MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY 1.
Many of this type of bacteria do not possess superoxide dismutase and catalase A. obligate aerobes B. obligate anaerobes C. facultative anaerobes D. microaerophiles p. 66
2.
It is the period when the bacterium is assessing the nutrients present in medium; the bacterium does not divide but there is an intense metabolic activity. The phase of bacterial growth is A. Lag B. Log C. Stationary D. Decline p. 53
3.
Which the best to sterilize scissors and other sharps? A. Glutaraldehyde B. Formaldehyde C. Iodophor D. Phenol p. 60
4.
These are groups of genes that are clustered together in the DNA of some bacterial species and which may enable them to invade a host A. Pathogenicity island B. Episomes C. Transposons D. Replicons p. 98
5.
Which is true about the bacterial chromosome? A. Contains histones that stabilize the DNA B. Composed of a single pair of homologous chromosomes C. Replicates in a very different manner from that of eukaryotic chromosomes D. Contain single copy of each gene p. 99
6.
A non-encapsulated strain of Hemophilus influenzae acquires the gene for capsule production from a DNA extract of another encapsulated strain. The event that has occurred is A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transduction D. Transcription p. 106
1
7.
What is the substance primarily responsible for the structural integrity of the bacterial cell wall and is susceptible to lysozyme? A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Teichoic acid C. Peptidoglycan D. Lipopolysaccharide p. 22
8.
A hospitalized patient with dysuria and suprapubic pain is treated with ciprofloxacin. What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic? A. It inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase B. It inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit C. It inhibits protein subunits by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit D. It inhibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) p. 164
9.
Which bacterial structure may carry gene for antibiotic resistance? A. Mesosome B. Periplasm C. Plasmid D. Outer membrane p. 98
10.
What is the predominant indigenous flora of the colon? A. Anaerobic, gram-negative, non-spore-forming bacteria B. Anaerobic, gram-positive, non-spore-forming bacteria C. Aerobic, gram-negative, non-spore-forming bacteria D. Aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacteria p. 199
11.
Which of the following is the true regarding the bacterial cell? A. He motility of bacteria is due to flagella, axial filaments or cilia B. The ability to colonize cell surfaces is dependent on toxic production C. The ability to survive in soil for a long period of time is dependent on the production of endospores D. It has the same ribosomes as that of a eukaryotic cells p. 35
12.
Which of the following is the counterpart of mitochondria in a bacterial cell? A. Cell wall B. Endospores C. Ribosomes D. Cell membrane p. 17
13.
Which of the following agents possess either DNA or RNA? A. Viruses B. Prions C. Bacteria D. Fungi p. 2 2
14.
Most pathogenic microorganism grow best at the temperature range of about _____. A. 15-20ºC B. 30-37ºC C. 50-60ºC D. 80-100ºC p. 65
15.
A 22-year-old woman came in due to meningococcemia. Few hours after the admission, the patient experienced disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The patient shock was due to what component of the causative agent? A. Cell wall B. Capsule C. Lipopolysaccharide D. Endospores pp. 155-156
16.
Which one of the following antimicrobial agents acts on microorganisms by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis? A. Streptomycin B. Cefalexin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Erythromycin p. 189
17.
A newborn was diagnosed with neonatal meningitis. The causative agent was found out to be isolated in the vagina of the mother. Which one of the following microorganisms can be a part of the normal vaginal flora of the mother and can cause neonatal meningitis? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Escherichia coli D. Streptococcus agalactiae p. 199
18.
Which of the following is the “C3 activation unit” in the classical complement pathway? A. C1q B. C3 C. C4b, C2a D. C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9 p. 136
19.
The classic pathway of the complement system is activated when__ A. The Fab portion of IgM binds to the C1s of the complement pathway B. The Fc portion of IgE binds to the C1q of the complement pathway C. The hypervariable regions of the heavy and light chains binds to the membrane of the bacterial cell D. The mannose binding lectin stimulates mannose associated serine protease p. 136
3
20.
Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cell must express which one of the following on their surfaces? A. IgE B. Gamma interferon C. Class I MHC antigens D. Class II MHC antigens p. 139
21.
Increased susceptibility with Hepatitis virus and Candida albicans would be expected with a deficiency of which of the following cells? A. PMN B. Eosinophils C. B cells D. T cells p. 138
22.
In Type I hypersensitivity, the predominant antibody that is elicited is: A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM p. 140
23.
Contact dermatitis is an example of: A. IgE mediated B. Complement mediated C. IgG mediated D. Cell mediated p. 141
24.
This immunoglobulin is important in preventing diarrhea in the newborn A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD p. 129
25.
Main component in secondary response. A. IgA B. IgM C. IgG D. IgD p. 135
26.
At birth, the main source of Hematopoetic Stem Cell is the A. Liver B. Spleen C. Bone Marrow D. Thymus p. 126
4
27.
Which method will you see to detect antigens directly from tissue? A. ELISA B. Ouchterlony technic C. Immunofluorescence D. Complement fixation p. 142
28.
Which is true about humoral immunity and antibodies? A. Antibodies found on the surface of B cells are IgA B. IgG has two bindings sites for an antigen C. IgM is the main protection of the newborn up to 6 (six) months D. The Fab region of IgE binds to mast cell receptor p. 128
29.
Which of the following complement cascade does not involve C3b? A. C5 convertase of the alternative pathway B. C5 convertase of the classic pathway C. C3 convertase of the alternative pathway D. C3 convertase of the classic pathway p. 136
30.
Which of the following cells is a part of the innate immune response? A. B-lymphocytes B. T-helper lymphocytes C. T-cytotoxic lymphocytes D. Macrophages p. 123
31.
Which of the following is LEAST associated with Enterohemorrahgic E. coli? A. fermentation of sorbitol B. strain 0157:H7 C. undercooked hamburgers D. hemolytic-uremic syndrome p. 253
32.
Which of the following is true about cholera and its causative agent? A. A secretory diarrhea due to increases in cGMP in the intestinal cells B. The stool is described as ‘rice water-like’ C. The causative agent is non-motile, nonfermentative D. Grows poorly in medium with alkaline pH p. 271
33.
The appearance of moistpale papules or condylomas in the anogenital area is characteristic of A. Primary syphilis B. Secondary syphilis C. Tertiary syphilis D. T. pallidum p. 332
5
34.
A 4-year old Asian child develops an infection with Chlamydia trachomatis. How does infection with this organism cause blindness? A. Retinal detachment B. Cataract formation C. Hemorrhage of the anterior chamber D. Scarring of the cornea p.360
35.
Which is associated with atherosclerosis? A. K. pneumoniae B. C. trachomatis C. S. pyogenes D. C. pneumoniae p.364
36.
Which of the following is LEAST effective against M. pneumoniae infection? A. Erythromycin B. Tetracycline C. Kanamycin D. Vancomycin p. 345
37.
The only disease that can be diagnosed by demonstration of spirochetes in peripheral blood smear A. Relapsing fever B. Leptopirosis C. Pinta D. Lyme disease p. 335
38.
Which of the following is LEAST associated with Helicopter pylori? A. It requires at least 2% NaCl for growth (halophilic) B. It requires increased carbon dioxide tension and decreased oxygen tension C. It is sensitive to the acidity of the gastric juice D. Most commonly diagnosed by the demonstration of urease production p.275
39.
In which type of diarrhea is the use of antibiotics not recommended? A. Salmonellosis B. Campylobacter infection C. Cholera D. Shigellosis p. 259
6
40.
Which causes urinary tract infection characterized by alkaline urine and formation of urinary calculi? A. Shigella dysenteriae B. Escherichia coli C. Proteus mirabilis D. Enterobacter cloacae p. 254
41.
Which is LEAST acceptable as specimen for the diagnosis of anaerobic infection A. Transtracheal aspirate B. Suprapubic aspirate C. Vaginal swab D. Sample of tissue from infected site p. 309
42.
Which of the following microorganisms takes up the color of Crystal violet upon properly performed Gram staining? A. Neisseria gonorrheae B. Clostridium perfringens C. Escherichia coli D. Pseudomonas sp. p. 208
43.
Which of the following is a Toxoid vaccine? A. Pnuemococcal B. Measles C. Varicella D. Diphtheria p. 215
44.
The most infectious stage in pertussis is: A. Catarrhal stage B. Prodomal stage C. Paroxysmal stage D. Convalescent stage p. 283
45.
Regarded as a TB marker in the diagnosis of tuberculous effusion: A. Gamma interferon B. AFB smear C. Caseation necrosis D. PPD positivity p. 407
46.
Presence of immunity to C. diphtheriae is indicated by: A. Positive elek test B. Negative elek test C. Positive schick test D. Negatice schick test p. 215
7
47.
Which of the following is MOST likely acquired from caves? A. Blastomycosis B. Histoplasmosis C. Coccidioidomycosis D. Paracoccidioidomycosis p. 642
48.
Asteroid bodies are seen tissue infected with A. P. verrucosa B. P. boydii C. S. schenckii D. L. loboi p. 634
49.
The agents of chromomycosis are seen in infected tissues as A. Intracellular yeast B. Granules C. Sclerotic bodies D. Cigar-shaped bodies p. 635
50.
Which of the following is NOT dimorphic? A. P. boydii B. H. capsulatum C. S. schenckii D. C. immitis p. 636
51.
The agent of blastomycosis are seen in infected tissues as A. Intracellular yeast B. Single budding yeast C. Multiple budding yeast D. Cigar-shaped bodies p. 642
52.
The physician closely monitored the patient’s serum creatinine and ion levels. The patient is taking certain anti-fungal drug. What possible antifungal agent may affect the renal function of this patient? A. Ketoconazole B. Terbinafine C. Griseofulvin D. Amphotericin B p. 653
53.
The primary site of echovirus multiplication in the human host is A. The muscular system B. The alimentary tract C. The anterior horn cells D. The respiratory system p. 487
8
54.
Which of the following properties of polioviruses is not shared by rhinovirus? A. Icosahedral symmetry B. Resistance to lipid solvents C. Naked virus D. Stability at acid pH (pH3.0) p. 489
55.
Segmented, double-stranded RNA genome that is a common cause of viral gastroenteritis? A. Astrovirus B. Norwalk virus C. Calicivirus D. Rotavirus pp. 505-507
56.
Diagnostic of Congenital rubella is the demonstration of rubella antibodies like: A. Maternal IgM B. Neonatal IgM C. Neonatal IgA D. Maternal IgA p. 568
57.
A viral cause of nephropathy in immunocompromised patient is A. Human papillomavirus, all types B. Human papillomavirus, low-risk types C. Hepatitis C D. Polyomavirus BK pp. 598-599
58.
Which of the following individuals may be at increased risk of acquiring and HIV infection? A. A pregnant mother with a seafarers husband B. A secretary at an AIDS institute C. A doctor with a colleague that is HIV positive D. A male celebrity who has multiple sexual partner including a prostitute pp. 616-617
59.
Type of papillomavirus that is commonly associated with cervical carcinoma A. Type 1 B. Type 6 C. Type 9 D. Type 18 p. 601
60.
Progressive Multifocal leukuencepalopathy is associated with a virus that is described as __. A. ssDNA, icosahedral, naked B. dsDNA, helical, enveloped C. dsDNA, icosahedral, naked D. ssRNA, segmented, naked pp. 597-599 9
61.
Which of the following virus that can enter a skin through abrasions? A. Adenovirus B. Polyomavirus C. Papillomavirus D. Rhinovirus p. 599
62.
A 6-year old child had recently had fifth disease. Her 43-year old mother subsequently developed a rash and arthalgia. Which one of the following best describes the causative agent? A. It has the same size as poxvirus B. It has a helical symmetry C. Inactivated by ether D. A single-stranded DNA genome pp. 414-416
63.
HIV is a retrovirus. A retrovirus is a A. Cause tumors in mouse B. Contain a DNA genome C. Cause rapidly progressive neurological disease D. Multiplies in the nucleus p. 605
64.
Most common cause of post transfusion hepatitis A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV p. 466
65.
Site of latent infections is at the sacral ganglia: A. HSV 1 B. HSV 2 C. EBV D. CMV pp. 433-434
66.
Which of the following viruses can establish a latent infection? A. Poxviruses B. Rubella viruses C. Herpesviruses D. Coronaviruses p. 371
67.
A 23-year-old medical student experienced fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy. These were accompanied by lymphocytosis and atypical cells in the blood smear. True statement regarding the causative agent A. the major target cell of the virus is the T lymphocyte B. the agent multiplies in the cytoplasm C. it can be transmitted thru direct contact with the lesion D. it possess a double-stranded DNA genome p. 429 10
68.
The following hepatitis B marker is indicative of active viral replication A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. Anti- HBs D. Anti- HBe p. 468
69.
The habitat is the large intestine. A. Entamoeba gingivalis B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Giardia lamblia D. Naegleria fowleri p. 104
70.
The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica to man has A. Pseudopodia B. Ingested red blood cells C. Bull’s eye karyosome D. Pointed chromatoidal bodies pp. 103-104
71.
The most commonly involved area in Amoebiasis is the A. Brain B. Cecum C. Liver D. Recto-sigmoid region pp. 108-109
72.
There is no increase in the number of nuclei of A. Balantidium coli B. Entamoeba coli C. Entamoeba D. Giardia lamblia p. 215
73.
Tissue invasion is relatively slow and tends to stimulate granuloma formation A. Acanthamoeba castellanii B. Balantidium coli C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Naegleria fowleri p. 142
74.
Mosquito vector of Malaria in the Philippines is A. Aedes aegypti B. Anopheles flavirostris C. Culex quinquefasciatus D. Mansonia annulata p. 164
11
75.
There is secondary exo-erythrocytic phase in A. Benign tertian malaria B. Malignant tertian malaria C. Quartan malaria D. Sub-tertian malaria p. 177
76.
The duration of the Erythrocytic-Schizogonic Cycle is 72 hours. A. A. Benign tertian malaria B. Malignant tertian malaria C. Quartan malaria D. Sub-tertian malaria pp. 184-191
77.
The gametocytes of the organism are described as banana or crescent-shaped. A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium malariae C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium vivax pp. 188-190
78.
Produces rectal prolapse in heavy infection especially among children A. Capillaria philippinensis B. Trichinella spiralis C. Trchuris trichiura D. Ascaris lumbricoides p. 243
79.
Bachman intradermal test & Xenodiagnosis are use for the diagnosis of infection cause by A. Capillaria philippinensis B. Trichinella spiralis C. Trchuris trichiura D. Ascaris lumbricoides p. 239
80.
The most common cause of Greeping Eruption or Cutaneous Larva Migran A. Ancytostoma braziliense B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. toxocara canis p. 281
81.
The most common cause of Visceral Larva Migran A. Ancylostoma braziliense B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Strngyloides stercolaris D. Toxocara canis p. 325
12
82.
Produces autoinfection to man A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Necator americanus D. Strongyloides stercolaris p. 256
83.
What parasite produces Iron deficiency anemia to man? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Necator americanus C. Strongyloides stercolaris D. Trichuris trichiura p. 284
84.
Associated with Noctrunal Pruritus Ani. A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Necator americanus D. Trichuris trichiura p. 304
85.
Graham Scotch tape technique is used for the diagnosis of the infection caused by A. A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Necator americanus D. Trichuris trichiura p. 305
86.
What parasite sucks and ingests blood? A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Trichuris trichiura p. 284
87.
What parasite shows Tramway sign in the X-ray? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Necator americanus D. Trichuris trichiura p. 317
88.
The infective stage of the parasite is found in crabs or crayfishes A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Echinostoma ilocanum C. Fasciola hepatica D. Paragonimus westermani p. 465
13
89.
What parasite is associated with neoplasm of the biliary duct or cancer of the liver? A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciola hepatica C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Paragonimus westermani p. 477
90.
What parasite produces infection that stimulates tuberculosis? A. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciola hepatica C. Opisthorchis felineus D. Paragonimus westermani pp. 467-468
91.
What is the infective stage of Schistosoma to man? A. Cercariae B. Embryonated egg C. Metacerciae D. Miracidium p. 417
92.
Molluscan host of Schistosoma in the Philippines is A. Australorbis mystax B. Biomphalaria alexandrina C. Coxiella burnetii D. Oncomelania quadrasi p. 416
93.
Laboratory procedure that makes use of the egg in the test is A. CFT B. CHR C. COPT D. Casoni test p. 770
94.
The infective of Diphyllobothrium latum to man to produce adult infection is the A. Cysticercoid larva B. Cysticercus larva C. Procercoid larva D. Sparganum larva p. 497
95.
Produces Ocular cysticercosis to man A. Dipylidium caninum B. Taenia saginata C. Taenia solium D. Hymenolepis nana p. 518
14
96.
Lateral uterine branches in gravid proglottid are counted for diagnosis of infection cause by A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Dipylidium caninum C. Hymenolepsis nana D. Teania saginata p. 522
97.
Taenia saginata is associated with A. Cat B. Cattle C. Dog D. Pig p. 521
98.
Ultrasound and MRI usually help in the diagnosis of the infection cause by A. Dipylidium caninum B. Echinococcus granulosus C. Hymenolepis diminuta D. Hymenolepis nan p. 532
99.
This organism produces a blue-green pigment and therefore produces a characteristic blue-green pus. A. Staph aureus B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Aspergillus fumigatus D. Strep. pyogenes Pseudomonas aeruginosa produce pyocyanin pigment w/c is blue green in color and also has antibiotic-like characteristics against some bacteria Reference: Zinsser p. 577
100.
Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct EXCEPT: A. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium B. Polysaccharides capsules retard phagocytosis C. Both gram negative rods and cocci have polysaccharides (endotoxin in their cell wall) D. Bacterial flagella are not antigenic in humans Bacterial flagella are made of proteins and are useful in distinguishing serovars or variation of gram negative bacteria such as E. coli H. antigens Sal. H .antigens. Reference: Zinsser. Chapter 3
101.
The most common site of asymptomatic gonococcal infection in women is the: A. B. C. D.
Vagina Myometrium Urethra Endocervix
15
The columnar epithelial cells here are the ones that are being infected by N. gonorrhea.(A). Vaginal walls composed of stratified squamous epithelial cells which are not colonized. (B) and (C) are not affected. Reference: Zinsser p. 456 102.
The following etiologic agents are known to cause diarrhea EXCEPT: A. Clostridium perfringens B. Rotavirus C. V. cholera D. Proteus vulgaris Protues vulgaris produce urinary tract infection. C. clostridium perfringens diarrhea thru it’s invasiveness so blood and mucus is (+) V. cholera-produced diarrhea by virtue of enterotoxin. Rotavirus most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in small children. Reference: Zinsser p. 552
103.
A 20 year old male developed a carbuncle with surrounding cellulitis. Gram stain revealed gram positive cocci, catalase and coagulase positive. Which of the following antibiotics is initially appropriate for this patient? A. Vancomycin B. Cloxacillin C. Cefriaxone D. Penicillin 90% of S. aureus strains are resistant to penicillin because pf production of plasmid-derived β-lactamses. Such organisms can be treated with βlactamase-resistant penicillin such as cloxacillin or dicloxacillin oxacillin. Oxacillin and Nafcillin have unpredictable absorption by oral route, thus is not recommended Reference: Zinsser p. 412
104.
Which of the following features help distinguish group A streptococcus from other streptococcal species? A. Bacitracin susceptibility B. Bile solubility C. Optochin sensitivity D. Growth inhibition in 6.5 % NaCl Group A streptococcus is a β-hemolytic streptococcus and can usually be distinguished from the other β-hemolytics by its bacitracin susceptibility or by precipitation with specific anti sera (against its "Lancefrield antigen"). Bile solubility test and optochin test distinguishes the L-hemolytic streptococci, S. pneumoniae is bile soluble and optochin sensitive. Among the hemolytic streptococci, S. viridans growth is inhibited by 6.5% NaCl while Enterococcus species grows in 6.5% NaCl. Reference: Zinsser p. 419
105.
Which of the following Clostridia cause gangrene? A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium botulinum C. Clostridium perfringens D. Clostridium difficile C. tetani causes lockjaw. C. botilinum causes botulism. C. difficile causes antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colitis. C. perfringens cause gasgangrene and Food poisoning. Reference: Zinsser p. 639 16
106.
This gram positive rod is usually associated with bacterial vaginosis producing malodorous vaginal discharge and "clue cells" A. Erysipelothrix rhusopathiae B. Lactobacillus acidophilus C. Gardenella vaginalis D. Propionibacterium acnes E. rhusopathiae causes erysipeloid skin infection that resembles erysipelas occurring among meat and fish handlers. L. acidphilus is normal flora of genital tract and is the main source of lactic acid. P. acnes produces lipase which contributes to the genesis of acne. Reference: Zinsser p. 604-605
107.
Which of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of the intestinal mucosa. A. Vibrio cholera B. Shigella sonnei C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli D. Clostridium botulinum Shigella sonnei is the only invasive, presence of blood and mucus in the stool. Clostridium botilinum , V. cholera and Enterotoxigenic E. coli causes diarrhea by producing enterotoxin Reference: Zinsser p. 561
108.
Food poisoning that produces gastrointestinal symptoms approximately 1-2 hours after eating is most likely to be due to: A. Salmonella enteritidis B. Campylobacter jejuni C. Clostridium perfringens D. Staph. aureus Staph aureus – the incubation period is 1-2 hrs. after ingestion of contaminated food. Sal. enteritidis – 6 hrs. – 2 days. Campylobcacter – 8 hrs. – l day. C. perfringens – 8 hrs. – 12 hrs. Bacillus aureus – 8 hrs. – 12 hrs. V. cholera – 2 – 3 days. V. parahaemolyticus – 8 hrs. – 2 days Reference: Zinsser p. 412
109.
A 30 year old pregnant woman had a normal delivery but the fetus was stillborn. CSF examination showed positive rods. The pathogen is most likely: A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Gardenerella vaginalis C. Group B Streptococcus D. Staphylococcus aureus Listeria monocytogenes is a gram positive rod and can infect pregnant women and poses the threat of stillbirth or serious damage to the fetus and also cause neurological disease. Gardenella vaginalis gives rise to frothy, fishy odor vaginal discharge, it can also cause premature births and low-birthweight infants. Reference: Zinsser 484
17
110.
Which of these organisms is a major pathogen for nosocomial infections because of its ubiquitous present in the hospital environment? A. Staph. Aureus B. Staph. Epidermidis C. Serratia marcescens D. Pseudomonas aeroginosa Pseudomonas aeruginosa, S. aureus - yellow gold pigment when cultured at room temperature. S, epidermidis - white pigment when cultured at room temperature. Serratia marcescens - red pigment Reference: Zinsser p. 577
111.
An individual experiences severe diarrhea after eating sushi (raw fish) in a West Coast restaurant. The most probable etiologic agent is: A. Yersenia enterocolitica B. Salmonella enteritidis C. Shigella sonnei D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus Vibrio parahaemolyticus - is a salt loving organism and found in fishes. Salmonella enteritidis - found in chicken, pig. Yersenia enterocoliticareserviors rodents Reference: Zinsser p. 571
112.
When symptoms to typhoid fever first become apparent, Salmonella typhi is most frequently isolated from: A. Feces B. Urine C. Blood D. Bone marrow Blood - on the first week of infection, Feces - second week. Urine - third week. Reference: Zinsser p. 563
113.
The area in the body where Salmonella typhi resides if one is a chronic carrier A. small intestine B. kidney C. blood stream D. gall bladder Gall bladder - where organisms are found and are excreted in the stool and urine of the chronic carrier of Salmonella. Reference: Zinsser p. 562
114.
A 3 year old boy was diagnose to have meningitis CSF culture on Chocolate agar showed growth of small gram negative rods. The most probable etiologic agent is: A. N. meningitides B. S. aureus C. Group B Streptococcus D. H. influenzae type b H. influenzae type b - is the most commonly isolated etiologic gram negative rods causing meningitis. N. meningtidis - gram negative plo. Group B Strep gram positive cocci. Reference: Zinsser p. 462
18
115.
Among the gram negative rods producing gastroenteritis, the most infectious is: A. V. cholera B. E. coli (0157) C. Sal. Typhimurium D. Shig. Dysenteriae type 1 Shigella - only 200 cells is enough to cause diarrhea while A-C you need to 10 3 - 10 5 cells to produce infection. Reference: Tortora et al
116.
Pneumococci primarily cause disease by: A. toxin production B. enzyme production C. eluding phagocytosis and favoring invasiveness D. producing delayed immunologic reaction Pneumococci does not produce toxins and enzymes. Capsules are virulence factors which interfere with phagocytosis and favoring invasiveness. Reference: Zinsser p. 435
117.
The formation of pseudomembrane in diphtheria is due to: A. inhibitions by toxin of protein synthesis by ADP ribosyslation of EF-2 B. spores which spread subcutaneously C. invasion of mononuclear phagocytic cells D. neutralization of exotoxin by antibody of blocking the interaction of fragment B with receptors Diphtheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis of eukaryotic cells thereby causing cell death. Pseudomembrane formation is due to accumulation of necrotic tissue. Reference: Zinsser p. 488
118.
Lyme disease is an endemic inflammatory disorder with this distinctive skin disorder. A. Chronic dermatitis B. erythema marginatum C. erythema chronicum migrans D. ecthyma gangrenosum Erythema chronicum migrans is a tick-borne associated syndrome. Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review in Microbiology p. 225
119.
Serology in the diagnosis of Syphilis using a non-treponemal tests is the following EXCEPT: A. Microhemagglutination assay B. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory C. Fluorescent Antibody Tests D. Reiter Protein Complement Fixation Two different types of test are used. Non-treponemal tests detects Wasserman or reagenic antibodies; a few examples of the nontreponemal tests include VDRL, automated regin, Kahn, plasmacrit, Hinton and Kline tests. Treponemal tests detect antibodies specific for treponemal antigens; they include FTA=ABS, T. pallidium immunobolization and hemagglutination tests. Reference: Zinsser p. 663-664
19
120.
Mycoplasmas are very pleomorphic and cannot be classified as to shape because they lack the following: A. Peptidoglycan B. lipid bilayer C. nucleus D. lipopolysaccharide Lacking cell walls, mycoplasmas are enclosed instead by a membrane composed of a lipid bilayer. They are therefore plastic and very pleomorphic. Reference: Zinsser p. 733
121.
A definitive identification of M. tuberculosis can be obtained by doing the following procedure? A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain B. AFB Culture C. Biopsy of Tuberculin test D. Nucleic acid amplification Cultures can detect small numbers of organism in the original sample. The presence of Acid-fast organism on Ziehl Neelsen cannot distinguish on morphologic groups M. tuberculosis from the other mycobacteria that are saprophytic. Nucleic acid amplification utilizes enzymes that rapidly IGS ribosomal RNA which can be used for patients with positive smears and while culture results are pending. Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review for Microbiology p. 251
122.
Rifamficin a broad antimicrobial agent is effective treatment for tuberculosis by: A. selective inhibition of the biosynthesis of the arabinogalactan and lipoarabinomannan B. mediating drug permeability and efflux C. Inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis by blocking action of D-alanise synthesis D. binding to RNA polymerase thereby interfering with mRNA synthesis Rifamficin is a broad spectrum antimicrobial agent that acts the interferring with the synthesis of mRNA by binding to RNA polymerase. Selective inhibitions by ethamentol of the biosynthesis of arabinogalactan and lipoarabinomannan, key structural components of the mycobacterial cell wall. Cyclosine inhibits synthesis of peptidoglycan by blocking the action of the Dalanine synthetase. Reference: Tortora p. 561
123.
In primary disease, M. tuberculosis survives and grows within these host cells A. macrophages B. basophils C. neutrophils D. eosinophils M. tuberculosis may continue to survive and remain dormant in activated macrophages where it is protected from phagocytosis Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review of Microbiology p. 247
124.
Members of the genus Rickettsia are morphologically & biochemically similar to A. gram-positive bacteria B. gram negative bacteria C. clostridia D. viruses
20
Rickettsias are short-rod shaped or cocci bacillary organisms measuring 0.8 to 2.0 um long Reference: Lippincott Illustrated Review of Microbiology p. 259 125.
The hallmark of viral infection of the cell is the production of A. inclusion bodies B. multinucleated giant cells C. cytopathic effect D. granule formation The hallmark of viral infection of the cell is the cytopathic effect. This change begin with a rounding and darkening of the cell and culminates in either lysis or giant cell formation. Infected cells frequently contain inclusion bodies which are discrete areas containing viral particles. Reference: Zinsser p. 943
126.
The complete infectious forms of Hepatitis B is: A. HBeAg B. Dane particles C. HBsAg D. HBcAg The Dane particle is the complete form of Hepatitis B whereas the antigens are subunit forms of the surface and core of the virus. Reference: Zinsser p. 1040
127.
Which of the following virus/es contain/s Hemagglutinin on its surface? A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis C C. Influenza virus D. all of the above The antigen hemagglutinin is characteristic of Influenza virus. Reference: Zinsser p. 995
128.
In their multiplication, they produce DNA which is integrated into the cell genome. A. Hepadnavirus B. Reovirus C. Picornavirus D. Herpesvirus Hepadnavirus transforms non-permissive cells by integration of DNA transcripts into host cell genome. They carry an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase). Reference: Zinsser p. 810
129.
The most common intrauterine viral infection is caused by: A. Cytomegalovirus B. Rubella C. Adenovirus D. Herpes simplex Cytomegalovirus accounts for the biggest # of intrauterine infection followed by rubella. Reference: Zinsser p. 962
21
130.
Smallpox was eradicated by the global use of vaccine which contains: A. killed virus B. attenuated live virus C. preformed antibodies D. preformed antibodies and live attenuated virus Smallpox disease was eradicated by use of a live attenuated vaccine. Live vaccine are used because duration of immunity is longer with greater effectiveness of protection, both IgA and IgG are elicited when administered by the natural route of infection which is intradermally where the virus replicates. Cell mediated immunity is produced. Reference: Zinsser p. 949
131.
The most important laboratory test for the detection of early Hepatitis B virus infection is: A. immunoassay for HBsAg B. immunoassay for HBeAg C. immunoassay for Anti HBc D. immunoassay for Anti HBs HBsAg appears during the incubation period and is detectable in most patients during the prodrome and acute phase; falls to undetectable levels during convalescence. HBeAg arises during the incubation period and is present during the prodome and early acute disease. Its presence is an important indicator of transmissibility. Anti HBc is detectable during prodrome and acute disease. Anti HBs is detectable during late convalescence. Reference: Zinsser p. 1043
132.
A common upper respiratory tract disease produced by adenovirus is: A. Rhinitis B. atypical pneumonia C. pharyngoconjunctivitis D. parotitis Adenoviruses cause a variety of upper and lower respiratory tract disease. Pharyngoconjunctivitis is common. Reference: Zinsser p. 970
133.
The virus that is increasingly being recognized as cause of nonbacterial infant diarrhea A. Retrovirus B. Rotavirus C. Orbivirus D. Calicivirus Rotavirus gastroenteritis is one of the most common childhood illness and a leading cause of infant deaths in developing countries. Reference: Zinsser p. 993
134. In the laboratory this protein from Influenza virus agglutinates red blood cells whereas in vivo, it binds to the surface receptor of the host cell to initiate infection. A. Hemagglutinin B. Neuramidase C. Hemolysin D. capsid antigen The Influenza virus has an envelope covered with 2 different spikes Hemagglutinatinin and neuramidase. Hemagglutination initiates infection in the host and in the lab causes agglutination of RBC's. Neuramidase cleaves
22
neuramic acid (sialic acid) to release progeny virus from the infected cell. Hemolysin is from bacterial cells and causes hemolysis of RBC. Reference: Zinsser p. 778 135.
In the prevention of poliomyeletis, the use of oral vaccine is preferred because: A. induces intestinal IgA B. induces humoral IgG C. can produce lifelong immunity D. can produce immunity to unimmunized adults The oral vaccine or Sabin vaccine which is a live attenuated vaccine is preferred over the Salk vaccine or killed vaccine because (1) it interrupts fecal-oral transmission by inducing secretory IgA in the GIT; killed vaccine does not. Both kinds of vaccine induce humoral IgG. Infection provides lifelong type specific immunity. Reference: Zinsser p. 981
136. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease characterized by versicular rash on the hands and feet and ulcerations in the mouth, mainly in children is caused by: A. Echovirus B. Parainfluenza virus C. Coxsackie virus Group A D. Coxsackie virus Group B Echovirus causes aseptic meningitis. Parainfluenza causes croup. Coxsackie B causes pleurodynia. Coxsackie A causes herpangina and hand-foot-andmouth disease. Reference: Zinsser p. 774 137.
The most common fungal opportunistic infection is caused by: A. Aspergillus fumigatus B. Cryptococcus neoformans C. Candida albicans D. Mucor Candida albicans - it is endogenous, a lot of risk factors like pregnancy, diabetic person, prolonged used of antibiotic, used of birth control pills Reference: Zinsser p. 1139
138.
The most common mode of infection of systemic fungi is thru: A. ingestion B. traumatic implantation C. inhalation D. all of the above Inhalation of infectious particles (spores) which are suspended in the air. Reference: Zinsser p. 1091
139. A 45 year old post kidney transplant patient develop fever and pneumonia with marked neutropenia. Bronchial washing show dichotomously branching filamentous fungi. The fungi involved is: A. sprorothrix B. cryptococcus C. candida D. aspergillus
23
In immunocompromised patient, inhalation of spores of Aspergillus can lead to pneumonia and are seen as dichotomous branching hyphae (filamentous). Reference: Zinsser p. 1127 140. In a 7 year old malnourished boy with multiple nematode infections, the most severe complication will come from: A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichiura C. Necator americanus D. Enterobius vermicularis Ascaris has a tendency to migrate to other openings causing more severe disease. Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 141-142, Roberts and Janovy p. 422 141.
Loeffler’s syndrome can be seen in the following parasitic infections EXCEPT: A. Ascariasis B. Strongyloidiasis C. Necatoriasis D. Trichuriasis Loeffler’s syndrome is eosinophilic lung. As the parasitic larvae (rhaditiform for Ascaris, filariform for Strongyloides and Necator) travels to the pulmonarycirculatory system, the body reacts with an anaphylactic type of hypersensitivity that produces the eosinophilic lung condition. Trichuris does not have a pulmonary circulatory pathway. Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 141, 126, 130; Roberts & Janovy p. 386, 422
142.
All cestodes require an intermediate host EXCEPT: A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Taenia saginata C. Hymenolepis nana D. Echinococcus granulosus Man gets H. nana infection by ingesting the eggs directly. All other cestodes require an intermediate host Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 192
143.
Cysticercosis due to Taenia solium is acquired through ingestion of: A. cysticercus larva B. cysticercoid larva C. procercoid larva D. egg A more dangerous sequence can occurs when a person ingests the egg of Taenia solium in contaminated food or water rather than eating raw or undercooked pork containing the larva cystercus. Cysticercoid larva pertains to D. caninum and H. nana. Procercoid larva is for D. latum. The ingested egg hatch in the small intestines and the oncopheres burrow through the wall into a blood vessel, where they can disseminate to many organs. This condition is called cysticercosis. Reference: Brown 6th ed. p. 207
24
144.
The infective stage to man of Necator americanus is: A. rhabditiform larva B. filariform larvae C. embryonated egg D. Microfilaria Filariform larvae of hookworms penetrate the skin Reference: Roberts & Janovy p. 410
145.
This cestode possess a quadrate scolex with 4 circular suckers and no rostellum or hooklets: A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Hymenolepis nana C. Taenia saginata D. Echinococcus granulosus D. latum has an elongated scolex. H. nana has a globular scolex with 4 suckers, a short retractile rostellum armed with a single row of hooklets. E. granulosus has 4 suckers with a rostellum and a double row of hooklets. Reference: Brown 6th p. 194, Roberts & Janovy p. 333
146.
Amoebic abscess of the liver is mostly found in the A. left anteromedial lobe B. right posterosuperior lobe C. inferior lobe D. middle lobe Spread of amoeba from the large intestines is by the portal vein and deposit on the right posterosuperior lobe Reference: Chatterjee p. 25
147.
Little Joey was frequently sick of various infectious diseases. He was found to have low CD4+ lymphocytes titers. Which of the following immune response processes would still be functional in Joey’s body? A. T cell help for B lymphocytes B. Recognition of peptide-MHC complex C. Phagocytic function for foreign molecules D. T-dependent antigen recognition This is an innate natural cellular immune ability of the host to respond to foreign molecules which is independent of the Th series. Reference: Stanley p. 92; 124
148.
The host immune response in viral infections is mostly by: A. Th cells B. B cells C. Tc cells D. NK cells Viral infections produce endogenous peptides which are presented on the surface of cells in conjunction with MHC Class 2. These are recognize primarily by Tc cells. B cells are mostly for exogenous peptides that are antibody mediated mainly stimulated by Th cells while the NK cells’ major activity is to directly destroy aberrant cells such as in cancer. Reference: Roitt, Brostoff & Male p. 15.3-15.4
25
149.
A killed virus is the major component of the vaccine against this pathogenic organism. A. measles B. rubella C. mumps D. rabies Measles, rubella, mumps vaccines contain living but attenuated virus (also for chickenpox, Sabin polio) Rabies vaccine (also for Hep A, Salk polio, influenza) contain killed or inactivated viruses. Hep B vaccine contains antigenic fragments of the virus usually using recombinant technology (yeastderived). Subunit vaccines are also used as in pertussis. Tetanus and diphtheria utilize toxoids which are inactivated toxins or antitoxins, antibodies against these. H. influenzae type b vaccine is conjugated to a protein which can be a diphtheria toxoid. Reference: Tortora p. 502
150.
Alkaline pH in urine seen in Proteus is due to its ability to split urea into: A. NH3 & C02 B. Cl & Ca C. Ca & Mg D. Na & Cl Answer: A (pp.208)
151.
It is responsible for Escherichia coli causing meningitis in infants A. H antigen B. LPS C. K antigen D. O antigen Answer: C (pp.208)
152.
Vi antigen for Salmonella typhi A. penetrates epithelial lining of the intestinal tract B. antigenic structure associated with invasiveness C. interfere with antibody binding to bacteria D. confers a certain degree of immunity Answer: B (p 209)
153.
Initial recognition event for the activation of the alternative pathway A. C3b B. C1 C. C4 D. Factor D Answer: A (p 108)
154.
The characteristic morphologic feature of influenza responsible for antigenic changes of the virus A. Envelope B. segmented genome C. capsid D. nucleic acid Answer: B (p 320)
26
155.
Replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell A. Adenovirus B. Orthomyxovirus C. Poxviruses D. HIV Answer: C (p332)
156.
The exudative lung parenchymal lesion with lympadenopathy in primary tuberculosis infection is called A. tuberculosis B. granuloma C. ghon complex D. fibrotic lesion Answer: C (p278)
157.
Which of the following statement/s is correct regarding neonatal herpes A. infections are almost always asymptomatic B. most common route of infection is thru contact with herpetic lesion during vaginal delivery C. causes latent infection D. usually cause by HSV 1 Answer: B (p376)
158.
An 18 year old college student developed fever followed by jaundice. Acute viral hepatitis was entertained. Results of the hepatitis profile are as follows: anti-HAV IgM (-), anti-HbsAg (-), anti-HBc IgM (+), anti-HBc IgG negative. He most probably has: A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis E Answer: B ( p 410)
159.
A 21 y/o male with history of sexual contact 4 days ago resents with painful urination and purulent penile discharge. Which of the following is most likely? A. primary syphilis B. genital herpes C. gonorrhea D. lymphogranuloma venerum Answer: C (p259)
160.
A 1 and half y/o boy developed fever, coryza and cough followed 4 days later by maculopapular rashes starting from the hairline and becoming generalized. Fever persisted. The most likely etiology is a/an A. RNA virus B. DNA virus C. gram positive coccus D. gram negative bacillus Answer: A ( p 470)
27
161.
A neonate is born with the following features: microcephaly, jaundice, poor suck and chorioretinitis. A congenital infection is entertained. The most common congenital infection is due to: A. Chlamydia B. HIV C. CMV D. HSV Answer: C ( p 382)
162.
A 2 month old girl was brought to you because of milk curd-like lesions in the mouth noted for a week. The whitish lesions were adherent to the oral mucosa with pinpoint bleeding when the mother tried to remove them. This is caused by A. herpes simplex 1 B. Coxsackie A C. albicans D. neoformans Answer: C ( p 550)
163.
A 23 y/o office worker found out that his sexual partner had HIV infection. The screening procedure of choice for HIV infection is A. PCR B. HIV Elisa C. western blot D. northern blot Answer: B (p 525)
164.
A 6 month old baby has acute watery diarrhea. Which of the following is the most common cause of diarrhea in this age group? A. ETEC B. Rotavirus C. EPEC D. V. cholerae Answer: B ( p434)
165.
A health worker who did not receive prior mumps vaccine developed parotid swelling and fever. The following belongs to the same virus family as mumps virus A. A. german measles B. RSV C. Influenza D. Japanese B virus Answer: B ( p 471)
166.
A 25 yr old saleslady developed high fever, chills and cough. On PE she had crackling rales on the right lung base. The diagnosis is pneumonia. The most common bacterial cause of this condition in this age group is: A. S. aureus B. N. meningitidis C. S. pneumoniae D. Hemophilus influenzae Answer: C ( p 213)
28
167.
Infection with this organism is the most common risk factor for cervical CA A. HIV B. N. gonorrhea C. HPV D. HSV 2 Answer: C ( p512)
168.
Most common cause of UTI in women is characterized by A. Urease production B. fruity odor on culture C. greenish metallic sheen D. swarming phenomenon Answer: C ( p 219)
169.
Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to monitor response to treatment in syphilis? A. FTA-ABS B. VDRL C. Darkfield microscopy D. ELISA Answer: B ( p 287)
170.
An encapsulated fungi that causes meningitis is A. H. capsulatum B. neoformans C. C albicans D. immitis Answer: B ( p 552)
171.
The following statements are true regarding N. meningitidis A. it is the only specie that is oxidase positive B. oxidizes maltose and glucose C. oxidizes glucose only D. it is the only gram negative specie Answer: B (p256)
172.
The following statements are true about S. aureus A. it is catalase negative B. can secrete preformed toxins C. prefers anaerobic condition D. cannot grow in 7.5% NACL Answer: B (p.199)
173.
Toxic shock syndrome secondary to Staphylococcus tend to commonly cause infection among A. tampon users B. asthamtics C. IV drug users D. infants Answer: A (p 201)
29
174.
A 14 year old male has high fever for a week, tonsillitis, hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy. Peripheral smear shows 10% atypical lymphocytes. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Streptococcal sore throat B. leukemia C. infectious mononucleosis D. diphtheria Answer: C (p 386)
175.
Streptococcal sore throat is definitively diagnosed by A. ASO titer B. throat swab culture C. rapid antigen testing from throat swab D. Gram stain Answer: B (p 210)
176.
Which of the following, when positive, indicates an acute Epstein-Barr virus infection? A. anti-EBNA B. anti-VCA IgG C. anti-VCA IgM D. anti-EBV DNA Answer: C (p 388)
177.
The hallmark of Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever is A. thrombocytopenia B. shock C. plasma loss D. positive tourniquet test Answer: C (p 452)
178.
Dengue virus has how many serotypes? A. one B. two C. three D. four Answer: D ( p 452)
179.
The most common vector of Dengue virus is ( p 452) A. Anopheles minimus B. Mansonia sp. C. Aedes aegypti D. Aedes albopictus
180.
A 1 year old girl has high fever for four days, coryza, hacking cough and poor appetite. On PE, she has congested pharynx and Koplik’s spots. The causative agent of this condition A. is a DNA virus B. has three serotypes C. belongs to the paramyxovirus family D. has double-stranded RNA Answer: C ( P482)
30
181.
Which of the following diseases is currently vaccine-preventable? A. cytomegalic inclusion disease B. German measles C. Dengue fever D. Hepatitis C Answer: B ( p 485)
182.
A 20 year old male developed fever, vomiting and poor appetite for four days followed by jaundice. A diagnosis of viral hepatitis is entertained. The results of the hepatitis profile are as follows: positive anti-HAV IgM, negative antiHBsAg, positive HBsAg, negative anti-HBc IgM. Which is correct? A. B. C. D.
The patient has acute Hepatitis A and is most likely a Hepatitis B carrier He has acute Hepatitis B He has acute Hepatitis C He does not have acute viral hepatitis Answer: A ( p 411)
183.
The protective antibody following immunization against Hepatitis B is A. anti-HBc IgM B. anti-HBc IgG C. anti-HBsAg D. anti-HCV Answer: C ( p 415)
184.
Which of the following agents of viral hepatitis is fecal-oral in transmission and causes more severe disease in pregnant women? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis E Answer: D ( p 408)
185.
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease) is caused by an agent which has the following characteristic A. double-stranded DNA B. single-stranded RNA C. double-stranded RNA D. does not contain nucleic acid Answer: D ( p 500)
186.
Human influenza virus which undergoes antigenic shift and can cause pandemics A. influenza A B. influenza B C. influenza C D. highly-pathogenic avian flu Answer: A (p 463)
31
187.
Fetal hydrops is a prominent complication of maternal infection with A. rubella B. parvovirus B19 C. measles D. cytomegalovirus Answer: B ( p 357)
188.
An 8 month old girl developed high fever for three days but was otherwise playful. On the fourth day, fever was gone but she had maculopapular rashes on the face which rapidly spread all over the body. This common disease is caused by A. B. C. D.
measles virus human herpesvirus 6 parvovirus B19 rubella virus Answer: B ( p389)
189.
A 22 year old sex care worker wanted to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What test would you initially recommend? A. B. C. D.
Western blot HIV Elisa CD4:CD8 ratio VDRL Answer: B ( p 526)
190.
HIV infection causes the ratio of CD4 to CD8 T cell ratio to fall. CD4 T cells are also called A. T cytotoxic cells B. cytolytic T cells C. T helper cells D. suppressor T cells Answer: C (p 521)
191.
The major function of CD8 T lymphocytes is A. to kill cells infected by intracellular pathogens like viruses B. antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity C. opsonization D. phagocytosis Answer: A (p 116)
192.
A one and a half year old boy has recurrent bacterial pneumonia and middle ear infection. An antibody deficiency is entertained. Antibodies are produced in large quantities by A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes C. plasma cells D. mast cells Answer: C (p 125)
32
193.
Immunoglobulins aid phagocytosis because they can bind to phagocytes via A. Fab receptors B. Fc receptors C. CD4 receptors D. C3b receptors Answer: B ( p 125)
194.
The following virus/viruses exhibit/s latency in nerve ganglia A. smallpox virus B. chickenpox virus C. cytomegalovirus D. adenovirus Answer: B (p 378)
195.
A virus which infects B lymphocytes by attaching to the latter’s complement Receptors A. cytomegalovirus B. Epstein-Barr virus C. Japanese B encephalitis virus D. HIV Answer: B ( p 386)
196.
A 1 year old infant had exposure to a caregiver with cavitary tuberculosis. Chest x-ray was negative. Mantoux test done showed induration of 12 mm after 2 days. The Mantoux tuberculin test result is an example of A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. delayed-type hypersensitivity D. Arthus reaction Answer: C ( p 130)
197.
The following are characteristics of M. tuberculosis A. have minimal lipid content in their cell wall B. cannot be grown on artificial media C. retain carbolfuchsin dye after exposure to acid-alcohol D. appear as round chains on Gram stain Answer: C ( p25)
198.
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a late complication of infection with this virus A. Varicella B. Rubeola C. West Nile virus D. poliovirus Answer: B ( p483)
33
199.
A newborn presents with lethargy, purpura, chorioretinitis and pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following could be a cause of this syndrome? A. Amebiasis B. Candidiasis C. Cytomegalovirus D. Human papillomavirus ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz.,23rd edition, page 445
200.
Which one of the following is a subcellular structure that is found only in Gram negative bacteria? A. endospores B. lipopolysaccharide C. mitochondria D. phosphatidylethanolamine ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 28
201.
Which one of the following statements best describes a function of the peptidoglycan layer in bacteria? A. The ability of bacteria to survive changes in the osmolarity of their environment is due to the physical properties of the peptidoglycan layer. B. The peptidoglycan layer contains all the enzymes responsible for the synthesis of membrane phospholipids. C. The peptidoglycan layer protects bacteria from the effects of ultraviolet light. D. The peptidolgycan layer renders Gram negative bacteria resistant to detergents. ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 22
202.
4. Which one of the following structures is responsible for the passage of low molecular weight solutes through the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria? A. capsules B. endospores C. flagella D. porins ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 27
203.
Your patient, suffering from a bacterial infection, receives a penicillin injection and almost immediately experiences respiratory distress and loses consciousness. This reaction is MOST LIKELY mediated by A. complement. B. CD8+ cytolytic T cells. C. macrophages. D. mast cells. ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 140
34
204.
Which one of these statements explains the origin of Rh antibodies in the blood of an Rh-negative mother? A. They are naturally occurring in the blood of all Rh-negative persons. B. They are received through mis-matched blood transfusions. C. They are synthesized by the mother in response to Rh-positive cells from her first child. D. They are transferred from the Rh-positive father during intercourse. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 135
205.
Which one of the following bacterial pathogens requires selective culture conditions for reliable isolation from the stool, including media with antibiotics and incubation at 42 C in increased CO2? A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli C. Salmonella sp. D. Shigella sp. ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 273
206.
11. Which one of the following is considered facultatively intracellular for human macrophages? A. Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli B. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli C. Salmonella typhi D. Shigella sp. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 258
207.
A 20-year-old female presents with severe pelvic pain, fever, nausea and vomiting. She was on the second day of her menstrual cycle. A purulent cervical discharge was detected upon physical examination. Oxidase positive, Gram-negative diplococci were isolated on Thayer Martin agar from the endocervical swab. What is the MOST LIKELY identity of this organism? A. Bordetella pertussis B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
208.
A large outbreak of food poisoning occurred at a company picnic. Eighty people reported explosive vomiting and diarrhea within 3 hours after eating. All of the victims recovered within 24 hours without medical intervention. No known bacterial or viral pathogens were isolated from the stool of affected individuals. A survey of the food eaten at the picnic suggested that potato salad was the common source of the poisoning. The individual who prepared the salad had a sty on her left eye. Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY cause of this outbreak? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Salmonella typhimurium C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
35
ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 223 209.
Gram-positive cocci and polymorphonuclear leukocytes are observed on Gram stain of sputum from a 60-year old alcoholic with pneumonia. Culture of the sputum reveals alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative bacteria. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism? A. bacitracin sensitivity test B. beta-lactamase production test C. ELEK test D. bile solubility test ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 236
210.
A 19-year old female is admitted to an outpatient clinic with suprapubic pain, dysuria and an urgency to urinate frequently. She is otherwise healthy. A clean catch midstream urine specimen was collected and sent to the laboratory. Numerous neutrophils are detected in the urine sample. The bacteriology laboratory reports that less than 102 Gram-positive cocci and greater than 105 Gram-negative bacilli were recovered per milliliter of urine. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her infection? A. Escherichia coli B. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Staphylococcus aureus ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 252
211.
A 40-year old male hog farmer complains of intermittent fever, night sweats and headaches to his physician. The patient is hospitalized and blood and bone marrow specimens are collected. The physician requests that the laboratory incubate the cultures for at least 6 weeks. Nine days after admission, Gram negative coccobacilli that require increased CO2 for growth are isolated from the blood and bone marrow cultures. The patient is most likely to be suffering from which one of the following diseases? A. Brucellosis B. Bubonic plague C. Legionnaire’s disease D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 284
212.
Which one of the following diseases is most likely to respond favorably to treatment with a -lactam antibiotic? A. Legionellosis B. Mycoplasmosis C. Syphilis D. Trachoma ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 334
36
213.
A 20-year old woman comes to your clinic complaining of an irritating vaginal discharge. Upon examination, you find that the cervix and vaginal walls appear normal. The discharge is thin and milky, pH 5.5, and has a fishy odor when treated with potassium hydroxide. You are unable to detect pseudohyphae, buds, or flagellates upon microscopic examination. A Gram stain reveals numerous curved Gram-negative rods, epithelial cells, and clue cells, but relatively few Gram-positive rods or WBCs. Cervical and vaginal cultures are negative for STDs. What is your diagnosis? A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Cervicitis C. Trichomoniasis D. Vaginal candidiasis ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 316
214.
A 75-year old man in a nursing home is treated with a broad spectrum antibiotic for bed sores. Two days later he develops bloody diarrhea. A stool specimen from the patient is positive in an ELISA test for a necrotizing cytotoxin, and his treatment is switched to vancomycin. The agent MOST LIKELY to be responsible for this clinical syndrome is A. Bacteroides fragilis. B. Campylobacter jejuni. C. Clostridium difficile. D. Escherichia coli O157:H7. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 209
215.
Which one of the following toxins is responsible for scalded skin syndrome? A. Alpha hemolysin B. Exfoliatin C. Hyaluronidase D. Staphylococcal enterotoxin ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 225
216.
A 50-year old cancer patient with severe neutropenia became septic two weeks after being admitted to the hospital. An oxidase-positive, Gram-negative rod that did not ferment glucose was isolated from the patient’s blood. Which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause of the patient’s sepsis? A. Enterobacter cloacae B. Escherichia coli C. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 262
217.
Blood culture from a 12-year old with acute osteomyelitis yields Gram-positive cocci that are b hemolytic and catalase positive. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism? A. Coagulase test B. Optochin sensitivity test C. Slide agglutination test for capsular antigen type D. Test for capacity to grow in bile esculin ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 225 37
218.
Activated macrophages are the effector cells in the expression of a protective, cellmediated immune response against A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. B. Haemophilus influenzae type b. C. Listeria monocytogenes. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 152
219.
A patient recovering from a crushing leg injury suffered during an a motorcycle accident develops a temperature of 100o F, a rapid pulse, and extreme pain at the site of his the wound two days after the accident. The skin overlying the patient’s sutured wound is brownish- white, shiny, and studded with vesicles. Gram stain of the watery exudate from the wound reveals Gram-positive rods, Gram-negative rods, and Gram-positive cocci. The Gram-positive rods are MOST LIKELY A. Bacillus cereus. B. Bacteroides fragilis. C. Clostridium perfringens. D. Corynebacterium ulcerans. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 208
220.
A 13-year old and her 10-year old brother are seen at an emergency room with complaints of double vision, difficulty swallowing, and progressive muscular weakness. A detailed history reveals that both children attended a church picnic three days earlier but neither child has gastroenteritis. The MOST LIKELY presumptive diagnosis is A. botulism. B. Chinese rice syndrome. C. Guillan-Barré syndrome. D. salmonellosis. ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 206
221.
Epidemics of bacterial meningitis in young, previously healthy adults are MOST LIKELY caused by A. Escherichia coli K-1. B. Haemophilus influenzae type b. C. Listeria monocytogenes. D. Neisseria meningitidis group A. ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 303
222.
A 55-year old woman develops endocarditis following oral surgery. Gram-positive, alpha-hemolytic, catalase-negative cocci are isolated from a blood culture. The MOST LIKELY agent is A. Enterococcus faecalis (group D streptococci). B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci). D. Viridans streptococci. ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 236
38
223.
A 2-month old infant is admitted to the hospital with fever, lymphocytosis, and bouts of violent coughing that often end in vomiting. The infant’s mother reveals that the child has not as yet received any immunizations. The attending physician swabs the infant’s nasopharynx and requests that the swab be plated on routine media as well as a special medium (Bordet-Gengou) that contains blood and glycerol. No organisms are found on blood or chocolate agar, but small Gram-negative rods are isolated on BordetGengou agar. The MOST LIKELY cause of the infant’s illness is A. Bordetella pertussis. B. Chlamydia pneumoniae. C. Moraxella catarrhalis. D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae. ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 282
224.
Which one of the following viruses establishes a chronic persistent infection in humans? A. Hepatitis A virus B. Hepatitis C virus C. Herpesvirus D. Poliovirus ANSWER: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 475-476
225.
Which one of the following viruses is transmitted via the gastrointestinal route? A. Delta-associated agent B. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis B D. Hepatitis C ANSWER: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 474
226.
A 33-year-old pregnant woman delivered a baby boy via a normal vaginal delivery. Neither she nor the father has a history of genital or oral herpes. Although she had chickenpox as a child, she was exposed to a child with chickenpox about 10 days before delivery. There was no evidence of vesicular skin lesions on either the mother or the child at the time of delivery. Three days after birth, the baby now develops vesicular skin lesions on his back, accompanied by a fever. Which one of the following viruses is MOST LIKELY to be the cause of the baby's infection? A. Cytomegalovirus B. Herpes simplex virus type 1 C. Herpes simplex virus type 2 D. Human herpesvirus 6 ANSWER: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 434
227.
Examination by dark-field microscopy of scrapings from a genital ulcer of 19-year old female reveals mobile, spiral-shaped organisms against a black background. The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is A. chancroid. B. Chlamydia trachomatis infection. C. gonorrhea. D. syphilis. ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 333 39
228.
Gram-positive cocci are observed on a Gram stain of purulent discharge from a skin lesion of a 7-year-old. Culture of the exudate reveals beta-hemolytic, catalase-positive organisms. Which one of the following laboratory tests is the MOST APPROPRIATE next step in the definitive identification of this organism? A. Bacitracin sensitivity test B. Bile solubility test C. Coagulase test D. Optochin sensitivity test ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 227
229.
Which one of the following species or serovars of Chlamydia can be transmitted as a zoonotic infection? A. Chlamydia pneumoniae B. Chlamydia psittaci C. Chlamydia trachomatis serovar C D. Chlamydia trachomatis serovar D ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 365
230.
Gram stain of synovial fluid from the knee of a 20-year-old woman with arthritis reveals Gram-negative cocci. To isolate the MOST LIKELY responsible agent, the specimen should be plated on A. Bordet-Gengou agar. B. Chocolate agar. C. Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar. D. MacConkey agar. ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 709
231.
The formation of colonic ulcers and absesses during Shigella dysentery is due to A. ability of bacteria to survive stomach acidity because of the production of urease. B. bacterial survival within macrophages. C. invasion of enterocytes and cell-to-cell spread of the bacteria. D. production of a superantigen by the bacillus. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 255-256
232.
Which one of the following organisms is the MOST COMMON cause of bacterial traveler’s diarrhea? A. Campylobacter jejuni B. enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli C. Salmonella cholerasuis D. Shigella sonnei ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 252
40
233.
Dissemination of Salmonella typhi from the intestine to extraintestinal sites requires survival of this pathogen in which one of the following host cells? A. Colonic enterocytes B. Gastric epithelial cells C. M cells D. Macrophages ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 257-258
234.
Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid from a 3-year-old child with fever, petechiae, stiff neck and positive Kernig and Brudzinski's signs reveals PMNs and a few Gram-negative cocci. The MOST LIKELY agent is A. Escherichia coli. B. Haemophilus influenzae type b. C. Neisseria meningitidis. D. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci ). ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 302
235.
Listeria monocytogenes infection of an adult is MOST LIKELY to be acquired by A. ingestion of contaminated food. B. inhalation of contaminated aerosals. C. inoculation with a contaminated needle. D. person-to-person contact. ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 217
236.
What is the mechanism of action of the antifungal drug fluconazole? A. Binds to ergosterol resulting in membrane disruption B. Inhibits ergosterol synthesis C. Inhibits protein synthesis D. Inhibits RNA synthesis ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 652-653
237.
A 10-year-old with a dog complains of a “bump” on the back of his head. He says its redness and itching have increased over the last three weeks. The lesion is several centimeters in diameter, with hair involvement and scaling. Examination of several of his hairs in a KOH preparation reveals hyphae in and around the hair shafts. What is your diagnosis? A. Actinomycosis B. Candidiasis C. Pityriasis versicolor D. Tinea capitis ANSWER: D, Tinea capitis Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 632
238.
You are assigned to a hospital in Phoenix, Arizona. Several patients have been admitted in the past week with cough, chest pain, fever, and pneumonitis that has not responded to antibacterial therapy. You discover that most of the patients are new arrivals to Arizona who had been working outdoors during the dusty wind storms that had occurred over the past few weeks. The causative organism is observed in a KOH preparation of sputum. What is your presemptive diagnosis? 41
A. B. C. D.
Blastomycosis Coccidioidomycosis Histoplasmosis Psittacosis ANSWER: B, Coccidioidomycosis Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 637-638
239.
A 65-year-old male develops endocarditis following urinary catheterization. Grampositive, catalase-negative cocci are isolated from a blood culture. The MOST LIKELY agent is A. Enterococcus faecalis (group D streptococci) B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Staphylococcus epidermidis. D. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci). ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 235
240.
A 22-year-old develops an abcess in his peritoneum following rupture of his appendix. Gram stain of the exudate from his foul-smelling abcess reveals numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes, Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive rods, and Gramnegative rods. Aerobic culture of the exudate at 37o C on blood and MacConkey agar plates yields only enterococci (group D streptococci). The Gram-negative rods are MOST LIKELY A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Escherichia coli C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Shigella dysenteriae. ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 309
241.
Several people become ill within two hours after leaving a summer reunion picnic. The majority of people complain of vomiting and diarrhea without fever, and recovered within 24 hours after the onset of symptoms. The contaminated food is determined to be a bowl of coleslaw prepared by someone with a stye on her left eyelid. Which one of the following is the MOST LIKELY source of the food poisoning? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium perfringens C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Shigella sonnei ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 226
242.
A 35-year-old female presents with fever, headache and a non-productive cough. The patient is prescribed penicillin and sent home. Two weeks later, she returns with similar symptoms. A Gram stain and routine culture of the patient's sputum reveal only normal mouth flora. Sputum is then cultured on specialized medium containing sterols, and, after two days, tiny colonies were visible under a microscope. Which one of the following organisms does the physician suspect is the cause of the patient's pneumonia? A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Haemophilus influenzae type b C. Legionella pneumophila D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
42
ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 345 243.
A 70-year-old male, who is a chain-smoker, complains of fever, diarrhea, cough and chest pain. Evidence of pneumonia is seen by chest X-ray. Due to the inability of the patient to produce a sputum specimen, a transtrachial aspirate is obtained. No respiratory bacterial pathogen is isolated from aspirated fluid cultured on blood agar plates. However, poorly staining Gram-negative rods are isolated on buffered charcoalyeast extract (BCYE) agar after three days of incubation. The physician had already begun treatment with erythromycin due to the detection of bacilli in the aspirated fluid using a fluorescently-labeled monoclonal antibody specific for the causative agent. The MOST LIKELY pathogen responsible for this pneumonia is A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Legionella pneumophila C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Neisseria meningitides ANS: B, Legionella pneumophila Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 313
244.
Which one of the following fungi exhibits thermal dimorphism? A. Aspergillus fumigatus B. Candida tropicalis. C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Histoplasma capsulatum Answer: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 640
245.
An otherwise healthy 35-year-old female florist presented to her primary care physician complaining of a persistent lesion on the third digit of her left hand. This had been present for several weeks and showed no sign of resolving. Upon examination, the patient was found to have a mild fever (1000F), the aforementioned lesion and two nodules on her left forearm. A biopsy of the lesion was performed, and the pathology report indicated the presence of numerous polymorphonuclear leukocytes and a rare elongated budding yeast. What is the MOST LIKELY etiologic agent? A. Blastomyces dermatitidis B. Sporothrix schenckii C. Histoplasma capsulatum D. Nocardia asteroides Answer: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 632-633
246.
Mode of transmission of Trichomonas vaginalis is: A. Ingestion of infested beef B. Skin contact with larvae C. Mosquito bites D. Sexual ANS:D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 663-664
247.
Mode of transmission of Enterobius vermicularis is: A. Sexual B. Blackfly bites C. Louse bites D. Fecal-oral
43
Ans. D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 689 248.
Oxygen requirements of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is: A. Aerobic B. Facultative anaerobe C. Microaerophilic D. Obligate anaerobe Ans. A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
249.
Mode of transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi is: A. Direct contact with animals B. Conidia inhalation C. Sexual D. Tick bites Ans. D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 336
250.
Therapy of Vibrio cholerae is: A. TMP-SMX B. ORS C. Ceftriaxone D. Erythromycin Ans. B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 271
251.
Family of Measles virus is: A. Paramyxoviridae B. Rhabdoviridae C. Orthomyxoviridae D. Flaviviridae Ans. A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 550
252.
Family of Hepatitis A virus is: A. Papovaviridae B. Hepadnaviridae C. Parvoviridae D. Picornaviridae Ans. D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 466
253.
Phenotypic characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes is: A. Alpha-hemolytic B. Oxidase "+" C. H2S "-" D. Beta-hemolytic Ans. D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 235
44
254.
Mode of transmission of Rickettsia prowazekii is: A. Droplet nuclei B. Direct contact with animals C. Louse bites D. Wound infection Ans. C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 350
255.
Phenotypic characteristic of Gonococcus is: A. Fastidious B. Mycolic acid in cell wall C. Catalase "-" D. Non-lactose fermenter Ans. A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
256.
Staphylococcal food poisoning is the result of A. a heat labile enterotoxin. B. ingestion of a pre-formed enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus during bacterial multiplication in contaminated food. C. ingestion and multiplication of coagulase-negative Staphylococcus sp. D. multiplication of Staphylococcus aureus in the small intestine. ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 225
257.
A 19-year-old soldier develops fever, carditis, and migratory polyarthritis. While taking her history, the patient remembers that she had a "sore throat" three weeks previously. A throat culture of the patient yields normal flora only. The laboratory result MOST CONSISTENT with these findings is that the patient has high titers of antibody to: A. meningococcal lipooligosaccharide. B. pneumococcal IgA protease. C. pneumococcal polysaccharide. D. streptolysin O. ANS: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 234
258.
A 65-year-old man with a colonic tumor undergoes a bowel resection. Three days later, the patient develops a fever, and the drainage from the surgical site is foul smelling. The skin near the site of the drainage is markedly erythematous. Gram stain of the drainage reveals Gram-positive cocci and Gram-negative rods. Aerobic culture of the drainage yields streptococci. The Gram-negative rod seen on Gram stain was most likely: A. Bacteroides fragilis B. Clostridium perfringens C. Escherichia coli D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 306
259.
A 50-year-old rancher scrapes his hand with clippers while shearing sheep. Two days later he notices an ulcer surrounded by vesicles at the site of the wound. Eight days after the injury, the wound develops a black necrotic center (eschar) surrounded by edematous fluid. The rancher experiences mild systemic symptoms. The most likely cause of the infection is: 45
A. B. C. D.
Bacillus anthracis. Clostridium tetani. Neisseria meningitidis. Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococci).
ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 202-203 260.
A 19-year-old college sophomore dies 24 hours after the development of fever, petechiae, purpura, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Culture of cerebrospinal fluid and blood obtained from the patient on admission to the hospital MOST LIKELY yielded: A. Gram-negative, lactose fermenting rods. B. Gram-negative, oxidase positive diplococci. C. Gram-positive, catalase negative cocci. D. Gram-positive, catalase positive cocci. ANS: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 302
261.
The blood culture of a patient with a presumptive diagnosis of endocarditis yields nonhemolytic colonies of Gram-positive cocci. The isolate is catalase negative, can grow in 6.5% NaCl, and is resistant to penicillin. The isolate is MOST LIKELY: A. Enterococci. B. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci). C. Streptococcus bovis. D. Streptococcus mutans (Viridans streptoccoci). ANS: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 233
262.
A 25-year-old, previously healthy woman develops fever within 24 hours of delivery of an infant born 6 weeks prematurely. Blood culture of the mother reveals Gram-positive cocci that are catalase negative, beta-hemolytic on blood agar, and resistant to bacitracin. The MOST LIKELY cause of the bacteremia is: A. Enterococci. B. Staphylococcus aureus. C. Streptococcus agalactiae (group B streptococci). D. Streptococcus pneumoniae. ANS: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 233
263.
An HIV-infected homosexual man presents with Kaposi's sarcoma. Which viral genome is MOST LIKELY to be present in his tumor biopsy? A. Herpes simplex virus tupe 1 B. Human cytomegalvirus C. Human herpesvirus type 6 D. Human herpesvirus type 8 Answer: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 450
264.
Which one of the following viral infections is not effectively prevented by vaccination? A. Hepatitis B virus 46
B. Poliovirus C. Rhinovirus D. Rubella virus Answer: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 543 265.
Prions cause spongiform encephalopathies including the human disease A. AIDS dementia complex. B. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease. C. scrapie. D. subacute sclerosing panencephalopathy (SSPE). Answer: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 584
266.
Congenital infection by which one of the following viruses can result in birth defects? A. Adenovirus B. Cytomegalovirus C. Hepatitis B virus D. Human immunodeficiency virus Answer: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 443
267.
Viral carditis of adolescents and adults is frequently caused by A. Coxsackieviruses. B. Orthomyxoviruses. C. Pseudorabiesvirus. D. Reoviruses. Answer: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 495
268.
Several newborns housed in a neonatal intensive care unit have developed nosocomial pneumonia. Most are wheezing and some have required care such as mechanical ventilation, increased doses of oxygen, antibiotic therapy, or monitoring for apnea. A simple, rapid diagnostic test reveals a common viral antigen in nasal wash specimens from each of the patients. The virus MOST LIKELY to be responsible is A. Coronavirus B. Echovirus B2 C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Rubeola virus (measles) Answer: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 558-559
269.
A 7 year-old newly adopted Russian child who has been in the United States 10 days presents with fever, malaise, sore throat, and a grey membrane on the tonsils, uvula, and soft palate. The child's immunization history is unknown. The physician obtains a swab of the child's throat which provokes bleeding of the membrane. The swab is sent to the laboratory for routine throat culture. Two days later the laboratory reports only the presence of normal flora in the specimen. The MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this child's illness is: A. Bordetella pertussis. B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae. C. Haemophilus influenzae type b. D. Listeria monocytogenes. 47
Answer: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 214 270.
Soft cheese imported from Mexico was implicated as the vehicle in an outbreak of meningitis and bacteremia that occurred among attendees of a large company picnic. Twenty of the 40 affected individuals were pregnant women. One of the victims had AIDS. Gram positive, non-spore forming rods were isolated from the cheese that had been stored in the cold. The MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this outbreak is: A. Bacillus cereus B. Clostridium difficile C. Clostridium perfringens D. Listeria monocytogenes Answer: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 217
271.
A 25 year old patient presents at a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic with a painful genital ulcer. On examination, the ulcer does not appear to be typical of herpes simplex virus. Dark field microscopy of exudate from the ulcer is negative for spiralshaped organisms. However, a small, gram negative rod is isolated from culture of the exudate on chocolate agar. The organism MOST LIKELY to be responsible for the lesion is: A. Chlamydia trachomatis. B. Haemophilus ducreyi. C. Neisseria gonorrhoae. D. Treponema pallidum. Answer: B Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 281
272.
Which ONE of the following diseases is transmitted by lice? A. Epidemic typhus B. Ehrlichiosis C. Psitticosis D. Scrub typhus Answer: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 350
273.
A young army recruit presents at a sexually transmitted disease (STD) clinic with acute urethritis. A Gram-stained preparation of his urethral exudate reveals neutrophils with intracellular Gram-negative diplococci. The patient is treated with ceftriaxone and sent home. He is requested to return in one week so that a urethral culture can be obtained to test for proof of antibiotic cure. Which ONE of the following culture media should be used for the follow-up culture? A. Blood agar B. Bordet Gengou agar C. MacConkey agar D. Thayer-Martin agar Answer: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 295
274.
The growth in the vagina of which ONE of the following bacteria helps maintain a protective acid pH? A. Bacteroides 48
B. Gardnerella C. Lactobacillus D. Mobiluncus Answer: C Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 307 275.
A 25 year-old sexually active woman complains of vaginal itching, odor, and discharge. The vaginal walls are red and slightly swollen, but the cervix is normal. A sample of her vaginal discharge is tested with 10% KOH, which produces a strong fishy odor. Upon microscopic examination of the discharge, you find clue cells but no pear-shaped flagellates or pseudohyphae. A Gram stain reveals numerous Gram-negative curved rods. What is your diagnosis? A. Bacterial vaginosis B. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) C. Syphilis D. Trichomoniasis Answer: A Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 316
276.
A 25 year-old male develops an ulcerative lesion of the hand and several fluctuant nodules along the lymphatics draining that site. The patient is seen in the dermatology clinic at the Naval Hospital. Case history reveals that he is a weekend gardener who cultivates roses as a hobby. What is the MOST LIKELY fungal disease? A. Chromoblastomycosis B. Mycetoma C. Phaeohyphomycosis D. Sporotrichosis Answer: D Medical Microbiology by Jawetz., 23rd ed., page 633
277.
A 50 year-old farmer from Sorsogon who is fond of eating freshwater crabs is suffering from chronic pneumonia with hemoptysis. Which parasite etiology is MOST likely? A. Capillaria philippinensis B. Necator americanus C. Paragonimus westermani D. Schistosoma japonicum
278.
Knowing the life cycle of Schistosoma japonicum, a rural health doctor is now tasked with educating the population of a district in Davao del Sur about prevention of this disease. Which specific developmental stage of this parasite should be avoided to prevent initial infection? A. cercaria B. metacercaria C. miracidium D. schistosomule
279.
In relation to question #72 above, which of the following measures would this doctor teach is most practical for preventing S. japonicum infection? A. avoid eating raw fresh water snails B. boil drinking water for 20 minutes C. clean and cook vegetables well D. wear protective high boots while wading in streams
280.
A preventive measure against parasites is footwear. Which of these parasites enters through the skin and its infective stage is a filariform larva? A. Necator americanus 49
B. Trichinella spiralis C. Trichuris trichiura D. Enterobius vermicularis 281.
Some protozoans have organelles which enable them to move around. Which of the following species possess cilia as motility organelles? A. Balantidium coli B. Entamoeba histolytica C. Giardia lamblia D. Plasmodium malariae
282.
Ten year-old Theira has been having vague periumbilical abdominal discomfort for three months. She does not have diarrhea. Her fecalysis reveals round golden brown trilayered eggs with cortication. What is the causative agent of her abdominal infection? A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Balantidium coli C. Taenia saginata D. Trichuris trichiura
283.
Mrs. Sintas complains to her family doctor that she has been having vague abdominal pains and bloody diarrhea for the past two days. She had recently arrived from a business trip to Leyte. Which of the following intestinal parasitic diseases is LEAST LIKELY to present with bloody diarrhea? A. Amebiasis B. Giardiasis C. Trichuriasis D. Strongyloidiasis
284.
Adult stages of intestinal parasites have their own way of establishing themselves in their chosen habitat. Which of these species has a long anterior end which penetrates the mucosa to obtain tissues for its nutrition? A. A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura
285.
Except for the Schistosome species, all trematodes have similar life cycles. The infective stage, for example is which of these developmental stages for the liver, lung, and intestinal flukes? A. cercaria B. metacercaria C. redia D. sporocyst
286.
Hydatid Disease is endemic in small areas of Southern Luzon and Bicol region where sheep are raised. What is the causative parasite of this disease? A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Brugia malayi C. Echinococcus granulosus D. Fasciolopsis buski
287.
The trophozoite stage of this protozoa has rbc as inclusions in the cytoplasm: (p. 121) A. Entamoeba coli B. Entamoeba histolytica 50
C. Endolimax nana D. Entamoeba hartmanii 288.
One of the following is not a pseudophyllidean tapeworm. (p. 513) A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Ligula intestinalis C. Sparganum proliferum D. Taenia solium
289.
Bachman intradermal test is a highly specific test for this disease. (p. 239) A. Ascariasis B. Enterobiasis C. Trichinosis D. Amoebiasis
290.
One of the following is not a common feature of uncomplicated P. falciparum in peripheral smear: (p. 186) A. appliqué form of parasite B. multiple infection of one rbc C. presence of Maurer’s clefts D. rounded microgametocyte
291.
A 10-year-old girl, with perianal pruritus, was brought by her mother to her pediatrician. What is your most probable diagnosis? A. Ascariasis B. Trichuriasis C. Enterobiasis D. Hookworm infection Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp. 304-305 MPL: 0.75
292.
A 40-year old male overseas worker complaining of muscle pains seek medical attention upon his arrival to the Philippines. Biochemical tests showed elevated creatinine, phosphokinase, lactate dehydrogenase and myokinase levels. Results of complete blood count showed high blood eosinophilia. What is your most probable diagnosis? A. Taeniasis B. Capillariasis C. Trichinosis D. Filariasis Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp.238-239 MPL: 0.5
293.
Sexually active 26-year old woman consulted a VD control clinic for vaginal itching and purulent discharge. Your tentative diagnosis should include the following: A. gonorrhea B. trichomoniasis C. candidiasis D. all of the above Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp. 50 MPL: 0.25
294.
A 30-year old woman, native of Bulacan, traveled to Palawan for a vacation. After 2 weeks she consulted her doctor with chills and fever as her main complains. What parasitologic test would you request to establish your diagnosis? 51
A. B. C. D.
sputum examination stool examination thick blood smear thick and thin blood smear Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp. 180-181 MPL: 0.5
295.
A 6-month old baby was brought in for a fever of one-day duration. She is found to have a temperature of 38.5°C and with hepatomegaly (3 cm) and splenomegaly (3 cm). Microscopic examination revealed infected RBC with presence of band form stages. What is your most probable diagnosis? A. Not malaria B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium malariae Ref. Clinical Parasitology by Beaver and Jung 9 th edition, pp. 184-185 MPL: 0.75
296.
Hepatosplenomegaly is the hallmark of this disease which is endemic in Leyte, Samar and Mindoro. This is caused by: A. Schistosoma japonicum B. Echinostoma ilocanum C. Pila luzonica D. Capillaria philippinensis Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 241
297.
Pruritus vulvae is a characteristic symptom in : A. Trichinosis B. Trichomoniasis C. Enterobiasis D. Scabies Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p 46
298.
Finding banana- or sausage-shaped gametocytes in peripheral smear is a unique characteristic of: A. Plasmodium malariae B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium ovale Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 81-82
299.
Wearing protective footwear would NOT prevent transmission of which of the following parasite? A. Ancylostoma 52
B. Leptospira C. Trichuris D. Schistosoma Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. pp. 126 300.
Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis can be prevented by eating properly cooked: A. fish B. pork C. beef D. vegetables Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. pp. 185, 111
301.
Recommendation for the control of hookworm in endemic areas include the construction of sanitary facilities and : A. wearing of footwear B. reduction of the stray cats population C. through cooking of meats and fish D. use of insecticides to control mosquitoes and flies. Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 126
302.
Humans become infected when they swallow the eggs and develop cysts in various organs to cause hydatidosis. This tapeworm is could be best prevented by: A. reducing larval E. multilocularis in sheep and hogs B. reducing adult E. granulosus infection in dogs C. proper and sanitary disposal of waste D. surgical intervention Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. p. 197
303.
Dyspnea in Loeffler’s syndrome caused by larval invasion in massive ascariasis in the lungs could be best treated with: A. salbutamol nebulization B. giving mebendazole to treat the infection C. both A and B D. neither A nor B Reference: Brown & Neva, 1983. Basic Clinical Parasitology. 5th Edition. The McGraw Appleton-Century Crofts. Pp. 134-135
53
