Criminal Jurisprudence

.CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE Berto, with evident premeditation and t reachery killed his father. What was the crime committed? A. Murder  B. Parricide C. Homicide D. Qualified Homicide Answer: B 2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik? A. Trespass to Dwelling B. Violation of Domicile C. Usurpation Of Authority D. Forcible Trespassing Answer: B 3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They live together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of  Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed  by Charlie? A. Simple Seduction B. Qualified Seduction C. Consented Abduction D. Rape Answer: B 4. Prof. Jose gave a faili ng grade to one of his students, Lito. When the two met the following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose on the face. face. What was the crime committed by Lito? A. Corruption of Public Officials B. Direct Assault C. Slight Physical Injuries D. Grave Coercion Answer: B 5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his  parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang? Tapang? A. Indirect Bribery B. Direct Bribery C. Corruption of Public Officials D. Qualified Bribery Answer: D 6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made under the consciousness of an impending death? A. Parol Evidence B. Ante mortem statement C. Suicide note D. Dead man statute Answer: D 7. Factum probans means __. A. preponderance of evidence B. ultimate fact C. evidentiary fact D. sufficiency of evidence Answer: C 8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another. A. inheritance B. heritage C. pedigree D. culture

Answer: C 9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance. A. Appellate Jurisdiction B. General Jurisdiction C. Original Jurisdiction D. Exclusive Jurisdiction Answer: C 10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants. A. Counsel de officio B. Attorney on record C. Attorney at law D. Special counsel

Answer: A

11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure? A. Violation of rental laws B. Violation of traffic laws C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment Answer: C 12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is t o  be exercised. A. jurisdiction B. jurisprudence C. venue D. bench Answer: C 13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. A. RA 6425 B. RA 8353 C. BP.22 D. RA 6975 14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and inti midation. A. qualified theft B. robbery C. theft D. malicious mischief  Answer: B 15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of  force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong. A. grave threat B. grave coercion C. direct assault D. slander by deed Answer: B 16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or  herself to lawful calling. A. Pimps B. prostitutes C. gang members D. vagrants Answer: D 17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. A. Tumultuous B. charivari C. sedition D. scandal

Answer: C

Answer: C 9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance. A. Appellate Jurisdiction B. General Jurisdiction C. Original Jurisdiction D. Exclusive Jurisdiction Answer: C 10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants. A. Counsel de officio B. Attorney on record C. Attorney at law D. Special counsel

Answer: A

11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure? A. Violation of rental laws B. Violation of traffic laws C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment Answer: C 12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is t o  be exercised. A. jurisdiction B. jurisprudence C. venue D. bench Answer: C 13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law. A. RA 6425 B. RA 8353 C. BP.22 D. RA 6975 14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and inti midation. A. qualified theft B. robbery C. theft D. malicious mischief  Answer: B 15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of  force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong. A. grave threat B. grave coercion C. direct assault D. slander by deed Answer: B 16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or  herself to lawful calling. A. Pimps B. prostitutes C. gang members D. vagrants Answer: D 17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. A. Tumultuous B. charivari C. sedition D. scandal

Answer: C

Answer: B 18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another   person to change his residence. residence. A. violation of domicile B. arbitrary detention C. expulsion D. direct assault Answer: C 19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another   person without legal grounds. grounds. A. illegal detention B. arbitrary detention C. forcible abduction D. forcible detention Answer: A 20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage can be later declared void. A. concubinage B. bigamy C. adultery D. immorality Answer: C 21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. A. 15-18 years old B. 18-70 years years old C. 9 years old and below D. between 9 and 15 years old Answer: C 22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of  the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. A. Accomplices B. Suspects C. principal actors D. accessories Answer: A 23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certaintime fixed by law. A. prescription of crime B. prescription of prosecution C. prescription of judgement D. prescription of penalty Answer: D 24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended. A. Pardon B. commutation C. amnesty D. reprieve Answer: D 25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed t o secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society. A. mala prohibita B. mala in se C. private crimes D. public crimes Answer: A 26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties. A. qualified bribery

B. C. D.

direct bribery estafa indirect bribery Answer: B 27. The willful and corrupt

assertion of falsehood under oath of  affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter. A. libel B. falsification C. perjury D. slander  Answer: C 28. Deliberate planning of act before execution. A. Treachery B. evident premeditation C. ignominy D. cruelty Answer: B 29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime. A. gang B. conspiracy C. band D. piracy Answer: C 30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to. A. Negligence B. imprudence C. omission D. act Answer: C 31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan. A. Misfeasance B. entrapment C. inducement D. instigation Answer: B 32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of   public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. A. impossible crimes B. aggravating circumstances C. absolutory causes D. Complex Crimes Answer: C 33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance. A. Insanity B. intoxication C. passion or obfuscation D. evident premeditation Answer: B 34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for him? A. a plea of not guilty B. a plea of guilty C. a plea of mercy D. a plea of surrender  Answer: A 35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or  information? A. at any time before his arrest B. only after entering his plea

C. D.

any time before entering his plea Monday morning Answer: C

36. The process whereby the accused and t he prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval. A. Arraignment B. plea bargaining C. preliminary investigation D. trial Answer: B 37. The security given for the release of a person i n custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law. A. Subpoena B. recognizance C. bail D. warrant Answer: C 38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue. A. Trial B. Arraignment C. pre-trial D. judgment Answer: A 39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper   penalty and A. trial B. Pre-trial C. Arraignment D. Judgment Answer: D 40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded  belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is  probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial. A. pre-trial B. arraignment C. preliminary investigation D. plea bargaining Answer: C 41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts. A. secondary evidence B. prima facie evidence C. corroborative evidence D. best evidence Answer: C 42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed. A. secondary evidence B. prima facie evidence C. corroborative evidence D. best evidence Answer: B 43. A form of evidence supplied by writt en instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances. A. documentary evidence B. testimonial evidence

C. D.

material evidence real evidence Answer: A

44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact. A. positive evidence B. corroborative evidence C. secondary evidence D. negative evidence Answer: D 45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure. A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense C. subject of the offense D. all of the above Answer: D 46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others. A. Suspects B. witnesses C. victims D. informers Answer: B 47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of  human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death. A. abortion B. infanticide C. murder  D. parricide Answer: A 48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible c annot be ascertained. A. alarm and scandal B. mysterious homicide C. death under exceptional circumstances D. tumultuous affray Answer: D 49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognizance of which pertains to another t ribunal. A. legal question B. juridical question C. prejudicial question D. judicial question Answer: C 50. The RPC was based on the A. Spanish penal code B. English penal code C. American penal code D. Japanese penal code Answer: A 51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. A. impossible crime B. mistake of facts C. accidental crime D. complex crime

Answer: B 52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than…. A. 36 hours B. 24 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours Answer: D 53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith. A. ignorantia legis non excusat B. parens patriae C. res ipsa loquitur  D. dura lex sed lex Answer: A 54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if  it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment. A. compound crime B. impossible crime C. complex crime D. accidental crime Answer: B 55. The law which reimposed the death penalty. A. RA 5425 B. RA 8553 C. RA 7659 D. RA 8551 Answer: C 56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime. A. discernment B. insanity C. epilepsy D. imbecility Answer: D 57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author  A. responsibility B. duty C. guilt D. imputability Answer: D 58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable c onsequences. A. fortuitous event B. fate C. accident D. destiny Answer: C 59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense,subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of  the law violated. A. subpoena B. information C. complaint D. writ Answer: C 60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can the c onviction of an innocent person. A. right to due process of law B. presumption of innocence C. right to remain silent

D.

right against self-incrimination Answer: B

61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,  practices,usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country. A. penal laws B. special laws C. common laws D. statutory laws Answer: C 62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. A. Exempting B. alternative C. justifying D. aggravating Answer: A 63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability. A. exempting B. alternative C. justifying D. aggravating Answer: C 64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical  pain in the consummation of the criminal act. A. Ignominy B. cruelty C. treachery D. masochism Answer: B 65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been  previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code. A. Recidivism B. habitual delinquency C. reiteracion D. quasi-recidivism Answer: A 66. Alevosia means A. Craft B. treachery C. evident premeditation D. cruelty Answer: B 67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. A. ex post facto law B. equal protection of the law C. rule of law D. due process of law Answer: D 68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious  physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener. A. Recidivist B. quasi-recidivist C. habitual delinquent

D.

hardened criminal Answer: C

69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. A. Primary B. Best C. Secondary D. Conclusive Answer: D 70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. A. Primary B. Best C. Secondary D. Conclusive Answer: D 71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires. A. leading B. misleading C. stupid D. hearsay Answer: A 72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of   persons alleged to have committed a crime, and or their punishment in case of conviction A. Criminal Law B. Criminal Evidence C. Criminal Procedure D. Criminal Jurisprudence Answer: C 73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death. A. 20 years B. 15 years C. 10 years D. 40 years Answer: A 74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime. A. Accomplices B. Accessories C. Instigators D. Principals Answer: D 75. A crime against honor which i s committed by performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another   person. A. libel B. slander by deed C. incriminating innocent person D. intriguing against honor  Answer: B 76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done. A. misfeasance B. malfeasance C. nonfeasance D. dereliction Answer: B 77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer. A. subpoena B. writ C. warrant

D.

affidavit Answer: D

78. Any other name which a person publicly appli es to himself  without authority of law. A. alias B. common name C. fictitious name D. screen name Answer: C 79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having  been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony  before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same. A. quasi-recidivism B. recidivism C. reiteracion D. charivari Answer: A 80. Which of the following is not a person in authority? A. Municipal mayor  B. Private School Teacher  C. Police Officer  D. Municipal Councilor  Answer: C 81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or  disturbances in the State. A. Sedition B. Rebellion C. Treason D. Coup d’ etat Answer: A 82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date. A. 30 days B. 15 days C. 10 days D. 60 days Answer: C 83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee. A. illegal detention B. arbitrary detention C. compulsory detention D. unauthorized detention Answer: B 84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. A. treason B. espionage C. rebellion D. coup d’ etat Answer: A 85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort. A. sanctuary B. prison C. jail D. dwelling Answer: D 86. The mental capacity t o understand the difference between right and wrong. A. treachery B. premeditation

C. D.

recidivism discernment Answer: D

87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law. A. Estafa B. Murder  C. Rebellion D. Rape Answer: C 88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended. A. Aberratio ictus B. Error in personae C. Dura Lex Sed lex D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: D 89. It means mistake in the blow. A. Aberratio Ictus B. Error in Personae C. Dura lex sed lex D. Praeter Intentionem Answer: A 90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. A. Attempted B. Frustrated C. Consummated D. Accomplished answer: C 91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of  facts that is voluntary but not intentional. A. Absolutory Cause B. Mistake of facts C. Conspiracy D. Felony Answer: B 92. Crimes that have three stages of execution. A. Material B. Formal C. Seasonal D. Continuing Answer: A 93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious. A. Culpable B. Intentional C. Deliberate D. Inculpable Answer: B 94. It indicates deficiency of perception. A. Negligence B. Diligence C. Imprudence D. Inference Answer: A 95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws. A. Offenses B. Misdemeanors C. Felonies D. Ordinances Answer: A

96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines. A. General B. Territorial C. Prospective D. Retroactive Answer: A 97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial. A. Bill of Attainder  B. Bill of Rights C. Ex Post Facto Law D. Penal Law Answer: A 98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be  bound to answer for the commission of an offense. A. Search B. Seizure C. Arrest D. Detention Answer: C 99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed? A. Robbery B. Farm Theft C. Qualified Theft D. Simple Theft Answer: C 100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year  old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime committed? A. Child rape B. Qualified Rape C. Statutory Rape D. None of these Answer: C

1. The amount and nature of the demands of the police service A.Clientele B.Purpose C.Time D. Process

Answer: C

2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of  policemen in busy and crime prone areas. This is called A. patrol deployment program B. roving patrol program C. patrol and visibility program D. police patrol program

Answer: C

3. All regional appointments of commissioned officers commence with the rank of: A. Senior Police Officer I B.

Inspector

C. Police Officer III D. Senior Inspector

Answer: B

4. In busy and thickly populated commercial streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend: A. Horse patrol B. Mobile patrol C. Foot patrol D. Helicopter patrol

Answer: C

5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police planning. A.

Investigation

B. Information C. Data D. intelligence

Answer: D

6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources. A. administrative plan B. operational plan C. strategic plan D. tactical plan

Answer: B

7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel. A. Philippine Military Academy B. Development Academy of the Philippines C.

Philippine College of Criminology

D. Philippine Public Safety College

Answer: D

8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of  A. a driver and intelligence agent B. a driver and traffic man C. a driver and a recorder D. a driver, recorder and supervisor

Answer: D

9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of  physical defense. It must have A. the building itself  B. perimeter barriers C. communication barriers D. window barriers

Answer:B

10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law

Enforcement Board (PLEB), EXCEPT: A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the community. B. Any barangay Captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains. C. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan D. A bar member chosen by the Integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP)

Answer: D

11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational purpose. A.

Inspection

B.

Surveillance

C. Survey D. Casing

Answer: C

12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary considerations in the A. two-party system B. evaluation system C. promotional system D. spoils system

Answer: C

13. In the de-briefing, the intelligence agent is asked to discuss which of the following: A. his educational profile and schools attended B. his personal circumstances such as his age, religious affiliation, address, etc. C. his political inclination and/or party affiliation D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence Answer: D 14. It is a natural or man-made structure or physical device which is capable of restricting, determine, or delaying illegal access to an installation. A. alarm B. wall C. barrier D. hazard

Answer: C

15. What form of intelligence is involved when information is obtained without the knowledge of the person against whom the information or documents may be used, or if the information is clandestinely acquired? A. covert B. overt

C. active D. underground

Answer: A

16. The provincial Governor shall choose the provincial Director from a list of ___________ eligible recommended by the Regional Director, preferable from the same province, city, municipality. A. three (3) B. five (5) C. four (4) D. Two (2)

Answer: A

17. Republic Act 6975 provides that on the average nationwide, the manning levels of the PNP shall be approximately in accordance with a police-to-population ratio of: A. one (1) policeman for every seven hundred (700) inhabitants. B. one (1) policeman for every one thousand five hundred (1,500) C.inhabitants. C. one (1) policeman for every five hundred (500) inhabitants. D. one (1) policeman for every one thousand (1,000) inhabitants.

Answer: C

18. In disaster control operations, there is a need to establish a  ______where telephones or any means of communication shall A.ensure open lines of communication. B.command post C.operations center D.field room

Answer:B

19. Registration of a security agency must be done at the______. A.Securities and Exchange Commission B.National Police Commission C.Department of National Defense D.PNP Criminal Investigation Group

Answer:D

20. The cheapest form of police patrol. A. Bicycle Patrol B. Foot Patrol C. Motorcycle Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol

Answer: B

21. The budget is a _________________ in terms of expenditure requirements. A.tactical plan B.financial plan C.work plan D.control plan

Answer: B

22. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conducting the surveillance is: A.rabbit B.surveillant C.traffic enforcement D.patrol

Answer: A

23. It is a police function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police stations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance. A.vice control B.criminal investigation C.traffic management D.patrol

Answer: D

24. It is the weakest link in security chain. A.managers B.Barriers C.Personnel D.inspections

Answer:

25. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy? A.training of station commander B.adequacy of resources of the police station C.rank of the patrol commander D.salary rates of police personnel

Answer: B

26. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police members? A.District Director B.Provincial Director C.Chief of Police D.Chief, PNP

Answer: D

27. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement? A. assign roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol B. assign mobile patrols only in strategic places C. maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for police assistance D. assign foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol

Answer: B

28. The father of organized military espionage was: A. Akbar B. Alexander the Great C. Genghis Khan D. Frederick the Great

Answer: B

29. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give information to the police? A.wants to be known to the policeman B.monetary reward C.as a good citizen D.revenge

Answer: B

30. To improve delegation, the following must be done, EXCEPT: A. establish objectives and standards B. count the number of supervisor C. require completed work

D. define authority and responsibility

Answer: C

31. What administrative support unit conducts identification and evaluation of physical evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature. A. Logistics Service B. Crime Laboratory C. Communication and Electronic service D. Finance Center

Answer: B

32. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are ________.

A. staff  B.

supervision

C.

management

D. line

Answer: D

33. When the subject identifies or obtains knowledge that the investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is: A. cut out B. sold out C. burnt out D. get out

Answer: C

34. Small alley like those in the squatters area of Tondo can be best penetrated by the police through: A. foot patrol B. mobile patrol C. highway patrol D. helicopter patrol

Answer: A

35. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, EXCEPT A. stop quickly, look behind B. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper C. window shop, watch reflection D. retrace steps

Answer: B

36. On many occasions, the bulk of the most valuable information comes from: A. business world B. newspaper clippings C. an underworld informant D. communications media

Answer: B

37. Highly qualified police applicants such as engineers, nurses and graduates of forensic sciences can enter the police service as officers through: A. regular promotion B.

commissionship

C. lateral entry D. attrition

Answer: C

38. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a municipality. He wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the people in the different barangays. He should adopt which

of the following projects? A. COPS on the blocks B. Oplan Bakal C. Oplan Sandugo D. Complan Pagbabago

Answer: A

39. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial plan? A. security conference B. security check C. security survey D. security education

Answer: C

40. This patrol method utilizes disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques. A. low-visibility patrol B. directed deterrent patrol C. decoy patrol D. high-visibilit y patrol

Answer: A

41. It enforces all traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorists and pedestrians and attain an orderly traffic. A. Civil Relations Unit B. Traffic Operations Center C. Traffic Management Command D. Aviation Security Command

Answer: C

42. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses. A.

observation

B.

casing

C.

research

D. interrogation

Answer: A

43. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT A. never meet subject face to face B. avoid eye contact C. recognize fellow agent D. if burnt out, drop subject

Answer: C

44. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria.The thief’s

desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police officer but the _______________ for successful theft is. A.

ambition

B. feeling C.

intention

D. opportunity

Answer: A

45. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of: A. Senior Superintendent B.

Inspector

C. Senior Police Officer 1 D. Superintendent

Answer: C

46. PNP in-service training programs are under the responsibility of  the: A. PNP Directorate for Plans B. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership

Answer: C

47. One way of extending the power of police observation is to get information from persons within the vicinity.In the police work, this is called: A. data gathering B. field inquiry C. interrogation D. interview

Answer: B

48. Dogs have an acute sense of _______________ thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs. A. smell B.

hearing

C.

eating

D. drinking

Answer: A

49. Intelligence on _________________ makes heavy use of  geographic information because law enforcement officials must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs. A. Logistics B. Human Cargo Trafficking C. Narcotics Trafficking D. Economic resources

Answer: C

50. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search-and-rescue duties? A. motorcycle B.

helicopter

C. patrol car D. bicycle

Answer: B

51. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle. A.

research

B. undercover operation C. casing D. surveillance

Answer: C

52. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than members of the AFP, BJMP, provincial guards, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government. A. Secret Agent B. “Tiktik” C. Private detective D. Undercover

Answer: C

53. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles,

honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as A. integrity B. loyalty C.

discretion

D. moral

Answer: A

54. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of the road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your origin of patrolling.What patrol pattern have you applied? A. clockwise B. straightway C. counter clockwise D. free-wheeling

Answer: A

55. Which theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected? A. low profile theory B. high visibility C. theory of omnipresence D. team policing

Answer: A

56. Without air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires the use of  A. bike patrol B. horse patrol C. marine patrol D. helicopter patrol

Answer: B

57. Which of the following refers to the long range planning? A.

Intermediate

B. Strategic C. Medium D. short

Answer: B

58. The operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year round needs is called A. meeting unusual needs B. extra office C. regular operating programs D. special operating programs

Answer: C

59. Which of the following is the oldest type of patrol? A. horse B. foot C.

canine

D. police

Answer: B

60. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called: A.

demolition

B. squadron C. eviction D. tear down

Answer: C

61. Which of the following is not a commissioned officer?

A.

Inspector

B. senior superintendent C. asst. chief  D. chief superintend

Answer: C

62. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility? A. ability B. capacity C. believability D. vulnerability

Answer: C

63. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant? A.

observation

B. crime prevention C. called for service D. criminal apprehension

Answer: C

64. All but one are the primarily line operation in police organization A.

patrol

B. records C. investigation D. traffic

Answer: C

65. Criminals can hear the sound of the helicopter coming and so element of surprise is lost which is one of the ________ of air patrol: A.

advantages

B.

features

C.

disadvantages

D. import

Answer: C

66. What is the patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or stores, and the control of unruly crowds and riots? A. foot B. horse C. bicycle D. dog

.

Answer: D

67. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under the DILG? A.

R.A.

5487

B. R.A. 8551 C. R.A. 1174 D. R.A. 6975

Answer: D

68. Who is the most important officer in the police organization? A.

investigator

B. patrol officer C. traffic officer D. The Chief of Police

Answer: B

69. Which of the following is the oldest warning device? A.

trumpet

B. horn C. radio

D. siren

Answer: A

70. What type of cover uses actual or true background? A. artificial B. multiple cover C.

natural

D. cover within a cover

Answer: C

71. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy? A. Chain of Command B. Span of Control C. Unity of Command D. Delegation of Authority

Answer: A

72. What is the optional retirement for officers and new officers of  the police service? A. 15 years B. 25 years C. 30 years D. 20 years

Answer: D

73. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such,are automatically deputized as representatives of the A. NAPOLCOM B. DND C. PLEB D. none of these

Answer: A

74. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National Police. A. DILG B. DND C. NAPOLCOM D. DFA

Answer: C

75. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint

against the members and officers of the PNP. A. DILG B.

NAPOLCOM

C. PLEB D. IAS

Answer: C

76. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duties, we are referring to: A. chain of command B. delegation of responsibility C. Command responsibility D. span of control

Answer: C

77. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and order by police officers. A. Integrated Police System

B. Comparative Police System C. Police Visibility D. Community Oriented Policing System (COPS) Answer: D 78. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions.This refers to A. chain of command B. command responsibility C. unity of command D. delegation of authority

Answer: D

79. Under RA 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent (%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of  his original appointment in the police, fire, jail or other allied services? A. 2 percent B. 5 percent C. 10 percent D. 15 percent

Answer: C

80. This term refers to the period when a police officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty. A. off duty B. off limits C. on call D. on duty

Answer: D

81. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of  performing his police duties in consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations. A.

dismissal

B. restriction C. suspension D. reprimand

Answer: C

82. The credential extended by the Civil Service Commission/National Police Commission for the purpose of  conferring status for permanent appointment in the police service. A. police credibility B. police visibility C. Criminology Board Examination D. police patrol examination E. police eligibility

Answer: E

83. In the history of our police force, who was the first Director General of the Philippine National Police (PNP)? A. Gen. Cesar Nazareno B. Gen. Raul Imperial C. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez D. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento

Answer: A

84. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP and PNP.

A. PNPA B. PCCR C. PNTC D. PPSC

Answer: D

85. Under the law,the city/municipal jail warden should have a rank of __. A.

Inspector

B. Chef Inspector C. Senior Inspector D. Superintendent

Answer: C

86. The required rank for the Chief of Jail Bureau. A. Chief Superintendent B. Director General C. Director D. Deputy Director General

Answer: C

87. It exercise supervision and control over the provincial jails. A. BJMP B. Bureau of Prisons C. Department of Justice D. Provincial Government

Answer: D

88. The required rank for the head of the Fire Bureau. A. Chief Superintendent B. Director General C. Director D. Deputy Director General

Answer: C

89. It exercise supervision and control over all city and municipal  jails. A. BJMP B. Bureau of Prisons C. Department of Justice D. Local Government

Answer: A

90. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP A. 25% B. 5% C. 10% D. 20%

Answer: C

91. Which of the following administers and attends to cases involving crimes against chastity? A. CIDG B. DSWD C. Women’s Desk D. Homicide Division

Answer: C

92. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over PNP units. A. Chief of Police B.

Judges

C. Local Government Executives

D. Fiscals

Answer: C

93. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences. A. Regional Directors B. Priests C. Chiefs of Police D. Mayors

Answer: D

94. The head of a local peace and order council is the __. A. judge B. chief of police C. mayor D. governor

Answer: C

95. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of  laws and maintenance of peace and order. A.

employment

B.

deployment

C.

assignment

D. designation

Answer: A

96. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP. A.

employment

B.

deployment

C.

assignment

D. designation

Answer: B

97. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections. A. NBI B.

Ombusdman

C. COMELEC D. DILG

Answer: C

98. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to the governor is __. A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4

Answer: B

99. Who is the current Chief of the PNP? A. Nicanor Bartome B. Nicanor Bartomeo C. Nick Bartolome D. Nicanor Bartolome

Answer: C

100. The current PNP deputy director General for Administration is A. Arturo Cacdac Jr. B. Emilito Sarmiento C. Rommel Heredia D. Alexander Roldan

Answer: A

101. Registration of a security agency as a corporation must be processed at what particular government agency. A. PNP SAGSD B. NAPOLCOM C. DND D. SEC

Answer: D

102. Minimum age requirement for security manager or operator of  a security agency. A. 25 years old B. 30 years old C. 35 years old D. 40 years old

Answer: A

103. He exercises the power to revoke for cause licenses issued to security guards. A. Chief PNP B. DILG Usec C. NAPOLCOM chairman D. DILG Secretary

Answer: A

104. Refers to a natural or man made structure which is capable of  delaying illegal access to facility. A. Wall B. Fence C. Barriers D. Beach fronts

Answer: C

105. It refers to means and ways that personnel and employees making them security conscious. A. Security Promotion B. Security Education C. Security Investigation D. Security Seminar

Answer: B

106. Industrial management must establish the first line of physical defense,it refers to A. Perimeter barriers B. The building itself  C. Door,Locks,Window barriers D. Entry points where security guards are located

Answer: A

107. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the object matter to be protected.As criminologists,this is simply a denial of  A. Opportunity to commit the offense B. Opportunity to the object of protection C. Access to the object of protection D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender Answer: C 108. Weakest link in the security chain. A. Security Guards B. Manager C. Barriers D. Personnel

Answer: D

109. Perimeter barriers,protective lighting and ______ system are

known in industrial security as physical security. A. Guarding B. Reporting C. Relieving D. Accounting

Answer: A

110. This is an additional outward inclined fixed structure usually barbed wires placed above a vertical fence to increase physical protection from intruders of a certain area,this is known as A. Cellar Guard B. Tower Guard C. Top Guard D. Top Tower

Answer: C

111. The exterior and interior parallel area near the perimeter barrier of an industrial compound to afford better observation and patrol movement is known as A. Protective zone B. Clear zone C. Twilight zone D. Patrol lane zone

Answer: B

112. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by the use of  electronic hardware,human guards and even animals.In England,an owner to protect his compound used this and they are not only effective but also the cheapest to maintain.This man is using A. Doberman B. Tame Tigers C. Geese D. Duck

Answer: C

113. The government agency that issues licenses for private and government security guard is A. PNP SOSIA B. Mayors office C. PNP FEO D. PNP SAGSD

Answer: D

114. If access is limited only to unauthorized personnel,this particular place is referred to as A. Compromise area B. Restricted area C. Danger area D. Exclusive area

Answer: B

115. First measure undertaking before a comprehensive security program for an industrial plan could be developed. A. Security education B. Security check C. Security survey D. Security Inspection

Answer: C

116. A security of a plant or industrial fim is also known by other terms except A. Robbery evaluation

B. Vulnerability C. Risk Assessment D. Security Audit

Answer: B

117. Today there are 3 categories of security guards belonging to the blue army. A. Government security guards B. Company guards C. Agency guards D. Body guards

Answer: D

118. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm or hire contractual agency guards have their individual merits and disadvantages.To determine which type of guarding system an industrial firm will require management must consult A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency B. A military intelligence officer C. A police officer D. A security agency owner

Answer: A

119. As a security officer,you can not prevent nor protect natural hazards like storm,earthquakes,floods and the like.In order to reduce the disastrous effects of these natural hazards you will A. Call PAGASA and inquire when the next storm is coming B. Alert your guards when hazards occur C. Not take any concern of such hazards D. Prepare a disaster or emergency plan for these hazards for the firm

Answer: D

120. Practical exercise or test of a plan or activity to determine its effectiveness is called A. Sham drill B. Fire drill C. Dry run D. Evacuation plan

Answer: C

121. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is A. To weed out undesirable employees B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization C. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks. D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks.

Answer: D

122. In an industrial firm there is a need for document security.As security officer,you can advice management on this aspect although this is not totally your assigned work.Document security is not a protection of vital records from A. Authorized handlers B. Theft or loss C. Compromise or destruction D. Unauthorized access

Answer: A

123. As a security chief of an industrial firm,inventory shows that pilferage is rampant in the warehouses.What will be your choice of action

A. To resign if you have failed your job B. Deploy intelligence men in pilferage prone areas to catch the culprit C. Prepare your protective plans and confer with management for their immediate implementation D. Tighten checking at exists of vehicles of the compound/complex Answer: B 124. There are many types of electronic and electric protective devices available for security buildings,storehouses and compounds.One of the ff: is true A. Electronics/electrical devices provide total protection for the place to be safeguarded B. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the dealers of said devices C. Each building or compound requires particular electronic/electrical protective devices D. Electronic/electrical devices eliminate human guards Answer: C 125. The management of keys used in plant office or business organization to prevent unauthorized access is referred to as A. Security key control B. Lock control C. key control D. Key management

Answer: C

126. It is defined as system of barriers placed between the matters protected and the potential intruder A. Computer security B. Personnel security C. Document security D. Physical security

Answer: D

127. This type of alarm system utilizes a station located outside the compound A. Auxiliary system B. Proprietary system C. Central alarm system D. Local alarm system

Answer: C

128. It is installed as part of the building which holds up to 10,000 cubic meters of essential items.At least 12 ft. in height with enough ventilation and fire proof of at least one hour. A. Protective cabinet B. File room C. Vault D. Safe

Answer: B

129. It is the susceptibility of a plant or establishment to damage,loss or disruption of operations due to various hazards. A. Risk analysis B. Risk assessment C. Relative vulnerability D. Relative criticality

Answer: C

130. It refers to the importance of the establishment with reference to the national economy and security. A. Risk analysis B. Relative vulnerability C. Risk assessment D. Relative criticality

Answer: D

131. The association of all licensed security agencies operators A. POAPAD B. PADPAO C. PODPAO D. PAOPAD

Answer: B

132.Who among below can own or operate security agency? A. A Filipino citizen B. Anyone provided he knows the job C. An alien but living in the Philippines D. All of them

Answer: A

133. A licensed issued to operate security agency or company forces. A. Business license B. License to engage in business C. License to operate D. All of them

Answer: C

134. R.A. No. 5487 governs the operation of  A. Private detective B. Company security C. Private security forces/agencies D. All of them

Answer: D

135. A fact-finding prove to determine a plant adequacy and deficiency all aspects of security with the corresponding recommendation. A. Security audit B. Security survey C. Security inquiry D. Security operations

Answer: B

136. Barrier which includes but not limited to wall,fences,grill etc. A. Structural barriers B. Man made barriers C. Physicalo barriers D. Natural barriers

Answer: B

137. One who steals due to his inability to resist the unexpected opportunity and has little fear of detection. A. Systematic B. Outsider C. Casual D. Insider

Answer: C

138. A barrier which includes but not limited to mountains, cliffs, ravines, cliffs, etc. A. Energy

B. Human C. Natural D. Animals

Answer: C

139. Issued by the security guard for personnel to be admitted to the company. A. Duress code B. Pass system C. ID D. Access list

Answer: B

140. In a close-in security formations, a one man security covers A. 360 degrees B. 180 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees

Answer: A

141. A mechanical device of supplying water which can be manual or motor driven. A. Stand pipe B. Fire extinguisher C. Fire hydrant D. Fire pump

Answer: A

142.Intrusion alarm devices are designed to ______ and not prevent criminals from trespassing and should be used normally as an independent adjunct and not a replacement of the human guard forces. A. Detect B. Deterred C. Provide D. Impeded

Answer: A

143. An authenticated list of personnel given to security allowing entry to compound or installation or part thereof. A. Pass system B. ID C. Access list D. Duress code

Answer: C

144. The act or condition affecting the safe operation of the facility caused by human action,accidental or intentional.It includes sabotage,espionage,pilferage and theft,disloyalty,disaffection and subversive activities. A. Electronic hazard B. natural hazard C. Artificial hazard D. Human hazard

Answer: D

145. Example of the Security Communication system. A. Telephone B. Paging system C. Radio D. All of them

Answer: D

146. The revised rules and regulations governing the organization and operation of private detective and private security

agencies and company security forces throughout the country. A. Private security law B. International law C. Private law D. Security law

Answer: A

147. A metallic container used for the safekeeping of documents or small items in an office or installation. A. Steel cabinet B. Drawer C. Basket D. Safe

Answer: D

148. A heavily constructed fire and burglar resistant container usually a part of the building structure used to keep and protect cash,document and negotiable instruments. A. Basket B. Vault C. Steel cabinet D. Concrete coffin

Answer: B

149. Steal or plastic pipes located in the building from the lowest to the top floor with water under pressure for use in case of  fire. A. Lowering pipe B. Wet pipe C. Top pipe D. Stand pipe

Answer: D

150. Who among below are exempted from pre-licensing training? A. AFP and PNP retirees B. Graduate of ROTC basic or advance C. AFP and PNP veterans D. All of the above

Answer: D

151. Tenure of security personnel is based on A. Can be extended by the client B. The service contract between the agency and the client C. Labor only contracting between the agency and the guard D. Tenure provided by the labor code

Answer: B

152. Before private security agencies render security services to its clients,there must be a contract that must bind them,it is called A. Contract service B. Service contract C. Security contract D. Security service contract

Answer: D

153. Which below is a qualification for the operator or manager of  security agency. A. Commissioned officer of AFP or PNP,inactive or retirees B. At least 25 years of age C. Filipino citizen

D. All of them

Answer: D

154. A security force maintained and operated by any private company for its own security requirements only. A. Insular security force B. Company security force C. Government security unit D. Private security unit

Answer: B

155. A person who offers or renders personal services to watch or secure a residence or business establishment or both is A. Watchman B. Security guard C. B only D. B and A

Answer: D

156. Include all the security measures designed to prevent unsuitable individuals or persons of doubtful loyalty to the government from gaining access to classified matter or to any security facility and to prevent appointment or retention as employees of such individuals. A. Security personnel B. Employee security C. Personnel security D. Both A and C

Answer: C

157. It is an inquiry into the character,reputation,discretion and loyalty of individual in order to determine a persons suitability to be given security clearance. A. BI B. LAC C. NAC D. PSI

Answer: D

158. Consist of the investigation of the background of an individual but limited only to some of the circumstances of his personal life which are deemed pertinent to the investigation. A. PSI B. PBI C. CBI D. BI

Answer: B

159. A thorough and complete investigation of all or some of the circumstances or aspect of a persons life is conducted. A. PSI B. PBI C. CBI D. BI

Answer: D

160. Among the following,which is the least expensive and least secure personnel control identification system? A. Multiple pass system B. Group pass and badge system C. Spot magnetized identification pass D. Single pass or badge system

Answer: D

161. Factors considered in background investigation except:

A. Integrity B. Character C. Personal prestige D. Loyalty

Answer: C

162. Motives that cause people to be disloyal A. Character B. Revenge C. Moral D. Reputation

Answer: B

163. Weakness that makes people susceptible to pressure A. Jealousy B. Weakness of character C. Close relative in foreign land D. All of them

Answer: D

164. A security unit maintained and operated by any government entity. A. Insular security force B. Company security force C. Government security unit D. Private security agency

Answer: C

165. Cosnsist of the investigation of the background of a person particularly all the circumstances of his personal life A. PSI B. PBI C. CBI D. BI

Answer: C

166. Any person,association,partnership,firm or private corporation,who contracts recruits,trains,furnishes or post any security guards to do its functions. A. Insular security force B. Company security force C. Government security unit D. Private security agency

Answer: D

167. Shall be responsible to the detachment commander as far as his shift is concerned. A. Officer in charge B. Shift in charge C. Security guard on duty D. Assistant detachment commander

Answer: B

168. Before a security guard can practice his profession,he shall possess a valid security license,What is this license? A. Firearm license B. License to operate C. Drivers license D. Security guard license

Answer: D

169. How many firearms issued for every two guards employed by the security agency is allowed by law? A. 4 B. 3

C. 2 D. 1

Answer: D

170. Firearms of security agency should be covered with firearms license issued by the PNP through its Firearm Explosive Division under the civil security group renewable every A. 4 years B. 3 years C. 2 years D. 1 year

Answer: D

171. The aspect of security which involves the application of  security measures For the protection and safeguarding of  classified information A. Top secret B. Information security C. Personnel security D. Documents security

Answer: D

172. Refers to assigned information by one of the four classification categories A. Reclassify B. Classified C. Declassify D. Security clearance

Answer: B

173. Refers to the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified matter. A. Reclassify B. Classified C. Declassify D. Security clearance

Answer: D

174. Means loss of security which results from an unauthorized persons obtaining knowledge of classified matter. A. Vulnerability B. Criticality C. probability D. Compromise

Answer: D

175. These are information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of which would cause exceptional grave damage to the nation,politically,economically or from a security aspect,this category is reserved for the nations closest secret and is to be used with great reserve. A. Restricted matters B. Secret matters C. Confidential matters D. Top secret matters

Answer: D

176. These information and material,the authorized disclosure of  which would endanger national security,cause serious injury to the interest or prestige of the nation or of any governmental activity or would be of great advantage to a foreign nation. A. Restricted matters B. Secret matters C. Confidential matters

D. Top secret matters

Answer: B

177. These information and material,the unauthorized disclosure of  which while not endangering the national security would be prejudicial to the interest or prestige of the nation or any government activity or would cause administrative embarrassment or unwarranted injury to an individual or would be of the advantage to a foreign nation. A. Restricted matters B. Secret matters C. Confidential matters D. Top secret matters

Answer: C

178. It is information that in some special way relates to the status or activities of the possessor and over which the possessor asserts ownership. A. Transmission security B. Trade secret C. Patents D. Proprietary information

Answer: D

179. It maybe a formula for a chemical compound,a process of  manufacturing,treating or preserving materials,a pattern for machine or device or a list of customers. A. Transmission security B. Trade secret C. Patents D. Proprietary information

Answer: B

180. It is the protection resulting from the application of various measures which prevent or delay the enemy or unauthorized persons in gaining information through communication. A. Transmission security B. Cryptographic security C. Communication security D. All of the above

Answer: C

181. That component of communication security which results from the provisions of technically sound crypto system and their proper use. A. Transmission security B. Cryptographic security C. Communication security D. All of the above

Answer: B

182. A system which uses words as the smallest element. A. Transposition system B. Code C. Concealment D. Cipher

Answer: B

183. A system that manipulate 1,2 or 3 characters at a time. A. Transposition system B. Code C. Concealment D. Cipher

Answer: D

184. It is the potential damage or loss of an asset. A. Adversary B. Risk C. Security hazard D. Criticality

Answer: B

185. It is the impact of a loss as measured in financial terms. A. Adversary B. Risk C. Security hazard D. Criticality

Answer: D

186. Eliminating or removing the risk totally from the business,government or industrial environment for which the risk manager has responsibility. A. Risk self-assumption B. Risk spreading C. Risk avoidance D. Risk avoidance

Answer: C

187. It is an act of spying. A. Saboteur B. Espionage C. pilferer D. Sabotage

Answer: B

188. It is one of the most annoying and common human hazards which security has to deal with. A. Casual pilferage B. Systematic pilferage C. Pilferage D. None of the above

Answer: C

189. One who steals with pre conceived plans and takes always any or all types of items or supplies for economic gain. A. Casual pilferage B. Systematic pilferage C. Pilferage D. None of the above

Answer: B

190. What date is the Republic Act No. 5487 or the private security agency law passed? A. June 13, 1999 B. June 13, 1969 C. June 7, 2009 D. June 31, 1969

Answer: B

191. A natural hazards or acts of god. A. Calamity B. Phenomenon C. Disaster D. Force majeure

Answer: D

192. A restricted area where visitors are limited in movement and are usually escorted. A. Exclusive area B. Limited area

C. Restricted area D. Protected area

Answer: B

193. A structure placed above a vertical fence to increase protection from intruder. A. Guard house B. Clear zone C. Tower guard D. Top guard

Answer: D

194.A conference similar to entrance conference,this is only done after the completion of security survey. A. Entrance conference B. Briefing C. Debriefing D. Exit conference

Answer: D

195. It is the lost that would be sustained if a given target or combination of target where totally removed,destroyed or both. A. Risk reduction B. Probable maximum loss C. Risk transfer D. Possible maximum loss

Answer: D

196. Refers to the amount of loss a target would be likely to sustain through theft and robbery. A. Risk reduction B. Probable maximum loss C. Risk transfer D. Possible maximum loss

Answer: B

197. A term used in England for lock pickers,safe crackers and penetrators of restricted rooms or area. A. Superman B. Peterpan C. Batman D. Peterman

Answer: D

198. The badge or pass coded for authorization to enter specific areas is issued to an employee who keeps it in his possession until his authorization terminates. A. Pass system B. Pass exchange system C. Single pass system D. Multi pass system

Answer: C

199. Company owned alarm system with a unit in the nearest police station so that in case of need, direct call is possible. A. Auxiliary alarm B. Proprietary system C. Local alarm system D. Central station station system

Answer: A

200. The system consists of ringing up a visual or audible alarm