to come into consideration when using UV light to sterilize? a. It Needs Direct Exposure b. It Can Cause Skin Cancer c. It May Not Be Effective Against All Kinds Of Endospores d. A-C Are Correct 28: The process of destroying pathogens on an object is _____. a. Disinfection b. Sanitization c. Sepsis d. Antiseptic 29: When is ionizing radiation used to sterilize? a. To Sterilize Vitamins b. For Preserving Foods c. To Sterilize Hormones d. To Sterilize Antibiotics e. All The Above 30 Which of the following chemicals are halogens used for disinfection?
a. b. c. d.
Phenol Alcohol Detergent Chlorine
31: Which of the following is a common bisphenol in widespread use in antibacterial soaps? a. Chlorhexidine b. Betadine c. Triclosan d. Alcohol 32: What common product acts as a surfactant, poking holes in cell membranes? a. Alcohol Sanitizer b. Soap c. Phenol d. Betadine 33: Which of the following gases were used to decontaminate mail after the anthrax scare? a. Ethylene Oxide b. Chlorine Dioxide c. Carbon Dioxide d. Ozone
Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics 1. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of the bacterial chromosome? a. b. c. d.
It Is Located In The Nucleoid. It Usually Isa Single, Circular Molecule. Some Genes Are Dominant To Others. It Usually Is Haploid.
2. DNA compaction involves a. b. c. d.
A Twisting And Packing Of The DNA. Supercoiling. The Formation Of Looped Domains. All The Above (A — C) Are Correct.
3. Plasmids are a. b. c. d.
Another Name for Transposons. Accessory Genetic Information. Domains within A Chromosome. Daughter Chromosomes.
4. The enzyme adds complementary bases to the DNA template strand during replication. a. b. c. d.
Ligase Helicase DNA polymerase III RNA polymerase
5. At a chromosome replication fork, the lagging strand consists of__ That is joined by___. a. b. c. d.
RNA sequences; DNA ligase Okazaki Fragments; RNA Polymerase RNA sequences; ribosomes Okazaki fragments; DNA ligase
6. In a eukaryotic microbe, those sections of a primary RNA transcript that will NOT be translated are called a. b. c. d.
Introns. Anticodons. ―Jumping Genes.‖ Exons.
7. Which one of the following codons would terminate translation? a. b. c. d.
AUG UUU UAA UGG
8. The translation of a mRNA by multiple ribosomes is called formation. a. b. c. d.
Okazaki Polysome Plasmid Transposon
9. If an antibiotic binds to a 50S subunit, what cellular process will be inhibited? a. b. c. d.
DNA replication Intron excision Translation Transcription
10. Which one of the following is NOT part of an operon? a. b. c. d.
Regulatory gene Operator Promoter Structural genes
11. Being compartmentalized, bacterial RNA polymerases are localized in the and ribosomes are found
a. Nucleoid; At The Nucleoid Periphery b. Cytosol; In The Cytosol c. Cytosol; At The Cell Poles d. Nucleoid; In The Nucleoid 12. Spontaneous mutations could arise from a. b. c. d.
DNA replication errors. Atmospheric Radiation. Addition Of Insertion Sequences. All the above (A — C) are correct.
13. Which one of the following could NOT cause a change in the mRNA ―reading frame‖? a. b. c. d.
Insertion Sequence Base-Pair Substitution Base Addition Base Deletion
14. Excision repair would correct DNA damage caused by a. b. c. d.
Antibiotics. UV Light. A Chemical Mutagen. A Dna Replication Error.
15. Transposable genetic elements (transposons) a. b. c. d.
Were First Discovered By Watson And Crick. Are Smaller Than Insertion Sequences. Are Examples Of Plasmids. May Have Information For Antibiotic Resistance.
16. Nutritional mutants are referred to as a. b. c. d.
Prototrophs. Wild Type. Revertants. Auxotrophs.
17. The Ames test is used to
a. b. c. d.
Identify Potential Human Carcinogens. Discover Auxotrophic Mutants. Find Pathogenic Bacterial Species. Identify Antibiotic Resistant Mutants.
18: Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative? a. b. c. d.
none of the materials are wasted it is a very efficient process half of the new DNA molecule is half of the original molecule none of the above are correct
19 What is the process called of making a mRNA copy of DNA? a. b. c. d.
translation. transcription. transposon transformation
20: What happens at the ribosome in the production of a protein? a. b. c. d. e.
mRNA brings the codon tRNA brings the anticodon the amino acids are linked by polypeptide bonds translation all the above
21: What is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells in making protein? a. b. c. d.
Eukayotes have introns that stay inside the nucleus Prokaryotes can transcribe and translate at the same time the process is faster in prokaryotes A-C are correct
22: Multiple ribosomes working together on one mRNA are called a. polysomes b. multisomes c. polymerases d. A-C are correct 23: In bacteria a group of genes located together and functioning together on a chromosome are called _____.
a. polysome b. operon c. polymerase d. exons 24: An example of an inducible group of genes is the ______. a. ARG operon b. NAC operon c. LAC operon d. SAC operon 25 A heritable change in DNA is called a ______. a. mistake b. mutation c. gene d. pathogen 26: Which of the following are examples of mutagens? a. b. c. d.
detergent UV light fertilizer none of the above are correct
27: Which of the following are examples of repair mechanisms in cells? a. b. c. d. e.
mismatch repair excision repair DNA polymerase DNA ligase all are important in fixing mutations
28. A ______ can move a part of DNA to another place on the chromosome. a. b. c. d. e.
translation. transferon transposon transition transcription
29: The Ames test is an effective procedure for a. b. c. d.
Identifying disease-causing bacterial species. Detecting potential human carcinogens. Determining if DNA replication has occurred. Detecting antibiotic resistance.
30: The bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans has been of interest to molecular biologists because a. b. c. d.
it has the smallest known bacterial genome. it is a "living fossil" linking the Bacteria and Archaea. it has the largest known bacterial genome. it is very resistant to radiation damage.
31: Ribosomes match up the ______ of the mRNA and the ______ of the tRNAs. a. b. c. d.
codons; anticodons introns; exons anticodons; codons genes; anticodons
32: Transposons are of particular significance because they a. b. c. d.
often contain genes for antibiotic resistance. inhibit the effects of overlapping genes. come in pairs and often are associated with viruses. regulate gene transcription in bacterial cells.
33: Which one of the following statements is not true of RNA? a. b. c. d.
RNA contains the monosaccharide ribose. RNA is primarily a single-stranded molecule. RNA has a sugar-phosphate backbone. RNA contains five different nucleotides.
34: A prokaryotic mRNA that consists of 999 nucleotides will code for how many amino acids? a. b. c. d.
332 333 666 999
35: Which one of the following statements is true? a. Plasmids are circular molecules of RNA. b. RNA replicates by a conservative method of replication. c. Deletions or insertions of a nucleotide in a gene will cause a reading frameshift during translation. d. Okazaki fragments are removed from a RNA before translation occurs. 36: Which one of the following is common between prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes? a. b. c. d.
Presence or absence of introns. Loop or linear chromosomes. Genetic recombination occurrence in RNA. Mutations occur in the DNA.
37: In the semiconservative method of replication a. b. c. d.
Both parent strands are degraded. One parent strand is conserved in each of the the new dna. Both parent strands reform with one another. Okazaki fragments form both of the new molecules of DNA.
Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Genetic Engineering, and Genomics
1. Which one of the following is NOT an example of genetic recombination? a. b. c. d.
Conjugation Binary fission Transduction Transformation
2. Transformation refers to a. Using A Virus To Transfer DNA Fragments. b. DNA Fragments Transferred Between Live Donor And Recipient Cells. c. The Formation of an F- Recombinant Cell. d. The Transfer of Naked Fragments of DNA. 3. An F-cell is unable to initiate conjugation because it lacks a. b. c. d.
Double-Stranded DNA. A Prophase. An F Factor. DNA polymerase.
4. An Hfr cell a. b. c. d.
Has A Free F Factor In The Cytoplasm. Has A Chromosomally Integrated F Factor. Contains A Prophage For Conjugation. Cannot Conjugate With A F- Recombinant.
5. A is NOT associated with specialized transduction. a. b. c. d.
Virulent Phage Lysogenic Cycle Prophage Recipient Cell
6. Which complementary sequence would NOT be recognized by a restriction endonucLease?
a. b. c. d.
GAATTC CTTAAG AAGCTT TTCGAA GTCGAC CAGCTG AATTCCTTAAGG
7. A seals sticky ends of recombinant DNA segments. a. DNA Ligase b. restriction endonuclease c. protease d. RNA polymerase 8. are single-stranded DNA molecules that can recognize and bind to a distinctive nucLeotide sequence of a pathogen. a. b. c. d.
Prophages Plasmids Cloning vectors DNA probes
9. The first completely sequenced genome from a free-living organism was from a. b. c. d.
Humans. E. coil. Haemophiius. Bordeteila.
10. What percentage of the human genome is identical to the yeast genome? a. b. c. d.
5% 10% 25% 50%
11. A metagenome refers to a. b. c. d.
A Large Genome In An Organism. The Collective Genomes Of Many Organisms. The Genome Of A Metazoan. Two Identical Genomes In Different Species.
12. Genomic islands are a. Gene Sequences Not Part Of The Chromosomal Genes. b. Adjacent Gene Sequences Unique To One Or A Few Strains In A Species. c. Acquired By HGT. d. Both B And C Are Correct. 13. Craig Venter‘s sampling of ocean microorganisms is an example of a. b. c. d.
Microarrays. Horizontal Gene Transfer. Microbial Forensics. Metagenomics.
14: By some estimates, about ______ of our 25,000 genes are identical to those in some members of the Bacteria. a. b. c. d.
10 20 200 1000
15 During Griffith's transformation experiments _____. a. Live S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Dead Caused Animal Death. b. Live S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Dead Failed To Kill The Animals. c. Dead S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Live Caused Animal Death. d. Dead S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Live Failed To Kill The Animals.
R Strain Bacteria R Strain Bacteria R Strain Bacteria R Strain Bacteria
16 The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that _____. a. b. c. d.
Two Types Of Viruses Be Present. The Conjugating Bacteria Be Deprived Of Nutrients. Two Bacteria Exchange Dna. Two Live Bacteria Come Together.
17. During the process of lysogeny _____. a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.
b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment. c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids. d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium. 18. Without restriction endonucleases, it would be very difficult to a. b. c. d.
Force Plasmids into Bacteria. Chemically Open Dna Molecules. Replicate Dna In A Recombinant Cell. Bring About Mutations In Bacteria.
19. A transgenic organism is one that _____. a. b. c. d.
Has Donated A DNA Fragment To Another Organism. Contains A Gene From Another Organism. Contains Useless "Genetic Debris." Has Exchanged Gene Loci Within The Organism.
20. A bacterial cell that is transformed _____. a. b. c. d.
Cannot Form A Conjugation Pilus. Has Undergone A Frameshift Mutation. Has Acquired Dna From The Environment. Will Probably Die Within 24 Hours.
21. Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to a. b. c. d.
Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment. Be Infected By A Transducing Phage. Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene. Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.
22. Specialized transduction is carried out by a. b. c. d.
Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection. Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome. Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna. Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.
23 A plasmid carries _____. a. Nonessential Genes b. Resistance Factors c. Genes For Toxins
d. all the above 24: What is the term for manipulating the genes of organisms to introduce new characteristics? a. b. c. d.
Genomics Genetic engineering Recombinant RNA Genetic resistance
25: The transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cells is called a. b. c. d.
horizontal gene transfer vertical gene transfer lateral gene transfer medial gene transfer
26: Which of the following is NOT a type of horizontal gene transfer between bacterial cells? a. b. c. d.
transformation conjugation transduction translation
27 Transformed bacterial cells may display enhanced drug resistances from the acquisition of _____. a. b. c. d.
F factors M factors R factors S factors
28: Conjugation pili are found only on some ______ bacteria, though it may occur between cells of various bacteria. a. b. c. d.
Gram-positive Gram-negative Acid-fast Capsule containing
29: One of the practical applications of genetic engineering is the bacterial production of ____.
a. human insulin. b. human growth hormone c. blood clotting factors VIII and IX d. antiviral proteins e. all of the above 30 Applications of genetic engineering can include _____. a. b. c. d.
environmental biology medicine agriculture A-C are correct
31: A DNA probe and PCR are being used to identify _____. a. b. c. d.
HIV infection HPV in PAP smears coli in water quality tests A-C are correct
32: A microarray can be used to _____. a. identify if a patient has been infected by a pathogen b. produce human insulin c. insert a viral gene into a plant to prevent viral infection d. A-C are correct 33: A new field of _________ has arisen from sequencing, analyzing and comparing microbial genomes. a. b. c. d.
PCR DNA probes microbial genomics microarrays
Chapter 10: Airborne Bacterial Diseases 1. Which one of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory system? a. b. c. d.
Alveoli Pharynx Larynx Trachea
2. Which one of the folowing is a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis? a. b. c. d.
Rheumatic Fever Pseudomembrane Blockage Strawberry Tongue Chest, Back, And Leg Pain
3. Methylene blue staining of metachromatic granules is diagnostic for which of the following bacteria? a. b. c. d.
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis Coiynebacterium Diphtheriae Chlamydia Pneumoniae Bordetella Pertussis
4. Severe throat pain, fever, muffled voice, and stridor are symptoms of a. b. c. d.
Sinusitis. Epiglottitis. Bronchitis. Diphtheria.
5. Which one of the following illnesses is characterized byyeLow or green pus discharged from the nose? a. b. c. d.
Pertussis Diphtheria Bronchitis Acute Sinusitis
6. Swimmer‘s ear is a common name for a infection of the_________ ear. a. b. c. d.
Bacterial; Outer Viral; Outer Bacterial; Middle Viral; Inner
7. Acute meningitis a. b. c. d.
Is An LRT Infection. Is A Disease Affecting The Membranes Of The Heart. Can Be Caused Be Corynebacterium Diphtheriae. Often Starts As A Nasopharynx Infection.
8. A catarrhal and paroxysma stage is typical of which one of the following bacterial diseases? a. b. c. d.
Tuberculosis Pneumonia Pertussis Q Fever
9. Acid-fast staining is typicaly used to stain which bacterial genus? a. b. c. d.
Haemophilus Streptococcus Klebsiella Mycobacterium
10. A person whose inner walls lining the main airways of the lungs become inflamed and who develops a dry cough for a few days, probably has a. b. c. d.
Acute Bronchitis. Epiglottitis. Pneumonia. Chronic Bronchitis.
11. Which one of the following is a gram-positive bacterial species commonly causing hospital-acquired pneumonia? a. Haemophilus Influenzae
b. Kiebsiella Pneumoniae c. taphylococcus aureus d. Chiamydophila pneumoniae 12. Humans can acquire which one of the following diseases from the droppings of infected birds? a. b. c. d.
Q fever Legionellosis Tuberculosis Psittacosis
13: Which of the following normal microbiota cause disease in immunocompromised patients? a. Neisseria b. Streptococcus c. Corynebacterium d. Proprionibacterium 14: Streptococcus pyogenes is highly contagious by _____. a. b. c. d.
Unwashed hands Oral/fecal route Respiratory droplets Remaining on surfaces for long periods of time
15: Some strains of Streptococcus carry toxins that cause a pink red rash. This is called _____. a. b. c. d.
Rhumatic Fever Q Fever Scarlet Fever Pharyngitis
16: Cases of Rheumatic heart disease have decreased in recent years because of _________. a. b. c. d.
Use of Antibiotics for Strep. Throat A New Vaccine for Strep. Throat. The Vaccine for Pertussis. Better Hygiene.
17: Diptheria is caused by ______ diphtheriae. a. b. c. d.
Mycobacterium Corynebacterium Streptococcus Haemophilus
18: DTaP is a toxoid vaccine that prevents ______. a. b. c. d.
Diptheria Pneumonia Polio Diarrhea
19: The _____ is the most commonly infected region of the respiratory tract. a. Lungs b. Bronchi c. Throat d. Nose e. Tonsils 20: Swimmer's ear is commonly seen in children from swimming pools in the summer. It is often caused by _____. a. b. c. d.
Streptococcus Staphylococcus aureus. Pseudomonas A-C are correct
21. Acute bacterial meningitis can begin with ____ that develops into a blood infection that then invades the meninges. a. N. meningitidis b. S. pneumoniae c. H. influenzae d. A-C are correct
Chapter 11: Food Borne and Waterborne Bacterial Diseases
1. Which one of the following is NOT a digestive organ of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract? a. b. c. d.
Large intestine Oral cavity Liver Small intestine
2. What part of the GI tract contains the largest population of microorganisms (micro biota)? a. b. c. d.
Colon Jejunum Duodenum Stomach
3. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to dental plaque? a. b. c. d.
It is an example of a biofilm. It is most noticeable on the molars. Its buildup on teeth can lead to gingivitis and periodontal disease. It is dominated by aerobic bacterial species.
4. What type of periodontal disease occurs when plaque bacteria build up between teeth and gums? a. b. c. d.
Trench mouth ANUG Gingivitis Periodontitis
5. Gastroenteritis can result in a. b. c. d.
an intestinal inflammation. an infection. an intoxication All the above (A — C) are correct.
6. Foodborne microbes can be found in
a. b. c. d.
cattle carcasses. fresh fruits and vegetables. healthy animals. All the above (A — C) are correct.
7. Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)? a. b. c. d.
Escherichia coli Bacillus cereus Staphylococcus aureus Clostridium perfringens
8. One of the most excessive diarrheas of the GI tract is associated with which of the following poisonings or diseases? a. b. c. d.
Staphylococcal food poisoning Typhoid fever Cholera Campylobacteriosis
9. Escherichia coli is a common gram that can be a cause of a. positive rod; hemorrhagic colitis b. negative rod; traveler‘s diarrhea c. positive coccus; typhoid fever d. negative rod; cholera 10. Clostridium difficile is a. b. c. d.
the cause of pseudomembranous colitis. traveler‘s diarrhea. meningoencephalitis. undulant fever.
11. This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia, and newborn meningitis. a. b. c. d.
Bacillus cereus Listeria monocyto genes Clostridium peringens Escherichia coli
12. This species is the most virulent of the vibrios. a. b. c. d.
V vulnficus V. cholerae V enterocolitica V. parahaemolyticus
13. Typhoid fever is characterized by a. b. c. d.
The production of an exotoxin. Hemolytic uremic syndrome. Rose spots on chest and abdomen. All the above (a — c) are correct.
14. The symptoms of salmonellosis usually last about a. b. c. d.
24 hours. 48 hours. 5 days. 14 days.
15. What is the name of the syndrome of fever, abdominal cramps, and bloody mucoid stools caused by Shigella species? a. b. c. d.
Bacterial dysentery Typhoid fever Pseudomembranous colitis HUS
16. Enterohemorrhagic E. coil (EHEC) can cause a. b. c. d.
Undulant fever. Hemolytic uremic syndrome. Guillain-barré syndrome. Stomach ulcers.
17. The most commonly reported cause of invasive bacterial gastroenteritis is associated with which of the following bacterial genera? a. b. c. d.
Campylobacter Staphylococcus Shigeila Ciostridium
18. Yersiniosis is caused by a. b. c. d.
Yersinia pestis. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis. Yersinia entercolitica. All of the above (A — C) cause the illness.
19. Gastric ulcer disease is caused by a. b. c. d.
Helicobacter pylori. Yersinia entercolitica. Escherichia coli. Salmonella Typhi.
20: Botulism is an example of a _____. a. b. c. d.
waterborne infection foodborne intoxication waterborne intoxication fecal/oral infection
21: Cases of cholera are caused by _____ cholerae. a. b. c. d.
Vibrio Clostridium Salmonella Shigella
22: Which one of the following genera is not associated with a foodborne intoxication? a. b. c. d.
Clostridium Salmonella Staphylococcus All three (A-C) are associated with a foodborne intoxication.
23: Traveler's diarrhea is most often caused by a species of _____. a. b. c. d.
Salmonella Vibrio Escherichia Listeria
24: Shigellosis is primarily a disease of the _____.
a. Nervous System b. Blood c. Respiratory Tract d. Gastrointestinal Tract 25: Brucellosis can be an occupational hazard of _____. a. b. c. d.
Farmers Veterinarians Dairy Workers All Three (A-C) Occupations Are At Risk.
26: Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated with a. b. c. d.
Helicobacter Pylori. Staphylococcus Aureus. Escherichia Coli. Salmonella Typhi.
27 Which one of the following parts of the body is not associated with listeriosis? a. b. c. d.
Lungs Meninges Blood Uterus
28: One could make a case for _____ being the most extensive diarrheal disease. a. b. c. d.
Gastric Ulcer Disease Cholera Brucellosis Listeriosis
29: The majority of bacterial species that cause foodborne and waterborne illnesses in humans are _____. a. b. c. d.
Gram-Negative Rods Gram-Negative Cocci Gram-Positive Rods Rods Without A Wall
30: John Snow was able to correlate the spread of cholera with a contaminated _____ in London in 1866. a. b. c. d.
Water Pump Dairy Butcher Shop Hand Soap
31: Where do the indigenous microbiota come from to repopulate the gut after diarrhea? a. b. c. d.
The Food You Eat The Place You Live The Appendix The Liver
32: It has been discovered that Helicobacter pylori is the cause of ______. a. b. c. d.
Acute Gastritis Gastric Ulcers Stomach Cancer A-C Are Correct
33: Which of the following is NOT a condition seen with the development of dental caries? a. b. c. d.
A Susceptible Tooth With A Buildup Of Plaque Dietary Carbohydrates (Usually Sugar) Acidogenic Bacterial Species Chewing A Lot Of Gum
34: What is the most common infectious disease today? a. b. c. d.
Respiratory Infections Intestinal Infections Sexually Transmitted Infections Dental Caries
35: Which group of people would be more susceptable to intestinal infections? a. Infants b. Young Children
c. Teenagers d. Adults 36: Which of the following is NOT a way to prevent food from being contaminated? a. b. c. d. e.
Control The Initial Number Of Bacteria Present Prevent The Small Number From Growing Destroy Bacteria By Cooking Properly Avoid Recontamination After Cooking Re-Freeze Food After Cooking
37. Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning? a. b. c. d.
Streptococcus Pyogenes Staphylococcus Aureus. Pseudomonas Fluorescens Streptococcus Epidermidis
38: Which is the most common food causing infant botulism? a. b. c. d.
Milk Water Honey Apple Juice
39: What is the best treatment for cholera? a. b. c. d.
Antibiotics Water Milk Oral Rehydration Therapy
Chapter 12: Soil Borne and Arthropod Borne Bacterial Diseases
1. Woolsorter disease applies to the form of a. b. c. d.
inhalation; tularemia toxic; myonecrosis intestinal; anthrax inhalation; anthrax
2. Which one of the following describes the mode of action of tetanospasmin? a. b. c. d.
It inhibits muscle contraction. It damages and lyses red blood cells. It disrupts cell tissues. It inhibits muscle relaxation.
3. A crackling sound associated with myonecrosis is due to a. Respiratory Distress Due To Plague. b. Nerve Contractions Due To Tetanus. c. Lymph Node Swelling Due To Plague. d. Gas Produced By C. Perfringens. 4. Leptospira interrogans has all the following characteristics except: a. b. c. d.
Endoflagella. Aerobic Metabolism. Exotoxin Production. A Hook At One End Of The Cell.
5. A characteristic of cell staining of Y. pestis is a a. b. c. d.
Gram-Positive Staining. Bipolar Staining. Gram-Positive Staining. Gram-Variable Staining.
6. Skin ulcers are a common lesion resulting from being bitten by a. A Tick Infected With B. Burgdorferi. b. Fleas Infected With Y. Pestis. c. A Tick Infected With F. Tularensis.
d. Lice Infected With C. Tetani. 7. Erythema migrans is typical of the stage of Lyme disease. a. b. c. d.
Early Localized Early Disseminated Late Recurrent
8. A brief tick bite and a small number of recurring periods of fever and chills is typical of a. b. c. d.
Louseborne Relapsing Fever. Ehrlichiosis. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Epidemic Typhus.
9. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most common in the a. Southeastern United States. b. Rocky Mountains. c. Pacific Northwest. d. New England. 10. A lowering of the white blood cell count is characteristic of a. b. c. d.
Plague. Anthrax. Ehrlichlosis. Rmsf.
11 Which one of the following is not a form of plague? a. b. c. d.
Relapsing Bubonic Pneumonic Septicemic
12: Lyme disease is transmitted by _____. a. b. c. d.
Fleas Mosquitoes Lice Ticks
13: Epidemic, endemic, and scrub typhus are caused by a different species a. b. c. d.
Yersinia Borrelia Rickettsia Clostridium
14: Clostridium tetani grows in a/an _____ environment. a. b. c. d.
Acidic Anaerobic High Oxygen Aerobic
15: Tularemia is also called _____ fever. a. b. c. d.
Cat Scratch Typhoid Rabbit Rat Bite
16: The cells of Leptospira interrogans, the causative agent of leptospirosis, have a _____ shape. a. b. c. d.
Rod Spiral Spherical Spirochete
17: A hyperbaric oxygen chamber may be used to treat a patient suffering from _____. a. b. c. d.
Tetanus Anthrax Plague Gas Gangrene
18: Bacillus anthracis is a gram-_____ rod. a. Positive, Spore-Forming b. Positive, Anaerobic c. Negative, Spore-Forming d. Negative, Aerobic
19: Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by _____ and infects _____. a. b. c. d.
Lice; Red Blood Cells Ticks; Leukocytes Fleas; Skin Cells Ticks; Liver Cells
20: Currently, the most common arthropodborne disease in the US is. a. b. c. d.
Relapsing Fever Lyme Disease Tularemia Epidemic Typhus
21: Which of the following is NOT a method of getting anthrax? a. b. c. d.
Inhalation Intestinal Cutaneous Urinary
22: What disease is described by: "the toxin acts at the neuromuscular junction, preventing the release of neurotransmitters needed to inhibit muscle contraction." a. b. c. d.
Botulism Tetanus The Plague A-C Are Correct
23: Gas gangrene is caused by _____. a. b. c. d.
Clostridium tetani Clostridium botulinum Clostridium perfringens Clostridium gangrenum
24: ______ is the most wide-spread zoonosis. a. b. c. d.
Leptospira interrogans Borrelia burgdorferi Rickettsia rickettsii Yersinia pestis
25: _____ is an ancient disease now endemic in the southwestern US in gophers and prairie dogs. a. b. c. d.
Leptospira interrogans Borrelia burgdorferi Rickettsia rickettsii Yersinia pestis
26: An early symptom of ________ is a spreading bulls-eye rash at the site of a tick bite. a. b. c. d.
Tularemia Lyme disease Yersinia pestis Q fever
27: ________ is seen with periods of fever and chills when many spirochetes are present in the blood. a. b. c. d.
Rabbit fever Lyme disease Relapsing fever The Plague
28: The Rickettsias demonstrate a characteristic ______ and ______. a. b. c. d.
Fever And Chills Fever And Rash Fever And Difficulty Breathing Chills And Low White Blood Cells.
29: ________ is a tickborne pathogen that inhabits human leukocytes. a. b. c. d.
Francisella Tularensis Yersinia Pestis Ehrlichia Rickettsia
30: Which of the following is a soilborne disease? a. b. c. d.
Tularemia the plague Rickettsia Tetanus
Chapter 13: Sexually Transmitted & Contact Transmitted Bacterial Diseases
1. The primary sex organs of the female reproductive system is/are the
a. Uterus. b. Vagina. c. Clitoris d. Ovaries. 2. What part or parts of the male and female reproductive systems are typically colonized by indigenous microbiota? a. b. c. d.
Male: Ureters; Female: Vagina And Ovaries Male: Testes And Epididymis Male: Urethra; Female: Vagina, Vulva, And Cervix Male: Bladder And Ureters; Female: Fallopian Tubes And Cervix
3. Which one of the following microbes is NOT associated with vaginosis? a. b. c. d.
Peptostreptococcus Gardnerella Prevotella Staphylococcus
4. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the reproductive cycle of Chlamydia? a. b. c. d.
Reticulate Bodies Are Infectious. Reticulate Bodies Reorganize Into Elementary Bodies. Elementary Bodies Infect Host Cells. Elementary Bodies Transform Into Reticulate Bodies.
5. Salpingitis is associated with_______ and can lead to___________ a. b. c. d.
Syphilis; Gumma Formation Gonorrhea; Sterility Chlamydia; Ophthalmia Chancroid; Soft Chancre
6. A chancre is typical of which stage of syphilis? a. b. c. d.
Primary Secondary Tertiary Chronic, latent
7. Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with another Serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis? a. b. c. d.
Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) Genital warts Granuloma inguinale Chancroid
8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the urinary tract? a. b. c. d.
Urethra Bladder Kidneys Ureters
9. What bacterial species is most often associated with cystitis? a. b. c. d.
Treponemo pallidum Escherichia coIi Chlamydia trachomatis Pseudomonas aeruginosa
10. What type of immune defensive cell is found in the sublayers of the epidermis? a. Keratinocyte b. Dendritic (Langerhans) cell c. Neutrophil d. Basophil 11. The skin is a. Dominated By Gram-Negative Bacterial Cells. b. Free Of Bacterial Cells. c. Without A Microbiota.
d. Dominated By Gram-Positive Bacterial Cells. 12. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of acne? a. b. c. d.
Acne is caused by Propionibacterium acnes. Plugged sebaceous glands are called erythemas. Whiteheads are completely blocked follicles. Acne is not a preventable disease.
13. An acute wound could be due to a. b. c. d.
Surgical Procedures. Cuts. Lacerations. All The Above (A — C) Are Correct.
14. In children, this skin disease is characterized by the production of thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid and forming yellowish brown flakes. a. b. c. d.
Toxic shock syndrome Scalded skin syndrome Erysipelas Impetigo
15. Which one of the following skin diseases is NOT caused by Streptococcus pyogenes? a. Necrotizing fasciitis b. Toxic shock syndrome c. Gas gangrene d. . Erysipelas 16. The most common cause of an invasive wound infection, such as a burn, is a. b. c. d.
gram-positive bacterial species. treponema pallidum. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Escherichia coli.
17. Bartonelia henselae is the causative agent of this skin disease.
a. Leprosy b. Cat-scratch disease c. Necrotizing fasciitis d. Rat-bite fever 18. Leprosy can be contracted by contact with a. Contaminated Water. b. Insects. c. Nasal Secretions. d. Contaminated Food. 19. The SAFE strategy has greatly reduced the global burden of what disease? a. Trachoma b. Neonatal conjunctivitis c. Leprosy d. Blepharitis 20: The rapid plasma reagin test and VDRL test are both used _____. a. b. c. d.
In The Diagnosis Of Syphilis. To Detect Toxic Shock Syndrome. To Gauge The Extent Of Dental Decay. To Distinguish Ureaplasmal And Mycoplasmal Urethritis.
21. Two methods for transmitting leprosy are a. b. c. d.
Arthropod Bites And Fomites. Skin Contact And Respiratory Droplets. Arthropod Bites And Contaminated Food. Contaminated Water And Food.
22: Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? a. b. c. d.
TSS-skin peeling Gonorrhea-urethritis Leprosy-liver damage Cat scratch fever-swollen lymph nodes
23: Newborns exposed to Chlamydia trachomatis from an infected mother may experience
a. b. c. d.
Toxic Shock Syndrome or Staphylococcal Skin Disease. Dental Caries When the Teeth Grow In. Destruction of the Reproductive Organs. Disease of the Eyes or Lungs.
24: The scalded skin syndrome is generally associated with a. b. c. d.
Hutchinson's triad. children born to parents who have had pasteurellosis. high mortality rates in untreated cases. damage of the urethra from mycoplasmal urethritis.
25: Organisms that normally inhabit the body a. b. c. d.
include Treponema pallidum. cause endogenous diseases. may be detected by Donovan bodies. resist the effects of antibiotics.
26: All the following apply to trachoma except: a. b. c. d.
the disease occurs in the eyes. tetracycline is helpful in therapy. tiny, pale nodules form on the conjunctiva. the agent of the disease is Treponema pertenue.
27: All the following are among the opportunistic organisms that may cause nosocomial disease except: a. b. c. d.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Escherichia coli. Staphylococcus aureus. Mycobacterium leprae.
28: The condition known as pseudomembranous colitis is associated with a. b. c. d.
Excessive antibiotic use in the intestine. Invasion of the tissues by Streptococcus mutans. Swollen lymph nodes. The secondary stage of syphilis.
29: Impetigo is a skin disease caused by a. b. c. d.
a species of Haemophilus. a species of Chlamydia. Bacteroides fragilis. Staphylococcus aureus.
30: What is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the United States? a. b. c. d.
Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis AIDS
31: Which organism is found in the acidic vagina of women of reproductive age? a. b. c. d.
Candida albicans Lactobacillus Escherichia coli. Staphylococcus epidermidis
32: Which of the following may result from untreated STDs in females? a. b. c. d.
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) ectopic pregnancy infertility A-C are correct
33: Which of the following STIs start with a chancre, then a rash and if untreated results in gummas and death many years later? a. b. c. d.
Chlamydia Gonorrhea Syphilis Granuloma inguinale
34: Which of the following are antimicrobial defense mechanisms in the urethra? a. size and length of the urethra b. shedding of cells in the mucosal lining and bacteria with urination
c. normally basic urine d. A-C are correct 35: ______ is a bladder infection. a. urethritis b. pyelonephritis c. cystitis d. prostatitis 36: Which of the skin microbiota is responsible for most cases of the inflammatory condition of acne? a. b. c. d.
Propionebacterium Staphylococcus Corynebacterium Acinetobacter
37: _____ is a widespread and highly contagious staphylococcal skin disease with thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid that forms a crust. a. b. c. d.
furuncle carbuncles impetigo abscess
38: Of the hemolytic groups of streptococci, _____ is the most dangerous because the organisms completely destroy red blood cells. a. b. c. d.
alpha hemolytic group the beta hemolytic group the gamma hemolytic strep viridins group
39: Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the flesh-eating disease? a. b. c. d.
Group A streptococcus Group B streptococcus Staphylococcus aureus. strep viridins group
40. The primary sex organs of the male reproductive system is/are the
a. Penis b. Testicles c. Seminal Vesicles d. Vas Deferens
Chapter 14: The Viruses and Virus Like Agent
1. Which one of the following scientists was NOT involved with discovering viruses? a. b. c. d.
Felix d‘Herrelle Dimitri Ivanowsky Robert Fleming Martinus Beijerinck
2. Viral genomes consist of a. b. c. d.
DNA only. RNA only. DNA or RNA. DNA and RNA.
3. A nucleocapsid can have a. radial b. icosahedral c. vertical d. bilateral 4. Tissue tropism refers to a. b. c. d.
what tissues grow due to a viral infection. what tissues are resistant to viral infection. what organisms a virus infects. what cells or tissues a virus infects.
5. An RNA virus genome in the form of messenger RNA is referred to as a a. + strand RNA.
b. double-stranded RNA c. – strand RNa d. Reverse strand RNA. 6. A virulent bacteriophage will a. b. c. d.
Carry Out A Lytic Cycle. Integrate Its Genome In The Host Cell. Remain Dormant In A Bacterial Cell. Exist As A Prophage.
7. The release of the viral genome from the capsid is called a. b. c. d.
Uncoating. Endocytosis. Penetration. Maturation.
8. Provirus formation is possible in members of the a. b. c. d.
Single-Stranded DNA Viruses. Retroviruses. Double-Stranded RNA Viruses. Single-Stranded ( — Strand) RNA Viruses.
9. Cytopathic effects would include all the following except a. b. c. d.
Changes In Cell Structure. Provirus Formation. Vacuolated Cytoplasm. Syncytia Formation.
10. A plaque is a a. b. c. d.
Change In Cell Structure Due To Viral Infection. Viral Cell Inclusion. Clear Zone Within A Lawn Of Bacteria. Cellular Aggregation Of Phage Heads.
11. A benign tumor a. Will Metastasize. b. Represents Cancer. c. Is Malignant.
d. Is A Clone Of Dividing Cells. 12. Which of the following is NOT a carcinogen? a. b. c. d.
Genetic factors UV light Certain chemicals X rays
13. The oncogene theory states that transforming genes a. Normally Occur Occur In The Host Genome. b. Can Exist In Viruses. c. Are Not Of Viral Origin. d. All Of The Above (A — C) C) Are Correct. 14. Newly emerging viruses causing human disease can arise from a. b. c. d.
Species Jumping. Mutations. Genetic Recombination. All Of The Above (A — C) C) Are Correct.
15. Viruses derived from fragments of cellular genetic material and macromolecules macromolecules forms the basis of the a. b. c. d.
Cellular Origins Hypothesis. Independent Entities Hypothesis. Rna World Hypothesis. Regressive Evolution Hypothesis.
16. Viroids contain a. b. c. d.
RNA and DNA. Only RNA. DNA and a capsid. RNA and an envelope.
17. Which one of the following statements statements about prions is FALSE? a. b. c. d.
Prions are infectious proteins. Prions have caused disease in Americans. Human disease is called variant CJD. Prions can be transmitted to humans from infected beef.
18: The genome of a virus may contain either ______ or ______. a. DNA; protein b. protein; carbohydrate carbohydrate c. carbohydrate; RNA d. RNA; DNA 19: Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to treat some viral infections. a. penicillin and ampicillin ampicillin b. isoniazid and dapsone c. amantadine and acyclovir d. streptomycin and amphotericin 20: Attenuated viruses are those that _____. a. b. c. d.
can be used to treat viral disease. give rise to viroids and prions. multiply in cells but at a low rate. have been treated with chemicals such as formaldehyde. formaldehyde.
21: Viroids and prions differ in that viroids are believed to contain only ______, while prions prions are believed to contain only only _______. a. carbohydrate; amino acids b. nucleic acid; protein c. amino acids; carbohydrate d. protein; nucleic acid 22: Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase _____. a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating information to proceed from RNA to DNA. b. reverses the normal multiplication of cells from a low rate to a high rate. c. reverses the ability of viruses to associate with cells. d. reverses the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to continue multiplying in living cells. 23: Rivers' postulates can be used to
a. b. c. d.
locate an oncogene in a cell that is cancerous. develop inactivated viruses for use in a vaccine. eliminate viruses with certain chemical agents. relate a particular virus to a particular disease.
24: Cancer cells interfere with cell functions in all the following ways except: a. they rob cells of their nutrients and induce cell starvation. b. they stimulate the immune system to produce destructive interferons. c. they clog the vascular network and reduce the oxygen supply to cells. d. they overwhelm cells through sheer force of numbers. 25: The protein coat of a virus particle is called a _____. a. b. c. d.
capsid capsomere nucleocapsid envelope
26: An example of a large complex virus is _____. a. polio b. smallpox c. cold sores d. SARS 27: When a viral nucleic acid becomes part of the host cell chromosome it is called _____. a. b. c. d.
lysis lysogeny maturation latent
28: Which of the following viruses is a retrovirus with reverse transcriptase? a. HPV b. polio c. HIV
d. Ebola 29: An example of a virus causing cytopathic effects is _____. a. b. c. d.
Paraxyxoviruses causeing syncytia Infectious mononucleosis with foamy-llking cytoplasm Rabies causing Negri bodies A-C are correct
30: Viruses can be grown on _____. a. nutrient agar b. nutrient broth c. blood agar d. tissue culture 31: Which of the following are oncogenic viruses? a. polio b. HIV c. HPV d. rabies 32: Which of the following cause new emerging infectious diseases? a. b. c. d.
mutation recombination cross host ranges A-C are correct
33: _____ are infectious RNA particles a. b. c. d.
Viroids Prions Virions A-C are correct
34. Which of the following are the causes of "mad cow disease"? a. b. c. d.
Viriods Prions Virions A-C are correct
Chapter 15: Viral Infections of the Respiratory Tract and Skin
1. There are more than___________ different rhinoviruses, which belong to the ________family. a. b. c. d.
50; Orthomyxoviridae 100; Adenoviridae 30; Paramyxoviridae 100; Picornaviridae
2. ALL of the following are diseases caused by the adenoviruses except a. b. c. d.
Viral pneumonia. Acute respiratory disease. Parainfluenza. Common cold.
3. Which one of the folLowing statements is NOT true of the influenza viruses? a. b. c. d.
They have a segmented genome. The genome is double-stranded DNA. The viruses have an envelope. There are three types of flu viruses.
4. Which one of the following is NOT a member of Paramyxoviridae. a. b. c. d.
RSV Human metapneumovirus SARS-CoV Parainfluenza virus
5. SARS is a. b. c. d.
A skin infection. Spread through close person-to-person contact. A mild, respiratory infection. Most often seen in young children.
6. Cold sores and genital herpes can be caused by a. HSV-1. b. HHV-6.
c. VZV. d. HHV-8. 7. A red, itchy rash that forms small, teardrop-shaped, fluid-filled vesicles is typical of a. b. c. d.
Measles. Rubella. Chickenpox. Mumps.
8. HHV-6 that causes roseola primarily affects a. b. c. d.
The elderly. Pregnant mothers. Infants. Teenagers.
9. Kaposi sarcoma is a tumor of the a. b. c. d.
Blood vessels. Liver. Lymph nodes. Kidneys.
10. are diagnostic for measles. a. b. c. d.
Koplik spots Wart-like lesions Swollen lymph nodes Blisters on the body trunk
11. The characteristic sign of rubella is a. b. c. d.
Orchitis. Pale-pink maculopapular rash. Fiery red rash on cheeks and ears. High fever and sensitivity to light.
12. Fifth disease a. Is hospital acquired? b. Causes white skin warts. c. Causes benign skin growths.
d. Is transmitted by respiratory droplets. 13. Some papillomaviruses are capable of causing a. b. c. d.
A ―lacy‖ rash on the skin. Lung cancer. Pneumonia. Cervical cancer.
14. Which one of the following statements applies to smallpox? a. b. c. d.
The disease is associated with animal contact. The disease has been eradicated worldwide. It can be sexually-transmitted. The virus can lie dormant in host cells.
15: _____ is the most common lower respiratory tract disease among infants and young children a. b. c. d.
Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) Viral pneumonia Influenza The common cold
16: SARS has a reservoir of infection in _____. a. b. c. d.
Chickens Pigs Bats Monkeys
17: Hanta virus is present in the desert southwest for those in contact with a. b. c. d.
Mouse Droppings Ticks; Leukocytes Mosquitoes Prairie Dogs
18. Medications that can be used early in influenza are ____ and ____ because they inhibit the release of new virions. a. aspirin, decongestants b. Relenza, Tamiflu
c. Penicillin, ampicillin d. AZT, ribivirin 19: A common trait among Herpes viruses is _____. a. b. c. d.
Lysogeny Lysis Laxity Latency
20: Chickenpox can resurface years later as _____. a. b. c. d.
Shingles Zostavax Smallpox Roseola
21. _____ can spread from person to person in respiratory secretions or it may be inherited congenitally. a. b. c. d.
Measles Chickenpox Rosella Herpes
22: Which of the following diseases is not prevented by the MMR vaccine? a. Measles b. Mumps c. Rabies b.Rubella 23: Which of the following viruses has a vaccine to prevent it? a. b. c. d.
HPV HIV fifths disease herpes simplex I
Chapter 16: Viral Infections of The Blood, Lymphatic, Gastrointestinal, And Nervous Systems
1. Mononucleosis is an infection of________ cells by the _____. a. b. c. d.
T; cytomegalovirus B; Epstein-Barr virus Lung; cytomegalovirus red blood; Epstein.Barr virus
2. Which of the foLlowing is NOT a transmission mechanism for hepatitis B? a. Sexual contact b. Non-sterile body piercing equipment c. Fecal-oral route d. Blood-contaminated needles 3. Symptoms of headache, fever, and muscle pain Lasting 3 to 5 days, followed by a 2 to 24 hour abating of symptoms is characteristic of a. b. c. d.
Yellow fever. Hepatitis C. Dengue fever. Ebola hemorrhagic fever.
4. A long thread-Like RNA virus is typical of the viruses. a. hepatitis C b. Ebola c. polio d. West Nile 5. The reservoir for Lassa fever is a. b. c. d.
Rats. Mosquitoes. Ticks. Sandffles.
6. Which one of the following characteristics pertains to hepatitis A?
a. b. c. d.
Transmission is by the fecal-oral route. The incubation period is 2 to 4 weeks. It is an acute, inflammatory liver disease. All of the above (A — C) are correct.
7.__________are the single most important cause of diarrhea in infants and young children admitted to American hospitals. a. Noroviruses b. Echoviruses c. Hepatitis A viruses d. Rotaviruses 8. Hydrophobia is a term applied to a. b. c. d.
rotavirus infections. West Nile fever. arboviral encephalitis. rabies.
9. These viruses multiply first in the tonsils and then the lymphoid tissues of the gastrointestinal tract. a. b. c. d.
Rabies virus Rotavirus Polio virus Hepatitis A virus
10. Arboviral encephalitis is an example of a a. b. c. d.
disease causing gastroenteritis. disease spread by the fecal-oral route. Zoonosis type of hepatitis.
11. The fecal-oral route is the mode of transmission for the _____. a. b. c. d.
Hepatitis A virus. Hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis A and B viruses. All hepatitis viruses.
12: Dengue fever is transmitted primarily by
a. contact with body fluids. b. contaminated water and food. c. arthropods. d. None of the above( A-C) is correct. 13: Researchers have associated the ______ virus with infectious mononucleosis and have evidence that the virus also causes _______. a. b. c. d.
Epstein-Barr; hepatitis B Epstein-Barr; Burkitt's lymphoma Coxsackie; hepatitis B Coxsackie; Burkitt lymphoma
14: Which investigator developed a polio vaccine containing inactivated viruses? a. b. c. d.
Enders Sabin Jenner Salk
15: Rotavirus and the noroviruses can both be causes of viral ______ when transferred to humans by ______. a. b. c. d.
meningitis; mosquitoes meningitis; water gastroenteritis; mosquitoes gastroenteritis; water
16: Which one of the following is not a viral disease of the nervous system? a. b. c. d.
West Nile fever Hantavirus Polio Rabies
17: The rabies virus is shaped like a/an ______ and enters the body by a _______. a. icosahedron; skin wound b. icosahedron; mosquito bite c. bullet; skin wound d. bullet; mosquito bite
18: The ______ causes a viral hemorrhagic fever that has been responsible for many outbreaks in Africa. a. b. c. d.
norovirus Lassa fever virus Ebolavirus Rotavirus
19: Infectious _____ is caused by the ________virus infecting the B lymphocytes. a. b. c. d.
mononucleosis, Epstein Barr shingles, varicella Epstein Barr, yellow fever Meningitis, Lassa
20: The ______ can cause serious birth defects including mental impairment. a. b. c. d.
Mononucleosis Cytomegalovirus Polio Hepatitis C
21: Which of the following can be prevented by a vaccine? a. b. c. d.
hepatitis A hepatitis B hepatitis C herpes simplex I
22: Damage from ________ is the major cause of liver transplants in the US, alcohol and drug use are cofactors. a. b. c. d.
hepatitis A hepatitis B hepatitis C herpes simplex I
23: Arboviruses are _____ viruses. a. arthropod-borne b. arthritis causing c. tree-borne
d. A-C are correct
24: _________ fever was the first human disease associated with a virus. Walter Reed identified _________ as the carrier. a. b. c. d.
Lassa, rats Dengue, mosquitoes Ebola, bats Yellow, mosquitoes
25: The zoonotic reservoir for Ebolavirus and Marburgvirus may be _____. a. b. c. d.
rats monkeys mice fruit bats
26: Lassa fever is transmitted by the zoonotic host, _______ which are used for food. a. fruit bats b. bush rats c. monkeys d. rabbits 27: The majority of cases of rabies are from _____ and ______. a. b. c. d.
dogs, cats rabbits, fox raccoons, bats dogs, coyotes
28: Where in the body does polio attack? a. b. c. d.
the gray matter of the spinal cord the white matter of the spinal cord the gray matter of the brain the white matter of the brain
Chapter 17: Eukaryotic Microorganisms: The Fungi
1. Which one of the following statements about fungi is NOT true? a. b. c. d.
Some fungi are dimorphic. Fungi have cell walls made of chitin. Fungi are photosynthetic organisms. Fungi consist of the yeasts and molds.
2. Which one of the following best describes the growth conditions for a typical fungus? a. pH 3; 23°C; no oxygen gas present b. pH 8; 30°C; no oxygen oxygen gas present c. pH 6; 30°C; oxygen gas present present d. pH 3; 23°C; oxygen gas gas present 3. All the following are examples of asexual spore formation except: a. b. c. d.
Arthrospores. Conidia. Sporangiospores. Basidiospores.
4. An organism without a known sexual stage would be classified in the a. b. c. d.
Mitosporic fungi. Zygomycota. Basidiomycota. Ascomycota.
5. Yeasts of the species Saccharomyces a. b. c. d.
Are Used In Bread Making. Reproduce By Budding. Are Members Of The Ascomycetes. All Of The Above (A — C) C) Are Correct.
6. Aflatoxin is produced by__ and is a. Sporothrix schenkii; a hallucinogen b. Aspergillusflavus; carcinogenic
c. Cloviceps purpurea; a hallucinogen d. Aspergillus niger; a mycotoxin 7. Mushroom poisoning is a. b. c. d.
Always fatal. Characterized by immediate symptoms. Most common in children under 6 years of age. Treatable with antifungal drugs.
8. This fungal disease can cause a blister-like lesion on the scalp. a. b. c. d.
Candidiasis Dermatophytosis Cryptococcosis Histoplasmosis
9. ______ causes more than 20 million cases each year and symptoms include an itching sensation and burning internal pain. a. b. c. d.
Thrush ―Dock itch‖ Vulvovaginitis Sporotrichosis
10. From the following, sporotrichosis would most likely be transmitted from a. b. c. d.
Peat Moss. Bat Caves. Mushrooms. Dusty Soil.
11. Which one of the following fungi would most likely be found in pigeon droppings? a. b. c. d.
Pneumocystis Cryptococcus Coccidioides Sporothrix
12. Moving to the Ohio or Mississippi River valleys might make one susceptible to a. b. c. d.
Pcp. Valley fever. Dermatophytosis. Histoplasmosis.
13. This dimorphic fungus produces conidia that are inhaled from dusty soil or bird droppings. a. b. c. d.
Aspergillis fumigatus Pneumocystis jiroveci Amanita phalloides Blastonyces dermatitidis
14. The formation of arthrospores and spherules is characteristic of a. b. c. d.
Coccidioidomycosis. Histoplasmosis. Candidiasis. Aspergillosis.
15. This funqal disease is the most common cause of nonbacterial pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. a. b. c. d.
Blastomycosis Pneumocystis pneumonia Aspergillosis Coccidioidomycosis
16. The most deadly form of aspergillosis is a. b. c. d.
A pulmonary form. A toxigenic form. A blood form. An invasive form.
17: Sexual reproduction in the fungi a. Occurs in all phyla. b. Provides an opportunity for the evolution of new genetic forms. c. Results in sporangia and conidia.
d. Takes place only in the mitosporic fungi. 18: Which one of the following statements is true of fungal growth? a. b. c. d.
Most fungi grow best at 37 degrees C. Most fungi, with the exception of yeasts, are anaerobic. Most fungi thrive under mildly acidic conditions. Most fungi grow in extreme environments.
19: Which one of the following is true of the hypha? a. It is the morphological unit of the fungus. b. It is visible without a microscope. c. It lacks a cell wall. d. None of the above (A-C) is true. 20: Both the ascus and the basidium a. b. c. d.
Are formed by fungi in the mitosporic fungi. Are involved in coenocytic formation by fungi. Are diploid structures. Are produced during the sexual stage of fungal reproduction.
21: The tinea infections of the human skin are a. b. c. d.
All caused by fungi. Transmissible from pets. Treated with a variety of powders or ointments. All the above (a-c) are true.
22: The fungus Candida albicans has been known to infect a. b. c. d.
The human intestine. The mucous membranes of the oral cavity. The female vagina. All the above (a-c) are correct.
23: The fungal diseases histoplasmosis and blastomycosis both a. b. c. d.
Occur in the United States. Affect the human brain and spinal cord. Are due to fungi that grow as a mycelium in the body. Are accompanied by the production of aflatoxins.
24: The baking and brewing yeasts
a. b. c. d.
Belong to the genus Aspergillus. Break down glucose and other carbohydrates. Induce bread to rise by producing oxygen gas. Cause serious diseases in humans.
25: Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched? a. b. c. d.
Penicillium-blue cheese Sporotrichosis-rose thorns Chytrids-mushrooms Trichophyton-athlete's foot
26: All the following characteristics apply to fungi except: a. b. c. d.
There may be 1.5 million species. They lack chlorophyll. They include molds and yeasts. They are prokaryotic microorganisms.
27: The study of fungi is called _____. a. b. c. d.
Fungology Mycology Hyphology Mycosis
28: A difference between molds and yeasts are that molds are _____ and yeasts are _____. a. b. c. d.
Unicellular, filamentous Filamentous, unicellular Filamentous, hyphous Hyphous, filamentous
29: Cell walls in fungi are made of _____. a. b. c. d.
Cellulose Glycogen Silicon Chitin
30: Which of the following terms does NOT describe fungal nutrition? a. b. c. d.
Heterotrophic Saprobes Decomposers Chemolithotrophs
31: Bread mold is a member of which phylum? Sexual mating types fuse forming a _____. a. b. c. d.
Zygomycota, zyogospores Glomeromycota, sporangiospores Ascomycota, ascospores Basidiomycota, basidiospores
32: A _____ is a mutualistic association between a fungus and a photosynthetic organism like a cyanobacterium or algae. a. b. c. d.
Morel Lichen Rust Smut
33: Toxins produced from some fungi include all but which of the following? a. b. c. d.
Aflatoxin Ergot Amatoxin Botulinin
34: Tinea infections include all but which one of the following? a. b. c. d.
Athlete's foot Ringworm Thrush Jock itch
35: Which of the following fungi would most likely be seen in an individual with AIDS?
a. b. c. d.
Cryptococcus neoformans Sporothrix schenkii Trichophyton Microsporum
36: _____ causes a disease from spores in the soil in the desert southwest. a. b. c. d.
Pneumocystis jiroveci Coccidioides immitis Aspergillus Cryptococcus neoformans
Chapter 18: Eukaryotic Microorganisms: The Parasites
1. The _______are members of the_____________ a. b. c. d.
Green Algae; Protozoa Radiolarians; Apicomplexans Dinoflagellates; Phytoplankton Radiolarians; Fungus-Like Protists
2. This group of protozoa has a single mitochondrion with a mass of DNA. a. b. c. d.
Kinetoplastids Ciliates Apicomplexans Diplomonads
3. The group of protozoa have food vacuoles and pseudopods. a. b. c. d.
Kinetoplastid Excavata Chromalveolata Amoebozoa
4. Which one of the following is NOT found in the ciliates? a. b. c. d.
A contractile vacuoLe Macronuclei and micronucLei A compLex of organelles in the tip Mitochondria
5. An intermediate host is a. b. c. d.
Where parasite asexual cycle occurs. Always a nonhuman host Where parasite sexual cycle occurs. The human host between two other animal hosts.
6. The vector transmitting Leishmaniasis is the a. Mosquito. b. Sand fly.
c. Tsetse fly. d. Sand flea. 7.______ enters the human body as a cyst and develops into a trophozoite in the small intestine; a severe form of dysentery may occur. a. b. c. d.
Cryptosporidium parvum Entamoeba histolytica Giardia intestinalis Cyclospora cayetanensis
8. Sucker-Like devices allow this protozoan to adhere to the intestinal Lining. a. b. c. d.
Cyclospora cayetanensis Entamoeba histolytico Giardia intestinalis Cryptosporidium parvum 5
9. This disease sickened more than 4x10 residents of Milwaukee in 1993. a. b. c. d.
Giardiasis Cryptosporidiosis Trypanosomiasis Cyclosporiasis
10. This genus of parabasalid affects over 7.4 million Americans annually and is considered a sexually transmitted disease. a. b. c. d.
Toxoplasma Ctyptosporidium Cyclospora Trichomonas
11. The ________form of the malarial parasite enters the human blood while The_____ enters the mosquito. a. b. c. d.
Sporozoites; Merozoites Merozoites; Gametocytes Merozoites; Sporozoites Sporozoites; Gametocytes
12. Chagas disease is caused by a. b. c. d.
Trypanosome Cruzi. Toxoplasma Gandii. Babesia Microti. Trypanosoma Brucei
13. Babesiosis is carried by.___ and infects___________ a. b. c. d.
Mosquitoes; Rbcs Fleas; The Kidneys Ticks; Rbcs Mosquitoes; The Liver
14. The T in TORCH stands for the disease caused by a. b. c. d. e.
Trypanosome Brucei. Toxoplasma Gondii. Taenia Spiralis. Trypanosoma Cruzi. Trichomonas Vaginalis.
15. This opportunistic protozoan causes primary meningoencephalitis (PAM). a. Plasmodium Vivax b. Toxoplasma Gondil c. Naegieria Fowleri d. Paragonimus Westermani e. Entamoeba Histolytica 16. Transmitted by an arthropod. a. Filariasis b. Trichinosis c. Hookworm disease 17. Beef tapeworm species. a. Echinococcus Granulosus b. Schistosoma Mansoni c. Taenia Saginata 18. Type of fluke.
a. Schistosoma b. Necator c. Echinococcus 19. Cause of pinworm disease. a. Trichinella b. Enterobius c. Ascaris 20. Infects the human intestines. a. Trichineila Spiralis b. Scaris Lumbricoides c. Taenia Saginata 21. Type of tapeworm. a. Taenia b. Echinococcus c. Necator 22. Snail is the intermediate host. a. Blood fluke b. Echinococcus c. Intestinal fluke 23. Attaches to host tissue by hooks. a. Necator b. Trichinella c. Enterobius 24. Affects pigs as well as humans. a. Wuchereria b. Trichinella c. Schistosoma 25. Life cycle includes miracidia and cercaria. a. Schistosoma b. Echinococcus c. Ascaris
26. Acquired by consuming contaminated pork. a. Taenia solium b. Echinococcus c. Necator americanus 27. Classified in the phylum Nematoda. a. Ascaris b. Wuchereria c. Schistosoma 28. Causes inflammation and damage to the Lymphatic vessels. a. Echinococcus b. Ascaris c. Wuchereria 29. Male and female forms exist. a. Taenia b. Ascaris c. Schistosoma 30. Forms hydatid cysts. a. Blood fluke b. Enterobius c. Echinococcus 31: Which one of the following protozoa would most likely be isolated in an individual with AIDS? a. Cryptosporidium b. Balantidium c. Babesia d. Leishmania 32: Which one of the following diseases is transmitted by contaminated food or water? a. Trypanosomiasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Giardiasis d. Leishmaniasis
33: The parasites of malaria invade the body's ______ and bring on intense _________. a. White Blood Cells; Diarrhea b. White Blood Cells; Chills And Fever c. Red Blood Cells; Chills And Fever d. Red Blood Cells; Diarrhea 34: Which disease is associated with domestic cats? a. Cyclosporiasis b. Cryptosporidiosis c. Toxoplasmosis d. None of the above (A-C) is correct. 35: As a general rule, tapeworms require a. Two Hosts. b. A Fish Host. c. Only A Human Host. d. No Host At All. 36: Among the major signs of trichinellosis are a. Some Diarrhea And Intestinal Ulcers. b. Ulcers On The Lower Surface Of The Feet. c. Extensive Inflammation Of The Lymph Vessels. d. Pain In The Breathing Muscles Of The Ribs. 37: Gravid proglottids are essential elements of the a. Reproductive Cycle of Tapeworms. b. Nutrient Cycle of Hookworms. c. Swimming Activity of Beef Tapeworms. d. Reproductive Cycle of Intestinal Flukes. 38: Wuchereria bancrofti manifests its presence in the human tissues by a. Swimmer's Itch. b. Swollen Arms and Legs. c. Severe Diarrhea. d. Damage to the Retina of the Eye.
39: Malaria is a protozoal disease caused by _____ . a. Trypanosoma b. Toxoplasma c. Plasmodium d. Leishmania 40: Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of stages in the life cycle of flukes? a. Cercaria to redia to miracidium to sporocyst b. Miracidium to sporocyst to redia to cercaria c. Metacercaria to redia to cercaria to sporocyst d. Redia to miracidium to metacercaria to cercaria 41: Which of the following is NOT one of the organisms that are in Protista? a. plant-like organisms b. animal-like organisms c. fungal-like organisms d. bacterial-like organisms 42: ______ are marine protists that have chalky skeletons. a. diatoms b. foraminifera c. algae d. radiolarians 43: Red tides are caused by ______. a. flagellates b. cilliates c. pseudopodia d. algae 44: _____ is a parasitic flagellate in humans and is transmitted through sexual intercourse. a. Trichonympha b. Trypanosoma c. Trichomonas d. Leishmania, 45: In humans, amoebic dysentery or encephalitis may result from drinking water or consuming food contaminated by _____ . a. Entamoeba b. Naegleria
c. Giardia d. Apicomplexa 46: _____ is a cutaneous or visceral disease transmitted by the bite of an infected female sandfly. a. Malaria b. Leishmaniasis c. Apicomplexa d. Amoebiasis 47: _____ is an intestinal disease you can get from a day care or swimming pool. a. Giardiasis b. Amoebiasis c. Cryptosporidiosis d. Leishmania 48: A disease also called "black water fever" from blood in urine is _____. a. Leishmania b. Cryptosporidiosis c. Giardiasis d. Malaria 49: _____ which are free-living trophozoites appear to enter the body through the mucous membranes of the nose and then follow the olfactory tracts to the brain. a. NaegleriaLeishmania b. Giardia c. Babesia 50: A common roundworm in young children is ______, causing an itchy anus at night. a. Ascaris b. hookworm c. pin worm d. elephantiasis
Chapter 19: Infection and Disease
1. A newborn a. b. c. d.
Contains indigenous micro biota before birth. Remains sterile for many weeks after birth, Becomes colonized soon after conception. Is colonized with many common micro biotas within a few days after birth.
2. Factors affecting virulence may include a. b. c. d.
The presence of pathogenicity islands. Their ability to penetrate the host. The infectious dose. All the above (a — c) are correct.
3. A healthy person can be diagnosed as having a infection with the multiplication of bacterial cells in the blood. a. b. c. d.
Primary; bacteremia Primary; vermeil Primary; septicemia Secondary; parasitemia
4. Changes in body function sensed by the patient are called a. b. c. d.
Symptoms. Syndromes. Prodromes. Signs.
5. Adhesions can be found on a. b. c. d.
Host Cells. Viruses. Bacterial Pili And Capsules. Cells At The Portal Of Entry.
6. In the body, bacterial invasiveness can be limited by a. Fever.
b. Phagocytosis. c. Enzyme production.. d. Toxic production. 7. Which one of the following is NOT true of exotoxins? a. b. c. d.
They are proteins. They are part of cell wall structure. They are released from live bacterial cells. They trigger antibody production.
8. A portal of exit would be a. b. c. d.
The feces. An insect bite. Blood removal. All of the above (a — c) are correct.
9. If a person has recovered from a disease but continues to shed disease agents, that person is a a. b. c. d.
Vector. Fomite. Vehicle. Carrier.
10. All of the following are examples of communicable diseases except: a. b. c. d.
Chickenpox. Measles. The common cold. Tetanus.
11. Which one of the following is an example of an indirect method of disease transmission? a. b. c. d.
Coughing Droplet transmission A mosquito bite An animal bite
12. Fifty cases of hepatitis A during one week in a community would most likely be described as a/an
a. b. c. d.
Outbreak. Pandemic. Endemic Disease. Epidemic.
13. The most common nosocomial infection involves a. b. c. d.
Blood. Lungs. Urinary Tract. A Surgical Site.
14. A zoonosis is a disease a. b. c. d.
Transmitted From Humans To Animals. Spread From Animals To Humans. Transmitted Between Wild And Domestic Animals. Spread Between Wild Animals.
15. A disease that occurs at a low level in a certain geographic area is a/an a. Local Disease. b. Pandemic Disease. c. Endemic Disease. d. Systemic Disease. 16: _____ methods of disease transmission include fomites and _____. a. Indirect; kissing b. Indirect; arthropods c. Direct; kissing d. Direct; arthropods 17: The site where a pathogen enters the body is commonly called the _____ while the number of pathogens necessary to establish an infection is the _____. a. Penetration Point; Dose b. Penetration Point; Acme c. Portal Of Entry; Dose d. Portal Of Entry; Acme 18: _____ refers to bacteria that grow and spread through the blood. a. Chronic Disease b. Septicemia
c. Acute Disease d. Bacteremia 19: A disease that is restricted to a single area of the body is a _____ disease. a. Local b. Topical c. Focused Disease d. Subclinical 20: A disease that is slower to develop, rarely reaches a climax, and fades very slowly is a/an _____ disease. a. Primary b. Subclinical c. Acute d. Chronic 21: The bacterial enzyme ______ assists the spread of bacteria away from a blood clot, while ______ assists the spread through body tissues. a. Streptokinase; Hyaluronidase b. Streptokinase; Hemolysin c. Coagulase; Hyaluronidase d. Coagulase; Hemolysin 22: A disease in which the agent is acquired directly from the environment and is not transmissible is a/an _____ disease. a. Local b. Secondary c. Noncommunicable d. Acute 23: The organisms of diphtheria and ______ are known for their production of _______. a. Typhoid Fever; Antitoxins b. Typhoid Fever; Exotoxins c. Tetanus; Antitoxins d. Tetanus; Exotoxins 24: An acute disease becomes _____ when the body is incapable of ridding itself of the pathogen, while a local disease becomes ______ when it disseminates to deeper organs and tissues. a. Contagious; Systemic b. Contagious; Secondary
c. Chronic; Systemic d. Chronic; Secondary 25: _____the scientific (and medical) study of the causes, transmission, and prevention of disease within a population. a. Epidemiology b. Pathology c. Microbiology d. Virulence 26: _____ is any change from the general state of good health. a. Infection b. Disease c. Parasitism d. Virulence 27: ________ occurs if a microbial member of the normal microbiota should gain access to sterile tissue. a. Pathogenicity Islands b. Exogenous Infection c. Endogenous Infection d. Polymicrobial Disease 28: ______ infections are more common in AIDS or cancer patients. a. Indigenous b. Opportunistic c. Primary d. Secondary 29: Which of the following is a sign of disease? a. Sorethroat b. Nausea c. Headache d. Fever 30: The ability of a pathogen to penetrate tissues, cause damage and spread is _____. a. Pathogenicity b. Invasion c. Adhesiveness d. Infectiousness 31: Which of the following is NOT an enzyme a pathogen might use to gain entrance into the body?
a. Coagulase b. Streptokinase c. Hemolysin d. A-C Are Correct 32: The body responds to exotoxins by producing antibodies called _____. a. Adhesins b. Antitoxins c. Toxoids d. A-C Are Correct 33: Which of the following is a reservoir of a disease? a. Dog - Toxoplasmosis b. Monkey - Ebola c. Bat - Rabies d. Goat - Leishmania 34: Which of the following is a fomite? a. Turtle b. Water c. Bed Linens d. Food
Chapter 20: Resistance End the Immune System; Innate Immunity
1. Which pair of cells represents granulocytes? a. Basophils and lymphocytes b. Neutrophils and eosinophils c. Eosinophils and monocytes d. Lymphocytes and monocytes 2. The secondary lymphoid tissues include the__________ and_____________ a. b. c. d.
Thymus; Bone Marrow Bone Marrow; Tonsils Spleen; Thymus Spleen; Lymph Nodes
3. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of innate immunity? a. b. c. d.
It is an early-warning system against pathogens. It is a form of immunity found only in vertebrates. It is a nonspecific response. It responds within minutes to many infections.
4. The stomach is a chemical barrier to infection because the stomach a. b. c. d.
Contains bile. Harbors helicobacterpylori, a member of the host microbiota. Possesses defensive cells. Has an acid ph.
5. Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the events of phagocytosis? a. Cell attachment, acidification, phagosome formation, lysosome degradation b. Cell attachment, phagosome formation, acidification, lysosome degradation c. Phagosome formation, cell attachment, acidification. lysosome degradation
d. Cell attachment phagosome formation, lysosome degradation. acidification 6. Which characteristic sign of inflammation is NOT correctly associated with its cause? a. b. c. d.
Edema — nerve damage Heat — blood warmth Swelling — fluid accumulation Redness — blood accumulation
7. Pyrogens are a. b. c. d.
Proteins Affecting the Hypothalamus. Bacterial Fragments. Fever-Producing Substances. All the Above (A — C) Are Correct.
8. Natural killer (NK) cells kill by secreting a. b. c. d.
Lysozymes. Granzymes. Defensins. Interferons.
9. Which one of the following is NOT a function of complement? a. b. c. d.
Stimulation of inflammation Stimulation of antibody formation Formation of membrane attack complexes Heightened level of phagocytosis
10.________ bind to_________ on microbial invaders. a. b. c. d.
Toll-like receptors; PAM Ps Mast cells; histamine Toll-like receptors; complement Macrophages; defensins
11. Which one of the following statements about interferon is FALSE? a. Interferon is produced in response to a viral infection. b. Interferon is a naturally produced protein. c. Interferon puts uninfected cells in an antiviral state.
d. Interferon is a protein that binds to RNA virus genomes. 12. _____ is the scientific study of how the immune system functions in the body to prevent or destroy foreign material, including pathogen a. b. c. d.
Epidemiology Microbiology Immunology Toxicology
13. Which of the following is NOT a lymphocyte? a. B-cells b. T-cell c. NK cells d. Basophils 14: Which of the following is NOT a granulocyte? a. Neutrophils b. Monocytes c. Eosinophils d. Basophils 15: Which of the following is a secondary lymphatic tissue? a. thymus b. bone marrow c. spleen d. A-C are correct 16: Which of the following is a barrier to entry of pathogens? a. b. c. d.
the skin tears nasal mucosa A-C are correct
17: Which of the following is a cellular barrier in the innate defense system? a. macrophages b. Erythrocytes c. B-cells
d. T-cells 18: _____ is a nonspecific defensive response by the body to trauma. a. b. c. d.
Phagocytosis Inflammation Abcess Respiratory burst
19: Which of the following is NOT part of inflammation? a. b. c. d. e.
Redness Pain Swelling Temperature Coughing
20: Virus infected cells produce a set of cytokine proteins called _____ that "alert" surrounding cells to the viral threat. a. b. c. d.
Interleukin-1 (IL-1) Interferon. Toll Like Receptors (TLR) Acute Phase Proteins
21: A _____ is a cytokine that induces fever by stimulating the ______. a. pyrogen, hypothalamus b. pyogen, thalamus c. defensin, thyroid d. perforin, pituitary 22: A _____ is a protein receptor on the surface of macrophages, dendritic cells, and endothelial cells that allow them to recognize foreign cell markers. a. Toll-like receptor (TLR) b. pathogen-associated c. Membrane attack complex (MAC) d. Natural killer cells (NK)
Chapter 21: Resistance And The Immune System: Acquired Immunity
1. ALL the following are immunogenic except: a. b. c. d.
Bacterial Flagella. Haptens. Bacterial Pili. Viral Spikes.
2._________ cells are associated with immunity while_____________ cells are part of___________ immunity. a. b. c. d.
B; cell-mediated; T; innate T; humoral; B; cellular T; cell-mediated; B; humoral T; humoral; B; nonspecific
3. Clonal selection includes a. Antigen-receptor binding on B cells. b. Antibody secretion recognizing same epitope as on B cell receptors. c. Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells and memory cells. d. All the above (A — C) are correct. 4. Which one of the following cell types is NOT derived from myeloid progenitors? a. Lymphocytes b. Monocytes c. Eosinophils d. Neutrophits 5. An antigen binding site on the IgG antibody is a combination of a. One variable region from a light chain and one from a heavy chain. b. Two variable regions from two light chains. c. Two variable regions from two heavy chains.
d. One variable region from a constant region and one from a variable region. 6. This dimeric antibody class often occurs in secretions of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. a. b. c. d.
IgE IgM IgA. IgG
7. The presence of IgM antibodies in the blood indicates a. b. c. d.
An early stage of an infection. A chronic infection. An allergic reaction is occurring. Humoral immunity has yet to start.
8. Antibody diversity results from a. b. c. d.
Apoptosis. Antigenic shift. Somatic recombination. Complement binding.
9. A/an ________mechanism facilitates the clearance of toxins from the body. a. Opsonization b. Precipitation c. Agglutination d. Neutralization 10. MHC class I proteins would be found on___________ whereas MHC class II proteins would be found on_____________ a. Nucleated Cells; Plasma Cells b. Nucleated Cells; Macrophages c. Dendritic Cells; Neutrophils d. Only White Blood Cells; Red Blood Cells 11. TH1 cells activate
a. b. c. d.
B cells. Killing of pathogens in macrophages. Cytotoxic T cells. Humoral immunity.
12. Performs and granzymes are found in a. b. c. d.
Helper T cells. Antigen-presenting cells. Cytotoxic T cells. B cells.
13. TH2 cells bind to a. b. c. d.
MHC-11/peptide complex on APC cells. B cell receptors. MHc-1/etid complex on infected cells. MHC-11/peptide complex on B cells.
14: The _____ cell contains on its surface a CD4 receptor site that enhances binding to the macrophage. a. Helper T b. molecular patterns (PAMPs) c. plasma d. B 15: Resistance to disease in the passageways of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract is dependent on antibodies in the class _____. a. b. c. d.
IgG IgA IgE IgM
16: To activate a bound helper T lymphocyte, the macrophage produces a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) b. granzymes c. Interferon 17: The immune system originates with a primordial cell of the fetus known as the _____ stem cell.
a. b. c. d.
T dendritic monocyte hematopoietic
18: Which one of the following is not an antigen? a. b. c. d.
A toxin A virus A bacterial cell All (A-C) are antigens
19: Antigens that bind directly to MHC proteins without any processing are known as _____. a. b. c. d.
epitopes haptens superantigens naïve cells
20: The _____ class of antibodies is the principal component of a secondary antibody response. a. b. c. d.
IgM IgD IgG IgE
21: In the body's immune system, _____ are the major producers of secreted antibodies. a. macrophages b. plasma cells c. T cells d. B cells 22: The unique sets of proteins that present antigens on the surfaces of body cells are a. b. c. d.
MHC proteins. Cytokines. Complement proteins. Immunoglobulins.
23: Antibodies contain two identical_____ chains, and two identical _____ chains. a. b. c. d.
right, left constant, variable heavy, light Fab, Fc
24: _____ responds to, distinguishes between and remembers specific pathogens it has encountered. a. b. c. d.
Acquired immunity Innate immunity Humoral immunity Cell-mediated immunity
25: Acquired immunity usually involves protein receptors on B and T cells that recognize discrete regions of the antigen called _____. a. haptens b. epitopes c. antibodies d. protein receptors 26: _____ T cells prevent autoreactive T cells from attacking self. a. b. c. d.
Memory Helper Regulatory Effector
27: ____ becomes activated to eliminate "nonself" cells, such as virusinfected cells or cancer cells. a. b. c. d.
Humoral immune response Cell-mediated immune response Complement Inflammation
28: _____ cells have antibodies on their surface that perform receptor functions by binding to antigen (epitope).
a. T b. B c. NK d. A-C are correct 29: Cytotoxic T cells release which 2 toxic proteins as they fight target cells? a. histamine and heparin b. perforin and granzymes granzymes c. interleukin and interferon d. lysozymes and cytokines 30: The cytotoxic T cells have a_____ co-receptor while the helper T cells have a _____ co-receptor. a. b. c. d.
CD8. CD4 CD4, CD8 MHCI, MHCII MHCII, MHCI
31: Acquired immunity consists of humoral immunity maintained maintained by _____ and _____, and cell-mediated cell-mediated immunity immunity controlled by _____ a. b. c. d.
T cells, complement, B cells T cells, Interleukin, B cells B cells, antibodies, T cells B cells, histamine, T cells
32: The formation of _____ by_____ directly lyses and kills pathogens. a. b. c. d.
Membrane Attack Complexes, complement Inflammation, Inflammation, lymph nodes antibodies, plasma cells Plasma cells, B cells
33: Of the five classes of antibodies,_____ and_____ are primary disease fighters, while secretory _____ is found on body (mucosal) surfaces. a. b. c. d.
IgA, IgG, IgD IgG, IgA, IgM IgG, IgD, IgM IgG, IgM, IgA
Chapter 22: Immunity and Serology 1. Exposure to the flu virus, contracting the flu, and recovering from the disease would be an example of a. Artificially acquired passive immunity. b. Naturally acquired acquired active immunity. c. Artificially acquired active immunity. d. Naturally acquired acquired passive immunity. 2. An attenuated vaccine contains a. Inactive toxins. b. Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens. c. Killed bacteria. d. Noninfective antigen antigen subunits. 3. Immune complex formation and serum sickness are dangers of a. Artificially acquired passive immunity. b. Naturally acquired acquired active immunity. c. Artificially acquired active immunity. d. Naturally acquired acquired passive immunity. 4.Herd immunity is affected by a. b. c. d.
The percentage of a population that is vaccinated. The strength of an individual‘s individual ‘s immune system. The number of susceptible individuals. All the above (a — c) c) are correct.
5. Approximately of 100,000 vaccinated individuals are likely to suffer a serious reaction to the vaccination. a. b. c. d.
1 50 100 500
6. Titer refers to a. The most concentrated antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction.
b. The first diluted antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction. c. The precipitation line formed between an antigen-antibody reaction. d. The most dilute antigen-antibody concentration showing a reaction. 7. _______ is a serological reaction that produces Little or no visible evidence of a reaction. a. Precipitation b. ELISA c. NeutraLization d. Agglutination 8. The serological reaction where antigens and antibodies form an extensive Lattice of large particles is called a. Fixation. b. Precipitation. c. Neutralization. d. Agglutination. 9. When antigens are attached to the surface of latex beads and then reacted with an appropriate antibody, a/an reaction occurs. a. Inhibition b. Agglutination c. Neutralization d. Precipitation 10. What serologicaL test requires sheep red blood cells and a preparation of antibodies antibodies that recognizes the sheep sheep red blood ceLls? a. b. c. d.
ELISA Radioimmunoassay Immunodiffusion Complement fixation test
11. In an ELISA, the primary antibody represents represents a. The patient‘s serum. b. The antibody recognizing the secondary antibody.
c. The enzyme-linked (labeled) antibody. d. The antibodies having been washed away. 12. A hybridoma cell a. b. c. d.
Secretes monoclonal antibodies. Presents antigens on its surface. Secretes polyclonal antibodies. Is an antigen-presenting cell
13. A vaccination would be an example of _____ immunity that is ______ acquired. a. b. c. d.
Active; Naturally Active; Artificially Passive; Naturally Passive; Artificially
14: Antibodies produced by a single clone of myeloma cells are referred to as _____ antibodies. a. b. c. d.
Chimeric Monoclonal Polyclonal Hybrid
15: An attenuated vaccine is one that a. b. c. d.
Can provide life-long immunity. Contains live microbes or viruses. Is closest to the natural pathogens. All the above (a-c) are correct.
16: Booster immunizations are used to raise the antibody level by stimulating the _____ cells to induce the secondary antibody response. a. helper T b. B c. memory d. plasma 17: A/an _____ vaccine contains inactivated toxins. a. toxigenic
b. toxoid c. antitoxin d. immunotoxic 18: Passive artificial immunity occurs in the body when a/an _____ is injected into the body or when a developing fetus receives antibodies across the placenta. a. b. c. d.
antibody-rich serum antigens haptens adjuvant
19: All forms of immunity depend on an exposure to antigens and a subsequent response by _____ cells. a. basophil b. neutrophil c. NK d. T 20: The colostrum, or first milk of a nursing mother, contains _____ that is transferred to the nursing child. a. b. c. d.
IgA IgG IgM IgE
21: Hyperimmune serum is serum with a higher than normal level of _____. a. b. c. d.
antigens antibodies toxins immune cells
22: _____ acquired _____ immunity usually follows an obvious illness or it may follow a subclinical illness. a. Naturally; passive b. Artificially; active c. Naturally; active d. Artificially; passive
23: The danger of attenuated vaccines is they should not be given to _____. a. b. c. d.
infants young children immunocompromised patients all of the above (A-C)
24: Why should you get a new influenza vaccine every year? a. b. c. d.
it wears off fast the viruses change rapidly you need a booster to keep the immune level up none of the above are correct
25 Why are inactivated vaccines safer than attenuated vaccines? a. b. c. d.
they can't mutate and cause the disease they last a lifetime they are easier to administer they aren't any better
26: What is the advantage of a recombinant subunit vaccine? a. it can't cause disease b. adverse reactions are rare because only the important subunits of the antigen are included c. the vaccine is not made from blood fragments d. A-C are correct 27: Which of the following is a conjugate vaccine with tetanus or diphtheria toxoid? a. b. c. d.
Salk polio Sabin polio influenza Hib
28: The newest and safest vaccines under development are _____. a. b. c. d.
attenuated vaccines toxoid vaccines DNA vaccines conjugated vaccines
29: The maternal _____ antibodies remain with the child for approximately three to six months after birth providing immunity after birth. a. b. c. d.
IgA IgG IgM IgD
30: Often it may be necessary to add a substance to a vaccine to improve its ability to stimulate the immune system called a/an ____. a. b. c. d.
adjuvant conjugant toxoid formulant
31: If a serum is given to prevent a disease it is called a ______. a. therapeutic b. prophylactic c. synthetic d. convalescent 32: _____ implies that if enough people in a population are immunized against certain diseases, then it is very difficult for those diseases to spread. a. Herd immunity b. Passive immunity c. Active immunity d. Natural immunity
Chapter 23: Immune Disorders
1. All the following are types of immediate hypersensitivities except: a. b. c. d.
Asthma. Contact Dermatitis. Food Allergies. Hay Fever.
2. Systemic anaphylaxis is characterized by a. b. c. d.
Contraction Of Smooth Muscles. A Red Rash. Blood Poisoning. Hives.
3. Which of the following is NOT a type I hypersensitivity? A. Food Allergies B. Contact Dermatitis C. Allergic Rhinitis D. Exercise Induced Allergies 4. The early response in asthma is due to activity. a. b. c. d.
Cytotoxic T Cell Basophil TH2 Cell And NI( Cell Dendritic Cells
5. What type of immune cell may control IgE-mediated hypersensitivities? a. Suppressor T cells b. Plasma cells c. Cytotoxic T cells d. Neutrophils 6. Desensitization therapy can involve a. The use of blocking antibodies. b. Injections of small amounts of allergen.
c. Allergen injections of several months. d. All the above (A — C) are correct. 7. A cytotoxic hypersensitivity would occur if blood type is transfused into a person with blood type a. b. c. d.
A;AB 0; AB A; 0 0; B
8. Serum sickness is a common symptom of a. b. c. d.
Contact dermatitis. Hemolytic disease of the newborn. Immune complex hypersensitivity Food allergies.
9. Which one of the following allergens is NOT associated with contact dermatitis? a. b. c. d.
Foods Cosmetics Poison ivy Jewlery
10. Immunological tolerance to ―self‖ is established by a. b. c. d.
Destruction of self-reactive lymphoid cells. Clonal anergy. Clonal deletion. All the above (A — C) are correct.
11. A is a graft between genetically different members of the same species. a. b. c. d.
Xenograft Autograft Allograft Isograft
12. Immunosuppressive agents used in preventing transplant rejection primarily affect
a. b. c. d.
macrophages. neutrophils. dendritic cells. T cells.
13. What immunodeficiency disorder is associated with a tack of T and B cells and complete immune dysfunction? a. b. c. d.
DiGeorge syndrome Severe combined immunodeficiency disease Chronic granulomatous disease Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
14. An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS. a. b. c. d.
1,000; stage II 700; stage I 400; stage III 400; stage IV
15 All the following are associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn except: a. b. c. d.
It is one of the most common diseases among Americans. It may occur if an Rh (-) female conceives a child who is Rh (+). It involves a reaction between red blood cells and antibodies. It can be prevented by using rhogam.
16 Which one of the following applies to the disease systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. b. c. d.
It is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity. It is often accompanied by a butterfly rash. It is due to an overreaction of T lymphocytes. It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.
17: During the course of a cellular hypersensitivity a. Antibodies react with antigens in tissues. b. Serotonin and histamine are released by cells. c. Immune complexes form on blood vessel surfaces.
d. A skin thickening called an induration may form.
18: DiGeorge syndrome and X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia differ in the a. b. c. d.
Type of antibody produced by the immune system. Lymphocytes that the body fails to produce. Systems affected by the respective diseases. Type of hypersensitivity that ensues.
19: Hashimoto disease and Graves‘ disease are similar in that both a. b. c. d.
Affect the thyroid gland. Affect the red blood cells. Are forms of cellular hypersensitivity? Are accompanied by histamine release.
20: An essential element of all allergy reactions is the a. b. c. d.
Release of interferons from tissue cells. Accumulation of ige on the surfaces of mast cells and basophils. Passage of igg from the immune system to local tissue cells. Elimination of all traces of plasma cells from the body.
21: The transfusion reaction that arises from the mixing of incompatible blood types illustrates a/an a. b. c. d.
Form of lupus erythematous. Type i hypersensitivity. Immune complex reaction. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
22: The major histocompatibility complex of antigens may be found a. b. c. d.
On the surface of body cells. Only on cells sensitized during allergy reactions. Only on cells involved in a xenograft. On cells stimulated by the urushiol in poison ivy plants.
23: Severe combined immunodeficiency disease refers to a condition wherein a patient a. Cannot produce T and B cells.
b. Interferon. c. Antigen-presenting cells. d. Hydrogen peroxide in phagocytes. 24: _____ is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune defense that is causing the problems in an affected individual. a. b. c. d.
Hypersensitivity Autoimmune disease AIDS HIV
25: In Type I hypersensitivity the first dose of antigen is the _____. a. b. c. d.
Immunizing Dose Sensitizing Dose Allergizing Dose Activating Dose
26: The most important preformed mediator of allergic reactions is/are a. b. c. d.
Prostaglandin Interleukin Histamine Leukotrienes
27: Systemic _____ is the most dangerous form of a Type I Hypersensitivity. a. b. c. d.
Anaphylaxis Unconsciousness Edema Prostaglandins
28: Exercise sometimes also causes allergies, usually in the form of a. b. c. d.
Anaphylaxis An asthma attack. Hives. Edema.
29: ______ follow streptococcal diseases and appear to be consequences of immune complex formation in the kidneys or heart.
a. Scarlet fever b. Yellow fever c. Rheumatic fever d. Necrotizing fasciatis 30: An example of infection allergy is the _______. a. b. c. d.
Skin test for allergies Arthus phenomenon Poison ivy Tuberculin test
31: Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. b. c. d. e.
Myasthenia gravis Type i diabetes Systemic lupus erythematosus Rheumatoid arthritis All of the above are autoimmune disorders
32: Which of the following is a cause of a secondary immunodeficiency? a. b. c. d.
X-linked inheritance Deficiencies in the complement system Viral infection resembling self-cells All the above are correct
33: What are some of the initial symptoms in about 70% of people infected with HIV within the first few weeks? a. A migrating rash covering the whole body b. Flu-like symptoms, of fever, chills c. Sneezing and symptoms of a head cold d. No one develops symptoms until several years later
Chapter 24: Antimicrobial Drugs
1. Ehrlich and Hata discovered that was used to treat a. Salvarsan; syphilis b. penicillin; surgical wounds c. Salvarsan; malaria. d. Prontosil; malaria 2. The re-isolation and purification of penicillin was carried out by a. b. c. d.
Waksman. Florey and Chain. Domagk. Fleming.
3. The concentration of an antibiotic causing harm to the host is called a. b. c. d.
Toxic dosage Level. Therapeutic dosage level. Minimal inhibitory concentration. Chemotherapeutic index.
4. In the soil, antibiotics are produced by some a. b. c. d.
Fungal species and viruses. Bacterial species and viruses. Viruses and helminthic species. Fungal and bacterial species.
5. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are examples of synthesis. a. b. c. d.
Sulfonamides; PABA Penicillins; Cell Wall Sulfonamides; Folic Acid Macrolides; Protein
6. Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat a. Cholera. b. Influenza. c. MRSA.
d. Tuberculosis. 7. Penicillins are useful in treating a. b. c. d.
Gram-positive infections. Leprosy. Gram-negative infections. Tuberculosis.
8. All the following are drugs or drug classes blocking cell wall synthesis except: a. b. c. d.
Cephalosporins. Carbapenems. Monobactams. Tetracyclines.
9. Vancomycin inhibits _____________ synthesis. a. protein b. DNA c. bacterial cell wall d. RNA 10. Two cyclic polypeptide antibiotics are a. b. c. d.
Vancomycin and streptomycin. Penicillin and cephalosporin. Bacitracin and polymyxins .gentamicin and chloramphenicol
11. Which one of the following is NOT an inhibitor of protein synthesis? a. b. c. d.
Clindamycin Macrolides Rifampin Chioramphenicol
12. Antibiotics inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis include a. Rifampin and quinolones. b. Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines. c. Lincosamides and streptogramins..
d. Macrolides and ami noglycosides. 13. Antiviral drugs that are base analogs inhibit a. Viral Entry. b. Genome Replication. c. Uncoating. d. Naturation. 14. Antifungal drugs, such as_ __, inhibit proper formation of a. b. c. d.
Miconazole; A Plasma Membrane Griseofulvin; Dna Ketoconazole; A Cell Wall Tiucytosine; A Rnicrotubule
15. All of the following antiprotozoal drugs have been used to treat malaria except: a. b. c. d.
Melarsoprol. Quinine. Mefloquine. Chloroquine.
16. This antihelminthic agent makes the membrane permeable to calcium ions. a. b. c. d.
Mebendazole Pentamidine Ivermectin. Praziquantel
17. The is used to determine an antibiotic‘s minimal inhibitory concentration (NEC). a. b. c. d.
Ames test tube dilution method agar disk diffusion method Kirby-Bauer test
18. The phosphorylation of an antibiotic is an example of which mechanism of resistance? a. Target modification
b. Reduced permeability c. Antibiotic inactivation d. Altered metabolic pathway 19. A superinfection could arise from a. b. c. d.
Using antibiotics when not needed. Using unnecessarily large doses of antibiotics. Stopping antibiotic treatment prematurely.. All of the above (A — C) are correct.
20. New approaches to antibiotic therapy include a. b. c. d.
Carbohydrate targets in the wall LPS. unregulating DNA replication. Discovering new and unique antibiotics. All of the above (A — C) are correct.
21._____ is examples of drugs that are derived from the metabolism of microorganisms. a. b. c. d.
Salvarsan Prontosil Penicillin A-C are correct
22: _____ is when an antimicrobial drug should harm the infectious agent but not the host. a. b. c. d.
Selective toxicity Toxic dose Therapeutic dose Chemotherapeutic index
23: The sulfa drugs work by _______ with PABA in making folic acid. a. Positive Feedback b. Negative Feedback c. Competitive Inhibition d. Allosteric Inhibition
24: Isoniazid has a very narrow drug spectrum as the active form of the drug specifically interferes with cell wall synthesis in _____ by inhibiting the production of mycolic acid in the cell wall. a. b. c. d.
Staphylococcus Streptococcus Enterococcus Mycobacterium
25: Antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents have been available to doctors since a. b. c. d.
The Civil War. The days of the Roman physicians. 1965 The 1940s.
26: The sulfonamides interfere with bacterial metabolism by a. blocking cell wall synthesis. b. disrupting folic acid metabolism. c. reacting with bacterial cell membranes. d. inhibiting DNA replication. 27: Gentamicin and other aminoglycoside drugs are widely prescribed for treatment of _____ infections. a. b. c. d.
fungal gram-positive bacterial gram-negative bacterial staphylococcal
28: Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched as to antibiotic and use? a. Penicillin-gram-positive bacteria b. Nystatin-fungi c. Tetracycline-viruses d. Griseofulvin-fungi 29: A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina, or oral cavity are commonly treated with a. cefotaxime.
b. vidarabine. c. streptomycin. d. nystatin. 30: A paper disc or small cylinder containing antibiotic is used in the antibiotic sensitivity assay known as the a. b. c. d.
Tube dilution method. Immunodiffusion method. Agar diffusion method. Passive detection method.
31: The imidazole drugs are of value for treating a. b. c. d.
Viral diseases. Protozoal diseases and bacterial diseases. Bacterial diseases. Fungal diseases.
32: Tetracyclines interfere with a. b. c. d.
Translation. Transcription. Dna Replication. Membrane Function.
33: The drug isoniazid is used widely in contemporary medicine to a. b. c. d.
Treat tuberculosis. Prevent fungal overgrowth in the intestine. Clear away wound infections. Eliminate infections due to gram-negative bacteria.
34: Two drugs that affect cell wall synthesis are a. b. c. d.
Erythromycin and penicillin. Vancomycin and cephalosporin. Tetracycline and polymyxin b. Chloramphenicol and streptomycin.
35: Two major drawbacks to the use of ______ is allergies and betalactamases produced by resistant bacteria. a. Tetracycline
b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporin d. Bacitracin 36: Bacitracin, Polymyxin and Neomycin are used together for topical skin infections under the name of _____. a. Neosporin b. Vancomycin c. Cephalosporin d. Nystatin. 37: Which of the following antibiotics work by targetting protein synthesis? a. Methicillin b. Chloramphenicol c. Penicillin d. Nystatin. 38: _____ cause a yellow-gray-brown discoloration of teeth and stunted bones in children, which have limited its use to adults. a. b. c. d.
Methicillin Vancomycin Tetracycline Erythromycin
39: There are limited medications for fungi, protozoan and other parasites because they are _____ like us. a. b. c. d.
heterotrophs multicellular macroscopic eukaryotes
40: Antibiotics will not work against _____ diseases because they lack the structures and metabolic machinery with which antibiotics interfere. a. viral b. bacterial c. fungal d. protozoan
Miscellaneous 1 1: Spoiled food can be caused from _____. a. b. c. d.
enterotoxins in food contaminating microorganisms from the air human food handling A-C are correct
2: Food must be moist, with a minimum water content of _____before contamination by microorganisms and spoilage can occur. a. b. c. d.
18% to 20% 10 to 15% 5 to 10% 0 to 5%
3: _________foods include poultry, eggs, meats, most vegetables and fruits. a. Nonperishable b. Semiperishable c. Highly perishable d. Antibacterial 4: Bacterial species in fish are naturally adapted to the cold environment in which most fish live and thus, _____ will not affect them; _____ is preferred. a. b. c. d.
heating, cooking cooling, refrigeration warming, boiling cooling, freezing
5: Many cases of _____ have been related to raw oysters. a. botulism b. cholera c. typhoid d. food poisoning 6: Processed foods such as chicken pot pies, whole egg custard, mayonnaise, eggnog, and egg salad also may be sources of
a. b. c. d.
Staphylococcus Chlamydia Salmonella E.coli
7: Two types of grain spoilage are _____ and _____. A. aflatoxins, ergotism a. botulism, ergotism b. Staphlococcus, Streptococcus c. aflatoxins, enterotoxins 8: _____ is used to make processed cheeses and "cheese foods." a. b. c. d.
Sour curd Sweet curd Whey Butterfat
9: The modern refrigerator is set at _____ to provide a suitable environment for preserving food without destroying appearance, or taste. a. b. c. d. e.
30°F 35°F 40°F 45°F 50°F
10: Approximately 33% of all preserved food in the United States is______. a. canned b. frozen c. dehydrated d. pasteurized
Miscellaneous 2 1: _____ is water that is safe to drink. a. b. c. d.
Potable water Surface water Well water Ground water
2: Polluted water usually contains coliform bacteria like _____. a. b. c. d.
Streptococcus Proteus Escherichia coli Pseudomonas
3: Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 main types of water pollution? a. b. c. d.
Physical pollution Chemical pollution Thermal pollution Biological pollution
4: An emerging pathogen associated with contaminated water is _____. a. b. c. d.
typhoid fever cholera shigellosis Vibrio vulnificus
5: _____ bacteria live as individuals and do not live in biofilms. a. b. c. d.
Planktonic Anaerobic Aerobic Facultative anaerobic
6: Some scientists‘ estimate that in nature, _____ of all microbial activities occur in biofilms.
a. b. c. d. e.
0.25 0.33 0.45 0.6 0.99
7: Rhizobium fixes nitrogens in the roots of _____, so they don't need to be fertilized; in fact they add nitrogen to the soil. a. b. c. d. e.
corn legumes wheat grasses oats
8: _______ disease develops on the hands or feet. Sores on the skin become infected with Mycobacterium marinum in polluted water or in infected fish. a. b. c. d. e.
Fish handlers Cholera Cowpox Rotovirus Coxsackie
9: In 1842, Edwin Chadwick's report raised the possibility that sewage spreads disease along with a ______ outbreak which began the ________ movement. a. typhoid, aseptic b. cholera, sanitation c. polio, immunization d. none of the above are correct 10: One of the benefits of biofilms is _____. a. quorum sensing b. keeping aquariums clean c. bioremediation of toxic wastes d. production of oil
Miscellaneous 3 1: ______ form the bulk of microbial products of industrial interest. a. primary metabolites b. secondary metabolites c. tertiary metabolites d. quaternary metabolites 2: Some contemporary products already obtained by plasmid technology include a. b. c. d.
interferon insulin human growth hormone A-C above are correct
3: Bacillus subtilis makes a good "bacterial factory" in genetic engineering because _____. a. b. c. d.
it normally retains the products it makes it is not a human pathogen contains endotoxins in it's cell wall traditionally ferments sugars
4: When the Exxon Valdez oil spill occurred, technologists "fertilized" the oil-soaked water with _____ to modify the environment and stimulate he growth of naturally occurring microorganisms. a. nitrogen sources (e.g., urea) b. phosphorus compounds c. other mineral nutrients d. A-C above are correct 5: To the present time, over _____ antibiotic substances have been described and approximately _____ such drugs are available to the medical practitioner. a. b. c. d.
10,000; 100 8,000; 100 6000; 300 4,000; 400
6: In the United States, distilled beverages are designated with a "proof number," which is _____ the percentage of the alcohol content. a. b. c. d.
half one fourth twice 4 times
7: In making beer, in the process of ____ barley grains are steeped in water while naturally occurring enzymes digest the starch to simpler carbohydrates. a. b. c. d.
steeping mashing maltng worting
8: The alcoholic content of beer is approximately _____. a. b. c. d.
0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08
9: _____ from the mold Aspergillus oryzaeis used as a spot remover in laundry presoaks, as an adhesive, and in baking, where it digests starch to glucose. a. b. c. d.
Amylase Lactase Sucrase Maltase
10. One indirect way to determine microbial growth is using a _____. a. b. c. d.
UV light Spectrophotometer Light meter Radioactive counter
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Answers Chapter1
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. e 18. c 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. d 25. d 26. a Chapter2
1. a 2. a 3. a 4. b
5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35.
a d c c c d a d b a a c b c d b b c b a c a b b d a b c d b d
4. a 5. b 6. d 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. a 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. a Chapter4
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. d 5. c 6. d
Chapter 3
1. b 2. d 3. c
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7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. c 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. b 25. d 26. b Chapter 5
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a
15. d 16. c 17. c 18. c 19. b 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. e 24. a 25. b 26. d 27. d 28. d
21. b 22. d 23. b 24. a 25. b 26. a 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. b
Chapter 6
Chapter 7
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. d
1. d 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. a 19. b 20. c
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21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33.
a d d a b b d a e d c b b
Chapter 8
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. b 20. e 21. d
22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.
a b c b b e c b d a a d a c d b
19. b 20. c 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. b 25. a 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. e 30. d 31. d 32. a 33. c chapter10
Chapter 9
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. a 19. d
1. c 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. a 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b
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20. d 21. d Chapter11
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. a 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. d 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. c 32. d
33. d 34. d 35. a 36. e 37. b 38. c 39. d
28. b 29. c 30. d Chapter 13
Chapter 12
1. d 2. d 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. d 18. a 19. b 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. d 26. b 27. c
150
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. b 11. d 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. d 27. d 28. a 29. d 30. a 31. b
32. d 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. a 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. a
26. b 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. b
Chapter 14
Chapter 15
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. a 13. d 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. a
1. d 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. a
1. d 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. d 8. d 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. c 13. b 14. d 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. d 26. b 27. c 28. a Chapter 17
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d 6. b
Chapter 16
151
7. b 8. b 9. c 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. d 21. d 22. d 23. a 24. b 25. c 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. b Chapter 18
1. 2. 3. 4.
c a d d
5. a 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. b 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. c 18. a 19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. d 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. a 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. b
41. d 42. b 43. d 44. c 45. a 46. b 47. c 48. d 49. a 50. c Chapter 19
1. a 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. d 24. c
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25. a 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. c 34. c Chapter 20
1. b 2. d 3. b 4. d 5. b 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b 19. d 20. b 21. a 22. b Chapter 21
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. a 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. a 31. c 32. a 33. d
2. b 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. b 30. a 31. b 32. a Chapter 23
1. b 2. a 3. b
Chapter 22
1. b
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