Simulasi Tes U n iversitas
TOEFL
Syi ah
Kuala
Univers itas
versitas Sumatera Utara n i v e r s i t a s
A n d a l a s
U n i v e r s i t a s
U n i v e r s i t a s
R i a u
Universitas Jambi
I n s t i t u t
Lam p u ng
B a n g k a
Pe r t a n i a n
U n i v e r s i t a s
B o g o r
R i a u
niversitas Sriwijaya
Universitas Brawijaya
niversitas Bengkulu
Universitas Hasanuddin
Universitas Airlangggga Universitas Indonesia
I n s t i t u t Te k n o l o g i B a n d u n g
as Sam Ratulanggi
Universitas Sriwijaya Universitas Mataram Universitas Bangka Belitung
Universitas Diponegoro G a j a h
Universitas Pattimura Universitas Udayana
Universitas Padjajaran
U n i v e r i t a s
B e l i t u n g
M a d a
Universitas Andalas
Universitas Negeri Surakarta
;
TOEFL® INTRODUCTION A. A Brief Introduction TOEFL® (Test of English as a Foreign Language) adalah suatu tes yang terdiri dari kumpulan pertanyaan-pertanyaan yang terstandarkan secara internasional. TOEFL® memiliki fungsi untuk mengukur sejauh mana kecakapan atau proficiency bahasa Inggris kita. Pada perkembangannya, TOEFL® menjadi sebuah tes yang paling banyak digunakan di dunia. Hal ini dapat diketahui karena TOEFL® diterima di lebih dari 9.000 perguruan tinggi, universitas, dan agen tersebar di lebih dari 130 negara. Sehingga, ke manapun kita akan belajar, tes TOEFL® akan membantu kita untuk mencapainya. Berikut ini adalah beberapa keuntungan yang akan kita dapatkan dengan tes TOEFL®. 1. Lebih Banyak Pilihan Dengan kita memiliki sertifikat tes TOEFL®, kita akan memiliki lebih banyak pilihan sebagai tempat untuk belajar kita. Ribuan perguruan tinggi dan universitas di lebih dari 130 negara menggunakan TOEFL® sebagai salah satu persyaratan administrasinya. 2. Lebih Tepat/Cocok Anda sangat dipermudah dengan terdapatnya lebih dari 4.500 lembaga penyelenggara tes TOEFL® yang tersebar di sekitar 165 negara, termasuk Indonesia. Selain itu, kita juga dapat menghemat waktu karena tes TOEFL® hanya diselenggarakan dalam satu hari sehingga kita tidak perlu datang kembali pada hari berikutnya. 3. Mengukur Kemampuan Akademik Tes TOEFL® menjadi suatu alat untuk membuktikan kemampuan kita dalam penguasaan keterampilan berbahasa Inggris yang nantinya akan sangat kita butuhkan ketika dalam perkuliahan. Hal ini dikarenakan pertanyaan dan tugas yang terdapat dalam tes TOEFL® bersifat akademik. Karena pertanyaan dan tugas bersifat akademik, banyak perguruan tinggi dan universitas menganggap bahwa tes TOEFL® adalah tes yang paling tepat dalam proses seleksi masuk. B. Jenis-Jenis Tes TOEFL® Tes TOEFL® memiliki beberapa jenis dengan kegunaan yang berbeda pula. Berikut ini adalah tabel yang menjelaskan tentang jenis-jenis tes TOEFL®.
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No. Nama
1.
2.
TOEFL Junior® Test
TOEFL® ITP Assessment Series
3.
TOEFL® Test
4.
TOEFL® PrimaryTM Test
Keterangan Tes ini digunakan untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa yang berada pada sekolah menengah pertama. Tes ini didistribusikan dalam format paper-based. Tes ini mengukur kecakapan dalam kemampuan listening, language form dan meaning, dan reading. Tes ini mengukur kecakapan berbahasa Inggris pada tataran intermediate sampai dengan advanced dan digunakan pada situasi di mana tidak membutuhkan suatu lingkungan tes yang aman. Contoh: untuk evaluasi kemajuan, tes penempatan akademik, dan lain-lain. Tes ini digunakan untuk mengukur kecakapan berbahasa Inggris penutur yang bahasa Inggris sebagai bahasa asing. Tes ini mengukur sejauh mana kecakapan seseorang dalam berkomunikasi dengan menggunakan bahasa Inggris dalam konteks kelas di perguruan tinggi atau universitas. Bentuk dari tes ini yang sering dikenal adalah TOEFL iBT test. Tes ini didesain untuk mengukur proficiency siswa-siswa usia 8+.
C. Bagian-bagian dalam Tes TOEFL® Khusus untuk pembahasan pada bagian ini, bagian-bagian tes TOEFL® yang akan dijelaskan adalah yang terdapat dalam tes TOEFL® ITP yang sering dijumpai dalam konteks akademik di Indonesia. Tes TOEFL® terbagi menjadi 3 bagian utama, yakni: Listening Comprehension, Structure and Written Expression, dan Reading Comprehension. Dan untuk mengerjakannya pun selalu berurutan, dimulai dengan Listening Comprehension dan diakhiri dengan Reading Comprehension. 1. Listening Comprehension Sesi Listening Comprehension akan mengukur kecakapan kita dalam memahami apa yang terdapat dalam rekaman. Terdapat 3 jenis rekaman dalam sesi ini, yakni: short conversations, longer conversations, dan talks/lectures. Sesi ini memiliki 50 pertanyaan dalam bentuk pilihan ganda. 50 pertanyaan ini dibagi dalam 3 bagian, yakni Part A, B, dan C. Part A terdiri dari 30 pertanyaan. Seluruh pertanyaan dalam bagian ini diawali oleh percakapan pendek (short conversation) antara dua orang penutur. Sedangkan Part B terdapat kurang lebih 8 pertanyaan yang diawali dengan percakapan yang lebih panjang 4
(longer conversation). Part C memiliki kurang lebih 12 pertanyaan. Biasanya pertanyaanpertanyaan yang terdapat pada bagian ini didistribusikan ke dalam 3 talks/lectures. Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk mengerjakan sesi Listening Comprehension ini adalah sekitar 35 menit. Selain itu, kita juga hanya memiliki waktu sekitar 12 detik untuk menjawab setiap pertanyaan. 2. Structure and Written Expression Sesi Structure and Written Expression akan mengukur kemampuan kita dalam memahami kalimat-kalimat dalam bahasa Inggris secara gramatikal. Sesi ini dibagi dalam dua bagian, yakni melengkapi kalimat rumpang dan mengidentifikasi kata/frasa yang salah dalam kalimat. Bagian melengkapi kalimat rumpang terdiri dari 15 pertanyaan. Dan sisanya, 35 pertanyaan, terdapat dalam bagian mengidentifikasi kata/frasa yang salah. Sehingga jumlah pertanyaan dalam sesi Structure and Written Expression berjumlah 40. Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk mengerjakan sesi Structure and Written Expression adalah 25 menit. Ini berarti, kita hanya memiliki waktu 37,5 detik untuk setiap pertanyaan. 3. Reading Comprehension Sesi Reading Comprehension akan mengukur kemampuan kita mengenai sejauh mana kita dapat memahami bacaan yang akademis dalam bahasa Inggris. Sesi ini tidak terdapat pembagian seperti halnya pada sesi-sesi sebelumnya. Akan tetapi, pada sesi ini terdapat kurang lebih lima bacaan yang masing-masing disertai dengan beberapa pertanyaan. Jumlah pertanyaan pada sesi Reading Comprehension adalah 50 pertanyaan. Jadi, setiap satu bacaan terdapat kurang lebih 10 pertanyaan yang mengikuti. Alokasi waktu yang diberikan untuk menjawab seluruh pertanyaan dalam sesi ini adalah 55 menit. Maka, kita memiliki waktu sekitar 1 menit 6 detik untuk menjawab setiap pertanyaan. D. Kegunaan Tes TOEFL® Tes TOEFL® memiliki banyak kegunaan. Berikut ini beberapa kegunaan dari tes TOEFL®. 1. Untuk mengetahui tingkat proficiency bahasa Inggris seseorang. 2. Sebagai salah satu persyaratan untuk melengkapi persyaratan administrasi untuk melanjutkan kuliah atau melamar pekerjaan. 3. Jika kita memiliki skor TOEFL® yang baik (>550), kita akan merasa nyaman untuk bepergian ke banyak negara. E. Penilaian dalam Tes TOEFL® Penilaian dalam tes TOEFL® memiliki ciri khas tersendiri. Tabel berikut ini menunjukkan penilaian dalam tes TOEFL®. 5
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Jumlah Jawaban Benar
Konversi Nilai Listening Comprehension I
Konversi Nilai Structure and Written Expression II
Konversi Nilai Reading Comprehension III
50
68
-
67
49
67
-
66
48
66
-
65
47
65
-
63
46
63
-
61
45
62
-
60
44
61
-
59
43
60
-
58
42
59
-
57
41
58
-
56
40
57
68
55
39
57
67
54
38
56
65
54
37
55
63
53
36
54
61
52
35
54
60
52
34
53
58
51
33
52
57
50
32
52
56
49
31
51
55
48
30
51
54
48
29
50
53
47
28
49
52
46
27
49
51
46
26
48
50
45
25
48
49
44
24
47
48
43
23
47
47
43
22
46
46
42
21
45
45
41
20
45
44
40
19
44
43
39
18
43
42
38
17
42
41
37
16
41
40
36
15
41
40
35
14
39
38
34
13
38
37
32
12
37
36
31
11
35
35
30
10
33
33
29
9
32
31
28
8
32
29
28
7
31
27
27
6
30
26
26
5
29
25
25
4
28
23
24
3
27
22
23
2
26
21
23
1
25
20
22
0
24
20
21
Bagaimanakah cara menggunakan tabel di atas? Sebagai contoh, kita mendapatkan jawaban benar pada sesi Listening comprehension adalah 30, 28 jawaban benar pada sesi Structure and Written Expression, dan 43 jawaban benar untuk sesi Reading Comprehension. Konversi nilai dari 30 jawaban benar pada sesi I adalah 51. Konversi nilai dari 28 jawaban benar pada sesi II adalah 52. Konversi nilai dari 43 jawaban yang benar pada sesi III adalah 58. Perhatikan tabel berikut ini. Sesi I
Sesi II
Sesi III
Jumlah jawaban benar
30
28
43
Konversi nilai
51
52
58
Berikut ini adalah cara penghitungannya. 1. Semua nilai yang sudah dikonversi dijumlahkan. 2. Hasil penjumlahan dibagi 3. 3. Hasil pembagian dikali 10.
51 + 52 + 58 = 161 161 / 3 = 53.7 53.7 x 10 = 537
Hasil skor keseluruhan TOEFL® pada contoh di atas adalah 537.
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SECTION 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time - approximately 35 minutes (including the reading of the directions for each part) In the Listening Comprehension section of the TOEFL test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to understand conversations and talks in English. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so. Part A Directions: In Part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Now, we will begin with Part A. 1. (Listening) (A) He is selfish. (B) He does not sell fish. (C) David is selfish. (D) What David said was unjust. 2. (Listening) (A) She thinks it’s better than the others. (B) The two other books are better. (C) It resembles the last one. (D) It’s the best book ever. 3. (Listening) (A) He graduated last in his class. (B) He is the last person to graduate. (C) He believes that he is gradually improving. (D) He has finally finished his studies. 8
4. (Listening) (A) He was so surprised there were eight skirts. (B) It was an unexpectedly inexpensive skirt. (C) He wants to know the price of the skirt. (D) The skirt was not cheap. 5. (Listening) (A) The man should give an assignment to her this week. (B) The woman will help the man with the assignments this week. (C) The man needs to study harder to complete the assignments. (D) The man will not do the assignments this week. 6. (Listening) (A) He does not like to hold the CD. (B) There is no store in his town.
(C) It’s not possible to obtain the CD yet. (D) He needs to talk to the shopkeeper. 7. (Listening) (A) It was incomplete. (B) It was finished on time. (C) It was not ending. (D) It was too long. 8. (Listening) (A) She needs to use the man’s notes. (B) The chemistry class yesterday was boring. (C) She took some notes in the class. (D) She will let the man borrow her notes. 9. (Listening) (A) It’s the man’s birthday today. (B) She’s looking for a birthday present. (C) She will go shopping with her sister. (D) She’s going to buy a new pair of shoes for herself. 10. (Listening) (A) He likes cold water. (B) His toes are big. (C) He doesn’t like the beach. (D) He did not enjoy the water. 11. (Listening) (A) She just left her uncle’s house. (B) She knows where her scarf is. (C) Her uncle is at home. (D) She is not sure where her scarf is.
12. (Listening) (A) She doesn’t have time to complete additional reports. (B) She has finished doing the reports she’s working on. (C) She doesn’t have responsibility. (D) It’s not time to do the field report. 13. (Listening) (A) He will fix the computer later. (B) He’s had enough computers at home.. (C) He’s going to stay for quite some time. (D) He will not continue trying to repair the computer. 14. (Listening) (A) He cannot see the big mountain. (B) The mountain is not huge. (C) He would like the woman to repeat what she said. (D) He agrees with the woman. 15. (Listening) (A) The exam was postponed. (B) The man should have studied harder. (C) Night is the best time for studying when there is an exam. (D) She is completely ready for the exam. 16. (Listening) (A) The woman must turn around. (B) Problems will occur if the woman turns. (C) The project report must be handed in immediately. 9
(D) The project report shouldn’t be turned in. 17. (Listening) (A) In a garden. (B) In a field. (C) In a grocery. (D) In a pharmacy. 18. (Listening) (A) A visit to the man’s house. (B) The man’s name is Bill. (C) The high electricity cost. (D) The bill of the new electronic tools. 19. (Listening) (A) She hasn’t met her new secretary yet. (B) She has a good opinion of her secretary. (C) Her secretary asked her about her impression of the company. (D) She has been putting to much push on her secretary. 20. (Listening) (A) The performance starts in two hours. (B) He intends to do two performances. (C) He will perform on the third of the month. (D) He thinks that the performance begins at three. 21. (Listening) (A) Choose a new doctor. (B) Cure the pain himself. (C) Make an appointment with his doctor. 10
(D) Asking the doctor to meet the woman. 22. (Listening) (A) It’s almost six o’clock. (B) The man doesn’t really need the pens. (C) It’s a long way to the stationary shop. (D) It would be better to go after six o’clock. 23. (Listening) (A) The book was placed on reserve. (B) The woman must ask the professor for a copy. (C) The woman should search for the book herself. (D) He has reservations about the book. 24. (Listening) (A) He needs to take a holiday. (B) He hopes the woman will help him to be more relaxed. (C) The woman just phoned him. (D) He is extremely relaxed. 25. (Listening) (A) She doesn’t think what Sarah said is false. (B) She has never before told the man about it. (C) She trusts Sarah. (D) She shares the man’s opinion about what Sarah said. 26. (Listening) (A) The department will offer a new dean next week.
(B) The new dean has not yet decided. (C) The department is looking for air. (D) The man likes to discuss about the new dean. 27. (Listening) (A) He doesn’t believe that it is raining hard. (B) The hard rain had been predicted. (C) The exact amount of hard rain is unclear. (D) He expected the woman to go out in the rain. 28. (Listening) (A) She’s going to take the test over again.
(B) She thinks she did a good job on the exam. (C) She has not yet taken the history exam. (D) She’s unhappy with how she did. 29. (Listening) (A) The door was unlocked. (B) It is better to wait outside. (C) He couldn’t open the door. (D) He needed to have a walk. 30. (Listening) (A) He nailed the wall. (B) He is heading to the library. (C) He is absolutely correct. (D) He has some nails.
Part B Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversation. After each conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then blacken the space of the answer you have chosen.
31. (Listening) (A) Because he has much money. (B) Because he can repair the old one. (C) Because the old computer was broken. (D) Because he wanted to have more computers.
32. (Listening) (A) It’s brand new. (B) It’s a second hand one. (C) It has bad quality. (D) It’s difficult. 33. (Listening) (A) It’s good. (B) It’s bad. (C) It’s cheap. (D) It’s better than brand new computers. 11
34. (Listening) (A) He felt happy. (B) He felt that it was easy for him to choose a computer. (C) He was confused. (D) He was not amazed. 35. (Listening) (A) She ate in the canteen. (B) She met her best friend in the canteen (C) She phoned Sarah and had a long chat. (D) She spent fifteen minutes in the canteen. 36. (Listening) (A) Sarah is unkind. (B) Sarah rarely gives suggestions. (C) Sarah makes her calm. (D) Sarah is not busy. 37. (Listening) (A) Sarah is kind. (B) Sarah is the woman’s best friend. (C) The woman is a student. (D) Both women can be met easily. 38. (Listening) (A) Because Sarah doesn’t want to. (B) Because Sarah is meeting her supervisor. (C) Because Sarah works on weekends. (D) Because Sarah preferred talking on the phone.
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Part C Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then blacken the space of the answer you have chosen. 39. (Listening) (A) 25 km2 (B) 250 km2 (C) 1 km2 (D) 26 km2 40. (Listening) (A) Indonesian architecture collection. (B) Indonesian clothing collection. (C) Indonesian dances and traditions. (D) Indonesian paintings. 41. (Listening) (A) TMII has a swimming pool. (B) TMII is one of the most popular tourist destinations. (C) There are many miniatures in TMII. (D) There is a theatre in TMII. 42. (Listening) (A) Have lunch. (B) Buy tickets for the tour. (C) Have a tour. (D) Finish the tour.
43. (Listening) (A) It’s about the life of Habibie’s family. (B) It’s about Habibie’s career. (C) It’s about the decription of Habibie. (D) It’s about the life of Habibie. 44. (Listening) (A) He became the president of Indonesia in 1998. (B) He married a woman from Yogyakarta. (C) He studied in Germany. (D) He had a son in 1960. 45. (Listening) (A) Habibie got his doctoral degree in Indonesia. (B) Habibie only became a vice president. (C) Habibie moved to Germany in 1960. (D) Habibie married the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari. 46. (Listening) (A) Because he got ill. (B) Because he got married. (C) Because he had a son. (D) Because he has finished his study.
47. (Listening) (A) Astronomer (B) Astronomy (C) Galaxy (D) Universe 48. (Listening) (A) It’s the sun only. (B) It’s the planets and the stars. (C) It’s the stars only. (D) It’s the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun. 49. (Listening) (A) 46 million years ago (B) 4.6 million years ago. (C) 46 billion years ago. (D) 4.6 billion years ago. 50. (Listening) (A) They are all of the planets. (B) They are the small planets. (C) They are the four small planets closest to the sun. (D) The biggest planet. — This is the end of the Listening Section—
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SECTION2: STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION STRUCTURE 1. _____________, the inventor of light bulb, was one of the first invetors to apply the principles. (A) It is Thomas Alva Edison (B) Thomas Alva Edison (C) Thomas Alva Edison is (D) Thomas Alva Edison is famous 2. Elizabeth in Pride and Prejudice and Elinor Dashwood in Sense and Sensibility __________ of Jane Austen’s famous characters. (A) they are two (B) two of them are (C) two of them (D) are two
6. Conditions required to be accepted in reputable international universities include good mastery of the field of study, good mastery of English, and __________. (A) the confidence must be high. (B) having high confidence. (C) high confidence. (D) highly confident.
3. Barack Obama has not one __________ two children. (A) and also (B) but (C) and there are (D) but there are
7. When the earth, sun and moon are lined up in a row, _____________. (A) spring tides are formed. (B) forming spring tides. (C) the forming of spring tides. (D) to form spring tides.
4. During the Indonesian Independence, the Indonesian society was happy, and the new government_________. (A) was formed (B) was to from (C) is forming (D) forming
8. Some people _________of money. (A) have a limited number (B) have a limited amount (C) having a limited number (D) having a limited amount
5. World War II is generally considered to have happened _________ and 1945, although some conflicts in
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Asia that are commonly viewed as becoming part of the world war had begun earlier than 1939. (A) the 1939 (B) between 1939 (C) in between 1939 (D) in the between 1939
9. In the presidential election in Indonesia, the government invites the society to determine who _________by voting. (A) should the president be (B) the president being
(C) the president should be (D) it should be the president 10. Electricity can be produced by ____________ or combs. (A) rulers are rubbed (B) rubbing rulers (C) to rub rulers (D) rulers rubbing 11. Orville Wright and Wilbur Wright, __________ of the world’s first successful airplane, were both born in Dayton. (A) they were inventing (B) were inventors (C) invented (D) the inventors 12. The particles in an atom ________a neutral charge are called neutrons. (A) having (B) is having (C) it is having (D) which having 13. Glaciers are made up of ________ that, over many years, compresses into large, thickened ice masses. (A) the snow is falling (B) snow is falling (C) fallen snow (D) snow fallen 14. Not only ________ provide energy that maintains many things on earth, but it also provides sunlight which is important for vitamin D production. (A) The sun (B) It is the sun that
(C) does the sun (D) is the sun 15. J.K. Rowling wrote many amazing novels _________ famous worldwide. (A) that are became (B) that became (C) what became (D) what had became
WRITTEN EXPRESSION 16. Thunder happen because of the A B vibration resulting from lightening C D when it strikes. 17. A atom consists of a dense central A B nucleus surrounded by a cloud of negatively charged electrons. C D 18. Most heart attacks involves discomA B C fort in the center or left side of the D chest. 19. When the general price level rises, A each unit of currency buys fewer B C goods as well services. D
15
20. The cerebral hemispheres, the ceA rebrum, form the largest part of the B human brain and are situated C above other brain structure. D 21. Borobudur is the world’s largest A Buddhist temple, as well as one of B the great Buddhist monuments in C D the world.
22. Although George Washington lost A B many of his battles, he never surren dered his army during the war, and he continued to fighting the British C relentlessly until the war ended. D 23. Uluru is notable for appear to A change color at different times of B C the day and year, most notably glowing red at dawn and sunset. D 24. The giant panda is easily recogA nized by the large, distinctive
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black patches around it eyes, over B C the ears, and across its round body. D 25. The outer space has effectively A no friction, allowing stars, plan B ets and moons to move free C along their ideal orbits. D 26. Port Jackson is known for its A beauty, and in particular, as the B location of the Sydney Opera House and Sydney Harbor Bridge which
connect central Sydney C with the Northern Suburbs region metropolitan area. D 27. A stiil camera is an optically device A which creates a single image of an object or scene, and records it on an B C electronic sensor or photographic D film. 28. Different species of bats selecting A B different habitats during different C
seasons, ranging from mountains and even deserts. D 29. Managing the balance between rec A reational, commercial, and industry B uses has been a challenge for the C stewards of the Niagara falls since D the 19th century.
30. Captain James Cook reached the south-eastern coast of Australia on A 19 April 1770, and in doing so his B expedition became the first record C Europeans to have encountered its D eastern coastline. 31. Roald Dahl rose to prominence in A the 1940s with works for both chilB dren and adults and became one of C the world’s best-selling author. D 32. Unlikely other birds in this world, A B C penguins cannot fly. D
33. Born in Stratford-upon-Avon, Wil A liam Shakespeare produces most of B his known work between 1589 and C D 1613.
34. Hail consists of balls or irregular A B lumps of ice, they of which is called C D a hailstone. 35. Orchidaceae is a diverse and wideA spread family of flowering plants with blooms that are often colorful B and often fragrant, commonly C known as the orchid family. D 36. Many newspapers, besides employA ing journalists on its own payrolls, B also subscribe to news agencies. C D 37. The term cartoon originated in the A Middle Ages and first describe a B preparatory drawing for a piece of art, such as a painting, fresco, tapes C
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try, or stained glass window. D 38. The successful completing of the A Suramadu bridge has encouraged B interest in the possibility of con-
40. The bicycle’s invention has had A an enormous effects on society, B C both in terms of culture and of advancing methods.
structing a much larger Sunda Strait C Bridge across the Sunda Strait at the D western end of Java. 39. Bill Clinton presided over the longer A period of peacetime economic B expansion in American history, and C signed into law the North American D Free Trade Agreement.
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modern
industrial D
SECTION 3: READING COMPREHENSION Questions 1-10 Line
5
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The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal endemic to eastern Australia, including Tasmania. Together with the four species of echidna, it is one of the five extant species of monotremes, the only mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth. It is the sole living representative of its family (Ornithorhynchidae), and genus (Ornithorhynchus), though a number of related species have been found in the fossil record. The unusual appearance of this egg-laying, duck-billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed mammal baffled European naturalists when they first encountered it, with some considering it an elaborate fraud. It is one of the few venomous mammals, the male platypus having a spur on the hind foot that delivers venom capable of causing severe pain to humans. The unique features of the platypus make it an important subject in the study of evolutionary biology and a recognizable and iconic symbol of "VTUSBMJB it has appeared as a mascot at national events and is featured on the reverse of its 20-cent coin. The platypus is the animal emblem of the state of New South Wales. Until the early 20th century, it was hunted for its fur, but it is now protected throughout its range. Although captive breeding programs have had only limited success and the platypus is vulnerable to the effects of pollution, it is not under any immediate threat. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platypus)
1. The topic of this passage is (A) the general information of platypus (B) the features of platypus (C) the unusual appearance of platypus (D) the platypus in this world 2. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) the platypus is not a mammal (B) the platypus does not lay eggs (C) the platypus can be dangerous for human being (D) the platypus does rarely lives in Australia
3. The possessive its in line 4 refers to (A) platypus (B) species (C) mammal (D) representative 4. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) the platypus gives birth (B) the platypus is not famous in Australia (C) the platypus is not hunted for its fur today (D) there are still many platypus living in Australia
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5. The word ‘features’ in line 10 is closest in meaning to (A) descriptions (B) characteristics (C) explanations (D) characters 6. According to the passage, what is NOT the unusual appearance of the platypus? (A) egg-laying (B) duck-billed (C) small-tailed (D) otter-footed
9. The passage states that the platypus does not (A) Live in Tasmania (B) Give birth (C) Have poison (D) Have flat tails
7. The word ‘emblem’ in line 13 is closest in meaning to (A) picture (B) drawing (C) meaning (D) symbol
10. The word ‘immediate’ in line 17 is the closest in meaning to (A) direct (B) sudden (C) fast (D) quick
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8. The passage states that (A) the female platypus can produce venom (B) the male platypus can produce venom (C) all platypus can produce venom (D) all platypus are poisonous
The Wright brothers, Orville (August 19, 1871 – January 30, 1948) and Wilbur (April 16, 1867 – May 30, 1912), were two American brothers, inventors, and aviation pioneers who were credited with inventing and building the world’s first successful airplane and making the first controlled, powered and sustained heavier-than-air human flight, on December 17, 1903. From 1905 to 1907, the brothers developed their flying machine into the first practical fixed-wing aircraft. Although not the first to build and fly experimental aircraft, the Wright brothers were the first to invent aircraft controls that made fixed-wing powered flight possible. The brothers’ fundamental breakthrough was their invention of three-axis control, which enabled the pilot to steer the aircraft effectively and to maintain its equilibrium. This method became standard and remains standard on fixed-wing aircraft of all kinds. From the beginning of their aeronautical work, the Wright brothers focused on developing a reliable method of pilot control as the key to solving “the flying problem”. This approach differed significantly from other experimenters of the time who put more emphasis on developing powerful engines. Using a small homebuilt wind tunnel, the Wrights also collected more accurate data than any before, enabling them to design and build wings and propellers that were more efficient than any before. Their first U.S. patent, 821,393, did not claim invention of
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a flying machine, but rather, the invention of a system of aerodynamic control that manipulated a flying machine’s surfaces. They gained the mechanical skills essential for their success by working for years in their shop with printing presses, bicycles, motors, and other machinery. Their work with bicycles in particular influenced their belief that an unstable vehicle like a flying machine could be controlled and balanced with practice. From 1900 until their first powered flights in late 1903, they conducted extensive glider tests that also developed their skills as pilots. Their bicycle shop employee Charlie Taylo became an important part of the team, building their first airplane engine in close collaboration with the brothers. The Wright brothers’ status as inventors of the airplane has been subject to counterclaims by various parties. Much controversy persists over the many competing claims of early aviators. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wright_brothers)
11. The passage is mainly about (A) the life of the Wright brothers (B) the history of airplane (C) the inventions of the Wright brothers (D) the description of the Wright Brothers 12. The word ‘credited’ in line 3 is closest in meaning to (A) Honored (B) Skilled (C) Determined (D) Decided 13. In the second paragraph, the author mainly discusses (A) the three-axis control invented by the Wright brothers (B) how the Wright brothers invented fixed-wing aircrafts. (C) how the Wright brothers solve the flying problem.
(D) the invention of a system of aerodynamic control by the Wright brothers 14. The word ‘remains’ in line 11 is closest in meaning to (A) saves (B) gives (C) stays (D) brings 15. The word ‘any’ in line 16 refers to (A) the Wright brothers (B) other experimenters (C) powerful engines (D) accurate data 16. The passage states that (A) the Wright brothers did not make the first practical fixedwing aircraft in their life (B) the Wright brothers did not invent the three-axis control at all
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(C) the Wright brothers collected more accurate data using a small homebuilt wind tunnel (D) the Wright brothers’ first U.S. patent was not the invention of a system of aerodynamic control that manipulated a flying machine’s surfaces. 17. The word ‘essential’ in line 21 is closest in meaning to (A) good (B) useful (C) available (D) important 18. The following statements are true according to the passage EXCEPT (A) The Wright brothers are real siblings (B) The Wrights invented aircraft controls that made fixed-wing powered flight possible Line
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(C) The three-axis control method became standard on fixed-wing aircraft of all kinds. (D) The Wright brothers’ status as inventors of the airplane has been credited by all parties 19. The word ‘their’ in line 26 refers to (A) the Wrights (B) pilots (C) employee (D) Charlie Taylor 20. According to the passage, it is concluded that (A) The Wrights had a shop (B) The Wrights worked with bicycles (C) The Wrights contributed much to the invention of airplanes (D) The Wrights could fly airplanes
Insomnia, or sleeplessness, is a sleep disorder in which there is an inability to fall asleep or to stay asleep as long as desired. While the term is sometimes used to describe a disorder demonstrated by polysomnographic evidence of disturbed sleep, this sleep disorder is often practically defined as a positive response to either of two questions: “Do you experience difficulty sleeping?” or “Do you have difficulty falling or staying asleep?” Insomnia is most often thought of as both a medical sign and a symptom that can accompany several sleeps, medical, and psychiatric disorders characterized by a persistent difficulty falling asleep and/or staying asleep or sleep of poor quality. Insomnia is typically followed by functional impairment while awake. Insomnia can occur at any age, but it is particularly common in the elderly. Insomnia can be short term (up to three weeks) or long term (above 3–4 weeks), which can lead to memory problems, depression, irritability and an increased risk of heart disease and automobile related accidents. Those who are having trouble sleeping sometimes turn to sleeping pills, which can help when used occasionally but may lead to substance dependence or addiction if used regularly for an extended period.
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Insomnia can be grouped into primary and secondary, or comorbid, insomnia. Primary insomnia is a sleep disorder, not attributable to a medical, psychiatric, or environmental cause. It is described as a complaint of prolonged sleep onset latency, disturbance of sleep maintenance, or the experience of non-refreshing sleep. A complete diagnosis will differentiate between free-standing primary insomnia, insomnia as secondary to another condition, and primary insomnia co-morbid with one or more conditions. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insomnia)
21. What is the author’s main point in the passage? (A) Another name of insomnia (B) The poor quality of sleep (C) The general idea of sleeplessness (D) The disadvantages of sleep disorder 22. The word “demonstrated” in line 3 can be best replaced by .... (A) Showed (B) Argued (C) Demoed (D) Suggested
treat Insomnia? (A) See the doctor (B) Do jogging (C) Drink sleeping medicine (D) Eat much 26. The word ‘dependence’ in line 16 has similar meaning with (A) Addiction (B) Existence (C) Addition (D) Usage
23. Who can get Insomnia? (A) Children (B) Elderly people (C) Teenager (D) All of the people
27. It is stated in the passage that Insomnia (A) can be occurred only to elderly people. (B) is waking up problem. (C) can cause memory problem. (D) can be treated by only consuming sleeping pills.
24. What is NOT the problem caused by Insomnia? (A) Depression (B) Headache (C) Irritability (D) Heart disease
28. The word “grouped” in line 18 is closest in meaning to (A) classified (B) formed (C) listed (D) ranked
25. What is the simple solution which is usually conducted by the people to
29. Which of the following is NOT true about the passage? 23
(A) Sleep disorder is the other name of Insomnia. (B) Insomnia can lead people to have physical impairment. (C) Consuming sleeping pills doesn’t cause addiction. (D) Insomnia can be grouped into two categories.
30. Where in the passage does the author mention about the definition of Insomnia? (A) Line 1 and 2 (B) Line 6 and 7 (C) Line 13 and 14 (D) Line 19 and 20
Questions 31-40 Line
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The Arecaceae are a botanical family of perennial lianas, shrubs, and trees commonly known as palm trees. (Due to historical usage, the family is alternatively called Palmae or Palmaceae.) They are flowering plants, the only family in the monocot order Arecales. Roughly 202 gener with around 2600 species are currently known, most of them restricted to tropical, subtropical, and warm temperate climates. Most palms are distinguished by their large, compound, evergreen leaves arranged at the top of an unbranched stem. However, many palms are exceptions, and in fact exhibit an enormous diversity in physical characteristics. As well as being morphologically diverse, palms also inhabit nearly every type of habitat within their range, from rainforests to deserts. Most palms grow in the tropics. They are abundant throughout the tropics, and thrive in almost every habitat therein. Their diversity is highest in wet, lowland tropical forests, especially in ecological “hotspots” such as Madagascars, which has more endemic palms than all of Africa. Colombia may have the highest number of palm species in one country. Palms are most commonly seen throughout Africa, South America, Mexico, and areas of the United States such as North Carolina, Texas, Florida, Arizona, California, Georgia, Louisiana, Alabama, Mississippi, South Carolina, Puerto Rico, and Hawaii. Palms are among the best known and most extensively cultivated plant families. They have been important to humans throughout much of history. Many common products and foods are derived from palms, and palms are also widely used in landscaping for their exotic appearance, making them one of the most economically important plants. In many historical cultures, palms were symbols for such ideas as victory, peace, and fertility. Today, they remain a popular symbol for the tropics and vacations. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arecaceae)
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31. The best title for this passage would be (A) Palm trees (B) Types of palm tress (C) Palm trees in rainforests and desserts (D) The importance of palm trees 32. The word ‘currently’ in line 4 is closest in meaning to (A) new (C) now (B) present (D) then 33. The expression ‘distinguished by’ in line 6 could be replaced by (A) Seen by (C) Lost by (B) Covered by (D) Closed by 34. It can be inferred from the passage that (A) Most of the leaves of palms are not green. (B) Rarely do palms have compound leaves. (C) Most palm trees can live in tropical areas. (D) All palms live in Cambodia. 35. According to the passage, palms live in these countries EXCEPT (A) Mexico (D) South Africa (B) Florida (E) Arctic (C) Arizona
36. The word ‘extensively’ in line 19 is closest in meaning to (A) large (C) larger (B) largely (D) largest 37. The word ‘they’ in line 24 refers to (A) palms (C) peace (B) victory (D) symbols 38. The word ‘appearance’ in line 22 is closest in meaning to (A) character (C) scene (B) look (D) scenery 39. Which of the following is NOT true about the cultural symbols of palms? (A) They are symbols for victory (B) They are symbols for peace (C) They are symbols for fertility (D) They are symbols for health 40. From the passage, it can be inferred that (A) Palms are not useful (B) Palms do not live in subtropical areas (C) There are not many kinds of palms (D) Palms are cultivated
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Questions 41-50 Line
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The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization established on 24 October 1945 to promote international co-operation. A replacement for the ineffective League of Nations, the organization was created following the Second World War to prevent another such conflict. At its founding, the UN had 51 NFNCFSTUBUFT there are now 193. The UN Headquarters resides in international territory in New York City, with further main offices in Geneva, Nairobi, and Vienna. The organization is financed by assessed and voluntary contributions from its member states. Its objectives include maintaining international peace and security, promoting human rights, fostering social and economic development, protecting the environment, and providing humanitarian aid in cases of famine, natural disaster, and armed conflict. During the Second World War, US President Franklin D. Roosevelt initiated talks on a successor agency to the League of Nations, and the United Nations Charter was drafted at a conference JO"QSJMo+VOF UIJTDIBSUFSUPPLFòFDUPO0DUPCFS BOEUIF UN began operation. The UN’s mission to preserve world peace was complicated in its early decades by the Cold War between the US and Soviet Union and their respective allies. The organization participated in major actions in Korea and the Congo, as well as approving the creation of the state of Israel in 1947. The organization’s membership grew significantly following widespread decolonization in the 1960s, and by the 1970s its budget for economic and social development programs far outstripped its spending on peacekeeping. After the end of the Cold War, the UN took on major military and peacekeeping missions across the world with varying degrees of success. The UN has six principal organs: the General Assembly (the main deliberative BTTFNCMZ UIF Security Council (for deciding certain resolutions for peace and TFDVSJUZ UIF Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (for promoting international FDPOPNJD BOE TPDJBM DPPQFSBUJPO BOE EFWFMPQNFOU UIF Secretariat (for providing TUVEJFT JOGPSNBUJPO BOE GBDJMJUJFT OFFEFE CZ UIF 6/ UIF International Court of Justice UIF QSJNBSZ KVEJDJBM PSHBO BOE UIF United Nations Trusteeship Council (inactive since 1994). UN System agencies include the World Bank Group, the World Health Organization, the World Food Programme, UNESCO, and UNICEF. The UN’s most prominent officer is the Secretary-General, an office held by South Korean Ban Ki-moon since 2007. Non-governmental organizations may be granted consultative status with ECOSOC and other agencies to participate in the UN’s work. The organization won the Nobel Peace Prize in 2001, and a number of its officers and agencies have also been awarded the prize. Other evaluations of the UN’s effectiveness have been mixed. Some commentators believe the organization to be an important force for peace and human development, while others have called the organization ineffective, corrupt, or biased. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Nations)
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41. The passage is mainly about (A) The history of UN (B) The story of UN (C) The general description of UN (D) The UN organization principals 42. According to the passage (A) UN did not replace League Nations (B) UN first had more than members 51 members (C) One of UN’s job is to prevent conflicts (D) The UN office is only in New York. 43. These are the aims of UN EXCEPT (A) Maintaining international peace and security (B) Promoting human rights (C) Fostering social and economic development (D) Destructing the environment 44. The word ‘its’ in line 14 refers to (A) United Nations Charter (B) Conference (C) Operation (D) UN’s 45. The word ‘major’ in line 16 is closest in meaning to (A) basic (B) big (C) base (D) many
46. Below are the principals organs that are still active now of UN EXCEPT (A) General Assembly (B) Security Council (C) Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) (D) United Nations Trusteeship Council 47. The word ‘prominent’ in line 30 is closest in meaning to (A) large (B) famous (C) well (D) fond 48. Where in the passage does the author describe about UN System agencies? (A) Line 20-24 (B) Line 24-26 (C) Line 28-32 (D) Line 33-34 49. The word ‘granted’ in line 31 can be best replaced by the word (A) bought (B) brought (C) given (D) appeared 50. The paragraph following the passage most likely discusses (A) The next UN leaders (B) The good status of UN (C) The effectiveness of UN (D) The ineffectiveness of UN
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ANSWER KEY AND DISCUSSION LISTENING COMPREHENSION PART A 1. (woman) : David said that you were rather selfish. (man) : It’s unfair of him to say that about me. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D What David said was unjust. 2. (man) : I don’t think this book is very good. (woman) : It’s better than the other two, isn’t it? (narrator) : What does the woman say about the book? JAWABAN: A She thinks it’s better than the others. 3. (woman) : Your graduation ceremony is two days again. (man) : I can’t believe it. I’ve graduated at last! (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D He has finally finished his studies. 4. (woman) : I got this skirt for only eight dollars! (man) : Eight dollars! How did you get it so cheap? (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: B It was an unexpectedly inexpensive skirt. 5. (man) : I just got a new assignment again this afternoon. (woman) : You need to work harder this week. (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: C The man needs to study harder to complete the assignments. 6. (woman) : Were you able to get a hold of the CD that you wanted? (man) : I couldn’t. At the store, they told me that it wasn’t available yet. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: C It’s not possible to obtain the CD yet.
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7. (woman) : Professor’s Ann lecture went on and on for quite some time. (man) : I thought she was never going to end the class. (narrator) : What does the man imply about the lecture? JAWABAN: D It was too long. 8. (man) : Do you have the notes from yesterday’s chemistry class? (woman) : No, I don’t. Do you think I could borrow yours? (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: A She needs to use the man’s notes. 9. (man) (woman)
: :
You said you wanted to go shopping this afternoon. What do you want to get? I think I’d like to get my sister a new pair of shoes for her birthday.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: B She’s looking for a birthday present. 10. (woman) : You didn’t even go into the water, even for a quick dip at the beach. (man) : I put my big toe in and decided that the water is too cold for me. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D He did not enjoy the water. 11. (man) : Do you know where your scarf is? (woman) : I think I left it at my uncle’s house yesterday. (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: B She knows where her scarf is. 12. (man) : I need you to work on these field reports. (woman) : But I hardly have time to finish the ones I already have. (narrator) : What does the woman imply? JAWABAN: A She doesn’t have time to complete additional reports. 13. (woman) : How much longer do you think you’re going to work on that broken computer? (man) : I give up! (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D He will not continue trying to repair the computer. 29
14. (woman) : Look at that mountain. It’s the highest I’ve ever seen! (man) : You can say that again. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D He agrees with the woman. 15. (man) : Are you ready for the geometry exam today? I stayed up all night studying for it. (woman) : Didn’t you know that the professor put it off until next week? (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: A The exam was postponed. 16. (woman) (man)
: :
I haven’t turned in the project report yet. Do you think that’s a problem? You haven’t turned it in yet? It’s absolutely essential that you turn the project report immediately. What does the man mean?
(narrator) : JAWABAN: C The project report must be handed in immediately.
17. (woman) : I would like some apples, avocados, and grapes please. (man) : Yes, certainly. (narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place? JAWABAN: C In a grocery. 18. (woman)
:
(man)
:
Look at this. You used the electronics too much last month. The bill is higher than usual. I had a lot of paper work to do. That’s why I always turn on the computer all day long for a couple of weeks. What are the man and woman probably discussing?
(narrator) : JAWABAN: C The high electricity cost.
19. (man) : What do you think of your new secretary? (woman) : I couldn’t be more impressed with him. (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: B She has a good opinion of her secretary.
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20. (woman) : Tony, do you know when the performance starts? (man) : It starts at two o’clock, doesn’t it? (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D He thinks that the performance begins at three. 21. (woman) : If your headache doesn’t get any better, perhaps you should see the doctor. (man) : I don’t really want to, but I guess I don’t have much choice. (narrator) : What will the man probably do next? JAWABAN: C Make an appointment with his doctor. 22. (man) : I need to buy some new pens. (woman) : Then you’d better get to the stationary shop. It closes at six o’clock. (narrator) : What can be inferred from the conversation? JAWABAN: A It’s almost six o’clock. 23. (woman) : Do you know where I can find the book for the exam next week? (man) : The professor copied it and put it on reserve in the library. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: A The book was placed on reserve. 24. (woman) : I think you should be a little bit relaxed. (man) : If I were any relaxed, I’d be on my holidays. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: D He is extremely relaxed. 25. (man) : I don’t think what Sarah said is possibly true. (woman) : Neither do I!. (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: D She shares the man’s opinion about what Sarah said. 26. (woman) : Has the department decided the new dean? (man) : It’s still up in the air. I think it will be discussed again next week. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: B The new dean has not yet decided. 31
27. (woman) : I can’t believe it! It’s raining hard today. (man) : It’s wasn’t exactly unexpected. (narrator) : What does the man mean? JAWABAN: B The hard rain had been predicted. 28. (man) : How do you think you did on the history exam this morning? (woman) : I really wish I could take it over again. (narrator) : What does the woman mean? JAWABAN: D She’s unhappy with how she did. 29. (woman) : You didn’t have to wait outside. You could’ve just opened the door. (man) : So the door was not locked! (narrator) : What had the man assumed? JAWABAN: C He couldn’t open the door. 30. (man) : My guess is that you’re leaving the class now and heading straight to the library. (woman) : You’ve hit the nail on the head! (narrator) : What does the woman say about the man? JAWABAN: C (A) He is absolutely correct. PART B Questions 31-34 refer to the following conversation. (narrator) : Listen to a conversation between a man and a woman about the man’s new computer. (woman) : Wow! You have a new computer. (man)
:
Yes, I bought it yesterday. My old one is broken and I couldn’t do anything about it. So I decided to buy one. It’s not new actually. It’s a second hand one.
(woman) : Why didn’t you buy a new one? Aren’t new things better? (man)
:
(woman) :
Well, it’s pretty good actually. Where did you buy it?
(man)
At the electronic center near the post office. There were so many choices there and I was confused which one to choose. All of them were good.
:
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Well, I have a lot of expense this semester and I need to take priority. And probably I’ll only be using this one two semesters again.
You certainly chose a good one.
31. Why did the man buy a new computer? JAWABAN: C Because the old computer was broken. 32. What is right about his new computer? JAWABAN: B It’s a second hand one. 33. What is the woman’s opinion about the new computer? JAWABAN: A It’s good. 34. What did the man feel at the shop? JAWABAN: C He was confused. Questions 35-38 refer to the following conversation. (narrator) : Listen to a conversation between a man and a woman about the woman’s best friend.
(man)
: Hi. What took you so long? You’re fifteen minutes late.
(woman) : I’m sorry. I met my best friend at the canteen and we had a chat. It was our first meeting in two years. (man)
: Is she the one you keep talking to me about?
(woman) : Yes. Well now she lives in California and she came here to visit her supervisor. Mr. Jones is a lecturer here too you know. (man)
: Oh, I see.
(woman) : She is so nice to me you know. Usually when I have problems, I tell her. Then she’ll give me advices or suggestions. She always makes me calm. I also always try to do the same thing to her. Usually we meet in the park or café. But now, we just talk on the phone. It’s pretty difficult to meet each other now. (man)
: You can meet up with each other on weekends, can’t you?
(woman) : Unfortunately not, she works on weekends. She’s extremely busy. (man)
:
Oh, I see.
35. Why was the woman late? JAWABAN: B She met her best friend in the canteen 36. How did the woman describe Sarah? JAWABAN: C Sarah makes her calm. 33
37. What did the man assume? JAWABAN: D Both women can be met easily. 38. Why can’t the woman easily meet Sarah? JAWABAN: C (A) Because Sarah works on weekends. PART C Questions 39-42 refer to the following talk. (narrator)
Listen to a talk by a tour guide in a landmark.
(man)
Let me give you a general overview of this beautiful place. Taman Mini Indonesia Indah (TMII) or “Beautiful Indonesia Miniature Park” (literally translated) is a culture-based recreational area located in East Jakarta, Indonesia. It has an area of about 250 acres (1.0 km2). The park is a synopsis of Indonesian culture, with virtually all aspects of daily life in Indonesia’s 26 (in 1975) provinces encapsulated in separate pavilions with the collections of Indonesian architecture, clothing, dances and traditions are all depicted impeccably. Apart from that, there is a lake with a miniature of the archipelago in the middle of it, cable cars, museums, Keong Emas Imax cinema, a theater called the Theatre of My Homeland (Theater Tanah Airku) and other recreational facilities which make TMII one of the most popular tourist destinations in the city. Since 2007 Taman Mini Indonesia Indah launched new logo with branding slogan Pesona Indonesia (“Indonesian Charm”). Okay, that’s enough. Let’s start the tour. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taman_Mini_Indonesia_Indah)
39. What is the area of TMII? JAWABAN: C 1 km2 40. Which is not available in TMII? JAWABAN: D Indonesian paintings 41. Which statement is false according to the talk? JAWABAN: A TMII has a swimming pool. 42. What will the participants probably do next? JAWABAN: C Have a tour. 34
Questions 43-46 refer to the following talk. (narrator)
Listen to a talk by a professor about Habibie.
(woman)
Today we will be discussing about a very famous Indonesian former president. Bacharuddin Jusuf Habibie. He was born 25 June 1936. He is a former politician of the State of Indonesia. His presidency (1998–1999) was the third, and the shortest, after independence. Habibie was born in Parepare, South Sulawesi Province to Alwi Abdul Jalil Habibie and R. A. Tuti Marini Puspowardojo. His father was an agriculturist from Gorontalo of Bugis descent and his mother was a Javanese noblewoman from Yogyakarta. His parents met while studying in Bogor. Habibie’s father died when he was 14 years old. Following his father’s death, Habibie continued his studies in Jakarta and then in 1955 moved to Germany. In 1960, Habibie received a degree in engineering in Germany, giving him the title Diplom-Ingenieur. He remained in Germany as a research assistant under Hans Ebner to conduct research for his doctoral degree. In 1962, Habibie returned to Indonesia for three months on sick leave. During this time, he was reacquainted with Hasri Ainun, the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari. Habibie had known Hasri Ainun in childhood, junior high school and in senior high school at SMA-Kristen, Bandung. The two married on 12 May 1962, returning to Germany shortly afterwards. Then, in May 1963 they had a son, Ilham Akbar Habibie. Okay, that’s only some information about Habibie. I would like all of you to find more information on his next years of life. (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/B._J._Habibie)
43. What is the talk about? JAWABAN: D It’s about the life of Habibie. 44. The following statements are TRUE according to the talk EXCEPT JAWABAN: D He had a son in 1960. 45. From the talk, it is known that JAWABAN: D Habibie married the daughter of R. Mohamad Besari. 46. Why did Habibie return to Indonesia in 1962? JAWABAN: A Because he got ill. 35
Questions 47-50 refer to the following talk.
(narrator)
Listen to a talk by a lecturer about the solar system.
(woman)
This poster I have is a poster of the Solar System. Of course you knew that. Well, the Solar System is the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun. These are aplanetary system of eight planets and various secondary bodies, dwarf planets and small Solar System objects that orbit the Sun directly, as well as satellite (moons) that orbit many planets and smaller objects. The Solar System formed 4.6 billion years ag. The vast majority of the system’s mass is in the Sun, with most of the remaining mass contained in Jupiter. The four smaller inner planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, also called the terrestrial planets, are primarily composed of rock and metal. The four outer planets, called the gas giants, are substantially more massive than the terrestrials. The two largest, Jupiter and Saturn, are composed NBJOMZPGIZESPHFOBOEIFMJVN UIFUXPPVUFSNPTUQMBOFUT Uranus and Neptune, are composed largely of substances with relatively high melting points, called ices, such as water, ammonia and methane, and are often referred to separately as “ice giants”. All planets have almost circular orbits that lie within a nearly flat disc called the ecliptic plane. Okay, are there any questions? (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solar_System)
47. What subject might this lecture be? JAWABAN: B Astronomy 48. What is the Solar System? JAWABAN: D It’s the Sun and the objects that orbit the Sun. 49. The Solar System was formed... JAWABAN: D 4.6 billion years ago. 50. What is meant by terrestrial planets? JAWABAN: C They are the four small planets closest to the sun. STRUCTURE 1. Pembahasan: Bagian yang hilang dalam kalimat ini adalah subjek kalimat. Walaupun terdapat frasa kata benda di antara dua koma (...,the inventor of light bulb,...), frasa kata benda ini bukan merupakan
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Subjek kalimat melainkan hanya keterangan tambahan dari subjek. Salah satu bentuk subjek kalimat adalah frasa kata benda (noun phrase). Pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena merupakan sebuah frasa kata benda. 2. Pembahasan: Yang hilang dari kalimat tersebut adalah bagian dari predikat yang merupakan verb. Subjek kalimat sudah ada. Jika kita pilih jawaaban pilihan (A), (B), atau (C) akan terjadi subjek ganda. Oleh karena itu, pilihan yang paling tepat adalah pilihan (D). 3. Pembahasan: Kalimat ini mengisyaratkan adanya pertentangan. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (B) but adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat rumpang di atas. 4. Pembahasan: Kalimat ini memiliki kaitan dengan materi Parallelism dan bentuk-bentuk dari verb. Hal yang hilang dari kalimat ini adalah verb. Bentuk verb pada kalimat yang hilang harus senada dengan bentuk kalimat sebelumnya, karena kedua kalimat tersebut paralel (terdapat conjunction ..., and ...). Bentuk verb kalimat pertama adalah ... was happy, sehingga bentuk verb kalimat kedua harus terdapat kata ... was .... Pilihan (B) tidak tepat karena kata “was to form” masih membutuhkan objek. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena setelah kata “was formed” tidak perlu dibubuhi objek kata apa pun. 5. Pembahasan: Dari semua pilihan jawaban, yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat di atas adalah pilihan (B) karena artinya’ di antara tahun 1939’ dan 1945. 6. Pembahasan: Dari kalimat berikut ini dapat diktahui bahwa kata-kata “good mastery ...” adalah bentuk dari noun phrase. Maka, kalimat yang rumpang harus diisi dengan bentuk noun phrase juga. Pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena “high confidence” merupakan bentuk noun phrase. Sedangkan pilihan (D) tidak tepat karena ‘confident’ bukan noun melainkan adjective. 7. Pembahasan: Bagian yang hilang dari kalimat ini adalah kalimat utama. Pilihan (B), (C), dan (D) tidak tepat karena bukan dalam bentuk sebuah kalimat. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena dalam bentuk sebuah kalimat (S+V). “Spring tides” sebagai subjek, dan “are formed” sebagai predikat/verb. 8. Pembahasan: Ada dua hal hilang dari kalimat ini. Yang pertama adalah verb, dan yang kedua adalah kata sandang. Karena subjek kalimat ini “some people” adalah jamak, maka kata kerja yang bisa 37
mengikuti adalah kata kerja dalam bentuk aslinya (tidak ada imbuhan apa pun). Kata “have” adalah kata yang tepat untuk menjadi kerja kalimat ini. Sedangkan kata sandang yang tepat untuk menemani kata “money” adalah “amount”, karena kata “amount” hanya dapat menjadi kata sandang pada kata benda yang tidak dapat dihitung (uncountable noun). Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 9. Pembahasan: Bagian kalimat yang paling tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat tersebut ada pada pilihan (C). Setelah kata “who” harus ada subjek dan predikat. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat adalah pilihan (C). 10. Pembahasan: Setelah kata ‘by’ yang boleh mengikuti hanyalah kata dalam bentuk noun atau yang dianggap sebagai noun (contoh: gerund/Ving). Pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena kata ‘rubbing’ adalah bentuk gerund, dan kata ‘rules’ memiliki bentuk yang paralel dengan kata ‘combs’ karena sama-sama kata benda dalam bentuk jamak. 11. Pembahasan: Phrasa yang berada di antara , ..., merupakan keterangan dari kata benda (noun) yang ada di depannya. Salah satu bentuk phrasa yang digunakan adalah dalam bentuk frasa kata benda (noun phrase). Selanjutnya, salah satu jenis kata yang boleh berada di depan kata ‘of’ adalah noun/noun phrase. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 12. Pembahasan: Bagian kalimat yang rumpang ini memiliki kaitan dengan penyederhanaan bentuk klausa kata sifat. Bentuk klausa kata sifat “... which has...,” dapat disederhanakan menjadi “...having...,”. Mengapa having, karena kata yang memperoleh imbuhan –ing harus dalam aslinya. 13. Pembahasan: Kata atau frasa yang bisa hadir setelah preposition “of” adalah noun atau noun phrase. Jawaban (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat, karena fallen snow adalah noun phrase. 14. Pembahasan: Pada kalimat ini, bagian yang hilang adalah subject. Akan tetapi, karena kalimat ini diawali dengan ungkapan negative, maka posisi subjek dan verb harus dibalik. Karena verb transitif kalimat ini sudah ada, kata kerja penghubung (does) harus disertakan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 15. Pembahasan: Kalimat ini membutuhkan adjective clause yang menjelaskan kata benda “novels”. Dalam adjective clause, apabila noun yang dijelaskan adalah benda mati maka kata that/which dapat 38
digunakan untuk memulai menjelaskan noun. Setelah kata “that” dapat langsung diikuti oleh kata kerja. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang tepat. WRITTEN EXPRESSION 16. Pembahasan: Subjek ‘Thunder’ adalah kata benda (orang ke III) tunggal, sehingga seharusnya diikuti oleh kata kerja V+s/es. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat, karena kata kata kerja ‘happen’ tidak mendapatkan imbuhan –s/es. 17. Pembahasan: Kata “atom” dalam pengucapannya diawali oleh huruf vokal /æ/, sehingga artikel yang tepat adalah “an”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 18. Pembahasan: Subjek kalimat ini adalah jamak, sehingga perlu diikuti oleh verb dalam bentuk aslinya (tanpa ada imbuhan apa pun). Oleh karena itu, pilihan (B) “involves” harus diganti menjadi “involve”. 19. Pembahasan: Pada kalimat ini yang salah adalah pilihan (D) karena frasa tersebut tidak lengkap. Seharusnya ‘as well’ ditambahi menjadi ’as well as’ atau diganti dengan kata ‘and’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 20. Pembahasan: Frasa ‘other brain structure’ salah karena ‘other’ berarti yang lainnya (jamak). Yang benar adalah ‘other brain structures’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 21. Pembahasan: Frasa ‘the great Buddhist monuments’ salah. Yang benar adalah ‘the greatest Buddhist monuments’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 22. Pembahasan: Frasa ‘to fighting’ salah karena ‘to’ pada frasa tersebut harus diikuti oleh infinitive (V1). Yang benar adalah ‘to fight’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 23. Pembahasan: Frasa ‘for appear’ salah. Kata ‘for’ adalah preposition (kata depan). Preposition harus diikuti noun/gerund/pronoun/noun phrase/noun clause. Yang benar adalah ‘for appearing’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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24. Pembahasan: Kata “it eyes” merupakan kata yang tidak memiliki susunan yang benar. Seharusnya, kata “it” diganti dengan kata “its” untuk merepresentasikan kata ganti kepemilikan “the giant panda”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 25. Pembahasan: Kata “move” seharusnya dijelaskan oleh adverb (kata keterangan). Kata “free” bukan merupakan keterangan, melainkan kata sifat. Untuk mengubah kata “free” menjadi kata keterangan, maka perlu ditambahkan akhiran “–ly”. Kata “free” diubah menjadi “freely”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 26. Pembahasan: Pada adjective clauase, penggunaan kata kerja harus menyesuaikan dengan kata benda yang dijelaskan. Sydney Harbor Bridge adalah kata benda tunggal, maka kata kerjanya harus dibubuhi akhiran –s/es. Kata “connect” menjadi “connects”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 27. Pembahasan: Dalam pembahasan noun phrase, adverb (kata keterangan) tidak bisa menjelaskan noun. Maka, kata “optically” harus diubah dalam bentuk kata sifat, yakni: “optical”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawban yang paling tepat. 28. Pembahasan: Bentuk Ving tidak bisa berperan sebagai verb dalam sebuah kalimat. Untuk konteks kalimat ini kata “selecting” harus dibuah kedalam bentuk present tense, yakni: “select”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 29. Pembahasan: Kata-kata yang diletakkan secara paralel dalam kalimat ini adalah kata sifat, yakni: “recreational, commercial, and industry...”. Namun, kata “industry” bukan kata sifat, melainkan kata benda. Maka kata “industry” harus diubah dalam bentuk kata sifat, yakni: “industrial”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang benar. 30. Pembahasan: Kata ‘record’ salah. Yang benar adalah ‘recorded’ karena adjective (kata sifat) yang dibutuhkan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 31. Pembahasan: Frasa ‘one of the world’s best-selling author’ salah karena seharusnya ‘one of the world’s best-selling authors’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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32. Pembahasan: Kata “unlikely” adalah kata adjective. Kata tersebut seharusnya diubah menjadi ‘unlike’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 33. Pembahasan: Karena kalimat ini mengungkapkan suatu kejadian yang lampau (ditandai dengan penggunaan “between 1589 and 1613”), maka penggunaan verb pada kalimat ini juga harus dalam bentuk lampau. Kata “produces” menjadi “produced”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 34. Pembahasan: Kata ‘they’ seharusnya diganti oleh ‘each’ yang artinya masing-masing. Karena subjeknya tunggal, yaitu ‘hail’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 35. Pembahasan: Kata ‘are’ seharusnya diganti oleh ‘is’ karena subjeknya tunggal, yaitu ‘Orchidaceae’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 36. Pembahasan: Kata “many newspapers” tidak dapat digantikan oleh kata “its” karena kata “its” hanya bisa menggantikan benda tunggal, sedangkan “many newspapers” adalah benda jamak. Kata “its” diubah menjadi “their”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling benar. 37. Pembahasan: Penggunaan kata kerja setelah kata hubung “and” harus paralel dengan kata kerja sebelumnya. Kata kerja pada kalimat pertama dalam bentuk past (lampau), maka kata kerja pada kalimat setelah “and” harus juga dalam bentuk lampau. Kata “describe” diubah menjadi “described”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 38. Pembahasan: Bentuk kata Ving bukan merupakan bentuk noun, sehingga frasa yang berada sebelum kata “of” tidak berfungsi sebagai noun phrase. Untuk itu, kata “completing” harus diubah menjadi “completion” supaya frasa tersebut manjadi noun phrase. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 39. Pembahasan: Frasa ‘ the longer’ salah. Seharusnya diubah menjadi ‘the longest’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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40. Pembahasan: Penggunaan artikel “an” menunjukan bahwa kata benda tersebut tunggal, sedangkan kata “effects” menunjukkan bahwa hal tersebut bersifat jamak. Maka, kata “effects” harus diubah menjadi “effect”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. READING COMPREHENSION 1. Pembahasan: Keterangan mengenai topik dari bacaan ini dapat diketahui dari kalimat 1 paragraf I: “The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a semiaquatic mammal endemic to eastern Australia, including Tasmania.” Kalimat ini menunjukan tentang gambaran umum mengenai platypus. Maka, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 2. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan bahwa hanya ada 1 pilihan jawaban yang benar. “the male platypus having a spur on the hind foot that delivers venom capable of causing severe pain to humans” ungkapan yang digarisbawahi menunjukkan bahwa platypus dapat menyebabkan rasa sakit yang hebat terhadap manusia. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 3. Pembahasan: Kata its pada baris ke-4 secara jelas merujuk pada subjek kalimat pertama. Pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 4. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan yang ditanyakan adalah sesuatu yang benar dari bacaan. Pilihan (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling benar karena sesuai dengan peryataan dalam kalimat “Until the early 20th century, it was hunted for its fur, but it is now protected throughout its range.” Kalimat “it is now protected.” berarti bahwa sekarang platypus sudah tidak diburu lagi. 5. Pembahasan: Kata ‘features’ memiliki makna yang sama dengan ‘characteristics’ (ciri-ciri). Maka, pilihan (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling benar. 6. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan jawaban yang TIDAK sesuai dengan bacaan. Pilihan (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat karena pada kalimat “The unusual appearance of this egg-laying, duck-billed, beaver-tailed, otter-footed mammal...” yang benar adalah beavertailed bukan small-tailed.
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7. Pembahasan: Kata ‘emblem’ memiliki arti ‘lambang’. Pilihan yang memiliki makna sama dengan ‘lambang’ adalah kata ‘symbol’. Sehingga, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 8. Pembahasan: Dari bacaan, dapat diketahui bahwa yang dapat menghasilkan racun adalah platypus jantan. Informasi ini ada pada baris ke 8-10. Sehingga, pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 9. Pembahasan: Sangat jelas sekali dalam kalimat ini “the only mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth” dinyatakan bahwa platypus bertelur bukan melahirkan. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 10. Pembahasan: Kata ‘immediate’ memiliki arti ‘langsung’. Selanjutnya, pilihan (A) direct juga berarti ‘langsung’. Sehingga pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 11. Pembahasan: Jawaban pertanyaan ini sangat jelas sekali terlihat dari setiap kalimat pertama dari setiap paragraf. Pilihan (A) terlalu spesifik karena hanya merupakan topik dari paragraf tertentu. Pilihan (B) dan (D) tidak tepat karena tidak memiliki keterkaitan dengan bacaan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 12. Pembahasan: Kata ‘credited’ memiliki arti diberikan atau dipersembahkan. Kata ‘honored’ juga berarti diberikan atau dipersembahkan. Sehingga, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 13. Pembahasan: Topik dari paragraf ke-2 dapat kita lihat dari kalimat pertama paragraf ke-2, yakni: “The brothers’ fundamental breakthrough was their invention of three-axis control, which enabled the pilot to steer the aircraft effectively and to maintain its equilibrium. This method ....” Dari penggalan paragraf ini, kita dapat mengetahui bahwa kalimat kedua menjelaskan tentang “three-axis control”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 14. Pembahasan: Kata “remains” dalam “...remains standard ...” berarti tetap menjadi. Kata “stays” adalah satusatunya kata yang memiliki makna yang sama dengan “remains”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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15. Pembahasan: Kata “any” menggantikan klausa “Using a small homebuilt wind tunnel” yang mana klausa ini secara tidak langsung berarti “percobaan”. Sehingga dapat disimpulkan bahwa kata “any” mengacu pada “other experiments”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 16. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini dimaksudkan untuk mencari satu pernyataan yang paling sesuai dengan bacaan. Pilihan jawaban (A), (B), dan (D) bertentangan dengan isi bacaan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling sesuai. 17. Pembahasan: Kata “essential” berarti penting. Pilihan jawaban (A) good = baik, pilihan jawaban (B) useful = berguna, pilihan jawaban (C) available = tersedia, dan pilihan jawaban (D) important = penting. Maka dari itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 18. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini meminta kita untuk mencari pernyataan yang salah dari bacaan. Pilihan jawaban (A) dan (B) benar karena kedua keterangan tadi terdapat dalam paragraf pertama. Pilihan jawaban (C) benar karena pernyataannya terdapat pada paragraf kedua. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 19. Pembahasan: Kata ‘their’ merujuk pada the Wrights. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 20. Pembahasan: Jawaban mengenai pertanyaan mengenai kesimpulan tidak dapat diketahui secara langsung (explicit) dari bacaan akantetapi kita harus membaca secara mendalam bacaan ini. Pilihan (A), (B), dan (D) merupakan informasi pendukung dari suatu topik maka ketiga pilihan ini tidak tepat. Maka, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 21. Pembahasan: Maksud pertanyaan ini adalah menanyakan tentang topik dari bacaan. Dapat kita ketahui bahwa setiap paragraf membahas hal yang sama tetapi dengan konteks yang berbeda, yakni: “Insomnia” atau “sleeplessness”. Hal ini menunjukkan bahwa topik dari bacaan ini adalah tentang “the general idea of sleeplessness. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat.
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22. Pembahasan: Kata “demonstrated” = ditunjukkan. Pilihan (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat karena “showed” = ditunjukkan. Pilihan jawaban (B) argued = diperdepatkan, (C) demanded = diminta, dan (D) suggested = disarankan. 23. Pembahasan: Jawaban pertanyaan ini sudah sangat jelas terdapat pada baris ke-9, yakni: “Insomnia can occur at any age,”. “Any age” di sini berarti semua umur atau dengan kata lain semua orang. Oleh karena itu, pilihan (D) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 24. Pembahasan: Pilihan (A), (C), dan (D) sudah sangat jelas sekali terdapat pada baris 11-14. Maka dari itu, pilihan (B) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena tidak terdapat dalam bacaan. 25. Pembahasan: Jawaban pertanyaan ini sangat jelas terdapat pada baris ke-15, yaitu: “Those who are having trouble sleeping sometimes turn to sleeping pills”. Kata “pills” memiliki padanan kata yang sama dengan “medicine”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling benar. 26. Pembahasan: Kata “dependence” = ketergantungan. Kata lain yang memiliki makna yang serupa adalah kata “addiction”. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling benar. 27. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan sebuah jawaban yang memiliki kesesuaian dengan bacaan. Pilihan (A), (B), dan (D) tidak tepat, karena apa yang diungkapkan pada masing-masing pilihan jawaban bertentangan dengan isi bacaan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat adalah (C). 28. Pembahasan: Kata “grouped” = dikelompokkan/diklasifikasikan. Kata yang memiliki kemiripan makna dengan “grouped” adalah “classified. Oleh karene itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 29. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan jenis ini meminta sebuah jawaban yang tidak sesuai dengan isi bacaan. Pilihan (A), (B), dan (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang memiliki kesesuaian dengan isi bacaan. Sedangkan pilihan jawaban (C) bertentangan dengan isi jawaban. Oleh karena itu, pilihan inilah yang paling tepat. 45
30. Pembahasan: Pengertian insomnia terdapat pada baris 1 dan 2 pada kalimat “Insomnia, or sleeplessness, is a sleep disorder in which there is an inability to fall asleep or to stay asleep as long as desired.” Oleh karena itu, pilihan (A) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat. 31. Pembahasan: Judul yang tepat untuk bacaan di atas adalah “Palm Trees” karena setiap paragraf dalam bacaan ini menjelaskan tentang “Palm Trees” dari berbagai segi. Pilihan (B) tidak disebutkan dalam bacaan, pilihan (C) dan (D) hanya mewakili paragraf tertentu. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 32. Pembahasan: Kata “currently” berarti “saat ini”. Pilihan (A) new = baru, (B) present = hadir, (C) now = saat ini, dan (D) then = kemudian. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 33. Pembahasan: Ekspresi ‘distinguished by’ memiliki arti tertutupi oleh. Kata ‘covered by’ juga memiliki arti tertutupi oleh. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 34. Pembahasan: Pertanyaan ini mengisyaratkan sebuah jawaban yang sesuai dengan bacaan. Pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan yang paling tepat karena keterangan ini ada pada baris ke-11. 35. Pembahasan: Pilihan (A), (B), dan (C) terdapat dalam bacaan. Pilihan (D) tidak terdapat dalam bacaan, karena secara logika di Arctic tidak ada tanaman karena seluruh daerahnya dilapisi oleh es. 36. Pembahasan: Kata ‘extensively’ memiliki arti dengan luas. Kata ‘largely’ juga memiliki arti dengan luas. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 37. Pembahasan: Kata ‘they’ merujuk pada kata ‘palms’. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (A) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 38. Pembahasan: Kata ‘appearence’ memiliki arti penampilan. Kata ‘look’ juga memiliki arti penampilan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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39. Pembahasan: Pernyataan yang tidak benar adalah ‘They are symbols for health’. Pernyataan yang ada pada pilihan (A), (B), dan (C) benar dan terdapat pada baris ke 21-22. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 40. Pembahasan: Dari bacaan, dapat diketahui bahwa pohon palm dibudidayakan. Informasi ini dapat didapatkan pada baris ke-19. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 41. Pembahasan: Bacaan tersebut berisi tentang gambaran umum PBB. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 42. Pembahasan: Berdasarkan bacaan, dapat diketahui bahwa salah satu tugas PBB adalah mencegah konflik. Informasi tersebut ada pada baris ke 3-4. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 43. Pembahasan: Yang bukan menjadi tujuan PBB ada pada pilihan (D). Informasi pada pilihan (A), (B), dan (C) ada pada baris ke 7-10. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 44. Pembahasan: Kata ‘its’ merujuk pada kata UNS’s. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 45. Pembahasan: Kata ‘major’ memiliki arti besar. Kata ‘big’ juga memiliki arti besar. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 46. Pembahasan: Pernyataan yang tidak sesuai dengan bacaan ada pada pilihan (D). Informasi pada pilihan (A), (B), dan (C) ada pada baris ke 22-28. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 47. Pembahasan: Kata ‘prominent’ memiliki arti terkemuka. Kata ‘famous’ juga memiliki arti terkemuka atau terkenal. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (B) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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48. Pembahasan: Penulis menjelaskan tentang ‘UN System agencies’ pada baris ke 28-32. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 49. Pembahasan: Kata ‘granted’ memiliki arti diberikan. Kata ‘given’ juga memiliki arti diberikan. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (C) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat. 50. Pembahasan: Paragraf selanjutnya akan membicarakan masalah ketidakefektifan PBB. Hal ini dapat diketahui pada akhir paragraf ke-4. Oleh karena itu, pilihan jawaban (D) adalah pilihan jawaban yang paling tepat.
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DAFTAR PUSTAKA Referensi soal-soal TPA masuk pascasarjana UNY dan UGM tahun 2013 artikata.com mediaindonesia.com kompas.com kr.com http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomas_Edison http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_War_II http://www.onegeology.org/extra/kids/earthprocesses/tides.html www.chem4kids.com/files/atom_neutron.html http://nsidc.org/cryosphere/glaciers/questions/what.htm en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atom https://www.nhlbi.nih.gov/health/health-topics/topics/heartattack/ http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Inflation http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_brain http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Borobudur http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Washington http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uluru http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Giant_panda http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Outer_space http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Port_Jackson http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Camera http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bat http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Niagara_Falls http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roald_Dahl http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/William_Shakespeare http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hail http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orchidaceae http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Newspaper http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cartoon http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bicycle http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Suramadu_Bridge http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bill_Clinton http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Platypus http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Insomnia http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arecaceae http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_Nations http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Taman_Mini_Indonesia_Indah http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solar_System
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TENTANG PENULIS
Cinthia Reswari, M.Pd., adalah instructor TOEFL (ProTEFL) di Pusat Pengembangan Bahasa UNY dan ikut terlibat dalam pengembangan bahan ajar TOEFL (ProTEFL). Lahir di Yogyakarta, 3 Agustus 1989. Dulu Sekolah Dasar di SD Singosaren Bantul dan Epping Public School (Sydney, Australia). SMP di Cheltenham Girl’s High School (Sydney, Australia) dan di SMP Muhammadiyah 2 Yogyakarta. SMA di SMA N 1 Kasihan (SMA N Tirtonirmolo). Menyelesaikan pendidikan S1 jurusan Pendidikan Bahasa Inggris di Universitas Negeri Yogyakarta tahun 2012. Telah menyelesaikan pendidikan S2 jurusan Pendidikan Bahasa Inggris di Universitas Sebelas Maret. Selain menjadi instructor TOEFL (ProTEFL) di P2B UNY, juga aktif menulis buku pengayaan bahasa Inggris untuk SMP dan SMA. Juga sedang mengembangkan lembaga pendidikan bahasa Inggris yang bernama A.S. English House di Kotagede Yogyakarta. Sekarang sedang menempuh pendidikan S3 di UNNES.
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