Ftre 2016 17 c Ix (Going to x) Paper 2 Pcm

FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER - 2015 for students presently in

Class 9 Paper 2 Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm)

Maximum Marks: 408

Code 9009

Instructions: Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results. 1.

This Question paper consists of 1 section. All questions will be multiple choice single correct out of four choices with marking scheme in table below: Section – I (PCM)

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

MATHEMATICS

Question no.

Marking Scheme for each question correct answer

wrong answer

1 to 6, 9 to 10, 15 to 17, 23 to 25, 30 to 31

+3

–1

7 to 8, 11 to 14, 18 to 19

+4

–1

20 to 22, 26 to 29, 32 to 35

+5

–2

36 to 41, 44 to 45, 50 to 52, 58 to 60, 65 to 66

+3

–1

42 to 43, 46 to 49, 53 to 54

+4

–1

55 to 57, 61 to 64, 67 to 70

+5

–2

71 to 76, 78 to 79, 83 to 85, 91 to 93, 99 to 100

+3

–1

77, 80 to 82, 86,

+4

–1

87 to 90, 94 to 98, 101 to 105

+5

–2

2.

Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

3.

Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in any form, are not allowed. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

4.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 105 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : _____________________________________________________________ Registration Number

: _____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate

: _____________________________________________________________

Test Centre

: _____________________________________________________________

FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, Fax 26513942 website: www.fiitjee.com

FTRE-2016-17(SAMPLE PAPER)-C-IX

Physics

(Paper-2)-PCM-2

(Part – A)

Straight Objective Type Physics contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 35. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. When a direction of acceleration and initial velocity are in same direction speed of a particle (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remain constant (D) cannot say 2.

For a body on earth if gravitational constant is GE what is its value on moon? (A) GM < GE (B) GM > GE (C) GM = GE (D) GM and GE have no relation

3.

SI unit of force is (A) kg-m/s (C) dyne

4.

(B) Newton (D) kg-wt

If distance between two bodies increases four time. What will be new gravitational force? (A) Four times the previous one (B) Equal to previous one (C) Zero

(D)

1 th of previous one. 16

5.

A force of 15 N acts separately on two bodies of masses 3 kg and 5 kg. The ratio of the accelerations produces in the two cases will be (A) 5 : 3 (B) 3 : 5 (C) 8 : 15 (D) 15 : 8

6.

If weight of man at the surface of earth is 100 N then his weight on centre of earth is (A) 100 N (B) 50 N (C) Zero N (D) None of these

7.

Which physical quantity have magnitude and direction both (A) speed (B) distance (C) force (D) time

8.

If A and B are two objects with masses 8 kg and 20 kg respectively then (A) A has more inertia than B (B) B has more inertia than A (C) A and B have the same inertia (D) none of the two has inertia

9.

When you move from equator to pole, the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) (A) increases (B) decreases (C) remains the same (D) increase then decreases Space for Rough Work



10.

If a bus starts suddenly, the passengers in the bus will tend to fall (A) in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the bus (B) in the same direction as the direction of motion of the bus (C) sideways (D) none of the above.

11.

When an object undergoes acceleration (A) its speed always increases. (C) it always falls towards the earth.

(Paper-2)-PCM-3

(B) its velocity always increases. (D) a force always acts on it.

12.

Friction force which acts on a body at rest to oppose external forces is called (A) Static friction (B) Kinetic friction (C) limiting friction (D) None of these

13.

Why the tyres are circular in shape? (A) They require less material (C) It is easy to inflate the circular tyres

(B) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction (D) None of the above

14.

A body begins to slide over the surface of another, when pulled with a force of 10 N. If we pull with a force of 5N, the force of friction that will come into play is (A) zero (B) 0.5 N (C) 5 N (D) 50 N

15.

If a particle covers equal distances in equal time intervals, it is said to (A) be at rest (B) move with a uniform speed (C) move with a uniform velocity (D) move with a uniform acceleration

16.

A body goes from a point A to another point B 150 m away in 30 second and return back in 20 sec. Then the average velocity is (A) 6 m/s (B) zero (C) 3 m/s (D) 15 m/s

17.

A body starts from rest with an acceleration of 3m/s2, the velocity of the body after 6 sec is (A) 18 m/s (B) 2 m/s (C) 12 m/s (D) 3 m/s

18.

For a freely falling body (A) velocity remains constant (B) acceleration remains constant (C) body acceleration and velocity remains constant (D) both acceleration and velocity changes

19.

A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It rises to a height of 50 m and comes back to the thrower, (A) the total distance covered by the ball is zero (B) the net displacement of the ball is zero (C) the displacement is 100 m (D) none of these. Space for Rough Work



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20.

An object moves with a uniform velocity of 9.8 m/s, its acceleration is 2 (A) zero (B) 4.9 m/s 2 2 (C) 9.8 m/s (D) 19.6 m/s

21.

A body covers half the distance with a speed of 20 m/s and the other half with a speed of 30 m/s. The average velocity of the body during the whole journey is (A) zero (B) 24 m/s (C) 25 m/s (D) none of these

22.

Velocity-time graph AB shows that the body has (A) uniform acceleration (B) uniform retardation (C) uniform velocity throughout its motion and has zero initial velocity (D) none of these

A

B

V

t

23.

A body strikes the floor vertically with a velocity u and rebounds at the same speed. The change in speed would be (A) u (B) 3u (C) 2u (D) zero

24.

In the following speed-time graph the shaded portion gives (A) distance travelled (B) average speed (C) average velocity (D) displacement travelled

Speed

O

t

2t Time

25.

A particle goes form point A to point B, moving in a semicircle of radius 5m in 10sec. The magnitude of the average velocity is (A) 3.14 m/s (B) 2.0 m/s (C) 1 m/s (D) zero

26.

If the earth shrinks to half of its radius, its mass remaining same, the weight of an object on earth will change __________ times? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 Space for Rough Work



(Paper-2)-PCM-5

27.

Gravitational force between a point mass m and M separated by a distance is F. Now if a point mass 2m is placed next to m in contact with it, the force on M due to m and the total force on M are (A) 2F, F (B) F, 2F (C) F, 3F (D) F, F

28.

The distances travelled by a body falling freely from rest in the first, second and third seconds are in the ratio: (A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 3 : 5 (C) 1 : 4 : 9 (D) none of these

29.

If a rock is brought from the surface of the moon (A) its mass will change (B) its weight will change, but not mass (C) both mass and weight will change (D) its mass and weight will remain the same

30.

A man fires a bullet of mass 20 g at a speed of 5 ms–1. The gun is of 1 kg mass. With what velocity, the gun rebounds backwards? (A) 0.1 ms–1 (B) 10 ms–1 –1 (C) 1 ms (D) 0.01 ms–1

31.

A car is moving with speed 36 km/hr applies brake. Brake produces retardation of 2 m/s2. Distance travelled by particle before coming to rest. (A) 73 m (B) 50 m (C) 25 m (D) 10 m

32.

A thief stole a box full of valuable articles of weight W and while carrying it on his head jumped down from a wall of height h form from the ground. Before he reaches the ground, he experienced a load (A) zero (B) W/2 (C) W (D) 2W

33.

In a game of tug of war, a condition of equilibrium exists. Both the teams pull the rope with a force of 104 N. Tension in the rope is (A) 104 N (B) 108 N 4 (C) 2 × 10 N (D) Zero

34.

A 1000 kg aeroplane moves in straight flight with a constant velocity. The force of air friction is 1800 N. the net force on the plane is (A) zero (B) 1800 N (C) 9000 N (D) 3600 N

35.

A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150g in 0.1s moving with speed 20 ms-1. He experiences a force of (A) 300 N (B) 30 N (C) 3N (D) 0.3N Space for Rough Work



Chemistry

(Paper-2)-PCM-6

( P ar t – B )

Straight Objective Type Chemistry contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 36 to 70. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 36. Which of the following pairs will not exhibit diffusion? (A) Nitrogen, Neon (B) Hydrogen, water (C) Sugar, Salt (D) Oxygen, Chlorine 37.

The Brownian movement stands for (A) Straight forward movement (C) Downward movement

38.

Humidity of air stands for (A) The amount of water vapour present in air (B) The amount of moisture content in air (C) The degree of dampness present in air (D) All of the above

39.

Amorphous solids have (A) Fixed geometry (C) Fixed melting point

(B) Zig - zag movement (D) Upward movement

(B) Haphazard geometry (D) None of these

40.

Which of the following statements about the liquid state is not correct. (A) Liquid cannot be compressed (B) Liquids have maximum fluidity (C) Liquids have a definite volume (D) Liquids have moderate interparticle forces

41.

Factor which does not affect the rate of evaporation is: (A) An increase in surface area (B) An increase in temperature (C) An increase in interparticle forces (D) A decrease in humidity

42.

A wooden table is not called a gas because (A) It is not hard and rigid (B) It is hard and not fluid (C) It can be compressed (D) It does not have definite volume and definite shape

43.

What happens to the particles of the solid during sublimation? (A) Solid changes directly to liquid by decreasing pressure or increasing temperature. (B) An increase in pressure increase the space between particles (C) An increase in temperature increase the kinetic energy of the particle. (D) A decrease in pressure decrease the space between particles.

44.

Which of the following gas(es) on condensation form(s) water? (A) H2 (B) O2 (C) both A & B (D) None Space for Rough Work



45.

Which of the following is a property of amorphous solids? (A) Sharp melting point (B) Uniform physical properties (C) Conduction of electricity (D) Solubility in water

46.

Which dissolves in water? (A) Sugar (C) Chalk

(B) Salt (D) both (A) & (B)

Which is inflammable? (A) Leaf (C) Ghee

(B) Petrol (D) all of these

47.

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48.

A mixture of stone and rice can be separated by (A) Handpicking (B) Seiving (C) Winnowing (D) Filtration

49.

Diamond (contains carbon) is a crystalline solid. Choose correct statement(s) regarding it. (I) Atoms are the building block of the solid. (II) The carbon atoms are orderly arranged through out the crystal. (III) It is an ionic solid. (IV) It can be compressed by applying pressure. Choose the correct choices (A) only I (B) I, II, IV (C) I, II (D) II, III

50.

Classification is grouping things with _________properties together. (A) same (B) similar (C) different (D) all the three

51.

The compound sugar does not consist of the following elements. (A) Hydrogen (B) Nitrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Carbon

52.

Which is not a crystalline solid? (A) Ice (C) Sugar

(B) Common salt (D) Plastic

53.

The Liquification temperature of four gases P, Q, R and S are respectively -40o, -20o, -80o and 20oC respectively? Which gas can be easily liquefied at constant pressure? (A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

54.

Sugar can be recovered from its aqueous solution by: (A) Filtration (B) Distillation (C) Crystallization (D) Centrifugation Space for Rough Work



(Paper-2)-PCM-8

55.

Which of the following term is not related to colloids? (A) Tyndall effect (B) Coagulation (C) Neutralization (D) None of these

56.

A mixture contains A, B and C. A is volatile, B is soluble in water and C is insoluble in water. Which of the following separation processes should be used in correct sequence in order to separate the components from the mixture? (A) Sublimation, dissolution in water, filtration and crystallization (B) Dissolution in water, filtration, sublimation and crystallization (C) Dissolution in water, sublimation, filtration and crystallization (D) Sublimation, crystallization, filtration and dissolution in water

57.

Which of the following mixture is a colloid? (A) CuSO4 + H2O (C) Soap (C17H35COONa) + H2O

(B) Na + H2O (D) Urea + H2O

58.

Nitrogen can be separated from air by (A) evaporation followed by condensation (B) condensation followed by fractional distillation (C) condensation followed by evaporation (D) distillation followed by condensation

59.

Cream is separated from milk by (A) evaporation (C) churning

(B) distillation (D) crystallization

Which of the following is not a binary compound? (A) Limestone (CaCO3) (C) Dry ice (solid CO2)

(B) Laughing gas (N2O) (D) Ice (solid H2O)

60.

61.

K2S2O8 is a compound. Which of the following statement is correct for it? (A) ‘K’, ‘S’ and ‘O’ combine in a definite ratio to form it. (B) It is a mixture of two ‘K’, two ‘S’ and eight ‘O’ atoms (C) The elements can be recovered from it by physical methods (D) It is an impure substance

62.

Which of the following is not a compound? (A) Na2SO4.10H2O (C) CaCO3.MgCO3

63

(B) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (D) Na-Hg amalgam

Which of the following process(es) should be used in order to separate ozone from its mixture with carbon dioxide? (A) Dissolution in water (B) Decompression (C) Filtration (D) Fractional distillation Space for Rough Work



64.

65.

(Paper-2)-PCM-9

KCl.MgCl2.6H2O is soluble in water. It’s aqueous solution displays the properties of + (A) K ion (B) K atom 2+ (C) Mg ion (D) Both A & C Four vessels of identical volume contain the following quantity of gases of constant temperature? Vessel – I  (3  1020) molecules of ‘NO2’ Vessel – II  (6  1020) atoms of ‘O’ + (3  1020) atoms of ‘N’ 20 20 Vessel – III  (1.5  10 ) molecules of N2 + (3  10 ) atoms of ‘O’ 20 20 Vessel – IV  (6  10 ) atoms of ‘O’ and (1.5  10 ) atoms of ‘N’. In which vessel the gaseous species will produce maximum pressure? (A) Vessel – I (B) Vessel – II (C) Vessel – III (D) Vessel – IV

CO2

CO2

CO2

66. V = 2 litre

V = 8 litre

V = 4 litre

Three vessels of different volumes contain equal number of gas (CO2) molecules at constant temperature. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the above system? (I) The gas in 8 L vessel exerts more pressure than that in other two vessels. (II) The gas in 2 L vessel exerts maximum pressure. (III) The gas in 8 L vessel requires maximum pressure for compression. (IV) The mass of gas in 2 L vessel in twice than that in 4 L vessel. (V) The mass of gas in 8 L vessel is twice than in 4 L vessel. Choose the correct statements: (A) II (B) II, III (C) I, II, III, IV (D) II, III, V 67.

Heat T1

Heat T2

H2O  solid   H2 O liquid    H2 O  gas  Heat

H  g   O  g    T 3

The temperature for the above series of changes follows the order? (A) T2 > T1 > T3 (B) T1 > T2 > T3 (C) T3 > T2 > T1 (D) T2 > T3 > T1 68.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the volume of a definite amount of a gas? (I) It does not have a definite volume. (II) The volume of 1 mg of any gas is 1 ml. (III) It’s volume can be measured at particular temperature and pressure. (IV) Equal mass of all gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature and pressure. Choose the correct statements. (A) II, IV (B) I, II, III, IV (C) I, III (D) I, III, IV Space for Rough Work



(Paper-2)-PCM-10

69.

The property that affects the flow of liquid layers is called viscosity. More viscous liquids move slower and vice – versa. The viscosity of four liquids is given as follows L1 > L2 > L3 > L4 Choose correct statements (i) The vapour pressure of L1 is higher than that of L2 (ii) The vapour pressure of L3 is higher than that of L1 (iii) There is maximum difference between the vapour pressure of L1 and L4 (iv) The boiling point of L1 is the highest among the given liquids. Choose the correct statements: (A) only iv (B) only i (C) i, iii (D) ii, iii, iv

70.

One of the following is considered to be matter. (A) song (B) aroma (C) paint (D) beauty Space for Rough Work



Mathematics

(Paper-2)-PCM-11

( P ar t – C )

Straight Objective Type Mathematics contains 35 multiple choice questions numbered 71 to 105. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 71.

If AB is the diameter of a circle and A(a, 4b) and B  3a, 3b  1 . Find the value of ‘a’ and ‘b’ given that the centre of the circle is at (4, 11) (A) a = –2, b = 3 (B) a = 4, b = 3 (C) a = 2, b = 3 (D) a = –2, b = –3

72.

If the mid-points of the sides of triangle are (2, 1), (0, −3) and (4, 5) then find the co-ordinates of the centroid of triangle (A) (1, 2) (B) (–1, 2) (C) (1, –2) (D) (2, 1)

73.

The area of triangle formed by joining the points (1, 1), (3, 5) and (−1, 2) is (A) 8 sq. unit (B) 24 sq. unit (C) 10 sq. units (D) 5 sq. unit

74.

The greatest of the altitudes of the triangle with sides 6 cm, 8 cm and 10 cm is (A) 4.8 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10

75.

The three angles of a triangle, one is twice the smallest and another is three times the smallest then the smallest angle is (A) 60 (B) 30 (C) 90 (D) 45

76.

In ABC , A  B  110 , B  A  10 , then shortest side is (A) AB (B) BC (C) CA (D) can’t be determined

77.

The value of x if (A) 2 (C) 16

5

6x  2  2 is (B) 5 (D) 32

78.

If a3  b3  1  3ab  0 , then the value of a  b is (A) –1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2

79.

If x 

1 1  2, then the value of x 4  4 is x x

(A) 36 (C) 1154

(B) 34 (D) 1156 Space for Rough Work



80.

(Paper-2)-PCM-12

If x  y  a and xy  b, then the value of

1 1  3 is 3 x y

a3  3ab b3 a3  2ab (C) b3

a3  3a 2b b3 a2  3ab (D) b3

(A)

81.

(B)

The points  a, b  c  ,  b,c  a  and (A) collinear (C) form an equilateral triangle

are (B) form a scalene triangle (D) None of these

82.

Which one of the following is the greatest in a triangle? (A) Sum of Medians (B) Perimeter (C) Sum of altitudes (D) Sum of angle bisectors

83.

The H.C.F. of the polynomials  x  1 x 2  4 and x 2  1  x  2  is



(A) (C)

84.

 x  1 x  2   x  1 x  2

The value of a and b in

(D)

3 5



 x  1 x  2  x  1 x  2

 a 5  b are

3 5

3 7 , 2 2 3 7 (C) , 2 2

3 7 , 2 2 3 7 (D) , 2 2 (B)





If a = 5.2, b = 1.1 and c = - 6.3, then the value of a3  b3  c 3  3abc is (A) 1 (C) 3

86.



(B)

(A)

85.



(B) 2 (D) 0 2

L.C.M. of the expressions 15  x  3  ,25  x  1 x  3  ,35  x  1 (A) 525  x  1

2

2

 x  2 x  3  2 (C) 105  x  1  x  2  x  3  2

2

 x  2  is 2 (B) 525  x  1  x  2   x  3  2 2 (D) 105  x  1  x  2   x  3  2

Space for Rough Work



87.



The value of xb  c

bc

c  a c a

a b a b

 x  x 

is

(A) 0 (C) x 88.

(Paper-2)-PCM-13

(B) 1 (D) 1/x

ABCD is a square, reflex of GEC . (A) 45

DEC and BCG are equilateral. Find

0

(B) 315°

0

(D) 300

(C) 60

A

B E

G

0

D

89.

In the given figure 0 (A) 180 (C) 1400

C

a  b  c  d  e  ?

A 0

(B) 160 (D) 1200

a E

e

d D

90.

The value of (A) (C)

2 1 2 1

The value of

(D) Both A and B are possible 0.07

 243    243  0.25 0.075 0.2  7    49    343 

3 7 3 (C) 1 7

93.

C

(B) 1  2

(A)

92.

c

3  2 2 is

0.13

91.

B

b

is:

(B)

7 3

(D) 2

If 2n 4  2n 2  3, then n is equal to: (A) 0 (C) - 1

2 7

(B) 2 (D) – 2

The remainder when x3  3 x 2  2 x  1 is divided by (x – 3) is (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 5 Space for Rough Work



(Paper-2)-PCM-14

94.

Which one of the following measurements cannot be sides of a triangle? (A) 3, 4, 5 (B) 5, 8, 12 (C) 7, 6, 4 (D) 4, 12, 7

95.

In the given figure, the largest side is (A) PQ (B) QR (C) PR (D) All sides equal

120o

P 140o

Q 96.

In the figure, if BP  CQ and AC  BC, then find the measure of x (A) 20 (B) 25

R A

P Q o

20

(C) 30 (D) 35

x 70

B

o

C

97.

If (1, - 3), (- 2, - 3) and (-2, 2) are the three vertices of a rectangle taken in that order, then the fourth vertex is (A) ( - 1, -2 ) (B) (1, 2) (C) (- 1, 2) (D) (1, -2)

98.

If (2, 0) and (-2, 0) are the two vertices of an equilateral triangle, then the third vertex can be (A) (0, 0) (B) (2, -2)



(C) 0,2 3



(D)



3, 3



99.

If the points (b, b – 1), (b + 2, b + 1) and (b, b + 3) are three consecutive vertices of a square, then its area (in square units) is (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 6

100.

In  ABC, A  B and AB = AC. Find C (A) 60o (C) 80o

101.

(B) 70o (D) 90o

If one angle of a triangle is equal to half the sum of the other two equal angles, then the triangle is (A) Isosceles (B) Scalene (C) Equilateral (D) Right angled Space for Rough Work



102.

Find the area of the triangle whose sides are 41 m, 15 m and 28 m 2 2 (A) 120 m (B) 126 m 2 2 (C) 132 m (D) 136 m

103.

In figure BD  CE find x + y – z (A) 40 (C) 60

(Paper-2)-PCM-15

o

120

(B) 50 (D) 180

E

A

y

D

x B

z o

70

104.

If PQ  ST , then x = ? (A) 300 (B) 450 (C) 600 (D) 900

C

T

S P

Q o

130 o

110

o

x

R

105.

In an isosceles triangle ABC, B  90o . D is a point on AC such that BD  AC. Then BD is equal to

AB 2 AC (C) 2 (A)

(B)

BC 2

(D) none of these

Space for Rough Work



(Paper-2)-PCM-16

FIITJEE SAMPLE PAPER – 2015 for students presently in

Class 9 Paper 2

ANSWERS 1.

A

2.

C

3.

B

4.

D

5.

A

6.

C

7.

C

8.

B

9.

A

10.

A

11.

D

12.

A

13.

B

14.

C

15.

B

16.

B

17.

A

18.

B

19.

B

20.

A

21.

B

22.

D

23.

D

24.

A

25.

C

26.

C

27.

C

28.

B

29.

B

30.

A

31.

C

32.

A

33.

A

34.

A

35.

B

36.

C

37.

B

38.

D

39.

B

40.

B

41.

C

42.

B

43.

C

44.

D

45.

B

46.

D

47.

D

48.

A

49.

C

50.

B

51.

B

52.

D

53.

D

54.

C

55.

C

56.

A

57.

C

58.

B

59.

C

60.

A

61.

A

62.

D

63.

D

64.

D

65.

B

66

B

67.

C

68.

C

69.

D

70.

C

71.

C

72.

D

73.

D

74.

C

75.

B

76.

B

77.

B

78.

B

79.

B

80.

A

81.

A

82.

B

83.

C

84.

C

85.

D

86.

A

87.

B

88.

B

89.

A

90.

A

91.

A

92.

D

93.

C

94.

D

95.

C

96.

C

97.

B

98.

C

99.

C

100.

A

101.

C

102.

B

103.

A

104.

C

105.

C


Ftre 2016 17 c Ix (Going to x) Paper 2 Pcm

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