Dr-Noor Ul Basar’s First-Aid Tests with Answers in one File Index-Check List
Compiled by :- Amlodipine Besylate
1.FIRST AID EMBRYOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY page #1 2.FIRST AID IMMUNOLOGY page #10 3.FIRST AID MICROBIOLOGY TEST page #15 4.FIRST AID REPRODUCTIVE TEST page #24 5.FIRST AID GASTROENTEROLOGY TEST page #27 6.FIRST AID ENDOCRINOLOGY TEST Page #31 7.FIRST AID CARDIOVASCULAR TEST page #36 8.FIRST AID RESPIRATORY SYSTEM page #40 9.FIRST AID RENAL TEST page #43 10.FIRST AID TEST MUSKULOSKELETAL page #48 11.FIRST AID THORAX ANATOMY page #52 12.FIRST AID HAEMATOLOGY page #57 13. FIRST AID CNS page #63 14. FIRST AID PATHOLOGY page #69 15.FIRS AID BIOCHEMISTRY page #77 16. FIRST AID UPPER LIMB ANATOMY page #83 17.PELVIS PERINEUM ANATOMY page #85 18. FIRST AID Head & Neck page #91
1.FIRST AID EMBRYOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY 1. Gametes are descendent of? 2. All primary oocytes are formed in which month of fetal life? 3. Primary oocyte remain dormant in which phase? 4. Secondary oocytes is arrested in which phase? 5. Granulosa cells secrete? 6. Progesterone stimulates the endometrium of the uterus to enter which phase? 7. Primordial germ cells derived from? 8. Which cells supply as the stem cell in male throughout reproductive life? 9. Newly ejavulated sperms are incapable of fertilization until they undergo ? 10. Advanced maternal age is risk factor for ? 11. Normally ----- percent of sperms in an ejaculate are grossly deformed? 12. Genetic disorder characterized by hypogonadism and anosmia? 13. Anovulation is often treated with ? 14. If a girl never begins menstruation the condition is called ? 15. The reaction which occurs when the sperm binds to the zona pellucida of the secondary oocyte is ? 16. Sperm produces ATP from? 17. Blastomeres are totipotent upto which cell stage? 18. -----refers to a stem cell that can differentiate into ectoderm , mesoderm and endoderm 19. Blastocyst implants which part of uterine wall?
20. Trophoblast differentiate into ?? 21. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy? 22. Bilaminar embryonic disk is ? 23. The syncytiotropoblast secretes ?? 24. HCG can be assayed on ---- day in maternal urine? 25. Left/ right axis determination begins with the asymmetric activity of ? 26. Mesoderm further give rise into? 27. The intermediate mesoderm forms which system? 28. Sclerotic me of somite forms ? 29. Dura matter is derivative of which germ layer? 30. Adrenal Cortex derivative of which germ cell layer? 31. Chondroma is a tumor arised from remnants of? 32. Placenta attached to the lower part of uterus covering internal os? 33. Classic cause of first trimester bleeding ? 34. Growth hormone of the fetus? 35. Hofbauer cells are macrophage like cells found in? 36. In late pregnancy placental membrane is formed by? *** ( imp) 37. The near term fetus excrete about ------ of urinue daily? 38. Potter syndrome lead to which amniotic fluid condition? 39. Name the fetal albumin produced by fetal hepatocytes ?? 40. Mucus connective tissue of umbelical cord is also called ? 41. A light gray shines sac indicates? 42. Vasculogenesis occurs first within extra embryonic visceral mesoderm around yolk sac on day? 43. Hematopoiesis is taken over by liver at which week? 44. Hemoglobin a2r2 is called ? 45. Hydroxy urea promotes which hemoglobin? 46. Highly oxygenated blood in fetal circulation is carried by which vessel? 47. Ligamentum venosus is the ramnent of ? 48. Pericardial cavity is formed by which mesoderm? 49. Adult structure of bulbus cordis? 50. Articulopulmonary septum is derivative of? 51. Abnormal neural crest cell migration such that there is non spiral development f AP septum lead to? 52. Rib notching on X-ray is feature of ? 53. Stapedial artery is derived from which aortic arch? 54. Adult structure if Vitelline arteries ? 55. Which cardinal vein is not involved in forming IVC ? 56. Primitive stomach is formed in which week ? 57. Primitive stomach rotates --%clockwise around its longitudinal axis? 58. Which layer of pyloric region hypertrophies in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis ? 59. Uncinate process is formed by which bud? 60. Dubble bubble sign is indicative of? 61. Midgut derivative are supplied by ? 62. Physiological umbelical herniation is seen in which week? 63. Midgut loops around ----- counterclockwise?
64. The urorectal septum fuses with the cloacal membrane at the future site of the anatomical ,???? 65. Lower anal canal derived from? 66. Junction between upper and lower anal canal is indicated by ? 67. Ureteric bud is an outgrowth of? 68. Fetal metanephros is located at vertebral level of? 69. Allantois becomes fibrous cord called? 70. Most common cause of congenital obstruction of urinary tract ? 71. Most common renal malignancy of childhood? 72. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when? 73. By which week male and female characteristic of the external genitalia can be recognized ? 74. Phenotype sexual differentiation is determined by which gene? 75. Sry gene encodes for protein called? 76. Vestigial remnants of the mesonephric duct may be found in the adult female called? 77. The Phallus forms the ?? 78. Urogenital folds forms the? 79. Testosterone is secreted by which cells? 80. Vestigial remnant of paranesonephric duct is ? 81. The labioscrotal swelling form the? 82. Respiratory diverticulum is formed in which week ? 83. Terminal sac period is the period between? 84. Pseudo glandular period is the period? 85. The site of the thyroglossal duct is indicated in adult by ? 86. Ultimobrschail body is derivative of which pouch? 87. Muscle of facial expression derived by? 88. No taste bud is present in which part if tongue? 89. All muscle motor supply is by XII cranial nerve except? 90. Pharyngeal cyst occurs when ----------- persist? 91. Most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue ? 92. Cleft palate is which type of genetic disorder ? 93. Anatomic landmark that distinguishea an anterior cleft palate from posterior cleft palate is? 94. Digeorge syndrome occurs due to defect in? 95. Remnant of notochord is ? 96. Anterior neuro pore closes on? 97. Posterior neuro pore closes on? 98. The lumen of neural tube for rise to? 99. Name 3 primary brain vesicles ? 100. At birth the conus mudullaris extend to the level of ? 101. Myelination of the corticospinal tract is not completed until ? 102. Remnants of ratkhe pouch may give rise to? 103. Arnold chiari malformation occurs when the caudal vermis and tonsils of cerebellum and medulla herniated through which foramen? 104. Utricle responds to which acceleration? 105. Semicircular ducts responds to? 106. Stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch ? 107. Eye development begins at day?
108. The choroid fissure closes during week?? 109. The extra ocular muscle develops from Mesoderm of which somitomeres? 110. Anophthalmia is ? 111. HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week? 112. Growth hormone of later half of pregnancy? 113. ----used by the fetal testes as a precursor of testosterone synthesis? 114. The most potent estrogen is ??? 115. Amniocentesis is preferred in which weeks? 116. Quickening in a woman first pregnancy in which weeks? 117. At week 20 uterine fundus is palpable at the ? 118. Surfactants are produced in which weeks? 119. Normal baseline fetal heart rate is? 120. Maximum susceptible period of teratogenicity is? 121. The most common of CMV fetal infection is ?? 122. Teratogenicity of thalidomide is ? 123. Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by? 124. Aminoglycoside causes which toxicity ? 125. Appendages in wrong position is due to mutation in which gene? 126. Heart begins to beat in which week? 127. Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue? 128. Incomplete organ development ? 129. Effect of diethylstilbestrol on fetus? 130. Caudal regression syndrome caused by? 131. High risk of spontaneous abortion is side effect of vit a excess 132. Decidua basalis is derived from? 133. Obliteration of Vitelline duct is in which week? 134. Yolk sac erythropoisis is in which weeks ? 135. Ductus arteriosus contain which blood? 136. Meninges and spinal cord herniated through spinal cord defect is called? 137. Dec separation of hemispheres across Midline leads to? 138. Most common site of syringomyelia ? 139. PDA is derivative of which aortic arch? 140. Arches are derived from which germ layer ? 141. Styloid process is derivative of which branchial arch ? 142. CN IX supplies which muscle? 143. All intrinsic muscles of larynx are derivative of 6th arch except? 144. Thymus is derivative of which pouch? 145. Sup parathyroid derivative of which pouch? 146. Posterior 1/3 of tongue formed by? 147. Name cranial nerves involving in taste sensation? 148. Muscle of tongue are derived from ? 149. Normal remnant of thyroglossal duct? 150. Cleft lip is due to? 151. Midgut returns to abdominal cavity in ---- week? 152. Spleen is ------ in origin? 153.bicorunate uterus result due to
Incomplete fusion of ? 154. Hypospadiasis is due to ----? 155. Epispadiasis is due to----? 156. Diaphragmatic hernia is due to ? 157. Vertebra is derived from? 158. Somites are derived of which mesoderm? 159. Left umbilical vein will regress to ? 160. Gestational age is estimated from? 161. Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral is called? 162. Structure of 2ndry villus include? 163. Amputated leg is the result of? 164. Auditory tube is formed by? 165. Thyroid is derived from ? 166. Four chambers of heart are formed by? 167. Strongest layer of small intestine is? 168. Erythropoietin are secreted by ? 169. Which protein maintain red cell shape ? 170. Which is not major basic tissues ? 171. Ovary epithelium is ? 172. Which structure has 3 layers of muscles? 173. PDFG is secreted by which part of platelets? 174. Which cells produce antibodies? 175. Most abundant phagocytes in circulation? 176. Submucosal glands are present in ? 177. Nissle bodies are? 178. Most mucinous acini gland is ? 179. Calcium releases in muscle from ? 180. In Which state maximum HB produces occurs? 181. Average life of Gi epithelium? 2182. Basophilia of cell is due to ? 183. Which cell release extra cellular fibres and amorphous substance ? 184. Neurons in olfactory tract are ? 185. Heparin is released by which cells ? 186. Microtubule are part of ? 187. Micro filament composed of ? 188. ---- capsule covers the liver? 189. Signet ring appearance seen in? 190. Osteoclast are present in? 191. Structural unit of bone? 192. Myelin hai ---- percent of protein? 193. Blood group antigen are ??? 194. Hassal corpuscles feature of? 195. Hypertrophied pharyngeal tonsil? 196. Bruner gland are present in submucosa of? 197. Thickest zone of adrenal cortex? 198. Which coat is thickest in large veins?
199. Ovarian follicles are present in? 200. Eosinophils play role in ?? EMBRYOLOGY KEYS 1. Gametes are descendent of?primordial germ cells 2. All primary oocytes are formed in which month of fetal life? 5th month of fetal life 3. Primary oocyte remain dormant in which phase? Prophase I 4. Secondary oocytes is arrested in which phase? Metaphase II 5. Granulosa cells secrete? Estrogen 6. Progesterone stimulates the endometrium of the uterus to enter which phase? Secretory 7. Primordial germ cells derived from? Wall of yolk sac 8. Which cells supply as the stem cell in male throughout reproductive life? Type A spermatogonia 9. Newly ejavulated sperms are incapable of fertilization until they undergo ? Capacitation 10. Advanced maternal age is risk factor for ? Down syndrome 11. Normally ----- percent of sperms in an ejaculate are grossly deformed? 10% 12. Genetic disorder characterized by hypogonadism and anosmia? Kallmann syndrome 13. Anovulation is often treated with ? Clomiphenec citrate 14. If a girl never begins menstruation the condition is called ? Primary ovarian failure 15. The reaction which occurs when the sperm binds to the zona pellucida of the secondary oocyte is ? Acrosome reaction 16. Sperm produces ATP from? fructose 17. Blastomeres are totipotent upto which cell stage? 8 cell stage 18. -----refers to a stem cell that can differentiate into ectoderm , mesoderm and endoderm? Pleuripotency 19. Blastocyst implants which part of uterine wall? Posterior superior wall 20. Trophoblast differentiate into ?? Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotropoblast 21. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy? Ampulla 22. Bilaminar embryonic disk is ? Epiblast and hypo blast 23. The syncytiotropoblast secretes ?? HCG 24. HCG can be assayed on ---- day in maternal urine? 10 day 25. Left/ right axis determination begins with the asymmetric activity of ? Sonic hedgehog protein 26. Mesoderm further give rise into? Paraxial , intermediate and lateral mesoderm 27. The intermediate mesoderm forms which system? Urogenital system 28. Sclerotic me of somite forms ? Axial cartilage and bone 29. Dura matter is derivative of which germ layer? Mesoderm 30. Adrenal Cortex derivative of which germ cell layer? Mesoderm 31. Chondroma is a tumor arised from remnants of? Notochord 32. Placenta attached to the lower part of uterus covering internal os? Placenta prévia 33. Classic cause of first trimester bleeding ? Ectopic pregnancy 34. Growth hormone of the fetus? Human placental lactogen 35. Hofbauer cells are macrophage like cells found in? Placental membrane 36. In late pregnancy placental membrane is formed by? Syncytiotropoblast and the fetal capillary endothelium *** ( imp) 37. The near term fetus excrete about ------ of urinue daily? 500mL
38. Potter syndrome lead to which amniotic fluid condition? Oligohyromnios 39. Name the fetal albumin produced by fetal hepatocytes ?? a-fetoprotein 40. Mucus connective tissue of umbelical cord is also called ? Wharton's jelly 41. A light gray shines sac indicates? Omphalocele 42. Vasculogenesis occurs first within extra embryonic visceral mesoderm around yolk sac on day? 17 43. Hematopoiesis is taken over by liver at which week? Beginning of 5 th week 44. Hemoglobin a2r2 is called ? Fetal hemoglobin 45. Hydroxy urea promotes which hemoglobin?HBF 46. Highly oxygenated blood in fetal circulation is carried by which vessel? Left umbelical vein 47. Ligamentum venosus is the ramnent of ? Ductus venosus 48. Pericardial cavity is formed by which mesoderm? Lateral plate mesoderm 49. Adult structure of bulbus cordis? Smooth part of right and left ventricle 50. Articulopulmonary septum is derivative of? Neural crest cells 51. Abnormal neural crest cell migration such that there is non spiral development f AP septum lead to? Transposition of great arteries 52. Rib notching on X-ray is feature of ? Postductal coarctation 53. Stapedial artery is derived from which aortic arch? 2nd 54. Adult structure if Vitelline arteries ? Celiac, sup mesenteric and inferior mesenteric 55. Which cardinal vein is not involved in forming IVC ? Anterior cardinal vein 56. Primitive stomach is formed in which week ? 4 week 57. Primitive stomach rotates --%clockwise around its longitudinal axis? 90 58. Which layer of pyloric region hypertrophies in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis ? Mucularis externa 59. Uncinate process is formed by which bud? Ventral 60. Dubble bubble sign is indicative of? Annular pancreas 61. Midgut derivative are supplied by ? Sup mesenteric artery 62. Physiological umbelical herniation is seen in which week? Beginning of week 6 63. Midgut loops around ----- counterclockwise? 270 64. The urorectal septum fuses with the cloacal membrane at the future site of the anatomical ,???? Perineal body 65. Lower anal canal derived from? Proctoderm 66. Junction between upper and lower anal canal is indicated by ? Pectinate line 67. Ureteric bud is an outgrowth of? mesonephric duct 68. Fetal metanephros is located at vertebral level of? S1-S2 69. Allantois becomes fibrous cord called? Urachnus or median umbelical ligament in adult 70. Most common cause of congenital obstruction of urinary tract ? Ureteropelvic junction obstruction 71. Most common renal malignancy of childhood? Wilms tumor 72. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when? Left renal vein is compressed between sup mesenteric artery and abdominal aorta 73. By which week male and female characteristic of the external genitalia can be recognized ? By week 12 74. Phenotype sexual differentiation is determined by which gene? Sry gene 75. Sry gene encodes for protein called ?testes-determining dactor 76. Vestigial remnants of the mesonephric duct may be found in the adult female called?
Appendix vasuculosa 77. The Phallus forms the ?? Clitoris 78. Urogenital folds forms the? labia minors 79. Testosterone is secreted by which cells? Leydig cells 80. Vestigial remnant of paranesonephric duct is ? Appendix testes 81. The labioscrotal swelling form the? Scrotum 82. Respiratory diverticulum is formed in which week ? 4 week 83. Terminal sac period is the period between? 24-birth 84. Pseudo glandular period is the period? 7-16 weeks 85. The site of the thyroglossal duct is indicated in adult by ? Foramen cecum 86. Ultimobrschail body is derivative of which pouch? 4th 87. Muscle of facial expression derived by? 2 pharyngeal arch 88. No taste bud is present in which part if tongue? Filiform papillae 89. All muscle motor supply is by XII cranial nerve except? Palatoglossus (CN X) 90. Pharyngeal cyst occurs when ----------- persist? Pharyngeal groove2-4 91. Most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue ? Sublingual 92. Cleft palate is which type of genetic disorder ? Multifacrorial 93. Anatomic landmark that distinguishea an anterior cleft palate from posterior cleft palate is? Incisive foramen 94. Digeorge syndrome occurs due to defect in? 3 and 4 pharyngeal pouches 95. Remnant of notochord is ? Nucleus pulposus 96. Anterior neuro pore closes on? Day 25 97. Posterior neuro pore closes on? Day 27 98. The lumen of neural tube for rise to? Ventricular system 99. Name 3 primary brain vesicles ? Prosen, mesen ad rhombencephalon 100. At birth the conus mudullaris extend to the level of ? L3 101. Myelination of the corticospinal tract is not completed until ? Te end of 2 years 102. Remnants of ratkhe pouch may give rise to a craniophayngioma 103. Arnold chiari malformation occurs when the caudal vermis and tonsils of cerebellum and medulla herniated through which foramen? Foramen magnum 104. Utricle responds to which acceleration? Linear acceleration 105. Semicircular ducts responds to? Angular acceleration 106. Stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch ? Pharyngeal arch 2 107. Eye development begins at day? 22 108. The choroid fissure closes during week?? 7 week 109. The extra ocular muscle develops from Mesoderm of which somitomeres? Somitomeres 1,2 and 3 110. Anophthalmia is ? Absence of the eye 111. HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week? 6 112. Growth hormone of later half of pregnancy? hPL 113. ----used by the fetal testes as a precursor of testosterone synthesis? Progesterone 114. The most potent estrogen is ??? Estradiol 115. Amniocentesis is preferred in which weeks? 14-18 weeks 116. Quickening in a woman first pregnancy in which weeks? 18-20 weeks 117. At week 20 uterine fundus is palpable at the ? Umbilicus 118. Surfactants are produced in which weeks? 25-27
119. Normal baseline fetal heart rate is? 120-160 beats per minute 120. Maximum susceptible period of teratogenicity is? 3-8weeks 121. The most common of CMV fetal infection is ?? Sensineural deafness 122. Teratogenicity of thalidomide is ? Limb defect 123. Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by? Phenytoin 124. Aminoglycoside causes which toxicity ? CNVIII 125. Appendages in wrong position is due to mutation in which gene? Hox gene 126. Heart begins to beat in which week? 4 week 127. Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue? Agenesis 128. Incomplete organ development ? Hypoplasia 129. Effect of diethylstilbestrol on fetus? Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma 130. Caudal regression syndrome caused by? Maternal diabetes 131. High risk of spontaneous abortion is side effect of vit a excess 132. Decidua basalis is derived from? Endometrium 133. Obliteration of Vitelline duct is in which week? 7th week 134. Yolk sac erythropoisis is in which weeks ? 3-8 weeks 135. Ductus arteriosus contain which blood? Deoxygenated 136. Meninges and spinal cord herniated through spinal cord defect is called? Meningeomyelocole 137. Dec separation of hemispheres across Midline leads to? Holoprosencephaly 138. Most common site of syringomyelia ? C8-T1 139. PDA is derivative of which aortic arch? 6 aortic arch 140. Arches are derived from which germ layer ? Mesoderm 141. Styloid process is derivative of which branchial arch ? 2nd 142. CN IX supplies which muscle? Stylopharyngeus 143. All intrinsic muscles of larynx are derivative of 6th arch except? Cricothyroid ( 4th arch) 144. Thymus is derivative of which pouch? 3rd pouch 145. Sup parathyroid derivative of which pouch? 4th ( inf 3rd pouch) 146. Posterior 1/3 of tongue formed by? 3and 4 arch 147. Name cranial nerves involving in taste sensation? CN VII,IX,X 148. Muscle of tongue are derived from ? Occipital myotomes 149. Normal remnant of thyroglossal duct? Foramen cecum 150. Cleft lip is due to? Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process 151. Midgut returns to abdominal cavity in ---- week? 10th week 152. Spleen is ------ in origin? Mesodermal 153.bicorunate uterus result due to Incomplete fusion of ? Paramesonephric duct 154. Hypospadiasis is due to ----? Failure d urethral folds to close 155. Epispadiasis is due to----? Faulty positioning of genital tubercle 156. Diaphragmatic hernia is due to ? Absence of pleuro-peritoneal membrane 157. Vertebra is derived from? Sclerotome 158. Somites are derived of which mesoderm? Paraxial mesoderm 159. Left umbilical vein will regress to ? Ligamentum Teres 160. Gestational age is estimated from? Crown rump length at 8 weeks 161. Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral is called? Saccaralization 162. Structure of 2ndry villus include? Mesoderm , cytotrophoblast and syncitium
163. Amputated leg is the result of? amniotic bands 164. Auditory tube is formed by? 1st and 2nd endodernal pouch 165. Thyroid is derived from ? Endoderm 166. Four chambers of heart are formed by? Endo cardial cushions 167. Strongest layer of small intestine is? Submucosa 168. Erythropoietin are secreted by ? Peritubular interistitium of kidney 169. Which protein maintain red cell shape ? Spectrin 170. Which is not major basic tissues ? Blood 171. Ovary epithelium is ? Simple cuboidal 172. Which structure has 3 layers of muscles? Stomach 173. PDFG is secreted by which part of platelets? Alpha granules 174. Which cells produce antibodies? Plasma cells 175. Most abundant phagocytes in circulation? Neutrophils 176. Submucosal glands are present in ? Deudonum 177. Nissle bodies are? RER 178. Most mucinous acini gland is ? Sublingual glands 179. Calcium releases in muscle from ? Sarcoplamsmic reticulum 180. In Which state maximum HB produces occurs? Pro erythrocyte 181. Average life of Gi epithelium? 2-7 days 182. Basophilia of cell is due to ? RER 183. Which cell release extra cellular fibres and amorphous substance ? Fibroblast 184. Neurons in olfactory tract are ? Bipolar 185. Heparin is released by which cells ? Mast cells 186. Microtubule are part of ? Centrioles 187. Micro filament composed of ? Actin 188. ---- capsule covers the liver? Glisson 189. Signet ring appearance seen in? Adipocyte 190. Osteoclast are present in? Howships lacunae 191. Structural unit of bone? Haversian system 192. Myelin hai ---- percent of protein? 20% 193. Blood group antigen are ??? Carbohydrate 194. Hassal corpuscles feature of? Thymus 195. Hypertrophied pharyngeal tonsil? Adenoid 196. Bruner gland are present in submucosa of? Deudonum 197. Thickest zone of adrenal cortex? Zona fasciculata 198. Which coat is thickest in large veins? Adventitia 199. Ovarian follicles are present in? Cortex of ovary 200. Eosinophils play role in ?? Parasitic infections =-=
2.FIRST AID IMMUNOLOGY 1. Outer cortex of lymph node contain which cells? 2. Which area of lymph node is not well developed in digeorge syndrome? 3. Lymph drainage of lateral side of dorsum of foot? 4. Lymph drainage of rectum below pectinate line?
5. T cells are found in which pulp of spleen? 6. Thymus is derived from? 7. MHC gene is located on which chromosome? 8. APC cells expresses which MHC class? 9. Grave disease is associated with why HLA subtype? 10. NK cells uses what for induction of apoptosis? 11. Antibodies are produced by which cells ? 12. Positive selection is done in which part of thymus? 13. Name APCs?? 14. Costimulatory signal is given by interaction between? 15. Th1 cells inhibited by? 16. Which portion of IGM and IGg fixes complement? 17. Light chain contributes to which fraction of anticody? 18. Main antibody in secondary response to antigen? 19. Colostrum contain which antibody? 20. IgE mediates immunity against worms by activating ? 21. Mature B lymphocytes express ------ on their surfaces? 22. Most abundant antibody in blood? 23. Antibody with lowest concentration in serum? 24. Classic complement pathway mediated by which antibody? 25. Neutrophil chemotaxis done by which complement? 26. C1 esterase inhibitor def causes which disease? 27. Decay accelerating factor causes which disease? 28. antibody pentamer in serum ?? 29. Name the opsonins in bacterial defense? 30. Recurrent Neisseria bacteremia is caused due to def of? 31. Which IL inhibit inflammation? 32. Name the IL that supports growth factor and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells ? 33. IL causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase reactants? 34. Cytokine mediates septic shock ? 35. Name unique marker of NK? 36. All cells have MHC-I except? 37. Receptor for EBV on B cells ? 38. Self reactive T cells become non reactive without Costimulatory molecule ... This phenomenon is called ?? 39. IgA in Breast milk is form of which immunity ? 40. Antibody involved in type 1 HSR? 41. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is which type of hypersensitivity? 42. In erythroblastosis fetalis which Ig is involved? 43. Hashimoto thyroiditis involves which type of hypersensitivity ? 44. Rheumatic fever is which type of HSR? 45. Anti mitochondrial antibody associated disorder? 46. Mixed connective tissue disease associated with which autoantibody? 47. Drug induced sle associated with hitch antibody? 48. T cell deficiencies produce which infections mostly? 49. In Brutton aggamaglobinemia defect is in which gene?
50. Jobs syndrome increases which immunoglobulin ? 51. Digeorge syndrome is failure to develop? 52. Sinus and lung infections are caused by which Ig deficiency? 53. SCID is due to defective? 54. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome presentation triad is ?? 55. Graft from twin or clone is called ? 56. Rejection occurs within minutes of transplantation is called ? 57. Vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interisitial lymphocytic infiltrate is feature of which type f rejection? 58. Most common infection in transplant recipient ? 59. Target of infliximab is ? 60. Target of transtuzumab is ? 61. Drug used to prevent acute transplant rejection? 62. Serum sickness is which type of hypersensitivity ? 63. In ataxia talengectasia which gene is defective? 64. Contact dermatitis is which HSR? 65. Fibrinoid necrosis is hallmark of which HSR? 66. Live attenuated vaccine mainly induced which response? 67. Half life of passive immunity is ? 68. IL that promotes differentiation of B cells ?? 69. IL that activates NK cells? 70. MAC complex is formed by? 71. IgA in circulation is in which form ? 72. Which fragment of antibody determines idiotype? 73. Foreign body is phagocytosed by? 74. MHC II expressed only on? 75. HLA B27 Associated with which disease ? 76. NK activity is enhanced by? 77. Lymph drainage of stomach ? 78. Lymph drainage os scrotum? 79. During extreme cellular immune response which area of lymph node enlarges ? 80. Most common congenital immunoglobulin deficiency? 81. Which transplant has best allograft survival rate ?? 82. Most common drug induced lupus? 83. Most common cause of death in SLE? 84. Reservoir of HIV is ? 85. Amyloidosis of which organ is most serious form of organ involvement? 86. Which rest for AIDS is confirmatory? 87. Complement components are synthesized mostly in? 88. Sjogren syndrome is associated with? 89. Initial most sensitive test for SLE? 90. Patient has CRF best donor for this patient is ?? 91. Master switch to nucleus for induction of inflammation? 92. IL that stimulates and activates eosinophils ? 93. Methyl dopa alters which antigen on Rbc surface?
94. Amyloid precursor protein is located on which chromosome? 95. Misfolded proteins are normally removed by ? KEYS IMMUNOLOGY ANSWERS 1. B cells 2. Paracortex 3. Popliteal 4. Superficial inguinal 5. White pulp 6. 3 rd pharyngeal pouch 7. Chr. 6 8. MHC - II 9. B8 10. Perforins and granzyme 11. Plasma cells 12. Thymic cortex 13. Macrophage, dendritic cell, B cell 14. B7 and CD28 15. IL-10 16. Fc 17. Fab 18. IgG 19. IgA 20. Eosinophils 21. IgM and IgD 22. IgG 23. IgE 24. IgG and IgM 25. C5a 26. Hereditary angoidema 27. PNH 28. IgM 29. C3b and IgG 30. C3-C8 def 31. IL-10 32. IL-3 33. IL-6 34. TNF-alpha 35. CD56 36. Rbc 37. CD21 38. Anergy 39. Passive 40. IgE 41. Type 2
42. ? IgG 43. Typed IV 44. Type II 45. Primary biliary cirrhosis 46. Anti RNP 47. Anti histone 48. Fungal ad viral 49. Tyrosine kisane gene 50. IgE 51. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches 52. Selective IgA deficiency 53. IL-2 receptor 54. Thrombocytopenia , infections and eczema 55. Syngeneic graft 56. Hyperacute rejection 57. Acute rejection 58. CMV 59. TNF-a 60. Erb-B2 61. Daclizumab 62. Type III 63. ATM gene 64. Type IV 65. TypeIII 66. Humoral 67. 3 weeks 68. IL5 69. IL12 70. C5b-9f 71. Monomer 72. Fab 73. APC 74. APC 75. Psoriasis , ankylosing spondylitis , IBD and Reiter syndrome 76. IL-12, IFN-b, IFN-a 77. Celiac 78. Sup inguinal 79. Paracortex 80. IgA 81. Corneal transplant 82. Procainamide 83. Infections 84. Dendritic cells 85. Kidney 86. Western blot 87. Hepatocyte
88. Rheumatoid arthritis 89. ANA 90. Twin 91. NFkb 92. IL-5 93. Rh antigen 94. Ch.21 95. Proteasomes =-=-
3.FIRST AID MICROBIOLOGY TEST 1. Bacillus anthracis capsule contain ? 2. Bacteria containing no cell wall? 3. Lofflers media is for ? 4. Name obligate aerobes? 5. Asplenic individuals are susceptible to which organism? 6. IgA protease is secreted by? 7. Endotoxins mode of action ? 8. Rice water diarrhea caused by ? 9. Whooping cough is caused by? 10. Clostridium perfeinges produces which toxin ? 11. Toxic shock syndrome ?? Causative agent 12. Spores is formed in which bacterial growth phase? 13. Bacteria without plasmid termed as ? 14. Organism that is catalase positive and coagulase sensitive ? 15. Which agent causes otitis media in children ? 16. Meningitis in babies caused by? 17. Rusty sputum is associated with? 18. Component of Normal Ali flora? 19. Normal flora that cause dental caries? 20. Bull neck is seen in which infection? Agent? 21. Floppy baby syndrome is seen due to which toxins of? 22. Sulfur granules in sous tract seen in? 23. Prophylactic treatment of Mycobacterium Avium intracellularae is ? 24. Hansen's disease is also called? 25. Prophylaxis in H influenza is give by ? 26. Legionella pneumonia is clinically detected by presence of antigen in ? 27. Blue green pigment os produced by toxins of? 28. Most common se rotor causing hemolytic uremic syndrome? 29. Red currant jelly sputum? 30. Mesenteric adenitis is caused by ? 31. Question marked shaped bacteria? 32. Rose spots in abdomen , fever , headache feature of? 33. Bulls eye rash seen in? 34. Saddle nose and Hutchinson teeth is feature of?
35. Q fever.... Agent? 36. Clue cells , vaginal discharge with fishy smell ? 37. Assay used in diagnosis of rickettsial infection? 38. Palm and sole rash is seen in? 39. Rieter syndrome caused by? 40. Only bacterium having cholesterol? 41. Budding yeast with captain wheel formation ?? 42. Spaghetti and meat ball appearance in KOH prep? 43. Septate hyphae branches at acute angles ? 44. Fungal disease most commonly in DKA and leukemic patients ?? 45. Rose Gardner disease? 46. Seer diarrhea in AIDS? 47. Toxoplasma gondii... Classic triad? 48. Naelgeria fowleri enters brain via? 49. Kissing bug causes which disease? 50. Treatment of leishmania donovani? 51. Plasmodium malaria cycle of how many hours?? 52. Scotch tape test is done for ? 53. Female anopheles causes blockage of lymphatic vessels? Agent... 54. Swiss cheese appearance is seen in?? Causative agent ? 55. River blindness is caused by? 56. Schistosoma hematobium causes which disease of bladde? 57. Pipestem cirrhosis is caused by which agent? 58. Surgeons inject what to kill daughter cell of Hydatid cyst?? 59. Macrophage containing amastigotes ? Name te organism ? 60. Chlaongiocarcinona associated with which organism? 61. Drug used against staph aureus? 62. Name beta lactamase inhibitor? 63. Red man syndrome caused by? 64. Drug of choice for meningitis and gonorhea? 65. Imipenem is always administered with ?? 66. Main Side effect of aminoglycosides? 67. Tetracycline must not be taken with? 68. Drug of choice for atypical pneumonia? 69. Gray baby syndrome is side effect of? 70. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial? 71. Only agent used as solo prophylactix againt TB? 72. Hyperurecemia is the side effect of which ATT? 73. Prophylaxis of recurrent UTI? 74. ATT inducing P-450 system ? 75. Soap bubble lesions in brain is seen in ? 76. Oral thrush in immuno compromised patient ??? 77. Flask shaped ulcer on histology is seen in infection of ? 78. African sleeping sickness is transmitted by? 79. Chlamydial cell wall lack in? 80. Condylomata lata is seen in which syphillis ?
81. Lyme disease causes by.? 82. Common antecedent of complybactor jejuni? 83. Tumbling motility is characteristic of ? 84. Must autoclave to kill spores by steaming at? 85. Club shape bacteria is ? 86. Tetanospasmin prevent release of ? 87. Which protein of opsonization and phagocytosis ? 88. Lowenstein- Jensen agar medium is for?? 89. Silver stain for ?? 90. Treatment for Chaga disease ? 91. Exchange of genes between 2 chromosome by crossing over within regions of significance base sequence homology? 92. All DNA virus are double stranded except? 93. All virus are haploid except? 94. Slapped cheeks syndrome os caused by? 95. Owls eyes inclusion are seen in ? 96. Atypical lymphocytesis is see in? 97. No. 1 cause of fatal doarrhea in children is ? 98. In picorna viruses all are retroviruses except? 99. Yellow fever virus is transmitted by? 100. Largest DNA virus? Pox virus 101. Herpes virus acquire envelope from ? 102. Other viruses in paramyxovirus ? 103. Koplic spots feature of? 104. Negri bodies are characteristic of ? 105. Anti- HBcAg is positive in ?? 106. In HIV gp41 shows---- ? 107. Name stages of HIV infection? 108. Bacillary angiomatosis caused by? 109. Ring enhancing lesion in HIV patients ... Agent? 110. Retinitis in HIV .... Agent? 111. Normal flora of skin? 112. Canned food contain which toxin? 113. Reheated rice contain toxins? 114. In cystic fibrosis patient most common cause of pneumonia? 115. Travelers diarrhea... Agent? 116. Nosocomial infection is caused by!? 117. Septic arthritis most common cause ? 118. Vertebral tuberculosis is also called ? 119. UTI most commonly occurs in woman than men because ? 120. 2nd Lessing cause of community acquired UTI ? 121. Mode of transmission of toxoplasmosis gondii? 122. Classic triad of rubella? 123. Sandpaper like rash with sore throat? 124. Vesicular rash begins on trunk spread to face and extremities with lesion of different age ? 125. Painful genital ulcer with inguinal lymphadenopathy?
126. Genital warts organism ? 127. Violin string adhesion of parietal peritonium to liver? 128. Most common cause of nosocomial infection in wound infection ? 129. Water aerosol is risk factor of which pathogen? 130. Pseudomembranous colitis is cussed by!? 131. Cherr red epiglottis in children is seen in ? 132. Whipple disease is caused by? 133. Bilateral Bell's palsy seen in? 134. Amphotericin mechanism? 135. Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patient? 136. Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis? 137. Treatment of trypanosoma 4? 138. Prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A virus? 139. 2nd line drug for CMV retinitis in immuno compromised patient? 140. Interferon toxicity causes ? 141. All protease inhibitor ends in ?? 142. Which drug is used for prophylaxis and fetal transmission during pregnancy? 143. Fluroquinolones are contraindicated during pregnancy becoz it causes? 144. Drugs must be phosphorylated by thymidine kinase to be active are? 145. Megaloblastic anemia is side effect of which anti HIV drug? 146. Terbinafine inhibits which fungal enzyme ? 147. Input setting empirical therapy for community acquired pneumonia? 148. HIV Prophylaxis for pneumocystic pneumonia?? 149. Red green color blindness is effect of which ATT? 150. Dog or cat bite associated with which pathogen? 151. Top bugs of pelvic inflammatory disease ? 152. 3rd leading cause of UTI? 153. Tell 3 agents in descending order causing meningitis in newborn ? 154. Most common pathogen causing osteomyelitis ? 155. Name viruses causing watery diarrhea? 156. Pseudo appendicitis os caused by which agent? 157. Kaposi sarcoma associated with which herpes virus? 158. In HIV attachment to the host cell is done by? 159. Hepatitis viruses via fecooral root ?? 160. Bullet shaped capsid is seen in? 161. Symptoms of mumps? 162. 3 Cs of measle ? 163. Paramyxovirus contain which protein which causes respiratory epithelial involvement ? 164. Picorna virus includes? 165. Post cervical lymphadenopathy associated with? 166. Flesh colored done lesion with central dimple ? 167. All DNA virus replicate in nucleus except? 168. All RNA virus replicate in cytoplasm except? 169. Which anti HIV causes hypercholesterolemia ? 170. Metallic taste is due to which drug? 171. Toxicity of isoniazid is?
172. Floor quinolone damages? 173. In lung abcess which is drug of choice ? 174. Respiratory therapeutic equipment usually which pathogen? 175. Health care provider Is on risk of which infection? 176. Salpingitis is risk factor for ? 177. Strawberry colored mucosa of vagina is caused by? 178. Osteomyelitis ok diabetes and IV drug abusers is caused by which pathogen? 179. Normal flora in vagina is? 180. Acquired prions disease is called as ? 181. Pathogen causing invasive aspergillosis is ? 182. Normal flora of oropharynx? 183. Lab finding is that India ink stain reveals yeast with marrow based budding and large capsule .... Name pathogen? 184. During latent phase of course of HIV infection? Virus replicates in ? 185. Attachment of HIV virus is by which glycoprotein? 186. Best test to detect active hepatitis A ? 187. In measle Negri bodies are commonly found in which cells pf cerebellum? 188. SARS is caused by which virus? 189. EBV (infectious mononucleosis) infects ? 190. Other names of slapped cheek syndrome? 191. Eosinophilic pneumonia is caused by which nematode? 192. River blindness is treated by? 193. Cerebral malaria is caused by ? 194. Mucor causes which love abscess? 195. Post TB cavities are usually formed by which fungal infection ? 196. Pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring caused by? 197. Which types of chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphgranuloma venerum? 198. Which type of rash starts centrally and spreads outward without involving palms and soles? 199. Plague is caused by ? 200. Most common serotype of E.coli KEYS MICROBIOLOGY ANSWERS 1. D glutamate 2. Mycoplasma 3. Clostridium diphtheria 4. Nocardia , pseudomonas, mycobacterium tb, bacillus 5. Strep pneumonae, h.influenza, and N meningitidis 6. Strept.pnemonia , H influenza type B , Neisseria 7. Indices TNF and IL-1 8. Vibrio cholerae 9. Borditella pertusis 10. Alpha toxin ( lecithinase) 11. staph aureus 12. Stationary 13. F-
14. Staph aureus 15. Streptococcus pneumonia 16. Streptococcus agalagtae 17. Streptococcus pnemonia 18. Staph epidermidis 19. Strep. Mutans 20. Diphtheria .. Corynebacterium dihphtheria 21. Clostridium botulinum 22. Actinomycetes israili 23. Azithromycin 24. Leprosy 25. Rifampin 26. Urine 27. Pseudomonas aeroginosa 28. O157:H7 29. Klebsiella 30. Yersinia enterocolotica 31. Leptospira interrogans 32. Salmonella typhi 33. Lyme disease 34. Congenital syphillis 35. Coxiella Burnetti 36. Gardenella vaginalis 37. Latex agglutination 38. Coxachivirus A , rocket mountain spotted fever and syphillis 39. Chlamydia trachomatis 40. Mycoplasma pnemonia 41. Para coccidiodomycosis 42. Tinea versicolor 43. Aspergillus fumigatous 44. Mucor and rhizopus 45. Sporthrix schenckii 46. Cryptosporidium 47. Chorioretinitis, hyrocephalus and intracranial calcification 48. Cribriform plate 49. Chaga disease 50. Sodium stibogluconate 51. 72 hrs 52. Enterobius vermicularis 53. .. Wicherereria bancrofti 54. Neurocysticercosis.... Tania solium 55. Onchocerca volvulus 56. Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder 57. Schistosoma mansoni 58. Ethanol 59. Leishmania donovani
60. Clonirchis sinesis 61. Methicillin , naficillin 62. Clavulanic acid, sulbactum, tazobactum 63. Vancomycin 64. Ceftriaxone 65. Cilaststin 66. Nephrotoxicity , Ototoxiicty, teratogen 67. Milk, antacids and iron containing preparation 68. Macrolides 69. Chloremphinicol 70. Dihydrofolate reductase 71. Isoniazid 72. Pyrizinamide 73. Trimethoprim -sulphametoxaZole 74. Rifampin 75. Cryptococcus neoformans 76. Candida albicans 77. Entamoeba histolytica 78. Tsetse fly 79. Muramic acid 80. Secondary 81. Borellia burgdorfori 82. Guilian bar syndrome 83. Listeria monocytosis 84. 121C for 15 85. Corynebacterium diphtheria 86. Inhibitory neurotransmitter in spinal cord 87. PRotein A 88. M.tuberculosis 89. Legionella and fungi 90. Nifurtimox 91. Recombination 92. parvovirus 93. retrovirus 94. Parvovirus ( B19. Virus ) 95. CMV 96. EBV virus 97. Rota virus 98. Rhino viruses 99. Aedes mosquito 100. Pox virus 101. Nuclear membrane? 102. Parainfluenza , RSV and rubeola 103. Measle virus 104. Rabies virus 105. Window period
106. Fusion and entry 107. Flulike, feeling fine , falling Count and final crisis 108. Bartonella henslae 109. Toxoplasmosis gondii 110. CMV 111. Staph. Epidermitidis 112. Clostridium botulinum 113. Reheated rice contain toxins? S. Aureus 114. Pseudomonas 115. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli 116. Staph aureus 117. Nessieria gonorrhea 118. Potts disease 119. Female have short urethra 120. Staphylococcus saorophyticus 121. Cat feces 122. PDA, cataract and deafness 123. Scarlet fever 124. VZV 125. Hemophilus ducreyi 126. HPV 6 and 11 127. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome 128. Staph. Aureus 129. Legionella 130. Corynebacterium diphtheria 131. H. Influenza type B 132. Trophyrema whipplii 133. Lyme disease 134. Form membrane pores 135. Fluconazole 136. Caspofungin 137. Malarsoprol 138. Amantadine 139. Foscarnet 140. Neutropenia 141. Navir 142. Zidovudine 143. Cartilage damage 144. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor 145. Zidovudine 146. Squalene epoxidase 147. Floroquinolones 148. TMP-SMX 149. Ethambutol 150. Pasteurella multocida 151. Chlamydia trachomatis , N.gonorrhea
152. Klebsiella pneumonia 153. Group b streptococcus > E. coli>listeria 154. Staph. Aureus 155. Rota, adeno and Norwalk virus 156. Yersinia enterocolotica 157. HHV-8 158. Gp 120 159. HAV HEV 160. Ranked virus 161. Parotitis , orchitis and aseptic meningitis 162. Coryza, cough and conjunctivitis 163. F protein 164. Polio, echo, rhino, coxackie and HAV 165. EBV 166. Molluscum contagiousum 167. Pox virus 168. influenza and retrovirus 169. Raltegravir 170. Metronidazole 171. Neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity 172. Cartilage 173. Clindamycin 174. Pseudomonas aeroginosa 175. HBV 176. Ectopic pregnancy 177. Trichomonas vaginalis 178. Pseudomonas aeroginosa 179. Lactobacillus 180. Kuru 181. Aspergillus fumigatous 182. Streptococci virirdians 183. Cryptococcus neoformans 184. Lymph nodes 185. gp120 186. Anti - HAVAb(igM) 187. Purkinjie 188. Corona virus 189. B cells 190. Fifth disease, erythema infectiosum 191. Ascaris lumbricoid 192. Ivermectin 193. Plasmodium falciparum 194. Frontal lobe 195. Aspergillus fumigatous 196. Dermatophytes
197. L1,L2 and L3 198. Typhus rash 199. Yersinia pestis 200. O157:H7 =--=-
4.FIRST AID REPRODUCTIVE TEST 1.lymph drainage of ovaries?? 2. Ovarian vessels are in which ligament? 3. Fallopian tubule epithelium? 4. Ejaculation caused by? Parasympathetic / sympathetic / pudendal 5. FSH is inhibited by? 6. Which cells produces anitmullerian hormone ? 7. Spermatogenesis occurs in ??? 8. Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen in ----- and -------??? By which enzyme? 9. 5alpha reductase inhibited by which drug? 10. Placenta is source of which type of estrogen? 11. Estrogen receptors are expressed in which part of cell? 12. During menstrual cycle what is responsible for temperature increase? 13. Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization ?? 14. Implantation within wall of uterus occurs which day of fertilization ? 15. HCG detectable in blood after how many days? 16. The best test to confirm menopause? 17. Elevated HCG in pathologic states ??? Name them 18. NO Barr body is feature of ?? 19. Most common form of male pseudohermaphroditism? 20. Penis at 12 caused in? 21. Honeycombed uterus seen in ? 22. Mortality in eclampsia is due to?? Name 2 causes 23. Paninful bleeding in 3rd trimester? 24. Oligohydromnios can lead to which syndrome? 25. HPV 18--- E7 gene product inhibits which gene? 26. Koilocytes seen in ??? 27. Chocolate cysts ?? Treatment? 28. Most common gynecological malignancy? 29. Most common of all tumors In females? 30. Worst prognostic gynecological carcinoma??? 31. PCOD clinically manifests by?? 32. Most common ovarian mass in young female? 33. Stroma ovarrii contains ???? 34. Schiller duval bodies seen in? 35. Call-Exner bodies seen in? 36. Spindle shaped tumors that are Desmin positive??? 37. Yolk sac tumor marker??
38. Krukenberg tumor?? 39. Leaf like projections are seen in which breast tumor? 40. Single most important prognostic factor or Breast cancer? 41. Most common cause of acute mastitis ?? 42. Most common cause of breast lump? In female age >25? 43. BPH involve which lobe? 44. What is the increased risk of cryptocordisim? 45. Fried egg appearances seen in? 46. Bent penid due to acquired fibrous tissue formation ?? Disease? 47.drug used to treat male pattern baldness? 48. Drug used in premature uterine contractions? 49. Drug used for breast cancer as well as to treat osteoporosis ? 50. Malignant painful worst prognosis testicular germ cell tumor? 51. Prostatic adenocarcinoma involves which lobe? 52. Comedocarcinoma has which necrosis ?? 53. Classic stellate morphology shows which Brest carcinoma? 54. Meigs syndrome? Triad?? 55. Diethyesterbestrol used in pregnancy leads to??? 56. Ovarian cancer marker? 57. Dysgerminoma associated with which syndrome? 58. Ovarian dermoid cyst may contain?? 59. Treatment of endometriosis? 60.Painless bleeding in any trimester? 61.5alpha reductase is which type of disorder?? Aut dominant/ Aut recessive/ x linked dominant / x linked recessive? 62. Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until Ovulation? 63. Blood from ruprtured follicle cases peritoneal irritation that can mimic appendicitis called?? 64. Most common site of fertilization in Fallopian tube? 65. Luteal day is usually if how many days?? 66. Spermatogenesis begin at puberty with ??? 67. Broad ligament contains?? 68. Ligament of ovary lies ---- to uterus?? Lateral / medial/ front /back 69. Ovary epithelium?? 70. LH surge causes??? KEYS 1.lymph drainage of ovaries?? Para aortic lymph nodes 2. Ovarian vessels are in which ligament? Suspensory ligament of ovaries 3. Fallopian tubule epithelium?simple ciliates columnar epithelium 4. Ejaculation caused by?Parasympathetic / sympathetic / pudendal ??? Ans= pudendal 5. FSH is inhibited by? Inhibin 6. Which cells produces anitmullerian hormone ?sertioli cells 7. Spermatogenesis occurs in ???Seminiferous tubules 8. Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen in ----- and -------??? Adipose tissue and sertoli cells 9. 5alpha reductase inhibited by which drug? Finesteride
10. Placenta is source of which type of estrogen? Estriol 11. Estrogen receptors are expressed in which part of cell?cytoplasm 12. During menstrual cycle what is responsible for temperature increase? Progesterone 13. Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization ??Metaphase 14. Implantation within wall of uterus occurs which day of fertilization ? 6th day 15. HCG detectable in blood after how many days? 1 week 16. The best test to confirm menopause? Inc FSH 17. Elevated HCG in pathologic states ??? Name them..Hyaditoform mole, choriocarcinoma, gestational trophoblastic tumors 18. NO Barr body is feature of ?? Turner syndrome 19. Most common form of male pseudohermaphroditism? Androgen insensitivity syndrome 20. Penis at 12 caused in? 5 alpha reductase def 21. Honeycombed uterus seen in ?hyaditoform mole 22. Mortality in eclampsia is due to?? Name 2 causes ??cerebral hemorrhage and ARDS 23. Paninful bleeding in 3rd trimester?abruptio placenta 24. Oligohydromnios can lead to which syndrome? Potter syndrome 25. HPV 18--- E7 gene product inhibits which gene? Rb suppressor gene 26. Koilocytes seen in ???invasive cervical carcinoma 27. Chocolate cysts ?? Treatment?endometriosis ... Danazole 28. Most common gynecological malignancy? Endometrial carcinoma 29. Most common of all tumors In females?Leiomyoma( fibroids 30. Worst prognostic gynecological carcinoma??? Ovarian carcinoma 31. PCOD clinically manifests by?? Amenorrhea, infertility , obesity 32. Most common ovarian mass in young female? Follicular cyst 33. Stroma ovarrii contains ???? Functional thyroid tissue 34. Schiller duval bodies seen in? Yolk sac timor(endo dermal sinus ) 35. Call-Exner bodies seen in? Granulosa cell tumor 36. Spindle shaped tumors that are Desmin positive??? Sarcoma botryoides 37. Yolk sac tumor marker?? AFP 38. Krukenberg tumor??GI malignancy that metastasize to ovaries 39. Leaf like projections are seen in which breast tumor?phyllodes tumor 40. Single most important prognostic factor or Breast cancer? Axillary lymph node involvement 41. Most common cause of acute mastitis ??staph aureus 42. Most common cause of breast lump? In female age >25?fibrocystic disease 43. BPH involve which lobe?periurethral lobe ( lat and mid lobe) 44. What is the increased risk of cryptocordisim?prematurity 45. Fried egg appearances seen in?seminoma 46. Bent penid due to acquired fibrous tissue formation ?? Disease?Peyronie disease 47.drug used to treat male pattern baldness?finasteride 48. Drug used in premature uterine contractions? Ritodrine and terbutaline 49. Drug used for breast cancer as well as to treat osteoporosis ?raloxifene 50. Malignant painful worst prognosis testicular germ cell tumor?seminoma 51. Prostatic adenocarcinoma involves which lobe?post lobe( peripheral zone) 52. Comedocarcinoma has which necrosis ??Caseous necrosis 53. Classic stellate morphology shows which Brest carcinoma?invasive ductal 54. Meigs syndrome? Triad??Ovarian fibroma, ascites and hydrothorax
55. Diethyesterbestrol used in pregnancy leads to??? Clear cell carcinoma 56. Ovarian cancer marker? CA 125 57. Dysgerminoma associated with which syndrome? Turner syndrome 58. Ovarian dermoid cyst may contain?? Fat , hair , teeth , bone and cartilage 59. Treatment of endometriosis? Danazol 60.Painless bleeding in any trimester? Placenta prévia 61.5alpha reductase is which type of disorder?? Aut dominant/ Aut recessive/ x linked dominant / x linked recessive? Ans= Aut recessive 62. Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until Ovulation? Prophase 63. Blood from ruprtured follicle cases peritoneal irritation that can mimic appendicitis called??Mittleshmerz 64. Most common site of fertilization in Fallopian tube? Ampulla 65. Luteal day is usually if how many days?? 4 days 66. Spermatogenesis begin at puberty with ??? Spermatogonia 67. Broad ligament contains?? Ovaries , Fallopian tube and round ligament of uterus 68. Ligament of ovary lies ---- to uterus?? Lateral / medial/ front /back?? Ans=Lateral 69. Ovary epithelium?? Simple cuboidal 70. LH surge causes??? Ovulation =-=
FIRST AID GASTROENTEROLOGY TEST 1. Splenic artery and vein is in? Gastrosplenic ligament/ splenorenal/ gastrohepatic 2. Portal triad? 3. Strongest layer of deudonum? Mucosa/ submucosa/serosa 4. Bruner glands feature of?? Stomach/deudonum/ ilium 5. Arterial supply of GI arises from ---of aorta? Anterior/ posterior/ lateral 6. Parasympathetic supply of hindgut? 7. Watershed area in GI tract? 8. Branches of celiac trunk? 9. Rectal venous anastomoses??? 10. Below pectinate line painful somatic stimulation is by which nerve? Sup rectal/ inf rectal/ pudendal/ middle rectal 11. Which hepatic zone is sensitive to toxic injury? I / II/ III 12. Which is not content of femoral sheath? Femoral vein/ artery /nerve 13. Most common hernia in women ? Direct inguinal/ inguinal diaphragmatic / femoral 14. Which hernia covers all 3 layers of spermatozoa fascia ? Indirect / direct inguinal/ femoral 15. Name the potent stimulators of gastrin? 16. Hormone secrete Hco3 but not pancreatic enzyme?? CCK/secretin/ somatostatin 17. Motilium action produces which movements?? 18. Source of intrinsic factor??? Chief cell/ parietel cell/ mucosal cell 19. Enzyme secreted by deudonum mucosa? Protease/ enterokinase/ amylase 20. Fructose is taken up by ?? Simple diffusion / facilitated diffusion/ counter transport? 21. Name to factors absorbed in terminal ilium?? 22. Intra gut antibody??? IGg / igA / IGM / igE 23. Bilirubin is the product of ????
24. Most common tumor of salivary gland? Pleomorphic adenoma/ werthin tumor 25. Bird beak appearance is seen in!? Gerd/ achalasia 26. Plummer Vinson syndrome? Triad 27. Painless bleeding of submucosal vein in Lower 1/3 of esophagus ?cancer/ varices 28. Progressive dysohagia feature of?? 29. Whipple disease causative agent?? 30. Osmotic diarrhea is seen in? Celiac sprue/tropical sprue/Whipple disease/ lactase deficiency 31. Fat soluble vitamin ? 32. Celiac sprue associated with which disease? 33. Ulcers resulted due to burn injury? 34. Ulcer due to hypertension?? 35. Stomach cancer associated with which blood group?? A/B/O 36. Pain increase with meal? Deudonunal/ gastric 37. Ulcerative colitis involve which part of GI tract ? 38. String sign feature of ? Crohn/ ulcerative colitis 39. Differentials of appendicitis? 40. Left sided appendicitis is named to?? 41. Most common site of diverticulum is ?? Ilium/ jejunum/ rectum/ sigmoid 42. Most common congenital anomaly of Gi tract? 43. Hirschsprung disease associated with which syndrome?? Turner/ down / klinefelter / patau 44. Sawtooth appearance in Colon? 45. Double bubble sign? Adhesion/ meconium ileus/deudonal atresia? 46. Familial adenomatous polyposis---- name the gene? 47. most common site of carcinoid tumor?? 48. Pregnant lady jaundice. Important marker? ALP/AST/GGT/ALT 49. Which drug cause reye syndrome in children ? Acetaminophen / aspirin/ burfen/ ampicillin 50. Mallory bodies seen in ? Hepc/ hepB/ autoimmune / alcoholic hepatitis 51. CEA Tumor marker of? 52. Net mug liver caused by ? RHF/LHF 53. Black liver associated with? Gilbert syn/ dubin Johnson syn/ rotor syn/ criglar najjar syn 54. In Wilson disease , cu deposits in which later of cornea? 55. Hemochromatosis associated with? HLA A3/HLA A4/HLA A5 56. Charcot triad ? 57. Migratory thrombophlebitis feature of? Ac pancreatitis/ chr pancreatitis/ pancreatic adenocarcinoma 58. Marker of pancreatic carcinoma?? 59. Treatment of carcinoid syndrome? 60. Magnesium hydroxide causes? Diarrhea/ constipation / seizures 61. Falciform ligament is derivative of ? 62. Superior mesenteric artery is at which vertebral level? 63. Which type of carcinoma is seen above pectinate line? Adenocarcinoma / squamous cell carcinoma 64. Which zone of liver contains P-450 system? 65. Gastrin inc acid secretion primarily through its effects on??? 66. The only GI submucosa glands is? 67. Direct bilirubin is conjugated with ??
68. Most common malignant tumor of salivary gland ?? 69. Feeling of having a lump in ones throat without clinical or radiographic evidence is called??? 70. Achalasia is due to loss of ? 71. Esophageal strictures associated with??? 72. Barrets esophagus is replacement of which epithelium? 73. Telescoping of 1 bowel segment into distal segment is called ? 74. Most common site of volvulus is ? 75. Angiodysplasia is confirmed by? 76. Dense core bodies seen in which tumor? 77. Cavernous hemangioma is tumor of which body organ? 78. In cavernous hemangioma why biopsy is contraindicated? 79. Budd chiari syndrome is due to occlusion of? 80. Cirrhosis with PAS-positive globules in liver? 81. Unknown cause of concentric onion skin bile duct fibrosis ? Diagnosis? 82. Obstructive jaundice with palpable gall bladder? 83. Why are payers patches important in the immune response? 84. Name 4 major risk factors for stomach cancer ? 85. What surgical complication can lead to bowel obstruction? 86. What is the cause of bronze diabetes? 87. Name two intrahepatic cause of biliary obstruction? 88. What enzymes are elevated in acute pancreatitis? 89. What drug combination is oftenly used as triple therapy for H.pylori eradication? 90. What drug used to treat gastroparesis? KEYS 1. splenorenal 2. hepatic artery, portal vein, cbd 3. Strongest layer submucosa 4. deudonum 5. Anterior 6. Pelvic 7. Splenic flexure 8. Common hepatic, splenic , left gastric 9. Sup rectal and inferior rectal 10. Inf rectal/ 11. III 12. Nerve 13. Femoral 14. Indirect inguinal 15. Phenylalanine and tryptophan 16. Secretin 17. Migratory motor complex 18. Parietal cell 19. Enterokinase 20. Facilitated diffusion 21. B12 and bile salts
22. IgA 23. Heme metabolism 24. Pleomorphic adenoma 25. Achalasia 26. Triad Dysphagia , glossitis iron defiecincy anemia 27. Varices 28. Esophegeal cancer 29. Torphyrema whippelii 30. lactase deficiency 31. ADEK 32. Dermatitis herpetiformans 33. Curling 34. Cushing 35. A 36. Gastric 37. Colon 38. Crohn 39. Diverticulitis,ectopic pregnancy 40. Diverticulitis 41. Sigmoid 42. Meckels diverticulum 43. Down 44. Colonic polyps 45. Deudonal atresia 46. APC 47. APpendix 48. GGT 49. Aspirin 50. Alcoholic hepatitis 51. Colorectal ca 52. RHF 53. Dubin Johnson syn 54. Descement membrane 55. HLA A3 56. Jaundice, fever , RUQ pain 57. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma 58. CA 19/9 59. Octreotide 60. Diarrhea 61. Fetal umbelical vein 62. L1 63. Adenocarcinoma 64. Zone III 65. Enterochromaffin like cells 66. Burnners gland 67. Glucuronic acid
68. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma 69. Globus sensation 70. Myenteric plexus 71. Lye ingestion and acid reflux 72. Stratified squamous with columnar epithelium 73. Intussusception 74. Sigmoid colon 75. Angiography 76. Carcinoid tumor 77. Liver 78. Due to risk of hemorrhage 79. IVC or heptic veins 80. a1-anti trypsin deficiency 81. Primary sclerosing cholangitis 82. Courvoisier's sign 83. They produce IgA antibodies that combat intramural antigens 84. Smokes food, achlorhydria, chronic gastritis and type A blood group 85. Adhesion 86. Deposition of hemosedrin in the skin 87. Primary biliary cirhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis 88. Amylase and lipase 89. Metronidazole , amoxicillin and PPI 90. Metoclopromide =-=-
FIRST AID ENDOCRINOLOGY TEST =-=-
FIRST AID ENDOCRINOLOGY TEST 1.adernal Cortex derived from 2. Fetal adrenal gland consist of which zones 3. Islet of lingerhans most common in which area of pancreas 4. Rathke pouch -- ectodermal /endoderm 5. Brains use ------- in starvation 6. TRH stimulate ??? Name 2
7. Right adrenal vein drain in----?? 8. Which is present in brain?? Glut 1/2/4 9. Insulin cross placenta??? T/F 10. Dopamine---- practin??? Stimulate/ inhibit 11. Growth hormone stimulated by??? Name 3 12. Which zone of adrenal gland is source of cortisol ??? 13. What will increase in 21 hydroxylase deficiency??? Mineralocorticoids/ cortisol / sex hormones??? 14. PTH initially increase activity of ?? Osteoblast/ osteoclast 15. Vit D def causes ----- in adults and----- in children?? 16. Calcitonin is secreted by???? 17. Signaling pathway of insulin??? 18. Thyroid binding capacity I'm pregnancy?? Increase or decrease 19. Propylthiouracil inhibit -----and------? 20. Primary cause of Cushing syndrome?? 21. Cushing disease ??? Inc ACTH / dec ACTH 22. Carcinoid tumor derived from? 23. Common sites for zollinger Ellison syndrome 24.DKA most important complication of ? 25. HLA associated with? Type 1 / type 2 DM 26. Cataract cause in DM??? 27. Marker of carconoid syndrome? 28. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus causes?? 29. Treatment of SIADH?? 30. Name two signs seen in hypocalcemia? 31. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism??? 32. Hashimoto throiditis associated with which malignancy?? 33. Orphan Annie nuclei seen in??? 34. Name thyroiditis with granulomatos inflammation? 35. Pheochoemocytoma ??? VMA /HVA 36. Inc TSH, dec T4, dec freeT4, Dec T3uptake ?? Diagnosis 37. Acute 1 adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage associated with which microb? 38. No skin pigmentation seen in ? Primary adrenal insufficieny / secondary insufficiency ? 39. Symptoms of pheochrmomoctyoma occurs In? Spells / continuous??? 40. Which os teratogenic ? Merhomazole /porpylthioiuracil... 41. ------ containing hormone control body metabolic rate?? Iron, cu ,
iodine , calcium 42. HIGH plasma renin associated with??? Prim hyperaldosteronism/ sec hyperaldosteronism 43. Calcitonin? Dec calcium level / inc calcium level??? 44. Glucagon made by --cell of pancreas?? 45. Rbcs depend only on glucose ??? True/ false? 46. Post pituitary secretes??? 47. Medulla originated from??? 48. Carcinoid causes ?? Rt sided valvular disease/ left sides valvular disease ??? 49. Wermer syndrome triad??? 50. Post partum bleeding leads to which syndrome ?? 51. ....... Presents as an anterior midline neck mass that moves with swallowing or protrusion of the tongue ? 52. Most common ectopic thyroid tissue site is? 53. Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults which causes episodic hypertension? 54. Posterior pituitary derived from and secretes? 55. Spermatocyte contains which insulin transporters? 56. Prolactin is secreted by? 57. Prolactin is tonically inhibited by? 58. Anti diuretic hormone is synthesized in which nucleus of hypothalamus? 59. Treatment of central diabetes insipidus? 60. Exogenous corticosteroids can cause reactivation of TB and candidiasis by blocking which chemokine? 61. Prolonged secretin of cortisol is due to?? 62. Source of PTH? 63. Which enzyme stimulate kidney for production of calcitriol? 64. Clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia?? 65. Thyroid hormones increases Basal metabolic rate via??? KEYS 1.adernal Cortex derived from? mesoderm 2. Fetal adrenal gland consist of which zones? Outer adult zone and inner active fetal zone 3. Islet of lingerhans most common in which area of pancreas??tail 4. Rathke pouch -- ectoderma l 5. Brains use ------- in starvation??ketone bodies 6. TRH stimulate ??? Name 2--Tsh, prolactin 7. Right adrenal vein drain in----?? Inferior Vena Cava
8. Which is present in brain?? Glut 1 9. Insulin cross placenta??? F 10. Dopamine---- practin??? inhibit 11. Growth hormone stimulated by??? Name 3 Hypoglycemia , exercise, sleep 12. Which zone of adrenal gland is source of cortisol ??? Fasciculata 13. What will increase in 21 hydroxylase deficiency??? sex hormones 14. PTH initially increase activity of ?? Osteoblasts 15. Vit D def causes ----- in adults and----- in children?? Osteomalacia and rickets 16. Calcitonin is secreted by???? Para follicular cell of thyroid (C cells) 17. Signaling pathway of insulin??? Intrinsic Tyrosine kinase 18. Thyroid binding capacity I'm pregnancy?? Increase 19. Propylthiouracil inhibit -----and------? peroxidase---and5'deiodinase----20. Primary cause of Cushing syndrome?? Exogenous steroids 21. Cushing disease ??? Inc ACTH 22. Carcinoid tumor derived from? Neuro endocrine cell of GI 23. Common sites for zollinger Ellison syndrome?? Pancreas and deudonum 24.DKA most important complication of ? Type 1 25. HLA associated with? Type 1 26. Cataract cause in DM??? Sorbitol accumulation 27. Marker of carconoid syndrome? 5HIAA 28. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus...causes?? LITHIUM, demeclocycline 29. Treatment of SIADH?? Demeclocycline and restrict water 30. Name two signs seen in hypocalcemia? Chvostek, trousseaus sign 31. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism??? Adenoma 32. Hashimoto throiditis associated with which malignancy?? B cell lymphoma 33. Orphan Annie nuclei seen in??? Papillary carcinoma 34. Name thyroiditis with granulomatos inflammation? de quarin ( subacute thyroiditis ) 35. Pheochoemocytoma ??? VMA 36. Inc TSH, dec T4, dec freeT4, Dec T3uptake ?? Diagnosis hypothroidism
37. Acute 1 adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage associated with which microb? Neisseria meningitidis 38. No skin pigmentation seen in ? secondary insufficiency 39. Symptoms of pheochrmomoctyoma occurs In? Spells 40. Which os teratogenic ? Merhomazole 41. ------ containing hormone control body metabolic rate?? iodine 42. HIGH plasma renin associated with??? sec hyperaldosteronism 43. Calcitonin? Dec calcium leve l 44. Glucagon made by --cell of pancreas?? Alpha cells 45. Rbcs depend only on glucose ??? True 46. Post pituitary secretes??? ADH and oxytocin 47. Medulla originated from??? Neural crest cells 48. Carcinoid causes ?? Rt sided valvular disease 49. Wermer syndrome triad??? Parathyroid tumor, pituitary tumor, pancreatic endocrine tumor 50. Post partum bleeding leads to which syndrome ?? Sheehan syndrome 51. ....... Presents as an anterior midline neck mass that moves with swallowing or protrusion of the tongue ? Thyroglossal duct cyst 52. Most common ectopic thyroid tissue site is? Tongue 53. Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults which causes episodic hypertension? Pheochromocytoma 54. Posterior pituitary derived from and secretes? derived from neuro ectoderm and secretes ADH and oxytocin 55. Spermatocyte contains which insulin transporters? Glut-5 56. Prolactin is secreted by? Anterior pituitary 57. Prolactin is tonically inhibited by? Dopamine 58. Anti diuretic hormone is synthesized in which nucleus of hypothalamus? Supra optic nucleus 59. Treatment of central diabetes insipidus? Desmopressin 60. Exogenous corticosteroids can cause reactivation of TB and candidiasis by blocking which chemokine? IL-2 production 61. Prolonged secretin of cortisol is due to?? Chronic stress 62. Source of PTH? Chief cells of parathyroid 63. Which enzyme stimulate kidney for production of calcitriol? 1alpha- hydroxylase 64. Clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia?? Cramps, pain, parenthesis , carpopedal spasm 65. Thyroid hormones increase Basal metabolic rate via??? Na/K Atpase pump
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FIRST AID CARDIOVASCULAR TEST 1. Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in? 2. Cardiac output =?? 3. Stroke Volume affected by?? Name three parameters 4. Most posterior part of heart? 5. Vasodilators decrease?? Preload/after load 6. EF is the index of? 7. Viscosity depends mostly on?? 8. Fixed splitting is seen in? 9. S4 is in? Mid diastole/ late/ early 10. Period of highest oxygen consumption? 11. Isovolumetric relaxation? 12. Expiration inc intensity of which side of heart sounds? Left/right 13. Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area? 14. Myxomatoys degeneration causes which valvular lesion? 15. Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to ?? 16. Rapid depolarization caused by? 17. Pacemaker action potential occurs in?? 18. QRS complex shows?? 19. AV nodal delay is useful because?? 20. Lyme disease causes which heart block? 21. Sawtooth appearance?? 22. Cushing triad?? 23. Aortic arch responds??? And transmits via??? 24. Highest blood flow per gran of tissue??? 25. Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause? 26. Autoregulation In brain caused by? 27. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of which pressure? 28. Boot shape heart? 29. Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital syn? 30. Drug to close PDA? 31. Infant of diabetic mother --- > congenital defect?? 32. Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in?? 33. Most common site of atherosclerosis ?? 34. Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with? 35. Common cause of sudden death first few hours after MI? 36. Marker for reinfarction? 37. V1-V2 ----> infarction location? 38. Autoimmune pericarditis after MI? 39. Sudden death in young athlete? 40. Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI? 41. Etiology of dialated cardiomyopathy? 42. Isolated right heart failure is due to??? 43. Heart failure cells ? LHF/RHF
44. IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved? 45. Colon cancer having IE?? Organism 46. In rheumatic fever early death die to?? 47. RF which type of hypersensitivity ? 48. Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart? 49.early lesion in rheumatic fever ?? 50. Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children? 51. Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis? 52. Pulseless disease? 53. Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers? 54. Angiosarcoma associated with? 55. Benign painful , red blue tumor under finger Nails? 56. Vitamin causing hyperglycemia ? 57. Torsa de pointes caused by drug??? Name 2 58. Adenosine action time? 59. Name 2 important function of digoxin? 60. Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesrterol ?? 61. Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart ? 62. In JVP a wave shows? 63. Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level ? 64. Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI??? 2 / 3-7/ 10/ 14 65. In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which protein?? 66. Patient having prosthetic valve having IE ? Agent? 67. Cardiac cirrhosis caused by?? RHF/LHF 68. Tree bark appearance ?? 69. Most common heart tumors?? 70. Print metal angina?? St elevation / depression 71. Dirotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which heart sound? 72. Structure with richest blood supplyee? 73. Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart? 74. Aj J point of ECG what happens?? 75. Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is ??? 76. Myocardial infarction that damages the anterior interventricular septum and the apex .. Which artery is occluded? 77. Which parameter does the viscosity depends upon?? 78. During physical examination what diagnostic sign might be observed in the neck of a patient with right heart failure? 79. What is meant by pulses parvus tardus? 80. Which murmur is often cause by age related calcification? 81. What are the most dangerous sequelae or torsa de pointes? 82. Patient with wolf parkinson white syndrome have higher risk of which type of arrhythmia? 83. An ECG shows no identifiable waves. What is the most likely diagnosis? 84. How does neonates with tricuspid atresia remain viable given with severely compromised circulation? 85. Six days after having myocardial infarction a patient presents with a new onset murmur , which type of murmur is this most likely?
86. Quinine causes symptoms of headache and tinnitus , which collectively called ? 87. Adverse effect of diazoxide? 88. Name the potentially fatal adverse effect of ibutilide? 89. Which ion is infused to treat torsades de pointed and digoxin toxicity? 90. Name three toxocities of antiarrhythmatic drug adenosine? KEYS 1. Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in? LAD 2. Cardiac output =??HR*CO 3. Stroke Volume affected by?? Name three parameters...Contractility, preload, afterload 4. Most posterior part of heart? Left atrium 5. Vasodilators decrease?? Preload/after load?? Ans= afterload 6. EF is the index of? Ventricular contractility 7. Viscosity depends mostly on?? Hematocrit 8. Fixed splitting is seen in? ASD 9. S4 is in? Mid diastole/ late/ early?? Ans= late 10. Period of highest oxygen consumption? isovolumetric contraction 11. Isovolumetric relaxation? Period between aortic valve closing and opening of mitral valve 12. Expiration inc intensity of which side of heart sounds? Left/right??ans=left 13. Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area? Mitral area 14. Myxomatoys degeneration causes which valvular lesion? MVP 15. Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to ?? Ca influx 16. Rapid repolarization caused by? Massive K efflux 17. Pacemaker action potential occurs in?? SA AV node 18. QRS complex shows?? Ventricular depolarization 19. AV nodal delay is useful because?? Allows time for ventricular filling 20. Lyme disease causes which heart block? 3rd degree 21. Sawtooth appearance?? Atrial flutter 22. Cushing triad?? Hypertension, bradycardia and respiratory depression 23. Aortic arch responds??? And transmits via??? Inc Bp only -- vagus nerve 24. Highest blood flow per gran of tissue??? Kidney 25. Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause? Vasoconstriction 26. Autoregulation In brain caused by? Co2(ph) 27. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of which pressure? Left atrial pressure 28. Boot shape heart? TOF 29. Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital syn? Turner syndrome 30. Drug to close PDA? Indomethacin 31. Infant of diabetic mother --- > congenital defect?? transposition of great vessels 32. Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in?? Malignant hypertension 33. Most common site of atherosclerosis ?? Abdominal aorta 34. Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with? Hypertension 35. Common cause of sudden death first few hours after MI? Arrhythmia 36. Marker for reinfarction? Ck-MB 37. V1-V2 ----> infarction location? Anterioseptal 38. Autoimmune pericarditis after MI? Dressler syndrome
39. Sudden death in young athlete? HOCM 40. Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI? ECG 41. Etiology of dialated cardiomyopathy? Alcohol abuse, beriberi, cocaine use, Chaga disease, doxuebecin, hemochromatosis 42. Isolated right heart failure is due to??? Cor pulmonale 43. Heart failure cells ? LHF/RHF?? Ans=LHF 44. IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved? Tricuspid 45. Colon cancer having IE?? Organism?? Strep bovis 46. In rheumatic fever early death die to?? Myocarditis 47. RF which type of hypersensitivity ? Type 2 48. Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart? Left atrium 49.early lesion in rheumatic fever ?? MVP 50. Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children? Rhabdomyosarcoma 51. Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis? Churg Strauss syndrome 52. Pulseless disease? Takayasu arteritis 53. Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers? Buergers disease ( thromboangitis obliterans ) 54. Angiosarcoma associated with? chloride, thorium dioxide and arsenic 55. Benign painful , red blue tumor under finger Nails? Glomus tumor 56. Vitamin causing hyperglycemia ? Niacin 57. Torsa de pointes caused by drug??? Name 2 ?quinidine, sotalol and ibutilide 58. Adenosine action time? 15 secs 59. Name 2 important function of digoxin? Inhibition NaK atpase and vagus nerve stimulation 60. Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesrterol ?? Statins 61. Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart? left atrium 62. In JVP a wave shows? Atrial contraction 63. Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level ? <60 mmhg 64. Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI??? 2 / 3-7/ 10/ 14??ans= 3-7 (in goljan ) 5-10 days in ( first aid) 65. In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which protein?? M protein 66. Patient having prosthetic valve having IE ? Agent? Strep epidermidis 67. Cardiac cirrhosis caused by?? RHF/LHF?? Ans= RHF 68. Tree bark appearance ?? Syphilitic heart disease 69. Most common heart tumors?? Metastases 70. Print metal angina?? St elevation / depression?? Ans= St elevation 71. Dirotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which heart sound? S2 heart sound (second) 72. Structure with richest blood supply?? Carotid body 73. Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart? Right ventricle 74. Aj J point of ECG what happens?? All part of ventricles are depolarized. 75. Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is ??? Free fatty acids 76. Myocardial infarction that damages the anterior interventricular septum and the apex .. Which artery is occluded? Left anterior decending artery 77. Which parameter does the viscosity depends upon?? Hematocrit 78. During physical examination what diagnostic sign might be observed in the neck of a patient with right heart failure? Elevated jugular venous pressure 79. What is meant by pulses parvus tardus? Pulses are weak, and the strongest part of the
peripheral pulse occurs late after the S1 is heard; this is because it takes a long time for blood to cross the stenotic aortic valve to fill the vessels. 80. Which murmur is often cause by age related calcification? Aortic stenosis 81. What are the most dangerous sequelae or torsa de pointes? Ventricular fibrillation and death 82. Patient with wolf parkinson white syndrome have higher risk of which type of arrhythmia? Supra ventricular tachycardia 83. An ECG shows no identifiable waves. What is the most likely diagnosis? Ventricular fibrillation 84. How does neonates with tricuspid atresia remain viable given with severely compromised circulation? Both ASD and VSD required 85. Six days after having myocardial infarction a patient presents with a new onset murmur , which type of murmur is this most likely? Holo systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation 86. Quinine causes symptoms of headache and tinnitus , which collectively called ? Cinchonism 87. Adverse effect of diazoxide? Hyperglycemia secondary to insulin release 88. Name the potentially fatal adverse effect of ibutilide? Torsades de pointes 89. Which ion is infused to treat torsades de pointed and digoxin toxicity? Magnesium 90. Name three toxocities of antiarrhythmatic drug adenosine? Flushing, hypotension and chest pain =-=-
FIRST AID RESPIRATORY SYSTEM 1. Respiratory zone consists of?? 2. Mucus secretion are swept out of lungs toward mouth by which cells ?? 3. Pulmonary surfactant contains?? 4. Aspirated peanut at supine position reaches? 5. Aorta at T12 Other components are? 6. Phrenic nerve root value? 7.important muscle in expiration ? 8. Kallekrien activates----? 9. Surfactants deficit in which disease? 10. Vital capticity? 11. Which part of lung has largest contribution of functional dead space? 12. Compliance defined as----??? 13. Relaxed form of HB has high affinity for O2? T/F 14. CO has ------ time greater affinity than O2? 15. Methemoglobinemia can ne treated with ?? 16. Fetal dissociation curve is shifted to ? Right/ left 17. Oxygen HB dissociation curve is sigmoid due to? 18. Normal pulmonary artery pressure?? 19. Cyanosis result when deoxyhaemoglobin HB reaches ??? 20. V/Q=0 what does it means?? 21. CO2 is transported in forms??? Name them 22. Bohr effect seen in ?? Lungs / peripheral tissues ? 23. Chronic hypoxia pulmonary vasoconstriction results in ??? 25. Pulmonary embolism symptoms??
26. Amniotic fluid emboli can lead to? 27. Virchow's triad?? 28. Barrel shape chest seen in? 29. Test for asthma?? 30. Bilateral hilar lymphedanoparhy and non caseating granuloma? Disease ? 31. Which effects lower lobes?? Coal miner/ asbestosis/ silicosis? 32 In neonatal respiratory distress syndrome therapeutic supplemental O2 can result in ?? 33.NRDS Persistent Low O2 tension----> risk of??? 34. Crushmann,s spiral seen in? 35. Asbestosis associated with ?? 36. Surfactant is made by -----cells??? And mostly abundant after -------- week of gestation?? 37. Treatment of sleep apnea??? 38. Dull percussion note? 39. Coin lesion on X-ray film?? 40... Lung carcinoma associated with smoking? 41. Spontaneous pneumothorax -- tracheal deviation which side?? 42. Carcinoid tumors secretes? 43. Salt and pepper histological feature seen In ? 44. Horner syndrome?? 45. Most common cause of lung abcess? 46. Farmer disease shows which type of hyperactivity reaction? 47. Facial plethora seen in?? 48. In pneumothorax ?? Inc tactile fremitus/ dec tactile fremitus 49. Spontaneous pneumothorax most commonly occurs because of ??? 50. Name 1st generation H1blockers? 51. Theophylline causes bronchodilators by?? 52. Mast cell stabilizers? 53. Drug of pulmonary hypertension? 54. Dextromethorphan act on which receptors ? 55. Name the transcription factor that induces production of TNF-alpha? 56. Lymphatic pleural effusion also called? 57. Psamomma bodies seen in which lung disease? 58. Most aggressive lung carcinoma? 59. Sleep apnea breathing stops for how much time? 60. Risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?? 61.egg cell calcification of hilar lymph nodes? 62. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy os associated with achi clung carcinoma? 63. Drugs causing restrictive lung disease? 64. What sign is present in DVT? And how we check it? 65. Primary pulmonary hypertension is due to inactivation of which gene? 66. 1gm HB binds with =? 67. Functional residual capacity?? 68. Pain from the diaphragm can be referred to ?? 69. In perfusion limited .. Diffusion can be increased only if -------- increases??? 70. Majority of blood CO2 is carried as ----- in plasma?
KEYS 1. Respiratory zone consists of?? respiratory bronchioles,alveolar ducts and alveoli.. 2. Mucus secretion are swept out of lungs toward mouth by which cells ?? Ciliates columnar cells 3. Pulmonary surfactant contains?? dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine 4. Aspirated peanut at supine position reaches? Sup portion of right inf lobe 5. Aorta at T12 Other components are? Thoracic duct and Azygous vein 6. Phrenic nerve root value? C345 7.important muscle in expiration ? Rectus abdominus 8. Kallekrien activates----? Bradykinin 9. Surfactants deficit in which disease? Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome 10. Vital capticity? TV +IRV +ERV 11. Which part of lung has largest contribution of functional dead space? Apex of healthy lung 12. Compliance defined as----??? change in lung volume in given change in pressure 13. Relaxed form of HB has high affinity for O2? T 14. CO has ------ time greater affinity than O2? 200 15. Methemoglobinemia can ne treated with ?? methylene blue 16. Fetal dissociation curve is shifted to ? left 17. Oxygen HB dissociation curve is sigmoid due to? Positive cooperatively 18. Normal pulmonary artery pressure?? 10-14 mmHg 19. Cyanosis result when deoxyhaemoglobin HB reaches ??? >5 mHg 20. V/Q=0 what does it means?? Airway obstruction ( shunt) 21. CO2 is transported in forms??? Name them bicarbonate, carbaminohemoglobin, dissolved 22. Bohr effect seen in ?? peripheral tissues 23. Chronic hypoxia pulmonary vasoconstriction results in ??? RVH 25. Pulmonary embolism symptoms?? Chest pain, tachypnea and dyspnea 26. Amniotic fluid emboli can lead to? DIC 27. Virchow's triad?? Hypercoagubility , stasis and endothelial injury 28. Barrel shape chest seen in? Emphysema 29. Test for asthma?? Metha choline challenge 30. Bilateral hilar lymphedanoparhy and non caseating granuloma? Disease ? Sarcoidosis 31. Which effects lower lobes?? asbestosis 32 In neonatal respiratory distress syndrome therapeutic supplemental O2 can result in ?? Retinopathy of prematurity 33.NRDS Persistent Low O2 tension----> risk of??? PDA 34. Crushmann,s spiral seen in? Asthma 35. Asbestosis associated with ?? Bronchogenic carcinoma and pleural mesothelioma 36. Surfactant is made by -----cells??? And mostly abundant after -------- week of gestation?? Type II Pneumocytes and 35th week of gestation 37. Treatment of sleep apnea??? Weight loss, CPAP, surgery 38. Dull percussion note? Pleural effusion 39. Coin lesion on X-ray film?? Lung Cancer 40... Lung carcinoma associated with smoking? Squamous cell carcinoma 41. Spontaneous pneumothorax -- tracheal deviation which side?? Towards side of lesion 42. Carcinoid tumors secretes? Serotonin 43. Salt and pepper histological feature seen In ? Small cell lung carcinoma
44. Horner syndrome?? Ptosis , miosis and anhydrosis 45. Most common cause of lung abcess? Staph aureus 46. Farmer disease shows which type of hyperactivity reaction? Mixed type II/III 47. Facial plethora seen in?? SVC obstruction 48. In pneumothorax ?? dec tactile fremitus 49. Spontaneous pneumothorax most commonly occurs because of ??? Rupture of apical bleb 50. Name 1st generation H1blockers? Diphenhydramine , dimenhydrinate , chlorpheniramine 51. Theophylline causes bronchodilators by?? Inhibits phosphodiesterse 52. Mast cell stabilizers? Cromolyn 53. Drug of pulmonary hypertension? Bonestan 54. Dextromethorphan act on which receptors ? NMDA glutaminergic receptors 55. Name the transcription factor that induces production of TNF-alpha? NF-kB 56. Lymphatic pleural effusion also called? Chylothorax 57. Psamomma bodies seen in which lung disease? Mesothelioma 58. Most aggressive lung carcinoma? Small cell lung carcinoma 59. Sleep apnea breathing stops for how much time? 10 secs 60. Risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?? Prematurity, maternal diabetes, cesarean section 61.egg cell calcification of hilar lymph nodes? Silicosis 62. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy os associated with achi clung carcinoma? Adenocarcinoma of lung 63. Drugs causing restrictive lung disease? Busulfan, bleomycin and amaidarone . 64. What sign is present in DVT? And how we check it? Homan sign, dosriflexion of foot 65. Primary pulmonary hypertension is due to inactivation of which gene? BMPR2 gene 66. 1gm HB binds with = 1.34 ml O2 67. Functional residual capacity?? RV+ERV 68. Pain from the diaphragm can be referred to ?? Shoulder 69. In perfusion limited .. Diffusion can be increased only if -------- increases??? Blood flow 70. Majority of blood CO2 is carried as ----- in plasma? Bicarbonate =-=-=
FIRST AID RENAL TEST 1. Normal GFR?? 2. Renal plasma flow best estimated with? 3. Clearance =? 4. Hartnup disease deficiency due to ----- and result in -----? 5. Maximum reabsorption. Is seen in which part of nephron?? 6. Name the channel on thick ascending loop of henle??? 7. Transient action of angiotensin II? 8. Aldosterone primarily regulate ?? Volume / osmolarity?? 9. Macula densa is the part of which tubule? 10. Potent stimulus for erythropoietin? 11. Renin is secreted by??? B1 effect / b2 effect / a1 effect a2 effect ?? 12. Parathyroid hormone secreted in response to??? Tell 3 points... 13. ANP is secreted in reposne to??? Inc ventricular pressure/ inc atrial pressure?
14. Insulin causes ? Hypokalemia / hyperkalemia? 15. Digitalis block which enzyme?? 16. U wave on ECG??? 17. Low level of magnesium causes ??? 18. For every 1 mEq/L Hco3 how much PCO2 increases??? 19. Which type of Renal tubular acidosis associated with calcium containing kidney stone ?? 1/2/3/4?? 20. Muddy brown cast??? 21. Most common glomerolunephritis globally?? 22. Alport syndrome --- mutation in which collagen??? 23. Wagener granulomatous associated with??? C anca / p anca ?? 24. Apple green birefringes seen in??? 25. Most common glomerular disease in HIV ? 26. Most common glummerular disease in children ?? 27. Composition of staghorn calculus ??? 28. Ethylene glycol(antifreeze) or vit c abuse causes which crystal??? 29. Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion feature of??? 30. Radiolucent stone?? Cystine/ calcium/ uric acid??? 31. RCC associated with which syndrome??? And tell defect of chromosome number ?? 32. Secondary polycythemia??? RCC / wilms tumor/ transitional cell carcinoma ?? 33. Painless hematuria??? Urethral cancer/ bladder cancer / Renal cancer ??? 34. Most common renal malignancy in early childhood ??? 35. Thyroidization of kidney involve which cast ?? Neutrophilic / esoniphilic / plasma cells ?? 36. Diffuse cortical necrosis associated with ??? 34. Most common cause of acute renal failure ??? 35. ADPKD ? Autosomal recessive / autosomal dominant ??? 36. Tram track appearance seen in??? 37. Erythropoietin is formed by which part of kidney??? 38. Name diuretic causes gout?? 39. Diuretic drug of choice for hypercalciuria?? Loop / hydrochlorthoazide?? 40. Most common intracellular buffer? Haemoglobin/ protien/ bicarbonate /phosphate??? 41. Which has highest protein content?? Plasma/HB/plasma protien/PO4??? 42. Which of the following has highest clearance? Inulin/PAH/glucose/Na?? 43. Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 in? Lung capillary endothelium/ kidney / liver?? 44. Which is absorbed passively from the renal tubules ? NH3/Cl/glucose ?? 45. 65% Na absorption is in ?? 46. Thirst is dec by? ADH/alcohol/angII?? 47. Aldosterone escape caused by?? Renin/aldosterone/ANP?? 48. Normal filtration fraction? 20% / 50% / 30%?? 49. Charge barrier is lost in? Nephrotic / nephritic?? 50. Ureter passes -----the uterine artery? Above/ under ??? 51. Extra cellular volume is measured by? 52. Glomerular filtration barrier composed of ? 53. Clearance>GFR shows?? 54. Renal plasma flow best estimates with? 55. Important clinical clue to diabetes mellitus?
56. PTH increases ca reabsorption by which transporter? 57. Which part of nephron completely impermeable to water? 58. 80 percent of Na is reabsorbed in ?? 59. NSAIDS can cause acute renal failure by inhibiting the renal production of ??? 60. JG cells secretes renin in response to? 61. Peaked T waves are seen in ?? 62. Tetany is caused by? 63. Name causes of normal anion gap? 64. Which Renal tubular acidosis is hyperkalemic?? 65. Waxy casts in urine is due to?? 66. Good pasture syndrome is which type type of hypersensitivity disease? 67. Spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits? 68. Hexagonal kidney stone is seen in ? 69. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to deletion in chromosome number? 70. Acute pyelonephritis affects which part of the kidney? 71. Why is the left kidney harvested for transplantation rather than the right? 72. What are the effects of prostaglandins on the glomerulus ? 73. How and where amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron? 74. What substance is secreted in early proximal tubule that acts as a buffer? 75. Which three ions indirectly reabsorbed in thick ascending loop of henle ? 76. On which segment of nephron does aldosterone act? 77. What is the site of action of angiotensin converting enzyme ? 78. Which cells produce renin in the kidney? 79. What is the primary electrolyte disturbance in metabolic acidosis. 80. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of death of which systemic disease? 81. Name four clinical finding associated with nephritic syndrome? 82. Kidney stones are most commonly composed of what element? 83. Name the four components of WAGR complex? 84. What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide? 85. Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis for patient allergens to sulfa drugs? 86. What are the effects of hydrochlorthoazide toxicity? 87. Mechanism of action of loop diuretic ? 88. Mechanism of action of angiodema caused by ACE inhibitors? 89. Name four clinical finding associated with nephrotic syndrome? 90. Name 3 causes of acute tubular necrosis? KEYS 1.Normal GFR??100 ml/min 2. Renal plasma flow best estimated with? PAH 3. Clearance =? UV/P 4. Hartnup disease deficiency due to ----- and result in -----? Tryptophan and results in pallegra 5. Maximum reabsorption. Is seen in which part of nephron?? Proximal tubule 6. Name the channel on thick ascending loop of henle??? NaKCl 7. Transient action of angiotensin II? Vasoconstriction 8. Aldosterone primarily regulate ?? Volume / osmolarity?? Ans= Volume
9. Macula densa is the part of which tubule? Distal convoluted tubule 10. Potent stimulus for erythropoietin? Hypoxia 11. Renin is secreted by??? B1 effect / b2 effect / a1 effect a2 effect ?? Ans= b1 12. Parathyroid hormone secreted in response to??? Tell 3 points... Dec plasma ca, inc plasma po4, dec 1,25(0H) 13. ANP is secreted in reposne to??? Inc ventricular pressure/ inc atrial pressure? Ans= inc atrial pressure 14. Insulin causes ? Hypokalemia / hyperkalemia? Ans= hypokalemia 15. Digitalis block which enzyme?? Na/K ATPase pump 16. U wave on ECG???hypokalemka 17. Low level of magnesium causes ??? Neuromuscular irritability and arrhythmias 18. For every 1 mEq/L Hco3 how much PCO2 increases??? 0.7mmHg 19. Which type of Renal tubular acidosis associated with calcium containing kidney stone ?? 1/2/3/4?? Ans= 1 20. Muddy brown cast??? acute tubular necrosis 21. Most common glomerolunephritis globally?? Berger disease (IgA nephropathy) 22. Alport syndrome --- mutation in which collagen??? Type 4 collagen 23. Wagener granulomatous associated with??? C anca / p anca ?? Ans= C anca 24. Apple green birefringes seen in??? Amyloidosis 25. Most common glomerular disease in HIV ? Focal segmental glomerulonephritis 26. Most common glummerular disease in children ?? Minimal change nephropathy 27. Composition of staghorn calculus ??? Ammonium magnesium phosphate 28. Ethylene glycol(antifreeze) or vit c abuse causes which crystal??? Oxalate 29. Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion feature of??? Diabetec glomerolunephritis 30. Radiolucent stone?? Cystine/ calcium/ uric acid??? Ans= uric acid 31. RCC associated with which syndrome??? And tell defect of chromosome number ?? VON HIPPLE LINDAU... Chromosome 3 32. Secondary polycythemia??? RCC / wilms tumor/ transitional cell carcinoma ?? Ans= RCC 33. Painless hematuria??? Urethral cancer/ bladder cancer / Renal cancer ??? Ans= bladder carcinoma 34. Most common renal malignancy in early childhood ??? Wilms tumor 35. Thyroidization of kidney involve which cast ?? Neutrophilic / esoniphilic / plasma cells ?? Ans=eosinophilic 36. Diffuse cortical necrosis associated with ??? Obstetric catastrophes and septic shock 34. Most common cause of acute renal failure ??? Acute tubular necrosis 35. ADPKD ? Autosomal recessive / autosomal dominant ??? Ans= Aut dominant 36. Tram track appearance seen in??? Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis 37. Erythropoietin is formed by which part of kidney??? Peritubular capillaries 38. Name diuretic causes gout?? Loop diuretics 39. Diuretic drug of choice for hypercalciuria?? Loop / hydrochlorthoazide?? Hydrochlorthoazide 40. Most common intracellular buffer? Haemoglobin/ protien/ bicarbonate /phosphate??? Ans= Protein 41. Which has highest protein content?? Plasma/HB/plasma protien/PO4??? Ans= Plasma 42. Which of the following has highest clearance? Inulin/PAH/glucose/Na?? Ans= PAH 43. Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 in? Lung capillary endothelium/ kidney / liver??
Ans= lung capillary 44. Which is absorbed passively from the renal tubules ? NH3/Cl/glucose ?? Ans= Cl 45. 65% Na absorption is in ?? Proximal tubule 46. Thirst is dec by? ADH/alcohol/agII?? Ans= ADH 47. Aldosterone escape caused by?? Renin/aldosterone/ANP?? Ans= ANP 48. Normal filtration fraction? 20% / 50% / 30%?? Ans= 20% 49. Charge barrier is lost in? Nephrotic / nephritic?? Ans= nephrotic 50. Ureter passes -----the uterine artery? Above/ under ??? Ans= under 51. Extra cellular volume is measured by? Inulin 52. Glomerular filtration barrier composed of ? 1. Fenestrated capillary endothelium 2. Fused basement membrane with heparin sulphate 3. Epithelial layer insisting of podocty 53. Clearance>GFR shows?? Net tubular secretion 54. Renal plasma flow best estimates with? PAH 55. Important clinical clue to diabetes mellitus? Glycousuria 56. PTH increases ca reabsorption by which transporter? Ca/Na exchanger 57. Which part of nephron completely impermeable to water? Thick ascending loop of henle 58. 80 percent of Na is reabsorbed in ?? Early proximal tubule 59. NSAIDS can cause acute renal failure by inhibiting the renal production of ??? Prostaglandins 60. JG cells secretes renin in response to? Dec renal pressure, dec Na delivery and inc sympathetic tone(b1) 61. Peaked T waves are seen in ?? Hyperkalemia 62. Tetany is caused by? Hypocalcemia 63. Name causes of normal anion gap? Diarrhea, glue sniffing , RTA 64. Which Renal tubular acidosis is hyperkalemic?? Type 4 RTA 65. Waxy casts in urine is due to?? Advanced renal disease/ CRF 66. Good pasture syndrome is which type type of hypersensitivity disease? Type II 67. Spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits? Membranous glumerulonephritis 68. Hexagonal kidney stone is seen in ? Cystiene 69. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to deletion in chromosome number? 3 70. Acute pyelonephritis affects which part of the kidney? Cortex sparing glomeruli 71. Why is the left kidney harvested for transplantation rather than the right? Because left kidney hai longer renal vein 72. What are the effects of prostaglandins on the glomerulus ? Dialates the afferent arterioles and inc GFR 73. How and where amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron? Amino acids are reabsorbed at level of proximal convoluted tubule by sodium dependent transporters 74. What substance is secreted in early proximal tubule that acts as a buffer? Ammonia 75. Which three ions indirectly reabsorbed in thick ascending loop of henle ? Na K and Cl 76. On which segment of nephron does aldosterone act? Collecting tubule 77. What is the site of action of angiotensin converting enzyme ? Lungs 78. Which cells produce renin in the kidney? Juxtaglomerular cells 79. What is the primary electrolyte disturbance in metabolic acidosis. Serum bicarbonate 80. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of death of which systemic disease? SLE 81. Name four clinical finding associated with nephritic syndrome? Azotemia, oliguria ,
hypertension and proteinuria .5g/day 82. Kidney stones are most commonly composed of what element? Calcium 83. Name the four components of WAGR complex? Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary malformation and mental motor Retardation 84. What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide? Carbonic anhydride inhibitor 85. Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis for patient allergens to sulfa drugs? Ethacrinic acid 86. What are the effects of hydrochlorthoazide toxicity? Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hyperurecemia, Dhypercalcemia 87. Mechanism of action of loop diuretic ? NaKCl transporter inhibitor 88. Mechanism of action of angiodema caused by ACE inhibitors? It prevents inactivation of bradykinin which is potent vasodilator that's leads to angiodema 89. Name four clinical finding associated with nephrotic syndrome? Massive proteinuria >3.5g/day, edema , fatty casts and hyperlipidemia 90. Name 3 causes of acute tubular necrosis? Renal ischemia , crush injuries and toxins
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MUSKULOSKELETAL FIRST AID TEST 1. Autoantibodies against hemodesmosome caused which disease? 2. Pudendal nerve block ?? Site 3. Unhappy triad? 4. Rotator cuff muscles?? 5. Fall on outstretched hand may cause fracture of ?? 6. Wrist drop is caused by injury of? 7. Root value injury of Erb Duchenne palsy?? 8. Popes blessing sign Is seen in? 9. Winged scApula?? Muscle and nerve? 10. Fibula neck fracture ?? Nerve involved 11. Fast twitch white fibres and dec mitochondria ... Which type of muscle ? 12. Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by which cells ? 13. Person can't jump climd stairs or can't rise from seated position?? Nerve involved? 14. Bone formed directly without cartilage? 15. Advanced paternal age related disease? 16. Erlenmeyer flask bone on X ray? 17. Normal ca , phosphorus and PTH and inc ALP? Disease 18. Vertebral crush fractures usually seen in ???? 19. Double bubble appearance in ??? 20. Onion skin appearance in bone ?? 21. Bouchard nodes involve which phalanges? 22. Rheumatoid arthritis ? Type of reaction? 23. Baker cysts? Which side of knee? 24. Sjogren syndrome associated with which type of lymphoma? 25. Crystals in Gout? 26. Chromosomal translocation in Ewing sarcoma?
27. Infectious arthritis ?? Pathogens 28. Reiter syndrome ?? Triad? 29. Sle causes which type of endocarditis? 30. Non caseating granuloma with elevated serum ACE levels ? Disease 31. Pencil in cup deformaty on x ray ? Which disease ? 32. Drug induced lupus?? Antibodies? 33. Schaumman and asteroid bodies??? 34. Giant cell arteritis associated with ? 35. Fibromyalgia seen in women of ?? Age range 36. Mechanic hands seen in? 37. Antibodies seen in poly myositis ? 38. Most common neuromuscular junction disorder? 39. Crest syndrome involves? 40. NMJ disorder associated with small lung cancer?? Name disorder 41. Auspitz sign seen in? 42. Allergic contact dermatitis ??? 43. Mask of pregnancy??? 44. Honey colored crusting ??? Disease? 45. In scalded skin syndrome exotoxins destroyes which stratum ?? 46. In pemphigous vulgaris IGg formed against ? 47. In Acanthosis nigricans there is hyperplasia of ??? 48. Lichen planus associated with which hep ? 49. Keratin pearls is seen in ??? 50. What is precursor of melanoma? 51. Febuxostat inhibits??? 52. Antidote of acetaminophen ? 53. PGI2 function? 54. Classic triad of sjogren syndrome? 55. Pope blessing seen in which nerve injury? 56. Eccrine gland secretes? 56. HLA-D4 associated disease ? 57. Pseudo gout crystal ? 58. Inflammatory bowel disease? 59. Treatment of sarcoidosis? 60. Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma? 61. C7 root is usually compressed by? 62. Name the nerve passes in Guyon canal? 63. How many tendons passed in carpel tunnel? 64. Saturday night palsy is caused by which nerve injury? 65. Sign in axillary nerve injury? 66. Which bone is called funny bone? 67. Klumpke's palsy is usually caused by? 68. Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve and what is its root value? 69. Name thenar muscle? 70. Sensory deficit in tibial nerve injury is seen in which part of lower limb? 71. Cause of injury of anterior hip dislocation?
72. What is the source of osteoblast ? 73. Vit D deficiency in childhood causes ? 74. MacCune-Albright syndrome is a form of which disease? 75. Sunburst pattern on X-ray is seen in ?? 76. Heberden's nodes involves which phalanges ? 77. Crystals in pseudo gout ?? 78. Infarction of bone and marrow is called? 79. Fibromyalgia patients must have how many tender points? 80. Hyper keratosis is due to increase thickness of which skin layer? Keys 1. Autoantibodies against hemodesmosome caused which disease? Bullous pemphigoid 2. Pudendal nerve block ?? Site?Ischial spine 3. Unhappy triad? Medial colateral ligament , anterior colateral ligament and lateral meniscus 4. Rotator cuff muscles??Supraspinatous, infraspinatous, Teres minor, subscapularis 5. Fall on outstretched hand may cause fracture of ?? scaphoid 6. Wrist drop is caused by injury of? radial 7. Root value injury of Erb Duchenne palsy?? C5-C6 8. Popes blessing sign Is seen in? ulnar 9. Winged scApula?? Muscle and nerve? Serratous anterior- long thoracic nerve 10. Fibula neck fracture ?? Nerve involved?? Common peroneal nerve 11. Fast twitch white fibres and dec mitochondria ... Which type of muscle ? Type 2 muscle 12. Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by which cells? Chondrocytes 13. Person can't jump climd stairs or can't rise from seated position?? Nerve involved? Inf gluteal nerve (L5-S2) 14. Bone formed directly without cartilage? Woven bone 15. Advanced paternal age related disease? Achondroplasia 16. Erlenmeyer flask bone on X ray? osteopetrosis 17. Normal ca , phosphorus and PTH and inc ALP? Disease?? Disease Paget's disease 18. Vertebral crush fractures usually seen in ???? Osteoporosis 19. Double bubble appearance in ???osteosarcoma (giant cell tumor 20. Onion skin appearance in bone ?? Ewing sarcoma 21. Bouchard nodes involve which phalanges? PIP 22. Rheumatoid arthritis ? Type of reaction? type III 23. Baker cysts? Which side of knee? Behind the knee 24. Sjogren syndrome associated with which type of lymphoma? B Cell lymphoma 25. Crystals in Gout? Mono sodium urate crystals 26. Chromosomal translocation in Ewing sarcoma? 11;22 27. Infectious arthritis ?? Pathogens? s. Aureus , streptococcus , nisserria gonorrhea 28. Reiter syndrome ?? Triad? Conjunctivitis , urethritis, arthritis 29. SLE causes which type of endocarditis? Libman sac endocarditis 30. Non caseating granuloma with elevated serum ACE levels ? Disease ?? Sarcoidosis 31. Pencil in cup deformaty on x ray ? Which disease ? psoriatic arthritis 32. Drug induced lupus?? Antibodies? Anti histone antibodies 33. Schaumman and asteroid bodies??? Sarcoidosis 34. Giant cell arteritis associated with ? Polymyalgica rheumatica
35. Fibromyalgia seen in women of ?? Age range?? 30-50 36. Mechanic hands seen in?? Dermatomyositis 37. Antibodies seen in poly myositis ?? Anti jo antibodies 38. Most common neuromuscular junction disorder?? Myasthenia gravis 39. Crest syndrome involves?? Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon , esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangectasia 40. NMJ disorder associated with small lung cancer?? Name disorder?? Lambart eaton syndrome 41. Auspitz sign seen in?? Psoriasis 42. Allergic contact dermatitis ??? Type IV HSR 43. Mask of pregnancy??? Melasma 44. Honey colored crusting ??? Disease?? Impetigo 45. In scalded skin syndrome exotoxins destroyes which stratum ??? Stratum granulosum 46. In pemphigous vulgaris IGg formed against ?? Desmosomes 47. In Acanthosis nigricans there is hyperplasia of ??? stratum spongiosum 48. Lichen planus associated with which hep?? Hepatitis c 49. Keratin pearls is seen in??Squamous cell carcinoma 50. What is precursor of melanoma?? dysplastic navus 51. Febuxostat inhibits??? Xanthine oxidase 52. Antidote of acetaminophen?? N - acetylecystiene 53. PGI2 function? Platelet aggregation and promote vasodilation 54. Classic triad of sjogren syndrome? Xerophthalmia, xerostomia and arthritis 55. Eccrine gland secretes? Sweat 56. HLA-D4 associated disease?? RhUmatoid arthritis 57. Pseudo gout crystal?? Calcium pyro phosphate 58. Inflammatory bowel disease??Crohn, UC 59. Treatment of sarcoidosis?? Steroids 60. Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma?? Actinic keratosis 61. C7 root is usually compressed by? Cervical disc lesion 62. Name the nerve passes in Guyon canal? Ulnar nerve 63. How many tendons passed in carpel tunnel? 9 tendons 64. Saturday night palsy is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve 65. Sign in axillary nerve injury? Flattened deltoid 66. Which bone is called funny bone? Humerus 67. Klumpke's palsy is usually caused by? Cervical rib / pancoast tumor 68. Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve and what is its root value? Long thoracic nerve and C567 69. Name thenar muscle? Opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis 70. Sensory deficit in tibial nerve injury is seen in which part of lower limb? Sole of foot 71. Cause of injury of anterior hip dislocation? Obturator nerve 72. What is the source of osteoblast ? Mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum 73. Vit D deficiency in childhood causes ? Rickets 74. MacCune-Albright syndrome is a form of which disease? Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia 75. Sunburst pattern on X-ray is seen in ?? Osteosarcoma 76. Heberden's nodes involves which phalanges ? DIP 77. Crystals in pseudo gout ?? Calcium pyro phosphate 78. Infarction of bone and marrow is called? Osteonecrosis
79. Fibromyalgia patients must have how many tender points? >11of 18 tender points 80. Hyper keratosis is due to increase thickness of which skin layer? Stratum corneum =-=-
THORAX ANATOMY 1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ?? 2. Sternum is which type of ? 3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? 4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? 5. Name false ribs???? 6. Which part is weakest part of rib? 7. The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the ?? 8. Which type of movement is there in costrocondral joints?? 9. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between??? 10. Nerve supply of diaphragm ? 11. Which structure passes through aortic opening ? 12. Most important muscle of respiration? 13. Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra? 14. Anterior intercostal veins drains into? 15. Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal space ? 16. Anterior intercostal artery terminates as? 17. Thymus is supplied by ? 18. Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower trunk of brachial plexus? 19. Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial side of arm? 20. In coronary artery disease pain refereed to medial side of arm due to? 21. Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present in which mediastinum? 22. Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra? 23. Length of trachea??? 24. Trachea divides at the level of? 25. Posteriorly trachea contains? 26. Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives? 27. Foreign body tends to enter rt bronchus becoz? 28. Visceral pleura is sensitive to? 29. Left bronchus on entering he hil divides into? 30. What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall? 31. How are lungs attached to mediastinum? 32. Name the lobes of rt lung ? 33. Functional unit of lung is ? 34. Shape of bronchi pulmonary segment? 35. Bronchial arteries are branches of? 36. All lymph nodes living hilum drains into? 37. Lung os supplied by which plexus? 38. Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by? 39. Quite expiration is which type of process? 40. Pericardium attached Anteriorly to the sternum by the ??
41. Pericardium supplied by which nerve ? 42. Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space? 43. Skeleton of heart consists of? 44. Superior vene cava has how many valves? 45. Coronary sinus open into which chamber of heart? 46. Greater part of anterior surface of heart is due to? 47. Name the cusps of tricuspid valves ? 48. Right coronary artery arises from which sinus? 49. Pulmonary valve is best heard at? 50. First heart sound is produced by? 51. The conducting system of heart is composed of which muscle? 52. Name the pacemaker of heart? 53. SA node usually supplied by? 54. AV node is located just above which cusp? 55. Right bundle branch is supplied by? 56. Only route for cardiac impulse to spread from atria to ventricle is? 57. Which is the largest branch of rt coronary artery? 58. Lt coronary artery arises from? 59. Which branch if left coronary artery supplies the right and left ventricle ? 60. Name the largest vein draining the heart? 61. Coronary sinus is continuation of?? 62. Anterior cardiac vein drain into? 63. Brachiocephalic vein is formed by? 64. Azygous vein drain into which aspect of superior vene cava? 65. Azygous vein usually formed by? 66. Ligamentum arteriosus is remains of? 67. Intercostal nodes lies at which site of ribs? 68. Brachicephalic nodes drain lymph from ?? 69. Thoracic duct begins at the abdomen as a dilated sac called? 70. Length of right lymphatic duct is ?? 71. The vagus nerves the abdomen through which opening? 72. Phrenic nerves passes in----- of root of lungs? 73. Name the only motor nerve supplying the diaphragm ? 74. The first thoracic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical ganglion is called? 75. Middle third of esophagus is supplied by?? 76. Upper end of esophagous is at level of? 77. Enlargement of which part of heart causes esophageal obstruction? 78. Esophagogastric junction is at ?? 79. The carina is part of ? 80. Tracheostomy site for 6 years old Child is between ? 81. Parietal and fibrous pericardium supplied by which nerve ? 82. Right border of the heart is mainly formed by? 83. Which vein of heart is located in posterior interventricular sulcus?
84. 1st rib articulates with which vertebra? 85. The longest fives of diaphragm arise from which costal cartilage? 86. The phrenic nerve is separated by inferior vene cava by? 87. Posterior surface of base of heart is entirely formed by? 88. SA node is which shaped? 89. Fallots tetralogy is due to unequal division of? 90. Lung contain how much bronchi pulmonary segments? 91. Body of sternum is also called ? 92. Apex of heart is formed by? 93. Most anterior structure in thoracic inlet is ? 94. J receptors are present in??? 95. Thoracic duct also called ? 96. Best guide of inter segmental planes is? 97. Sympathetic supply of heart is from ? 98. Strongest part of parietal pleura is ?? 99. Lungs are supplied by? 100. Lingula is part of which lobe? 101. Coronary arteries arises from which aorta? 102. The largest group of axillary nodes is? 103. Most common site for myocardial infarction is?? 104. Phrenic nerve is which type of nerve? 105. Which nerve segment is commonly injured ?? 106. Female has which type of respiration? 107. Left bundle branch supplied by? 108. Complete ossification of body if sternum occurs at? 109. Pleural pain referred to shoulder by which nerve segment? 110. Pretrachial fascia infections spread to? KEYS 1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ?? Sternum, the ribs , and the costal cartilage 2. Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone 3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? T4-5 4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? Body of sternum1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ?? Sternum, the ribs , and the costal cartilage 2. Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone 3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? T4-5 4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? Body of sternum 5. Name false ribs???? 8,9,10 6. Which part is weakest part of rib? Angle of rib 7. The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the ?? Abdominal musculature 8. Which type of movement is there in costrocondral joints?? No movements 9. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between??? Internal and innermost intercostal muscle 10. Nerve supply of diaphragm ? Phrenic nerve 11. Which structure passes through aortic opening ? Aorta , thoracic duct and Azygous vein 12. Most important muscle of respiration? Diaphragm
13. Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra? T8 14. Anterior intercostal veins drains into? Internal thoracic veins 15. Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal space ? 6th intercostal space 16. Anterior intercostal artery terminates as? Sup epigastric artery and musculo phrenic artery 17. Thymus is supplied by ? Mediastinal artery of anterior intercostal artery , sup thyroid and inf thyroid artery 18. Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower trunk of brachial plexus? 19. Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial side of arm? 2 intercostal nerve 20. In coronary artery disease pain refereed to medial side of arm due to? Intercostobrachial nerve 21. Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present in which mediastinum? Middle mediastinum 22. Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra?6 th cervical vertebra 23. Length of trachea??? 13cm 24. Trachea divides at the level of? T4-5 25. Posteriorly trachea contains? Esophagous and led recurrent laryngeal nerve 26. Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives? Superior lobar bronchus 27. Foreign body tends to enter rt bronchus becoz? Rt bronchus is wider and shorter 28. Visceral pleura is sensitive to? Stretch 29. Left bronchus on entering he hil divides into? Sup and infer lobar bronchus 30. What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall? Endo thoracic fascia 31. How are lungs attached to mediastinum? By their roots 32. Name the lobes of rt lung ? Upper middle and lower 33. Functional unit of lung is ? Bronco pulmonary segments 34. Shape of bronchi pulmonary segment? Pyramidal 35. Bronchial arteries are branches of? Descending thoracic aorta 36. All lymph nodes living hilum drains into? Tracheobronchial nodes 37. Lung os supplied by which plexus? Pulmonary plexus 38. Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by? Contraction and descent of the diaphragm 39. Quite expiration is which type of process? Passive process 40. Pericardium attached Anteriorly to the sternum by the ?? Sternopericardial ligaments 41. Pericardium supplied by which nerve ? Phrenic nerve 42. Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space? 5th intercostal space 43. Skeleton of heart consists of? Fibrous rings 44. Superior vene cava has how many valves? No valve 45. Coronary sinus open into which chamber of heart? Right atrium 46. Greater part of anterior surface of heart is due to? Right ventricle 47. Name the cusps of tricuspid valves ? Anterior , septal and inferior 48. Right coronary artery arises from which sinus? Anterior aortic sinus 49. Pulmonary valve is best heard at? Medial end of 2nd left intercostal space 50. First heart sound is produced by? Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve 51. The conducting system of heart is composed of which muscle? Modified cardiac muscle 52. Name the pacemaker of heart? Sinuatrial node 53. SA node usually supplied by? Rt coronary artery 54. AV node is located just above which cusp? Septal cusp of tricuspid valve
55. Right bundle branch is supplied by? Lt coronary artery 56. Only route for cardiac impulse to spread from atria to ventricle is? AV bundle 57. Which is the largest branch of rt coronary artery? Marginal branch 58. Lt coronary artery arises from? Left posterior aortic sinus of ascending aorta 59. Which branch if left coronary artery supplies the right and left ventricle ? Anterior interventricular branch 60. Name the largest vein draining the heart? Coronary sinus 61. Coronary sinus is continuation of?? Great cardiac vein 62. Anterior cardiac vein drain into? Right atrium 63. Brachiocephalic vein is formed by? Union of right subclavian and the right internal jugular vein 64. Azygous vein drain into which aspect of superior vene cava? Posterior aspect 65. Azygous vein usually formed by? Rt ascending lumbar and right sub costal vein 66. Ligamentum arteriosus is remains of? Ductus arteriosus 67. Intercostal nodes lies at which site of ribs? Head of ribs 68. Brachicephalic nodes drain lymph from ?? Thyroid and the pericardium 69. Thoracic duct begins at the abdomen as a dilated sac called? Cysterna chyli 70. Length of right lymphatic duct is ?? 0.05 inch (1.3cm) 71. The vagus nerves the abdomen through which opening? Esophageal opening 72. Phrenic nerves passes in----- of root of lungs? Front 73. Name the only motor nerve supplying the diaphragm ? Phrenic 74. The first thoracic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical ganglion is called? Stellate ganglion 75. Middle third of esophagus is supplied by?? Branches of descending thoracic aorta 76. Upper end of esophagous is at level of? C6 77. Enlargement of which part of heart causes esophageal obstruction? Left artrium 78. Esophagogastric junction is at ?? T7 79. The carina is part of ? Trachea 80. Tracheostomy site for 6 years old Child is between ? 3-4 tracheal rings 81. Parietal and fibrous pericardium supplied by which nerve ? Phrenic nerve 82. Right border of the heart is mainly formed by? Right atrium 83. Which vein of heart is located in posterior interventricular sulcus? Middle cardiac vein 84. 1st rib articulates with which vertebra? T1 85. The longest fives of diaphragm arise from which costal cartilage? 9th constable cartilage 86. The phrenic nerve is separated by inferior vene cava by? Fibrous pericardium 87. Posterior surface of base of heart is entirely formed by? Left atrium 88. SA node is which shaped? Crescent 89. Fallots tetralogy is due to unequal division of?truncus arteriosus 90. Lung contain how much bronchi pulmonary segments? 10 segments 91. Body of sternum is also called ? Gladiolus 92. Apex of heart is formed by? Left ventricle 93. Most anterior structure in thoracic inlet is ? Sternohyoid 94. J receptors are present in??? Alveolar interistitium 95. Thoracic duct also called ? Pecquet duct 96. Best guide of inter segmental planes is? Veins draining the segment
97. Sympathetic supply of heart is from ? T1-T5 98. Strongest part of parietal pleura is ?? Costal part 99. Lungs are supplied by? Bronchial arteries 100. Lingula is part of which lobe? Left upper lobe 101. Coronary arteries arises from which aorta? Ascending aorta 102. The largest group of axillary nodes is? Apical 103. Most common site for myocardial infarction is?? Lateral wall of left ventricle 104. Phrenic nerve is which type of nerve? Mixed type 105. Which nerve segment is commonly injured ?? T1 106. Female has which type of respiration? Thoracic type 107. Left bundle branch supplied by? Right coronary artery 108. Complete ossification of body if sternum occurs at? 21 years 109. Pleural pain referred to shoulder by which nerve segment? C345 110. Pretrachial fascia infections spread to? Anterior mediastinum
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FIRST AID HAEMATOLOGY 1. Professional APCs?? 2. Clock face chromatin distribution seen in? 3. CD stand for ? 4. Universal recipient ?? 5. Majority of circulating lymphocytes are?? 6. Vit K def---- dec synthesis of??? 7. Dec ESR? Causes 8. Clopidogrel and tiopidine blocks? 9. Basophils stippling seen in? 10. Oval cells are seen in? 11. In asplenia what bodies are found? 12. Iron def anemia manifests to which syndrome? 13. HBH genes --- deletion of how many genes? 14. Beta thalassemia is due to which type of mutation ? 15. Lead inhibits?? 16. Treatment of lead poisoning in kids?? 17. Inc homocysteine but normal methylmalonic acid and hypersegmented neutros ?? 18. Finding in intravascular hemolysis? 19. Pancytopenia ? Feature? 20. Cause of aplastic anemia ? 21. Hemolytic anemia following oxidative stress ? 22. PNH impaired synthesis of which gene? 23. Sickle cell anemia point mutation of which amino acid? 24. Osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia?? Agent? 25, erythroblastosis fetalis is due to which immunoglobulin?
26. Common cause of macroangiopathic anemia is ?? 27. CLL is associated with which autoimmune hemolytic anemia? 28. Treatment of sickle cell anemia? 29. Tea colored urine is seen in which condition? 30. Glanzman thrombosthenia Defect in? 31. Hemophilia defect in which coagulation pathway? 32. TTP --- deficiency of? 33. Causes of DIC? 34. Most common cause of inherited hypercoagubility? 35. Inc risk of thrombotic skin necrosis with hemorrhage following administration of warfarin ? What is the deficiency ? 36. In DIC what blood component should we give? 35. Cryoprecipitate contain??? 36. Hodgkin lymphoma has which characteristic cells ? 37. Inc WBC count with left shift and inc leukocyte alkaline phosphatase? What is this reaction? 38. Which Hodgkin lymphoma has excellent prognosis? 39. Starry sky appearance scene on which lymphoma? 40. Most malignant gammopathy??? 41. t(11;14) associated with which lymphoma ? 41. Waldenströms macroglobulinemia is associated with with which IG? 42. CLL differs from SLL in having ?? 43. Philadelphia chromosome is seen in? 44. Vitamin is given as treatment of which malignancy? 45. Name the chromosome translocation which is responsive to vitamin A ? 46. Birbeck granules seen in ? 47. Teardrop cell seen in? 48. In polycythemia Vera which type of mutation seen ? 49. Inappropriate absolute polycythemia is associated with which disease? 50. Patient on heparin what we have to follow? 52. Warfarin toxicity is corrected by? 53. Methotrexate toxicity is reversible by which drug? 54. Drug used for childhood tumors ? 55. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by? 56. Drug used in breast cancer and is an endometrial antagonist ?? 57. Name the drug used in treatment of cml? 58. Name the drug used is glioblastoma multiforme ? 59. Side effects of cisplatin and Carboplatin?? 60. Paclitaxel hyper stabilize polymerized microtubles in which phase ? 61. Thrombolytic toxicity is treated with ? 62. A patient on warfarin what will be his follow up? 63. Histocytosis expresses which CD? 64. Burkitt lymphoma is due to activation of which activation ?? And mention it's translocation? 65. Most common gammopathy? 66. Burkitt lymphoma is endemic form in Africa have which lesion? 67. Most common adult NHL? 68. Reed stern Berg cells are which CD+???
69. Constitutional signs and symptoms? Hodgkin/ non Hodgkin lymphoma 70. Defect in platelet plug formation ---- increase what parameter? 71. Treatment of hereditary Spehrocytosis ? 72. Name the tapeworm causing b12 deficiency ? 73. Chipmunk facies are seen in ?? 74. Cooleys anemia??? 75. Heinz bodies seen in? 76. Helmet cells seen in? 77. Delta granules of platelets secrete? 78. Factor VIII is produced by? 79. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of whic cell ? 80. Mast cell stabilizer ? 81. APC cells perform their function via? 82. Universal donor? 83. B blood group person what have on Rbc surface and what in plasma? 84. Master of iron regulatory hormone ? 85. Most common cause of anemia in malignancy? 86. Alcohol is toxic to which organelle ? 87. Form of glutamate for synthesis for folic acid is absorbed in jejunum ?? 88. Thymidylate synthase irreversible inhibited by ??? 89. Most common cause of vit B 12 def? 90. Most common cause of macrocytosis?? 91. Car scratch disease ? Agent 92. Smudge cells are seen in ? 93. Blood antibodies are natural antibodies synthesize in ---- after birth? 94. Burr cells seen in?? 95. Sickle cell disease is protective against which disease? 96. Job syndrome is associated with inc of which IG? 97. Dec LAP score is seen in which blood malignancy ? 98. Numerous auer rod cells are seen in ? 99. Painless lymphadenopathy occur almost in all leukemia except? 100. Hereditary spherocytosis is which type of Mendelian disorder? 101. Most sensitive blood cells to radiation exposure are? 102. Gum infiltration is seen in which leukemia? 103. Protozoa causing eosinophilia ??? 104. Free vit B12 binds to R binder which is synthesized in ? 105. Only leukemia with thromocytosis? 106. Most common cause of pyridoxine def? 107. Marker for folate or vit b12 def? 108. Aplastic crisis is due to which agent? 109. Heterophile antibodies are which Ig antibodies ? 110. Cns and testicle involvement ? Which malignancy ? 111. Common causes of death in multiple myeloma? 112. Most common cause of qualitative platelet defect? 113. Most sensitive screen for DIC? 114. Most common pathogen transmitted by transfusion ??
115. If factor IX is not available , what is next best choice ? 116. DIC is stimulated by ? 117. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at ?? 118. Bence jones proteins are derivatives from ? 119. Splenic infarction commonly occurs in ? 120. AIHA is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? 121. Iron is stored in the form of ? 122. Best indicator of iron stores is? 123. HB binds with ---- In blood? 124. t(11;22) translocation??? 125. Cell surface marks of macrophage ? KEYS 1. Dendritic cell 2. Plasma cells 3. Cluster of differentiation 4. AB 5. T cells 6. 2,7,9,10 protein c and s 7. Causes? Polycythemia , sickle cell anemia , CCF, 8. ADP Receptor 9. Thalassemia, iron def, lead poisoning , ACD 10. Megaloblastic anemia 11. Howell jolly bodies 12. Plummer Vinson syndrome 13. 3 gene deletion 14. Point mutation 15. Ferrochelatase + ALA dehydratase 16. Succimer 17. Megaloblastic due to folate deficiency 18. Dec haptoglobin, inc LDH, hemoglobinuria 19. Severe anemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia 20. Failure or destruction of myeloid stem 21. G6PD def 22. mutant PIGA gene 23. L Glutamic aid with valine 24. Salmonella paratyphi 25, IgG 26. Prosthetic heart valves 27. Cold agglutinin (IGM) 28. Hydroxy urea and BMT 29. Porphyria cutanea tarda 30. GP IIb/IIIa 31. Intrinsic pathway 32. ADAMTS 13 33. Sepsis, trauma, obstetric complication, malignancy
34. Factor V ladien disease 35. Protein c and s 36. FFP 35. Factor VIII and factor XIII 36. Reed-Sternberg cells 37. Leukemoid reaction 38. Lymphocyte predominant 39. Burkitts lymphoma 40. Multiple myeloma 41. Mantle cell lymphoma 41. IGM 42. ? inc peripheral blood lymphocytesis 43. CML 44. AML 45. t(15:17) 46. Histiocytosis X 47. Myelofibrosia 48. JAK2 mutation 49. RCC , wilms tumor 50. APTT 52. vit k and FFP 53. leucovorin 54. Dactynomycin 55. Cyclophosphamide 56. Raloxifene 57. Imatinib mesylate 58. Nitrosourase 59. Nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage 60. M PHASE 61. Aminocaproic acid 62. PT, APTT, INR 63. CD1 64. t(8;14) c myc activation 65. Monoclonal gammopathy of undermined significance 66. Jaw lesion 67. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma 68. CD15+ And CD 30+ 69. Hodgkin lymphoma 70. Bleeding time 71. Splenectomy 72. Diphylobothrium latum 73. Beta thalassemia major 74. Thalassemia major 75. G6PD 76. DIC,TTP HUS, traumatic hemolysis 77. Serotonin, ADP, Ca (SAC)
78. endothelial cell 79. Plasma cell 80. Coromonyl sodium 81. MHC II 82. O 83. Antigen on Rbc surface and A antibody in serum 84. Hepcidin 85. ? ACD 86. Mitochondria 87. Monoglutamate 88. 5 florouracil 89. Pernicious anemia 90. Alcohol access 91. -- Bartonela henslae 92. CLL 93. Payer patches 94. CRF ( dec EPO) 95. Plasmodium falciparum 96. IgE 97. CML 98. Acute premyeolitic leukoemia ----M3 99. Hairy cell leukemia . 100. Autosomal dominant 101. Lymphocyte 102. Acute monocytic leukemia 103. Dientamoeba fragilis 104. Salivary glands 105. CML 106. INH 107. Hypersegmented neutrophils 108. Parvo virus 109. IGM 110. ALL 111. Sepsis and renal failure 112. Aspirin 113. D dimer 114. CMV 115. FFP 116. Thromboplastin 117. Activator X 118. Gamma globulins 119. CML 120. Type 2 121. ferritin 122. Serum ferritin 123. Haptoglobin
124. Ewing sarcoma 125. CD14 =-=-=-=-
CNS FIRST AID 1. Astrocyte marker ? 2. Micro glia origin? 3. Free nerve endings sense?? 4. Invests single nerve fibre? 5. Norepinephrine ---location os synthesis??? 6. Circadian rhythm nucleus ?? 7. Trigeminal and gustatory pathway relay by which thalamic nucleus?? 8. Destruction of which centre causes hyperphaiga? 9. Input nerves in cerebellum? 10. Name deepest nuclei of cerebellum? Lateral to medial 11. Striatum? 12. Direct pathway has ? D1/D2 13. Cogwheel rigidity seen in? 14. Chorea is characteristic of ?? 15. Essential tremors are treated by? 16. Hemiballismus characteristic of which lesion? 17. KLüver bucy syndrome? Area of lesion and features? 18. Wernickie kosrakoff syndrome involves which thalamic nucleus? 19. Frontal eyes field lesion?? Eyes look toward / away? 20. Acute paralysis , dysarthria , Diplopia, and loss of consciousness ?? Disease and common cause? 21. Non fluent aphasia with intact comprehension? Area involved 22. ------ connects broca with wornicke areas? 23. Cerebral perfusion is normally driven by? 24. Common site of berry aneurysm with CNIII palsy? 25. Contralateral Hemiperesis , dec contralateral proprioreception and ipsilateral hypoglosal dysfunction?? Cause 26. Charcoat Bouchard microaneurysms associated with? 27. CT shows bi convex disk not crossing suture line??? What hemorrhage is this ? 28. Hemorrhage most commonly caused by systemic HTN ? 29. In ischemic brain disease ??? Irreversible damage occurs after how much time? 30. Brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction lasting fewer than 24 hours ?? 31. CSF is made by-----? And reabsorbed by -----? 32. Clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus? 33. Nerves C1-C7 exist via ??? 34. Subarachnoid space extends to? 35. 1st order neuron of spinothalamic tract are in? 36. Dorsal column decussates in ? 37. Poliomyelitis cause destruction of what part on spinal cord? 38. Floppy baby at Birth? Disease?
39. Treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ? 40. Ipsilateral UMN sign below lesion, ipsilateral loss of tactile , vibration below lesion and contralateral pain temperature loss below lesion? Disease 41. Dermatome at nipple? 42. Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked ? Name reflex 43. Inferior collilculi associated with?? 44. Pineal gland secretes? 45. Eye movement , pupillary constriction and accommodation is function of which CN? 46. Cranial nerve nuclei located in which portion of brain? 47. Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus ? Nucleus involves? 48. Foramen ovale contains which nerve?? 49. Hearing and balance controlled by which nerve? 50. Structure passing through jugular foramen ?? 51. Cavernous sinus syndrome?? Feature? 52. CNX lesion? Uvula deviates ---- from side of lesion ? 53. Bell's palsy involve which nerve? 54. 3 muscles closes jaw... Name them? 55. Epinephrine contraindicated in which glaucoma? 56. Patient problem going downstairs ?? Nerve injured? 57. Silent painless glaucoma ? 58. Right optic tract lesion causes?? 59. Alzheimer's disease most commonly associated with? 60. Parkinsonism with dementia?? 61. Charcoat classic triad of MS??? 62. Gold standard investigation for MS? 63. In GBS what step is most critical for treatment and survival? 64. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is commonly due to which deficiency? 65. Drug of choice for absence seizures? 66. Partial seizures most commonly originate due to which lobe ?? 67. Headache most commonly due to irritation of?? 68. Worst headache of my life??? 69. Port wine stains are seen in ? 70. Cafe -au- lait spots and lisch nodules seen in which disease? 71. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to defect in which chromosome? 72. Majority of childhood primary tumors are ?? Supra/ infra tentorial? 73. Fried eggs seen in which brain tumor? 74. Psamomma bodies seen in which brain Tumor?? 75. Basal ciliary bodies seen in? 76. Herniation can compress which cerebral artery?? 77. Most common cause of ring enhancing lesion? 78. Browning of iris is side effect of which drug? 79. opoid toxicity is treated with? 80. Maintenance programme for opoid addicts done by? 81.1st line drug for trigeminal neurolgia? 82. 1st line drug for eclampsia? 83. Gingival hyperplasia side effect of which epileptic drug?
84. Barbiturates facilitate GABA A action by ???? 85. Benzodiazepine toxicity treated by? 86. Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic? 87. Most common drug used for endoscopy? 88. Drug used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures? 89. Local anesthetic causing severe cardiovascular toxicity? 90. Drug used in malignant hyperthermia? 91. Parkinson disease is due to loss of ----neurons?? 92. Anti parkinson drug also used against influenza A ?? 93. Selegiline selectively inhibits ?? 94. Sumatriptan contraindicated with? 95. Haloperidol is antagonist of which receptor? 96. Cough suppressor opoid? 97. Brain tumor causing polycythemia ?? 98. Most common childhood supratentorial tumor? 99. 3rd most common primary brain tumor in adult?? 100. Butterfly glioma seen in?? 101. Muscle which opens the jaw? 102. What is the test used for CN XI injury? 103. Contralateral paralysis of lower face only?? Which type of lesion os it? 104 Nissle substance are not present in? 105. Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by which nerve ? 106. Perinaud syndrome causes paralysis of which gaze?? 107. Patellar reflex root value? 108. Fredreich ataxia has repeat disorder of which gene ? 109. Tabes dorsalis is consequence of ?? 110. In syringomyelia what is damaged ? 111. Adult spinal cord extends upto??? 112. Lateral ventricles connects with 3 ventricle through? 113. Hemorrhagic stroke is often due to ?? 114. Shaken baby cAn lead to which intracranial hemorrhage? 115. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage treated with? 116. Nucleus ambiguous effects are specific to which artery stroke? 117. Wernickie area is in which gyrus? 118. Slow writhling movements specially of fingers ??? 119. Lewy bodies composed of? 120. Neurophysis secretes ?? 121. Ach location of synthesis ? 122. Paccinian corpuscles senses 123. Glassopharyngeal nerve motor supply to which muscle ? 124. Pseudoptosis seen in whic nerve injury ? 125. Hypoglosal nerve supply all muscle of tongue except ? 126. Clarke nucleus are found in which spinal cord tract ? 127. Largest nucleus of midbrain ? 128. Excitatory transmitter in cerebellum? 129. Pupillary light reflex centre ??
130. Most common cns complication after sarcoidosis ?? 131. Nucleus interposed name of which nuclei? 132. In Wilson disease , which part of basal ganglion is suffered ? 133. Marcus gunn pupil diagnosis made by? 134. Searching movements involved which eye field ? 135. Which thalamic nuclei are involved in arousal? 136. Epithalamus consist of ? 137. Pinealocytes synthesizes ? Name 3 substance 138. Cells of betz are present in which cortex? 139. Lesion of prefrontal lobe produces which syndrome? 140. Hippocampus is characterized by how many layers ? KEYS 1. Astrocyte marker ? GFAP 2. Micro glia origin? Mesoderm 3. Free nerve endings sense?? Pain and temperature 4. Invests single nerve fibre? Endoneuroum 5. Norepinephrine ---location os synthesis??? Locus ceruleus 6. Circadian rhythm nucleus ?? Supra chiasmatic 7. Trigeminal and gustatory pathway relay by which thalamic nucleus?? VPL 8. Destruction of which centre causes hyperphaiga? Ventromedial 9. Input nerves in cerebellum? Climbing and mossy fibres 10. Name deepest nuclei of cerebellum? Lateral to medial? Dentate, emboli form, globos , festigial 11. Striatum? Putamen+ caudate 12. Direct pathway has ? D1/D2?? Ans=D1 13. Cogwheel rigidity seen in? Parkisnson disease 14. Chorea is characteristic of ?? Basala ganglia 15. Essential tremors are treated by? B- blockers 16. Hemiballismus characteristic of which lesion? Sub thalamus 17. KLüver bucy syndrome? Area of lesion and features? Amygdala------ hyperorality Hyperphaiga and hyper sexuality 18. Wernickie kosrakoff syndrome involves which thalamic nucleus? Dosro medial nucleus 19. Frontal eyes field lesion?? Eyes look toward / away? Ans= Towards lesion 20. Acute paralysis , dysarthria , Diplopia, and loss of consciousness ?? Disease and common cause? Central pontine myelenosis------ due to very rapid correction of hyponatremia 21. Non fluent aphasia with intact comprehension? Area involved? Broca area 22. ------ connects broca with wornicke areas? Arcuate fasciculus 23. Cerebral perfusion is normally driven by? PCO2 24. Common site of berry aneurysm with CNIII palsy? Posterior communicating artery 25. Contralateral Hemiperesis , dec contralateral proprioreception and ipsilateral hypoglosal dysfunction?? Cause?? Anterior spinal artery 26. Charcoat Bouchard microaneurysms associated with? Chronic HTN 27. CT shows bi convex disk not crossing suture line??? What hemorrhage is this ? Epidural hemorrhage 28. Hemorrhage most commonly caused by systemic HTN ? Intraparynchymal hemorrhage
29. In ischemic brain disease ??? Irreversible damage occurs after how much time? > 5 minutes 30. Brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction lasting fewer than 24 hours ?? Transient ischemic attack 31. CSF is made by-----? And reabsorbed by -----? Choroid plexus----- arachnoid granulation 32. Clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus? Dementia , ataxia and urinary incontience 33. Nerves C1-C7 exist via ??? Intervertebral foramina 34. Subarachnoid space extends to? Lower border of S2 35. 1st order neuron of spinothalamic tract are in? Cell body in the dorsal root ganglion 36. Dorsal column decussates in ? Medulla 37. Poliomyelitis cause destruction of what part on spinal cord? Ant horn of spinal cord 38. Floppy baby at Birth? Disease? Werding Hoffman disease 39. Treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ? Riluzole 40. Ipsilateral UMN sign below lesion, ipsilateral loss of tactile , vibration below lesion and contralateral pain temperature loss below lesion? Disease?? Brown Sequard syndrome 41. Dermatome at nipple? T4 42. Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked ? Name reflex?? Rooting reflex 43. Inferior collilculi associated with?? Auditory 44. Pineal gland secretes? Melatonin 45. Eye movement , pupillary constriction and accommodation is function of which CN? III CN 46. Cranial nerve nuclei located in which portion of brain? Tegmentum 47. Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus ? Nucleus involves? Nucleus ambiguous 48. Foramen ovale contains which nerve?? Mandibular nerve 49. Hearing and balance controlled by which nerve? VIII CN 50. Structure passing through jugular foramen ?? IX X XI Jugular vein 51. Cavernous sinus syndrome?? Feature? Ophthalmoplegia , ophthalmic and maxillary sensory loss 52. CNX lesion? Uvula deviates ---- from side of lesion ? Away 53. Bell's palsy involve which nerve? Facial nerve proper 54. 3 muscles closes jaw... Name them? Masseter , teMporalis and medial pterygoid 55. Epinephrine contraindicated in which glaucoma? Close angle glaucoma 56. Patient problem going downstairs ?? Nerve injured? CN IV 57. Silent painless glaucoma ? Open angle glaucoma 58. Right optic tract lesion causes?? Lt homononous hemianopia 59. Alzheimer's disease most commonly associated with? Down syndrome 60. Parkinsonism with dementia?? Lewy body dementia 61. Charcoat classic triad of MS??? Scanning speech , intentional termites , nystagmus 62. Gold standard investigation for MS? MRI 63. In GBS what step is most critical for treatment and survival? Respiratory support 64. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is commonly due to which deficiency? Arysulfate A def 65. Drug of choice for absence seizures? Ethosuxemide 66. Partial seizures most commonly originate due to which lobe ?? Medial temporal lobe 67. Headache most commonly due to irritation of?? Dura matter 68. Worst headache of my life??? SAH 69. Port wine stains are seen in ? Sturge weber syndrome
70. Cafe -au- lait spots and lisch nodules seen in which disease? NF1 (Von ricklenghausan disease) 71. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to defect in which chromosome? Chromosome 3 72. Majority of childhood primary tumors are ?? Supra/ infra tentorial??? Ans=Infra tentorial 73. Fried eggs seen in which brain tumor? Oligodendrocyte 74. Psamomma bodies seen in which brain Tumor?? Meningeoma 75. Basal ciliary bodies seen in?Ependymoma 76. Herniation can compress which cerebral artery?? Anterior cerebral artery 77. Most common cause of ring enhancing lesion? Mutation 78. Browning of iris is side effect of which drug? Latanoprosate 79. opoid toxicity is treated with? Naloxone/naltrexone 80. Maintenance programme for opoid addicts done by? Methadone 81.1st line drug for trigeminal neurolgia? Carbamazepine 82. 1st line drug for eclampsia? Mgso4 83. Gingival hyperplasia side effect of which epileptic drug? Phenytoin 84. Barbiturates facilitate GABA A action by ???? Inc duration of Cl channel 85. Benzodiazepine toxicity treated by? Flumazinil 86. Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic? Halothane 87. Most common drug used for endoscopy? Midazolam 88. Drug used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures? Propofol 89. Local anesthetic causing severe cardiovascular toxicity? Bupvicaine 90. Drug used in malignant hyperthermia? Dantrolene 91. Parkinson disease is due to loss of ----neurons?? Dopaminergic neuron 92. Anti parkinson drug also used against influenza A ?? Amantadine 93. Selegiline selectively inhibits ?? MAO-B 94. Sumatriptan contraindicated with? CAD/ prinzmetal angina 95. Haloperidol is antagonist of which receptor? Dopamine receptor 96. Cough suppressor opoid? Dextromethorphan 97. Brain tumor causing polycythemia ?? Hemangioastoma 98. Most common childhood supratentorial tumor? Craniophayngioma 99. 3rd most common primary brain tumor in adult?? Schwannoma 100. Butterfly glioma seen in?? Glioblastoma multiforme 101. Muscle which opens the jaw? Lateral pterygoid 102. What is the test used for CN XI injury? Syrengiomyelia 103. Contralateral paralysis of lower face only?? Which type of lesion os it? UMN lesion 104 Nissle substance are not present in? Axon 105. Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by which nerve ? IX CN 106. Perinaud syndrome causes paralysis of which gaze?? Conjugate vertical gaze 107. Patellar reflex root value? L3-L4 108. Fredreich ataxia has repeat disorder of which gene ? GAA( fraxatin gene) 109. Tabes dorsalis is consequence of ?? Tertiary syphillis 110. In syringomyelia what is damaged ? Ant white commissure of spinothalamic tract 111. Adult spinal cord extends upto??? Lower border of L2 112. Lateral ventricles connects with 3 ventricle through? Foramina monrro 113. Hemorrhagic stroke is often due to ?? HTN, anti coagulation and cancer 114. Shaken baby cAn lead to which intracranial hemorrhage? Sub dural hemorrhage
115. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage treated with? Nimodipine 116. Nucleus ambiguous effects are specific to which artery stroke? PICA 117. Wernickie area is in which gyrus? Sup temporal gyrus 118. Slow writhling movements specially of fingers ??? Atethosis 119. Lewy bodies composed of? Alpha- synnyclein 120. Neurophysis secretes ?? ADH and OXYTOCIN 121. Ach location of synthesis ? Basal nuclei of mynart 122. Paccinian corpuscles senses? Vibration and pressure 123. Glassopharyngeal nerve motor supply to which muscle ? Stylopharyngeus 124. Pseudoptosis seen in which nerve injury ? 6CN abducent 125. Hypoglosal nerve supply all muscle of tongue except ? Palatoglossus 126. Clarke nucleus are found in which spinal cord tract ? Dorsal spinocerebellar tract 127. Largest nucleus of midbrain ? Substantia nigra 128. Excitatory transmitter in cerebellum? Glutamate 129. Pupillary light reflex centre ?? Pretectal nucleus 130. Most common cns complication after sarcoidosis ?? Facial nerve paralysis 131. Nucleus interposed name of which nuclei? Globos and emboliform 132. In Wilson disease , which part of basal ganglion is suffered ? Putamen 133. Marcus gunn pupil diagnosis made by? Swinging flash light 134. Searching movements involved which eye field ? Searching --- frontal eye field Tracking ------ occipital eye field 135. Which thalamic nuclei are involved in arousal?midline/ intralaminar 136. Epithalamus consist of ? Pineal body and habenular nuclei 137. Pinealocytes synthesizes ? Name 3 substance ?Melatonin, serotonin and CCK ref kaplan( 453) 138. Cells of betz are present in which cortex? Primary motor cortex 139. Lesion of prefrontal lobe produces which syndrome? Frontol lobe syndrome 140. Hippocampus is characterized by how many layers ? 3 layers =-=-=-
FIRST AID PATHOLOGY 1. Leading cause of death due to poisoning? 2. CO poisoning inhibit which enzyme? 3. Name mitochondrial toxins ? 4. Most susceptible to hypoxia in nephron? 5. Irreversible damage to neuron occurs after ----- minutes of global hypoxia? 6. Most destructive free radicals? 7. Which vitamin is the best neutralizer of free radical? 8. Marker of intermediate filament degradation? 9. Mallory bodies are present in ? 10. Acetaminophen free radicals are formed in? 11. Wear and tear pigment? 12. Hemosedrin laden macrophages present in left sides heart failure are called? 13. What is called green bile ? 14. Disordered cell growth is calle ?
15. Examples of permanent cells? 16. Most common cause of caseous necrosis? 17. Programmed cell death is called? 18. Guardian of genome is? 19. Which is specific for pancreatitis? 20. Heterophagy is seen in which cell organelle? 21. Cerebral infarct is example of? 22. What is called red bile? 23. Extrinsic pathway in apoptosis require? 24. In lead poisoning lead deposits in? 25. Only endogenous pigment? 26. Which metaplasia occurs in brain? 27. Most susceptible zone in hypoxia of hepatocyte ? 28. Oxidase reaction produce which radicals? 29. Primary lysosomes are derived from ? 30. Lewy body seen in ? 31. Most common cause of tissues hypoxia? 32. Most common site for metastatic calcification? Kidney 33. Vitamin as an antioxidant? 34. Central organ in apoptosis? 35. Caspases are involved in which phenomenon? 36. Female had silicon breast implant which was then removed , wich cells would be numerous ? 37. Omental necrosis is of which type? 38. Superimposed infection on necrosis is called ? 39. Metaplasia of surface epithelium most commonly causes by? 40. In our country the most common cause of cell injury is ? 41. Immediate affect after injury to a vessel is ? 41. Major circulating phagocyte? 42. Most important chemical mediator of inflammation? 43. Clearance of neutrophils in acute inflammation is by? 44. Neutrophil leucocytosis is caused by? 45. The hallmark of acute inflammation is increased ? 46. Acute phase reactants mostly synthesized in? 47. Most common cause of skin abscess? 48. Hall mark of chronic inflammation? 49. Kininogen converts into bradykinin due to? 50. Prostaglandin that helps in protection of gastrointestinal mucosa is?? 51. Prostacyclin is produced by? 52. Fever in inflammation is caused by ? 53. ICAM and VCAM are responsible for ? 54. Most common cause of increases permeability? 55. Chemotaxis is a feature of ? 56. Most common cause of hyperkalemia? 57. Virchows triad? 58. Pulmonary thromboembolism originate from? 59. Best indicator of tissues hypoxia?
60. Most common cause of respiratory acidosis ? 61. Cushing triad? 62.most common manifestation of septic patient is ? 63. Most important distinguishing feature if hypo volumic and septic shock is ? 64. Last mediator of endo toxic shock ? 65. Death due to embolism after accident ? 66. Severe generalized Edema is called ? 67. Which vitamin involved in synthesis of collagen? 68. Keyloid is excess of which type of collagen? 69. Corticosteroid inc which wbc? 70. The hallmark of healing? 71. The element act as cofactor in collagen synthesis is? 72. Polyclonal gammopathy is sign of ? 73. The liver contain stem cells in? 74. Most important cells for wound contraction is? 75. Resistance to tension in main function of which collagen? 76. Liver regenerates in how many days? 77. Most common cause of impaired wound healing? 78. Cells increasing in number Is called? 79. Grading of tumor is done by? 80. Sarcoma involves which origin? 81. Down syndrome is associated with which malignancy? 82. Most common metastatic cancer to bone? 83. Barrets esophagous associated with ? 84. Bcl-2 gene associated with which tumor ? 85. Ret gene associated with which tumor? 86. Li fraumani syndrome associated with which gene? 87. Colorectal carcinoma associated with which gene? 88. TRAP is tumor marker of? 89. S-100 tumor marker of? 90. Calcitonin tumor marker of? 91. Disease associated with asbestosis? 92. Vinyl chloride associated with which disease ? 93. ACTH like peptide are secreted by which tumor? 94. Name disease associated with Psamomma bodies? 95. Most common site of metastasis ? 96. Most common cancer related death? 97. Alkylating agents associated with which malignancy? 98. Polycythemia is associated with which carcinoma? 99. CA-125 tumor marker of ? 100. HTLV-1 virus associated cancer is? 101. Rb gene associated with which 2 tumors? 102. Dysplastic navus associated with which neoplasm? 103. Cachexia is mediated by? 104. c-kit gene associated tumor is?
105. Staging of tumor is done by? 106. Malignancy of skeletal muscle is called ? 107. Term carcinoma implies which origin? 108. Tumor involving all germs layers called? 109. DPC gene associated tumor? 110. Bombesin tumor marker of? 111. Poly cystic kidney disease is which Mendelian genetic disorder? 112. Known cause of congenital anomalies are ? 113. Most common autosomal recessive disorder is ? 114. First 4 weeks of life is called which period? 115. Which disease is commonly associated with down syndrome in younger age? 116. Mitochondrial DNA disorder is associated with ------ inheritance? 117. Barr body is attached to which part of cell? 118. Most common cause of neonatal death? 119. Cataract is caused by which infection during pregnancy? 120. XXY genotype is of ?? 121. Best way to identify Turner syndrome? 122. Achondroplasia is associated with ?? 123. Pt with primary amenorrhea, webbed neck , short stature.... What is Karyotype? 124. Allele is which type of gene ? 125. Triple marker for Down syndrome are?? 126. Scanty Barr body ?? 127. Most common type of Mendelian disorder is? 128. Most common X linked disorder is ? 129. Highest caloric value is of ? 130. Beriberi is due to which vit def? 131. Most common pathogen causing congenital infection is ? 132. Vit A used in treatment of? 133. The most common source of vit k is ? 134. Name essential fatty acids? 135. Tryptophan is used in synthesis of? 136. Ionization radiation damages which part of cell? 137. Most frequent type of cancer caused by radiation? 138. Nicotine patch is in treating of?? 139. Most common drowning is ? 140. What is the most important factor determining daily energy expenditure ? 141. Most common cause of death in anorexia nervosa ? 142. First hematological sign in total body radiation? 143. Most common systemic complication of IV drug abuser? 144. Which element is use in diabetes? 145. Sepsis in burn patient is due to ? 146. Goat milk lacks in? 147. Gene which is defective in obesity? 148. Rat poisons contain which derivative? 149. Corn based diets are deficient in? 150. Which current os more dangerous?
151. What metabolite of nicotine used for screening? 152. Cofactor in conversion of dopamine to nor epinephrine? 153. Most common UV B light related cancer? 154. Vomiting in bulemia nervosa produces ----------- alkalosis? 155. What complication occurs in shaken baby syndrome? 156. Which bile acid is not reabsorbed in terminal and has role in producing colorectal cancer? 157. 1st sign of vitamin A deficiency? 158. What is least sensitive to radiation? 159. Avidin in raw eggs bind with ? 160. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is ? 161. Bergers disease is strongly associated with ? 162. Pellagra is due to ----deficiency? 163. Name far soluble vitamins? 164. Sarcoma is derived of ? 165. Non neoplastic tissue in foreign origin? 166. ----- is a neoplastic component and ------ is non neoplastic component? 167. Benign tumors are enclosed by fibrinous capsule except? 168. Sarcomas spread through ------- and carcinomas through-------commonly? 169. Glioblastoma multiforme seeds in?? 170. Most common cancer in children is ? 171. Most common type of mutation in cancer is ? 172. Most common anemia in cancer? 173. Most common pata neoplastic syndrome? 174. Carcinoma which invade tissues but dosen't metastasize? 175. Virus cause cancer because they have ?? 176. Which of the following is the most radio sensitive phase of cell cycle? 177. Most radiosensitive tumor is ? 178. Tumor involving lymph vessels is called ? 179. Slowest growing thyroid tumor? 180. Radiation usually cause cancer after -----years?? GENERAL PATHOLOGY ANSWERS 1. CO poisoning 2. Cytochrome oxidase. 3. Alcohol and salicylate 4. Proximal tubule 5. 5 min 6. Hydroxyl free radicals 7. Vit C 8. Ubiquitine 9. Alcoholic liver disease 10. Liver 11. Lipofuschin 12. Heart failure cells 13. Biliverdin 14. Dysplasia
15. Neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle cells 16. TB 17. Apoptosis 18. P53 19. Lipase 20. Lysosomes 21. Liquifactve infarct 22. Bilirubin 23. TNF 24. Proximal renal tubule 25. Melanin 26. No metaplasia occurs in brain 27. Zone 3 28. Superoxide free radicals 29. Golgi apparatus 30. Idiopathic parkinson disease 31. Ischemia 32. Kidney 33. Vit E 34. Mitochondria 35. Apoptosis 36. Plasma cells 37. Fat necrosis 38. Wet gangrene 39. Chronic irritation. 40. Ischemia 41. Vasoconstriction 41. Neutrophil 42. Histamine 43. Apoptosis 44. Catecholamines , corticosteroids and lithium 45. Vascular permeability. 46. Liver 47. Staph aureus 48. Tissue destruction 49. Hageman factor 50. PGE2 51. Endothelial cells 52. IL1 and TNF-a 53. Leukocyte adhesion 54. Inflammation 55. Acute inflammation 56. Renal failure 57. Endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow and hypercoagubility 58. Femoral vein 59. Mixed venous O2
60. Anxiety 61. Inc bp, HTN, bradycardia 62. Hypotension 63. Temperature 64. IL6 65. Fat embolism 66. Anasarca 67. Vit c 68. Type 3 69. Neutrophils 70. Granulation tissue 71. Zinc 72. Chronic inflammation 73. Canal of hering 74. Myocibroblasts 75. Type 1 collagen 76. 10-14 days 77. Infections 78. Hyperplasia 79. Degree of cellular differentiation on histological appearance 80. Mesenchymal 81. ALL 82. Breast 83. Esophageal adenocarcinoma 84. Follicular lymphoma 85. MEN IIA and IIB 86. P53 87. APC 88. Hairy cell leukemia 89. Melanoma, astrocytoma 90. Thyroid medullary carcinoma 91. Mesothelioma and Bronchogenic carcinoma 92. Angiosarcoma 93. Small cell lung carcinoma 94. Papillary ca of thorid, serous papillary cystadebocarcinoma of ovary, meningioma, malignant mesothelioma 95. Lymph nodes 96. Lung carcinoma 97. Leukemia 98. RCC 99. Ovarian carcinoma 100. Adult T cell leukemia/ lymphoma 101. Retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma 102. Malignant melanoma 103. TNF-a 104. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
105. Degree of localization/spread based on site and size 106. Rhabdomyosarcoma 107. Epithelial origin 108. Teratoma 109. Pancreatic cancer 110. Neuroblastoma, lung and gastric cancer 111. Autosomal dominant 112. Multifacrorial 113. Hemochromatosis 114. Neonatal period 115. Alzheimer's diseas 116. Maternal 117. Nuclear membrane 118. Prematurity 119. Rubella 120. Klinefelter syndrome 121. Karyotyping 122. Inc paternal age 123. XO 124. Non identical gene 125. Dec AFP, inc HCG , dec uterine estriol 126. Controversial .. I m with Turner syndrome 127. Autosomal recessive 128. fragile X syndrome 129. Fat 130. Vit B 1( thiamine) 131. CMV 132. Acne and acute premyelocytic leukemia 133. Colonic bacteria 134. Linoleic acid and linolenic acid 135. Niacin 136. DNA 137. Acute leukemia 138. Ulcerative colitis 139. Wet drowning 140. BMR 141. Ventricular arrhythmia 142. Lymphopenia 143. Hep B 144. Chromium 145. Pseudomonas aeroginosa 146. Folate and pyridoxine 147. Leptin 148. Coumarin 149. Tryptophan and niacin 150. AC current
151. Cotinine 152. Vit C 153. Basal cell carcinoma 154. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis 155. Retinal hemorrhage 156. Lithocholic acid 157. Night blindness 158. Bone 159. Biotin 160. Marjolin ulcer 161. Smoking 162. Niacin deficiency 163. ADEK 164. Connective tissue 165. Choristoma 166. Parenchyma , stroma 167. Uterine leiomyoma 168. Haematogenous ,, lymphatics 169. CSF 170. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 171. Point mutation 172. Anemia of chronic disease 173. Hypercalcemia 174. Basal cell carcinoma 175. Oncogene 176. M phase 177. Lymph node 178. Cystic hygroma 179. Papillary carcinoma 180. 5-10 years =-=-=
FIRS AID BIOCHEMISTRY 1. DNA October subunit contain which main amino acids? 2. What inactivates transcription of DNA? 3. Deamination of cytosine makes? 4. The only histone that is not on the nucleosome core? 5. Hydroxy urea inhibits? 6. Amino acids necessary for purine synthesis ? 7. Leach- Nyhan syndrome is the absence of?? 8. Change resulting in early stop codon.... Which mutation type? 9. Unwinding of DNA template at replication fork is done by enzyme name as ? 10. Mismatch repair is mutated in which disease?? 11. Non homologous end joining repair is mutated in disease? 12. Smallest RNA Is?
13. Name the stop codons? 14. ------ inhibits RNA polymerase II ? 15. Longest RNA ? Longest type 16. Name start codon? 17. Patients with lupus make antibodies to ? 18. ----- contains actual genetic information coding for protein? 19. Most abundant RNA ? 20. Rb and P53 inhibits? 21. Permanent cells remain in which phase of cell cycle? 22. Nissl bodies contain? 23. Liver hepatocytes and steroid hormone producing cells if adrenal cortex are rich in? 24. Labile cells never goes to which phase of cell cycle ? 25. The distribution centre of protein and lipids from the ER to the plasma is? 26. Long chain fatty acids are metabolized in ? 27. Retrograde to micro tubule transport is feature of which type of micro tubule? 28. In cilia microtubule arrangement is? 29. Immotike cilia due to dynein arm defect .... Syndrome? 30. Stain for connective tissue? 31. ------- inhibits NA-K pump by binding to K site? 32. Skin contain which type of collagen? 33. Type of collagen defective in osteogenesis imperfecta? 35. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine requires? 36. Cleavage of terminal regions of procollagen transforms it into insoluble? 37. Other name of brittle bone disease? Osteogenesis imperfecta 38. Late wound repair contain wich collagen? 39. Ehlar danlos syndrome is defective is which collagen? 40. Fibrillin defect is in which syndrome ? 41. Wrinkles of aging are due to .......... And .........? 42. Defective collagen in Alport syndrome? 43. Neither of 2 alleles is dominent....term?? 44. Severity of disease worsens or age of onset of disease is earlier in succeeding generation? 45. Heteroplasmy is seen in which inherited disease ? 46. Random X inactivation in females is called as ? 47. Imrinting is due to activation or deletion of genes on chromosome number? 46. Happy puppet in which syndrome? 47. Structural defect are inherited by which pattern ? 48. Ragged red fibres are characteristic of? 49. Mitochondrial myopathies are ? 50. Tendon xanthoma classically seen in ? 51. Hereditary spherocytosis are due to defect in ? 52. Huntington gene is located in which chromosome ? 53. Another name of neurofibromatosis type 1? 54. Ash leaf spots are seen in? 55. APKD is associated with which chromosome ? 56. Grower maneuver is characteristic of ? 57. Longest known human gene?
58. In cystic fibrosis which gene is defective? 59. Test diagnostic for cystic fibrosis is? 60. 2nd most common cause of mental retardation? 61. Trinucleotide repeat in Fredreich ataxia? 62. Rocker bottom feet + micrognathia are seen in which? 63. Most common chromosomal disorder ? 64. Most common trisomy resulting in live birth after Down syndrome? 65. Patau syndrome is trisomy number? 66. Cri-du-chat syndrome is congenital micro deletion of chromosome number ? 67. Distinctive ELFIN facies are seen in which syndrome? 68. Diegeorge syndrome is has defects of??? 69. Which vitamin is contraindicated in pregnancy? 70. High cardiac outOut is feature of which vit deficiency? 71. Name 3 D's of pellagra? 72. Vitamin used as cofactor on transamination? 73. Test used to detect the etiology of the deficiency? 74. Vitamin that can increase iron toxicity ? 75. Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism , dec adult hair and anosmia are features of which element deficiency? 76. Cofactor for enzymes in decarboxylation reaction? 77. Malignant carcinoid syndrome caused b deficiency of vitamin? 78. Vitamin necessary for dopamine beta-hydroxylase? 79. Fomipezole inhibits ? 80. Alcohol dehydrogenase operates via which order kinetics? 81. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces -------ATP via malate aspartate shuttle? 82. NAD+ is used in -------reactions ? 83. Phosphorylation of glucose in liver is catalyzed by? 84. Lipoic acid is inhibited by ?? 85. Name the only purely ketogenic amino acids? 86. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency causes which defects? 87. Pyruvate metabolite --------- carries amino groups to liver from muscle ? 88. ATPsynthase inhibitors that directly inhibit mitochondrial ATP synthase ??? 89. ------ chain fatty acids produce new glucose??? 90. Muscle cannot participate in gluconeogenesis because it lacks ??? 91. NADPH required for which reactions ? 92. NADPH oxidase deficiency leads to which disease ? 93. Most common human enzyme deficiency? 94. Fructose intolerance is due to hereditary deficiency of enzyme? 95. Lens deficient in which enzyme that causes sorbitol accumulation ? 96. Which form of amino acid found in protein? 97. Most basic amino acid? 98. At body pH which amino acid has no charge? 99. Which amino acids are required during periods of growth? 100. Catecholamines are derivative of which amino acid? 101. Heme derivative of which amino acid? 102.musty body odor is due to which deficiency?
103. Alkaptonuria is congenital deficiency of ? 104. Amino acids involved in maple syrup urine disease?? 105. Cardiomegaly is finding of which glycogen storage disease? 106. The enzyme deficient in Von Gierke's disease is ? 107. Most common lysosomal storage disease? 108. Cherry red spot with no Splenomegaly ? 109. All lysosomal storage disease are AR except? 110. Zebra bodies are seen in ? 111. Fruity odor smell is due to which ketone body? 112. Glycogen stores are depleted after how many days of starvation? 113. Main source of energy after 3 days starvation for brain and heart Is? 114. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is ? 115. Why Rbc cannot use ketone? 116. LDL transport cholesterol from------ to -------? 117. Cholymicrons are secreted by? 118. Abeta lipoproteinemia os due to deficiency of ??? 119. Treatment of cystineuria is ?? 120. Melatonin is derivative of which amino acid??? KEYS BIOCHEMISTRY 1. LYSINE and ARGININE 2. Hypermethylation 3. Uracil 4. H1 5. Ribonucleotide reductase 6. Glycine , aspartate and glutamine 7. HGPRT 8. Nonsense mutation 9. Helicase 10. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) 11. Ataxia talengectasia 12. tRNA 13. UGA, UAA, UAG 14. a- amantin(found in death cap mushrooms) 15. Longest type 16. AUG 17. Spliceosonal snRNPs 18. Exons 19. rRNA 20. G1-S 21. Go 22. RER 23. SER 24. Go 25. Golgi apprartus 26. Peroxisomes
27. Dyenin 28. Kartagener syndrome 30. Vimentin 31. Ouabain 32. Type 1 33. Type I 35. Vit C 36. Tropocollagen 37. Osteogenesis imperfecta 38. Type 1 39. Type III 40. Marfan syndrome 41. Reduced collagen and elastin production 42. Type IV 43. Codominance 44. Anticipation 45. Mitochondrial inherited disease 46. Lyonizatoin 47. 15 46. Angelman's syndrome 47. Autosomal dominent 48. Mitochondrial myopathy 49. Maternal / paternal 50. Achilles' tendon 51. Spectrinand ankrin 52. 4 53. Von recklinghausen's disease( chromosome 17) 54. Tuberous sclerosis 55. Ch. 16 56. Duchenne's dystrophy 57. Dystrophin gene 58. CFTR gene 59. Sweat test 60. Fragile X chromosome 61. (CAA)n 62. Edwards syndrome 63. Down syndrome 64. Edward syndrome 65. 13 66. 5 67. Williams syndrome 68. Thymic, parathyroid and cardiac 69. Vitamin A 70. Vit B1 71. Dementia , dermatitis and pellagra 72. Vit B6
73. Schilling test 74. Vit C 75. Zinc 76. Vit B1(thiamine) 77. Vitamin B3 78. Vit C 79. Alcohol dehydrogenase 80. Zero order 81. 32ATP 82. Anabolic / catabolic 83. Glucokinase 84. Arsenic 85. Lysine and leucine 86. Neurologic defects 87. Alanine 88. Oligomyicin 89. Odd 90. Glucose 6 phosphatase 91. reductive 92. Chronic granulomatous disease 93. G6PD deficiency 94. Aldolase B 95. Sorbitol dehydrogenase 96. L-form 97. ARGININE 98. Histidine 99. Arginine and histidine 100. Phenylalanine 101. Glycine 102. Dec phenylalanine hydroxylase 103. Homogenistic acid oxidase 104. Ile, Leu, Val 105. Pompe's disease 106. Glucose-6-phophatase 107. Gaucher 108. Tay Sachs disease 109. Fabrey's disease ( XR) and Hunter disease (XR) 110. Neimann-pick disease 111. Acetone 112. Day 1 113. Ketone bodies 114. HMG-CoA reductase 115. Lack of mitochondria 116. Liver - tissues 117. Intestinal epithelial cells 118. Apo-B100 and apoB-48
119. Acetazolamide 120. Tryptophan----->serotonin------> melatonin =-=-=
UPPER LIMB ANATOMY 1. Mammary gland are specialized accessory gland of?? 2. Nipples are surrounded by colored skin called? 3. Increase of breast size is mainly results due to? 4. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial artery is branch of? 5. Medial quadrant of breasts drain into ? 6. Name bones of the shoulder girdle? 7. What is the weakest part of clavicle? 8. Which part of humerus usually fractured? 9. Capitulum articulates with? 10. Most commonly fractured bone of body os ? 11. How many carpel bones are there? 12. Which nerve is compresses in carpel tunnel symdrome? 13. Medial colateral ligament is closely related with? 14. Elbow is which type of joint? 15. The carrying angle in females is? 16. Wrist is which type of joint? 17. Axilla is which shaped? 18. Latissimus dorsi is supplied by which nerve? 19. Deltoid is supplied by? 20. Name the muscles of rotator cuff? 21. Quadrangular area is bounded medially by? 22. Which nerve passes through quadrangular area?? 23. Cubital fossa medial border formed by? 24. Brachialis muscle nerve supply is? 25. Interrosi muscles are supplied by? 26. In the palm deep fascia is thickened and is called? 27. Brachioradialia muscle is supplied by which nerve? 28. Which artery begins at the level of first rib? 29. Which muscle divides tha axillary artery into 3 parts? 30. 3rd part of axillary artery gives how many branches? 31. Name the branch of first part of axillary artery? 32. Brachial artery begins at? 33. Which nerves crosses the middle of brachial artery? 34. Deep palmar arch is formed by which artery? 35. Thoracoacromial artery is branch of ??? 36. The ulnar artery enters the palm from which side of flexor retinaculum ? 37. Pectolaris major is supplied by whoch artery? 38. Basilic vein arises from which side of arm? 39. Which vein connects cephalic with basilic vein? 40. Which nodes recieve lymph from superficial vessels of lateral side of hand,arm , forearm ???
41. Which nodes recieve lymph from most of upper limb except lateral side? 42. Which lymph node recieve lymph from medial fingers, medial part of hand and the medial side of forearm?? 43. Musculocutaneous nerve arises from which cord of brachial plexus? 44. Root valcue of median nerve? 45. Root value of ulnar nerve? 46. Root value of axillary nerve? 47. Winged scapula is caused by damage of which nerve? 48. Wrist drop is caused by which nerve injury? 49. Claw hand is caused by which nerve injury? 50. The extensor indicis muscle is innervated by? 51. Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies? 52. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused hy compression of which nerve? 53. Sweat gland of upper limb are innervated by? 54. Which muscle is mainly responsible for first 15 degree of abduction by shoulder joint ? 55. Muscle that will compensate in part of paralysis of the supinator muscle is the? Keys 1. Mammary gland are specialized accessory gland of?? Skin 2. Nipples are surrounded by colored skin called? Areola 3. Increase of breast size is mainly results due to? Deposition of adipose tissue? 4. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial artery is branch of? Axillary artery 5. Medial quadrant of breasts drain into ? Internal thoracic nodes 6. Name bones of the shoulder girdle? Clavicle and scapula 7. What is the weakest part of clavicle? Junction between the medial 2/3 and lateral 1/3 8. Which part of humerus usually fractured? Surgical neck 9. Capitulum articulates with? Head of radius 10. Most commonly fractured bone of body os ? Clavicle 11. How many carpel bones are there? Eight carpel bones 12. Which nerve is compresses in carpel tunnel symdrome? Median nerve 13. Medial colateral ligament is closely related with? Ulnar nerve 14. Elbow is which type of joint? Hinge joint 15. The carrying angle in females is? 167 degree 16. Wrist is which type of joint? Synovial condyloid joint 17. Axilla is which shaped? Pyramidal 18. Latissimus dorsi is supplied by which nerve? Thoracodorsal nerve 19. Deltoid is supplied by? Axillary nerve 20. Name the muscles of rotator cuff? Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and the teres minor 21. Quadrangular area is bounded medially by? Long head of tricep 22. Which nerve passes through quadrangular area?? Axillary nerve 23. Cubital fossa medial border formed by? Pronater teres 24. Brachialis muscle nerve supply is? Musculoskeletal nerve 25. Interrosi muscles are supplied by? Ulnar nerve 26. In the palm deep fascia is thickened and is called? Palmar aponeurosis 27. Brachioradialia muscle is supplied by which nerve? Radial nerve
28. Which artery begins at the level of first rib? Axillary artery 29. Which muscle divides tha axillary artery into 3 parts? Pectoralis minor 30. 3rd part of axillary artery gives how many branches? 3 branches 31. Name the branch of first part of axillary artery? Highest thoracic artery 32. Brachial artery begins at? Lower border of teres major muscle 33. Which nerves crosses the middle of brachial artery? Median nerve 34. Deep palmar arch is formed by which artery? Radial artery 35. Thoracoacromial artery is branch of ??? Second part of axillary artery 36. The ulnar artery enters the palm from which side of flexor retinaculum ? From the front 37. Pectolaris major is supplied by whoch artery? Thoracoaromial artey 38. Basilic vein arises from which side of arm? Medial side 39. Which vein connects cephalic with basilic vein? Median cubital vein 40. Which nodes recieve lymph from superficial vessels of lateral side of hand,arm , forearm ??? Infraclavicular nodes 41. Which nodes recieve lymph from most of upper limb except lateral side? Lateral nodes 42. Which lymph node recieve lymph from medial fingers, medial part of hand and the medial side of forearm?? Supratrochlear lymph node 43. Musculocutaneous nerve arises from which cord of brachial plexus? Lateral cord 44. Root valcue of median nerve? C5,6,7,8 and T1 45. Root value of ulnar nerve? C8 T1 46. Root value of axillary nerve? C5 and C6 47. Winged scapula is caused by damage of which nerve? Long thoracic nerve 48. Wrist drop is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve injury 49. Claw hand is caused by which nerve injury? Ulnar nerve 50. The extensor indicis muscle is innervated by? Deep branch of ulnar nerve 51. Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies? Sternocleidomastoid and trapiuz muscle 52. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused hy compression of which nerve? Median nerve 53. Sweat gland of upper limb are innervated by? Sympatheic postganglionic nerve fibres 54. Which muscle is mainly responsible for first 15 degree of abduction by shoulder joint ? Supraspinatus muscle 55. Muscle that will compensate in part of paralysis of the supinator muscle is the bicep brachii muscle =-=-=
PELVIS PERINEUM ANATOMY 1. Word pelvis means?? 2. Bony pelvis is composed of how many bones? 3. Below the brim is which pelvis? True or false pelvis?? 4. Pelvic inlet bounded Posteriorly by? 5. During pregnancy the ligament of pelvis are relaxed by which hormones? 6. Pelvis is which shaped in males? 7. The distance between Ischial tuberosities measure about? 8. Anterior pelvic wall is formed by? 9. Obturator canal is a gap in? 10. Sacro spinous ligament is which shaped ?
11. Pelvic floor is formed by? 12. The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete on which side? 13. Which fascia is called parametrium in females? 14. Sacral plexus lies on posterior pelvic wall in front of which muscle? 15. Root value of sciatic nerve? 16. Gluteus medius muscle supplied by? 17. Root value of pudendal nerve? 18. Gluteus Maximus is supplied by? 19. Obturator nerve emerges from which border of psoas muscle? 20. Parietal peritonium on the lateral pelvic wall? 21. Pelvic splanchnic nerves arises from ? 22. Superior hypo gastric plexus is situated in? 23. Common iliac artery divides to external and internal at which point? 24. Deep circumflex iliac artery is branch of? 25. Upper portion of bladder is supplied by? 26. Artery to vas deferens arises from? 27. Obturator artery leaves the pelvis through? 28. Internal pudendal artery leaves the pelvis through? 29. Name the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery? 30. Direct communication of the inferior mesenteric artery is? 31. Ovarian artery arises from abdominal aorta at the level of? 32. Median sacral artery arises at? 33. External iliac vein is continuation of? 34. The left ovarian vein drains into? 35. Length of sigmoid colon is? 36. Sigmoid colon is attached to pelvic wall by? 37. Rectum begins in front of which sacrum? 38. The lower part of rectum is dialated to form ?? 39. In male ureters near termination is crossed by? 40. Ureter has how many constrictions? 41. Urinary bladder has maximum capacity of approximately? 42. Empty bladder is which shaped? 43. Apex of bladder connects with? 44. The neck of bladder point on which side? 45. Internal surface of bladder is called ? 46. The muscular coat of bladder is which muscle ? 47. In male neck of bladder Is held in position by which ligament? 48. Lymph drians from bladder in?? 49. In females neck of bladder is attached by which ligament? 50. Approximate length of vas deferens is ? 51. Vas deferens joins the duct of seminal vesicle to form? 52. Ejaculatory duct open in which part of urethra? 53. Prostate surround which part of urethra? 54. Lymph drainage of prostate is into? 55. Which plexus supplies the prostate? 56. Ovary is attached to the back of ye broad ligament by?
57. Ovary is covered by modified area of peritonium called? 58. Ovary usually lies near the lateral wall of pelvis in a depression called? 59. Which ligament of the uterus is the remains of the lower part of Gubernaculum? 60. Lymph drainage of ovary is in? 61. After pregnancy ovaries may prolapse into? 62. Which is the narrowest part of the tube? 63. Widest part of the uterine tube is? 64. The cavity of cervix communicates with the cavity of the body through the? 65. Forward bending of the uterus on the long axis of vagina? 66. Ligament that attaches the cervix to pubic bones? 67. Lymph from fundus drains into? 68. Lower third of the vagina is supported by? 69. Vaginal artery is branch of? 70. Which plexus supplied the vagina? 71. The pelvic fascia in the region of the uterine cervix is often called? 72. Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity is the? 73. The anterior triangle which contains the urogenital orifices is called? 74. The potential space that lies beneath the skin of the perinium is? 75. In males the superficial perineal pouch contains? 76. At the distal end of penis corpus spongiosum expands to form? 77. The bulb of penis is continuos Anteriorly with the? 78. The lymph of glans penis drains into? 79. Penis is supplied by which nerve? 80. Erectile tissue drains into? 81. The ducts of bulborethral glands open into which urethra? 82. Male urethra is divided in which parts? 83. Widest part of urethra is? Prostatic urethra 84. Which is the narrowest part of urethra? 85. Name the contents of vestibule of the vagina? 86. Shortest part of urethra is? 87. The cries of clitoris are covered by? 88. The length of female urethra is? 89. Upper half of the anal canal is supplied by? 90. The lower half of the anal canal is drained into ? 91. Pudendal nerve and the internal pudendal nerves lie in which canal? 92. The inferior rectal artery originates from the? 93. Then Obturator internus muscle recieved it's nerve supply from? 94. The sphincter urethrae recieved it's innervation from the? 95. The prostatic venous plexus drains into the? 96. In most women the Anatomic position of the uterus when bladder empty is? 97. Erections is the response of the activity of the? 98. Cancer of prostate can metastasize to the skull via the? 99. Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder metastasize to which of the following lymph nodes? 100. The internal Anal sphincter recieves it's nerve supply from the? 101. Right testicular vein drains into?
102. Patient feels pain on defection. Nerve involved is? 103. When the bulbar urethra is injured, urine will leak into? 104. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a boy? 105. Cervical carcinoma is drained by which lymph node? 106. Tumor of cervix will spread to labius majora via? 107. Ejaculatory duct opens into? 108. Carcinoma of prostate drains into? 109. During childbirth, a major bony landmark used for childbirth is the? 110. Female pelvis is also called? 111. What is the landmark for biscop scoring? 112. Weight bearing line passes through? 113. The branch of internal carotid artery which remains in true pelvis throughout its course is? 114. The accessory Obturator artery is a branch of? 115. To reach the uterus, uterine artery crosses the? 116. Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes? 117. Ductus deferens end in? 118. Dorsal vein of penis drains into which plexus? 119. The most fixed part of uterus is? 120. The only part of vagina to have peritoneal covering is? Keys 1. Word pelvis means?? Basin 2. Bony pelvis is composed of how many bones? 4 bones ... Two hip, sacrum and coccyx 3. Below the brim is which pelvis? True or false pelvis?? True pelvis 4. Pelvic inlet bounded Posteriorly by? Sacral promontoryy 5. During pregnancy the ligament of pelvis are relaxed by which hormones? Estrogen, progesterone and relaxin 6. Pelvis is which shaped in males? Heart shaped 7. The distance between Ischial tuberosities measure about? 4 inch 8. Anterior pelvic wall is formed by? Pubic bones , pubic rami and symphysis pubis 9. Obturator canal is a gap in? Obturator membrane 10. Sacro spinous ligament is which shaped ? Triangular 11. Pelvic floor is formed by? Pelvic diaphragm 12. The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete on which side? Anteriorly 13. Which fascia is called parametrium in females? Visceral pelvic fascia 14. Sacral plexus lies on posterior pelvic wall in front of which muscle? Piriformis muscle 15. Root value of sciatic nerve? L4-5, S123 16. Gluteus medius muscle supplied by? Superior gluteal nerve 17. Root value of pudendal nerve? S 2,3 and 4 18. Gluteus Maximus is supplied by? Inferior gluteal nerve 19. Obturator nerve emerges from which border of psoas muscle? Medial border 20. Parietal peritonium on the lateral pelvic wall? Obturator nerve 21. Pelvic splanchnic nerves arises from S2,3 and 4 22. Superior hypo gastric plexus is situated in? Front of promontory of the sacrum 23. Common iliac artery divides to external and internal at which point? In front of sacroiliac joint
24. Deep circumflex iliac artery is branch of? External iliac artery 25. Upper portion of bladder is supplied by? Superior vesical artery 26. Artery to vas deferens arises from? Inferior vesical artery 27. Obturator artery leaves the pelvis through? Obturator canal 28. Internal pudendal artery leaves the pelvis through? Greater sciatic foramen 29. Name the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery? Ilio lumber artery , lateral sacral arteries and superior gluteal artery 30. Direct communication of the inferior mesenteric artery is? Superior rectal artery 31. Ovarian artery arises from abdominal aorta at the level of? First lumbar vertebra 32. Median sacral artery arises at? Bifurcation of aorta 33. External iliac vein is continuation of? Femoral vein 34. The left ovarian vein drains into? Left renal vein 35. Length of sigmoid colon is? 10-15 inches 36. Sigmoid colon is attached to pelvic wall by? Sigmoid mesocolol 37. Rectum begins in front of which sacrum? 3rd sacral vertebra 38. The lower part of rectum is dialated to form ?? Rectal ampulla 39. In male ureters near termination is crossed by? Vas deferens 40. Ureter has how many constrictions? 3 constrictions 41. Urinary bladder has maximum capacity of approximately? 500 ml 42. Empty bladder is which shaped? Pyramidal 43. Apex of bladder connects with? Median umbilical ligament 44. The neck of bladder point on which side? Inferiorly 45. Internal surface of bladder is called ? Trigone 46. The muscular coat of bladder is which muscle ? Detrussor muscle 47. In male neck of bladder Is held in position by which ligament? Puboprostatic ligament 48. Lymph drians from bladder in?? Internal and external lymph nodes 49. In females neck of bladder is attached by which ligament? Pubovesical ligament 50. Approximate length of vas deferens is ? 45cm 51. Vas deferens joins the duct of seminal vesicle to form? Ejaculatory duct 52. Ejaculatory duct open in which part of urethra? Prostatic part 53. Prostate surround which part of urethra? Prostatic part 54. Lymph drainage of prostate is into? Internal iliac nodes 55. Which plexus supplies the prostate? Inferior hypogastric plexus 56. Ovary is attached to the back of ye broad ligament by? Mesovarium 57. Ovary is covered by modified area of peritonium called? Germinal epithelium 58. Ovary usually lies near the lateral wall of pelvis in a depression called? Ovarian fossa 59. Which ligament of the uterus is the remains of the lower part of Gubernaculum? Round ligament 60. Lymph drainage of ovary is in? Para aortic nodes 61. After pregnancy ovaries may prolapse into? Pouch of Douglas 62. Which is the narrowest part of the tube? Isthmus 63. Widest part of the uterine tube is? Ampulla 64. The cavity of cervix communicates with the cavity of the body through the? Internal os 65. Forward bending of the uterus on the long axis of vagina? Antiversion 66. Ligament that attaches the cervix to pubic bones? Pubicervical ligaments 67. Lymph from fundus drains into? Para aortic nodes
68. Lower third of the vagina is supported by? Perineal body 69. Vaginal artery is branch of? Internal iliac artery 70. Which plexus supplied the vagina? Inferior hypogastric plexus 71. The pelvic fascia in the region of the uterine cervix is often called? Parametrium 72. Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity is the? Rectouterine pouch 73. The anterior triangle which contains the urogenital orifices is called? Urogenital triangle 74. The potential space that lies beneath the skin of the perinium is? Superficial perineal pouch 75. In males the superficial perineal pouch contains? Root of penis 76. At the distal end of penis corpus spongiosum expands to form? Glans penis 77. The bulb of penis is continuos Anteriorly with the? Corpus spongiosum 78. The lymph of glans penis drains into? Deep and external iliac nodes 79. Penis is supplied by which nerve? Pudendal nerve 80. Erectile tissue drains into? Internal iliac nodes 81. The ducts of bulborethral glands open into which urethra? Penile urethra 82. Male urethra is divided in which parts? Prostatic, membranous and penile urethra 83. Widest part of urethra is? Prostatic urethra 84. Which is the narrowest part of urethra? External meatus 85. Name the contents of vestibule of the vagina? Clitoris, opening of urethra , vagina 86. Shortest part of urethra is? Membranous urethra 87. The cries of clitoris are covered by? Ischiocavornosus muscles 88. The length of female urethra is? 1.5 inche 89. Upper half of the anal canal is supplied by? Superior rectal artery 90. The lower half of the anal canal is drained into ? Medial group if superficial inguinal nodes 91. Pudendal nerve and the internal pudendal nerves lie in which canal? Pudendal canal 92. The inferior rectal artery originates from the? Internal pudendal artery 93. Then Obturator internus muscle recieved it's nerve supply from? Sacral plexus 94. The sphincter urethrae recieved it's innervation from the? Pudendal nerve 95. The prostatic venous plexus drains into the? Internal iliac veins 96. In most women the Anatomic position of the uterus when bladder empty is? Anteverted and antiflexed 97. Erections is the response of the activity of the? Parasympathetic nerve 98. Cancer of prostate can metastasize to the skull via the? Vertebral venous plexus 99. Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder metastasize to which of the following lymph nodes? External and internal iliac 100. The internal Anal sphincter recieves it's nerve supply from the? Hypogastric plexuses 101. Right testicular vein drains into? Inferior vena cava 102. Patient feels pain on defection. Nerve involved is? Inferior rectal nerve 103. When the bulbar urethra is injured, urine will leak into? Superficial perineal pouch 104. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a boy? Posterior urethral valve 105. Cervical carcinoma is drained by which lymph node? Both internal and external iliac 106. Tumor of cervix will spread to labius majora via? Round ligament of uterus 107. Ejaculatory duct opens into? Prostatic urethra 108. Carcinoma of prostate drains into? Internal iliac nodes 109. During childbirth, a major bony landmark used for childbirth is the? Ischial spine 110. Female pelvis is also called? Gynecoid 111. What is the landmark for biscop scoring? Ischial spine
112. Weight bearing line passes through? Ischial tuberosity 113. The branch of internal carotid artery which remains in true pelvis throughout its course is? Middle rectal artery 114. The accessory Obturator artery is a branch of? Inferior epigastric artery 115. To reach the uterus, uterine artery crosses the? Ureter 116. Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes? Superficial inguinal node 117. Ductus deferens end in? Ejaculatory duct 118. Dorsal vein of penis drains into which plexus? Santorini's plexus 119. The most fixed part of uterus is? Cervix 120. The only part of vagina to have peritoneal covering is? Posterior fornix =--=
HEAD AND NECK 1. The anterior fontanelle is which shaped? 2. Posterior fontanelle usually closes at which stage of life? 3. The mastoid process develops during ??? 4. Which sinuses serves as voice resonators? 5. Nasal septum is largely formed by which bone? 6. Below the orbit maxilla is perforated by? 7. Which bone forms the prominence of cheeks? 8. Most common fractures of facial fractures? 9. Frontal bone articulates with parietal bones at which suture? 10. Thinnest part of the lateral wall of skull is called? 11. What important thing lies below pterion? 12. Crebriform plate tranmits? 13. Optic canal transmits? 14. Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through? 15. Foramen ovale transmits which nerve? 16. Internal acoustic meatus transmits? 17. Which is the largest and strongest bone of face? 18. Name the foramen which is below the 2 nd molar tooth and what nerve it transmits? 19. Temporomandibular joint is which type of joint? 20. Congenital torticollis is caused by damaging of which muscle during labour? 21. Platysma muscle is supplied by which nerve? 22. Geniohyoid muscle is supplied by which nerve? 23. Which muscle divides the neck to anterio and posterior triangles? 24. Muscle of scalp and face derived from which pharyngeal arch? 25. Scalp contain how many layers ??? 26. Muscle of facial expression are supplied by? 27. Right carotid artery arises from? 28. In bells palsy which nerve is damaged? 29. Comon carotid artery divides at the upper border of ? 30. Carotid sinus is supplied by which nerve? 31. Behind the neck of mandible carotid artery divides into? 32. Lingual artery is branch of which artery?
33. Lingual artery is crossed superficially by whichb nerve? 34. Occipital artery supplies???? 35. Middle meningeal artery is branch of ? 36. The haemorrhage caused by middle meningeal artery is which type? 37. Internal carotid arteries terminates as ? 38. The only blood supply to retina is ? 39. The middle cerebral artery supplied all the motor area of cortex except? 40. Circle of willis lies in which space? 41. At the outer border of first rib subclavian artery continues as? 42. Which artery divides subclavian artery into 3 parts? 43. Name the branches of first part of subclavian artery? 44. Both vertebral arteries joins to form ? 45. Which nerve is closely related with sup thyroid artery?? 46. Which artery is closely related with inf thyroid artery? 47. Inferior parathyroid gland supplied by which artery? 48. Name the branches of third part of subclavian artery? 49. Straight sinus is formed by the union of ? 50. Right transverse sinus is the continuation Of the? 51. Internal jugular vein is continuation by which sinus? 52. Which cranial nerve travels centrally through cavernous sinus? 53. Name the valveless vein that passes through the skull bones? 54. Facial vein is formed by union of ? 55. Retromandibular vein is formed by union of? 56. Maxillary vein is formed from which plexus? 57. External jugular vein formed by union of? 58. Internal jugular vein is closely related with which lymph nodes? 59. Lymph drainage form the tip of the tongue is by? 60. Tonsils are drained by which node? 61. Olfactory bulb is connected tomthe olfactory area of cerebral cortex by? 62. Optic nerve ends at? 63. The nerve cells of the lateral geniculate body to the visual cortex of the cerebral hemisphere by forming ? 64. The most slender of cranial nerves is ? 65. Name the largest cranial nerve? 66. Name the branches of ophthalmic nerve? 67. The nasocilliary nerve continues as which nerve to enter the cranial cavity? 68. Maxillary nerve leaves the skull through which foramen? 69. Buccal nerve supplies ? 70. Other name of sensory root of facial nerve is ? 71. Geniculate ganglion involve which cranial nerve? 72. Nerve to stapedius arise from which nerve? 73. Name the five terminal branches of facial expression? 74. Vestibulocochlear nerve is which type of nerve? 75. Vagus nerve leaves the skull through which foramen? 76. Phayrngeal branch supplies all the muscles of the pharynx except?? 77. Which nerve divides into internal and external laryngeal nerves?
78. External laryngeal nerve is which type and supplies which muscle? 79. Recurrent laryngeal nerve on right side hooks around which artery? 80. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior rami of the root of ??? 81. The only motor nerve supply to diaphragm is? 82. Cheek is formed by which muscle? 83. Posteriorly the roof is formed by? 84. Surface of tongue is connected to the floor of mouth by? 85. Deciduous teeth are how many in number ? 86. Side of anterior two thirds of tongue drains into ? 87. Posterior third of tongue is supplied by? 88. Depression of tongue is caused by which muscle? 89. Protrusion of tongue is done by? 90. All extrinsic muscle supplied by hypoglossal nerve except? 91. Name the largest salivery gland? 92. Parasympathetic nerve supply to submandibular gland is by which nerve? 93. All muscle of pharynx is supplied by pharyngeal plexus except? 94. Sensory nerve supply to nasal pharynx is by? 95. Esophagus begins in the neck at the level of which cartilage? 96. Superior meatus lies below which concha? 97. Nasolacrimal duct open in which meatus? 98. Maxillary sinus opens in which meatus ? 99. Name the largest cartilage of larynx? 100. Rod shape cartilage of larynx is called? 101. Other name of false vocal cord is ? 102. Vocal cords are of which color? 103. Tensing of the vocal cord is functiom of which muscle? 104. Relaxing of the vocal is function of which muscle? 105. Below the vocal fold sensory nerve supply is by? 106. All inteinsic muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except? 107. Laterally the pituitary gland is related with? 108. Abducent nerve supply which muscle? 109. Superior oblique is supplied by? 110. Medulla oblongata leaves the cranium through which foramen? HEAD AND NECK KEYS 1. The anterior fontanelle is which shaped? Diamond shaped 2. Posterior fontanelle usually closes at which stage of life? 1st year of life 3. The mastoid process develops during ??? First 2 years of life 4. Which sinuses serves as voice resonators? Frontal sinuses 5. Nasal septum is largely formed by which bone? Vomer 6. Below the orbit maxilla is perforated by? Inter Maxillary foramen 7. Which bone forms the prominence of cheeks? Zygomatic bone 8. Most common fractures of facial fractures? Nasal fractures 9. Frontal bone articulates with parietal bones at which suture? Coronal suture 10. Thinnest part of the lateral wall of skull is called? Pterion 11. What important thing lies below pterion? Middlw meningeal artery and vein
12. Crebriform plate tranmits? Olfactory nerves 13. Optic canal transmits? Ophthalmic artery and optic nerve 14. Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through? Foramen spinosum 15. Foramen ovale transmits which nerve? Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve 16. Internal acoustic meatus transmits? Vestibulocochlear ans facial nerves 17. Which is the largest and strongest bone of face? Mandible 18. Name the foramen which is below the 2 nd molar tooth and what nerve it transmits? Mental foramen and transmits terminal branch of inferior alveolar nerve 19. Temporomandibular joint is which type of joint? Synovial joint 20. Congenital torticollis is caused by damaging of which muscle during labour? Sternocledomastoid muscle 21. Platysma muscle is supplied by which nerve? Facial nerve 22. Geniohyoid muscle is supplied by which nerve? C1 through the hypoglossal nerve 23. Which muscle divides the neck to anterio and posterior triangles? Sternocleidomastoid muscle 24. Muscle of scalp and face derived from which pharyngeal arch? 2nd oharyngeal arch 25. Scalp contain how many layers ??? 5 layers 26. Muscle of facial expression are supplied by? Facial nerve 27. Right carotid artery arises from? Brachiocephalic trunk 28. In bells palsy which nerve is damaged? Facial nerve 29. Comon carotid artery divides at the upper border of ? Throid cartilage 30. Carotid sinus is supplied by which nerve? Glossopharyngeal nerve 31. Behind the neck of mandible carotid artery divides into? Superficial temporal and maxillary artery 32. Lingual artery is branch of which artery? External carotid artery 33. Lingual artery is crossed superficially by whichb nerve? Hypoglossal nerve 34. Occipital artery supplies???? Back of the scalp 35. Middle meningeal artery is branch of ? Maxillary artery 36. The haemorrhage caused by middle meningeal artery is which type? Extradural hemorrhage 37. Internal carotid arteries terminates as ? Anterior and middle cerebral arteries 38. The only blood supply to retina is ? Central retinal artery 39. The middle cerebral artery supplied all the motor area of cortex except? Leg area 40. Circle of willis lies in which space? Subarachnoid space 41. At the outer border of first rib subclavian artery continues as? Axillary artery 42. Which artery divides subclavian artery into 3 parts? Scalenus Anterior muscle 43. Name the branches of first part of subclavian artery? The vertebral artery, the thyrocervical trunk and the internal thoracic artery 44. Both vertebral arteries joins to form ? Basilar artery 45. Which nerve is closely related with sup thyroid artery?? External laryngeal nerve 46. Which artery is closely related with inf thyroid artery? Recurrent laryngeal nerve 47. Inferior parathyroid gland supplied by which artery? Inferior thyroid artery 48. Name the branches of third part of subclavian artery? No branches 49. Straight sinus is formed by the union of ? Inferior sagittal sinus and great cerebral vein 50. Right transverse sinus is the continuation Of the? Superior sagittal sinus 51. Internal jugular vein is continuation by which sinus? Sigmoid sinus 52. Which cranial nerve travels centrally through cavernous sinus? 6th cranial nerve
53. Name the valveless vein that passes through the skull bones? Emissary veins 54. Facial vein is formed by union of ? Supraorbital and supratrochlear veins 55. Retromandibular vein is formed by union of? Maxillary vein and superficial temporal vein 56. Maxillary vein is formed from which plexus? Pterygoid venous plexus 57. External jugular vein formed by union of? Posterior auricular vein and post division of retromandibular vein 58. Internal jugular vein is closely related with which lymph nodes? Deep cervical lymph node 59. Lymph drainage form the tip of the tongue is by? Sub Mental lymph node 60. Tonsils are drained by which node? Jugulodiagastric node 61. Olfactory bulb is connected tomthe olfactory area of cerebral cortex by? Olfactory tract 62. Optic nerve ends at? Optic chiasma 63. The nerve cells of the lateral geniculate body to the visual cortex of the cerebral hemisphere by forming ? Optic radiation 64. The most slender of cranial nerves is ? Trochlear nerve 65. Name the largest cranial nerve? Trigeminal nerve 66. Name the branches of ophthalmic nerve? Lacrimal , frontal and nasocilliary 67. The nasocilliary nerve continues as which nerve to enter the cranial cavity? Anterior ethmoidal artery 68. Maxillary nerve leaves the skull through which foramen? Foramen rutendum 69. Buccal nerve supplies ? The skin and mucous membrane of cheeks 70. Other name of sensory root of facial nerve is ? Nervus intermedius 71. Geniculate ganglion involve which cranial nerve? Facial nerve 72. Nerve to stapedius arise from which nerve? Facial nerve 73. Name the five terminal branches of facial expression? Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, mandibular and cervical 74. Vestibulocochlear nerve is which type of nerve? Sensory nerve 75. Vagus nerve leaves the skull through which foramen? Jugular foramen 76. Phayrngeal branch supplies all the muscles of the pharynx except?? Stylopharyngeus 77. Which nerve divides into internal and external laryngeal nerves? Superior laryngeal nerve 78. External laryngeal nerve is which type and supplies which muscle? Motor and supplies cricothyroid muscle 79. Recurrent laryngeal nerve on right side hooks around which artery? Subclavian artery 80. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior rami of the root of ??? First four cervical spinal nerves 81. The only motor nerve supply to diaphragm is? Phrenic nerve 82. Cheek is formed by which muscle? Buccinator muscle 83. Posteriorly the roof is formed by? Soft palate 84. Surface of tongue is connected to the floor of mouth by? Frenulum of the tongue 85. Deciduous teeth are how many in number ? 20 number 86. Side of anterior two thirds of tongue drains into ? Submandibular lymph nodes 87. Posterior third of tongue is supplied by? Glossopharyngeal nerve 88. Depression of tongue is caused by which muscle? Hypoglossus muscle 89. Protrusion of tongue is done by? Genioglossus muscle 90. All extrinsic muscle supplied by hypoglossal nerve except? Palatoglossus 91. Name the largest salivery gland? Parotid gland 92. Parasympathetic nerve supply to submandibular gland is by which nerve? Facial nerve via
corda tympani 93. All muscle of pharynx is supplied by pharyngeal plexus except? Stylopharyngeus 94. Sensory nerve supply to nasal pharynx is by? Maxillary nerve 95. Esophagus begins in the neck at the level of which cartilage? Cricoid cartilage 96. Superior meatus lies below which concha? Superior 97. Nasolacrimal duct open in which meatus? Inferio meatus 98. Maxillary sinus opens in which meatus ? Middle meatus 99. Name the largest cartilage of larynx? Thyroid cartilage 100. Rod shape cartilage of larynx is called? Cuneiform cartilage 101. Other name of false vocal cord is ? Vestibular fold 102. Vocal cords are of which color? White color 103. Tensing of the vocal cord is functiom of which muscle? Cricothyroid muscle 104. Relaxing of the vocal is function of which muscle? Thyroaretenoid muscle 105. Below the vocal fold sensory nerve supply is by? Recurrent laryngeal nerve 106. All inteinsic muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except? Cricothyroid muscle 107. Laterally the pituitary gland is related with? Cavernous sinus and its contents 108. Abducent nerve supply which muscle? Lateral rectus 109. Superior oblique is supplied by? Trochlear nerve 110. Medulla oblongata leaves the cranium through which foramen? Foramen magnum
