Refresher Course on Environmental Planning University Hotel University of the Philippines, Quezon City May 5 – 9, 2014 MOCK EXAMINATION Name: ________________________________________________________ Educational Background: _________________________________________ Profession/Occupation: ___________________________________________ Office/Agency: __________________________________________________ Direction: Shade the space (
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corresponding to the correct answer
1. It is the division of a community into districts or zones according to present and potential uses of land to maximize, regulate and direct their use and development. a. Comprehensive Development Planning b. Zoning c. Land Use Planning d. None of the above 2. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and first to third class municipalities shall be limited to: a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 5% 3. This Law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment. a. RA 7718 (BOT Law) b. Retail Trade Liberation Act c. Urban Development and Housing Act d. None of the above 4. A contractual arrangement whereby the project proponent undertakes the financing construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expanded on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon. a. Build and transfer b. Build own and operate c. Build transfer and operate d. Develop, operate and transfer 5. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
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a. Environment impact statement b. Environment risk assessment c. Scoping d. None of the above 6. Which of these projects require an EIS? a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares b. Drugstore and backyard piggery c. Projects under Kalakalan 20 d. All of the above 7. A central business district usually has a a. High daytime population b. Large concentration of office and retail activities c. Large daily inflow and outflow of commuters d. All of the above 8. If the location quotient of an industry in a region is high, it suggest that a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very concentrated b. The distribution of the industry in the region is dispersed c. The distribution of the industry in the region does not deviated much from the distribution of other industries d. The region has a larger share of the industry relative to other regions 9. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because a. Population tends to concentrate where transportation is available b. Transportation facilities tend to service areas where there is population concentration c. Both A and B d. None of the above
10. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated costs and benefits is known as a. Social discount rate b. Inflation rate c. Financial rate of return d. Economic internal rate of return 11. This represents the earning power of money invested in the project a. Internal rate of return b. Net present value c. Annuity d. Discounting 12. ________ initially developed the concept of “growth pole of regions”
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a. Christaller b. Perroux c. Lennoix d. Howard 13. ________ is a set of accounts, usually in monetary form, prepared for an economy and widely used in the analysis of inter-industry relationships. a. Regional accounts matrix b. Input-output table c. Economic base table d. Location quotient ratio 14. One of the following consists of an area of land, which is generally developed based on a comprehensive plan, allocated for factory buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing purposes a. Industrial estate b. Integrated area development c. Industrial subdivision d. Commercial/industrial estate 15. An urban area which has the following characteristics: it has strong linkage with the economy; it is the center of the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system; and has a population less that 250,000 is called a. Growth center b. Metropolitan area c. Major urban center d. Minor urban center 16. A ratio that measures output per worker is called a. Labor intensity b. Labor productivity c. Efficiency d. Labor enhancement 17. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of education institutions offering courses in environmental planning is the responsibility of the a. Commission on Higher Education b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners c. Board of Environmental Planning d. School of Urban and Regional Planning
18. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may engage in the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, provided that
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a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered environmental planners b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered environmental planners c. At least 70 of the entire membership of the Board is composed of EnP’s and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by registered environmental planners 19. The practice of environmental planning within the provisions of PD 1308 does not involve one of the following: a. Site and land use planning b. City/town planning c. Family planning d. None of the above 20. Demography denotes the study of human population through statistical methods. This involves primarily the measurement of the size and increase or decrease of the numbers of people. The constituents of change in these numbers are: a. Births and deaths b. Births, deaths and migration c. Birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, legal separation, and annulment d. Birth, citizenship, duration of marriage and ethnic origin 21. Under the concept of urbanized areas as defined in the Philippine Census of Population and Housing in 1990, central districts of municipalities and cities have a population density of at least a. 100 persons per square kilometer b. 250 persons per square kilometer c. 500 persons per square kilometer d. 1,000 persons per square kilometer 22. Certain environmental factors affect population distribution at a given point in time. They are: a. Climate b. Location of water, soil, energy and mineral resources c. Transport relationships d. All of the above 23. Sex ration is defined as: a. The number of females divided by the number of males, times 100 b. The number of males divided by the number of females, times 100 c. The number of males divided by the number of females, times 10 d. The number of females divided by the number of males, times 10 24. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first concluded that a. The means of subsistence grew only at an arithmetic rate b. The means of subsistence and population both grew at an arithmetic rate
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c. The means of subsistence of population few at a geometric rate d. The means of subsistence grew only at an arithmetic rate whereas the population tended to grow at a geometric rate 25. When the age and sex compositions of most populations are plotted graphically, the result is a “population pyramid”, the broad base represents the youngest ages, and the sides gradually slope toward a point, representing the decrease brought about by deaths in each successive age group. The pyramid represents a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action of mortality, fertility, and migration at a particular moment in time b. A uniform increase in all age brackets over a period of time c. Migration and fertility trends d. All of the above 26. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the largest component of urban population growth is a. Births b. In-migration c. Increase in territorial jurisdiction d. None of the above 27. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because a. It is the largest urban center of the country b. It contains the country’s primary central business district c. It has a very large population compared to all other urban centers of the country d. It is a metropolitan center 28. Ancestral domain refer to areas that a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters, coastal and natural resources therein b. Are within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5 years before the digestion of the same as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the environment to adapt to modern technology at their pace d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited area normally with difficult access 29. The law that provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated Protected Areas System is a. RA 8371 b. RA 7586 c. RA 7279 d. None of the above 30. RA 8435 of the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of
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highly modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the following has been de-prioritized a. Identification and establishment of model farms b. On-farm production enhancement technologies c. Small-scale irrigation systems d. Research, development and training facilities 31. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD), it provides the Physical basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in identification of sustainable crops, livestock and fishes that can be economically grown and commercially developed for local and international markets without creating irreversible environment and human health problems a. The Watershed Areas b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan c. Integrated Area Development d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone 32. The factors for analyzing industrial location theory are: a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising b. Labor wages c. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market d. All of the above 33. If the Gini Coefficient of an Industry’s distribution in region is close to zero, it suggests that a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very concentrated b. The distribution of the industry in the region is dispersed c. The distribution in the industry in the region does not deviate much from the distribution of other industries d. The region has a larger share of the industry relative to other regions 34. Land use changes in large and developed cities is largely a function of a. Government lad use and zoning policies b. Existing and expected land values c. Demand for housing d. Foreign investments 35. The best measure of the project’s economic worthiness and its adaptation as a basis for project acceptability is a. b. c. d.
Net present value Discounted rate EIRR FIRR
36. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should be
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a. b. c. d.
15 minutes by public transportation 15 minutes by private transportation 30 minutes by minimum travel time by public transportation 60 minutes travel by private transportation
37. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way of choosing between alternative planning options by ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the community is a. b. c. d.
Cost-benefit analysis Linear programming Shift-share analysis Sensitivity analysis
38. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances, e.g., Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent component cities b. 10% of total arable land in any town c. 5% of total arable land in any city d. all of the above 39. The first industrial estate in the country, which became operational in 1972, was the a. b. c. d.
Bataan IE Dasmariñas IE Mactan IE Sapang Palay IE
40. This is the first place where the first export processing zone in the world was established a. b. c. d.
Puerto Rico India Taiwan Korea
41. This strategy aims to promote greater complementary between agriculture and industry and between urban and rural sectors a. b. c. d.
Country-side agro-industrial developments National Council for Integrated Area Development National agro-industrial area development None of the above
42. This strategy refers to a situation where an industry through the flow of goods and income stimulates that development and growth of the industries, that are technically related to it, and determine the prosperity of the tertiary sector or stimulates an increase of the regional income
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a. b. c. d.
Growth pole Industrial polarization Industrial decentralization Industrial location
43. Ebnezer Howard, the most influential among the Great Thinkers in odern urban and regional planning, wrote this famous book, first published in 1898 a. b. c. d.
Garden Cities Garden Cities of Tomorrow Tomorrow’s Cities Tomorrow
44. Patrick Geddes, a Scot biologist who is acknowledged as the father of regional planning set forth his ideas in his masterpiece entitled a. b. c. d.
Cities and Regions Cities ad Evolution Cities in Evolutionary Change Revolution in Cities
45. Kevin Lynch stresses a. b. c. d.
A conceptual system focusing on urban form A communications theory approach to urban growth Accessibility concepts and urban structure Urban spatial structure in the frame
46. Albert Z. Guttenberg speculates a. A conceptual system focusing on urban form b. A communications theory approach to urban growth c. Accessibility concepts and urban structure d. Urban spatial structure in the framework of equilibrium theory (an economic model of spatial structure) 47. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety operations a. b. c. d.
Internal Revenue Allotments Budgetary Allocations Local Development Allotments LGU Budgetary Allotments
48. Morbidity refers to a. b. c. d.
Death per 1,00 population Deaths per 10,00 population Deaths due to diseases Incidence of disease
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49. Because NSO age groupings do not coincide with school-going age population for primary, intermediate, secondary and tertiary, this method is used to disaggregate school age population within a bracket into a single year estimate: a. b. c. d.
Sprague multiplier Sprengler multiplier Extrapolition coefficient Interpolation coefficient
50. Planning standards for school facilities include minimum standards for space measured in terms of square meters per pupil (p.p.) for academic classrooms in the elementary level, the minimum standard is a. b. c. d.
1.20 sqm. per p.p. 1.40 sqm. per p.p. 1.50 sqm. per p.p. 1.75 sqm. per p.p.
51. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more population but below 50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities, however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the distance is within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between municipalities. a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 30 minutes 52. In the identification of needs and planning of social welfare programs and services, the planner is expected to a. Involve the clientele b. Involve the national and local governments c. Involve the private sector d. Involve all sectors mentioned above 53. The Law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of Standards of economic and socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code is a. BP 220 b. RA 7279 c. PD 957 d. PD 1216
54. What ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is requires for projects developed under BP 220 standards? a. No fixed ratio b. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable c. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
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d. Minimum of 50% open space 55. A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house a. Good for one household b. Intended for ownership c. Completely surrounded be yards d. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line 56. A study which all the unites in the population is called a. Wholistic study b. Phenomenological study c. Survey d. Census 57. The difference between a census and a survey is that a. Census makes use of questionnaires while survey makes use of interviews for data gathering. b. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling c. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime. d. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey. 58. This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g., development areas, conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas. a. Structure Plan b. General Land Use Plan c. Development Plan d. Comprehensive Plan 59. Agricultural land in its generic sense is synonymous with that basic land classification? a. Timberland b. Unclassified public forest c. Alienable and disposable d. Ancestral domain e. Critical watershed 60. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an industrial estate? a. Load-bearing capacity b. Soil fertility c. Drainage d. Slope e. Location
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61. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name the one that is not among the four. a. Agricultural land b. Mineral land c. National park d. Ancestral domain e. Forest land 62. Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map? a. Base map b. Land use map c. Slope map d. Geologic map e. Physical constraints map 63. What class of road is not part of hierarchy? a. Arterial b. Collector c. Distributor d. Gravel surfaced e. Local 64. Which land use type is normally not classified as urban? a. Institutional b. Residential c. mining and quarrying d. Industrial e. Commercial 65. The main regulatory tool for implementing land use in the Philippines is a. Capital investment programs b. Special assessments c. Expropriation d. Zoning 66. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is a. NEDA b. DAR c. HLURB d. DPWH 67. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is a. NHA b. HUDCC c. HLURB
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d. MMDA 68. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is a. 100 sq. m. b. 72 sq. m. c 150 sq. m. d. 120 sq. m. 69. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the purpose of systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called a. Public hearing b. Consultation c. Coordination d. Scoping 70. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is called a. Consultation b. Coordination c. Public hearing d. Citizen participation 71. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations and diagrams which describes what the community wants to become and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies, programs and a physical development plan which translates the various sectoral plans. a. Land Use Plan b. Action Plan c. Strategic Plan d. Development Plan 72. This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts pr consequences of alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions. a. Environmental impact assessment b. Evaluation c. Diagnostic survey d. Feasibility study 73. One of these plans is not required under AFMA: a. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan b. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan c. The Agricultural and Fishery modernization Plan d. None of the above
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74. It is a process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project of undertaking and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures. a. Scoping b. Initial environmental examination c. Environmental impact assessment d. Environmental risk assessment 75. In transporting planning, the collection of the data is undertaken through different types of surveys. The manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, recorder counts extending over longer periods is called a. Travel time surveys b. Roadside surveys c. Network inventories d. Zoning 76. This is one of the methods of trips generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the best functional relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. This relationship is usually assumed to linear. a. Analysis of variance b. Multiple regression c. Category analysis d. Situational analysis 77. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation system. It is the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known set of interzonal movements so/that the relationship between journey time and flow on every link on the network should be in accordance with that specified for the link a. Diversion curves b. All-or-nothing assignment c. Capacity restraint d. None of the above 78. These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land use over time in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and adjoining environment. a. Agricultural lands b. Prime agricultural lands c. Environmentally critical areas d. Agro-industrial zones 79. Areas generally belonging to ICCS/IPs subject to property rights within ancestral domain a. Indigenous areas b. Cultural minority areas c. Ancestral areas
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80. This refers to a tithe formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICC/IPs over their ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law a. Torrens Title b. Indigenous People Title c. Land Title d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
81. The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People’s Right Act, except a. Biodiversity b. Career Development of IPs c. Protection of the Environment d. Cultural diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and human Dignity 82. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include a. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions b. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems c. Right to science and technology d. All of the above c. None of the above 83. The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is a. Office of the Cultural Affairs b. National Commission for the Cultural Communities c. Commission for the Philippine Minorities d. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples 84. Systems, Institutions, mechanics and technologies comprising a unique body of knowledge enclave through time a. Cultural practices b. Cultural way of life c. Indigenous culture d. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices 85. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective customary laws and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion a. Indigenous consensus b. Rights of Indigenous people c. Free and informed consent d. All of the above
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86. RA No.8371 is also known as the a. NIPAS Law b. Conservation and Biodiversity c. Agenda 21 d. Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA) 87. The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous peoples, except those of a. Children and youth b. Elders c. Women d. None of the above 88. How many commissioners comprise the national Commission on Indigenous Peoples? a. Five b. Seven c. Nine d. Eleven e. Four 89. It consists of resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with the objective of promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country. a. World bank b. Official Development Assistance c. Internal Revenue Allotment d. Development fund 90. This Law provides a liberalization environment more conductive to private sector investment. a. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT Law) b. Retail Trade Liberalization Act c. Urban Development and Housing Act d. All of the above e. None of the above 91. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct, own, operate and maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is allowed to recover its total investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees, rentals and other charges from facility users. a. Build and transfer
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b. Build own and operate c. Build transfer and operate Develop, operate and transfer 92. A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an infrastructure facility to a private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks. a. Build and transfer b. Build own and operate c. Build transfer and operate d. develop, operate and transfer 93. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations a. Environmental impact statement b. Environmental risk assessment c. Scoping d. None of the above 94. Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called a. Indigenous people b. Stakeholders c. Squatters d. Proponent 95. Which of these projects requires an EIS? a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares b. Drugstores and backyard piggery c. Projects under Kalakalan 20 d. All of the above 96. Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory impairment. a. Physically challenged b. Impaired c. Disabled d. Disadvantaged 97. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern urban and regional planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, was titled: a. Garden Cities b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow c. Tomorrow’s Cities
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d. Tomorrow 98. Ebenezer Howard’s ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of the New Towns Act of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a paper napkin. This famous diagram consists of: a. One Magnet b. Two Magnets c. Three Magnets d. Four Magnets e. Five magnets 99. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the old city. It would fairly small. Its population size shall be: a. Ten thousand b. Twenty thousand c. Twenty-two thousand d. Thirty thousand 100. The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard’s idea is known as: a. Letchworth b. Soltaire c. Strenage d. Welwyn
101. The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss treatise is entitled: a. Culture and Cities b. Cities and Culture c. The Cities of Culture d. The Culture of Cities e. The Culture of the Cities 102. The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of the following: a. G. Wilson b. George Chadwick c. J.B. McLoughlin d. Stuart Chapin e. Andreas faludi 103. What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and municipalities?
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a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the above 104. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities? a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the above 105. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities? a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the above 106. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities? a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the above 107. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces? a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the above 108. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria: a. Technical feasibility b. Socio-economical and financial possibility c. Political viability d. Administrative operability e. All of the above 109. Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic option a. Sustainability
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b. Feasibility c. Desirability d. Critical and urgent e. None of the above f. All of the above 110. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning? a. Sieve Mapping b. Area Ecological Profiling c. Land Use Accounting d. Critical and urgent e. None of the above f. All of the above 111. What technique is useful for determining strategies? a. Situational analysis b. SWOT analysis c. Land use survey d. Critical and urgent e. None of the above f. All of the above 112. What are the legal basis for the state’s regulation of land use? a. Police power b. laws against nuisance and pollution c. The policy that property has social function d. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person. 113. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate? a. Environmentally critical projects b. Projects in environmentally critical areas c. a and b d. All projects 114. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection? a. Constitution b. PD 1151 115. What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS) a. Environmentally critical projects b. Projects in environmentally critical areas c. Gold courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure d. All of the above e. None of the above
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116. What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board? a. EO 949 b. EO 90 c. PD 933 d. PD 957 117. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is: a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan b. Zoning Ordinance c. Cadastral Survey d. tax Declaration 118. A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in particular hardship upon the owner is called: a. Certified of Non-Conformance b. Exception c. Variance d. None of the above 119. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result n a particular hardship to the owner. a. Variance b. Certificate of Non- Conformance c. Exception d. Development 120. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural activities: a. Central business district b. Urban area c. City center d. Suburban area 121. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called: a. Public hearing b. Consultation c. Coordination d. Scooping
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122. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followed is called. a. Consultation b. Coordination c. Public hearing d. Citizen participation 123. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations and diagrams which describes what the community wants to become and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies, programs and physical development plan which translates the various sectoral plan: a. Land Use Plan b. Action Plan c. Strategic Plan d. Development Plan 124. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is: a. NEDA b. DAR c. HLURB d. DPWH 125. What is zoning? a. It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of land may be allowed or regulated on accordance with the development plan. b. It is a tool to implement the development plan c. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition d. None of the above 126. What are the tools for plan implementation? a. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain b. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance c. Zoning ordinance, local investment d. Urban land reform 127. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparing their own comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)? a. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans b. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans c. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
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d. All of the above c. None of the above 128. What is the highest planning body at the regional level? a. NEDA b. The Regional Development Council c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the above 129. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plains initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunian is: a. PD 399 b. Executive Order No.72 c. RA 7160 c. PD 1517 130. The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is: a. RA 10587 b. PD 1517 c. PD 957 d. None of the above 131. The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS system: a. PD 1586 b. Proclamation No. 2146 c. PD 1152 d. DAO 96-37 132. Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting public hearings for the purpose, shall be limited to: a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25% 133. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and to first to third class municipalities shall be limited to: a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 5%
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134. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of educational institutions offering courses in environment planning is the responsibility of the : a. Commission on Higher Education b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners c. Board of Environmental Planning d. School of Urban and Regional Planning 135. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may engage on the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, provided that: a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered environmental planners b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered environmental planners c. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by registered environmental planners 136. Ancestral domains refer to areas that: a. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and natural resources therein b. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5 years before the designation of the same as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act. c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the environment adapt to modern technology at their pace d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult access. 137. This law provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated Protection Areas System: a. RA 8371 b. RA 7586 c. RA 7279 d. None of the above 138. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of a highlt modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the following has been d-prioritized a. Identification and establishment of model farm b. On-farm production enhancement technologies c. Small-scale irrigation systems d. Research, development and training facilities 139. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the identification of
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suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets without creating irreversible environmental and human health problems. a. The watershed areas b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan c. Integrated Area Development d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone 140. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal issuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to: a. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities b. 10% of total arable lands in any town c. 5% of total arable land in any city d. All of the above 141. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain onti four categories. Name pf the one that is not among four a. Agricultural land b. Mineral land c. National park d. Ancestral domain e. Forest land 142. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety operations a. International Revenue Allotments b. Budgetary Allocation c. Local Development Allotment d. LGU Budgetary Allotment 143. As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the required easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and lakes is: a. 3 meters b. 20 meters c. 40 meters d. 100 meters 144. Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured from the: a. Zoning Administrator/Officer b. Municipal Mayor c. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC) d. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
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145. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the approved zone of the area for certain reason is called: a. Spot zoning b. Flexible zoning c. Euclidean zoning d. large lot zoning 146. Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component cities and municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the: a. Sangguniang Panlalawigan b. HLURB c. Local Zoning Review Committee d. local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA) 147. Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthus’ theory that states a. Population grows geometrically while arithmetically b. Population grows arithmetically while geometrically c. Population and food grows geometrically d. Population and food grows arithmetically
food
supply
grows
food
supply
grows
148. Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be a. Close to large market b. Close to a major transportation hub c. Avail of urban services and facilities d. All of the above 149. In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed in terms of employment indicates: a. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry b. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created in the entire country c. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in the entire region d. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry. 150. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering a. The cost of marketing and advertising b. labor wages
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c. the cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market d. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers 151. Urban population growth in developing countries is unprecented because a. There are more urban areas in the developing world than in industrialized countries b. Urban population growth in developing countries is based on agriculture c. The population of large urban centers in developing countries is becoming much larger than those of industrialized countries d. Large urban centers in developing countries account for a larger share of the total population than in industrialized countries 152. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the largest component of urban growth population is a. Birth b. In-migration c. Increased territorial jurisdiction d. None of the above 153. In the Philippines, the total urban population is expected to become a. Larger than the total rural population b. Equal and will stabilized at the level of the rural population c. Maintain its ratio with rural population d. Decline until it equals rural population 154. Historically, in contrast to Thomas Malthus theory a. Population has grown faster than food supply b. Population has grown slower than food supply c. Population and food supply have grown at approximately the same pace d. Population and food supply have not grown 155. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because a. It is the largest urban city of the country b. It contains the country’s primary central business district c. It has a very large population compared to all the urban centers of the country d. It is a metropolitan center 156. Population growth is usually measured as a function of a. The number of deaths, birth and fertility b. The number of deaths, births, and out-migrants c. The number of deaths, births and in-migrants d. the number of deaths, births and net migrants 157. In central business districts, the highest land values are usually the areas where
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a. Zoning is for commercial land use b. Density is highest c. Both A and B d. None of the above 158. A Lorenz Curve can give a graphical indications of how a. An industry’s output has grown in a region b. An industry’s forward and backward linkages have expanded in a region c. An industry is distributed in a region d. An industry’s exports compares with its imports in a region 159. If the location quotient in a region is high, it suggests that a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very concentrated b. The distribution of the industry in the region is dispersed c. The distribution of the industry in the region does not deviate much from the distribution of other industries d. the region has a larger share of the industry relative to other regions 160. The Export Base theory argues that a. The economic growth of a region is dependent on the growth of its export sector b. Regional exports should not exceed regional imports c. The ratio between regional exports and regional imports is the basis for determining economic performance d. Regional exports should equal regional imports 161. An urban area becomes a central business district because this is an area where a. Infrastructure is most concentrated b. Economic
162. _________ initially developed the concept of “growth pole” of regions a. Christaller b. Perroux c. Lennoix d. Howard 163. What is the main foundation of the theory of growth pole of regions? a. Concept of leading industries b. Concept of polarization c. Concept of spread effects d. All of the above 164. What does the concept of leading industries mean in the growth pole theory?
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a. Manufacturing sector b. Propulsive industries c. Comparative sector d. Agricultural sector 165. What is the LQ ratio that would indicate an export or basic activity in a region? a. LQ>1 b. LQ=1 c LQ<1 d. LQ=0 166. In economic base studies, economic activities are generally classified into three (3) activities, namely a. Basic, non-basic, retail b. Basic, non-basic, mixed c. Basic, intermediate, retail d. Basic, sectoral, ntermediate 167. The most frequently used unit of measure for computing the LQ of an economy is
a. Basic, non-basic, retail b. Basic, non-basic, mixed c. Basic, intermediate, retail d. Basic, sectoral, intermediate 168. The most frequently used unit of measure for computing the LQ of an economy is a. Employment b. Income c. Sales d. Production 169. ______ is a set of accounts, usually in monetary from, prepared for an economy and widely used in the analysis of inter-industry relationships. a. Regional accounts matrix b. Input-output table c. Economic base table d. Location quotient ratio 170. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way of choosing between alternative planning options by ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the community a. Cost-benefit analysis b. Linear programming c. Shift-share analysis d. Sensitivity analysis
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171. The portion of the feasibility study (FS) that determines the project’s net contribution to the national economy and social welfare is a. Economic study b. Demand analysis c. Financial analysis d. Technical evaluation 172. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should be a. 15 minutes by public transport b. 15 minutes by private transport c. 30 minutes minimum travel time by public transport d. 60 minutes travel time by public transport 173. This represents the earning power of money invested in the project a. Internal rate of return b. Net present value c. Annuity d. Discounting 174. The process of finding the present value of future amount is called a. Discounting b. Acid test c. Payback d. Return of investment 175. The best measure of the project’s economic worthiness and its adaptation as a basis for project acceptability is a. Net present value b. Discounted rate c. EIRR d. FIRR 176. The hurdle rated used by NEDA is a. 15% b. 18% c. 12% d. 20% 177. Patterned after the Batem/Johore/Singapore growth triangle, another growth triangle in Southeast Asia is being considered which involves a. Mindanao/Sulawesi/Sabah-Sarawak b. Mindanao/Sarawak/Borneo c. Zaboanga/Sulawesi/Sabah d. Zamboanga/Sabah/Sarawak
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178. This concept refers to the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial and institutional activities in ways that are mutually reinforcing- fostering of small regional towns which are attractive enough with regards to services, housing and cultural/social amenities to stabilized the population and industries closely tied to agricultural production a. Integrated area development b. Agro-industrial development c. Regional development d. Rural development 179. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the National Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety operations a. Internal Revenue Allotments (IRA) b. Budgetary Allocations (BA) c. Local Development Allotments (LDA) d. LGU Budgetary Allotments (LBA) 180. An urban area which has the following characteristics: It has a strong linkage with economy; it is the center of the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system; and has a population less that 250,000 is called a. Growth center b. Metropolitan area c. Major urban area d. Minor urban area 181. A ratio that measures output per worker is called a. Labor intensity b. Labor productivity c. Efficiency d. Minor urban area 182. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as a. Capital-labor ratio b. Return of investment c. Net cash flow d. Capital efficiency 183. This concept refers to a situation where an industry through the flow of goods and incomes stimulates the development and growth of the industries, that are technically related to it, and determines the prosperity of the tertiary sector or stimulates an increase of the regional income a. Growth pole b. Industrial polarization c. Industrial decentralization d. Industrial location
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184. Complementing industrial estates, these area are being established in order to accelerate industrialization in the regions through small ad medium enterprises and people’s industrial enterprises a. Regional industrial centers b. Core industries center c. Industrial corridors d. Industrial diffusion 185. This strategy aims to promote greater complementarity between agriculture and industry and between urban and rural sectors a. Countryside agro-industrial development b. National council for integrated area development c. Nationwide agro-industrial area development 186. Specific physical planning standards followed in the design and construction of industrial estates on the Philippines are generally based on a. National Building Code b. Architectural Graphic Standards c. Physical Planning Code d. BP 344 187. These are free ports where export trade is the exclusive activity a. Free trade zones b. Free trade areas c. Industrial estates d. Export processing zones 188. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated costs and benefits is known as a. Social discount rate b. Inflation rate c. Financial rate of return d. Economic internal rate of return 189. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because a. Population tends to concentrate where transportation is available b. Transportation facilities tend to services areas where there is a population concentration c. Both A and B d. None of the above 190. Land use changes in large and development cities is largely a function of a. Government and land use and zoning policies b. Existing and expected land values c. Demand for housing d. Foreign investments 191. The most efficient type of hierarchy of settlements is one wherein
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a. There is no single, dominant urban center b. All settlements are equal in size c. All settlements are distributed equally in space d. None of the above 192. Often, a hierarchy of settlements is characterized by the presence of a. A few large cities, some medium-sized cities, and many small settlements b. Only medium-sized and small settlements c. Equally-sized large cities in every region d. Only one large city and many smell settlements 193. The larger the population of a city, the more likely its economy allows for a. More specialization b. Increased self-sufficiency c. Environmental protection d. Higher demand for indigenous products 194. As a region urbanizes and expand economically, the dominant economic activities become those from the a. Mining and other extractive activities b. Manufacturing sector c. Services sector d. None of the above 195. One of the following consists of an area pf land. Which is generally developed based on a comprehensive plan, allocated for factory buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing purposes a. Industrial estate b. Integrated area development c. Industrial subdivision d. Commercial/industrial estate 196. This type of industrial estate intends to advance, improve or increase the level of industrial activity in the area, particularly lagging regions a. Developmental b. Promotional c. Relocational d. Private 197. This type of industrial estate refers to those established for developing new industries a. Promotional b. Developmental c. Relocational d. Private
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198. This type of industrial estate is one where the functions of one type of industry are subdivided into smaller specialized units to provide parts or components to the main industrial manufacturing unit a. Ancillary b. Composite c. Specialized d. Promotional 199. This type of industrial estate is usually large and built for heavy industry a. Coastal b. Rural c. Specialized d. Inland
200. This type of industrial estate is generally built for assembly and processing types of industries a. Inland b. Coastal c. Specialized d. Rural 201. The first estate in the country which became operational in 1972, was the a. Bataan IE b. Dasmariñas IE c. Mactan IE d. Sapang Palay IE 202. Industrial density refers to a. Number of manufacturing employees per gross industrially used hectarage b. Number of manufacturing employees per net industrially used hectarage c. Number of industries per gross land hectarage d. Number of industries per net land hectrage 203. The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is a. 0-18% b. Above 50% c. 16-50% d. 0-8% 204. The elevation reserved for protection land use is a. Above 500 b. Above 100 c. Above 2,000 d. Above 1,000 mtrs.
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205. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification level depicted in the Bureau of Soils and Water Management is the a. Soil order b. Soil type c. Soil great group d. Soil series 206. A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughout the years refers to: a. Type III b. Type II c. Type IV d. Type I 207. The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and in places with a distinct wet and dry season is the a. Pine/saleng b. Diptrocarp c. Molave/molawin d. Mangrove 208. The aw requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plan initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunians is: a. PD 399 b. Executive Order No. 72 c. RA 7160 d. PD 1517 209. The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is a. PD 1308 b. PD 1517 c. PD 957 d. None of the above 210. The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS system a. PD 1586 b. Proclamation No. 2146 c. PD 1152 c. DAO 96-37 211. Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting public hearing for the purpose, shall be limited to a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
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212. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan b. Zoning Ordinance c. Cadastral Survey d. tax Declaration 213. A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to the owner a. Certificate of Non-Conformance b. Exception c. Variance d. None of the above 214. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use would result in a particular hardship to the owner a. Variance b. Certificate of Non-Conformance c. Exception d. Development 215. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural activities: a. Central business district b. Urban area c. City center d. Suburban area 216. Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by the National Statistics Office and with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000 based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City Treasurer are called a. Independent component cities b. regional centers c. Highly urbanized cities d. Component cities 217. Urbanized began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the a. Fertile Crescent b. Mediterranean c. Babylon d. Asia
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218. The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along the Indus Valley is/are: a. Transport b. Agriculture c. Defense d. None of the three e. All of the above 219. He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning a. Hippodamus b. Nicodemus c. Nostradamus d. Aristotle 220. They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the first regional planners of the world. a. Greeks b. Romans c. Sumerians d. Egyptians 221. It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established a. Renaissance b. Bronze Age c. Medieval Period d. Atomic Age 222. The garden City as a solution to urban planning problems a. Malthus b. Ebenezer Howard c. Nicodemus d. Adam Smith 223. He theorized that physical planning could not improved urban living conditions unless it was integrated with social and economic planning in a context od environmental concerns. a. William penn b. Patrick Geddes c. Peirre L’ Enfant d. None of the three 224. The architect planner who designed Luneta, Tgatay and Baguio a. Burnham b. Concio c. Faithful d. None of the above 225. Rectangular streets are examples of the
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a. Grid iron pattern b. Axial c. Radial d. Ribbon-type 226. What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during the Spanish Period in the Philippines? a. Plaza b. Economy c. Transportation d. Religion 227. Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analyst should consider in analyzing tourist arrivals? a. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals b. Socio-cultural changes c. Political changes d. None of the above 228. The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____ markets. a. Eco-tourism b. Historical c. Location specific natural and cultural d. None of the above 229. Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These are direct, indirect and ____ jobs. a. Multiplier b. Induced c. Locational d. Service 230. The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom. a. Slump b. Deflation c. Inflation d. Sustainable growth 231. In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity, technical efficiency and ______ a. Allocative efficiency b. Comparative advantages c. Resource collection d. Availability of skilled labor
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232. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid Waste Management Program seeks to: a. Promote public health and environment protection b. Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and responsibility with the LGUs c. mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse, recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities d. A and C only. E. All of the above 233. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from existing disposal facilities within a period of: a. 10 years b. 2 years c. 5 years d. 1 year 234. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid Waste Management Commission under the office of: a. President b. DENR c. DILG d. NEDA 235. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated and shall include the following: a. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the national, provincial, ad municipal levels b. Identification of critical solid waste facilities c. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods, techniques and practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste d. Proposed sites for sanitary land fill e. All of the above f. A and C only 236. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage, collection, transfer and transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health, economies, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations and which is also responsive to public attitudes a. Environmental Impact Assessment b. Development Planning
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c. Waste Segregation d. Solid Waste Management 237. The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited to the following components:
a. City or Municipal profile b. Waste characterization c. Collection and transfer d. Source reduction e. All of the above f. B and D only
238. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solid wastes. Specifically, the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owner or person in charge of premises containing:
a. Five residential units b. Six residential units c. Six or more residential units d. At least ten residential units to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which to accumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by the municipal or private center..
239. The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares c. the site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted d. The site must be large enough to accommodate the community’s wastes for a period of ten (10) years during which the people must internalize the value of environmentally sound and sustainable solid waste disposal e. All of the above f. All except D
240. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems and are appropriate for clustered solid waste management services shall be based on the following: a. Preference of political leaders b. Size and location of areas which should be included
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c. Volume of solid waste which should be generated d. Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the integrated of such with the national plan e. Possible life span of the disposal facilities f. A to E g. B to E 241. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing, Adopting, and implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be based on the following minimum factors: a. Type of solid waste b. Amount/volume of solid waste c. Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility d. Capacity to pay e. A, B, C, D f. A to C 242. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activity except for scientific studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenous communities a. Restoration Zone b. Habitat Management Zone c. Bypass Zone d. Strict Protection Zone 243. Each establishment protected area shall be administered by: a. Office of the Mayor b. Sanggunian Bayan c. Planning Officer d. Protested Area Management Board
244. This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectively the relevance, efficiency, effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of their objectives a. Planning b. Project Identification c. Resource Generation d. Evaluation 245. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completion when full project benefits and impact are expected to have been realized. a. Terminal Evaluation b. On-going Evaluation c. Ex-post Evaluation
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d. Pre-Evaluation 246. The M&E strategy should carefully examine a. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used b. The format c. The frequency of existing reports d. All of the above 247. A project with negative NPV means; a. Benefit cost ration is higher that 1 b. Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots c. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate d. discount rate used is higher that IRR e. none of the above 248. When projecting market demand for a project, which of the following combination of techniques is not advisable: a. Survey/planning standards b. Market testing/time series analysis c. Experts’ opinion/census d. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis e. None of the above 249. This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in he project a. payback period b. retention period c. return on investment d. profit margin e. none of the above 250. Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of a. uncertainty of risk b. income opportunities now c. better prospects in the future d. present consumption e. none of the above
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