SAT Refresher Manual

Refresher Manual for the

SAT

*

Version 7.1

00 Refresher SAT FM & Intro 1

11/15/05 3:28:25 PM

Copyright © 2006 by The Princeton Review, Inc. All Rights Reserved. No part of this manual may be reproduced for distribution to a third party in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information retrieval system, without the prior consent of the publisher, The Princeton Review. Permission to reprint this material does not constitute review or endorsement by the Educational Testing Service, of this publication as a whole or of any other sample questions or testing information it may contain. This Manual is for the exclusive use of Princeton Review course students, and is not legal for resale. Educational Testing Service and ETS are registered trademarks of the Educational Testing Service. SAT is a registered trademark of the College Board. The Princeton Review is not affiliated with Princeton University or the Educational Testing Service. 866.TPR.PREP/ www.PrincetonReview.com


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Acknowledgments

These people rock: Joan Afton, Jennifer Arias, Siddiq Bello, Fred Bernstein, Carol Brenneisen, Lisa Buchman, Morgan Chase, Rob Cohen, Mariwyn Curtin, Jon Dohlin, Ken Dow, Dan Edmonds, Alicia Ernst, Louise Favier, Michael Freedman, Len Galla, Jodie Gaudet, Jay Glick, Andrea Goldfein, Andra Gordon, Effie Hadjiioannou, Peter Hanink, Clayton Harding, Scott Karp, John Katzman, Meher Khambata, Jane Lacher, Illeny Maaza, Tom Meltzer, Nikki Moss, Jefferson Nichols, John Pak, Chee Pae, Isabel Parlett, Magda Pecsenye, Maria Quinlan, Valli Rajah, Carmine Raspaolo, Joe Reddy, Jennifer Robbins, Jeff Rubenstein, Joe Sampson, Nick Schaffzin, Jon Spaihts, Joshua Shaub, Graham Sultan, Rachael Unite, Eric Wertzer, Stephen White, Jeannie Yoon, and the staff and students of The Princeton Review. Special thanks to Adam Cadre, Alex Schaffer, Christine Parker, Dave Ragsdale, and John Fulmer for their enormous contributions to this manual. Special thanks to Adam Robinson, who conceived of and perfected the Joe Bloggs approach to standardized testing, and many of the other techniques in this manual. Version 7.1


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Contents

Introduction . ...........................................................................................1 Math Introduction....................................................................................5 Plugging In..............................................................................................11 Geometry................................................................................................17 Other Approaches..................................................................................25 What If I’m Stuck?..................................................................................35 POOD Review.........................................................................................45 Math Homework.................................................................................... 53 Critical Reading Introduction................................................................81

© The Princeton Review, Inc.


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Refresher Manual for the SAT

Reading Comprehension........................................................................85 Sentence Completions...........................................................................97 Critical Reading Homework................................................................ 103 Writing Introduction.............................................................................121 The Essay, Revisited............................................................................ 125 Improving Sentences........................................................................... 135 Error IDs and Improving Paragraphs................................................. 143 Grammar Homework........................................................................... 153 Answers & Explanations......................................................................161

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Introduction

Welcome Back! Many of you are here because you took a course this summer and you are refreshing your skills for an upcoming test. Others among you have already taken the SAT and some of you have not yet improved as much as you would like. Fortunately, you now have another chance! Regardless of why you are here, we’re are going to do our best to help you improve your score. If you have a problem—you’ve forgotten a technique, or perhaps never even learned it—let us know. We’re here to help!

How the Refresher Course is Different Because you’ve already taken one of our courses, there’s no need for us to teach you our techniques from scratch—you already have a pretty good idea of how to use them! Instead we’ll re-familiarize you with the techniques and give you more guided practice in using them efficiently.



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What Score Improvement Can You Expect for This Course? This will obviously vary. If you have already gone up more than 150 points, it is still possible for you to squeeze out some more points. The lower your score is, the more likely you are to improve dramatically. There are a number of ways that you can improve your score. If you aren’t doing all of the following, you’re not getting the highest score that you can.

• Answering the right number of questions

• Choosing the best questions to answer

• Using POE and guessing aggressively

• Practicing the techniques

• Learning more vocabulary

You can’t raise your score if you don’t put in the work. Come to class, ask questions, do your homework, take the diagnostic tests, analyze your performance.... Put in the work now, so you never have to take the SAT again!

Structure of the SAT The SAT now has three Math sections, three Critical Reading sections, two multiple-choice Grammar sections, and one essay. There is also one, 25-minute experimental section, which could be reading, math, or grammar. The total testing time is now 3 hours and 45 minutes.

Math

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Introduction

Critical Reading Easy Medium

Sentence Completions

Difficult

Short Reading

Long Reading

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

Easy


Medium Difficult

Short Reading

Long Reading

24 Questions 25-Minute Section

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24


Easy Medium Difficult

Long Reading


1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19


Grammar Improving Sentences

Easy Medium Difficult Easy

Error ID

Medium Difficult

Improving Paragraphs

New! Grammar questions are also ordered roughly by difficulty.

1 . . . . . 11 12 . . . . . . . . . . 29 30 . . . . 35


Easy

Medium

Difficult

1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14

Improving Sentences




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Summary No matter when you first prepped for the SAT, use your TPR techniques! A consistent approach to the SAT will get you far.

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Math Introduction

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If you think reading is important only on the Critical Reading section, you’re wrong. Half of all Math section errors are caused by misreading—these are often your “careless mistakes.” To help eliminate those “careless mistakes”:

• don’t do the math in your head—write everything down

• re-read the question before you bubble to be sure you are answering the right question


01 Math Introduction 5

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PACING Your target score is the score you will aim for on your next diagnostic or the real SAT. As your diagnostic score goes up, so will your target score. So attempt this many questions To get: (scaled score) 350 400 450 500 550 600 650 700 750 800

You need to earn: (raw points) 7 12 19 25 32 38 44 47 52 54

20question PS

8question PS

Grid-Ins

16question PS

Total # of questions to attempt

6 7 9 11 14 16 18 all all all

2 3 4 5 6 6 7 all all all

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 all all

2 4 6 8 10 13 15 all all all

12 17 23 29 36 42 48 53 54 54

Unless you’re shooting for a 700 or higher, do not do every question! As you can see, you only need to do about half of the questions to get a 500. If you’re doing more questions than you need to, you’re actually hurting your score. By rushing through too many questions, you’ll have less time to concentrate on each question, and you’ll make more careless errors. Look at the pacing chart and memorize the number of questions you need to answer to get the score you want. You should use all of your time to work on those questions, rather than sitting around with ten minutes left at the end of every section. Take more time per question and get more of them right. Slow down and score more.

PERSONAL ORDER OF DIFFICULTY Remember that the order of difficulty on the SAT is not perfect. You have your own personal strengths and weaknesses, and you know a lot of strategies that take advantage of the way ETS writes the test. Keep ETS’s order of difficulty in mind, but always remember that you control which questions you answer, and the order in which you answer them. Go through the section looking for questions that look easier for you.

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Math Introduction

PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (POE) Always look for ways to eliminate incorrect answers. If you can eliminate even one, guess! How many answer choices can you eliminate before solving the question?

3. If the sum of 5 consecutive integers is 100, what is the middle number? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

18 20 95 98 100

10. When a certain used-clothing store sells clothes, it keeps 30 percent of the money, and gives the rest to the original owner. If the original owner of an outfit receives $98 from a sale, how much did the store charge for the outfit? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$66 $100 $136 $140 $163

JOE BLOGGS, HAVEN’T WE MET BEFORE? Joe Bloggs gets difficult questions wrong because he’s predictable. Don’t be predictable. Don’t fall for ETS traps. Don’t be Joe. How many JB answers can you eliminate before solving the problem?

18. If a car’s odometer reads 73,333 miles, what is the LEAST number of miles that the car must travel before four digits on the odometer are identical again? (A) 99 (B) 444 (C) 666 (D) 1,111 (E) 4,444



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7

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19. A shop owner buys apples at wholesale cost and sells each apple at a profit of 20 percent. If the shop owner charges the same amount for each apple, and sells all but 5 percent of his inventory, what percent profit will he make on his investment? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

10% 14% 15% 18% 25%

BALLPARKING Ballparking will also help you eliminate answer choices.

10. Which one of the following numbers would be increased by approximately 100 percent if the order of its digits were reversed? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

203 1,002 1,992 4,005 8,004 If you can eliminate any of the answer choices, guess.

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Math Introduction

THE PRINCETON REVIEW’S GUIDE TO GRIDDING How to Grid

• Write your answer in the spaces at the top before gridding.

• Grid in answers as far to the left in the grid box as possible.

• Don’t reduce fractions if they already fit in the grid.

• Don’t round decimals.

• Don’t grid in mixed fractions.

18. Of 15 people who entered a store in a one-hour period, two bought nothing, seven bought exactly one item, and the rest bought two or more items. What percent of the people who entered the store that hour bought at least two items? (Ignore the percent sign when gridding in your answer.)

What You Can’t Grid In (Even If You Wanted To)

• Negatives

• Square roots

• π

• Variables

• % signs

• $ signs



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PLUGGING IN

Plugging In is the most important math technique. Plugging In turns algebra and geometry problems into arithmetic problems. It’s the one thing that can help your score the most.

WHEN TO PLUG IN

8. Charlene is c years old and is 5 years younger than Derrick. If Derrick is half as old as Blaine, then, in terms of c, how many years old is Blaine? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

c – 10 c + 5 c + 10 2c + 5 2c + 10

Remember that “in terms of” is a needless phrase that ETS uses to confuse you. But, it’s our signal to Plug In!

• Do not Plug In numbers that appear in the answer choices or in the question. • Do not Plug In zero or one. • Do not Plug In the same number for two different variables.


02 Plugging In 11

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12. Steve usually jogs h kilometers every day. On Monday and Wednesday of last week, however, Steve jogged twice his usual daily distance, and on Saturday Steve jogged half his usual daily distance. If Steve jogged his usual daily distance on each of the other days, how many total kilometers, in terms of h, did Steve jog last week? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9h 8.5h 7h 6.5h 3.5h

Choose numbers that make the arithmetic as easy as possible.

Always check all 5 answer choices when you Plug In.

g is an integer, which of the following must also h be an integer?

17. If

(A)

h g

(B) g (C) gh (D)

g2 h

(E)

g2 h2

Remember that you can plug in on any problem that has variables in the answers.

B A

Don’t forget the rules of geometry when Plugging In!

12. In the fi gure above, what is the value of b in terms of a? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

12

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90 + a 90 + 2a 180 – 2a 360 – 2a 2a


02 Plugging In 12

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Plugging In

15. In a laboratory setting, the population of a certain bacteria doubles every 3 hours. If the initial population was 12, which of the following expresses the population after h hours? h

(A) 2 × 3 2 h

(B) 3 × 12 2 (C) 12 × 23h h

(D) 12 × 2 3 (E) 12 × 2 h Sometimes, you can even plug in on Grid-Ins!

18. A merchant reduces the original price of a pair of shoes by 10 percent. After several weeks, the merchant increases the new price of the shoes by 50 percent. The resulting price of the shoes is what percent greater than the original price of the shoes? (Disregard the percent sign when gridding your answer.)


02 Plugging In 13

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PLUGGING IN THE ANSWERS On the SATs you’ll have plenty of chances to PITA. Just remember the following rules:

Label your answers. Starting with answer choice C, work the steps of the problem. Look for something in the problem that tells you if the answer is correct. When you fi nd the correct answer, STOP.

16. The combined cost of items X, Y, and Z is $225. If Y costs $10 more than X, and Z costs $10 more than Y, then what is the cost of X ?

Label → ________ ________ _______ (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$85 $80 $75 $65 $55

PLUGGING IN TIMED DRILL See how well you do on this drill. Just remember all the different ways you can plug in. If you’re having trouble, see what other techniques you can apply. It’s all about POOD! Time: 10 minutes

Target Score

# of Questions to Attempt

< 450

3 or 4

460–550

4 or 5

560–650

6 or 7

> 650

All

6. Alex is three times as old as Betty. In fi ve years, Alex will be twice as old as Betty. How old is Betty now? (A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20 (E) 30

14

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02 Plugging In 14

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Plugging In

a 3 = , which of the following could b 4 be the value of a ?

7. If ab = 48 and

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12 (E) 16 Y X

10. In the figure above, if x = 4y, what is the value of y ? (A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 36 (E) 72

11. If

1 1 = t and t 2 = , what is r in terms of s ? r s2

(A) (B)

4

s s

(C) 4s (D) s 2 (E) s 4

13. Jerome won the lottery. He paid one quarter of his winnings to the government in taxes. He gave $3,000 to his mother and $1,000 to his friend. If he had $11,000 left, how much money did he originally win? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$12,000 $15,000 $18,000 $20,000 $45,000

16. If x is k percent of y, what percent of y is kx ? k % 100 100 (B) % k (A)

(C) k% (D) 100k% (E) k 2 % © The Princeton Review, Inc.

02 Plugging In 15

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B

x

A

18. In right triangle ABC above, AB is twice BC. If AB = x, what is the area of  ABC in terms of x ?

(A)

x 2 8

(B)

x 3 8

(C)

x2 2 4

(D)

x2 3 4

(E)

x2 3 8

19. A car salesman sells half of the cars in his showroom in one week. The next week, he sells one-third of the remaining cars. At the end of the two weeks, what fraction of the original number of cars did he sell? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16

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C

1 6 1 2 2 3 3 4 5 6


02 Plugging In 16

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Reference Information

Geometry

•

l

r

w

A= r C=2 r

2

A = lw

h

h b A = 1 bh 2

l V = lwh

•r

h b

w V = r 2h

c a c 2 = a 2 + b2

2x

60 x s 45

s 2

30 45 s 3 x Special Right Triangles

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360. The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

Remember that you’re given many of the formulas you’ll need for the geometry. Now all that’s left is to be able to use the information you’re given to your advantage. Y

Z

X

.OTE&IGURENOTDRAWNTOSCALE

10. In the figure above, if z = 110, then z + y = (A) 200 (B) 180 (C) 130 (D) 110 (E) 90

Write any info from the problem on the figure. Work from what you know to what you don’t know.

What information are you given?

What rules can help you?


03 Geometry 17

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"

!

%

&

#

$

13. Quadrilateral ABCD shown above has an area of 72. If ED = BF = 6, what is the length of AC ? (A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 24 (E) 36

Write down the formula you need:

Now fill in what you already know:

What do you need to find to finish the problem?

No figure given? No problem! Just draw your own. Draw figures that are missing. Fill in anything you already know.

14. In a right triangle, one leg has length x and the other 4 has a length of x . Which of the following express3 es the length of the hypotenuse in terms of x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3 x 5 3 x 4 4 x 5 5 x 4 5 x 3

Just keep applying the basic geometry advice, even if a question involves a number of steps. 18

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03 Geometry 18

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Geometry

12. If Circle O has a radius of 4, what is the ratio of the circumference of Circle O to the area of Circle O ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1:4 1:2 1:1 2:1 4:1

What should you do first?

What should you do next?

"

#

!

$

6. In the figure above, if AB = BC = 8, what is the area of ABCD ? (A) 144 (B) 128 (C) 96 (D) 64 (E) 48

Draw a line to create basic shapes that have nice formulas.

10. What is the slope of the line that passes through the points with coordinates (2, 6) and (3, 5) ? (A) –1 1 2 1 (C) 2 (B) –

(D) 1 (E) 2


03 Geometry 19

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GEOMETRY Timed DRILL Test out your geometry skills. Choose the problems that you know how to do first. Then see what you can eliminate on the others. Time: 10 minutes Target Score


< 450

3 or 4

460–550

4 or 5

560–650

6 or 7

> 650

All

s# s"

$s

A B B s B !

s %

s &


3. In the figure above, if b = 25, what is the value of a ? (A) 15 (B) 75 (C) 90 (D) 105 (E) 155 2 1

3

Z

4

0

4. In the figure above, if PT = TQ, QS = SR, then z = (A) 10 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 90 (E) 110

20

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03 Geometry 20

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Geometry

L

L

X

X

10. In the figure above, if l1 || l2 , then x = (A) 180 (B) 110 (C) 60 (D) 40 (E) 30

1

0

/

s

2

4

3

11. In the figure above, side PS of rectangle PQRS is tangent to the circle with center O at point T. If QR = k, what is the area of rectangle PQRS in terms of k ? k2 4 k2 (B) 2 (A)

(C) k 2 (D) 2 k 2 (E) 4 k 2


03 Geometry 21

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Y L

X

L L

16. Lines l1 , l2 , and l3 have slopes of a, b, and c, respectively, and l2 is parallel to the x axis. Which of the following is a negative number? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

b+c a+b c–a b 2c

17. If the volume of a rectangular solid is 64, its length is twice its width, and its width is twice its height, then what is its length? (A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16 (E) 32

18. Cubes A and B have faces with areas x and y, respectively. If the ratio of x to y is 1 to 9, what is the ratio of the volume of cube A to the volume of cube B ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

22

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1:3 1:9 1 : 27 1 : 81 1 : 729


03 Geometry 22

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Geometry

19. Square ABCD (not shown) has vertex A at (–1, 1), vertex B at (–1, 4), and vertex D at (2, 1). What is the slope of the line passing through vertex C and the origin? (A) –2 1 2 3 (C) 2 (B) –

(D) 2 (E) 4


03 Geometry 23

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03 Geometry 24

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Other Approaches

Want a better score? ETS expects you to complete problems the way that you were taught in school. But, anytime that you do what the test writer expects, you don’t get the best score that you could.

Arithmetic Don’t do these the way that ETS expects!

17. A factory produces an average of 50 televisions per day for 4 days, and an average of 20 televisions per day for the next 8 days. What is the average number of televisions produced per day by the factory over the entire 12-day period? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

As soon as you see the word average, draw an average pie.

12 20 30 35 36


04 Other app 25

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25

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Use the ratio box for part to part comparisons.

11. A fruit vendor sells 8 bananas for every 5 mangoes. If the vendor sells 24 bananas, what is the total number of pieces of fruit sold? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

13 15 24 37 39

m m m

9. A team won 36 of the 60 games it played. If there were no games tied or forfeited, what percent of the games did the team lose? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

24% 36% 40% 50% 60%

Translate the question into math: What percent of the games did the team lose?

What’s the best formula to use for inverse variation?

14. Kumar finds that the number of mistakes that he makes on a 50-question test varies inversely with the amount of time that he spends studying. If Kumar made 10 mistakes on his last 50-question test and studied for 3 hours, how many mistakes can he expect to make on his next such test if he studies for 5 hours? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 15 (D) 17 (E) 30

26

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04 Other app 26

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Other Approaches

7. A store is encouraging business by giving away door prizes. A prize is given to the second customer of the day and to every fifth customer after that. Which one of the following customers will receive a prize? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

61 65 68 73 82

15. For all x ≥ 1 , let f ( x ) = (1 + x − 1 )2 . For which of the following values of x does f ( x ) = 9 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

How do you discover a pattern?

What technique will help with this question?

2 3 4 5 9

10. All of the students enrolled in a certain school district are between the ages of 5 and 19, inclusive. If a student whose age is x enrolls in this school district, which of the following most accurately expresses all possible values for x ?

What’s the best way to handle this question?

(A) x − 19 ≤ 5 (B) x − 12 ≤ 7 (C) x − 24 ≤ 14 (D) x − 12 ≤ 5 (E) x − 19 ≤ 7


04 Other app 27

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11/15/05 3:29:10 PM


Graphs Here are some ways that ETS tests graphs. What’s the easiest way to do each of these problems? y 7 6 5 4

y = f (x)

3 2 1

O

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13

x

16. The figure above shows the graph of y = f (x). The function g is defined as g (x) = 2f (x + 3). If g (x) = 6, which of the following could be the value of x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1 2 3 7 8 Y -

,

.

X


14. The figure above shows the graph of y = f ( x ) for −4 ≤ x ≤ 4 . If f ( x ) = − x 2 + 16, what is the area of LMN(not shown)? (A) 32 (B) 24 (C) 16 (D) 8 (E) 4

28

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04 Other app 28

11/15/05 3:29:12 PM

Other Approaches

Y

s X

/

11. The graph of y = f ( x ) is shown in the figure above. Which of the following shows the reflection of the graph of y = f ( x ) across the x-axis?

Y

Y

(A)

s n X

/

(D)

X

/

s

n

Y

Y

(B)

n

s

X

/

(E)

s

/

X

Y

(C)

/

X n

s


04 Other app 29

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11/15/05 3:29:13 PM


y

O

A

x

•

(–1, –1)

8. The graph of the equation f ( x ) = x + 1 − 1 is shown above. For which of the following equations would point A be located at (1, 1) ? (A) f ( x ) = x − 1 + 1 (B) f ( x ) = x − 1 − 1 (C) f ( x ) = x + 1 + 1 (D) f ( x ) = x − 1 (E) f ( x ) = x + 1

Other Approaches TIMED Drill Try these. Time: 10 minutes

Target Score


< 450

3 or 4

460–550

5 or 6

560–650

7 or 8

> 650

All

7. At a certain time of day, a man 6 feet tall casts a shadow 8 feet long. If, at the same time, a lamppost casts a shadow 20 feet long, then how many feet tall is the lamppost? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

30

|

12 14 15 22 25


04 Other app 30

11/15/05 3:29:15 PM

Other Approaches

List S: 4, 9, 9, 4, 1, 9, 5

8. The median of the numbers in list S will remain unchanged if which of the following numbers is added to the list? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

4 5 6 7 9

13. Will is selecting clothes to wear to school. He must choose one pair of sneakers, one pair of jeans, and one shirt. If Will has four pairs of sneakers, five pairs of jeans, and twelve shirts, how many different outfits could he wear?

14. If the average (arithmetic mean) of the degree measures of two angles of a right triangle is 70, which of the following must represent the degree measure of one of the three angles of the triangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

20 25 30 35 40

15. In 1995 the average price of CD players was $300. In 1999 the average price of CD players was $240. By what percent did the average price of a CD player change between 1995 and 1999? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

60% 40% 25% 20% 5%


04 Other app 31

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11/15/05 3:29:15 PM


16. Alice has a full box of purple, white, and green tennis balls. There are twice as many purple balls as white balls, and three times as many green balls as purple balls. If Alice pulls out one ball at random, what is the probability that it will be purple?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

x +1 . For which of the followy+2 ing is x @ y the greatest?

17. Let x @ y be equal to

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

32

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2 9 1 3 2 5 3 5 2 3

x = 6, y = –6 x = 6, y = –1 x = 5, y = 7 x = 5, y = 2 x = 4, y = 4

18. In the first four months of their season, the Cooperstown baseball team won 3 games for every 4 it lost, with no game ending in a tie. In the remainder of the season, the team played 7 games and won all of them. If at the end of the season its ratio of wins to losses is 1 to 1, what is the total number of games that the team has played?


04 Other app 32

11/15/05 3:29:17 PM

Other Approaches

y

y = x2 J

K x

0 y = bx2 – 25

Note: Figure not drawn to scale.

20. The figure above shows the graphs of y = x 2 and y = bx 2 − 25 for some constant b. If the length of JK is equal to 10, what is the value of b ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 10 (E) 25


04 Other app 33

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33

11/15/05 3:29:18 PM

04 Other app 34

11/15/05 3:29:18 PM

What If I’m Stuck?

Even if you don’t know how to solve a problem, there are things that you can try.

POE

14. A compact disc is placed in a player that randomly selects and plays songs from the compact disc. The

Just ask Joe! Then, eliminate his answer.

compact disc contains 3 ballads, 4 instrumental pieces, x dance tracks, and no other pieces. If the probability that the first song played will be a ballad 1 is , what is the value of x ? 4 (A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 9 (E) 12


05 What if Stuck 35

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35

11/15/05 3:29:22 PM


B

A C .OTE&IGURENOTDRAWNTOSCALE

What does Joe do?

15. In the figure above, three lines intersect as shown. If a = 80, what is the value of b + c ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

100 180 260 340 It cannot be determined from the information given.

Joe also helps you to avoid picking answers too quickly on problems that you know how to do. Careless errors can cost you a lot of points.

Are any answers the wrong size?

1 8. A candy store offers a 33 % discount on any pur3 chase of three boxes of chocolates. Sheila pays $12 for three boxes of chocolates. What was the amount of her discount, in dollars? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 9 (E) 12

36

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05 What if Stuck 36

11/15/05 3:29:22 PM


"

#

!

$



16. Rectangle ABCD has length 6 and width 8. What is the area of the shaded region?

Use the figure. Ballpark!

(A) 25π − 48 2 (B)

25π − 24 2

(C) 10π (D) 25π (E) 50π − 24 ETS loves to include partial answers. Sometimes you can eliminate something that is wrong even if you only work the first step of the problem.

16. A factory produced 3,000 chairs on Monday, of which 70 percent were painted. Of the chairs that were painted, 40 percent were painted blue. How many more chairs were NOT painted than were painted blue?

How many partial answers can you find in this problem?

(A) 60 (B) 360 (C) 840 (D) 900 (E) 1,260


05 What if Stuck 37

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37

11/15/05 3:29:24 PM


What answer could you get by just doing simple operations with the numbers? Would the answer really be that easy?

18. A radio antenna and a three-foot pole are installed 42 feet apart on a level flat roof. If a wire runs from the top of the pole to the top of the antenna, and the wire rises four feet for every three feet it travels horizontally, what is the height of the antenna in feet? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

42 45 56 59 70

More Plugging In Plugging In and Plugging In The Answers can save the day on lots of different kinds of questions. How can you use the technique on these?

20. If

z+2 8 = , then what is one possible value of z ? z−3 z

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

|

x

2

3

4

5

y

7

10

13

16

4. The table above represents a relationship between x and y. Which of the following linear equations describes the relationship? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

38

−6 −4 −2 2 12

y=x+1 y=x+5 y = 3x y = 3x + 1 y = 4x – 1


05 What if Stuck 38

11/15/05 3:29:24 PM


18. At a certain company, an employee’s salary s in dollars is given by the function s(y) = 1,500y + 30,000, where y is the number of years the employee has worked at the company. If the value v in dollars of the car that the employee owns is given by the function s − 18, 000 , and Kelly is an employee of this v( s ) = 2 company whose car has a value of $30,000, how many years has Kelly worked for this company? (A) 34 (B) 32 (C) 18 (D) 12 (E) 8

13. Let the function f be defined by f (x) = 2x – 9. If f (a) = b, what is the difference between f (2a) and f (a), in terms of b ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2b – 9 2b b b+9 2b + 9


05 What if Stuck 39

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39

11/15/05 3:29:25 PM


TIMED Drill Time: 15 minutes Target Score


< 450

6 to 8

460–550

9 to 11

560–650

12 to 14

> 650

All

Nn N

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

|

n+6 n+7 2n – 7 5n + 7 5n + 17

2. If the price of postcards ranges from 40 cents to 70 cents each, what is the greatest number of postcards that can be purchased with $3.00 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

40

(–3, –2) (–2, 4) (1, 4) (2, –3) (2, 4)

1. The areas are given for each of the small rectangles in the figure above. What is the area of the entire figure? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

3. If a square of area 25 has vertices at (–3, –1), (2, –1), and (–3, 4), what are the coordinates of the remaining vertex?

8 7 6 5 4

75° a° 2a° 30°

4. In the figure above, what is the value of a ? (A) 60 (B) 85 (C) 170 (D) 180 (E) 255


05 What if Stuck 40

11/15/05 3:29:25 PM


5. If y = f ( x ) , which of the following could be the graph of y = f ( x ) ?

.5-"%2/&4/!34%233/,$"9 4/34)4#/ n

(A)

.UMBERSOF4OASTERS3OLD INTHOUSANDS

Y X

n n n n

Y (B)

X

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Y

(C)

6. According to the graph above, the greatest annual percentage change in the number of toasters sold by Tostit Co. took place between the years 1996 and 1997 1997 and 1998 1998 and 1999 1999 and 2000 2000 and 2001

X

Y

(D)


X

Y (E)

X

7. The laminated block shown above consists of a layer of wood between two layers of plastic. If each plastic layer is one-third as thick as the wooden layer, and the thickness of each layer is an integer, what is one possible height of a stack of such blocks? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

18 24 35 39 42


05 What if Stuck 41

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41

11/15/05 3:29:27 PM


8. If x is divisible by 5, what is the remainder when 3(x + 2) is divided by 5 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

0 1 2 4 6

9. If r and s are nonzero integers, and r + s = 0, which of the following must be true?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) 2r = 2s (B) rs = r2 (C) 2r – s = r + s (D) r2 + s2 = 0 2 (E) r = 1 s2

10. If x is 3 times y, and y is 4 more than x, then what is the sum of x and y ? (A) –8 (B) –4 (C) 0 (D) 4 (E) 7

42

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11. Set A consists of the positive odd numbers, set B consists of the integers between 2 and 12 inclusive, set C consists of the positive prime numbers less than or equal to 25, and set D consists of the distinct positive integer factors of 30. If X = A ∩ B , and Y = C ∩ D , which of the following is X ∪ Y ?

{1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11} {2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11} {3, 5} {2, 7, 9, 11} {2, 3, 5}

12. Lori is forming a team consisting of a team leader, a researcher, and an assistant to develop a new laser. If she has 7 scientists from which to choose, then how many arrangements of scientists are available? (A) 21 (B) 35 (C) 210 (D) 314 (E) 343


05 What if Stuck 42

11/15/05 3:29:28 PM


13. A certain artist’s income is directly proportional to the number of paintings she sells, and the number of paintings she sells is directly proportional to the number of art shows she has per month. She must distribute at least 30 flyers for each show. Last month she earned $2,400 by selling 120 paintings during the 4 art shows she had. If she needs to earn $3,600 this month, what is the minimum number of flyers she can distribute? (A) 6 (B) 60 (C) 120 (D) 150 (E) 180

14. The wheels of a train each have a radius of 9 inches. If the train is traveling on a track with light posts placed every 600 feet, how many revolutions will each wheel make between one light post and the next?

(A)

200 (approximately 63.66) π

(B)

400 (approximately 127.32) π

!

"

'AZEBO

3TATUE &OUNTAIN

15. The diagram above shows all paths in a garden between gazebo A and gazebo B. If each path segment is 30 feet long, what is the length in feet of the longest path that can be walked from gazebo A to gazebo B without passing a statue or retracing any path segment? (A) 60 (B) 180 (C) 240 (D) 300 (E) 360

(C) 50π (approximately 157.08) (D) 100π (approximately 314.16) (E) 200π (approximately 628.32)


05 What if Stuck 43

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43

11/15/05 3:29:29 PM

05 What if Stuck 44

11/15/05 3:29:29 PM

POOD Review

It’s time to put it all together. Remember that good pacing and careful problem selection have a huge impact on your score. Try these problems. If you can’t figure out how to solve it, can you eliminate any answer choices by ballparking? Are there Joe Bloggs answers? Did you try to Plug In or PITA? Good test takers are flexible in their approach.

6. Three squares, each with a perimeter of 12, are joined to form a rectangle. What is the perimeter of the resulting rectangle? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Do it Skip it

18 24 27 36 48


06 POOD Review 45

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45

11/15/05 3:29:33 PM


Do it Skip it

7. During a certain period in the growth of an organism, the number of cells contained in its body grows exponentially. If the organism contained 1,500 cells at the beginning of this period, and the number of cells in the organism doubles every 12 hours, how many cells does the organism contain after x hours? (A) 15002x (B) 1500 × 2 (C) 1500 × 2 (D) 2 × 1500 (E) 2 × 1500

Do it Skip it

|

x x 12 12 x

8. In a dog show, 30 percent of the male dogs and 15 percent of the female dogs won prizes. If 30 male dogs and 20 female dogs participated in the competition, what percent of the dogs in the show won prizes? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

46

x 12

12% 22.5% 24% 45% 90%


06 POOD Review 46

11/15/05 3:29:34 PM

POOD Review

9. Jackie takes 5 days to read a short book. If she reads 10 pages on the first day, nothing on the second day, 10 more pages on the third day, nothing on the fourth day, and 20 pages on the fifth day, which of the following graphs could be used to show her progress through the book?

Do it Skip it

Y

(A)

OFPAGES

$AY

$AY

$AY

$AY

$AY

X

Y

(B)

OFPAGES

X

Y

(C)

OFPAGES

X

Y

(D)

OFPAGES

X

Y

(E)

OFPAGES

X


06 POOD Review 47

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47

11/15/05 3:29:35 PM


M: {2, 5, 7} N: {2, 3, 7, 9} Do it Skip it

Do it Skip it

Do it Skip it

10. Which of the following is the average (arithmetic mean) of the members of M ∪ N ? (A)

4

(B) 4

1 2

(C)

5

(D) 5

1 5

(E) 5

2 3 1

11. If x −2 = 81 , what is the value of x 2 ? (A) −

1 9

(B)

1 9

(C)

1 3

(D)

3

(E)

9

12. A right triangle has a perimeter of 24 and a hypotenuse of 10. If the length of all three sides are integers, what is the triangle’s area? (A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 24 (E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

48

|


06 POOD Review 48

11/15/05 3:29:37 PM

POOD Review

13. If the y = x − 5 is graphed in the xy-coordinate system, what is the distance between the x-intercepts?

Do it Skip it

(A) −5 (B) 0 (C) 2.5 (D) 5 (E) 10

14. If

4

(A)

x 5 − 227 = 2 , then x = 5

Do it Skip it

−211

(B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 16 (E)

243

15. In a figure-skating competition, each contestant receives 10 scores. After the lowest and highest scores are removed, the average (arithmetic mean) of the remaining 8 scores is calculated. The average of Jamie’s ten scores is b and the average of her lowest and highest scores is d. In terms of b and d, what is the average of Jamie’s eight remaining scores?

Do it Skip it

(A) 10 b − 2 d b−d 8 5b − d (C) 5 8b − d (D) 4 5b − d (E) 4 (B)


06 POOD Review 49

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49

11/15/05 3:29:40 PM


Do it Skip it

16. A bicyclist travels at a rate of m miles per hour for z hours. If z is greater than 3, then the bicyclist would have to increase his rate by how many miles per hour, in terms of m and z, in order to travel the same distance in 3 fewer hours? (A) m(z – 3) (B)

mz z−3

(C) z(m – 3)

Do it Skip it

(D)

z−3 mz

(E)

mz −m z−3

17. An empty fuel-storage tank with a capacity of x gallons is filled completely by a supply pump at a rate of 5 gallons per minute. The tank is then immediately drained by an exhaust pump at a rate of 4 gallons per minute. If the entire process takes 18 hours, what is the value of x ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Do it Skip it

2,000 2,400 3,000 3,600 5,400

18. If the graph of f (x) = x2 + mx + n intersects the x-axis exactly one time, and f (–3) = 0, what is the value of m+n? (A) 15 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 0 (E) −3

50

|


06 POOD Review 50

11/15/05 3:29:41 PM

POOD Review

3

2 A

Do it Skip it

B 1

4

19. The area of rectangle QRST in the figure above is 48. If

6 a+b , what is the value of a ? = a 6

(A) 2 (B) 3.6 (C) 6.4 (D) 8 (E) 10

20. The first two terms of a sequence are 7 and 12. Beginning with the third term, each term is 3 less than the sum of the two numbers immediately preceding it. For example, the third term is 16, because (7 + 12) – 3 = 16. How many of the first 100 terms in this sequence are odd numbers? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Do it Skip it

33 34 50 66 67


06 POOD Review 51

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51

11/15/05 3:29:41 PM

06 POOD Review 52

11/15/05 3:29:41 PM

mAth homeWorK DENVER DAVE’S HOMEWORK REVIEW MODEL Remember: Review EVERY question you work on whether you get it right or wrong, and categorize each question as follows. Nailed it.

Mark a question with an N if you got this question right and totally understood both it and the underlying concepts. You know that you could get this type of question right regardless of how ETS presents it.

Got it/Guessed.

Mark a question with a G if you got this question right either by guessing or in some mysterious way you can’t remember afterwards. While we’ll take luck on test day, not so much during the class. The point is to be able to replicate the process by which you correctly answer questions on test day. Be sure to review these questions so that you know EXACTLY how it is answered.

Missed it—Doh!

Mark a question with an M if you missed it, but understood it upon review. This is the best kind of learning. If you make a silly mistake once and realize why you did so, you are that much closer to NOT doing it next time!

Faster Way?

Mark a question with an F if you got the question right but want to know if there is a faster way to solve it.

Huh?

Mark a question with an H if you missed this question and can’t fi gure it out on your own. This is defi nitely the kind of question you ask about during homework review at the beginning of each class.

On the homework pages that follow:

• Do the questions, then check your answers against the answer key.

• Mark each question with an N, G, M, F, or H, depending on what category it falls into.

• Get your hands on a brightly colored highlighter and CLEARLY MARK those questions you want to ask your teacher about in the next class. This will make them easier for you to fi nd.


07 Math HW 53

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53

11/15/05 3:29:47 PM


PLUGGING IN

6. The difference between (p + 5) and (p – 7) is (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2 12 p–2 2p – 2 p + 12

6. On Tuesday, two-thirds of a large block of ice melted. On Wednesday, one-half of the remaining ice melted. If the block of ice then weighed 60 pounds, how much did it weigh, in pounds, at the beginning of the day on Tuesday?

7. Printer A prints at a constant rate of x pages per hour. Printer B’s constant rate is one-third that of Printer A. If the two printers worked together for three hours, how many pages, in terms of x, will they print? (A) 4x (B) 3x (C) 2x 4 (D) x 3 (E) x

54

|

9. Alicia is 5 years younger than Jane, who is currently j years old. In terms of j, how old will Alicia be in 8 years? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

j+3 j–1 j–3 j–5 j–8 s$ ! s X

(A) 540 (B) 480 (C) 360 (D) 180 (E) 20

8. The number of clients a certain company serves triples for each year the company is in business. After 5 years in business, the company now serves 10,935 clients. If the company originally served c clients when it first formed, what is the value of c ? (A) 5 (B) 15 (C) 45 (D) 729 (E) 3,645

6. In a certain store, small puppets cost $1 each and large puppets cost $2 each. If the store sold 25 puppets for a total of $30, how many small puppets were sold? (A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 15 (D) 10 (E) 5

#s

A

' s B

s%

s &

9. In the figure above, CD intersects AF at A and AF intersects CE at G. What is the value of x in terms of a and b? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

90 + a − b 90 + a + b 180 + a − b 180 + a + b 180 − b


07 Math HW 54

11/15/05 3:29:48 PM

Math Homework

9. If a is a positive integer, which of the following must be a positive even integer?

2

(A) (a + 2)

11. Marlene is m feet tall and Albert is w inches tall. If Marlene is taller than Albert, which of the following formulas expresses, in feet, how much taller Marlene is than Albert?

(B) 2a + 1 (A) m – 12w

(C) 2a (D) 3a + 2 (E)

(B) m – w

a 3

(C) w − 12m 12

10. Ernie is three times as old as Bert and four years younger than Roger. If Bert is b years old, which of the following expresses Roger’s age? 1 (A) b – 4 3 (B) b – 4 (C) b + 4

(D)

(E) 12m – w

11. Circle A has a radius of v. The area of Circle B is twice the area of Circle A. If the radius of Circle B is w, what is v in terms of w ?

(D) 3b – 4 (E) 3b + 4

10. If one-fourth of a number is 3 less than half of the number, what is the number? (A) –12 (B) 6 (C) 12 (D) 16 (E) 18

12m − w 12

(A)

(B)

w 2 w 2

(C) w 2

(D) 2w

(E) 4w


07 Math HW 55

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55

11/15/05 3:29:50 PM


10 a + 6 11. If x = , and y = 5a, what is x 4 in terms of y ? y+3 2 y+6 (B) 2 y+6 (C) 4 5y + 3 (D) 10 (A)

(E) 20y – 6

(A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 15 (E) 20 3

1 , then x 2 = x

2 12. If z =

(C)

1 z2

(E) 8

1 z4 1 (E) 2z4

1 a = 4 b = 8c then, in terms of c, 2 what is the value of a + b ?

14. If

3

12. If (2m) = m , what is the value of m? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2

(D) 2

(D)

2

a2 = 1 , what is the value of a ? 2a

1 8 1 (B) 2

(B) z 2

13. If

(A)

(A) 4 z 2

(C)

13. If 20% of the science students at Central High study only physics, 25% study only chemistry and the rest study only biology, what is the smallest number of science students who could be studying biology?

1 2 3 4 6

1 13. The weight of a barrel is of the 4 weight of the water it contains when

(A)

9c 2

(B) 6c (C) 8c (D)

25c 2

(E) 18c

full. If, when full, the barrel and water weigh a total of 20 pounds, what is the weight, in pounds, of the empty barrel? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 15 (D) 16 (E) 80

56

|


07 Math HW 56

11/15/05 3:29:55 PM

Math Homework

14. Jenn saved some money that she

earned working at a summer job.

(A) 8y (B) 9y (C) 10y (D) 12y (E) 15y

2 She spent of the money on 5 1 clothes and of it on a DVD 4 player. If she has $350 remaining,

how much money had she originally

(A) $1,000 (B) $900 (C) $800 (D) $600 (E) $500 15. If n is a positive multiple of five and is less than 50, and a is an even number greater than or equal to 100, which of the following expressions CANNOT be an integer? n a a (B) n a (C) 2n 2a (D) n

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A)

(E)

n2 a 1

15. If

3n 3

2 is an integer, which of the − 2n 3 following could be the value of n ?

I. 1 II. 2 III. 3 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16. If 0 < a < 1 and b < 0, which of the following must be true? I. a × a−1 × b = b II. a × b−1 = −ab III. a × a −1 = −a2

saved?

16. If 2x = 3y = 4w, what is 5x + 6w in terms of y ?

17. In a set of six consecutive integers, the sum of the three smallest integers is s. In terms of s, what is the sum of the three greatest integers in the set? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

None of the above I only II only III only II and III only

s+3 s+6 s+9 3s + 6 3s + 9

17. The score for a certain exam is determined by awarding 3 points for every correct answer and subtracting 1 point for every incorrect answer. How many questions did a student answer correctly if she answered all of the 93 questions on the exam and her final score was 247 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

71 77 82 85 90

None of the above I only II only I and II only I, II, and III


07 Math HW 57

|

57

11/15/05 3:29:58 PM


18. At a cost of t cents for 5 oranges, how many oranges can be bought for x dollars?

(A)

500x t

(B)

500t x

20x (C) t (D)

20t x

(E) 20tx

19. If the local sales tax is 6%, and if t is the price of an item after tax has been added, which of the following expressions could be used to find the price of the item before taxation? (A) 0.06t (B) 0.94t (C)

t 0.94

(D) 1.06t (E)

t 1.06

18. In sequence F, each term after the first term is found by multiplying the previous term by a. If the second term is 10 and the fourth term is 2.5, what is the value of a?

(A)

1 8

(B)

1 2

(C) 2 (D) 4 (E) 8

18. Andy had four times as many dollars as Chris. When Andy gave Chris ten dollars, he then had twice as many dollars as Chris. How many dollars did Andy have originally? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

58

|

20 40 50 60 80


07 Math HW 58

11/15/05 3:30:00 PM

Math Homework

19. If 0 < x < 1, which of the following statements must be true? (A) x2 < x <

x

(B) x < x2 <

x

(C)

x < x < x2

(D) x <

x < x2

(E) x2 <

x

19. If the average (arithmetic mean) of three numbers is 9, and two of the numbers are greater than 11, which of the following must be true? I. The greatest number is less than 27. II. The least number is less than 5. III. The second greatest number is 12. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

I only II only III only I and II only II and III only


07 Math HW 59

|

59

11/15/05 3:30:01 PM


GEOMETRY

1. What is the measure of a right angle?

2. What is the sum of the measures of the angles on one side of a straight line?

3. What is the sum of the measures of the angles in a triangle?

4. What is the sum of the measures of the angles in a quadrilateral?

5. What is the sum of the measures of the angles at the center of a circle?

6. What can you say about the measures of two angles across from each other when two straight lines intersect?

7. What does it mean to bisect an angle or a line segment?

8. What does it mean for two lines to be perpendicular?

9. What does it mean for two lines to be parallel?

60

|

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

_ ________________________________________________________________

10. What can you say about the angle across from the longest side in a triangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

11. What can you say about the angle across from the shortest side in a triangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________


07 Math HW 60

11/15/05 3:30:01 PM

Math Homework

12. What can you say about the angles across from equal sides in a triangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

13. Name two important facts about an isosceles triangle:

_ ________________________________________________________________

14. Name two important facts about an equilateral triangle:

_ ________________________________________________________________

15. Name three important facts about a parallelogram:

_ ________________________________________________________________

16. What makes a parallelogram a rectangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

17. What makes a rectangle a square?

_ ________________________________________________________________

18. How does the diameter of a circle compare to the radius?

_ ________________________________________________________________

19. What is the formula for the area of a parallelogram (which also applies to a rectangle or a square)?

_ ________________________________________________________________

20. What is the formula for the area of a triangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

21. How do the base and height have to be related?

_ ________________________________________________________________

22. What is the formula for the area of a circle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

23. How can you find the perimeter of any polygon?

_ ________________________________________________________________


07 Math HW 61

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61

11/15/05 3:30:01 PM


62

|

24. What is the formula for the circumference of a circle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

25. What is the formula for the Pythagorean theorem, and what do the variables represent?

_ ________________________________________________________________

26. What are the ratios of the sides of ETS’s three favorite right triangles?

_ ________________________________________________________________

27. What is the formula for the volume of a rectangular box?

_ ________________________________________________________________

28. What is the formula for the slope of a line?

_ ________________________________________________________________

29. What is the ratio of the sides of a 45°-45°-90° triangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

30. What is the ratio of the sides of a 30°-60°-90° triangle?

_ ________________________________________________________________

31. Where can you find a lot of this information during the test?

_ ________________________________________________________________

32. What should you do if a figure is not drawn to scale?

_ ________________________________________________________________

33. What should you do if no figure is provided for a geometry question?

_ ________________________________________________________________

34. What should you do if there are variables in the questions or answer choices?

_ ________________________________________________________________

35. What is Ballparking?

_ ________________________________________________________________


07 Math HW 62

11/15/05 3:30:02 PM

Math Homework

X

X

A B C

F

X

E A

1. What is the value of x ? __________ a = 40, b = 30

4. What is the value of e + f ? __________

X

L

X

L

2. What is the value of x ? __________ l1 || l2

5. What is the value of x ? __________

Y

3. What is the value of y ? __________

Y

6. What is the value of y ? __________


07 Math HW 63

|

63

11/15/05 3:30:03 PM


s

R

7. What is the area of the triangle? __________

10. If the circumference is 12π, what is the area of the circle? __________

s

8. What is the area of the triangle? __________

11. What is the area of the shaded region? __________

X

64

|

X

9. What is the value of x ? __________


07 Math HW 64

11/15/05 3:30:03 PM

Math Homework

Z

X

Z

X ))

) Y

10. A line has a slope of 3 and contains a point with coordinates (2, 1). Which of the following coordinates also describes a point on that line? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Y

7. If the lengths of the sides of Triangles I and II above are as shown, then the perimeter of Triangle II is how many times the perimeter of Triangle I ?

(0, –2) (1, 2) (2, 3) (4, 1) (3, 4)

49˚

x˚ (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

1 2 2 3 9 8 3 2 9 2

y˚

m

l %

l

m

11. In the figure above, what is the value of x + y ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

119 121 129 131 139

B A

C

1 9. In the figure above, if a = b and 2 c = 30, then b = (A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 100


07 Math HW 65

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65

11/15/05 3:30:05 PM


#

" X

Y %

!

$

12. In the figure above, ABCD is a rectangle. If BE = CE, what is the value of y in terms of x ?


11. The figure above represents a cross-section of a set of stacked proportional cones. If the smallest cone has a height of 12 inches and a base diameter of 3 inches, and the largest cone has a base radius of 3 inches, what is the height of the largest cone, in inches? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A)

x 2

(B)

180 − x 2

(C) 360 – 2x

12 18 24 28 30

(D)

x

(E)

2x Y

" s n

#

s 0

12. What is the volume of a cube that has a surface area of 96 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

s

24 32 48 64 72

!s n n

s$

12. In the figure above, if Q is a point (not shown) on the perimeter of ABCD such that segment PQ bisects the square region ABCD, what are the coordinates of Q ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

|

X

/

66

s

(–8, –3) (–8, 3) (3, –8) (8, –3) (3, 8)


07 Math HW 66

11/15/05 3:30:06 PM

Math Homework

13. Rectangle ABCD (not shown) has a perimeter of 20. If AB = 3, then what is the area of ABCD ?

14. Points Q, R, S, and T lie on the same line, not necessarily in that order. If QR = 5, RS = 7, and ST = 4, which of the following could NOT be the value of QT ? (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10 (E) 16

%

14. Circle A has a radius of 2. If a square is drawn with all four of its vertices on Circle A, what is the area of the square? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

&

2 4 8 2π 4π 2

3

$

'

13. In the figure above, the smaller square has its vertices at the midpoints of the sides of square DEFG. If EF = 6, what is the perimeter of the smaller square? (A) (B) (C) (D)

12 18 24 9 2 (approximately 12.73) (E) 12 2 (approximately 16.97)

/

0

1

14. In the figure above, points P, Q, R, and S lie on the circumference of a circle with center O. If the measure of ∠ SOP = 100°, what is the measure of ∠ OPQ ? (A) 100° (B) 80° (C) 70° (D) 60° (E) 50°


07 Math HW 67

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67

11/15/05 3:30:08 PM


!

" #

%

s/ X 0

$

1


14. If the ratio of AC to CD is 1 to 3, then the area of  ABC is what fraction of the area of CDE ?

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

|

15. In the figure above, if O is the center of the circle, then x =

1 9 1 4 1 3 1 2 4 3

14. A figure is formed by drawing a rectangle and connecting the midpoint of each side by line segments to the midpoint of every other side. How many triangles are formed in the resulting figure? (A) 0 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12 (E) 16

68

Z

X

Y

W

15. In the figure above, (x – z) + (y – w) =


07 Math HW 68

11/15/05 3:30:09 PM

Math Homework

L

s

s

s

s

L

X

16. In the figure above, the four quartercircles share only the midpoints of the sides of the square. If the length of a side of the square is x, what is the area of the shaded region, in terms of x ?

18. If l1 is parallel to l2 in the figure above, what is the value of x ?

π ) 4 π (B) x 2 (1 − ) 2

(A) x 2 (1 −

(C) x 2 (π − 2 ) (D) x( 4 − π ) (E) 2 x(π − 2 )

4

17. In the coordinate plane, rectangle ABCD has vertices A(−2, 6), B (f, 6), C (f, −2), and D (−2, −2). If the perimeter of ABCD is 38, which of the following could be the value of f ?

X 5

(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 13 (E) 15

3

6

18. In the figure above, x = (A)

7

(B)

6

(C)

4 2

(D)

30

(E)

5


07 Math HW 69

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69

11/15/05 3:30:12 PM


Y

" ! s

#

X

19. An isosceles triangle has a side of length 9 and its perimeter is less than 27. If the lengths of the sides of the triangle are integers, what is the greatest possible difference between the lengths of any two sides?

19. In the figure above, if right triangle ABC is rotated about the origin counter-clockwise until point B lies on the positive y-axis, what will be the new coordinates of point B ? (A) (0, 1) (B) ( 3 , 0) (C) (0, 2)

(D) (0,

3)

(E) (0,

5)

3 and 8 contains the points with coordinates

19. If line m has a slope of –

(–1, –2) and (x, –8), what is the value of x ?

70

|


07 Math HW 70

11/15/05 3:30:13 PM

Math Homework

OTHER APPROACHES Average (Arithmetic Mean), Median & Mode S = {14, 17, 12, 3, 4, 7, 20}

5. What is the difference between the median of set S and the average (arithmetic mean) of set S ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) 50 (B) 28 (C) 26 (D) 16 (E) 8

1 2 3 4 5

6. The average (arithmetic mean) of three numbers is 8. If the third number is 10, then the sum of the first two numbers is

8. If the average (arithmetic mean) of 21, 12, 37 and y is 20, what is the value of y ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

10 16 20 22.5 40

10. If 13 is the average (arithmetic mean) of 22, 12, y, y, y, and y, what is the value of y ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) 16 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 10 (E) 7

10. If 26 is the average (arithmetic mean) of 33, 17, and x, what is the value of x ?

11 13 16 22 44

11. Nine members of a baseball team have batting averages of .280, .310, .200, .280, .270, .280, .240, .270, and .200, respectively. What is the mode of these batting averages? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

.200 .240 .250 .255 .280


07 Math HW 71

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71

11/15/05 3:30:13 PM


12. If the sum of 4, 7, 19, x, and y is 60, what is the average (arithmetic mean) of x and y ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

16. If x =

1 1 y and x = z , then the 2 3

average (arithmetic mean) of x, y,

12 15 20 24 30

and z in terms of z is

(A) 3z

13. If the sum of 5, 17, 18, x, and y is 60, what is the average of x and y ?

(B) 2z

14. At the end of the season, the coach of a basketball team analyzed the number of points the team scored in each game. If the median of the scores was 54 points, and the mode was 48 points, which of the following must be true?

(C)

2 z 3

(D)

1 z 3

(E)

1 z 6

18. A group of 5 students whose ages are 9, 7, 8, 13, and 17 are riding a bus, which then stops to pick up a sixth student. If the median age of the new group is 10, what must be the age of the sixth student? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 10 (E) 11

(A) There was at least one game in which the team scored exactly 54 points. (B) The average (arithmetic mean) of the scores was less than 54 points. (C) The score that occurred the most frequently was 48 points. (D) The number of games in which the team scored less than 48 points was equal to the number of games in which the team scored more than 48 points. (E) There were as many games in which the team scored 60 points as there were in which the team scored 48 points.

72

|


07 Math HW 72

11/15/05 3:30:15 PM

Math Homework

Percents

6. What is 5% of 20% of 300 ? (A) 0.3 (B) 3 (C) 30 (D) 300 (E) 3,000

10. The manager of a clothing store decreases the price of a blouse 20%. If the original price of the blouse was $23.00, what is the new price? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$27.60 $18.40 $18.30 $17.40 $4.60

11. If 3 of a dealership’s 24 cars were sold, what percent of the dealership’s cars remained unsold? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

13. To graduate, Jill must take a certain number of credits. If Jill took 25% of the required credits her first year at school, and 40% of the remainder the following year, what percent of the required credits does she have left to complete?

14. During a special promotion, a shoe store offers customers a 30 percent discount on a pair of shoes when they purchase a pair of boots at full price. If Julia buys a pair of shoes that originally cost $20 and a pair of boots that has a full price of $40, by what percent is the cost of her total purchase discounted? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

95% 87.5% 27% 21% 12.5%

15% 35% 45% 65% 75%

3% 10% 20% 30% 90%

4 of n, then n is what 3 percent of m ?

15. If m is

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

133% 120% 90% 75% 33%


07 Math HW 73

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73

11/15/05 3:30:15 PM


16. The price of a book is increased by 10 percent and the new price is then increased by an additional 10 percent. The two increases are equivalent to a single increase of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

|

14. Vikram lives in a state where the sales tax is 7%. He purchases a piece of exercise equipment and pays $56.00 in sales tax. What was the price of the equipment in dollars, not including sales tax? (Disregard the dollar sign when gridding in your answer.)

17. If a television set cost $350 in 1980 and $385 in 1990, by what percent did the cost increase from 1980 to 1990 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

74

1% 11% 20% 21% 100%

3.5% 10% 35% 65% 85%


07 Math HW 74

11/15/05 3:30:15 PM

Math Homework

Ratios

7 1. If the ratio of a to b is , then the 3 ratio of 2a to b is

(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 60 (D) 80 (E) 100

7 (A) 6 (B) 2 (C)

14. A line 120 meters long is divided into two portions in a ratio of 1 : 5. The longer portion is how many meters longer than the shorter portion?

7 3

(D) 3 (E)

2. In a certain game, twelve players form a team. If a team must have at least one male player for every three female players, what is the minimum number of male players on any team? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

14 3

1 2 3 4 5

Red Marbles

White Marbles

Jar 1

1

2

Jar 2

5

7

Jar 3

3

6

Jar 4

2

3

Jar 5

3

4

16. According to the chart above, in which jar is the ratio of red marbles to white marbles the greatest? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Jar 1 Jar 2 Jar 3 Jar 4 Jar 5

13. The recipe for Jim’s Punch calls for 6 cups of orange juice, 5 cups of soda, and 3

1 cups of sherbet, and 2

serves 12 guests. If a bowl of punch made in this proportion contains 8

3 4

cups of soda, how many guests will it serve? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

18 20 21 23 24


07 Math HW 75

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75

11/15/05 3:30:17 PM


15. If a mixture requires 5 times as 1 much charcoal as sulfur, and as 2 much saltpeter as sulfur, then what fractional part of the mixture is sulfur?

18. A teacher spent $42 on books. Hardcover books cost $4 each and paperback books cost $2 each. If the teacher purchased three hardcover books for every paperback book, how many books did the teacher purchase all together? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

76

|

Three Seven Nine Twelve Fourteen

15. In a certain school, there are 4 boys for every 5 girls, and 1 teacher for every 4 boys. If there are 440 people in the school, how many are boys?


07 Math HW 76

11/15/05 3:30:17 PM

Math Homework

Proportions

3. If the ratio of 3 to 5 is the same as the ratio of 12 to x, what is the value of x ?

13. A typist types at a constant rate of 155 words every 5 minutes. After 4 minutes, how many words has he typed?

14. A race car completes a 450-mile course in 3 hours. Another race car, traveling at the same speed, would take how many minutes to complete a 90-mile course?

(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20 (E) 24

4. In a restaurant where the sales tax on a $4.00 lunch is $0.24, what will be the sales tax on a $15.00 dinner? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

$0.60 $0.75 $0.90 $1.20 $1.74


07 Math HW 77

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77

11/15/05 3:30:18 PM


Graphs

Y

9. In the xy-coordinate system, (q, 0) is one of the points of intersection

of the graphs of y = x 2 − 16 , and 1 y = x 2 − 4 . If q is negative, what 4 is the value of q ? (A) –4 (B) –8 (C) –16 (D) –32 (E) –64

12. The graph of a linear function in the xy coordinate plane is given by the equation 2 y = 3 x + 7. Which of the following is the equation of the reflection of this graph across the y-axis? (A) 2 y = −3 x + 7

s s

s s

(D) 3 y = 2 x + 7 (E) 3 y = −2 x + 7

78

|

X

13. The graph of y = g(x) is shown above. If g(4) = d, which of the following could be the value of g(d) ? (A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 7

2 3

(D) 8

1 3

(B) 2 y = 3 x − 7 (C) 2 y = −3 x − 7

s

(E) 10

2 3


07 Math HW 78

11/15/05 3:30:21 PM

Math Homework

Y

Y

"n A

s

/

14. The graph of y = f ( x ) is shown in the figure above. Which of the following could be the graph of y = f ( x + 5) − 2 ? Y

(A)

X

X

!n nA

# A

$ nA


18. In the figure above, ABCD is a rectangle. Points A and D lie on the graph of y = –cx4, where c is a constant. If the area of ABCD is 128, what is the value of c ?

X

/

Y

s

(B)

X

/

Y

(C)

s

/

X

Y

s

(D)

X

/

Y

s

(E)

/

X


07 Math HW 79

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79

11/15/05 3:30:22 PM

07 Math HW 80

11/15/05 3:30:22 PM

Critical Reading Introduction

Easy

Sentence Completions Short Reading

Long Reading

Medium Difficult

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

Easy



Medium Difficult

Short Reading

Long Reading

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24


Easy


Medium Difficult

Long Reading

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19


As you know, the Critical Reading section of the SAT is made up of three types of questions:

• Sentence Completions

• Short Passage-Based Reading

• Long Passage-Based Reading © The Princeton Review, Inc.

08 Crit Read Intro 81

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81

11/17/05 2:47:19 PM


Critical Reading passages can vary in length from 100-word short passages to 950-word long dual passages, and come in four formats: single short, dual short, single long, and dual long. Short passages aren’t “easier”; they are simply shorter.

PROCESS OF ELIMINATION (POE) Remember, reading questions don’t really have a “right” answer, they have a “best” answer. To find the best answer, begin by eliminating the worst answers. Always consider every answer choice! Remember: if you’re not sure of the meaning of a word in an answer choice, don’t eliminate that choice. Be aggressive; with our techniques, you’ll be able to eliminate a few answer choices on almost every question. And as long as you can eliminate at least one answer choice, guess from among the remaining choices—the odds are in your favor.

PACING Most people think that if they are unable to finish a test, then they’ve really messed up. This is not true on the SAT. It is much more important to go at a pace at which you can answer questions correctly than it is to try to finish the test. So attempt this many questions To get: (scaled score)

You need to earn: (raw points)

23–25 question section

23–25 question section

Total # of 19-question questions to section attempt

300

5

6

6

3

15

350

9

8

8

4

20

400

14

11

11

8

30

450

21

15

15

12

42

500

29

20

20

14

54

550

38

23

23

18

64

600

46

all

all

all

67

650

53

all

all

all

67

700

59

all

24

all

67

750

63

all

all

all

67

800

67

all

all

all

67

After taking four or more diagnostic tests, you should have a good idea of what your goal score should be. Look at the pacing chart and memorize the number of questions you need to answer to get the score you want. You should use all of your time to work on those questions rather than struggling to work all the questions and making careless errors or worse, sitting around with ten minutes left at the end of every section.

82

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11/17/05 2:47:19 PM

Critical Reading Introduction

Take more time per question and get more questions right.

a Pood reMinder Remember that order of difficulty pretty much goes out the window on the Critical Reading section. You control which questions you answer, and the order in which you answer them. Go through the section looking for questions that look easier for you. You’ll notice that the pacing chart tells you how many questions to do in each section, but doesn’t tell you how many of each question type to do. That’s because different people are better at different kinds of questions. If you have a strong vocabulary, you may want to do more sentence completions. If you’ve developed a knack for quickly fi guring out the main idea of a long passage, you may want to concentrate on the long reading questions. By looking at your score report, you and your teacher can fi gure out which kinds of questions you’re best at, and devise a plan that suits you.

READING Nothing will improve your score on the Critical Reading section of the SAT as much as developing the ability to determine quickly what a piece of writing is trying to say. The more practice you get, the better off you’ll be. Choose material whose meaning isn’t evident at a glance and ask yourself: • What did that sentence actually say? • What is the author trying to get at in this paragraph? •

What is the main idea of this page?

VOCABULARY The one thing that can make any Critical Reading question difficult, whether it be a sentence completion or a reading question, is not knowing all the words in the question or the answer choices. If you haven’t learned all of the words in the Hit Parade, you’re putting yourself at a disadvantage. Even if you know all of our techniques, you won’t have much success if you don’t know many of the words. The SAT tests the same words year after year, so you don’t have to memorize the entire dictionary. If you come across any unfamiliar words in your manual, diagnostic tests, 11 Practice Tests book, or other practice materials, learn them. It’s very likely that you’ll see some of them on the real test. If you’ve learned all of these words and want more, your teacher can give you a longer vocabulary list— just ask.



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83

11/17/05 2:47:20 PM


11/17/05 2:47:20 PM

ReaDing

CoMpRehension

The ChoiCeS The “best” answer on a reading question will not: • offend anyone • violate common sense • use extreme language • use deceptive language • require outside knowledge of the topic • suggest an extreme tone

11. According to the passage, the role played by American farmers in U.S. history has been (A) generally insignificant with a few exceptions during the nineteenth century (B) somewhat overlooked and deserving of further recognition by historians (C) difficult to discern from existing records (D) more important than that of any other group (E) different in several respects from the roles played by European farmers


09 Reading Comp 85

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85

11/15/05 3:30:31 PM


12. The author characterizes the great wave of European immigrants in the late nineteenth century as (A) resulting from various religious, political and economic factors (B) a burden on American resources from which the United States has yet to recover (C) an event of only short-term importance to the nation (D) identical in every respect to the immigrations of the early twentieth century (E) a boon to American industrial development

13. The author’s attitude toward Thomas Jefferson’s presidency can best be described as (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

jubilant admiring indifferent critical embittered

The questions You always want to know what you’re looking for before you go to the passage. Are you just fetching information, or are you reading between the lines? Translate each of the questions below so you know exactly what you are being asked to do.

86

|

1. The author’s reaction to the photograph can best be described as

2. The mention of the traffic light serves to

3. In the third paragraph (lines 12-16), the author suggests that


09 Reading Comp 86

11/15/05 3:30:31 PM

Reading Comprehension

4. On the morning described in the passage, Paul performs all of the following actions EXCEPT

5. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the surveyor’s claim about the Albert Hall (lines 3031)?

Review : Question Types Questions fall into two main types: fetch information questions and reasoning questions that ask you to read between the lines. The former require are pretty straightforward, while the latter require more work interpreting the author’s intent. All require you to paraphrase your own answer before going to the answers. Here’s how to approach the most common tasks in Critical Reading:

Specific Detail Find the information the question is asking for. The answer will be nothing more than a rewording of something in the passage.

Specific Purpose The best answer choice will be the one that explains why a particular part of the passage was included.

Primary Purpose Choose the answer choice that best describes what the passage is doing.

Main Idea Don’t get lost in details. Find the answer choice that summarizes the entire passage, not just a piece of it. Of course, don’t pick an answer choice that goes beyond the passage, either.

Tone Eliminate choices that are too extreme, then choose the best fit from the choices that remain.


09 Reading Comp 87

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87

11/15/05 3:30:32 PM


Vocab in Context Treat these like sentence completions. Remember, if the word looks easy, the passage will be using it in an unusual way, so be on your guard.

Weaken/Strengthen Figure out the main point of the argument, then find the answer choice that best supports your side (with the author on strengthens, against the author on weakens).

Inference Pick the answer choice that sticks the closest to what must be true based on the passage.

Analogous Reasoning Paraphrase the relationship that the question is asking about, then eliminate any answer choice that doesn’t share the same relationship.

Literary Terms Make sure you’ve learned the definitions of these terms: simile, metaphor, personification, hyperbole, irony, and any others you’ve encountered in preparing for the test. Use the context to determine what the author is trying to express through the use of these devices.

Time Suck For EXCEPT/NOT/LEAST questions, don’t look for what’s not there: if the problem asks which one of the following five things isn’t in the passage, find the four that are. On I/II/III questions, use the choices to help you avoid unnecessary work.

PARAPHRASING Knowing that a particular line of the passage answers the question you’re working on doesn’t help if you don’t understand that line. Try to answer the question in your own words before you go to the answer choices. For each of the excerpts below, write a short paraphrase that shows what the passage is really saying.

88

|

1. The advent of chipboard, which is as cheap as particle board but equal in tensile strength and rigidity to plywood, means that much of our home-construction lumber will now come not from the giants of the forest but from replaceable saplings.


09 Reading Comp 88

11/15/05 3:30:32 PM


2. Architecture is doomed from the outset, as long as its quest for modernity leads it toward globes, ellipses, steep angles, and other “futuristic” shapes, and away from the ideal shapes for human habitation: the rectangle and the cube.

3. The reversal of the trend toward mightier stonework, thicker walls, and heavier armor was accomplished by an agent far more subtle than an army of knights; this change immediately followed the invention of gunpowder.

4. The luminist school of American landscape painting drenched the monumental vistas of the American West in golden, surreal light, transforming already striking scenes into glimpses of utopia.

5. Some argue that because Suppliants, in which the chorus is the protagonist, was written later than Persai and Septem, in which it is not, we can therefore conclude that in early tragedy the chorus was passive, its role limited to singing choral songs juxtaposed with brief speeches; this notion may seem reasonable, but in fact it is based on flawed logic.


09 Reading Comp 89

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The BASiC APPRoACh 1. Read the italicized blurb that comes before the passage (if there is one). 2. Go straight to the questions. If you need to skim the passage to get your bearings, do it quickly to get the GIST of the passage, but not for detail.

The GiST stands for the General idea, Structure, and Tone of the passage.

3. Read and translate the question. You can’t answer a question if you don’t know what it’s really asking. Some ETS questions don’t even look like questions, so make sure you know exactly what you’re looking for before you move past this step. 4. Go to the passage and read what you need to fi nd the answer. There’s only one way to be sure that the answer you’re choosing is the best answer: You should be able to point to the place in the passage that proves it correct. If you can’t put your fi nger on the reason an answer is correct, it probably isn’t. Always go back to the passage to fi nd the information that answers the question. It’s in there! 5. Answer the question in your own words. Jot down your answer so you don’t waste effort reciting it to yourself as you read the answer choices. 6. Use POE to eliminate wrong answers. Question 14 is based on the following passage. Each flock of migratory birds flies at the altitude that gets the birds the best speed while using the least amount of energy. The birds also take advantage of updrafts and tail winds. Some take a different route south from their route north, in Line order to take advantage of the prevailing winds. Birds’ sen5 sitivity to atmospheric pressure gives them an innate ability to forecast the weather, and migratory birds do most of their flying during weather favorable for flight. One leading ornithologist said that migratory birds “reach a level of expertise in 10 flying that surpasses even the most skillful and experienced human pilots.”

14. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage? (A) Airplanes should fly at the same altitude as birds do to in order to maximize efficiency. (B) No mammal can predict weather as accurately as can migrating birds. (C) Some believe human pilots to be less adept at flying than migratory birds. (D) Migratory birds prefer to fly in the direction from which the wind is blowing. (E) Ornithologists study both migratory and non-migratory birds.

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09 Reading Comp 90

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Short Dual Passages Short dual passages will appear at least once per test. There will be 1-2 questions that refer to a single passage, and 2-3 that ask about the relationship between the passages. Treat these just as you would other reading passages—read the question first, then go to the passages. Questions 6-9 are based on the following passages. Passage 1 Popular in the 1960’s, the Language Acquisition Device theory stated that humans used a unique part of the brain that was “hard-wired” to acquire the rules necessary to speak a Line language. Evolutionary biologists were always skeptical, as 5 new brain structures typically take a longer time to evolve than the time from which humans became a distinct species. Furthermore, modern studies showed that, while certain parts of the brain are used to learn languages, these areas of the brain are not unique to humans. The use of American Sign 10 Language by chimpanzees was the final bombshell which destroyed the old theory in the eyes of all but a few stalwarts. Passage 2 The human vocal tract has evolved specifically for the demands of speech. The arrangement of our larynxes, vocal tracts, mouths, and pharynxes gives humans the ability to 15 produce a greater range of sounds than is possible for other animals. This specialization for language, however, makes other basic uses of these organs such breathing, swallowing, and chewing difficult or even dangerous. Choking on food has historically been a common cause of death in humans. The 20 evolutionary benefits of developing vocal language must have been enormous in order to compensate for such a potentially life-threatening drawback.

6. In Passage 1, the author’s main point about the Language Acquisition Device theory is that (A) it was a good model for studying the behavior of chimpanzees (B) nobody could have foreseen its quick demise (C) it proved the uniqueness of humans in the evolutionary pyramid (D) it was popular among evolutionary biologists (E) it failed to hold up to rigorous scrutiny


09 Reading Comp 91

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91

11/15/05 3:30:33 PM


7. Which of the following situations is most analogous to the relationship of non-humans to vocal speech as presented in the passages? (A) An accomplished flute player attempts to play a saxophone for the first time and cannot produce a song she knows how to play well on the flute. (B) A Chinese girl who was born in Australia and only spoken to in English by her parents cannot speak Chinese when she visits the country in adolescence. (C) A Czech poet residing in the United States faces difficulty in articulating his reflections in American English. (D) A hobbyist who makes wooden models of cars gathers all the parts needed to build an engine and motor but cannot make the car run in the configuration he has devised for the equipment. (E) With instruction, a human being can learn many languages and dialects and therefore communicate successfully in languages other than his or her native tongue.

8. The author of Passage 2 mentions breathing, swallowing and chewing in order to (A) emphasize the danger of utilizing the vocal tract for more than one process at a time (B) imply that the ability to produce vocal communication is a basic necessity for humans (C) highlight potential uses of the larynx and pharynx that are more beneficial than is producing verbal language (D) demonstrate that unique parts of the body developed to handle all the needs of humans (E) refute the idea that it is impossible for animals other than humans to produce vocal communication

9. Unlike the author of Passage 1, the author of Passage 2 does which of the following? (A) Denies that human evolution could have led to verbal speech (B) Suggests one reason why verbal speech is possible for humans, but not other animals (C) States that the language-producing areas of the brain are the same in humans and animals (D) Proves that humans are hard-wired to produce language (E) Demonstrates that humans must choose to utilize their vocal tract for only one activity at a time

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09 Reading Comp 92

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Long Passages The chief difficulty posed by long passages is that it’s harder to find the information you’re looking for. Resist the temptation to linger over the passage trying to absorb every last detail; instead, use these techniques to find the relevant portion of the passage quickly.

Line Reference Go to the line the question indicates, then read from five lines before that line to five lines after that line. The answer won’t be on the line the question directs you to, but it’ll be nearby.

Lead Word If there’s no line reference, hunt for a relevant word or phrase that will tell you that you’re in the right area. Ask yourself what you’d type into a search engine if you had one to help you.

Chronology Don’t forget that the questions will appear in roughly the same order that their answers appear in the passage. The exception is that general questions, such as main idea and primary purpose, can appear anywhere; skip these when you encounter them, and come back to them after you’ve finished the specific questions.


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93

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Questions 16-21 are based on the following passage. The following passage discusses the poets Langston Hughes and Countee Cullen and their contributions to the Harlem Renaissance.

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It would not be far-fetched to say that a poem by a black student, appearing in the De Witt Clinton High School (New York City) literary magazine in January, 1921, was the first clear signal of the cultural movement later known as the Harlem Renaissance. “I Have A Rendezvous with Life (with Apologies to Alan Seeger)” brought Countee Cullen to the attention of the daily newspapers and became widely quoted in classrooms and even pulpits. This poem was followed just six months later by the publication in The Crisis, the influential and widely read magazine of the NAACP, of a free-verse poem, “The Negro Speaks of Rivers,” by another black youth, Langston Hughes. Hughes had graduated from high school in Cleveland a year earlier, and “Rivers” had been written directly after that event. “Rendezvous” struck New York like a lonesome meteor, burned brightly for a short time, then faded. “Rivers” touched down more like twilight itself. That both were harbingers is now evident, and it is no surprise that when the literary and cultural movement of the Harlem Renaissance won attention three years later, these two poets, though still unpublished in book form, were the new stars that caused the eyes of both black and white intellectuals to blink. If, as Emily Dickinson wrote, “one clover and a bee/and reverie” is all it takes to make a prairie, an observer might surmise that two such teenagers as Cullen and Hughes could at least stir up a renaissance in the right time and place. Even though the two had not known each other before they began to be noticed as part of the Harlem Renaissance, only a few blocks separated them during Hughes’s freshman year at Columbia University. In their personalities and backgrounds, as in their attitudes toward life, there was little to suggest the role in which they were about to be cast. An orphan, Cullen was adopted by a childless couple and his gratitude to his adoptive parents never ceased to be a part of his adult personality, a fact reflected in his poetry. Not even sad or tragic themes deprived his lyrics of thankful overtones. In contrast to the melancholy beginnings that brightened so abruptly for Cullen, dilemmas clouded Hughes’s early years and became more difficult as he matured. Blessed with charisma and an instinct for tolerance, he was thwarted by parents who could not bear each other,

though each loved him jealously and possessively. But out of the trying experiences of his adolescence 50 came the pensive interludes in which he conceived “The Negro Speaks of Rivers.” It might seem unlikely that two poets, so young and so profoundly different in temperament, could become the most striking voices of a cultural move55 ment, but Cullen and Hughes, already accomplished artists in their teens, were exceptional poets at the center of a twentieth-century renaissance.

16. The primary purpose of the passage is to (A) describe two individuals whose poetry shared a common significance (B) contrast two viewpoints that attempt to evaluate a cultural movement (C) link two apparently unrelated events to a common cause (D) discuss family life as an influence on creativity (E) urge critical examination of works by two young poets

17. The author’s use of the words “meteor” (line 18) and “twilight” (line 19) indicates the (A) type of imagery used in each poem (B) loneliness felt by both Cullen and Hughes (C) imminent end of the Harlem Renaissance (D) author’s fascination with astronomy (E) different ways in which the two poems were received


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18. The word “harbingers” is used by the author in line 20 to mean something that (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

poses a threat defies authority announces change leads a rebellion resists change

(A) Hughes’s work was published in The Crisis (B) Hughes enrolled as a freshman at Columbia University (C) both were recognized as participants in the Harlem Renaissance (D) Cullen’s poem was quoted in newspapers and pulpits (E) both published their work in book form

19. The author uses an image from Emily Dickinson’s poetry (lines 2627) primarily to suggest that (A) a capacity for daydreaming is essential to artists (B) a small beginning may lead to a large result (C) a cultural movement can be as impressive as a natural wonder (D) an inspiration is useful only if it has a practical outcome (E) an artist is inspired by nature

20. The passage suggests that Cullen and Hughes did not become acquainted with each other until

21. The author describes the childhoods of Cullen and Hughes in order to (A) trace the development of each poet’s writing (B) emphasize the similar experiences of the two poets (C) prove that adversity cannot stifle artistic genius (D) account for the differing outlooks of the two poets (E) show that the two poets were destined to work together


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95

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09 Reading Comp 96

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Sentence

Completions

Look Before You Leap Fill in your own word or phrase for the each blank before looking at the available answer choices.

1. Only since the nineteenth century have we come to regard the wilderness as valuable and beautiful in itself, not to be ------- but preserved. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

revered exploited depicted nurtured extolled

2. A moderate degree of insight is so ------- in human interaction that we tend to take it for granted. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

dramatic common significant exaggerated hypothetical


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refresher Manual for the SaT

3. The architects agree that it would be ------- to reconstruct the mansion exactly as it had been because the few existing records provide only ------- information about the structure. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

difficult . . unavailable efficient . . historical impossible . . sketchy important . . reclassified pointless . . detailed

THe CLue The clue is a word or phrase that ETS gives you to help you anticipate the word that will best fit in the blank. To help identify the clue, ask yourself:

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Who or what is the sentence talking about?

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What information does the sentence give you about that person or thing?

1. Synthetic fuels and conventional fuels are chemically alike and thus virtually -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2. Because Andy had always adhered to his principles in the past, we were confident he would remain ------- in supporting what he thought was right. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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isolated cautious steadfast agreeable perplexed

3. Sometimes, when one cannot make a decision by logical reasoning and careful deliberation, one must rely on ------- and ------- instead. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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expendable dependable indefinable unobtainable interchangeable

analysis . . scrutiny gullibility . . intelligence intuition . . impulse compliance . . argument dissent . . curiosity



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TrIGGerS Triggers help you decide whether the blank will be a word similar in meaning or opposite in meaning to the clue.

5. Although jubilant following their team’s victory, the fans were ------- the next day when word of the star’s serious injury was made public. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Contrary to the impression of slave traders that African religions were -------, the peoples from which American slaves were drawn possessed intricate systems of religious beliefs. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

simple blasphemous sophisticated universal discernible

6. Unlike her colleagues, who tended to be introverted and relatively uncommunicative, Dr. Phillips was ------- and quite -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

enlightened amused dejected elated provoked

modest . . reticent dismayed . . nervous humble . . egotistical affable . . articulate steadfast . . loyal

7. Lynn, like her studious sisters, approached her school work with great ------- and was rewarded with excellent grades. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

trepidation diligence urgency renown skepticism



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refresher Manual for the SaT

Remember, sentences often direct you to the clue with punctuation triggers such as colons (:) and semicolons (;). These are signals that the author is going to restate something or give an example, which will usually help you pinpoint the clue.

5. The partners of that successful advertising agency rarely grant interviews; in fact, they are so ------- that only a few of their clients ever meet them. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

unpopular irresolute compliant democratic reclusive

TWo BLaNkS = TWICe aS eaSY Two-blank sentence completions are easier if you work on one blank at a time.

5. It became obvious that if its opponents were to ------the proposed legislation, their strategy would have to be -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Some industries appear to ------- new techniques time and time again, while others seem almost to shun -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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forge . . decadence stymie . . creativity mobilize . . stagnation stifle . . modification generate . . innovation

7. The idea that most women stayed at home until the feminist movement of the 1960’s and 1970’s is altogether -------; in fact, throughout history women have ------- outside as well as inside the home. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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justify . . implemented promote . . concealed amend . . impaired defeat . . revised repeal . . foiled

sacred . . contributed unethical . . investigated untrue . . attributed erroneous . . labored proven . . deplored



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RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN THE BLANKS If the clue in a two-blank question has been blanked out, determine whether the words in the blanks should be similar or opposite in meaning.

4. Since the judge has a reputation for being -------, everyone was astonished when she imposed a ------sentence on the convicted man. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

clement . . moderate lenient . . severe hostile . . harsh authoritative . . stringent austere . . strict

DRILL

1. Although the painter’s high-paying advertising work brought her a great deal of -------, it did little to increase her ------- as an artist. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2. In the past, Hispanic novelists were rarely given the recognition they deserved; today, however, the literary world has come to regard these writers with increased -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

wealth . . reputation satisfaction . . generosity money . . obscurity uncertainty . . respect doubt . . experience

intelligence appreciation complexity uniformity suspicion

3. Homelessness in America is no longer solely ------- issue; indeed, there are increasing numbers of homeless people in our small towns and rural areas. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

an urban a peripheral a multifaceted an imperative an inconsequential



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4. The sculptor was ------- at the lack of illumination in the gallery, so she brought in her own lighting equipment to ------- the situation. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Before documenting their peaceful behavior, Dian Fossey had subscribed to the common belief that mountain gorillas were ------- animals. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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revise expand espouse moderate discard

8. The emotional depth that so impressed readers of Susannah Kaysen’s first book is missing from her second novel, which exhibits ------- that approaches superficiality. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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progressive . . attractive antediluvian . . superior enlightened . . unique reactionary . . novel defensive . . archaic

7. Stubborn to the last, the maverick physicist continued to ------- her theory long after the rest of the scientific community had rejected it as inconsistent with experimental evidence. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

tranquil malevolent adaptable unresponsive aggressive

6. The dread of being labeled ------- if we do not unhesitatingly embrace new technologies prevents us from disregarding new computer hardware that has no advantages, but is simply -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

unconcerned . . amend disconcerted . . worsen dismayed . . ameliorate enchanted . . alter affronted . . contaminate

a melancholy a glibness an intensity an optimism an inventiveness



11/15/05 3:30:39 PM

Critical Reading Homework

Passage-Based Reading ETS Comprehension Use what you know about what makes for a “best” ETS answer to eliminate choices that would almost never be correct.

21. The author is primarily concerned with which of the following? (A) Belittling the UN philosophy of limited internationalism (B) Condemning the United States for its ungrateful response to the UN (C) Implying that the hypocrisy of UN officials will be responsible for the downfall of the organization (D) Arguing for reduced United States commitment in the UN and a concomitant reduction of the nation’s influence in the UN (E) Deploring problems facing the UN and urging renewal of the organization


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26. The author is mainly concerned with the (A) eliminating of all standards in the teaching of English (B) distortion of language and what might be done about it (C) determined effort some people make to destroy their own language (D) difference between everyday speech and expository writing (E) emerging need for government regulation of writing

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Text Comprehension Translate each of the following excerpts into your own words: 1. While the Africanized bees are certainly more defensive and more prone to follow intruders a great distance than are their European counterparts, in only very rare instances is anyone seriously injured in an attack by these so-called “killer bees.”

2. The story of the Confederacy is filled with dramatic moments, but to the thoughtful observer few are more dramatic than the conjunction of these three men in the inauguration of the Confederate president. Beneath a surface of apparent unanimity they carried, like concealed weapons, points of view that were in deadly antagonism. This antagonism had not revealed itself hitherto. But it was destined to reveal itself almost immediately.

3. But Edinburgh pays cruelly for her high seat in one of the vilest climates under heaven. She is liable to be beaten upon by all the winds that blow, to be drenched with rain, to be buried in cold sea fogs out of the east, and powdered with the snow as it comes flying southward from the Highland hills.

4. When a bird is in motion its wings (except when flapping) are extended in a straight line at right angles to its body. This brings a sharp, thin edge against the air, offering the least possible surface for resistance, while at the same time a broad surface for support is afforded by the flat underside of the wings. The same thing is identically done in the construction of the flying machine. 5. Values have shrunken to fantastic levels: taxes have risen, our ability to pay has fallen, government of all kinds is faced by serious curtailment of income, the means of exchange are frozen in the currents of trade, the withered leaves of industrial enterprise lie on every side, farmers find no markets for their produce, the savings of many years in thousands of families are gone. © The Princeton Review, Inc.

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105

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Short Passage-BASED READING Questions 12-13 are based on the following passage. Located off the coast of Papua New Guinea, the Trobriand Islands have intrigued anthropologists for nearly a century. Anthropologists are especially interLine ested in the Kula exchange system in which virtually Line 5 5 every male Trobriander participates. Kula involves a very intricate process whereby the men exchange necklaces made of the most exquisite shells with friends on other islands for armbands made of comparably valued shells. Finding shells requires a lifetime 10 of dedication and patience; as a man establishes more 10 friendships on distant islands within the island chain, he receives and redistributes shells of great variety, thus enhancing his reputation.

12. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? (A) The Trobriand Islanders have been exchanging shells for nearly a century. (B) Shell exchange forms the foundation of Trobriand culture. (C) The value of shells is a function of how difficult they are to find. (D) A male Trobriander who did not participate in Kula would be an outcast. (E) Papua New Guinea is not landlocked.

13. The author would be most likely to agree with all of the following EXCEPT (A) Male Trobrianders can develop their reputations based upon participation in the Kula system (B) The Kula system is found on more than one of the Trobriand Islands (C) Women will never be able to participate in the Kula system (D) The shells received through the Kula system can be fashioned into more than one form of decorative jewelry (E) It is acceptable within the Kula system to give shells that you have received to someone else

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Questions 14-15 are based on the following passage. While we tend to think of pizza as the ultimate Italian food, it is in fact a multicultural and, indeed, multi-continental collaboration that has evolved over the centuries since its invention. The earliest versions of pizza were probably eaten in ancient Greece where a flat piece of bread served as an “edible plate” for various toppings and relishes. While the Greeks contributed the idea of toppings, the base was improved by the nearby Etruscans’ method of baking oil-basted dough on the hearth of the fireplace. A final ingredient, tomato sauce, required quite a wait; the tomato is indigenous to America and didn’t even reach Europe until the 1500’s.

14. The passage seeks to prove that pizza (A) has been falsely claimed as a national dish by the Italians (B) was invented in the 16th century after tomatoes had been discovered (C) was actually invented by the Etruscans (D) is derived from a number of different backgrounds and places (E) was a favorite dish of the early Greeks

15. Which of the following would most support the author’s conclusion? (A) A previously unknown civilization with no ties to the outside world eats a dish similar to pizza. (B) Pizza is the most popular dish among half of the world’s population. (C) There were many differences between the “edible plate” of the Greeks and today’s pizza. (D) The “deep-dish” style of pizza originated in restaurants in Chicago. (E) Pizza’s popularity has remained high even though it is high in fat and carbohydrates.


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Questions 16-17 are based on the following passage.


It is commonly acknowledged that human habitaImagine yourself as a backyard astronomer gaztion necessarily has a negative effect on the surrounding up into the sky. Mars, an angry red light in the ing biome. Take, for instance, the San Joaquin kit fox. darkness, returns your stare. What would you make Line As their territory has increasingly been populated by Line of this strange crimson object? To early civilizations, 5 especially the Greeks and Romans, this dusky red 5 strip malls and housing developments, kit fox populations have seen their numbers drop. But at the same point of light betokened the tides of war. It seems time, it appears that the foxes may actually benefit only natural that some cultures would associate the somewhat from human relations. Kit foxes find abanhue of the planet with the passion and bloodshed of doned construction pipes and storm-water storage battle. Of course, scientists now know that the planet’s 10 ruddy complexion results not from any ill will toward 10 sumps to be suitable replacements for their lost territory, and the young have even been spotted playing man but from the large quantity of iron oxide on the with abandoned golf balls and paintbrushes. Thus it planet’s surface. appears that humans and animals may be able to create new, mutually beneficial, economies. 18. The author uses personification in describing the appearance of Mars (line 3 and line 10) in 16. Which of the following is the best description order to of how the passage is structured? (A) explain why the surface of Mars is (A) A theory is outlined, a counterexred ample is presented, and the theory (B) provide additional contrast is disproved. between the mythological and (B) A principle is presented, a specific scientific images of Mars example is evaluated, and a dif(C) justify why the Greeks and Rofering interpretation is proposed. mans considered Mars the god of (C) A predicament is described, comwar mon solutions are discussed, and (D) enable to the reader to imagine the new measures are suggested. exact hue of the planet (D) A stereotype is attacked, its param(E) support the notion that Mars’ preseters are defined, and a rebuttal is ence in the sky is threatening articulated. (E) A common belief is introduced, 19. In line 6, “betokened” most nearly means then quantified, then miscon(A) controlled strued. (B) resisted (C) foretold 17. In line 14, “economies” most nearly means (D) reflected (A) preserved resources (E) bemoaned (B) functional arrangements (C) efficient uses (D) ecological concerns (E) negotiated transactions


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107

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Questions 6-9 are based on the following passages.

(A) agreeing with the author of Passage 1 regarding the main theme of Gilgamesh (B) expressing skepticism that the meaning of Gilgamesh can be reduced to a single plot device (C) criticizing the author of Passage 1 for misinterpreting the meaning of Gilgamesh’s journey (D) arguing that there are more than the five themes mentioned in Passage 1 present in Gilgamesh (E) claiming that the historical significance of Gilgamesh is more important than its significance as literature

Passage 1 Of the five main themes in the ancient Epic of Gilgamesh, Man’s quest for immortality is the most prominent, as is evident from the primary thrust Line of the narrative. After his friend Enkidu is killed, 5 Gilgamesh, fearing his own death, leaves his kingdom to search for the secret of immortality. The culmination of the epic deals with this journey. A seemingly unrelated episode in Tablet XII of the epic reinforces the point that even if there is no eternal life, a sort of 10 permanence can be achieved through the memory of one’s descendants. Passage 2 To see for ourselves the meaning of a story, we need to look carefully at what happens in the story, at a character’s actions, and at the implications of their 15 consequences. But we need to consider, too, how a story is put together—how it uses the conventions of language, of events with beginnings and endings, of description, and of character. We read Gilgamesh, four thousand years after it was written, in part be20 cause we wish to learn something about human history. We read it as well because we want to know the meaning of life.

6. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s main point in Passage 1? (A) Many ancient epics other than Gilgamesh were heavily concerned with the quest for eternal life. (B) Scholars doubt the authenticity of Tablet XII, which appears to date from a later century than do the other tablets which constitute Gilgamesh. (C) A recently discovered missing tablet describes Gilgamesh’s journey as motivated primarily by his feelings of loss after Enkidu’s death. (D) In the story, the Bull of Heaven attacks Gilgamesh and Enkidu because Gilgamesh has rejected the goddess Ishtar. (E) Gilgamesh is written in cuneiform, which only a handful experts can read.

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7. The author of Passage 2 would most likely respond to Passage 1 by

8. Both passages imply that the Epic of Gilgamesh (A) is very old (B) was originally an oral history before it was written down (C) is based on a real person (D) is primarily a story about avoiding death (E) cannot be truly understood by the modern reader

9. Which best expresses the relationship between Passage 1 and Passage 2? (A) Passage 1 is a factual description of the plot of Gilgamesh, while Passage 2 offers a more subjective summary of the story. (B) Passage 1 was written for historians, while Passage 2 was written more for specialists in literature. (C) Passage 1 discusses thematic elements of Gilgamesh, while Passage 2 explicitly denies the presence of any concrete theme in the story. (D) Passage 1 is specifically about Gilgamesh, while Passage 2 uses the example of Gilgamesh to make a broader point about narratives. (E) Passage 1 and Passage 2 both refer to the importance of Gilgamesh in world literature.


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Long passage-based Reading Questions 10-18 are based on the following passage. The fourteenth century saw the beginning of the renaissance of Italian art. The following passage discusses the changes in art that occurred during this period.

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At the turn of the fourteenth century the influence of Gothic sculpture descended into Italy from northern Europe and revivified all the arts. Gothic sculptors emphasized realism in their carvings of religious subjects, and this new realistic bent soon overcame the abstract, symbolic Byzantine style that had previously been dominant in most of Italy. Pisan and Florentine sculptors began to imitate the Gothic style. Giotto, a Florentine, painted frescoes that had a new realism and vitality. Dante, a fellow Florentine and poet, excelled in the dolce stil nuovo, the “sweet new style” of writing verse that focused on the experiences of real, even ordinary, people. Realistic portrayals of the lives and acts of ordinary people are not the only things that art can produce, and it is not what art traditionally had accomplished throughout the centuries leading up to this time. And even during the fourteenth century, there were artists who held out against the new style. The painters of the Sienese school, in particular, continued to produce works that were notably Byzantine in style with their quiet, stylized faces and forms and their obvious religious symbolism. For this reason we usually do not think of the fourteenth-century Sienese painters, great as they were, as being part of the Italian Renaissance. They were great painters, but they were not Renaissance artists. As the Renaissance spread throughout Europe, it everywhere produced a new style in art that emphasized realism, naturalness, and verisimilitude. The subjects often remained the same as in the old Byzantine symbolic style: the Annunciation, the Crucifixion, the Deposition, the Marriage at Cana, and the like*. But now the people depicted reflected the viewer’s world, expressed feelings like his own, and moved him, as a consequence, in an entirely new way. Giotto, though a master, was not wholly a Renaissance painter, in that he did not experiment with perspective as the Florentine artists of the fifteenth century did (the quattrocento, as Italians say). The discovery of the possibilities of perspective helped to produce works of art that are decidedly more familiar to us than those of Giotto, and more “Renaissance-looking.” Perspective provided the paint-

ers of the century after the death of Giotto and Dante with expanded opportunities to emphasize realism and to bring the viewer into the picture. Again, the Sienese resisted, refusing to employ perspective for a 50 century. Let us be sure that we understand the meaning of perspective. In such a painting straight lines (often imaginary) converge in what is called a vanishing point, located somewhere in the background (often 55 at the center of the horizon). This gives the impression of a real scene that is visible to the viewer. This approach had never been used before in any art. The new art of perspective said something radically different and new about the position and role of human 60 beings in the cosmos, in the world picture. In preRenaissance art, the scene depicted is seen not from the viewpoint of the beholder, an ordinary human, but from the viewpoint of God, from a point at infinity. * The Annunciation, the Crucifixion, the Deposition, and the Marriage at Cana are episodes from the Bible.

10. The first paragraph (lines 1-13) implies that in pre-fourteenth-century Italy, realistic portrayals of life were (A) the exclusive domain of artists (B) valued more in writing than in painting (C) not considered the purpose of art (D) rare but highly valued (E) imbued with religious symbolism

11. The author mentions the Sienese school of painting (line 20) in order to (A) illustrate the accomplishments of painters of the new style (B) describe the pre–fourteenth century ideal of painting (C) criticize the resistance of this school to the new developments in art (D) show that the new style in painting was not universally adopted (E) describe the variety of styles of painting that are considered part of the Renaissance


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12. The word “verisimilitude” (line 30) most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

the appearance of truthfulness the reflection of light the making of comparisons the portrayal of crowds the skill of artistry

13. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would most likely be an example of an early Renaissance painting?

(A) his disapproval of the use of labels (B) his confusion about the characteristics of Renaissance painting (C) the difficulty of establishing precisely what makes a painting Renaissance (D) his criticism of Giotto’s work (E) his adoption of a conversational tone

(A) A stiff and subdued scene of a family having dinner (B) A symbolic portrait of a man in a position of power (C) An abstract rendering of a street scene (D) A natural depiction of a scene from the Bible (E) A stylized image of a peasant woman

17. According to the final paragraph (lines 51-63), the most important result of the use of perspective was (A) a more accessible style of poetry as seen in the works of Dante (B) the ability to create a scene that more closely resembled images a person would actually see (C) a depiction of people in their ordinary lives (D) the departure from the overly calm style of Byzantine art (E) the depiction of scenes that caused viewers to feel as though they were actually in them rather than viewing them

14. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the new sense of realism that appeared during the fourteenth century and the use of perspective? (A) The emphasis on realism and the use of perspective were essentially the same thing. (B) The use of perspective followed the introduction of a more realistic style of art. (C) The use of more realistic representation was superseded by the adoption of perspective. (D) The use of perspective was responsible for the new importance given to realism. (E) The depiction of realistic scenes and the use of perspective were in opposition to each other.

16. The author’s use of quotation marks in line 45 serves to indicate

18. It can be inferred from the passage that prior to the Renaissance (A) art did not succeed in moving people (B) man’s perspective on the universe was given less value than that of God (C) art had at times explored Biblical themes (D) the Sienese school had been considered the foremost in Italy (E) Dante had already written in the dolce stil nuovo of verse

15. Which of the following statements could be accurately applied to Giotto? (A) His use of perspective separated him from the Sienese school of painting. (B) His frescoes were close imitations of Gothic styles of sculpture. (C) He moved to Florence from Pisa. (D) His lack of use of perspective distinguished him from later Renaissance painters. (E) His mastery of painting faltered only when he attempted to use perspective.

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playoffs. But an individual club had to face the fact that an extended season would do it no good, that its dwindling audience would be spread too thin over too The following passage describes some of the factors 50 long a period of time. that brought about the decline of the All-American Still, the clubs wanted to believe that solutions League, a women’s professional baseball league that were possible. They sought a scapegoat and decided formed in the 1940s. that poor financial management coupled with poor direction were the major culprits. The clubs’ response No one realized at the end of 1948 that the 55 was to tighten the League’s belt. They cut expenses All-American League had reached its high point. for administration, publicity and scouting. As of 1949, Women’s baseball seemed be on a roll, riding an evercollective spring training was abolished. That deciupward curve of popularity. Attendance had risen sion had far-reaching consequences. Spring training— steadily since 1943; surely it would continue to do so. along with preseason exhibition games—had provided The League made decisions based on this optimistic 60 the game with a surefire kickoff each season, attracted outlook, but Fred Leo acknowledges that they were the national press, and unearthed at least some worthwhistling in the dark; churning out public relations while talent. hype that a close look at hard figures failed to warrant. As the League pursued its relentless cutbacks, salaBut the figures were hard to read; the decline wasn’t ries failed to keep pace with inflation. To a woman absolute. Some cities continued to rack up phenom65 in her twenties, her playing days numbered, a steady enal attendance, given the size of the population base. job of any kind began to look attractive. No one could The league’s head office and the club directors kept make long-term plans. For the majority of players, telling each other that all their woes were simply staying in the All-American meant putting the rest growing pains, that a tighter control on the finances of their lives on hold. This sacrifice would eventually would put them in the black. But they were wrong. 70 become too great. The summer of 1948 was the last time the League All in all, 1949 was not a good year for the Allmoved forward. Soon it would slip, slowly at first, and American. Only two clubs showed a profit, and five then with ever-gathering momentum. registered losses ranging between $15,000 and $27,000. None of the problems that had plagued the League One broke even. Rockford had, predictably, won the in 1948 were to be resolved. Training and recruitment 75 championship, and cutbacks continued unabated. The procedures failed to provide an adequate number of League board members argued over whether or not promising players. Teams were aging in place, relying players should take a salary cut. The 1950 season was a on longtime veterans. Even winning teams believed debacle. The Muskegon Lassies folded halfway through, they’d done well despite, not because of, the system. and the team was relocated to Kalamazoo. Racine—a Expansion hadn’t worked in 1944, and it didn’t work 80 founding city—called it quits after the 1950 season, in 1948, either. and the Belles moved to Battle Creek, Michigan. The In 1948, the League would claim that overall attrickle of departing players became a flood. Over the tendance had reached one million, but even this was course of two seasons, the All-American lost somean exaggeration—the actual figure was 910,000. This thing like two dozen experienced veterans, and many was about 120,000 more than in 1947, but two-thirds 85 who replaced them weren’t of the same quality. of that increase was accounted for by home games in And so the League straggled on, locked in a losSpringfield and Chicago. In other words, both expaning battle. Attendance and revenues continued their sion teams together added a mere 80,000 people all downward slide. But somehow the clubs endured, season long—a pitiful showing, especially considersustained by never-say-die fans and players for whom ing the potential audience in a city the size of Chicago. 90 the League continued to exert appeal. A new crop Only half the other teams showed any increase in of rookies kept appearing, year after year. The postattendance at all. In Muskegon, where unemployment 1948 period had its own stars, who were as beloved continued to rise because of postwar layoffs, 60,000 by fans as those of the glory days. The League was fewer people came out to the ballpark to see the still something to aim for: the top of the pole, and the Lassies play in 1949. Rockford, the playoff champi95 only game in town. But those who dreamed of playing ons, ran an $11,000 deficit. The League grossed more had realized the fragility of their ambition. Marilyn money than ever before but several teams had peaked, Jenkins, the Grand Rapids bat girl, remembers hoping for any number of reasons, and had nowhere to go that the League would last long enough for her to play. but down. The League could make money by adding It did, and she became the Grand Rapids catcher until cities, or by extending both the regular season and the 100 the League’s demise.


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7. In line 9, the word “warrant” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

arrest justify guarantee combat question

9. The author most likely uses the phrase “Teams were aging in place” (line 23) in order to

10. The author would probably view the League’s claim that “attendance had reached one million” (lines 28-29) as (A) a regrettable but understandable error (B) an example of the League’s ineffective management (C) the result of an optimistic oversight (D) a malicious attempt to deceive the public (E) an example of publicity hype

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12. The author’s attitude toward the players who left the League for financial reasons is most likely one of (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

concern bemusement disapproval understanding disappointment

13. The “two clubs” that registered a profit in 1949 (line 72) are presented as (A) typical of the success of previous years (B) exceptions to the otherwise bleak financial performance of League teams (C) representative of teams that succeed financially but not on the playing field (D) examples of what could be accomplished with proper management (E) proof of the impossible task faced by League teams

(A) demonstrate the toll that professional baseball took on the players (B) establish that the average age of a new player had increased (C) comment on the insufficient number of talented new players in the League (D) prove that women’s teams were failing to make progress (E) delineate the difference between successful and unsuccessful teams

11. According to the third paragraph (lines 28-50), expansion teams are described as having (A) made an insignificant contribution to overall attendance at League games (B) severely drained the League’s already strained finances (C) spread a limited audience too thin (D) brought less-skilled talent into the League (E) been a primary reason for the League’s decline

8. According to the author, optimism about the future of the League in 1948 was strong because (A) profits had remained consistently high (B) after a disturbing drop, attendance at games had stabilized (C) publicity had effectively convinced the public of the League’s stability (D) attendance at games had consistently risen (E) the attendance-to-profit ratio had steadily improved

14. The passage suggests that the decline of the All-American League can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT (A) the effect of postwar unemployment on attendance figures (B) a lack of new talent to replace retiring veteran players (C) inadequate restriction of expenditures (D) the failure of expansion teams to bring in large numbers of spectators (E) the large number of individual teams that registered significant losses


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15. The author implies that the League’s abolition of “collective spring training” (line 57)

(A) discouraged players from putting their full concentration into their playing (B) caused the eventual collapse of the Muskegon Lassies (C) allowed the League to minimize pay cuts to the players (D) lowered morale among the younger, less experienced players (E) deprived the League of an important source of publicity

(A) Playing for the League had more prestige than many other occupations. (B) Playing professional baseball allowed women to leave rural areas and to move to more urban settings. (C) Participation in baseball was more acceptable than participation in sports such as boxing or golf. (D) Playing baseball was the only way for women to be publicly acclaimed. (E) Women had few opportunities to participate in professional sports in the 1940’s and 1950’s.

16. The reason that the author describes the ambition of women wanting to play professional baseball after 1948 as “fragile” (line 97) is that (A) society at that time viewed women as physically less strong than men (B) it was uncertain how long the AllAmerican League would continue to exist (C) a high level of skill was required of players in order to be accepted into the League (D) women were unwilling to sacrifice financial comfort for the chance to play professional baseball (E) many women quit baseball after enduring its rigors for several years

17. Which of the following would most justify the author’s description of the League as “the only game in town” (lines 94-95)?

18. It can be inferred from the passage that Marilyn Jenkins (A) was one of the founding team members (B) was one of the stars of the post1948 period (C) was optimistic about the future of the League (D) was not among the first women to play for the League (E) contributed to the demise of the All-American League


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Questions 1-13 are based on the following passages. such extraordinarily high standards from the industrial system? Who are the people who are willing to make such sacrifices in material production in order to achieve such marginal gains in public health and Passage 1 50 safety? And why, it might be added, is their crusading always aimed so directly at the industrial system? We may legitimately ask: Who are environmentalThere are other environmental factors, after all, that ists? Are they generous enough that they are ready contribute to such health problems. One of the best to give up the quest for material goods and distribways to improve the air for asthmatics, it might be ute their wealth among the poor? Are they virtuous 55 argued, would be to eliminate all the pollen-producenough to be ready to renounce their possessions ing weeds and flowers with an aggressive herbicidal and pursue only spiritual values? At a time when the spraying program. These natural sources cause much average income in the world, if distributed perfectly more suffering among asthmatics than does industrial equally, would put us all at a rather low standard of air pollution. living, who are these people that feel that we are so wealthy that we can now let slip the long human quest Passage 2 for material improvement? Everyone knows about air pollution, and no one Let me approach the problem from another angle. 60 likes it. Even without dramatic incidents such as In recent years, the Environmental Protection Agency the tragic deaths of seventeen persons in Donora, has been trying to set minimum standards for clean, Pennsylvania, within a single four-day period of healthy air. Most people assume that this means that intense smog, everyone who lives in or near a big the average person would be able to breathe this air 65 city—and many who live in rural areas—is aware of without being adversely affected. Congress was perair pollution. There is nothing obscure about it. Daily suaded, however, to protect small subgroups as well. they see it, feel it, and breathe it. And they do not like As a result, the Environmental Protection Agency has it. set the standard so that the air must be clean enough They may be people living in New York City, not to affect asthmatics. These people have special 70 where the normal cost of air pollution in lost working breathing problems that are not caused by air pollutime because of pollution-related illness and in extra tion but are aggravated by a variety of environmenpainting and cleaning averages several thousand doltal insults, the most notable being the pollen that is lars per family, according to a study done by the state. produced each year by plants. Asthmatics constitute They may be the residents near Garrison, Montana about 4 percent of the population. Nevertheless, the EPA has decided that the rest of the society must pay 75 who complained about the fluoride gases released into the air from a phosphate plant. They may be farmthe price for redesigning the industrial system to proers whose crops have been ruined by air pollution. Or tect a few individuals. they may be persons living in the northern portion of This might seem like a significant sacrifice for a Staten Island, New York, where a study made by the society to make, since the costs are not small, and the resources devoted to this task must be taken away 80 U.S. Public Health Service indicated a close relationship between air pollution and a high incidence of from producing other goods. But environmental lobdeath from lung cancer. bying groups in Washington are still not satisfied. For Setting aside economic and aesthetic considersome time, the Environmental Defense Fund, one ations, our health alone should give us great concern of the three or four major environmental lobbying 85 about air pollution. Much remains to be learned about groups, has been pressuring the EPA to tighten the the relationship between various diseases and the clean-air standards to make the air safe for people contaminants in the air, and the experts often dissuffering from cystic fibrosis. This is an inherited disagree on what causes what and to how great a degree. ease that affects .005 percent of the population, about Nevertheless, the Senate’s Committee on Public eleven thousand people. It is not caused by air pollution but is only aggravated by it. The costs of achiev- 90 Works minced no words when it reported on the problem. “From the standpoint of public health,” the ing this kind of cleanliness would be rather high. committee stated, “the information available concernSo, once again, we can ask the question: Who ing the acute air pollution episodes that have occurred are the citizens of a country who are able to demand The following two passages presents views of the public’s perception of air pollution and the validity of certain methods used to curtail that pollution.

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and the laboratory evidence of the effects of exposure 95 to various pollutants that are in the air puts an exclamation mark by the word ‘urgency’ in relation to this problem. “In any given instance, there may be several reasons why a particular situation may result in chronic 100 disease. But there is no question that the pollutants in the air are contributing factors to the chronic respiratory diseases, lung cancer, emphysema, bronchitis, and asthma. When considering mortality in this country, it is this group that is showing a rapid rise 105 as a cause of death and disability. These subtler, less dramatic long-range effects of air pollution are of much more serious consequence to the population as a whole than the occasional major tragedy.”

fabricated substantive monetary textile synthetic

4. The word “aggravated” in line 42 most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

2. The author of Passage 1 poses the questions in lines 1-11 in order to (A) denounce the environmentalists for their reckless disregard of ethical realities (B) praise the environmentalists for their charitable natures (C) suggest that the views of environmentalists are hypocritical and impractical (D) point out to the world’s population that there are not limitless funds with which they may achieve their goals (E) imply that environmentalists have a hidden agenda and are only interested in their own material gain

3. In Passage 1, the reference to EPA standards that maintain that air must be “clean enough not to affect asthmatics” (lines 20-21) serves to (A) suggest that certain environmental legislation is not extreme enough (B) applaud the Environmental Protection Agency’s efforts at cleaning up the nation’s air (C) concede that some environmental legislation is good and necessary (D) question the practice of allowing special interests to shape legislation (E) imply that greater care should be taken to protect citizens with certain respiratory ailments

1. In line 11, the word “material” most nearly means (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

angered annoyed worsened degraded polluted

5. For which of the following reasons does the author of Passage 1 fault the “lobbying groups” mentioned in lines 33-34? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Their narrow range of experience Their limited resources Their ineffective practices Their unethical motives Their lack of concern for other interests


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6. The reference in line 49 to “marginal gains” serves to

(A) prove that measures taken by environmentalists are inefficient and unnecessarily extreme (B) suggest that even a small amount of improvement is desirable in the face of deplorable environmental conditions (C) imply that some standards are not worth the resources required to enforce them (D) highlight the disparity between the attention paid to certain small subgroups and that paid to the industrial system (E) establish that eliminating certain pollen producing weeds and flowers would be a more effective means of improving the air for asthmatics

7. According to the author of Passage 2, the “intense smog” mentioned in line 64 was responsible for which of the following? (A) A greater awareness of the problems of air pollution (B) A growing dissatisfaction with big city life (C) A considerable number of fatalities (D) Increased diagnoses of asthma (E) Begrudging acceptance of poor air quality

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8. Which of the following does NOT support the contention expressed in Passage 2 that there are non-health-related costs to pollution? (A) Citizens of New York City spend a great deal of money on air filtering systems. (B) The destruction of agricultural crops causes farmers to purchase goods that they would normally grow for themselves. (C) A Montana phosphate plant loses a great deal of costly fluoride gas every year. (D) Pollution causes the U.S. Public Health Service to conduct many expensive studies. (E) New York City has the highest number of workdays lost due to pollen-related respiratory illnesses.

9. By putting an “exclamation mark by the word ‘urgency’ ”, (Passage 2, lines 95-96) the Senate’s Committee on Public Works means to (A) use needless hyperbole in reporting the effects of air pollution (B) show the disparity between actual air pollution episodes and certain laboratory evidence (C) strongly question the findings of the Senate committee (D) emphasize the dangerous effects that certain pollutants have on public health (E) question the accuracy of laboratory evidence when dealing with pollution and issues of public health


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10. According to the quotation at the end of Passage 2, what is the difference between the “long-range effects of air pollution” (line 106) and “the occasional major tragedy” (line 108)?

(A) While the author of Passage 1 is concerned with monetary issues, the author of Passage 2 concentrates on health issues. (B) While both of the authors concern themselves with issues of expense, the author of Passage 1 believes the money is worth spending. (C) While the author of Passage 1 recognizes air pollution as a necessary evil, the author of Passage 2 believes in the eradication of all air pollution. (D) While the author of Passage 2 has little respect for environmentalists, the author of Passage 1 reveres them. (E) While neither of the authors believes the problem of air pollution is as bad as is commonly believed, the author of Passage 2 recognizes it as a greater threat than does the author of Passage 1.

(A) The second is more psychologically threatening to the population because of its dramatic impact. (B) The first is more threatening to the population than the second because the long-term effect on chronic disease could lead to a greater number of fatalities. (C) The first is more threatening because the major tragedies usually involve lesser forms of pollution. (D) The second is more severe because major environmental tragedies usually involve tens of thousands of people. (E) The second is more life-threatening to a greater percentage of the population because it affects people without chronic respiratory diseases.

11. One distinction between the attitudes of the two authors is that (A) the author of Passage 1 believes that only a small percentage of the public is affected by pollution, while the author of Passage 2 believes that pollution has a more universal impact (B) the author of Passage 2 fails to take into account as many crucial statistics supplied by the government that affect the public as does the author of Passage 1 (C) the author of Passage 1 doesn’t care about the public’s interest while the author of Passage 2 does (D) the author of Passage 1 regards the public with more suspicion than the author of Passage 2, believing that the small minority of pollution sufferers demand unreasonable and questionable changes (E) the author of Passage 1 thinks that not enough citizens consider the environmental dangers they cause, while the author of Passage 2 feels that people knowingly jeopardize the health of the planet

12. Which of the following represents the fundamental difference in the arguments of the two authors?

13. Which of the following does the author of Passage 2 use in the construction of his argument that the author of Passage 1 does not? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

A direct quotation A hypothetical question A reference to a medical condition A discussion of social issue A specific example


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Sentence completions

9. Despite the appearance of prosperity, at his death Colin Farnsworth left his family -------, ruined by secret gambling debts.

Fill In the Blank

10. Having shown up without the ------- number of players, the team was forced to forfeit the game.

On each of the following questions, substitute your own word or phrase to complete the sentence. Pay close attention to clues and triggers.

10. Her questions regarding her son’s whereabouts the night before were -------; she simply did not give up until he told her everything.

1. Few teams had endured such a ------- season, losing every game by a landslide. 1. Shirley’s giggling was entirely inappropriate given the ------- of the situation. 2. Despite his higher salary, Owen felt that his new job lacked the ------- of his previous position; he could find absolutely no excitement in the work that the job entailed. 3. The school did not have a ------- grading policy; each teacher was free to mark students according to any system he or she thought appropriate.

One Blank

Approach two-blank sentence completions one blank at a time. We’ve made it easier for you by eliminating answer choices for one of the blanks. Eliminate as many wrong answers as possible.

5. The declining neighborhood underwent a ------- when a group of investors bought several crumbling tenements and turned them into attractive apartment buildings.

7. The ------- of new immigrants around the turn of the century produced a culture of many different customs and languages.

7. The clever forgery fooled the museum curator but did not withstand the ------- of the experts; after studying it for several weeks, the panel of art historians pronounced the painting a fake.

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encourage . . ???? deny . . ???? deplore . . ???? epitomize . . ???? support . . ????

6. The elderly woman had enjoyed ------most of her adult life, but memories of her impoverished childhood had made her excessively -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

7. When shopping, Marlene was one of the most ------- people I knew; most of her purchases were never even used. 7. Environmentalists argued that the chemical wastes being dumped in the river were so lethal as to threaten the fish with -------.

4. While most environmental activists ------- the ravaging of the South American rain forests, governments continue to insist that reshaping the land is ------- to economic growth. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

5. Although she usually insisted upon having things her own way, Lori would sometimes ------- her position in order to promote harmony among her friends. 6. Although he tried to never raise his voice, James frequently came close to ------- in response to his older sister’s teasing.

at a Time

???? . . thrifty ???? . . sociable ???? . . afraid ???? . . knowledgeable ???? . . provincial

7. The ------- of foreign pronunciations makes one overlook the common heritage of all languages, whose bond becomes obvious when one discovers the countless spelling -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

???? . . irregularities ???? . . similarities ???? . . corrections ???? . . intricacies ???? . . variations


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8. Although this book about Brazilian poets is, in general, accurate and consistent, it presents some ------- arguments that it never really -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

similar . . ???? precise . . ???? conflicting . . ???? paradoxical . . ???? erroneous . . ????

10. The phenomenon of jazz is remarkable; somehow an otherwise ------- cascade of sounds becomes organized into a ------whole. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

disparate . . ???? consistent . . ???? discordant . . ???? fractional . . ???? significant . . ????

Putting It All Together

1. Not surprisingly, the ruling government crushed the latest rebellion just as it had ------- each previous coup. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

suppressed assimilated satisfied distracted established

2. William’s temporary paralysis, the result of a violent automobile accident, left him helpless and ------- him to live off the generosity of his friends. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

transposed inclined repressed compelled enabled

detached venerable disarming scholarly perfunctory

6. Even though his research is greatly -------, it is by no means flawless, and his results will not be accepted without some degree of -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

hostility . . composed violence . . humorous indifference . . reserved belligerence . . disorderly thievery . . underhanded

5. Dr. Higgins was reported to be a strict professor, but he always tempered his critical words with a ------- smile. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

daunting . . hopeless thrilling . . chaotic invigorating . . petrifying perilous . . discouraging exhausting . . fatiguing

4. To the officer, who was accustomed to outbursts of ------- from apprehended suspects, the alleged culprit was unusually -------. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Combine all the techniques you have learned to answer each of the following sentence completions.

3. For Gretchen, rock climbing was -------; her brother, though, found the thought of hanging hundreds of feet from the ground a ------notion.

esteemed . . ovation confidential . . adulation admired . . skepticism understood . . support mistaken . . befuddlement

7. Novelist Gabriel García Márquez is anything but -------; much of the power of his work derives from his willingness to abandon realistic notions of time and space. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

an individualist a theorist a misanthrope a literalist a fanatic


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8. At its best, scientific investigation is a ------- activity; researchers know that their work will be open to general scrutiny, and so they ------- their arguments in defense of their positions. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

9. Playwright David Henry Hwang is devoted to ------- the theory that Chinese culture is irrelevant to young Chinese-Americans, a theory that he contends has only alienated them from their ethnic heritage. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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careful . . neglect secret . . strengthen tedious . . invent public . . marshal scholarly . . denounce

disseminating exploding fostering endorsing dignifying


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Writing Introduction

Easy

Improving Sentences

Medium Difficult Easy

Error ID

Medium Difficult

Improving Paragraphs

1 . . . . . 11 12 . . . . . . . . . . 29 30 . . . . 35


Easy

Medium

Difficult

1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14

Improving Sentences


What is on the Test?

• 18 Error IDs

• 25 Improving Sentences questions

• 6 Improving Paragraphs questions

• One 25-Minute Essay


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HOW IS THE WRITING SECTION SCORED? The scaled score (200–800) you receive on the Writing section is derived from two components: the essay score and the multiple-choice grammar score. Your essay will be graded by two different people and each will give it a score on a scale of 1–6. The sum of these two grades is weighted so that the essay score is worth approximately 30% of the total score; then the result is added to your grammar raw score.

× (2)

Your essay score: <2–12>

= <4–24>

Grammar questions correct: minus Grammar questions incorrect:

4

= equals

Grammar raw score:

1 of 4 the questions you get wrong. Questions left blank neither contribute to nor detract Your grammar raw score is the number of questions you get correct minus

from your score. Now compare this to the chart on the next page to determine your scaled score.

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Writing Introduction

Estimated Writing Scores If your scaled grammar score is

Depending on your essay score, your writing score will range from

40

360-500

45

400-540

50

440-580

55

480-620

60

520-660

65

560-710

70

610-750

75

640-780

80

700-800

Grammar Pacing Chart So attempt this many questions To get: (scaled score)

You need to earn: (raw points)

35-question section

14-question section

Total # of questions to attempt

35

5

10

5

15

40

11

13

7

20

45

17

16

8

26

50

22

22

9

31

55

27

26

10

36

60

31

27

11

38

65

36

31

all

45

70

40

all

all

49

75

44

all

all

49

80

49

all

all

49

Your POOD and You ETS doesn’t make an order of difficulty on the Writing section. For the multiplechoice questions on the Writing section, you have to make your own Personal Order of Difficulty (POOD). First do the ones that you do best on, then save the ones you find the most difficult for last.


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Joe Bloggs and grammar questions Improvement in the Grammar questions starts with knowing how Joe approaches them.

What Joe Does

• Focuses on what “sounds” right

• Reads and re-reads endlessly

• Eliminates answers just because he doesn’t like them

What Should You Do?

the essay Essay writing under timed conditions is never easy. The best way to improve is to write as many practice essays as you can. Trust us: it does get easier over time! As you work, always keep in mind a few important things:

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• Know what you are going to say and how you are going to say it before your pencil hits the page.

• There are no right answers to the questions posed: Don’t be afraid to take an “unpopular” position.

• Organization is a good thing: Always have an introduction and conclusion.

• Watch your language! Use language appropriate to the task, and don’t forget to apply all that grammar you worked so hard to learn!

• Don’t be afraid to use expressive language if and when it helps support your essay.


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The Essay, Revisited

How the other half lives As you will undoubtedly recall, SAT essays are graded quickly and holistically. This means that graders are not carefully correcting each essay, red pencil in hand; they are looking it over for 45 to 60 seconds and then slapping a number on it based on their overall impression of it. The first question they ask themselves when deciding on a score tends to be, “Top half or bottom half?” Is the essay in the 4-6 range, or the 1-3 range? Your first goal, therefore, is to crank out an essay that screams “TOP HALF!” The three aspects of your essay that will most help in this effort are:

Length. Come as close to the last line provided as you can, without going over.

Structure. The organization of your essay must be clear even to graders who have read 200 of these things in a row and are praying for a power outage to give themselves a break.

Examples. This is where a lot of people run into trouble even when they’ve mastered the first two elements of the SAT essay, so we’ll talk about examples in more depth.

BODY LANGUAGE In each body paragraph, you have three tasks to accomplish:

• Make a smooth transition to introduce your example

• Present your example

• Tie your example clearly back to the prompt


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Transitions Compare the following three excerpts: …even today, no period of American history is as unrelentingly tragic as the Civil War. Romeo and Juliet by William Shakespeare is a play in which two young lovers take their own lives. Their reasons can be traced back to… vs. …even today, no period of American history is as unrelentingly tragic as the Civil War. Another example of the greatest griefs being those we cause ourselves can be seen in William Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet. In this play, two young lovers… Why is the second excerpt better than the first?

…even today, no period of American history is as unrelentingly tragic as the Civil War. Not only does history furnish us with an endless array of examples illustrating that the greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves, but literature does as well; a prime example is William Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet. In this play, two young lovers… What does this third version to do improve on the previous two?

Introducing Your Examples : Assume Nothing What does the second excerpt do that the first doesn’t? One example that shows that the greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves occurs in Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain. At one point in this book, Huck pulls a trick on Jim, making him think he only dreamed that they had been separated in the fog when in reality they actually had been. vs. One example that shows that the greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves occurs in the Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain. In this novel, the orphan Huck Finn and his friend, an escaped slave named Jim, are rafting down the Mississippi River when Huck, who has paddled ahead of 126

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the essay, revisited

the raft in a canoe, is separated from Jim in a dense bank of fog. By sheer luck, Huck spots the raft again when the fog clears, and finding Jim asleep, tricks him into thinking he’d dreamed the entire incident.

Never assume your reader is familiar with the characters, political fi gures, historical events, or other examples you refer to. Be sure to provide context for your examples.

speciFic examples Rule In introducing your examples, it is important to be as specific as you can. Which of these is more likely to impress a grader? In the weeks leading up to the war, many government officials took to the airwaves claiming that Iraq had weapons of mass destruction. vs. In the weeks leading up to the war, government officials such as Secretary of State Colin Powell and National Security Advisor Condoleezza Rice took to the airwaves claiming that Iraq had weapons of mass destruction. How are you supposed to remember all these details? Hey, that’s why you’re preparing your examples ahead of time!

Make sure you can rattle off names, dates, titles, locations, and other such specifics as needed. Specificity goes beyond names and dates. Compare these two sentences, from a paragraph relating a personal experience: I vividly recall my grandmother talking about how amazed she was by things that we take for granted but which she had never even imagined before she emigrated from Russia to California. vs. I vividly recall my grandmother talking about how amazed she was by the sight of mountains of fresh fruit in supermarkets and by the fact that she could walk around in short sleeves on a February morning; she had never even imagined such things before she emigrated from Russia to California. What makes the second more effective than the fi rst?


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refresher Manual for the sat

Tying examples BacK To The pRompT Let’s fi nish one of the paragraphs we started earlier, written for the prompt, “The greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves.” What would a grader think of a body paragraph like this? One example that shows that the greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves occurs in Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain. In this novel, the orphan Huck Finn and his friend, an escaped slave named Jim, are rafting down the Mississippi River when Huck, who has paddled ahead of the raft in a canoe, is separated from Jim in a dense bank of fog. By sheer luck, Huck spots the raft again when the fog clears, and finding Jim asleep, tricks him into thinking he’d dreamed the entire incident. vs. One example that shows that the greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves occurs in Adventures of Huckleberry Finn by Mark Twain. In this novel, the orphan Huck Finn and his friend, an escaped slave named Jim, are rafting down the Mississippi River when Huck, who has paddled ahead of the raft in a canoe, is separated from Jim in a dense bank of fog. By sheer luck, Huck spots the raft again when the fog clears, and finding Jim asleep, tricks him into thinking he’d dreamed the entire incident. When Jim finally learns that Huck has pulled a prank on him, he is so hurt by this betrayal that Huck agonizes over what he’s done; Huck undergoes many hardships over the course of the novel, but his deepest suffering comes with the realization that his own actions have been so cruel. The last task of each body paragraph—tying the example back into the prompt — is really the payoff of the entire paragraph.

After introducing each example, be sure you spend time clearly explaining why it’s a good example.

peRsonal examples : BeWaRe The piTFalls You may have heard that personal examples are not as good as other kinds of examples. Not true! The problem is that personal examples can be hard to use well. Here are a few pointers: • Treat them like any other kind of example. Explain exactly why your example supports your thesis and to tie it back to the prompt. • Don’t get so caught up in relating the story that you forget to come back to earth. Avoid irrelevant details.

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Staying out of Trouble Graders of SAT essays encounter an astonishing variety of errors. Listing them all individually could take indefinitely long and wouldn’t be very useful. But there are a few general tips that can help you avoid many potential problems at once.

• Think first, then write. Remember that you only have 25 minutes, and you’re writing longhand. You have to get it right the first time.

• Stick to your active vocabulary. The SAT is not the time to try out fancy new words you aren’t 100% sure how to use correctly.

• Don’t be overly casual. You’re not chatting with your friends—you’re writing an essay for a grade on an important test. Avoid slang, and never use abbreviations such as “+”, “b/c”, or “w/o”.

• Avoid the passive voice—active voice is always the better choice!

Sentence Variety ETS graders are evaluating, among other things, how well you can vary your sentences in both length and structure. Therefore, you want to deliver a blend of short and long sentences. Short, declaratory sentences are perfectly acceptable, but be careful not to overuse them. Too many short sentences will make your writing sound simplistic and repetitive. Here’s an example: “Sometimes censorship is justified.” I disagree with this quote. I believe that censorship is never justified. Censorship interferes with our freedom of expression. It may endanger our democracy. Censorship cannot solve anything. It only takes away our individual freedoms .

Don’t use a pronoun that doesn’t stand for anything in particular. You won’t get a high score if your grader has to ask, “Which it?” or “This what?”

Add punctuation and conjunctions to connect related ideas and create smoother renditions of the sentences above.

A little complexity goes a long way, however. Long, complex sentences can be difficult for you to control and may be difficult for a reader to easily understand. How can this sentence be made clearer? Many like to think that individual freedom supersedes all else, but in reality, there is and always will be some sort of authority existing to keep one within the rules, because no matter how important we believe the exercise of individual freedom to be, there is always a need to maintain a clear distinction between right and wrong, a distinction that is not always easy for an individual to see.


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refresher Manual for the sat

Adjust sentence length where necessary when you proofread.

GooD, Better, Best Here are some examples of actual student essays representing various scoring levels. Describe what is wrong with each, and then rewrite or add to the text to improve it. Assignment: What is your opinion of the claim that sometimes honesty is not the best policy?

essay a I agree that honesty is sometimes not the best policy. At times excessive honesty is unnecessary and can prevent desired outcomes. I will show this to be true using the examples of Shakespeare’s Othello and the spy Nathan Hale during the American Revolution.

In Othello, the main character confides in the villain, Iago. Othello reveals his deepest secrets, holding nothing back. Iago, who is secretly bent on Othello’s demise, uses this information to twist Othello from a successful military leader to a paranoid man who murders the woman he loves.

During the American Revolution, Nathan Hale acts the part of a loyalist while secretly feeding information to the colonial militia. He did this out of love for his and his country’s independence from the tyrannical rule of Britain.

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Using the examples of Shakespeare’s Othello and Nathan Hale, I have illustrated that sometimes honesty is not the best policy.

Essay B Although it is commonly thought of as the correct and proper thing to do, telling the truth is not always the best option. Although honesty normally creates fewer problems than lies, the truth should not be told when and if one’s feelings, heart, or emotions are on the line. Honesty, when used in the wrong situation, can cause much unneeded hurt, anger, and resentment. For example, if one does not appreciate or like a gift that they have received from a friend, it would not be wise to state that they are unappreciative or not in favor of the present. Instead, it would be a choice that would be beneficial to the giver for the recipient to smile, state their thanks, and make comments regarding what they do like about the gift. This method doesn’t even necessarily require stating anything untrue; rather it allows the recipient to guard the giver’s feelings by acknowledging what they do appreciate about the gift, instead of stating their dislike. Also, the truth should not be used when and if it will most likely cause conflicts or arguments between two separate people. For instance, if one had had an affair with a friend’s girl/boyfriend, it would not necessarily be a wise decision to be completely upfront and direct with the friend regarding the situation. If this were to be done, it would most likely cause tremendous amounts of resentment between the couple as well as the friends. These feelings would erupt because the girl/boyfriend that had been cheated on would feel betrayed by two people: his/her partner and his/her friend. In many situations, honesty allows people to move on and forget a situation, but many times, it can cause many more negative emotions than that are necessary. In these instances, one should either tell the partial truth or lie in the most minimal way. This will allow for the least amount of anger, showing that honesty is not always the best policy. Why did this essay get a 4? How could it be made better?


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Assignment: What is your view of the claim that the greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves?

Essay C I agree with the statement, “The greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves.” Everyone is responsible for this or her own actions. Individuals have a great ability to cause problems for themselves. My procrastination problems and the Monica Lewinsky scandals are examples of individuals causing major problems for themselves. In the past I have been known to cause problems for myself by procrastinating. When I recieved an assignment, I would toss it aside and say I would complete it later. This behavior led to me doing a sloppy, last minute job or forgetting about the assignment alltogether. My grade fell in easy classes because of my laziness. It was my biggest problem, and I had caused it on my own for myself. In the Monica Lewinsky scandal, President Bill Clinton was accused of adultery. He didn’t admit to having been involved with her, but he was caught in a lie. He was a married man and president and so should have stayed away from a possibly hazardous situation. President Clinton brought the problem upon himself by making a bad decision. Some of the worst situations that a person can get into are caused by the person themself. Knowing that each individual is responsible for his or her own life and decisions is important. People can easily ruin their own lives because of their poor judgment. Why did this essay get a 4? How could it be made better?

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Essay D One may say that we are destined for a future and have no control over the inevitable, but throughout history it is shown that the hardships we face are often caused by our own actions. The troubles that we encounter are ones of our own fault. The Great Depression, invention of nuclear weapons and the civil rights movement all prove such a statement. The rise of the economy during the early part of the 1900s, led by the industry of the United States, caused a rise in the stock market which led to an increase in stockholders investing in booming companys. However, at the end of the 1920s fear of a crashing economy sent investers panicing and selling of stocks. This panic caused the economy to crash and soon led to the Great Depression. Had the panic not struck investers with such strength, the events may never have happened. It is our own actions that cause consequences. The same is also true during World War II where the invention of the first nuclear weapons used to defeat the Axis Powers were created. Once the power of the weapons were demonstrated, nations seeked their own weapons of mass destruction. To this day, the United States’ invention has caused a constant threat of nuclear war with the Middle East and North Korea. On a social level, the oppression of minority groups in the United States has caused turbulence in society throughout much of the past century. First, women gained power in the 1920s, followed by African Americans during the 1960s and 1970s and then other groups such as Latin Americans, and men and women of homosexual orientation. The oppression suffered by these minority groups led to the eventual liberation of civil rights through tough campaigning, social equality was reached. Though many sought peaceful demonstrations, even turned violent such as race riots in Northeastern cities. History does not lie, and it is evident that much of the troubles in the United States were caused by none other than ourselves. The Great Depression of the 1930s were caused by events of the 1920s, the threat of nuclear was, caused by its creation during World War II, and social turbulence caused by oppression because of a misunderstanding in social values. Why did this essay get a 4? How could it be made better?


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Essay E “The greatest griefs are those we cause ourselves.” This statement was clearly made by a wise, noble individual. Quite often, people either make hurtful statements or commit heinous actions which hurt another person, and eventually, hinder their relationship and elicit animosity. If more beings were to simply think before their spoke, or contemplate the consequences of their actions, they would rarely be forced to endure grief. Reminiscing upon my grandfather, I find that statement to manifest even more truth. About fifty years ago my paternal grandfather and grandmother adopted a young boy named Neil. Neil was raised unaware of his adoption. However, when he turned sixteen, my grandparents believed that it was finally time to divulge the truth to him; thus, they proceeded to reveal that they were not Neil’s biological parents. To their astonishment, Neil handled the news maturely, and even decided that this issue was never to be discussed again, and that they were to exist together as if he was their real biological offspring. Several years passed, and the fragile issue was never once brought up. When Neil returned home from a European medical school at the age of twenty-seven, he told his parents what he assumed to be wonderful news. He revealed that he had met and fallen in love with a charming, successful woman with an amiable nature and remarkable aspirations. Initially, my grandparents were overjoyed, and extremely eager to meet their future daughter-in-law. Therefore, a “meeting-date” was set for the following week. When my grandparents opened the door to Neil’s girlfriend, their faces became radiant with acrimony, for the woman standing at the door was not of the same descent. My grandparents were appalled at Neil’s actions and my grandfather insolently said, “Your actions simply provide proof that you are not my blood. You were never my real son, and you never will be.” Since the day my grandfather stated those words, our family has not heard from Neil. My grandfather now completely regrets letting his enmity get in the way of a beautiful relationship. With one utterance, he lost a respectful, intelligent, and loving son. In conclusion, the greatest grief we experience is instigated by our own actions. If my grandfather had merely been open-minded, he would have never lost a son. Now, for the rest of his life, he’ll experience a perpetual feeling of emptiness, which was only caused by himself. Why did this essay get a 5? How could it be made better?

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IMPrOVInG senTenCes

BASIC APPROACH The key to success on Improving Sentences questions is to identify errors and compare answer choices with each other. Follow this plan:

Read the sentence. If you spot an error right away, do the following: 1.

Eliminate (A) and any other answer choices that make the same error.

2.

Compare the remaining answer choices and note how they differ. Eliminate any answer choices that contain new errors.

3.

Repeat Step 2 until you have one answer choice left.

If you don’t spot an error when you read the initial sentence, do the following 1.

Compare the answer choices and note how they differ. Eliminate any answer choices that contain errors.

2.

Repeat Step 1 until you have one answer choice left.

Don’t read the sentence over and over, hoping the right answer will leap out at you. Be methodical. Compare answers, spot the differences, and eliminate systematically.

AGREEMENT Agreement is one of the most heavily tested rules on the SAT. Let’s take a look at some specific situations.


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Verbs If you have a singular subject, you need to use a singular verb. If you have a plural subject, you need to use a plural verb.

Trim the fat Ignore what’s between the subject and verb—it’s just there to distract you. TRIM THE FAT.

1. While the sneakers that bear the logo of America’s largest footwear manufacturer costs several hundred dollars per pair, the workers who actually make them are paid only pennies a day. (A) that bear the logo of America’s largest footwear manufacturer costs (B) which bear the logo of America’s largest footwear manufacturer costs (C) who bear the logo of America’s largest manufacturer of footwear costs (D) that bear the logo of America’s largest footwear manufacturer cost (E) which bear America’s largest footwear manufacturer’s logo cost

Collective Nouns Collective nouns are singular. They need to be paired with singular verbs.

Ignore prepositional phrases when you check for agreement.

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2. The peasants fl ed when they heard that a band of armed men were headed toward their village. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

a band of armed men were an armed band of men were a band composed of armed men were a band of armed men was armed men in a band was



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Improving Sentences

Compound Subjects Two singular nouns joined by “and” make a plural subject. Two singular nouns joined by “or” or “nor” make a singular subject. If a singular noun and a plural noun are joined by “or” or “nor,” the verb agrees with the closer noun.

3. In Hinduism, the gods Shiva and Parvati is the parents of Ganesha, the elephant-headed god of wisdom. (A) (B) (C) (D)

the gods Shiva and Parvati is the parents the gods Shiva and Parvati is the parent the gods Shiva and Parvati are the parents Shiva and Parvati are the gods who are the parents (E) Shiva is one and Parvati the other parent

4. Either my parents or my brother is going to pick me up at the airport tomorrow afternoon. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

parents or my brother is brother or my parents is parents or my brother are brother or otherwise my parents are parents or my brother will

PrOnOUns When a pronoun is underlined, determine which noun it’s replacing, and make sure they agree: Singular with singular, and plural with plural.

5. Stage actors judge how the audience feel about a show by how loudly they applaud their performances. (A) feel about a show by how loudly they applaud their (B) feels about a show by how loudly it applauds its (C) feels about a show by how loudly it applauds their (D) feels about a show by how loudly they applaud its (E) feel about a show by how loudly they applaud their own



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The following pronouns are SINGULAR.

anybody

everybody

somebody

nobody

anyone

everyone

someone

no one

anything

everything

something

nothing

either

neither

each

much

The following pronouns are PLURAL.

few

many

both

several

The following pronouns can be singular OR plural, depending on the context.

all

most

some

none

more

any

less

6. The safety instructions on the airplane indicated that in the event of an evacuation, everyone should leave their briefcases and backpacks behind. (A) everyone should leave their briefcases and backpacks (B) everybody should leave their briefcases and backpacks (C) everyone should leave their briefcase or backpack (D) everybody should leave their briefcase or backpack (E) everyone should leave his briefcase or backpack

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Improving Sentences

MIsPLACeD MODIFIers To avoid misplaced modifiers, make sure that modifying phrases are indeed modifying what they’re supposed to modify.

If the modifier isn’t underlined, choose the subject that the modifier is actually describing. If the modifier is underlined, make it describe the subject or else turn it into a clause.

7. Barking loudly from the break of dawn until sunset, Jim could not enjoy his retirement because of the dog next door. (A) Jim could not enjoy his retirement because of the dog next door (B) Jim could not enjoy his retirement due to the dog next door (C) the dog next door kept Jim from enjoying his retirement (D) the dog next door could not allow Jim to enjoy being in retirement (E) Jim’s retirement could not be enjoyed because of the dog next door

8. Having ravaged the beaches, caused billions of dollars in damage, and taken dozens of lives, the governor announced that he was assembling a committee to develop a plan to protect the state’s populace from hurricanes. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Having After having Despite having Seeing that it had Because they had



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PARALLELISM ETS will give you sentences that mix and match different parts of speech, different tenses, different comparisons. You need to make sure everything is consistent and parallel.

LIsTs Items in a list should be parallel in form.

9. Jennifer’s cats liked to climb her bookshelves, shred her furniture, and to bite her toes. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

shred her furniture, and to bite shred her furniture, and bite to shred her furniture, and bite to shred her furniture, and also bite to shred and to bite her furniture and

10. The soldiers who fought in the revolution had a variety of motivations: some patriotic, some mercenary, and vengeance brought some, too. (A) mercenary, and vengeance brought some, too (B) mercenary, and some brought by vengeance (C) mercenary, and some vengeful (D) mercenary, some because of revenge (E) mercenary; brought by vengeance

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Improving Sentences

Verb Tense Another issue with parallelism is the use of parallel verb tenses. Generally speaking, the tense of verbs in a sentence should be consistent.

11. The state’s new educational priorities marginally increased math and reading scores among this year’s high school graduates, but critics argued that the students would be better citizens had they learned history and been exposed to the arts. (A) had they learned history and been exposed (B) if they had learned history and exposed (C) if they have learned history and had been exposed (D) had they learned history and have been exposed (E) if they would have learned history and been exposed

Of course, if there is a reason for verbs to be in different tenses, putting each verb into the correct tense is more important than keeping them parallel:

12. Each of the astronauts in the Apollo program underwent an exhaustive battery of tests by the time he was cleared for an actual mission. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

underwent undergoes has undergone had undergone will have undergone



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COMPArIsOns When you spot a comparison in a sentence, make sure the items being compared are properly comparable: Apples to apples, and oranges to oranges.

13. The commentators agreed that Springfi eld’s hockey team would surely score less goals than Shelbyville in Wednesday’s playoff game. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

score less goals than Shelbyville score fewer goals than Shelbyville score less goals than Shelbyville’s score fewer goals than Shelbyville’s score the least goals compared to Shelbyville

nOUn PArALLeLIsM Even when they aren’t explicitly part of a list or a comparison, nouns should agree in number unless there is a compelling reason for them to disagree.

14. In ancient Rome, it was common for emperors to adopt their chosen successor as a son. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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their chosen successor as a son his chosen successor as a son as a son one’s chosen successor their chosen successors as sons his chosen successors as a son



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Error IDs and Improving Paragraphs

Error ID questions Eighteen of the grammar questions on the SAT will ask you not to fix the sentence, but merely to identify where the error is. Each Error ID question presents a sentence with four underlined portions, labeled (A), (B), (C), and (D). You also have the option “No error,” which is labeled (E). Your job is to find the error in the sentence (if there is one). Here’s an example:

1. Four score and seven years ago our fathers A bringed forth on this continent a new nation, B conceived in liberty and dedicated to the propo C sition that all men are created equal. No error D E

Here are a few key points about Error IDs.

• There is never more than one error in a sentence.

• If there is an error in the sentence, it will always be underlined. The nonunderlined portions of the sentence are always correct. Thus, you should use the non-underlined portions to help you decide whether the underlined portions are correct.

• Any underlined portion of the sentence that you know is correct can be eliminated. You will nearly always be able to determine that a few of them are correct, so Error IDs are excellent questions for POE if you’re having trouble.

Error IDs are the quickest type of question to tackle because you don’t need to read any answer choices.


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refresher manual for the sat

• Approximately one-fi fth of the sentences will have no error. Thus, you should expect to see about 3 or 4 (E)’s out of your 18 Error IDs.

BasIc aPProach The key to Error ID questions is to know the rules of grammar that appear on the SAT, and recognize whether any of the underlined portions of the sentence violate them. Follow this plan.

Read the sentence. If you spot an error right away, do the following: 1.

Try to articulate what the error is, so that you avoid picking an answer solely by ear.

2.

Check the other underlined portions, just to be safe.

3.

Select the answer you originally identified as an error if you’re confident it truly is an error.

If you don’t spot an error when you fi rst read the sentence, do the following: 1.

Attack one underlined portion at a time by checking the grammar rules that apply to each.

2.

Eliminate answers that you know are grammatically correct.

3.

Select the answer that violates a rule, or (E) if there is no error.

agrEEmEnt anD ParaLLELIsm Error ID questions are just as likely to test agreement and parallelism as sentence improvements are. Be on the lookout for these sorts of errors.

2. The documents released by the Executive Secretariat of the State Department indicates A that the diplomat in question was well regarded B C by her superiors. No error D E

3. Niccolo Machiavelli advised Renaissance princes not to shy away from treachery, A B subterfuge, and being cruel in accomplishing C their goals. No error D E

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4. The rules of cricket baffle many Americans but A are really no more complicated than baseball. B C D No error E

morE aBout Pronouns As we have seen, the fi rst thing you should check about underlined pronouns is agreement. But there are a few other pronoun errors that ETS will occasionally throw at you.

pronoUn amBIgUITY There should never be any confusion or ambiguity about which noun a pronoun is referring to. Even if it seems obvious from context, it must be grammatically unambiguous which noun a pronoun stands for.

5. The farmers were horrified when they walked A through the fields of corn plants and discovered B that crows had been eating them. No error C D E

6. Although they were once commonplace along A B our highways and in our cities, the government has now banned billboards advertising tobacco. C D No error E



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11/15/05 3:31:12 PM

refresher manual for the sat

pronoUn CasE The case of a pronoun indicates whether it stands for the subject of the sentence or the object.

Watch out for it and they—these pronouns are most commonly the culprits in sentences with ambiguity errors.

When choosing between who and whom, ask yourself whether you would use he or him in place of the current pronoun. If you’ d say he, you want who; if you’ d say him, you want whom.

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Subject

Object

I

me.

He

him.

She

went to the mall with

her.

We

us.

They

them.

Who

whom?

7. I appreciate that Tracy is only trying to help her A brother, but she is going to have to accept that B this dispute is between he and I and that her C interference is only making the problem worse. D No error E

8. The message on my desk could hardly have A been less useful: it indicated that the telephone B had rung, but not who had called. No error C D E



11/15/05 3:31:13 PM


idiomS and Diction Idioms are not rules like “Verbs must agree with their subjects.” Idioms are conventions of language. In English, certain combinations of words are just correct, and others are incorrect. There’s no reason; that’s just the way it is. Some idioms you’ll know by ear. Others, you’ll have to learn and memorize. Many idiom questions require you to know which preposition follows a particular word, so it’s good to know the most common combinations. ...of

...to

...from

...with

responsibility capable

conform

composed

intend

in search

plan

jealous

try

resentful

superior

consist

compare

argue different prohibit distinguish

comply consistent compare contrast credit

attribute ...over dispute debate ...to be

...as

...for

define

provide

regard

responsible

see

qualify

...about worry concern

(no preposition)

estimate

named

appears

off

believe

advocate



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9. From the moment she stepped off the plane, A B Serena found that Uruguay was much different C as she had expected. No error D E

10. Try and understand what I am telling you: the A B C company has been liquidated and your stock D options are worthless. No error E

Related to idiom errors are diction errors, in which the wrong word has been substituted for a similar-sounding word.

11. The destruction caused by the sudden storm was A the most incredulous thing the anchorwoman B C had ever seen. No error D E

12. As he lay on the ground in agony, the injured A player thought less about his broken leg than B C about the fact that his team would now surely loose the game. No error D E

Improving paragraphs Paragraph improvement questions are the least common question type, accounting for only six questions on the entire test. Here are a few key points about Improving Paragraph questions.

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• Be sure to leave time for these at the end of your POOD, since they are only of easy or medium difficulty.

• The “20% are correct as written” rule doesn’t apply here. You often don’t even have the option to leave the paragraph alone, and when you do, it is almost never the correct answer.

• These passages aren’t just poorly written—they’re disaster areas. There are many, many more flaws within each passage than you will be asked about. Therefore, do not edit as you read.



11/15/05 3:31:13 PM


ThE BasIC approaCh 1. Skim the passage and identify the following things: •

Main Idea

•

Structure

2. Read the question and go back to the passage for context. 3. POE Keep the following ideas in mind when tackling these questions. • Think about what the author is trying to convey. Since your job here is to improve the paragraphs, you want to help the author get his or her main idea across as effectively as possible. In order to do that, you need to know what the author is trying to do. • Pay attention to the logical flow of ideas. Many of the questions relate to the order in which ideas are presented. You want to make sure that the ideas flow in a logical progression, and that each part leads to the next. • Avoid ambiguity and wordiness. The most effective revisions will be marked by precision of language and conciseness of expression.

ThE QUEsTIons You’ll see three basic types of questions: • Revision Questions: You’ll be asked to revise sentences or parts of sentences. These are extremely similar to sentence improvements. • Combination Questions: You’ll be asked to combine two sentences. • Weird Questions: You’ll be asked to split paragraphs, insert sentences, swap sentences, describe the relationship between sentences, or fi gure out what topics could hypothetically precede or follow the passage. Handling a weird question depends on what you’re specifically asked to do. Here are some guidelines. • If you’re asked to split a paragraph in two, look for where a new idea is introduced. Where is there a shift to something new? • If you’re asked to insert a sentence, focus on the connection between the surrounding sentences. How could you connect the ideas more logically? • If you’re asked to swap sentences, focus on the order of ideas. Where are there ideas coming out of order? • If you’re asked to describe the relationship between two sentences, focus on whether they agree or disagree. Then ask how the sentences relate to each other. • If you’re asked to identify the best topic to hypothetically precede or follow the passage, stick as closely to the passage as you can. Something preceding the passage should tie directly into the fi rst sentence. Something following the passage should flow directly from the last sentence. Always remember to focus on the main point of the passage. © The Princeton Review, Inc.


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(1) Many people think that instant messaging has only been around for a few years but they are mistaken and it is not. (2) My uncle who is an engineer says he used instant messaging when he was in college way back in the 1980’s. (3) He used a program called “talk” that allowed people to send messages back and forth to computers thousands of miles away instantly. (4) But only computer experts used it. (5) Also you couldn’t send pictures. (6) Today almost all young people in the United States use instant messaging. (7) Even if they don’t use computers for anything else they use it. (8) You type messages on your computer, and they appear on the person with whom you are conversing. (9) There is a sound that tells you when a new message has arrived. (10) You can talk to many people at the same time. (11) Many parents are surprised at how popular instant messaging is. (12) They say why would you want to send cold text back and forth when you could talk on the phone and hear the tone of the other person’s voice. (13) But I bet that decades ago parents couldn’t understand why kids would want to talk on the phone to their friends when they went to school with them and could visit them just by walking a few blocks. (14) Walking is good exercise, but not as good as biking or swimming. (15) But when you talk on the phone you don’t have to worry about whether you look good and you can do other things. (16) Just like with instant messaging you don’t have to answer back right away, you can go get a snack and write back when you feel like it and no one thinks it’s weird. (17) And it is easier to ask someone on a date with instant messaging.

|

2. Which of the following is the best revision of sentence 1 (reproduced below)?

Many people think that instant messaging has only been around for a few years but they are mistaken and it is not. (A) Mistakenly, many people think that instant messaging has been around for a few years, but it has not. (B) Many people mistakenly think that instant messaging has only been around for a few years but it is not. (C) Many people are mistaken to think that instant messaging has only been around for a few years, for it is not. (D) Many people think that instant messaging has been around only for a few years, but mistakenly, it has not. (E) Many people think that instant messaging has only been around for a few years, but they are mistaken.

1. The passage would be most improved if which of the following sentences were eliminated? (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

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Sentence 1 Sentence 6 Sentence 8 Sentence 13 Sentence 14



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3. Sentences 6 and 7 (reproduced below) could best be combined in which of the following ways?

5. Sentence 8 could best be revised by (A) changing the word “with” to “to” (B) changing the phrase “they” to “the same messages” (C) changing the phrase “and they appear” to “which appears” (D) inserting the phrase “the screen of” before the phrase “the person” (E) taking it out of the second person and putting in the first person

Today almost all young people in the United State use instant messaging. Even if they don’t use computers for anything else they use it. (A) Today almost all young people in the United States use instant messaging, even if they don’t use computers for anything else. (B) Today, even if they don’t use them for anything else, almost all young people in the United States use computers for instant messaging. (C) Today almost all young people in the United States use instant messaging; even if they don’t use computers for anything else, they use them for that. (D) Today almost all young people in the United States, if they don’t use computers for anything else, they use instant messaging. (E) Today almost all young people in the United States use computers for instant messaging, not for anything else.

6. This essay would most logically go on to discuss (A) the author’s own dating experience (B) the technology involved in instant messaging (C) the reasons teenagers feel more comfortable arranging dates over an instant messaging system than in person (D) other sources of misunderstanding between teenagers and their parents (E) the future of the Internet

4. The best way for the author of this essay to rearrange the paragraph breaks would be to (A) insert a paragraph break between sentences 3 and 4, and eliminate the paragraph break between sentences 5 and 6 (B) eliminate the paragraph break between sentences 5 and 6, and insert a paragraph break between sentences 8 and 9 (C) insert a paragraph break between sentences 9 and 10, and eliminate the paragraph break between sentences 12 and 13 (D) insert a paragraph break between sentences 10 and 11, and eliminate the paragraph break between sentences 12 and 13 (E) eliminate the paragraph break between sentences 12 and 13, and insert a paragraph break between sentence 15 and 16



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Grammar Homework


16 Grammar Homework 153

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Error IDs Drill One

1. After studying diligently for two A years, Alex finally realized that he B C had scarcely no interest in biology. D No error E

2. Bianca left Javier a note asking him A B to go with Liz and she to C the upcoming symphony concert. D No error E

5. People which are considered healthy A B by most doctors may still find it C difficult to obtain affordable health D insurance. No error E

6. Public buses maintain stringent A B environmental standards including C increased fuel efficiency and cleaner

3. To understand fully William A Shakespeare’s body of work, we must analyze not only his most B famous plays such as Hamlet, but also C his lesser-known plays, poems, D and sonnets. No error E

late at night when he wanted to sleep. D No error E

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8. Though the memory of the recent oil A shortage remains, most Americans view the present abundance that they B currently enjoy as a sign they C may again waste fuel. No error D E

ride up to the eighth floor, and then

154

7. Deb soon realized why her roommate had become resentful of she and her A B C friends; their parties kept him awake

4. Every morning Adeline has to show A identification at the front desk,

swipes her pass through a reader B before she can enter her office. C D No error E

emissions. No error D E

9. Emily goes to clubs frequent and A returns home late, but is always B C awake and alert the next morning. D No error E



11/15/05 3:31:19 PM

Grammar Homework

10. The 1,800 islands on the St. Lawrence A River are counted as part of the B Thousand Islands if they stay above C water all year and grew at least two D trees. No error E

15. When Chris unplugged the monitor A from his computer, he discovered it to be B C seriously damaged. No error D E

16. As more art historians investigate the A heritage of the Chinese, he becomes B increasingly aware of the religious C themes that inspired ancient artists. D No error E

17. The students agreed that A among the candidates for governor B of California in the recent election, C Gary Coleman was the more D qualified. No error E

11. The debate over whether inoculations A for very young children are B beneficial or are they dangerous C continues to rage. No error D E

12. Barnaby surprises most people he meets because he not only A loves listening to heavy metal and also B C he enjoys watching ballet. No error D E

13. John Bubbles is usually credited A with the invention of rhythm B C tap-dancing, an art form in which D both heels and toes are used to produce a syncopated sound. No error E

14. Peter had lay on the couch all afternoon A B watching television before Don C called him for dinner. No error D E



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Error IDs Drill Two

|

5. Mr. Marsh warned his strong-willed A daughter that unless she remembered B to drive slower, he would take away C her learner’s permit for the remainder D of the year. No error E

6. As a result of the defendant’s A continuous refusal to demonstrate B even the slightest semblance of C appropriate behavior in the court room,

1. Achieving heights of twelve feet, A the African elephant is the taller of B C the two elephant species that exists D today. No error E

2. That painter has had the honor of A having his work included in more B C international exhibits than other painters. D No error E

3. Every day when Vinnee gets to work, A she checks her voice mail messages, B meets with her editors, and read the local C D newspapers. No error E

4. In the eyes of many readers, The A New York Times, one of the nation’s most long-standing newspapers, B exemplifies the ideal traits of a daily C newspaper: insightful reporting and D exceptional writing. No error E

156

the judge held him in contempt. No error D E

7. More than 80,000 animal and 45,000 A plant species, approximately 8% of B C the world’s total, they have recorded D in India. No error E

8. Few employees understood the A concept of niche marketing, and so B they could not account for the shop’s C D slow sales. No error E



11/15/05 3:31:19 PM

Grammar Homework

9. Many foods associated with A European cuisines, like potatoes B and tomatoes, actually originated

in the Americas and were unknown C in Europe prior to the voyages of D Christopher Columbus. No error E

10. Andy was hardworking and a A prolific writer until a mysterious B illness caused him to start falling C asleep, sometimes in the middle of a D conversation. No error E

12. The range of electric cars has always been A B smaller than gasoline-powered cars. C D No error E

13. The best students in my class always considers producing high quality A work important, regardless of B whether it affects their grades. No error C D E

14. Jodie should of known that wearing A B C a tiara to work on Halloween was a bad idea; now everyone refers to her D as “The Queen.” No error E

15. Carly was a skilled driver, so even A after having been without a car for B C a year, she was still comfortable D behind the wheel. No error E

16. Rising domestic gas prices have A increased dramatically in the B past several years, causing many

11. “Remind me never to sign up for A another psychology class,” Linus said petulantly, “because the teacher B expects far too much reading of us.” C D No error E

businesses to spend a greater C percentage of their budgets on D transportation. No error E

17. Although the work of both artists A has been displayed at the gallery, B only one has managed to sell C D anything. No error E

18. I was so shaked up after the tractor-trailer A crashed into my car on the highway B that I avoided driving for several C D weeks. No error E



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19. The data entry work was given to Julie A because her typing speed is nearly B C double that of Martha. D No error E

20. Vladimir Nabokov, the popular Russian A American writer, was born in B St. Petersburg, but had moved C to England to attend college at Cambridge. D No error E

21. The extraordinary attention to detail needed A by pilots in flight are essential to B C their survival. No error D E

22. Everyone in the junior class are going to be A eligible for a chance to win a B C scholarship toward a summer travel

24. The class president stressed that it is A imperative that we maintain a B strong reserve balance in our school improvement fund since we are C responsible to plant additional D trees in the common area. No error E

25. While it is often expensive to attend A a live soccer match, it is much more B exciting and allows you to meet C D other fans. No error E

26. The team should have asked us for A B clarification since no one C understands the rules better than we. D No error E

program offered by the language D department. No error E

23. Although the venom’s antidote had been A B C tested only in the laboratory, it received a unique human trial when D the rare spider bit one of the guests. No error E

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11/15/05 3:31:20 PM

Grammar Homework

Improving Sentences Drill

1. None of his old clothes fit him, so much weight having been lost on the new diet. (A) so much weight having been lost on the new diet (B) on the new diet having lost so much weight (C) having the new diet losing so much weight (D) on the new diet and losing so much weight (E) since he lost so much weight on the new diet

2. The Surgeon General reports that while cigarette smoking is less popular than at any time since 1957, it is still the cause of over 100,000 cancer deaths a year. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

it is still the cause of it is still the result of causing being the cause of while being the cause of

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

Since one should not count One ought not count Since one ought not count One had ought not to count One should not be counting

5. Martin Luther King Jr., who endured countless humiliations and hardships, forcing even his detractors to acknowledge the sincerity and strength of his convictions. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

forcing he forces forced and forcing to force

6. The admissions officer put an acceptance letter in one of the envelopes and in the other was put a rejection letter. (A) and in the other was put a rejection letter (B) with the other put in a rejection letter (C) and the other was put in a rejection letter (D) and the thing he put in the other was a rejection letter (E) and a rejection letter in the other

3. Although he didn’t consider himself lucky, he won a teddy bear for his brother at the carnival. (A) he won a teddy bear for his brother at the carnival (B) his brother had won by him a teddy bear at the carnival (C) because he won his brother a teddy bear at the carnival (D) still he will be able to win a teddy bear for his brother at the carnival (E) he won, for his brother at the carnival, a teddy bear

4. Since one should not count out the Yankees early in the season, as they always get stronger by the middle of August.

7. Never again would Jerry attempt to jump out of an airplane without wearing a parachute. (A) to jump out of an airplane without wearing a parachute (B) to jump out of an airplane without wearing parachutes (C) to jump out of an airplane, with Jerry not wearing a parachute (D) to jump out of an airplane having no parachute (E) jumping out of airplanes without parachutes



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8. The primary resource used to power industry was initially water; eventually it progressed to steam, oil, and finally electricity.

(A) oil, and finally electricity (B) oil burning, and finally the use of electricity (C) oil, and finally electric power (D) oil, and finally the use of electricity (E) oil used for power, and finally electric power

10. Frank Lloyd Wright will be considered as one of America’s greatest architects because of works such as “Fallingwater,” a house built over a waterfall. (A) will be considered as one of America’s greatest architects because of (B) has been considered by America as a great architect due to (C) is considered one of America’s greatest architects because of (D) considered as one of America’s greatest architects because of (E) is considered great by America’s architects due to

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(A) asked, “May I speak to Ms. Gardner?” Rose answered, “This is she.” (B) asked, “May I speak to Ms. Gardner?” Rose answered, “This is her.” (C) is asking, “May I speak to Ms. Gardner?” Rose answered, “This is her.” (D) is asking, “May I speak to Ms. Gardner?” Rose is answering, “This is she.” (E) asking, “May I speak to Ms. Gardner?” Rose answering, “This is her.”

9. Daniel, while being an honor roll student, has nearly irritated every teacher in the school. (A) Daniel, while being an honor roll student, has nearly irritated every teacher in the school. (B) Daniel, although an honor roll student, has irritated nearly every teacher in the school. (C) Daniel, although an honor roll student, had been nearly irritating to every teacher in the school. (D) While being an honor roll student, Daniel has nearly irritated every teacher in the school. (E) Even when an honor roll student, Daniel, in school, is irritating nearly to every teacher.

11. When she picked up the phone and a voice asked, “May I speak to Ms. Gardner?” Rose answered, “This is she.”

12. People are free to make their own decisions, but there will always be rules in their life that must be followed. (A) will always be rules in their life that must be (B) were always rules in their lives, which must have been (C) will always be rules in one’s life that must be (D) will always be rules in their lives that must be (E) would always be rules in their lives, which must be

13. The Beat poets of the 1950’s broke new literary ground with their innovative use of language, choosing of subjects, and they expressed taboo emotions. (A) choosing of subjects, and they expressed taboo emotions (B) choosing of subjects, and expressing of taboo emotions (C) choice of subjects, and they expressed taboo emotions (D) choice of subjects, and expression of taboo emotions (E) subject choice, and the taboo of expressed emotions



11/15/05 3:31:21 PM

Answers &

Explanations

MATH Homework Plugging In page 54 6. B Plug in 4 for p. This gives you (4 + 5) = 9 and (4 – 7) = –3. The question asks for the difference, so 9 – (–3) = 12. 6. B Plug in the answers, starting with (C). As you work, just remember that the total number of puppets sold must equal 25, and the total sold for $30. sml

× $1 each

lg

× $2 each

total

(A)

25

(B)

20

$20

5

$10

$30

¸

(C)

15

$15

10

$20

$35

too big

(D)

10

(E)

5


17 Answers Exp 161

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161

11/16/05 4:13:21 PM


6. C Plug in the answers, starting with (C). The numbers in the answers are the possible weights of the block at the beginning of the day on Tuesday. orig lbs. (A)

540

(B)

480

(C)

360

(D)

180

(E)

20

2/3 melted

360 ×

2 = 120 3

1/2 melted

120 ×

1 = 60 2

¸

7. A Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! Let’s say that x = 12, which is the number of pages printed by Printer A in one hour. Printer B prints 12 at one-third this rate, so it prints at a rate of = 4 pages per hour. Work3 ing together, in one hour they will print 12 + 4 = 16 pages per hour, and 16 × 3 = 48 pages in three hours. This is your target. Only (A) works: 4x = 4 × 12 = 48. Watch out! If you picked (D), you chose a partial answer. 8. C Plug in the answers, starting with (C). The answers are possible values of c, the number of clients the company started with. Multiply by three for each year. Did you also notice that (E) is way too big? If so, cross it off. c (A)

5

(B)

15

(C)

45

(D)

729

(E)

3,645

yr 1

× 3 = 135

yr 2

yr 3

yr 4

yr 5

× 3 = 405 × 3 = 1,215 × 3 = 3,645 × 3 = 10,935

¸

too big!

9. A Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! If j = 20, then Alicia is 5 years younger, so a = 15. In 8 years, Alicia will be 15 + 8 = 23. This is your target. Only (A) works: j + 3 = 20 + 3 = 23. 9. C Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! Plug in for a and the other two angles in that triangle—be sure that your numbers add up to 180°. If a = 50, make angle CAG = 110 and angle CGA = 20. That makes b = 160 and x = 70, which is your target. Only (C) works: 180 + a – b = 180 + 50 – 160 = 70.

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17 Answers Exp 162

11/16/05 4:13:23 PM

Answers & Explanations

page 55 9. C Plug in a number such as 5, which is neither a factor nor a multiple of the numbers in the answer choices—this will minimize the chances that more than one answer will work. If a = 5, only (C) produces an even integer: 2a = 2 × 5 = 10. 10. E Plug in! If Bert is 10, and Ernie is three times as old as Bert, then Ernie is 30. Ernie is 4 years younger than Roger, so 30 + 4 = 34, which is your target. Only (E) works: Roger’s age is (3)(10) + 4 = 34. 10. C Plug in the answers, starting with (C). the number (A)

–12

(B)

6

(C)

12

(D)

16

(E)

18

(1/4) the number

(1/2) the number

3

6

3 is 3 less than 6

¸

11. D Plug in 5 feet for m, and choose a number for w that can be easily converted to feet, such as 36 inches, which equals 3 feet. So if m = 5 (feet) and w = 36 (inches), then Marlene is 2 feet taller than Albert. That makes 2 your target 12 m − w (12) ( 5 ) − ( 36 ) 60 − 36 24 answer. Only (D) works: = = = = 2. 12 12 12 12 11. A Cross out “in terms of” and plug in! Start with Circle A and its radius, v. If v = 4, then the area of Circle A = π(42) or 16π. If the area of Circle B is twice that of Circle A, then the area of B is 16π × 2 = 32π. 32π = r2π, and the radius of B is w, so w2 = 32, and w = 32. Reread the question: We are looking for the value of v, which is 4. Only (A) works:

32 2

= 16 = 4.


17 Answers Exp 163

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163

11/16/05 4:13:24 PM


page 56 11. A Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! If you plug in a = 2, then y = 5 × 2 = 10, and x =

(10) ( 2) + 6 = 26 = 13 , which is your target. Only (A)

4 4 2 works: 10 + 3 = 13 . Notice that sometimes the numbers don’t work out to be 2 2 integers on harder questions. Don’t restart the question unless the numbers are really messy—a fraction isn’t too hard to work with here.

1 1 . Solve for x = . Therefore, 12. D Plug in for z to begin. If z = 3, z2 = 9 = x 9 1 x2 = . Only (D) works. 81 12. D Plug in the answers, starting with (C). m

(2m)2

m3

Does (2m)2 = m3 ?

(A)

1

(B)

2

(C)

3

(2 × 3)2 = 62 = 36

33 = 27

36 ≠ 27

X

(D)

4

(2 × 4) = 8 = 64

4 = 64

64 = 64

¸

(E)

6

2

2

3

13. A Plug in the answers, starting with (C). Remember: the weight of the barrel plus the weight of the water must equal 20, and the weight of the barrel must 1 be the weight of the water. 4

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barrel

+ water = 20

Does (1/4)weight of water = weight of barrel?

(A)

4

16

1 × 16 = 4 4

¸

(B)

5

15

1 × 15 ≠ 5 4

X

(C)

15

5

1 × 5 ≠ 15 4

X

(D)

16

(E)

80


17 Answers Exp 164

11/16/05 4:13:29 PM


13. C Plug in the answers, starting with (C). What do we know from the question? That 20% of students study only physics and 25% study only chemistry. Therefore, the remaining 55% study biology, so the number of students studying biology must equal 55% of some integer. Plug in and look for the answer that produces an integer value for t. Eliminate any answer that gives you a non-integer total. biology (A)

4

(B)

9

(C)

11

(D)

15

(E)

20

t (total)

11 =

55 t , so t = 20 100

¸

13. A You can solve for the variable here, but it’s safer to plug in the answers, starting with (C). a

(A)

(B)

(C)

1 8

3

 1  8 

2

 1 2   8

3

=

 1  2 

1 1 64 = 4 = 1 1 1 4 4

2

1 = 4 ≠1 1  1 2   2

3

1 2

3

2

( 2) 2 2

¸

3

X

2

=

3

2

2 2

≠1

X

3

(D)

2

(E)

8

3 22 4 = ≠1 2× 2 4

X

3 82 64 4 = = ≠1 2×8 16 16

X

3

14. E Cross out “in terms of” and start plugging in for c. If c = 3, then (8)(3) = 24. 1 24 = 4b, so b = 6. Also, 24 = a, so a = 48. Reread the question: It asks for 2 the value of a + b, so 48 + 6 = 54, your target. Only (E) works: You plugged in c = 3, so (18)(3) = 54.


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page 57 14. A Plug in the answers, starting with (C). Remember that the final result should be $350. savings

minus clothes (2/5 of savings)

minus DVD (1/4 of savings)

= $350?

(A)

$1000

– 400

– 250 = $350

¸

(B)

$900

(C)

$800

– 320

– 200 = $280

X

(D)

$600

(E)

$500

15. A Plug in the answers, starting with (C). Use POE and plug in until you have only one answer remaining. Remember that you are looking for answers that produce integers so you can eliminate them. n=5

n = 20

a = 200

a = 200 20 200

(A)

n a

5 200

(B)

a n

200 = 40 5

X

(C)

a 2n

200 = 20 10

X

(D)

2a n

400 = 80 5

X

(E)

n2 a

25 200

400 =2 200

¸

X

15. C Using your calculator, plug in the answers in I/II/III and see which ones make the expression equal an integer. Only II does:

( 3) ( 2) ( 2) ( 2)

1 3

−

2 3

= 3.

16. D Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! Let’s say w = 3, so y = 4 and x = 6. Using these values, 5x + 6w = (5 × 6) + (6 × 3) = 30 + 18 = 48, your target. Only (D) works: 12y = 12 × 4 = 48.

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1 and b = –2. II and II can be eliminated, but I must 2 1 stay: Plugging our values into a × a–1 × b = b gives us × 2 × –2 = –2. If you 2 a think about it, a × a–1 will always produce = 1, so I must always be true. a 17. C Plug in for the consecutive integers: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. s = 2 + 3 + 4 = 9, and 5 + 6 + 7 = 18, which is your target. Only (C) works: s + 9 = 9 + 9 = 18. 16. B Plug in! Let’s say a =

17. D Plug in the answers, starting with (C). Remember that the number correct and incorrect must add up to 93. number correct

number incorrect

score = 247?

(A)

71

(B)

77

(C)

82

93 – 82 = 11

82(3) – 11(1) = 235

X

(D)

85

93 – 85 = 8

85(3) – 8(1) = 247

¸

(E)

90


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page 58 18. A Plug in! If t = 100 and x = 6, then set up the proportion and solve. Let’s use the variable z to represent the number of oranges we are solving for. Remember that x is 6 dollars, so you’ll need to convert this value to 600 cents to solve, but use the value 6 when you plug into the answers to find your target. t = 100 cents 600 cents . Cross multiply and solve for z to find that for = 5 oranges z oranges 500 × 6 x = $6, you can buy 30 oranges, your target. Only (A) works: = 30 . 100 18. B Plug in the answers, starting with (C). You can see right away that the numbers get smaller the more times you multiply by a. Therefore, a must be smaller than 1, so you can eliminate (C), (D), and (E). Fill in the terms 1 that you are given, and fill in the missing numbers using as the multiplier. 2 Only (B) follows the correct pattern. a

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1st term

2nd term

3rd term

4th term

(A)

1 8

(B)

1 2

(C)

2

too big

X

(D)

4

too big

X

(E)

8

too big

X

20 ×

1 = 2

10 ×

1 = 2

5×

1 = 2

2.5

¸


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18. D Plug in the answers, starting with (C). Divide Andy’s amount by 4 to get Chris’ amount. Andy

Chris

Andy – 10

Chris + 10

Is Andy’s amount twice Chris’?

(A)

20

(B)

40

(C)

50

12.5

40

22.5

22.5 ≠

(D)

60

15

50

25

25 =

(E)

80

1 × 40 2 1 × 50 2

X

¸

19. E Plug in numbers that are easy to work with. Let’s say that an item originally costs $10. 6% tax on $10 is 60 cents, so after tax, an item that originally costs $10 will cost t = $10.60. Reread the question to know what to look for: The target is the price before tax was added, which was $10. Plug in $10.60 for t in the answers to find the one that works. Only (E) does:

10.60 = 10. 1.06


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page 59 19. A Plug in a simple value for x that is between 0 and 1, and which you can 1 1 easily find the square root of: works well. If x = , then x2 = 1 and 4 4 16 1 x = . Put the values in order from smallest to largest, as they are listed 2 1 1 1 in the answer choices: < < , so x2 < x < x , or (A). 16 2 4 19. B What makes this question tough is that you need to consider numbers that you may not think of at first glance. Using the average pie, we know that the total of our three numbers must equal 9 × 3 = 27. However, nowhere does it say that these numbers have to be positive. Therefore, try plugging in some “weird” numbers, such as –30, 27, and 30. Their sum is 27, and two are greater than 11, so these are acceptable. We can clearly eliminate I and III. And since one of the statements has to be true, it must be II, or (B).

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Geometry page 60 1. 90° 2. 180° 3. 180° 4. 360° 5. 360° 6. The measures of two angles across from each other when two lines intersect are equal. 7. To bisect an angle or line segment means to divide it in half. 8. Two lines that are perpendicular form two right angles. 9. Two lines that are parallel never intersect. 10. The angle across from the longest side in a triangle is the largest angle in the triangle. 11. The angle across from the smallest side in a triangle is the smallest angle in the triangle.

page 61 12. Angles across from equal sides in a triangle have equal measures. 13. Isosceles triangles: (1) have two equal sides and (2) have two equal angels. 14. Equilateral triangles: (1) have three equal sides and (2) three equal angles that each measure 60°. 15. In parallelograms: (1) opposite sides are equal and parallel, and (2) opposite angles are equal. 16. A parallelogram is a rectangle when it has four right angles (a rectangle is a special kind of parallelogram). 17. A rectangle is a square when it has four equal sides (a square is a special kind of rectangle). 18. The diameter is twice as long as the radius. 19. Area of a parallelogram = base × height 1 base × height 2 21. Base and height must be perpendicular.

20. Area of a triangle =


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22. Area of a circle = πr2 23. Find the perimeter of any polygon by adding up all its sides.

page 62 24. Circumference of a circle = 2πr OR πd 25. a2 + b2 = c2, where a and b are the sides and c the hypotenuse of a right triangle. 26. ETS’s favorite Pythagorean triples are: 3:4:5, 6:8:10, and 5:12:13. 27. Volume = length × width × height, or V = lwh 28. Slope =

y2 − y1 rise = x2 − x1 run

29. Ratio of sides of a 45°-45°-90° triangle = 1 : 1 :

2

30. Ratio of sides of a 30°-60°-90° triangle = 1 : 3 : 2 31. This information is in the box at the beginning of each math section. 32. Don’t trust figures not drawn to scale; try to redraw the figure more accurately. 33. If there is no figure, try to draw one. 34. If there are variables in the answer choices of any question, PLUG IN! 35. Ballparking is estimating and eliminating unlikely answers.

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page 63 180 = 60 30 2. x = 360 – 40 = 320 1. x =

3. y = 180 – 110 = 70 4. e + f = 110 + 30 = 140 5. x = 150 6. y = 115 page 64 7. area = 6 8. area = 9 3 9. x = 20 10. area of circle with circumference 12π = 36π (d = 12, r = 6) 1 11. area of shaded region = 8π (r = 8, so area = 64π. 45° = of 360°, so area of shaded 8 1 1 region is of total area: 64π × = 8π.) 8 8


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page 65 7. D If you recognize that these triangles are similar, then (D) is the easy choice. If not, plug in for x, y, and z. Let’s say x = 4, y = 6, and z = 8. If so, then the perimeter is 4 + 6 + 8 = 18. Using these numbers, you find that the sides of Triangle II are 6, 9, and 12, and that the perimeter of Triangle II is 27. 27 3 = . 18 2 9. E Plug in the answers, starting with (C). Remember that the angle measures must add up to 180. b (A)

30

(B)

45

(C)

50

(D)

60

(E)

100

a

1 = 25 2 1 × = 30 2 1 × = 50 2 ×

c

= 180?

30

50 + 25 + 30 =105

X

30

60 + 30 + 30 = 120

X

30

100 + 50 + 30 = 180

¸

10. E Plug in the answer choices, starting with (C). Only (E) works:

4 −1 = 3. 3−2

11. D Fred’s theorem tells you that the angle adjacent to y is 49°. Using the rule of 180, we also know that x + y + 49 = 180. So, x + y = 131. page 66 11. C The triangles created by the cross-section of the cones are all similar. Therefore, we can set up a proportion to find what we need. Just read carefully: the smallest cone is 12 inches high and has a base diameter of 3, while the largest has an unknown height and a base radius of 3, so the base diameter of the largest cone is 6.

12 x = , so x = 24. 3 6

12. D Surface area = 6s2 where s is the length of a side. If the surface area here is 96, then 96 = 6s2, so 16 = s2. The value of s is therefore 4. Volume is simply s3, so the volume of this figure is 43 or 64.

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12. E Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! Remember to follow the rules of geometry as you work. Let’s say x = 40, so the angle adjacent to x must be 50°. Now focus on triangle BEC. Given that BE = CE, angle EBC is also 50°, so y must be 80°. Reread the question: You want to find y, so your target is 80. Plug in x = 40. Only (E) works: 2(40) = 80. 12. A We know that point Q must fall somewhere on segment AB, so eliminate any answer that doesn’t have an x coordinate equal to –8. That leaves us with only (A) and (B). If PQ is to bisect the square, it must pass through the origin and hit at AB below the x-axis, so the y value must also be negative. Eliminate (B). Drawing point Q is very helpful.


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page 67 13. 21 Start with what you know. Perimeter = 2l + 2w. In this problem, l = 3, so solve for w: 20 = (2)(3) + 2w, so 20 = 6 + 2w, 14 = 2w, and w = 7. Reread the question: We need the area of the figure, so 3 × 7 = 21. 13. E If EF is 6, then the distance from E to the point at which EF intersects a vertex of the smaller square is 3. Focus just on the distance from E to midpoints of EF and DE and the isosceles right triangle that is formed there. The hypotenuse of that right triangle is 3 2 , which is also the length of a side of the smaller square inside DEFG. Therefore, the perimeter is 4 × 3 2 = 12 2. 14. D Draw, then draw again! 0

5

12

16

Q

R

S

T

0

5

8

12

Q

R

T

S

–2

0

2

5

S

Q

T

R

–6

–2

0

5

T

S

Q

R

14. C Draw the figure as described. It should look something like this:

2

2

Given the information you have, you can find the area of one of the little triangles inside, then figure out the area of the square from there. If the radius 1 is 2, then the area of each little triangle is × 2 × 2 = 2. Since the square 2 consists of 4 such triangles, the area of the square is 4 × 2 = 8.

14. E If angle SOP measures 100°, then the adjacent angle POQ must measure 80°. Since segments OP and OQ are both radii, they are equal in length. Equal sides of a triangle are opposite equal angles, so angles OPQ and OQP are equal, and the sum of their angle measures is 100°. Reread the question: What is the measure of OPQ? This angle measure is 100 ÷ 2 = 50°.

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page 68 14. A Notice that the triangles in the figure given are similar. Just make sure that the numbers you plug in adhere to the ratio given in the problem. Let’s say AC = 5 and CD = 15. Using the Pythagorean triples ETS loves to use, plug in BC = 3, AB = 4, CE = 9, and ED = 12. Find the areas, then divide to get the fraction: 1 ( 4 ) ( 3) 6 1 area ABC = 2 = = area DEC 1 54 9 . 12) ( 9 ) ( 2 14. D Draw the figure and count up the triangles. Your figure should look something like the one below. Notice both the smallest triangles and those formed by combining two small triangles together. •

•

•

•

15. 76 Since both OP and OQ are radii, they are equal in length, making this triangle isosceles. Equal sides are opposite equal angles, so both angles OPQ and OQP equal 52°. Reread the question: What is the value of x? 52 + 52 = 104, so 180 – 104 = 76. 15. 0 Plug in for the variables, making sure to follow the rules of geometry. Let’s say x = 40, y = 50, z = 60, and w = 30. Therefore, (x – z) + (y – w) = (40 – 60) + (50 – 30) = –20 + 20 = 0.


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page 69 16. A Plug in! Let’s say x = 10, so the radii of the partial circles are all equal to 5. The area of the square is 102 = 100. By adding together the four unshaded regions, you get a whole circle with r = 5, so find that area and subtract it from 100 to get the answer you need: Area of the circle = π52 = 25π, so the unshaded area is 100 – 25π. This is your target. Only (A) works: 102 π 100 π (1 – ) = 100 – = 100 – 25π. 4 4 17. B Draw the figure and write down the coordinates. The distance between points A and D is 8, so the length of the two sides added together is 16. The total perimeter is 38, so the other two sides must sum to 38 – 16 = 22. Therefore, the distance between points A and B is 11, and f = 9. 18. 150 Focus on the small triangle formed where line l1 meets the other two lines. The angle adjacent to the 140° must measure 40°. The angle at the bottom measures 110°, since its adjacent angle measures 70° (Fred’s theorem tells you that). The third, smallest angle must therefore measure 30°. Reread the question: What is the value of x? Since it is adjacent to the 30° angle, it must be 180 – 30 = 150. 18. D Sometimes you have to use the Pythagorean theorem! Draw a line from T to V. Now you have two right triangles that share a hypotenuse. First calculate TV: 32 + 52 = TV2 = 34. Now do the same with the other triangle: x2 + 22 = TV2, which we now know is equal to 34. Therefore, x2 + 22 = 34, so x2 = 30, and x = 30 . page 70 19. E Use Pythagorean theorem: Since we know that AC = 2 and CB = 1, 22 + 12 = AB2 = 5. Therefore, AB =

5 . Notice you could have eliminated (B)

immediately, because the x value must be 0. You could have also ballparked to eliminate (A) and (C), since the distance from A to B must be greater than the lengths of the other two sides of the triangle. −3 −2 − ( −8 ) . Simplify to get = 8 −1 − x , then cross-multiply and solve. –3(–1 – x) = 48, so 3 + 3x = 48,

19. 15 Use the points provided in the slope formula: −3 6 = 8 −1 − x 3x = 45, and x = 15.

19. 8 Here we are looking for the greatest difference between the lengths of sides, so use the smallest number that you can for the shortest side. Since the lengths must be integers, that makes the shortest side equal 1. A triangle with sides of 9, 9, and 1 fits our restrictions, so the greatest difference is 9 – 1 = 8. If you thought that the triangle could have sides of 1-1-9, remember that the third side of any triangle must have a length between the sum and the difference of the other two sides. 178

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Other Approaches page 71 5. A Put the numbers is order: 3, 4, 7, 12, 14, 17, 20. The median is 12. The average is 11, since

3 + 4 + 7 + 12 + 14 + 17 + 20 77 = = 11. 12 – 11 = 1. 7 7

6. B Use the average pie. If the average of 3 numbers is 8, then their sum is 8 × 3 = 24. If the third number is 10, then the sum of the first two is 24 – 10 = 14. 8. A Use the average pie. If the average of these 4 numbers is 20, then their sum is 4 × 20 = 80. Therefore, 80 = 21 + 12 + 37 + y, so y = 10. 10. B Use the average pie. If the average of 3 numbers is 26, their sum is 3 × 26 = 78. Therefore, 33 + 17 + x = 78, so x = 28. 10. A Use the average pie. If the average of 6 numbers is 13, then their sum is 6 × 13 = 78. Therefore, 4y + 34 = 78, so 4y = 44, and y = 11. Did you notice that all the other answers were also wrong because y must be less than 13 for the average to be 13? 11. E Which one shows up the most time? .280. page 72 12. B Use the average pie. If 4 + 7 + 19 + x + y = 60, then x + y = 30. Reread the question: What is the average of x and y? 30 ÷ 2 = 15. Watch out! (E) is a Joe Bloggs answer. 13. 10 Use the average pie. If 5 + 17 + 18 + x + y = 60, then x + y = 20. Reread the question: What is the average of x and y? 20 ÷ 2 = 10. 14. C (C) is the definition of mode. 16. C Cross out the “in terms of” phrase and plug in! Let’s say that x = 4, so y = 8 4 + 8 + 12 and z = 12. The average of these three numbers is = 8, which is 3 2 2 your target. Only (C) works: z = × 12 = 8. 3 3 18. E List the numbers: x, 7, 8, 9, 13, and 17 where x is the age of the sixth student. There are an even number of members in this list, and the median is 10, so the median must be the average of 9 and x, so x = 11.


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page 73 6. B Translate: x =

5 20 × × 300 . So, x = 3. 100 100

80 10. B The new price must be 80% of the original price: × 23 = x. So, 100 x = 18.40. 11. B 24 – 3 = 21 cars are unsold. What percent of the cars are unsold? Translate: x • 24 = 21. So, x = 87.5. 100 13. C Plug in! Let’s say that she must take 100 credits. Her first year she takes 25%, or 25, credits, and she has 75 remaining to take. In her second year, she 40 takes 40% of the remaining credits, or × 75 = 30. Now she has taken 100 25 + 30 = 55 credits, and she still needs to take 45 more. Watch out! (D) and (E) are the Joe Bloggs answers. 14. B Use bite-sized pieces. Remember that the 30% discount is for shoes only. 30 × $20 = $6 discount. $6 is what percent of the total amount she spent? 100 x Translate: $6 = • $60. So, x = 10. 100 15. D Plug in! Let’s say m = 8 and n = 6, then translate: 6 =

x • 8. So, x = 75. 100

page 74 16. D Plug in! Let’s say the book is $100. An increase of 10% would add $10 to the price, making the new price $110. An additional 10% of this new number would add $11 to the price, making the final price $121. This is the same as adding 21% to the original price. Watch out! (C) is the Joe Bloggs answer. 17. B To find percent increase or decrease, remember the formula:

difference × 100. Using the numbers in the problem, we get: original

385 − 350 × 100 = 10%. Watch out! (C) is the Joe Bloggs answer. 350

14. 800 The problem says that $56 is 7% of the price, so translate: 7 56 = • x. So, x = 800. 100

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page 75 14 2a 28 = 2 × 14 = = . 3 b 6 6 2. C Use the ratio box. Plug in what you know, and add across top. How do you get from 4 to 12? Multiply by 3, so you need 1 × 3 = 3 males at a minimum. 1. E Plug in a = 14 and b = 6.

male

female

total

1

3

4

×3

×3

3

12

5 cups soda 13. C Set up your proportion and solve: = 12 guests tiply: 5x = 105, so x = 21.

8

3 cups soda 4 . Cross-mulx guests

14. D Use the ratio box. Plug in what you know, and add across top. How do you get from 6 to 120? Multiply by 20, so the longer portion is 100 and the shorter portion is 20, and the difference is 100 – 20 = 80. Watch out! (E) is a partial answer. short

long

total

1

5

6

× 20

× 20

× 20

20

100

120

16. E Just write each ratio as a fraction of red over white, then calculate the decimal 3 value. (E) is largest: = .75. 4 page 76 15.

2 or .153 Use the ratio box and plug in! Let’s say that the mixture is 2 parts 13 sulfur, so there are 10 parts charcoal and 1 part saltpeter. Add across the 2 top: the total is 13. Sulfur is 2 parts out of 13, or . 13 sulfur

charcoal

saltpeter

total

2

10

1

13

15. 176 Use the ratio box. Plug in what you know, and add across top. How do you get from 10 to 440? Multiply by 44, so there are 176 boys. teacher

boy

girl

total

1

4

5

10

×44

×44

×44

×44

176

440


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18. D Use the ratio box. Plug in what you know, and add across top, only this time include the information about the cost of the books, too. For every paperback purchased, three hardcovers are also purchased, for a total of four books. How much do these four books cost? (3)($4) + (1)($2) = $14. How do you get from $14 to $42? Multiply by 4, so the teacher purchased 12 books total. paperback

hardcover

total

3 × $4

1 × $2

4 books costing $14

×3

×3

×3 12 books costing $42

page 77 3 12 = . 3x = 60, so x = 20. 5 x $4.00 $15.00 . 4x = 3.60, so x = $0.90. 4. C Set up the proportion and solve: = $0.24 x 3. D Set up the proportion and solve:

13. 124 Set up the proportion and solve: x = 124.

155 words x . 5x = 620, so = 5 mins 4 mins

450 miles 90 miles . 450x = 16200, so 14. 36 Set up the proportion and solve: = 180 mins x x = 36. page 78 9. A Plug in the answers. Look for an answer that, when plugged into the equations provided as the x value, makes y = 0. Only (A) works: y = x2 – 16 when q (the x coordinate) is –4 and y = 0. 12. A Re-write the equation in the question as well as those in the answer choices so that they are in y = mx + b form. The equation in the question is now y = 3 x + 7 . When a line is reflected across the y-axis, the slope of the new 2 2 line is the negative of the original line’s slope, so we want an answer with 3 a slope of – . Eliminate (B), (D), and (E). We also know that when a line 2 is reflected across the y-axis, its y-intercept remains the same, so pick the 7 . Only (A) works. 2 13. C Use the graph to find the values you need. If g (4) = d, that means that x = 4. Look at the graph and find the y value when x = 4. Clearly, when x = 4, y = 6, so d = 6. Now find g(6) the same way on the graph: when x = 6, y equals a number between 7 and 8. answer with a y-intercept value of

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page 79 14. A Use transformation rules. When you add in the parentheses, the graph shifts that number of units to the left. When you subtract outside of the parentheses, the graph shifts down that number of units. Only (A) works. 18.

1 Start with what you know: The distance from point A to D is 8, and the area 32 of the figure is 128, so the other side of the rectangle must be 128 = 16. 8 Therefore, the value of a is 8, and point D is (4, –8) on the graph. You now have the coordinates of point D on the graph, so plug in the coordinates for D into the equation and solve for c. y = –cx4, so –8 = –c(4)4 = –c(256). So, c =

1 . 32


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CRITICAL READING Homework pages 103–104 21. Eliminate (A), (B), and (C) because they are probably all too extreme to be best answers on the SAT. 26. Eliminate (A) and (C) because they are also probably too extreme to be best answers on the SAT. page 105 1. “Killer bees” is not an accurate name for Africanized bees. 2. Three men who seemed to agree actually disagree strongly. 3. The weather in Scotland is not pretty. 4. Flying machines’ wings were modeled after birds’ wings. 5. The economy is not good. pages 106–107 12. E Papua New Guinea has a coast (line 1) and is an island (line 2). 13. C Kula is defined as a system in which male Trobrianders participate (lines 4–5), but we can’t know if women will eventually take part as well. 14. D Lines 1–3. 15. D The author’s conclusion is that pizza is a “multicultural and ... multi-continental collaboration that has evolved over the centuries” (lines 2–4). If pizza originates in Greece (line 4), but is further developed in Chicago, these facts would support his conclusion. 16. B The principle: human habitation has a negative effect on the environment. The example: the San Joaquin fox’s population drop. The different interpretation: foxes benefiting from living near humans (line 7). 17. B Put in your own word or phrase: something like “living together situation.” Only (B) carries this meaning. 18. B This use of language helps the reader “imagine” the perspective of early peoples. 19. C Put in your own word: something like “predicted.” Only (C) carries this meaning.

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page 108 6. C You need an answer that suggests the quest for immortality is NOT the most important theme in Gilgamesh. (C) is correct, because it suggests that the most important theme is “loss.” 7. B The author of Passage 2 states that we “see for ourselves the meaning of a story,” so he would probably not agree with the author of Passage 1 that there is only one important theme. 8. A Both passage mention the age of Gilgamesh: it is referred to as “ancient” (Passage 1, line 1) and as having been written “four thousand years” ago in Passage 2, line 19. 9. D This is a great paraphrase of the primary purpose of each passage. pages 109–110 10. C Lines 1–7. 11. D Lines 16–23. 12. A We need a word that means “realism.” (A) is closest to this meaning. 13. D The footnote and lines 28–32 support this answer. 14. B Lines 38–42. 15. D Lines 38–45. 16. C The quote refers to the paintings, not Giotto, and is neither critical nor confused. 17. B Lines 55–60. 18. C Lines 28–34 and the footnote support this answer. pages 111–113 7. B We need a word that means “uphold.” (B) is closest to this meaning. 8. D Lines 1–5. 9. C Lines 21–24. 10. E Lines 8–9 and 28–30. 11. A Lines 33–36. 12. D Lines 63–70. 13. B Lines 71–73. 14. C This is not cited as a reason anywhere in the passage. 15. E Lines 56–62.


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16. B Lines 86–96. 17. E This is the best paraphrase of the meaning of lines 94–95, that there was no alternative for women at this time. 18. D Lines 96–100. pages 114–117 1. C We need a word that means “wealth.” (C) is closest to this meaning. 2. C The author is wondering whether environmentalists are truly devoted to the cause. Only (C) works. 3. D Lines 25–29. 4. C We need a word that means “made worse.” (C) is closest to this meaning. 5. E Lines 30–34. 6. C Lines 47–50. 7. C Lines 61–64. 8. E Pollen is not pollution. The other four answers do suggest that there are costs connected to pollution that are not health related. 9. D Lines 91–97. 10. B Lines 102–108. 11. D This is the best paraphrase of the two passages. Other answers are either not stated (A and E), extreme (C), or not true (B). 12. A Passage 1 discusses money, while Passage 2 discusses health. 13. A The author of Passage 2 uses a direct quotation in lines 91 to the end of the passage. The author of Passage 1 does not do this.

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SENTENCE COMPLETIONS Be sure to look up and memorize any words that you don’t know! page 118 1. horrible 1. seriousness, gravity 2. excitement 3. standard 5. rebirth 5. soften, give up 6. shouting 7. influx, addition 7. wasteful 7. death, extinction 7. study, scrutiny 9. penniless, broke 10. required, necessary 10. relentless, persistent 4. C 6. A 7. B pages 119–120 8. Eliminate (A) and (B) 10. Eliminate (B) and (E) 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C


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7. D 8. D 9. B

WRITING Homework pages 154–155

Drill One 1. D Correction: no 2. C Correction: Liz and her 3. E No error 4. B Correction: swipe 5. A Correction: who are 6. E No error 7. C Correction: her 8. C Correction: enjoy 9. A Correction: frequently 10. D Correction: grow 11. C Correction: or 12. C Correction: but also 13. E No error 14. A Correction: had lain 15. C Correction: it was 16. B Correction: they are becoming 17. D Correction: was the most

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pages 156–158

Drill Two 1. D Correction: exist 2. E No error 3. D Correction: reads the local 4. E No error 5. C Correction: drive more slowly 6. E No error 7. D Correction: have been 8. E No error 9. B Correction: such as 10. A Correction: a hardworking and 11. E No error 12. D Correction: that of gasoline-powered 13. A Correction: consider 14. A Correction: should have 15. E No error 16. A Correction: Domestic 17. E No error 18. A Correction: shaken up 19. E No error 20. C Correction: moved 21. B Correction: is essential 22. A Correction: is going 23. E No error 24. D Correction: responsible for planting 25. B Correction: doing so 26. E No error


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page 159–160

Improving Sentences Drill 1. E The original sentence is passive and incomplete. 2. A The original sentence is correct as written. 3. A The original sentence is correct as written. 4. B The original sentence uses the wrong conjunction. 5. C The original sentence uses the wrong verb tense. 6. E The original sentence is passive. 7. A The original sentence is correct as written. 8. A The original sentence is correct as written. 9. B The original sentence uses the wrong conjunction. 10. C The original sentence uses the wrong idiom. 11. A The original sentence is correct as written. 12. D The original sentence contains a noun agreement error. 13. D The original sentence contains a parallelism error.

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SAT Refresher Manual

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