Vpm Classes - Free Solved Paper _new Pattern_ Ugc Net Management 2012

CSIR UGC NET, GATE (ENGINEERING), GATE (Science), IIT-JAM, UGC NET, TIFR, IISc, NIMCET, JEST etc.

U G C N E T - M A N A G E M EN EN T M O C K T E S T PA P E R

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PAPER - I This paper contains 50 objective type questio que stions ns. Each question question carries 2 marks . Attempt all the qu questi estions ons .

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PAPER - II This paper contains 50 objective type questions questio ns. Ea Each ch question question carries carries 2 marks . Attempt all the qu quest estions ions .

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PAPER -III Th This is paper paper conta contain ins 50 object objective ive type questions. Each questi question on carri carries es 4 marks . 1 negative negative mark for each each wrong answer.

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Pattern of questions : MCQs

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Total marks

: 400

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Duration of test

: Paper I & II - 2.5 Hours Paper III - 2.5 Hours

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Page 1


PAPER – I 1.

Feedback in communication Process __________________ (A) Explores defect in receiver (B) Clarifies the communication (C) Beneficial in understanding (D) Delights the Sender

2.

Intrapersonal communication is (A) Person-to-person contact (B) Talking to oneself (C) When more than two persons are involved (D) None of the above

3.

What is the full form of ‘SIM’? (A) Subscriber’s Idea Module (B) Subscriber Information Module (C) Subscriber’s Identity Module (D) None of the above

4.

When was the first English newspaper, newspaper, “Bengal Gazettes Published”? (A) 1770 AD (B) 1790 AD (C) 1801 AD (D) 1780 AD

5.

An effective communication produces in receiver ______ (A) Acceptance (B) Joy (C) Thinking (D) None of the above

6-9. 6-9.

Following table shows the scores of students in One MOCK Test (section wise). Assume MOCK TEST contain 3 sections, each sections have 50 questions. The total of the scores in 3 sections is compared with “cut off” and if student’s total score is higher than the “cut off”, it is said that he has cleared the “cut off”.


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PAPER – I 1.

Feedback in communication Process __________________ (A) Explores defect in receiver (B) Clarifies the communication (C) Beneficial in understanding (D) Delights the Sender

2.

Intrapersonal communication is (A) Person-to-person contact (B) Talking to oneself (C) When more than two persons are involved (D) None of the above

3.

What is the full form of ‘SIM’? (A) Subscriber’s Idea Module (B) Subscriber Information Module (C) Subscriber’s Identity Module (D) None of the above

4.

When was the first English newspaper, newspaper, “Bengal Gazettes Published”? (A) 1770 AD (B) 1790 AD (C) 1801 AD (D) 1780 AD

5.

An effective communication produces in receiver ______ (A) Acceptance (B) Joy (C) Thinking (D) None of the above

6-9. 6-9.

Following table shows the scores of students in One MOCK Test (section wise). Assume MOCK TEST contain 3 sections, each sections have 50 questions. The total of the scores in 3 sections is compared with “cut off” and if student’s total score is higher than the “cut off”, it is said that he has cleared the “cut off”.


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6.

Mock Test 1

English

Quant

D.I.

Cut-off

STUDENT 1

23

12

19

59

STUDENT 2

24

17

18

59

STUDENT 3

29

11

23

59

STUDENT 4

21

14

21

59

STUDENT 5

19

13

25

59

STUDENT 6

26

17

21

59

STUDENT 7

25

19

23

59

STUDENT 8

27

20

21

59

How many Students have cleared the cut off? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

7.

Which student has scored the maximum total marks? (A) 3rd (B) 6th (C) 7th (D) 8th

8.

Which student has scored highest marks by combining only sections of English and DI? (A) 3rd (B) 4th (C) 5th (D) 1st

9.

If the section-wise cut-off in MOCK Test is 15 for Quant and 20 each for English and DI, then how many students has cleared all the cut-offs? (A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6


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10.

Which student has scored minimum by combining only section of Quant & DI (A) 8

th

(B) 1

st

(C) 4

th

(D) 5 th 11

Which of the following is not open source software? (A) Internet Explorer (B) Apache HTTP Server (C) Fedora Linux (D) Open Office

12.

In MS Word, after selecting a content, it can be copied by ______ (A) Shift Key + C Key (B) Alt Key + C Key (C) Enter Key (D) Ctrl Key + C Key

13

MODEM = ______________ (A) An Electric Device (B) Modulator and Demodulator (C) Internal Memory (C) None of the above

14

Multimedia is __________ (A) A computer Game (B) A software (C) A technology (D) A Media

15

What is the full form of ‘LAN’? (A) Large Area Network (B) Local Area Network (C) Little Area Network (D) None of the above

16

Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, what number should come next? (A) 10 (B) 18 (C) 14 (D) 45


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17

Look at this series: 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, ... What number should come next? (A) 50 (B) 15 (C) 23 (D) 20

18

Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, .... What number should come next? (A) 162 (B) 134 (C) 155 (D) 161

19

Look at this series: 201, 202, 204, 207... What number should come come next? (A) 205 (B) 208 (C) 210 (D) 211

Passage 1 (Q.20-25) The history of literature really began as the earliest of the arts. Man danced f or joy round his primitive camp fire after the defeat and slaughter of his enemy. He yelled and shouted as he danced and gradually the yells and shouts became coherent and caught the measure of the coherent and caught the measure of the dance and thus the first war song was sung. As the idea of God developed prayers were framed the songs and prayers became traditional and were repeated from one generation to another, each generation adding something of its own. As man slowly grew more civilized, he was compelled to invent some method of writing by three urgent necessities. There were certain things that it was dangerous to forget and which, therefore, had to be recorded. It was often necessary to communicate with persons who were some distance away and it was necessary to protect one’s property by making tools and so on, in some distinctive manner. So man taught himself to write and having learned to write purely for utilitarian reasons he used this new method for preserving his war songs and his prayers. Of course, among these ancient peoples, there were only a very few individuals who learned to write, and only a few could read what was written. 20

Before man invented writing (A) Literature was passed on by word of mouth (B) Prayers were considered literature (C) Literature was just singing and dancing


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(D) There was no literature 21

As for the war songs and prayers each generation (A) Added something of its own to the stock (B) Blindly repeated the songs and prayers (C) Composed its own songs and prayers (D) Repeated what was handed down to it

22.

The first war-song (A) Was inspired by God (B) Was developed spontaneously (C) Was a song traditionally handed down (D) Was composed by leading dancers

23.

The war song evolved out of (A) Creative inspiration (B) There was no literature (C) Artistic urge (D) Yelling and shouting

24.

Man invented writing because he wanted (A) To be artistic (B) To write war song (C) To write literature (D) To record and communicate

25.

The word ‘measure’ in the context of the passage means (A) Weight (B) Rhythm (C) Size (D) Quantity

26

The information to be collected in survey method are related to (A) Present Position (B) Aims of the research (C) The attainment of Aim of research (D) All of the above

27

Research is done for (A) Knowledge of research process (B) Solving a business Problem

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(C) Interest in research (D) Experience 28

A research problem is feasible only when (A) It is researchable (B) It has some utility (C) It is New (D) All of the above

29.

One of the essential characteristics of research is (A) Sensitivity (B) Generalizability (C) Usability (D) Replicability

30.

The experimental research is (A) A method for verifying a hypothesis (B) A variable controlling method (C) A method of deriving inferences (D) None of the above

31.

UGC was established formally as statutory body in the year __________________ (A) 1972 (B) 1965 (C) 1956 (D) 1962

32.

In India, total number of Open University is _______ (A) Fourteen (B) Sixteen (C) Eighteen (D) Fifteen

33.

Who was chairman of the UGC committee 1969 appointed for administrative legislation of the universities? (A). Dr. Zakir Hussain (B) Dr. P B Gajendragadkar (C) Dr. L S Mudaliar (D) Dr. Radha krishnan


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34.

UGC has launched career oriented program in (A) 1964-65 (B) 1994-95 (C) 1997-98 (D) 1980-81

35.

The prime minister of India is appointed from ______ (A) The leading Party in Lok Sabha (B) The Leading Party in Rajya Sabha (C) The leading party in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha combined (D) None of the above

36.

The study of interrelations between Organism and their environment is called___ (A) Biosphere (B) Ecology (C) Synecology (D) Autecology

37

WWF is _______ (A) World wide Fund for People (B) World welfare Fund (C) World wide Fund for Nature (D) Non of the above

38

Which was the first National Park established in India? (A) Anshi National Park (B) Gir National Park (C) Kanha National Park (D) Jim Corbett National Park

39

Fossil Fuels include (A) Oil (B) Natural Gas (C) Coal (D) All of the above


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40

Noise in excess of ______ is called noise pollution (A) 40-65 db (B) 60-70 db (C) 80-100 db (D) None of the above

41

Effectiveness of teaching depends on ____ (A) Handwriting of Teacher (B) Speaking ability of Teacher (C) Qualification of the Teacher (D) Subject Understanding of the Teacher

42

Verbal Guidance is least effective in the learning of _ ___ (A) Aptitudes (B) Skills (C) Attitudes (D) Relationship

43

The participation of students will be maximum if ____ method is used for teaching. (A) Text Books (B) Discussion Method (C) Conference Method (D) Lectures

44

The primary responsibility of the teacher’s adjustment lies with (A) The Students (B) The Principal (C) The Community (D) The Teacher himself


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45.

The First Kindergarten was started by (A) William James (B) A D Clinton (C) Freidrich Forebel (D) J H Hills

46.

If Saturday falls on three days after today which is January 7, on which day 2nd December of previous year fall? (A) Tuesday (B) Saturday (C) Monday (D) Sunday

47-49

In each of the following questions, number series is given. One of the numbers in each series is wrong. After searching wrong number find the correct number in its place.

47.

510, 254, 126, 64, 30, 14, 6 (A) 252 (B) 62 (C) 130 (D) 9

48.

196, 169, 144, 121, 101 (A) 148 (B) 120 (C) 180 (D) 100

49.

1, 3, 10, 21, 68, 129. (A) 64 (B) 20 (C) 4 (D) 130


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50.

Cow : Calf :: Mother: ? (A) Daughter (B) Father (C) Brother (D) None of the above

PAPER – II 1.

The ability to apply creative solutions to problems and opportunities to enhance or to enrich people’s live is called. (A) Entrepreneurship (B) Innovation (C) Creativity (D) Creative thinking

2.

Employees must be given the tools and resources they need to be creative. One of the most valuable resources is: (A) Time (B) Money (C) Rules & guidelines (D) Providing Challenges

3.

Tight cost control is associated with which of the following strategies? (A) Market segmentation strategy (B) Market dominance strategy (C) Cost leadership strategy (D) Differentiation Strategy


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4.

Which of the following tend to market high end goods and services and are able to use a premium pricing strategies in a specific market segment? (A) Followers (B) Leaders (C) Nichers (D) Challengers

5.

Propensity of people to consume is an example of a (n) ____variable. (A) Political (B) Economic (C) Social (D) Demographic

6.

Ego strength and locus of control are _____ that influence an individual’s ethical behavior. (A) Values, (B) Beliefs (C) Personality variables (D) Structural variables.

7.

The belief that businesses that help in solving difficult social problems create a desirable community and attract and keep skilled employees is known as which argument for social responsibility ? (A) Ethical obligation (B) Public image (C) Better environment (D) Possession of resources


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8.

Which of the following refers to a special telephone line that enables employees to bypass the proper channels for reporting their ethical dilemmas and problems? (A) Ethics training (B) Ethics Audit (C) Ethics Hotline (D) Ethics development

9.

Which of the following approaches is neither immoral nor moral and simply ignores ethical considerations? (A) Moral management (B) Amoral management (C) Immoral Management (D) Both (A) & (C)

10.

Globalization of industries is occurring for all of these reasons except. (A) World wide trend towards similar consumption pattern. (B) A emergence of global buyers & sellers. (C) A world wide trend towards different consumption patterns. (D) E - commerce and the instant transmission of money and information across continents.

11.

The point rating method is a quantitative technique & job evaluation. What are the adv antages of this method? i. The system is accurate & dependable ii. It is a simple technique. iii. It is a quits & inexpensive method. iv. Wage differentials are likely to be systematic. And in accordance with the content of each job. (A) Only i & ii (B) Only i & iii


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(C) Only ii & iii (D) Only i & iv 12.

Consider the following cash flow series of a project. Which of the following is/are true? (i) The maximum number of IRRs for the above series is limited to two. (ii) The firm has withdrawn Rs. 1400 from the project at the end of year. (iii) The above project can have only one IRR. (A) Only (i) above (B) Only (ii) above (C) Only (iii) above (D) Both (i) & (ii)

13.

A non simple mixed project. (A) Has a sequence of cash outflows followed by a sequence of cash inflows. (B) Has an unrecovered balance of zero through the life of the project. (C) Always has a negative uncovered investment balance. (D) Has i* (the rate at which uncovered investment balances are zero, lesser than imin (the smallest interest rate satisfying the non - positivity condition).

14. (i)

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding bond value theorems? When the required rate of return is greater than the coupon rate, the premium on the bond increases as maturity approaches.

(ii)

For a given difference between YTM and coupon rate, the longer the term to maturity, greater will be change in price with the change in YTM.

(iii)

The effect of a change in YTM on the price of the bond in more in case of lower yield bonds than in books with yields. (A) Only (i) above (B) Only (ii) above


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(C) Both (i) and (ii) (D) Both (ii) and (iii) 15.

The difference between micro and macroeconomics is. (A) Microeconomics deals with the economies of individual countries while macroeconomics describes the functioning of the world economy. (B) Microeconomic is concerned with the behavior of individual entity like market, firm etc, and while macroeconomics, with the overall performance of the economy. (C) Microeconomics is positive economics while macro economics is normative. (D) None of the above.

16.

The price elasticity of demand for a product is infinity if the firm increases price of the product by 10% total revenue of the firm will. (A) Not change (B) Increase to infinity (C) Fall to zero (D) Decrease by more than 10%

17.

Law of diminishing return is not relevant when. (A) All labors are equally efficient. (B) The time period is short. (C) All factors of input are increased by the same proportion. (D) Capital is held constant.

18.

______ Provides a way for individual investors to support socially responsible companies (A) NASDAQ (B) Going green (C) A band (D) A socially responsible mutual stock bond


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19.

Aggressive involvement in a chronic, incessant struggle to achieve more in less time, even against opposition from others is the characteristic of people belonging to. (A) Type A personality (B) Locus of control (C) Type B personality (D) None of above.

20.

The success of quality circle depends upon all the following factors except. (A)The concept should be used only for addressing problems of a l ong term nature and problems that are measurable. (B) The skills of the quality circle members should be used to resolve problems that fall under their work area. (C) Supervisors should be trained in facilitation skills. (D) There should be continuous support from the top management.

21.

The typical time horizon for aggregate planning is: (A) Less than a month (B) Up to 3 months (C) 3 to 18 months (D) Over one year

22.

Which of the following aggregate planning strategies is a “capacity option”? (A) Influencing demand by changing price. (B) Counter -seasonal product mixing (C) Influencing demand by extending lead times.


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(D) Changing inventory levels. 23.

_____is not an operative function of human resource management. (A) Employee Relations (B) Compensation of employees (C) Organizing (D) Employment

24.

What is the nature of management interaction in the case of a mechanistic organization? (A) Flat (B) Horizontal (C) Vertical (D) Responsive.

25.

Every work group has it own Norms. Norms are ___________ (A) The unwritten rules that convey to the members what they ought to do and ought not to do under given circumstances. (B) A positive perception of the employer in the mind of employee. (C) Shared meaning held by members that distinguish one organization from the other (D) None of the above

26.

Which of the following is an argument against the involvement of businesses in social welfare activities? (A) Balance of responsibility and power. (B) Excessive costs. (C) Favorable public image (D) Protecting shareholders interests.


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27.

A way that organization can show their commitment to being green is through adopting the ______. (A) ISO 9000 standards (B) ISO 14001 Standards (C) ISO 14000 standards (D) ISO 26000 Standards

28.

Which of the following are most important decisions that managers make? (A) Functional (B) Programmed (C) Non – programmed (D) Tactical

29.

The most significant decisions made in today’s complex environment are taken under conditions of _____. (A) Risk (B) Uncertainty (C) Certainty (D) Stability

30.

Motivation is a _____________ stale. (A) Sociological (B) Psychological (C) Physiological (D) Biological

31.

Which of the following are perceptual dimensions? (A) Selectivity and organization (B) Feedback and interpretation (C) Registration and interpretation (D) Selectivity and interpretation


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32.

The ______ of incentive payment is generally used for groups. The emphasis here is on team work and coordination. (A) Point rating system (B) Task Bonus System. (C) Progressive bonus (D) Barth System

33.

_____strategies provide guidelines for organizational growth? (A) Organization (B) Finance (C) Marketing (D) Growth

34.

Entrepreneurship is a constant process that relies on:(i) Creativity, innovation and profit. (ii) Intellectual property rights. (iii) Creativity, innovation, and application in the market place. (iv) The ability to wise over the customers. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) only (iv) (D) None of above

35.

Which of the following comes under the broad definition for factors of production? (A) Technology (B) Innovation (C) Capital (D) Patent right


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36.

In order to understand learned behavior in animals, skinner made use of _____ and _____ in his experiment. (i) Rats (ii) Parrots (iii) Pigeons (iv) Squirrels (A) Only (i) and (iii) (B) Only (i) & (iv) (C) Only (iii) and (ii) (D) Only (ii) & (iv)

37.

A / an is a computer based information system that supports the process of managerial decision making in situations that are not well structured. (A) MIS (B) Decision – Support system (C) Expert system (D) Transaction support system

38.

Which of the following is a key concept of the satisfying model of decision – making, which suggest that the ability of managers to be completely rational when making decisions is limited by certain factors? (A) Rationality (B) Irrationality (C) Bounded rationality (D) Bonded rationality


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39.

Which of the following is not a social constraint? (A) Changes lifestyle (B) Domestic demand (C) Increasing number of divorces (D) Increasing number of woman in the workforce

40.

In the socialization approach, person is qualified on promoted to the next rounded stage, only when he performs well. To the norms and rules of the organization, otherwise he is eliminated from the race. (A) Disjunctive (B) Investiture (C) Serial (D) Tournament

41.

Which of the following is not an achievement of financial management? (A) Maximization of wealth of shareholders. (B) Maximization of profit. (C) Mobilization of funds at an acceptable cost. (D) Ensuring discipline in the organization.

42.

Which of the following is/are true regarding the measurement of cost, inflow and outflow of a project? (A) Depreciation amount should be added to PBT. (B) Depreciation amount should be added to PAT. (C) Depreciation should neither be added to nor be subtracted from PAT. (D) Both (A) and (B) above.


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43.

Which of the following is the term used for medium range capacity planning with a time horizon of three to eighteen months? (A) Material requirements planning (B) Short - range planning (C) Strategic planning (D) Aggregate planning

44.

The numerical difference between forecast demand and actual demand is called ____. (A) Standard deviation (B) Forecast error (C) Variance (D) Forecast variance

45.

All quantitative forecasts are based on: (A) A computer system (B) The tax rate (C) Historical data (D) The number of persons employed by the firm

46.

Who defined marginal analysis as the extra output obtained by adding are extra unit of input, keeping other factors constant? (A) Peter F. Drucker (B) Max Weber (C) Paul Samuelson (D) Michael E. Porter


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47.

An example of a (n) ____ external variable is availability of credit. (A) Economic (B) Political (C) Social (D) Governmental

48.

In which of the following situations does the intensity of an ethical issue increase? (A) Everyone agrees that the action is right. (B) Many people will be harmed by the action. (C) When the chances of the act causing harm are negligible. (D) When the action has no serious impact on people

49.

Which of the following determines a person’s ethical or unethical behaviors? (A) Values (B) Procedures (C) Rules (D) Policies

50.

Many people oppose the involvement of organizations in social welfare activities. Which of the following is not a reason for their opposition to such activities? i) Excessive cost ii) Absence of mechanism to ensure accountability to society. iii) Protecting shareholder’s interest. (A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) Only (iii) (D) Only (i) & (ii)


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PAPER - III 1.

Which of the following models of O.B. is based on power and works well under certain conditions, especially during organizational crises? (A) Autocratic model (B) Supportive model (C) Collegial model (D) Custodial model

2.

The relationship between aggregate consumption expenditure and aggregate income of household sector is known as ____________ function. (A) Consumption (B) Saving (C) Expenditure (D) Income

3.

Who define Organization behavior as, “the understanding, prediction and management of human behavior of organization? (A) Fred Luthans (B) Elton Mayo (C) Beatrice webb (D) Lecon C. Megginson

4.

___can be termed as a relatively permanent change that occurs in a person belief and attitudes with time and experience. (A) Behavior (B) Perception (C) Personality


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(D) Learning 5.

A manager interacting with individuals or groups inside or outside the organization performs the role of a _______. (A) Leader (B) Figurehead (C Liasion (D) Ambassador

6.

The terms refers to "total knowledge skills, creative abilities, talents and aptitudes of an organization's work force as well as values, attitudes and beliefs the individuals is valued. (A) Human Resources (B) Human resource Management (C) Human resource planning (D) Human relations

7.

Threats to one’s concept of self, incompatible temperament, and failure in communication result in ____. (A) Inter personal conflict (B) Intra personal conflict (C) Group conflict (D) Inter group conflict

8.

According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution, human beings evolved jut like other animals. The theory, in turn opened up a new area of study called: (A) Sociobiology (B) History (C) Anthropologies (D) Economics


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Vpm Classes - Free Solved Paper _new Pattern_ Ugc Net Management 2012

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