Clinical Chemistry Medical Technology Reviewer for Printing

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MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY DRILLS AND PRACTICE TESTS CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 1.a volumetric pipette has an accuracy of: a. 1:10 c. 1:500 b. 1:100 d. 1:1000 2.A pipette with a bulb to the delivery lip is used for viscous fluids and is called a: a. Mohr pipette c. Lewis-dahn pipette b. Volumetric pipette d. Ostwald- Follin pipette 3.The etched rings on the top of a pipette means: a. The pipette should be allowed to drain and the last drop should remain in the pipette b. The last drop is to be blown out after the pipettes drains c. The pipette is color coded d. The pipette is a volumetric pipette 4.Standard solution from which 99.95% of the chemical can be retrieved are referred to as: a. Secondary standards c. Lycphilized standards b. Primary standards d. Preset standards 5.When preparing solutions: a. A percent solution can be prepared from a volumetric solution b. A volumetric solution can be prepared from a percent solution c. A triple beam balance and cylinder are necessary in the preparation of any type of solution d. Only an analytical balance can be used in solution preparation 6.A solution in which the molecules of solute in solution are in equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules referred to as: a. c. Saturated b. Concentrated d. Supersaturated 7.Pure water has pH of: a. 5.0 c. 7.4 b. 7.0 d. 9.0 8.A 1x10-6 N solution of hydrochloric acid (HCI) has a pH of: a. 4 c. 8 b. 6 d. 12 9.The statistical term that most specifically describes annlytical precision is the: a. Mode c. Median b. Mean d. Coefficient of varation 10. Quality control should be used with ali procedures to determine: a. Accuracy c. Precision b. Reliability d. Coefficient of varation 11. 12. A procedure has a 2 SD variation from a mean value. How many values from a normal population will the 2.30 include: a. 68.27% c. 95.45% b. 84.76% d. 99.73% 13. Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing concentrations of the substances being measured in known as: a. Control c. Calibrator b. Standard d. Reference 14. Optical density according to Beer’s law, is: a. Inversely proportional to the concentration b. Directly proportional to the concentration c. Proportional to the square of the concentration d. Proportional to the square root of the concentration 15. The difference between serum and plasma is the serum does not contain: a. Thrombin c. Fibrinogen b. Fibrin d. Calcium 16.

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17. Two control sera are desirable for each general chemistry procedure. Which of these combinations would be appropriate? a. Mean of normal range and abnormal c. Low normal range and abnormal (low) (high) d. Abnormal (low) and abnormal (high) b. High normal range and abnormal (high) 18. Sodium fluoride is used in specimen collection to: a. Prevent glycolysis c. Chelate calcium b. Prevent conversion of prothrombin to d. Bind calcium thrombin 19. The concentration of oxalate recommended to be used as an anticoagulant, in mg/mL blood, is: a. 1-2 c. 4-5 b. 2-4 d. 6-8 20. Ethylenediamine tetraacelic acid (EDTA) works as anticoagnant by: a. Chelating calcium b. Preventing conversion of prothrombin to thrombin c. Forming an insoluble complex with calcium d. Binding magnesium 21. The venipuncture site for a rouline puncture is commonly cleaned with: a. 90% alcohol c. 70% alcohol b. BETADINE (Purdue-Frederick) d. Quatemary ammonlum compounds 22. The one precaution to be followed with a specimen for billirubin determination is to: a. Refrigerate c. Project from light b. Cap and refrigerate d. Freeze immediately 23. Which of these substances cannot be preserved by freezing? a. Blood urea nitrogen c. Lactic dehydrogenase b. Creatinine kinase isoenzyme d. Prostatic acid phosphatase 24. Serum iron should be drawn at the same time on successive days to avoid a. Diumal variation c. Effect of medication b. Chance of consumption of dietary iron d. Gastrointestinal absorption of iron 25. Which of the proteins is soluble in water? a. Albumin c. Gamma globulins b. Beta globulins d. Histones 26. The alpha amino acids constitute the basic building blocks of proteins. The amino acids are joined together to form a chainlike structure through: a. Disulfide bonding c. Covalent bonding b. Hydrogen bonding d. Peptide bonding 27. Which of the four elements in proteins differentiate this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids? a. Carbon c. Nitrogen b. Hydrogen d. Oxygen 28. Which amino acids cannot rotate polarized light? a. Cystine c. Histidine b. Glycine d. Thionine 29. Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation , heat or extreme chemical treatment. Denaturation of proteins refers to an a. Alteration in primary structure c. Alteration in tertiary structure b. Alteration in secondary structure d. Increase in solubility 30. The haemoglobin measurement technique employed for a blood donors is a. Refractive index c. Flotation technique of Philips b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis d. Falling drop technique 31. The ration of velocities of light in two different media refers to the: a. Density gradient b. Refractive index c. Rotation of polarized light d. Ultraviolet absorption


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32. The most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8.6 is

35. 36. The macroglobulins belong to what sedimentation class? a. 4.5 S c. 12.0S b. 7.0S d. 19.0S 37. As urine in heated, a precipitate appears at 60 C and disappears at 100C. The substance present is a a. Macroglobulin b. Cryglobulin c. Bence Jones protein d. Protease 38. The process of separating albumin from globulins using sodium sulfate is known as a. Flatation c. Salting out b. Protein precipitation d. Ultracentrifugation 39. The conversion of protein nitrogen content depends on the factor a. 6.25 c. 6.63 b. 6.54 d. 6.78 40. Which of the following is not true of the biuret reaction? a. Follows Beer’s law for a reasonable range of protein b. Depends on the presence of at least two peptide linkages c. Is relatively free from int reference by lipids and haemoglobin 41. In acute renal failure which non protein nitrogen rises the fastest? a. Uric acid c. Creatinine b. Blood urea nitrogen d. Creatine 42. Why is bromcresol purple the preferred indicator of albumin dye binding technics? a. It lends itself to amnual and automated procedures best b. It never binds with alpha and bea globulins c. It can be employed with heparinised plasma d. There is less interference from pigment 43. Which reagent is employed in the serum protein determination? a. Molyddenum blue c. Resorcinol HCI b. Ferrifarrocyanide d. Biuret 44. Hemolyzed serum should not be used for total protein because a. Haemoglobin is absorbed at the same wavelength as protein biuret reagent b. Of elevated protein amounts in red blood cells as compared to serum c. Haemoglobin reacts with biuret reagent d. The value will be falsely lowered 45. Turbidity in serum is associated with the presence of a. Cholesterol c. Free fatty acids b. Chylomicrons d. Total lipids 46. Glycoproteins and mucoproteins are usually bound to a. Lactose and sucrose c. Galactose and mannose b. Lactose and maltose d. Glucose and sucrose 47. All of the following are glycoproteins, except a. Ceruloplasmin c. Fibrinogen b. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Cryoglobulin 48. Which of these statements is not application to mucoproteins? a. They are proteins complexed with carbohydrates b. They are related to glycoproteins c. They are contain more than 4% hexosamine d. Hormones and coagulation proteins are included in this class 49. How many immunoglobulin classes are currently recognized? a. One c. Four b. Three d. Five 50. When performing an immunoglobulin electrophoresis, there must be present:


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a. Excess antigen b. Excess antibody and constant trough distance between antibody and antigen c. Acelate matrix d. Direct current 51. A normal serum protein electrophoresis has approximately 60% albumin and 5-10% each of other 4 fractions. If an electrophoretic pattern shows 30% albumin 4-10% of other fractions except gamma which is 45%, you would expect what condition to exist in the patient? a. Cirrhosis c. Inflammation b. Monoctonal gammapathy d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia 52. 53. 54. Which of the following applies to cryoglobulins? a. They are temperature sensitive proteins b. The blood specimen should clot at room temperature c. The sample unit must remain at room temperature so that precipitation can be observed d. Only qualitative tests are available 55. Which of the following statements is true of albumin? a. Compared to globulin , it makes up the lesser portion of total protein b. Its size prevents its passage through even a damaged glomerular banier c. It is produced in the liver d. Clinical problems are usually related to high serum values 56. To measure urinary protein you can use a. Biuret reagent b. Biuret reagent with trichloroacetic acid pretreatment of urine c. Bromcresol purple d. Bromcresol green 57. An elevated creatinine value is most likely to be accompanied by which of these values? a. Normal uric acid’ b. Elevated uric acid , 10x creatinine value c. Normal blood area nitrogen d. Elevated blood area nitrogen, 10x creatinine value 58. The conversation factor for blood urea nitrogen to urea is: a. 1.10 c. 3.14 b. 2.14 d. 6.25 59. By the urease method , urea is enzymatically converted to: a. Ammonia c. Nitrogen b. Carbon dioxide d. Amino groups 60. Untreated urine can be used for the determination to urea by the diacetyl monoxide method because a. Dialysis in an autoanalyzer removes interfering substances b. The method is not measuring ammonia c. The increased temperature destroys the ammonia d. Zinc does not interfere 61. Urinary creatine may be elevated in which of the following? a. Kidney failure c. Muscle destruction b. Cirrhosis of the liver d. Intestinal blockage 62. The measurement of creatinine is based on the formation of yellow red color with: a. Alkaline picrate c. Phosphomolybdate b. Ehrlich reagent d. Titan yellow 63. The classic creatinine reaction is that of a. Jaffe c. Kjeldahl b. Lloyd d. Nessler 64. The specificity of the Jaffe reaction can be enhanced by: a. Adsorption with Lloyd’s reagent c. Prior treatment with urease b. Boiling d. Prior treatment with uricase 65. A disease state associated with an elevation of serum uric acid is a. Atherosderosis c. Diabetes b. Arthritis d. Gout 66. The most common reagent employed in uric acid methodology by alkaline oxidation is a. Potassium permanganate c. Potassium persulfate b. Phosphotungstic acid d. Hydrochloric acid (HCI) 67. The uricase method for uric acid assay depends on a. Ultraviolet absorption peak at 290 nm before and after treatment with uricase b. Collection of evolved gas after uricase treatment


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c. Increase in absorption after uricase treatment d. Measurement of blue violet color 68. The most precise method for amino acid determination is a. Isothermal distillation d. Color development with Berthelot b. Gasometric ninhydrin reaction reagent c. Alkaline oxidation 69. The urea clearance test is an indication of a. Overall kidney function c. Tubular function b. Tubular reabsorption d. Glomerular filtration 70. 71. 72. The creatinine clearance is based on the assumption that creatinine a. Passes into the ultrafiltrate d. Is passively reabsorbed by the kidney b. Is retained in the blood tubule c. Is converted to creatine 73. Which of the clearance tests offers the most accurate measure of glomerular filtration? a. Inulin c. Urea b. Creatinine d. P-aminohippurate (PAH) 74. Which of the clearance tests offers the best measure of tubular function? a. Creatinine c. P-aminohlppurate (PAH) b. Inullin d. Urea 75. A creathine clearance tests is performed. The 24 hour volume of urine is 770ml: serum creatinine is 2.0 mg/dL and urine creatinine is 240mg/dL. What is the clearance expressed in mL plasma cleared per minute, assuming average body surface? a. 6.0 c. 60.0 b. 38.4 d. 924.0 76. The usual determination of osmolality involves measurement of a. pCO2 and pO2 c. Electrolytes b. Na+ and K+ d. Freezing point depression 77. Which of the following is true of blood glucose? a. The renal threshold is 200-240 mg/dL b. Once excreted in the glomerular filtrate, glucose must be excreted in the urine c. A high blood glucose must be associated with a positive urine glucose d. In the glucose tolerance test (GTT), one may be faced with a normal blood glucose, accompanied by a positive urine glucose 78. Patients with borderline blood glucose levels are further investigated by performing a. Postprandial sugar (PPS) c. Inulin tolerance test b. Fasting blood sugar d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test (GTT) 79. The test that gives a two or three (2-3) month picture of a diabetes glucose levels it a. Haemoglobin A1 c. Haemoglobin A1 C b. 2 hour postprandial sugar d. 3 hour glucose tolerance test 80. Which of the following precautions is necessary to insure validity of the glucose tolerance tests? a. A 150 gram/day carbohydrate diet for 3 days prior to the test b. A fasting state before glucose is given c. No undue stress before or during the test d. All of the above 81. Contamination of the glucose reagent with catalase is a problem with which glucose method? a. Alkaline cupric ion reduction c. Glucose oxidase (neocuproine) d. Hexokinase b. Alkaline ferric ion reduction (ferricyanide) 82. The hexokinase methodology for glucose determination is base on a. Reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm b. Rose pink color of oxygen o diansidine c. Peroxidise acting upon H2O2 released from glucose d. Protein free filtrate 83. Proteins are precipitated by which of the following reagents in the Folin-Wu method? a. Tungstic acid c. Sulfuric acid b. Trionloroacetic acid d. Hydrochloric acid 84. The interfering reducing substances in the Folin-Wu method? a. Dialysis c. Zinc barium precipitation b. Tungstate precipitation d. Heating 85. In the copper reduction method for glucose, measurable color is developed through the formation of


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a. Cooper sulfate c. Copper cobalt complex b. Molybdenum blue d. Phosphomolybdenum 86. The most frequently employed automated method for glucose uses a. Coupled enzyme system consisting of glucose oxidase and catalase b. Reduction of alkaline cupric ion c. Addition of molybdenum blue d. Reduction of alkaline ferricyanide to ferrocyanide 87. When sugars are separated by chromatography , the application of anisaldehyde/sulfuric acid/ethyl alcohol spray will identify galactose as what color spot? a. Blue c. Green b. Grey d. Yellow 88. Saliwanoff’s test detects a. Dextrose c. Lactose b. Glucose d. Fructose 89. Xylose excretion is helpful in the determination of a. Intestinal malabsorption c. Pancreatic secretion b. Renal clearance d. Liver failure 90. Prehepatic bilirubin has which of the following for a protein carrier? a. Albumin c. Beta globulin b. Alpha2 globulin d. Gamma globulin 91. An increase in indirect reacting bilirubin is suggestive of a. Bile acid build up c. Hemoglobin breakdown b. Lipid accumulation d. Gamma bound to red blood cells 92. Direct reacting bilirubin is a. Free bilirubin c. Bilirubin diglucuronide b. Bilirubin bound to albumin d. Bilirubin bound to red blood cells 93. Bilirubin is converted in the intestines to which of the following a. Porphobilinogen c. Urobilinogen b. Haemoglobin d. Phospholipid 94. Which of the following interfere with the Evelyn and Malloy method for bilirubin? a. Lipenia c. Anticonvulsants b. Hemolysis d. Alcohol 95. The port wine color of some urines can be attributes to a. Porphyrins c. Red blood cells b. Melanin d. Billirubin 96. Para dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is an constituent of which reagent? a. Ehrlich c. Drabkin b. Salkowski d. Bloor 97. Both porphobilinogen and urobilinogen form a red-colored compound with Ehrlich reagent. Differentiation can be obtained by a. Solubility of porphobilinogen in c. Difference in UV absorption chloroform d. Solubility of urobilinogen in chloroform b. Solubility of urobillnogen in water 98. Bilirubin will develop a violet color after which of the following is added: a. Hydrochloric acid c. Methyl alcohol b. Ehrlich reagent d. Van den Beigh’s reagent 99. A urine specimen that exhibits yellow foam on being shaken should be suspected of having an increased concentration of a. Ketones c. Bilirubin b. Glucose d. Nitrite 100. An enzyme may be defined as a/an a. Biological catalyst c. Metal catalyst b. Inorganic catalyst d. Large molecule 101. Hemolysis will interfere with all of the following enzyme measurements except a. Alkaline phosphate c. Aldolase b. Lactate dehydrogenese d. Aspartate aminotransferase 102. A high alkaline phosphatase level in the presence of other negative liver function tests is indicative of a. Obstructive jaundice c. Carcinoma of the liver b. Hepatitis d. Hemolytic disorder 103. A metal ion is sometimes necessary in an enzymatic reaction to a. Act as an activator of the enzyme c. Regulate pH b. Permit the colorimetric reaction to d. Inhibit competing enzymes occur


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104. Which of the following is true of an isoenzyme a. The substrate is different from each isoenzyme b. The rate of reaction is the same for each enzyme with its own substate c. The electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme d. Any of a group of isoenzymes will react the same to heat denaturation 105. As the temperature is increases from 25C to 37C is the aspartate aminotransferase reaction, the activity of the reaction a. Almost doubles c. Is tripled b. Is halvec d. Is reduced to zero 106. 107. 108. The Michaelis- Menten constant in the rate of conversion of substrate to product is determined by a. Substrate concentration b. Substrate concentration and rate dissociation of enzyme substrate complex c. Temperature , pH and substrate concentration d. Temperature pH 109. In a zero order reaction, there will be no further increase velocity because a. There is no excess substrate c. All enzyme is bound to substrate b. The temperature is 35C d. There is excess enzyme 110. Lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of a. Starch’ c. Glycerides b. Gelatine d. Sugar 111. Which of the following is true of the isoenzyme LD-1 it is a. The slowest moving of the lactate dehydrogenese LD isoenzymes electrophoresis b. The most positively charged fraction c. A heat labile fraction d. Present in the greatest amount in normal heart issue 112. Lactate + NAD +pyruvate+NADH. The catalyst in the reaction is a. Aspirate aminotransferase AST c. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) b. Aldolase d. Alanine aminotransferase ALT 113. Serum creatine kinase is clinically significant in diseases of the a. Pancrease c. Muscle b. Liver d. Gonads 114. Creatine kinase is frequently elevated in disorders such as acute myocardial infarction MI and a. Duchenna muscular dystrophy c. Cirrhosis b. Acute hepatitis d. Infections 115. The kinetic or rate enzymatic methodologies optical density decreases as a. Triphosphopyridine mucleatide TPN is changed to triphosphopyridine nucleotide reduced form TPNH b. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NAD is changed to nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide reduced form NADP c. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide NADP is changed to nicotinamide adenine dinuclectide NAD d. Ceric ion is change to cerous 116. In myocardial infarction, the clinically significant enzymes are a. Creatine kinase, aspirate amino transferaase, alnine aminotransferase b. Creatine kinase, aspartate aminotransferase, lactate dehydrogenase c. Aldolase, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase d. Lactate dehydrogenase, alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, aldolase 117. During a suspected myocardial infarction you should perform creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme and lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes to demonstrate the: a. MB fraction of creatine kinase and LD-5 b. MB fraction of creatine kinase and the LD 1-2 flip c. LD-5 and LD-3 d. BB fraction of creatine kinase and LD-1 118. In muscular dystrophy , the clinically significant enzymes are a. Creatine kinase, aldolase , aspartate aminotransferase b. Alanine aminotransferase, aldolase, lactate dehydrogenase c. Creatine kinase, aspartate aminotransferase , alamine aminotransferase d. Aldolase aspartate aminotransferase , alanine aminotransferase 119. Ceruloplasmin is an alpha, globulin that binds a. Copper c. Iron b. Cobalt d. Manganese 120. Possibly the most sensitive enzyme indicator of liver function, particularly in obstructive jaundice is; a. Alkaline phosphatase b. Alanine aminotransferase


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c. Acid phosphatase d. Lactate dehydrogenase 121. In acute viral hepatitis which of the following would not be suspected? a. Alkaline phosphatase increase greater than aspartate aminotransferase b. Lactate dehydrogenase -5 increase c. Gamma glutamyl transferase increase mild d. Aspartate aminotransferase and alamine minotransferase increae 10 to 200 –fold 122. What is the optimum pH for acid phosphatase? a. 3.0 b. 5.0 c. 7.0 d. 9.0 123. The clinical significance of an elevated acid phosphatase is a. Renal disease c. Bone disease b. Pancreatic disease d. Prostatic disease 124. If an acid phosphatase test cannot be performed immediately after collection , how should the serum be treated? a. Acidity to pH of 2 c. Cap and freeze b. Freeze d. Either acidity or freeze 125. Tests for acid phosphatase detect levels of the enzyme for tissues such as a. Bone, liver, spleen, kidney, erythrocytes and platelets b. Bone, liver and kidney c. Muscle, spleen and platelets d. Liver, spleen, prostate, and platelets 126. The substrate for the cherry-crandall lipase method is a. Glyceride c. Olive oil b. Nitrophenyl acetate d. Starch 127. Because ionized calcium can be changed without affecting the total calcium level, what other parameters must be known to property evaluate calcium? a. pH c. Magnesium b. Phosphorous d. pH and protein 128. The classic clark-collip method for calcium is based on the assumption that calcium will be a. Precipitated as calcium carbonate b. Precipitated as an oxalate and converted to an oxide c. Chelated with EDTA d. Precipitated as an oxalate and converted to oxalic acid 129. In the titration of calcium oxalate with potassium permanganate, the temperature must be maintained at a. 1-4 C c. 60-80C b. 37C d. 100C 130. A low parathyroid hormone level will cause a a. Low serum phosphorous c. Low serum calcium b. High urine calcium level d. High serum calcium level 131. In the compleximetric titration (EDTA) method for calcium the pH must be adjusted to prevents a. Incomplete precipitation of calcium c. A reversible color change b. Interference by magnesium d. Co binding of phosphorous 132. What is the purpose of lanthanium in the atomic absorption determination of calcium? Lanthanium: a. In involved in starting up the instrument c. Will bind calcium b. Is part of the hollow cathode discharge d. Will bind phosphate tube 133. All of the following can cause low chloride levels , EXCEPT a. Diabetic acidosis c. Prolonged vomiting b. Renal failure d. Dehydration 134. Inorganic phosphate can be determined from a combination of trichloroscetic acid filtrate and a. Stannous chloride c. Tungstate b. Glacial acetic-sulfuric acid d. Molybdate 135. Al o pH of 7.4 most of the inorganic phosphate in the plasma is in which form? a. HPO4 c. H2PO4 b. PO4 d. P2O5 136. A phosphorous value of 2.5 mEq/L would be how many mg/dL (At. W P=31)? a. 4.3 c. 8.5 b. 5.2 d. 2.5 137. The colometric method for magnesium employs which reagent? a. Molybdate c. Titan yellow b. Calcium oxalate d. 8-hydroxy-5-quinoline 138. The first step in the serum iron method involves a. Breakup of the iron – protein complex b. Reaction of iron with a chromogen


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c. Addition of excess iron for protein to absorb d. Measurement of amount of free serum iron 139. The major extracellular cation is a. Chloride c. Potassium b. Manganese d. Sodium 140. The major intracellular cation is a. Chloride c. Potassium b. Manganese d. Sodium 141. Which of these potassium values would be termed hypokalemia a. 3.0mmol/L c. 4.7 mmol/L b. 4.0 mmol/L d. 1.5 mmol/L 142. What is the internal standard when sodium and potassium are measured by flame photometry? a. Calcium c. Magnesium b. Lithium d. Copper 143. In the classic schales and schales (mercurimetric utration) method for chloride, what substrate reacts with the indicator to form a violet color? a. HgCI2 c. Excess Hg b. HNO3 d. Br 144. In the coulometric amperometric method for chloride the amount of chloride is measured by AgCI produced a. Time needed to reach the titration endpoint b. Amount of current needed to generate Ag c. Rate of generation of current d. Time needed to reach the titration endpoint 145. In gasometric analysis of CO2 the liberated gas is absorbed with a. Lactic acid c. Sulphuric acid b. Hydrochloric acid d. Sodium hydroxide 146. What is the purpose of caprylic alcohol in the gasometric method for CO 2? To : a. Prevent foaming b. Release CO2 c. Absorb CO2 d. Maintain the atmospheric pressure at a constant value 147. The normal pH of blood is a. 6.50-7.50 c. 7.35-7.45 b. 7.05-7.35 d. 7.45-7.65 148. Which of the following is the Henderson –Hasseld which equation? a. pK3=pH+log b.

dissoclated salt undissociated salt

dissoclated salt

c. pH=pK4+log undissociated salt d.

e. pH= pKa +

A−¿ ¿ ¿ ¿

f.

A−¿ ¿ dissociated salt ¿ g. pH=pKa+log log ¿ ¿

149. The ratio of bicarbonate : carbonic acid in normal plasma is a. 1:20 c. 10:1 b. 5:1 d. 20:1 150. Most of the CO2 in the blood present in which form? a. Dissolved CO2 c. Calcium carbonate b. Bicarbonate ion d. Ammonium carbonate 151. What will happen if blood is exposed to air during collection for pH and blood gas studies? a. CO2 content increases c. PO2 decreases b. pH decreases d. pCO2 decreases 152. if the glass electrode of the pH instrument is a coated with protein , the pH value will be a. too high c. unchanged b. too low d. variable 153. Which of the following is true of the pco2 electrode/ a. Only charged particles can cross the membrane b. Both charged and uncharged particles can cross the membrane c. The actual pH of the sample has no effect d. There is no calibration available for the electrode because gases are involved A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 //

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154. The wavelength at which oxyhemoglobin and reduce haemoglobin have the same absorbance is referred to as the: a. Differential point c. Equivalence point b. Isoelectric point d. Equilibration point 155. Which of these statements is appropriate for the plotting of a concentration curve? On a. Semi log paper, plot % units on y axis and standard concentration on x axis b. Semi log paper, plot standard concentration on y axis and absorbance on x axis c. Linear graph paper, plot absorbance on x axis and standard concentration on y axis d. Linear graph paper plot, plot absorbance on y axis and % on T on x axis 156. When performing spectrophotometer quality control checks, the holmium oxide glass filter is used to assess: a. Stray light c. Absorbance accuracy b. Linearity d. Wavelength accuracy 157. For the ultraviolet range, which of these must be employed in the spectrophotombler? a. Diffraction grating c. Quartz cuvette b. Glass prism d. Tungsten lamo 158. 159. Measurement by flame photometry involves a. Absorption of energy when an element is ionized b. Electrometric titration c. Colorimetricanalysis d. Emission of a color when an element is burned 160. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is based on the measurement of a. Light given off by excited atoms b. Light absorbed at wavelength of resonance line by unexcited atoms c. Energy emitted by ultraviolet treated atoms d. Energy emitted by infrared treated atoms 161. What is the light source in atomic absorption instrumentation? a. Cathode lamp c. Grating b. Flame d. Prism 162. Quenching is a disadvantage encountered in a. Fluorometry c. Flame photometry b. Atomic adsorption d. Nephelometry 163. To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity , a type of detector system that a gas chromotograph may be coupled to is a/an a. Fluorescence detector c. Bichromatic spectrophotometer b. Ultraviolet spectrophotometer d. Mass spectrophotometer 164. Automated chemistry systems. Whether discrete or continuous flow, must include a. Unknown, reagent, mixing of the previous two mentioned ingredients, reaction analysis, calculation and reporting of results b. Unknown, mixing, incubation, calculation, and reporting of results c. Standards, mixing, incubation, and reporting of results d. Unknown , mixing , incubation and reporting of results 165. Is an isotope has a haft life of 12 hours and an activity of 24 millicuries (mCi), what will be its activity in 36 hours? a. 3 mCi c. 9mCi b. 6mCi d. 12mCi 166. Concentrated sulphuric acid has normality of a. 12 c. 18 b. 16 d. 36 167. Match the following types of instruments with the description 1. Mixtures can be separated into individual compounds to be measured on the basis of differences in their physical characteristics 2. Analyses are measured in a sample by means of tubing diameter and flow rate 3. Samples and reagents are pipette into curvettes read in photometer and results are calculated 4. Light absorbed by an element as it falls from a high energy state to a low energy state is converted into the concentration of the element 5. The light emitted by an element as it falls from a high energy state to alow energy state in converted into the concentration of the element a. Atomic absorption d. Continues flow analysis b. Discrete processing system e. Chromatography c. Flame photometry 168. The major binding protein T-4 is:


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a. Albumin c. Thyroid binding prealbumin (TBPA) b. Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) d. None, T-4 is free in plasma 169. What purpose does iodine serve in the protein bound iodine (PBI) methodology? a. Holds organic iodine in the protein bound state b. Acts as a catalyst in the ceric arsenite reaction c. Compensates for loss of inorganic iodine in the washing stage d. Keeps mercury from suppressing the color reaction 170. A T-4 measured as iodine is 1.8 mcg/dL. To what thyroxine value is if equivalent? a. 1.10 c. 3.60 b. 2.75 d. 5.40 171. In T-4 by radioimmunoassay (RIA), the more hyroxine present in the patient serum a. The more the amount of radioactive labelled thyroxine bound to antibody b. The less the amountof radioactive labelled thyroxine bound to antibody c. The less free radioactive labelled thyroxine to be absorbed d. A and C 172. 173. 174. T-3 uptake is actually a measurement of a. T-3 c. TBG b. T-4 d. Free thyroxine 175. The following tests are good indications of hypothyroidism except a. T-3 uptake c. Total T-4 by radioimmunoassay (RlA) b. Free t-4 by radioimmunoassay (RlA) d. T-3 by radioimmunoassay (RlA) 176. Which of the steroids is identified as an 18 carbon compound that possesses a phenolic “A” ring? a. Adrenocortical steroids c. Estrogens b. Androgens d. Progesterone 177. The estrogen with the greatest concentration in urine is a. Estriol c. Estrone b. Estradiol d. Progesterone 178. The standard for 17 ketosteroid determinations is a. Testosterone c. Dehydroplandrosterone b. Progesterone d. Aldosterone 179. Which of the following is true regarding pregnanediol? It is a. A C-19 compound c. Manufactured in the adrenal medulla b. The excretion product of progesterone d. Altered in the adrenal medulla 180. Which of the following is true of steroids a. They are excreted as hormones rather than metabolise b. There is no different value for male and female c. They are lipids d. They contain the 21 carbon atoms of the cyclopentanoperthydrophenanthrene ring 181. What is the hormone that controls the reabsorption of sodium in the kidney? a. Aldosterone c. Estrogen b. Alcohol dehydrogenase d. Growth hormone 182. The kober reaction refers to the pink color resulting from the combination of hot concentrated sulphuric acid and extracted a. Estrogens c. Cortiocosteroids b. Androgens d. 17-ketosteroids 183. The litrich extraction for estrogens involves the reagent a. Phenythydrazone c. M-dinitrobenzene b. P-nitrophenol d. Sodium bismuthate 184. The porler silber reactions employs phenylhdrazine to detect a. Estrogens c. 17-ketosteroids b. Corticosteroids d. Catecholamines 185. The Zimmerman determination of 17 ketosteroids based on reaction with a. Acetic anhydride c. Meta dinitrobenzene b. Ehrich reagent d. Potassium ferricyanide 186. For the measurement of 17 ketogenic steroids (17 hydroxycorticosteroids), prior treatment with what reagent is required? a. M dinitrobenzene c. Sodium bismuthate b. Hot sulphuric acid d. Chloroform 187. Catecholamines are secreted by the a. Kidney c. Adrenal cortex b. Pituitary d. Adrenal medulla


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188. Which a. 17 of ketosteroids the following is a metabolite of epinephrine c. Vanillymandelic acid b. Follicle stimulating hormone d. Thyroid stimulating hormone 189. A two hour pregnancy test can measure a. Androgens c. Estrogens b. Chorionic gonadotropins, beta subunit d. Progesterone 190. Which of these statements is true of an immunological tests for pregnancy? a. Only first morning urine specimen is suitable b. With the agglutination inhibition method, the presence of agglutination means a negative test c. Drugs do not present a problem with interference d. The hormone level in the urine detectable by this method steadily increases the first two weeks of gestation 191. Which sub unit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) will given a very specific radioimmunoassay test for the measurement of hCG? a. Alpha c. Gamma b. Beta d. Della 192. 193. Which of the following specimens is/are used for pregnancy tests? a. Cerebrospinal fluid c. Urine b. Blood d. B and C 194. An ectopic pregnancy is one that occurs in the a. Stomach c. Fallopian tubes b. Urethra d. Ovaries 195. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is secreted by the a. Thyrus gland c. Ovary b. Placenta d. Ureter 196. The highest level of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) occurs in which trimester of pregnancy? a. First trimester c. Third trimester b. Seconds trimester d. NOTA 197. A glycoprotein consisting of two nonidentical noncovalently bound subunits is a. Estrogen c. Androgen b. Progesterone d. Human chorionic gonadotropin 198. Some commercial kits now available for pregnancy tests incorporate which of the following? a. Nonoclonal antibodies c. Heterophile antibodies b. Forssman antibodies d. Apsonins 199. To produce reliable results at which time should blood specimens for lipid studies be drawn? a. 2-4 hours lasting c. 8-10 hour fasting b. 6-8 hour fasting d. 12-15 hour fasting 200. The reagent for color development in the Liebemann-burchard reaction for cholesterol is a. Sulphuric acid c. Glacial acetic acid/sulphuric acid b. Acetic anhydride/sulphuric acid d. Ferric chloridetethanol 201. Which of the statements applies to Bloor’s reagent ? it: a. Provides for color development in the cholesterol methods b. Is composed of ethanol and either in a ratio of 31 c. Compensates for the otherwise unequal colon measurement resulting from free and esterified cholesterol d. Compensates for possible water contamination of the reagents 202. The purpose of the saponification step in some cholesterol methods is to a. Break the protein lipid bond b. Precipitate the protein c. Convert esters to free cholesterol so that all measured cholesterol so that all measured cholesterol is the same type d. Remove the error of nonspecific chromogen interference 203. The purpose of the digitonin in cholesterol methodology is the a. Precipitation of free cholesterol c. Color developer b. Precipitation of esterified cholesterol d. Reagent for extraction 204. In which of these clinical conditions may blood cholesterol be increased? a. Hypothyroidism c. Lupus erythematosus b. Malnutrition d. Pancreatic cancer 205. Which of the following is the Friedewald formula by which low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol can be estimated? (TC=total cholesterol, TG=triglycerides, PL=phospholipids ) a. LDL cholesterol =TC – (TG=triglycerids, PL=phospholipids) b. LDL cholesterol = TC-(TG +PL) c. LDL cholesterol = TC- ½ HDL cholesterol


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d. LDL cholesterol =HDL-TC 206. When evaluating a coronary risk index for a patient you should know the total cholesterol and a. Total lipids c. Low density lipoprotein cholesterol b. Triglycerides d. Low density lipoprotein cholesterol 207. Most triglyceride procedures involve measurement of a. Fatty acids c. Lipoprotein b. Glycerol d. Phospholipids 208. Which of these lipids has the lowest density? a. Alpha lipoprotein c. Chylomicrons b. Beta lipoprotein d. Pre-beta lipoprotein 209. The more current kinetic methods for the quantilation of serum triglycerides employ enzymatic hydrolysis. The enzymatic hydrolysis of triglycerides may be accomplished by what enzyme? a. Lactate dehydrogenase c. Aldolase b. Lipase d. Amylase 210. 211. 212. The migration sequence , from the origin of lipoproteins is a. Chylomicrons, beta, pre-bella , alpha c. Alpha, beta, pre-bella, chylomicrons b. Chylomicrons, pre-bella , beta, alpha d. Chylomicrons, alpha, pre-beta, beta 213. Diseases of which system are associated with elevated beta lipoprotein values? a. Pulmonary c. Gastrointestinal b. Cardiovascular d. Connective tissue 214. Which statement is true for the oral route of drug administration? a. Drug action occurs most rapidly when taken orally b. The oral route of administration is most reliable c. The oral route compensates for drug solubility problems d. Patient compliance is not always reliable 215. Which of the following therapeutic drugs is not an anticonvulsant? a. Digoxin c. Carbomazepine b. Dilantin d. Phenobarbital 216. The point of equilibrium between drug dosage intake and drug elimination is referred to as: a. Peak concentration c. Steady state b. Trough concentration d. Drug half life 217. A major disadvantage of drug detection by immunoassay is a. Speed of performance b. Stability of reagents c. Technical difficulty of procedure d. Simultaneous assay of multiple drugs in one specimen is not feasible 218. Lithium is measured by: a. Gas chromatography c. Visible spectrophotometry b. Flame photometry d. High pressure liquid chromatography 219. Tricyclic antidepressants include a. Diazepam c. Lithium b. Dilantin d. Doxepin 220. When a kidney stone is tested with sodium cyanide and sodium nitroprusside , the appearance of a magenta color identifies what substance? a. Carbonate c. Calcium b. Cystine d. Uric acid 221. The sweat chloride test is useful in the diagnosis of a. Dehydration c. Hyperkalemia b. Cystic fibrosis d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria 222. The use of radioisotope 51 Cr provides a direct measurement of which of the following? a. Plasma volume c. Hematocrit b. Red cell mass d. Total blood volume 223. The average blood volume for human beings, expressed in ml/kg body weight is a. 40 c. 60 b. 50 d. 80 e.

f. CHEMISTRY /URINALYSIS 224. Cloudiness in a freshly voided urine could indicate the presence of a. Protein c. White blood cells b. Sugar d. Any of the above 225. In acute febrile disease, urine may acquire a reddish color due to A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 //

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a. Haemoglobin pigment c. Urobilinogen b. Porphyrin d. Urcerythrin 226. A smoky red brown urine should be suspected of containing a. Bilirubin c. Porphyrin b. Haemoglobin d. Urobilinogen 227. A urine that turns brown-black upon standing may contain a. Homogentisic acid c. Porphyrin b. Myoglobin d. Red blood cells 228. When urine specimen is allowed to stand at room temperature , which one of the following Not occur? a. Disappearance of formed elements c. False positive glucose b. Elevation in pH d. False positive glucose 229. The first morning specimen of urine is often tested because this specimen a. Contained most firmed elements d. Will display the phenomenon of alkaline b. Is fresh tide c. Is most likely contain protein 230. 231. What is the highest specific gravity to which the kidney is able to concentrate urina? a. 1.022 c. 1.040 b. 1.030 d. 1.050 232. All of the following systems may be used to determine the specific gravity of urine EXCEPT a. Spectrophotometer c. T-S meter b. Refractometer d. Reagent test strip 233. At a temperature at 26C, a urine specific gravity reads 1.014. if temperature correction is employed, what would the corrected specific gravity be? a. 1.22 c. 1.040 b. 1.030 d. 1.050 234. A refractometer would be used in a urinalysis department to measure a. Glucose c. Specific gravity b. Ketones d. Bilirubin 235. If the plasma osmolality is normal (185mCsm/ kg water), the urine osmolality should be at least a. The same osmolality that of the plasma c. Three times that of the plasma b. 500 mOsm/Kg 236. Which of these plasma substances is not normally filtered through the glomerulus in significant amount? a. Creatinine c. Protein b. Glucose d. Urea 237. Precipitation tests for urine protein DO NOT include which of the following? a. Acid and heat c. Sulfosalicytic acid b. Dipstick d. Trichloracetic acid 238. The normal excretion of small amounts of protein in urine is considered to be less than what daily amount? a. 5 mg c. 150 mg b. 50 mg d. 300 mg 239. All of the following apply to the dipstick tests for urine protein , based on the protein error of indicators , except a. Most of the indicator is in nonionized form b. The protein will combine with the nonionized form of the indicator c. Protein combination with indicator changes the ratio ionized and nonionized forms d. The color change on the stick is due to the pH change 240. Which of the following does not apply to urine protein estimation by the dipstick method? a. Bence Jones protein interferes with measurement of albumin b. Highly alkaline buffered urine can cause a false positive test c. The principle of the test is the protein error of indicators d. The test is more sensitive to albumin than the globulin 241. Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose? a. Any reducing substance can give a false positive reaction with the copper reduction method for glucose b. The copper reduction method is specific for glucose c. Glucose cannot appear in the urine of the absence of an elevated plasma glucose d. Ketonuria may produce a false negative dipstick test for glucose 242. The enzyme dipstick test for glucose in urine has a sensitivity of a. 10 mg/dl c. 100mg/dl b. 50 mg/dl d. 200 mg/dl 243. Which of the following may give false positive reaction on the glucose dipstick? a. Galactose b. Lactose


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c. Maltose d. Oxidizing agent 244. For fructose detection , which of these reagents is employed? a. Ehrlich’s reagent c. Fesorcinol and hydrochloric acid b. Ferric chloride d. Sodium nitroprusside 245. Which of the following is the most effective test for phenylketonuria (PKU)? a. Direct measurement of blood level of phenylalanine b. Guthrie tests on blood of a newborn c. Measurement of liver enzymes d. PHENISTIX test on a freshly voided urine 246. The urine dipstick tests for occult blood depend on the fact that a. Haemoglobin can act as a peroxidise b. Haemoglobin can release an enzyme from the strip c. Haemoglobin in urine combines with oxygen on the strip to produce a blue color d. Red blood cells in urine are lysed by peroxide from the strip 247. 248. 249. Which of the following statements is true regarding the test for heme pigment in urine? a. Color in organic phase identifies urobilinogen b. Color in the organic phase identifies porphobilinogen c. Ehrlich reagent contains resorcinol and hydrochloride acid d. Prior removal of billirubin is necessary 250. The addition of Fouchets reagent to the barium chloride precipitate of urine results in a green color in the presence of a. Billirubin c. Protein b. Ketones d. Urobilinogen 251. The addis count is the semi quantitative estimate of the 12 hour excretion of which urinary constituent? a. Bacteria and protein c. Number and type of casts b. Casts, red blood cells, and white blood d. White blood cells and tubular epithelial cells cells 252. The most common use of polarized microscopy is to visualize a. Crystals c. White blood cells b. Lipids (fats) d. Casts 253. Which statements does not apply to white blood cellsin the urine sediments? a. A few white blood cells may present in normal urine b. An increase in white blood cells is associated with an inflammatory process c. White blood cells in the urine must be accompanied by proteinuria d. Unstained white blood cells in urine appear spherical and granular 254. With infections of the urinary system, white blood cells are frequently seen in the urine sediment. What type of white blood cell is seen most frequently in the urine sediment? a. Eosinophil c. Monocyte b. Lymphocyte d. Neutrophil 255. Vaginal contamination may be responsible for the appearance of which element in the urine from a female patient? a. Glucose c. Crystals b. Ovaline cast d. Squamous epithelial cells 256. Red blood cells in the urine may be confused with any of the following except a. Calcium oxalate crystals c. Oil droplets b. Cholesterol crystals d. Yeast cells 257. Which urinary crystals can assume the greatest variety of forms? a. Crystine c. Phosphate b. Oxalate d. Uric acid 258. Which urinary crystal is unlikely to appear in an acid urine? a. Ammonium biurate c. Cystine b. Calcium oxalate d. Cholesterol 259. Which crystal is unlikely to appear the alkaline urine? a. Ammonium biurate c. Cystine b. Calcium oxalate d. Uric acid 260. The “Coffin lid” crystals is that of a. Ammonium biurate c. Sodium urate b. Calcium oxalate d. Triple phosphate 261. The finding of six aced puffy crystals in the acid urine of an infant should arouse a suspicion of a. Cystinosis c. Oxaluria b. Cystinuria d. Tyrosinuria


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262. Yeast, oval fat bodies, and calcium oxalate crystals are common in persons who suffer from a. Obesity c. Diabetes mellitus b. Chronic nephritis d. Chronic crystitis 263. The matrix of urinary casts has been identified as which protein a. Albumin c. Glycoprotein b. Globulin d. Tam horsfall 264. Which of the following is true of casts in urine/ a. A high power objective is employed in a search for these elements b. Some kind of stain is needed to make them visible c. Their reactive index makes them easily visible d. They tend to accumulate near the edges of the coverslip 265. A granular cast is thought to represent the decomposition of which of these casts? a. Cellular b. Fatty c. Hyaline d. Waxy 266. Which of these casts is most easily visualized in unstained urinary sediment? a. Fatty c. Red blood cell b. Hyaline d. White blood cell 267. Which may appear in urine in the absence of renal disease? a. Fatty c. Red blood cell b. Hyaline d. Waxy 268. The best single indicator of renal disease is a. Glycosuria c. Proteinuria b. Polyuria d. Pyuria 269. Glitter cell “is term used to describe a specific type of a. Fatty droplet c. Oval fat body b. Ketone body d. Neutrophil 270. Which of the following not true about oval fat bodies? a. Cholesterol esters break down into fatty globules in desquamated tubular epithelial cells b. Their fat content is related to the level of lipids in the plasma c. They are associated with degenerative tubular disease d. They are associate with the appearance of the Maliese cross formation under polarization 271. Casts are formed primarily in which portion of the kidney? a. Distal convulted tubule c. Loop of henle b. Glomerulus d. Proximal convoluted tubules 272. Which of the following statements is not true ? a. A clean catch urine is preferable in most instances to specimen collected by catherization b. In a routine culture of urine 102 microorganisms /ml of urine in considered significant c. The presence of bacteria in uncentrifuged specimen of urine collected under controlled condition is associated with a significant colony count on culture d. The presence of bacteriuria can be recognized by a positive result on the nitrate portion of a dipstick casts 273. In glomerulonephritis , which of the following should be expected in the urine specimen? a. Clumps of white blood cells and white blood cells casts b. Fatty and granular casts c. Red blood cells and red blood cell and fatty casts d. Waxy and fatty casts 274. Which of the following is true statement? a. A high specific gravity of urine may result in lysis of red blood cells b. Hemoglobinuria is a more common finding than hematuria c. A low pH of urine may result in the conversation of red blood cells to haemoglobin d. True hemoglobinuria occurs after intravascular hemolysis

275. 276. CHEMISTRY 277. The mean for the series of laboratory results is 10.0 , the 95% confidence limits are 9.8 to 10.2. what is the standard deviation? a. 0.2 SD b. 0.1 SD c. 0.4SD d. 0.5SD 278. If 0.5 ml packed red blood cells are diluted to a volume of 10ml with normal saline, what dilution is achieved? a. 1.5 c. 1.20 b. 1.10 d. 1.40


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279. 5 ml filtrate are required for a procedure. The final colored solution proves to be too high to read accurately on the spectrophotometer . 1 ml filtrate and 4ml distilled water are substituted for the original filtrate and the procedure is run as before. The graph reading is 46ml/dl. What is the actual amount of substance in the patient serum? a. 9.5mg/dl c. 184.0 mg.dl b. 11.5mg/dl d. 230.0mg/dl 280. If 1.0 ml serum is diluted with 4 ml 25% benzoin acid, how much serum is represented in 2.0 ml of the solution? a. 0.20ml c. 0.40ml b. 0.25ml d. 1.00ml 281. 90ml distilled water is added to 10ml of a 3% solution. What is the strength of resulting solution? a. 0.10% c. 0.30% b. 0.27ml d. 0.90% 282. 283. 0.1ml serum is added to 0.4ml saline in the first tube of serial dilution. Half (0.25) of the contents of the first tube are transferred to the second tube, which already contains 0.25 ml saline. What is the serum dilution in the second tube? a. 1:20 c. 1:80 b. 1:50 d. 1:10 284. In a thrombocytopenia, twice the usual amount of blood is drawn into the red cell diluting pipet (blood to the 1.0 mark), which is then filled with Rees-Ecker diluents to the line at the top of the bulb. All nine squares of the hemacytometer are employed to increase the accuracy of the count. In this nine squares , 27 platelets are counted in cells/cu mm. What is platelet count for the patient? a. 300 c. 6,000 b. 3,000 d. 27,000 285. Dilution of a spinal fluid is accomplished in a white cell diluting pipet, using diluents to the 1.0 mark and spinal fluid to the 11 mark. All nine squares of a hemacytometer are counted , with tally of 45 white cells. In cells /cu mm, what is the spinal fluid cell count. a. 50 c. 500 b. 56 d. 1000 286. A 10% (W/V) solution of sodium chloride is needed. Of what does it consists? a. 10mg NaCl/d c. 10g NaCi/L b. 10g NaCi/dl d. 1 g NaCi/100ml 287. A solution of calcium chloride contains 3 grams per 100ml. What percent is this solution? a. 1.5 c. 15.0 b. 3.0 d. 30.0 288. How much sodium citrate is required to make 500ml of a 3.2% solution for coagulation studies? (M.W of sodium citrate =258) a. 1.6g c. 8.0g b. 3.2g d. 16.0g 289. A concentrated acid has a specific gravity of 1.5. what is the weight of 30 ml of this acid? a. 4.5g c. 45.0g b. 20.0g d. 200.0g 290. A concentrated sulphuric acid has a specific gravity of 1.84 and a percent purity of 98%. How many grams of sulfuric acid are there in 200ml of concentration acid? a. 111 c. 368 b. 361 d. 720 291. 150ml urine weights 154 grams . what is the specific gravity of the urine? a. 1.013 c. 1.030 b. 1.027 d. 1.060 292. How much NaOH is needed to make 4 liters of a 1N solution? (M. W. Na=23; S=32; O=16; H=1) a. 5.5 c. 55.0 b. 11.1 d. 111.0 293. How many milligrams of CaCl2 are needed to prepare 100 ml of a 1 x10 -3 M solution? 294. (M. W. Ca=40; Ci=35.5) a. 5.5 c. 55.0 b. 11.1 d. 111.0 295. How much Na2SO4 is there in 400ml of a 4M solution? (M. W Na=23; S=32; O=16) a. 114g c. 190g b. 150g d. 227g 296. What is the normality of isotonic saline (0.85%)? (M. W. Na=23; CI=35.5) a. 0.014N c. 0.140N b. 0.028N d. 0.280N


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297. What is the normality of 4M NaOH? (M. W Na=23; O=16; H-1) a. 0.2N c. 2.N b. 0.4N d. 4.0N 298. A solution of HCI contains 84 grams per liter. What is the normality? (M. W. H=1; S=32;O=16) a. 1.8N c. 4.9N b. 3.6N d. 7.2N 299. What is the normality of a 3.6M sulfuric acid solution? (M. W. H=1: CI=35.5) a. 1.8N c. 4.9N b. 3.6N d. 7.2N 300. How many ml of 95 alcohol do you need to make 1 liter of a 70% solution? a. 74ml c. 737ml b. 136ml d. 1360ml 301. 302. Hno3 has a percent purity (assay) of 70 and specific gravity of 1.42. how many ml of concentrated acid are needed to make 500ml of 0.22N acid? a. 3.5ml c. 6.9ml b. 3.7ml d. 7.0ml 303. What percent solution is 0.4N HCI? (At. W. H. =1; CI=35.5) a. 1.42% c. 14.20% b. 1.46% d. 14.60% 304. What amount of 10N NaOH must be used to prepare 1 liter of 1N NaOH? a. 10ml c. 100ml b. 40ml d. 200ml 305. A serum calcium level of 10mg/dl would be expressed as how many mEq/L? (At. W. Ca=40) a. 4 c. 8 b. 5 d. 10 306. The microgram can be expressed as which of the following? a. 1/10 gram c. 1/1000 gram b. 1/100 gram d. 1/1000 mg e.

f. MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY 1. 2. 3. a. b. 4. a. b. 5. a. b. 6. 7. 8. a. b. 9. a. b. 10. a. b. 11. a. b.

g. Capsules can be used for a: Complements fixation c. Serotyping by swelling Hemagglutination test d. Precipitation test To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing: Antibiotics c. Serum Milk d. B and C The quelling test depends on the antigenic speficity of the: Nucleus c. Flagella Cell wall d. Capsule Dark staining granules are called: a. Spores c. Cysts b. Capsules d. Metachromatic Organisms that vary in size and shape are reffered to as: a.Psychrophillic c.Palisades b.Thermophillic d.Pleomorphic In the bacterial growth cycle ,growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in the: Stationary phase c. Lag phase Logarithmic phase d. A and B Which genera of bacteria form spores? Corynebacterium c. Clostridium Bacillus d. B and C Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are called: Anaerobes c. Capnophiles Aerobes d. Aerotolerants The temperatures at which bactewria groe best in known as: Thermophilic c. Optimum Psychrophilic d. Mesophilic A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 18

a. A 12. Blood Slimy agar colony is too onold blood agar medium indicates which of the c. following Plate was characteristics incubated toomay longbe present? b. Organism has a capsule d. Plate was incubated too high temperature 13. On blood agar paltes a small zone of alpha-hemoklysis surrounded by zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as: a. Gamma-hemolysis c. Alpha-hemolysis b. Beta-hemolysis d. Alpha-prime 14. When using fractional steritization the sequence is: a. Heating (kills vegetative bacteria) b. Incubation (spores germinate) c. Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria) d. AOTA 15. What is the most effective method of sterilization? a. Autoclave c. Boiling b. Dry heat oven d. Disinfection 16. Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven? a. Bacillus Subtilis c. Staphylococuss aureus b. Bacillus stearothermophilus d. Salmonelle lyuhi 17. Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility? a. Seits c. Millipore (0.5 um) b. Millipore (0.22 um) d. A and B 18. Media that cannot be heated can be steriLized by: a. Filtration c. Antiseptics b. Chemical disinfectants d. Cannot be steruilizede 19. Which of the the following is not a disinfectant? a.Phenol c.QUATS b.70% alcohol d.2% aquecus glutaraldehyde 20. Iodophors are composed of iodine and: a. Phenolic compound c. 70% alcohol b. Detergent d. 90-95% alcohol 21. Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by: a. Heat c. Organic material b. phearuginosa d. Tap water 22. What is the term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument, or environmental surface safe to handle? a. Decontamination c. Disinfectant b. Artyispesis d. Sterile 23. What do gram positive bacteria stain? a. Purple c. Red b. Green d. Maroon 24. The mordant used in the Zieht-Neelsen acid-fast-stain is: a. Grams iodine c. Heat b. Auramine d. Acid-alcohol 25. How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed? a. Methyl Alcohol c. Tergitol no.7 b. Acid alcohol d. Slide warmer at 65%C for 2 hours 26. Acid-fast bacteria appear w3hat color microscopically? a. Red c. Green b. Blue d. Purple 27. Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stained by whic of the following methods? a. Hiss c. Ziehi-Neelsen b. Kinyoun d. Negative stain 28. In the Ziohi-Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is: a. Heated saline c. Acetone + alcohol b. Acetone d. Alcohol + HCI 29. An example of an negative stain is: a. Auramine-rhodamine stain is c. India Ink stain b. Gyram stain d. Methylene blue stain 30. Which of the following is NOT gram-negative? a. Peptococcus c. Branhamella b. Salmonella d. Aeromonas 31. Which of the following is NOT an anaerobe? a. Veillonella c. Antinomyces b. Fusobacterium d. Campylobacter


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32. a. b. c. d. 33.

If a patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the following can neutralize the antimicrobials? Tryptic soyn broth Antihistamine Thiol broth Brain-heart infusion broth From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. This is most likely due to : a. Anaerobes b. Inhibition by antibiotics therapy c. Uncultivable bacteria e. G., rickettsiae, mycoplasma, M leprae d. The specimen being incubated instead of refrigerated 34. Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing? a. Antimicrobial Removal device c. Septi-Check b. Isolator d. NOTA 35. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in blood cultures because it a. Removes some antimicrobials b. Prevents phagocytosis c. Neuthalizes the bactericidal effect of human serum d. B and C 36. What is the most abundant normal flora in troat cultures? a. Micrococcus c. Escherichia coli b. Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus d. Legionella pneumophila 37. What is the most common pathogen is throat cultures? a. Group A streptococcus c. Staphylococcus edidermidis b. Alpha-hemolytic d. Coybobacterium diphtheriae 38. Why most blood agar plates for troat cultures be incubated aerobically and anaerobically when betahemolytic streptococci are suspected? a. Some may producebeta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions b. Streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions c. Streptococci only grow under anaerobic conditions d. Neither A or B 39. Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as: a. Hemophilus influenzae pertussis b. Neisseria, vibrio, bordetella pertussis c. Hemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix, Vibrio d. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria,LIsteria 40. Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for: a. Determination of mycobacterial growth rate b. Primary culture for anaerobes c. Stool enrichment for salmonella but not for shigella d. Cultuure of beta-hemolytic streptococci for flouresecnce microcopy 41. Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to: a. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria c. Stimulate gram-positive bacteria b. Inhibit gram-negative bacteria d. Stimulate gram-negative bacteria 42. Why is a first morning urine specimen preffered for urine cultures? a. Specimen is diluted c. Specimen is more concentrated b. Bacteria are all motile d. A and B 43. What indicates vaginal or uu8rethral contamination of urine? a.Many squqmous epithelial cel;ls c.1-2 RBCs/hpf b.Few white blood cells d.Morphous urates 44. In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how does the amount of agar added affect the dilution. a. Dilution is increased c. Dilution is increased 20% b. Dilution is decreased d. Dilution is not affected 45. Smears of cerebrospinal flyuid are prefared from: a. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment c. Heated cerebrospinal; b. Uncentrifuged cerebrospinal d. Frozen cerebrospinal fluid 46. Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are u8suall stained with; a. ACID-FAST=STAIN c. India ink stain b. Gram stain d. B and C 47. Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures isolated from cerebrospinal fluid is more sensitive and faster? a. Coagglutination tests c. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis test b. Latex agglutination tests d. Coagulase test


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a. 48. b. 49. a. b. 50. 51. a. b. 52. a. b. 53. a. b. 54. a. b. 55. a. b. 56. a. b. 57. a. b. 58. a. b. 59. a. b. 60. a. b. 61. a. b. 62. a. b. c. d. 63. a. b. 64.

72. a. b. c. d. 73. a.

Coagglutination protein Staphylococcal test A coasted with antiserum is used inc.which Counterimmunoelectrophoresis of the following serological tests on cerebrospinal Latex agglutination fluid?test d. ELISA Which of the following is not cause of a venereal disease? Nyelsseria gonorrthoeae c. Staphylococcuhs aureus Troponema pallitum d. Trichomonas vaginalis Using sheep blood foer blood agar pltes eliminates beta-hemolytics: Staphylococcus c. Streptococcus Neisseria d. Hemophllus A positive tube coagullase test is observed for: Bubbling c. Liquefaction Agglutination d. Clotting of plasma What type of plasma is used for the tube coagulase test? Rabbit c. Sheep Human d. Horse Some citrate-positive organisms cause a falkse-positive tube coagulase test because the organism uses the citrate And release calcium c. As a bets-lactamase As a source of calcium d. And release oxygen A nonhemolytic, catalaswe-positive, coagulase-nehgative, gram-positive coccus is most likely to be: Staphylococcus aureus c. Alpha-hemolytic streptococci Staphylococcus ediermidis d. Steptococcus faecalis The preffered method of differentiating S. Aureus from S. Epirmidis is: Catalase test c. Dnase/mannitol fermentation Coagulase test d. Phage typing Which of the following staphylococci is the cause of urinary tract infection in young females? S. Epidermidis c. S. Aureus S. Saprophyticus d. S. Nominis Staphylococcus aureous can be isolated from stool cultures by the use of: Potassium tellurite medium c. Medium with 7.5% salt concentration Macconkey nagar d. Lowenstein-Jensen medium The most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in the united state is: Clostridium botullinum c. Clostridium perfringens Staphylococcus aureus d. Shigella dysenteriae type 1 Which of the following gram-positive cocci ferment glucose? Staphylococci c. A and B Micrococci d. Neither A nor B Which hemolysin,produced by beta-hemolytic streptococci, is oxygen stable and nonantigenic? Streptolysin A c. Streptolysin G Streptolysin S d. Streptolysin O Cultures for beta-hermolytic streptococci must include: Incubation at 25 C to ensure growth of all strains Anaerobic incubation to detect hemolysis in all strains Incubationwiythy carbon dioxide Media with glucose to show typical hemolysis Which of the following is destroyed by oxygen? Botulism toxin c. Catalase Streplolysin O d. Coagulase Match the following organisms with the biochemical test that presumptively identifies them: 65. Tests may be used more than one time: 66. 1. Group A, beta-hemolytic streptococci a. hippurate hydrolysis positive 67. 2. Streptococcuspneumoniae b. CAMP test positive 68. 3. alpha-hemolytic streptococci c. bacitracin susceptible 69. 4. Group b, beta-hemolytic streptococci d. bile-esculin positive 70. 5. Enterococcus e. Optochin disk susceptible 71. f. optochin disk resistant Whenever a biochemical test is substituted for a serological test it is reported: By the genus and species name As presumptive with the name of the biochemical test By its common name NOTA CAMP is a factor produced by the group B beta-hemolytic streptococci that: Reduce the zone of lysis formed by the streptococci


21

b. c. d. 74. a. b. c. d.

Hydrolysis the B factor Causes a change in color Enlarge the zone of lysis formed by staphylococcal beta-hemolysis A positive quelling test is: Oxidation but not fermentation Virtual proof that the organism is a pathogen Visible only by fluorescent light From capsular swelling due to an antigen-antibody reaction 75. 76. Which of the following serological tests is used for a confirmatory test of streptococci? a. Phadebac test c. Lancefield precipitin test b. Fluorescent antibody test d. NOTA 77. When performing a bacitracin differentiation test for group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, use disks that have how many units? a. 10.00 units c. 0.02-0.04 b. 500 units d. 1.00-2.00 units 78. Match the disease in the first column with the organism in the second column. Letters in the second column may be used more than once: 79. 1. Scarlet fever a. group B streptococci 80. 2. Major pathogen of the newborn b. group A streptococci 81. 3. Step throat c. alpha-hemolytic streptococc 82. 4. Subacute bacteria endocarditis 83. What do optochin and bacitracin tests have in common? a. Autolysis is a negative result b. Growth inhibition is a positive result c. They should not be done on blood agar d. Either one will differentiate enterococci from viridens streptococci 84. The bilo-esculin test is used to differentiate: a. Enterococci from other group D c. Groupm D streptococci from other strep streptococci d. Group A from b streptococci b. Streptococci faecalli from listeria 85. Hippuratae hydrolysis is used to differentiate: a. Group A and Group b streptococci c. Listeria from streptococci b. Group B streptococci from enterococci d. Pneumococci from other viridians 86. A bacitracin-resistant, hippurate-hydrolysis positive bile-esculin positive, beta-hemolytic streptococcus that growns in 6.5 % NaCI is probably a/an: a. Pnemococcus c. Group D strep b. Enterococcus d. Diphtheroid 87. Pneumococci that arwe resistant to penicillkin should be tested for: a. Producti0n of beta-laclamase c. Growth in NaCl b. Bile solubility d. Resistant to bacitracin 88. Gram-negative, coffe bean-shaped diplococci with adjacent sides flattened is descriptive of which of the following? a. Neisseria c. Listeria b. Staphylocopccus d. Chlamydia 89. The diagnostic of gonerrhoesae in males can be made from: a. Positive urethral smear c. History AOTA b. Symptoms 90. Whioch of the following specimens may be appropriate for culturing neisseria gonorrhoeae? a. Eyes c. Oral cavity b. Rectum d. AOTA 91. What is the medium of choice for culturing gonococci and meningococci? a. Lowentien-jenser c. Sheeop blood agar b. Modified Thayer-Martin d. Potassium tellurite 92. Which of the following differentiates Thayer-Martin medium from modified Thayer-Martin medium? a. Nystatin c. Colstin b. Vancomycin d. Trimethoprim lactate 93. Thayer-Martin medium is basically a/an: a. Blood agar c. Enriched chocolate agar b. Enriched Macconkey agar d. Potassium tellunte agar 94. What color is a positive oxidase-positive? a. Moraxella c. Neisseria b. Aeromonas d. AOTA


22

95. Whena.performing Moraxella genera are oxidase-positive? c. Neisseria b. Aeromonas d. AOTA 96. When performing the oxidase test, which of the following techniques can be used? a. Put a drop of reagent on the colony b. Rub colony on a filter paper strip and add a drop of reagent c. Rub the colony on a piece of filter paper containing the reagent d. AOTA 97. 98. What do “PPNG” gonococci produce? a. Penicillin-producing goncciocci c. A and B b. Penicillinase-producing gonccocci d. Neither A nor B 99. Which of the following are methods for testing for the producyion of beta-factamase? a. Chromogenic cephalosporin method c. Iodometric method b. Acidometric method d. AOTA 100. Which of the following indicates a positive reaction for the beta-lactamase chromogenic cephalosporin method? a. Production of acid c. Reduction of nitrates b. Color change d. Decolorization of starch-iodine mixture 101. An oxidase positive,gram-negative, coccus from a troat culture might be: a. Staphylococcus c. Fusobacterium b. An ËEC d. Neisseria 102. A fastidious, oxidase-positive ,gram negative coccus from a rectal swab might be: a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Listeria b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Branhamella catarrhalis 103. Neisseria meningitidis degrades which of the following sugars? a. Glucose c. Lactose b. Maltose d. A and B 104. Which of the following tests xcan give a prasumtive identification of branhamella catarrhalis if the isolate is a gram-negative diplccoccus that is oxidase-positive and isolated from middle-ear fluid? a. Nitrate test c. Inudole test b. Urease test d. Beta-lactamase test 105. Why should beta-lactamase tests be performed with growth from primary isolation media? a. Plasmid coding for the enzyme may be lost on subculturing b. May react wiyh chemicals in the medium c. Because of the absorbance of oxygen from the medium d. NOTA 106. What is the purpose of potassium tellurite in tellurite medium? a. Inhibits the normal flora c. Enriches pleomorphism b. Enriches the medium d. Enhances granule production 107. Potassium Tellurite medium produces what color colories of corynebacterium diphtheriae? a. Green c. Red b. Blue d. Gray-Black 108. When culturing Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Which of the following media will enhance pleomorphism and granule production? a. Loeffter serum agar c. A and B b. Palcoagulated egg medium d. Neither A nor B 109. what is the morphology of corynecbacterium diphthenae? a. Gram-negative, motile cocci c. Gram-positive, nonmotile rods b. Gram-positive, motile cocci d. Gram-negative, nonmotile rods 110. The term “palisading”picket fence letter describe the common arrangnment of cell of: a. Corynebacterium b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis but not other mycobacteria c. Actinomyces but not nocardia d. Corynebacterium diphtheiae but not other cotrynebacteria 111. Babes-Ernst granules are characteristic of: a. Bacillus anthracis c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Listeria momocytogenes d. Corynebacterium diphtheria 112. Which of the following are considered diphtheroids? a. Corynebacterium xerosis c. Corynebacterium JK b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. A and C 113. Which of the following dipheroids is found in the normal throat? a. Propionibacterium xerosis c. Corynebacterium xerosis b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Rhodococcus equipment


23

114. The elect test is for the detection of: a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin, in vivo b. Corynebacterium diphtheriaetoxin, in vivo c. Bacillus anthracis toxin, in vivo d. Clostridium botulinum toxin, in vivo 115. The morphological cycle of rhodococcus equi from coccoid to rod form tales: a. 5 hours c. 24 hours b. 12 hours d. 48 hours 116. Which of the following is a gram-positive to gram-variables coccobacillus? a. Stapyhylococcus epidermidis c. Listeria monocytogenes b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae d. Haemophiluis influence 117. Listeria monocytoganes produces a positive in which of the following biochemical tests? a. Coagulase test c. Catalase b. Lactose dfermentation test d. A and C 118. Which of the following is a vilurence test for listeria monocytogenes? a. Elek test c. ELISA test b. Anton test d. Feeley-Gorman 119. Refrigiration of the specimen for several months may enhance isolation of: a. Psychrophillic blood bank c. Neisteria meningitidis contaminmants d. Actinomyces b. Listeria monocytogenes 120. Which opf the following will differentiate listeria monocytogenes from the corynebacteria? a. Nonmotile and salicine-negative c. Nitrate-positive and sucrose-negative b. Motile and salicin-positive d. Mobile and urease negative 121. Spore-forming cells in bamboo pole arrangement of bacillus anthracis can be fopund in: a. Specimen from patient Guinea pigs c. NOTA b. Cultures 122. Which aerobic, gram-positive,sporulating rods can cause food poisoning? a. Bacillus subtilis c. Mycobacterium phlei b. Bacillus cerrrreus d. Clostridium ramosum 123. Very large gram-negative rods with spore are in a nonturbid throglycollate broth culture of spinal fluid, but there is no growth anaerobically or aerobically. Thios is most likely due to: a. Too small an amount of inoculum that caused the organisms to die b. Exchange of genetic material between bacillus sp and Escherichia coli c. Bacillus sp. In the dehydrated medium are killed and made gram-negative by autoclaving the medium d. A very high spinal fluid glucose allows the Escherichia coli to multify in broth but not on solid medium 124. Match the following dyes or reagents used in the ziehi-neelsen acid fast training procedure in the second column with their purpose in the first column: 125. 1. Mordant a. acid (3% HCI)alcohol 126. 2. Primary dye b. dilute methylene blue 127. 3. Counterstain c. carbolfuchsin 128. 4. Decolorizer d. heat to speed staining 129. Non-acid-fast bacilli what color? a. Green c. Red b. Blue d. Orange 130. Acid fast stain that does not use heat as the colonies of mycobacteria can be examined microscopically? a. Methylene blue c. Gentian violet b. Malachite green d. Carbolfuchsin 131. An acid-fast stain that does not use heat as the mordant is which of the following? a. Truant flourochrome stain c. Kinyoun stain b. Ponder stain d. Gomori stain 132. Which of the following media is clear so that the colonies of mycobactweria can be examined microscopically? a. Mueller-hinton c. Blood agar b. Lowenstein-Jensen d. Middlebrook 7H11 133. What color is a negative enzymatic hydrolysis of tween 80 test? a. Red c. Green b. Amber d. Blue 134. Mycobacterial cultures should be incubated: a. In 5% carbon dioxide c. At25C b. In increased humidity d. Under anaerobic conditions 135. A slow-growing,unbranched, acid-fast rod that is nitrate reduction-negative and nlacin-negative is most likely to be:


24

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis c. Mycobacterium kansasii b. Mycobacterium bovis d. Actinomtyces israelil 136. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is best differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by: a. Growth rate c. Hydrolysis of tween 80 b. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests d. Catalase test at 68 c 137. 138. 139. 140. Which of the following are slow growers? a. Mycobacterium kansasil c. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare d. AOTA complex 141. Which differential test for identifying the species of Mycobacteriyum splits phenolphthalein from iripotassium phenolphthalein-sulfate within 2-3 days? a. Catalase test c. Arysulfatase test b. Tween 80 hydrolysis d. Nitrate reduction test 142. Which of the following is used mfor the identification of mycobacteria? a. Blochemical reactions c. Growth rate b. Pigment production d. AOTA 143. One tube of Lowenstein-Jensen medium is incubated covered with foil and one tube is incubated uncovered. when is the covered tube observed? a. When growth appears on the c. After 2 weeks of incubation uncovered tube d. At any time b. After 1 week of incubation 144. Which of the following belong to group IV (rapid growers)? a. Mycobacterium gordonae c. Mycobacterium phlei b. Mycobacterium smegamatis d. B and C 145. What are “lepra” cells? a. Neutrophils caontaining gram-negative cocci b. Basophils containing gram-positive diplococci c. Macrophages containing acid –fast bacilli d. Red blood cells containing acid-fast bacilli 146. Acid fast rods in a specimen from nasal mucosa: a. Are diagnostic for leprosy c. Are called “lepra cells” b. Must be cultured on hansens agar for d. Are not a diagnostic point definitive identification 147. The fite-faraco acid-fast stain is different from other acid-fast stains because it uses: a. Hematoxylin rather than methylene blue as a counterstain b. Carbon gentian violet rather than safranin as a counterstain c. Malachite green rather than hematoxylin as a counterstain d. India ink with no counterstain 148. The specimen is usually used for the diagnostics of Hansen’s disease? a. Tissue juice c. Sputum b. Blood d. Urine 149. “Lumpy jaw’ is caused by: a. Nocadia brasilliensis c. Antinomyces israella b. Trichophyton rubrum d. Microsporum canis 150. Which of the following is enaerobic? a. Actinomyces c. Mycobacterium b. Nocardia d. Bordetella 151. Which of the following is urease-positive? a. Salmonella c. Nocardia b. Shigella d. Chlamydia 152. NOcardia will grow on any media that does contain: a. Antibiotics c. Peptone b. Blood serum d. Agar 153. Match the organism in column 1 with the disease in column2: 154. 1. H. Influenzae a. normal flora in respiratory tract 155. 2. H. Ducreyl b. pinkeye 156. 3. H. Aegyptius c. Ulcerative chancroid 157. 4. H. haemolyticus d.meningitis 158. Which medium is preffered for the culture of most haemophilus? a. Nutient agar b. Tryptic soy agar


25

c. Bordet-gengou plates d. Enriched cholocate agar 159. A fastidious, small to filamentous , gram-negative rod from a nasopharyngeal swab is most likely to be: a. Actinomyces israell c. Branhamella catarrhalis b. Neisseria meningtidis d. Hemophilus influenzae 160. Cultures of staphylococcus supplies which of the following for cultures of haemophilus? a. Factor I c. X factor b. Factor III d. V wfactor 161. 162. What type of blood is used in blood agar plates for better production of beta-hemolysis of haemophilus? a. Horse c. Human b. Sheep d. Rabbit 163. Which of the following organisms cause whooping cough? a. Haemophilus haemolyticus c. Bordetelia pertussis b. Legionella pneumophila d. Streptococcus pneumoniae 164. Which of the following species of Bordetella are urease and oxidase-positive? a. Parapertussis c. Pertusis b. Bronchiseptica d. NOTA 165. The preffered medium for the isolation of bordetella pertussis: a. Bordet-gengou medium b. Chiocolaye agar c. Charcoal-caphalexin agar d. Clotted rabbit blood 140. A brucella isolate that does not produce H2S1, does not require CO2 and not inhibited by thionin of basic fushin is probably which pecies of brucella? a. Brucella canis c. Brucella suis, biotype 1 b. Brucella abortus,biotypes 1 d. Brucella melitensis, biotype 1 141. A gram-negative, fastidious bacillus that has been isolated from air-conditioning tower is: a. Proteus vulgaris c. Edwardsiella tarda b. Brucella abortus d. Legionella pneumophila 142. A gram-negative, fastidious bacillus that is difficult to stain by the gram stain is: a. Pruteus vulgais c. Edwardsiella tarda b. Brucells abortus d. Legionella pneumophila 143. A relatively slow growing anad fastidious, gramnegative rod that produces a characteristics brown pigment on Feeley-gorman agar is: a. Hemophlus influence c. Bordetella pertussis b. Legionella pneumophila d. Brucella melitensis 144. At the present time, which of the following is most sensitive for the diagnostic of infections with legionella pneumophila? a. Demonstration of a significant rise in antibody titer b. Isolation of organism by culture c. Direct visualatiopn of the organism in htissue d. Detection of soluble microbial products nin body fluids 145. The best medium for the isolation of legionella is: a. Iron-cystine agar c. V agar b. Campy-thio agar d. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar 146. What does the campy gas mexture consist of? a. 10% co2 c. 85% NITROGEN b. 5% o2 d. AOTA 147. Rice water stools often ncontain: a. A pur culture nof vibrio cholera c. Toxigenic staphylococcus aureus b. Toxigenic clostridium botulinum 148. A curved, gram-negative rod that is nonfermenutive, nitrate-positive and microaerophilic is: a. Flavobacterium c. Campylobacter jojuni b. Spinilum mi9nus d. Leptospira 149. Campylobacter is a an: a. Obligate microaerophuile c. Facultative anaerobe b. Obligate aerobe d. Obligate anerobe 150. A gram-negative, slender, curved rod with s single polr fiagellum is the cause of gastroenteritis and best isolated jon: a. Sheep blood agar c. Campy blood agar b. Human blood tween agar d. XLD agar 151. Clue cells may be found in infection with: a. Campylobacter coli b. Gardnerella vaginalis


26

c. Legionella pneumophila d. Brucella canis 152. Mycoplasmas are not true bacteriam because they: a. Have 4 nuclei c. Are anaerobic b. Grow rapidly d. Have no cell wall 153. Which of the following microorganisms form colonies that are embedded in the agar giving a fried egg appearance? a. Mycoplasmapneumoniae c. Clostridium difficile b. Mycobactyerium kansasii d. Ureaplasma urealyticum 154. What is the most method for the identification of mycoplasma species? a. Nitrate reduction test c. Radial immune diffusion test b. Inhibition of growth by specific antisera d. Production of acation 155. What is the purpose of enrichment fluid media when culturing enterobacteriate? a. Extends lagf phase of normal flora c. Extends lag phase of pathogens b. Decrease lag phase of pathogens d. A and B 156. Match each item in the first column with one or more of the media in the second column? 157. 1.____ eosin Y and methylene blue a. MacConkey medium 158. 2.____ lactose and sucrose b. Holt-Harris, EMB medium 159. 3.____ lactose only c. Levine”s EMB agar 160. 4.____ Crystal violet 161. 5.____ Bile salts 162. 6.____ Neutral red 163. 7. ____Lactose 164. 8. ____Black or purple colonies 165. 9.____ brick red colonies 166. 10.___ calories colonies 167. Nonfermenters produce what reaction in triple sugar iron agar (TSI)? a. Alkaline slant, Alkaline or neutral butt c. Alkaline saint, Alkaline butt b. Acid slant, acid butt d. Alkaline slant, acid butt 168. What is the hydrogen sulfide indivcator in triple sugar iron agar? a. Tryptophan c. Ferric ammonium citrate b. Sodium Thiosulfate d. Alpha-naphthol 169. IMViC is a series of which of the following teats? a. Indole, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, citrate b. Indole,motility, voges-proskauer, citrate c. Inositol,mannitol, voges-proskaue, citrate d. Isositol, methyl red, Voges-Proskauer, carbohydrate 170. What is the indicator in the methyl red test? a. Bromthymol blue c. Bromcresol purple b. Phenol red d. Methyl red 171. Most enter bacteria cease give what type methyl red and voges-Proskauer reactions? a. Opposite c. Identical b. Similar d. NOTA 172. What is the indicator in simmons citrate agar? a. Phenol red c. Bromoreasol purple b. Bromthmol blue d. Neutral red 173. Match each item in the first column with one or more of the media in the second column: 174. a. salmoneilla-shigella (SS) 175. b. Bismuth-Sulfite (BS) 176. c. Xylose-lysine-deoxycholate 177. d. hoktoen Entric agar ebrilliant green agar 1. ___ glucose (dextrose) 2. ___ Lactose only 3. ___ Lactose, sucrose, salicin 4. ___ ferrous sulfate 5. ___ phenol red 6. ___ brilliant green onlyn; inhibitor for gram-positive organisms and coliforms: 7. ___ bile salts and brilliant green 8. ___ ferric(ammonium )citrate+sodium thiosulfate 9. ___ xylose, lactose, sucrose 10. ___ Bromthymol blue and acid tuchsin 11. ___ Neutral red 12. ___ Red colonies 13. ___ Colorless colonies


27

14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

___ Red colonies with black centers ___ Black colonies surrounded by black zone with metallic sheen ___ Green colonies ___ Blue green colonies with black centers ___ Orange-salmon pink colonies ___ Citrate to inhibit coliforms and proteins ___ Whitish snowflake colony surrounded by brilliant red agar 178. 179. Which of the following amino acid are used in the test to decarboxylase? a. Cadaverine, putrescine, ornithine c. Lysine, arginine, ornithine b. Ornithine, arginine, cadaverine d. Arginine, putrescine, cadaverine 180. Testing 3 amino acid would require 4 tubes, WHY? a. 2btubes are needed for testing lysine c. 1 tube is neede for a control b. 2 tubes are neede for testing arginine d. Only 3 tubes are needed 181. Which of the following is an enzyme that removes the amino group (NH2) from an amino acid? a. Decardoxylase c. Gelatine b. Urease d. Deaminase 182. Organisms that produce urease do what to the medium? a. Produce phenylphruvic acid c. Hyydrolyze area to NH$ OH b. Liquefy the medium d. Produce hydrogen sulfide 183. Hydrogen sulfide production, other than in triple sugar iron agar require: a. An organic source of sulfure c. A butter b. A source of metal d. A and B 184. What color indicates a negative result in the molonate utilization test? a. Green c. Blue b. Yellow d. A and B 185. Gelatinase breaks down gelatine to: a. Sodium malonate c. Hydrogen sulfide b. Amino acids d. Aceton 186. What indicates a positive dnase result after 0.1N HCI is added to the plate? a. Gels on reprigeration c. Agar becomes cloudy b. Groen slant d. Agar clears around the colony 187. The DNase test is based on: a. Color b. Terbidity indicating growth in a medium containing DNA c. Destruction of sugars in the culture medium d. Product detection of DNA degradation by DNase 188. If the negative nitrate reduction test doest not change color after the powdered zinc is added, how is it reported? a. Positive c. Negative b. Doubtful d. Do not report 189. Saimonella, shigella,Escherichia coll, and serratia are all: a. Dextrose-negative b. Lactose-negative c. Common hospital-aquired uninary tract infectious agents d. Members of Enterobactrianceae 190. What is the purpose of the ONPG test? a. Determines that amount of glucose c. Determines the amount of sucrose b. Determines the Fermentation of d. Detects slow lactose fermenters sucrose 191. An organisms isolated from a urine culture has the following reactions: gram-negative rod: TSI A/AG +G; IMVIC + motile: urease-negative: Which of the following organisms is it? a. Enter bacteria cloacae c. Klebsiella pneumoniae b. Serratia marcescens d. Escherichia coli 192. An organisms isolatedfrom a blood culture has the following reactions: Gram-negative rod; TSIA A/A+G; IMVIC..++: motile;lysine decarboxylase- negative; no capsule;;Which of the following organisms is it? a. Enter bacteria cloacae c. Klebslella pneumoniae b. Escherichia coli d. Serratia marcescens 193. An organisms isolated from a blood culture has the following: reactions:Gram-negative rod.,urease and phenylalanine doeminase positive;;; TSI K/A +G,-H2S: lysine decarboxylase-negative and opmithine decarboxylase-positive;:.Which of the following organisms is it? a. Proteus mirabilis c. Morganella morgani b. Providencia alcalifaciens d. Proteus vulgaris


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194. An organisms isolated from a stool culture has the following reactions: gram negative rod; uresaes and phenylalanine demaninase negative:TSI K/A-G_H2S; lysine decarboxylase negative ;nonmotile;;Which of the organisms is it? a. Salmonella subgroup 3 (Arizona) c. Shigella spp. b. Proteus mirabilis d. Citrobacter freundli 195. 196. 197. Which of the following allows viability of acid production by oxidizers in oxidation-fermentation (o-F) medium? a. Carbohydrate contents is high c. Peptone content is low b. Sodium chloride content is low d. Peptone content is high 198. An organism isolated from a stool culture has the followinh reactions; gram-negative rod; urease and phenyialanine deaminase negative TSIA k/A +G,+h2S;motile; lysine decarboxylase-positive;indolepositive:Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Yersinia enterrocolitica c. Vibrio cholera b. Aeromonas hydrophila d. B and C 199. Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Yersinia anterocolitica c. Vibrio cholera b. Aeromonas hydrophila d. B and C 200. Which of the following is the reagent used for the string test? a. Methyl red c. Carbonate b. Bromthymol blue d. ).%% sodium desoxycholate 201. Any organism that is indole-positive and nitrate reduction-positive is also: a. ONPG positive c. Ornithine decarboxylase-negative b. Cholera red-positive d. Phenylalanine deaminase-positive 202. How many tubes of oxidation-fermentation media is are inoculated and what precautions should be taken? a. 1 tube, under aerobic conditions b. 2 tubes, one covered with oil so air excluded c. # tubes, under anaerobic conditios d. 2 tubes, under aerobic conditions 203. Which of the following is oxidase-positive? a. Moraxella osloensis c. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype b. Xanthomonas maltophilla anitratus d. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype lwoff 204. Which of the following is part of the normal m flora of the skin? a. Alcaligenes faecalis c. Acinetobacter calcoaceticus biotype lwoff b. Xanthomonas maltophilia d. Moraxella osloensis 205. What does PRAS mean? a. Prereduced, aerobically sterilized c. Phosphate, rifampin, aerobically sterilized b. Preerduced, anaerobically sterilized d. Penicillin, rfampin, anaerobically sterilized 206. Why should thiolycollate broth be boiled for 10 minutes before being used? a. To drive off oxygen c. To activate the thioglycollate b. To drive off hydrogen d. To deactive the thioglycollate 207. Nagler agar is a selective medium for? a. Bacteroides c. Clostridium b. Proplonibacterium d. Arachnia 208. Peptococcus and peptostreptococcus are both: a. Anaerobic, gram-positive cocci c. Common agents of meningitis b. Microaerophilic d. Resistant to penicillin 209. Proplonibacteria are: a. Anaerobic, gram-positive rods c. Aerobic, gram negative rods b. Anaerobic, Gram-negative rods d. Aerobic, gram-positive rods 210. A gram-negative, anaerobicoccus that produces a red fluorescence under ultraviolet light is: a. Peptococcus c. Neisseria b. Veillonella d. fusobacterium 211. Which anaerobics, gram-positive rods produce terminal ”lollipop” spores? a. Ciostridium tetani c. Clostridium butyricum b. Eubacterium lentum d. Bacteroides ureolyticus 212. Which of the following anaerobes causes an antimicrobial-associated diarrhea? a. Clostridium ramosum c. Clostridium butyricum b. Clostridium difficile d. Clostridium alactolyticum 213. Which of the following clostridla produce a double zone a hemolysis around colonies on blood agar? a. Clostridium perfringens b. Clostridium tetani


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c. Cllostridium sphenoides d. Clostridium difficele 214. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is incubated: a. Aerobicvally, in a sealed container, in c. Aerobically carbon dioxide d. NOTA b. Anaerobically in a GASPAk 215. 216. 217. A positive urease test for ureaplasmas is indicated by a: a. `clear zone surrounding the colonies c. Brown halo surrounding the colonies b. Green zone surrounding tyhe colonies d. Red halo surrounding the colonies 218. Which of the following organisms produce no hazr in a broth culture? a. Mycopllassma hominis c. Staphylococcus aureus b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Mycloplasma pneumoniae 219. What is the cause of primary a typical pneumonia? a. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Staphylococcus aureus b. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae 220. Which of the following has both ribonucleic acid (RNA) and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? a. Rickettsia c. Viruses b. Chlamydia d. A and B 221. Rickettsias are transmitted by: a. Mosquitoes c. Contamination b. Aerosol d. Arthropod vectors 222. Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia? a. Tyuphus c. Typhoid fever b. Q fever d. Rocky mountain spotted fever 223. Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wail? a. Viruses and chlamydias c. Rickettsias and chlamydias b. Myccplasma and chlamydias d. Rickettsias and viruses 224. Which of trhe following is a small nonmotile, coccobacillus that is cultured in yolk sac of a chick embryo? a. Chlamydia c. Rickettsia b. Mycoplasma d. Bifidobacterium 225. Chlamydia are cultured in: a. Yolk sac of chick embryo c. Blood agar b. Mccoy cells d. NOTA 226. Genital cultures for sexually transmitted diseases include all of the following, except: a. Chlamydia trachomatis c. T. Pallidum b. Herpes simplex virus d. Campylobacter coli 227. “TRIC”conjunctivitis includes which of the following? a. Inclussion conjunctivitis c. Trench fever b. Trachonia d. A and B 228. Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on genital smears? a. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay c. Direct FA usisng monocional abs (ELISA) d. Indirect FA using Chlamydia ags b. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) 229. What is the common tick-borne disease in the U>S? a. Botulism c. Lyme disease b. Cholera d. Legionnaires 230. What is erythema enronicum migrants (ECM)? a. Cardinal sign of lyme disease at site of tick bite b. Detects the entry of hookworm larvae c. Initial stage in psittacosis d. Rash in ricketnsial infectios 231. What are broad spectrum antibiotics? a. Act against gram-negative bacteria c. Act against bacterial and nonbacterial b. Act against gram-positive bacteria organisms d. AOTA 232. Subtances, produced by microorganisms, that is very small amounts inhibit other microorganisms are called: a. Antibiotixcs c. Antiseptic b. Antibody d. A and B 233. Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following? a. Cause death of the organism c. A and B b. Inhibit the growth of the organism d. Neither A nor b


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234. Thea.time Full-life takes half a dose of antibiotic to disappear from the blood c. isHalf-life called the: b. Absorption time d. Real-life 235. Resistance to an antibiotic can be transferred from resistant to a susceptible organism by a. Selectivity pressure c. Innate passage b. Mutation d. Extrachromosomal plasmid 236. 237. In the Kirby –Bauer susceptibility test, the 0.5 Mcfarland standard is used to a. Measure the thickness of the media in the Petri plate b. Determine how close the antibiotic discs should be placed c. Adjust the turbidity of the inoculums d. AOTA 238. After inoculating the Mueller-Hinton plates for the Kirby Bauer susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before adding the disk? a. 3-5 minutes c. 30 minutes b. Not more tahn 15 minutes d. A and B 239. How does one measure the zone of growth inhibitor correlate with if the correct procedure has been used? a. On the underside of the plate c. Using a ruler, calliper or template b. With the unaided eye d. AOTA 240. What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate with if the correct procedure has been used? a. Maximum inhibitory concentration c. Minimum lethal concentration b. Minimum inhibitory concentration d. Minimum bactericidal concentration 241. If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton plate when perfo ming a Kirby –Bauer susceptibility test, what will happen to the growth? a. Larger zone c. Confluent growth b. Smaller zone d. Band C 242. Which of the following are the best indicators of poor storage? a. Chloramhenicol and cephalosporins c. Penicillin and methicillin b. Lincomycin and penicillin d. Methicillin and linomycin 243. In Mueller Hinton agar, what can cause increased resistance of Psedomonas aeruglnosa to aminoglycosides a. Decrease peptone c. Increased calcium and magnesium b. Decreased sodium chloride d. Decreased calcium and magnesium 244. When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides, there are two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be measured? a. Measure the diameter of the inner zone c. Measure the both zones and take the b. Measure the diameter of the outer zone average size d. Zone cannot be measured 245. The lowest concentration of drug that will kill all but the minimum defined proportion of viable organisms after incubation for a fixed time under a given set of conditions is definition of the a. Minimum lethal concentration c. Maximum lethal concentration b. Minimum bactericidal concentration d. A and B 246. For quality control when monitoring reagents, how often should reagent disks be checked? a. When container is first opened c. Once each month b. Once each week of use d. A and B 247. How often should catalase , oxidase , and coagulase reagents be tested? a. Once each day of use c. When vial is first opened b. Once each week of use d. A and C 248. Record temperature of incubators, water baths, heating blocks, refrigerators, freezers and thermometers a. At each time of use c. At the end of each day b. At the beginning of each day d. AOTA 249. Check the face velocity of safety cabinets each a. Day c. Month b. Week d. Year 250. Settings of rpms marked on the face of therheostat control on the centrifuge should bechecked once a. Weekly c. Monthly b. Daily d. Every other week e.

f. MICROBIOLOGY /MYCOLOGY g. 1. – 2. Characteristically , fungl: a. Are members of the plant kingdom c. Lack of chlorophyll b. Lack roots and stems d. AOTA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 //

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3. Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym for a. Sepatate hyphase c. Paseudohyphea b. Arthroconidia d. Aseptate hyphae 4. Which type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host? a. Deep mycoses c. Superficial mycoses b. Cutaneous d. Systemic mycoses 5. Arthrononidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within the hair shaft is called a. Ectothrix c. Dimorphic b. Endothrix\scutula 6. True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage? a. Chlamydospores c. Balstoconidia b. Favic chandeliers d. Arthroconidia 7. Septate hyphae have a. No divisions c. Pseudohyphae b. Divisions d. Vegetative parts 8. Molds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal structure called a a. Conidiophores c. Thallospore b. Sporangiophore d. Zygospora 9. The basic , branching, intertwining structures of molds are referred to as a. Mycelium c. Cohidia b. Phizoids d. Spores 10. Arthroconidia are formed a. Directly from the hyphae by fragmentation b. By daughter cells piching off from portions of the mother cell c. By knots of twisted hyphae d. Within the hyphae 11. Mycelia within the colony that grow into the substrate are called a. Aerial hyphae c. Macroconidia b. Conidiophores d. Vegetative hyphae 12. Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred to as a. Spirals c. Intercalary b. Terminal d. Sessile 13. Budding forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a single mother cell or forms laterally from a mycelium or pseudomycelium are called a. Blastopsores c. Ascospores b. Chlamydospores d. Sporanglopores 14. Which of the following are the result of asexual reproduction? a. Arthrospores c. Zygospores b. Ascospores d. B and C 15. Conidia are a. Asexual spores c. Vegetative spores b. Sexual spores d. Asexual or sexual spores 16. Macroconidia are usually a. Multicellular c. Square b. Unicellular d. Rectangular 17. The swollen portion of the conidiophores is called the a. Spherule c. Sterigmata b. Sporangium d. Vesicle 18. Which of the following statements does not apply to true yeasts? a. Ascospores are produced in the sexual phase b. Blastospores are the sexual reproductive form c. Saccharomyces is a representative of this group d. They exhibit thermal dimorphism 19. Conidia with rough or spiny surfaces are described as a. Catenate c. Pedunculate b. Echinulate d. Seasile 20. Conidia in chains are said to be a. Catenate c. Pedunculate b. Echinulate d. Sessile 21. When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements , why is the slide gently heated? a. Preserves the specimen c. Mounts the specimen b. Increase the rate of clearing d. AOTA


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22. Whicha.ofLactophenol the followingcotton acts as blue a clearing agent to eliminate debris and c. make 70% alcohol fungal elements more prominent in skin, b. 10% hair,KOH and nalls? d. Ether 23. What is the stain in Aman medium? a. Cotton blue c. Prussian blue b. Methylene blue d. Bromthymol blue 24. Which of the following is negative stain? a. Periodic acid Schiff stain c. Acridine orange stain b. Giemsa stain d. India ink stain 25. In the periodic acid Schiff stain (PAS), what colors denote the presence of glycogen? a. Blue to green c. Pink to red b. Red to violet d. Yellow to brown 26. Which of the following stains is used for sharp delineation of fungal elements by fluorescent microscopy? a. Gomoli methenamine silver c. Hematoxylin b. Calcoflour white d. Eosin 27. When the fungus wall is invisible with the hematoxylin and eosin stain, which of the following may be used to restain the slide? a. Acid fast stain c. Gram stain (Hucker modification) b. Periodic acid Schiff stain d. Gomori methenamine silver stain 28. Fungal elements in the acridine orange staining procedure a. Stain red c. Stain purple b. Do not stain d. Fluoresces a green color 29. How does MYCOSEL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose agar? a. Contains chloramphenicol and cycloheximide b. Does not contain dextrose c. Contains an indicator d. Stimulates the production of chlamydospores 30. Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and maintenance of fungal cultures? a. Sabouraud dextrose agar c. Staibs medium b. Cornmeal agar d. Rice agar 31. What is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test medium? a. Methyl red c. Bromcresol purple b. Phenci red d. Methyl orange 32. If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, trichophyton rubrum can be differentiated from Tricophyton mentagrophytes by the production of a. Hyphae c. Pigment b. Ascospores d. Sporangia 33. Fungi should be incubated at a. 25-30 C c. 35-37C b. 10-15C d. 50-56C 34. How long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as negative a. 5 days c. 48 hours b. 14 days d. 30 days 35. Which of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated material? a. Penicillin and streptomycin c. Cyclohemixide and chloramphenicol b. Vancomycin and nystatin d. Streptomycin and nystatin 36. Which of the following media stimulates the productionof chlamydospores? a. Brain heart infusion blood agar c. Cornmeal agar b. Czaapek’s agar d. Urease test medium 37. Which of the following media identifies species of aspergillus? a. Urease medium c. Czapek’s agar b. Rice agar d. Ascospore agar 38. A positive result for the hair baiting test is a. V-shaped penetration of the hair shaft c. The production of red pigment b. The production of germ tubes d. The production of brown pigment 39. A tinea infection is commonly referred to as a. Taeniasis c. Pityriasis b. Ringworm d. Piedra 40. Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra? a. Trichosporon beigelli c. Piedraia horate b. Microsporum canis d. Malassoizia furfur 41. Tinea ungulum is a dermatophyte infection of the a. Nall plates b. Beard


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c. Palm of hand d. Feet 42. The favus type tinea capitis is caused by which of the following? a. Trichophyton rubrum c. Microsporum canis b. Trichophyton tonsurans d. All of these organisms 43. 44. Which of the following are/is anthrophillic? a. Microsporum audouin c. Microsporum gypseum b. Microsporum canis d. All of these organisms 45. Hairs infected with which of these dermafophytes fluoresce under Wood’s lamp? a. Trichophyton rubrum c. Microsporum canis b. Trichophyton tonsurans d. Epidermophyton floccosum 46. Colonization by dematophytic fungi of the hair, nails and skin is called a. Mycetoma c. Phaeohyphomycosis b. Chromoblastomycosis d. Dermatophytoses 47. Which of the following fungi is/are the cause of dermatophytoses? a. Epidermophyton c. Microsporum b. Trichophyton d. AOTA 48. 49. Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular and club shaped with smooth walls? a. Fonsecaea pedrosol c. Epidermoph NOCCOSUM b. Microsporum audouinii d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes 50. Which statement is NOT true? a. Trichophyton mentagrophytes is urease positive b. Terichophyton mentagrophytes penetrates the hair shaft c. Terichophyton rubrum is noted for its “balloon forms d. Terichophyton rubrum produces a rod pigment on some media 51. Which of the following produces small, very slow growing colonies and has favic chandeliers? a. Terichophyton tonsurans c. Trichophyton schonie b. Microsporum canis d. Epidemophyton floccosum 52. Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosia a. Flowerette conidia c. Sclerotic body b. Asteroid body d. Genn tube 53. Which of the following are found in the yeast phase of sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37C? a. Sclerotic bodies c. Cigar shaped yeast cells b. Asteroid bodies d. Germ tube 54. Which of the following is the result of an antigen antibody reaction in cases of sporotrichosis? a. Sclerotic body c. Sleave conidia b. Flowerette conidia d. Asteroid body 55. In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schencikii, single conidia bome along the sides of the hyphae are referred as a. Cigar shaped c. Asteroid body b. Flowerette d. Sleeve 56. Which of the following infections is caused by dematiaceous saprobes that invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts? a. Phaephyphomycosis c. Hyalohyphomycosis b. Chromoblastomycosis d. Dermatophytoses 57. The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the U. S is a. Pseudoallescheria boydii c. Rhinosporidium seeberi b. Nocardia asteroids d. Actinomadura madurae 58. Dematiaceous fungi have colonies with: a. Surface and reverse side light c. Surface light and reverse side dark b. Surface and reverse side dark d. Surface dark and reverse side light 59. Which of the following are a dematiaceous fungi? a. Sporotrichum and aspergillus c. Penicillin and acremonium b. Phialophora and cladosporium d. Fusarlum and paecilomyces 60. – 61. Sclerotic bodies are found in the tissue in an infection with a. Candida c. Chrysosporum b. Cladosporium d. Coccidioides 62. Infection of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the following fungi? a. Exophiala c. Phiatophora b. Cladosporum d. Fonsecaea 63. A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37 C and a mold at 25C is described as a. Monomorphic b. Mycelia


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c. Dimorphic d. Eumycetic 64. True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as a. Eumycotic c. Dimorphic b. Monomorphic d. Yeasts 65. Which of the following causes and infection by hyaline saprobes that invade most tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed hosts? a. Aspergillus c. Fusarium moniliforme b. Penecillum marnefici d. AOTA


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66. In you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores , report the organism as a. Scedosporidium apiospermum c. Nocardia asteroids b. Actinomyces israelii d. Pseudoalloscheria boydii 67. The actinomycetes are best classified as a. Acid-fast bacteria c. Funguslike bacteria b. Eumycetes d. Opportunistic fungi 68. Which of the following is anaerobic, gram positive but not acid fast and does not stain with fugal stains? a. Nocardia asteroids c. Actinomyces israelii b. Nocardia braciliensis d. Actinomadura madurae 69. Which of the following has a capsule? a. Candida albicans c. Crytococcus neoformans b. Geotrichum candidum d. Blastomyces dermatitis 70. When culturing crytococcus on Sabcuraud dextrose agar, which of the following antibodies should be in the medium? a. Trimethropin c. Aminoglycoside b. Vancomycin d. Cycloheximide 71. In the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid, which of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte? a. Candida c. Geotrichum b. Crytoccus d. Blastomyces 72. Why does crytoccus neoformans produce a brown color on Birdseed or staib agar? a. Assimilates creatinine c. Ferments glucose b. Assimilates niacin d. Ferments trehalose 73. Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects crytococcal: a. Creatinine c. Carbohydrate b. Antibody d. Antigen 74. Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid detects cryptococcal: a. Creatinine c. Carbohydrate b. Antibody d. Antigen 75. Candida albicans produces a. Blastospores c. Pseudohyphae b. Chlamydospores d. AOTA 76. Which of the following is another name for oral candidiasis? a. Ringworm c. Barbers itch b. Thrush d. Favus 77. A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by checking the ability of he organism to produce what structure with serum a. Blastospores c. Germ tube b. Chlamycospores d. Pseudohyphae 78. Cornmeal agar plus tween 80 is used to identify candida albicans through the organism production of a. Capsules c. Germ tubes b. Chlamydospores d. Sporangia 79. Geotrichum candidum colonies appear as a. Slow growing dematiaceous growth c. Slow growing, violet, waxy growth b. Rapid,yeastlike growth d. Rapid growing suede like growth 80. Laboratory workers are in no danger when handling which form of dimorphic fungi? a. Yeast form (tissue) c. A and B b. Hyphal form (culture) d. Neither A nor B 81. Sepedonium produces spiny , tuberculate macroconidla but is a a. Dimorphic fungus c. Monomorphic mold b. Yeastlike fungus d. A and B 82. Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum? a. Rectangular, evenly staining c. Cigar-shaped yeast cells arthroconidia d. Uberculate macrocchidia b. Small, budding yeast cells 83. Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi? a. Hitoplasma capsulatum c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis b. Blastomyces dermatitidis d. AOTA 84. 85. The tissue phase of Histoplasma capsulatum, characteristically shows: a. Pseudohyphae with blastospores c. Yeast cells within macrophages b. Yeast forms with multiple buds d. Tuberculate chlamydospores 86. The characteristics structures of the mycelia phase of Histoplasma capsulanum are


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87. 88. 89. 90. 91.

92. 93. 94.

a. Blastopores c. Tuberculate chlamydospores b. Arthrospores with a germ tube in one d. Yeast cells usually in monocytes corner Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because Leishmania has: a. A different size c. Central nuclear material b. A different shape d. NOTA Which of the following tests may be sued instead of conversion when identifying dimorphic fungi? a. Exoantigen test c. Immunofluorescence test b. String test d. ELISA In the mycelia form, Blastomyces dermatitidis produces a. Conidiophores that resemble lollipops c. Broad, nonseptate , hyphae b. Wide, septate hyphae d. Delicate, branching , acid fast hyphae A yeast from with a single broad based bud would identify an oraganism as a. Blastomyces c. Histoplasma b. Coccidloides d. Sporothrix The characteristic structures of the mycellial phase of blastomycosis are a. Clusters of blastopores c. Numerous intercalary or terminal b. Small pear-shaped conidia called chlamydospores lollipos d. Spherures filled with endospores Yeastlike forms with multiple buds are characteristic forms associated with a. Blastomyces dermatitis c. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis b. Candida albicans d. Sporothrix schenci Immature spherules of coccidioides are differentiated from yeast forms of Blastomyces because a. They produce buds c. Their buds have a narrow base b. Their buds have a wide base d. They never bud Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard to laboratory personnel? a. Coccidiodes immits b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Fonsecaea pedrosoi d. Histoplasma capsulation


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95. The exoantigen test is a/an a. Indirect passive agglutination test c. Neutralization test b. Microscopic immunodiffusion test d. Rocket electrophoresis technique 96. In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands are present in appositive result? a. H and/or M c. A and/or D b. J and/or L d. O and/or P 97. When differentiating histoplasma capsulatum from Leishmania using special fungus stains, Leishmania stains? a. Red c. Blue b. Green d. Will not stain 98. Which of bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces dermatitidis is present in a positive result? a. A c. H b. G d. M 99. Which of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled with endospores ?

e.

f. MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY g. 1. The motile, reproducing stage, feeding stage of the Protozoa is which of the following? a. Cyst c. Ova b. Trophozoite d. Adult worm 2. Which of the following amebae has chromatoid bodies in the cyst stage? a. Endolimax c. Dientamoeba b. Iodamoeba d. Entamoeba 3. Amebiasis is caused by a. I. bustchli c. E. Histolytica b. E. Polecki d. E. Coli 4. Which of the following organs of the body is most often involved in extraintestinal amebiasis? a. Lungs c. Pancreas b. Kidneys d. Liver 5. Which of the following is characteristic of true amebae? a. Peripheral chromatin on the nuclear c. Include pathogens and nonpathogens body d. AOTA b. Chromatin bodies in the cyst 6. Which of the following is a true ameba? a. E. Ana c. D. fragilis b. E. Hartmanni d. I. butschlii 7. Amebae that inhibits the gastrointestinal tract of man are nonmotile nonfeeding and infective during which stage? a. Pseudopod c. Trophozolite b. Cyst d. Cryptozoite 8. Mature cysts of E. Polecki have how many nuclei? a. 2 c. 1 b. 8 d. 0 9. Which of the following has cysts with chromatoid bodies that have two pointed ends or that can be round, triangular or oval/ a. E. Coli c. E. Histolytica b. E. Hartmann d. E. Nana 10. Trophozoites of Entamoeba histolytica have the following characteristics a. Small, delicate nuclear chromatin b. Fine , even , peripheral chromatin c. Progressive motility with hyaline, finger like pseudopods d. AOTA 11. Which of these trophozoites , when acting as a pathogen , is likely to ingastred blood cells of the host? a. E. Coli c. E. Histolytica b. E. Hartmann d. E. Nana A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 38

12. The point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and E. Hartmanni is: a. Presence of peripheral chromatin b. Presence of chromatoid bodies c. Only one possesses a cyst form d. Size 13. The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei? a. One c. Four b. Two d. More than four 14. Failure to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid should alert one to find the possibility of an infection with: a. Viruses c. flagellates b. Amebae d. Worms 15. – 16. Which trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomai chromatin? a. E. Nana c. E. Coli b. E. Histolyca d. I. butschlii 17. Which of the following wouyld have a double walled wrinkled cyst form? a. N. Fowleri c. A. Castellanii b. E. Hartmanni d. D. fragilis 18. A cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a large glycogen vacuole that stains deeply with iodine belong to a. E. Nana c. D. fragilis b. I . butschlii d. E. Coli 19. Some amebae have a spiny, hyaline extensions called/ a. Pseudopods c. Cribriform plates b. Limax forms d. Acanthopods 20. Which are the best staining procedures for species of naegleria and Acanthamoeba? a. Gram stain c. Wright stain b. Hermotoxylin and eosin d. B and C 21. Amebae inhabiting the central nervous systems enter the body through the a. Mouth c. Ears b. Nasal mucosa d. Feet 22. In which specimen are Acathamoeba and naegleria usually found? a. Blood c. Urine b. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Joint fluid 23. Naegleria has which of the following characteristics? a. Found in the brain c. Trophozoite can become an ameba b. Trophozoite can assume a limax form flagellate d. AOTA 24. The tropozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a rosette of 4-6 granules is identified as a. N. Fowleri c. T. Gondii b. D. fragilis d. B. Coli 25. Which of the following are often mistaken for cysts of amebae? a. Blastocystis hominis c. Ammonium magnesium phosphate b. Ammonium carbonate crystals crystals d. Epithelial cells 26. Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite stage? a. Round c. Pear shaped b. Oval d. Triangular 27. Which of the following is pathognomonic for G. Lamblla and the stage it is found in? a. Spiral groove –trophozoite c. Cytostome –trophozoite b. Undulating membrane –cyst d. Ventral sucking disk-trophozoite 28. Which of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane? a. Trichomonas c. Chilomastix b. Trypanosoma d. A and B 29. Infections with D. fragills can show which of the following symptoms? a. Diarrhea c. Asymptomatic b. Abdominal discomfort without diarrhea d. AOTA 30. What does D. fragills can show which of the following symptoms? a. Both are ciliate c. Neither has a cyst form b. Both can appear as urine contaminants d. AOTA 31. Which flagellate can be a pathogen of the small intestine? a. Giardia c. Chilomastix b. Trichomonas d. Strongyloides


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32. – 33. Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disc , 2 nuclei, 8 flagella and an exostyle? a. C. Meshili c. G. Lamblia b. D. fregilis 34. Red and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristic of a. Meningoencephalitis c. Giardiasis b. Bacillary dysentery d. NOTA 35. A pear shape flagellate with jerky motility that is found in a urine specimen is identified as a. T. Hominis c. E. Coli b. T. Vaginalis d. Leptospira 36. Eighty percent of the trophozoites of D. fragilis have: a. 2 nuclei c. 1 nuclei b. 3 nuclei d. No nuclei 37. The onlybilaterally symmetrical protozoan is a. Trichomonas c. Giardia b. Dientamoeba d. Balantidium 38. Which of the following is the intracellular form of blood and tissue flagellates? a. Crithidial c. Trypanosomal b. Leishmanial d. Leptomonad 39. Which of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness? a. Leishmania c. Plasmodium b. Trypanosoma d. Babesia 40. Which of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness? a. Reduviid bug (Triatoma) c. Tsetse fly (Glossina) b. Sandfly (Phlebotomus) d. Ticks 41. Which species of Trypanosoma is the cause of Chagas disease? a. Rhodesiense c. Gambiense b. Cruzi d. A and C 42. Which of the following is characteristic of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness/ a. Prominent kinetoplast c. Thick organism b. C-shaped d. AOTA 43. Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of the trypanosomes of sleeping sickness? a. Blood c. CSF b. Fluid from lymph node d. AOTA 44. The extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism characterized by an undulating membrane and a free flagellum that arises: a. Anteriorly from the nucleus c. Centrally from the anterior b. Posteriorly from the kintoplast d. Posteriorly from the nucleus 45. Which of the following is found within the reticulcendothelial cells? a. L. Donovani c. T. Gandil b. H. capsulatum d. AOTA 46. How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted? a. Inhalation c. Bite of reduviid bug b. Bite of tsetse fly d. Sexual contact 47. A chagoma is a lesion seen in infections with a. Trypanosoma gambiense c. Trichuris trichiura b. Trichomans vaginalis d. Trypanosoma 48. Which oraganism is the cause of kala-azar? a. L. Donovani c. T. Cruzi b. L. Braziliensis d. T. Gambiense 49. In the laboratory diagnosis of L. Donovani , which is the preferred specimen in which find Leihman –Donovan bodies? a. Bone marrow c. Vaginal secretions b. Blood d. CSF 50. Which of the following is the only elliate that is pathogenic in humans? a. Babesia c. B. Coli b. Isospora d. E. Coli 51. A very large cyst whose doubie wall encloses a ciliated organism with one visible nuclei would be a. Transmitted by a mosquito to man b. Acquired by a accident by man , since it customarily infects swine c. A member of the sporozoa d. Demonstrated only by the trichrome stain 52. Which of the following structures are used for motility of Balantidium coli?


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53. 54. 55. 56.

57. 58.

59. 60. 61. 62. 63.

64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69.

70. 71.

a. Flagella c. Pseudopodia b. Cilia d. Endulating membrane Which nucleus in the trophozoite of Balantidium coli is the reproductive one? a. Micronucleus c. A and B b. Macronucleus d. Neither A nor B Conjugation of trophozoites of Balantidium coli never occurs between a. Large organisms c. Large and small organisms b. Same size organisms d. Very large organisms The definitive host (vector) to Plasmodium is the: a. Tsetse fly (Glossina) c. Female anopheles mosquito b. Sandfly (Plebotomus) d. Male reduviid bug (Tratoma) Which of the malarial organisms presents as pale, very ameboid ring trophozoites , infecting a large pale red blood cell with dots of haemoglobin? a. P. Ovale c. P. Falciparum b. P. Malariae d. P. Vivax Which of the malarial organisms preferentially invades reticulocytes? a. P. Falciparum c. P. Vivax b. P. Malariae d. AOTA The malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit ple ” in which the merozoite form a rosette around the malarial pigments is a. P. Malariae c. P. Ovale b. P. Vivax d. P. Falciparum Which malarial organism characteriscally has a band form trophozoite stretching across the red blood cell? a. P. Malariae c. P. Vivax b. P. Ovale d. P. Falciparum The gametocyte of plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated from that of other malarial species by a. Number of nuclei c. Size b. Nuclear chromatin d. Shape In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stippling be found? a. Vivax c. Ovale b. Malariae d. Falciparum In which type of malaria can Maurer’s dots be found? a. Vivax malaria c. Ovale malaria b. Malariae malaria d. Falciparum Which malarial organism features ring trophozoites that have double chromatin dots, appliqué forms and often have multiple parasites in the infected red blood cells? a. P. Vivax c. P. Malariae b. P. Falciparum d. P. Ovale Which malarial organism has large, coarse, are dots within a large, pale red blood cell with fimbriated edges? a. P. Vivax c. P. Ovale b. P. Falciparum d. P. Malariae The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodium and coccidian is referred to as: a. Sporogony c. Sporocyst b. Schizogony d. NOTA What is the infective stage of malarial parasite to the vector? a. Cryptozoites c. Gametocyte b. Trophozoite d. Ookinete What is the infective stage of malarial parasite to humans a. Gametocyte c. Schizonts b. Cryptozoites d. Sporozoites In which of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red blood cells every 72 hours? a. Vivax malaria c. Ovale malaria b. Falciparum malaria d. Malariae In falciparum malaria there may be a sudden massive intravascular hemolysis producing hemoglobinuria. This is called;’ a. Blackwater fever c. Macrophilia b. Hemoglobinopathies d. A and C Which haemoglobin is incomplete with malaria parasite survival? a. Hb-CC c. Hb-SS b. Hb-F d. Hb-A What is the name of the laboratory test that allows laboratory bred reduviid bugs to feed on patients suspected of having Chagas disease? a. Complement fixation b. Serodiagnosis


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c. Xenodiagnosis d. Western blot 72. Humans are infected with Babesia by a. Bite of ticks c. Bite of sandfly b. Blood transfusion d. A and B 73. If immature cocysts of isospora belli are found in stool specimens from infected human, what would be done with the specimen for identification? a. Leave at room temperature c. Leave in the incubator b. Leave in the refrigerator d. Leave in the water bath 74. What stage of isospora is infective to humans? a. Oocysts c. Larval b. Pseudocysts d. Tachyzoites 75. Isospora belli immature oocysts contains a. Sporozoites c. Pseudocysts b. Tachyzoites d. Sporoblast 76. Infective oocysts of isospora belli contain a. Sporozoites c. Pseudocysts b. Tachyzoites d. Sporoblast 77. The demonstration of retinochoroiditis and cerebral calcifications in a newborn would result in which of these laboratory requests? a. Casoni skin test c. Ramon flocculation test b. MHA-ABS test for congenital syphilis d. Titer of toxoplasma antibodies 78. What is both the definitive and intermediate host of toxoplasma gondii? a. Dog b. Cow c. Cat d. Chicken 79. What is appearance of toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of man? a. Oval c. Limax form b. Crescent d. Ring form 80. What constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-feldman dye test? a. Toxoplasma becomes nonmotile b. Toxoplasma can no longer be demonstrated as an intracellular organism c. Toxoplasma loses its affinity for methylene blue dye d. The mouse into which the immune serum is injected does not die from toxoplasmosis 81. Which of the following tests is used for the detection of Cryptosporidium? a. Sabin –Feldman dye test c. Xenodiagnosis b. G-6-PD test d. Sheather’s sugar flotation 82. Which of the following parasites poses a particular hazard for immunodeficient or immunosuppresses individuals? a. Cryptosporidium c. Strongyroides b. Glardla d. AOTA 83. Which of the following parasites is associated with AIDS? a. Isospora helli c. Sabeala b. Sarcocystis d. Cryptosporidium 84. Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear in sputum, often accompanied by blood and charcot-leyden crystals? a. Fasclola hepatica c. Schistosoma mansoni b. Paragonimus westermani d. Dipylidium caninum 85. Which of the schistosome eggs may be recovered in rectal biopsy? a. Schistosoma haematobium c. Schistosoma japonicum b. Schistosoma mansoni d. B and C 86. – 87. The scientific name of the head of a tapeworm is a. Scolex c. Strobila b. Proglottid d. Rostellum 88. Which of the following worms have an oral and ventral shaped sucker in the adult stage? a. Cestodes c. Nematodes b. Trematodes d. Filarae 89. Which of the following are hermaphroditic? a. Flukes c. Tapeworms b. Roundworms d. A and C 90. Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the flukes? a. Snail c. Fish b. Water plant d. Crab 91. – 92. The common names for the schistosomes is


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a. Liver flukes b. Intestinal flukes

c. Blood flukes d. Lung flukes

93. – 94. What is the common name for clonorchis sinensis? a. Lung flukes c. Intestinal fluke b. Chinese liver flukes d. Kidney fluke 95. What is a schistosomule? a. Cercariae c. Free-swimming cercariae b. Cercariae minus tail d. Meteceriae 96. The beef tapeworm is common name for a. Taenia solium c. E. Granulosus b. Hymenolepis nana d. T. Sagineta 97. Which tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal specimen by doubling movements , and is seen under the microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches (more than 15) resembling those of a tree? a. T. Saginata c. O. Latum b. T. Solium d. D. caninum 98. Which of the following has an unarmed scolex? a. Dwarf tapeworm c. Pork tapeworm b. Beef tapeworm d. Dog tapeworm 99. Which species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches? a. T. Solium c. E. Granulosus b. T. Saginata d. NOTA 100. A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs to the genus a. Trichuris c. Trichostrogyius b. Taenia d. Trichinella 101. Which tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so that man does not acquire the larval infection? a. Pragonimiasis c. Dipylidiasis b. Taeniasis solium d. Diphyllobothriasis 102. 103. A bile stained egg that is 75 microns at its greatest diameter and contains a hexacanth embryo that lacks polar knobs or filaments is that of a. H. nana c. D. latum b. H. diminula d. T. Saginata 104. The “dwarf” tapeworm infection is another name for a. H. nana c. D. latum b. H. diminula d. T. sollium 105. The eggs of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the feces of a. Cats c. Dogs b. Fish d. Cattie 106. Which of the following is found in the intermediate host of Echinococcus granulosus? a. Adult worm c. Hydatid cyst b. Egg d. Pseudocyst 107. Hydatid cyst infection of man is due to a larva of the tapeworm a. D. latum c. E. Granulosus b. F. Hepatica d. H. nana 108. The first intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum are: a. Copepod c. Fish b. Snail d. Crab 109. The second intermediate host of Diphyllobothrium latum are a. Cattle c. Crayfish b. Water plants d. Freshwater 110. What is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to humans? a. Plerocercoid c. Hydatid cyst b. Coracidium d. Cysticercus 111. The eggs of this tapeworm are developed and have an opeculum at one end and a small abopercular knob at the other end. The tapeworm is a. D. latum c. P. Westermani b. D. caninum d. H. diminuta 112. In some individuals , particularly those of Scandinavian extraction , this worm can cause megaloblastic anemia. a. D. latum c. T. Solium b. D. caninum d. N. Americanus


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113. Whicha.ofIntestinal the following flukes worms have separate sexes? c. Tapeworms b. Liver flukes d. Blood flukes 114. The male roundworm is differentiated from the female roundworm by its a. Dorsally curved posterior c. Square posterior b. Pointed posterior d. Rounded posterior 115. The best way to demonstrate a pinworm infection is by which of the following techniques? a. Rectal biopsy c. Cellophane tape preparation b. Third portion of urine voiding d. Flotation method 116. The gravid female of Enterobius vermicualris deposits her embryonated eggs a. In the small intestines c. In the large intestines b. On the perianal skin d. In sputum 117. Eggs that average 60 microns in length, are oval with one flattened side, and contain a motile larva, are those of: a. E. Vermicularis c. A. Lumbricoides b. T. Solium d. N. Americanus 118. Eggs that are bile stained and have clear polar plugs belong to the a. Pinworm c. Whipworm b. Large roundworm d. Hookworm 119. Which of the following nematodes does not have a free living stage? a. E. Vermicularis c. A. Lumbricoides b. T. Solium d. S. Stercoralis 120. Which stage of Trichiura is infective to humans? a. Rhabditiform larva c. Cyst b. Filariform larva d. Embryonated egg 121. Where does the larva of ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches in the small intestine? a. Migrates through the blood, liver , lungs, pharynx, and then back to small intestines b. Migrates through the blood, brain and pharyx c. Migrates through the lymph nodes and back to the intestines d. It does not migrate 122. If an Ascaris egg lacks it bile stained mammilated coat, we refer to the egg as a. Fertilized c. Decorticated b. Unfertilized d. Mature 123. Trichuris trichiura, hookworm and_____ form the unholy three of roundworms a. Enterobius vermicularis c. T. Saginata b. A. Lumbricoides d. H. nana 124. Which of the following is the first stage larva of intestinal nematodes? a. Filariform larva c. Rhabditiform larva b. Microfilaria d. Cercaria 125. Which of the following organisms cause infections where the larvae migrate into the lymphatics and blood, lung, alveoli, bronchioles, pharynx, and then the small intestines? a. N. Americanus c. S. Stercoralis b. A. Duodenale d. AOTA 126. Which of the following is characteristic of the eggs of hookworms? a. An embryo in the two to eight cells stage of cleavage b. Oval, thin shell c. Clear space between shell and embryo d. AOTA 127. The helminth that induces a hyperchromic microcyclic anemia in its host in the a. Hookworm c. Pinworm b. Whipworm d. Threadworm 128. The rhaditiform lava of the hookworm has a a. Long buccal cavity equal to the width of the body b. Short buccal cavity equal ½ the width of the body c. Medium length buccal cavity d. A no buccal cavity 129. Which of the following larval worms enters the host by penetration of the ski? a. S. Stercoralis c. N. Americanus b. A. Duodenale d. AOTA 130. A roundworm that inhibits the small intestine and usually is demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimen is the: a. Hookworm c. Whipworm b. Large roundworm d. Threadworm 131. Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect:


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132. 133.

134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139.

a. Trichinosis c. Trichuriasis b. Taeniasis d. Ascariasis Which of the following roundworms give birth to her young? a. Wuchereria c. Brugia b. Mansonella d. AOTA A viviparous female nematode: a. Produces living larvae b. Produces eggs c. Does not require a male to produce eggs d. Does not require a second intennediate host On of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae is the presence or absence of a. Nucleus c. A dorsal curvature of the posterior end b. A shealth d. Flagella Adults of filarial worms live in a. Blood and feces c. Subcultaneous tissues and blood b. Urine and lymphatics d. Lymphatics and subtaneous tissue One of the pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria is: a. Blindness c. Eye infections b. Elephantiasis d. Fibrotic nodules The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the a. Mosquito c. Fly b. Black fly d. Copepod Dirofilaria immitis is the a. Dog heartworm c. Rat lungworm b. Dog hookworm d. Cercanal dermatitis Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that a. On contact with water, release larvae c. Appear on the eye b. Contain eggs d. NOTA

140. 141. Which of the following microfilariae does NOT have a shealth? a. Wuchereria c. Mansonella b. Loa d. Brugia 142. Which of the following is the eye worm? a. Wuchereria c. Onchocerca b. Brugia d. Loa 143. Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by a. Larvae of pinworms c. Filariform larvae of dog hookworm b. Microfilariae d. Metacercariae 144. Which of the following causes a chronic cough , pulmonary and artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in humans/ a. Dirofilaria immitis c. Anisakis b. Philippinensis d. A. Brasillensis 145. Which of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails by humans? a. Dog hookworm c. Dog heartworm b. Rat lungworm d. Cat tapeworm 146. Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known as swimmers itch, is caused by a. Larvae of roundworms c. Schistosomule b. Eggs of tapeworms d. Cercariae of schistosomes 147. What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm? a. Strobila b. Scolex c. Rostellum d. Proglottid


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148. The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with: a. Male reproductive organs c. Eggs b. Female reproductive organs d. Suckers 149. A six hooked embryo is known as a. Proglottid c. Strobila b. Scolex d. Hexacanth 150. “Ground itch”occurs in infections of hookworms at the a. Site of the larval penetration of the skin c. Allergic reaction b. During larval migration d. A and C 151. Direct examination of stool specimens stained with iodine make the trophozoite of the Potozoa stain what color? a. Yellow c. Trophozoites are destroyed by iodine b. Brown d. Do not stain 152. What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation? a. Red c. Colorless b. Green d. Yellow-brown 153. What color do chromatoid bodies of protozoan cysts stain in an iodine wet stool preparation?

161. What will happen if blood from finger stick mixes with the alcohol use to clean the rea? a. “Fixes” red blood cells c. A and B b. Thick blood firms become unsuitable d. Neither A nor B for staining 162. Venipuncture blood is not recommended for a. Malaria, babesia, hemoflagellates b. Amebae, malaria, babesia c. Babesia, cryptosporidium, hemoflagellates d. Isospora, amebae, hemoflagellates 163. To detect stippling, prepare blood films venipuncture within a. 1-2 minutes c. 2 hours after being drawn b. 30 minutes to 1 hour after being drawn d. 5-10 minutes e. f. MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY g. 1. A mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core surrounded by a protein coat, with or without envelope , is called a a. Nucleocapsid c. Virion b. Genome d. Capsomer 2. Viruses are characterized by the presence of a. Mitochondrial DNA c. Ribosomal RNA b. DNA and RNA d. RNA A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 46

3. What is the largest DNA virus? a. Herpesvirus c. Adenovirus b. Poxvirus d. Parvovirus 4. Which of the following is the smallest RNA virus? a. Paramyxovirus c. Adenovirus b. Togavirus d. Enterovirus 5. What is the first step in the replication cycle of a virus? a. Attachment and penetration c. Release b. Assembly of vision d. Uncoating 6. The virus capsid morphology is a. Square or round c. Ribbon like or square b. Long or short d. Helical or icosanedral 7. From what part of the virus is the envelop acquired? a. Nuclear or cytoplasmic membrane c. Capsomeres or genomes b. Nucleus or cytoplasm d. mRNA or DNA 8. Where is the site of vision assembly? a. capsomere c. Genomes b. Nucleus or cytoplasm d. Membranes 9. Which of the following is a DNA virus? a. Retroviridae c. Herpesviridae b. Orthomyxoviridae d. Poxviridae 10. Which of the following is a RNA virus? a. Pseudomyxoviridae c. Harpesviridae b. Paoviridae d. Poxviridae 11. Specimen collected for virus isolation should be kept at: a. 37C c. 4C b. 20C d. 10C 12. At what temperature should clinical specimen suspected of containing viruses kept for transport that takes days? a. -70C c. 4C b. 37C d. -10C 13. In waht family of viruses,after primary infection, does an individual become latently infected and then the infection can be reactivated? a. Adenoviridae c. Pocviridae b. Herpesviridae d. Papovaviridae 14. Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using; a. Monkey kidney cell c. Human embryonic fibroblasts b. A549 cells d. Embryonated hents eegs 15. Which of the following viruses causes acute central nervous system disease in humans and animals? a. Rabies c. Mumps b. Influenza d. Measles 16. What specimens should be collected from a patient with suspected enteroviral meningitis? a. Stool c. Cerebrospinal fluid b. Troat swab d. AOTA 17. Influenza A viruses can be detected in cell cultures by a. Complement fixation test c. Immunoperoxidase test b. Hemadsoption assay d. Hemagglutination inhibition test 18. The best host systems for influenza virus isolation are a. Monkey kidney cells and embryonated hen’s eggs b. Monkey kidney cells and human embryonated hens eggs c. Human embryotic fibroblasts and embryonic hen’s eggs d. Monkey kidney cells and A549 cells 19. What common antigen in cross reactive in all human adenoviruses? a. Fiber c. Hemagglutinin b. Haxon d. Capsomere 20. The following characteristics are similar in both influenza and parainfluenza viruses, except: a. Helical symmetry c. Budding from cytoplasmic membrane b. Lipid envelope d. Segmented RNA genome 21. Myxoviridae virus envelope contains both a. Neuraminidase and hemagglutinin b. Lipoprotein and nonsegmented nucleocapsid c. Lipid and double stranded DNA d. Hemagglutinin and nonsegmented nucleocapsid


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22. Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are elementary bodies of the a. Herpesvirus c. Poliovirus b. Poxvirus d. Papilloma virus 23. German measles is caused by: a. Rubeola virus c. Varicella –zoster virus b. Rubella virus d. Vaccinia virus 24. What is an alastrim infection? a. Smallpox c. Mild form of smallpox b. Chicken pox d. Measles 25. Which of the following procedures is routinely used for the detection of hepatitis B virus (HBV) in blood donor/ a. Solid –phase RIA c. Culture b. ELISA d. A and B 26. Which of the following laboratory procedures is the most rapid method for diagnosis of a virus infection? a. Culture c. Direct electron microscopy b. Serological tests d. Cytopathic effect (CPE) in cell cultures 27. What specimens should be collected from a patient with suspected influenza? a. Stool c. Urine b. Throat swab d. AOTA 28. What virus group contains a double stranded, segmented RNA genome? a. Herpesvirus c. Parainfluenza virus b. Influenza virus d. Reovirus 29. Enteroviruses can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by a. Acid resistance c. Ether stability b. Size determination d. Ribonnuclease treatment 30. What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in children during the winter months? a. Influenza viruses c. Rotavirus b. Adenoviruses d. Hepatitis A virus 31. All of the following groups of viruses are resistant to ether treatment , except: a. Herpesviruses c. Enteroviruses b. Adenoviruses d. Reoviruses 32. The most common method for rapid electron microscopy examination is a. Negative staining c. Gram stain b. Acid fast staining d. Periodic acid-Schiff stain 33. Various virus groups can be differentiated in negativity stained specimens by their a. Envelope c. Morphology b. Cytoplasmic membrane d. Nucleous e.

f. IMMUNOLOGY –SEROLOGY 1. Where does differentiation of T cells occur? a. Heart c. Thymus b. Brain d. Bone marrow 2. Which organs or systems are capable of responding to circulating antigens with the production of specific lymphocytes and plasma cells? a. Lymph nodes and spleen c. Reticuloendothelial system and biliary b. Pancreas and liver tract d. Bacteria and granulocytic cells 3. How can cell mediated immunity be transferred to a normal individual? a. With lymphoid cells from a hypersensitive individual b. With transfer of specific liver cells from an infected individual c. With transfer of monocytes from a normal person d. With polymorphonuclear cells from a normal person 4. The first defectable antibodies in primary infections are usually a. IgA c. IgG b. IgD d. IgM 5. Which of the immunoglobulins is present in the greatest amount and rises later in an infection? a. IgA c. IgG b. IgD d. IgM 6. An IgG antibody is a good a. Indicator of early infection c. Indicator of allergy b. Precipitating antibody d. Agglutinating antibody 7. Antibodies are primarily a. Alpha globulins c. Albumin b. Beta globulins d. Gamma globulins A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 // 48

8. Reactivea.sites Determinants on an antigen are known as c. Haptens b. Valence d. Immunoglobulins 9. Which of the following cells recognize certain substances as “foreign” (nonself)? a. T lymphocytes c. Lymphocytes b. Macrophages d. Basophils 10. Which of the following cells ingest and destroy bacteria, damaged host cells, or tumors? a. Macrophages c. B cells b. T cells d. Basophils 11. T cells are involved with a. Humoral immunity c. Cell mediated immunity b. Wheal and flare reaction d. Antibody protection 12. Humoral immune response is due to a. Macrophage activity d. B lymphocytes that transform into b. Suppressor T lymphocytes plasma cells c. Lymphokines 13. Which of the following cells are thymus dependent? a. B cells c. Macrophages b. T cells d. Plasma cells 14. The production of antibodies by B cells is turned off by a. Suppressor T cells c. Helper T cells b. B lymphocytes d. Cytotoxic T cells 15. Lymphokines, fiberated by sensitized T cells recruit a. Neutrophils c. Macrophages b. Monocytes d. All of the above 16. A heterologous antigen reacts with a. An antibody whose production it included b. An antibody whose production it did not induce c. Nonspecific substances d. Specific substances 17. Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta? a. IgA b. IgG c. IgD d. IgE 18. Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions? a. IgA c. IgM b. IgG d. IgE 19. Which immunoglobin plays a role in hypersensitivity ? a. IgM c. IgE b. IgG d. IgD 20. The binding strength of an antibody for an antigenis referred to as its a. Specificity c. Avidity b. Affinity d. Titer 21. The ability of clinical test to be positive in the absence of its homologous antigen is referred to as its a. Specificity c. Affinity b. Sensitivity d. Titer 22. The random movement of antigen- antibody complexes in semisolid medium occurs in a. Agglutination c. Complement fixation b. Immunofluorescence d. Gel diffusion 23. Antigen and antibody are both free to move toward each other to form precipitate in a. Two-dimensional diffusion c. Linear diffusion b. Single radial diffusion d. Three dimensional diffusion 24. – 25. A combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion is referred to as a. Double radial diffusion c. Immunofluorescence b. Immunoelectrophoresis d. Electroimmunodiffusion 26. In immunoelectrophoresis, which of the following forms at the equivalence point of antigen and antibody? a. Spurs c. Troughs b. Precipitin bands d. Line of intersection 27. An electrophoretically abnormal protein displace from the normal position may be recognized by a. Precipitin band of moderate curvature c. Precipitin band markedly curved b. Lines of fusion d. “gull wing”formation 28. Immunoelectrophoresis, which of the following forms at the equivalence point of antigen and antibody? a. Spurs c. Troughs b. Precipitin bands d. Line of intersection 29. Electroimmunodiffusion is directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody in


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30.

31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37.

38. 39. 40.

43.

44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49.

a. Solid media c. Liquid media b. Semi solid media d. Any of the above Which of the follwoign is an advantage of counterimmunoelectrophoresis? a. Precipitation lines not sharp b. Precipitation does not occur at the intermediate point c. Precipitation lines visible within 30 minutes d. None of the above In the radioimmunoassay test the zero standard is labelled as a. Bo c. Antigen x b. Antigen O d. B1 Which of the following fluorochromes gives off a red emission at 580 nm? a. Auramine rhodamine c. Truant fluorochroma b. Fluorescein isothiocyanate d. Tetramethylrhodamine isothiocyanate Which of the following fluor chromes give a minimal flase reading? a. Auramine-rhodamine c. Truant fluorochroma b. Fluorescein isothiocyanate d. Teramethylrhodemine isothiocyanate Immunofluorescence tests employ a compound that is able to absorb light of a certain wavelength and to a. Emit light of a longer wavelength c. Emit white light b. Emit light of a shorter wavelength d. Phosphoresce Which of the following is the energy source of fluorescence microscope? a. Wood’s lamp c. Mercury vapour lamp b. Brightfield microscope d. Black light What system can be used in fluorescent staining technics to give a bright fluorescence? a. Quantum efficiency c. Enzyme inhibition b. Biotin –avidin d. All of the above In the enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) . which of the following can be attached to a solid phase support (e.g. polystyrene)? a. Antigen and enzyme c. Antigen and antibody b. Antibody and albumin d. Antigen and albumin In the enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the antihuman globulin is a. Fluorochrome –conjugated c. Hormone-conjugated b. Auramine-conjugated d. Enzyme-conjugated Interferon can be produced by which of the following? a. Macrophages c. Virus infected cells b. T lymphocytes d. All of the above One dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion is also known as a. Immunoelectrophoresis c. Radioimmunoassay b. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis d. Rocket lectrophoresis 41. 42. Which of the following is the diagnostic laboratory test for acquire immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. Skin test b. Parasites found in stool c. <200 CD4 + T-lymphocytes /uL or a CD4+T-lymphocyte percentage of total lymphoresis<14 d. Differential blood count Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) characteristically shows a deficiency in a. Neutrophils c. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes d. L. E cells Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows a change in the ratio of a. T/B cells c. A/G b. B1/B2 cells d. T4/T8 cells Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is transmitted in all the following ways EXCEPT: a. Blood transfusion c. Sneezing and coughing b. Sexual contact d. Sharing of hyperdemic needles Fc is which fragment of the antibody molecule? a. Heavy chains c. Crystallisable b. Hinge d. Antigen-binding The basic immunoglobulin structure consists of a. 1 light and 2 heavychains c. 2 light and 1 heavy chains b. 2 light and 2 heavy chains d. 1 light and 1 heavy chain In the structure of immunoglobulins, where is the antigen binding site located? a. Carboxy terminal or constant region c. Amino terminal or variable region b. Disulfide bridge d. All of the above


50

50. Which ofa.the Papain following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments an antibody? c. Properdin b. Anaphylatoxin d. Zymosan 51. After an antibody has been fragmented , which term denotes the antigen binding fragment? a. Fe c. Fab b. Disulfide bond d. Carboxyl terminal 52. The antigen used in precipitation tests is a. Soluble c. Particulate b. Insoluble d. Cellular 53. Postzonal reaction is caused by a. Too little antigen d. Not by differing amounts of antigen and b. Too much antigen antibody c. Too much antibody 54. The optimal ratio, when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen , is referred to as a. Opsonisation c. Zone of inhibition b. Zone of equivalence d. Widal formation 55. When a precipitation reaction is converted to agglutination by increasing the size of the antigen particles the test is then referred to as a. Direct agglutination c. Indirect (passive) agglutination b. Optimal agglutination d. Prozone reaction 56. What type of antigen antibody reaction is usually performed in the detection of the HBs antigen of hepatitis? a. Viral hemagglutination c. Passive agglutination b. Capillary precipitation d. Hemagglutination 57. Effective phagocytosis occurs in the presence of a. Regain c. Sensitivity b. Anti-drug antibodies d. Opsonins 58. Serological tests employed to identify antigens of antibodies are referred to as what type of test a. Nonspecific c. In vivo b. In vitro d. Cross reaction 59. Hybridomas are formed from a. Antibodies c. T lymphocytes b. B lymphocytes d. Phagocytes 60. How does a spleen cell become “Immortal”? a. Reacts with an epitope c. By neutralization b. By being phagocytised d. By fusing with a tumor cell 61. When a preparing monoclonal antibcoies a. Inject an animal with an antigen c. Fuse B lymphocytes with a malignant cell b. Remove the B lymphocytes d. All of the above 62. 63. 64. A hybridoma consists of a clone of fused cells of a. Guinea pig kidney cells c. Mouse lymphocytes b. Rat myeloma cells d. B and C 65. Which of the following are limitations of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma? a. React with only 1 antigenic determinant on a multivalent antigen b. Do not cross link to form a precipitate c. Are not good in precipitation or hemagglutination assays d. All of the above 66. Monoclonal antibodies cannot be used in complement fixation tests because they a. Cannot cross link to form a precipitate c. Can fix complement b. Cannot fix complement d. Are homogeneous 67. Complement fixation tests contain which two systems? a. Antigen antibody systems c. Test and indicator systems b. ELISA and latex systems d. Hemolysin and titration systems 68. What is the indicator in the complement fixation tests? a. Sheep and red blood cells c. Latex antigen absorbed particles b. Human and red blood cells d. Carbon particles 69. Complement proteins are designated by all of the following terms EXCEPT: a. Numbers (e. g. C1, C2 ) c. Abbreviations (e. g. Fc) b. Symbols (e. g. factor B) d. Trivial names (e.g. properdin) 70. A hemolysin is an antibody that a. Causes lysis of red blood cells c. Lyses T cells b. Causes agglutination of red blood cells d. Sensitives white blood cells 71. What is the purpose of antisheep hemolysin in a complement fixation test/


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6.

8.

a. Sensitives sheep red blood cells c. Agglutinates sheep red blood cells b. Hemolyzes sheep red blood cells d. Neutralizes patient antibody 72. A positive reaction in a complement fixation test is expressed as a. Agglutination c. Inhibition of hemolysis b. Hemolysis d. Neutralization 73. What is the purpose of the hemolytic system in a complement fixation test? a. To test the patients serum for the presence of antibodies b. To act as an indicator and provide a visible reaction c. To test the red blood cells d. To make certain that the serum is not anticomplementary 74. It too much hemolysin is added to a complement fixation test, what happens to the result: a. Incomplete hemolysis c. Complete hemolysis b. Sensitivity is decrease d. Hemagglutination 75. What should occur when controls for complement fixation tests are used to check for anticomplementary factors? a. No hemolysis c. Hemagglutination b. Hemolysis d. All of the above 76. In a positive control for complement fixation tests, what should occur? a. No hemolysis c. Hamagglutination b. Hemolysis d. Fluorescence 77. What is used to sensitize red blood cells in the complement fixation tests? a. Sheep red blood cells c. Opsonics b. Antisheep hemolysin d. Horse red blood cells 78. In a negative complement fixation test sensitized red blood cells will a. Clump c. Be hemolyzed b. Not clump d. Not be hemolyzed 79. Antigen needles for the qualitative Venereal Disease Research Laboratory test (VDRL) shoud deliver a. 1/100 (100 drops/ml) c. 1/120 (120 drops /ml) b. 1/60 (60 drops/ml) d. 1/75 (75 drops/ml) Saline needles for the quantitative venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) should deliver a. 20 drops/ml c. 100drops/ml b. 120 drops/ml d. 110 drops/ml 77. Needles used to deliver VDRL antigen should be checked: a. Once a month c. Daily or every time tests are performed b. Bimonthly d. Weekly VDRL antigen emulsion is stable for: a. 24 hours c. 7 days b. 48 hours d. 30 days 79. 80. Patients with syphilis develop an antibody response to a substance known as: a. Reagin c. hemolysibn b. complement d. cardiolipin 81. the reaction between the antibody and the antigen in the venereal disease research laboratory test (VDRL) is known as: a. precipitation c. flocculation b. neutralization d. hemolysis 82. if the interval between heating the serum of the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours, the serum should be reheated at a.37C for 15 minutes c.56C for 15 minutes b.37C for 30 minutes d.56C for 10 minutes 83. 84. In the VDRL test, a zonal reaction usually appears as which of the following results? a.Reactive c.Weakly reactive b.Nonreactive d.Any of the above 85. The serum: antigen ratio in any VDRL test maintained at a.1;2 c.2;1 b.1;1 d.3;1 86. Inactivation of sera for serology tests is performed for what purpose? a.Destruction of complement b.Increasing sensitivity of test c.Removal of particulate matter d.Restoration of refrigerated sera to an appropriate temperature for testing 87. If a VRDL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free particles, it would be reported as:


52

a.Reactive c.Biological false positive b.Nonreactive d.Weakly reactive 88. How would be following VDRL quantitative test be reported? 89. 1:1 1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128 90. W W R R R R W N 91. a. Reactive 4 dills 93. c. Reactive 64 dills 92. b. Reactive 32 dills 94. d. cannot be reported 95. What role does cardio lipan play in the VDRL test? a.It is the center for absorption of tissue lipids c.It is related to reactivity of the test b.It is related to sensitivity of the test d.All of the above 96. Which of the following represents the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test? a.Lowest dilution giving a weakly reactive result b.Lowest dilution giving a reactive result c.Highest dilution giving a weakly reactive result d.Highest dilution giving a reaction result 97. The quantitative VDRL test is performed on all sera in which the quantitative VDRL test is a.Nonreactive c.Weakly reactive b.Reactive d.Either reactive or weakly reactive 98. Which laboratory test for syphilis uses plastic coated cards? a.Rapid plasma regain ( RPR) b.Venereal disease research laboratory (VDRL) c.Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbed (FTA-ABS) d.Microhemagglutination praponema pallidum (MHA-TP) 99. Rapid plasma regain (RPR) antigen contains cardio lipin with a.10% saline c.Charcoal particles b.Lipoteichoic acid d.Fluorescent isothiocyanate 100. The rapid plasma regain (RPR) test: a.Uses zinc particles c.Does not require a period of rotation b.Does not require inactivate of serum d.Employs treponemal antibodies 101. The rapid plasma regain (RPR) test is rotated at what speed for what length of time? a.200 rpms for 10 minutes c.180 rmps for 4 minutes b.100 rpms for 8 minutes d.125 rmps for 2 minutes 102. The rapid plasma regain (RPR) antigen needle with deliver how many drops? a.60 drops per 1.00 ml c.100 drops per 0.50 ml b.60 drops per 0.504 ml d.100 drops per 0.25 ml 103. The antigen that reacts with the antibody substance in the patient serum in the rapid plasma regain (RPR)test is a.Sheep red blood cells c.Cardiolipin b.Cardiolipin with added charcoal particles d.Lecithin 104. The treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test requires a.Regain c.Treponema pallidum fixed on a slide b.An extract of a pathogenic treponeme d.Living treponema pallidum 105. Which of the following serves as the absorbent in the fluorescent tr6eponemal antibody test-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test? a.Reiters tereponeme c.Treponema palildum, Nichols strais b.Treponema microdentlum d.Treponema pertenue 106. The fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test is used to identify which of the following in the patients serum? a.Treponemal antibody c.Regain b.Treponemes d.Cardiolipin 107. The fluorescein-antihuman gamma globulin used in the FTA-ABS test a.Makes the antigen-antibody reaction visible b.Is added to the serum before the antigen is added c.Is added to the antigen before the serum is added d.Makes the antibody visible 108. The principle of the antistreptolysin O (ASO) tubetest is a.Complement-fixation c.Micro-hemmaglutination b.Enzyme-inhibition d.Precipitation 109. In the classic antistreplolysin O (ASO) test, streptolysin O should not be rehydrated until it is needed because it: 110. The serum titer in the anti-strepplolysin O (ASO) test is reported as the a.Highest dilution that gives a positive result b.Lowest dilution that gives a negative result


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c.Asao units d.Todd or international units 111. What does the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test measure in tyhe patients serum? a.Oxygen labile streeptolysin c.Sheep red blood cells b.Antibody to atreptolysin O d.Streptococcal antibodies 112. The antistreptolysin O (ASO) slide test is resd for the presence of: a.Hemolysis c.A mucin clot b.Precipitation d.Agglutination 113. A streptococcal extracellular product that dissolves fibrin clots is: a.Streptokinase c.streptodornase b.groupA carbohydrates d.hyaluronidase 114. the reactive on DNA-methyl green substrates, when testing for the presence of anti-DNase (antistreptornase) are a.blue (+) yellow (-) c.green (+) colorless (-) b.red (+) orange (-) d.purple (+) yellow (-) 115. Which f the following is NOT a streptococcal extracellular product? a.Nicotinamide adenine dinucieotidase c.Hyaluronidase b.Isomerases d.Deoxyribonuclease B 116. What type of red blood cells are used in the traditional heterophil antibody test? a.Human group O c.Rabbit b.Sheep d.Horse 117. In the presumptive heterophil antibody test, which of the following constitutes a passive reaction? a.Agglutination c.Precipitation b.Hemolysis d.Neutralization 118. A passive david sohn heterophil antibody test; a.Shows hemolysis b.Differentiate three types of heterophil antibodies c.Indicates the presence of typhoid fever d.Uses fresh plasma 119. The heterophil antibody test is reported as the: a.Highest dilution that show hemolysis b.Highestdilution that shows agglutination c.Lowest dilution that shows hemolysis d.Lowest agglutination that shows agglutination 120. In the heterophil antibody test, when serum is absorbed with beet cells a.There is a decrease in the titer of infections mononuclecsis mantibodies b.There is an increase in the titer of guinca pig kidney antibodies c.Serum sickness antibodies are absorbed d.Forssman antibodies are absorbed 121. Infactious mononucleosis is a self-limited disease of the reticulo endo t he lial system caused by: a.Hepatitis C virus c.Epstein-barr virus b.JC virus d.Herpes simpes simplex virus 122. Forssman antibodies are absorbed by a.Boiled beef cells b.Guinea pig kidney antigen c.Neither beef cells nor guinea pig kidney antigen d.Both beef cells and guinea kidney antigen 123. The heterophil slide test of lee and davidsohn uses what type of blood cells? a.Sheep c.Horse b.Rabbit d.Human group O 124. The weil-felix is used for the detection of which type of antibodies? a.Salmonella c.Rickettsia b.Mycoplasma d.Viral 125. The widal and weil-felix reactions are examples of techniques used to detect a.Heterophil antibodies c.Febrile agglutinins b.Regain d.Forssman antigen 126. OX 19 and OX 2 refer to a.Strains of proteus vulgaris c.Serotypes of brucella abortus b.Antigens of rickettsia prowazeki d.Asntibodies to salmonella typhi 127. In the widal test, an elevated O titer indicates a.Currenty infection c.Recer vaccination b.Antigens in agglutinins to salmonella typhi d.A cross reacbn 128. Serological cross reactions are usual


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a.Indicative of infection with an unrelated organism b.In lower titers than are specific reactions c.Detected only later tan are specific reactions d.Of a different type than are specific reactionsm 129. The antigen used to determine the somatic antigenic grouppi9ng of enteric bacteria is a.O c.Ki b.H d. Vi 130. Brucella aborted will ceross-react with antibodies of a.Salmonella typhi c.Streptococcus pneumoniae b.Proteus vulgaris d.Franciscella tularensis 131. Which of the following can interfere with the cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test? a.Thyroglobulin c.Rheumatoid factor b.Moncional protein d.C- reactive protein 132. The rheumatoid factor (RF) latex slide test uses diluted patient’s serum plus a.Beta globulin c.Alpha globulin b.Microsomal antigen d.Gamma globulin 133. Which of the following antibodies is directed against the Fc portion of IgG? a.Antisheep hemolysin c.Rheumatoid arthritis b.Anitistreptolysin d.Regain 134. The presence of C- reactive protein in a patient’s serum indicates a.Inflammation c.Group A beta hemolytic streptococcal b.Pneumococcal pneumonia infection d.Typoid or paratyphoid fever 135. In the rheumatoid factor latex test a.The antibody identified is IgG b.Synovial fluid may give a positive reaction when serum is negative c.The test is more specific than the Rose- Waaler sheep cell agglutinin test d.A titer of 1:20 identifies the patient’s discase as rheumatoid arthritis 136. What is the incubation temperature for the cold agglutinin test? a.Body temperature c.Refrigerator temperature b.Room temperature d.Freezer temperature 137. Cold agglutinins may develop after infection with a.Klabsiella pneumonia c.Streptococcus pneumoniae b.Mycoplasma pneumonia d.Haemophilus influenzae 138. Which of the following cold reacting antibodies is present in infections of mycoplasma pneumoniae? a.Anti-I c.Anti –Lewis b.Anti-i d.Anti-K 139. 140. Which pattern of fluorescence in the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is most closely associated with active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) a.Cytoplasmic c.Nucleolar b.Homogenous d.Speckled 141. A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) in the antinuclearvantibosy group is suggestive of which autoimmune disease? a.Mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD) c.Scleredema b.Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) d.Systemic lupus erythematosus(SLE) 142. What does “ds” in anti-ds-DNA and anti –ds- RNA mean? a.Dormant stage c.Disease sign b.Double –stranded d.Detectable symptom 143. Which of the following is the major autoantigen of the thyroid gland? a.Thyroglobulin c.Monocional protein b.Rheumatoid factor d.Thyroxine 144. Which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infections? a.Type 1 b.Type 2 c.Type 3 d.A and B 145. A method used to serotype the herpes simplex virus (HSV) is the a.Indirect fluorescent antibody method c.Cell typing b.Cell culture d.Direct fluorescent antibody method 146. Which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (ELISA) a.Direct fluorescent antibody


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b.Cell culture c.enzyme –linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) d.cell typing 147. which of the following is the easiest serological test for varicella zoster virus (VZV) a.enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay(ELISA) test b.complement fixation test c.fluorescent antibody-membrane –antigen (FAMA) test d.direct fluorescent antibody test 148. which of the following is the cause of chicken pox? a.Rubella virus b.Primary infection of varicella zoster virus c.Primary infection of human immunodeficiency virus d.Herpes simplex virus 149. Blood donors should be routinelt tested for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and a.Varicella zoster virus c.Cytomegalovirus b.Herpes simplex virus d.Rubella virus 150. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection can be diagnosed by which of the following serological test? a.Igm anf IgG antibody c.Direct fluorescent antibody test b.Cell culture d.Indirect human globulin test 151. Which test for cytomegalovirus has problems with false positive? a.Copmlpement fixation test c.Indirect immunofluorescent antibody test b.Radioimmunoassay d.Direct fluorescent aantibody test 152. The best serological method used to test for a rubella virus infection is the a.Complement fixation test c.Indirect fluorescent antibody test b.Direct fluorescent antibody test d.Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test 153. The most popular serological test for the diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii is the a.Complement fixation test c.Indirect fluorescent antibody test b.Direct fluorescent antribody test d.Enyzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test 154. In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) method for typing herpes simplex virus (HSWV), which type of red blood cells are used? a.Sheep c.Horse b.Goat d.Human 155. Which of the following is a good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus? a.Direct agglutination c.IgG antibody test b.Complement fixation d.IgM antibody test z e. f. g.

h.

HEMATOLOGY

1. The larges quantity of normal body iron is found in the form of: a. Transferrin c. Free ferric iron b. Hemosiderin d. Hemoglobin 2. What is the ratio of iron to porphyrin in heme? a. 1:1 c. 4:1 b. 1:4 d. 1:2 3. What is the function of the enzyme methemoglobin-cytochrome C reductase in a red blood cell? a. To keep iron in the ferrous state b. To keep iron in the ferric state c. To maintain alpha and the beta chains of hemoglobin d. To maintain an anaerobic pathway of glycolysis 4. What product is formed when ferrous iron of normal hemoglobin is oxidized to the ferric state? a. Methemoglobin c. Cyanmethemoglobin b. Carboxyhemoglobin d. Sulfhemoglobin 5. Which of the following hemoglobins could be present in a normal adult a. Hb-A c. Hb-F b. H-b-A2 d. AOTA 6. Most of the hemoglobin in the newborn is found to be: a. Hb-A c. Hb-D b. Hb-A2 d. Hb-F 7. Hemoglobin C disease is characterized by: a. Target cells c. Rod-shaped crystals b. Basophilic stippling d. Schihistocytes


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8. In the a. Potassium tube solubility phosphate test for hemoglobin S the reagent responsible c. for Saponin the reduction of the hemoglobin molecule b. Sodium is: dithionate d. Drabkin’s solution 9. In hemoglobin C, glutamic acid is replaced is: a. Valine c. Cystine b. Lysine d. Arginine 10. Which of the following hemoglobins is insecute under lowered oxygen tension? a. Hb-A, c. Hb-S b. Hb-A d. Hb-F 11. The Kleihauer technic is used to differentiate is: a. Hb-A2 from Hb-F c. Hb-A2 from Hb-A b. Hb-S from Hb-A d. Hb-S from Hb-F 12. The cyanmethemoglobin method measure: a. All hemoglobin pigments c. All hemoglobin pigments except b. Only oxyhemoglobin sulfhemoglobin d. Only methemoglobin 13. The diluents used in the cyanmethemoglobin method for hemoglobin determination is: a. Pilods fluid c. Sodium carbonate b. 0.1NHCI d. Drabkin’soln 14. The plasma protein that binds free hemoglobin is: a. Myoglobin c. Hemosiderin b. Haptoglobin d. Transferrin 15. The normal plasma hemoglobin per dL is: a. 2-3mg c. 200-300mg b. 20-30mg d. 2-3grams 16. A hematocrit is a measure of: a. Red blood cell sedimentation rate c. Total red blood cells b. Tolal red blood cell mass d. Packed red blood cell volume 17. An increase in the erythrocyte sedimentation rate(ESR) can be the result of an increase in the quantity of: a. Fibrinogen c. Platelets b. Promrombia d. Red blood cells 18. The WBC/ul of an undiluted synovial fluid that has 175 white blood cells counted in the large center square of ahemocytometer is: a. 17,500 b. 3,500 c. 7,000 d. 1,750 19. The RBC,ul of a body fluid that has 285 red blood cells counted in the 5 red blood cells squares with a 1,100 dilution is: a. 1,425,000 c. 5,700,000 b. 142,000 d. 285,000 20. The addition of 0.02 ml of blood to 5.0 ml diluents results in a partial dilution of: a. 1:25 c. 1:250 b. 1.50 d. 1:500 21. Lyse- resistant red blood cells in specimens aspirated in automated hematology analyzers occur with: a. Multiple myeloma c. Acute leukemia b. Sickle cell disease d. Anemia 22. On automated hematology analyzers, marked red blood cell fragments will cause an abnormal histogram and/or scatterplots for: a. Whit blood cells and red blood cells b. Red blood cells and platelets c. White blood cells, and platelets d. White, blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets 23. The white blood cell count, when the differential count has 5 nucleated red blood cells and the automated analyzer white blood cell count is 105, is. a. 10.5 c. 11.0 b. 10.0 d. 9.5 24. What is the most likely cause of these result? WBC 6.5; RBC 1.69;Hb 9.1; Hct 22.8;MCv 135; MCH 53.8; MCHC 39.9 a. Improperly mixed specimen c. Cold agglutinin b. Hereditary spherocytosis d. Instrument reagent depleted 25. The factor for the conversion of counted white blood cells to WBC/ cu.mm in the manual count is: a. 50 c. 2,000 b. 1,000 d. 10,000 26. To avoid or false crystals, synovial fluid should be collected in: a. Oxalate b. Powdered ethylene diaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)


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27. 28. 29.

30. 31. 32.

33. 34. 35. 36.

38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43.

44. 45.

c. Lithium heparin d. Liquid ethylene diaminetetraacetic (EDTA) Pilot’s fluid is the reagent used in the determination of: a. Eosinophils c. Red blood cells b. Hemoglobin d. Platelets The following results indicate a noninflammatory syncvial fluid: a. WBC <2,000; PMNS 30% c. WBC< 2,000;PMNs>50% b. WBC 2,000-5000; PMNs.50% d. WBC 2,000-5000;PMNs <30% The color of wright-stained red blood cells may be and usted by: a. Dipping the slide in methanol before staining b. Adjusting the buffer pH c. Decreasing the concentration of glycerol in the stain d. Rapid drying of slides Parasites in red blood cells are best demonstrated with which stain? a. Giemsa c. New methylene blue b. Wright d. Crystal violet To calculate the mean corpuscular volume , one must know the erythrccyte count and the a. Hemoglobin c. Hematocrit b. Red blood cell count d. Mean cell diameter The blood film in iron deficiency anemia snows: a. Occasional burr cells with decreased central pallor of macrocytes b. Nypochromic microcytes with poikilocytes c. Normochromic normocytic cells with basophilic stippling d. Numerous oval macrocytes with decreased platelets Which determination is considered a reliable assessment of effective erythropoiesis in the bone marrow? a. Reticulocyte count c. Red blood cell count b. Hemoglobin d. M.E ration of the marrow After a due to acute blood loss is usually: a. Microcytic c. Normocytic b. Macrocytic d. Hypochromic Abnormal variation in the size of erythrocyte is known as: a. Anisocytosis c. Erythrocytosis b. Poikilocytosis d. Leptocytosis Erythrocytes with a diameter of 9-12 microns are referred to as: a. Macrocytes c. Laptocytes b. Megalocytes d. Drepanocytes 37. Abnormal variation in shape of the erythrocyte is known as: a. Anisocytosis c. Megalocytosis b. Poikilocytosis d. Microcytosis The red blood that shows a peripheral rime of the hemoglobinwith a darl staining central area is a: a. Spherocyte c. Schistocyte b. Target cell d. Sickle cell The red blood cell with the “bull’eye”appearance is present in: a. Thalassemia c. Postsplenectomy b. Liver disease d. ACT’A Increased iron in the mitochrondia of normoblast are characteristics of: a. Aplastic anemia c. Chronic anemia b. Sidercblastic anemia d. Iron deficiency anemia Chronic blood loss can lead to: a. Iron deficiency c. Vitamin B12 deficiency b. Tissue iron deposits d. Polycythemia The characteristics finding in iron deficiency anemia is: a. Low serum iron and low total iron c. Low serum iron and high TIBC pinding capacity (TISC) d. High serum and low TIBC b. Low serum iron and normal TIBC Polycythemia vera is associated with: a. Panycytosis c. Philadelphia chromosome b. Pancytopenia d. Teardrop red blood cells A macrocytic anemia characteristically accompanies all of the following , except: a. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Fish tapeworn infection in some b. Folate deficiency individual c. Iron deficiency


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46. Which a. Decreased of the following platelets is not typically seen in the peripheral smearc.inSpherocytes megaloblastic anemia? b. Oval macrocytes d. Hypersegmented neutrophils 47. Punctate basophilla refers to which of the following? a. The deposits of lead in the red blood cells b. The aggregation of residual RNA in the red blood cells c. The presence of DNA remnants in the red blood cells d. Iron deposits in the red blood cells 48. An increased osmotic fragility is observed in the red blood cells of a. Sickle cell anemia c. Hereditary spherocytosis b. Hereditary elliptocytosis d. Thalassemia 49. Which of the following is true of hereditary elliptocytosis? a. Osmotic fragility and autohemolysis usually normal b. Unless 100% of the red blood cells are oval the diagnosis is doubtful c. It is the only disorder associated with elliptocytosis d. An abnormality of hemoglobin is responsible for this condition 50. Red blood cells that contain iron –stained granules aret= termed: a. Reticulocytes c. Siderocytes b. Megaloblast d. Drepanocytes 51. Which of the following inclusion represents a remnant of nuclear DNA in a red blood cell? a. Heinz body c. Pappenheimer body b. Dohle body d. Howell-jolly body 52. RNA remnants in red blood cells are visualized when stained with? a. Prussian blue c. Peroxidise b. New methylene blue d. Heinz body stain 53. Speherocytes differ most from normal red blood cells in their: a. Decreased ratio of surface area volume c. Increased volume b. Increased central pallor d. Increased resistance to hypotonic saline 54. Cabot rings are inclusion found in: a. Eosinophils c. Monocytes b. Erythrocytes d. Lymphocytes 55. Match each of the following red blood cells with the correct description 56. 1. excess membrane for cell volume (bull’s eye) 57. 2. decreased cell membrane with same cell volume 58. 3. pitting of the red blood cell inclusion by spleen 59. 4. crystallization of abnormal hemoglobin during oxygen deprivation Bite cell Sickle cell Spherocyte Target cell e. 55. Match the cell content with the appropriate inclusion f. 1. RNA g. 2. DNA h. 3. Iron i. 4. Hemoglobin a. Howell-jolly body c. Reticulocyte b. Heinz body d. Pappenheimer body 56. Match the following with the correct definition 57. 1. decreased white cells , red cells and platelets 58. 2. granulocytes released prematurely to myelocyte stage 59. 3. increased polychromosia 60. 4. white blood cell count >50,000/cl 61. a. left shift 63. c. pancytopenia 62. b. reticulocytosis 64. d. leukomoid reaction 65. The most characteristics change seen in the white blood cells of the megaloblastic anemia bone marrow is: a. Toxic granulation c. Hyposegmentation b. Giant bands and metamyelocytes d. Dohle bodies 66. Burr cells represent what abnormality of red blood cells? a. Damage to the red blood cell membrane b. Change in hemoglobin content c. Change in hemoglobin content d. An abnormal hemoglobin replacing the normal varieaty 67. Of the following which is a white blood cell inclusion? a. Schuffner’s granules (dots) c. Dohle bodies b. Heinz bodies d. Cabot rings 68. G-6 PD deficiency is an abnormality in: a. Glutamic acid b. Erythropoiesis


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1. 2. 3. 4.

c. Emden-Meyerhoff pathway d. HMP shunt 69. The white blood cell least often seen on a normal peripheral smear is the: a. Neutrophil c. Basophil b. Eosinophil d. Monocyte 70. In the Pelger- Huet anomaly, neutrophils shown a. A shift to the left c. 2 lobes and hyperclumped chromatin b. Dohle bodies d. Toxic granulation 71. Dohle inclusion bodies are found in the cytoplasm of: a. Lymphocytes c. Neutrophils b. Monocytes d. Erythrocytes 72. Toxic granulation of neutrophils is usually associated with: a. Infectious mononucleosis c. Bacterial infections b. Leukemias d. Pelger-Huet anomaly 73. Which of these is NOT consistent with toxic granulation of polymorphonuclear neutrophils (PMNs)? a. Accompanies hypersogmentation b. Appears with a “shift to the left’’ c. May be mimicked by overstaining d. May be accompanied by vacuolization and /or Dohle bodies 74. In examining a stained film for lupus ( LE)cells, the most probable source of confusion is: a. Smudge cells c. Gaucher’s cells b. Tart cells d. Downey cells 75. In lupus (LE)the cells that phagocytises the nucleoprotein is usually a: a. Lymphocyte c. Monocyte b. PMN d. Histocyte 76. A monocytwe that has phagocytised a nucleus is called a: a. LE cell c. Flame cell b. Tart cell d. Smudge cell 77. Leukoppenia can occur in which of these conditions? a. Leukemia c. Marrow injury by chemical agents b. Viral infections d. All of the above 78. Acute leukemias are usually associated WITH: a. Immature cells of one white blood cell c. Anemia series d. All of the above b. Thrombocytopenia 79. 80. 81. At what stage will specific (secondary) granules of granulocytes appear? a. Promyelocyte c. Myelocyte b. Metarnyelocyte d. Band neutrophil 82. Chronic myelocytic leukemia ( CML) can be distinguished from polycythemia vera by: a. Thrombocytosis c. Lekocytosis b. Splenomegaly d. LAP-low to zero 83. The white blood cell anomaly that may be confused with a shift to the left is: a. Chediak higashi c. May –hegglin b. Chronic granulomatous disease d. Pelger-huet 84. Reactive leukocytosis is present when the absolute count of granulocytes are: a. >6000/ul c. >9000/ul b. >4000/ul d. >8000/ul 85. What is required for the in vitro formation of LE cells? a. Antinuclear antibodies c. Free nuclear material b. Neutrophils d. AOTA 86. Match the following white blood cell anomaly with the correct cellular component a. Alder-Relly c. Chedlak-Higashi b. Pelger-Huet d. May-Hogglin Neutrophil inclusions resembling Dohle bodies Large dark granules in granulocytes caused by anomaly of primary granules anfd lymphocytes by lysosomal granules Failure to complete development of nuclear lobes Dense granulation of granulocytes caused by abnormal enzyme 87. Which of the following findings rule out acute leukemia? a. Anemia c. Normal platelet count b. Auer rods d. Immature cells 88. Eosinophilia is found in which of the following?


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a. Diabetic acidosis c. Allergic rhinitis b. Trichinosis d. B and C 89. What specific cytological finding can differentiate acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) irom acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)? a. Leukpcyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) activity b. Number of nucleoli in blast cells c. Auer rods in blast cells d. Variation of size of blast cells 90. The results on leukemia patient was alpha –napthol- AS-D-acetase-esterace (NASDA) 3+blast NASDA+ Naf O+ suggest: a. Acute granulocytic leukemia (AGL) c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) b. Acute monocytic leukemia (AMol) d. Acute nonlymphocytic leukemia 91. What stain differentiates acute myelocytic leukemia from acute lymphocytic leukemia? a. Alpha-napthol- AS –D- acetate c. Paroxidase esterace (NASDA) d. Methyl green pyronine b. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) 92. The leukemia that does not have peroxidise activity is? a. Acute myelomonocytic c. Acute lymphocytic b. Acute monocytic d. Acute myelocytic 93. The immediate precursor of the band polymorphomuclear neutrophil is the: a. Myelocyte c. Stab b. Promyelocyte d. Metamyelocyte 94. The largest leukocyte in the normal peripheral blood smear is the: a. PMN c. Lymphocyte b. Megakarocyte d. Monocyte 95. A shift to the left means an increase in: a. Polymorphonuclear neutrophils c. Hypersegmented PMNS b. Immature granulocytes d. Metatubricytes 96. An increased number of eosinophils may be observed in all of the following except: a. Erytroleukemia c. Parasitic infection b. Chronic granulocytic leukemia (CGL) d. Allergies 97. A characteristics of immature blood cells is: a. A nuclear cytoplasmic (N:C) ratio c. Pale blue cytoplasm b. Fine nuclear chromatin d. Absence of nucleoli 98. 99. 100. The characteristics cell found to be increased in the peripheral smear of infectious mononucleosis is a: a. Plasma cell c. Lymphonocytes b. Sand PMN d. Monocytes 101. In chronic lymphocytic leukemia, there is usually a: a. Thrombocytopenia c. Lymphocytosis b. Basophils d. Lymphopenia 102. In chronic granulocytic leukemia, there is usually a: a. Leukopenia c. Leukocytosis b. Lymphocytosis d. Eosinopenia 103. A peripheral blood smear demonstrating an absolute increase in small” hypermature” lymphocytes and smudge cells would be suggestive of: a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) c. leukomoid reaction b. acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) d. infectious mononucleosis 104. The Philadelphia chromosome is associated with: a. chronic granulocytic leukemia c. myelofibrosis b. chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. acute granulocytic leukemia 105. Auer rods are characteristically found in the cells of which leukemia? a. Acute granulocytic leukemia (AGL) c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) b. Chronic granulocytic leukemia (CGL) d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) 106. A low neutrophil alkaline phosphatase NAP/LAP is seen in: a. Leukomoid reaction c. Pregnant women b. Chronic granulocytic leukemia d. Polycythemia vera 107. A positive myeloperoxidase stain indicates the possibility of: a. Acute lymphocytic leukemia c. Myelomonocytic leukemia b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia d. Infectious mononucleosis 108. An increased titer of antinuclear antibody (ANA) aids in the diagnosis of: a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Acute lymphocytic leukemia


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c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia The leukemia that has a positive periodic acid – Shift stain is associated with: a. Acute promyelocytic c. Acute monocytic b. Acute myelocytic d. Acute lymphocytic 110. Using the automic cell counters may increase a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) due to: a. Cold agglutinins c. In vitro hemolysis b. Excess EDTA d. Decreased WBC 111. Ninety-five percent of chronic lymphocytic leukemias have surface markers of: a. Cells c. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase b. T cells d. CALLA 112. All of the following are characteristics of a bone marrow of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia, except: a. Marked rouleux formation c. Increased tissue mass cells b. Increased abnormakl lymphoid cells d. Increased megakaryocytes 113. Reed- Stemberg cells are diagnosis for: a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Hodgkin’s disease b. Prolymphocytic leukemia d. Multiple myeloma 114. The leukemia that has increased basophils and/or eosinophils in the early stages is: a. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia b. Chronic myelocytic leukemia d. Hairy cell leukemia 115. Lymphosarcoma cells can be described as: a. Central nucelolus, condensed nuclear chromatin, light basophilic cytoplasm b. Small prominent nucleoli , fine nuclear chromatin with deep clefts in thenucleus c. Plasmacytoid d. Small mature lymphocytes with dense nuclear chromatin 116. A leukemia that presents with leukopenia in > 50% of patients with > 90% massive splenomegaly is most likely: a. Hairy cell leukemia c. Progranulocytic leukemia b. Prolymphocytic leukemia d. Manocytic leukemia 117. The cytochemical stain, peroxidase is negative for: a. Monocytes c. Neutrophils b. Lymphocytes d. Eosinophils 118. Most chronic lymphocytic leukemia are necpiasms of: a. A lymphocytes c. T4 helper cells b. B lymphocytes d. T8nsupprssor cells 119. 120. In the presence of marked culeaux formation on a peripheral smear, one could expect the same sample to exhibit an increased: a. Hemoglobin c. Sedimentation rate b. RBC count d. WBC count 121. Giant bizarre platelets nucleated red blood cells(nRBCs);and teardrop red blood cells are associated with: a. Erythroleukemia c. Myelofibrosis b. Multiple myeloma d. May- hegglin 122. The last red blood cell precursor to retain the nucleus before it becomes an erythrocyte is: a. Rubricyte c. Rubriblast b. Prerubricyte d. Metarubricyte 123. The most reliable criteria for the estimation of a cells age is: a. Cytoplasm c. Nuclear chromatin b. Nucleus d. Granules 124. Which of the following laboratory results can occur with intravascular hemolysis of the red blood cell? a. Increased plasma hemoglobin c. Decreased plasma naptoglobin b. Hemoglobinuria d. All of the above 125. A peripheral blood smear from a patient with thalassemia would exhibit: a. Teardrops cells,target cells Howell- jolly bodies b. Target cells,nucleated red blood cells , basophilic stippling c. Burr cells, nucleated red blood cells, sickle cells d. Basophilic stippling re blood cells,acanthocytes 126. What laboratory results are found in an iron deficiency anemia but not in thalassemia? a. Normal to high serum iron and normal total iron binding capacity b. Low serum iron and increased total iron binding capacity c. High red blood cell count and low mean corpuscular volume d. Low red blood cell count and high mean corpuscular volume 127. The specific diagnosis of sicklecell anemia can be made from the following laboratory test is: a. Solubility b. Sodium metabisulfite 109.


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c. Hemoglobin electrophoresis d. Presence of sickle cells The second most common abnormal hemoglobin in the worl , which predominates in southeast Asians is: a. Hb_S c. Hb-C b. Hb-E d. Hb-M 129. The autoantibody that has maximal intravascular hemolysis at low temperature is: a. IgG c. Complement b. IgM-binding complement d. IgG – binding complement 130. The FAB classification of the lymphocytic leukemia with prominent cytoplasmic vacuolation is: a. L2 c. L1 b. L3 d. M2 131. Acute lymphocytic leukemias that have a predominance of homogenous cells with a high N/C ratio belong to which FAB group? a. L1 c. L2 b. L3 d. M2 132. In acute myelocytic leukemia the FAB classification of type II blasts that distinguishes them from type I blast is: a. Few cytoplasmic granules c. Uncondensed chromatin b. Cytoplasmic granules absent d. Nucleoili prominent 133. The stain that is positive for hairy cell leukemia is; a. Oil Red O c. ACP b. PAS d. Napthol AS –D acetate 134. Laboratory results of Hodgkin’s disease are a. Normal erythrocytesedimentation rate, high white blood cell count, low serum iron b. Low white blood cell count, low serum iron,high fibrinogen c. High white blood cell count with neutrophilia, high erythrocyte sedimentation rate, low serum iron d. High gamma globulin , low white blood cell count with neutrophilia , high erythrocyte sedimentation rate 135. Laboratory findings of myelold metaplasia with myelofibrosis is: a. Anemia, teardrops cells, low alkaline phosphatase, increased uric acid b. Bizaare platelets, high hemoglobin, no blast cells c. 5-10% blast, schistocytes, low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase d. Teardrop cells, increased uric acid , high white blood cell count 136. 137. 138. 128.

139. COAGULATION QUESTION 1. Which of the following factors does not require vitamin K to its production by the liver? a. II c. VIII b. VII d. IX 2. The activated coagulation factor that is NOT is serine protease is: a. X c. IX b. VII d. VIII 3. The precursor of thrombin is: a. Thromboplastin c. Prothrombinase b. Florinogen d. Prothrombin 4. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin by: a. Thrombin c. Plasmin b. Thromboplastin d. Calcium 5. The coagulation family that is defendent on vitamin K synthesis is: a. Contact c. Fibrinogen b. Prothrombin d. AOTA 6. The end result of most coagulation test is the production of: a. Thrombin c. Fibrin clot b. Prothrombinase d. Fibrinolysis 7. In the process of fibrinolysis, which of the following acts on fibrin? a. Fibrinogen c. Thrombin b. Plasmin d. Factor XIII 8. Secondary hemostasis consist of: a. Platelet change shape b. Secretion of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) c. Irreversible platelet aggregation d. All of the above 9. The prothrombinase complex consist of: A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 //

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10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24.

25.

26.

27.

a. IXa-VIII- phospholipid- calcium b. VIIIa-tisue factor-calcium c. Prekallikrein, kallikrein, high molecular weight kininogen d. Xa-Va- phospholipid- calcium Factor XII can be activated by: a. Exposure to subendothelium in vivo c. A and B b. Exposure to glass in vitro d. Neither A nor B The origin of platelets in the bone marrow is the: a. Megakaryocytes c. Hemohistioblast b. Stem cell d. Megaloblast Low platelet count and normal bleeding time indicates: a. Primary vascular abnormality c. Qualitative platelet disorder b. Von Willebrand’s syndrome d. Autoimmune thrombocytopenia The normal range of a direct platelet count is: a. 50,000 to 100,000/ul c. 140,000 to 440,000/ul b. 75,000 to 125,000/ul d. 300,000 to 600,000/ul A bleeding tendency is likely to be present when the platelet count is below: a. 50,000/ul c. 200,000/ul b. 150,000/ul d. 400,000/ul A quatitative defect of platelets is known as a. Thrombocytopathia c. Thromcythemia b. Thrombocytopenia d. Thrombocytosis Thrombocytopenia is associated with a a. Prolonged bleeding time c. Abnormal prothrombin time b. Prolonged lotting time d. Abnormal APTT In thrombocythemia, platelets are a. Normal in number c. Markedly increase b. Normal in number but abnormal in d. Markedly decrease function Classic haemophilia is the result of a deficiency of which coagulation factor? a. VI c. VIII b. VII d. IX Factor VIII is present in highest concentration in a. Fresh frozen plasma c. Cryoprecipilate b. Platelet concentrate d. Whole blood The Christmas is factor a. VII c. IX b. VIII d. X A prolonged bleeding time with a normal platelet count indicates a. Aspirin digestion c. Von Willebrands syndrome b. Vascular abnormality d. AOTA The test that uses a reagent form of tissue thromboplastin is a. APTT c. Prothrobin time b. D- dimer assay d. Euglobulin clot lysis The phase contrast microscope is employed in which platelet count method? a. Rees- Ecker c. Indirect b. Brecher-Cronkite d. Coulter If the prothrombin time is abnormal and the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal , a deficiency in which factor is suggested? a. V c. IX b. VII d. X If the prothrombin time is normal and the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal, a deficiency of which factor is suggested? a. V c. IX b. VII d. X If the bleeding time is normal, prothrombin time normal and the activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is abnormal, a deficiency of which factor is suggested? a. II c. VII b. V d. VIII The test that can monitor heparin therapy , increased levels of fibrin split products, and quantitative and qualitive fibrinogen is a. Fibrinogen assat c. Thrombin time b. Activated partial thromboplastin time d. D-dinne


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28. Thea. onlyProthrombin test that is sensitive time to a deficiency of factor VII is c. APTT b. Thrombin time d. Protamine sulphate 29. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) serves as a screening procedure for which plasma factor deficiencies? a. VII and IX c. All except VII and XIII b. V and X d. XI, XII and platelets 30. The activated partial thromboplastin time may be within normal limits with abnormality activity of a. Platelets c. Factor VIII b. Factor I d. Factor V 31. All of the following represent coagulation methodology; except a. Optical c. Immunological b. Impedance d. Chemical 32. If a coagulation test is prolonged due to a deficiency of a plasma coagulation factor, then the test should be corrected by the addition of a. Calcium c. Vitamin K b. Normal plasma d. Platelets 33. 5M urea or 1% monochloracetic acid are reagents used in tests for which plasma factor deficiency? a. VIII c. XII b. IX d. XIII 34. Diagnosis of von Willebrands disease can be made from the following test results? a. Decreased VIII:C c. Prolonged bleeding time b. Decreased VIIIR: RCo d. AOTA 35. Which of the following factor of activations occur in the alternate pathway? a. Factor Vllla, can activate IX and X b. Factor IX and Kallikrein can activate factor VII c. Factors Xlla, Xa, Ixa or thrombin can activate Vll d. All of the above 36. Match the function will the following inhibitors 1. _______ heparin 2. _______AT-III 3. _______protein C 4. _______ protein S 5. _______coumadin 6. _______plasminogen 7. _______streptokinase 8. _______ lupus like anti coagulant a.Degrades factors V and VIII b.Inhibits vitamin K c.Accelerates fractivation of factors V and VIII d.Activates blasminogen for lysis of thrombi e.Inactivates zymogen , binds fibrin at critical lysine binding sites f. Principle inhibitor of thrombin and factor X g.Greatly enhances activity of AT-III h.Inactivates coagulation factors through phospholipoprotein 37. Fibrinogen has to decrease below what level to affect the various clotting tests? a.20mg/dL c.75mg/dL b.50mg/dL d.200mg/dL 38. Idiophatic thrombocytopenic purpura is usually characterized by a.Increased platelet destruction c.Normal platelet count b.Increased megakaryocytes d.Marrow infiltration (malignancy) 39. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is associated with all of the following disorders, except a.Haemophilia d.Acute granulocytic leukemia or acute b.Snake bites monocytic leukemia c.Placenta praevia 40. Laboratory results from a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (OIC)are: a.Decreased platelets and factors I, V and VIII b.Prolonged prothrombin time, activated partial thromboplastine time, and thrombin time c.Positive D-dimer d.All of the above 41. Ehlers Danlos, von Willebrand, and Bernard Soulier: are all qualitative platelet disorders that have alnormalities of a.Adhesion c.Secondary aggregation b.Primary aggregation d.NOTA


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42. The qualitative platelet disorder that has abnormal primary aggregation is a.Wiskott-Aldrich c.Glanzmann b.Gray platelet syndrome d.May-Hegglin 43. Storage pool deficiency and Wiskott Aldrich are qualitative platelet disorders that have abnormal a.Secondary aggregation c.Primary aggregation b.Adhesion d.Other release mechanisms 44. Dilutions of patient and normal plasma with a prolonged prothrombin time and/or activated partial thromboplastin time indicate a a.Circulating anticoagulant b.Deficiency or more than one plasma factor c.Deficiency of a factor involved in both intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways d.Fibrinolysin

45. 46. IMMUNOHEMATOLOGY 47. Banking 1. The interval between blood donations is: a. 6 weeks c. 10 weeks b. 8 weeks d. 3 months 2. The oral temperature of a donor shall not: a. 37.0 C c. 98.6 F b. 37.5 C d. 98.0 F 3. The minimum acceptable haemoglobin for male donors is: a. 12.5 g/dl c. 13.5 g/dl b. 13.0 g/dl d. 14.0 g/dl 4. What is the lowest acceptable hematocrit for female blood donors? a. 36% c. 41% b. 38% d. $3% 5. Prospective donors who have malaria should be deffered: a. Permanently c. For two years cessation of treatment b. For three years after cessation of d. For six months treatment 6. The name given to the infections virus of hepatitis B (HBV) is: a. Complex virus c. Circular DNA virus b. Done particles d. Infections particle 7. Symptom-free donors immunized with oral polio, measles (rubeola) or mumps vaccines are acceptance after a periods of: a. 24 hours b. 2 days c. 2 weeks d. 24 days


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8. For autologous blood donations, blood should not be drawn from the donor-patient within ___ hours of the time of the anticipated operation or transfusion a. 12 hours c. 48 hours b. 24 hours d. 72 hours 9. An autologous blood donor must: a. Be over 21 years old c. Have at least an 11 g/dl hemoglobin b. Be treated for bacteria d. Be on oral iron therapy 10. Which of the following pre transfusion test must be determined for an autologous transfusion recipient? a. ABO and RH type c. STS b. HBs Ag d. Compatibility testing 11. Which biochemical change does NOT occur in stored blood? a. Plasma pH decreases c. Plasma ammonia (NH2) increases b. Plasma potassium (k) decreases d. Inorganic phosphate increases 12. Which of the following organisms have been implicated in bacterial contamination of door blood? a. Pseudomonas c. Escherichia coli b. Citobacter freundii d. Bacillus species 13. The acceptance plasma that is stored at-18 C or lower has a shelf life of __. a. 1-6 C c. S-10 C b. 1-10 C d. 32-37 C 14. Fresh frozen plasma that is stored at 18 or lower has a shelf life of ___. a. 6 months c. 2 years b. 1 year d. 5 years 15. When a blood product is stored at 1-6C and the hermetic seal has been broken, the expiration date becomes: a. 24 hours c. 48 hours b. 6 hours d. 8 hours 16. The optimum temperature for thawing fresh frozen plasma is: a. -18 C c. 30-37 C b. -10 C d. 58 C 17. According to DFA regulations, if blood is to be transported the blood temperature must be kept between: a. 2-8 C c. 1-0 C b. 1-10 C d. 4-6 C 18. Which blood group system was discovered first? a. ABO c. P b. MNS d. Rh 19. An amorph is gene: a. That is expressed in the heterozygous state b. That is expressed only in the homozygous state c. With no directly observable product] d. With an observable variable effect 20. Production of more antigen in the homozygous state than in the heterozygous state is reffered to as: a. Dosage effect c. Independent segregation b. Antigenic determination d. Prozone 21. Unexpected antibiotics that react 37C are: a. Usually Igm antibiotics c. Considered not clinically significant b. Usually naturally occurring antibodies d. Considered most clinically significant 22. Naturally accurring antibodies are found regularly accuring antibodies: a. ABO c. Kell b. Rh d. Kid 23. Select yhe INCORRECT statement below. Naturally antibodies: a. React best in saline c. Do not usually cross the placenta b. React best at room temperature or 4C d. Are usually IgG 24. Immune antibodies may be produced by: a. Injection of purified blood group c. Repeated blood transfusions substances d. AOTA b. Pregnancy 25. Antyi-A1 is a seed extract from: a. Ulex europeus c. Arachia hypogeal b. Vicia graminea d. Dolichos biflocus 26. The frequency of group A individuals in the United states is: a. 4% b. 9% c. 41% d. 46% 27. Group B individuals have: a. A antigens on their red cells b. Anti-A in their serum


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c. Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B in serum d. Anti-B in their serum 28. Red blood cells of which blood group will not be agglutinated by anti-A,B typing serum? a. A b. B c. AB 29. Red blood cells of which blood group react most strongly with anti-H? a. AB c. O b. A1 d. B 30. The reagent made from the seeds of dolichos bi-florus is: a. Anti-A1 c. Anti-B b. Anti-A,B d. Anti-H 31. The antigen most commonly tested for i the Rh system is: a. E c. D b. C d. O 32. Which of the following is true of D”? a. D” cannot be inherited b. D” is a variant of the Rho (D) antigen c. D” cells should not be considered Rho (D) negative when used donor blood d. D” is common in Caucasians 33. Which is not TRUE of D” antigens? a. D” antigens are fairly common in blanks b. D” cells usually appear to be negative or weakly reactive at initial testing c. D” cells usually be incupated at 4C for one our d. D” Cells are incubated at 37C, then tested by the anti-globulin procedure 34. Anti-C will not react with: a. Rh 1 Rh2 cells c. Rh cells b. Rh1 Rh1 cells d. Rh rh cells 35. Anti-E will react with: a. Rh cells c. Rho rh cells b. Rh1 rh cells d. Rh2 Rh2 cells 36. Anti-c can be formed by persons with the genotype: a. R1 R2 c. R2r b. R1 R1 d. Rr 37. Anti-hr will NOT react with: a. Rh cells c. Rh1 Rh1 cells b. Rh1 rh cells d. Rh2 Rh2 cells 38. Anti-hr will react with: a. Rhz Rh2 cells c. Rh2 Rh2 cells b. Rh1 Rh1 cells d. Rhz Rhz cells 39. The f antigen refers to: a. Ce c. CE b. cE d. Ce 40. The symbol for the Bombay blood group is: a. Oh c. Ho b. OH d. HO 41. All but one of the following antibodies will be detected in the serum of Bombay genotype: a. Anti-A c. Anti-H b. Anti-B d. Anti-Oh 42. The system composed of antigens found primarily in saliva and plasma is: a. Lutheran c. P b. Lewis d. Rh 43. In the duffy blood group system, the most common antibody detected is: a. Anti-Fya c. AnAnti-fy4 b. Anti-Fy”b d. antiFy5 44. Which of the following usually Igg, immune and anti-globulin (coo-bs) reactive? a. Anti-le a c. Anti-l b. Anti-jk b d. Anti-n 45. The antigen I is: a. Weakly reactive with anti-I at 4C c. A rare antigen b. Poorly developed on cord red blood d. Not found in blanks cells 46. Anti-I is most commonly detected in which cross match phase? a. Room temperature c. Coombs phase b. 37 c d. AOTA 47. Select the incorrect statement:


d. O

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a. b. c. d.

48.

49. 50.

51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63.

66. 67.

Anti –I is often the causative antibody in case of cold hemaglutinin disease (CHAD) Anti-I reacts best with cord blood cells Anti-I can be found as weak cold agglutinin in the serum of normal individuals Anti-I agglutinin are usually cli0nically insignificant, however, they may mask more significant antibodies, such as anti-P1, anti-M and anti-le Which of the following is NOT TRUE of Anti-Le? a. Occurs in Le (A-b) individuals b. Is commonly implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) c. Is neutralized by lewis blood group substance d. S composed mostly of IgM molecules What percentage of the population lacks the kell (K) antigen? a. 0.02% c. !0.00% b. 2.00% d. 90.00% Select the INCORRECT stamen: a. 90% of the population is kell (K) negative b. Anti-K reacts best in saline at room temperature c. Anti-K can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) d. Next to Rho (d0, the kell (K) antigen is the most immunogenic Anti-k ia also known as: a. Anti-k1 c. Anti-K” b. Anti-Mclead d. Anti-cellano Approximately what percentages of blacks have the Fy (a-b) phenotype? a. 1% c. 22% b. 9% d. ^68%% Recent finding suggest there is an association between the Fy (a-b) phenotype and resistance to: a. Chronic granulomatous disease c. Syphilis b. Malaria d. Viral hepatitis The antigen Tj is part of which system? a. Rh c. Kidd b. MNS d. P Approximately what percentage of males are Xg positive? a. 11.3% c. 65.6% b. 36.0% d. 88.0% Approximately what percentage of females are Xg positive> a. 11.3% c. 65.6% b. 36.0% d. 88.0% When color-coding is used for donor blood labels, group A is; a. Pink c. Yellow b. Blue d. Black What is the standard acceptable color for anti-A grouping serum? a. Blue-green c. Red b. Colories d. Yellow Polyspecific antiglobulin serum is sometimes colored: a. Blue c. Green b. Yellow d. Pink What is the color of the dye added to commercially prepared anti-B blood grouping serum? a. Yellow c. Green b. Blue d. NOTA Anti-A, B serum: a. Is used to confirm group O individuals c. Is obtained from A2B individuals b. Is obtained from A1B individuals d. Agglutinates group O cells Which of the following is NOT a suitable medium for suspensions of red cells for blood banking? a. Saline c. Albumin b. Serum d. Distilled water Which of the following enzymes is NOT used in blood bank procedures? a. Ficin c. Bromelin b. Amylase d. Papain 64. 65. Enzymes prevent detection of antibodies in the: a. Kidd system c. Lewis system b. Duffy system d. Rh system The technique used to remove antibody bound to sensitized red cells is called:


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68. 69. 70.

71. 72. 73. 74.

75. 76. 77.

78. 79. 80.

81. 82. 83. 84. 85.

a. Absorption c. Titer b. Flution d. Tranlocation A cold autoagglutinin will usually have specificity for the: a. D antigen c. L antigen b. E antigen d. K antigen Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is often associated is which system? a. MNS c. Lewis b. P d. Rh Forward grouping is using: a. Reagen A1 and B cells to detect serum anti-A and Anti-B b. Anti-A anti-R antisera to detect cell antigers A and/or B c. Anti-A,B to confirm group O d. Using anti-A1 to detect subgroups of A Reverse grouping difficulties may be encountered in the following instances: a. Newborn infants c. Patients undergoing chemotherapy b. Geriatic patients d. AOTA A patient that forward group an AB but reserve group as group B probably is a group A2 B with: a. Anti-A1 c. Anti-B b. Anti-A2 d. Anti-D The most dangerous and unexpected antibodies in the blood bank are those that react at: a. 4C c. 32C b. 25C d. 37C Antiglobulin reagent: a. May be produced in laboratory animals c. Never detects complement-dependent b. Is produced in human beings antibodies d. Occurs naturally is most human beings Which of the following drug will NOT cause a positive direct antiglobulin (Coomb’s) test? a. Penicilin c. Cephalothin b. Alpha-methydopa d. Aspirin What is the optimum incubation temperature for the indirect antiglobulin (IAI) test? a. 4C c. 37C b. 22C d. 56C The direct anti-globulin test (DAT) using poly-specific anti-hurian globulin serum is NOT of value in the a. Diagnosis of the hemolytic disease of the newborn b. Diagnosis of hemolytic transfusion reactions c. Diagnosis of drug-induced hemolytic anemia d. Differentiation of cell surface coating (complement or (IgH) Albumim-reactive Igg antibodies are about __in length. a. 1000 angstroms c. 500 angstroms b. 600 angstroms d. 250 angstroms By common usage, a poly specific anti-human serum at least contains antibodies to: a. IgG and C4 c. IgG, Iga and C3d b. IgG and Ig d. IgG and c3d The direct anti-globulin test is most useful for: a. Detection of hemolytic disease of the c. Leuloagglutinin assays newborn d. Detection of unexpected antibodies b. Compatibility testing In a direct anti-globulin tests, you are testing patient: a. Cells c. Cells against donor serum b. Serum d. Serum against donor cells An direct anti-globulin test is incubated for: a. 15-30 minutes at 25 C c. 5-10 minutes at 4C b. 15-60 minutes at 37 C d. 15-60 minutes at 56C The red blood cells used for screening patient’s serum for unexpected antibodies s hold be of what group? a. Group O c. Group B b. Group A d. Group AB A false positive anti-globulin test ca n be caused by : a. Inadequate w2ashing c. Elution due to delayed washing b. Prozone r6eaction d. Bacterial contamination of reagents A false negative indirect anti-globulin test can be caused by: a. Test cells being direct coombs positive c. Inadequate washing b. Bacterial contamination of test cells d. Chemical contamination


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86. Laboratories must check each negative anti-globulin test using red blood cells sensitized with IgG. After the addition of these cells. Which of the following is NOT necessarily true? a. Active anti-globulin serum was added b. Patient serum was added c. The washing phase as performed satisfactorily d. Anti-globulin serum has not reacted with the original red being tested 87. Fresh serum (less than 48 hours old must be used for compatibility testing to preserve: a. Chelating agents c. Complement b. Siatic acid d. Auto-antibodies 88. Mixed field agglutination is observed under the microscope as clumps or agglutinates of cell among many free CELLS. Which of the following is the most common reason for mixed field agglutination? a. Twin chimetras d. Antigen strength altered in disease b. Transfused states c. Weak subgroups of A or B 89. The term type and screen refers to: a. Typing the patients blood for rate antigens b. Screening donor units for rare antigens c. Testing the patients blood for ABO and Rh type and unexpected antibodies d. Identification of unexpected antibodies in the patient blood 90. All but one of the following antibodies will usually be detected in the room temperature phase of cross match; a. Anti-Jk c. Anti-M b. Anti-Le d. Anti-P1 91. A positive antigen-antibody reaction is indicated by: a. Antibody formation c. Agglutination or hemolysis b. Antigen formation d. No agglutination or hemolysis 92. Which of the following antibodies usually gives negative reactions in enzyme test procedures? a. Anti-Jk c. Anti-D b. Anti-Fy d. Anti Le 93. One of then eight units cross matched is incompatible in the anti-globulin phase of testing. The most likely antibody is: a. Anti-K c. Anti-Jk b. Anti-fy d. Anti-k 94. If a recipient is incompatible wiit5h only one donor, the most probable cause is: a. A re5ciept antibody to a high incidence antigen b. A recipient antibody to a low incidence antigen c. A clerical error d. Recipient serum was not added 95. Hemolysis requires complement activation. Which of the following are required for complement activation? a. Calcium and magnesium c. Calcium and sodium b. Calcium and potassium d. Sodium and potassium 96. The initial response to a foreign antigen is known as the primary response: His primary response usually takes how long occur? a. It never occurs c. 2-6 months b. 10-12 months d. 8-10 months 97. Secondary response to the same foreign antigen is known as: a. Anamnestic response c. Natural response b. IgG response d. Ab response 98. Plateit concentrates are most likely to be benefit in; a. Hemolytic disease of the newborn c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia b. Thrombocytopenia d. Multiple myeloma 99. Cryoprecipitated anti-hemophillic factor (AHF) is not recommended for the treatment of: a. Hemophilia A c. Haemophilia B b. Von Willebrand disease d. Hypofibrinogenemia 100. Red blood cells are the product of c hoice for: a. Supplying deficient coagulation factors c. Exchange transfusion b. Thrombocytopenia d. Increasing oxygen carrying capacity 101. Deglycerolized frozen red blood cells must be transferred w2thin how many hours? a. 4 c. 24 b. 21 d. 72 102. Recurrent nonhemolytic febrile transfusion reactions are usually caused by all of the following except: a. Anti-HLA antibodies c. Red cell antibodies b. Platelet antibodies d. White cell antibodies


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103. A patient is suspected of having a transfusion reaction, When should the transfusion be stopped/ a. After the unit is infused c. After the physician has been notified b. Immediately d. After notification of the laboratory 104. A transfusion reaction is considered febrile when the patient experiences a: a. 2 degree F rise in temperature within 1 hour transfusion b. 2 degree F drop in temperature within 1 hour of transfusion c. No temperature increase at the start of the transfusion 105. The blood phenotype O can result from which of the following genotypes? a. AC c. OO b. BO d. A2O 106. The cells and serum of a neonate were tested at room temperature. 107. Patient cell with: Patient serum with: 108. Anti-A – negative A1 cells – negative 109. Anti-B- positive b cells - negative 110. 111. The infant is probably: a. Group B b. Group AB c. Group O d. NOTA 112. Patient cells with Patient serum with: 113. 114. Anti-A – positive a1 cells – positive 115. Anti-b – positive b cells - negative 116. Anti-AB –positive 117. Anti-A1 – negative 118. 119. Give the most likely explanation for the discrepancy in the forward and reverse grouping: a. The patient is group A1B with autoantibody b. The patient is group A2B with anti-A1 c. The patient is group B with an acquired A-like antigen d. The patient is group A2b with anti-h 120. What is the optimum concentration of a cell suspension to be used in blood bank testing? a. 1-2% c. 8-10% b. 2-5% d. 10-15% 121. The weiner genotype R2 R2 is equivalent to: a. CDE/CDe c. cDE/cDE b. Cde/cde d. cde/cdE 122. What is the most common genotype that could result from the phenotype D+ C- C+ e-? a. R2R2 c. Rr b. R1R1 d. R1r 123. Given the reactions, D+ c+ E+-c+ e+, what is the most probable genotype? a. R1R1 c. R1r b. R1Ro d. R1R2 124. Given the reactions, D+ C+ E+ e+, what is the most probable genotype? a. R1R2 c. R2r b. R1r d. R2Ro 125. If cells are positive when tested with anti-D, Anti-C and anti-e and negative when tested with anti –E and anti c, what is the most likely genotype? a. R2R2 c. R2r b. R1r d. R1R1 126. If red cells give positive reactions when tested with anti-Rho, anti-hr, anti-hr, and a, negative reaction with anti-rh, which of the following genotypes is IMPOSSIBLE? a. R1R c. R1Ro b. R1r2 d. Ror 127. 128. What is the most common of the Rh NEGATIVE GENOTYPES? a. cde/cde c. Cde/CdE b. Cde/cde d. cdE/cde 129. When red cells are positive when tested with anti-e and negative when tested with anti-D, Anti-c and anti-E, what is the genotype? a. Rr c. Ro Ro b. R1r d. R1 r1


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130. D antigens a. Blacksare fairly common to what race? c. Hispanics b. Caucasians d. Asians 131. The d antigen is responsible for the most frequent production of unexpected antibodies. Which other blood group antigen is responsible for a large percentage of unexpected a O antigen c K antigen b A antigen d B antigen 2 Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when: a The infant lacks the antigen the mother possesses b The mother lacks an antigen the infant possesses c The mother possesses an antigen the father lacks d NOTA 3 Which antibody is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn? a Anti-c c Anti-m b Anti-le d Anti-Js 4 Whwn severe hemolytic disease ofv the newborn is due to an unidentified antribody: a No blood ids acceptable or transfusion b AB negative red cells an O negative plasma should be used for transfusion c Mothers red cells may be used for transfusion d NOTA 5 Of the following blood groups, Which one does not usually cause homolytic disease of the newborn? a Rh c P b Kell d Duffy 6 In a case of hemolytic disease of the newborn, when the mothers is group O and the baby is group a, red cells for exchange transfusion should be what group? a A c O b B d AB 7 In case of ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn, the mother is usually which of the following? a Group AB c Rho (D0 negative b Group O d A 8 If a mother passes an antibody to her fat us through the placenta, what type of immunity does the fat us have? a Naturally acquired active c Naturally acquired passive b Artificially acquired active d Artificially acquired passive 9 If the mother is group A1B and the father is group A1b, which would be IMPOSSIBLWE in the offspring? a A1 c B b A2 d A2B 10 In the phenotype mating A2B x O, which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring? a A1 c O b A2B d B 11 In the phenotype mating O x O, which of the following phenotypes is possible in the offspring? a A1 c B b A2B d O 12 An A1B mother and an A2O father could NOT produce which of the following genotypes? a A1A2 b A2B c BO d A2O


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13 If the mother is group O and the infant is group B, the infants blood group genotypes is: a BB c BO b AO d AB 14 Given a mother of group O and an infant of group B, which of the following blood group would eliminate paternity? a AB c O b B d Paternity could not be ruled out 15 If a group AB mated with a group O, the following genotypes will result: a AO and Bo c AB and OO b AA and BB d AO and BB 16 In the mating of R1rxR2r genotypes, which of the following is probably NOT that of the offspring? a CDe/cDE c CDe/cde b cde/cde d CDe/cdE 17 If an R2R2 patient is transfused with R1R1 blood, it would be possible for him to form which of the following antibodies? a Anti-E c Anti-ce b Anti-Ce d Anti-c 18 If a patient requiring a blood transfusion has an anti-e (hr) approximately what percent of donor blood tested would be compatible? a 2% c 20% b 15% d 80% 19 Approximately what percentage of donor blood is compatible with a patient who has anti-Jk? a 25% c 75% b 40% d 90% 20 You must find two units f compatible blood for a patient who has anti-JK. How many units will you cross match? a 5 c 20 b 10 d 50 21 When a patient is to undergo heart by pass surgery, which antibody is considered clinically significant? a Anti-A c Anti-Le b Anti-b d Anti-P1

23 24 25 26 27 28

29

31

33

a Kidd c Lewis b Lutheran d Xg In titration of an antibody, the first 2-3 tubes are negative and later tubes are positive. This is known as: a Rouleaux effect c Antigen effect b Antibody effect d Prozone effect Intravascular hemolysis occurs when: a Complement is activated c Calcium is activated b Complement is inactivated d Calcium is inactivated What is the optimum pH at which antibodies bind o cells? a 5.5-6.0 c 6.0-7.0 b 7.8-8.5 d 6.5-7.5 A blood bank has 10 nits of O Rho (D) positive blood from random donors. It should be4 easiest to find two units of compatible blood for the patient with: a Anti-e b Anti-c c Anti-k d Anti-Le If the patient with anti-E needs a blood transfusion, approximately what percentage of donor blood tested will be compatible? a 2% b 305 c 70% d 98% A patient needing a blood transfusion is found to have anti-P1. According to the statistics, select the appropriate number of compatible units: a 1 of 4 units c 2 of 3 units b 1 of 10 units d 3 of 4 units A 56 C water bath is commonly used for: 30 1. isotonic saline 2.preparing elautos 3.inactivating sera 4. Thawing frozen cells a 1 and 4 c 1,2 and 3 b 2 and 3 d 1,2,3 and 4 Testing media for antigen-antibody reactions include: 32 1. isotonic saline 2. LISS 3. Albumin 4.Enzymes a 1 and 3 c 1,2 and 3 b 2 and 4 d 1,2.3 and 4 Anti-a1 agglutinin is: 34 1. found in group A1 patients 3.Found in all A2 b patients


74

35 36

37

40

45

50

55

56

57

58

2. occasionally found in A2 patients 4. Found in group B and O patients a 1 and 3 c 1,2 and 3 b 2 and 4 d 1,2,3 and 4 Standardize techniques for blood banking procedures by: a Grading reactions consistently b Timing test accurately c Making accurate cell suspensions and controlling size of drops d AOTA Anti-ab serum: 38 1. Is obtained from A1B individuals 3. Is obtained from group O individual 39 2. Is obtained from A2B individuals 4. Confirms group o individuals a 1 and 2 c 1,2 and 3 b 3 and 4 d 1,2,3 and 4 Rh antibodies: 41 1. React more strongly at 37C than at 4C 42 2. Frequency noted to be cold agglutinins 43 3. Is obtained acquired fr. Transfusion or pregnancy 44 4. Confirms group O individuals a 1 and 3 c 1,3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1,2,3 and 4 Which of the following are naturally occurring? 46 1. anti –P1 47 2. Anti- Le 48 3. Anti –N 49 4. Anti-S a 1 and 3 c 1,3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1,2,3 and 4 The group B phenotype can result from the following genotype/s? 51 1. A1B 52 2. BBB 53 3. AO 54 4. BO a 1 and 3 c 1,3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1,2,3 and 4 The phenotype A can result from which of the following genotypes? a A1A2 d A2O b A2A2 e A1B c A1O In the every acute phase of hepatitis, which of the following would be indicative of the onset of a viremic state? a Positive HBsAG c Positive anti-HBc b Positive HBeAg d Anti-HAV What is the expirations date (In days) of red blood cells preserved with citrate –phosphate- dextroseadenine (CPDA-1)? a 2; c 35 b 24 d 40 Low ionic strength solution (LISS): 59 1. Causes of increase in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells 60 2. Causes decrease in the electropositive cations surrounding the red cells 61 3. Usually consists of phosphate saline and glycine 62 4. Enhances the rate and sensitivity of the antigen-antibody reactions a 1 and 3 c 2,3 and 4 b 2 and 4 d 1,2,3,and 4

e f SUPERVISION AND MANAGEMENT 1. Which a new employee begins orientation, the employers skills and abilities should be permanently documents in the: a.Personnel handbook c.Personnel file b.Orientation checklist d.None of the above 2. The orientation process for a new employee includes all of the following EXCEPT: a.A review of duties and responsibilities of the job b.A review of personnel policies c.The location of general use facilities A1 PASSERS REVIEW CENTER 320-2728 //

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d.A request for personal information on past facilities 3. During the orientation period for a new employee, all of the following actions should be performed EXCEPT: a.Introduction to laboratory staff b.Introduction to department management c.Introduction to reference laboratory technical support associate d.Introduction and identification of supervisory personnel 4. An orientation to the laboratory work area includes of the following Except: a.A review of all tests the new employee will be expected to perform b.The techniques and procedures employed by technical biomedical service engineers c.Routine Preventative maintenance and troubleshooting of instruments d.Necessary responses to grossly abnormal patient test results 5. 6. 7. All new employees should be introduced to the proper procedures for all of the following EXCEPT: a.Use and care of personnel identification card b.Proper use and documentation on time cards c.Personnel reputations for time cards d.Calculating time card hours 8. We I designed job description does NOT include which of the following? a.The duties of the employee for the job classification b.The minimal qualifications of the employee c.The pay scale for the job d.Job responsibilities and degree of supervision 9. Personnel evaluations should be conducted at least: a.Weekly c.Quarterly b.Monthly d.Annually 10. Employee personnel records should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Records or affidavits of civil or criminal c.Reprimands and commendations arrests d.Copies of certification and credentials b.An employees job descriptions 11. A continuing education unit (CEU) is defined as: a.One hour c.Ten contact hours b.One contact hour d.Twenty hours 12. In-service and continuing education programs for the employee should be conducted at least: a.Weekly c.Monthly b.Bi-weekly d.Annually 13. The determination of the type of services offered by the laboratory must take into consideration all of the following EXCEPT: a.The request of the patients b.Usefulness of procedures for the type of patients treated c.Needs of the medical staff d.The reasonable cost-to-change relationship of the procedure 14. Which of the following would cause the most concern in limiting test specimen processing? a.A temporary shortage of staffing b.A minimum supply of reagents c.A lack of qualified personnel to perform analysis d.The temporary absence of a technical supervisor 15. Infection control policies and procedures should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Personnel protective equipment and clothing to be used b.Engineering control procedures c.Work practice controls d.Cultures to be taken 16. Emergency Evacuation routes and procedures for the laboratory should be posted: a.In the laboratory office c.Not posted but in the safety manual b.In the laboratory sections d.At every entrance and exit 17. Result that are grossly abnormal should be reviewed by one or all of the following EXCEPT: a.General laboratory supervisor c.Physician ordering the test b.Medical director of the laboratory d.Section supervisor 18. In the performance evaluation, the parties involved should consider all of the following EXCEPT: a.Goals and obligations identified b.Review of workers actual performance during the period c.Criteria used to evaluate performance d.Management system to evaluate performance


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19. A well maintained personnel file for an employee should contain all of the following EXCEPT: a.Job description of employee b.Written reprimands and commendations c.Salary and benefits records d.Information regarding the personal life of the employee 20. Test results should be re5ported: a.At specific time periods during the shift b.When requested c.Within the specified time defined by the laboratory d.In a clinically useful time period 21. All emergency (STAT) laboratory analysis should be reported to the ordering physician, or designate, within a.0.5 to 1 hour c.1-2 hours b.10-20 minutes d.3 hours 22. All laboratory testing performed by another laboratory and reported by the originating laboratory must include, on the report form, which one of the following? a.The initials of the person collecting the specimen b.The name and address of the laboratory performing the analysis c.The type of specimen submit7ted tio the reference laboratory d.The signature of the technical supervisor of the originating laboratory 23. A properly labelled specimen will include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Name of patient c.Date of collection b.Unique identification number d.Date of birth of patient 24. Labels that must be affixed to reagents of materials prepared by the laboratory include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Hazards And precautions c.Recommended storage b.Concentrations of reagents d.Amount of reagent used in a procedure 25. Those who utilize laboratory services for patient testing should be provided with information pertinent to all of the following EXCEPT: a.Proper methods of specimen collection b.Care necessary in collection and transport of specimen c.Special times of collection and preparation of patient d.Methodologies employed in the performance of testing 26. Laboratory specimens require proper labelling for positive patient identification throughout the processing of the specimen. Identify the one unnecessary items of information from the list below: a.Patients age c.Date of specimen collection b.Full name of patient d.Unique patient identification number 27. To assure proper test performance all of the following must be available to the technical staff in the immediate area of testing EXCEPT: a.Specimen collecting and handling requirement b.A methodology for the performance of the procedure c.Proficiency report of previous inter laboratory evaluations d.Necessary quality control materials to be utilized 28. Purchased reagents and diagnostic kits must be verified for intented reactivity: a.Before being used for patient testing b.When running out of old materials c.Within 2 days of beginning use of new materials 29. The title page of a policy or procedure manual should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Effective date of manual c.Signature of individual approving the b.Date of last revision manual d.Index of manual 30. Each standard operating procedure must be reviewed and date by the laboratory director: a.Weekly c.Yearly or whenever changes are made b.Yearly d.None of the above 31. The standard operating procedure manual should address four primary areas. These areas are: a.Materials, supplies, equipment, storage b.Equipment, reporting results, technical methods, materials c.Supplies, instrumentation, equipment, materials d.Reporting results, reagents, clinical relevance, reference services 32. Quality assurance studies should be conducted on a regular basis a.To identify problems and make corrections b.To point a finger at poor performance by testing personnel c.Determine competency of management of the laboratory d.So that the laboratory will comply with CLIA regulations


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33. Management role in providing for a safe working environment includes all of the following EXCEPT: a.Adequate orientation of new employees in safety practices b.Annual safety training c.Providing incentive for employees to use safety equipment d.Maintenance of all safety equipment in good working order 34. Reagents that require storage between 2-8 c and are photo reactive should be stored in a: a.Refrigerator in a dark bottle c.Dark laboratory cabinet sealed from light b.Refrigerator in a clear bottle d.Laboratory closet in a cool location 35. Which of the following is NOT associated with improper specimen sampling? a.Incorrect specimen collection vessels c.Cleansing of the collection site b.Inappropriate venipuncture site d.Labelling of specimen with name only 36. 37. 38. Venipuncture site prepared for the purpose of obtaining ethanol levels should be cleansed with: a.Acqueous marthiolate solution c.Ethano9l b.Methanol d.Betadine 39. Daily instrument preparation and evaluation should include all of the following EXCEPT: a.Evaluation of electronic parameters b.Quality control of test procedures c.Dummy runs to certify operation d.Certification of operation within manufactures specifications 40. Food and drink may be stored in a laboratory refrigerator if: a.Placed in a special sealed container b.Marked as a consumable material c.Food and drink may not be placed in a laboratory refrigerator d.Stored for short periods of time 41. Laboratory fire extinguishers should be inspected at least: a.Annually c.Weekly b.Monthly d.Quarterly 42. Laboratory safety manuals should be available in: a.The laboratory office only b.The pathologists office only c.All work areas of the laboratory d.In the administration office and dangerous laboratory areas 43. Flammable liquids may be stored: a.In an ordinary refrigerator with a flammable storage label affixed b.In any refrigerator within the laboratory department c.In an explosion-proof refrigerator d.Only in an explosion-proof refrigerator located in a remote area 44. Laboratory supplies should NOT be stored: a.In cabinets and drawers c.On the floor b.At floor level if placed upon a raised d.On shelving platform 45. The national fire protection association hazard, warning emblem is a three colored square label. The three colors are red, and yellow. Within each color block is a numeral identifying the severity of the hazard identified by the color. The color red identifies fire hazards, yellow indentifies instability of the product, and blue identifies what type of hazard? a.Radiation c.Poison b.Health d.Acid 46. Management’s role in the administration of the clinical laboratory requires daily efforts in four areas. These four areas are planning, organizing, activating, and: a.Reporting c.Communication b.Supervising d.Evaluating 47. Directives from supervisory personnel must be: a.Clear and concise c.Reasonable b.Applied with regard to the demands of d.All of the above the situation 48. The purchasing of laboratory supplies must be monitored through the evaluation and verification of three important document to ascertain that the laboratory received proper products and paid the appropriate price. These three documents are a.Purchase order, instruction manual, packing slip b.Invoice, packing slip, instrument manual c.Purchase order, packing slip, invoice


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d.Packing slip, bill of lading, price list 49. In order to participate in the medicare program, a laboratory must meet all applicable a.Federal laws and regulations b.State laws and regulations c.Federal and state laws and regulations d.Federal of state laws and regulations 50. A laboratory must be licensed under the clinic laboratory improvement act (CLIS) if it a.Only collects specimens c.Performs electro cardio grams b.Operates in mexico and Canada d.Engages in interstate commerce 51. A hospital clinical laboratory that performs medicare work must be: a.Accredited by JCAH c.Approved by medicare b.Accredited by CAP d.A member of AHA 52. 53. Proficiency testing should consist of a.Testing and evaluating individuals workers b.Internal external quality control testing sample c.Sending sample to a reference lab for analysis d.Checking all reagents for performance 54. If a result on a single control had a result outside of standard deviations, you should a.Repeat the run c.Use a new standard b.Check the reagents d.Check the machine for a detect 55. An explosion could result if a.Acid added to water c.Acid is neutralized and water added b.Water is premixed with a weak salt d.Water is added to concentrated acid 56. An excellent general laboratory cleanser that is also a disinfectant is a.0.85% c.Hypochlorite b.Tincture of iodine d.Tincture of merthiolate 57. All accidents should have a written report made within a.The time the accident victim is c.24 hours hospitalized d.30 days b.The week is occurred 58. One of the best preventive measured for personal safety is a.Avoiding work areas b.Frequent hand washing c.Avoiding all incoming specimens that are marked “CAUTION”’ d.Wearing protective clothing at all times 59. An laboratory procedures commonly practiced for years that must be avoided in to days laboratory is a.Pouring chemicals from stock bottles c.Use of nonbiodegradable chemicals b.Use of Bunsen burners d.Pipetting by mouth 60. The only avenue of access to a patients is laboratory record from an outside source without the patients written permission is a.A lawyer request c.Some from of judicial order b.A pathologist request d.A hospitals request 61. Which biological samples should be regarded as potential hazards? a.Urine specimens from AIDS patients d.Sputum specimens from tubercular b.Stool specimens patients c.All biological samples 62. Materials used in blood collecting should be disposed of by a.Placing in acid for 24 hours b.Boiling for 15 minutes in saline c.Placing in a potassium dichromatic solution for 24 hours d.Placing in a bag and autoclaving 63. Which of the following does not appear on the specimen label? a.The name of the patient c.The name of the requesting physician b.A tentative diagnosis d.The date of collection 64. If an automated test instrument should be temporarily inoperable, samples for testing should be a.Discarded and fresh ones obtained when the instrument is operable b.Kept 27C until the instrument is operate c.Analyzed by alternate method or properly stored until the instrument is operable d.Stored in the refrigerator until the instrument is operate 65. Chemical waste is best discarded by a.Burying contaminated materials in an isolated area b.Burning the waste in a laboratory incinerator


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66. 67.

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70. 71.

72. 73. 74.

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c.Neutralizing , diluting and then burying or incinerating d.Dissolving in acid and burying the results Laboratory specimens should be regarded as a.Routine unless otherwise noted c.Routine with no precautions b.Non-infectious unless noted d.Infectious Accumulated radiation exposure for clinical laboratory personnel should not exceed how many roentgen equivalents in humans (rem) per quaterter? a.15 c.10 b.3 d.7 A centrifuge should be checked with a tachometer every a.3 months c.9 months b.6 months d.Annually 69. The degree of reproducibility among a series of laboratory determinations on the same specimen is called a.Accuracy c.Sensitivity b.Precision d.Specificity A precision run has a mean (X) of 231 and standard deviation of 5. The patient coefficient of variation is a.0.0216 b.21.6000 c.2.1600 d.46.2000 The disposal procedure for radioactive material (1125) used in the laboratory is as follows a.Follow manufacturers instruction c. Pack well and place in trach can b.Place in a special radioactive disposal can d.Dispose with copious amounts of water On method to check the accuracy of a pipellor is to deliver multiple volumes into a a.Graduated centrifuge tube c.Class A volumentric flask b.Graduated cylinder d.All of the above What is a pure, stable chemical substance of a definite composition of which measured amounts are used to establish a point of reference against which unknown amounts of the substance can be compared and determined? a.Reference sample b.Control c.Primary standard d.Secondary standard Fire extinguishers would be monitored , certified , and dated every a. Six months b.Months c.Years d.Two years How often should a spore suspension be used to check the sterility of an autoclave? a.Once a month b.Twice a month c.Every three months d.None of the above Countertops should be disinfected at least a.In the morning before work starts b.In the evening after work ends c.Once a week d.Before work begins and when finished Under medicare regulations the laboratory report is sent to the physician who requested the test and a record is kept on file for what period of time? a.90 days b.1 year c.2 years d.7 years A mathematical measure of the speed (dispreson) of statistical data above and below the average is called: a.Reliability b.Mean c.Precision d.Standard deviation All laboratory reagents should have labels that state: a.Name of reagent b.Date received of prepared


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c.Expiration date d.All of the above 81. A budget is a written formal proposal of expected re venues and: a.`Standards b.Expenses c.Requirements d.Income 82. A laboratory worker splashes concentrated hydrochloric acid in hid/her eye. The best safety measure is to a.Wash the eye with dilute sodium hydroxide (NaOrt) and call a physician STAT b.Wash the eye with distilled water and call a physician STAT c.Wash the eye with dilute acetic acid and call a physician STAT d.Call the physician and wait for his/her advice 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102.


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103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149.

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