ROITT'S ESSENTIAL IMMUNOLOGY 12th Edition (All MCQs With Answers)
Chapter 1 1 Which of the following does not protect body surfaces: A Skin. B Mucus. C Gastric acid. D Salivary amylase E Gut microflora. 2 Pattern recognition receptors (PRR) include: A LPS. B PAMPs. C Lipoteichoic acid. D Lectin-like molecules. E Unmethylated CpG sequences. 3 The mononuclear phagocyte system does not include: A Monocytes. B Kupffer cells. C Kidney mesangial cells. D Lymph node medullary macrophages. E Endothelial cells. 4 A polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN): A Is a bone marrow stem cell. B Is closely similar to a mast cell. C Contains microbicidal cytoplasmic granules. D Is not a professional phagocytic cell. E Has granules which stain with eosin.
5 Which of the following is not produced following activation of the NADPH oxidase microbicidal pathway A O2 – B O2 C H2O2 D NO E OH 6 Neutrophil defensins are: A Anti-toxins. B Oxygen-dependent. C Enzymes. D Glycolipids. E Peptide antibiotics. 7 The TLR9 pattern recognition receptor recognises: A CpG motifs. B Gram +ve peptidoglycan. C Mycobacterial lipoarabinomannan. D Gram –ve LPS. E dsRNA. 8 Complement component C3 is cleaved by: A C3b B C3bBb C Factor B D Factor D E Factor H 9 The membrane attack complex consists of: A OH. B Colicins C C3b3b,Bb D C5b,6,7,8,9 E Properdin 10 C3b:
A Is chemotactic. B Is an anaphylatoxin. C Opsonizes bacteria. D Directly injures bacteria. E Is the inactive form of C3. 11 Acute inflammation characteristically involves: A Constriction of arterioles. B Capillary endothelial cell enlargement. C Influx of macrophages. D Influx of mast cells. E Influx of neutrophils. 12 Lysozyme: A Is a cytoplasmic organelle. B Activates complement. C Is a proteolytic enzyme. D Splits peptidoglycan. E Is released by mast cells. 13 Which of the following is not an acute phase protein: A Serum amyloid P component. B Chondroitin sulfate. C C-reactive protein. D Mannose binding lectin. E Fibrinogen. 14 Interferons: A Are found only in mammalian species. B Are divided into 5 main families. C Induce enzyme synthesis in the target cell. D Only affect infected cells. E Are specific for individual viruses. 15 Natural killer (NK) cells do not: A Respond to interferon. B Contain perforin.
C Contain tumor necrosis factor (TNF). D Kill only by damaging the target cell outer membrane. E Contain serine proteases. 16 Eosinophils do not: A Stain with basic dyes. B Contain a major basic protein. C Contain peroxidase. D Give a respiratory burst on activation. E Have C3b receptors. 17 Polymorphonuclear neutrophils attack bacteria: A Exclusively by oxygen-dependent mechanisms. B Exclusively by oxygen-independent mechanisms. C By phagocytosis. D By secreting complement. E By secreting interferon. 18 A complement component which is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils is: A C9 B C5a C C3 D C3b E C5b 19 Acute inflammation can be initiated by: A Mast cell activation. B Influx of neutrophils. C An increase in vascular permeability. D C3. E Lysozyme.
Chapter 2 1 The initial complement component that is bound by complement-fixing antibodies is: A C1q B C1s C C3b D C5a E C9 2 Several of the complement components are: A Glycolipids B Cytokines C Enzymes D Hormones E Antibodies 3 The classical and alternative pathways meet at complement component: A C4 B C4b C Factor D D C5 E C3 4 Clonal selection occurs when antigen is encountered by: A Neutrophils B Mast cells C T-cells D Basophils E Eosinophils 5 Plasma cells: A Have a thin layer of cytoplasm B Are derived from T-cells C Develop into B-cells D Secrete large amounts of gamma interferon E Have a highly developed rough endoplasmic reticulum
6 Specific antibodies are readily detectable in serum following primary contact with antigen after: A 10 min B 1h C 5–7 days D 3–5 weeks E Only following a second contact with antigen 7 A plasma cell secretes: A Antibody of a single specificity related to that on the surface of the parent B-cell B Antibody of two antigen specificities C The antigen it recognizes D Many different types of antibody E Lysozyme 8 Adoptive transfer of acquired immune responsiveness involves the transfer of: A Antibody B Complement C Phagocytes D Lymphocytes E Serum 9 The main reason an experimental animal treated with X-rays can act as a living test tube for lymphocyte transfer experiments is because: A It is microbiologically sterile B Complement components will be inactivated C The host lymphocytes are destroyed or unable to divide D Only non-dividing cells are affected E The requirement for T-cell help is overcome 10 Immunological unresponsiveness to self antigens is called: A Tolerance B Tolerogen C Memory D Acquired immunity E ADCC 11 Edward Jenner vaccinated against smallpox using:
A Killed smallpox virus B A recombinant protein derived from smallpox C An unrelated virus D Toxoid E Cowpox 12 Protective antibodies against infectious agents are often: A Autoantibodies B Neutralizing C Toxoids D Natural Killer E Non-specific 13 Intracellular parasites within macrophages are killed more readily in the presence of: A Antibody B Kinins C Properdin D Gamma-interferon E Anaphylatoxin 14 T cell surface receptors for antigen partly recognize: A Cytokines B MHC C ADCC D Antibody E IL-2 15 An immune response against grass pollen often involves: A Pathogen-associated molecular patterns B Breakdown of self tolerance C A hypersensitivity reaction D Reaction against MHC E Persistent infection by the pollen 16 Secondary antibody responses are better because: A They provide defense against unrelated antigens B The antibody can be made by both T and B cells
C Complement-fixing antibodies are made D They do not require T-cell help E They are stronger and faster 17 Which cell type produces antibodies?: A Macrophages B T-lymphocytes C NK D Plasma cells E Eosinophils 18 Clonal selection occurs when a B-lymphocyte encounters: A Cytokines B Antigen C T-lymphocytes D Complement E Chemotactic factors 19 The secondary, but not the primary, immune response is based on: A Memory B The bonus effect of multivalency C Complement activation D Mast cell degranulation E Clonal selection 20 Protection against microorganisms inside cells is provided by: A T-cells B Antibody C C3b D C1q E The membrane attack complex
Chapter 3 1 The basic Ig unit is composed of: A 2 identical heavy and 2 identical light chains. B 2 identical heavy and 2 different light chains. C 2 different heavy and 2 identical light chains. D 2 different heavy and 2 different light chains. E Non-covalently bound polypeptide chains. 2 A Fab fragment: A Is produced by pepsin treatment. B Is produced by separation of heavy and light chains. C Binds antigen. D Lacks light chains. E Has no interchain disulfide bonds. 3 The complementarity determining regions: A Are restricted to light chains. B Are in the constant part of the Ig molecule. C Bind to Fc receptors. D Are concerned in antigen recognition. E Occur at the C-terminal end of the Ig peptide chains. 4 Which of the following gene clusters do not contribute to antigen binding: A VL B CL C VH D D E J 5 Recombination of V, D and J Ig gene segments: A Only occurs in mature B-cells. B Only occurs in light chains. C Involves heptamer-spacer-heptamer flanking sequences. D Does not occur until the mRNA stage. E Is effected by recombinase enzymes.
6 Ig idiotypes are found: A In the constant region of the heavy chain. B In the constant region of the light chain. C In the hinge region. D In the variable region of both heavy and light chains. E Only in the light chain. 7 With reference to the variable Ig domain, which of these answers is false?: A It mediates the secondary consequences of antigen recognition. B It has anti-parallel beta-pleated sheet structures. C It uses beta-turn loops to bind antigen. D It has an extra long beta-turn relative to constant region domains. E It has a typical Ig fold with an intra-chain disulfide bond. 8 Which of the following statements does not apply to IgG?: A Appears early in the primary immune response. B Neutralizes bacterial toxins. C Can fix complement. D Crosses the human placenta. E Opsonizes bacteria. 9 The low affinity Fc gamma RII IgG receptor: A Has a GPI anchor. B Binds monomeric IgE. C Avidly binds monomeric IgG. D Binds aggregated IgG. E Is not present on macrophages. 10 IgA in seromucus secretions: A Has no J-chain. B Has no secretory piece. C Is dimeric. D Cannot bind to neutrophils. E Activates the classical complement pathway. 11 IgM:
A Is usually of high affinity. B Is most commonly tetrameric. C Has the same number of constant domains as IgG. D Is a weak bacterial agglutinator. E Is the main class of the 'natural antibodies'. 12 IgD: A Is pentameric. B Is resistant to proteolytic degradation. C Is present mainly as a surface receptor on B-cells. D Is present with unusual frequency in myelomas. E Is abundant in milk 13 IgE: A Is abundant in saliva. B Binds strongly to mast cells. C Cannot bind to macrophages. D Activates the complement cascade. E Has an insignificant role in worm infestations 14 The Fc receptor with the highest affinity of the following five receptors is: A CD64. B FcγRII. C CD16. D FcεRI. E CD23 15 Cleavage of IgG by papain produces: A Divalent antigen binding fragments. B Isolated light chains. C Isolated heavy chains. D F(ab')2. E Fab. 16 A given myeloma protein: A Has a homogeneous amino acid structure. B Has diverse variable polypeptide segments.
C Has a constant heavy chain but both kappa and lambda light chains. D Is produced by different plasma cell clones. E Does not behave as an antibody. 17 What is the approximate number of D segment genes in the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene locus: A 40 B 30 C 9 D 6 E 1 18 RAG-1 and RAG-2 enzymes effect the recombination of: A VDJ to CH B H to L C CDR1 to CDR2 D V to D E VJ to Cλ 19 A given Ig isotype is: A A heavy chain variant encoded by allelic genes. B A light chain constant region encoded by allelic genes. C Present in all normal individuals. D A collection of hypervariable region epitopes recognized by an anti-idiotype. E Monoclonal. 20 The Fab region of an Ig is responsible for: A C1q fixation. B Binding to antigen. C Binding to Fc receptors. D Binding to macrophages. E The ability of Ig to cross the human placenta.
Chapter 4 1 The first immunoglobulin heavy chain class to be expressed on the surface of a newly produced B-cell is: A IgA B IgD C IgE D IgG E IgM 2 A B-cell is able to make cell-surface and secreted versions of antibody using: A Different gene pools. B Differential splicing. C Different heavy chain class but the same light chain. D Different light chain class but the same heavy chain. E F(ab')2 fragments. 3 The cytoplasmic region of surface IgM consists of: A A single H chain constant region domain. B A light chain. C 110 amino acids. D 3 amino acids. E Carbohydrate. 4 The percentage of human peripheral blood T-cells bearing a gamma delta T-cell receptor is: A 30–80%. B 1-5%. C 100%. D 0%. E Only present during mycobacterial infections. 5 The T-cell receptor genes were originally identified using: A A monoclonal anti-idiotype. B The polymerase chain reaction. C A liver DNA gene library.
D In situ hybridization. E Subtractive hybridization. 6 A chromosome on which T-cell receptor alpha chain gene rearrangement has occurred lacks which of the following gene segments: A Joining (J). B Diversity (D). C Variable (V). D Constant (C). E TCR beta chain. 7 Using only random VDJ recombination, from 40 V, 30 D and 6 J gene segments, the number of possible variable regions of an antigen receptor molecule would be: A 40 B 76 C 7,200 D 1.4 × 106 E 1.4 × 109 8 N-region insertion is associated with the expression of: A Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase. B NK cell antigen receptors. C The proteasome. D Lysozyme. E Heat shock proteins. 9 Receptor editing: A Has been described for antibody but not TCR. B Is associated with reexpression of RAG-1 in germinal centers. C Can involve V genes which are 3' of the initially selected V gene. D Involves the S (switch) sequences. E For B-cells only occurs in bone marrow. 10 Somatic hypermutation of V genes: A Is confined to the hypervariable regions. B Involves heavy but not light chain immunoglobulin V genes. C Does not occur in IgM antibodies.
D Can decrease the affinity of an antibody. E Is commonly seen for both antibody and TCR. 11 NK cells lack receptors with: A Specificity for MHC class II molecules. B Specificity for MHC class I molecules. C C-type lectin domains. D Immunoglobulin-like domains. E Specificity for the Fc region of IgG. 12 The Ly49A receptor on NK cells does not: A Exist as a dimer. B Possess an α-helix in its structure. C Recruit phosphatases D ITAMS. E ITIMS. 13 The MHC class I heavy chain consists of: A Beta2-microglobulin. B Three Ig-type domains. C A truncated MHC class II heavy chain. D Three globular domains. E Two globular domains. 14 The MHC class II beta chain has a molecular weight of: A 28–29 kDa B 34 kDa C 43–44 kDa D 11–12 kDa E 24–25 kDa 15 The MHC class II region genes in the mouse are located: A On a different chromosome to the class I region genes. B On a different arm, but on the same chromosome as the class I region genes. C On chromosome 6. D Adjacent to a class I gene. E In the HLA locus.
16 MHC class III genes encode: A Complement component C3. B Tumor necrosis factor. C IL-2. D Beta2-microglobulin. E HLA-DQ. 17 Extensive allelic polymorphism is found in MHC: A DRbeta. B DRalpha. C beta2-microglobulin. D Class I alpha3 domain. E Class II beta2 domain. 18 Expression of MHC genes is: A Codominant. B Dominant for maternal genes. C Dominant for paternal genes. D Dependent on thymic selection. E Totally dependent on the antigenic exposure of the individual. 19 The molecules mediating signal transduction following antigen binding to cell surface immunoglobulin on a B-cell are called: A Ig Fc B Ig-alpha and Ig-beta C MHC D CD4 E CD8 20 The T-cell receptor for antigen is: A Derived from the immunoglobulin gene pool by alternative splicing. B A tetramer. C A homodimer. D A heterodimer. E A single chain molecule. 21 Each chain of the T-cell receptor consists of:
A An Ig heavy chain. B Two Ig-type domains. C A fibronectin-type domain. D Glycolipid molecules. E Four Ig-type domains. 22 The T-cell receptor antigen recognition signal is transduced by: A The TCR alpha chain. B The TCR beta chain. C CD1. D CD2. E CD3. 23 MHC class II molecules are found on: A Virtually all cells in the body. B B cells, dendritic cells and macrophages. C Only gamma-interferon activated cells. D Virtually all nucleated cells in the body. E Only on virally-infected cells. 24 Somatic hypermutation is: A Commonly found in both Ig and T-cell receptor genes. B Restricted to the constant region. C Restricted to the hypervariable regions. D Found only in Ig heavy chains. E Found only in Ig variable regions.
Chapter 5 1 A hapten is: A An epitope. B A paratope. C A small chemical grouping which reacts with preformed antibodies. D A carrier. E An immunogen. 2 A discontinuous antigen epitope is: A Presented by MHC molecules. B Usually concave. C Representative of only a minority of B-cell epitopes. D Produced by a continuous linear peptide sequence. E Produced by amino acid residues on non-adjacent polypeptide sequences. 3 Binding of antigen to antibody: A Is usually unaffected by molecular rigidity. B Is unaffected by the presence or absence of water molecules. C Involves covalent bonding. D Is optimized by spatial complementarity. E Is usually unaffected by pH. 4 The intermolecular forces which contribute to the interaction between antibody andantigen: A Are all electrostatic. B Are all van der Waals. C Are all hydrophobic. D Are all hydrogen bonds. E Rely on a combination of the above. 5 Which of the following statements is incorrect? Affinity is: A A measure of the strength of the binding of antigen to antibody. B The association constant of the Ag/Ab equilibrium. C Avidity. D Related to the free energy change of the Ag/Ab interaction. E Related to specificity.
6 The antigen moiety on an antigen-presenting cell recognized by the alpha beta T-cell receptor is: A Native protein antigen plus major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule. B Processed (peptide) antigen plus MHC. C Processed peptide antigen. D Native antigen. E MHC alone. 7 The processing of cytosolic protein involves: A Transport into late endosomes. B Proteasome-mediated cleavage. C Displacement of invariant chain. D Displacement of beta2-microglobulin. E Binding to the MHC class II groove. 8 Which of the following statements does not apply to the immunoproteasome: A It is generated in response to interferon-gamma stimulation. B It contains the nonpolymorphic MECL1 subunit. C It contains the polymorphic LMP7 subunit. D Ten per cent of the peptides generated are 8–9 residues in length. E It exhibits both chymotrypsin-like and trypsin-like activities. 9 Antigen processing for presentation by MHC class II molecules involves: A DM B LMP2 C TAP1 and TAP2 D Calnexin E Proteasomal-mediated cleavage 10 The processed peptide binding to the MHC class I groove: A Is usually more than 11 amino acids long. B Hangs over the ends of the groove. C Usually binds to the groove through 2 anchor residues. D Is mainly recognized by the CDR2 of the T-cell receptor chains. E Is derived from exogenous protein taken in by endocytosis. 11 TCR recognition of peptide-MHC class II depends on:
A Covalent binding. B Very high affinity interactions. C CDR-mediated binding. D A minimum of 2 peptides occupying the binding groove of each MHC molecule. E The presence of beta2 microglobulin. 12 Cross-presentation of exogenous antigen to α β T-cells does not require theinvolvement of: A Peptide-MHC recognition by the T-cell receptor. B Antigen-processing C MHC class I D MHC class II E An antigen-presenting cell. 13 An example of a 'nonclassical' MHC molecule is: A H-2 A B HLA-C C H-2 L D H-2E E H-2 m 14 CD1: A Is encoded in the MHC region. B Structurally is most similar to MHC class II molecules. C Can present antigens to gamma delta, but not alpha beta, T-cells. D Can present lipid antigens. E Is encoded by a single gene. 15 NKT cells: A Bear diverse TCR alpha chains. B Have a limited TCR beta chain repertoire. C Comprise 2–3% of T-cells in the mouse liver. D Following stimulation secrete gamma interferon but not IL-4. E Are restricted by CD1 but not by classical MHC molecules. 16 Alkylamine antigens:
A Are produced by Listeria monocytogenes. B Are particularly recognized by V alpha9 V beta2 T-cells. C Comprise a family of lipid antigens. D Do not occur naturally. E Stimulate alpha beta but not gamma delta T-cells. 17 Superantigens: A Do not cause pathology. B Are not mitogenic for T-cells. C Bind to MHC class III. D Bind to all members of a given V beta T-cell receptor family. E Have to be processed before recognition by the T-cell. 18 Alpha beta T-cells recognizing MHC plus processed peptide can: A Themselves produce antibody to directly eliminate extracellular organisms. B Release histamine. C Scavenge unwanted metabolic products. D Directly kill viruses. E Recognize an intracellular infection. 19 An epitope: A Is the area on an antigen which contacts antibody. B Is the area on an antibody which contacts antigen. C Requires both antigen-binding arms of the antibody molecule for its recognition. D Is usually composed of a linear sequence of amino acids. E Is usually associated with a concave region of the antigen. 20 The binding of antigen to antibody: A Is irreversible. B Depends on covalent interactions. C Occurssolely by hydrophobic bonding. D Depends on spatial complementarity. E Is always of high affinity. 21 Alpha beta T-cell receptors recognize: A Native antigen. B Free linear antigenic peptide.
C MHC beta2-microglobulin. D Linear antigen peptide in the MHC groove. E Lipid and glycolipid antigens associated with the MHC. 22 Peptides produced by processing of cytosolic proteins largely: A Are generated in late endosomal vacuoles. B Enter the endoplasmic reticulum by diffusion. C Are presented at the cell surface with MHC class II to CD4 T-helpers. D Are presented at the cell surface with MHC class II to CD8 cytotoxic T-cells. E Are presented at the cell surface with MHC class I to CD8 cytotoxic T-cells. 23 Antigenic peptides in the MHC class I groove: A Are usually over 12 residues in length. B Are usually under 12 residues in length. C Extend beyond the groove. D Usually have 3 or more invariant anchor residues. E Do not vary at non-anchor residues. 24 Staphylococcus aureus superantigens: A Do not cause pathology. B Are recognized by T-cells in processed form. C Are potent T-cell mitogens. D Stimulate T-cells independently of V beta family. E Stimulate T-cells independently of the presence of MHC class II accessory cells.
Chapter 6 1 In extreme antigen excess, immune complexes between IgG and a tetravalent antigen have the composition: A Ag1Ab4 B Ag4Ab3 C Ag2Ab1 D Ag3Ab2 E Ag2Ab7 2 Antibody titer refers to the: A Absolute amount of specific antibody. B Affinity of specific antibody. C Avidity of specific antibody. D Concentration of specific antibody. E Highest dilution of antibody still able to give a positive result in a test system. 3 The association constant (Ka) at equilibrium is represented by: A [AgAb complex] B [free Ag][free Ab] C [free Ag][free Ab]/[AgAb complex] D [AgAb complex]/[free Ag][free Ab] E [free Ag]/[free Ab] 4 The affinity of an antibody can be determined by measuring: A Its concentration. B The valency of antigen binding. C The amount of antibody bound at various antigen concentrations. D Its ability to neutralize bacterial toxins. E The sedimentation coefficient of the antibody. 5 Latex particles are often used in: A Agglutination tests. B Affinity chromatography. C Affinity measurements. D Adjuvants. E Neutralization assays.
6 The RAST measures: A Antigen concentration. B IgE antibodies. C IgM antibodies. D Agglutination. E IgG antibodies. 7 Surface plasmon resonance is a system based on: A Fluorescence. B Radioactivity. C Reflected light. D Molecular resonance. E Magnetic fields. 8 Characterization of antigens by electrophoresis and immunofixation relies on the reaction of antigen and antibody in (or on): A Agar. B Streptavidin. C Gold-plated sensor chip. D Latex particles. E Plastic microtiter plates. 9 Western blots are primarily used to detect: A Protein. B Carbohydrate. C Lipid. D RNA. E DNA. 10 SDS-PAGE separates proteins on the basis of: A Isoelectric point. B Sedimentation coefficient. C Amino acid sequence. D Degree of glycosylation. E Size. 11 The pepscan technique is most useful for determining:
A Antibody structure. B Discontinuous epitopes recognized by antibodies. C Epitopes recognized by T-cells. D MHC haplotypes. E TCR V beta usage. 12 HAT medium is used to: A Immortalize B-lymphocytes. B Culture B-lymphocytes. C Select for hybrids in the hybridoma technique. D Kill B-cell hybridomas. E Fuse B-lymphocytes to myeloma cells. 13 A HAMA response cannot be reduced or eliminated using: A ADEPT. B Chimeric antibodies. C Humanized antibodies. D Grafted CDRs. E Human antibodies. 14 Human monoclonal antibodies can be obtained: A Using Epstein-Barr virus immortalization of T-cells. B Easily from human hybridomas selected with HT medium. C Using transgenic xenomouse strains. D By a single point mutation of a mouse monoclonal antibody. E Only by fusing human B-cells with mouse myeloma cells. 15 A single chain Fv fragment (scFv) will: A Fix C1q. B Bear idiotypes. C Cross-link antigen. D Only be present on the surface of filamentous bacteriophage. E Possess either VH or VL but not both. 16 In affinity chromatography the required ligand is often released by: A Changing the pH B Vigorous shaking
C Changing the temperature from 37° to 4°. D Boiling. E Adding a small amount of detergent (e.g. 0.025% Tween 20). 17 Coating a cell with specific antibody facilitates its selection by: A Sedimentation rate. B Buoyant density. C Adherence to plastic surfaces. D Magnetic beads coated with anti-Ig. E Light scatter in the fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS). 18 A T-cell hybridoma A Is obtained by continuous culture of T-cells with antigen. B Is obtained by cloning antigen-specific splenic T-cells. C Is obtained by fusing T-cells with a T-cell tumor cell line and cloning. D Expresses a multiplicity of T-cell receptor specificities. E Results from producing a mouse which is transgenic for the rearranged alphaand beta-receptor from a T-cell clone 19 Which of the following is not used as a direct conjugate to the antibody for visualizing tissue antigens: A Fluorescein. B Anti-immunoglobulin. C Alkaline phosphatase. D Peroxidase. E Gold particles. 20 A confocal microscope at high magnification does not: A Bring all focal planes of an image into focus simultaneously. B Permit construction of a 3-dimensional image. C Improve the quality of image definition in a single plane. D Provide quantitative data. E Function with fluorescent conjugates. 21 The use of green fluorescent protein in flow cytofluorimetry permits measurement of: A Cell size. B Cell granularity. C Antibody secretion.
D DNA content. E Intracellular gene expression. 22 The functional activity of neutrophils can be assessed by: A The nitroblue tetrazolium test. B Proliferation. C Limiting dilution analysis. D A plaque test for antibody. E A fluorescent antibody test for myeloperoxidase. 23 The activation of lymphocytes cannot be assessed by: A Mitosis. B Cytokine release. C Phagocytosis. D Cytotoxicity. E Limiting dilution analysis. 24 The TUNEL technique can be employed to measure: A Precursor frequency. B Apoptosis. C Directional migration of neutrophils. D Phagocytosis. E Surface exposed phosphatidylserine. 25 Antibody-secreting cells can be enumerated by: A Mitosis. B Cytokine release. C Total antibody content. D Cell surface immunoglobulin. E ELISPOT. 26 Introduction of a gene into a cell using calcium phosphate precipitate is termed: A Electroporation. B Homologous recombination. C Biolistics. D Transfection. E Mutation.
27 Common approach to generating conditional knockout mice involves using: A TdT. B Radiation chimeras. C ELISPOTS. D Tritiated thymidine. E LoxP. 28 A catalytic antibody is: A An enzyme used to digest antibody. B An immunoabsorbent. C Found in the vacuoles of phagocytic cells. D An antibody that is capable of acting as an enzyme. E An antibody to zymosan. 29 In an ELISA you might use an antigen or antibody labeled with: A
125I
B FITC C Colloidal gold D Europium 3+ E Horseradish peroxidase 30 Which of the following is not used for the precipitation of immune complexes? A Nephelometry. B Polyethylene glycol. C Ammonium sulfate. D Antibody to immunoglobulin. E Staphylococci. 31 Antigen-specific B-cells can be purified by: A Sedimentation rate. B Panning on anti-Ig plates. C Phagocytosis. D Forward light scatter in the fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS). E Binding of fluorescent antigen and separation in the FACS. 32 Antigens in tissues can be localized with fluorescent antibodies using:
A Flow cytofluorimetry. B A confocal fluorescence microscope. C Autoradiography. D An enzyme substrate. E The electron microscope. 33 A gene can be selectively disrupted by: A Electroporation with the normal gene. B Homologous recombination. C Liposome transfection with the normal gene. D Antisense RNA. E X-Irradiation.
Chapter 7 1 Which one of the following is a primary lymphoid organ: A Lymph nodes B Spleen C Peyer's patch D Tonsil E T hymus 2 The thoracic duct A Enters the spleen. B Directly drains the lymph nodes. C Forms the interface between the lymph and blood. D Transports T-cells from the bone marrow to the thymus. E Is a part of the lamina propria. 3 When antigen reaches a lymph node in a primed animal: A There is an increase in the output of cells in the efferent lymphatics over the following 24 h. B There is a decrease in the output of cells in the efferent lymphatics over the following 24 h. C There is an immediate output of activated blast cells. D It is transported to the spleen. E It is all immediately destroyed by macrophages. 4 The specialized cell type involved in the entry of lymphocytes into lymph nodes are called: A M-cells B Mesangial cells C PALS D HEV endothelial cells E Selectins 5 The VLA molecules are: A Homotrimers. B Homodimers. C Single chain molecules.
D Heterodimers with a common beta chain. E Heterodimers with a common alpha chain. 6 On entering a germinal center, the primary B-blasts grow exponentially to form which cell type in the dark zone: A Secondary B-blasts B Centrocytes C Centroblasts D Memory B-cells E Plasma cells 7 The tingible bodies inside germinal center macrophages are: A DNA fragments. B Phagocytosed foreign antigen. C A sign of macrophage apoptosis. D Bacterial cell wall components resistant to degradation. E VLA molecules. 8 The paracortical area of a lymph node comprises mainly: A Follicular dendritic cells B Plasma cells C Macrophages D B-cells E T-cells 9 In a lymph node, the antigen pneumococcus polysaccharide SIII leads to: A Lymphocyte proliferation in the paracortex. B PALS development. C Development of cellular hypersensitivity. D Proliferation in cortical lymphoid follicles. E The absence of germinal centers. 10 Which of the following lymphoid tissues is unencapsulated: A Thymus B Lymph node C Spleen
D Tonsil E MALT 11 Expression of a CD8 alpha-alpha homodimer is characteristic of: A Intraepithelial lymphocytes. B Follicular dendritic cells. C Eosinophils. D Classical cytotoxic T lymphocytes. E Classical helper T lymphocytes. 12 Which of the following functions are macrophages unable to carry out: A Pinocytosis. B Phagocytosis. C Antigen processing. D T-cell priming. E Antigen presentation to activated cells. 13 When Langerhans' cells differentiate into fully mature dendritic cells (DCs) they: A Downregulate CD1 expression. B Increase their endocytic activity. C Increase expression of B7.1 D Decrease expression of B7.2. E Become resistant to infection by HIV-1. 14 Langerhans' cells are found in: A Lymph B Lymph nodes C Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths D Skin E Mantle zone 15 Lymphocytes: A Enter the tissues and remain there for the rest of their life. B When mature are only found in secondary lymphoid organs. C Recirculate between blood and lymphoid tissues. D Are only educated in the thymus. E When present in the lymph are called veiled cells.
16 Follicular dendritic cells: A Can bind immune complexes. B Are small round cells. C Retain antigen for up to 24 h. D Possess Fc receptors but lack C3b receptors. E Are not found in germinal centers. 17 The spleen is largely involved with the response to antigens which are in the: A Tissues B Blood C Gut D Lungs E Urogenital tract 18 The germinal center is an important site of: A Hematopoiesis. B B-cell maturation. C T-cell maturation. D Myeloid cell differentiation. E Initial germ line V gene rearrangement. 19 Lymphocytes in the lamina propria secrete large amounts of: A IgD. B IgA. C Gamma delta TCR. D Bence Jones protein. E Isolated secretory component. 20 The bone marrow is a site of: A Very little antibody production. B Antibody production against T-independent antigens only. C Long term antibody production. D Substantial secretion of IgD. E Antibody production by pre-B cells. 21 An example of a privileged immunological site is the:
A Bone marrow B Skin C Testis D Lung E Waldeyer's ring 22 LFA-1 belongs to which family of molecules: A Complement receptors B Cytokine receptors C Integrins D VLA E Selectins
Chapter 8 1 CD8 is a marker of: A B-cells B Helper T-cells C Cytotoxic T-cells D An activated macrophage E A neutrophil precursor 2 CD4: A Is essentially an intracellular glycoprotein. B Is heterodimeric. C Binds processed peptide in its outer groove. D Binds to MHC class II on antigen-presenting cells. E Is highly polymorphic. 3 The following is characteristic of B- but not T-cells: A Class I MHC. B CD3. C Measles virus receptor. D Polyclonal activation by concanavalin A. E Surface immunoglobulin. 4 When a resting naive T-cell engages its specific MHC/peptide complex displayed on the surface of a fibroblast it: A Undergoes blast cell formation. B Produces IL-2. C Moves from Go to G1 of the cell cycle. D Becomes anergic. E Secretes IL-1. 5 The T-cell ligand binding B7 on a professional antigen-presenting cell is: A CD28 B CD2 C LFA-1 D ICAM-1 E VCAM-1
6 Proliferation of activated T-cells: A Is stimulated by a single signal induced by engagement of the T-cell receptor. B Requires both the signal described in A plus costimulation from B7. C Requires both the 2 signals described in B plus interaction between LFA-1 and ICAM-1. D Requires only mutual binding of LFA-3 and CD2 on the antigen-presenting cell and T-cell respectively. E Is unaffected by anergy. 7 Sos (Son of sevenless): A Itself directly activates MAP kinase kinase kinase. B Recruits the Grb2 adaptor protein. C Is a guanine nucleotide exchange factor. D Is a GTPase-activating protein. E Is phosphorylated by Mek. 8 Protein tyrosine kinase activity following T-cell stimulation: A Phosphorylates and thereby activates phospholipase C gamma 1. B Is an inherent property of the T-cell receptor alpha and beta chains. C Is an inherent property of CD3. D Is unaffected by herbimycin A. E Is unrelated to phosphorylation of the CD3-associated zeta chains. 9 The early increase in phospholipase C gamma 1 activity following T-cell stimulation: A Represents a sensitive regulatory negative feedback control mechanism. B Dephosphorylates protein tyrosine kinase inhibitors. C Accelerates hydrolysis of diacylglycerol. D Accelerates hydrolysis of phosphatidylinositol diphosphate. E Accelerates hydrolysis of inositol triphosphate. 10 The nuclear AP-1 site responsible for 90% of IL-2 enhancer activity binds: A The Oct – 1 transcriptional factor. B The Fos/Jun transcription factors. C The nuclear factor of activated T-cells (NFAT). D The NF-kappa B transcriptional factor. E Polyclonal mitogenic agents such as concanavalin A.
11 In the immunological synapse: A The acetylcholine receptor in expressed on the T-cell. B Production of substance P by the antigen-presenting cell is a key event. C The initial interaction between TCR and MHC is unstable. D Adhesion molecule pairs eventually move to the center of the synapse. E The B7–CD28 interaction is redundant. 12 T-cell mutants lacking CD45 cannot transduce signals received through the specific T-cell receptor because CD45: A Has protein tyrosine kinase activity. B Directly phosphorylates CD4. C Is a calcium ion channel. D Removes a phosphate group from a negative regulatory site on the Lck kinase. E Acts as a nuclear transcription factor. 13 Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) from Gram-negative bacteria is: A A thymus-dependent antigen. B A type 2 thymus-independent antigen. C A polyclonal activator of murine B-cells. D Cross-links Ig receptors on B-cells. E Produces high affinity IgG memory responses. 14 The carrier T-cell epitope on a thymus-dependent antigen: A Behaves like a hapten. B Needs to be polymeric. C Need not be physically connected to the B-cell epitope. D Is a carbohydrate. E Stimulates help for the B-cell response. 15 T-cell help for antibody production: A Depends on T-cell recognition of native antigen bound to B-cell surface Ig. B Depends on T-cell recognition of antigen processed by the B-cell. C Involves class I MHC on the B-cell. D Can occur in X-irradiated mice. E Is a feature of the antibody response to pneumococcal polysaccharide SIII. 16 Cross-linking of B-cell surface receptors:
A Is a characteristic feature of thymus-dependent antigens. B Lowers the intracellular Ca++ concentration. C Rapidly phosphorylates the Ig-alpha and Ig-beta chains of the surface Ig receptor. D Requires contiguity of 2 B-cell epitopes of different specificity on the same antigen molecule. E Cannot be achieved by anti-idiotypic antibodies. 17 Activation of resting B-cells by T-helpers depends directly upon costimulatory interaction between: A CD40 and CD40L. B B7 and CD28. C B7 and CTLA-4. D CD4 and MHC class II. E ICAM-1 and LFA-1 18 B-cells as distinct from T-cells: A Are polyclonally activated by phytohemagglutinin. B Bear surface Ig receptors for antigen. C Bear surface CD3 molecules. D Are lymphocytes. E Can be activated by stimulation through the antigen receptor alone. 19 The T-cell receptor link to MHC/peptide is enhanced by interaction between MHC class II on the antigen-presenting cells with the following molecule on the T-cell: A LFA-1 B CD2 C CD4 D CD8 E CD28 20 The main costimulatory signal for activation of resting T-cells is provided by ligation of: A CD28 B Surface Ig C LFA-1 D VLA-4 E IL-2
21 Which one of the following events occurs earliest in T-cell signaling: A Activation of phospholipase C. B Activation of protein kinase C. C Production of inositol triphosphate. D Activation of protein tyrosine kinase. E Mobilization of intracellular calcium. 22 On injection into mice, bovine serum albumin conjugated with dinitrophenol (DNP) behaves as a: A Type 1 thymus-independent antigen. B Type 2 thymus-independent antigen. C Thymus-dependent antigen. D A polyclonal T-cell activator. E Hapten. 23 T-cell CD40L provides a costimulatory signal to B-cells by ligating: A Surface Ig B MHC class II C CD28 D CD19 E CD40
Chapter 9 1 Which is the first of the following genes to be upregulated subsequent to T-cell activation: A Transferrin receptor B Cytokine receptor C Cytokine D c-myc E VLA-1 2 Cytokines always act: A By binding to specific receptors. B In an autocrine fashion. C At long range. D Antagonistically with other cytokines. E Synergistically with other cytokines. 3 A Cytokine receptor which is a member of the hematopoietin receptor family is: A IL-8 receptor. B IFN gamma receptor. C TNF (TNF-alpha) receptor. D IL-1 receptor. E IL-2 receptor. 4 The alpha beta heterodimeric form of the IL-2 receptor: A Is downregulated on activated cells. B Binds IL-2 with high affinity. C Is found only on T-cells. D Uses CD45 as an alpha chain. E Allows rapid dissociation of bound IL-2. 5 IFN-gamma and TNF (TNF alpha) can act synergistically: A To downregulate expression of MHC class I. B Because IFN-gamma downregulates expression of TNF receptors. C To upregulate expression of MHC class II. D Because they both bind to the same receptor. E Because they cross-link IFN-gamma and TNF beta receptors.
6 Which of the following is characteristically produced by the Th2 CD4 cells which provide help for antibody production, but not by Th1 cells?: A IFN-gamma B Lymphotoxin (TNF-beta) C GM-CSF D IL-4 E IL-1 7 Dendritic cells can be driven from a resting state to an activated state by the T-cell surface molecule: A TCR B CD40L C CD28 D B7 E CD40 8 In the germinal center, B-cells become memory cells under the influence of: A CD40 B CD23 C IL-1 alpha D IL-4 E TGF beta 9 High affinity B-cell clones in mammals are usually generated by: A Somatic hypermutation. B Expression of high affinity precursors in the virgin (naive) B-cell population. C Class switching. D Apoptosis. E Gene conversion. 10 Prior to class switching, B-cells express: A IgA alone B IgA and IgG C IgM and IgD D IgD alone E No surface Ig
11 The cytokine which is most involved in the class switch to IgE production is: A IL-1 B IL-2 C TGF beta D IL-4 E IL-5 12 The first event following the production of CH sterile transcripts by immunoglobulin genes is: A VDJ rearrangement. B Light chain rearrangement. C Somatic hypermutation. D Apoptosis. E Class switching. 13 The specificity of antibody secreted by a B-cell may not be the same as that of the surface Ig of the clonal parent because of: A Class switching. B Somatic hypermutation. C Allelic exclusion. D Alternative splicing. E Different heavy:light pairing. 14 The major long term source of a foreign antigen in the body is: A Anti-idiotype. B Complexes on the surface of follicular dendritic cells. C Antigen bound to the surface of B-cells. D Antigenic peptides in the groove of MHC molecules. E There are no long term sources of foreign antigen in the body. 15 Effector memory T-cells can be distinguished from the central memory T-cells from which they arise by: A Their life-span. B CD45RA. C CCR7. D CD3. E IL-4 secretion.
16 Cytokines: A Are usually around 150–200 kDa. B Have glycosyl phosphatidylinositol (GPI) anchors. C Can be pleiotropic. D Generally act at long range. E Produce very stable long-lived messenger RNA. 17 Th1 cells secrete: A CD4. B IL-4. C IL-5. D IL-6. E Interferon-gamma. 18 Which one of the following cytokines can mediate release of acute phase proteins from the liver?: A IL-10. B TGF beta. C IL-6. D IL-12. E IL-8. 19 Which of the following is not a feature of germinal center B-cells: A Immunoglobulin gene class switching. B Apoptosis. C Initial VDJ rearrangement. D Somatic hypermutation. E Proliferation. 20 Low amounts of antigen: A Produce low affinity antibodies. B Do not influence the affinity of antibodies. C Produce high affinity antibodies. D Affect the avidity but not the affinity of antibodies. E Preferentially induce class switching. 21 Memory T-cells:
A Are continuously produced directly from naive progenitors without the need for antigenic stimulation. B Express high levels of CD44. C Are only present in primary immune responses. D Switch from an alpha beta to a gamma delta T-cell receptor. E Express germ line Ig V genes. 22 Activated memory T-cells can be distinguished from naive T-cells on the basis of expression of: A T-cell receptor. B Immunoglobulin. C MHC class II molecules. D CD45RO. E IL-1.
Chapter 10 1 A major factor regulating the adaptive immune response is: A The neutrophil. B Complement membrane attack complex. C C-reactive protein. D Antigen concentration. E Haptoglobin. 2 Antigenic competition: A Involves competition between T-cell epitopes for the MHC groove. B Involves competition for available soluble antibodies. C Is unrelated to the concept of dominant and subdominant epitopes. D Can only occur with cryptic epitopes. E Refers to the differential immunogenicity of the carbohydrate and protein moieties in a glycoprotein. 3 Negative feedback on adaptive B-cell responses is mediated by: A Antigen specific IgM. B Antigen specific IgG. C Just antigen neutralization. D Fc gamma receptors on macrophages. E F(ab')2 anti-mu. 4 An example of an anti-apoptotic molecule is: A Bcl-2. B TRAIL. C Bax. D FADD. E Caspase 8. 5 Injection of a mouse with a very high dose of sheep erythrocytes induces: A A generalized antigen non-specific suppression. B Antigen-specific T-suppression. C Class switching to IgM antibody production. D IFN-gamma production by Th2 cells. E A high antibody response.
6 Suppression of Th2 by Th1 cells may be mediated by: A IL-1. B IL-3. C IL-4. D GM-CSF. E Interferon-gamma. 7 Cells bearing MHC class I plus peptide are targets for specific: A B-cells. B Cytotoxic T-cells. C Th1 cells. D Th2 cells. E Interdigitating dendritic cells. 8 Natural antibodies: A Are mostly IgG. B Are mostly high affinity autoantibodies. C Are produced spontaneously by CD5+ B-cells. D Are acquired by transplacental passage from the mother. E Do not arise in thymectomized mice. 9 Antibodies specific for different epitopes on the same antigen: A Will usually bind to each other through idiotypic interactions. B Cannot bear similar idiotypes. C Can bear similar idiotypes independently of their antigenic specificity. D Can only bear similar idiotypes if the antigenic epitopes cross-react. E Must be of the same immunoglobulin class. 10 Regulatory idiotypes on antibodies: A Are not usually 'public' idiotypes. B Are not usually 'cross-reactive' idiotypes. C Are usually common to several different antibodies. D Are usually 'private' idiotypes . E Are usually restricted to members of a single clone of antibodies. 11 An internal image monoclonal anti-idiotype:
A Has specificity for its own internal structure. B Is the mirror image of the idiotype. C Has identical idiotypes on heavy and light chains . D Mimics a single epitope on the antigen. E Cannot function as a 'surrogate' antigen. 12 High responder 'Biozzi' mice: A Phagocytose carbon particles faster than low responders. B Were obtained by breeding wild mice through 5 generations, selectively mating the high responders each time. C Differ from low responders by a single gene . D Produce high titer antibodies to only a very restricted number of antigens. E Produce high titer antibodies to a variety of antigens. 13 A high antibody response to an antigen such as (TG)-A-L in a given mouse strain: A Is linked to immunoglobulin gene polymorphism. B Is independent of MHC (H-2) haplotype. C Depends on T-cell recognition of the antigen bound to MHC class II . D Depends on T-cell recognition of the antigen bound to MHC class I. E Reflects a general propensity to make high titer antibody responses. 14 Which of the following is never related to poor MHC-linked immune response: A Defective T-cell repertoire. B T-suppression. C Inadequate antigen processing. D Poor binding of peptide epitope to MHC. E Defective V gene rearrangement. 15 Relative to males, females: A Are less resistant to T-cell tolerance. B Are more susceptible to autoimmune disease. C Produce lower antibody responses to T-independent antigens. D Have lower serum Ig levels. E Have lower levels of secretory IgA. 16 Immune responses are:
A Depressed by stress. B Stimulated by glucocorticoids. C Depressed by estrogens. D Stimulated by androgens. E Depressed by growth hormone. 17 Stimulation of glucocorticoid synthesis by IL-1: A Provides a basis for a feedback suppressor circuit. B Cannot provide a basis for a feedback suppressor circuit. C Augments IL-1 synthesis. D Augments cell-mediated immunity. E Augments IFN-gamma synthesis. 18 Protein-calorie malnutrition does not affect: A Lymphoid tissue. B The level of circulating CD4 T-cells. C Cell-mediated immunity. D The affinity of antibody responses. E Phagocytosis of bacteria. 19 The stress induced by severe exercise can increase susceptibility to infection by: A Raising plasma levels of cortisol. B Increasing lymph flow. C Increasing synthesis of adrenaline. D Damaging mast cells. E Increasing the respiratory rate. 20 The level of antigen: A Is unrelated to the intensity of the immune response. B Is related to the intensity of the immune response. C Never has an effect on the response to a T-independent antigen. D Has no effect on the concentration of MHC bound processed antigen. E Is constant in the extracellular fluid. 21 IgG antibodies: A Are the earliest class to appear in an immune response. B Are normally dimeric in mucosal secretions.
C Remain of low affinity. D Inhibit antibody responses through the Fc gamma receptor FcγRIIB1 on B-cells. E Augment antibody responses through the Fc gamma receptor FcγRIIB1 on Bcells. 22 T-cell mediated suppression: A Is always mediated by CD8+ T-cells. B Is always mediated by CD4+ T-cells. C Can be due to Th2 cells suppressing Th1 by IL-4 or IL-10. D Does not exist. E Cannot transfer suppression to another animal. 23 Idiotype–anti–idiotype interactions: A Do not involve antigen-specific receptors. B Only involve antibodies. C Can mediate a lymphocyte network in early life. D Do not occur within the CD5+ B-cell population. E Do not involve self-reactivity. 24 High antibody responses linked to MHC class II genes: A Are independent of MHC haplotype. B Depend on good T-helper cell recognition of class II/antigen peptide complex. C Depend on defective antigen presentation by MHC molecules. D Result from tolerance to MHC/self-peptide complexes. E Require suppression of Th2 cells. 25 With respect to immunoneuroendocrine networks: A They do not exist. B They exist only in higher primates. C They never involve ACTH. D They never involve the hypothalamic/pituitary axis. E Augmentation of glucocorticoid production by IL-1 is a good example. 26 Cell-mediated immunity: A Is unaffected by exercise. B Is unaffected by surgical trauma. C Is unaffected by diet.
D May be grossly impaired by protein-calorie malnutrition. E Is unaffected by protein-calorie malnutrition.
Chapter 11 1 Which of the following is the earliest site of hematopoiesis in the embryo: A Bone marrow B Liver C Spleen D Yolk sac E Thymus 2 Stem cell factor is produced mainly by; A Stem cells. B Thymic epithelium. C Bone marrow stromal cells. D Megakaryocytes. E The reticuloendothelial system. 3 The putative murine stem cell is positive for: A B220 B Mac-1 C Gr-1 D CD8 E Sca-1 4 An example of a peptide hormone produced by the thymus is: A Thymulin B Thyroglobulin C Thyroxine D Thy-1 E Thymine 5 Hassall's corpuscles are found in: A Peripheral blood B Bone marrow C Spleen D Thymus E Peyer's patches
6 Which of the following statements might not be true?: A Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells are produced in the bone marrow. B In adults, the thymus is virtually atrophied and is therefore no longer functional. C Thymocytes are educated in the thymus. D Not all lymphocytes are leukocytes. E Plasma cells are always derived from B-lymphocytes. 7 In a thymectomized animal which is irradiated and reconstituted with bone marrow cells: A The T-lymphocyte population is not restored. B The B-lymphocyte population is not restored. C All lymphocyte populations are restored. D None of the lymphocyte populations are restored. E Rapid death inevitably follows. 8 In the thymic medulla the majority of gamma delta T-cells are: A CD4+CD8+ B CD4+CD8– C CD4–CD8+ D CD4–CD8– E Surface Ig+ 9 NKT cells: A Have rearranged TCR alpha beta genes. B Express a gamma delta TCR. C Have rearranged immunoglobulin genes. D Lack NK1.1. E Can only recognize antigens presented by CD1. 10 CD8+ T-cells bearing an alpha beta TCR: A Always co-express CD4. B Will have expressed terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) during their early development. C Do not require the presence of a thymus for their development. D Recognise native antigen. E Recognise MHC class II molecules. 11 Alpha beta T-cells:
A Initially express a pre-TCR bearing an invariant pre-beta chain. B Arise earlier in ontogeny than gamma delta T-cells. C Can be CD4+CD8– but not CD4–CD8+. D Unlike gamma delta T-cells, do not rely on Notch-1 signaling pathways during their development. E Express RAG-1 and RAG-2 at the pre-T stage. 12 Allelic exclusion is not seen for: A T-cell receptor alpha genes. B T-cell receptor beta genes. C T-cell receptor gamma genes. D T-cell receptor delta genes. E T-cell receptor gene D region segments. 13 The first wave of fetal gamma delta T-cell receptor cells in mouse colonize the: A Female reproductive tract. B Skin. C Peripheral blood. D Thymus. E Gut. 14 In human adult peripheral blood the percentage of gamma delta T-cells bearing V gamma 9, V delta 2 T-cell receptors is: A < 1% B 25% C 50% D < 30% E 70% 15 The T-cells in male H-2b SCID mice bearing a transgenic alpha beta T-cell receptor gene specific for H–Y in association with H-2Db will: A All be CD4+CD8–. B All be CD4–CD8+. C All recognise H-Y alone. D Undergo continuous proliferation. E Be deleted.
16 In Sir Peter Medawar's classical experiments demonstrating the development of immunological tolerance: A Thymectomized mice had to be used. B SCID mice were used. C The mice were chimeric. D Skin grafts were always rejected. E Tolerance could not be induced in neonatal mice. 17 In infectious anergy: A T-cells become deleted. B Anergic T-cells indirectly suppress other T-cells. C CD80 on the antigen-presenting cell becomes upregulated. D MHC class II on the antigen-presenting cell becomes upregulated. E T-cells recognize antigen in the absence of antigen-presenting cells. 18 Differentiation of B-cells from hematopoietic stem cells is independent of: A Ikaros B IL-3 C IL-7 D Pax5 E IL-8 19 The phenomenon whereby, following successful Ig gene rearrangement, further rearrangement on the sister chromatid is suppressed is called: A Allelic exclusion. B Class switching. C Productive rearrangement. D Clonal selection. E Gene shuffling. 20 Strains of mice which are congenitally deficient in C5: A Do not possess C5-responsive lymphocytes. B Have both T-cells and B-cells that can respond to C5. C Have T-cells, but not B-cells, that can respond to C5. D Have B-cells, but not T-cells, that can respond to C5. E Have C5-specific monocytes, but not lymphocytes. 21 Genuine adaptive T- and B-cell responses are seen in:
A The Californian hagfish. B The horseshoe crab. C Xenopus. D Drosophila. E Marine sponges. 22 A member of the immunoglobulin gene superfamily which contains 5 Ig-type domains is: A Thy-1 B Poly-Ig receptor C MHC class I heavy chain D CD4 E CD3 epsilon 23 The first antigen receptor-bearing cells to appear in the thymus in mouse are: A T-cell receptor alpha beta+ B T-cell receptor gamma delta+. C TdT–. D RAG-1–. E CD3–. 24 Positive selection in the thymus is mediated by: A Thymic epithelial cells. B Macrophages. C Dendritic cells. D B-cells. E T-cells. 25 B-1a cells are: A B-cells which respond to mostly to T-dependent antigens. B B-cells which predominate in later life. C Plasma cells. D CD5– B-cells. E CD5+ B-cells. 26 V preB:
A Refers to all the germ line immunoglobulin heavy chain V genes in the pre-B cell. B Is part of the surrogate light chain. C Forms a structure with lambda 3. D Forms a structure with C kappa. E Is expressed by both T- and B-cells. 27 Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta to provide a high level of passive immunity at birth?: A IgA B IgD C IgE D IgG E IgM 28 Which of the following molecules does not belong to the Ig gene superfamily: A Immunoglobulin B T-cell receptor C Beta2-microglobulin D Thy-1 E LFA-1
Chapter 12 1 The largest number of deaths from infectious diseases are caused by: A AIDS. B Acute respiratory infections. C Diarrheal diseases. D Tuberculosis. E Measles. 2 Histamine: A Has no effect on the permeability of venules. B Constricts arterioles. C Upregulates adhesion molecules on vascular endothelium. D Upregulates IL-8. E Induces neutrophil chemotaxis. 3 P-selectin pairs with: A LFA-3. B LFA-1. C ICAM-1. D Sialyl Lewisx. E Beta2 integrin molecules. 4 Binding of platelet activating factor (PAF) to its receptor on the neutrophil: A Initiates binding of neutrophils to P-selectin. B Initiates neutrophil rolling. C Produces a chemotactic gradient. D Causes histamine release. E Upregulates LFA-1. 5 Activated Hageman factor: A Produces a fibrin clot in damaged veins. B Is factor X of the intrinsic clotting system. C Directly causes thrombus formation. D Directly increases vascular permeability. E Directly dissolves fibrin clots.
6 Neutrophil chemotaxis is mediated by: A C5b B IL-8 C C3a D CCL2 E E-selectin 7 Opsonization of bacteria occurs through coating bacteria just with: A C3b B C8 C Membrane attack complex D F(ab')2 IgG E IgM 8 Extracellular bacteria are optimally killed by: A Macrophages. B Complement. C Antibody. D Macrophages plus complement. E Macrophages plus antibody plus complement. 9 Extracellular bacteria try to avoid killing by: A Activating neutrophils. B Accelerating complement activation. C Synthesizing capsules. D By deviating complement deposition to the cell membrane. E Limiting variation in their antigens. 10 Toxins are neutralized by: A Complement B Antibody C Toxoids D PGE2 E Proteolytic enzymes 11 CR1 complement receptors on phagocytic cells bind:
A Factor H B Factor I C C3d D Only inactive C3b (iC3b) E C3b 12 Secretory IgA protects external mucosal surfaces by: A Triggering mast cells. B Recruiting phagocytic cells. C Preventing microbial adherence to the mucosa. D Binding to epithelial cells. E Its secretory piece. 13 The pyrogenic streptococcal exotoxins SPE, A, B, and C: A Are M proteins. B Cause post-streptococcal autoimmune disease. C Produce high titers of anti-streptolysin O. D Have hyaluronidase activity. E Are superantigens. 14 Individuals lacking C8 or C9 are more prone to infection with the following type of bacteria: A Haemophilus influenzae. B Bacillus anthrax. C Vibrio cholerae. D Neisseria. E Listeria monocytogenes. 15 Specific immunity to M. tuberculosis in mice can be transferred to naive histocompatible recipients by: A B-cells. B T-cells. C Macrophages. D Neutrophils. E IgG. 16 Lepromatous leprosy is characterized by:
A Poor T-cell responses. B Good cell-mediated immunity. C Good lepromin dermal response. D Poor B-cell responses. E Poor phagocytic ability.. 17 Viral antigen shift involves: A Single point mutation. B Random point mutations. C Interchange of large segments of the viral genome with other viruses. D Rearrangement of the viral structural architecture. E Regression to an earlier variant. 18 The HIV nef protein affects antigen presentation by: A Causing MHC class I endocytosis. B Containing glycine-alanine repeats which inhibit proteasome-mediated processing of the virus. C Preventing peptide binding to TAP. D Preventing peptide transport through the TAP pore. E Competing for peptide binding to the MHC class I heavy chain. 19 Interferons: A Opsonize viruses. B Neutralize viruses. C Play a major role in recovery from viral infections. D Prevent viral entry into cells. E Protect against reinfection with virus. 20 Cytotoxic T-cells: A Are usually CD4. B Recognize native viral antigen. C Are more readily produced by killed rather than live virus. D Kill viruses directly. E Restrict viral replication. 21 Classical NK cells:
A Have rearranged T-cell receptor genes. B Are unaffected by IFN alpha. C Are more active against targets with upregulated MHC class I. D Can kill certain virally-infected cells. E Can kill all virally-infected cells. 22 IgE levels are high in infections with: A Trichinella spiralis. B Trypanosoma cruzi. C Trypanosoma rhodesiense. D Plasmodium falciparum. E Leishmania tropica. 23 Th1 cells are of major importance in defense against: A Trypanosoma brucei. B Leishmania donovani. C Malarial merozoites. D Malarial sporozoites. E Trichinella spiralis. 24 Trypanosomes do not evade the host immune response by: A Pre-empting complement defenses. B Releasing decoy proteins. C Varying their surface antigens. D Escaping from the phagosome. E Completely resisting phagocytosis. 25 Abnormally folded prion proteins are: A Relatively sensitive to protease digestion. B Associated with CGD. C Present in follicular dendritic cells in individuals with transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. D Normally eliminated by B-cells. E Destroyed by macrophages. 26 Immune complex–induced nephrotic syndrome is a feature of:
A Trypanosomiasis. B Quartan malaria. C Schistosomiasis. D Leishmaniasis. E Chagas' disease. 27 Inflammation is a defensive reaction initiated by infection or tissue injury which firstcauses: A Upregulation of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells and leukocytes. B Chemotaxis. C IL-8 release. D Phagocytosis. E Bacterial killing. 28 Extracellular bacteria are killed by: A Secreting exotoxins. B Impeding inflammatory reactions. C Phagocytosis and complement. D Toxin neutralization. E C-reactive protein. 29 The mucosal surfaces of the body are initially protected by free: A IgG. B IgM. C IgE. D Secretory IgA. E IgD. 30 Bacteria growing within macrophages are killed by: A Complement. B Reactive oxygen and nitrogen intermediates. C Antibody. D Cytotoxic T-cells. E Directly by cytokines released from Th1 cells. 31 Some viruses escape the immune system by antigen shift. This involves:
A Structural reorganization of existing antigens. B Masking of antigen epitopes. C Point mutations in single genes. D Point mutations in many genes. E Interchange of genetic material with other viruses. 32 Protection against worm infestations is particularly associated with an increase in: A IgD. B IgE. C IgG. D IgA. E IgM.
Chapter 13 1 The first production of live but non-virulent forms of chicken cholera bacillus was achieved by: A Pasteur. B Salk C Jenner D Montague E Sabin 2 The term variolation refers to: A The generation of antibody variable regions. B The attenuation of virulent organisms C Innoculation of scab material into small skin wounds D The removal of scab material from an individual with smallpox E A type of gene therapy 3 The circulation of a two month old breast-fed baby will contain maternal: A IgA B IgD C IgE D IgG E IgM 4 What is the minimum percentage of children which needs to be vaccinated successfully in order to achieve herd immunity to diphtheria; A 100% B 10% C 50% D 75% E Herd immunity cannot be achieved against diphtheria 5 For vaccination against mycobacterial diseases such as tuberculosis, the most important facet of the immune response to be stimulated is: A A high titer of antibody B Macrophage-activating cell-mediated immunity C Cytotoxic T-cells
D Antibody in the gut lumen E Neutrophils 6 Which one of the following diseases has been completely eradicated world-wide?: A Measles B Smallpox C Tuberculosis D Cowpox E Psittacosis 7 BCG is used to protect against: A Tuberculosis B Rabies C Hepatitis B D Influenza E Pertussis 8 A small protein subunit used in a vaccine may fail to stimulate T-cell immunity because of: A Lack of glycosylation B Lack of conformation C Lack of carrier determinants D HLA-related unresponsiveness E Inherently insufficient antigen concentration 9 Baculovirus vectors can be produced in cell lines derived from which of the following: A Moth B Chicken bursa C Chinese hamster ovary D Tobacco E Green monkey kidney 10 DNA vaccines: A Are relatively poor at stimulating cytotoxic T lymphocyte responses in mice B Must be administered on gold particles if they are to be effective C Are only effective if followed by a protein boost D May have distinct advantages when preparing subunit vaccines against viruses
which frequently alter their antigens E Require cold storage in tropical countries 11 A peptide immunogen: A Adopts a single rigid structure in solution B Can mimic a part of a discontinuous epitope C Can elicit potent antibody responses in the absence of T-cell help D Can be used to stimulate B-cell but not T-cell responses E Lack contact residues capable of interacting with the antigen receptor on the relevant lymphocytes 12 Tetanus toxoid is usually given to humans: A Absorbed to aluminum hydroxide B With complete Freund's adjuvant C Without the addition of any other agent D Together with the toxin E Only as a therapeutic agent, not prophylactically 13 A potential disadvantage of immunological protection using passive transfer of horse globulins is: A Serum sickness B Irreversible protection C Lack of antibody-mediated immune response D Type IV hypersensitivity reactions E Immunodeficiency 14 A feature of a Salmonella-based vaccine expressing antigens from other infectious agents is that: A Immunity is limited to the gut B Only secretory IgA is elicited C It does not invade the mucosal lining of the gut. D It provokes both oral and systemic immunity. E The organism does not need to be attenuated 15 To which one of the following groups would it be acceptable to give a live attenuated viral vaccine?: A Children under 8 years of age B Patients treated with steroids C Pregnant mothers
D Patients with leukemia E Patients treated with radiotherapy 16 Idiotypes can be exploited as epitope-specific vaccines if they are: A IgG but not IgM B At least bivalent C First deglycosylated. D Only if they are anti-idiotypes E Internal image 17 An antibody response to a protein vaccine can only be obtained: A If the molecule is first linked to a carrier B If the molecule maintains discontinuous epitopes C If the molecule is glycosylated D If disulfide bonds are maintained E If the peptide bonds are maintaine
Chapter 14 1 Defects in neutrophil NADPH oxidase system produce: A Chronic granulomatous disease. B Chediak-Higashi disease. C Leukocyte adhesion deficiency. D Hashimoto's disease. E Streptococcal infection. 2 Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial infection does not involve the gene for: A IFNγR1. B IL-12 p40. C IFNγR2. D MEFV. E IL-12RβI. 3 Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobulinuria results from deficiency in: A Myeloperoxidase. B Decay accelerating factor. (DAF). C Classical pathway C components. D C1 inhibitor. E C8. 4 X-linked agammaglobulinemia results from a mutation in: A IFNγ receptor. B The CIITA promoter protein. C An HLA gene. D CD40L (CD154). E A tyrosine kinase gene. 5 Di George syndrome results from a defect in: A Purine nucleoside phosphorylase. B WASP. C Thymic development. D DNA repair. E CD3.
6 Mutations in the gammac chain of the receptors for IL-2, 4, 7, 9 and 15 lead to: A Reticular dysgenesis. B Bare lymphocyte syndrome. C Hyper–IgM syndrome. D Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID). E Build-up of toxic nucleotide metabolites. 7 The approximate percentage of cases of severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) due to defects in the Armetis gene is: A 5%. B 10%. C 15%. D 40%. E 60%. 8 Poor skin tests to a range of microbial antigens such as tuberculin and mumps indicate a deficiency of: A NK cells. B T-cells. C B-cells. D Phagocytosis. E Opsonization. 9 HIV binds to: A CD4. B IL-2 receptor. C NF kappa B. D Reverse transcriptase. E TNF receptors. 10 A coreceptor for HIV is: A RANTES B CD8 C CD54 D CR5 E CXCR4 11 Which of the following is not helpful in the diagnosis of AIDS:
A CD4 numbers. B CD8 numbers. C Skin tests to bacterial antigens. D Lymph node biopsy. E Serum p24 antigen. 12 Which of the following HIV antigens provides a potential target for neutralizing antibody: A U3 B gp120 C Reverse transcriptase D Protease E tat 13 Primary immunodeficiency producing susceptibility to infection by viruses and molds is due to: A B-cell deficiency. B T-cell deficiency. C Phagocyte deficiency. D Complement deficiency. E Eosinophil deficiency. 14 Deletions in the T-cell CD154 (CD40L) gene produce: A The hyper–IgM syndrome. B Congenital X-linked agammaglobulinemia. C IgA deficiency. D Wiskott–Aldrich Syndrome. E Deficiency in cytotoxic T-cell activity. 15 Which of the following have not provided examples of secondary immunodeficiency: A Viral infection. B Lymphoproliferative disorders. C Cytotoxic drugs. D High fat diet. E Low iron diet.
Chapter 15 1 The β chain of the FcεRI: A Binds IgE. B Is associated with Lyn. C Contains a GPI-anchor. D Possesses an ITIM sequence. E Is also used by FcεRII. 2 Which one of the following mast cell products is not preformed and therefore has to be newly synthesized?: A Histamine. B Prostaglandin D2. C Heparin. D Neutral protease. E Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF). 3 Lol p1-11V are allergens cloned from: A Rye grass pollen. B House dust mite. C House dust mite feces. D Animal danders. E Dermatophagoides pteryonyssinus. 4 Type I hypersensitivity can be blocked using: A Histamine. B An IgA myeloma. C A myeloma protein of mixed antibody class. D Sodium cromoglycate. E Interleukin-5. 5 A major unresolved question concerning ADCC is: A Whether antibody is involved. B Whether it can be carried out by NK cells. C Whether it leads to cell death. D Whether it is complement-dependent. E To what extent it occurs in vivo.
6 Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can lead to: A Hashimoto's thyroiditis. B Agranulocytosis. C Cold hemagglutinin disease. D Thrombocytopenic purpura. E Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia. 7 The term reactive lysis usually refers to a sequence of events involving: A Natural killer (NK) cells. B Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (CTL). C Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC). D Th1 cells. E Complement. 8 Maple bark stripper's disease is a hypersensitivity largely affecting the: A Skin. B Kidneys. C Nervous system. D Lung. E Platelets. 9 Dead Wuchereria bancrofti can cause: A Elephantiasis. B Erythema nodosum leprosum. C Serum sickness. D Pigeon fancier's disease. E Farmer's lung. 10 Chronic granuloma represents an attempt by the body to: A Wall off a site of chronic infection. B Make a site of chronic infection accessible. C Digest antibody-antigen complexes. D Initiate an immune response. E Change from a Th1 to a Th2 type of response. 11 In thyroid autoimmunity, an antibody causing type V hypersensitivity may be present and is directed against:
A Thyroglobulin. B Thyroid peroxidase. C Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. D Acetylcholine receptor. E Thyroxine. 12 Which type of hypersensitivity cannot be transferred with serum antibody?: A Type I. B Type II. C Type III. D Type IV. E Type V. 13 Anaphylaxis can be triggerred by cross-linking of IgE receptors on: A Monocytes. B Mast cells. C B-cells. D Eosinophils. E Neutrophils. 14 Rhesus hemolytic disease of the newborn involves: A IgE. B Antibody to cell surfaces. C Soluble immune complexes. D Cytokine release from T-cells. E Stimulatory antibodies. 15 The Arthus reaction is characterized by an intense infiltration by: A Mast cells. B Neutrophils. C Eosinophils. D Macrophages. E Langerhans' cells. 16 Type IV hypersentivity is often referred to as: A Immediate. B Delayed.
C Anaphylactic. D Anergic. E Allotypic. 17 The injection of tuberculin into the skin of a sensitized individual elicits: A Immune complex glomerulonephritis. B Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction. C Isohemagglutinins. D Jones-Mote sensitivity. E Mantoux reaction. 18 The major effector molecules involved in type IV hypersensitivity reactions are: A Antibodies. B Complement components. C Cytokines. D Prostaglandins. E 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT). 19 Septic shock associated with Gram-negative bacteria is primarily due to: A Lipopolysaccharide. B Enterotoxin superantigen. C Platelet aggregation. D Switch off of cytokine release. E Peptidoglycans.
Chapter 16 1 A graft between members of the same species is termed an: A Autograft. B Isograft. C Xenograft. D Allograft. E None of the above. 2 Which one of the following statements is false. Rejection of a second (set) skin graftfrom the same allogeneic donor: A Can be blocked by azathioprine (an antimitotic agent). B Proceeds at the same speed as the first graft rejection. C Shows specificity for the graft donor. D Can be transferred to a naive recipient with lymphocytes. E Involves recognition of MHC differences. 3 The human major histocompatibility complex: A Provokes the most intense allograft reactions. B Is termed H-2. C Contains only class I and class II genes. D Is not expressed as codominant antigens on the cell surface. E Encodes the human leukocyte antigens (HLA) expressed only on leukocytes. 4 Mitosis occurs when mixing lymphocytes of two individuals: A In presence of mitomycin C. B In presence of anti-CD4. C Who are identical twins. D Of differing MHC class II haplotype. E Of differing MHC class I, but identical MHC class II, haplotype. 5 Graft vs host disease occurs on injecting adult T-cells of strain A into: A F1(A × B) animals. B Unirradiated strain B. C Irradiated strain A. D Strain A fetuses. E Cultures of lymphocytes from strain B.
6 The mixed lymphocyte reaction (MLR) using homozygous stimulating cells can be used to tissue type for antigens encoded by: A HLA-A B HLA-B C HLA-C D HLA-D E HLA-E 7 Non-specific suppression of graft rejection can be achieved with: A Ricin A chain. B Anti-IL-5. C Anti-NF kappa B D Anti-CD34. E Anti-CD3. 8 The immunosuppressive drug which probably attacks DNA by alkylation and crosslinking is: A Azathioprine. B Cyclophosphamide. C Cyclosporine. D Rapamycin. E Prednisone. 9 The target of the monoclonal antibody Daclizumab used to help suppress allograft rejection is: A CD3. B CD40L. C LFA-1. D ICAM-1. E CD25. 10 Pigs have been proposed as a source of organs for xenotransplantation to humans because: A They do not pose a risk of zoonoses. B Their cell surface glycoproteins bear galactose α-1,3-galactose structures. C They lack endogenous virus sequences. D Their hearts are an appropriate size and the pigs can be genetically modified to
limit the possibility of hyperacute rejection. E Their organs are not susceptible to hyperacute rejection because they become coated with the natural antibodies normally present in humans. 11 The 1-year survival rate for cadaver kidneys grafted into individuals pretreated withblood transfusion and with no DR mismatches is approximately: A > 95%. B 80–90%. C 55–65%. D 40–50%. E < 40%. 12 Graft vs host disease often accompanies transplantation of: A Cartilage. B Kidney. C Bone marrow. D Heart. E Pancreas. 13 HLA-G: A Is an MHC class II molecule. B Is present on extravillous cytotrophoblast. C Stimulates NK cell-mediated lysis. D Activates DAF. E Stimulates IL-10 synthesis. 14 The very rapid response to a second allogeneic graft is: A Specific for antigens of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC). B Dependent on minor histocompatibility antigens. C Transferred by macrophages to a naive recipient. D Transferred by platelets. E Transferred by IgA. 15 Concerning MHC class II antigen differences between 2 individuals, which of the following is untrue: A They produce mixed lymphocyte reactions. B They stimulate formation of helpers to generate cytotoxic T-cells. C They cause graft vs host disease.
D For sibling pairs, they will only exist on average in 1:4 cases. E None of the above. 16 Hyperacute graft rejection is caused by: A Preformed antibody. B CD4 lymphocytes. C CD8 lymphocytes. D Platelets. E Circulating immune complexes. 17 Which of the following does not minimize allogeneic graft rejection: A Cyclosporine. B Disodium cromoglycate. C Azathioprine. D Cross-matching for ABO and MHC. E Anti-CD4. 18 Which of the following allogeneic grafts does not require immunosuppression: A Kidney. B Heart. C Liver. D Bone marrow. E Cartilage. 19 The fetus may be protected from maternal transplantation attack by: A Luteinizing hormone. B Presence of HLA class I on the fetus: C HLA-G on the extravillous cytotrophoblast. D C3 convertase on the syncitiotrophoblast. E Local production of IL-2.
Chapter 17 1 An example of a known oncogenic virus is: A Herpes zoster. B HIV-2. C Epstein-Barr virus. D Vesicular stomatitis virus. E Proteus mirabilis. 2 Boon and colleagues showed that syngeneic transplantable tumors which mutate such that they express strong transplantation antigens are rejected. They called these variants: A tum – . B Xenogeneic. C tum + . D MCA. E Non-immunogenic. 3 In pancreatic carcinoma the ras gene: A Is absent. B Is normal but is overexpressed. C Has a large deletion. D Contains a single point mutation, always at the same position. E Contains a single point mutation, but not always at the same position. 4 Wheat germ agglutinin binds strongly to: A Surface lipoproteins on resting T-cells. B Surface glycoproteins on resting T-cells. C Surface glycoproteins on resting B-cells. D Surface glycoproteins on activated T- and B-cells. E Surface lipoproteins on activated T- and B-cells. 5 Strongly immunogenic tumors appear: A In virtually all cancers. B Only in lymphoma and leukemia. C In immunosuppressed patients.
D Only in experimental animals. E Only in elderly patients. 6 A mouse strain deficient in NK cells is the: A SJL. B Beige. C Nude. D MRL-lpr/lpr. E Moth-eaten viable. 7 Which of the following is most commonly seen in African children with Burkitt's lymphoma: A Absence of EBV. B T-cell neoplasia. C Deletion of the c-myc gene. D Chromosome 8q24 to Chromosome 14q32 translocation. E Chromosome 8q24 to Chromosome 2p12 translocation. 8 Pre-B acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Pre-B ALL) cells lack: A Expression of TdT. B HLA-DR. C Cytoplasmic µ heavy chain. D CD5. E CD10. 9 Chronic lymphocytic leukemia: A Usually has a very poor prognosis. B Has a good prognosis only in those patients with circulating monoclonal immunoglobulin. C Is mostly a disease of childhood. D Is usually found in people over 50 years of age. E Is a leukemia where both kappa and lambda light chains are found on the surface of the malignant cell. 10 Non-Hodgkin lymphomas: A Will be positive when stained with antibodies to cytokeratin. B Are usually of T-cell origin but sometimes of B-cell origin. C Can be differentiated from carcinoma using antibodies to CD45 (leukocyte
common antigen). D Are reactive B-cell hyperplasias. E Have a good prognosis. 11 In Burkitt's lymphoma, a vaccine against which of the following might prove useful: A Epstein-Barr virus. B Marek's disease virus. C Human papilloma virus. D HTLV-1. E MMTV. 12 A B-cell lymphoma will express a unique tumor antigen called: A p53. B Endosialin. C SM-3. D Idiotype. E Lewis Lea. 13 Bone marrow purging in myeloid leukemias can be successfully carried out using antibodies to: A CD3. B CD33. C CD5. D CD45. E CD1. 14 A diagnostic marker for tumors of the colon is: A Alpha-fetoprotein. B Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA). C The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. : D EBV-related antigens. E Common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA). 15 Antigens normally expressed only on embryonic cells but also sometimes found on tumors are known as: A Oncofetal antigens. B HTLV-1. C Maternal.
D Neonatal. E Cryptic. 16 CD44 is a molecule which may be involved in: A Neoplastic transformation. B Metastatic spread. C Tumor surveillance. D Antigen recognition. E Secretion of tumor necrosis factor. 17 The normal immunological control of tumors is referred to as: A Immunological tolerance. B Immune surveillance. C Type III hypersensitivity. D Immunological silence. E Superantigen recognition. 18 Malignant lymphoid cells: A Show maturation arrest at characteristic stages in differentiation. B Form a polyclonal population of cells. C Are non-dividing. D Express several different tumor-specific antigens. E Are always derived from various stages of the normal B-cell differentiation pathway. 19 The amyloid deposits found in 10–20% of patients with myeloma contain: A Immunoglobulin light chains. B Immunoglobulin heavy chains. C Amyloid A (AA) protein. D Isolated single molecules. E Congo red. 20 In Waldenström's macroglobulinemia there is secretion of: A Polyclonal IgG. B Monoclonal IgG. C Polyclonal IgM.
D Monoclonal IgM. E Monoclonal antibody of mixed class.
Chapter 18 1 Which of the following is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease: A Myasthenia gravis. B Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). C Hashimoto's thyroiditis. D Pernicious anemia. E Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. 2 Which of the following antibodies are of most use for the diagnosis of pernicious anemia: A Anti-parietal cell. B Anti-thyroid peroxidase. C Anti-nuclear. D Anti-IgG Fc E Anti-TSH receptor. 3 Which of the following antibodies are useful for the diagnosis of Sjögren's syndrome: A Anti-cardiolipin. B Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm (ANCA). C Anti-SS-A(Ro), anti-SS-B(La). D Anti-21-hydroxylase. E Anti-glomerular basement membrane. 4 The disease most frequently seen in association with pernicious anemia is: A Addison's disease of the adrenal. B Multiple sclerosis. C Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. D Rheumatoid arthritis. E Graves' disease. 5 Which of the following models is an example of a spontaneous organspecificautoimmune disease: A (NZB × W)F1: B MRL-lpr/lpr. C Experimental autoallergic encephalomyelitis.
D Thyroiditis induced by early thymectomy and irradiation. E Non-obese diabetic (NOD) mouse. 6 The high concordance rate for monozygotic vs dizygotic twins in type 1 diabetesindicates: A A strong environmental element. B A strong genetic element. C A major influence of sex. D The influence of HLA. E That microbial infection cannot be involved. 7 The undue tendency for closely linked genes on a chromosome to remain associated rather than undergo genetic randomisation, is termed: A Tandem duplication. B Meiotic crossover. C Relative risk. D Linkage disequilibrium. E Gene conversion. 8 HLA-DR2 is a risk factor for: A Multiple sclerosis. B Insulin-dependent (type I) diabetes. C Ankylosing spondylitis. D Rheumatoid arthritis. E Myasthenia gravis. 9 Cryptic T-cell epitopes capable of triggering autoimmune disease: A Dominate the normal immune response. B Negatively select T-cells. C Are unable to bind in the MHC groove. D Can be derived by antigen processing. E Are presented by MHC class I but not MHC class II molecules. 10 Which of the following is incorrect 'Natural antibodies' are often: A Autoreactive. B Polyspecific. C Reactive with bacterial carbohydrates.
D High affinity IgG. E Produced by CD5+ B-cells. 11 Autoantigen selection of responding B-cells is indicated by: A Germ line configuration of the antibody. B High affinity antibody. C Expression of a public idiotype. D A monoclonal antibody response. E A response to many different autoantigens. 12 Which of the following is incorrect: T-helpers can be bypassed by: A Failure of regulatory T-cells. B Polyclonal activation of B-cells. C Idiotypic mechanisms. D Antigenic cross-reaction. E T-cell recognition of carrier complexed to autoantigen. 13 In the NZB model of autoimmune hemolytic anemia: A There are no T-cell regulatory abnormalities. B Disease is unaffected by neonatal thymectomy. C The red cell autoantibodies cause disease. D CD5+ B-cells are not involved in pathogenesis. E Thyroid autoantibodies are prevalent. 14 The antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with: A Infertility. B Severe anemia. C Wegener's granulomatosis. D Raised platelet levels. E Recurrent fetal loss. 15 Exophthalmos is often associated with: A Hashimoto's disease. B Primary myxedema. C Graves' disease. D Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. E Autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
16 Neonatal myasthenia gravis is thought to be caused by: A An inherited genetic defect. B Transplacental transfer of maternal IgG against the TSH receptor. C Anti-idiotype to maternal IgG. D Transplacental transfer of maternal IgG against the acetylcholine receptor. E Maternal T-cells transferred across the placenta. 17 In celiac disease there is T-cell sensitivity to: A Vitamin B12. B Gluten. C β-adrenergic receptors. D Gastric H+-K+ dependent ATPase. E Myelin basic protein. 18 Glomerulonephritis associated with pulmonary hemorrhage is referred to as: A Pemphigus vulgaris. B Goodpasture's syndrome. C Systemic lupus erythematosus. D Lambert–Eaton syndrome. E Wegener's granulomatosis. 19 A spontaneous model of systemic lupus erythematosus is the: A Balb/c mouse. B MRL-lpr/lpr mouse. C SJL mouse. D Obese strain chicken. E SCID mouse. 20 In rheumatoid arthritis the non-lymphoid synovial tissue shows aberrant expression of: A Immunoglobulin genes. B T-cell receptor genes. C MHC class I. D MHC class II. E MHC class III. 21 IgG in patients with rheumatoid arthritis has abnormal:
A Glycosylation. B Disufide bonds. C Light chain sequence. D Hinge regions. E Valency. 22 Rheumatoid arthritis can be induced in rats by injection of: A Pooled normal rat IgG. B Freund's incomplete adjuvant. C Freund's complete adjuvant. D A T-cell clone specific for thyroglobulin. E α 2-macroglobulin. 23 The inflammatory infiltrate in autoimmune thyroiditis comprises mostly: A Phagocytic cells. B Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. C Lymphocytes. D Mast cells. E Eosinophils. 24 In type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus), the target of the autoimmune attack is: A All of the cells in the islets of Langerhans. B The β-cells in the islets of Langerhans. C The somatostatin-producing cells in the islets of Langerhans. D The glucagon-producing cells in the islets of Langerhans. E Cells throughout the body which have an insulin receptor. 25 An animal model for multiple sclerosis is: A EAT. B EAE. C NOD mouse. D Nude mouse. E MRL-lpr/lpr mouse. 26 Pernicious anemia can be treated with:
A Thyroxine. B Insulin. C Vitamin B12. D Thymectomy. E Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors. 27 A therapeutic approach in rheumatoid arthritis is to: A Stimulate TNF (TNFα) production. B Inhibit TNF (TNFα) activity. C Reduce TGFβ secretion. D Administer silver salts. E Use prostaglandin. 28 Animals have been protected against experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) by immunization with: A T-cell receptor Vα peptide. B Pooled normal immunoglobulin. C Myelin basic protein in complete Freund's adjuvant. D T-cell receptor Vβ peptide. E An antibody to myelin basic protein. 29 Immune defenses in the gut have evolved mechanisms which restrict the activation of: A Th1 cells. B Th2 cells. C B-cells. D Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. E Mast cells. 30 The NZBxW F1 hybrid provides an example of autoimmune disease which is: A Experimentally induced systemic. B Spontaneous systemic. C Experimentally induced organ-specific. D Spontaneous organ-specific. E None of the above. 31 Which of the following factors has not been associated with the development ofautoimmune disease:
A Sex. B HLA. C Genetic factors other than HLA. D Infection. E SCID. 32 'Natural antibodies' in the mouse are produced by: A Pre-B-cells. B B-1 cells. C CD4 cells. D CD8 cells. E NK cells. 33 Which of the following responses is incorrect. Autoimmunity can arise when: A Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-antigen. B Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-idiotypes. C B-cells are stimulated with polyclonal activators. D Regulatory T-cells are stimulated. E Cytokine imbalance occurs. 34 A difference between organ-specific and nonorgan-specific autoimmune disorders is that: A Only in organ-specific autoimmune disorders is there a greater incidence in women. B Associations with HLA are only seen in nonorgan-specific autoimmunity. C Circulating autoantibodies react with normal body components only in organspecific autoimmune disorders. D It is only in organ-specific autoimmune disorders that autoantibody tests are of diagnostic value. E Only in nonorgan-specific autoimmune diseases are anti-nuclear antibodies a frequent feature. 35 Ankylosing spondylitis is strongly associated with HLA-: A B8. B DR3. C DR4. D B27. E DR2.
36 In rheumatoid arthritis, the outgrowth of synovial lining cells which produces erosions in the underlying cartilage and bone is called: A Opsonin. B Proteoglycan. C Pannus. D The Arthus reaction. E Frustrated phagocytosis. 37 Rheumatoid factors are: A DNA:anti-DNA immune complexes. B Autoantibodies to IgM. C Autoantibodies to complement components. D Autoantibodies to IgG. E Any factor predisposing to rheumatoid arthritis. 38 Thyrocytes (thyroid epithelial cells) expressing MHC class II in autoimmune thyroid disease are direct targets for locally activated Th1 cells specific for: A PMN proteinase III. B Acetylcholine receptor. C Cardiolipin/β 2-glycoprotein 1 complex. D A peroxidase enzyme. E Pre-synaptic calcium channels. 39 An animal model of type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) is the: A Obese strain chicken. B (NZB × NZW) F1 mouse. C BXSB mouse. D Brown Norway rat. E NOD mouse.
Chapter 19 (1) Which of the following is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease: A Myasthenia gravis. B Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). C Hashimoto's thyroiditis. D Pernicious anemia. E Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. (2) Which of the following antibodies are of most use for the diagnosis of pernicious anemia: A Anti-parietal cell. B Anti-thyroid peroxidase. C Anti-nuclear. D Anti-IgG Fc E Anti-TSH receptor. (3) Which of the following antibodies are useful for the diagnosis of Sjogren's syndrome: A Anti-cardiolipin. B Anti-neutrophil cytoplasm (ANCA). C Anti-SS-A(Ro), anti-SS-B(La). D Anti-21-hydroxylase. E Anti-glomerular basement membrane. (4) The disease most frequently seen in association with pernicious anemia is: A Addison's disease of the adrenal. B Multiple sclerosis. C Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. D Rheumatoid arthritis. E Graves' thyrotoxicosis. (5) Which of the following models is an example of a spontaneous organspecificautoimmune disease: A (NZB × W)F1: B MRL-lpr/lpr. C Experimental autoallergic encephalomyelitis.
D Thyroiditis induced by early thymectomy and irradiation. E Non-obese diabetic (NOD) mouse. (6) The high concordance rate for monozygotic vs dizygotic twins in type 1 diabetesindicates: A A strong environmental element. B A strong genetic element. C A major influence of sex. D The influence of HLA. E That microbial infection cannot be involved. (7) Cryptic T-cell epitopes capable of triggering autoimmune disease: A Dominate the normal immune response. B Negatively select T-cells. C Are unable to bind in the MHC groove. D Can be derived by antigen processing. E Are presented by MHC class I but not MHC class II molecules. (8) Which of the following is incorrect ‘Natural antibodies’ are often: A Autoreactive. B Polyspecific. C Reactive with bacterial carbohydrates. D High affinity IgG. E Produced by CD5+ B-cells. (9) Autoantigen selection of responding B-cells is indicated by: A Germ line configuration of the antibody. B High affinity antibody. C Expression of a public idiotype. D A monoclonal antibody response. E A response to many different autoantigens. (10) Which of the following is incorrect: T-helpers can be bypassed by: A Failure of suppressor T-cells. B Polyclonal activation of B-cells. C Idiotypic mechanisms.
D Antigenic cross-reaction. E T-cell recognition of carrier complexed to autoantigen. (11) In the NZB model of autoimmune hemolytic anemia: A There are no T-cell regulatory abnormalities. B Disease is unaffected by neonatal thymectomy. C The red cell autoantibodies cause disease. D CD5+ B-cells are not involved in pathogenesis. E Thyroid autoantibodies are prevalent. (12) An example of a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease is: A Hashimoto's thyroiditis. B Graves' thyrotoxicosis. C Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). D Pernicious anemia. E Goodpasture's syndrome. (13) The NZBxW F1 hybrid provides an example of autoimmune disease which is: A Experimentally induced systemic. B Spontaneous systemic. C Experimentally induced organ-specific. D Spontaneous organ-specific. E None of the above. (14) Which of the following factors has not been associated with the development ofautoimmune disease: A Sex. B HLA. C Genetic factors other than HLA. D Infection. E SCID. (15) ‘Natural antibodies’ in the mouse are produced by: A Pre-B-cells. B B-1 cells. C CD4 cells.
D CD8 cells. E NK cells. (16) High affinity mutated autoantibodies imply: A The recruitment of CD5+ B-cells. B Stimulation by superantigen. C Stimulation by clusters of autoantigens. D B-cell selection by autoantigen. E An absence of somatic mutation. (17) Which of the following responses is incorrect. Autoimmunity can arise when: A Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-antigen. B Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-idiotypes. C B-cells are stimulated with polyclonal activators. D T-suppressors are stimulated. E Cytokine imbalance occurs.
Chapter 20 (1) The antiphospholipid syndrome is associated with: A Infertility. B Severe anemia. C Wegener's granulomatosis. D Raised platelet levels. E Recurrent fetal loss. (2) Exophthalmos is often associated with: A Hashimoto's disease. B Primary myxedema. C Graves' disease. D Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. E Autoimmune hemolytic anemia. (3) Neonatal myasthenia gravis is thought to be caused by: A An inherited genetic defect. B Transplacental transfer of maternal IgG against the TSH receptor. C Anti-idiotype to maternal IgG. D Transplacental transfer of maternal IgG against the acetylcholine receptor. E Maternal T-cells transferred across the placenta. (4) In celiac disease there is T-cell sensitivity to: A Vitamin B12. B Gluten. C β-adrenergic receptors. D Gastric H ± K+ dependent ATPase. E Myelin basic protein. (5) Glomerulonephritis associated with pulmonary hemorrhage is referred to as: A Pemphigus vulgaris. B Goodpasture's syndrome. C Systemic lupus erythematosus. D Lambert–Eaton syndrome. E Wegener's granulomatosis.
(6) A spontaneous model of systemic lupus erythematosus is the: A Balb/c mouse. B MRL-lpr/lpr mouse. C SJL mouse. D Obese strain chicken. E SCID mouse. (7) In rheumatoid arthritis the non-lymphoid synovial tissue shows aberrant expression of: A Immunoglobulin genes. B T-cell receptor genes. C MHC class I. D MHC class II. E MHC class III. (8) IgG in patients with rheumatoid arthritis has abnormal: A Glycosylation. B Disufide bonds. C Light chain sequence. D Hinge regions. E Valency. (9) Rheumatoid arthritis can be induced in rats by injection of: A Pooled normal rat IgG. B Freund's incomplete adjuvant. C Freund's complete adjuvant. D A T-cell clone specific for thyroglobulin. E α 2-macroglobulin. (10) The inflammatory infiltrate in autoimmune thyroiditis comprises mostly: A Phagocytic cells. B Polymorphonuclear leukocytes. C Lymphocytes. D Mast cells. E Eosinophils. (11) In type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus), the target of the autoimmune attack is:
A All of the cells in the islets of Langerhans. B The β-cells in the islets of Langerhans. C The somatostatin-producing cells in the islets of Langerhans. D The glucagon-producing cells in the islets of Langerhans. E Cells throughout the body which have an insulin receptor. (12) An animal model for multiple sclerosis is: A EAT. B EAE. C NOD mouse. D Nude mouse. E MRL-lpr/lpr mouse. (13) Pernicious anemia can be treated with: A Thyroxine. B Insulin. C Vitamin B12. D Thymectomy. E Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors. (14) A therapeutic approach in rheumatoid arthritis is to: A Stimulate TNF (TNFα) production. B Inhibit TNF (TNFα) activity. C Reduce TGFβ secretion. D Administer silver salts. E Use prostaglandin. (15) Animals have been protected against experimental autoimmune encephalomyelitis (EAE) by immunization with: A T-cell receptor Vα peptide. B Pooled normal immunoglobulin. C Myelin basic protein in complete Freund's adjuvant. D T-cell receptor Vβ peptide. E An antibody to myelin basic protein. (16) Immune defenses in the gut have evolved mechanisms which restrict the activation of:
A Th1 cells. B Th2 cells. C B-cells. D Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. E Mast cells. (17) A difference between organ-specific and nonorgan-specific autoimmune disordersis that: A Only in organ-specific autoimmune disorders is there a greater incidence in women. B Associations with HLA are only seen in nonorgan-specific autoimmunity. C Circulating autoantibodies react with normal body components only in organspecific autoimmune disorders. D It is only in organ-specific autoimmune disorders that autoantibody tests are of diagnostic value. E Only in nonorgan-specific autoimmune diseases are anti-nuclear antibodies a frequent feature. (18) In rheumatoid arthritis, the outgrowth of synovial lining cells which produces erosions in the underlying cartilage and bone is called: A Opsonin. B Proteoglycan. C Pannus. D The Arthus reaction. E Frustrated phagocytosis. (19) Rheumatoid factors are: A DNA:anti-DNA immune complexes. B Autoantibodies to IgM. C Autoantibodies to complement components. D Autoantibodies to IgG. E Any factor predisposing to rheumatoid arthritis. (20) Thyrocytes (thyroid epithelial cells) expressing MHC class II in autoimmune thyroid disease are direct targets for locally activated Th1 cells specific for: A PMN proteinase III. B Acetylcholine receptor. C Cardiolipin/β 2-glycoprotein 1 complex.
D A peroxidase enzyme. E Pre-synaptic calcium channels. (21) An animal model of type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) is the: A Obese strain chicken. B (NZB × NZW) F1 mouse. C BXSB mouse. D Brown Norway rat. E NOD mouse.
Done By Mahmoud Alosaimi
