CHEMICAL AND PHYSICAL PRINCIPLES 1. The ion that would be iso-electronic with the noble gas Xenon is: a. I-2 b. S-2 c. Mg+2 d.K+1 2. No two elements in the same atom can have the same set of quantum is a statement of a. Hund’s Rule of Multiplicity b. Dalton’s Atomic Theory c. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle d. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle 3. Defines as acid as a compound that dissolves in water to produce the H+ ions is a. Arthenius c. Lewis b. Bronsted-Lowry d. Lowry 4. The electrons of metals are free to move in a solid. This explains why a. metals are unstable b. metals can easily be melted c. metals have high reflectivity d. metals have high conductivity 5. Buffer solution resists changes in acidity. If an acid is added to a buffer solution, the ______________ remains the same a. pH b. concentration c. ionization constant d. hydrolysis constant 6. In silver plating, the anode is a. copper d. graphite b. the object to be plated e. silver c. platinum 7. Brass is an alloy of a. aluminum and nickel c. copper and zinc b. lead and tin d. copper and tin 8. The first step in precipitation is the formulation of a. Nuclei c. Seeds b. Supersaturated solution d. Crystals 9. Which will dissolve faster in coffee? a. lump sugar in hot coffee b. granular sugar in hot coffee c. granular sugar in cold coffee d. lump sugar in cold coffee 10. The most important component of pitch blend a. Lead c. Uranium b. Mercury d. Gold 11. A catalyst is a substance that a. increases the rate of reaction b. is independent on the concentration of the reactants c. has no effect on the activation energy d. is recovered chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction 12. Which of the following are most alike? a. compound and suspension b. mixture and compound c. foam and solution d. solution and compound e. emulsion and colloid 13. An element having three valence of electrons and four main energy levels may belong to a. Family III-A c. Family VII-A b. Period 3 d. Family IV-A 14. The mass contribution of an electron in an atom is a. 1/1,837 that of the proton b. equal to that of a proton c. equal to that of a neutron d. not known 15. The percentage abundance of Xe in the atmosphere (% Volume) is a. 1.4 x 10-4 c. 1.32 % b. 8.0 x 10-6 d. 93%
16. Discovered water by exploding H2 + O2 a. Lewis c. Scavendish b. Lavoisier d. Usey 17. A solution of a weak acid and its salt which resists appreciable changes in pH value is called a. normal solution b. colloidal dispersion c. neutral solution d. buffer solution e. molar solution 18. The type in intermolecular force of attraction which exists between molecules of oxygen, nitrogen of methane is a. dipole-dipole c. H-bonding b. London d. Interionic 19. Which of the following is insoluble in H2O? a. aluminum sodium silicate b. aluminum sulfate c. ammonium oxalate d. ammonium bromide 20. Arrange Ca, Be and Mg according to increasing electron affinity a. Mg
33. Natural rubber is a polymer of a. ethylene d. chloroprene b. propene e. isoprene c. isobutene 34. No carbonyl group is found in: a. ether c. ketone b. aldehyde d. carboxylic acid 35. Nylon is a copolymer of a. urea formaldehyde b. phenal formaldehyde c. hexamethylene and adipic acid d. styrene and adipic acid 36. Which of the following is not an aliphatic hydrocarbon? a. n-octane c. propylene b. n-tridecane d. toluene 37. An unsaturated fatty acid with one double bond in the chain: a. Stearic c. linoleic b. linolenic d. oleic 38. Following Markownikoff’s Rule, when 1-butene is reacted with HOCl, the main product is: a. n-butane c. 2-butanol b. 1-chloro-2-butanol d. 2-chloro-3-butano 39. The strongest acid among the following is a. p-nitro phenol d. p-chlorophenol b. m-nitro phenol e. m-chlorophenol c. o-nitrophenol 40. 2.24 g of alkene A add 3.2g of bromine. The molecular formula of A is: a. C10H20 b. C2H4 c. C6H12 d. C8H16 41. Conversion of poly-unsaturated vegetable oils to solid fats can be achieved by a. hydrooxylation b. catalytic hydrogenation c. hydrohalogenation d. halogenation 42. This one is classified as an aromatic compound: a. acetic acid c. citric acid b. carbolic acid d. lactic acid 43. When C6H5CH2CH3 is oxidized by excess KmnO4 in acid, the main product is a. C6H5CH2COOH d. Phtalic acid b. Phenol c. Benzoic acid 44. ROSO2Ona is a general formula for: a. soap c. synthetic detergent b. wax d. fatty acid salt 45. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly named: a. p-chloroaniline d. ethyl benzene b. 3-methyl pentane e. 2-ethyl butane c. methyl benzene 46. The chemical formula of pyruvic acid is: a. OHC COOH d. CH3COCOCH3 b. CH3COOH e. OHCCHO c. CH3COCOOH 47. The following are polymers, except: a. natural rubber d. Nylon b. protein e. Dynamite c. PVC 48. A carbonyl compound is: a. One carbon and one oxygen bounded by a double bond b. One carbon and one oxygen bounded by a single bond c. One carbon and two oxygen bounded by one single and one double bond d. One carbon and two oxygen bounded by two double bonds 49. The saponification no. of a triglyceride is 200. The average MW of the triglyceride is: a. 200 b. 280 c. 600 d. 840
50. Teflon is chemically inert, tough and tolerant of high temperature. These properties of Teflon are due to a. the strength of the carbon-carbon bond b. the strength of the carbon-hydrogen bond c. the strong carbon-fluorine bond d. high cost A 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 solution can also be labeled as: a. 0.1 molal c. 0.1N b. 0.2 N d. 0.1 N 51. When 27 grams of Al are added to one liter of 3N CuSO4 the number of grams of Cu that will be displaced is (atomic weights : Cu = 64; Al=27). a. 32 d. 128 b. 64 e. 96 c. 192 52. The determination of lead ions by reduction to metallic lead and weighing as such is a. an electrometric method b. an electrodeposition method c. a precipitation method d. a potentimetric method 53. What is the color of nickel chloride? a. white c. yellow b. red d. green 54. Ksp values are valid a. for all salts b. only for slightly soluble compounds c. when determined under supersaturated conditions d. only when measured at 250C 55. The ph value at the equivalence point when titrating a weak acid against a strong base is: a. at exactly 7 b. greater than 7 c. less than 7 d. neutral 56. As2O3 is oxidized by KmnO4. The millequivalent weight of As2O3 (MW=197.84) as a reducing agent is: a. 0.0989 c. 0.01978 b. 0.03957 d. 0.04946 57. In a general analysis NH4 is tested advance because a. NH4 cannot be present in acid medium b. Several ammonium containing reagents are added during analysis c. It is the standard procedure d. It will make the solution basis 58. Ferric ferrocyanide is a. Indigo blue b. Prussian blue c. Turnbull’s blue d. Cobalt blue 59. Which reagent will dissolve Zn(OH)2 but not Ni(OH)2? a. HCl c. H2SO4 b. NH3 d. NaOH 60. A solution of cation gives a crimson red flame. This flame test is a confirmatory test for: a. Sr+2 c. Mn+2 +1 b. K d. Ca+2 61. Which of the following should be considered in the choice of an indicator: a. ph range b. ph at equivalence pt. c. Direction of titration d. Color of indicator 62. Mixing 10ml of a 2M HCl solution with 20 ml of a M HCl solution will result in a solution whose molarity is: a. 1.33 b. 1.5 c. 1.65 d. 1.75
63. Which of these gravimetric factor is not correct? a. CaO/CaC2O4 b. 4FeO/Fe3O4 c. 2MgO/Mg2P2O7 d. FeS2/2BaSO4 64. What weight in grams of Ca(OH)2 is chemically equivalent to 0.5g of CaO? a. 0.3303 d. 0.7569 b. 0.3785 e. 1.514 c. 0.6605 65. A colorless solution was treated with HCl with no change in appearance. Addition of NH3 formed a permanent white _____________ is present d. a. Zn++ b. Bi++ c. Cd++ Hg2++ 66. In the systematic cation analysis, after the separation of the acid sulfide group, the PO4-3 if found present must be eliminated because: a. it will be destroyed in the latter part of the analysis b. it reacts with a number of remaining cations in a basic med c. it changes the acidity of the solution d. it destroys the effect of the buffered solution 67. Analytical methods taking 1-10 mg. Size samples for analysis maybe referred to as: a. semi-micro methods b. micro methods c. macro methods d. ultra micro methods 68. Which of the following should not be used for high temperature ignition? a. porcelain crucible b. Munroe crucible c. Gooch crucible d. Sintered glass crucible e. Platinum crucible 69. The “Hanging Drop Test” is used to identify a. MnO4 b. CO3-2 c. NO2 d. C2O4-2 71. The Cv of polyatomic substance like NO2, CH4, and NH3 a. 4-8 cal/molC b. slightly greater than 6 c. less than 8 d. about 8 72. A soap bubble of a 15 cm radius is formed by blowing through a 2.5 cm diameter wire loop. Assume that all soap film goes into making bubbles. The surface tension of the film is 0.02N/m. Find the total work require to make a bubble. a. 1.4x10-3 N-m b. 2.25x10-3 N-m c. 1.32x10-3 N-m d. 2.10x10-3 N-m 73. Which law is the basis for the manufacture of thermometer? a. Boyle’s law b. Zeroth law of thermodynamics c. Raoult’s Law d. Carnot’s principle 74. The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to form solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter the data obtained gives a direct measure of a. U c. H d. Cp b. VP 75. When the system is in equilibrium , the change in the free energy is a. zero b. greater than zero c. 1 d. less than zero 76. A Carnot cycle heat engine operating between 1540F and 440F has an efficiency of approximately a. 35% b. 82% c. 55% d. 25%
77. The net energy available to a system is given by a. entropy c. enthalpy b. free energy d. none of these 78. Liquid water at 0DC and atmospheric pressure has a density of 1.0g/cc. AT the same conditions, ice has a density of 0.917 g/cc. How much work is done in KJ at these conditions by 1.0 kg of ice as it melts to liquid water. a. 0.00917 c. -0.00917 b. 0.0912 d. –0.0912 79. The turbine in a hydraulic plant is fed by water falling from a height of 30 m. Assuming 95% efficiency of converting potential energy to electrical energy and 10% loss of resulting power in transmission, how many MT of water per hr are needed to keep a 100W light bulb burning? a. 1.43 b. 1.29 c. 1.63 d. 1.75 80. Calculate the change in entropy when 100 grams of ice at 0C is converted to steam a. 645.23 eu c. 205.28 eu b. 302.34 eu d. 342.25 eu 81. Calculate the change in molar Gibb’s energy of liquid H2O treated as incompressible fluid when pressure is increased from 1.0 bar to 2.0 bar at 298K. a. +1.82 J c. +1.82x10-4 J b. –1.82 J d. –1.82x10-4 J 82. Heat values of entropy are associated with a. high possibility of a state b. high randomness of the state c. both a and b d. none of these 83. The heat content of the system is called a. a sensible heat c. heat capacity b. specific heat d. enthalpy 84. The study of the interrelation of the various forms of energy in a system is called a. physical chemistry c. physics b. chemistry d. thermodynamics 85. A measure of the total energy not available for useful work is the a. entropy c. enthalpy b. free energy d. none of these 86. A 70% NaOH liquor at 160F with a heat content of 325 Btu/lb is diluted with 20% NaOH liquor at 80F with a heat content of 40 Btu/lb to give a final solution containing 40% NaOH ( heat content is 94 Btu/lb ). For every 100 lb of product, how much heat must be removed to maintain a final product temperature of 100F? a. 6000 Btu c. –11700 Btu b. 20100 Btu d. –7500 Btu 87. The densities of liquid and solid mercury are 13.7 and 14.19 g/cc respectively at a melting point of –38.87C. The heat of fusion of Hg is 566 cal/g-atom. The change in melting point per atmosphere change in pressure is a. 0.505 K c. 0.013 K b. 0.0051 K d. 0.231 K 88. The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at constant pressure and at constant volume at 27 when liquid water forms is a. –1192.2 cal c. 1257.44 cal b. –2314.5 cal d. –1257.44 cal 89. The more stable system with regard to S are systems that have a. minimum S b. zero S c. maximum S d. none of these 90. A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watt and an input rating to 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is a. 5.67 b. 4.27 c. 3.26 d. 4.44
91. The normal boiling point of chloroform, CHCl3, is 334K, its vapor pressure is 0.824 atm. What is the enthalpy of chloroform fro this temperature range? a. 29.4 KJ/mol c. 19.65 KJ/mol b. 27.5 KJ/mol d. 30.61 KJ/mol 92. When the potential of 110 volts dc is applied to the terminals of an electric lamp, a current of 2 amperes is found to flow. What is the resistance of the lamp? a. 62 ohms c. 32 ohms b. 55 ohms d. 58 ohms 93. How long would it take a current 1 ampere to reduce completely 80 cc of 0.1 molal Fe2(SO4)3 to FeSO4? a. 25.73 min c. 31.26 min b. 22.65 min d. 19.69 min 94. A constant direct current flows through an iodine coulometer for a period of 2 hours. At the end of this time, it is found that the coulometer contains 0.0020 equivalent of liberated I2. What was the current passing thorough the coulometer? a. 0.048 ampere c. 0.027 ampere b. 0.058 ampere d. 0.034 ampere 95. As a solid changes to a liquid, all of the following occur except a. molecules become more disordered b. kinetic energy of molecules decreases c. intermolecular forces become separated d. molecules become further separated 96. Absolute zero maybe regarded as that T at which a gas cease a. all gases become liquids b. all substances are solids c. molecular motion increases d. water freezes 97. Ethyl alcohol is to be used in an automobile carburetor that is adjusted to give a 9 to 10 air-fuel ratio ( mass ratio ). If the temperature in the manifold is 60dF and the pressure is atmospheric, what percentage of the alcohol will be evaporated assuming the equilibrium between vapor and liquid is reached? a. 55% d. 90% b. 75% c. 65% 98. At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equal the velocity of oxygen molecules at 0C a. 102C c. 132C b. 632C d. 125C 99. Suppose you are given a gaseous compound for which the formula is CxH2x-2 at the same temperature and pressure at which oxygen weighs 4.8 grams per liter, the unknown gas weighs 8.10 g/L. What is the formula of the compound? a. C2H2 c. C4H6 b. C3H8 d. C4H10 100. A gas tends to expand indefinitely into a vacuum or into another gas. This ability is referred as a. viscosity c. compressibility b. turbulence d. diffusion 101. If a given gas has a compressibility factor, z>1, this means that a. attractive forces b. repulsive forces c. no force of attraction d. exist between the molecules of gases 102. The vapor pressure of a liquid a. always increases with temperature b. always decreases with temperature c. is independent of temperature d. increases only up to boiling point 103. As the atmospheric pressure decreases, the boiling point of a liquid a. cannot be determined b. is not affected
c. increases d. decreases 104. The direction of electron flow is from a. from anode to cathode b. from cathode to anode c. either way 105. PCl5 (g) dissociates to PCl3 (g) and Cl2 (g) when heated at 250C and 1 atm. If the density of the gas mixture at equilibrium is 4.4 g/L, the fraction of PCl5 (g) dissociated is a. 0.103 b. 0.328 c. 0.725 d. 0.209 106. An ideal gas is made up of molecules that have these properties except a. Are points in space in time b. have mass and velocity c. attract or repel each other on the wall of the container d. collide with the walls of the container without loss of energy 107. Which of these 0.1M solution will give the highest boiling at 1 atm a. table salt solution c. barium chloride b. sugar solution d. potassium chloride 108. What term is used to define the phenomena of emission of light in a chemical reaction a. photosensitisation b. chemical luminescence c. photosensitisation and chemical luminescence d. none of these 109. The vapor pressure of all the liquids a. is the same at 100C b. is the same at their frezzing pint c. increases with the volume of liquid separated d. increases with temperature 110. If ethanol are mixed 50/50 by weight at 60C, and the solution assumed ideal, the composition of the vapor above the solution is a. 28% ethanol, 72% methanol b. 72% ethanol, 28% methanol c. 59% ethanol, 41% methanol d. 41% ethanol, 59% methanol 111. All of the following conclusion of the kinetic theory of gases except a. a derivation of the Van der Waals equation b. derivation of Boyle’s and Charle’s Law c. relation of average kinetic energy of gases to temperature d. Graham’s law of diffusion 112. The freezing point of a substance is always lower than its a. melting point c. specific heat b. boiling point d. heat of vaporization 113. One colligative property of solutions is its freezing point depression. Which observation will show that the solute is an electrolyte? t/m a. is not constant c. is less than Kf b. is not Kf d. is greater than Kf 114. Colligative properties depend upon a. the chemical properties of the solute b. the physical properties of the solute c. the chemical properties of solvent d. the number of solute particles present in the solution 115. All of the following factor increases the strength of Van der Waals forces between molecules except by an a. increase in the molecular weight of the molecules b. increase in the number of atoms in the molecules c. increase in the number of electrons in the molecules d. increase in the ionic strength of the molecule 116. For a chemical reaction in a state of equilibrium, a decrease in temperature will a. favor reaction that is exothermic b. favors reaction that is endothermic c. have no effect on the system d. increase the equilibrium constant of the system
117. Which law governs the behavior of liquids in liquids? a. Henry’s Law b. Le-Chatelier’s principle c. Raoult’s Law d. Nernst Distribution coefficient 118. A substance above its critical T a. is gas at any P b. is boiling c. can be liquefied only by application of P d. is ready to explode 119. A 0.2 mol aqueous solution of KCl freezes at –0.680C. The osmotic P at 0C is a. 9.8 atm c. 8.2 atm b. 16.3 atm d. 10.8 atm 120. All of the following are characteristics of ideal gases except a. absence of intermolecular forces b. non ideal gases may exhibit ideal gases at high pressure and low temperature c. the molecules occupy no space d. all of the above are correct 121. What volume of water should be added to 300 ml of a 0.6 M solution to make the molarity to 0.200? Assume that the volume is additives. a. 300 ml c. 900 ml b. 100 ml d. 600 ml 122. Hydrocarbons that contain one or more carbon triple bonds. a. alkynes c. alkenes b. alkyl d. alkanes 123. All these about redox are correct except a. The total number of the electon lost by the element reduced is equal to the total number of electrons gained by the element oxidized b. The reducing agent is oxidized c. Reduction is loss is in positive valence d. Oxidation is loss of electrons 124. If the infrared radiation has a wavelength of 3.5 microns, what will be the wave number in cm-1? a. 3,000 cm-1 c. 2900 cm-1 -1 b. 2,500 cm d. 2700 cm-1 125. The compressibility factor for every gas as its pressure approaches zero is a. 0 c. 2 b. -1 d. 1 126. Choose the correct statement about a family of elements in the periodic table a. The atoms of all elements in a family have the same number of shells of electrons b. All elements in a family have the same physical state c. All elements in a family have the same chemical reactivity d. The atoms of all elements in a family have the same number of valence electrons 127. All of the following are colligative properties except a. solubility b. vapor pressure lowering c. freezing point depression d. boiling point elevation 128.A system undergoes an irreversible cycle. The entropy of the universe a. remains the same b. decreases c. increases d. cannot be defined 129. A solution used principally to control the pH value of a solution to a point where selective precipitation can be made a. acid solution c. basic solution b. neutral solution d. buffered solution
130. Doubling the concentration of the substances taking part in a chemical reaction will: a. double the rate of the reaction b. have no effect on the rate of the reaction c. have an effect which must be determined by experiments d. quadruples 131. Methyl Chloride is represented by ___________ a. CH2Cl2 c. CH3Cl b. CHCl3 d. CCl4 132. The pH of an aqueous solution which has an analytical concentration of 1 x 10-7 M is a. 6.00 c. 6.79 b. 7.00 d. 6.69 133. A solution containing 1gmol of salt per cubic decimeter of solution at 0oC or 76.6276 g of potassium chloride in 1000g of water both weighed in air is: a. a strong electrolyte c. an aqueous solution b. a supersaturated solution d. a demal solution 134. Which of the following statement is incorrect? a. The mole fraction is equal to the weight fraction b. None of these c. The mole fraction is equal to the volume fraction d. The mole fraction is equal to the pressure fraction 135. What weight of ice could be melted at 0deg C by the heat liberated by condensing 100g steam at 100 deg C to liquid? Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g a. -675 g c. 660 g b. 675 g d. -660 g 136. Calculate the enthalpy of decomposition of calcium carbonate into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide a. 40.1 kcal c. -42.6 kcal b. 42.6 kcal d. 43.6 kcal 137. The number that express the oxidation state of atom of an element or groups of atom is called the a. indicator c. displacement factor b. valence d. electrolyte 138 All fats are a. acids c. ketones b. unsaturated d. esters 139. Aluminum chloride is found to exist as a a. monomer c. trimet b. drimer d. tetramer 140. All these about solutions are correct except: a. the quantity of solute is not dissolved in saturated solution b. the quantity of solute dissolved in a saturated solution give its solubility of the solute as a certain temperature c. an ionic solute dissolves in water through salvation brought about by columbic attraction between the ions and water d. the boiling of solution in water rise by 1.86 deg C molal increase in the concentration of the solution 141. An uneven sharing of electrons between two atoms indicate__________ a. bonding c. electronegativity b. coupling d. polarity 142. Bagasse is a by-product in the manufacture of raw sugar. This product however can still be valuably used as a. suitable substitute for bunker fuel b. all of these c. raw material for the manufacture of plywood substitute d. raw material for paper substitute making 143. A chemical engineer wants to make chlorine from molten sodium chloride. If he uses a current of one ampere for 5 min, how many grams could be produced? a. 0.11 g c. 0.09 g b. 0.15 g d. 0.14 g
144. A NMR (proton) spectum of ethanol contain groups of a. 2 c. 4 b. 5 d. 3 145. Calculate the neutralization equivalent for a 0.2 g of an organic acid required 100 ml of 0.12 NaOH for neutralization a. p-benzoic acid c. p-nitrobenzene acid b. benzoic acid d. p-toluic acid 146. The radiation that produces the greatest number of ions as it passes through matter is a. omega c. beta b. alpha d. gamma 147. Which of the following is an extensive property? a. molar volume c. beta b. enthalpy d. gamma 148. Carboxylic organic compounds contains rings made up solely of atoms known as a. carbon c. oxygen b. nitrogen d. hydrogen 149. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, h = 6.63 x 10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light of 700 nm. What number of electrons that can be removed from metallic cesium with the energy required to remove one electron from an isolated cesium atom a. 2 c. 3 b. 13 d. 4 150. Which solute is expected to be the most stable in water? a. ammonia c. iodine b. hydrogen sulfide d. methane 151. A chemical process used in manufacturing caustic soda a. Le Blanc Method c. Haber-Bosh Method b. Electrolysis d. Solvary process 152. Hypochlorite are strong agents in alkaline solution a. catalyzing c. reducing b. neutralizing d. oxidizing 153. The enthropy change for any closed system which undergoes a cycling process a. must be negative c. may be positive or negative but b. must be zero not zero d. must be positive 154.The process of dissolving hydrogen sulfide gas in water is known as a. endothermic c. exothermic b. hydrogenation d. sulfonation 155.Which of the enumerated solvent is aprotic a. dimethyl formanide c. citric acid b. ethylene alcohol d. hydrochloric acid 156.The temperature of the calorimeter and contents is raised to 5.00 deg C when 10000 kJ of electric energy is added to a calorimeter containing 400 g of water. What is the water equivalent of the calorimeter? a. 2.39 kcal c. 2.39 kcal b. 2.01 kcal d. 2.01 kcal 157. The ionic strength of 0.1 solution of ferric sulfate is a. 0.75 c. 0.50 b. 1.00 d. 0.25 158.Styrene is a. benzoyl chloride c. vinyl benzene b. mesitylene d. benzoyl benzene 159.The phosphorus in a sample of phosphate rock weighing 0.5428 g is precipitated as MgNH4PO4.6H2O and ignited to Mg2P2O7. If the ignited precipitate weighs 0.2234 g calculate the percentage of P2O3 in the sample a. 25.95% c. 27.11% b. 26.91% d. 26.25% 160.Choose the organic compound that will not react with an aqueous solution of the ammonia silver nitrate: a. acetylene c. 1-butyne b. 2-butyne d. none of these 161.What is the law that governs ideal gas-liquid solutions a. Raoult’s Law b. Henry’s Law
c. Nerrist Distribution Law d. Law of Hess 162.In alcohol fermentation by yeast, this microorganism furnishes an organic catalyst or enzyme which affects this hydrolysis a. bacterease c. lactase b. zymase d. invertase 163.At standard temperature and pressure, a gas occupies 0.213 liters. How many moles are there in this sample of gas? a. 0.0089 mole c. none of these b. 0.0890 mole d. 0.0095 mole 164. If common salt NaCl is dissolved in water, which of the following statements is true about the behavior of the solution relative to the behavior of pure water? a. boiling point is lowered c. freezing point is decreased b. melting point increases d. none of these is true 165. The osterified product of n-propanone acid and methane is: a. none of these c. methyl propanoate b. n-propanoxy methane d. ethyl acetate 166.Complete the following equation CH3CH2Br + 2Li a. CH3CH2Li + LiBr c. CH3CH2Br2Li + Li b. CH3CH2Li2 + Li d. CH3CH2Li2 + Br 167.L is a non-volatile, non-electrolytic liquid. A solid S, is added to L to form a solution that just boils at 1 atmospheric pressure. The vapor pressure of pure L is 850 torr. What is the mole fraction of liquid L in the solution? a. 85.7% b. 95.3% c. 89.4% d. 79.4% 168.The behavior of the plastics that can be simulated using physical models such as Maxwell and Kelvin Models a. elasticity c. deformation b. wear resistance d. viscoelastic 169.The following 5 expressions describe general energy equation for an open system a. Transfer of energy out of mass flow b. Accumulation of energy c. Transfer of energy is by mass flow d. Net energy transfer by work (std Sign concentration) e. Net energy transfer by heat (std Sign concentration) 170.Which combination would represent the general energy equation representing the first law of thermodynamics? a. b = d + e + c + a c. b = c – e –c – a b. b = d – e – c + a d. b = d + e + c + a 171. The study of the interrelation of the various forms of energy in a system is called a.physical chemistry b. chemistry c. physics d. thermodynamics 172. The standard for mass measurement is a. wavelength of kr – 86 b. invariant property of Cs – 133 c. earth’s pull d. a cylinder of platinum-iridium alloy 173. The heat content of the system is called a. sensible heat b. specific heat c. heat capacity d. a or b 174.The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit weight of a substance 1 degree temperature is called a. specific heat b. heat capacity c. sensible heat d. a or b 175. During the adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, work is done by the system and change in internal energy a. decreases b. increases c. does not change 176. Which law is the basis for the manufacture of thermometers? a. Boyle’s law c. Raoult’s Law b. Zeroth Law of d. Carnot’s principle Thermodynamics
177.A homogeneously physically distinct and mechanically separable portion of a system is called a. phase b. solid c. true solution d. mixture 178. During the adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas, the amount of heat absorbed by gas is equal to a. zero b. one c. greater than zero d. ΔU 179. When a certain gas expands, work is said to be a. done by the gas on its c. done on the gas by the surroundings surrounding b. lost by the surrounding d. none of the above 180. When the system is in equilibrium, the change in the free energy is a. zero b. greater than zero c. 1 d. less than zero 181.The network accomplished by an engine undergoing adiabatic compression is equal to a. ΔU b. ΔQ c. –ΔU d. -ΔQ 182. A sample of an ideal gas is allowed to escape reversibly and isothermally into a vacuum. Which statement is correct? a. W=0 ΔU=Q= a positive number b. W=PΔV ΔU=0 Q=PΔV and is a negative number c. W=PΔV + VΔP d. W=Q=ΔU=0 183. The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to form solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter (at constant volume) the data obtained give a direct measure of a. ΔU b. VΔP c. ΔH d. C 184. Which of the following statements is correct? a. The standard heat of formation of an element is negative b. Since ΔH=ΔU + ΔPV and can never be equal to ΔU c. Q and W are state functions d. Q-W is a state function 185. A more stable system with regard to ΔH are systems that have a. Zero ΔH c. Maximum ΔH b. Minimum ΔH d. None of these 186. A measure of the total energy not available for useful work is the a. entropy b. free energy c. enthalpy d. none of these 187. The more stable system with regard to ΔS are systems that have a. minimum ΔS b. zero ΔS c. maximum ΔS d. none of these 188. The net energy available to a system is given by a. entropy b. free energy c. enthalpy d. none of these 189. If ΔG<0, then a. the reaction is at equilibrium b. a spontaneous reaction is possible c. no reaction is possible d. none of the above 190. High values of entropy are associated with a. high possibility of a state b. high randomness of the state c. both a and b d. none of these 191. A newly designed refrigerator has a capacity of 3140 watt and an input rating of 735 watts. The coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is: a. 5.67 b. 4.27 c. 3.26 d. 4.4 192. A carnot cycle heat engine operating between 1540 F and 440 F has an efficiency of approximately a. 35% b. 82% c. 55% d. 25%
193. A heat engine absorbs heat from the combustion of gasoline at 2200 C. The gasoline has a specific gravity of 0.8 and a heat combustion of 11,200cal/gram. The engine rejects heat at 1200 C. The maximum work in calories that can be obtained from the combustion of 1 liter of gasoline is a. 3.62 x 106 cal b. 4.53 x 104 c. 3.78 x 105 d. 4.22 x 106 194. A 70% NaOH liquor at 160 F with a heat content of 325 Btu/lb is diluted with 20% NaOH liquor at 80 F with a heat content of 40 BTU/lb to give a final solution containing 40% NaOH (heat content is 94 Btu/lb). For every 100 lb of product, how much heat must be removed to maintain a final product temperature of 100 F? a. 6,000 Btu b. 20,100 Btu c. -11,700 Btu d. -7,500 Btu 195. A certain process requires cooling of a brine solution continuously from 70 F to 30 F. The atmospheric temperature is 80 F. There is an available refrigerator with a power requirement of 40 kW. Can this refrigerator be used if 100 gallons of brine is to be cooled per minute? a. Yes b. no c. can not be determined 196. Superheated steam flows at a steady state through an insulated nozzle with an inlet diameter of 5 cm. At the nozzle entrance, steam P is 700 kPa and T is 300 C, and the velocity is 30 m/s. At the nozzle exit, the steam temperature and pressure are 233 C and 350 kPa respectively, the exit diameter of the nozzle is b. 3.26 cm b. 1.62 cm c. 0.38 cm d. 2.92 cm 197.It is proposed to warm a collector plate with solar energy. The collected energy is then transferred as heat to a fluid in a heat engine which in turn rejects heat to the atmosphere. If 200 BTU/hr-ft2 of energy can be collected when the plate is operating at 190 F, estimate the minimum collector area required for a plant producing 1 kW of useful shaft power. Assume atmospheric temperature of 70 F. a.86.2 ft2 b. 92.4 ft2 c. 97.5 ft2 d. 81.6 ft2 198. Eight grams of oxygen gas at 27 C and 10 atm expands adiabatically and reversible to a final P of 1.0 atm. The work done in the process is a. 842 J b. 445 J c. 798 J d. 752 J 199. An inventor claimed that he has devised an engine that absorbs 1000 kW of heat from the heat source and discards 700 kW of heat to the heat sink. If the engine operates between 500 K and 200 K, is the inventor’s claim valid? a. Yes b. no c. can not be determined 200. The turbine in a hydroelectric plant is fed by water falling down from a height of 30 m.. Assuming 95 % efficiency of converting potential energy to electrical energy and 10 5 loss of resulting power in transmission, how many MT of water per hour are needed to keep a 100W light bulb burning? a.1.43 b. 1.29 c. 1.63 d. 1.75 201. Liquid water at 0 C and atmospheric pressure ahs a density of 1.0 g/cc. At the same conditions, ice has a density of 0.917 g/cc. How much work is done in kJ at these conditions by 1.0 kg of ice as it melts to liquid water? a.0.00917 b. 0.0912 c. -0.00917 d. 0.0912 202. 3.0 g-mole of an idle gas at 1.0 atm and 20 C are heated at constant pressure until the temperature is 80 C. (Cv = 7.50 + 3.2 x 10-2T, cal/mol-K). The change in internal energy of the process is a.5429.16 cal b. 3425.27 cal c . 3210.50 cal d. 4590.42 cal 203.The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at constant pressure and at constant volume at 27 C when liquid water is formed is a.-1192.2 cal b. -2314.5 cal c. 1257.44 cal d. -1257.44 cal
204.The minimum work required for the manufacture of 5 lbs of ice cubes from water initially at 32 F is a.87.6 Btu b. 73.0 Btu c. 90.2 Btu d. 70.0 Btu 205.If the surrounding air is 80 F and the latent heat of fusion of water is 143.4 Btu/lb Calculate the change in entropy when 100 grams of ice at 0 C is converted to steam at 100 C and 1 atm. a. 645.23 eu b. 302.34 eu c. 205.28 eu d. 342.25 eu 206. The main concern in the study of thermodynamics is a. change in enthalpy b. the time element in transformation c. the initial and final state of the system d. the change in entropy 207. At 90 C, the vapor pressure of acetic acid 293 mmHg and its vapor [pressure at a 100 C is 417 mmHg. Calculate the normal boiling point of acetic acid. a.271.4 K b. 391.3 K c. 298.2 K d. 313.0 K 208.Calculate the change in molar Gibb’s energy of liquid H2O treated as incompressible fluid when pressure is increased from 1.0 bar to 2.0 bar at 298 K. a.+ 1.82 J b. – 182 J c. + 1.82 x 10-4 J d. -4 -1.82 x 10 J 209.One mol of N2O4(g) forms 2.0 mol of NO2 (g) under standard conditions. If ΔS = 4.8 J/K, the reaction is a. spontaneous c. in equilibrium b. non-spontaneous d. can not be determined 210. The densities of liquid and solid mercury are 13.7 and 14.19 g/cc respectively at a melting point of -38.87 C. The heat of fusion of Hg is 566 cal/g-atom. The change in melting point per atmospheric change in pressure is a. 0.505 K b. 0.0051 K c. 0.013 K d. 0.231 K
