BAN TỔ CHỨC KÌ THI
TUYỂN TẬP ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ NĂM 2014 TIẾNG ANH 11
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ NĂM HỌC 2013 - 2014 ĐỀ SỐ 1
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Ngày thi: 19/04/2014
A. LISTENING: (15 pts) Part 1: You will hear a lecturer talking about how to increase sales. Listen and choose the correct answer: A, B or C. (5 pts) 1. Retailers place popular items A. in the back of the store. B. near the front entrance. C. at the end of the aisle. 2. Carpet patterns are used to A. help shoppers feel comfortable. B. appeal to shoppers’ decorative sense. C. encourage shoppers to walk in certain directions. 3. Retailers can keep customers in the store longer by A. providing places to sit. B. keeping the doors closed. C. lowering the prices. 4. Music is used in stores to A. entertain customers. B. slow customers down. C. make customers shop faster. 5. The scent of vanilla has been used in A. ice cream shops. B. bakeries. C. clothing stores. Part 2: You will hear a man and a woman talking about a community centre. Listen and fill in the gaps with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. (10 pts) Days
Class/Activity
Age Group
Wednesday, Saturday
(1). ………………………
Children, teens
(2). ……………………….
Tennis
(3). ……………………….
Tuesday, Thursday
(4). ……………………….
Children, teens, adults
Friday
Book club
(5). …………………….
Membership fees: (6) $ ……………………… (individual) (7) $ ……………………… (family) 1
Located at 107 (8) …………………………… Street Parking is located (9) ……………………………. The Centre is closed on (10) …………………………..
B. PHONETICS: (5p) Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others: (2.5p) 1. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival 2. A. opportunity B. menu C. attitude D. muscular 3. A. physical B. mythology C. rhythm D. psychology 4. A. apartheid B. thorough C. cathedral D. ethnic 5. A. exhausted B. cheetah C. rhinoceros D. alcoholic.
Part 2. Find the word whose main stress is different from that of the others. (2.5 pts) 1. A. Admission 2. A. representative 3. A. acquaintance 4. A. misbehaviour 5. A. intensity
B. requirement B. satisfactory B. government B. generational B. apprentice
C. copyright C. documentary C. development C. disciplinary C. attendance
D. vocational D. deforestation D. interpret D. education D. atmosphere
C. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 PTS) Part 1. Choose the word/phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. (5pts) 1. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for. A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as 2. Larry _____ forgot where he’d left his keys. A. momentarily B. directly C. singularly D. shortly 3. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful _____. A. cooperation B. coordination C. corporation D. coexistence 4. James could no longer bear the _____ surroundings of the decrepit old house. A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing 5. I find the idea of experimenting on animals _____. A. disagreeing B. objectionable C. distasteful D. objective 6. He’s a bit timid and hasn’t yet _____ the courage to apply for the job. A. put on B. get off C. plucked up D. carried through 7. Following the crime in Bradford High Street last Saturday afternoon, the police are checking _____ anyone who was there at the time. A. in for B. up on C. out of D. over to 8. According to a Government spokesman, further _____ in the public sector are to be expected. A. cutbacks B. breakdowns C. out-takes D. layouts 9. Under the weather or not, Ashcroft _____ 2 mins 13.8 secs, almost a second faster than her winning time last year. A. set B. clocked C. gained D. took 10.That judge is feared because she takes a hard _____ in the fight against drugs. A. line B. lane C. path D. rule 2
11.He will be sued for _____ of contract if he does not do what he promised. A. fracture B. crack C. rupture D. breach 12.You shouldn’t _____ into other’s people private lives. A. prowl B. prod C. proceed D. pry 13.Some romantic novelists _____ out books with the same old formula every year. A. churn B. spill C. ladle D. pour 14.Even the best medicines are not _____. A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified 15.The dog was a little subdued yesterday, but she’s full of _____ this morning. A. sprouts B. beans C. chips D. berries 16.There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated, you’ll need to keep your _____ about you. A. mind B. wits C. head D. brain 17.Just because we’ve had a good year, this does not mean that we cannot do better: we must not _____. A. have our head in the clouds B. bury our heads in the sand C. count our blessings D. rest on our laurels 18.There’s nothing as cozy on a cold evening as the warm _____ of a fire. A. glare B. sparkle C. glow D. flame 19.She seems to be angry with the whole world. She’s got a chip _____. A. on her shoulder B. in her bonnet C. under her hat D. between the ears 20.How do you calculate the distance to the horizon? As a _____, it’s 7 miles + 1 mile per 100 ft above sea level. A. trick of the trade B. golden rule C. free hand D. rule of thumb Part 2: Read the text, find the10 mistakes and correct them. You should indicate in which line the mistake is. (5 pts) Thirty years ago, the TV series UFO envisions 1999 as an era when space fighters were launched from submarines, the world was in threat from alien invaders -and everyone carried a slide rule in a holster on their belts. Even as the programme was being made, pocket calculators were coming onto the market. There was a lesson about the future: it will overtake your wildest imaginings. If you focus on what existing technologies will develop, you miss the real changes - and threats. This autumn sees the changeover between keyboards and mice to using the human voice to dictate directly onto the screen, and to command the computer. Wonderful, you may think. A cure for repetitive strain injure (RSI), caused by repeated physical actions. Except that it will not be. It will transfer RSI from the wrist to the throat. The voice box is a very delicate instrument and we are not used to speak all the time. Even 200 words (taking a little over a minute to say) leaves us clearing our throats and sipping a drink. There will be catastrophes unless we learn how to use our voices safe. Students who get up on the morning of an essay deadline to compose 4,000 words on a voice -operated computer could permanently damage their voices. Each new technological development tends to bring problems with it. Nobody had heard of RSI until word processors exploded onto the market. Long hours spent stare into a computer monitor led to complaints of eyestrain, backache and even worries about radiation leaks from the screen. Repetitive computer related tasks are such a common features of modern work that many companies are calling in ergonomic consultants to recommend ways to avoid RSI conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, a wrist condition commonly found in people who use keyboards. 3
Companies found that by following their advices, claims for injury or illnesses suffered by employees were greatly diminished. Part 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition or particle. (5 pts) 1. The ship was bound ……………..Japan when it ran into typhoon. 2. You need to show that picture …………….a dark background. 3. I turned ……………..at the meeting but the others didn’t come. 4. Inside your passport, you should write the name of your next……………..kin. 5. We walked out of the room ……………..tiptoe, so as not to disturb the sleeping baby. 6. After the war, several people were tried for crimes …………….humanity. 7. I hate people who give………………the end of a film that you haven’t seen. 8. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung ………………… 9. As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put …………… a proposal? 10. Queen Victoria reigned ……………..Britain and Ireland for over sixty years. 11. The government was finally brought ……………… by a minor scandal. 12. The murderer turned himself ……………….to the police one week after the crime. 13. We saw Ron’s mom lay ………………..him when he came home late last night. 14. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding ……………….in his chair. 15. Her husband promised to mend the broken wheel soon………………fail. 16. His business is growing so fast that he must take …………………more workers. 17. Who’ll compensate me ……………… my loss? 18. Her uncle was given the award ………………recognition of his services to the factory. 19. I must ask you not to allude …………….my past indiscretions. 20. John has grown …………………his habit of playing truant. Part 4. Give the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete the sentences. (5 pts) 1. The tiny village is the birthplace of one of the world’s most beloved bears, Smokey Bear, (be)____precise! 2. While attempting to curb the inferno, a fire crew (rescue)_____ a badly frightened cub (cling)____to a burnt pine tree. 3. The finding that the burial chamber (date)______back to 300 B.C has attracted many archeologists. 4. I was born in an area of southern France where fresh Mediterranean tastes and smells (abound)_____. 5. The village’s first new houses for 20 years (be)______to be built next to Sane river. 6. What tune (play)____when they (come) ____in? 7. I suppose when I (come) back in two years’ time, they (pull) ______down all these buildings. 8. It was the dreariest hotel I ( ever have)_____the misfortune (stay)_____in. 9. He would never miss (go)____ to such good party. 10. There was nobody around. John (stand) ____where she (leave) ____him. 11. He wasn’t responsible. He wasn’t (blame)_____. 12. What a dangerous thing to do! You (kill)______. 13. I felt as if I (betray)_____a confidence. 14. The accused denied (be)____in the vicinity of the murder scene. 15. It’s essential that all top security documents (stamp)____CONFIDENTIAL. Part 5. Complete the text by writing a correct form of the word in CAPITALS . (0) has been done as an example. (5 pts)
4
IS IT WORTH IT? It is (0) …commonly… believed that a break from everyday routine can COMMON only do you good. Every summer, you can spot prospective (1) ………………….. at airports and waiting for car HOLDAY ferries. They are (2) …………………… - you can tell them a mile away by their MISTAKE sun hats and hopeful expressions. For all their optimism, what often actually happens can be a rude (3) ……………………. from the blissful holiday dreams of the rest WAKE of the year. Sunburn, mosquitoes and (4) …………………….. FORESEE expenses can make you think twice about how (5) ……………….. getting away BENEFIT from it all really is. The fact is, the (6) ………………… of something going wrong LIKELY is maximized when you are abroad and, (7) ………………….., your ability to deal FORTUNE with crisis and catastrophe is often minimized. This could be because of language problems, (8) ………………….. with the culture, or FAMILIAR simply a different climate, all of which make everything seem different and unreal. So, what is the answer? (9) …………………., an annual escape from DOUBT normal working life is a very positive thing. However, the (10) …………………. of seeking an exotic location is questionable when you WISE think of all the things that can go wrong. Part 6: Choose the words/ phrases from the table below to complete the passage. TWO suggested phrases do not fit at all.(5 pts) on the other for example all things considered for this reason whilst in contrast
secondly
firstly
too
thus
but
furthermore
Censorship is an issue which frequently generates a great deal of heated debate, with supporters maintaining that it is vital in order to protect society, (1) _________ opponents claim that it is an unjustifiable restriction of public access to information. (2)__________, all countries have secrets which must be safeguarded for reasons of national security. For instance, if an enemy country were to acquire such highly sensitive information, the effects could be catastrophic. Consequently, governments have to have the power to restrict access to information concerning areas such as the armed forces or particular aspects of foreign policy. (3) __________, it is often argued that censorship is necessary to prevent the broadcast and publication of obscene material which is considered offensive and harmful to public morals. Many people feel that, without censorship the public would be constantly subjected to material that the majority would find offensive. (4) __________, the government has a duty to impose certain restrictions on the mass media by censoring films and texts which contain explicit scenes of sex, violence or foul language. (5) __________, opponents of censorship point out that when it is abused by governments, censorship becomes an instrument used to misinform society and maintain power. In order to control the flow of information which reaches the public, repressive regimes try to put constraints on the media, (6) __________denying citizens the right to information owing to the fact that governments believe it may lead them to seek greater freedom. (7) _____________, it is generally felt that mature adults are able to make informed choices about what they watch, read and listen to and should, therefore, be permitted to make their own decisions. 5
(8) ____________, some comedians make use of offensive language and taboo subjects in their performances. Critics of censorship argue that the only people who will watch or listen to such material are adults who have made a conscious decision to do so. Thus, it is claimed, it is unjust to censor material like this since it is not forced upon people who may subsequently be offended by it. (9) ____________, it can be concluded that a certain degree of censorship is always necessary. The best course of action would be to attempt to achieve a balance between the requirements of the country and the public on the one hand, and individuals’ rights (10) ____________.
C. READING. (25 PTS) Part 1.For each gap, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D which best fits the context.(7.5 pts) As time 1. ______, the power of newspapers seems to be on the 2. ______ This is odd because in the relatively 3. ______ past, people were predicting that the influence of the written word would diminish in 4. ______ proportion to the rate of increase of the spoken word and moving image through TV and video. As people whole-heartedly 5. ______ the Internet and cable and satellite television, why don’t we see newspapers 6. ______ out? How have these organs survived, let alone 7. ______, particularly on a Sunday? Why don’t people who have watched a football match live on the small screen 8. ______ the wisdom of rushing out the next day to read a 9. ______ version of it in four or five columns? Why would anyone who has seen a film and formed a 10. ______ impression of it the following day read the review of the 11. ______ film in a newspaper? To see if s/he is right? Isn’t that what friends are for? Don’t we have colleagues for just that purpose – to see if our ideas on any 12. ______ song, film or program tally with others’? What is this product that 13. ______ of not much more than outrageous headlines, wayward comment, subjective editorials and hyperbolic sports pages still doing in our lives? It seems for the time 14. ______ to be leading a charmed life. When it finally goes, though, many may come to mourn its 15. ______ 1. A. flies B. passes C. goes D. drags 2. A. increase B. rise C. expansion D. build 3. A. latest B. distant C. immediate D. recent 4. A. exact B. direct C. precise D. equal 5. A. embrace B. view C. agree D. win 6. A. going B. decreasing C. dying D. declining 7. A. flourished B. bloomed C. flowered D. rooted 8. A. press B. question C. ask D. increase 9. A. curtailed B. cut C. reduced D. potted 10. A. vivid B. coloured C. bright D. direct 11. A. exact B. self-same C. last D. copied 12. A. given B. taken C. subjected D. written 13. A. comprises B. contains C. consists D. informs 14. A. out B. being C. given D. present 15. A. perishing B. dying C. falling D. passing Part 2: Fill ONE suitable word in each blank.(7.5 pts) Skateboard Some sports or activities have traditionally been (1)………. with people, even though it is not always clear why. Skateboarders, for instance, are expected to (2)……….teenagers wearing clothes four sizes too big for them. When you come to think of it, there’s (3)………..practical reason why people over the age of 21 shouldn’t take (4)………the sport. 6
Skateboarding involves a certain (5)………. of falling off the board, (6)……..can of course be painful, but this also (7)………. to other sports like skiing or surfing. Sports should not be restricted (8)…………teenagers. There is (9)……….wrong with a grown - up gliding down the road on his or her board. (10)……………the same time, I must confess that I (11)………. a certain sympathy for my niece Emily when her father, my older brother Tom, announced that he was going skateboarding with her. At the age of 14 you are very conscious of (12)…………other people think of you. She knew all her friends would laugh at her if she arrived for the regular Saturday morning skateboarding sessions in the local park with her dad. Emily felt (13)…………embarrassment would be more than she could bear, so she kindly asked her father (14)…………he could go skateboarding somewhere else. Tom realized how embarrassed Emily must felt and (15)…………….. out laughing. Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. (5 points) Meteorite Impact and Dinosaur Extinction There is increasing evidence that the impacts of meteorites have had important effects on Earth, particularly in the field of biological evolution. Such impacts continue to pose a natural hazard to life on Earth. Twice in the twentieth century, large meteorite objects are known to have collided with Earth. If an impact is large enough, it can disturb the environment of the entire Earth and cause an ecological catastrophe. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million years ago at the end of the Cretaceous period of geological history. This break in Earth’s history is marked by a mass extinction, when as many as half the species on the planet became extinct. While there are a dozen or more mass extinctions in the geological record, the Cretaceous mass extinction has always intrigued paleontologists because it marks the end of the age of the dinosaurs. For tens of millions of years, those great creatures had flourished. Then, suddenly, they disappeared. The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite with amass of more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists first identified this impact in 1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from the dust cloud that enveloped the planet after the impact. This sediment layer is enriched in the rare metal iridium and other elements that are relatively abundant in a meteorite but very rare in the crust of Earth. Even diluted by the terrestrial material excavated from the crater, this component of meteorites is easily identified. By 1990 geologists had located the impact site itself in the Yucatán region of Mexico. The crater, now deeply buried in sediment, was originally about 200 kilometers in diameter. This impact released an enormous amount of energy, excavating a crater about twice as large as the lunar crater Tycho. The explosion lifted about 100 trillion tons of dust into the atmosphere, as can be determined by measuring the thickness of the sediment layer formed when this dust settled to the surface. Such a quantity of material would have blocked the sunlight completely from reaching the surface, plunging Earth into a period of cold and darkness that lasted at least several months. The explosion is also calculated to have produced vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that sprayed out overmuch of Earth, starting widespread fires that must have consumed most terrestrial forest sand grassland. Presumably, those environmental disasters could have been responsible for the mass extinction, including the death of the dinosaurs. Several other mass extinctions in the geological record have been tentatively identified with large impacts, but none is so dramatic as the Cretaceous event. But even without such specific documentation, it is clear that impacts of this size do occur and that their results can be catastrophic. What is a catastrophe for one group of living things, however, may create opportunities for another 7
group. Following each mass extinction, there is a sudden evolutionary burst as new species develop to fill the ecological niches opened by the event. Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes and seriously influence the evolution of life all over the planet. According to some estimates, the majority of all extinctions of species may be due to such impacts. Such a perspective fundamentally changes our view of biological evolution. The standard criterion for the survival of a species is its success in competing with other species and adapting to slowly changing environments. Yet an equally important criterion is the ability of a species to survive random global ecological catastrophes due to impacts. Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were unsuspected a few decades ago. In 1991 the United States Congress asked NASA to investigate the hazard posed today by large impacts on Earth. The group conducting the study concluded from a detailed analysis that impacts from meteorites can indeed be hazardous. Although there is always some risk that a large impact could occur, careful study shows that this risk is quite small. 1. The word “pose” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. claim B. model C. assume D. present 2. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that dinosaurs had flourished for tens of millions of years and then suddenly disappeared? A. To support the claim that the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous is the best-documented of the dozen or so mass extinctions in the geological record B. To explain why as many as half of the species on Earth at the time are believed to have become extinct at the end of the Cretaceous C. To explain why paleontologists have always been intrigued by the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous D. To provide evidence that an impact can be large enough to disturb the environment of the entire planet and cause an ecological disaster 3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the location of the meteorite impact in Mexico? A. The location of the impact site in Mexico was kept secret by geologists from 1980 to 1990. B. It was a well-known fact that the impact had occurred in the Yucatán region. C. Geologists knew that there had been an impact before they knew where it had occurred. D. The Yucatán region was chosen by geologists as the most probable impact site because of its climate. 4. According to paragraph 3, how did scientists determine that a large meteorite had impacted Earth? A. They discovered a large crater in the Yucatán region of Mexico. B. They found a unique layer of sediment worldwide. C. They were alerted by archaeologists who had been excavating in the Yucatán region. D. They located a meteorite with a mass of over a trillion tons. 5. The word “excavating” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. digging out B. extending C. destroying D. covering up 6. According to paragraph 4, all of the following statements are true of the impact at the end of the Cretaceous period EXCEPT: A. A large amount of dust blocked sunlight from Earth. B. Earth became cold and dark for several months. C. New elements were formed in Earth’s crust. 8
D. Large quantities of nitric acid were produced. 7. The phrase “tentatively identified” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. identified after careful study B. identified without certainty C. occasionally identified D. easily identified 8. Paragraph 6 supports which of the following statements about the factors that are essential for the survival of a species? A. The most important factor for the survival of a species is its ability to compete and adapt to gradual changes in its environment. B. The ability of a species to compete and adapt to a gradually changing environment is not the only ability that is essential for survival. C. Since most extinctions of species are due to major meteorite impacts, the ability to survive such impacts is the most important factor for the survival of a species. D. The factors that are most important for the survival of a species vary significantly from one species to another. 9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the following sentence? "Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were unsuspected a few decades ago." Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Until recently, nobody realized that Earth is exposed to unpredictable violent impacts from space. B. In the last few decades, the risk of a random violent impact from space has increased. C. Since most violent events on Earth occur randomly, nobody can predict when or where they will happen. D. A few decades ago, Earth became the target of random violent events originating in outer space. 10. According to the passage, who conducted investigations about the current dangers posed by large meteorite impacts on Earth? A. Paleontologists B. Geologists C. The United States Congress D. NASA
Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.(5 pts) Questions 1 – 4 The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) next to questions 1 – 4 on your answer sheet. NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. i Industry Structures ii Disease Affects Production iii Trends in Production iv Government Assistance v How Deer Came to Australia vi Research and Development vii Asian Competition 9
viii Industry Development
Ex: Paragraph A – v 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D 4. Paragraph E Deer Farming In Australia Paragraph A Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed the basis for the deer industry in Australia today. Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer, two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and Victoria. Paragraph B The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in the number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia. Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive 10
advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product volumes of venison. Paragraph C From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and Co-Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn and co-products on behalf of Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also plans and co-ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers. Paragraph D Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during 1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be expanded to meet the demands for products. Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison, was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of the industry’s female breeding herds. Paragraph E Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000 five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer farming countries. Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to 11
1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd.
Questions 5 – 7 Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements below. For questions 5 – 7 on your answer sheet write: TRUE if the statement is true FALSE if the statement is false NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in Reading Passage 5. Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds. 6. The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison. 7. Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the Australian deer industry. Questions 8 – 10 Complete each of the following statements (Questions 8 –10) with words taken from Reading Passage. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 8. A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of product. 9. Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product supply. 10. Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________. E. WRITING: (25 pts) Part 1. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5pts.) 1. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us.
(TAKEN)
_________________________________________________________________ 2. The President was impeached because of his financial misconduct.
(GROUNDS)
______________________________________________________________ 3. The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her.
(GROWN)
_________________________________________________________________ 4. Oskar didn’t feel like going out last night.
(MOOD)
________________________________________________________________ 5. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
(EARS)
_________________________________________________________________ 6. His father was very angry with him when he heard he had damaged the car.
(BLEW)
________________________________________________________________ 7. Winning the lottery has its good and bad points.
(BLESSING) 12
_________________________________________________________________ 8. He’s a pleasant man socially but he is a tough businessman.
(BARGAIN)
___________________________________________________________________ 9. The young actress was very nervous before the audition.
(BUTTERFLIES)
___________________________________________________________________ 10. We were elated by the birth of our first grandchild.
(MOON)
___________________________________________________________________ Part 2. Graph description. (10pts) The table below shows the percentage of the rooms occupied in six hotels during May to September between 1985 and 2000. The table also indicates the star rating of each hotel. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words. Stars
1985
1990
1995
2000
Hotel Concorde
*****
90
90
30
65
Hamilton's
*****
100
100
95
70
The Tower
****
57
85
55
85
Hotel Olivia
***
90
85
89
95
Hampton's
***
100
100
90
100
The Continental
***
79
83
70
80
Part 3. Essay writing (10 pts.) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Parents are the best teachers. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should give reasons for your answer using your own ideas and experience. Write about 250 words.
13
ĐÁP ÁN MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 – ĐỀ SỐ 1. KỲ THI HSG VÙNG ĐỒNG BẰNG DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ HẢI DƯƠNG 2014 A. LISTENING Part 1: (5 pts) 1. A 2. C Part 2: (10 pts)
3. A
4. B
5. C
1. tutoring sessions 6. 75
2. Sunday
3. teens, adults
4. yoga
5. adults
7. 225
8. Eliot
9. across the street/ in the garage
10. Monday
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. D
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. D
B. PHONETICS Part 1: (2.5 pts) 1. C Part 2: (2.5 pts) 1. C
C. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY Part 1: (5 pts) 1. D 11. D
2. A 12. D
3. D 13.A
4. A 14. A
5. C 15. B
6. C 16. B
7. B 17.C
8. A 18. C
9. B 19. A
Part 2: (5 pts) 1. envision (1) envisioned 2. in threat (2) under threat 3. what (6) how 4. between (7) from 5. injure (9) injury
6. speak (11) speaking 7. safe (13) safely 8. stare (16) staring 9. features (18) feature 10. advices (21) advice
Part 3 (5 pts) 1. for 6. against
2. against 7. away
3. up 8. back
4. of 9. forward
5. on 10. over
10. A 20. D
11. down 16. on
12. in 17. for
13. into 18. in
14. off 19. to
15. without 20. out of
Part 4: (5 pts) 1. to be 5. abounds 9. come 13. going 17. might/could have been killed
2. rescued 6. are 10. will have pulled 14. stood 18. had betrayed
3. clinging 7. was being played 11. had …had 15. had left 19. being/ having been
4. dates 8. came 12. to stay 16. to blame 20. be stamped
Part 5: (5 pts) 1. holidaymakers 2. unmistakable 3. awakening 4. unforeseeable/ unforeseen 5. beneficial
6. likelihood 7. unfortunately 8. unfamiliarity 9. undoubtedly 10. wisdom
Part 6: (5 pts) 1. whilst 2. Firstly 3. Secondly 4. For this reason 5. In contrast
6. thus 7. Furthermore 8. For example 9. All things considered 10. on the other
D. READING Part 1: (7.5 pts) 1. B 6. C 11. B
2. A 7. A 12. A
3. D 8. B 13. C
4. B 9. D 14. B
5. A 10. A 15. D
Part 2: (7.5 pts) 1. connected 2. be 3. no 4. up 5. amount Part 3: (5 pts)
6. which 7. applies 8. to 9. nothing 10. At
11. felt 12. what 13. the 14. if 15. burst
1. D 6. C
2. C 7. B
3. C 8. B
4. B 9. A
5. A 10. D
2. i 7. NG
3. iii 8. quality assurance program
4. vi 9. breeding females
5. NG 10. Venison Market Project
Part 4: (5 pts) 1. viii 6. F
E. WRITING Part 1: (5 pts) 1. We were not taken in by his smooth manner. 2. The President was impeached on the grounds of his financial misconduct. 3. My daughter has grown out of the jumper you knitted for her. 4. Oskar was in no mood/ wasn’t in the mood for going out last night. 5. What the politician was saying last night feel on deaf ears. 6. His father blew up at him when he heard he had damaged the car. 7. Winning the lottery has definitely been a missed blessing. 8. He’s a pleasant man socially but he drives a hard bargain in business. 9. The young actress had butterflies in her stomach before the audition. 10. We were over the moon when our first grandchild was born. Part 2: (10 pts) 1. Completion: 1 pts 2. Content: 3 pts - Cover the main information in the chart yet not go into too much details. - Make general remarks and effective comparisons. 3. Organisation: 2 pts - The ideas are well organized - The description is sensibly divided into paragraphs 4. Language: 3 pts - Use a wide range of vocabulary and structure - Good grammar
5. Punctuation and spelling: 1 pt Part 3: (15 pts) 1. Completion: (1 pt.) 2. Content: (2 pts) Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable justification. 3. Organisation: (3 pts) - Present the right form of a paragraph - Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 4. Language: (3 pts) - Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. - Good use of grammatical structures. - Present the ideas with clarity. - Easy to follow. 5. Punctuations and spelling. (1 pts)
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DH & ĐB BẮC BỘ
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Lớp: …11….. Ngày thi: 20 tháng 4 năm 2014 Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian phát đề) Đề thi gồm 17 trang
PART ONE: LISTENING (15PTS) Question 1: Listen and choose the correct answer to each question. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts) 1. These sessions with a counselor are _____. A. compulsory for all students B. available to any students C. for science students only 2. The counselor says that new students have to _____. A. spend more time on the college premises B. get used to working independently C. work harder than they did at school 3. John complains that the resource center _____. A. has limited opening hours B. has too few resources C. gets too crowded 4. The counselor suggests to John that _____. A. most other students can cope B. he needs to study all the time C. he should be able to fit in some leisure activities 5. Before being able to help John, the counselor needs to _____. A. talk with some of his lectures B. consult his tutor C. get more information from him Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 2: (10pts) Q1-5: Listen and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write your answer (T or F) in the space provided. 1. The Australian Quarantine Service is responsible for preventing diseases from being introduced into the country. 2. In the past Asian honey bees have been found in Queensland, Australia. 3. A problem with Asian honey bees is that they attack native bees. 4. Australian bees’ size stops them from pollinating some flowers. 5. If Asian honey bees got into Australia, the country’s economy would be affected. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5. 1
Q6-10: Listen and complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. Write your answer in the space provided.
Looking for Asian honey bees Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only insects, and cough up small bits of skeleton and other products in a pellet. Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for (6) _____. They collect the pellets and take them to a (7) _____ for analysis. Here (8) _____ is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the (9) _____ of Asian bees in the pellets. The benefit of this research is that the result is more (10) _____ than searching for live Asian bees. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART TWO: PHONETICS (5PTS) Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others’ in the same line. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (2.5pts) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
A. universal A. obliged A. congenial A. bobtail A. condemnation
B. conservation B. hindsight B. recipient B. climber B. continuity
C. newscaster C. finalize C. appreciation C. combing C. contingency
D. consumption D. expertise D. refund D. debtor D. contact
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 2: Choose the word whose prominent stress is different from the others’ in the same line. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (2.5pts) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
A. firsthand A. descale A. petroleum A. innovative A. controversially
B. retail B. descent B. mausoleum B. commentary B. respiratory
C. marquee C. descend C. gymnasium C. alternative C. agribusiness
D. parade D. descant D. trapezium D. bodybuilder D. telecommuting
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5. 2
PART THREE: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30PTS) Question 1: Choose the word/phrase that best completes each of the following sentences. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts) 1. The new school complex cost _____ the city council had budgeted for. A. just twice as much as B. twice more by far than C. twice much more than D. almost twice as much as 2. Larry _____ forgot where he’d left his keys. A. momentarily B. directly C. singularly D. shortly 3. The Earth will be a planet where human beings, animals and plants live in peaceful _____. A. cooperation B. coordination C. corporation D. coexistence 4. James could no longer bear the _____ surroundings of the decrepit old house. A. oppressive B. domineering C. pressing D. overbearing 5. I find the idea of experimenting on animals _____. A. disagreeing B. objectionable C. distasteful D. objective 6. He’s a bit timid and hasn’t yet _____ the courage to apply for the job. A. put on B. get off C. plucked up D. carried through 7. Following the crime in Bradford High Street last Saturday afternoon, the police are checking _____ anyone who was there at the time. A. in for B. up on C. out of D. over to 8. According to a Government spokesman, further _____ in the public sector are to be expected. A. cutbacks B. breakdowns C. out-takes D. layouts 9. Under the weather or not, Ashcroft _____ 2 mins 13.8 secs, almost a second faster than her winning time last year. A. set B. clocked C. gained D. took 10. That judge is feared because she takes a hard _____ in the fight against drugs. A. line B. lane C. path D. rule 11. He will be sued for _____ of contract if he does not do what he promised. A. fracture B. crack C. rupture D. breach 12. You shouldn’t _____ into other’s people private lives. A. prowl B. prod C. proceed D. pry 13. Some romantic novelists _____ out books with the same old formula every year. A. churn B. spill C. ladle D. pour 14. Even the best medicines are not _____. A. infallible B. unfailing C. fail-proof D. falsified 15. The dog was a little subdued yesterday, but she’s full of _____ this morning. A. sprouts B. beans C. chips D. berries 16. There are a lot of crooked people in big cities. If you don’t want to be cheated, you’ll need to keep your _____ about you. A. mind B. wits C. head D. brain 3
17. Just because we’ve had a good year, this does not mean that we cannot do better: we must not _____. A. have our head in the clouds B. bury our heads in the sand C. count our blessings D. rest on our laurels 18. There’s nothing as cozy on a cold evening as the warm _____ of a fire. A. glare B. sparkle C. glow D. flame 19. She seems to be angry with the whole world. She’s got a chip _____. A. on her shoulder B. in her bonnet C. under her hat D. between the ears 20. How do you calculate the distance to the horizon? As a _____, it’s 7 miles + 1 mile per 100 ft above sea level. A. trick of the trade B. golden rule C. free hand D. rule of thumb Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Question 2: There are TEN mistakes in this passage. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5pts.) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.
First come the PC, then the internet and e-mail; now the e-book is upon us, a hand-held device similarly in size and appearance to a video cassette. The user simply rings off the website on their PC, selects the desired books, downloads them onto their e-book machine and sits down to read them. For turning a page, the user simply taps the screen. E-book technology is evolving rapidly, and with some of the newest handholds you will even get internet access. But why would one want an e-book machine with reference to a book? Well, one selling point companies emphasized, when these devices hit the market a few years ago, which is the space they save when going on holiday. E-books enlighten the load, literally. Ten large novels can be put onto a device that weighs less than the average paperback. One can understand why commercial interests seem to want us to change. After all, the whole production process at first plan by author until delivery to the printer had been doing electronically for a while now, so why not save a few million trees and cut out the hard copy?
Your answers: Line
Mistake
Correction
1. 2. 3. 4. 4
5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. Question 3: Complete the following sentences with suitable prepositions or particles. Write your answer in the space provided. (5pts) 1. There was tremendous excitement in the streets and the shouting didn’t die _____ till after midnight. 2. A new organization is being set _____ for those concerned about the welfare of dolphins. 3. My father’s going to go _____ the wall when he finds out that I’ve lost the car keys. 4. She feels it is _____ her to socialise with uneducated people. 5. My teacher and I got _____on the wrong foot, but now we are good friends. off 6. The book centres _____ a woman who becomes an astronaut. 7. I love watching TV, but it does bite _____ my free time. 8. She left the potatoes cooking for so long that the water boiled _____ and the potatoes were burnt. 9. He thinks I broke his window and threatens to pay me _____ for it. 10.He was wearing very shabby, dirty clothes and looked very down _____ heel. 11.The fitful moonlight was bright enough to see by, so he didn't bother to use his torch as he threaded his way _____ through the trees. 12.The company has decided to bring _____ a new magazine aimed at the teenage market. 13.I’m passing the chemist on my way home so I’ll pop _____ and see if the photos are ready. 14.You let him slipped _____ your fingers again! We had him surrounded. 15.The politician was drowned _____ by people shouting and yelling. 16.He’s not feeling well at the moment, but he should be up and _____ again in a few days. 17.The second leg was in extra time when the Austrians took a 2-1 lead _____ aggregate. 18.It was my first day on patrol and they threw me _____ the deep end. 19.You’re going to have to knuckle ______ if you don’t want to fail the exam next month. 20.Even old Henry Spalding, who had returned to Wellington in the spring, added his signature _____ good measure. Your answers: 5
1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Question 4: Give the correct tenses and forms of the bracketed verbs to complete the sentences. Write your answer in the space provided. (5pts) - Look! He (1. put) a ticket on Tom's car. Tom (2. be) furious when he sees it. He hates getting parking tickets. - (3. they, take) the necessary measures, this political crisis (4. can, avoid). - I (5. look) everywhere, but the files appears (6. misplace). - George mentioned (7. injure) in an accident as a child, but he (8. never, tell) us the details. - What time of year do you think it is in this picture? Summer? – No, it must be winter. If it (9. be) summer the people (10. not sit) round that big fire. - The speed limit is 30 miles an hour but Tom (11. drive) at 50 miles at that time. He (12. drive) so fast! - My family (13. move) to Hanoi in 1994 so by the end of this year, we (14. live) in Hanoi for twenty years. - When I open the door, I saw a man on his knees. He (15. clearly, listen) to our conversation and I wondered how much he (16. hear). - Thanks for sending back the book you lent you. You (17. not, read) it already! You (18. be) the world’s fastest reader! Hope you enjoyed it. - At first I (19. feel) quite flattered, (20. ask) to work with one of the professors. Your answers: 1.
11.
2.
12.
3.
13.
4.
14.
5.
15.
6.
16.
7.
17.
8.
18.
9.
19.
10.
20. 6
Question 5: Give the correct forms of the bracketed words to complete the passage. Write your answer in the space provided. (5pts) SIR WALTER SCOTT Sir Walter Scott was the key figure in creating a colorful image of Scotland’s past, initially with his bestselling narrative poems, with his even more celebrated novels, the first of which was Waverley. It was published (1. ANONYMITY) _____ in 1814 and, in subsequent years, its (2. SUCCEED) _____ were described as being ‘by the author of Waverley’, which accounts for the term ‘Waverley novels’. Although Scott made no public (3. KNOW) _____ of his (4. AUTHOR) _____ until 1827, the writer’s identity was an open secret long before then. He wrote (5. ORDINARY) _____ quickly, and the first collected edition of the Waverley novels was published as early as 1819. A set of illustrations by Alexander Nasmyth was produced for the second collected edition and these drawings were used on the title pages. Nasmyth has been called the father of landscape painting and, like Walter Scott, he helped to (6. POPULAR) _____ his country’s romantic and (7. PICTURE) _____ scenery. The drawings were recently presented to the National Library of Scotland, which now boasts a superb and (8. RIVAL) _____collection of manuscripts and papers relating to Scott and his circle. What is less well known about Sir Walter Scott is that after his (9. BANKRUPT) _____in 1826, his last years were spent in frantic literary activity to pay off all the (10. CREDIT) _____to whom he owned money. Your answers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Question 6: Improve the essay by inserting the correct linking words and phrases chosen from the box. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts) However for instance such as thus in order to
Similarly also Alternatively In addition Firstly
In other words rather than Now because as a result
It is true that many students struggle to produce high-quality essays. Nevertheless, I don’t agree that there is little you can do to improve your essays or to make the task less difficult. 7
(1) _____, let us examine what an essay needs in order to be considered ‘good’. To begin with, a good essay must answer the question fully. (2) _____, it must address each of the points raised in the essay title. (3) _____, it must present these points in an organized and logical way. A good writer will (4) _____ avoid using the same words and phrases. This can be easily achieved by using techniques (5) _____ paraphrasing. (6) _____, you can use synonyms of words rather than repeating the same ones. Furthermore, all of the ideas presented in your essay must be relevant and supported by examples. (7) _____, let us consider what students can do in order to improve their essaywriting skills. Clearly, a good knowledge of the language is required to be able to write an essay that has few errors and communicates well. (8) _____, writing a good essay requires more than good language skills (9) _____ people often find it difficult to write essays even in their own language. As with any skill, the best way to learn is from our mistakes. To learn how to ride a bike you need to get on one and fall off sometimes. (10) _____, students can improve their essay writing though making and correcting mistakes and through constant practice. Your answers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
PART FOUR: READING (25PTS) Question 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer best fits each numbered gap. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (7.5pts) Since the time of Nostradamus, meteorologists have been trying to (1) _____ the mystery of climate changes. Their (2) _____ has been to be able to precisely (3) _____ the weather for the days to come. In the past, meteorologists looked skywards to find hints in the clouds. At present, their eyes are (4) _____ at the spots where the most intriguing climatic transformations (5) _____ about, namely, the (6) _____ depths of the oceans where swirls, whirlpools and waves (7) _____ the patterns for the future weather. The most efficient way of (8) _____ hold of the ever changing map of the swirling currents circulating their heat around the planet is from space. Weather satellites (9) _____ with complicated instruments examine the surface and the bottom of the oceans and determine the exact height of water. The impressive advantage offered by satellite scanning is that measurements can be (10) _____ even in the most inaccessible parts of the oceans and can provide daily pictures of the water surface together with the (11) _____ wave height and wind speed. 8
(12) _____ being a priceless device for predicting climatic conditions for tourists, farmers or aviators, weather satellites also (13) _____ advance warnings against storms or typhoons which (14) _____ the coastal populations to (15) _____ themselves against these destructive forces of nature. 1. A. obviate 2. A. subject 3. A. unravel 4. A. looked 5. A. come 6. A. utmost 7. A. accomplish 8. A. getting 9. A. equipped 10. A. done 11. A. calculated 12. A. Besides 13. A. denote 14. A. entitle 15. A. protect
B. account B. objectivity B. perceive B. directed B. turn B. indefinite B. procure B. coming B. delivered B. formed B. amounted B. Apart B. proceed B. entail B. ward
C. decipher C. subjection C. forecast C. focused C. bring C. terminal C. generate C. finding C. supplement C. fulfilled C. scored C. Otherwise C. emerge C. enable C. sustain
D. elaborate D. objective D. explore D. applied D. get D. ultimate D. formulate D. making D. donated D. taken D. enumerated D. Whereby D. issue D. enforce D. preserve
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Question 2: Read the following passage and think of the word which best fits each numbered gap. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (7.5pts) LOOKING INTO SPACE Outer space has intrigued mankind ever since we first gazed upward. It was easy enough to see stars in the night sky with the (1) _____ eye and many early civilizations also noticed that certain groups appeared to form familiar shapes. They used these constellations to help with navigation and as a (2) _____ of predicting the seasons and making calendars. Ancient astronomers also perceived points of light (3) _____ moved. They believed they were wandering stars and the word ‘planet’ (4) _____ from the Greek word for ‘wanderer’. For much of human history, it was also believed that the Earth was the centre of the Universe and that the planets circled the Earth, and that falling meteorites (5) _____ solar eclipses were omens of disaster. It wasn’t (6) _____ the 16th century that Polish mathematician and astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus presented a mathematical model of (7) _____ the sun actually moved around the Earth, challenging the prevailing understanding of how the solar (8) _____ worked. The Italian physicist and astronomer Galileo Galilei then used a telescope to (9) _____ this theory to be correct. 9
Many (10) _____ advances have allowed us to probe into space since then, and one of the most pioneering was when the first manned spacecraft, the Apollo 11, successfully (11) _____ through gravity and touched down on the moon’s surface. Nevertheless, much of our research must be done from (12) _____ greater distances. The Hubble Space Telescope was carried into orbit by a space shuttle in April 1990 and it has (13) _____ cosmologists to gather incredible data. Most significantly, it has provided a great deal of evidence to (14) _____ the Big Bang theory, that is, the idea that the Universe originated as a hot, dense state at a certain time in the (15) _____ and has continued to expand since then. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Question 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions. Write your answer (A, B, C or D) in the space provided. (5pts) AQUATIC SCHOOL Many species of fish, particularly smaller fish, travel in schools, moving in tight formations often with the precision of the most highly disciplined military unit on parade. Some move in synchronized hordes, while others move in starkly geometric forms. In addition to the varieties of shapes of schools of fish, there are countless varieties of schooling behaviors. Some fish coalesce into schools and then spread out in random patterns, while others move into close formations at specific times, such as feeding times, but are more spread out at other times. Some move in schools composed of members of all age groups, while others move in schools predominantly when they are young but take up a more solitary existence as they mature. Though this behavior is quite a regular, familiar phenomenon, there is much that is not completely known about it, particularly the exact function that it serves and what mechanisms fish use to make it happen. Numerous hypotheses have been proposed and tested concerning the purpose of schooling behavior in fish. Schooling certainly promotes the survival of the species, but questions arise as to the way the schooling enables fish to have a better chance of surviving. Certainly, the fact that fish congregate together in schools helps to ensure their survival in that schooling provides numerous types of protection for the members of the school. One form of protection derives from the sheer numbers in the school. When a predator attacks a school containing a huge number of fish, the predator will be able to consume only a small percentage of the school. Whereas some of the members of the school will be lost to the predator, the majority of the school will be able to survive. Another form of protection comes from the special coloration and markings of different types of fish. Certain types of coloration or markings such as stripes or patterns in vibrant and shiny colors create a visual effect 10
when huge numbers of the fish are clustered together, making it more difficult for a potential predator to focus on specific members of the school. A final form of protection comes from a special sense that fish possess, a sense that is enhanced when fish swim in schools. This special sense is related to a set of lateral line organs that consist of rows of pores leading to fluid-filled canals. These organs are sensitive to minute vibrations in the water. The thousands of sets of those special organs in a school of fish together can prove very effective in warning the school about an approaching threat. [9A] It is also unclear exactly how fish manage to maintain their tight formation. [9B] Sight seems to play a role in the ability of fish to move in schools, and some scientists believe that, at least in some species, sight may play the principal role. [9C] However, many experiments indicate that more than sight is involved. Some fish school quite well in the dark or in murky water where visibility is extremely limited. [9D] This indicates that senses other than eyesight must be involved in enabling the schooling behavior. The lateral line system most likely plays a significant role in the ability of fish to school. Because these lateral line organs are sensitive to the most minute vibrations and currents, this organ system may be used by fish to detect movements among members of their school even when their eyesight is limited or unavailable. 1. The author mentions the most highly disciplined military unit on parade in paragraph 1 in order to _____. A. describe the aggressive nature of a school of fish B. provide an example of a way that military units travel C. create a mental image of the movement of a school of fish D. contrast the movement of a military unit with that of a school of fish 2. All of the following are stated in paragraph 1 about schooling EXCEPT that _____. A. it is quite common B. it can involve large numbers of fish C. it can involve a number of different fish behaviors D. it is fully understood 3. Which fish would be least likely to be in a school? A. A large, older fish B. A smaller, colorful fish C. A young, hungry fish D. A tiny, shiny fish 4. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the first highlighted sentence in paragraph 2? A. After an attack, the fish that survive tend to move into schools. B. The survival of fish depends upon their ability to bring new members into the school. C. Many facts about the way that fish congregate in schools have been studied. D. Fish travel in schools to protect themselves in various ways. 5. The phrase ‘sheer numbers’ in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _____. A. solitude B. interlude C. multitude D. similitude 11
6. It can be inferred from the passage that, when a predator attacks, _____. A. it cannot possibly consume all members of a school if the school is large enough. B. it rarely manages to catch any fish that are part of a school C. it is usually successful in wiping out the entire school D. it attacks only schools that lack sense organs 7. It is stated in paragraph 2 that _____. A. fish in schools rarely have distinct markings B. the effect of coloration is multiplied when fish are massed together C. schooling fish tend to have muted coloration D. the bright coloration makes it easier for predators to spot fish 8. The author begins paragraph 3 with It is also unclear in order to indicate that _____. A. contradictory information is about to be presented B. it is necessary to clarify a previously made point C. a second issue is about to be presented D. it is unclear how a problem can be resolved 9. According to paragraph 3, _____. A. fish cannot see well B. not all fish use sight to remain in schools C. sight is the only sense used by fish to remain in schools D. fish can see quite well in the dark 10.It is NOT stated in the passage that the lateral line system _____. A. contains lines or pores B. can detect movement in the water C. quite possibly helps fish to remain in schools D. in fish is similar to sense organs in other animals Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Question 4: (5pts) Q1-5: Read the following passage and choose the correct headings for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the correct number (A – I) in the space provided. (2.5pts)
List of Headings A. The benefits of simple language B. A necessary tool C. A lasting way of concealing disasters D. The worst offenders E. A deceptively attractive option
F. Differing interpretations G. Publicizing new words H. Feeling shut out I. Playing with words
12
JARGON 0 Jargon is a loaded word. One dictionary defines it, neatly and neutrally, as ‘the _F_ technical vocabulary or idiom of a special activity or group’, but this sense is almost completely overshadowed by another: ‘obscure and often pretentious language marked by a roundabout way of expression and use of long words’. For most people, it is this second sense which is at the front of their minds when they think about jargon. Jargon is said to be a bad use of language, something to be avoided at all costs. No one ever describes it in positive terms (‘that was a delightful piece of rousing jargon’). Nor does one usually admit to using it oneself: the myth is that jargon is something only other people employ. The reality, however is that everyone uses jargon. It is an essential part of the ___ network of occupations and pursuits that make up society. All jobs present an element of jargon, which workers learn as they develop their expertise. All hobbies require mastery of a jargon. Each society grouping has its jargon. The phenomenon turns out to be universal – and valuable. It is the jargon element which, in a job, can promote economy and precision of expression, and thus help make life easier for the workers. It is also the chief linguistic element which shows professional awareness (‘know-how’) and social togetherness (‘shop-talk’). 1
When we have learned to command it, jargon is something we readily take ___ pleasure in, whether the subject area is motorcycles, knitting, cricket, baseball or computers. It can add pace, variety and humour to speech – as when, with an important event approaching, we might slip into NASA-speak, and talk about countdown, all systems go, and lift-off. We enjoy the mutual showing-off which stems from a fluent use of terminology, and we enjoy the in-jokes which shared linguistic experience permits. Moreover, we are jealous of this knowledge. We are quick to demean anyone who tries to be part of our group without being prepared to take on its jargon. 2
If jargon is so essential a part of our lives, why then has it had such a bad ___ press? The most important reason stems from the way jargon can exclude as well as include. We may not be too concerned if we find ourselves faced with an impenetrable wall of jargon when the subject matter has little perceived relevance to our everyday lives, as in the case of hydrology, say, or linguistics. But when the subject matter is one where we feel implicated, and think we have a right to know, and the speaker uses words which make it hard for us to understand, then we start to complain; and if we suspect that the obfuscation is deliberate policy, we unreservedly condemn, labeling it gobbledegook and calling down public derision upon it. 3
No area is exempt, but the fields of advertising, politics and defence have been ___ especially criticized in recent years by the various campaigns for Plain English. In these domains, the extent to which people are prepared to use jargon to hide realities is a ready source of amusement, disbelief and horror. A lie is a lie, which can be only temporarily hidden by calling it an ‘inoperative statement’ 4
13
or ‘an instance of plausible deniability’. Nor can a nuclear plant explosion be suppressed for long behind such phrases as ‘energetic disassembly’, ‘abnormal evolution’ or ‘plant transient’. While condemning unnecessary or obscuring jargon in others, we should not ___ forget to look out for it in ourselves. It is so easy to ‘slip into’ jargon, without realizing that our own listeners/readers do not understand. It is also temptingly easy to slip some jargon into our expression, to ensure that others do not understand. And it is just as easy to begin using jargon which we ourselves do not understand. The motivation to do such apparently perverse things is not difficult to grasp. People like to be ‘in’, to be part of an intellectual or technical elite; and the use of jargon, whether understood or not, is a badge of membership. Jargon, also, can provide a lazy way into a group or an easy way of hiding uncertainties and inadequacies: when terminology slips plausibly from the tongue, it is not essential for the brain to keep up. Indeed some people have developed this skill to professional levels. And certainly, faced with a telling or awkward question, and the need to say something acceptable in public, slipping into jargon becomes a simple way out, and can soon become a bad habit. 5
Your answers: (0. __F__) 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Q6-10: Complete the summary using the list of words A – L below. Write the correct letter (A – L) in the space provided. (2.5pts) A. judgement
D. efficiency
G. contempt
J. pleasure
B. jokes
E. know-how
H. feeling
K. fear
C. shop-talk
F. command
I. possessiveness
L. humour
The Up Side of Jargon Jargon plays a useful part in many aspects of life including leisure. For example, when people take up pastimes they need to develop a good (0) _____ of the relevant jargon. During discussion of these of other areas of interest, conversation can become more exciting and an element of (6) _____ can be introduced by the use of shared jargon. Jargon is particularly helpful in the workplace. It leads to more (7) _____ in the way colleagues communicate during work hours. Taking part in (8) _____ during moments of relaxation can also help them to bond better. It is interesting that members of a group, whether social or professional, often demonstrate a certain (9) _____ towards the particular linguistic characteristics of their subject area and tend to regard new people who do not wish to learn the jargon with (10) _____. Your answers: (0. __F__) 6.
7.
8.
9.
10. 14
PART FIVE: WRITING (30PTS) Question 1: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible to the original sentence. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. Do NOT change the form of the given word. (5pts) 1. Eventually Tim admitted that he was responsible for the error. OWNED It was _________________________________________________ been responsible for the error. 2. I have been told that you have been late for work every day this week. BROUGHT It _________________________________________________ that you have been late for work every day this week. 3. I don’t mind which make of car you choose. CONSEQUENCE It _________________________________________ make of car you choose. 4. Things have changed in a way that we didn’t expect. TURN There ___________________________________________________events. 5. There is a rumour that he’s going to play for Manchester United. SAY Manchester United _______________________________________________ to play for. 6. I promised him that the situation would not be repeated in the future. WORD I ________________________________________________no repetition of the situation in the future. 7. Being inexperienced was a disadvantage to her when she applied for promotion. COUNTED Her ______________________________________________when she applied for promotion. 8. Susan is far superior to me in terms of technical knowledge. MATCH When it comes __________________________________________ for Susan. 9. The film was so controversial that it was banned in several parts of the world. CAUSED Such was ___________________________________________ film that it was banned in several parts of the world. 10. I said that I thought he was wrong about the best way for us to proceed. ISSUE I __________________________________________ best we should proceed. Question 2: (10pts) The chart below shows UK and USA energy consumption in 2006. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write at least 150 words.
15
_________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________
Question 3: Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic. (15pts) Extra private lessons outside school hours, where students work alone or in a small group with a teacher, can help them do better at school. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. 16
______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ _____________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________
- THE END 17
HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC DH & ĐB BẮC BỘ
KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC MỞ RỘNG NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Lớp: …11…..
Ngày thi: 20 tháng 4 năm 2013
ĐÁP ÁN & BIỂU ĐIỂM
PART ONE: LISTENING (15PTS) Question 1: (5pts = 5 x 1pt/each) 1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
3. F
4. F
5. T
Question 2: (10pts = 10 x 1pt/each) Q1-5: 1. F
2. T
Q6-10: 6. feeding/eating
7. laboratory
8. water
9. wings
10.reliable
PART TWO: PHONETICS (5PTS) Question 1: (2.5pts = 5 x 0.5 pt/each) 1. C
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. C
Question 2: (2.5pts = 5 x 0.5 pt/each) 1. B
2. D
3. B
4. C
5. A
PART THREE: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30PTS) Question 1: (5pts = 20 x 0.25/each) 1. D 11.D
2. A 12.D
3. D 13.A
4. A 14.A
5. C 15.B
6. C 16.B
7. B 17.C
8. A 18.C
9. B 19.A
10.A 20.D
Question 2: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each) Line
Mistake
Correction
1.
1
come
came
2.
2
similarly
similar
3.
3
rings off
calls up
4.
5
For turning
To turn
5.
7
newest handholds
latest handhelds
6.
8
with reference to
in preference to
7.
10
which is
is
8.
11
enlighten
lighten
9.
14
at
from
10.
15
had been doing
has been done
Question 3: (5pts = 20 x 0.25/each) 1. down
6. around
11. forward
16. about
2. up
7. into
12. out
17. on
3. up
8. away
13. in
18. at
4. beneath
9. back
14. through
19. down
5. off
10. at
15. out
20. for
Question 4: (5pts = 20 x 0.25/each) 1. is putting
11. were driving
2. will be
12. shouldn’t have been driving
3. Had they taken
13. moved
4. could have been avoided
14. will have lived/ will have been living
5. have looked
15. had clearly been listening
6. to have been misplaced
16. had heard
7. having been injured
17. can’t have read
8. never told/ had never told
18. must be
9. were
19. felt
10. wouldn’t be sitting
20. being asked
Question 5: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each) 1. anonymously
6. popularize/ popularise
2. successors
7. picturesque
3. acknowledgement
8. unrival(l)ed
4. authorship
9. bankruptcy
5. extraordinarily
10. creditors
Question 6: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each) 1. Firstly
6. Alternatively
2. In other words
7. Now
3. In addition
8. However
4. also
9. because
5. such as
10. Similarly
PART FOUR: READING (25PTS) Question 1: (7.5pts = 15 x 0.5pt/each) 1. C
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. D
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. A
Question 2: (7.5pts = 15 x 0.5pt/each) 1. naked
2. means
3. that/which
4. derived/s
5. and
6. until
7. how
8. system
9. prove
10.technological
13. allowed/ enabled
14. support
11.broke
12. far/much
15.past
Question 3: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each) 1. C
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. C
9. B
Question 4: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each) Q1-5: 1. B
2. I
3. H
4. D
5. E
7. D
8. C
9. I
10.G
Q6-10: 6. L
10.D
PART FIVE: WRITING (30PTS) Question 1: (5pts = 10 x 0.5/each) 1. Tim who/that owned up to having 2. has been brought to my attention 3. is of no/ little consequence to me which/ what 4. has been an unexpected turn of 5. is the team people say he’s going 6. gave him my word that there would be 7. lack of experience counted against her 8. to technical knowledge I am no match 9. the controversy (that was) caused by the 10. took issue with him about how Question 2: (10pts) Question 3: (15pts) The mark given to part 3 is based on the following criteria: 1. Content: (6 points) - Providing all main ideas and details as required - Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Language: (6 points) - Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students - Good use and control of grammatical structures - Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes - Legible handwriting 3. Organization & Presentation: (3 points) - Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity - The essay is well-structured
SCRIPTS QUESTION 1: COUNSELLOR: Well to be quite honest, John, I think they would be useful for everybody but well, everybody has their own way of going about things. I prefer people just to drop in when they can. JOHN: Yes. COUNSELLOR: I find that talking to students about the requirements of a course helps to clarify what needs to be done. I mean the biggest difference between college and school is that new college students really have to do a lot of work on their own, and it's sometimes useful to get advice on how to take control of your time and work effectively. JOHN: Yes. I mean, it seems like a very light workload until assignment time comes and then I seem to be working all night sometimes. I'm not the only one. It's ridiculous. The resource centre is very good but it closes so early. It's in the library and so you'd think you could use it more. It's a real problem for me. COUNSELLOR: Well, you're certainly not the only person in that position, as I'm sure you've found. It really comes down to using every available hour in a systematic way. If you do this with a plan, then you'll find that you still have time for yourself and your hobbies as well. JOHN: Yeah. I've heard from Thomas that you made him a sort of plan like this, and he's going away for the weekend with all his work handed in, whereas I haven't even started. COUNSELLOR: I need to find out a few more things about you first. I'll give you this form to fill in about your lectures and things before you leave. COUNSELLOR: Now, what are your main problems? JOHN: Well, what most concerns me is I'm still not doing very well in my assignments. COUNSELLOR: Well, I know that you plan your writing carefully, but this can come to nothing if the assignment doesn't answer the question. That really is the key. You must read the question carefully and give it a great deal of thought before you even start planning or writing your first draft. It's also vital to check your work for errors. Everybody makes them, and they can influence the person marking the work. So, always take time at the end to check what you have written. JOHN: As far as listening is concerned, I find it hard to keep up sometimes in lectures, especially twohour ones. I sometimes just seem to go off into a dream. COUNSELLOR: It's a good idea to find out from your lecturers if they mind you recording the lectures. You only need one of those small cassette recorders. The quality is pretty good and a second listening can really clarify things. Something else you can do is check your notes with a friend after the lecture. JOHN: Yes. That's a good idea. Thanks. It's hard to do all that all the time though, especially when there's so much reading to do. COUNSELLOR: Yes. It's important, though, not to confine yourself to reading on your subject. You should also read things of general interest that appeal to you. You know, novels, newspapers, that kind of thing. Do you have a good dictionary? JOHN: Not really. I've never bothered with one COUNSELLOR: Mmmm. It would probably be a good idea to get one. Dictionaries are not expensive and they can help a lot. Also you can underline or highlight new words and ... QUESTION 2: PROFESSOR: Good morning everyone. In today's seminar, Grant Freeman, a biologist who specializes in identifying insects, and who works for the Australian Quarantine Service, has come to talk to us about his current research work. Right, well, over to you Grant. GRANT: Good morning, everyone. I'm sure that you know that the quarantine services regulates all food brought into Austrailia. Well, obviously they want to protect Australia from diseases that might come
in with imported goods, but they also want to prevent insect pests from being introduced into the country, and that's where I have a part to play. Anyway, my current research involves trying to find a particular type of bee, the Asian Honey Bee, and finding out whether there are any of them in Queensland once and eradicated them. Now, we're pretty keen to make sure that there aren't any more getting in, particularly to New South Wales and other states. STUDENT 1: What's wrong with Asian Honey Bees? Are they so different from Australian bees? GRANT: Well, in fact, they look almost the same, but they are infested with mites - microscopic creatures which live on them, and which can seriously damage our home-grown bees, or could even wipe them out. PROFESSOR: Well, what would happen if Australian bees died out? GRANT: Well, the honey from Australian bees is of excellent quality, much better than the stuff the Asian bees produce. In fact, Australia exports native Queen bees to a large number of countries because of this. When the European Honey Bee was first discovered out in the bush, we found they made really unpleasant honey and they were also too big to pollinate many of our native flowers here in Australia. STUDENT 2: That must have had a devastating effect on the natural flora. Did you lose any species? GRANT: No, we managed to get them under control before that happened but if Asian bees got in there could be other consequences. We could lose a lot of money because you might not be aware, but it's estimated that native bees' pollination of flower and vegetable crops is worth 1.2 billion dollars a year. So in a way, they're the farmers' friend. Oh, and another thing is, if you're stung by an Asian Honey Bee, it can produce an allergic reaction in some people; so they're much more dangerous than native bees. ....................................................................... PROFESSOR: How will you know if Asian bees have entered Australia? GRANT: We're looking at the diet of the bird called the Rainbow Bee Eater. The Bee Eater doesn't care what it eats, as long as they're insects. But the interesting thing about this bird is that we are able to analyse exactly what it eats and that's really helpful if we're looking for introduced insects. PROFESSOR: How come? GRANT: Because insects have their skeletons outside their bodies, so the Bee Eaters digest the meat from inside. Then they bring up all the indigestible bits of skeleton and, of course, the wings in a pellet - a small ball of waste material which they cough up. PROFESSOR: That sounds a bit unpleasant. So how do you go about it? GRANT: In the field we track down the Bee Eaters and find their favorite feeding spots, you know, the places where the birds usually feed. It's here that we can find the pellets. We collect them up and take them back to the laboratory to examine the contents. PROFESSOR: How do you do that? GRANT: The pellets are really hard, especially if they have been out in the sun for a few days so, first of all, we treat them by adding water to moisten them and make them softer. Then we pull them apart under the microscope. Everything's all scrunched up but we're looking for wings so we just pull them all and straighten them. Then we identify them to see if we can find any Asian bee wings. PROFESSOR: And how many have you found? GRANT: So far our research shows that Asian bees have not entered Australia in any number - it's a good result and much more reliable than trying to find live ones as evidence of introduced insects. PROFESSOR: Well, that's fascinating! Thank you, Grant, for those insights. I hope that you might inspire some of our students here to conduct some similar experiments.
SOURCES PART 2, Question 2: Michael Vince & Amanda French, IELTS Language Practice, p208 – MacMillan Education 5. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) that best fits each space. LOOKING INTO SPACE Outer space has intrigued mankind ever since we first gazed upward. It was easy enough to see stars in the night sky with the (1) __A___ eye and many early civilizations also noticed that certain groups appeared to form familiar shapes. They used these (2) _____ to help with navigation and as a (3) _____ of predicting the seasons and making calendars. Ancient astronomers also perceived points of light that moved. They believed they were wandering stars and the word ‘planet’ (4) _____ from the Greek word for ‘wanderer’. For much of human history, it was also believed that the Earth was the centre of the Universe and that the planets (5) _____ the Earth, and that falling meteorites and (6) _____ eclipses were omens of disaster. It wasn’t until the 16th century that Polish mathematician and astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus presented a mathematical (7) _____ of how the sun actually moved around the Earth, (8) _____ the prevailing understanding of how the solar system worked. The Italian physicist and astronomer Galileo Galilei then used a telescope to (9) _____ this theory to be correct. Many technological advances have allowed us to probe into space since then, and one of the most pioneering was when the first (10) _____ spacecraft, the Apollo 11, successfully broke through (11) _____ and touched down on the moon’s surface. Nevertheless, much of our research must be done from far greater distances. The Hubble Space Telescope was carried into (12) _____ by a space shuttle in April 1990 and it has allowed cosmologists to gather incredible data. Most significantly, it has provided a great deal of evidence to support the Big Bang theory, that is, the idea that the Universe (13) _____ as a hot, dense state at a certain time in the past and has continued to (14) _____ since then. 1. A. naked B. bare C. clear D. plain 2. A. systems B. constellations C. arrangements D. classifications 3. A. process B. course C. measure D. means 4. A. calls B. bases C. derives D. develops 5. A. spun B. circled C. surrounded D. enclosed 6. A. sun B. sky C. day D. solar 7. A. form B. model C. mould D. copy 8. A. disagreeing B. objecting C. arguing D. challenging 9. A. prove B. state C. claim D. display 10. A. staffed B. manned C. occupied D. controlled 11. A. gravity B. pressure C. space D. layers 12. A. air B. orbit C. atmosphere D. galaxy 13. A. occurred B. happened C. originated D. sprung 14. A. extend B. lengthen C. expand D. enlarge
Keys:
1.A
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. C
ĐỀ NGUỒN MÔN TIẾNG ANH VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII KHỐI 11 Thời gian: 180 phút PART 1: LISTENING I. You will hear a radio interview with the comedian Brain Conley, who does a considerable amount of work in panto, a type of family-friendly show which is popular at Christmas. For questions 1-5, choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear. 1. Brian likes Birmingham because: A. It has provided him with a steady income B. It is where he grew up C. It was where he first became famous 2. When they discuss children’s participation in panto, Brian says that A. he prefers children not to come up on stage B. it’s important to get the parents’ permission if a child wants to participate C. he thinks that children’s participation adds a certain quality to the show 3. Brian became involved in comedy because A. He had wanted to do it since he was a child. B. His friends at school encouraged him to do it. C. He found he could earn more by doing comedy. 4. What does Brian say about providing comedy for corporate events? A. It is easy because the audience has had a lot to drink. B. He has learnt how to respond to comments from the audience. C. It’s the only way for many comedians to find work. 5. What does Brian feel with regards to nerves? A. He agrees with a comment someone made early in his career B. He no longer feels nervous because he is more experienced C. The extent of his nerves has changed over the years II. You will listen to a recording about a new kind of school in the U.K. Listen carefully and supply the blanks with missing information.
The idea of Studio School comes from an organization named Young Foundation who has introduced innovations like Open University, Extended Schools, Summer Universities, School of Everything and (6) __________________________. Two problems before the idea of Studio School was found out related to: (7) _____________________: not seeing any relationship between what they learned and future jobs. Employers: complaining that kids coming out of the schools were not ready for work and did not have (8) _____________________________. Cognitive skills: formal academic skills. Non- cognitive skills: the skills of (9) _________________________. This idea is called “Studio School” originated from
the idea of a studio (10)
______________________. Characteristics of Studio School: - Sizes of schools: (11)____________________ pupils at the age of 14 to 19 year-olds. - 80% of program is studied through practical project, commission to businesses and (12) ____________________________. - Percentage of theoretical academic lessons: (13) ___________________. Prototyping period: - 2 first places where the project was carried included: Luton and Blackpool. - The most important result of trial phase: the pupils who were (14) ______________________ had jumped right to the top - 35 schools are expected to establish throughout England next year. - The main method of spreading Studio School is (15) __________________________.
PART 2: PHONETIC I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others. 16. A. sanctuary B. manky C. sanguine D. redundant 17. A. agog B. agony C. agrarian D. aglow 18. A. mound B. moustache C. mountain D. mouthful 19. A. gratuity B. pasteurize C. maturity D. question 20. A. crescendo B. fluorescent C. sciatica D. sceptre II. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others in each group. 21. A. internal B. interpret C. interstice D. interleave
22. 23. 24. 25.
A. disinter A. heuristics A. dungarees A. simultaneous
B. cadaver B. negligence B. virtuoso B. entrepreneur
C. cathedral C. navigate C. executive C. advantageous
D. atishoo D. privatize D. existential D. magisterial
PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. Choose the best answer. 26. The manager of the shop was ____________ she would not give me a refund. A. adamant B. dedicated C. abusive D. intent 27. In fact, they are probably the biggest ideological ________ for the whole of civilization. A. purification B. conjoiner C. justification D. generator 28. His daughter asked to go to an all- night party, but he __________ and told her she would have to be home by midnight. A. turned a blind eye to it B. put his foot down C. pulled the wool over his eyes D. put the cat among the pigeons 29. Her friend saw us arrive at the party together and _______. A. got the wrong end of the stick B. blotted on the landscape C. kept her hair on me D. got the upper hand 30. To be honest, Harry has _______ than you have. A. been more helpful considerably B. been considerably more helpful C. been more considerably helpful D. considerably been more helpful 31. I’m in a real _____ and I just don’t know what to do. A. dilemma B. paradox C. query D. hunch 32. He remembered the day three months _______ he had walked into the showroom to order the car. A. previously when B. previously that C. previously then D. previously which 33. Modern saw blades are coated with a special ____________ plastic. A. reduction of friction B. reduced-friction C. friction is reduced D. friction-reducing 34. My father ____________ when he found out that I'd damaged the car. A. hit the roof B. saw pink elephants C. made my blood boil D. brought the house down 35. ______ for many years to live in a highly polluted environment, the people around the Aral Sea now appear ____ the highest rates of esophageal cancer in the world. A. To be forced - having B. Having forced – to have had C. Forcing – having had D. Having been forced – to have 36. If you say a person is disinterested, you mean he or she ___________
A. has lost interest in something B. is not interested in something C. has no personal bias when making a decision D. is not an interesting person 37. After what Maria said, I think we should ____ her ____ the guest list A. chop off B. drop off C. wipe off D. cross off 38. _____ any change in the condition of the patient, be sure that the nurse in charge is informed. A. However slight
B. In the event of
C. With the exception of D. Owing to 39. I gave Kelly ______ on her birthday. A. an action-packed exciting adventure book B. an exciting action- packed adventure book C. an adventure exciting action-packed book D. an adventure action- packed exciting book 40. I could tell at a _______ that nothing had changed between Barbara and Edward. A. glimpse B. blink C. wink D. glance 41. In spite of his poor education, he was a most______ speaker. A. articulate B. ambiguous C. attentive D. authoritarian 42. There are______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact. A. a large many B. quite many C. quite a lot D. a great many 43. By the end of the 1800s, the output of European artists, writers and scientists ____ to the point where it dwarfed the productiveness of the 1700s. A. accelerating B. accelerates C. had accelerated D. have accelerated 44. "I'd like _____about the management of your hotel, please." - "Well, you could have ___with the manager. He might be helpful." A. some information / a word B. some information / some words C. some informations / a word D. an information / a word 45. Everyone is entitled to a ticket ____ of where they come from. A. irrelevant B. irrespective C. prerequisite D. incidental II. There are tea errors in the following passage. Underline them in the text and correct them in the numbered box. Question (0) has been done as an example. 0. century → a century For more than century, robberies of every kinds have plagued nations around the world. Bank and house robberies were common occurrence. As many were caught so those who were
not and over the year, many continued to turn to these get rich quick methods. Despite the nature of these ‘occupation’, media reports glorified the ingenious ways the robbers managed to escape with loot. Then, films, too, were made about famous robberies and criminals were turned for celebrities. More and more people began robbing houses and banks and its techniques became more sophisticating, making it close to impossible for them to get caught. To compound this problem, many robbers returned to their countries where they were no rules of extraditions. As a result, many of them simply returned to their home countries to prevent the foreign III. Prepositions & Particles: Fill in each of the blanks with an appropriate preposition or particle. 56. He showed great ingenuity ______ solving the problem. 57. Don't let him lure you ______ agreeing. 58. You're silly not to avail yourself ______ this good opportunity. 59. The speaker made many allusions ______ the new scheme. 60. John thought he heard a funny noise coming from the car engine, so he pull ______ to investigate. 61. Children are often fascinated ______ things around them. 62. The man is obsessed ______ the idea that he should become a famous person. 63. Work hard now, or you will end ______ being a miserable person out of work. 64. I’ve got a large family, but they’ve all spread ______ across the whole country. 65. Perhaps, we'd better cross ______ his name because of his too frequent absence from class. 66. He really got his parents ______, losing lots of money in his business. 67. There's a determination to hunt ______ all the bribed officials involved in the "Orange Five" case. 68. Look ______ sharp stones when you walk on the beach. 69. Several rare species are dying ______ owing to deforestation and careless hunting. 70. We had to take ______ the deliveries to make sure every piece was in good condition. 71. His exhaustion resulted from his having taken ______ too much work. 72. My mother always wins when she wants my father to switch ______ ______ the TV channel she likes. 73. She was able to carry ______ all the tasks assigned to her. 74. He has been a bit left behind and is now trying to catch ______ ______ others. 75. It is said that his new book will be brought ______ on the occasion of the Liberation Day. IV. Put each verb in brackets in the correct tense or form. 76. I didn’t see anyone but I felt as though I (watch) ______. 77. Since they had that big argument, he crosses the street whenever he (see) ______her. 78. When she (realize) ______her mistake, she apologized.
79. Suddenly (feel) ______hungry, he stopped to buy a bar of chocolate. 80. Don’t try to phone me. By the time you read this letter, I (leave) ______ 81. Tom is a first year student. By the end of next year, he (learn) ______English for two years. 82. If they had revised the lesson carefully, they (not to fail) ______the exam. 83. (Write) ______the letter, she put it in an envelope. 84. Our classmates couldn’t help (laugh) ______when they heard the teacher’s funny story. 85. This kitchen needs (repair) ______as quickly as possible, for the roof leaks. 86. What a shame that it (decide) ______to cancel the school day! 87. If it (not be) ______for you, I would still be in prison today. 88. I don’t know who rang, but it (can be) ______Jim. 89. It’s your own fault, you (not go) ______to bed so late. 90. If I were (ask) ______you to marry me, what would you say? 91. It seems strange to be standing here, (look) ______out at Sydney Harbour. 92. No wonder he was sacked! He seems (fiddle) ______the accounts for years. 93. It is expected that tax increases (announce) ______in tomorrow’s budget. 94. Police are reported (find) ______illegal drugs in a secret hiding place in the star’s home. 95. ______ (judge) from his expression, you are about to be discipline. V. Read the following passage and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in brackets FAST BRAIN WAVES Over half a century ago, scientists found that they could record the electrical signals of the brain at work. What at first appeared a random hotchpotch of activity became a pattern of elegant waves (96) _____ (RHYTHM) determined. Ever since, scientists have wondered whether the secrets of our thoughts (97) _____ (PERCEIVE) and even (98) _____ (CONSCIOUS) itself might be hidden in the patterns of our brain waves. The question of why we have brain waves is, (99) _____ (ARGUE), as hotly debated today as it was when the patterns were discovered. But the meaning, and even the existence, of fast rhythms in the alert brain is highly (100) _____ (CONTROVERSY). What is problematic is that you cannot perceive these rhythms directly, they are so well hidden in the noise created by other brain activity, but many (101) _____ (SEARCH) now hold the (102) _____ (CONVINCE) that the significance of these brain waves should not be (103) _____ (ESTIMATE).The latest suggestion is that the rhythms could be (104) _____ (DECIDE) in detecting progresses going on indifferent regions of the brain. Some believe that these rhythms might even interact, and in doing so help the brain to package information into (105) _______ (COHERE) thoughts. How we bring together these related signals of the brain is a puzzle as yet unsolved.
VI. Choose the correct answer. OUT-OF-BODY EXPERIENCES (106) _______________ most scientists dismiss tales of out-of-body experiences on the operating table as dreams and delusions, there are some cases which seem to defy rational explanation. Take Margaret Frobisher. In 2003, she was undergoing a routine operation under general anaesthetic at Sansdown Hospital in Kent. There were serious complications, (107) _____________, and her heart stopped beating. Try (108) ____________ they might, the surgeon and anaesthetist were unable to resuscitate her. Finally, after eight minutes, they succeeded. (109) _____________ having been clinically dead, Margaret suffered no brain damage and no adverse side effects. The story doesn’t stop there, (110) ____________. When the anaesthetist went to visit her in her hospital bed, Margaret Frobisher recounted an amazing story. She said she vividly remembered floating above the operating table. And (111) ____________ her never having been conscious in that room at any time, she described the room and the resuscitation attempt in great detail. She said that (112) _____________ three of the walls were bright white, one was dark grey. This was true. She also said that, on the top of a cabinet in a corner of the operating theatre, there was an old book. (113) ______________ the anaesthetist didn’t – and couldn’t – believe her, she checked. There, just as Margaret Frobisher had described it, was the book. (114) _____________ as they tried, no one at the hospital could explain how Margaret could have known about the book. Even (115) ______________ one does not believe in a “soul” or in life after death, it is difficult to explain what happened in that operating theatre when Margaret Frobisher’s heart stopped beating. 106. A. Despite B. While C. However D. In spite 107. A. whereas 108. A. as 109. A. However 110. A. even if 111. A. in spite of 112. A. nevertheless 113. A. In spite 114. A. Most 115. A. so
B. although B. for B. Whereas B. even though B. although B. whereas B. However B. More B. if
C. however C. with C. Although C. although C. however C. in spite of C. Even though C. Much C. though
D. despite D. so D. Despite D. though D. while D. however D. Despite D. Many D. that
PART 4: READING I. Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text. It only (116) ______ the completion of the reconstruction of the human genetic map for a whole host of hereditary diseases to be (117) _______. Originally, it was forecast that the venture would take until the beginning of the 21st century to be (118) ________. At present, it
is clear that the task can be finished much earlier. Hundreds of scholars have gone to (119) _______ to help (120) _______ the mystery of the human genetic structure with an ardent hope for (121) _______ mankind from disorders such as cancer, cystic fibrosis or arthritis. The progress in this incredible undertaking is (122) _______ by an accurate interpretation of the information (123) _______ in the chromosomes forming the trillions of the cells in the human body. Locating and characterizing every single gene may (124) _______ an implausible assignment, but very considerable (125) __________ has already been made. What we know by now is that the hereditary code is assembled in DNA, some parts of which may be diseased and (126) ________ to the uncontrollable transmission of the damaged code from parent to their children. Whereas work at the completion of the human genome may last for a few years more, notions like gene therapy or genetic engineering don’t (127) _______ much surprise any longer. Their potential application has already been (128) ______ in the effective struggle against many viruses or in the genetic treatment of blood disorders. The hopes are, then, that hundreds of maladies that humanity is (129) _______ with an present might eventually cause to exist in the not too (130) _______ future. 116. A. expects
B. requires
C. anticipates
D. remains
117. A. terminated
B. interfered
C. eradicated
D. disrupted
118. A. accomplished
B. discharged
C. dismantled
D. exterminated
119. A. maximum
B. utmost
C. supreme
D. extremes
120. A. dissolve
B. interrogate
C. respond
D. unravel
121. A. liberating
B. surviving
C. insulating
D. averting
122. A. dependent
B. reliant
C. qualified
D. conditioned
123. A. associated
B. contained
C. involved
D. derived
123. A. sound
B. hear
C. voice
D. perceive
123. A. headline
B. heading
C. headway
D. headship
126. A. amiable
B. conceivable
C. evocative
D. conducive
127. A. evoke
B. institute
C. discharge
D. encourage
128. A. examined
B. inquired
C. accounted
D. corroborated
129. A. aggravated
B. teased
C. persecuted
D. plagued
130. A. far-away
B. outlying
C. distant
D. imminent
II. For questions 131-145, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. There is an example at the beginning (0). THE WAYS WE HAVE CHANGED It is hard for almost everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a world (0) WITHOUT television. We have (131) ___________ to expect that all the important news of the day, worldwide will be there (132) __________ the touch of a button. In times (133) __________ by, only the literate knew what was going on in the world, and (134) __________ only after a long delay. But now it is possible for any of us to watch world events as they occur. (135) __________ has shortened the distance that divides our private lives (136) __________ the outside world to (137) __________ an extent as television. Time and (138) __________, television transports us to the habitats of rare animals, and we may identify (139) __________ them. Concern for damage to the environment extends far and (140) __________ We worry about the influence of technology not just in our cities but on us (141) __________ people. Increasingly, we see (142) __________ as part of the planet (143) __________ than in isolation. (144) __________ was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to countless people through the medium of television. (145) __________ this form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it represents a broadening of knowledge.
III. Choose the best answer THE NATURE OF VOLCANOES Volcanoes are mountains but they are very different from other mountains. They are not formed by folding and crumpling but by uplift and erosion. Instead, volcanoes are built by the accumulation of their own eruptive products—lava, bombs, and tephra. A volcano is most commonly a conical hill or mountain built around a vent that connects with reservoirs of molten rock below the surface of the Earth. The term volcano also refers to the opening or vent through which the molten rock and associated gases are expelled. Driven by buoyancy and gas pressure, the molten rock, which is lighter than the surrounding solid rock, forces its way upward and may ultimately break through zones of weaknesses in the Earth’s crust. If so, an eruption begins. And the molten rock may pour from the vent as nonexplosive lava flows, or it may shoot violently into the air as dense clouds of lava fragments. Some of the finer ejected materials may be carried by the wind only to fall to the ground many miles away. The finest ash particles may be injected miles into the atmosphere and carried many times around the world by stratospheric winds before settling out. Molten rock below the surface of the Earth that rises in volcanic vents is known as magma, but after it erupts from a volcano it is called lava. Originating many tens of miles beneath the ground, the ascending magma commonly contains some crystals, fragments of surrounding
rocks, and dissolved gases, but it is primarily a liquid composed principally of oxygen, silicon, aluminum, iron etc. Magmas also contain many other chemical elements in trace quantities. Upon cooling, the liquid magma may precipitate crystals of various minerals until solidification is complete to form an igneous or magmatic rock. The heat concentrated in the Earth’s upper mantle raises temperatures sufficiently to melt the rock locally by fusing the materials with the lowest melting temperatures, resulting in small, isolated blobs of magma. The blobs then collect, rise through conduits and fractures, and some ultimately may re-collect in larger pockets or reservoirs a few miles beneath the Earth’s surface. Mounting pressure within the reservoir may drive the magma further upward through structurally weak zones to erupt as lava at the surface. In a continental environment, magmas are generated in the Earth’s crust as well as at varying depths in the upper mantle. The variety of molten rocks in the crust, plus the possibility of mixing with molten materials from the underlying mantle, leads to the production of magmas with widely different chemical compositions. If magmas cool rapidly, as might be expected near or on the Earth’s surface, they solidify to form igneous rocks that are finely crystalline or glassy with few crystals. Accordingly, lavas, which of course are very rapidly cooled, form volcanic rocks typically characterized by a small percentage of crystals or fragments set in a matrix of glassor finer grained crystalline materials. If magmas never breach the surface to erupt and remain deep underground, they cool much more slowly and thus allow ample time to sustain crystal precipitation and growth, resulting in the formation of coarser grained, nearly completely crystalline, igneous rocks. Subsequent to final crystallization and solidification, such rocks can be exhumed by erosion many thousands or millions of years later and be exposed as large bodies of so-called granitic rocks, as, for example, those spectacularly displayed in Yosemite National Park and other parts of the majestic Sierra Nevada mountains of California. Lava is red hot when it pours or blasts out of a vent but soon changes to dark red, gray, black, or some other color as it cools and solidifies. Very hot, gas-rich lava containing abundant iron and magnesium is fluid and flows like hot tar, whereas cooler, gas-poor lava high in silicon, sodium, and potassium flows sluggishly, like thick honey in some cases or in others like pasty, blocky masses. All magmas contain dissolved gases, and as they rise to the surface to erupt, the confining pressures are reduced and the dissolved gases are liberated either quietly or explosively. If the lava is a thin fluid, the gases may escape easily. But if the lava is thick and pasty, the gases will not move freely but will build up tremendous pressure, and ultimately escape with explosive violence. Gases in lava may be compared with the gas in a bottle of a carbonated soft drink. If you put your thumb over the top of the bottle and shake it vigorously, the gas separates from the drink and forms bubbles. When you remove your thumb abruptly, there is a miniature explosion of gas and liquid. The gases in lava behave in somewhat the same way. Their sudden
expansion causes the terrible explosions that throw out great masses of solid rock as well as lava, dust, and ashes. 146. According to the information in paragraph 1, volcanoes are different from ordinary mountains in the following ways EXCEPT A. They are different in shape. B. They are formed through different methods. C. They are formed with different materials. D. Volcanoes usually have an opening to let out gases. 147. According to the information in paragraph 2, what travels far away from the volcano after the eruption? A. The larger lava fragments. B. The lava ashes. C. The dense clouds of lava fragments. D. The fine ejected lava ash particles. 148. The word so in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. The molten rock is lighter than the surrounding solid rock. B. The molten rock goes upward and breaks into the Earth’s crust. C. The surrounding solid rock goes up and breaks into the Earth’s crust. D. The surrounding solid rock erupts. 149. The word ascending in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. rising B. advancing C. extending D. expanding 150. According to the information in paragraph 3, which is NOT true of magma? A. It is the preexistence of lava. B. Before the volcano eruption, it exists deep under the earth. C. It is a mixture of gases, solids, liquids and chemical minerals. D. Such elements as iron and silicon are rare in the magma. 151. The word breach in the passage is closest in meaning to _______ A. break B. uncover
C. breach D. convert 152. Which of the following inferences can be inferred from the information in paragraph 5? A. Lavas may be expected near or on the Earth’s surface. B. In the Yosemite National Park, crystalline and finely grained rocks are displayed. C. Granitic rocks are huge while volcano rocks are comparatively small. D. It takes years to form granitic rocks after the volcano eruption. 153. According to the information in paragraph 6, cool gas-poor lava contains abundant chemical elements including _______. A. Silicon, and potassium B. Iron and sodium C. Magnesium and iron D. Magnesium and silicon 154. The author explains how the explosive eruption of volcano by _______. A. Comparing the process to a bottle of a carbonated soft drink opened. B. Contrasting the thin and thick lava fluid. C. Comparing lava and other fluids. D. Analyzing the working theory behind the process. 155. The word abruptly in the passage is closest in meaning to _______. A. suddenly B. abundantly C. acutely D. momentarily
IV. The following reading passage has twelve paragraphs. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraph 2-11 from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate letters (A-P) in the spaces provided. There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. You may use any of the headings more than once. ON THE WING Suppose a friend told you he had just spent $4,000 on a new hang glider weighing a mere 601b (27 kilos) which he could transport on top of his car and carry on his shoulder. Would you believe his plan to fly scores of miles without an engine? A flight of fancy? Not at
all, he would explain. Hang gliding no longer deserves its reputation as a sport for reckless idiots who get a thrill risking life and limb by leaping off cliffs and mountains. 156. _____________ Accidents still happen, but they are usually caused by pilot error. Equipment failure is rare and most mishaps result in nothing more than a bit of bent aluminium and a bruised ego. Hang Gliding, a magazine for American enthusiasts, reckons that for every 100,000 participants the number of fatalities each year for hang gliding is 22. This, it claims, makes pilots of hang gliders less intrepid than balloonists (death rate 67) or airline pilots (97). 157. ______________ Hang gliders are a marvel of simplicity and strength. A tough framework of aluminium tubing supports a tailored sail stiffened by lots of alloy battens (these hold the wing in shape). The whole structure is braced by stainless-steel rigging wires. Tolerances are so fine that manufacturers have to cut the entire sail on the same day to avoid variations induced by changes in temperature and humidity. And the designs of hang gliders have changed radically from early prototypes made from bamboo and polythene. 158. _____________ This unusual form of unpowered flight traces its origins back to the work of a German pioneer, Otto Lilienthal, in the 1890s. He carefully recorded the results of more than 2,000 experimental flights by man-carrying gliders, many of them made from a 50-foot (15-metre) high purpose-built hill near Berlin. 159. ______________ But modern hang gliding owes everything to a pioneer who is still alive: Francis Rogallo. Ha was employed in America’s space effort during the 1950s to design a steerable parachute for space-capsule reentry. His work was never used for its intended purpose, but adapted instead by water-skiers to produce a simple kite which could be towed aloft. It was a small step from this to attempting to make foot-launched flights on these fragile craft, from the gentle and forgiving sand dunes of coastal California. By the early 1960s, hang gliding was reborn. 160. ______________ Since then home-built kits have been replaced by production-line models made by about 20 manufacturers. Flights used to last a minute or two. Today’s pilot can remain aloft for hours while travelling huge distances. The world distance record is currently held by an American, Larry Tudor, at 303 miles (488 km). It took him nearly nine hours to travel from Hobbs, New Mexico, to Elkhart, Kansas. 161. ______________
Once airborne, actually flying requires subtlety rather than strength – one reason why women pilots often perform better than men. The pilot is suspended prone in a cocoon-like harness and controls direction and speed through gentle shifts of body weight. Launching the machine demands a committed run of just a few steps down a slope facing the prevailing wind. Lading is harder. The pilot needs the same kind of precision possessed by large birds when they land on level ground. 162. ______________ The necessary accessories include a helmet, gloves, an emergency parachute and a variety of instruments, including a variometer. This clever box of electronics detects tiny changes in air pressure, and relays this information as an audio tone and visual readout. Changes occur as the pilot climbs (lower pressure) or descends (higher pressure). The skill is in loitering in the rising air and avoiding the inevitable sink. 163. ______________ All new gilder designs undergo rigorous tests before being certified airworthy. There are no internationally agreed standards, but it is generally accepted that the systems adopted by Germany and Britain are especially stringent. 164. ______________ In Britain, the British Hand Gliding and Paragliding Association (BHGPA) employs a mobile test rig upon which the aircraft is mounted. The whole unit is towed at high speeds behind a suitable vehicle, allowing various flying profiles to be tested and measured against the required extremes. 165. ______________ Training and coaching have also kept pace with technology and design. In Britain, fulltime BHGPA officers regulate training for beginners in commercial schools, and volunteer coaches at the 40 local clubs throughout the country provide further training for their 3,500 members. Different countries have different systems for rating the proficiency of pilots, but all aim to measure attainment, skill and knowledge through practical asks and written examinations. Hang gliding attracts the sort of people who enjoy a sense of freedom and adventure. What organization there is exists mainly to stave off the threat of external controls and to foster competition at the highest level. At the 1991 World Championships in Brazil, 114 pilots represented 30 countries. The 1993 event, to be held at Owens Valley, California, from June 26th to July 10th, is expected to attract an even wider international field. Quite a change since foolhardy Germans jumped off Otto Lilienthal’s hill. Lists of headings A. What else is needed to fly
B. Hang gliders’ German origin C. Unpowered flying – a flight fancy? D. The function of battens E. Training of hang glider fliers F. The British test G. Flying a hang glider H. What to do in case of emergency I. Hang gliders can fly hundreds of miles J. Development of hang gliders in America K. Testing systems to ensure safety L. The structure of hang gliders M. Safer than balloons and airplanes
PART 5: WRITING I. Rewrite the sentences using words given. 166. The minister gave no precise figures about the casualties. → The minister didn't go _____________________________________. 167. Every possible effort was made by orphanage to find the boy's parents. → The orphanage left no stone ________________________________. 168. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police. → Refusal ________________________________________________. 169. I’m sure I can solve your problem for you. → I know I can sort ________________________________________. 170. Don’t tell my mother any about it. → Don’t breathe ___________________________________________. 171. The music teacher was the only member of staff not to attend the farewell party. (EXCEPTION) → _______________________________________________________________. 172. Digging the garden always makes me feel hungry. (GIVES) → _______________________________________________________________. 173. After a while, I realized that I’d made a terrible mistake (DAWNED) → _______________________________________________________________. 174. He said that the crisis wasn’t important. (LIGHT) → _______________________________________________________________. 175. The neighbours were arguing. (ROW) → _______________________________________________________________.
II. This graph below shows the immigration into the United States from 1861 to 2010. Write a report (of 150 words) on the changes over the period of 150 years. You may add comments and reasons to enliven your report.
_________________________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________
III. Should art be taught in public schools? Why or why not? In about 250 words, write an essay to express your point of view on this idea. Use reasons and examples to support your argument. _________________________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________________________ _______________________________________________________________________________________________
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ NGUỒN MÔN TIẾNG ANH VÙNG DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII KHỐI 11 Thời gian: 180 phút PART 1: LISTENING I. 1. A 2. C 3. C II.
4. B 5. A
6. Schools for Social Entrepreneurs 7. Bored teenagers 8. right attitudes and experiences 9. motivation, resilience 10. where work and learning are integrated 11. about 300, 400 12. through real life 13. 20% 14. in the lowest performing groups 15. word of mouth
PART 2: PHONETIC I. 16. D 17. B 18. B II. 21. D 22. A 23. A
19. B 20. A
24. C 25. B
PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. A
30. B 31. A 32. A 33. D
34. A 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. B 39. B
40. D 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. A 45. B
II. 46. kinds → kind 47. common → a common 48. so → as 49. year → years 50. these → this
51. loot → the loot 52. for → into 53. its → theirs 54. sophisticating → sophisticated 55. they → there
III. 56. in 57. into 58. of 59. to 60. over 61. with 62. by / with 63. up 64. out 65. out / through
66. down 67. down 68. out for 69. out 70. out 71. on 72. on to 73. out 74. up with 75. in / out
IV. 76. had been watched 77. sees 78. realized 79. feeling 80. will have left 81. will have learned/ will have been learning 82. would not have failed 83. having written 84. laughing 85. repairing / to be repaired
86. has been decided 87. hadn’t been 88. could have been 89. shouldn’t have gone 90. to ask 91. looking 92. to have been fiddling 93. will be announced 94. to have found 95. judging
V. 96. rhythmically 97. perception(s) 98. consciousness 99. (un)arguably 100. controversial
101. 102. 103. 104. 105.
researchers conviction underestimated decisive coherent
111. 112. 113. 114. 115.
A B C C B
B C A D D A D B
124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
A C D A A D C
come / learnt / learned at gone then nothing from such again with wide as
142. 143. 144. 145.
ourselves rather what although / though / while / whilst
VI. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
B C A D D
PART 4: READING I. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. II. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141.
III. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
C D B A D
151. 152. 153. 154. 155.
A D A A A
M L B J I
161. 162. 163. 164. 165.
G A K F E
IV. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160.
PART 5: WRITING I. 166. The minister didn't go into details about the casualties. 167. The orphanage left no stone unturned in their attempt to find the boy's parents. 168. Refusal to give a breath sample (to the police) could lead to your arrest. 169. I know I can sort out your problem for you. 170. Don’t breathe a word of it to my mother. 171. With the exception of the music teacher, every member of the staff / all the staff attended the farewell party. 172. Digging the garden always gives me an appetite / a good / big appetite. 173. After a while, it dawned on me that I’d made a terrible mistake. 174. He made light of the crisis. 175. The neighbours were having a row.
TAPESCRIPT LISTENING PART I: Radio interviewer: I’m backstage at the Birmingham Hippodrome with the comedian Brian Conley. Hello Brian. Nice to see you again. Brian:
Nice to see you too.
Radio interviewer: Brain:
Birmingham’s done well for you over the years, hasn’t it?
It certainly has. It’s paid my mortgage, definitely. I mean, it’s not far from where
I live, it’s just up the motorway, and I love this theatre. I’ve got some great memories of here. Back in the 90s, especially, when I was doing panto with Britt Eckland, that was a really good time. Radio interviewer:
You mention panto, which has, of course an element of audience
participation and rowdiness. How do you cope with that? Is it something that’s difficult for you? Brian:
It is difficult, especially with the kids, you never know what they’re going to
come up with. But I’m up for that. Some theatres don’t like the kids to come up on stage any more, they just finish with a musical number and that’s it, but I think that’s a shame, especially now I’ve got kids of my own. What a lot of theatres do now is get the parents to come down and stand in the aisles, and if there’s a rowdy kid, we bring the parent up, and that puts the onus on the parent to keep the kid in check. But I like all that participation. It’s what gives it energy and makes it live. Radio interviewer: You do a range of different shows though, don’t you? Brian:
Yes, I do musical theatre and corporate work as well as panto, but panto’s the
best. It plays to my strengths, you know. I like the fact that it’s got everything, singing, dancing, comedy, and if there’s something in the papers that day, I can pick up on it and put it in the show. And that’s something that only I can do, as the comedy character. The other characters in the show can’t diverge from the script so much. But I can ad lib. It’s great. When I work in musical theatre, I can’t do that. I have to stick to the script. Radio Interviewer: So where did it all begin, this comedy career? When was your first time on stage? Brian:
The first time I was on stage was when I was two. I was at this holiday camp and
my mum and dad lost me in the dance hall. Then they heard loads of people laughing and they saw me up on stage making a fool of myself. That was it after that. I was hooked. But what has also driven me is the fact that I was dyslexic. I found it difficult to keep up at
school, because my writing was bad, so I naturally became the class clown, the school joker. But I was always a good singer, and singing was always my first love. Comedy came later. When I started doing clubs when I was 17, I found that you get paid more for doing comedy than you do for singing. Radio Interviewer: And you still do comedy now. Brian:
Yeah, I do. Most of the comedy I do now is actually corporate work. You know,
these big work events, where there’s free food and drink. It’s very lucrative, but it’s a tough crowd. They’ve got a load of free alcohol and they get boozed up. There’s a big demand for it these days, but a lot of famous comedians can’t do it. I’ve learnt how to handle it over the years, and I’ve got an answer for every situation now. I had to fall into it really, it pays the mortgage. Radio Interviewer: And you still get nerves? Brian:
A guy once said to me that it doesn’t get any easier. I dismissed that. I used to
reckon that as I got older and more experienced I’d be more relaxed and I wouldn’t get so nervous. But I realize that he was right. I want to do well, and that effects how you feel before the performance. Radio Interviewer: Brain Conley, thank you very much.
PART II: We are pleased to be able to recommend Anna Brown's "Go Organic", the essential book for all concerned consumers. "Go Organic" is a fresh, modern, and inspiring sourcebook which has started a revolution in favour of organic living. It can help you make simple lifestyle changes that will have a big impact on our planet. Part of the reason for our support is that we think naturally grown produce, and pesticide and chemical-free meat and poultry taste so good. It is honestly produced, marketed fresh, more flavourful and better for our health than intensively produced food. But our interest in the subject also reflects the anxieties so many of us feel about big agribusiness meat and vegetables. We all want to know where our food has come from and what has been put on it. Intensively-reared dairy cows and farm animals are fed a dangerous cocktail of growth promoting drugs, antibiotics and anti-parasite drugs on a daily basis, whether they have an illness or not. These drugs are passed directly onto the consumers of their dairy produce or meat., which must be a contributing factor to meat-related diseases like coronaries and high blood pressure. None of us likes the idea of hormones and growth promoters, or pigs and chicken kept in crowded , cramped conditions. We hate the idea of chickens having to be debeaked so they don't peck each other, or pigs having their tails cropped. We dislike feeding our children - and ourselves - on vegetables that have been pumped up with chemical fertilizers, then sprayed with pesticide to keep the apples glossy and the pears unblemished. Over £2.5 million of public money is spent every year just to monitor the use of pesticides when a rational food and agriculture policy would find means of eliminating this source of pollution from the food chain altogether - or, at least, of reducing it so the costs are less ridiculous. We spend billions of pounds every year cleaning up the mess that agro-chemicals make to our natural water supply. The average conventionally-grown apple has 20-30 artificial poisons on its skin, even after rinsing. Fresh organic produce contains on average 50% more vitamins, minerals, enzymes and other micro-nutrients than intensively farmed produce. We don't want to buy tomatoes that have been genetically modified (that is, GM) with the DNA of a fish just to expand their shelf life for the convenience of the wholesaler and retailer.
And we don't want to buy tomato paste made from GM tomatoes. At the very least, we want GM products to be clearly labelled as such, so that we have the choice of buying non-GM merchandise. Organic foods cost more at the moment, but prices are coming down - the more we buy, the cheaper it will get. This is one area where the consumer is sovereign -it is the consumers who have made the organic food revolution. Intensive farming can seriously damage farm workers' health. There are much higher instances of cancer, respiratory problems and other major diseases in farm workers from nonorganic farms. This is particularly true in developing countries, and for agrochemical farms growing cotton. So we need to go organic if we care about other people. The trouble is, it can be difficult to shop organically –there are competing interests with competing claims - and different labels. If you want to safeguard you and your family's health, you should go organic. Going organic is the only practical way to avoid eating genetically modified food. And if you want to go organic, you cannot miss reading "Go Organic", the book for everyone who aspires to a better lifestyle and a better world.
REFERENCE PART I: LISTENING I. CAE Listening 3 II. TED - Geoff Mulgan: A short intro to the Studio School
PART II: PHONOLOGY II. Identify 10 mistakes: Olympic 2011 -TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ HỒNG PHONG –TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH IV. Read the following text and fill in each blank using the correct form of the word in brackets. – Olympic 2013 - TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN TRẦN ĐẠI NGHĨA –TP. HỒ CHÍ MINH VI. Linking words – Destination C1&C2
PART IV: READING I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space - English Advanced Vocabulary and Structure Practice test 5. II. Fill each blank with ONE word - CPE practice test – Mac Harrison III. Reading THE NATURE OF VOLCANOES – TOEFL Complete test-Reading. IV. Reading ON THE WING – IELTS Reading Strategy.
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BG ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
ĐỀ THI HSG KHU VỰC DH - ĐBBB NĂM 2014 Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 (Đề thi gồm 16 trang) _______________________________________________________________________ SECTION A: LISTENING (15 POINTS) I. You will hear a student and an advisor talking about the facilities at the college. Listen carefully and answer questions from 1 to 5. You will hear the information twice. (5 pts) 1. If the student has to get medicines, there’s a prescription charge of _____. A. £ 6.15
B. £ 6.50
C. £ 5.16
D. £ 5.60
2. Where is the student living at the moment? A. at a hotel
B. at a hostel
C. in the Sport Centre
D. at his own apartment
3. Counseling service is on the _____. A. North Campus
B. Central Campus
C. South Campus
D. West Centre
4. If the student wants to make a note, the number is _____. A. 09100625913
B. 90100625913
C. 09100762593
D. 09007625913
5. The fee you have to pay to get a pass is _____. A. £ 12
B. £ 22
C. £ 32
D. £ 42
II. You will hear part of a lecture on Wildlife. Listen carefully and answer questions from 1 to 10. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the information twice. (10 pts) The European Starling. Length:
(1) ___________________.
Colour:
black or grey, white spots.
Nesting sites:
Trees and (2) _________________. 1
Diet:
(3) _________________ and fruit.
Natural range:
British Isles, Finland
Population:
British Isles, Finland: in decline USA: (4) _________________ birds
Some of the problems created by large numbers of starlings. On wildlife:
They compete with other species for (5) _________________ places.
On agriculture:
They feed on (6) _________________ crops. They cause (7) _________________.
On human life:
They may cause (8) _________________.
Possible solutions. There are (9) _________________ approaches in theory. The best one, of course, is (10) _________________. SECTION B: PHONETICS (5 POINTS) I. Choose letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2,5p) 1. A. consequence
B. television
C. benefit
D. facility
2. A. cultural
B. advantage
C. priority
D. occurrence
3. A. destructive
B. ecology
C. comfortable
D. security
4. A. individual
B. opposition
C. extinction
D. universal
3.
4.
Your answers: 5. A. alternative 2.
5.
II. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the rest by circling A, B, C or D. (2,5p) 1. A. industry
B. inhibit
C. prestigious
D. requirement
2. A. distribution B. redundant
C. community
D. confused
3. A. helicopter
B. exhibition
C. handle
D. hedgehog
4. A. growth
B. math
C. brother
D. strength
5. A. special
B. education
C. economy
D. uncommon
Your answers: 2
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 POINTS) I. Choose the correct answer to fill in each blank. (5p) 1. Don't go to the city centre during rush hour. You will be _____ like sardines. A. canned
B. packed
C. pressed
D. pushed
2. Last week, my mother gave me a _____ of ten-thousand notes to buy a bike. A. fistful
B. fist
C. fisted
D. fisticuff
3. They did have a ____escape. Their car stopped right at the river bank. A. narrow
B. small
C. near
D. slight
4. It was Tony who ____in asking for another glass of brandy and got drunk in the end. A. endured
B. kept
C. persisted
D. maintained
C. shout
D. scream
5. I had to _____ to make myself heard. A. cry out
B. yell
6. He is a teacher not for earning money but as a/n _____ of love A. labor
B. work
C. job
D. occupation
7. The workers are paid weekly. Their _____ though not much can chiefly help them afford all their necessities. A. payments
B. earnings
C. salaries
D. wages
8. Betty says she cannot stand looking at the rat, _____touching it. A. even so
B. let alone
C. what if
D. as far as
9. Something began to go ____with the experiment when the two scientists were forced to retire. A. wrong
B. stale
C. ill
D. faulty
10. However strict ____we took, we couldn’t eliminate the risk of any further riots in the streets. A. controls
B. discipline
C. measures
D. regulations
11. He gave me a furious look and ______ out of the room. A. stormed
B. hurled
C. surged 3
D. burst
12. My secretary was ______ to have typed those letters already. A. asked
B. supposed
C. requested
D. ordered
13. He seemed very quiet, but it would be a mistake to ______ his intelligence. A. devalue
B. depreciate
C. underrate
D. minimize
14. I am well ______ with the problems encountered in starting a business. A. aware
B. informed
C. acquainted
D. knowledgeable
15. If production in that factory exceeds the target, the workers get a ______. A. bonus
B. gratuity
C. donation
D. subsidy
16. Because the law moves so slowly, there is a considerable ______of untried cases. A. hangover
B. remainder
C. backlog
D. reserve
17. You needn’t have made extra copies of the booklet. We have got plenty to ___round. A. circulate
B. go
C. spread
D. suffice
18. John's in hospital again. The poor chap seems ______ to accidents. A. prone
B. disposed
C. bound
D. destined
19. 'I know that you have an appointment in ten minutes, so I shall not ______ you long,' the professor remarked. A. retard
B. withhold
C. postpone
D. detain
20. I can’t do whatever I want because I am still financially ____ on my parents. A. determined
B. subject
C. reliant
D. dependable
Your answers: Q# 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A II. Find and correct the mistake in each sentence. (5p) 1. In the past, people used to barter goods to goods. 2. Lung cancer is one of the most communal cancers among men. 3. The novelist used much imagination to write about imaginative planets in the universe. 4. No more do we have to worry because our coal and oil stocks are petering out. We have nuclear power in our disposal. 4
5. Her mother is a teacher of French no longer. 6. It is advisable to put all of your spent money in a bank. 7. By a strange coincide, we happened to be traveling on the same train. 8. Using gas is much more economic than using electricity. 9. The workers are on strike at the moment. They are demanding prompt paying from their employers. 10.People could only exchange what they considered to be for equal value. Your answers: Sent
Mistake
Correction
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 III. Supply the correct prepositions in the blanks. (5p) 1+2. I like solving crossword puzzles. I don’t do it ..… prizes. I enjoy puzzling them…, just for the fun of it. 3+4. There is a page missing …….the book, it looks as if someone has torn it …...on purpose. 5+6. He was far ….satisfied with the way things had turned out. He sat in an armchair, lost ….thought. 7+8. Say something to cheer her ……, she’s …….low spirits today. 9+10. She tried …….several coats before she found one entirely ……her taste. 11. This car is inferior ............... the one I bought last year. 5
12. We’ll take this problem ................ consideration next week. 13. I'm grateful to you for being so patient ............... my stupid son. 14. Mr. Thomson has been appointed ................. the post of manager. 15. Can I go ............. to what you said at the beginning of the meeting? 16+17. I hoped she'd come ......... ............... some more information. 18. The Buddhist monk told me that the old woman had not really died. He said she had simply passed ............. her next life. 19. A good citizen is always loyal ............ his government. 20. He has a great capacity .............. mathematics. Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
2.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
IV. Supply the correct verb form. (5p) 1. We (wait) _____ for Nina for over two hours before she finally arrived. 2+3. By the time you (arrive) ____ we (finish) ____ our task and we can go out for dinner in the evening. 4+5. The Browns (live) _____ in Paris for 20 years when the Second World War (break) ___ out. 6. One of the most famous monuments in the world, the Statue of Liberty (present) _____ to the US in the 19th century. 7+8. You'd better (phone) ______ me at about 10 o'clock tonight. I (not do) _____ anything at that time. 9. Had you listened to your mother, you (not make) ______ that stupid mistake. 10.A woman collapsed at the supermarket checkout. She (smuggle) ____ out a frozen chicken under her hat. 11+12. (They not invent) _____ satellites, we (not watch) _____ live programs on TV. 6
13-18.
We (run) _____ out of petrol!
I'm not surprised. I (notice) _____ that the tank (be) _____ nearly empty when we (leave) _____ home. You (tell) _______ me! We (get) ____ petrol at the last village. Now we've got a 10-mile walk! 19+20. When I met him he (look) _____ frightened as if he (see) _____ a ghost. Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
2.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
V. Give the correct form of the words that fit in each gap in the passage. (5p) SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has everything you need. November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable, featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming operations always keep trails in top shape. The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams into thrilling (6. REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7. PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering the highest quality amenities. Your answers: 7
1. ………………………..
6. ………………………..
2. ………………………..
7. ………………………..
3. ………………………..
8. ………………………..
4. ………………………..
9. ………………………..
5. ………………………..
10. ………………………..
VI. Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (5p) Mobile phones emit microwave radio emissions. Researchers are questioning whether exposure to these radio waves might (1) ____ to brain cancer. So far, the data are not conclusive. The scientific evidence does not (2) ____ us to say with certainly that mobile phones are categorically (3) ____. On the other hand, current research has not yet (4) ____ clear adverse effect associated with the prolonged use of mobile phones. Numerous studies are now going (5) ____ in various countries. Some of the results are contradictory but others have shown an association between mobile phone use and cancer. (6) ____, these studies are preliminary and the issue needs further, long - term investigation. (7) ____ the scientific data is more definite, it is prudent for people to try not to use mobile phone for long (8) ____ of time. Don't think that hands free phones are any safer either. At the moment, research is in fact showing the (9) ____ and they may be just as dangerous. It is also thought that young people (10) ____ bodies are still growing may be at particular risk. 1. A. lead
B. bring
C. produce
D. cause
2. A. make
B. let
C. able
D. enable
3. A. risky
B. secure
C. safe
D. unhealthy
4. A. proved
B. created
C. demonstrated D. caused
5. A. on
B. about
C. through
D. by
6. A. While
B. However
C. Additionally
D. Though
7. A. Until
B. When
C. Provide
D. As
8. A. quantities
B. periods
C. amounts
D. intervals
9. A. way
B. truth
C. opposite
D. fact
10. A. as
B. that
C. with
D. whose
8
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25POINTS) I. Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write A, B, C, or D in the spaces provided to indicate your answer. (7,5p) Reports that government is about to ( 1) _____ the go-ahead to plans for the building of a new runway at London’s Gatwick airport have angered local (2) _____ and raised fears of increased noise and exhaust pollution. The (3) _____ plans also include permission for additional night flights and will (4) _____ the compulsory purchase of farmland, (5) _____ the demolition of a number of private homes. According to the sources close to the Ministry of Transport, the government is known to be concerned by the increasing (6) _____ of traffic at London Heathrow, where there are no plans for further runways in the foreseeable (7) _____ . Gatwick is widely (8) _____ as a better (9) _____ for expansion than London’s third airport, Standsted, which still (10) _____ from poor transport links. A spokesperson for the keep Gatwick Quiet association, (11) _____ up of local people, accused the government of (12) _____ back on promises made before the general Election. “We were told then that the airport authority had no (13) _____ of building another runway, and we believe that the government has a duty to (14) _____ its pledge”. Prominent figures in the government are also believed to be concerned at the news, although the Prime Minister, interviewed last night, is (15) _____ as saying that reports were “misleading”. However, he would not give an assurance that plans for building a runway had definitely been repaired. 1. A. sign
B. make
C. give
D. approve
2. A. inhabitants
B. dwellers
C. occupants
D. residents
3. A. controversial
B. debatable
C. notorious
D. doubtful
4. A. involve
B. concern
C. assume
D. need
5. A. further to
B. as well as
C. moreover
D. what’s more
6. A. sum
B. size
C. volume
D. length
7. A. years
B. period
C. time
D. future
9
8. A. regarded
B. believed
C. felt
D. held
9. A. potential
B. outlook
C. prospect
D. likelihood
10. A. affects
B. undergoes
C. experiences
D. suffers
11. A. made
B. set
C. brought
D. taken
12. A. getting
B. falling
C. going
D. turning
13. A. desire
B. intention
C. wish
D. objective
14. A. bear out
B. count on
C. pull off
D. stand by
15. A. quoted
B. known
C. thought
D. written
Your answers: 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
II. Fill in each blank in the following passage with a suitable word. (7,5p) The eighteen-century artist, Chardin, is recognized as the master of (1).......is known as still life, painting of simple household objects. (2)......a long time art critics considered this form of art inferior (3)........other subjects, for, after all, what does such a picture show other (4).......things that (5).......one of us might find in the kitchen? In this picture of a glass of water and a coffee pot, for example, (6)......seems at first sight to be (7)......special about their arrangement or any natural relationship between them. It looks as though the artist has (8).......to a great deal of trouble to paint nothing at (9)...... . But if you study the painting, you realize that the objects are linked (10) .........by the atmosphere, the light that falls over the whole composition. Chardin did not only paint inanimate objects, of course. He loved to picture children playing and just (11).......the best photographs of children are often taken when they are not aware of (12).......photographed, so his best paintings seem to have been painted when he caught the child off his guard, in a manner of speaking. This was, and still (13)......, an original approach to a human subject. Most of these paintings are portraits and the sitter is provided with a suitable expression. But in Chardin’s picture of a young man blowing bubbles, the man is concentrating on (14)........a simple action that it does not require very (15).......effort and so there is no expression on his face, yet the picture is 10
memorable because it is entirely natural. Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
2
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
III. Read the following passage and choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 10. (5p) "The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written, "is the history of the rise and development of the capitalistic system". The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those of the seventeenth century have begun: the expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion. Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our growth. Capital includes the tools - such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings - that makes the outputs of labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the next crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European tradition. It contributed to American’s motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow. The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was consumed, was derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South 11
Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies, linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest. 1. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned? A. Geography
B.
Finance
C. Economics
D. Culture
2. The phrase ‘paved the way’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. paid for
B. supported
C. accumulated
D. resembled
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans __. A. sent many tools to America
B. taught their skills to their offspring
C. were accustomed to saving
D. were good farmers
4. The word ‘funds’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. money
B. resource
C. labor
D. capital
5. According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital? A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Studying the culture history of the country C. Consuming what is produced
D. Planting more of a crop than what is needed
6. The word ‘it’ in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to ____. A. growth
B. resource
C. labor
D. capital
7. According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT _. A. factories
B. tractors
C. money
D. workers
8. According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result of ____. A. efficient saving
B. the immigration
C. the success of production and trade
D. the existence of manufacturing
9. The word ‘negligible’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ____. A. very important
B. not very important
C. necessary to be neglected
D. able to be neglected
10. The phrase ‘put aside’ in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _. A. hidden
B. saved
C. reviewed 12
D. consumed
Your answers: 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
IV. 5pts 1. Below is an article on space travel from which some paragraphs have been removed. Choose from the paragraphs A-G the one which fits each gap (1-5). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. 0 is an example. (2,5p) Cheap Access to Space Charles Conrad went to the moon with Apollo 12 and circled the Earth in Skylab. But from now on, he is going to aim high for himself. His company, Universal Space Lines, hopes to produce a more economic rocket that will be able to go into space again and again. 0. ______G_______ NASA, the U. S. government-owned space program, plans to develop such a rocket. However, the immediate priority is missions to Mars, which will require different technology. So it is more likely that people outside the NASA program will develop reusable rocket design. Rick Tumlinson runs an independent organization called the Space Frontier Foundation and firmly believes that it is time for businesses to get involved. 1. ______________ So Tumlinson is also in business to prove a point. Space is our destiny, he says, so why not get on with it a bit more eagerly? To this end, the SFF is holding a conference in Los Angeles shortly, to be called Space Open for Business. 2. ______________ Another company, Kistler Aerospace, has similar plans: "Our goal is to become a delivery service to low Earth orbit that will radically re-align the economics of doing business in space. Satellites will be our parcels; our vehicles will be operated in repeated flights with air freight efficiency." 3. ______________ Their own view is that it is impossible for NASA, which is government-owned, to offer an 'open frontier'. This is not a matter of budgets or schedules, but of fundamental purpose and design. NASA is 'elitist and exclusive', 13
whereas the SFF believe in opportunities for everyone: 'a future of endlessly expanding new choices'. 4. ______________ Of course, the ex-astronaut and businessman Charles Conrad agrees: "I'm trying to get affordable space transportation up and operative so that everybody can go enjoy space. And by the way, the Japanese are hard at work building a space hotel." 5. ______________ If he is right, mass space travel will have arrived by 2010 and space tourism will have become a viable industry. More importantly, the human race will have made serious progress in crossing that final frontier. A. Companies will always be looking for profit. For this reason, the SFF is not in favor of American missions to Mars, claiming that there's nothing in it for investors. At the same time, they do accept that these missions could bring scientific benefits. B. He sees the NASA program as a bit of a dinosaur: "25 years after the Wright Brothers, people could buy a commercial plane ticket ... but 25 years after landing on the moon, we sat around watching old astronauts on TV talking about the good old days." C. In 1997, the SFF ran a survey on the Internet, called 'Cheap Access to Space', where it asked American taxpayers for their views on the US space program and on what America's future priorities should be in space transportation. D. US government officials don't see a future for space tourism. Here again, private companies may well prove them wrong. David Ashford, director of Bristol Spaceplanes Limited, once said that space tourism would begin ten years after people stopped laughing at the concept. Recently, he added this striking comment: "People have stopped laughing." E. Charles Conrad is due to speak there. But his company is in fact only one of several that already have blueprints for getting into space and back cheaply. Rotary is working on something that would be launched like a rocket but return like a helicopter. Pioneer Rocket-plane believes there could be a million dollar market in delivering packages from one side of the planet to the other in an hour. 14
F. They would like to see 'irreversible human settlement' in space as soon as possible and maintain that this will only happen through free enterprise. "Building buildings and driving trucks is not what astronauts should be doing; that's what the private sector does." G. 'Cheap' is an important word in space technology nowadays and reusable rockets will be a key way of controlling costs. They will deliver things to orbit, bring stuff back to Earth and then go up again, perhaps with machinery for a space factory, or even carrying tourists. Your answers: 1
2
3
4
5
2. Read a magazine article about acupuncture treatment. Six paragraphs have been removed from the article. Choose from the paragraph A-G the one which fits each space. There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0). (2,5p) Pins and needles I was curious to find out more about acupuncture as I’d heard a lot about its beneficial effects. However, I didn’t feel in any particular need of treatment myself so I decided to ask a friend of mine if I could observe her receiving treatment.
I asked Joan Hughes, who I knew had been complaining of muscular stiffness for some time. She agreed, so excitedly we attended her first appointment at the local centre.
The Traditional Acupuncture Centre was just as you’d expect: the incense, rubber plants and charts on the wall. These mapped out the body’s energy channels. They seem to be the typical wall coverings of an alternative health centre.
0. E Nina returned and explained that she needed to ask Joan questions about her health, lifestyle, diet and personal history. She began by asking why Joan wanted acupuncture. 15
Joan described the shoulder stiffness and backache that had bothered her for years. 1. ______________ Nina then explained that in Chinese medicine, physical and emotional aspects are not distinct. An imbalance of either manifests itself in the same way. The division between mind and body is a Western idea. 2. ______________ Nina opened a sachet of sterile 4 cm long needles. They were fine and flexible, but Joan was still apprehensive. Nina took a pulse at six points on each of Joan’s wrists, looking for certain “qualities” that she would then treat. 3. _______________ Nina inserted the first needle into Joan’s shin. It went in a surprisingly long way before she twisted it to the right and Joan’s leg shot up suddenly. “Oh” she exclaimed. She was visibly tense, but Nina inserted the next needle it wasn’t so bad. 4. ________________ When the time came to remove the needles, Joan was more relaxed, though she flinched as they came out. All the time Nina was reassuring her. She informed Joan that the shocks she felt were due to blockages of the energy channels. 5. ________________ I asked Joan the next day about how she felt. She said that she felt a little more relaxed and that she had slept deeply that night. However, she really felt that she needed a course of treatment to be able to assess its effectiveness. A. Nina said that she felt Joan’s problems with her back and her shoulder stiffness came from her office job. She recommended that Joan do yoga exercises at work, as this kind of relaxation had many benefits for mind and body. B. Nina finished with a pressure point massage on Joan’s shoulder and back. “I’m looking forward to seeing you again,” Nina said, as she bade a relieved Joan a fond farewell. Nina left the decision to Joan about arranging another appointment. C. Our health apparently depends on the motivating energy, or chi, made up of the equal and opposite qualities of Yin and Yang. When these are unbalanced, one 16
can become ill. By inserting needles into points on the energy channels, healing responses are stimulated and the balance id restored. D. Surprisingly, these questions went on for a whole hour. Joan was asked about her attitudes to many things, including work and relationships. She was also asked about her attitude to herself on several occasions. E. Nina Doughty, the acupuncturist, introduced herself and then slipped away to prepare the treatment room. Joan was anxious. “I hope this does not hurt too much” she murmured. F. She also looked at Joan’s tongue, an indicator of her general state of health. At this point, Joan felt that the experience was rather like being at the dentist. However, at the dentist one usually knows where the needle will be inserted. G. She placed more needles in Joan’s ankles, feet, lower back and forearms. She tweaked them as she put them in, regularly checking Joan’s pulse, then left them for 20 minutes. Joan lay on the bed all this time. Your answers: 1
2.
3.
4.
5.
SECTION E: WRITING ( 30 POINTS) I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between thee and six words, including the word given. (5p) 1. The product launch is unlikely to be successful unless it is planned in great detail. essential Detailed ...............................................................................of the product launch. 2. She’s forever warning her husband about driving too fast, but he pays no attention. often No .........................................her husband about driving too fast, he pays no attention. 3. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. talked My father ......................................................... another foreign language. 17
4. The team are determined to finish the race however tough it is. matter The team are determined to finish the race............................................................. be. 5. I doubt that Simon will lend us the money. chance I think ..................................................................... of Simon lending us the money. 6. Not many people attended the meeting. turnout There was ..................................................................................................................... 7. Jill wished she had tried to have a better relationship with her father. get Jill regretted ...........................................................................better with her father. 8. He would do almost anything to win the girl’s hand. lengths He would ................................................................................the girl’s hand. 9. The interviewers will assume that you have found out something about the company and the job. granted The interviewers ......................................................that you have found out something about the company and the job. 10. I know it was a bad idea to include my telephone number on the advertisement. put I really oughtn’t...............................................................on the advertisement. II. Graph description. (10p) The table below shows the percentage of the rooms occupied in six hotels during May to September between 1985 and 2000. The table also indicates the star rating of each hotel. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words.
18
Stars
1985
1990
1995
2000
Hotel Concorde
*****
90
90
30
65
Hamilton's
*****
100
100
95
70
The Tower
****
57
85
55
85
Hotel Olivia
***
90
85
89
95
Hampton's
***
100
100
90
100
The Continental
***
79
83
70
80
.............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. 19
III. Essay writing. (15p) Nowadays, most students take extra classes. Do you think this is a good idea? Or would it be better for students to invest all that time in self-study? Write an essay of 250 words. Support your points with examples and relevant evidence. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. 20
.............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................ .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. .............................................................................................................................................. ............................................................................................................................................
The end
21
ĐÁP ÁN
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC GIANG TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BG
ĐỀ THI HSG KHU VỰC DH - ĐBBB NĂM 2014
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
Môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 11 (Đáp án gồm 02 trang)
_______________________________________________________________________ SECTION A: LISTENING (15PTS) I. (5 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. B II. (10 pts) - Mỗi câu đúng được 1 điểm 1. 12/ twelve inches 6. commercial
2. buildings
3. insects
7. financial damage
4. 170 million
8. diseases 9. 3/three
5. nesting
10. prevention
SECTION B: PHONETICS (5PTS) I. 2,5 pts – Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. D II. 2,5 pts – Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1D
2B
3B
4C
5A
SECTION C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30PTS) I. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm 1B
2A
3A
4C
5C
6A
7D
8B
9A
10C
11A
12B
13C
14C
15A
16C
17B 18A
19D
20C
II. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1. to - for
6. spent - unspent
2. communal - common
7. coincident - coincidence
3. imaginative - imaginary
8. economic - economical
4. in - at
9. paying - payment
5. is no longer …
10. for - of
III. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm 22
1+2. for – out
3+4. from – off
5+6. from – in
7+8. up– in
9+10. on – to
11. to
12. into
13. with
14. to
15.back
19. to
20. for
16+17. up – with 18. into
IV. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,25 điểm 1. had been waiting 2+3. arrive/will have finished 4+5. had been living (had lived)/broke out 6. was presented 7+8. phone/ won't be doing 9. would not have made 10. had smuggled 11+12. Had they not invented/couldn’t watch 13 > 18. have run/noticed/was/were leaving/should have told/would have got 19+20. looked / had seen V. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1. breathtaking
2. settlers
3. lifetime
6. reality
7. picturesque
4. consistent
8. unparalleled
5. legendary
9. caring
10. committed
VI. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1A
2D
3C
4A
5A
6B
7A
8B
9C
10D
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (25 PTS) I. 7,5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1C
2D
3A
4A
5B
6C 7D
8A
9C
10D
11A 12C 13B 14D 15A II. 7,5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1. what 8. gone
2. for
3. to
4. than
9. all
10. together 11. as
5. any
6. there
7. nothing
12. being
13. is
14. such
15. much III. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1C
2B
3C
4A
5D
6D
7D
8C 23
9B
10B
IV. 5pts - Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,5 điểm 1. 2,5p 1B
2E
3C
4F
5D
2C
3F
4G
5B
2. 2,5p 1D
SECTION E: WRITING (30 PTS) I. 5pts - Mỗi câu đúng được 0,5 điểm 1. ..... planning is essential to the success...... 2. ..... matter how often she warns .......... 3. ......talked me into learning ....... 4. ......no matter how tough it will ..... 5. ..... there is no chance of .... 6. ..... a low turnout at the meeting 7. ......not trying to get on ..... 8. ......go to great lengths to win ........... 9. ......will take it for granted......... 10. ....have put my telephone number ......... II. Graph description: 10 pts III. Essay writing: 15pts The end
24
Đề thi đề xuất của Chuyên Vĩnh Phúc Kì thi HSG Đồng Bằng Bắc Bộ Môn: Tiếng Anh 11 I. LISTENING SECTION 1 Questions 1 – 5 You will hear an interview with an engineer called Roger Moffat, whose working life has changed dramatically over the last ten years. For questions 1 – 5, choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. 1. The interviewer says that Roger is the kind of person who A. is reluctant to try something different. B. does not want to spend his money. C. enjoys entertaining others D. is happy to reveal the tricks of his trade. 2. How did Roger feel initially about what happened ten years ago? A. angry
B. resigned
C. disinterested
D. depressed
3. What does Roger feel is the greatest benefit of running his own business? A. He arranges his free time as he pleases. B. He gets on better with other people. C. He is free of an environment he disliked. D. He has more leisure time than before. 4. What is Roger’s attitude towards his future? A. He thinks he’ll be more vulnerable than he used to be. B. He considers his position to be no less secure than before. C. He’d feel financially more secure working for someone else. D. He considers himself too old to change direction again. 5. What does Roger find most satisfying about the ‘tools of his trade’? A. They are intricate beyond belief.
B. They are the creations of colleagues.
C. They are theoretical in design.
D. They are exciting to contemplate.
1
SECTION 2 Questions 6 - 15 Questions 6 - 11 Complete the lecture notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The Super Volcano * No specifically defined scientific meaning - refers to volcanoes that have generated the Earth’s largest volcanic eruptions. * Super volcano eruption form calderas. Whereas normal volcano craters are measured in the hundreds of metres, a caldera can be easily as large as (6)__________ miles wide. Super Volcano Caldera Locations: (not all active) Long Valley, Eastern California Toba, Indonesia Lake Taupo, (7) __________ Japan Indonesia Scotland Alaska Normal Volcano Formation- Magma column rises from Earth, erupts and hardens down sides creating the familiar (8) __________ mountain Super Volcano Formation- Magma rises from Earth’s mantle creating (9)__________ in the Earth’s crust. Chamber increases to enormous size, creating colossal pressure. Eruption finally forms massive caldera. Results of Super Volcano Eruption * Ash, dust and sulphur dioxide ejected, blocking sun & creating cold wave lasting several years. Plants and animals (including humans) would die. * Most recent caldera-forming eruption ((10) __________ ago approx.). Ash, pumice, and gases covered more than 3000 square miles and also went high into the stratosphere to circle the Earth, affecting its temperature. Ash from this eruption still found in Iowa and in (11) __________ from the Gulf of Mexico. 2
Questions 12 - 15 According to the Earth Sciences lecture, which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true? Choose FOUR letters (A - H) and write them in any order in numbers 12 – 15 on your answer sheet. 12………….
13…………
14…………
15……………
A Yellowstone Park has previously suffered three enormous eruptions. B The first super eruption in Yellowstone was over three million years ago. C The first super eruption in Yellowstone Park created a caldera bigger than another state of the US. D Scientists say Yellowstone Park should erupt approximately every 600 000 years. E The ground level of Yellowstone Park has increased by over half a metre over the last 10 years. F A taskforce has been set up to plan for the possible devastation that a Yellowstone eruption would cause. G Evidence suggests that the super-eruption at Toba caused the Earth’s population of humans to drop to about 10 000. H A super-eruption could make the Earth’s temperature drop to 5 to 10 degrees Celsius. II. PRONUNCIATION Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest’s in each of the following questions. 1. A. recommend
B. recollect
C. reclaim
D. recognition
2. A. preferable
B. derivation
C. preparation
D. preliminary
3. A. credit
B. soldier
C. education
D. procedure
4. A. earflaps
B. attached
C. delicate
D. astrology
5. A. essence
B. press
C. obsess
D. scissors 3
Exercise 2: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 1. A. irrigate
B. discover
C. vaporize
D. aggravate
2. A. dynamite
B. departure
C. equipment
D. approval
3. A. guidebook
B. resort
C. hotel
D. advice
4. A. enormous
B. tremendous
C. mischievous
D. impervious
5. A. estimation
B. influential
C. propaganda
D. euphemism
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Exercise 1: Choose the best answer to complete each sentence. 1. Don’t ____________ to any conclusion before you know the full facts. A. fly
B. rush
C. leap
D. dive
2. Scott Fitzgerald’s early literary success led to extravagant living and __________ a large income. A. a need for
B. needed for
C. to need for
D. for he needed
3. The manager promised to replace the damaged television free of _________. A. cost
B. price
C. expense
D. charge
4. Amnesia is the __________ or total loss of memory concerning past experiences. A. partially
B. partial
C. part
D. partly
5. Before the group of doctors would give their opinion they wanted to _______ with each other. A. confess
B. confer
C. confirm
D. confide
C. tempting
D. temperate
6. Many people find chocolate __________. A. mild
B. tender
7. The company was so successful during the 1900s that it ____________ 500 new employees in a period of six months. A. put on
B. laid on
C. caught on
D. took on 4
8. The use of robots and automated machinery has eliminated certain ________ factory jobs. A. thriving
B. timid
C. thrilling
D. tedious
9. The detectives made a ___________ search of the suspect’s house. A. solid
B. whole
C. deep
D. thorough
10. Let us hope that ____________ a nuclear war, the human race still survive. A. in relation to
B. with reference to
C. in the event of
D. within the realm of
11. He didn’t sleep very well – the rain was dripping through his roof all ________ the night. A. in
B. over
C. through
D. along
12. While preparing an issue, newspaper editors decide what _______ in the editorials. A. viewpoint takes
B. take a viewpoint
C. takes to a viewpoint
D. viewpoint to take
13. The company directors asked the government to _________ in the dispute and prevent a strike. A. intervene
B. interact
C. intercept
D. interpose
14. Things are never boring when he’s there. You could say he’s ___________ A. an extrovert
B. energetic
C. active
D. sociable
15. Suddenly, _______ a helicopter. A. it flew over the hill
B. flew over the hill
C. over the hill flew
D. there flew over the hill
16. Her heart ______ when she learnt that she had not been given the job. A. jerked
B. sank
C. jumped
D. shattered
17. He was given the cold ______ at the meeting. A. feet
B. shoulder
C. front
D. heart
18. You can eat to your ______ content at the buffet dinner. A. stomach’s
B. heart’s
C. belly’s
D. mouth’s
19. She likes spoiling people's fun. She is really a ______. 5
A. couch potato
B. wet blanket
C. hard nut
D. hard bargain
20. We must get to the ______ of the problem and solve it once and for all. A. root
B. stem
C. fruit
D. seed
Exercise 2: There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find the mistakes and correct them. The main sources of energy in the world are fossil fuels - coal, oil and natural gas. Fossil fuels are non-renewable - this mean that nature cannot recreate them as fast as people using them up today. Sometimes in the future, all of them will run out and we will need other renewable sources of energy. Some renewable energy sources are being available now. One of them is water, what has been used to create energy for thousands of years. Today, hydro-or water power, generate by huge dams, is a major source of electric in many parts of the world. But hydropower has its own costs. When dams are built, the area above them is flooded, even for miles. In some places, people lose their homes as well as the rich soil river in which they once growed their crops. In other places, wonderful wild landscapes buried forever under new, artificial lakes. Below the dams, the natural habitats of fish and wildlife in the river valley are destroyed as the course of the river is changed. Exercise 3: Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition or particle. 1. Instead of dwelling ______ past glories, the country's leaders should map out concrete plans to tackle the current problems. 2. The teacher's voice was drowned ______ by the incessant flow of traffic. 3. The authorities are worried about the recent phenomenon of students dropping ______ of college to seek employment. 4. The children are well-behaved in school. They only act ______ when their parents are around. 5. He had been arrested for murder, but the evidence just did not add______. 6. The climbers' hopes of reaching the summit began to peter ______ when they realized that the storms were getting worse. 6
7. The consumers had become suckers as the claims made for the health products were not borne ______ by the results. 8. The storm continued for three hours, with no sign of letting ______. 9. He backed ______ in the face of strong opposition. 10. Someone had better come up ______ a solution fast or else we would be in deep trouble. 11.
Hopes of a peace settlement began to fade ______ as the two sides refused
to compromise. 12. The workers refused to knuckle ______ and continued with their strike despite threats and intimidation from the management. 13. The female customer kicked ______ a fuss when the waitress was slow in attending to her. 14. We were doing a project when Peter hit ______ this ingenious method of freezing food. 15. Jane had long wished to have a baby, but giving birth to triplets was certainly more than she had bargained ______. 16. They wanted to get out of the country before things boiled ______ into a civil war. 17. Unfortunately, peace talks have broken ______ over the question of reparations. 18. At dawn, 300 tanks were ready to break ______ the heavily fortified enemy lines. 19. The President has brushed ______ the opposition's demands for a public enquiry into the assassination attempt. 20. There was strong evidence to suggest that the judge presiding the case had been bought ______ by the mafia. Exercise 4: Provide the correct tense forms of the verbs in the brackets. 1. It (rain) since last night, and it (look) as if it may rain for the rest of the day. 2. The taxi (come) yet? It is already ten minutes late. I hope it (be) here soon. 7
3. Your friends (wait) for you for over an hour. Where you (be) all this time? You were out for almost four hours. 4. The police (investigate) the robbery that (take) place last week. So far, they (discover) nothing and (arrest) no one. 5. She (look) very worried for the past few days; but when I (ask) what the matter was, she (say) that it (be) nothing. 6. She says that she sent the letter a month ago; but, so far, she (not receive) any reply. She (think) that her letter was lost in the post. 7. He walked along the road, wondering what (happen) and where all the people (go). The streets (desert), and the stalls (leave) as they were, with fruit and vegetables arranged in neat rows. Exercise 5: Fill in each blank with the suitable form of the word in capital. It’s noisy in space! Inside the International Space Station, it is so noisy that the astronauts cannot hear one another. As a result, United States and Russian engineers have launched a (1)__________ repair
PRIOR
programme which they hope will lead to the (2)__________ of the
REDUCE
station’s 72-decibel roar: the equivalent of standing beside a busy motorway. ‘It is not a (3)__________ situation,’ said Mike Engle, a
HEALTH
(4)__________ for the engineering team. ‘Apart from astronauts
SPEAK
losing sleep, there is a danger one of them will (5)__________ a
HEAR
colleague’s
instruction
and
press
an
incorrect
button!’
(6)__________, most of the noise comes from the equipment
IRONY
needed to keep them (7)__________. ‘The coolers are the worst,’
LIFE
Mr Engle explained. ‘But without them, the station would become (8)__________ hot! When we put together the station we faced a
BEAR
choice. We could either spend extra years (9)__________ that the
SURE
station would be totally quiet, or we could get on and build the thing. Now it’s assembled, we are doing our
best to 8
(10)__________ it down.
QUIET
Exercise 6: Fill in each blank with the suitable word from the box. Firstly, moreover, in contrast, first of all, on the other hand, in conclusion, however, in addition, on the whole, as a result Living in the country is something that people from the city often dream about. 1...., in reality, it has both its advantages and disadvantages. There are certainly many advantages to living in the country. 2....... we can enjoy peace and quiet. 3...., people tend to be friendlier and more open. A further advantage is that there is less traffic, so it is safer for young children. 4......, there are drawbacks to life outside the city. 5....., because there are fewer people, we are likely to have fewer friends. 6....., entertainment is difficult to find, particularly in the evening. Furthermore, the fact that there are fewer shops and services means that it is harder to find work. 7...., we may have to travel a long way to work, which can be extremely expensive. 8......., it can be seen that the country is more suitable for some people than others. 9..., it is often the best place for those who are retired or who have young children. 10...., young, single people who have a career are better provided for in the city. IV. READING Exercise 1: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Are “all-natural” products really better? Unless you’ve slept through the last decade, you know that protecting the environment is a __(1)___. But when it __(2)___to beauty products, natural doesn’t always equal pure and doesn’t __(3)___mean better. Before rushing to the register with your 100 percent green beauty gear, __(4)___a few things. According
to
the
FDA
(Food
and
Drug
Administration),
the
__(5)___“natural” is used very __(6)___in the cosmetics world; any company can __(7)___a product natural. __(8)___natural products are made from plantbased (as opposed to man-made) ingredients and do not __(9)___artificial dyes 9
and fragrances. The advantage: plant-based ingredients are renewable __(10)___that are safer for the environment than __(11)___man-made or natural, but highly processed ones (which can produce toxic __(12)___during the manufacturing process and be nonbiodegradable). The disadvantages: some natural ingredients, like __(13)___which help keep products germ-free, aren’t as effective as their synthetic counterparts. Since natural ingredients haven’t been __(14)___as much as man-made ones, you shouldn’t assume they’re gentler (especially if you’re allergy-prone or have __(15)___skin). 1. A. may
B. must
C. can
D. should
2. A. comes
B. refers
C. reaches
D. arrives
3. A. absolutely
B. definitely
C. obligatorily
D. necessarily
4. A. study
B. consider
C. think
D. consult
5. A. definition
B. term
C. phrase
D. idea
6. A. freely
B. loosely
C. liberately
D. easily
7. A. name
B. call
C. baptize
D. entitle
8. A. Truly
B. Exactly
C. Truthfully
D. Really
9. A. enclose
B. involve
C. incorporate
D. contain
10. A. essences
B. supplies
C. resources
D. sources
11. A. guaranteed
B. certain
C. definite
D. sure
12. A. rubbish
B. debris
C. garbage
D. waste
13. A. medicines
B. conservatives
C. preservatives
D. preserves
14. A. searched
B. examined
C. tried
D. tested
15. A. sensible
B. sensitive
C. delicate
D. sensational
Exercise 2: Fill in each blank with the most suitable word. Many of us regard the mosquito as a pest. Indeed, a mosquito bite can be painful and irritating. ___1___ a mosquito bites, it pierces its powerful feeding tube ___2___ the skin of its victim. The mosquito would then mix ___3___ saliva with the blood. This is ___4___ to prevent the blood from clotting. The mosquito would normally suck up blood as much as two to three times its own weight. 10
However, ___5___ all mosquitoes bite. In fact, ___6___ the female of the species sucks blood as they need the protein ___7___ their eggs. Male mosquitoes live mainly on plant juices or nectar from flowers. Mosquitoes detect their victims ___8___ the carbon dioxide that people and animals breathe ___9___. Although holding your breath may not ___10___ these creatures from detecting your ___11___, you can still reduce the risk of ___12___ bitten. The mosquito appears to be attracted wearing dark-coloured clothing. Thus, by ___13___ light coloured clothing, you would probably be bitten less. You could try wearing light coloured pants instead of jeans the next time you ___14___ a mosquito-infested place. Surprisingly, the mosquito is also attracted to ___15___ like cologne or aftershave lotion. No one really knows why this is so. Exercise 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions Sir Anthony Van Dyck, one of the world’s greatest masters of portraiture, was born in Antwerp and was the seventh of twelve children. His affluent father apprenticed him to a painter when he was just a little over ten. Having become a member of the Antwerp Guild of painters before he was nineteen, he worked in the studio of Peter Paul Rubens for several years. In Italy, Van Dyck studied the great Venetian masters and painted flattering portraits of gorgeous ladies and haughty nobles in gilded velvet robes with lace and pearls. While he was sought after by the aristocracy for his acclaimed loose brushwork, his engravings and etchings also evinced his outstanding talent. Upon his return to Antwerp in 1628, he was influenced by Ruben’s interpretation of the artistic form and produced numerous religious paintings while holding an appointment as the court painter. During his tenure, he proved that his use of color, his sensitive elegance, and his remarkable insight were unexcelled. His fame preceded him to England, where he was invited by King Charles I. After years of faithful service, he was knighted in recognition of his achievements in painting countless portraits of the king, the queen, the royal 11
children, and the titled nobility of England. However, Van Dyck’s greatest piece is one of his religious works, a true masterpiece displayed in the Antwerp gallery. This group scene exhibits his artful polish in painting the folds of fabric, the delicacy of human skin, landscape, and other externals, and puts him above other accomplished contemporary masters. Although Charles paid Van Dyck a salary and granted him a pension, the painter’s extravagant life-style and penchant for luxuries led him into debt, and he died without means. 1. It can be inferred from the passage that Van Dyck was raised___________ A. in a stable and loving household
B. in a large and wealthy family
C. by his father alone
D. without good work habits
2. The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck __________ A. had a great artistic talent even when he was young B. worked very hard in his youth to make a living C. joined other painters when he had little to occupy him D. had produced great paintings before he turned nineteen 3.
It can be inferred from the passage that after Van Dyck left Rubens
_________ A. he refined his artistic tastes and skills B. he accrued considerable wealth C. he became a militant aristocrat D. he incorporated southern styles in his art 4. The author of the passage implies that Van Dyck’s fame had largely to do with his __________ A. elegance in clothing
B. religious beliefs
C. artful portraits
D. wealthy family
5. The word “acclaimed” in bold is closest in meaning to ___________
6.
A. rectified
B. reclaimed
C. recognized
D. recommended
According to the passage, when Van Dyck returned to Antwerp, he
__________ 12
A. modeled elegant clothing for his religious paintings B. proved that he was the best painter of his time C. found employment with a religious institution D. had to schedule appointments at the court 7. How did Charles I honor Van Dyck? A. Van Dyck received a noble title. B. Van Dyck was allowed to travel widely. C. Van Dyck painted members of the royal court. D. Van Dyck displayed his works in the royal palace. 8. What does Van Dyck’s masterpiece attest to? A. His exorbitant tastes and habits.
B. His refined sense for texture.
C. His remarkable religious fervor.
D. His keen eye for polished
surfaces. 9. The phrase “this group scene” in bold refers to ___________ A. the masterpiece
B. the Antwerp gallery
C. the titled nobility of England
D. Van Dyck’s religious works
10. What are the reasons given for Van Dyck’s financial decline? A. His miserly attitudes. B. His employer’s lack of generosity. C. His ill health and lack of revenue. D. His lavish spending. Exercise 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Questions 1 – 4 The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) next to questions 1 – 4 on your answer sheet. NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. i Industry Structures 13
ii Disease Affects Production iii Trends in Production iv Government Assistance v How Deer Came to Australia vi Research and Development vii Asian Competition viii Industry Development
Ex: Paragraph A – v 1. Paragraph B 2. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph D 4. Paragraph E Deer Farming In Australia Paragraph A Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed the basis for the deer industry in Australia today. Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer, two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer 14
hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and Victoria. Paragraph B The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in the number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia. Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product volumes of venison. Paragraph C From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and CoProducts Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn and co-products on behalf of Australian deer 15
farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also plans and coordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers. Paragraph D Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during 1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be expanded to meet the demands for products. Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison, was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of the industry’s female breeding herds. Paragraph E Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000 five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer farming countries. 16
Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to 1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd.
Questions 5 – 7 Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements below. For questions 5 – 7 on your answer sheet write: TRUE if the statement is true FALSE if the statement is false NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in Reading Passage 5. Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds. 6. The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison. 7. Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the Australian deer industry. Questions 8 – 10 Complete each of the following statements (Questions 8 – 10) with words taken from Reading Passage. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers next to questions 8 – 10 on your answer sheet. 8. A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of product. 9. Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product supply. 10. Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________. V. WRITING Exercise 1: Rewrite the sentences using the provided words. 1. Organic vegetables are said to be health. WONDERS 17
2. I never thought of going by train. OCCURRED 3. The young man was very embarrassed because his proposal was turned down. REJECTION 4. The model’s clothes lay all over the floor. STREWN 5. When she left home, she had to do everything on her own. FEND 6. It’s not certain whether I’ll be able to pay the bills this month. TOUCH 7. Andrew doesn’t claim to have a lot of musical talent. PRETENCE 8. I could tell by the tone of his voice how serious the situation was. HOME 9. You look grumpy this morning. BED 10. Selling antiques made him a little extra money. DABBLED Exercise 2: The charts A and B show the share of the UK and Australian cinema market in 2001 and cinema admission in the UK and Australia from 1976 to 2006. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.
18
Sources: Admission data: BFI, Motion Picture Distributors Association of Australia (MPDAA). Exercise 3: Write about the following topic: The lottery does more good than harm. Discuss. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.
19
KEY I. LISTENING SECTION 1 Questions 1 – 5 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. B SECTION 2 Questions 6 – 15 31. 40 or 50
36. drill cores
32. New Zealand
37. B*
33. cone-shaped
38. E*
34. a boiling reservoir
39. F*
35. 650 000 years
40. H*
Answers for questions 37 – 40: these answers in any order II. PRONUNCIATION Exercise 1: 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D Exercise 2: 1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. D III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR Exercise 1: 20
1. C
6. C
11. C
16. B
2. A
7. D
12. D
17. B
3. D
8. D
13. A
18. B
4. B
9. D
14. A
19. B
5. B
10. C
15. C
20. A
Exercise 2: 1. mean => means
6. generate => generated
2. using => are using
7. electric => electricity
3. Sometimes => Sometime
8. soil river => river soil
4. being => x
9. growed => grew
5. what => which
10. buried => are buried
Exercise 3: 1. on
6. out
11. away
16. over
2. out
7. out
12. under
17. down
3. out
8. up
13. up
18. through
4. up
9. down
14. upon
19. off
5. up
10. up with
15. for
20. off
Exercise 4: 1. has been raining / looks 2. Has … come / will be 3. have been waiting / have … been 4. are investigating (have been investigating) /took / have discovered / have arrested 5. had been looking / asked / said / was 6. has not received / thinks 7. had happened / had gone/ were deserted/ were left Exercise 5:
21
1. priority
6. Ironically
2. reduction
7. alive
3. healthy
8. unbearably
4. spokesman/spokesperson
9. ensuring
5. mishear
10. quieten
Exercise 6: 1. however
6. moreover / in addition
2. firstly / first of all
7. as a result
3. moreover / in addition
8. in conclusion
4. on the other hand
9. on the whole
5. firstly / first of all
10. in contrast
IV. READING Exercise 1: 1. B 2. A
7. B
12. D
3. D
8. A
13. C
4. B
9. D
14. D
5. B
10. C
15. B
6. B
11. B
Exercise 2: 1. When
6. only
11. presence
2. into
7. for
12. being
3. its
8. by
13. to
4. done
9. out
14. visit
5. not
10. prevent
15. scents
Exercise 3: 1. B
4. C
2. A
5. C
3. A
6. B 22
7. A
9. A
8. D
10. D
Exercise 4: 1. viii
6. F
2. i
7. NG
3. iii
8. quality assurance program
4. vi
9. breeding females
5. NG
10. Venison Market Project
V. WRITING Exercise 1: 1. Organic vegetables are said to do wonders for one’s health. 2. The thought of going by train never occurred to me/ It never occurred to me to go by train. 3. The rejection of his proposal greatly embarrassed the young man. 4. The floor was strewn with the model’s clothes. 5. When she left home, she had to fend for herself. 6. It’s touch and go whether I’ll be able to pay the bills this month. 7. Andrew makes no pretence of having a lot of musical talent. 8. The tone of his voice brought it home to me how serious the situation was. 9. You get out of bed on the wrong side this morning. 10. He dabbled in antiques, which made … money. / He made … as he dabbled in antiques. Exercise 2: Exercise 3:
23
Tape script SECTION 1 Interviewer:
It seems only fitting that former construction engineer Roger Moffat should’ve used his redundancy money to change direction and break into Hollywood, creating special effects for film and television, for, by his own flamboyant admission, he’s no conventional engineer, but a born performer who loves an audience. Do you remember a certain car commercial in which the car was driven down the side of a skyscraper? The building façade and windows were built by Roger’s own company for a daring stunt whose trade secret he will own company for a daring stunt whose trade secret he will not divulge. He also constructed sections of a bridge for the film Mary Reilly, which starred Julia Roberts and John Malkovich. So, Roger, how did it all
Roger Moffat:
start? Well, about ten years ago I had a heart by-pass operation and, about the same time I was made redundant. I was feeling pretty low at the time, so I decided that the only thing to do was to
Interviewer:
take my working life into my own hands and set up my own
Roger Moffat:
business. And what kind of success did you have in the early days? You could say it was a bit like taking a roller coaster ride and wondering when you were going to come flying off at break-
Interviewer:
neck speed! Everything was a challenge: finance, production, marketing. But that’s all in the past, you’re … you’re apparently much
Roger Moffat:
sought after now. I hear forthcoming film productions are queuing up for your services. 24
Some – yes. There’s no doubt that we’re certainly growing rapidly but we’re still small, and I think it’s probably important to remain that way. I’ve seen too many organizations just grow Interviewer:
and grow and in the end they finish up over-reaching themselves – stretching themselves to the limit.
Roger Moffat:
Do you have any regrets about the way things have gone? – about the way your life has taken a different turn? To be honest, none at all. I feel that I’ve escaped being a slave to a regular income, from commuting, from having to justify my actions to everyone, from having to attend the office party, from having to book my holidays in advance – actually, I don’t
Interviewer:
have any holidays at all at the moment, come to think of it. I’m too busy! But best of all, I’ve nothing to do with office politics!
Roger Moffat:
Probably the biggest advantage of all. So, what’s the secret of your meteoric rise? Oh, I couldn’t have done anything without the support of my wife, Lili, who’s also my business partner, and there’s our two
Interviewer:
daughters, of course, Natasha and Katia. They’ve all been
Roger Moffat:
wonderful. So what kind of job did you start out doing? I graduated in mechanical engineering and then spent about 20 years in industry. Then my job – I was the chief engineer in an air-conditioning firm – just disappeared overnight. Anyway,
Interviewer:
after that, I set up my own computer-aided system that makes really intricate architectural models. And you also supply components for the aerospace industry, don’t you?
Interviewer:
We do, but I have to admit that it’s the film work that really
Roger Moffat:
interests me most. 25
Do you worry about the future? No more than anyone else. I mean, there’s no job security anywhere these days, is there? Of course, it’s a risk running your own company, but then you’re equally as vulnerable staying employed. I decided it was safer to be in charge of my own show than to be a part of someone else’s. naturally, I’ve had problems. We had to sell the family house, the one I built myself. But, looking back, it all seems worth it. I was always Interviewer:
infuriated by having to justify myself to people whom I didn’t consider to be my intellectual superiors!
Roger Moffat:
How would you describe yourself? What are your strengths, weaknesses? I think I’m a bit of an oddball character really. I suppose you might say that I was a hard-headed romantic. I believe that an engineer has to invent ideas. You need to be very talented. You need to have a feeling for balance and form. You also need to feel you have status and that people value what you’re doing. I’ve always seen engineers as sort of visionaries, if you like. Engineering can give you great power, a position in the world and, if you don’t look after your engineers, then you’re in great danger of losing your prestige, your position. Engineering’s still the ‘workshop of the world’ in every country. We’ve built
Interviewer:
superb ships, motorbikes, motorcars. Now we’re entering a new
Roger Moffat:
phase with new challenges. And what about the tools of your trade? How do you view those? To me, mechanical things are magical: a motor car is a thrilling bit of science. The microchip is a masterpiece of theoretical design; machines of unbelievable complexity make them. But 26
from my point of view, the most rewarding thing of all is that Interviewer:
all these things are designed by engineers. You certainly seem to have a passion for your profession. I think the mystique of the film world will be pretty safe in your hands. Thanks for coming to talk to us today, Roger.
SECTION 2 Good morning and welcome to this earth sciences lecture. We’ve been looking recently at such phenomena as earthquakes, tsunami, volcanic eruptions and other natural occurrences. Today we are going to look at a lesser known feature of the earth which is known as the super volcano. As the name implies this is a volcano of a much larger size than what we normally imagine a volcano to be. The term super volcano has no specifically defined scientific meaning. It is used to refer to volcanoes that have generated Earth’s largest volcanic eruptions. As such, a super volcano would be one that has produced an exceedingly large, catastrophic explosive eruption and a giant caldera, a caldera being the gigantic crater that the eruption creates. Whereas normal volcano craters are measured in the hundreds of metres, a caldera can easily be as large as 40 or 50 miles wide. Around the world there are several volcanic areas that can be considered super volcanoes such as Long Valley in eastern California, Toba in Indonesia and Lake Taupo in New Zealand. There are also other large calderas in Japan, Indonesia, Scotland and Alaska. Not all the calderas are active though. Normal volcanoes are formed by a column of magma, rising from deep within the Earth, erupting on the surface, and hardening in layers down the sides. This forms the familiar cone-shaped mountain we associate with volcanoes. Super volcanoes, however, begin life when magma rises from the Earth’s mantle to create a boiling reservoir in the Earth’s crust. This chamber increases to an enormous size, building up colossal pressure until it finally erupts. An explosion like this could send ash, dust, and sulphur dioxide into the atmosphere, 27
reflecting the sun’s rays and creating a cold wave lasting several years. Crops in many areas would fail and many species of animals and plants, including humans, would face extinction. The most recent caldera-forming eruption in the US was about 650 000 years ago in the north east United States. During that eruption, ground-hugging flows of hot volcanic ash, pumice, and gases swept across an area of more than 3000 square miles. The eruption also shot a column of volcanic ash and gases high into Earth’s stratosphere. This volcanic cloud circled the globe many times and affected the Earth’s climate by reducing the intensity of solar radiation reaching the lower atmosphere and surface. Fine volcanic ash that fell downwind from the eruption site blanketed much of North America. This ash layer is still preserved in deposits as far away as Iowa, where it is a few inches thick, and the Gulf of Mexico, where it is recognizable in drill cores from the sea floor. You now have some time to look at questions 37 to 40. (20 second gap) Now listen to the rest of the lecture and answer questions 37 to 40. It is little known that lying underneath one of The United States’ largest and most picturesque National Parks, Yellowstone Park, is one of the largest super volcanoes in the world. Volcanic activity began in the Yellowstone National Park region about 2 million years ago. Magma rising from deep within the Earth has produced three cataclysmic eruptions more powerful than any in the world’s recorded history. The first caldera-forming eruption occurred about 2.1 million years ago. The eruptive blast removed so much magma from its subsurface storage reservoir that the ground above it collapsed into the magma chamber and left a caldera larger than the state of Rhode Island. The huge caldera measured as much as 50 miles long, 40 miles wide and hundreds of meters deep, extending from outside Yellowstone National Park into the central area of the Park. Scientists have revealed that Yellowstone Park has been on a regular eruption cycle of 600 000 years. The last eruption was 640 000 years ago so the next is overdue. The next eruption could be 2 500 times the size of the 1980 Mount St. 28
Helens eruption. Volcanologists have been tracking the movement of magma under the park and have calculated that in parts of Yellowstone the ground has risen over point seven of a metre this century. This means the magma is rising. Geologists have called for a taskforce to be set up to consider emergency management in the event of a massive volcanic eruption, or super-eruption. Experts say such an event would have a colossal impact on a global scale. The fallout from a super-eruption could cause a “volcanic winter”, devastating global agriculture and causing mass starvation. One past super-eruption struck at Toba in Sumatra 74 000 years ago and is thought by some to have driven the human race to the edge of extinction. Signs from DNA suggest human numbers could have dropped to about 10 000, probably as a result of the effects of climate change. The volcanic winter resulting from a super-eruption could last several years or decades, depending on the scale of an eruption, and according to recent computer models, could cause cooling on a global scale by 5 to 10 degrees Celsius.
29
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BIÊN HOÀ- HÀ NAM ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CỤM CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ NĂM 2014 Giáo viên soạn: Đoàn Hồng Anh Trương Thị Phương Thanh SECTION 1: LISTENING Part 1. You will hear part of a lecture in which a man called Tom Trueman talks about golf courses and the environment. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences by writing no more than three words and/or a number for each answer. (8pts) You will hear the recording twice 1. The recent popularity of golf resulted from local success in ………………………........... 2. A demand for new golf courses attracted the interest of both ……………………….......... 3. Many developers made the mistake of building golf courses to ……………….................. standards. 4. Golf courses tend to be used by people who live in ……………………............................. 5. Some people think that golf courses look too much like ………………….......................... 6. Trees planted on golf courses are often chosen because they …………………….............. 7. Tom suggests that golf courses could be ……………………..................................as well. 8. Tom would like to see golf courses integrated into both the ……………….................and the ecology. Part 2. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. (7 pts) 1. What was Chris’s attitude to the competition? A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes. B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem. C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge. D. he said conditions were similar to his routine. 2. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to A. work in a very small space. B. be original when travelling at speed. C. prepare a meal so quickly. D. create a meal with so little money. 3. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job? A. the close contact with the customers B. the necessary to do everything the same time C. the opportunity to be creative D. the need to be focused on the job 4. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train? A. They approve of the menus created for them. B. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chefs. C. They would like to have more freedom of choice. D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job. 5. Chris thought being a railway chef would suit him mainly because it would enable him to A. show his ability to work under pressure. B. use the skills he had been trained for. C. do something out of the ordinary. D. satisfy his love of training. 1
6. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over? A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up. B. She blames the train driver for the accident. C. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time. D. She says nasty things to the other staff. 7. How does Jane react to Chris’s suggestion for the future? A. She’s determined that she’ll join him if she can. B. She’s looking forward to a challenge of that kind. C. She’s afraid Chris wouldn’t want her company. D. She’d be unable to take part in that kind of activity. SECTION 2: PHONOLOGY Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. (2.5 pts) 1. A. asymmetric B. ahistorical C. oceanic D. aide 2. A. exaggerate B. exhort C. exhilaration D. exhale 3. A. etiquette B. conqueror C. bequest D. statuesque 4. A. champagne B. chlorine C. charisma D. archive 5. A. confusedly B. allegedly C. supposedly D. wickedly Part 2. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. (2.5 pts) 6. A. accompany B. comfortable C. interview D. dynamism 7. A. disrespectful B. attentiveness C. superior D. untrustworthy 8. A. argumentative B. psychological C. contributory D. hypersensitive 9. A. diplomacy B. delicacy C. peninsula D. pneumonia 10. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy SECTION 3. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer. (10 pts) 1. The better _______ you have of words, the better meaning you can express. A. demand B. command C. market D. performance 2. The late Vietnamese leader Le Duan was recognized as the _________ Architect of Vietnam’s reform, opening and modernization. A. Main B. Principal C. Chief D. Primary 3. She ________ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all. A. apologetically B. grudgingly C. shamefacedly D. discreetly 4. Police couldn’t persuade the man to _________ the source of his information. A. uncover B. discover C. divulge D. concede 5. On the way to Cambridge yesterday, the road was blocked by a fallen tree, so we had to make a _____________. A. deviation B. digression C. detour D. departure 6. Luckily, the rain ___________ so we were able to play the match. A. watered down B. gave out C. got away D. held off 7. All his hard work ________ in success. A. accounted B. merged C. culminated D. succumbed 8. We finally managed to __________ our point of view. A. bring her round to B. fool her into C. take her up on D. fix her up with 2
9. Things are going well. In fact, business is __________. A. soaring B. rolling C. blooming D. leaping 10. The smoke ___________ from the burning tyres could be seen for miles A. sweeping B. billowing C. radiating D. bulging 11. I couldn’t tell what time it was because workmen had removed the ________ of the clock . A. hands B. pointers C. arms D. fingers 12. At the end of the winter, the price of winter clothes in the shop usually _________. A. reduces B. lowers C. sinks D. drops 13. “I can’t remember us ever _________,” replied the stranger. A. to meet B. to have meet C. being met D. having met 14. _________ for director must have surprised you. A. You nominated B. You’re being nominated C. Your being nominated D. Your nominating 15. Although he was completely _________ as a furniture-maker, he produced the most beautiful chairs. A. unable B. uneducated C. incapable D. untrained 16. The firm went bankrupt and then shares became _________. A. priceless B. worthless C. unworthy D. invaluable 17. She's certainly a _________ writer; she has written quite a few books this year. A. fruitful B. fertile C. prolific D. successful 18. They live in a very _____________ populated area of Italy . A. sparsely B. scarcely C. hardly D. barely 19. The _________ exam in January prepared pupils for the real thing in June . A. false B. unreal C. untrue D. imaginary 20. Some very important issue was __________ all his attention . A. taking up B. taking off C. taking out D. taking in Part 2. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and correct them. (00) has been done as an example. (5 pts) Example: hotter hottest Leonardo DiCaprio is one of the hotter young film stars around at the moment. His face has been on the covers of all the top movies and young magazines over the last few months and he has been the subject of countless articles, rumours and showbiz gossip. Leonard doesn’t like reading about him because “I read things about me that I’ve never said in my life and never did" . Leonardo DiCaprio was born in Los Angeles on 11 November, 1974. He’s a Scorpio. His full name is Leonardo Wilhelm DiCaprio. His mother is Germany and his father ItalianAmerican. They called him Leonardo because when his mother was still pregnant, he started kicking while she was stood in front of a painting by Leonardo Da Vinci. His friends call him Leo. He has a scar from when he was stinging by a Portuguese man-of-war. His parents separated before he was born, so his mother moved to a poor neighbourhood of Hollywood there Leo grew up . At school he was very good at imitating people, especially Michael Jackson. This made him very popularly. His childhood hero was Poseidon, the Greek god of the sea. After appearance in TV commercials and episodes of Roseanne, he played the cast of Roseanne, the TV sitcom starring Kirk Cameron. Leonard played the part of Luke, a 3
homeless boy. Lately, he played the part of Jim Carroll in The Basketball Diaries. But he has really become famous since he acted in the film Titanic. Part 3. Read the following passage and fill the gaps with appropriate prepositions.(5 pts) The writing is on the wall for the brilliant but bullying boss. Driving ambition and a high IQ might give you a head start in the race for the top, but a lack of “emotional intelligence” will be a hindrance (1)……………..achieving medium to long-term success. Senior managers have long been convinced (2)………………the value of interpersonal skills in the workplace. The concept that emotional intelligence can account (3)…………….the difference (4)…………….outstanding and average performance, however, is comparatively new. But what exactly is emotional intelligence? One psychologist defined it (5)…………….the ability to regulate your behaviour so that there is a balance (6)………….personal feelings, emotions and drives, and the feelings and needs of others. It is about being able to resolve the conflict that may arise (7)…………. high motivation and conscientiousness and integrity. People with low emotional intelligence don’t get promoted because others object (8)……………working with them. In the workplace, there is a great need (9)………………sensitivity in relationships, and people in managerial jobs should focus more (10)……………..understanding people’s feelings (11)……………..change and their fears (12)………………..redundancy. An organization which attaches importance (13)………………..the emotions of the employees is more likely to be an effective organization. If a manager regularly compliments his staff (14)……………..their work, and sympathises (15)……………….them when they have problems, the profits of the company will increase (16)……………..a greater rate. And people will enjoy working with each other. Getting in touch with your own feelings has benefits which extend (17)…………..the workplace. If you are only working with your brain, you won’t see the emotional cost to yourself. Making a move that is beneficial (18)…………..your career but means traveling all the time could result (19)…………….the destruction of your relationship with your partner and children. Without emotional intelligence, (20)……………..the medium to long-term, you will have a less balanced personal life and make a lot of enemies. Part 4. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms and tenses. (5 pts) AFTER THE FIRE Firemen (1. fight) ………….. the forest fire for nearly three weeks before they (2. can get ) …………..it under control. A short time before, great trees (3. cover) ………… the countryside for miles around. Now, smoke still (4. rise up) ………… from the warm ground over the desolate hills. Winter (5. come) …………. on the hills threatened the surrounding villages with destruction, for heavy rain would not only wash away the soil but would cause serious floods as well. When the fire ( 6. at last/ put out) …………………., the forest authorities ordered several tons of a special type of grass seed which (7. grow) …………….. quickly. The seed was sprayed over the ground in large quantities by airplanes. The planes (8. plant ) …………….. seed for nearly a month when it began to rain. By then, however, in many places the grass (9. already take) ………….. root. In place of the great trees which had been there for centuries, patches of green (10. begin) …………. to appear in the blackened soil.
4
Part 5. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms. (5 pts) Tube Inspired a Book For many people, the London Underground is a grim(0. NECESSARY) ......... that gets them from A to B. But for (1. BUD )……………… author Preethi Nair, it is a source of inspiration. She has just published her first novel, Gypsy Masala - a tale she dreamt up whilst commuting on the Metropolitan Line. “Have you observed people on the tube?” she asks (2. ENTHUSE)…………… “Everyone is in their own little world. I just used to sit there and imagine what kind of lives they led.” Gypsy Masala charts the adventures and (3. INNER)……………… thoughts of three members of an Indian family living in London, as they search for happiness. “It is a story about following your dreams,” says Preethi, who gave up her high-pressure job as a management (4. CONSULT)……………. in order to go in (5. PURSUE)………….. of her ambition of becoming a writer. “It was a big risk but it was definitely the right decision in terms of peace of mind and (6. CONTENT)……………. ," she explains. Preethi was born in a small village in the Indian state of Kerala and moved to London with her parents at the age of three. She says the striking contrast in cultures made a (7. LAST)……………… impression and is reflected in her story, which flits between the suburbs of London and (8. FAR)…………….. India. Many of the scenes in the book are based on the place where she was born and spent long summer holidays. “It is a tiny village that is lost in time. There is still no(9. RUN) water and it is quite difficult to get to. It is completely (10. TOUCH)………….. , and so beautiful,” she says. Part 6. Read the following passage and choose from the list A – P the best phrase to fill each gap. Use each correct phrase only once. There are six extra phrases which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the spaces provided.(5 pts) Archaeologists in Iraq have discovered the world’s oldest “statue” = a stone, standing four feet high, covered with plaster (1)……….of a human being. This “stone man”, dating from 11,000 years ago, (2)………who were emerging from the pre-agricultural Stone Age into the Neolithic world of early farming. The statue, probably of religious significance, was located inside a prehistoric house – one of the earliest sophisticated buildings (3)…….. Investigations have shown that the house had (4)……clay-coated, lime-plastered walls and floor. So far excavations have unearthed three buildings containing seven standing stones, (5)…….retain traces of the lime plaster which once covered them. However, (6)…….shows evidence of having been shaped into the likeness of a human being. It is 30 centuries older (7)……..previously known oldest statue. (8)………that each building appears to have had at least one standing stone inside it, and that one house actually had three. The plaster-covered human shaped obelisk (9)……..shoulders and the stumps of arms and part of a neck. The “head”, however, (10)……… A. ever discovered by archaeologists. I. beautifully finished B. moulded into the shape J. than the remaining C. to have been built K. has what appear to be D. strangely carved L seems to have broken off E. was fashioned by a people M. four of which F. excavations have revealed N. has been missing G. only one of these O. it has been decided H. neither of them P. than the world’s 5
SECTION 4: READING Part 1. Fill in each blank in the following passages with ONE suitable word to make meaningful passages. (5 pts) Advances in technology have done much to change the way we live and communicate, but no breakthrough revolutionized life as much as the advent of wireless technology, according to a panel of experts assembled by CNN 2010. Back in 1980, when it (1)………..to communication technology, telephones were stuck to walls, facts were found in books, and people had to browse shelves in a record store if they wanted to buy the latest music. However, developments that occurred at the start of the twenty century (2)…………..we could access all that information just by reaching into our pockets for our mobile phone. Form the (3)………………beginning of the Information Age, having immediate access to data was fundamental to progress. In some cases, technological advances (4)…………to overhaul industries at a lightning –fast pace. For example, the internet helped tech-savvy music lovers to force changes in the way the music industry did (5)…………, while text messaging over cell phones made written (6)…………..more immediate. We embraced information technology to such an (7)……………..that having computer access in our homes was not (8)……………enough. We wanted to use these tools everywhere. Wireless hot spots popped up in cafes, airports, universities – even the whole city blocks. And just as computer use worldwide exploded, the brains behind them – the processors – became increasingly smaller. A computer chip that you could balance on your fingertips could hold massive (9)…………..of data. This ability to store portable. The entertainment industry harnessed satellite technology to give consumers more choice, and video game technology developed to the (10)……………where it became a $ 10 billion a year industry, producing games that invite players into a virtual world of fantasy, sport or even war. Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. (7.5 pts) Stories about how people somehow know they are being watched have been going around for years. However, few attempts have been made to investigate the phenomenon scientifically. Now, with the completion of the largest ever study of the so-called staring effect, there is impressive evidence that this is a recognizable and (1)…………..sixth sense. The study (2)……………hundreds of children. For the experiments, they sat with their eyes (3)………….. so they could not see, and with their backs to other children, who were told to either stare at them or look away. Time and time again the results showed that the children who could not see were able to (4)……………when were being stared at. In a (5)………..of more than 18,000 trials (6)…………..worldwide, the children (7)…………sensed when they were being watched almost 70% of the time. The experiment was repeated with the (8)………….precaution of putting the children who were being watched outside the room, (9)…………from the stares by the windows. This was done just in case there was some (10)…………..going on with the children telling each other whether they were looking or not. This (11)……………the possibility of sounds being (12)…………between the children. The results, though less impressive, were more or less the same. Dr Sheldrake, the biologist who designed the study, believes that the results are (13)………..enough to find out through further experiments (14)………..how the staring effect might actually (15)………… 1. A. genuine B. accepted C. received D. sure 2. A. involved B. contained C. comprised D. enclosed 6
3. A. shaded 4. A. find 5. A. sum 6. A. worked over 7. A. correctly 8. A. attached 9. A. separated 10. A. pretending 11. A. prevented 12. A. delivered 13. A. satisfying 14. A. really 15. A. come about
B. wrapped B. notice B. collection B. worked through B. exactly B. added B. parted B. lying B. omitted B. transported B. convincing B. carefully B. be looked at
C. masked C. tell C. mass C. carried on C. thoroughly C. connected C. split C. cheating C. evaded C. transmitted C. concluding C. definitely C. set out
D. covered D. reveal D. total D. carried out D. perfectly D. increased D. divided D. deceiving D. ended D. distributed D. persuading D. precisely D. be held up
Part 3. Read the following passage. (7.5 pts) Questions 1-7: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i- ix, in blanks. List of headings i. The reaction of the Inuit community to climate change ii. Understanding of climate change remains limited iii. Alternative sources of essential supplies iv. Respect for Inuit opinion grows v. A healthier choice of food vi. A difficult landscape vii. Negative effects on well-being viii. Alarm caused by unprecedented events in the Arctic ix. The benefits of an easier existence Your answers: Paragraph A ……………
Paragraph B …………..
Paragraph C ……………
Paragraph D …………….
Paragraph E …………….
Paragraph F ……………
Paragraph G ……………
Climate Change and the Inuit
A. Unusual incidents are being reported across the Arctic. Inuit families going off on snowmobiles to prepare their summer hunting camps have found themselves cut off from home by a sea of mud, following early thaws. There are reports of igloos losing their insulating properties as the snow drips and refreezes, of lakes draining into the sea as permafrost melts, and sea ice breaking up earlier than usual, carrying seals beyond the reach of hunters. Climate change may still be, a rather abstract idea to most of us, but in the Arctic it is already having dramatic effects – if summertime ice continues to shrink at its present rate, the Arctic Ocean could soon become virtually ice-free in summer. The knock-on effects are likely to include more warning, cloudier skies, increased precipitation and higher sea levels. Scientists are increasingly keen to find out what’s going on because they consider the Artic the ‘canary in the mine’ for global warming – a warning of what’s in store for the rest of the world. B. For the Inuit the problem is urgent. They live in precarious balance with one of the toughest environments on earth. Climate change, whatever its causes, is a direct threat to 7
their way of life. Nobody knows the Artic as well as the locals, which is why they are not content simply to stand back and let outside experts tell them what’s happening. In Canada, where the Inuit people are jealously guarding their hand-won autonomy in the country’s newest territory, Nunavut, they believe their best hope of survival in this changing environment lies in combining their ancestral knowledge with the best of modern science. This is a challenge in itself. C. The Canadian Arctic is a vast, treeless polar desert that ‘s covered with snow for most of the year. Venture into this terrain and you get some idea of the hardships facing anyone who calls this home. Farming is out of the question and nature offers meager pickings. Humans first settled in the Arctic a mere 4,500 years ago, surviving by exploiting sea mammals and fish. The environment tested them to the limits: sometimes the colonists were successful, sometimes they failed and vanished. But around a thousand years ago, one group emerged that was uniquely well adapted to cope with the Arctic environment. These Thule people moved in from Alaska, bringing kayaks, sleds, dogs, pottery and iron tools. They are the ancestors of today’s Inuit people. D. Life for the descendants of the Thule people is still harsh. Nunavut is 1.9 million square kilometers of rock and ice, and a handful of islands around the North Pole. It ‘s currently home to 2,500 people, all but a handful of them indigenous Inuit. Over the past 40 years, most have abandoned their nomadic ways and settled in the territory’s 28 isolated communities, but they still rely on nature to provide food and clothing. Provisions available in local shops have to be flown into Nunavut on one of the most costly air networks in the world, or brought by supply ship during the few ice-free weeks of summer. It would cost a family around £ 7,000 a year to replace meat they obtained themselves through hunting with imported meat. Economic opportunities are scarce, and for many people state benefits are their only income. E. While the Inuit may not actually starve if hunting and trapping are curtailed by climate change, there has certainly been an impact on people’s health. Obesity, heart disease and diabetes are beginning to appear in a people for whom these have never before been problems. There has been a crisis of identity as the traditional skills of hunting, trapping and preparing skins have begun to disappear. In Nunavut‘s ‘igloo and email’ society, where adults who were born in igloos have children who may never have been out on the land, there ‘s high incidence of depression. F. With so much at stake, the Inuit are determined to play a key role in teasing out the mysteries of climate change in the Arctic. Having survived there for centuries, they believe their wealth of traditional knowledge is vital to the task. And Western scientists are starting to draw on this wisdom, increasingly referred to as ‘Inuit Qaujimajatuqangit’, or IQ. ‘ In the early days scientists ignored us when they came up here to study anything. They just figured these people don’t know very much so we won’t ask them,’ says John Amagoalik, an Inuit leader and politician. ‘ But in recent years IQ has had much more credibility and weight.’ In fact it is now a requirement for anyone hoping to get permission to do research that they consult the communities, who are helping to set the research agenda to reflect their most important concerns. They can turn down applications from scientists they believe will work against their interests, or research projects that will impinge too much on their daily lives and traditional activities. 8
G. Some scientists doubt the value of traditional knowledge because the occupation of the Arctic doesn’t go back far enough. Others, however, point out that the first weather stations in the far north date back just 50 years. There are still huge gaps in our environmental knowledge, and despite the scientific onslaught, many predictions are no more than best guesses. IQ could help to bridge the gap and resolve the tremendous uncertainty about how much of what we’re seeing is natural capriciousness and how much is the consequence of human activity. Questions 8-15: Choose no more than two words from paragraphs C and D to complete their following summary. If you visit the Canadian Arctic, you immediately appreciate the problems faced by people for whom this is home. It would clearly be impossible for the people to engage in (8)……………………as a means of supporting themselves. For thousands of years they have had to rely on catching (9)…………………….and (10)………………as a means of sustenance. The harsh surroundings saw many who tried to settle there pushed to their limits, although some were successful. The (11)………………people were an example of the latter and for them the environment did not prove unmanageable. For the present inhabitants, life continues to be a struggle. The territory of Nunavut consists of little more than ice, rock and a few (12)………………….. .In recent years, many of them have been obliged to give up their (13)………………….lifestyle, but they continue to depend mainly on (14)………………….. for their food and clothes. (15)……………..produce is particularly expensive. Part 4. Read the following passage and choose the best answers. (5pts) Free-standing sculpture that is molded or carved is a type familiar to almost everyone. Although certain free-standing figures or groups of figures can have only a single side intended for viewing, others are completed on all sides. As with all other forms of art, the ultimate shape of a sculpture reflects the artist‘s vision of individuals or experiences represented by the work. Throughout history, people everywhere have discovered a need for sculpture as a record of events and feelings. Materials which can be sculptured do much to contribute to the artist’s imagination. Wood, stone, metal, and various types of plastic and synthetics are all used as sculpting media. When sculptures are made of stone, wood, ivory, or even ice, the sculptor carves or chips the substance to reduce it to the necessary shape. Developing a sculptured image on all sides represents a change from the older approach when artists left the back portion of the figure unfinished and rough. In fact, sculpture in relief is completely attached to the flat background material and appears to be a part of it. Relief, which is completed only on one side intended for viewing, was the first type of sculpture created by man, when ancient sculptors removed the background material in a side of a tree or a cave to make their drawing appear more realistic. While creating a statue, the artist depends on the appropriate lighting to develop the figure because the quality of the final product relies on the interplay between light and shade. When the work is finished, the sculpture must be displayed in the same light as it was originally created. If a light from a source is too weak or too strong, the effect that the sculptor intended may be lost. For example, in painting, the light and shade give the image shape and solidity that cannot be altered by an external light in which it is displayed. When a sculpture is exhibited, the artist’s work is brought to life by light, and its character can be altered by the control of the light source. A fundamental difference between a painting and a sculpture is that when viewing a painting, the audience can only see the point of view that the painter had intended. A free- standing sculpture can be seen from practically any angle. The job of the 9
sculptor is then to attain the quality and the volume of the image from any possible point of view. In addition to carving a work, sculptures can be cast. In the process of casting, a sculpture can be reproduced in a mold when a liquefied medium is poured into shape. After the material from which the sculpture is made hardens, the mold is removed, and the work is cleaned of the excess and polished. Casting allows the artists to produce as many replicas as needed. Most commercially sold sculptures are made in this way. Casting metals requires special care and skill. Bronze is the preferred metal because of its versatility and malleability. To make bronze sculpture, the space in a mold is filled with wax until it is melted by the heated metal. This process, sometimes called lost-wax, was favored by Benvenuto Cellini and was common among the artists in ancient China. 1. What is the main topic of this passage? A. Differences between painting and sculpture B. Sculpting techniques and media C. Types of commercially produced sculptures D. Reasons for enjoying sculpture 2. The word “ ultimate” is closest in meaning to A. ulterior B. final C. formal D. formidable 3. According to the passage, the purpose of sculpture as a form of art is to A. Display a group of figures B. Reflect a human need for freedom C. Express an artistic vision D. Commemorate individuals and events 4. According to the passage, all the following are true of sculpture EXCEPT that A. it can be found in all parts of the world B. it has undergone change since the early times C. it can be created from many substances D. it is no longer useful for people 5. The author of the passage implies that the most important factor in showing a sculpted work is A. the strength of the light source B. the development of the sculpted figure C. the shape of the material for sculpting D. the effect of light on the sculpted image 6. The word “ audience” is closest in meaning to A. listeners B. viewers C. public D. artists 7. What does the author mention as an important difference between a painting and a sculpture? A. A painting does not need shading to be displayed. B. A painting can be viewed from only one position. C. A sculpture needs to have proper light. D. A sculpture does not look good from all angles. 8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sculpturing medium? A. Ice B. Ivory C. Stone D. Wax 9. The word “ replicas” is closest in meaning to A. replacements B. molds C. reproductions D. monuments 10. According to the passage, what are the two basic methods for making sculptures? A. Carving and casting B. Free- standing and relief C. Hardening and melting C. Stone and metal SECTION 5: WRITING Part 1. Rewrite the following sentences using the cues given. (5 pts) 10
1. We were very impressed by the new camera but found it rather expensive. Impressed _________________________________________________________ 2. "I'm innocent," she said, and the court believed her. She convinced ______________________________________________________ 3. Under no circumstances should you phone the police. The last ____________________________________________________________ 4. You were so gullible! How could you believe the lies he told you? Weren't ____________________________________________________________ 5. Success in the academic field depends on your ability to amass qualifications. The more __________________________________________________________ 6. His irresponsible attitude is endangering his career as a doctor. (JEOPARDY) ________________________________________________________________ 7. That wasn't what I meant at all. You've completely misunderstood me as usual. (STICK) ________________________________________________________________ 8. I don't like him because he boasts a lot. (MOUTH) ________________________________________________________________ 9. He liked the new job straight away. (DUCK) ________________________________________________________________ 10. Your attitude will have to change if you want to succeed. (LEAF) ________________________________________________________________ Part 2. Study the chart below and write a report of about 150 words describing the information given in the chart.(10 pts)
Part 3. Write an essay (of about 250 words) to answer the following question:(15pts) Some people think that the automobile has improved modern life. Others think that the automobile has caused serious problems. What is your opinion? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
THE END 11
ANSWER KEYS SECTION 1: LISTENING Part 1. You will hear part of a lecture in which a man called Tom Trueman talks about golf courses and the environment. For questions 1-8, complete the sentences. You will hear the recording twice 1. international (golf) competition(s)/ golf internationally 2. ( the) landowners/ land – owners 3. championship 4. (the) cities/ (the) urban areas / the city 5. (urban) parks / a park 6. grow fast/ quickly 7. (a) nature reserve(s) 8. (local) community / (local) communities Part 2. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. 1.D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. D SECTION 2: PHONOLOGY Part 1. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three. 1. C 2. D 3. C 4.A 5. A Part 2. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others. 6. A 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A SECTION 3: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR Part 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer. (10 pts) 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C. 5. C. 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C. 10. B 11. A 12. D 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. A Part 2. The passage below contains 10 errors. Underline and correct them. (00) has been done as an example. (5 pts) 1. young --> youth 2. him --> himself 3. did--> done 4.Germany--> German 5. stood standing 6. stinging--> stung 7. there --> where 8. popularly -->popular 9. appearance --> appearing 10. Lately --> Later Part 3. Read the following passage and fill the gaps with appropriate prepositions.(5 pts) 1. to 2. of 3. for 4. between 5. as 6. between 7. from 8. to 9. for 10. on 11. about 12. of 13. to 14. on 15. with 16. at 17. beyond 18. to 19. in 20. in Part 4. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms and tenses. (5 pts) 1/. had been fighting 6/. had at last been put out 2/. could get 7/. would grow 3/. had covered 8/. had been planting 4/. rose up 9/. had already taken 5/. was coming 10/. had begun Part 5. Read the following passage and supply the correct verb forms. (5 pts) 12
1. budding 5. pursuit 8. far-away/far-off
2. enthusiastically 3. innermost 4. consultant 6. contentment/contentedness 7. lasting 9. running 10. untouched
Part 6. Read the following passage and choose from the list A – P the best phrase to fill each gap. Use each correct phrase only once. There are six extra phrases which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the spaces provided. 1. B 2. E 3. A 4. I
5. M 6. G 7. P 8. F 9. K 10. L
SECTION 4: READING Part 1. Fill in each blank in the following passages with ONE suitable word to make meaningful passages. 1. came 2. meant 3. very 4. served 5. business 6. communication 7. extent 8. quite 9. amounts 10. point Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the options that best complete the blanks. 1. A 2.A 3.D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7. A 8. B 9.A 10. C 11. A 12. C 13. B 14. D 15. A Part 3. Read the following passage. Questions 1-7: Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i- ix, in blanks. 1. Paragraph A – viii 5. Paragraph E - vii 2. Paragraph B – i 6. Paragraph F - iv 3. Paragraph C - vi 7. Paragraph G - ii 4. Paragraph D- iii Questions 8-15: Choose no more than two words from paragraphs C and D to complete their following summary. 8. farming 9-10. sea mammals- fish ( in either order) 11. Thule 12. islands 13. nomadic 14. nature 15. imported Part 4. Read the following passage and choose the best answers. 1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A SECTION 5. WRITING I. Rewrite the following sentences using the cues given. (5 pts) 1. Impressed (by the new camera) as / though we were / might be (by the new camera), we found it rather expensive. 2. She convinced the court that she was innocent. / She convinced the court of her innocence. 3. The last thing you can / could do is to phone the police. 4. Weren't you so gullible, you couldn't have believed the lies he told you. 5. The more qualifications you are able to / can amass, the more success you (can / will) make / successful you become in the academic field. ). 6. His career (as a doctor) has been put in jeopardy because of his irresponsible attitude. / His irresponsible attitude is putting his career (as a doctor) in jeopardy. 7. That wasn't what I meant at all. You've got (hold of) the wrong end of the stick. 8. I don't like him because he has a big mouth. 9. He took to the new job like duck to water. 10. You will have to turn over a new leaf if you want to succeed. 13
II. (10 pts) III. (15 pts) The impression mark given to each of II and III is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. Transcript Part 1. Good afternoon. I’m here to talk about the rather delicate question of golf courses in the countryside. I want to look at the growth of golf in this country and make some suggestions regarding its future development. A few years ago, a report was published by the body that governs the sport nationally. At that time, the popularity of golf was expanding rapidly on the back of all the publicity surrounding the success of certain local golfers in international competitions. The report said that people who didn’t belong to existing golf clubs, but who wanted to start playing the game, found that there simply weren’t enough facilities to go round. So, the report concluded, around 700 courses would have to be built to meet the demand. Following that report, there was , as you can imagine, enormous interest amongst landowners, not to mention businessmen, who suddenly realized that there was money to be made out of golf. Now, the ordinary beginner couldn’t really afford to pay for a high standard of facilities, but, for some reason, developers tended to build championship golf courses, so that quite a few of the hundreds built across the country failed financially. And, of course, not everybody likes golf courses anyway. They cause changes to the local environment and are used only by those with money, and that often means people driving out from the cities, rather than the local population. A further objection to golf courses is that, although they don’t involve much building, the smooth close-cut grass gives them the ordered appearance of urban parks, because developers seem to be obsessed with the idea of stripping everything out and starting again. The land is leveled out, then artificial bumps are introduced, alien species of plants, often imported form abroad, are put in; trees that grow fast are particularly popular, as are new varieties of grass that provide a good walking surface. And, of course, this means r\that wild animals and forms of native wildlife are uprooted and suffer as a result. But my point is why should all this destruction be necessary? Why do all golf courses have to look the same? I believe that, with a little bit of imagination, many courses could easily be turned into nature reverses, where interesting or rare plant varieties could be preserved. Many of the arguments raised by the critics would be answered in this way and I think this is an approach that should be considered before any more golf courses are built in this country. Most importantly, courses should be designed to attract rather than drive away wildlife. A knock-on effect of this would be another layer of use, as schoolchildren and others could come to study the natural habitats that would be preserved, making the golf course much more an integral part of the local community as well as the local ecology. So, what can… 14
Part 2. Greg: Serving more than 200,000 meals a year would be a challenge for any chef, but step up constraints of time, space and a demand for culinary excellence and you have the life of a railway chef. Chris and Jane, the idea of having to cook in cramped surroundings, with limited ingredients and a very tight schedule, as you did in the recent competition, must have been a terrifying prospect… Chris: Well hardly – I actually operate under those restrictions every day! Jane: That’s true, of course, we both do- but there ‘s always the added danger that things can go wrong, and the challenge of preparing a top-quality, three-course meal for four – which costs no more than £ 50m – and in front of all those judges! Greg: Well, Jane, you were a runner up and Chris came first. I gather you faced some stiff competition form the other finalists. Jane: No doubt about that. All the chefs who entered the competition were brilliant in their own way – but someone has to win! But the real problem is trying to be creative, as the train hurtles through the countryside at over 100 miles an hour – there’s little room for mistakesand you have to be able to keep your balance! Chris: Actually, I’d only been a railway chef for three months. And I can tell you that life on board is no easy ride. There ‘s no nipping out to get the extra bunch of parsley, or a lemon. Greg: But you ‘re used to working under pressure all the same, aren’t you? How do you set about being organized? Chris: You’ve just got to make sure you’re focused on the job. Being able to keep an eye on a dozen things at once is also an advantage! Greg: But do you actually enjoy what you ‘re doing? Jane : There’s plenty of scope to express yourself as a chef in the job – and the open kitchen means that customers will often compliment you personally on the food. That’s one of the biggest highlights of the job. Chris: I’d certainly go along with tat. Very few restaurant chefs have the chance to experience that. Greg: And what about the menus, who decides what to cook? Jane: They ‘re decided in advance for the whole railway network by two extremely famous chefs, who are actually brothers. I suppose we both find it restricting. Chris: Hmm, I do get a bit frustrated form time to time – think I could be a little more adventurous – but it’s all a question of adaptability – which I suspect Jane is better at than I am! Jane: Not at all – I can be quite inflexible when the mood takes me! Greg: So what would be a typical routine for you both? Chris: You have to start at around 5.30 in the morning – check that all the ingredients have been delivered – then it’s a mad rush to get everything ready. Jane: And precious little time to rest any other time during the day, as you often have to set tables ob other trains and help other staff. Timing ‘s particularly tight, you see. In other restaurants orders come in and go out over two or three hours, but we have to turn round before the passengers reach their stations. It’s all a bit nerve –racking. Greg: So what motivated you to do this in the first place? Chris: I’ve been on the move ever since I left college. So when I got engaged, I decided it was time to settle down. So when I saw this job, it seemed a reasonable compromise between personal commitments any my reluctance to stay in one place. 15
Jane: for me it was something that just caught my eye – not just ordinary run of the mill stuff. And, if you get the time, you get a good view out of the windows! Greg: And how do you stop things form spilling over when the train moves? Chris: It’s not a problem for me. I was a chef on a liner, so I’ve got plenty of experience if cookery in motion! Jane: Yes, but I think it helps if you only half fill saucepans with boiling water – even so, they often spill over and you start saying nasty things to yourself about the driver – and it’s not usually his fault! Chris: Let’s just say that you quickly learn not to put thins under the grill without keeping an eye on them ! Greg: Has either of you had any major disasters? Chris: I’d only been in the job for three days and I had this huge roast in the oven. I opened the door, turned around for a moment, distracted, I suppose and it just flew out. Fortunately it landed in the sink, so it was okay. Greg: And what qualities would you say it was necessary for a railway chef to have ? Jane: From my point of view, dedication and determination – you won’t get anywhere without these! Chris: And, let ‘s admit it – a sense of humour. There have been times when I would have resigned long ago if I hadn’t that! Greg: And what of the future? Chris: Who knows? – perhaps the first chef on a trip to the Moon? Jane : Now, that would be a challenge! But somehow, I doubt I’ll be with you on that one. I’m terrified of flying! Greg: Well, now if you don’ mind, we thought our listeners might be interested in the recipes for your prize-winning meals….
16
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN QUẢNG TRỊ
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII- NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
Đề thi đề nghị
Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Khối: 11 Thời gian: 180 phút (Đề thi gồm có 26 trang)
I.
LISTENING: (15pts)
Part 1: (5pts) You will hear a radio discussion about shoppers’ attitudes towards different makes or brands of goods. Choose the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. You will hear the recording TWICE. 1. Why, according to Bill Pearson, are consumers so keen on brand names? A. Companies encourage loyalty in customer groups. B. Brands provide a sense of identity which society no longer can. C. Fashion is becoming increasingly important to young people. D. Social life depends on having the right brands. 2. According to Bill Pearson, when people buy a particular item, they are A. unconsciously deceiving themselves. B. stating membership of their social class. C. demonstrating their future ambitions. D. choosing a symbol for their lives. 3. What, according to Bill Pearson, are some global companies having to do? A. recognize national distinctiveness B. change their image worldwide C. display the flag of the host nation D. move out of certain countries
1
4. What, according to Bill Pearson, is one of the reasons why customers stop supporting a brand? A. The company’s ethics are questionable. B. The company’s board are corrupt. C. The products’ quality is substandard. D. The cost of the goods is excessive. 5. The presenter concludes by asking whether A. branding deserves to be such a burning issue. B. a brand’s success depends on young people’s desires. C. parents give in too easily to children’s demands. D. well-known brands are a waste of money. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: (10pts) Listen and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. You will hear the recording TWICE. Answer the following questions. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 1. According to Fiona, what is best to do before going for a job interview?
………………………………………………………………. 2. What does the talk offer to students with special needs?
………………………………………………………………. 3. What kinds of jobs are the students interested in?
……………………………………………………………… 4. What should students make before applying for a job?
………………………………………………………………. 5. What has the university established with the companies?
………………………………………………………………… 2
Complete the sentences. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 6. Students that are applying for jobs independently need to ………………………. 7. ……………………………….in buildings must be barrier free for direct access. 8. The location of ……………………………. in the buildings is extremely important. 9. Students must ensure they get ………………………working hours. 10. Car owners need to check the availability of ……………………. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
II. PHONETICS: (5pts) Part 1: (2.5) Find the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from the other three in each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. A. montage
B. milage
C. massage
D. sabotage
2. A. orchid
B. orchestra
C. archive
D. orchard
3. A. endeavor
B. demeanor
C. meager
D. beaver
4. A. luxury
B. exhausted
C. exhibit
D. anxiety
5. A. danger
B. angel
C. ankle
D. ancient
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: (2.5) Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. A. intimate
B. pertinent
C. malicious
D. negligent
2. A. admirable
B. advantageous
C. conscientious
D. analytic
3. A. decimal
B. delinquent
C. dilemma
D. memorial
4. A. competence
B. democrat
C. jeopardy
D. complacent
5. A. comrade
B. repel
C. asset
D. conquer
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4. 3
5.
III. LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (30pts) Part 1: (5pts) Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. James had, ___________, saved the manuscript of his first novel from the burning house. A. lastly
B. at last
C. lately
D. at least
2. The ministry refused to ___________ the figures to the press. A. release
B. leak
C. show
D. add
3. The racing-driver climbed out of the wreckage completely ___________. A. unwounded
B. intact
C. unscathed
D. well-preserved
4. The King showed his mercy by ___________ the rebels’ lives. A. saving
B. sparing
C. granting
D. accepting
5. At the end of the day, the shopkeeper walked to the bank, carrying the day’s ___________. A. income
B. takings
C. earning
D. profits
6. There are still a few ____________ problems with the computer program. A. superfluous
B. excessive
C. surplus
D. residual
7. This man is so arrogant that he is completely _________ to all criticism. A. impervious
B. unaware
C. regardless
D. unconscious
8. The speed limit must be _____________ enforced. A. tightly
B. tautly
C. rigidly
D. stiffly
9. When I first saw Pat, my heart ______________ a beat. I knew he would be important to me. A. lost
B. missed
C. failed
D. skipped
10. It was getting ______________ dark, so we decided to head for home. 4
A. utterly
B. absolutely
C. totally
D. fairly
11. She’d go to the ends of the ______________ to save her children. A. house
B. life
C. earth
D. world
12. We are pleased to inform you that we have decided to ____________ your request for British citizenship. A. give
B. grant
C. permit
D. donate
13. I always clean the flat before my mum comes round, but she always finds at least one _____________ of dust and says it’s filthy! A. scrap
B. gust
C. speck
D. blade
14. She’s joining a health club so as to get herself into _______________. A. shape
B. form
C. figure
D. posture
15. Instant Power is ready to take over when the rechargeable battery goes ___________ at an inconvenient time. A. dry
B. flat
C. dull
D. blank
16. As the teacher was again droning on about that historical event, Nancy couldn’t help feeling bored, and she covered her mouth to __________ a yawn. A. prevent
B. hamper
C. stifle
D. hold
17. He ran ahead, with the others hot on his ___________. A. heels
B. knees
C. paces
D. steps
18. Among scientists and non-scientists ___________, many now say that it’s a given that human-induced warming threatens to disrupt life on Earth. A. respectively
B. alike
C. both
19. This winter wasn’t ___________ as difficult as last winter. 5
D. likewise
A. almost
B. nearly
C. closely
D. just
20. My uncle pulled a few __________ and got me a job in the company where he works. A. ropes
B. chords
C. threads
D. strings
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Part 2: (5pts) The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. Write your answers in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. It is hard for most everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a 0. most-> almost world with television. We have come to expect that all the important 1. ………………… news of the day, worldwide will be there by the touch of a button. In 2. ………………… times going by, only the literate knew what was going on in the 3. ………………… world, and then only after a long delay. But now it is possible for any of us to watch world event as they occur. Nothing has shortened 4. ………………… the distance that divides our private lives from the outside world to such an extent as television. Time and again, television transports us to the habitats of rare animals, and we may identify among them. Concern for damage to 5. ………………… the environment extends far and away. We worry about the 6. ………………… influence of technology not just in our cities but on us like people. 7. ………………… Increasingly, we see us as part of the planet rather than in isolation.
8. …………………
There was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to 9. ………………… countless people through the medium of television. Because this 10. ………………… form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it represents a broadening of knowledge. 6
Part 3: (5pts) Complete each of the following sentences with ONE correct preposition. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. William is an authority ___________ medieval tapestries. 2. Many of his best photographs of the conflict were taken when he was actually ___________ fire. 3. When both parents went to prison, social workers took the children ___________ care. 4. We all have to follow the rules, and all of us are _________ the law. 5. He is a man known __________ the police. 6. We are in ___________ a lot of trouble unless George manages to repair the radio station. 7. For my part, it doesn’t interest me ___________ the least whether you keep this money or give it away. 8. __________ hindsight, it was a bad idea to pay him in cash. 9. I remind you that you are two months ___________ with your essays. Deliver them by next Friday or I’ll have to contact your parents. 10. If you give him more money, he will certainly find it ___________ use. 11. She got the job ________ virtue of her greater experience. 12. __________ no fault of his own, Brian was an hour late for the meeting. 13. Now that the case is __________ my hands, I don’t need to worry more. The other barrister has taken it over. 14. His idea about the future of the company did not tally ___________ those of the chairman. 15.In this quiz you have the chance to pit your wits __________ the most intelligent people in England. 16. In the area, Thailand is head and shoulders __________ all other countries in football. 17. Few doubt that, by the end of the decade, living standards in Singapore will be ___________ a par with those of the developed world. 18.Would you like to arrange to pay ___________ direct debit? 7
19.If you are ___________ a loose end, you could help me in the garden. 20. He walked from the court a free man, having been acquitted __________ murder. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Part 4: (5pts) Write the most appropriate tense/ form of the verb in each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 1. “Why are they taking down the decorations?” “The concert (be) ________ over, they are putting everything back in its place.” 2. “Did you see the new play at the theatre last night?” “Oh yes! And it (not be) _________ a more delightful evening.” 3. “Does Nina make a lot of money?” “Of course not. Otherwise, she (not have to) ________ borrow money all the time.” 4. “Are you very shortsighted?” “Yes, but I wish I (not need) _________ to wear glasses.” 5. The plane (not divert)_________, they would have arrived early. 6. “Why was Tim upset?” “He realized he (lose) __________ his wallet.” 7. They directed that the building (pull down) ___________. 8. “Are you certain Malcolm has the briefcase with him?” “Yes, I saw him (carry) _______ it.” 9. “Why did you tell my son he was stupid?” “I didn’t say that, Mrs. Coghill. There seems (be) _________ a misunderstanding.” 10. “You didn’t have to scold him so harshly.” “What you (do) _________?” 11. “Oh look, the door’s wide open!” “Oh no! Brad (leave) __________ it open again.” 8
12. “How was the concert?” “I’d rather (stay) _________ at home.” 13. Look! The car is running at full speed. It (crash) ________ soon. 14. “Wait a minute,” said Frank, (run) __________ through the floor. 15. “While we’re in Leeds, shall we go and see Mark?” “But it’s been nearly 20 years since we last saw him. He (not remember) _______ us.” 16. “Are you fed up with his behavior?” “Yes, I (have) _________ enough of it.” 17. Your eyes are red – you (cry)_________? 18. “Why was Jane so surprised by the bouquet?” “I guess she’s not used to (give) _________ flowers.” 19. “Have you heard from Bob yet?” “No, but he (call) _________, I’ll let you know.” 20. “Why didn’t you go to the wedding?” “Only if they had invited me I (go) ________.” Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Part 5: (5pts) Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. Your answers:
Most snap judgments about people are formed of the basis of their (1. FACE) _____________ features. The eyes, regarded as clues to 1. ………………… one’s true character, are said (2. POETRY)______________to be 2. ………………… 9
the windows of the soul: closely positioned, they imply (3. SLY) 3. ………………… _____________; set wide apart they suggest honesty and directness. ………………….. Thin mouths are equated with meanness and full mouths with (4. SENSUAL) ______________. Unconsciously, we make such 4………………….. instant judgments and they are made about us. There is no hiding place for the place. Always (5. EXPOSE) 5………………….. ___________
and
vulnerable,
it
(6.
VOLUNTEER) 6. …………………
______________ expresses happiness, desire and joy, anger, fear, shame and (7. LOATHE) _______________. Precisely for that 7. ………………… reason, a (8. MASK)____________ face evokes fear and horror: 8………………….. once someone’s distinguishing characteristics are hidden, we cannot read or recognize the person and fear of the (9. KNOW) 9………………….. ______________
immediately
arouses
(10.
SUSPECT) 10. ………………..
_____________.
Part 6: (5pts) Add linking words/ phrases from the table below. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. TWO suggested answers do not fit at all. on the other
for example
all things considered for this reason
whilst
in contrast
secondly
thus
furthermore
firstly
too
but
Censorship is an issue which frequently generates a great deal of heated debate, with supporters maintaining that it is vital in order to protect society, (1) _________ opponents claim that it is an unjustifiable restriction of public access to information. (2)__________, all countries have secrets which must be safeguarded for reasons of national security. For instance, if an enemy country were to acquire such highly sensitive information, the effects could be catastrophic. Consequently, governments have to have the power to 10
restrict access to information concerning areas such as the armed forces or particular aspects of foreign policy. (3) __________, it is often argued that censorship is necessary to prevent the broadcast and publication of obscene material which is considered offensive and harmful to public morals. Many people feel that, without censorship the public would be constantly subjected to material that the majority would find offensive. (4) __________, the government has a duty to impose certain restrictions on the mass media by censoring films and texts which contain explicit scenes of sex, violence or foul language. (5) __________, opponents of censorship point out that when it is abused by governments, censorship becomes an instrument used to misinform society and maintain power. In order to control the flow of information which reaches the public, repressive regimes try to put constraints on the media, (6) __________denying citizens the right to information owing to the fact that governments believe it may lead them to seek greater freedom. (7) _____________, it is generally felt that mature adults are able to make informed choices about what they watch, read and listen to and should, therefore, be permitted to make their own decisions. (8) ____________, some comedians make use of offensive language and taboo subjects in their performances. Critics of censorship argue that the only people who will watch or listen to such material are adults who have made a conscious decision to do so. Thus, it is claimed, it is unjust to censor material like this since it is not forced upon people who may subsequently be offended by it. (9) ____________, it can be concluded that a certain degree of censorship is always necessary. The best course of action would be to attempt to achieve a balance between the requirements of the country and the public on the one hand, and individuals’ rights (10) ____________. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11
IV. READING: (25pts) Part 1: (7.5pts) Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the passage and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. Sleeping disorders like insomnia can (1) ____________ to be a worrying question for many of us. Almost anyone can easily conjure (2) ____________ at least one sleepless night of (3) ____________ and turning in bed awaiting the bliss of a deep dream. Most probably, a third of us (4) ____________ the distressing experience at least once a week. Even though it is possible for people to (5) ____________ without any sleep at all for a certain period of time, such occurrences are rather few and far (6) ____________ and there is no evidence to (7) ____________ this assumption. What is sure, however, is the fact that we do need some sleep to regenerate our strength and to (8) ____________ the brain to its proper activity. No wonder, then, that the tiredness and fatigue that appear after a sleepless night (9) ____________ many of us to go for chemical support in the form of sleep (10) ____________ tablets and powders. However long the problem of sleepless has afflicted many individuals, very little has been (11) ____________ in the question of its original causes. We are conscious that it usually (12) ____________ those who are exposed to a great deal of stress, anxiety or depression. It may also be (13) ____________ by overworking or unfavorable surroundings with scarcity of fresh air. Sleeping pills may provide some relief and can act as an alternative in this desperate situation. Yet, they do little to combat the ailment in full. Consequently, our hopes should be (14) ____________ on the medical authorities to (15) ____________ the root cause of insomnia before we take to being nocturnal leading our noisy lives in the dead of night. 1. A. present
B. entail
C. realize
D. prove
2. A. up
B. about
C. off
D. out
3. A. rolling
B. wriggling
C. tossing
D. spinning
4. A. underpass
B. undergo
C. underline
D. undertake
5. A. operate
B. process
C. function
D. perform
12
6. A. between
B. along
C. within
D. beyond
7. A. proclaim
B. endure
C. invalidate
D. substantiate
8. A. recuperate
B. restore
C. revive
D. resume
9. A. exert
B. affect
C. enforce
D. compel
10. A. inducing
B. attaining
C. exacting
D. contributing
11. A. disparaged
B. retrieved
C. detected
D. originated
12. A. betrays
B. besets
C. bemoans
D. bestows
13. A. engendered
B. applied
C. instigated
D. evolved
14. A. placed
B. ascribed
C. focused
D. attached
15. A. emerge
B. release
C. determine
D. confess
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 2: (7.5pts) Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word in each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (0) has been done as an example. Parents- as you are probably (0) __________ aware- are easily shockable. No matter (1) __________ hard they try to be trendy and to keep up to date with modern fads, they (2) ____________ never quite help being a generation removed. Life simply moves too quickly for them. They will in (3) ____________ likelihood attempt to maintain some sort of dialogue with you by going out and buying the latest CDs, only (4) ____________ find a few months later the charts are filled by acts (5) _____________ names they have never heard of. Then they get frustrated and it all comes pouring out during an edition of some chart show on TV when they moan that there has never been anything (6) ___________ listening to since their day- whenever that happened to be. Other parents don’t even try to understand their kids. They occupy the moral high (7) ___________ and dismiss anything that has happened since their youth (8) ____________ 13
decadent. Naturally, as lovers of folk music or slushy ballads, their principal complaint against rock music is that they can’t make (9) ____________ the words. Hardly a day seems to go by (10) _____________ you incurring their displeasure one way or (11) ______________, whether it’s your hair, your clothes (12) ____________ the fact that you stayed out till three. So (13) ____________ bother trying to please them? You might just (14) ____________ well wind them (15) ___________ even more. 0. well Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 3: (5pts) Read the passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. DESERT FORMATION The deserts, which already occupy approximately a fourth of the Earth's land surface, have in recent decades been increasing at an alarming pace. The expansion of desertlike conditions into areas where they did not previously exist is called desertification. It has been estimated that an additional one-fourth of the Earth's land surface is threatened by this process. Desertification is accomplished primarily through the loss of stabilizing natural vegetation and the subsequent accelerated erosion of the soil by wind and water. In some cases the loose soil is blown completely away, leaving a stony surface. In other cases, the finer particles may be removed, while the sand-sized particles are accumulated to form mobile hills or ridges of sand. 14
Even in the areas that retain a soil cover, the reduction of vegetation typically results in the loss of the soil's ability to absorb substantial quantities of water. The impact of raindrops on the loose soil tends to transfer fine clay particles into the tiniest soil spaces, sealing them and producing a surface that allows very little water penetration. Water absorption is greatly reduced; consequently runoff is increased, resulting in accelerated erosion rates. The gradual drying of the soil caused by its diminished ability to absorb water results in the further loss of vegetation, so that a cycle of progressive surface deterioration is established. In some regions, the increase in desert areas is occurring largely as the result of a trend toward drier climatic conditions. Continued gradual global warming has produced an increase in aridity for some areas over the past few thousand years. The process may be accelerated in subsequent decades if global warming resulting from air pollution seriously increases. There is little doubt, however, that desertification in most areas results primarily from human activities rather than natural processes. The semiarid lands bordering the deserts exist in a delicate ecological balance and are limited in their potential to adjust to increased environmental pressures. Expanding populations are subjecting the land to increasing pressures to provide them with food and fuel. In wet periods, the land may be able to respond to these stresses. During the dry periods that are common phenomena along the desert margins, though, the pressure on the land is often far in excess of its diminished capacity, and desertification results. Four specific activities have been identified as major contributors to the desertification 15
processes: overcultivation, overgrazing, firewood gathering, and overirrigation. The cultivation of crops has expanded into progressively drier regions as population densities have grown. These regions are especially likely to have periods of severe dryness, so that crop failures are common. Since the raising of most crops necessitates the prior removal of the natural vegetation, crop failures leave extensive tracts of land devoid of a plant cover and susceptible to wind and water erosion. The raising of livestock is a major economic activity in semiarid lands, where grasses are generally the dominant type of natural vegetation. The consequences of an excessive number of livestock grazing in an area are the reduction of the vegetation cover and the trampling and pulverization of the soil. This is usually followed by the drying of the soil and accelerated erosion. Firewood is the chief fuel used for cooking and heating in many countries. The increased pressures of expanding populations have led to the removal of woody plants so that many cities and towns are surrounded by large areas completely lacking in trees and shrubs. The increasing use of dried animal waste as a substitute fuel has also hurt the soil because this valuable soil conditioner and source of plant nutrients is no longer being returned to the land. The final major human cause of desertification is soil salinization resulting from overirrigation. Excess water from irrigation sinks down into the water table. If no drainage system exists, the water table rises, bringing dissolved salts to the surface. The water evaporates and the salts are left behind, creating a white crustal layer that prevents air and water from reaching the underlying soil. 16
The extreme seriousness of desertification results from the vast areas of land and the tremendous numbers of people affected, as well as from the great difficulty of reversing or even slowing the process. Once the soil has been removed by erosion, only the passage of centuries or millennia will enable new soil to form. In areas where considerable soil still remains, though, a rigorously enforced program of land protection and cover-crop planting may make it possible to reverse the present deterioration of the surface. 1. According to paragraph 3, the loss of natural vegetation has which of the following consequences for soil? A. Increased stony content
C. Increased numbers of spaces in the soil
B. Reduced water absorption
D. Reduced water runoff
2. The word delicate in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to A. fragile
C. complex
B. predictable
D. valuable
3. According to paragraph 5, in dry periods, border areas have difficulty A. adjusting to stresses created by settlement B. retaining their fertility after desertification C. providing water for irrigating crops D. attracting populations in search of food and fuel 4. The phrase devoid of in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to A. consisting of
B. hidden by
C. except for
D. lacking in
5. According to paragraph 6, which of the following is often associated with raising crops? A. Lack of proper irrigation techniques B. Failure to plant crops suited to the particular area C. Removal of the original vegetation D. Excessive use of dried animal waste 6. According to paragraph 9, the ground’s absorption of excess water is a factor in desertification because it can 17
A. interfere with the irrigation of land B. limit the evaporation of water C. require more absorption of air by the soil D. bring salts to the surface 7. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to desertification EXCEPT A. soil erosion
C. insufficient irrigation
B. global warming
D. the raising of livestock
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the sentence in bold? A. Desertification is a significant problem because it is so hard to reverse and affects large areas of land and great numbers of people. B. Slowing down the process of desertification is difficult because of population growth that has spread over large areas of land. C. The spread of deserts is considered a very serious problem that can be solved only if large numbers of people in various countries are involved in the effort. D. Desertification is extremely hard to reverse unless the population is reduced in the vast areas affected. 9. It can be inferred from the passage that the author most likely believes which of the following about the future of desertification? A. Governments will act quickly to control further desertification. B. The factors influencing desertification occur in cycles and will change in the future. C. Desertification will continue to increase. D. Desertification will soon occur in all areas of the world. 10. Where would the following sentence best fit in paragraph 7?
This economic reliance on livestock in certain regions makes large tracts of land susceptible to overgrazing.
18
A The raising of livestock is a major economic activity in semiarid lands, where grasses are generally the dominant type of natural vegetation. B The consequences of an excessive number of livestock grazing in an area are the reduction of the vegetation cover and the trampling and pulverization of the soil. C This is usually followed by the drying of the soil and accelerated erosion. D Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4: (5pts) Read the passage below and complete the summary. Use ONE WORD ONLY FROM THE PASSAGE to complete each blank space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. Example: Latin and Greek are known as the ____________. Answer: classics Classical and modern In the United Kingdom at university level, the decline in the study of Latin and Greek, the classics, has been reversed. As a result of renewed interest in reading classical literature and history, more and more students are enrolling on classical studies courses. The purists may deplore this development - ‘it is yet another example of the ‘dumbing down’ of tertiary education with students studying classical literature and history in English rather than the original languages’. And, I must admit, they do have a point. But the situation is surely not as dire as the ultimate demise of classics as an intellectual discipline. A classical education is a boon and should be encouraged. But, before looking at the advantages of studying the classics, which appear, incidentally, more indirect and less tangible than other disciplines, let us examine the criticisms that are often levelled against studying Latin and Greek. 19
The decline in the teaching of classics The 60s with their trendy ideas in education are blamed for the steady decline in studying the classics. But the rot had set in much earlier, when Latin and Greek were no longer required for university entrance. With the introduction of the National Curriculum in secondary schools came the biggest blow. Schools came under pressure to devote more time to core subjects like English, mathematics, the sciences, history and geography. This left scant room for the more ‘peripheral’ subject areas like the classics. There was a further squeeze with the rush into teaching IT and computing skills. As schools could no longer choose what they wanted to teach, so subjects like the classics were further marginalized. Take Latin. In 1997, 11,694 pupils took Latin GCSE, while, in 1988, the number was 17,000. Comprehensive schools now supply 40% fewer Latin candidates, whereas grammar schools have seen a 20% decline. Latin candidates from Independent schools have fallen by only 5%. As a consequence, classics has been relegated to the ‘better’ grammar or comprehensive schools, and the minor and great public schools. Only one third of Latin GCSE entries come from the state sector. It can, therefore, be of no surprise to anyone when the pursuit of a classical education is attacked as elitist. Tainted by this misconception, the classics are then further damned as being irrelevant in the modern world. Having been pushed into such a tight corner, it is difficult to fight free. A classical education is so unlike, say, business studies or accountancy where young people can go directly into a profession and find a job easily. For classicists, this is not an option. Other than teaching, there is no specific professional route after leaving university. And, with the pressure in the present climate to have a job, it is less easy than previously for young people to resist the pressure from the world outside academia, and from their families, to study something else that will make them money. The relevancy argument is a hard nut to crack. The pertinence of a classical education Latin and Greek have been damned as dead languages that offer us nothing. The response to this criticism is, in fact, straightforward. Most European languages are a development of the classical continuum. And so having even a rudimentary knowledge prepares pupils for 20
understanding other modern European languages. As for pertinence in the modern world, learning Latin and Greek is highly relevant. The study of these languages develops analytical skills that have, to a large extent, been lost. They teach discipline and thinking and open up the whole of Western civilisation just as the discovery of the classical world did during the Renaissance. Latin has also been called food for the brain. It gives students a grounding in the allusions in much of European literature and thought. Modern writers do not use these allusions themselves, first, because they do not know them, and, second, because their audience does not know them either. Sadly, most people no longer have the ability to interpret the allusions in art and the same has happened with the classics vis- à- vis literature. The danger to Western and world culture is great if the classical tradition is lost. The spiral of decline is not just restricted to the United Kingdom. Other European countries face the same loss to their heritage. If we abandon the classics, we will not be able to interpret our past and to know where we have come from. A common refrain in modern society is the lack of thinking ability among even the best graduates. They enter work, perhaps as bright as any of their predecessors. But without the necessary skills they run around trying to reinvent the wheel. As Ecclesiastes says: nihil novum sub sole est. But help is at hand. Concerned by the fact that fewer and fewer teenagers have access to a range of foreign languages, the government is harnessing the power of the Internet to introduce a distance-learning programme, where pupils will study Latin and other minority languages at their own pace. Initially piloted in 60 schools from autumn 2000, the internetbased courses will enable pupils to access advice from specialists by e-mail. SUMMARY The writer considers a classical education to be a (1) ___________. He believes that, in secondary schools, the teaching of classics has been (2) ___________ by the introduction of the National Curriculum. This has further led to the studying of the (3) ___________ being attacked as elitist. In addition, studying Latin and Greek, is wrongly (4) ___________ as being irrelevant, because (5) ___________ have no specific professional route to follow. As 21
young people are pressurised to make (6) ___________, the writer feels that the relevancy argument is difficult to counter. In spite of the (7) ___________ levelled at a classical education, the writer feels that learning Latin and Greek is highly relevant. And he fears that there is a danger that the classics as a (8) ___________ will be (9) ___________. But help is at hand from a new Internet-based distance- learning programme being (10) ___________ in 60 schools from autumn 2000. The pilot study will allow pupils to study Latin at their own pace. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6
7.
8.
9.
10.
V. WRITING: (30pts) Part 1: (5pts) Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do NOT change the word given. You must use between THREE and EIGHT words, including the word given. (0) has been done as an example. 0. Jane regretted speaking so rudely to the old lady. (MORE) Jane … WISHED SHE HAD SPOKEN MORE …..politely to the old lady. 1. Inefficient treatment of customers creates a bad impression of the company. (REFLECTS) Treating customers with a lack ………………………………………. ………..the company. 2. Daniel didn’t get the job because he was considerably less experienced than Hannah. (DEAL) Hannah got the job because she had ………………………………………… Daniel.
22
3. Although Rudy really didn’t want to play cricket on Sunday, he agreed in the end. (DEAD) Despite ……………………………………………….cricket on Sunday, Rudy agreed in the end. 4. Josh doesn’t usually tell lies. (LIKE) It……………………………………lies. 5. Francis chose computing rather than marketing for his next course. (PREFERENCE) Francis opted …………………………………………….. for his next course. 6. Smokers are more likely to be affected by heart attacks than non-smokers. (SUBJECT) Smokers………………………………………..non-smokers.. 7. The decision was made while I was not there. (ABSENCE) The decision ……………………………………………………………. 8. She didn’t even make the effort to find out how to spell my name. (TROUBLE) She didn’t even ……………………………………………find out how to spell my name. 9. Why didn’t you search everywhere for your wallet? Then you might have found it. (LOW) Had ……………………………………………………., you might have found it. 10. It was not until the storm subsided that we knew how much damage had been done. (EXTENT) Only when the storm subsided ……………………………………………………damage.
23
.Part 2: (10pts) The pie graphs below show the results of a survey of children’s activities. The first graph shows the cultural and leisure activities that boys participate in, whereas the second graph shows the activities in which girls participate. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write about 150 words.
...........................................................................……………………………………………… ………................................................................................................................................ ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …....................................................................................................................................... ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………........................................................................... ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ………................................................................................................................................ ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …........................................................................................................................................ 24
...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………........................................................................... ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ………................................................................................................................................ ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …........................................................................................................................................ ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………............................................................................ ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ………................................................................................................................................ ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …....................................................................................................................................... Part 3: (15pts) Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic: The Vietnamese educational system is undergoing dramatic changes to improve itself. In response to these changes, some people think that students should be allowed to grade their teachers. Others are strongly opposed to the idea, saying it is disrespectful to teachers. What’s your opinion on this issue? ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………....................................................................... ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ………............................................................................................................................... ...................................................................…………………………………………………… ….................................................................................................................. ................... ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………......................................... ............................. 25
...........................................................................……………………………………………… ……….............................................................................................. ............................. ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …......................................................................................................... ............................. ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………......................................... ............................. ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ……….............................................................................................. ............................. ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …......................................................................................................... ............................. ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………......................................... ............................. ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ……….............................................................................................. ............................. ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …......................................................................................................... ............................. ...................................................................................................................................………… ……………………………………………......................................... ............................. ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ……….............................................................................................. ............................. ...................................................................…………………………………………………… …......................................................................................................... ............................. ...........................................................................……………………………………………… ……….............................................................................................. ............................. THE END 26
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN QUẢNG TRỊ
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII- NĂM HỌC 2013- 2014 Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Khối: 11
ĐÁP ÁN I. LISTENING (15 pts) Part 1: (5pts) 1. B
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. D
Part 2: (10pts) 1. to be prepared
2. guidance and 3. holiday jobs support
4.informed choices
5.good working relationships
6. plan ahead
7. public areas/ 8. ramps public spaces/toilets
9.flexible
10. disabled parking (spaces)/ wheelchair accessible entrance/ramp
II. PHONETICS: (5pts) Part 1: (2.5pts) 1. B
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. C
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. B
Part 2: (2.5pts) 1. C
III. LEXICO- GRAMMAR: (30pts) 1
Part 1: (5pts) 1. D 6. D 11. C 16. C
2. A 7. A 12. B 17. A
3. C 8. A 13. C 18. B
4. B 9. B 14. A 19. B
5. B 10. D 15. B 20. D
Part 2: (5pts) It is hard for most everyone, but especially the young, to imagine a world with television. We have come to expect that all the important news of the day, worldwide will be there by the touch of a button. In times going by, only the literate knew what was going on in the world, and then only after a long delay. But now it is possible for any of us to watch world event as they occur. Nothing has shortened the distance that divides our private lives from the outside world to such an extent as television. Time and again, television transports us to the habitats of rare animals, and we may identify among them. Concern for damage to the environment extends far and away. We worry about the influence of technology not just in our cities but on us like people. Increasingly, we see us as part of the planet rather than in isolation. There was once the prerogative of scholars is now accessible to countless people through the medium of television. Because this form of popular education can be regarded as superficial, it represents a broadening of knowledge.
0. most-> almost 1.with -> without 2. by -> at 3. going -> gone 4. event -> events
5. among -> with 6. away -> wide 7. like -> as 8. us -> ourselves 9. There-> What 10. Because -> Although/ Though
Part 3: (5pts) 1. on
2. under
3. into
4. above
5. to
6. for
7. in
8. With
9. behind
10. of
11. by/in
12. Through
13. off
14. with
15. against
16. above
17. on
18. by
19. at
20. of
Part 4: (5pts) 1. being
2. couldn’t have been
3. wouldn’t have to 2
4. didn’t need
5. Had the plane not been diverted 9. to have been 13. is going to crash 17. have you been crying Part 5: (5pts)
6. had lost
7. (should) be pulled down
8. carrying
10. would you have done 14. running
11. must have left
12. have stayed
15. might/may not remember 19. should he call
16. have had
18. being given
Most snap judgements about people are formed of the basis of their (1. FACE) _____________ features. The eyes, regarded as clues to one’s true character, are said (2. POETRY)______________to be the windows of the soul: closely positioned, they imply (3. SLY) _____________; set wide apart they suggest honesty and directness. Thin mouths are equated with meanness and full mouths with (4. SENSUAL) ______________. Unconsciously, we make such instant judgements and they are made about us. There is no hiding place for the place. Always (5. EXPOSE) ___________ and vulnerable, it (6. VOLUNTEER) ______________ expresses happiness, desire and joy, anger, fear, shame and (7. LOATHE) _______________. Precisely for that reason, a (8. MASK)____________ face evokes fear and horror: once someone’s distinguishing characteristics are hidden, we cannot read or recognise the person and fear of the (9. KNOW) ______________ immediately arouses (10. SUSPECT) _____________.
20. would I have gone
1. facial 2. poetically 3. slyness
4. sensuality 5. exposed 6. involuntarily 7. loathing 8. masked 9. unknown 10. suspicion(s)
Part 6: (5pts) 1. whilst
2. Firstly
3. Secondly
6. thus
7. Furthermore
8. For example
4. For this 5. In contrast reason 9. All things 10. on the other considered
IV. READING: (25pts) Part 1: (7.5pts) 1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. A
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. A
3
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. C
1. how
2. can
3. all
4. to
5. whose
6. worth
7. ground
8. as
9. out
10. without
11. another
12. or
13. why
14. as
15. up
Part 2: (7.5pts)
Part 3: (5pts) 1. B
2. A
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. D
7. C
8. A
9. C
10. B
1. boon
2. marginalis/zed
3. classics
4. damned
5. classicists
6. money
7. criticisms
8. discipline
9. lost
10. piloted
Part 4: (5pts)
V. WRITING: (30pts) Part 1: (5pts) 1. Treating customers with a lack OF EFFICIENCY REFLECTS BADLY ON the company. 2. Hannah got the job because she had A GREAT DEAL MORE EXPERIENCE THAN Daniel. 3. Despite (HIS/HIM) BEING DEAD (SET) AGAINST PLAYING cricket on Sunday, Rudy agreed in the end. 4. It ISN’T LIKE JOSH TO TELL lies. 4
5. Francis opted FOR COMPUTING IN PREFERENCE TO MARKETING for his next course. 6. Smokers ARE MORE SUBJECT TO HEART ATTACKS THAN non-smokers. 7. The decision WAS MADE IN MY ABSENCE. 8. She didn’t even TAKE THE TROUBLE TO find out how to spell my name. 9.Had YOU SEARCHED HIGH AND LOW FOR YOUR WALLET, you might have found it. 10. Only when the storm subsided DID WE KNOW THE EXTENT OF THE damage.
.Part 2: (10 pts) Part 3: (15pts) Content (ideas and details):
50% of total mark
Language (vocabulary and structures):
30% of total mark
Presentation (coherence, cohesion and style):
20% of total mark
TAPESCRIPT Part 1: Presenter: Britain has been called a nation of shopkeepers and in a recent survey shopping came high on the list of the nation’s favourite leisure pursuits. In order to discuss our attitudes to what we buy I have in the studio today Bill Pearson, a retail analyst. Now, Bill, I’ve recently had the experience of teenage sons insisting on me buying them particular makes or brands of jeans and T-shirts with a trendy logo on the front, whereas, when I was young, my brothers couldn’t care which manufacturer’s clothes they wore. Are we obsessed with brands do you think nowadays? Bill: I think we are. I think it permeates through every level of society. It affects everything from the classic thing of trainers or jeans for teenagers, through clothes, spectacles, holidays, foods. Everything has brands which we relate to. In a sense consumers have hijacked brands for their own purposes. There are a number of cultural and unconscious reasons for this. The most obvious one is that up to fifty years ago we were all born into existences which one could classify as ‘branded’ in a sense, by our communities, extended family groups, fathers’ 5
occupations and so on. Some of these institutions have been slipping into crisis over the last few decades. With old-fashioned communities decaying, it’s much harder now to see who you are for many people, so a vacuum has been created that in now being filled, almost by default, by commercial brands. Presenter: But how do brands help solve this problem exactly? Bill: Well, by carrying the symbol of the clothes you’re wearing and the food that you’re eating or the car that you’re driving, these work as badges of our aspirations to some extent. They help us to tell a story to both ourselves and other people about who we aspire to be. In a sense, you know, the unconscious looks for symbols and signifiers in order to tell a story and brands fulfil this need perfectly. Presenter: So that’s how it works here in the UK, but it there any difference between consumers’ reactions to brands in different countries? Bill: Interestingly, in some countries, people seem to have a stronger sense of self. Some huge multinational fast food corporations, for example, are having to change the look of their outlets in one or two countries so that it reflects national tastes in décor and style. So in that case, consumers are demanding that their identity be affirmed by no matter which brand wants to come into their country. It must still, metaphorically, carry the flag of the nation. Presenter: But once we’ve turned to a brand it is possible that we will turn against it again. Why do we do that? Bill: Brands are very, very fragile. Corporate reputation is one of the factors that can damage a brand. Customers can turn away from, say, a clothing manufacturer, when there are stories in the press about the poor conditions endured by their labour force in order to maintain profits. These days everything has to be transparent and above board and some Managing Directors quake in their shoes now that corporate social responsibility is an issue. But in addition, unless a brand can retain itself as the object of desire, can stay aspirational, you know – um – because there is so much choice, consumers will quickly look elsewhere. Presenter: So, all this discussion that we’ve had boils down to the one point – are we just ripping ourselves off when we insist on buying well-known, high priced products in order to keep up with our peers or satisfy our kids’ desires? Bill: Well, that’s a question of opinion. All I can say personally is that if we’re prepared to pay for them, then so be it. Presenter: Thank you very much, Bill Pearson. That was most illuminating. 6
Part 2: Hello and thanks everyone for coming here today. I know it’s always a bit stressful going for a job interview, but it’s best to be prepared. For any of you who may not know me, my name is Fiona Ogilvy and my job is to offer guidance and support for students with special needs. Now you wouldn’t be here today if you weren’t interested in finding a job in the holidays so let’s get down to it and see what things you need to be looking out for. Most of you, I hope, will be applying for jobs with the companies that have been recommended by the university. The reason for this is that we here at the university, already know these companies and have established good working relationships with them. I’ve also been to visit all of them and checked out the facilities they have to offer. You really need to make informed choices when you’re looking for a job and make sure you know before you even get to the interview stage, that your needs will be met. But I know that some of you are applying for jobs independently and have looked at companies outside the university recommended list so for you it’s best to plan ahead and be aware of what it is you may need while you’re working. Things that you need to check when you go for an interview are: are there enough toilet facilities and are these easily accessible? Also, you want to check that all the public areas inside the building are barrier free so you can get direct access to these public spaces whenever you need to. And ask about ramps into the building so you know how many there are and where they are located. These kinds of things are so much more difficult to sort out when you’ve started work as they take time. But ramps are an absolute must so please make sure you know where they are. Another thing you must make sure of is that the lifts have the correct lowered control panels. Ask if all the lifts have this facility or if it’s only certain ones. Now something I think that is often overlooked is that you get flextime. This basically means that your working hours are flexible and you can clock on and clock off in times that suit you- within reason of course! Most companies do recognize that it takes much longer for someone in a wheelchair to get on and off buses and trains- public transport can take that much longer so you need to be organized and prepared. And for those of you lucky enough to own a car, check how many disability parking spaces are available. Remember that it’s your right to have a disabled parking space. These also need to be near enough to a wheelchair accessible entrance or ramp. Ok, are there any questions before we move on?
THE END 7
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM
KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM
LẦN THỨ VII, NĂM 2014
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 11
PART I. LISTENING (15 points) HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU Bài nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe đều có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 2 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài nghe. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đều có trong bài nghe. Part 1: You will hear an interview with a robot scientist. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). 1. What does Keith say about his company's latest project? A. He does not want to talk about it. B. He is not allowed to talk about it. C. He does not know much about it. D. He does not understand it at all. 2. What does Keith say about robots in films? A. They are not always shown in a positive light. B. They often have a good sense of humour C. They are not particularly well designed. D. They always make jokes. 3. Keith expresses concern that robots might cause us __________ A. to do less physical exercise. 1
B. to make great efforts to think. C. to think less for ourselves. D. to become less intelligent. 4. Keith says that progress in the robotics industry ___________ A. has been as fast as that of computers. B. has been slower than predicted. C. has been constant over the last century. D. has been so quicker than expected. 5. What does Keith say about humanoid robots? A. They are unable to perform many tasks. B. Many people consider them to be a toy. C. People are getting used to seeing them. D. They look like television sets. Part 2: You will hear a man talking on the radio about Welsh speakers in Patagonia, Argentina. For questions 6-15, which summarize what he says. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each space provided. A popular place for tourists to visit in Patagonia is a Welsh (1) ____________________________. There are estimated to be (2) ___________________________ speakers of Welsh in Patagonia. The first settlers wanted to establish a colony in an area which was (3) ____________________________. There were very few (4) _____________________________ among the first Welsh settlers. The settlers soon became friendly with the (5) ____________________________. The name for the Andean region where the Welsh settled means (6) “_________________________”. A Welsh (7) ___________________________ festival is held each year in Patagonia. The National Assembly for Wales sends (8) _____________________________ to Patagonia each year. The streets and houses of Gaiman are decorated with (9) ______________________________. The speaker decides to eat (10) _____________________________ with his tea. PART 2: PHONETICS. (5 pts) 2
Question 1. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different that of the others.(2.5 pts) 1. A. commentary B. intimacy C. amphibian D. preferable 2. A. impetuous B. pantomime C. orchestra D. corpulent 3. A. painstakingly B. condolence C. communism D. obstinacy 4. A. consensus B. lucrative C. proponent D. proposal 5. A. Arabic B. lunatic C. politics D. aerobics Question 2. Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from that of the others. (2.5 pts) 1. A. confusedly B. wickedly C. allegedly D. supposedly 2. A. anxiety B. complexion C. anxious D. luxury 3. A. complain B. bargain C. ascertain D. campaign 4. A. external B. expunge C. extenuating D. expurgate 5. A. sprout B. dough C. scowl D. frown PART 3: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES.(25 pts) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) which best completes each sentence. (5 pts) 1. I hope the computer course starts this term. We've all as keen as ................ to get going. A. coffee B. cornflake C. mustard D. a gigolo 2. People living abroad are not ................................ to enter for this competition. A. capable B. enable C. eligible D. permissible 3. The escaped prisoner fought ............................ before he was finally overpowered. A. foot and mouth B. heart and soul C. head over heels D. tooth and nail 4. Although he was a hardened criminal, his one ............................... feature was his love of children. A. redeeming B. acquitting C. saving D. recovering 5. David is the captain of the school baseball team, ................................... his father before him. A. as well as B. similar to C. just like D. such as 6. Once the air warms up, the snow should start to .................................. A. liquefy B. thaw C. defrost D. dissolve 7. After months of bitter arguing the couple had to accept that they were ........................... A. incompatible B. disaffected C. incongruous D. dissident 8. Our hosts had prepared a .................................. meal with seven courses to celebrate our arrival. A. generous B. lavish C. spendthrift D. profuse 3
9. We might just as well have stayed at home ................................ the enjoyment we had. A. for all B. on account of C. so far as D. concerning 10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue ............................... A. on the occasion B. from day to day C. every now and then D. most times 11. The BBC has ............................ a young composer to write a piece of music for the Corporation's centenary. A. commissioned B. decided C. ordered D. consulted 12. He's applied for a(n) .......................... a lot of jobs but he's only been short-listed once. A. awful B. wide C. enormous D. dreadful 13. I was proud to be ............................. out for special praise for my performance. A. separated B. selected C. singled D. distinguished 14. His English was roughly ................................... with my Greek, so communication was rather difficult. A. in tune B. equal C. level D. on a par 15. He was so ............................... in answer to my questions that I knew he had something to hide. A. effusive B. allusive C. evasive D. elusive 16. If you don't stop smoking, you ............................... this risk of developing bronchitis. A. make B. bear C. suffer D. run 17. When we got to the box office the question of who should pay ........................... A. came B. arose C. appeared D. raised 18. Police have warned people to be ..................................... when strangers call at the door and to ask to see proof of identity. A. wary B. scary C. cagey D. choosy 19. I don't like down work, but I'll have to, I'm afraid. I've got far too much ......................... at the moment. A. on my mind B. in effect C. up my sleeve D. on my plate 20. The 10% rise in the cost of living is almost unbelievable until one looks at it in the ............................. of world price rises. A. relationship B. context C. significance D. situation Your answer: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
4
Question 2. There are 10 mistakes in the passage below. Find out the mistakes and write the correct forms. (O) has been done as an exampe. (5 pts) Line DISAPPEARING WORLD 0 The destruction of the rainforests is a pressed problem of our times but not one 1 that is regarded equally serious by everyone. The more affluent nations regard the 2 issue as one of preservation; deforestation must stop. When it comes to the poorer 3 countries, the issue is not so cut and dried. For these people, the rainforests 4 represent a source of economic prosperity, a point that obviously takes 5 precedence on ecological concerns. A solution must be found before the damage 6 caused by the deforestation that is destroying the rainforests becoming 7 irrevocable. Deforestation is carried out by those involving in the timber industry 8 and also by migrant farmers. The later occupy an area of land, strip it, farm it until 9 its natural mineral supply is used up and then move on. The land is left useless 10 and exposed and a process of erosion comes into effect, washing soil into rivers 11 thereby killing fish and blocking the water's natural course. The land is not the 12 only victim. Rainforests are a rich populated habitat. In the rainforests of 13 Madagascar there are at most 150,000 individual species of plants and animals 14 which are found anywhere else in the world and more are being discovered all the 15 time. Furthermore, approximately 50% of all endangered animal species live in 16 the world's rainforests. The destruction of the forests effectively represents a 17 complete removal of all these plants and animals. Deprived of their natural 18 environments, they will disappear altogether. Again, this process is reversible. 19 Man, no matter how powerful he considers himself, does not have the power to 20 establish the species he is so willfully destroying. Your answer: Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction 0 Pressed Pressing
Question 3: Fill in each blank with the correct preposition(s)/ particle(s). (5 pts) 1. Several of us hang …………………….. entering the cave, as we were unsure what we would find in there. 5
2. The radio DJ broke …………………….. the caller, in a desperate attempt to change the subject. 3. Jarvis can no longer afford to heat the flat, and in any case, his electricity was cut …………………….. last Friday. 4. He explained that shortly after they bought the house together, his wife Julia ran …………………….. a Welsh mechanic. 5. Did you know that Samantha has taken …………………….. Martin again – they’re spending lots of time together. 6. Molly got ……………….. going to visit her relatives by saying she felt violently sick. 7. The judge closed the club …………………….. the grounds there was too much noise being made. 8. The paintings were given to the state by the millionaire ………………….. lieu of taxes. 9. The class were …………………….. edge the morning before they took the exam. 10. The local council believe the new development isn’t …………………….. keeping with the rest of the town. 11. The journalist reported that the city was …………………….. the brink of a crisis. 12. The staff pay rise was …………………….. the region of 3%. 13. My brother has always been …………………….. the fringe of the Labour party, never at the centre. 14. Three masked men tried to hold …………………….. the security van last week. 15. I wouldn't have any doubts about trusting him; I'm sure he's completely …………………….. the level. 16. John has a tendency to bury his head …………………….. the sand. 17. Several flights were delayed and so the departure lounge was jam-packed …………………….. angry travelers. 18. My husband’s always lazing …………………….. while I’m always busy . 19. I’ve been asked to key information …………………….. the computer immediately. 20. As he wanted to go to university, David decided to turn …………………….. a new leaf and study harder. Question 4. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct Form/ Tense. (5 pts) If it (0) hadn't been (not/be) for Louis, Joan (1)................................... (never/survive) her trip to Paris last month. She (2) ................... (not/meet) him before, but she (3) ......................... (be) certainly glad that she had by the end of her stay. The first thing that (4) ......................... (happen) was that the hotel where she (5) ........................... 6
(plan) to stay (6) ................... (not/receive) her booking, so they had no room for her. Then, as she (7) ..................... (try) to get a taxi to take her to another hotel, someone on a motorbike (8) ........................ (snatch) her bag with all her tickets and credit cards in it. As her French (9) ................. (be) quite rusty, she (10) ....................... (not/know) how to explain what (11) ............................. (happen). It was then that Louis (12) ............................. (approach) her and (13) ................................ (introduce) himself. A student of mine (14) …………………. (talk/ forever) in class, many a time she (15) ……………… (expel) from class. Her mother (16) ……………….. ( go) abroad last month, so it (17) ………………. . (not be) her you saw at the theatre last Sunday How about your job in the new city? – It’s alright, but I’d rather (18) ……………..for the job in your company. The car broke down, but for that, we (19) ……………….. (be) on time. His (20) ……………………..( take) ill suddenly last night took me by surprise. Your answer: 1 6 11 16 2 7 12 17 3 8 13 18 4 9 14 19 5 10 15 20
Question 5. Complete the text by writing a correct form of the word in CAPITALS . (0) has been done as an example. (5 pts) IS IT WORTH IT? It is (0) …… ……… believed that a break from everyday COMMON routine can only do you good. Every summer, you can spot prospective (1) ………………….. at airports and waiting for car HOLDAY ferries. They are (2) …………………… - you can tell them a mile MISTAKE away by their sun hats and hopeful expressions. For all their optimism, what often actually happens can be a rude (3) ……………………. from the blissful holiday dreams of the rest WAKE of the year. Sunburn, mosquitoes and (4) …………………….. FORESEE expenses can make you think twice about how (5) ……………….. BENEFIT getting away from it all really is. The fact is, the (6) ………………… of something going wrong LIKELY 7
is maximized when you are abroad and, (7) ………………….., your FORTUNE ability to deal with crisis and catastrophe is often minimized. This could be because of language problems, (8) ………………….. with FAMILIAR the culture, or simply a different climate, all of which make everything seem different and unreal. So, what is the answer? (9) …………………., an annual DOUBT escape from normal working life is a very positive thing. However, the (10) …………………. of seeking an exotic location is questionable WISE when you think of all the things that can go wrong. Your answer: 0. ………… commonly ………….. 1. ………………………………….… 6. …………………………………….. 2. ……………………………………. 7. …………………………………….. 3. …………………………………….. 8. …………………………………….. 4. …………………………………….. 9. …………………………………….. 5. …………………………………….. 10. ….……………………………….. PART 4: READING (25 pts) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) that best fits each gap. (0) has been done as an example. (7.5 pts) SMILE POWER The exprssion on your face can actually dramatically (0)………………. your feelings and perceptions, and it has been proven that (1) …………………..smiling or frowning can create corresponding emotional responses. The idea was first (2) ……………by a French physiologist, Israel Waynbaum, in 1906. He believed that different facial (3) ………………. affected the flow of blood to the brain, and that this could create positive or negative feelings. A happy smile or irrepressible (4) ……………….. increased the bood flow and contributed to joyful feelings. But sad, angry expressions decreased the flow of oxygen-carrying blood, and created a vicious (5) …………………. of gloom and depression by effectively (6) …………………. the brain of essential fuel. Psychologist Robert Zajonc rediscovered this early (7) ……………….., and (8) ……………… that the temperature of the brain could affect the production and synthesis of neurotransmitters – which definitely influence our moods and energy levels. He agues that an impaired blood flow could not (9) ………………………. deprive the brain of 8
oxygen, but create further chemical imbalance (10) …………………….. inhibiting these vital hormon messages. Zajonc goes on to propose that our brains remember that smiling is associated with being happy, and that by deliberately smiling through your tears you can (11) …………………. your brain to release uplifting neurotransmitters – replacing a depressed condition (12) …………………. a happier one. People suffering from psychosomatic (13) …………………., depression and anxiety states could (14) ………………….. from simply exercising their zygomatic (15) ………………….- which pull the corners of the mouth up and back to form a smile – several times an hour. 0 A. Effect 1 A. desperately 2 A. put off 3 A. aspects 4 A. laughter 5 A. Cycle 6 A cutting 7 A. Result 8 A. advises 9 A. Even 10 A. By 11 A. Make 12 A. through 13 A. disease 14 A. recover 15 A. muscles Your answer: 0 B
1
2
3
B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B. B.
4
C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C. C.
alter determinedly put down looks sadness spiral starving subject wants Only without persuade By illness improve nerves
5
6
7
8
arrange deliberately put by expressions humour circle removing research demands ever when allow after infection benefit veins
9
10
11
D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D. D.
12
reduce decidedly put forward appearances depression vortex eliminating experiment suggests always from decide with ailment progress bones
13
14
15
Question 2. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (0) has been done as an example. (7.5 pts) THAT’S ENTERTAINMENT There has been a significant shift (0) …………in……………..entertainment trends over the last twenty years or so. Entertainment used to be public; now it is becoming more 9
and (1) ……………………….. private. Formerly, people wanting to amuse themselves did so in groups; these (2) ……………………….., people increasingly entertain themselves on (3) ……………………….. own. Long, long (4) ……………………….., there were storytellers. They used to travel around the country and their arrival was awaited (5) ……………………….. eager anticipation. In the more recent (6) ……………………….., people used to have musical evening, they used to play games (7) ……………………….. or simply sit around the fire and chat. Nowadays, (8) ……………………….. of playing board gmes in a group, children play video games alone or with one other person. People of all (9) ……………………….. spend their evenings alone watching television, videos and DVDs. And large numbers of young (and not (10) ……………………….. young ) enthusiasts spend their free time surfing the net, (11) ……………………….., by its very nature, tend to be a solitary activity. Forms of entertainment have always been changing, of course, but (12) ……………………….. could be said that these recent changes – all products (13) ………………………..technological development - mark a more fundamental shift. One could further argue that this shift is symbolized by the earphones that (14) ……………………….. in evidence everywhere. Can this deliberate attempt to shut out the rest of the world really be (15) ……………………….. entertainment?
Question 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answers to the questions that follow. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the space provided below: (5 pts) COMMUNICATING WITH THE FUTURE In the 1980s the United States Department of Energy was looking for suitable sites to bury radioactive waste material generated by its nuclear energy programs. The government was considering burying the dangerous wastes in deep underground chambers in remote desert areas. The problem, however, was that nuclear waste remains highly radioactive for thousands of years. The commission entrusted with tackling the problem of waste disposal was aware that the dangers posed by radioactive emissions must be communicated to our descendants of at least 10,000 years hence. So the task became one of finding a way to tell future societies about the risk posed by these deadly deposits. 10
Of course, human society in the distant future may be well aware of the hazards of radiation. Technological advances may one day provide the solutions to this dilemma. But the belief in constant technological advancement is based on our perceptions of advances made throughout history and prehistory. We cannot be sure that society won’t have slipped backward into an age of barbarism due to any of several catastrophic events, whether the result of nature such as the onset of a new ice age or perhaps mankind’s failure to solve the scourges of war and pollution. In the event of global catastrophe, it is quite possible that humans of the distant future will be on the far side of a broken link of communication and technological understanding. The problem then becomes how to inform our descendants that they must avoid areas of potential radioactive seepage given that they may not understand any currently existing language and may have no historical or cultural memory. So, any message indicated to future reception and decipherment must be as universally understandable as possible. It was soon realized by the specialists assigned the task of devising the communication system that material in which the message was written might not physically endure the great lengths of time demanded. The second law of thermodynamics shows that all material disintegrates over time. Even computers that might carry the message cannot be expected to endure long enough. Besides, electricity supplies might not be available in 300 generations. Other media storage methods were considered and rejected for similar reasons. The task force under the linguist Thomas Sebeok finally agreed that no foolproof way would be found to send a message across so many generations and have it survive physically and be decipherable by a people with few cultural similarities to us. Given this restriction, Sebeok suggested the only possible solution was the formation of a committee of guardians of knowledge. Its task would be to dedicate itself to maintaining and passing the knowledge of the whereabouts and dangers of the nuclear waste deposits. This socalled atomic priesthood would be entrusted with keeping knowledge of this tradition alive through millennia and developing the tradition into a kind of mythical taboo forbidding people to tamper in a way with the nuclear waste sites. Only the initiated atomic priesthood of experts would have the scientific knowledge to fully understand the danger. Those outside the priesthood would be kept away by a combination of rituals and legends designed to warn off intruders. 11
This proposal has been criticized because of the possibility of a break in continuity of the original message. Furthermore, there is no guarantee that any warning or sanction passed on for millennia would be obeyed, nor that it could survive with its original meaning intact. To counterbalance this possibility, Sebeok’s group proposed a “relay system” in which information is passed on over relatively short periods of time, just three generations ahead. The message then to be renewed and redesigned if necessary for the following three generations and so on over the required time span. In this way information could be relayed into the future and avoid the possibility of physical degradation. A second defect is more difficult to dismiss, however. This is the problem of social exclusiveness brought about through possession of vital knowledge. Critics point out that the atomic priesthood could use its secret knowledge to control those who are scientifically ignorant. The establishment of such an association of insiders holding powerful knowledge not available except in mythic form to nonmembers would be a dangerous precedent for future social developments. 1. The word "chambers" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. partitions B. openings C. cavities D. fissures 2. What problem faced the commission assigned to deal with the burial of nuclear waste? A. How to reduce the radioactive life of nuclear waste materials B. How to form a committee that could adequately express various nuclear risks C. How to notify future generations of the risks of nuclear contamination D. How to choose burial sites so as to minimize dangers to people. 3. In paragraph 2, the author explains the possible circumstances of future societies A. to warn about the possible natural catastrophe B. to question the value of advances C. to highlight humankind's inability to resolve problems D. to demonstrate the reason nuclear hazards must be communicated 4. The word "scourges" in the passage is closest in meaning to A. pressures B. afflictions C. worries D. annoyances 5. In paragraph 4, the author mentions the second law of thermodynamics A. to support the view that nuclear waste will disperse with time B. to show that knowledge can be sustained over millennia C. to give the basic scientific reason behind the breakdown of material objects D. to contrast the potential life span of knowledge with that of material objects 6. The word "Its" in the passage refers to A. knowledge B. committee C. solution D. guardians 12
7. In paragraph 5, why is the proposed committee of guardians referred to as the "atomic priesthood"? A. Because they would be an exclusive group with knowledge about nuclear waste sites. B. Because they would use rituals and legends to maintain their exclusiveness C. Because they would be an exclusive religious order D. Because they would develop mythical taboos surrounding their traditions 8. According to the author, why did the task force under Sebeok propose a relay system for passing on information? A. To show that Sebeok 's ideas created more problems than they solved B. To support the belief that breaks in communication are inevitable over time C. To contrast Sebeok's ideas with those proposed by his main critics D. To compensate for the fact that meaning will not stable over long periods of time 9. According to paragraph 7, the second defect of the atomic priesthood proposal is that it could lead to A. the nonmembers turning knowledge into dangerous mythical forms B. the possible misuse of exclusive knowledge C. the establishment of a scientifically ignorant society D. the priesthood's criticism of points concerning vital knowledge 10. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as difficulties in devising a communication system with the future EXCEPT A. the failure to maintain communication link B. the loss of knowledge about today's civilization C. the inability of materials to endure over time D. the exclusiveness of priesthood Your answer: 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Question 4. Read the passage carefully and do the exercise below. (5 pts) THE CALL OF NATURE One of the most popular characters in Dr. Who, a British television science-fiction series, was a robotic dog called K9. On June 1st science fiction became fact when Sony launched its latest product, Ambo. Described as “a one-of-a-kind artificially intelligent 13
pal”, Aibo is a dog that never needs to be walked, fed or washed. Nor does it make a mess or get into fights with other dogs. It has stereo microphones for ears, can recognize colours and shapes, and emits a variety of bleeps and chirps. A sensor in its head can distinguish between an amiable pat and a reproachful slap. And the pause button on his chest means it can be switched off and left in a cupboard when you go on holiday. A good joke, and a profitable one (the first batch of 3,000 machines, priced at just over $2,000 each, sold out within 20 minutes). But behind the marketing spiel about Aibo’s autonomous behavior patterns, simulated emotions and instincts, “lovable shape” and “four highly expensive legs”, lurks a serious point. Aibo is merely the latest example of a robot inspired by biology. This makes sense. Millions of years of evolution have already solved difficult design problems in locomotion, manipulation, sensing and navigation in almost every environment in which a robot might conceivably need to operate. Accordingly, a menagerie of “biomorphic” robots can now be found scuttling, squirming and swimming in laboratories all round the world. For instance, several separate efforts are now under way to build robotic fish that could be used to locate mines or take environmental readings. Understanding how fish manage to swim so quickly but expend so little energy could also lead to new propulsion systems for ships and submarines. This may explain why Mitsubitshi Heavy Industries, a Japanese company whose activities include shipbuilding, has spent four years and $1m building an incredibly lifelike robotic sea bream. (The company now plans to move on to recreating extinct fish for display in museums.). Similarly inspired robotic pike and tuna have been built at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. But a robot does not have to look like an animal to borrow useful ideas from the animal kingdom. Mark Tilden and his colleagues at Los Alamos National Laboratory in New Mexico, who have been building animal-like robots for years, have now applied their knowledge to create a system that will operate in one of the environments that natural selection has not yet managed to penetrate – outer space. Their latest robot is designed to keep satellites on station. Dr. Tilden is concerned not so much with what animals look like as with how their nervous systems work. As every schoolboy discovers, pulling some of the legs off a spider does not stop it walking. Its nervous circuitry can adjust to such injuries. That is because, unlike most modern computers (including those that control Aibo), much of that circuitry is analogue rather than digital. In a digital computer, information is sent around as discrete bits and bytes. If a critical bit goes missing, and the programme has not been prepared in advance for the possibility 14
of such a loss, it breaks down. With analogue circuitry, however, there is no such thing as an independent, critical piece of data – everything is coupled together as one continuous flow of current. If some information goes missing ( for example, because a schoolboy has amputated a leg), the output will change – but it could still be meaningful. Dr. Tilden’s robots use cheap and basic electronic components such as transistors, resistors, capacitors, rather than fancy microelectronic silicon chips. Yet their behavior is so lifelike that they can sometimes “spook” those afraid of real spiders. These robots, like Aibo, are toys. But a satellite-navigation system is a serious, practical application. Dr. Tilden’s design for such a system is being tested in an experimental Swedish satellite called Hugin. Its task is to keep Hugin’s electricitygenerating solar panels pointed at the sun. It has a dozen light-sensors, each connected to a circuit whose natural oscillation is modulated by the strength of the incoming illumination. Those circuits, in turn, control the satellite’s attitude jets. If the satellite moves off station, the amount of light falling on the sensors will change, and its analogue circuitry will tell the jets how much to fire to bring it round to face the correct way. It may not be as photogenic as a robot dog, but it is certainly a lot more useful. Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the reading passage . The Japanese company Sony has launched its latest product, a robotic dog, on the market. The robotic dog is advertised to have (1)……………….. behaviour patterns and (2)………………. feelings. In fact, the robotic dog was designed under the inspiration of (3)……………… rather than technology. For example, finding why fish moves so quickly with so little energy consumed will help produce (4)………………… for submarines. That is why Mitsubitshi Heavy Industries has been building a robotic sea bream and MIT has already produced robotic pike. Knowledge of (5)……………………has also been used in creating a system operating in (6)………………………. In designing such a system, what scientists are most (7)…………. is not what animals look like, but how (8)……………. work, because if computers have analogue circuitry rather than digital one, computers will not (9)…………………. if a critical piece of information goes missing A satellite-navigation system is now (10)…………………….. in a Swedish satellite. It may not be as pleasant-looking but it will be more useful than a robotic dog. Your answer: 1. 4. 7. 2. 5. 8. 3. 6. 9. 15
10. PART 5: WRITING (30 pts) Question 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence using the words given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (5 pts) 1. She vividly described the expedition and that made it seem exciting. LIFE The thing .................................................................... was her vivid description. 2. Please don't tell anyone about this for the time being. SOONER I .................................................................... let anyone know about this for the time being. 3. Elaine is very bright so she won't have been taken in, whatever they said. UPTAKE Elaine is very .................................................................... so she won't have been taken in, whatever they said. 4. My new job is much more satisfying than any job I've ever had. AWAY My new job is .................................................................... one I've ever had. 5. I couldn't stop thinking about the exam despite playing backgammon with Paul. MIND playing backgammon with Paul .................................................................... the exam. 6. Bill changed his ways when he came out of prison. LEAF Bill .................................................................... since he came out of prison. 7. We honestly all found it almost impossible not to laugh when we saw Josh's new haircut. FACE Honestly, .................................................................... almost impossible when we saw Josh's new haircut. 8. Don't let her give in however hard they try to persuade her. GUNS Make sure she .................................................................... however hard they try to persuade her. 9. It was a bad idea to turn up unexpectedly without calling first. BLUE You should .................................................................... without calling first. 10. The phone bill was so expensive that Dave was furious. ARMS Dave was .................................................................... an expensive phone bill. \Question 2: Graph description. (10 pts)
16
The bar graph below shows the amount of carbon emissions in different countries during three different years. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.(150 – 200 words)
…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… 17
…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… Question 3: Essay writing. (15 pts) Some people believe that it is better to have children when couples are young and are physically equipped to raise them, while others believe that parenting requires maturity and the solid financial foundation that often comes later in life. Write an essay (250 – 300 words) to express your opinion on the topic. …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… 18
…………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………… ----- The End -----
SỞ GD&ĐT QUẢNG NAM KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ NĂM 2014 NGUYỄN BỈNH KHIÊM ĐỀ THI ĐỀ NGHỊ MÔN: TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 11 ( Thời gian: 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
PART I. LISTENING (15 points) Part 1: You will hear an interview with a robot scientist. For questions 1-5, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D). 1B
2A
3C
4B
5C
Part 2: You will hear a man talking on the radio about Welsh speakers in Patagonia, Argentina. For questions 6-15, which summarize what he says. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each space provided. 6. tea house 7. several hundred 8. isolated 9. farmers 10. (local) Indians 11. beautiful valley 12. song and dance 13. (groups of) teachers 14. (Welsh) flags 15. chocolate cake PART 2: PHONETICS. (5 pts) Question 1. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different that of the others.(2.5 pts) 1C 2A 3B 4B 5D 19
Question 2. Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced from that of the others. (2.5 pts) 1A 2A 3B 4D 5B PART 3: VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURES.(25 pts) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) which best completes each sentence. (5 pts) Your answer: 1C 2C 3D 4A 5A 6B 7A 8B 9A 10C 11A 12A 13C 14D 15C 16D 17B 18A 19D 20B Question 2. There are 10 mistakes in the passage below. Find out the mistakes and write the correct forms. (O) has been done as an exampe. (5 pts) Line Mistake Correction Line Mistake Correction 0 12 rich richly pressed pressing 1 serious seriously 13 most least 5 on over 14 anywhere nowhere 6 becoming becomes 18 reversible irreversible 7 involving involved 20 establish re-establish 8 later latter Question 3. Fill in each blanks with the correct preposition(s)/ particle(s). (5 pts) 1.back from 5.up with 9.on 13.on 17.with 2.in on 6.out of 10.in 14.up 18.about 3.off 7.on 11.on 15.on 19.in/into 4.off with 8.in 12.in 16.in 20.over Question 4. Put the verbs in the brackets into the correct Form/ Tense. (5 pts) 1.would never have 6.had not received 11.had happened 16.went survived 2.hadn’t met 7.tried 12.approached 17.can’t/ couldn’t have been 3.was 8.snatched 13.introduced 18.have applied 4.happened 9.was 14.is forever talking 19.would have been 5.had planned 10.didn’t know 15.has been 20. being taken 20
expelled Question 5. Complete the text by writing a correct form of the word in CAPITALS . (0) has been done as an example. (5 pts) IS IT WORTH IT? 1. holidaymakers 6. likelihood 2. unmistakable 7. unfortunately 3. awakening 8. unfamiliarity 4. unforeseeable/unforeseen 9. Undoubtedly/ doubtless 5. beneficial 10. wisdom PART 4: READING (25 pts) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B , C or D) that best fits each gap. (7.5 pts) SMILE POWER 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 B C D C A C B C D B A B Question 2. Fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (7.5 pts)
12 D
13 B
14 C
15 A
THAT’S ENTERTAINMENT 1. more 6. past 11.which 2. days 7. together 12.it 3. their 8. instead 13.of 4. ago 9. ages 14. are 5. with 10.so 15. called Question 3: Read the following passage and choose the correct answers to the questions that follow. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the space provided below: (5 pts) 1 C
2 C
3 D
4 B
5 C
6 B
7 A
8 D
9 B
10 D
Question 4. Read the passage carefully and complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the reading passage . (5 pts) Your answer: 1. autonomous 4. new propulsion systems 7. concerned with 21
2. simulated 3. biology
5. the animal kingdom 6. outer space
8. their nervous systems 9. break down 10. being tested
Part 5 : WRITING Question 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence using the words given. Do not change the word given. You must use BETWEEN THREE AND EIGHT WORDS, including the word given. 1. that brings the expedition to life 2. would sooner you didn't 3. quick on the uptake 4. Far and away the most satisfying 5. didn't / failed to take my mind off 6. has turned over a new leaf 7. keeping a straight face was 8 .sticks to her guns 9. not have turned up out of the blue 10. up in arms about such Question 2: Graph Description (150 -200 words)(10 pts) Điểm tối đa của từng phần như sau: -
Completion:1 Content: 5 Organization: 2 Coherence: 1 Vocabulary, Structure, Length:1
Question 3: Writing an essay (250 -300 words).(15 pts) Điểm tối đa của từng phần như sau: -
Completion:2 Idea: 6 Organization: 2 Coherence: 2 Vocabulary, Structure:2 22
- Length:1 ----- The End -----
23
TAPESCRIPTS OF PART 1 P = Fmeal presenter
K = Kelth Wells
P: My guest today is robot scientist Keith Wells. Keith's company, ELA Robotics, hit the news last year with their Home Help robot, the first of Us kind to lie able io perform more ihan one domestic task. Whai are you working on now, Keith? K: I can't really tell you that. I'm afraid. It's not that I don’t want to, it's just that we’ve all been given our Instructions and signed an agreement not to give anything away until it actually comes onto the market. I don't quite know when that will be, but probably some time early next year. P: OK, well we’ll look forward to that. In the mean time, perhaps you could tell us what you think are the most important applications of robots in our lives. Why are they useful? K: Well, they help us to do what we call 'the 3 Ds". That's anything which is dull, dirty or dangerous. They can be used in the home or in the car manufacturing industry, to do dull or monotonous work; they're used for doing dirty jobs like mining or cleaning toxic waste; and then they have applications in the military or in the dangerous business of space travel. Of course, that's not an exhaustive list, hul it gives you an idea of the range of different uses they have - and also of the variety involved in my line of work. P: Yes, indeed. Let's talk if we may aboul one area in particular, though, the more humanoid robots, the ones with a recognizable human form. What are the lalest developments there? K: Yes, the ones being built now are able to see, hear, touch and even smell and taste. In the future they should also be able to display a range of emotions. They might feel happy for example that they have carried out a domestic task particularly well, or sad and guilty because they haven't. That way they will have a season to go on doing the same task in the future, either to match their last performance or 10 improve on it. A robot with emotions is a robot with goals, P: Amazing, But isn't all this a little bit worrying - robots with emotions? Isn't there a danger of science fiction becoming science fact, with robots taking over? K: Yes. unfortunately, robots do get rather a bad press sometimes, don't they? Particularly in films and video games where they're either objects of humour and ridicule which we laugh at or else they're menacing characters which threaten to destroy the whole human race. But no, there is actually an ethical code which sets out what we can and can't do in robot design - and one thing we won't do is allow ourselves to lose control over our creations. P: Don't you think, though, that robots will make us lazy, that well no longer want to do anything that jequires any effort?
24
K: I think the car's already done I hat lo us. It's made us physically very lazy. We don't walk so much as we used to and our bodies have suffered as a result, I think robots could well have the same effect on our brains. If we let intelligent robots do all of our thinking for us, there is a danger we won't be able to make any of our own decisions, that well become mentally lazy. And that, I think, is just as worrying. P: Do you really think that the day will come when most homes have their own robot? K: If you think back to just twenty-five years ago, few of us then would have predicted that we'd soon have a personal computer in our home, be logging onto the Internet and downloading hundreds of songs onto a thing called an MP3 player. So why shouldn'1 we all have robots? The truth is that we've been talking about robots for nearly a century and their development hasn't been quite as fast as we thought it would be, but now with advanced computer technology available, that should all change very soon. P: How soon? K: Well, it's changing already. The first humanoid robots at the end of the 1990s could do very little, then later models learnt lo sit down and stand up, then talk, walk around, dance and so on. It's rather like watching a child grow. Through television and other media, the public is slowly growing accustomed to the idea of robots as a reality, and when they eventually become widely available, people will be ready for them. P: Thank you, Keith, It's been fascinating having you on the programme.
TAPESCRIPTS OF PART 2 Argentina is a country known internationally for the tango, gaucho cowboys and premium quality beef. To many people, therefore, it comes as some surprise to discover that in certain parts of Patagonia, in the south of the country, one of the 'musts' for any tourist is a visit to a Welsh tea house, a place where you can sip tea and enjoy delicious cakes, baked according to traditional Welsh recipes. Perhaps even more surprising, though, is the fact that some of the locals can actually be heard speaking in Welsh. Exactly how many native Welsh speakers there are in the region is not known, but most estimates put the figure at several hundred, a relatively high number, given that there are just under 600,000 speakers of the language in Wales itself. But how did these Welsh speakers come to be there? The first wave of settlers arrived from Wales in 1865. Unhappy with conditions at home, they were looking for an isolated area to set up a colony, a place where their language and identity would be preserved intact and not assimilated into the dominant culture, as had already happened in the United States. The 153 colonists who landed on the cast coast of Argentina included carpenters, tailors and miners, but no real doctors and just one or two farmers. This was rather worrying, since the Chubut valley where they settled was virtually a desert, and what they needed most of all were agricultural skills. Against all the odds, though, they survived, overcoming droughts, floods and a succession of crop failures. They were also quick to establish friendly relations with the local Indians, who helped the Welsh through the hard times and taught them some of their ways, how to ride and how to hunt. Twenty years 25
after their arrival, some of the settlers moved up into a green fertile region of the Andes mountains, an area which they named Cwm Hyfryd, meaning 'beautiful valley'. Indeed, quite a number of places in Patagonia still bear Welsh names: Bryn Gwyn which means 'white hill', Trevelin, meaning 'milltown' and Trelew or'Lewistown', named after Lewis Jones, one of the founders. The Welsh have left their mark in other ways, too. Their windmills aud chapels can be found throughout the region and there are a number of cultural activities, such as poetry readings, male voice choirs and the annual Welsh song and dance festival, a smaller version of the International Eisteddfod held in Wales each year. All of this helps to keep the language and traditions alive in a small corner of the world, 8,000 miles from the homeland. And so too does the fact that every year, as part of a programme administered by the National Assembly for Wales, groups of teachers come to Patagonia to teach the language to the growing number of people who are interested in learning it. And then, of coursc, there are the Welsh teas. For my afternoon treat, I visit Nain Ceri reputed to be one of the best tea houses in Gaiman, where the streets and houses are adorned with Welsh flags, a reminder to visitors that they are in the self-proclaimed Patagonian-Welsh capital of Chubut. Inside, Main Ceri is decorated with prints and paintings of Wales and the music playing is that of a traditional all-male choir. I sit next to the fireplace and my mouth begins to water as I look at the various cakes on offer. I am about to order the cream- topped apple pie to accompany my tea, when I catch sight of an irresistible-looking chocolate cake and choose that instead. I am not disappointed - it is absolutely delicious, Afterwards, I chat at length to the owner, Ceri Morgan - in Spanish, as she speaks no English and I speak no Welsh. She tells me a little more about the history of ...
26
SỞ GD&ĐT BẮC NINH TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BẮC NINH Tổ: Ngoại ngữ ĐỀ ĐỀ NGHỊ -------------------
KỲ THI OLYMPIC KHU VỰC DH-ĐBBB Lần thứ VII- Năm học: 2013 - 2014 ĐỀ THI: MÔN TIẾNG ANH, LỚP 11 (Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút)
PART I: LISTENING (15 pts) Questions 1: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two Customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions.(5p) 1D 2C 3C 4D 5A Tape scripts: Agent: Good morning. Can I help you? Customer 1: Yes, good morning. We’d like to book a holiday for July, please. Agent: Certainly. Where did you have in mind? Customer 1: Oh, well, we haven’t thought a lot about it, really. We’d just like to go somewhere hot, you know, and it must be in July. Agent: I see. Well, let’s get the dates cleared up first, then we can see about availability. What part of July were you thinking of? Customer 2: Oh, well, you see, we have slightly different holidays. I’ve got the whole month except for the last five days, I could go from the first to the twenty-sixth, but my friend here doesn’t start until the seventh, so I suppose it will have to be the middle two weeks really. Customer 1: Yes, but I’ve got to be back before the twenty-third. Agent: OK. Now, let’s find a destination. Any preferences … France … Italy …? Customer 1: Oh, not France. We went there last year and it was absolutely packed with teenagers making noise and getting drunk all the time. Customer 2: Yes, it was terrible. We definitely want somewhere quieter this year. Agent: Well, of course it depends more on the resort rather than the country. There are resorts in every country which cater for the family or the slightly older person. They are usually a shade more expensive, though, as you might expect … Customer 1: Oh, well, we don’t mind paying a bit more if it means more peace and quiet, do we? Customer 2: Definitely not. It’ll be well worth it. Agent: All right. Let’s have a look at what we’ve got on the computer. … July … was it ten or fourteen nights you wanted? Customer 1: Oh, the fortnight, please. Agent: Right. Well, let’s start with Italy. Umm, we’ve got fourteen nights bed and breakfast in Sorrento for three hundred and forty-five pounds, from Manchester, on the fourteenth, or, we’ve got … Customer 1: No, wait a minute, that’s no good for me. We wouldn’t get back till twenty-eighth, and I’ve got to be back at work before that. Agent: Oh, yes, Umm … How about Sweden, two weeks, half-board … Customer 2: How much would that be? Agent: That would be five hundred and forty pounds, from Manchester again. Customer 1: Well, five hundred and forty … er … that seems too much. Page 1/5
Agent: Well, madam, there’s a surcharge for the airport, and it is a five-star hotel. Customer 2: Oh, well, it’s a bit over our budget, really … Agent: All right. Let’s try somewhere else. How about Portugal? … Questions 2: You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill in missing words and indicate whether the following statements are true or not. (10p) 1. accident 2. avoid 3. changing 4. slow down 5. police car 6.F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. ? Tape scripts: Richard: Hi, Linda, did you have a nice holiday? Linda: Yes, I went to visit my aunt Cathy in Chase Village for a week. Richard: Oh, you went to Chase Village? I know the place. My sister lives there. How is the traffic there? Linda: Not too bad. Why do you ask about the traffic? Richard: You know, I went to the traffic 3 years ago. There was a lot of traffic in Chase Village. People drove too fast. I had a very serious accident on Newland Street. I was afraid to drive there, so I always try to avoid that road when I visit my sister. Linda: Things are changing no. You know, people put on their brakes and slow down on New Land Street because they can see a police car there with a police officer in it. Richard: Oh, it’s good to have a policeman there because there were many accidents that happened on that road. But the police officer wouldn’t be there all the time, so some people wouldn’t be too careful about the police. Sometimes they just took a risk. Linda: You know, the police officer has been working on that road 24 hours a day, seven days a week for a bout two and a half years now. Richard: Oh, how can a policeman do this without any break? Linda: No break at all. Richard: How much does he get paid for the overtime work? Linda: In fact, he doesn’t get any pay at all. Richard: What is his name? He must be a volunteer there but I can’t believe it. Linda: His name is Officer Springirth. The police department put him to work there. Richard: What do you mean? Why did police department put him to work there? Linda: In fact, he isn’t a real man. He is a mannequin. Before he was put there, people broke into 16 cars in two months in the village. When the police department put Officer Springirth on that road there were no more break-ins in that area. Richard: I’m glad to hear it. I think the police department should put more mannequins on other roads which often cause accidents. Linda: It’s a good idea. You know, the crime rate in Chase Village is very low compared to the neighbouring village. Richard: So, the most important effect Officer Springirth has is reducing the crime rate. Linda: Exactly. Richard: I will go to visit my sister next month so I will try that road again. Linda: Yes, please do. You will see the changes. PART II: PHONETICS (5p) Page 2/5
Questions 1: Choose one word marked A, B, C or D whose stress pattern is different from the others in each groups. (2.5p) 1A 2D 3D 4A 5B 1. A. monetary B. paralysis C. protagonist D. analogous 2. A. tuberculosis B. mathematician C. communication D. inheritance 3. A. magnificent B. memorial C. tobacconist D. humanism 4. A. trigonometry B. explanatory C. immediately D. democracy 5. A. confer B. offer C. prefer D. deter Questions 2: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (2.5p) 1. A 2.D 3. A 4. C 5.B 1. A. months B. mouths C. wreaths D. youths 2. A. substitute B. muddled C. shutter D. substantial 3. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival 4. A. equation B. television C. mention D. decision 5. A. microscope B. microscopic C. atrocious D. cone PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts) Question 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5 p) 1D 2B 3D 4D 5D 6B 7C 8A 9B 10D 11C 12D 13C 14B 15D 16A 17A 18B 19B 20C Question 2: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them (5 pt) 1. include --> includes 2. strict --> strictly 3. that --> which 4. receiving --> received 5. masses --> mass 6. so --> such 7. leaf --> leaves 8. a few --> few 9. depends --> depending 10. and --> or Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anticyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, that occurs mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause of whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation receiving by the earth, which produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, so as dust, sand, and leaf. Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from few meters to several hundred meters and, depends on their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds and last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move slowly with the prevailing winds. Question 3: Complete each space with a suitable particle or preposition (5 pt) 1. of 6. with 11. by 16. in 2. in 7. in 12. in 17. of 3. on 8. from 13. to 18. without 4. on 9. through 14. onto 19. by Page 3/5
5. at
10. in
15. after
20. from
Question 4: Give the correct form/ tense of the verb given below (5 pts) A. 1. Lives 2. Lived/was living 3. Wrote 4. Invited 6. Wonder 7. Have also had 8. Applied 9. Was B. 1. should have rung 5. is going 6. has told 10.was/have been given
2. have worked 7. Leaves
3. haven’t had 8. hadn’t been given
5. Have had 10. have
4. to have 9. would come
Question 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (5p) Example: 0. existence 1. Characteristic 2. Recognizable 5. extraordinary 6. Rigidity 9. surrounding 10. increasingly
3. Unceremoniously 7. Zealous
4. independent 8. conservative
Question 6: Fill in each blank in the passage with the most suitable linking word given in the box. (5p) (1.) therefore (2.) Although (3.) Secondly (4.) However (5.) In addition (6.) Furthermore (7.) not only (8.) but (9.) In general (10.) even though PART IV: READING (25P) Question 1: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to each of the questions. (7.5p) 1B 2A 3B 4D 5A 6A 7B 8A 9B 10D 11A 12D 13D 14B 15D Question 1: A. fact B. return C. exchange D. short Question 2: A. engineers B. workers C. electrician D. trainers Question 3: A. under B. performed C. hold D. accepted Question 4: A. demonstrate B. tell C. indicate D. govern Question 5: A. long B. far C. often D. good Question 6: A. waste B. wasting C. spend D. spending Question 7: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically Question 8: A. averse B. brave C. impolite D. intimate Question 9: A. encouraging B. correcting C. scolding D. criticizing Question 10: A. reason B. target C. task D. object Question 11: A. most B. best C. bad D. good Question 12: A. interest B. pleasure C. passion D. pride Question 13: A. The other B. An other C. Ones D. Others Question 14: A. rest B. relax C. restrain D. relieve Question 15: A. trainees B. interviewees C. employers D. employees Question 2: Fill in the blank with a suitable word. Use only one word in each space. (7.5p). Page 4/5
1. odds 9. tend
2. concerned 3. long 4. play 10. rise 11. puts 12. sexes
5. its 6. another 7. par 8. reverse 13. on 14. neither 15. term
Question 3: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following questions or statements (10 pts) 1A 2A 3C 4A 5C 6D 7B 8A 9A 10C Question 4: From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph in the passage and choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to complete the sentences. (10 pts) 1. ii 2. vi 3. iv 7. a 100 years 4. i 5. ix 6. v 8. mentally confused 9. (well-developed) language 10. an IQ test PART V: WRITING (30 PTS) A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (2.5 points) 1. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss. 2. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are. 3. It doesn’t take much time for Jack to lose his temper. 4. Thought must be given to ways of improving the transport system. 5. Jane must have been at work today. B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in CAPITALS, and so that the meaning stays the same. (2.5 points) 1. David was instrumental in drafting the proposal. 2. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked. 3. She passed her final exams with flying colors. 4. His name doesn’t ring a bell with me at all. 5. Theories about the causes of bird flu have changed in the light of recent research Question 2: Study the chart that shows the participation in social work by men and women of the country of Fancy from 1992 to 2000 and write a report of about 150 words describing their contribution (10 pt). Question 3: Essay writing (15 p) Teenagers can make their own decisions; older people do not need to make decisions for them. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should write at least 250 words. You are recommended to spend approximately 40 minutes on this task. Marking scheme The impression mark given to each of parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme: Page 5/5
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Page 6/5
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT HSG TIẾNG ANH 11 (DHBB) LẦN THỨ VIII (2013-2014) Trường THPT Chuyên Bắc Ninh PART I: LISTENING (15 pts) Questions 1: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two Customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions.(5p) 1D 2C 3C 4D 5A Tape scripts: Agent: Good morning. Can I help you? Customer 1: Yes, good morning. We’d like to book a holiday for July, please. Agent: Certainly. Where did you have in mind? Customer 1: Oh, well, we haven’t thought a lot about it, really. We’d just like to go somewhere hot, you know, and it must be in July. Agent: I see. Well, let’s get the dates cleared up first, then we can see about availability. What part of July were you thinking of? Customer 2: Oh, well, you see, we have slightly different holidays. I’ve got the whole month except for the last five days, I could go from the first to the twenty-sixth, but my friend here doesn’t start until the seventh, so I suppose it will have to be the middle two weeks really. Customer 1: Yes, but I’ve got to be back before the twenty-third. Agent: OK. Now, let’s find a destination. Any preferences … France … Italy …? Customer 1: Oh, not France. We went there last year and it was absolutely packed with teenagers making noise and getting drunk all the time. Customer 2: Yes, it was terrible. We definitely want somewhere quieter this year. Agent: Well, of course it depends more on the resort rather than the country. There are resorts in every country which cater for the family or the slightly older person. They are usually a shade more expensive, though, as you might expect … Customer 1: Oh, well, we don’t mind paying a bit more if it means more peace and quiet, do we? Customer 2: Definitely not. It’ll be well worth it. Agent: All right. Let’s have a look at what we’ve got on the computer. … July … was it ten or fourteen nights you wanted? Customer 1: Oh, the fortnight, please. Agent: Right. Well, let’s start with Italy. Umm, we’ve got fourteen nights bed and breakfast in Sorrento for three hundred and forty-five pounds, from Manchester, on the fourteenth, or, we’ve got … Customer 1: No, wait a minute, that’s no good for me. We wouldn’t get back till twenty-eighth, and I’ve got to be back at work before that. Agent: Oh, yes, Umm … How about Sweden, two weeks, half-board … Customer 2: How much would that be? Agent: That would be five hundred and forty pounds, from Manchester again. Customer 1: Well, five hundred and forty … er … that seems too much. Agent: Well, madam, there’s a surcharge for the airport, and it is a five-star hotel. Customer 2: Oh, well, it’s a bit over our budget, really … Agent: All right. Let’s try somewhere else. How about Portugal? … Page 1/5
Questions 2: You will hear a dialogue between two friends. As you listen, fill in missing words and indicate whether the following statements are true or not. (10p) 1. accident 2. avoid 3. changing 4. slow down 5. police car 6.F 7. T 8. F 9. T 10. ? Tape scripts: Richard: Hi, Linda, did you have a nice holiday? Linda: Yes, I went to visit my aunt Cathy in Chase Village for a week. Richard: Oh, you went to Chase Village? I know the place. My sister lives there. How is the traffic there? Linda: Not too bad. Why do you ask about the traffic? Richard: You know, I went to the traffic 3 years ago. There was a lot of traffic in Chase Village. People drove too fast. I had a very serious accident on Newland Street. I was afraid to drive there, so I always try to avoid that road when I visit my sister. Linda: Things are changing no. You know, people put on their brakes and slow down on New Land Street because they can see a police car there with a police officer in it. Richard: Oh, it’s good to have a policeman there because there were many accidents that happened on that road. But the police officer wouldn’t be there all the time, so some people wouldn’t be too careful about the police. Sometimes they just took a risk. Linda: You know, the police officer has been working on that road 24 hours a day, seven days a week for a bout two and a half years now. Richard: Oh, how can a policeman do this without any break? Linda: No break at all. Richard: How much does he get paid for the overtime work? Linda: In fact, he doesn’t get any pay at all. Richard: What is his name? He must be a volunteer there but I can’t believe it. Linda: His name is Officer Springirth. The police department put him to work there. Richard: What do you mean? Why did police department put him to work there? Linda: In fact, he isn’t a real man. He is a mannequin. Before he was put there, people broke into 16 cars in two months in the village. When the police department put Officer Springirth on that road there were no more break-ins in that area. Richard: I’m glad to hear it. I think the police department should put more mannequins on other roads which often cause accidents. Linda: It’s a good idea. You know, the crime rate in Chase Village is very low compared to the neighbouring village. Richard: So, the most important effect Officer Springirth has is reducing the crime rate. Linda: Exactly. Richard: I will go to visit my sister next month so I will try that road again. Linda: Yes, please do. You will see the changes. PART II: PHONETICS (5p) Questions 1: Choose one word marked A, B, C or D whose stress pattern is different from the others in each groups. (2.5p) 1A 2D 3D 4A 5B 1. A. monetary B. paralysis C. protagonist D. analogous Page 2/5
2. 3. 4. 5.
A. tuberculosis A. magnificent A. trigonometry A. confer
B. mathematician B. memorial B. explanatory B. offer
C. communication C. tobacconist C. immediately C. prefer
D. inheritance D. humanism D. democracy D. deter
Questions 2: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. (2.5p) 1. A 2.D 3. A 4. C 5.B 1. A. months B. mouths C. wreaths D. youths 2. A. substitute B. muddled C. shutter D. substantial 3. A. surgical B. surround C. surrender D. survival 4. A. equation B. television C. mention D. decision 5. A. microscope B. microscopic C. atrocious D. cone PART III: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 pts) Question 1: Choose the best answer A, B, C or D in each sentence to complete it. (5 p) 1D 2B 3D 4D 5D 6B 7C 8A 9B 10D 11C 12D 13C 14B 15D 16A 17A 18B 19B 20C Question 2: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them (5 pt) 1. include --> includes 2. strict --> strictly 3. that --> which 4. receiving --> received 5. masses --> mass 6. so --> such 7. leaf --> leaves 8. a few --> few 9. depends --> depending 10. and --> or Whirlwind, any rotating air mass, include the tornado and the large cyclonic and anticyclonic storm. In meteorology, the term whirlwind is more strict applied to the smaller swirling atmospheric phenomenon commonly known as dust devil or dust whirl, that occurs mostly over deserts and semiarid plains during hot, calm days. The principal cause of whirlwinds is intense insulation, or incoming solar radiation receiving by the earth, which produces an overheated air mass just above the ground. This air masses rises, usually in the form of a cylindrical column, sucking up loose surface material, so as dust, sand, and leaf. Whirlwinds vary in height from 30 to 152 m, but exceptionally vigorous dust devils may exceed 1524 m in height. The vortices of whirlwinds range in size from few meters to several hundred meters and, depends on their force and size, dust devils may disappear in seconds and last several hours. Brief whirlwinds are erratic in motion, but the longer-lasting ones move slowly with the prevailing winds. Question 3: Complete each space with a suitable particle or preposition (5 pt) 1. of 6. with 11. by 16. in 2. in 7. in 12. in 17. of 3. on 8. from 13. to 18. without 4. on 9. through 14. onto 19. by 5. at 10. in 15. after 20. from Question 4: Give the correct form/ tense of the verb given below (5 pts) A. 1. Lives 2. Lived/was living 3. Wrote 4. Invited 6. Wonder 7. Have also had 8. Applied 9. Was
5. Have had 10. have Page 3/5
B. 1. should have rung 5. is going 6. has told 10.was/have been given
2. have worked 7. Leaves
3. haven’t had 8. hadn’t been given
4. to have 9. would come
Question 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the number space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (5p) Example: 0. existence 1. Characteristic 2. Recognizable 5. extraordinary 6. Rigidity 9. surrounding 10. increasingly
3. Unceremoniously 7. Zealous
4. independent 8. conservative
Question 6: Fill in each blank in the passage with the most suitable linking word given in the box. (5p) (1.) therefore (2.) Although (3.) Secondly (4.) However (5.) In addition (6.) Furthermore (7.) not only (8.) but (9.) In general (10.) even though PART IV: READING (25P) Question 1: Read the following passage carefully and choose the best option to each of the questions. (7.5p) 1B 2A 3B 4D 5A 6A 7B 8A 9B 10D 11A 12D 13D 14B 15D Question 1: A. fact B. return C. exchange D. short Question 2: A. engineers B. workers C. electrician D. trainers Question 3: A. under B. performed C. hold D. accepted Question 4: A. demonstrate B. tell C. indicate D. govern Question 5: A. long B. far C. often D. good Question 6: A. waste B. wasting C. spend D. spending Question 7: A. consistently B. continually C. constructively D. chronically Question 8: A. averse B. brave C. impolite D. intimate Question 9: A. encouraging B. correcting C. scolding D. criticizing Question 10: A. reason B. target C. task D. object Question 11: A. most B. best C. bad D. good Question 12: A. interest B. pleasure C. passion D. pride Question 13: A. The other B. An other C. Ones D. Others Question 14: A. rest B. relax C. restrain D. relieve Question 15: A. trainees B. interviewees C. employers D. employees Question 2: Fill in the blank with a suitable word. Use only one word in each space. (7.5p). 1. odds 2. concerned 3. long 4. play 5. its 6. another 7. par 8. reverse 9. tend 10. rise 11. puts 12. sexes 13. on 14. neither 15. term Question 3: Read the passage then circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following questions or statements (10 pts) 1A 2A 3C 4A 5C 6D 7B 8A 9A 10C Page 4/5
Question 4: From the list of headings below choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph in the passage and choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage to complete the sentences. (10 pts) 1. ii 2. vi 3. iv 7. a 100 years 4. i 5. ix 6. v 8. mentally confused 9. (well-developed) language 10. an IQ test PART V: WRITING (30 PTS) A. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (2.5 points) 1. It’s too wonderful an opportunity for us to miss. 2. Nowhere else am I as practical as you are. 3. It doesn’t take much time for Jack to lose his temper. 4. Thought must be given to ways of improving the transport system. 5. Jane must have been at work today. B. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the word in CAPITALS, and so that the meaning stays the same. (2.5 points) 1. David was instrumental in drafting the proposal. 2. On no account/Not on any account should the house be left unlocked. 3. She passed her final exams with flying colors. 4. His name doesn’t ring a bell with me at all. 5. Theories about the causes of bird flu have changed in the light of recent research Question 2: Study the chart that shows the participation in social work by men and women of the country of Fancy from 1992 to 2000 and write a report of about 150 words describing their contribution (10 pt). Question 3: Essay writing (15 p) Teenagers can make their own decisions; older people do not need to make decisions for them. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. You should write at least 250 words. You are recommended to spend approximately 40 minutes on this task. Marking scheme The impression mark given to each of parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Page 5/5
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TỈNH QUẢNG NINH
DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 180 phút
PART 1: LISTENING (15 points) Activity number 1 (5 points) You will hear part of an interview with a woman called Barbara Darby, who works as a casting director in the film industry. Choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear. 1. According to Barbara, a casting director needs above all A. to learn from experience
B. to be a good communicator
C. to have a relevant qualification
D. to have a natural feel for the job
2. Barbara says that she looks for actors who A. can play a variety of roles
B. complement each other
C. accept her way of working
D. think deeply about a part
3. At which stage in the casting process does Barbara meet the actors? A. before she goes to see them performing live B. once the director has approved them C. before a final short list is drawn up D. as soon as a final selection is made 4. Barbara explains that what motivates her now is a need for A. personal satisfaction
B. professional recognition
C. a glamorous lifestyle
D. financial security
5. What made Barbara give up her job for a while? A. She'd become tired of travelling B. She was ready to try something new C. She felt she'd been put under too much pressure D. She found that she was no longer as committed to it 1
Activity number 2 (10 points) Questions 1 - 3 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer Presentation focus:
1. ____________________ animals
Presentation time:
20 minutes
Pros:
Plenty of 2. ____________________ for the presentation; interesting subject
Cons:
Difficult to 3. ____________________
Questions 4 - 6 Choose THREE letters A - G. Which THREE ways does the tutor suggest Katie and Ian can improve their presentation? A. Do their research on the Internet B. Limit the amount of detail within the presentation C. Separate the presentation into clearer sections D. Use some video clips E. Focus on only a selection of animals F. Make sure they practise the presentation G. Think of some discussion questions for the audience
4. _________
5. _________
6. _________
Questions 7 - 10 Complete the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer
2
7
8
9 10
PART 2: PHONETICS (5 points) I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three. (2.5 points) 1. A. tension
B. measure
C. confusion
D. explosion
2. A. decided
B. hatred
C. sacred
D. warned
3. A. vintage
B. montage
C. advantage
D. average
4. A. archive
B. orchid
C. orchard
D. orchestra
5. A. pirate
B. inflate
C. private
D. moderate
II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. (2.5 points) 1. A. habitable
B. infamously
C. geneticist
D. communism
2. A. palatable
B. palatal
C. palate
D. palatial
3. A. secretarial
B. sedentary
C. sedative
D. sectional
4. A. tranquil
B. transcript
C. transient
D. transitor
5. A. organism
B. orient
C. origami
D. ornament 3
PART 3: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points) I. Choose the correct answer. (5 points) 1. With _________, it’s easy to see that a mistake has been made. A. rear view
B. overlook
C. retrospect
D. hindsight
2. In August we always go to this wonderful little Greek village, miles from anywhere and really off the beaten _________. A. road
B. track
C. path
D. lane
3. The woman accused of shoplifting was found not guilty and was _________. A. acquitted
B. liberated
C. excused
D. interned
4. You’re not supposed to park on the hard _________ except in an emergency. A. lane
B. shoulder
C. leg
D. area
5. We can always find out what books the author consulted by referring to the _________. A. index
B. bibliography
C. key
D. dust jacket
6. I know you have a good voice and have ambitions to be an opera singer but don't give up your day ________ yet! A. situation
B. work
C. job
D. place
7. I am in the __________ as to where Chris was last night. A. shade
B. dark
C. pink
D. black
8 Breaking his leg dealt a __________ to his chances of becoming a professional footballer. A. thump
B. strike
C. hit
D. blow
9 Jane is a sympathetic listener. She lent me a(n) __________when I lost my job. A. mind
B. mouth
C. ear
D. eye
10. Let's make a dash for the train now as the rain seems to be __________ off. A. easing
B. slowing
C. reducing
D. running
11. Our journey was ____________by the icy roads, forced us to drive very slowly. A. obstructed
B. impeded
C. barred
D. blocked
12. Before the parachute jump he was carefully __________ in safety procedures. 4
A. shown
B. instructed
C. presented
D. familiarised
13. She __________ her daughter to the care of a babysitter for the evening. A. entrusted
B. consigned
C. confided
D. resigned
14. The engineer __________ the machine with a hammer and, miraculously, it roared back to life. A. slapped
B. smacked
C. whacked
D. punched
15. Fighting among rebel soldiers _________ last night and a curfew has now been imposed on the city. A. enhanced
B. aggravated
C. heightened
D. intensified
16. While other companies collapsed in the economic recession, Cartwright Ltd __________ and share prices rose. A. earned
B. exploited
C. profited
D. gained
17. Rebecca __________ her fiancé across the face during an argument and walked out of the restaurant. A. smashed
B. slapped
C. struck
D. punched
18. The judge's ruling __________ a wave of protest campaigns across the country. A. provoked
B. instigated
C. launched
D. commenced
19. Although she was able to walk with the aid of crutches, having a broken ankle __________ her movements considerably. A. barred
B. hindered
C. intervened
D. blocked
20. The Oscar winning actress simply _________ charm and professionalism in her acceptance speech. A. exuded
B. excluded
C. expunged
D. extricated
II. Find ten mistakes in this passage and correct them. (5 points) Line RELAXATION 1
True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping on in front of the
2
television with a welcome drink. Also is it about drifting into an exhausted sleep.
3
Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness may be, we should 5
4
distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in spite of quality and effect.
5
Regardless of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same
6
time passive awareness, in which our bodies are in rest while our minds are awake.
7
Moreover, it is so natural for a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as
8
resting. Having relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to
9
everything we do, so as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day,
10
more than one of exhaustion.
11
Unfortunately, as a result of living in today competitive world, we are under
12
constant strain and have difficulty in coping, feeling alone nurturing our body's
13
abilities. That needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With this in mind
14
we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes,
15
however deep-seated.
Your answer: Line
Mistakes
Corrections
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
6
III. Complete the following sentences with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points) 1. Faced with such formidable opposition to his proposal, he had no choice but to back ______________. 2. I don't know what he's been ________________ but he looks very embarrassed. 3. The children were late and had to make a dash _______________the school bus. 4. Strictly ____________ the record, his work is below standard. 5. This diamond ring came ______________ me from my great-grandmother. 6. She drew the lecture ______________ to nearly three hours although it was only supposed to last an hour. 7. I'm afraid their business is on the verge of folding ______________ due to a lack of orders. 8. She doesn't eat crisps or chocolate; she's _______________ health food. 9. Our dog has been _______________ its food for days now. 10. Do you know what's _______________ at the cinema tonight? 11. I've met Elizabeth Taylor _______________ the flesh. I even shook her hand. 12. The roses have been _______________ for a few days now. 13. Susan gets all the perks because she's _______________ the administration. 14. The child showed no animosity _______________ her new stepbrother. 15. We were shocked when she called him an idiot ____________ his face. 16. Half the staff are ______________ the flu this week. 17. She feels it is _______________ her to socialise with uneducated people. 18. As a vegetarian, Paul is _______________ people who eat meat. 19. He'll be _______________ it when his parents discover he took the money. 20. If you can bear _______________ me a little longer, I'll try to explain the reasons behind our actions.
7
IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the verbs given. (5 points) a. Hello, you (1. be) ______________________ Helen. I'm Peter's brother, George. b. We (2. help) ______________________ but you didn't tell us that you were in trouble. c. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (3. not/ tell) ______________________ a lie. d. The huge damage (4. now/ report) ______________________ (5. cause) ______________________ by the recent violent earthquake. e. I don't approve of people (6. smoke) ______________________ in public places. f. If you don't mind, I'd sooner you (7. practice) ______________________ your violin somewhere else. g. They were fortunate (8. rescue) ______________________ from the fire before the building collapsed. h. She regretted (9. not/ learn) ______________________ how to ride a bicycle when she was young. i. The US postal service policy for check approval includes a requirement that two pieces of identification (10. present) ______________________ j.
The
uneaten
breakfast
was
still
on
the
table.
She
(11.
must/
call)
______________________ away in a hurry. k. You (12. speed) ______________________ then; otherwise, the policeman (13. not/ stop) ______________________you. l. The faulty goods had better (14. return) ______________________ to the shop by Friday. m.
I'm
on
the
island
for
my
two-week
vacation
and
I
(15.
love)
______________________ every minute of it. n.
You
(16.
be)
______________________
sure
the
answer
(17.
be)
______________________ what it (18. be) ______________________? In my opinion, it isn't right. Surely you (19. forget) ______________________ (20. include) ______________________ something essential?
8
V. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. There is an example at the beginning (0). (5 points) Example: 0. COURTEOUS BOOK PUBLICISTS The (0) _____________________ smile of an author selling COURTESY books, signing copies or chatting on television shows can be (1) _____________________. Behind the scenes of the book tour that DECEIVE has become as much a part of the modern bestseller as print and paper, the writer may be a (2) _____________________ for a CONTEND Golden Dartboard Award. This is the Oscar for authors (3) _____________________ ALLEGE behaving badly, an informal award nominated by the weary, sometimes (4) _____________________ publicists who travel TRAUMA from city to city garnering publicity and sales. They call themselves "(5) _____________________" and "wet nurses" as BABY they tend to fragile egos and (6) _____________________ CONVENTION demands of authors freed from their word processors. Among the most feared (7) _____________________ for the ASSIGN publicists are the feminist writer who is remembered for yelling at her publicists in public and in (8) _____________________ COLOUR language, and the thriller writer whose publicists report that they have instructions from his publisher to speak only when spoken to. One (9) _____________________ of a tour with him, who SURVIVE nominated him for a Golden Dartboard, says, "He treats us all as his inferiors". However, publicists on his most recent tour say that he was an absolute (10) _____________________ to work with.
ENJOY
9
PART 4: READING (25 points) I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (7.5 points) Sad as it is, a social misperception of the disabled is still _________ (1) in many communities. It is only in a few highly civilised states where the problems and needs of people with physical or mental incapacities are given the proper _________ (2). In the remaining countries, the discrimination against the disabled is still practiced in many _________ (3) of social life. As in the past, they are ignored, denounced and forced to stay away from the normal community which, unfortunately, isn’t capable of making any _________ (4) for its less fit members. For decades, the _________ (5) and hearty part of every society has _________ (6) the disabled of their fundamental rights as their job applications have been _________ (7) down, their active participation in business life has on most _________(8) been disallowed and there has been little concern of their convenience in _________ (9) to public transport. Equally little effort has been made to help the disabled fully _________ (10) with the able-bodied thus laying _________ (11) for greater community awareness of the drawbacks that the handicapped have to wrestle with daily. There’s an urgent need to offer the disabled more adequate assistance and support in their struggle for putting their basic rights into _________ (12). The key principle is that the stereotyped approach towards the impaired individuals ought to be _________ (13) for a more considerate one. Another pressing matter is that the disabled shouldn’t be _________ (14) on the basic of their handicap, but society should rather focus on providing them with complete acceptance _________ (15) of any imperfections thus treating them as fully-fledged citizens.
1.
A. infinite
B. universal
C. abundant
D. prevalent
2.
A. relevance
B. consideration
C. approach
D. esteem
3.
A. ranges
B. fractions
C. realms
D. areas
4.
A. accounts
B. provision
C. measures
D. concerns 10
5.
A. hale
B. vivid
C. fit
D. right
6.
A. shelled
B. sneaked
C. seized
D. stripped
7.
A. pulled
B. turned
C. passed
D. brought
8.
A. occasions
B. times
C. instances
D. events
9.
A. entry
B. admittance
C. access
D. exploitation
10.
A. collaborate
B. incorporate
C. ally
D. integrate
11.
A. foundations
B. bases
C. grounds
D. rudiments
12.
A. handling
B. operation
C. activation
D. performance
13.
A. replaced
B. deputized
C. exchanged
D. substituted
14.
A. measured
B. deduced
C. reckoned
D. appraised
15.
A. despite
B. irrespective
C. except
D. nonetheless
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (7.5 points) DANGERS OF TECHNOLOGY Much has been heard recently (0) about possible health hazards, including memory loss and brain tumours, from the use of mobile phones. With the possible half a billion mobile phones in (1) _______________ throughout the world, in Britain (2) _______________, one person in four owns one, (3) _______________ is worrying enough, even if, so far, no concrete evidence has come to (4) _______________. One study by Dr. Alan Preece and his team at Bristol University has shown, however, in a report in the International Journal of Radiation Biology, that tests on volunteers demonstrated no effect on (5) _______________ short-term memory or attention span. Subjects
(6)
_______________
exposed
to
microwave
radiation
for
(7)
_______________ to thirty minutes, but the one noticeable effect was positive (8) _______________ than negative; the subjects reacted more rapidly in one test (9) _______________ a visual choice. One explanation of (10) _______________ is that following the transmissions, a warming of the blood led to increased blood flow.
11
For the experiment, places were chosen where the signal was good and the microwave dose light, and then where the signal was poor and the dose (11) _______________ higher. The subjects were tested for recall and mental alertness (12) _______________ exposure to microwaves characteristic of analogue phones, digital phones or no phones at all, without knowing (13) _______________ they were exposed to. It is, of course, early days (14) _______________ and the sample may not be large (15) _______________ to generalise from. More research needs to be done.
III. Read the passage and answer the following questions. (5 points)
Meteorite Impact and Dinosaur Extinction There is increasing evidence that the impacts of meteorites have had important effects on Earth, particularly in the field of biological evolution. Such impacts continue to pose a natural hazard to life on Earth. Twice in the twentieth century, large meteorite objects are known to have collided with Earth. If an impact is large enough, it can disturb the environment of the entire Earth and cause an ecological catastrophe. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million years ago at the end of the Cretaceous period of geological history. This break in Earth’s history is marked by a mass extinction, when as many as half the species on the planet became extinct. While there are a dozen or more mass extinctions in the geological record, the Cretaceous mass extinction has always intrigued paleontologists because it marks the end of the age of the dinosaurs. For tens of millions of years, those great creatures had flourished. Then, suddenly, they disappeared. The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite with a mass of more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists first identified this impact in 1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from the dust cloud that enveloped the planet after the impact. This sediment layer is enriched in the rare metal iridium and other elements that are relatively abundant in a meteorite but very rare in the crust of Earth. Even diluted by the terrestrial material excavated from the crater, this component of meteorites is easily identified. By 1990 geologists had located 12
the impact site itself in the Yucatán region of Mexico. The crater, now deeply buried in sediment, was originally about 200 kilometers in diameter. This impact released an enormous amount of energy, excavating a crater about twice as large as the lunar crater Tycho. The explosion lifted about 100 trillion tons of dust into the atmosphere, as can be determined by measuring the thickness of the sediment layer formed when this dust settled to the surface. Such a quantity of material would have blocked the sunlight completely from reaching the surface, plunging Earth into a period of cold and darkness that lasted at least several months. The explosion is also calculated to have produced vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that sprayed out over much of Earth, starting widespread fires that must have consumed most terrestrial forests and grassland. Presumably, those environmental disasters could have been responsible for the mass extinction, including the death of the dinosaurs. Several other mass extinctions in the geological record have been tentatively identified with large impacts, but none is so dramatic as the Cretaceous event. But even without such specific documentation, it is clear that impacts of this size do occur and that their results can be catastrophic. What is a catastrophe for one group of living things, however, may create opportunities for another group. Following each mass extinction, there is a sudden evolutionary burst as new species develop to fill the ecological niches opened by the event. Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes and seriously influence the evolution of life all over the planet. According to some estimates, the majority of all extinctions of species may be due to such impacts. Such a perspective fundamentally changes our view of biological evolution. The standard criterion for the survival of a species is its success in competing with other species and adapting to slowly changing environments. Yet an equally important criterion is the ability of a species to survive random global ecological catastrophes due to impacts. Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were unsuspected a few decades ago. In 1991 the United States Congress asked NASA to investigate the hazard posed today by large impacts on Earth. The group 13
conducting the study concluded from a detailed analysis that impacts from meteorites can indeed be hazardous. Although there is always some risk that a large impact could occur, careful study shows that this risk is quite small.
1. The word “pose” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. claim
B. model
C. assume
D. present
2. In paragraph 2, why does the author include the information that dinosaurs had flourished for tens of millions of years and then suddenly disappeared? A. To support the claim that the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous is the bestdocumented of the dozen or so mass extinctions in the geological record B. To explain why as many as half of the species on Earth at the time are believed to have become extinct at the end of the Cretaceous C. To explain why paleontologists have always been intrigued by the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous D. To provide evidence that an impact can be large enough to disturb the environment of the entire planet and cause an ecological disaster 3. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 3 about the location of the meteorite impact in Mexico? A. The location of the impact site in Mexico was kept secret by geologists from 1980 to 1990. B. It was a well-known fact that the impact had occurred in the Yucatán region. C. Geologists knew that there had been an impact before they knew where it had occurred. D. The Yucatán region was chosen by geologists as the most probable impact site because of its climate. 4. According to paragraph 3, how did scientists determine that a large meteorite had impacted Earth? A. They discovered a large crater in the Yucatán region of Mexico. B. They found a unique layer of sediment worldwide. 14
C. They were alerted by archaeologists who had been excavating in the Yucatán region. D. They located a meteorite with a mass of over a trillion tons. 5. The word “excavating” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. digging out
B. extending
C. destroying
D. covering up
6. According to paragraph 4, all of the following statements are true of the impact at the end of the Cretaceous period EXCEPT: A. A large amount of dust blocked sunlight from Earth. B. Earth became cold and dark for several months. C. New elements were formed in Earth’s crust. D. Large quantities of nitric acid were produced. 7. The phrase “tentatively identified” in the passage is closest in meaning to A. identified after careful study B. identified without certainty C. occasionally identified D. easily identified 8. Paragraph 6 supports which of the following statements about the factors that are essential for the survival of a species? A. The most important factor for the survival of a species is its ability to compete and adapt to gradual changes in its environment. B. The ability of a species to compete and adapt to a gradually changing environment is not the only ability that is essential for survival. C. Since most extinctions of species are due to major meteorite impacts, the ability to survive such impacts is the most important factor for the survival of a species. D. The factors that are most important for the survival of a species vary significantly from one species to another. 9. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the following sentence? "Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were unsuspected a few decades ago." 15
Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information. A. Until recently, nobody realized that Earth is exposed to unpredictable violent impacts from space. B. In the last few decades, the risk of a random violent impact from space has increased. C. Since most violent events on Earth occur randomly, nobody can predict when or where they will happen. D. A few decades ago, Earth became the target of random violent events originating in outer space. 10. According to the passage, who conducted investigations about the current dangers posed by large meteorite impacts on Earth? A. Paleontologists B. Geologists C. The United States Congress D. NASA
IV. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (5 points) Questions 1-6 Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs (A-G). Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below. List of Headings (i)
A conventional way to process drinking water
(ii)
Removals of bacteria and viruses
(iii)
New methods are called for
(iv)
An ambitious plan
(v)
The continuous microfiltration system
(vi)
The future of microfiltration plants
(vii) New focus: environment-friendly technology (viii) Disadvantages of septic tanks 16
(ix)
The expansion of Memtec
(x)
Public’s concerns for waste disposals
(xi)
A different approach to cleaning the filter
Paragraph A
Answer: iii
1.
Paragraph B
__________
2.
Paragraph C
__________
3.
Paragraph D
__________
4.
Paragraph E
__________
5.
Paragraph F
__________
6.
Paragraph G
__________
Example:
Treatment of Waste from Water A Conventional approaches to waste disposal are becoming untenable. Most systems bring sewage in from the surrounding areas to a central plant for treatment, then transport to the processed waste to the nearest river or sea for disposal. This is inefficient, as it takes 1 million litres of water to transport 200 litres of waste. It also involves heavy investment in pipes. Indeed, transport accounts for about 80% of waste-disposal system costs, while treatment accounts for just 20%. B This must change, especially as demands on treatment grow. Tap water is increasingly subject to pollution, from both the atmosphere and waste disposal. Regulations governing water quality are being tightened in response, but conventional treatment systems are not up to the job. These systems typically date back to the last century, and they are based on principles known to the Romans. For example, drinking water in Yokohama, Japan, comes from a plant that originated in 1887. At the plant, incoming water flows through a coarse filter to eliminate large particles, then through a sand filter to remove smaller particles and bacteria. But because viruses are small enough to slip through sand, the
17
water still must be disinfected with chlorine and left to stand for several hours before it is drinkable. C As population densities in cities increase, appropriate methods for treating waste water are needed urgently. In Japan, engineering companies are eyeing emerging markets for environmentally sound treatment systems. Authorities are also looking to upgrade backward infrastructure, as 44% of Japanese homes are connected to sewage systems and the remainder on septic tanks. But they would prefer not to spend a fortune on pipes. Japan’s Health and Welfare Ministry began experiments to develop new technology for clean-water systems. The project’s focus is to evaluate systems that use sophisticated filtration techniques based on membranes. D Perhaps the most distinctive of the systems under trial is one developed by Memtec, an Australian company. Its continuous microfiltration system consists of a tube into which is packed thousands of thin polyethylene fibres. The walls of the hollow fibres are highly porous, allowing liquid to pass, but blocking particles larger than 0.2 micrometres. That is small enough to exclude bacteria and viruses. E But the clever part involves how the filter is cleaned. Conventional microfiltration systems dislodge solids that have accumulated on the surface of their membranes by pumping filtered liquid back through them at high speed. This takes a lot of energy and means membranes must be replaced often. Memtec’s system adopts a different approach. At regular intervals, says every half an hour, input to the filter is shut off, and all liquid except the amount trapped in the pores of the membrane. Then a fast-activating valve is opened to reduce the pressure on the outside. The still-pressurized air inside the fibre burst across the membrane, pushing the liquid out of the pores. The wall of water is powerful enough to lift the solids of the surface. In effect, the membrane cleans itself. And because it is not subject to stress, the filter lasts for several years. F 18
Memtec’s system has been successful in low-volume, high value-added applications. It is widely used in the drinks business to filter fruit juice, wine, beer and sake. Now the company has scaled up its membranes for use in high-volume markets such as drinking water and waste-water treatment. It is trying to persuade other large engineering companies to design its filters into their integrated treatment systems. The company has already demonstrated that its membranes can be applied on a large scale. They form the core of what is believed to be the world’s largest continuous microfiltration plant build at Blackheath in the Blue Mountains near Sydney. During 21 weeks of trials, the A$2.3million (US$1.7 million) plant treated 3 million litres of sewage daily. Measurements showed that the filtered water contained no bacteria or viruses. In fact, it was cleaner than the river into which it was released. G Plants such as this have the potential to revolutionise water-treatment infrastructure. Huge centralised plants connected by hundreds of kilometres of pipes can be replaced with compact units located next to the communities they serve, returning the water they treat to adjacent streams. Because the plants are energy-efficient, they will be cheap to operate. The benefits to the environment will be huge.
Questions 7-1: Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the above reading passage? Write: YES
if the statement agrees with the writer;
NO
if the statement does not agree with the writer;
NOT GIVEN
if there is no information about this in the passage.
Example: Conventional treatment of waste water should be modernised. Answer: YES ______ 7. Septic tanks in Japan are part of the modern technology of waste-water treatment. ______8. Compression and sudden decompression are the basic working principle for cleaning microfiltration filters developed by Memtec. ______9. Conventional water treatment systems include microfiltration. 19
______10. Japan is facing a more serious problem of waste-water disposal than Australia.
PART 5: WRITING (30 points) I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and eight words, including the word given. (5 points) 1. Tim tried to be like one of his heroes when he was a young musician. modelled As ____________________________________________ one of his heroes. 2. I don't mind staying in on a Saturday night if I have good company. averse I'm __________________________________________ night if I have good company. 3. I'm doubtful that this plan is very realistic. reservations I ___________________________________________________ realistic this plan is. 4. Being inexperienced was a disadvantage to her when she applied for promotion. counted Her _______________________________________ when she applied for promotion. 5. Victory was stolen from the sprinter at the finish of the race. robbed The sprinter _______________________________________________________ line. 6. It is usual for young children to ask a lot of questions. apt Young _______________________________________________________ questions. 7. Some people accept that life is full of problems.
resigned
Some people ____________________________________________ full of problems. 8. Some friends nominated him as a spokesman.
forward
Some friends ________________________________________________ spokesman. 9. They may have escaped through the back door. getaway They ______________________________________________________ back door. 10. You've been looking miserable all day. moon You've _______________________________________________________all day.
20
II. The bar chart below shows the employment of all male and female workers by occupation in the UK in the year 2005. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words. (10 points)
All in employment: by sex and occupation, 2005, UK * elementary occupations = laborers and catering assistants
________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________
21
________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ III. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic (15 points) With recent developments in technology like e-books, some people feel that printed media like books, newspapers, and magazines will soon be a thing of the past. Others feel that these forms of media will never disappear. What is your opinion? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________
-The End22
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HẠ LONG TỈNH QUẢNG NINH
ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ LẦN THỨ VII MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH LỚP 11 Thời gian: 180 phút
PART 1: LISTENING (15 points) I. Activity Number 1: You will hear part of an interview with a woman called Barbara Darby, who works as a casting director in the film industry. Choose the answer which fits best according to what you hear. (5 points - 1 point/ correct answer) 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C II. Listening Activity Number 2: (10 points - 1 point/ correct answer) 1. nocturnal 2. visual aids 3. narrow down 4. D 6. G 7. long strides 8. doughnut9. lower shaped/ donut-shaped/ doughnut shaped/ donut shaped * Note: Answer to questions 4, 5, 6 can be in any order
5. E 10. retractable
PART 2: PHONETICS (5 points) I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other three. (2.5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B II. Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other three. (2.5 points 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. B 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C PART 3: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (30 points) I. Choose the correct answer. (5 points - 0.25 points/ correct answer) 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. B
8. D 18. A
9. C 19. B
10. A 20. A
II. Find ten mistakes in this passage and correct them. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) Line Mistakes Corrections 1 On Down 1 2 Also Nor 2 4 Spite Terms 3 6 In At 4 7 So As 5 8 Having Being 6 10 More Rather 7 11 Today Today's 8 12 Feeling Let 9 13 That What 10 1
III. Complete following sentences with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points - 0.25 points/ correct answer) 1. down 2. up to 3. for 4. off 5. down 6. out 7. up 8. 9. off 10. on to towards 11. in 12. out 13. in 14. 15. to 16. 17. 18. 19. in 20. bear with towards down beneath down for with on IV. Complete the following sentences with the correct forms of the verbs given (5 points - 0.25 points/ correct answer) 1. must be 2. could have 3. shouldn't have 4. is now reported 5. to have been helped told caused 6. smoking 7. practised 8. to have been 9. not learning/ 10. (should) be rescued not having learnt presented 11. must have 12. must have 13. wouldn't have 14. be returned 15. am loving been called been speeding stopped 16. Are you sure 17. is 18. should be 19. have you 20. to include forgotten V. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the lines to form a word that fits in the space in the same line. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. deceptive 2. contender 3. allegedly 4. traumatized 5. babysitters 6. unconventional 7. assignments 8. colourful 9. survivor 10. joy PART 4: READING (25 points) I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (7.5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. D 2. B
3.D
4.B
5.A
6.D
7.B
8.A
9.C
10.D
11.A 12.B 13.C 14.D 15.B
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space. (7.5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. use 2. today/ alone 3. which 4. light 5. their 6. were 7. up 8. rather 9. to/ with 10. this 11. much 12. after/ 13. what 14. yet 15. enough following III. Read the passage and answer the following questions. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. D 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. D IV. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. 5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. i 2. vii 3. v 4. xi 5. ix 6. vi 7. NO 8. YES 9. NO 10. NOT GIVEN PART 5: WRITING (30 points) I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 points - 0.5 points/ correct answer) 1. As a young musician, Tim modelled himself on one of his heroes. 2
2. I'm not averse to staying in on a Saturday night if I have good company. 3. I have/ am having (some) reservations as to/ concerning/ about/ regarding how realistic this plan is. 4. Her lack of experience/ inexperience counted against her when she applied for promotion. 5. The sprinter was robbed of victory at the finishing line. 6. Young children are apt to ask a lot of questions. 7. Some people are resigned to life being/ the fact that life is full of problems. 8. Some friends put his name forward as a spokesman. 9. They may have made their getaway through the back door. 10. You've done nothing but moon about/ around all day. II. The bar chart below shows the employment of all male and female workers by occupation in the UK in the year 2005. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words. III. Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic (15 points) With recent developments in technology like e-books, some people feel that printed media like books, newspapers, and magazines will soon be a thing of the past. Others feel that these forms of media will never disappear. What is your opinion? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted uppersecondary school students. 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
3
TRANSCRIPT Activity number 1 (CAE practice test plus - test 5 - part 3) Interviewer: My guest today is Barbara Darby. Her name has appeared on the credits of many wellknown films. Although her role in making those films successful was crucial, you've probably never heard of her because she works as a casting director. Barbara, welcome. Barbara: Hello Interviewer: So it's quite a big responsibility, is it, Barbara, finding the actors for a film? Barbara: The job of casting director is a highly-skilled one actually, because without the right cast, there's no movie. Although experience counts of course, intuition is the essential quality for the job, and that's not something you can learn. You signal things to the audience through the kind of actors you cast and those signals have got to reflect the central message of the script and the director's vision. Interviewer: So how do you go about it? Barbara: It's an odd process, because it's not just about casting a certain number of actors in role. The dynamic is incredibly important: if you have a comedian, you have to cast a particular type of person against them. And it's also about energy; if one person has quite a low-energy style, then you need someone opposite them to gee them up a bit. When I meet an actor, I'm trying to find a quality in that person that reflects into the part in an interesting way, although actors don't really like people saying that, as they believe they can act every part. But that's how I do it. Interviewer: And do you do the whole range of films, do you get to choose? Barbara: I do say no to quite a lot of scripts. I only do films that I feel have something important to say, or that see life in an interesting way, or are being made by people that I know I like. After I've read the script, I start to have ideas and talk to people. Interviewer: And the director leaves it all to you? Barbara: Well, I do all preparatory work. The first stage is that agents send in photos, and videotapes and resume' of actors that I've requested or that they think are good. I watch loads of tapes. If I like an actor, I'll meet them, or go to see them in a play. Then they go to meet the director who makes the final selection from my shortlist. On average they see about eight or nine actors per part, but I see many more. When I take on a film, I'll cast the whole thing, even if a person doesn't speak in a role. Interviewer: So how did you get into this in the first place? Barbara: I didn't so much choose my career as fall into it actually. I was hanging around London, working as a stagehand at the National Theatre and I met someone there who thought I'd be good at it. He was an agent and he got me a job as an assistant. I've always been drawn to the bright lights, and this was a step up from what I'd been doing. Interviewer: And you were ambitious? Barbara: Yes, but I don't believe anyone who does well isn't. I was initially attracted by the glamour of it all, but I'm definitely not driven by money, because I still don't have any. What absolutely drives me now in all parts of my life is that I don't want to be old and have regrets. We are all able to do something successfully, and I think it's a shame if you don't achieve that. Interviewer: But you took a break from your career at one time, didn't you? Barbara: That's right. I was working on a film which was set in the rainforests of South America. I loved the place, but I had such a horrible time on the film that as soon as I came back, I put my whole office into nine binbags and threw them out of the window. I said, "If that's what the film industry is about, I'm giving up". I stayed away for nine months. Interviewer: But what went wrong, why did you give up? Barbara: The worst aspect of the job is that the casting stage is a stressful time in the making of a film. It takes a lot longer than people think - a big film can take six months. An awful 4
Interviewer: Barbara:
lot of other people's frustration can land on you, and I've never really learnt how not to take it personally. I guess it goes with commitment. But in the end they tempted you back, didn't they? The only reason I came back was because one of my favourite directors handed me a lovely script. It wasn't even that I wanted it, I'd got plenty of theatre work which I was enjoying....
Activity number 2 (Collin listening for IELTS - Practice Test - Section 3) Tutor: Katie: Tutor: Ian: Tutor: Katie:
Ian: Tutor: Ian: Katie: Tutor: Katie: Tutor: Ian: Tutor: Katie: Tutor: Katie: Tutor: Ian:
Tutor:
Hi, Katie. Hi, Ian. Come on in! Hi, Professor Gordon. We wanted to talk to you about our wildlife presentation next week. Have you decided how to organise it? Yes, Professor. At first, we were going to focus on the cat family, but then we decided to talk about nocturnal animals instead. Yes, good idea. And how is your planning going? It's going well. We think we have enough material for twenty minutes. The advantage is that there are so many visual aids we can use. We've found lots on the Internet which we think will be really interesting for people. The problem is that this topic has been hard to narrow down. If anything, we've got too much information for just twenty minutes. How do you think we could narrow it down further? It is a broad subject. There are a few ways you could do it, but I'd recommend just looking at a representative sample of nocturnal animals, just four or five. Yes, and maybe we could choose one animal from each continent, or a land creature, a marine creature and a winged animal. I like the idea of separating it by different types of animals. And if we limit the detail, we'll definitely have enough time! But don't limit the detail too much. Also, think how you're going to interest the audience. Well, we're going to have a picture for each animal so we can talk through the picture. That's a nice idea, but don't limit yourself to pictures. If you can find any clips of the animals, use them! Showing brief video clips can keep an audience interested. I'll look on the Internet tonight. And think of questions to ask your audience. People like to be involved! Yes, that's a great idea. Anyway, Professor, we've been practising our presentation and we'd like to show you a small section. Is that OK? Well, we just have a couple of minutes left, but go ahead! Well, we were thinking of presenting each animal with a picture and describing their physical characteristics. OK, but not in too much detail. That's just background information. We'll start with the jaguar. I'll introduce it by saying that the jaguar is a nocturnal animal and the only species of the genus Panthera to be found in the Americas. Like any cat, it has whiskers and it can move quickly. Its spine has great movement, meaning a jaguar can take long strides, sometimes up to five and a half metres. This can make it a deadly predator as you can imagine! Moving on to the fur... Its fur is quite distinct. The markings are like black doughnut - shaped spots on its otherwise yellow fur. People often confuse them with the leopard for this reason. Now the tail is interesting. Although people think that the tail has stripes on it, the fur on the tail actually is similar to the body with black circles around the lower section. The jaguar is generally a creature to be feared...Oh, yes, I should have mentioned this earlier. Sorry. Like most cats, it has sharp, retractable claws. Yes, that's fine, but be careful. The jaguar is usually though of as nocturnal, but strictly speaking, it's crepuscular, in other words, most active between dusk and dawn, but as you 5
Katie:
mention this, you can put it under the umbrella of nocturnal. Is that all? Yes, I think so. Thanks, Professor.
6
Sở Giáo Dục Và Đào tạo Thái Bình Trường THPT chuyên Thái Bình
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ
TRANG PHÁCH MÔN: Tiếng Anh (khối 11)
Chữ ký giám thị 1:
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút. (không kể thời gian giao đề)
............................... Chữ ký giám thị 2: ...............................
PART I : LISTENING: You are going to listen to the tape recordings twice. Section 1: Listen to the news item and answer following questions 1. Who thinks too much televison is bad for children? ……………………………………………………. 2. Why do children spend time watching television?……………………………………………………. 3. What does the woman think about the research?……………………………………………………. 4. What is happening to many children at school?……………………………………………………. 5. Who does the agency aim to help? …………………………………………………….
Section 2: A woman is telling a strange story. Listen to the recording and choose the best answer (A, B, or C) for each of the following questions(10pts.) 1. What is the story about? A. How superstitious the speaker is. B. How he has become superstitious. C. A ghost story the speaker has imagined. 2. When did the story take place? A. Two years ago. B. Two months ago.
C. Two weeks ago. 1
3. Where was the speaker living at the time? A. France. B. Frankfort, Germany
C. Franklin
4. What did he do at that time? A. He was a businessman.
B. He was involved in finance. C. He was a reporter on
finance. 5. Which of the following statements is not true? A. The visitor was one of the speaker’s closest friends. B. The visitor and the speaker went to the same university. C. The visitor would come by train. 6. When did the telephone ring for the first time? A. At three Saturday morning. B. At three Saturday afternoon. C. At three Sunday morning. 7. How many times did the telephone ring? A. Twice.
B. Three times.
C. Four times.
8. What was the speaker doing when there was knock at the door? A. He was boiling some water. B. He was cooking in the kitchen.
C. He was making
some coffee. 9. Which of the following does not describe Roger? A. Man of a few words. B. Introvert. C. Talkative. 10. What did the speaker do after letting Roger in? A. He sat down and talked with Roger. B. He went to the kitchen to bring out the coffee. C. He went to the kitchen to finish pouring the coffee. PART II: PHONETICS 1.Find word that has underlined part pronounced differently from the other three words in each question. 1. A. scenic B. species C. routine D. destination. 2. A. entertain B. humane C. magazine D. brain. 3. A. said B. laid C. lain D. paid. 4. A. future B. culture C. mature D. fortunate. 5.A. coughed B. laughed C. weighed D. matched. 2Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other words in each question. 2
6. A. facilities 7. A. photography 8. A. visual 9. A. responsibility 10. A. diversity
B. confirm B. preference B. insert B. submarine B. amphibian
C. comedy C. wilderness C. technical C. comprehend C. heritage
D. refrigerator. D. outdoor. D. miracle. D. recommend. D. surprise.
PART III- LEXICO-GRAMMAR I. VOCABULARY Choose the best answer. 1. The matter was so delicate that none of the ministers knew how to...........it. A. manipulate B. deal C. handle D. affect 2. Betty told her younger sister to..............her alone she didn't feel like playing games. A. put B. leave C. set D. make 3. The students have asked their professor to................making a test until after Christmas. A. postpone B. interupt C. await D. terminate 4. Now that the 9.30 train has been cancelled, we have got plenty of time to.........before the next one arrives. A. expire B. spare C. abound D. exhaust 5. Mr smith ate his breakfast in great.............so as not to miss the bus to Liverpool. A. speed B. pace C. rush D. haste 6. The handwriting is completely...................This note must have been written a long time ago. A. inedible B. indellible C. illegible D. unfeasible 7. To everybody's .............., the doctor declared the boy's life was out of danger. A. calmness B. soothe C. peace D. relief 8. This species of mosquito can be dangerous, but happily, it is rather.......in this are. A. rare B. minor C. few D. scarely 9. The whole situation is getting out of .............Let's do something before it turns into a bitter row. A. capacity B. charge C. hand D. discipline 10. I know it works in theory, but try putting it into..........and you 'll find out it's a failure. A. operation B. exercise C. performance D. procedure 11. I wouldn't realized about the possible risk of setting the factory in fire if Bob hadn't ......my attention to it. A. sought B. drawn C. showed D. caught 12. It was mindless of you to......Sam in the face. You should have never have done it if you expect him to love you. A. slam B. clap C. slap D. clasp 13. I can hardly think of Jenny being able to .........the aim she has set herself. A. implement B. accomplish C. triump D. succeed 14.It had been assumed Phillip would take over the manager's post after the man retired . But , it never came to..............since he 'd decided to change his place of work. A. final B. pass C. occurence D. being 15. Eric's father works as an interpreter. The man is .........in three languages. 3
a. fluent B. outspoken C. speechless D. knowledgeable 16. Our karate master is as quick as ............... A. wave B. thunder C. current D. lightning 17. Her perfect manners and exceptional erudition is an effect of her strict upper-class.......... A. upstanding B. upkeep C. upbringing D. uphold 18. This pupil is notorious for playing............from his mathematics lessons. A.truant B. runaway C. absent D. joyride 19. Andrew is a very disciplined employee. He ...........great importance to coming to work in time. A. affixes B. attributes C. admits D. attaches 20. The scientists broke down as they realized that all their efforts had gone to.............. A. loss B. failure C. waste D. collapse
II. Correct 10 mistakes in the following paragraph. Lorna Steel possibly is the most talented actress the world has seen. Her exciting career covers sixty years. She usually made at least five films the year. She will probably be remembered like the most popular actress of our time. The film industry was deeply shocked when she announced her retirement last year. She had been going to the studios by a huge black luxurious limousine everyday for the past 40 years. No one quite could believe her presence would any longer brighten up our cinema screens. She now is retired and lives in an extremely large beach house near the Mexican border. Those days she makes very rarely any public appearances. She is still beautiful, but now prefers to devote her valuable time in looking through old, stray dogs. III.. PREPOSITIONS Fill in the correct preposition 1. Tom is envious ………………his friends. 2. They decided ………………..a quiet wedding. 3. He was found guilty………….six robberies. 4. His openness and sincerity are the key ……………..his political success. 5. I’m always being mistaken …………………my cousin. 6. Most people are indifferent ………………… the welfare of the homeless. 7. Don’t put the blame ……………..him. It’s not his fault. 8. He charged me $10……………….the repairs. 9. More money is needed to help care …………….the homeless. 10. I’m obliged ………………you………………..all your invaluable assistance. 11. The government has allowed the coal industry to run…………............ 12. Why didn’t you stick……..………….for me instead of saying nothing? 4
13. The next day, teams of local people set ……………clearing up the damage. 14. No one expected the government to stand………………….the agreement. 15. Hundreds of people turned…… ………….in the rain to see the prince. 16. My mother told me……… for coming home late from school. 17. It was surprising how quickly that fashion caught ………. ……………… 18. The police have promised to look ……………the problem. 19. We always welcome you drop …..………..any time you are passing. 20. Let’s run …………..the details of the arrangements just once more.
IV. VERB TENSES/ FORMS. Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate verb form. Reporter Philip Taggart visits a farm where the sheep are super fit! Farmers, as you may (1. KNOW)…………..., (2. HAVE)……………....a hard time of it in Britain lately, and (3.TURN)…..........to new ways of earning income from their land. This (4. INVOLVE)…………not only planting new kinds of crops, but also come strange ways of making money, the most unusual of which has got to be sheep racing. Yes, you (5.HEAR) …………me correctly! A farmer in the west of England (6. HOLD)………….sheep races on a regular basis, and during the past year over 100,000 people (7. TURN UP)…………..to watch the proceedings. “I (8. PASS)…………..….the farm on my way to the sea for a holiday,” one punter told me, “and I (9. THINK)……….I’d have a look. I (10. NOT BELIEVE) ……….it was serious, to tell you the truth.” According to a regular visitor, betting on sheep is more interesting than betting on horses. “At proper horse races everyone (11.ALREADY/ STUDY)……………..the form of the horses in advance, and there are clear favorites. But nobody (12. HEAR)………….…..anything about these sheep. Most people (13.FIND)…………..it difficult to tell one from another in any case.” I (14. STAY)……….to watch the races, and I must admit that I (15. FIND)…………it quite exciting. In a typical race, half a dozen sheep (16. RACE) …………. downhill over a course of about half a mile. Food (17. WAIT)…………….for them at the other end of the track, I ought to add! The sheep (18. RUN)…………..surprisingly fast, although presumably they (19.NOT EAT)…………. for a while just to give them some motivation. At any rate, the crowd around me (20. OBVIOUSLY/ ENJOY)………….. their day out at the races, judging by their apply happy faces and the sense of excitement. 5
V. WORD FORMATION Use the words in capitals to form a word that fits the space. Example: 0: PROBABILITY DANGEROUS WORK The (0)………….(PROBABLE) of your being killed or injured at work determines how much life (1)……………………..(INSURE) you have to pay. An (2)………(ELECTRIC), for example, has a fairly high life (3)…………….(EXPECT)- they are only at risk from the odd (4)………………..(FAULT) cable- and therefore in a low risk (5)……………(CLASSIFY). Higher premiums are paid by people who have more (6)…………….(DANGER) jobs such a (7)………………(CONSTRUCT) workers. There were sixty-five deaths on building sites last year alone. (8)……………(FORTUNATELY), most accidents and deaths are caused by a (9)…………(TEND) to ignore (10)……………(SAFE) regulations, when simple precautions and good sense can prevent fatalities. PART IV- READING 1: Read the text and decide which answer (A, B, C, D) best fits each space. (10p.)
6
2: Fill ONE suitable word in the blank. Skateboard Some sports or activities have traditionally been (1)………. with you people, even though it is not always clear why. Skateboarders, for instance, are expected to (2)……….teenagers wearing clothes four sizes too big for them. When you come to think of it, there’s (3)………..practical reason why people over the age of 21 shouldn’t take (4)………the sport. Skateboarding involves a certain (5)………. of falling off the board, (6)……..can of course be painful, but this also (7)………. to other sports like skiing or surfing. Sports should not be restricted (8)…………teenagers. There is (9)……….wrong with a grown up gliding down the road on his or her board. (10)……………the same time, I must confess that I (11)………. a certain sympathy for my niece Emily when her father, my older brother Tom, announced that he was going skateboarding with her. At the age of 14 you are very conscious of (12)…………other people think of you. She knew all her friends would laugh at her if she arrived for the regular Saturday morning skateboarding sessions in the local park with her dad. Emily felt (13)…………embarrassment would be more than she could bear, so she kindly asked her father (14)…………he could go skateboarding somewhere else. Tom realized how embarrassed Emily must felt and (15)…………….. out laughing. 3: Read the passage and questions or unfinished sentences then choose the answerthat you think fits best. Johannes Gutenberg was a pioneer in the use of movable type . When he began building a printing press in 1436, he was unlikely to have realized that he was giving birth to an art form that would take center stage in the social and industrial revolutions that followed 7
Gutenberg was German, his press was wooden, and the most important aspect of his invrntion was that it was the first form of printing to use movable type. Although Laurence Koster of Haarlem also laid claim to the invention, scholars have generally accepted Gutenberg as the father of modern painting. Before Gutenberg, the printing press was used only to reproduce pictures, playing cards, and designs on cloth. Designs were cut in wood, stone, or metal and transfered to parchment or vellum. Sometimes a few words of explanation were cut into the printing block, but that was the limit of text printing. Books were copird by hand by monks, which was a labor-intensive undertaking. Detailed records of Gutenberg's life and wok are neligible; his name doeas not appear on any of the works credited to him. From what is known , Gutenberg was born in Msinz, Germany, in about 1400. He worked as a silversmith and also served as a policeman. In 1438, he became a partner in a block printing firm. From 1438 to 1455, he experimented with metal type. Perhaps his most significant innovation was the efficient molding and casting of movable metal type. Each seperate laetter was carved into the end of a steel punch which was then hammered into a copper blank. The copper impression was inserted into a mold and a molten alloy made of lead and tin was poured into it. The metal cooled quickly and the resulting reverse image of the letter was attached to a lead base. The width of the lead base varied according to the letter's size (for example, the base of an 'i' would not nearly as wide as the base of an 'w') . This emphasized the visual impacts of words and clusters of words rather than evenly spaced letters. This novelty lent elegance and sophistication to what seemed to many to be the magically perfect regularity of a printed page. Gutenberg designed a Latin-print Bible which became his signature work.He printed approximately 300 two- volume Gutenberg Bibles, which sold for 30 florins eac, or about three years' of a clerk's wage.The copies of the 42 - line Bible that remain - about 40 in allare among the world's most valuable books. It is known as the 42-line Bible because most of its pages were printed in two columns forty -two lines long. The Library of Congress in Washington, D.C has one of the three remaining complete and perfect sets. All in all, Gutenberg's contributions to early printing technology should be classed with the greatest events in the history of the world. It caused a revolution in the development of culture, equaled by hardly any other incident in the Christian Era. Thus, not only has Gutenberg's art been inseparable from the progress og science, it has also been an indispensable factor in the education of people at large. Culture and knowledge, until then considered aristocratic privileges peculiar to certain classes, were popularized by typography, although in the process it unfortunately brought about an internal revolution in the intellectual world in the direction of what is profane and free from restraint. 1. What is the main topic of the passage? A. The history of printing around the world. B. The contributions Gutenberg made to typography C. The famous 42-line Bible D. Different kinds of print type and their applications 2. The word 'aspect' is closest in meaning to............. A. feature B. type C. relation D. purpose 3. According to paragraph 2, how were books reproduced before the printing press. A. Monks copied them by hands 8
B. Designs were cut in wood, stone or metal and transfered to parchment or vellum C. Books were not able to reproduced at that time. D. Sometimes a few words of explanation were cut into the printing block. 4. The word ' neligible' is closest in meaning to............ A. insignificant B. enormous C.well-known D. limited 5. According to the passage , what lent elegance and sophistication to a printed page? A. The letters were all the same size B. A lead base was used for the letters C. The letters "i' and 'w' were stylized D. The letters were aligned with perfect regularity 6. The word 'innovation' is closest in meaning to................ A. metal B. blank C. letter D. novelty 7. Why is Gutenberg's Bible called the 42-line Bible? A. The complete bible was written 42 lines B. Most pages contained exactly 42 lines C. Only 42 lines of the bible have been found D. The bible consisted of 42 lines per volume. 8. The author implies that Gutenberg........................ A. invented the printing press B. was the to print text C. only printed a bible D. was not sucessful at nay job 9. In the last paragraph the author suggests that ............. A. Gutenberg contributed little to the development of printing B. Gutenberg's art has no connection to the progress of modern science. C. culture and knowledge in the Christian Era was peculiar to all classes. D. The invention of movable type was a significant event in world history. 10. Which of the following should not be included in a summary of the passage? A. The 42-line Bible is cinsidered Gutenberg's finest work. B. Gutenberg changed the way text is produced C. Gutenberg was one of the most famous Germans in history. D. Movable metal type was invented by Gutenberg.
9
4:
10
11
12
13
PART V- WRITING 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given (5pts). 1. I tried as hard as I could to make sure that this problem would not arise. (power) I ___________________________________________________ this problem from arising. 2. I don't think it was reasonable of you to complain so much about the service. (justified) I don't think you _____________________________________________ fuss about the service. 3. Laura was faced by a lot of problems during her childhood. (contend) Laura had a _________________________________________________ during her childhood. 4. The audience suddenly started to applaud loudly. (sudden) All ___________________________________________________ from the audience. 5. David played the main role when the proposal was drafted. (instrumental) David ___________________________________________________ of the proposal. 6. It is unusual for young children to ask a lot of questions. (apt) Young children..................................................................................... 14
7. David felt uncomfortable in front of those people.(ill) David seemed really................................................................... 8. The handling of the matter has been heavily criticized by the press. (scorn) The press.............................................................................. 9. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled. (hair) When they broke the news............................................................... 10. Laura was faced by a lot of problems during her childhood. (contend) Laura had............................................................................... .2;
3: There are many benefits to a good education. Therefore a university education should be offered to all students, not just students with good high school grade. Do you agree or disagree? 15
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience. Write at least 250 words.
-THE END-
Đáp án đề thi HSG khu vực duyên hải bắc bộ 2014 PART I : LISTENING
Section 1: 1. Education officials 3. She is not surprised Section 2:
2. Because their parents are too busy to interact with their children 4. They can’t express themselves. 5. Parents
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. C
PART II: phonetics 1. D 2. C 3. A 6. C 7. A 8. B PART III: Lexico-grammar I. 1.C 2.B 3. A 4.B 5.D 11.B 12C 13.B 14.B 15.A II. 1. possibly is is possibly 2. the year a year 3. remembered like remembered as 4. black luxurious luxurious black 5. quite could could quite 6. any longer no longer 7. now is is now 8. those days these days 9. makes very rarely very rarely makes 10. looking through looking after III. 1. of 2. on 3. of 6. to 7. on 8. for 11.down 12.stick 13.about 16. off 17. on 18.into 16
4. C 9. A
5.C 10.C
6.C 7.D 8.A 9.C 10.A 16.D 17.C 18.A 19.D 20.C.
4. to 9. for 14.by 19.in
5.for 10.to-for 15.out 20.over
IV. 1. know 2. have been having/ have had 3. have been turning/have turned/ are turning 4. involves 5. did hear/ heard 6. Holds 7. have turned up 8. was passing 9. thought 10. did not believe 11. has already studied 12. has heard 13. find 14. Stayed 15. Found 16. race 17. is waiting 18. Run 19. have not eaten 20. were obviously enjoying / obviously enjoyed V. 1.insurance 6. dangerous
2. electrician 7. construction
3. expectancy 8. unfortunately
4.faulty 9. tendency
5. classification 10. safety
PART 4: Reading
2.
1.connected 9. nothing 3. 1.B 2.A 4. 1. vi 2. Xi
2. Be 3. No 4. Up 5.amount 10. At 11.felt 12. What
6. Which 13. The
7.applies 14. If
3.A
8.B
10.C
4.A
3. Viii
5.D
6.D
4. I
7.B 5. ix
9.D 6. iii
8. most abundant element
9. billions of dollars
10. On-board reformers
11. the airship’s fabric
13. B 14. A Part 5: writing 1. 1. did everything (with)in my power to prevent/stop 2. were justified in making such a 3. a lot of problems to contend with 4. of a sudden there was loud applause 5. was instrumental in the drafting 6. are apt to ask a lot of questions 7.ill at ease in front of those people. 17
8. to 15. burst
7. v 12. power and acceleration
8.has poured scorn on the handling of the matter 9. she didn't turn a hair 10.a lot of problems to contend with during her childhood. Hết
18
SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO YÊN BÁI TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN NGUYỄN TẤT THÀNH -------------------ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ Môn: TIẾNG ANH Lớp: 11
Thời gian: 180 phút
PART ONE. LISTENING (15p.) Question 1 (5p.) You'll hear a man talking about living and working on Trinidad. Listen carefully and answer the questions. 1. Steve Penfold did voluntary service ______ A. before university B. during university C. after university 2. Steve had to pay for _______ A. his travel B. his accommodation C. his day-to-day expenses 3. Where did the charity organisation want to send Steve at first? A. Trinidad B. India C. Tobago 4. What does Steve say about the population of Trinidad? A. There are more people of Indian descent than African. B. The majority are descendents of slaves. C. There are several different ethnic groups. 5. Steve says that some language terms in Trinidad _______ A. are not connected to the English language. B. have meanings that have local origin. C. are from other carnivals around the world. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 2 (10p). Listen to an interview with a man who enjoys flying in a small aircraft called a microlight and complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. 1. Before retirement, Brian worked as a pilot for a company called _______________ for a long time. 2. Brian feels like a bird when flying his microlight because he doesn't have a _______________ around him. 3. Brian disagrees with the suggestion that steering a microlight is like steering a _______________. 4. Brian's record-breaking flight ended in _______________ 5. Brian organised his flight in advance to avoid needing other people as _______________ on the way. 6. Brian's microlight was modified so that it could carry more _______________ on board. 7. It took Brian _______________ to plan the record-breaking flight. 8. Brians feels that flying over mile and miles of _______________ was the most dangerous part of the trip. 9. Brian describes his navigation system as both _______________ and easy to use. 1
10. Brian says that his main problem on the flight was the fact that he became very _______________. Your answers: 1. 2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART TWO. PHONETICS (5p) Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the others in each group.(2.5p) 1. A. ticked B. naked C. hatred D. wicked 2. A. loath B. smooth C. path D. breath 3. A.exhaust B. luxurious C. luxury D. anxiety 4. A. commerce B. confident C. confess D. conquer 5. A. expansion B. conversation C. convulsion D. precision Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. Question 2: Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from those of the others in each group.(2.5p) 1. A. explanatory B. immediately C. democracy D. trigonometry 2. A. electronic B. agriculture C. secretary D. temporary 3. A. confidently B. consistently C. eliminate D. anticipate 4. A. alternative B. guitarist C. ecosystem D. semester 5.A. heritage B. mysterious C. historical D. particular Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. PART THREE. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (25p.) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (5p.) 1. When you are learning a language at home, you can work at your own ________. A. speed B. pace C. way D. mind 2. I’m afraid that Tim doesn’t take much care over his home work. He usually does it ______. A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come 3. Superconductivity will revolutionize the way that energy is used for the next millennium, and _______ the first truly superconductive substance will be remembered as a technological hero. A. what the discovery of B. the discovery of C. whoever discovers D. whose discovery 4. Closure of schools took place ___________ falling numbers of pupils. A. in the context of B. with regard to C. with a concern for D. in consideration of 5. Doctors are often ____________ to accidents in rural areas. 2
A. called up B. driven out C. called out D. rung up 6. Extra blanket will be supplied on ______________ A. request B. requirement C. asking D. need 7. If I’m late for work again, I’ll be________a severe warning from my boss. A. up to B. in for C. onto D. after 8. We need guaranteed financial ______________ before we can even start the design work. A. agreement B. backing C. analysis D. plans 9. In ___________, it was a bad idea to pay him in cash. A. hindsight B. consideration C. retrospect D. knowledge 10. The trade unions called for a 5% pay increase for all public________ workers. A. section B. area C. zone D. sector 11. I’m afraid I’ve completely lost the ………… of the argument. A. stream B. thread C. trace D. idea 12. A meal in that restaurant costs the _______ but still it is always packed. A. world B. soil C. earth D. moon 13. If you can win his attention …………for you. A. the so much better B. the better so much C. so much the better D. so the much better 14. No one can function properly if he or she is ………… adequate sleep. A. took away B. deprived of C. derived from D. got rid of 15. I was so exhausted that I went out like…………. A. a baby B. a candle C. a light D. a log 16. If you want to be a rock star, talent helps, but what it really_______ down to is luck. A. boils B. revolves C. centres D. refines 17. It is true of many things in life that beginning is……………... A. now or never B. pure and simple C. half the battle D. all very well 18. She had no chance to defend herself: the dog………… for me as soon as I opened the door. A. ran B. went C. fell D. stood 19. John …………from social activity because he felt embarrassed with people. A. held on B. held off C. held back D. held out 20. The text doesn’t give you the answer explicitly – you have to……….it from the evidence. A. convert B. grasp C. reckon D. deduce Your answers: 1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) Line 1 2
There may be a vacancy on the school board next May. The position must be filled before the next school session, which begin on 3
3 September 7th. Anyone who is resident of Smithtown, at last 21 years 4 old, and interested in fulfilling his or her civic duty may fill out an 5 application for considered by the city council. Applications may be 6 obtained at the City Hall on Center Avenue or at the Smithtown 7 Public Library downtown. Those residents who are current enrolled 8 in adult learning classes with the intent of earning a secondary school 9 certificate are excluding from applying. Please note that applications 10 will be reviewed in alphabet order. Submit your application until 11 January 1st in order to be considered for this position. Use a blue or 12 black pen when filling out the forms. It is not unnecessary to attach 13 other documents such as résumé or cover letters. Candidates, who are 14 invited in through an interview will be asked to bring references at 15 that time. For those interested in becoming involved with city council 16 in other ways, visit office 2B in the second floor at City Hall. Your answers Line
Mistake
Correction
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10
Question 3: Fill each blank space with an appropriate preposition or particle. (5 point) 1. My attention was drawn ____________ the picture on the far wall. 2. The villagers left their homes in the valleys and moved to higher grounds as a precaution __________ flooding 3. Queen Victoria reigned ____________ Britain and Ireland for over sixty years. 4. I think you have missed ____________ John and Sally from the invitation list. 5. Paula decided to pack ___________ her teaching job and work in a bar. 4
6. He got _________ the examination fairly well although his health had broken down a few days before it started. 7. He was poor, but he rent a mansion and set ___________ himself as a millionaire. 8. As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put _____________ a proposal? 9. After the war, several people were tired from crimes ___________ humanity. 10. I’ll leave the key with the porter _____________ convenience. 11. The school examination for eleven-year-olds was done_________ with some years ago. 12. Tuck your shirt ________your trousers. 13. At first Tim insisted he was right, but then began to back ________ 14. He is a solicitor________ profession. 15. A huge crowd turned _________ in the pouring rain to cheer the president. 16. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs_________ his old friends. 17.They always close at six o’clock ________the dot. 18. It was late when we arrived and the party was ________full swing. 19. He was___________ all accounts a very kind and gentle man. 20. Since I changed washing powders, my clothes have looked whiter and felt softer _______the touch. Your answers: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. Question 4. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct tenses or forms of the verbs in brackets. (5p.) 1. There (1. be)…………….nothing else to say, he (2.declare)………….the meeting close. 2. The man (3.enter)……………the small inn, his right arm (4.wound)………..supposedly by a bullet. He stared at me and then made his way for the table in the far corner. 3. It’s a pity that you (5.not ask)…………., for I (6. help)…………you. 4. The manager (7.move)………….that the meeting (8.adjourn)………… . 5. It’s great pity you (9.not come)………………to Brighton with us last Saturday. As you had never seen the sea before, it (10. be)…………a new experience for you. 6. The little boy had a lot of trouble (11. convince)…………everyone that he (12.see)…….a mermaid. 7. The girl got into a lot of trouble. She (13. not tell)………….a lie. 8. I appreciated (14. tell)………………..the news.
5
9. The sunlight (15.come) through the window (16. wake)…………me up early every morning. 10. The dog came down suddenly and I suppose they didn’t know which way to turn. If only they (17. have)…………..a map and a compass with them, they (18. not drown)…… 11. He saves $500 a year. By the time he (19.retire)………, he (20. save)……….$ 20,000. Your answers 1……………………………..
8……………………………..
15……………………………..
2.……………………………..
9……………………………..
16……………………………..
3……………………………..
10…………………………….. 17……………………………..
4……………………………..
11…………………………….. 18……………………………..
5……………………………..
12…………………………….. 19……………………………..
6……………………………..
13…………………………….. 20……………………………..
7……………………………..
14……………………………..
Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p) Your answers Human activity made its mark on land use and vegetation in coastal regions of southern Europe long before the first (1. PACK)…..holidays arrived. By classical times, these areas had already seen extensive (2. ERODE)……….by natural and human activity, and the process continues today.
1…………………….. 2……………………. 3……………………..
The hospitable climate of the area, long appreciated in literature as well as holiday brochures, produces seasonal variations in levels of soil (3. MOIST)………..and consequently in plant growth. In an area where (4. DRY)………..occur frequently, there was a distinctive soil type at one time, with plants which had adapted to it. Nowadays though, this soil cover is no longer in (5. EXIST)…………anywhere in the region.
4…………………….
The early years of the 1980s were (6. EXCEPT)……….dry and this exacerbated problems brought about by the (7. SUBSTANCE)……….
9…………………….
growth of industry in rural areas and the intensification of agriculture. Pollution and insufficient water supplies have become problems to which the landscape is increasingly (8. SENSE)………….. The more recently this type of land has fallen out of use, the longer it takes for plant cover to reestablish itself. 6
5…………………….. 6…………………….. 7…………………….. 8…………………….
10…………………….
The European Union has set up a programme of (9. SEARCH)…… into land degradation in southern Europe, involving forty-four universities in the (10. GATHER)………..of data which can be used to inform the policy decisions needed to deal with the issue. Your answers 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
PART FOUR: READING (25p) Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.) The elementary means of communicating with other people is (1)…………messages by voice. This fact is widely (2)………..and we recognize the voice as a (3)………..characterizing the identity of a person. The array of voices is immeasurable as no two are exactly similar. They can be nasal, resonant or shrill produced in (4)……….with the individual physical (5)………of the throat. One possible (6)………..of the art of voice recognition is voice profiling used by police analysts as a method of (7)……….court evidence in trials. Every year thousands of audiotapes with recorded interviews or casual utterances are (8)………to the purpose to help identify the probable culprit. Specialists dealing with the voice investigation claim that people can (9)…….themselves away by their accents, inflections or other voice attributes like pitch, intensity and loudness. A recorded sample is usually (10)……..into electric impulses and later transformed into a pictorial recording which is processed by a computer program. Very frequently voice analysts have a (11)………..at deciphering the relevant information which may be (12)……..with background noise or other interesting sounds until they (13)………the desired results. Thankfully, these efforts help the police detect individuals who threaten their victims by phone or inform about bomb (14)………..or those who make offensive calls (15)………the peace of decent citizens. 1.
A. commuting
B. discharging
C. informing
D. conveying
2.
A. reassured
B. acknowledged
C. declared
D. reckoned
3.
A. feature
B. matter
C. token
D. label
7
4.
A. consent
B. accordance
C. dependence
D. support
5.
A. tendencies
B. credentials
C. assets
D. properties
6.
A. operation
B. handling
C. implementation
D. treatment
7.
A. substantiating
B. facilitating
C. pledging
D. withstanding
8.
A. used
B. put
C. employed
D. set
9.
A. give
B. turn
C. prove
D. tell
10.
A. reformed
B. exchanged
C. adjusted
D. converted
11.
A. stake
B. stag
C. stack
D. stab
12.
A. infused
B. mingled
C. abused
D. intruded
13.
A. attain
B. maneuvered
C. elaborate
D. succeed
14
A. situating
B. deploying
C. planting
D. settling
15
A. distracting
B. dismantling
C. dispersing
D. disturbing
Your answers 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Question 2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.) The first London to Brighton run took place on November 14th, 1896. It was organized to celebrate the (1)______of a law which made it easier for cars in Britain to be driven on the roads. (2)_________then, the law required a driver and an engineer in the car and a man walking in front of the vehicle with a red flag warning of its approach. Since then, this annual run has become one of the most (3)________events on the British motoring calendar,(4)_________crowds of over one million lining the route. Only the (5)_______oldest cars, constructed during the ten years between 1895 and 1905, are allowed to take part in it. Lovingly polished by their drivers, who are dressed (6)_____the clothing of the (7)______, the cars leave Hyde Park in London at 7.30 am and (8)_______, hopefully, in Brighton some three hours later. The 60-mile run is not a race- there’s an official coffee stop on the (9)______and the cars are restricted to an average (10)_______of only 30kph. The only (11)_______for finishing is a medal, which is awarded to everyone who (12)________ Brighton before 4pm. The run traditionally (13)______participants from all four corners of the world, (14)_______Europe, Asia, Africa and Australia. Since the youngest car is nearly a hundred years old, some of them (15)____down of course. But for the owners of the 400-plus vehicles, it’s simply being there that brings the greatest pleasure. 8
Your answers 1. 6. 11.
2. 7. 12.
3. 8. 13.
4. 9. 14.
5. 10. 15.
Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) Many species of fish, particularly smaller fish, travel in schools, moving in tight formations, often with the precision of the most highly disciplined military unit on parade. Some move in synchronized hordes, while others move in starkly geometric forms. In addition to the varieties of shapes of schools of fish, there are countless varieties of schooling behaviors. Some fish coalesce into schools and then spread out in random patterns, while others move into close formations at specific times, such as feeding times, but are more spread out at other times. Some move in schools composed of members of all age groups, while others move in schools predominantly when they are young but take up a more solitary existence as they mature. Though this behavior is quite a regular, familiar phenomenon, there is much that is not completely known about it, particularly the exact function that it serves and what mechanisms fish use to make it happen. Numerous hypotheses have been proposed and tested concerning the purpose of schooling behavior in fish. Schooling certainly promotes the survival of the species, but questions arise as to the way the schooling enables fish to have a better chance of surviving. Certainly, the fact that fish congregate together in schools helps to ensure their survival in that schooling provides numerous types of protection for the members of the school. One form of protection derives from the sheer numbers in the school. When a predator attacks a school containing a huge number of fish, the predator will be able to consume only a small percentage of the school. Whereas some of the members of the school will be lost to the predator, the majority of the school will be able to survive. Another form of protection comes from the special coloration and markings of different types of fish. Certain types of coloration or markings such as stripes or patterns in vibrant and shiny colors create a visual effect when huge numbers of the fish are clustered together, making it more difficult for a potential predator to focus on specific members of the school. A final form of protection comes from a special sense that fish possess a sense that is enhanced when fish swim in schools. This special sense is related to a set of lateral line organs that consist of rows of pores leading to fluid-filled canals. These organs are sensitive to minute vibrations in the water. The thousands of sets of those special organs in a school of fish together can prove very effective in warning the school about an approaching threat. It is also unclear exactly how fish manage to maintain their tight formations. Sight seems to play a role in the ability of fish to move in schools, and some scientists believe that, at least in some species, sight may play the principal role. However, many experiments indicate that more than sight is involved. Some fish school quite well in the dark or in murky water where visibility is extremely limited. This indicates that senses other than eyesight must be involved in enabling the schooling behavior. The lateral line system most likely plays a significant role in the ability of fish to school. Because these lateral line organs are sensitive to the most minute vibrations and currents, this organ system may be used by fish to detect movements among members of their school even when eyesight is limited or unavailable. 1. The author mentions the most highly disciplined military unit on parade in paragraph 1 in order to………. 9
A. describe aggressive nature of a school of fish B. provide an example of a way that military units travel C. create a mental imagine of the movement of a school of fish D. contrast the movement of a military unit with that of a school of fish 2. The word hordes in paragraph is closest in meaning to A. shapes B. masses C. pairs D. patterns 3. All of the following are stated in paragraph 1 about schooling EXCEPT that…….. A. it is quite common B. it can involve large numbers of fish C. it can involve a large number of different behaviors D. it is fully understood 4. Which fish would be LEAST likely to be in a school? A. A large, older fish B. A large, colorful fish C. A young, hungry fish D. A tiny, shiny fish 5. According to paragraph 3,…………… A. fish cannot see well B. sight is the only sense used by fish to remain in schools C. not all fish use sight to remain in schools D. fish can see quite well in the dark 6. The word it in paragraph 1 refers to………. A. existence B. behaviour C. fish D. function 7. It is NOT stated in the passage that the lateral line system ……… A. contains lines of pores B. can detect movement in the water C. quite possibly helps fish to remain in schools D. in fish is similar to sense organs in other animals. 8. The word sheer numbers in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by……… A. solitude B. interlude C. multitude D. similitude 9. It can be inferred from the passage that when a predator attacks,……… A. It cannot possibly consume all members of a school if the school is large enough. B. It rarely manages to catch any fish that are part of a school. C. It is usually successful in wiping out the entire school. D. It attacks only schools that lack sense organs. 10. It is stated in paragraph 2 that ………… A. fish in schools rarely have distinct markings B. schooling fish tend to have muted coloration C. the effect of coloration is multiplied when fish are massed together D. the bright coloration makes it easier for predators to spot fish Your answers: 1. 2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Question 4. There are ten extracts which have been removed from the following passage. Put an extract from A-L in the correct gap 1-10 to complete the passage. There are two extracts you're not going to need. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) One of the most difficult wastes to recycle is mixed plastic,…. (1)… Plastics manufactures turn their own off cuts into granules that are melted down for reuse. They can also reuse any single, pure thermoplastic materials….(2)…. The British firm Meyer-Newman of Gwent 10
recycles complete telephones into new ones. But mixed plastics have unpredictable properties and low structural strengths because …(3)…. So, it is difficult to make a material with good and predictable properties from mixed plastics waste. In the grip of the octopus One answer is the compatibiliser. This is an octopus-like molecule in which each “arm” represents a section of a different polymer, that in turn…(4)…. Stirred into a mixture of molten plastics, each arm of the octopus grabs and reacts chemically with a molecule of one polymer in the mixture. The result is an alloy rather than a mixture. It is strong….(5)…so it is potentially reusable. During the past two or three years many plastics manufactures have …(6)….. But perhaps the most advanced, “Bennet”, was produced independently two years ago, after 15 years of research, by the Dutch engineer Ben Van der Groep. His invention is already being used widely, largely in secret…(7)… Benet is made up of short sections of several polymers representing the arm of the octopus, each able to link the molecules of a different polymer in the mixture. The reliable strength of the plastic “alloys” made with Benner suggests that …(8)…. The vehicles recycling industry is keen to recycle more plastics. ….(9)…, they fear that the steady increase in the use of irreclaimable plastics will soon make it uneconomic to recover vehicles for the metals they contain. Some car manufacturers, such as BMW and Mercedes, are now designing products requesting components that are easier to recycle;…(10)… A. because of intra-molecule bonding and has highly predictable properties, B. is characteristic of a different plastic. C. developed their own compatibilisers D. Despite the environmental benefits E. often used in wrappers and containers. F. they could be used in high-grade, high-cost applications such as car bumpers. G. it does not have sufficient rigidity. H. for example, car bumpers made from one material instead of up to seven. I. as many manufacturers do not want to be seen to be using recycles plastics in their quality products. J. such as polythene that are not chemically cross-linked. K. the different plastic in the mixture are not bonded at a molecular level. L. always been skeptical about recycling plastics. Your answers 11
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART V: WRITING (30p.) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5p.) 1. She didn’t shed a tear when the story ended in tragedy. Not ______________________________________________________ 2. He was so enthusiastic that he apparently ignored any warning signs. Such _________________________________________________________ 3. Pop stars are corrupted by the adulation of their fans. It’s the way _______________________________________________________ 4. He sounds as if he’s spent all his life abroad. He gives ___________________________________________________ 5. What I understand from her words is that it seems neither Cole nor Ledley King will be going to Japan. Reading _________________________________________________________ For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5p.) 6. His smooth manner didn’t deceive us.
(TAKEN)
_________________________________________________________________ 7. The President was impeached because of his financial misconduct.
(GROUNDS)
______________________________________________________________ 8. The jumper you knitted for my daughter no longer fits her.
(GROWN)
_________________________________________________________________ 9. Oskar didn’t feel like going out last night.
(MOOD)
_________________________________________________________________ 10. No one listened to what the politician was saying last night.
(EARS)
_________________________________________________________________ Question 2: (10p) The graph below shows the proportion of the population aged 65 and over between 1940 and 2040 in three different countries. 12
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparison where relevant. Write about 150 words
_____________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ 13
______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ Question 3. Essay writing (15p.) Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Parents are the best teachers. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer. You should give reasons for your answer using your own ideas and experience. Write about 250 words. ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ 14
______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________ ______________________________________________________________________
-THE END-
15
BIỂU ĐIỂM VÀ ĐÁP ÁN CHẤM PART ONE. LISTENING (15p.) Question 1 (5p.) 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. B Question 2 (10p). 1. British Airways 2. Cabin 6. fuel 7. 9 months
3. Motorbike 8. Sea
4. Australia 5. Helpers 9. Accurate 10. tired
PART TWO. PHONETICS (5p) Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the others in each group.(2.5p) 1A 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.D Question 2: Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from those of the others in each group.(2.5p) 1.D 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.A PART THREE. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (30p.) Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (10p.) 0.5p for each correct answer. 1. B
2. A
3. C
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. B
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. C
14.B
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. D
Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 0.5p for each correct answer. Line 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
There may be a vacancy on the school board next May. The position must be filled before the next school session, which begin on September 7th. Anyone who is resident of Smithtown, at last 21 years old, and interested in fulfilling his or her civic duty may fill out an application for considered by the city council. Applications may be obtained at the City Hall on Center Avenue or at the Smithtown Public Library downtown. Those residents who are current enrolled in adult learning classes with the intent of earning a secondary school certificate are excluding from applying. Please note that applications will be reviewed in alphabet order. Submit your application until January 1st in order to be considered for this position. Use a blue or black pen when filling out the forms. It is not unnecessary to attach other documents such as resume or cover letters. Candidates, who are 16
14 15 16
invited in through an interview will be asked to bring references at that time. For those interested in becoming involved with city council in other ways, visit office 2B in the second floor at City Hall. Line
Mistake
Correction
1.
2
begin
begins
2.
3
last
least
3.
5
considered
consideration
4.
7
current
currently
5.
9
excluding
excluded
6.
10
alphabet
alphabetical
7.
10
until
by
8.
12
unnecessary
necessary
9.
14
through
for
10
16
in
on
Question 3: Fill each blank space with an appropriate preposition or particle. (5 point) 1. to 2. against 3. over 4. out 5. in 6. through 7. up 8. forward 9. against 10. for 11.away 12.in 13.down 14.by 15.out 16.down 17. on 18.in 19.by 20.to Question 4. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct tenses or forms of the verbs in brackets. (5p.) 1. being
8.(should) be adjourned
15. coming
2. declared
9. didn’t come
16.makes
3.entered
10.would have been
17. had had
4.wounded
11. convincing
5.didn’t ask
12. had seen
18. wouldn’t have been drowned
6.could have helped
13. shouldn’t have told
19. retires
7.moved
14.having been told
20. will have saved
17
Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p.) 1. package
2.erosion
3.moisture
4.droughts
5.existence
6.exceptionally
7.substantial
8.sensitive
9.research
10.gathering
PART FOUR: READING (25p) Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.) 1.D
2.B
3.A
4.B
5.D
6.C
7.A
9.A
10.D
11.D
12.B
13.A
14.C
15.D
8.B
Question 2. Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.) 1. passing 6. in 11. reward
2. Before 7. period 12. reaches
3.popular 8. arrive 13. attracts
4. with 9. way 14. including
5. very 10. speed 15. break
Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 1C
2B
3D
4A
5C
6B
7D
8C
9A
10C
Question 4. There are ten extracts which have been removed from the following passage. Put an extract from A-L in the correct gap 1-10 to complete the passage. There are two extracts you're not going to need. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 1E
2J
3K
4B
5A
6C
7I
8F
9D
10H
PART V: WRITING (30p.) Question 1:(5p) Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. 1. Not a tear did she shed when the story ended in tragedy. 2. Such was his enthusiasm that he apparently ignored any warning signs. 18
3. It’s the way their fans adulate them that corrupts pop stars. 4. He gives the impression of having spent all his life abroad. 5. Reading between the lines, it seems neither Cole nor Ledley King will be going to Japan. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. 6. We were not taken in by his smooth manner. 7. The President was impeached on the grounds of his financial misconduct. 8. My daughter has grown out of the jumper you knitted for her. 9. Oskar was in no mood/ wasn’t in the mood for going/to go out last night. 10. What the politician was saying fell on deaf ears last night.
Question 2: Question 3. Essay writing The impression mark is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (5p.) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate. 2. Language: (5p.) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 3. Presentation: (5p.) coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
Tapescripts Question 1: Steve: Hi, Im Steve Penfold and I"m here today to tell you about ray gap year, which I took about 20 vears ago. Unlike many students these days who go travelling or get some work experience between school and university, I decided to do something completely different after finishing my degree. I applied to work for a charity organisation. What it does is it sends people with particular skills to countries where those skills are needed. Apart from having some experience teaching English to summer-school students, I didnt have any particularly useful skills, I thought, but luckily I was still accepted. I had to find the money for the flight, but you get free accommodation - I stayed with a family of five - and you do get paid, but not much. Its a bit like pocket money enough to get by. I worked in an orphanage and taught English at a local school. Where was I? Well, originally I was going to be sent to a village in India, but at the last minute the organisation decided to send me to Trinidad. Now, this is a fascinating place. It's an island in the Caribbean. Well, in fact the country is actually two islands - the smaller one is called Tobago, which is connected somehow to the word tobacco. 19
Anyway, there I was, a young white guy living and working on an island which is mostly a mixture of descendants from Africa and India. The Africans were originally brought over as slaves and the Indians came later as indentured workers. That means they agreed to come for a specific time, but many of them stayed. There are also some Trinidadians of Chinese and British origin, though the native inhabitants were basically wiped out by colonialisation. I, myself, felt completely accepted and had the time of my life. The language everyone speaks is English, so there was no problem for me there, but some concepts don’t quite translate. They're pure Trinidadian. There's the term ‘liming’ for example, which means sitting around watching the world go by. Also, theres the famous carnival when the whole island is taken up in playing mass’. For a whole month around February or March - it depends when Easter is – everyone's busy preparing costumes, practising calypsos, soca and Steel pan music and most importantly, partying. Question 2:
20
21
SỞ GD& ĐT NINH BÌNH
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
TRƯƠNG THPT CHUYÊN
( Chọn HSG khu vực Duyên Hải –đồng bằng Băc Bộ lần thứ VII)
LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11 Thời gian làm bài: 180’ (Đề gồm 05 phần, 20 trang)
PART I: LISTENING: (15p) I. Listen to the text and choose the correct answer A, B or C: 1. In the past men play football in winter just for ______________ A. releasing energy. B. enjoying climate. C. training team spirit. 2. Football used to be regarded as a rough sport for aristocrat in __________________ A. the Victorian era. B. the Renaissance. C. the Shakespeare’s time. 3. The official football league of controlling violence is _____________________ A. the police office. B. the Football Association. C. the football union. 4. Which of the following is related to the origin of tennis? A. city hall B. theatre C. church 5. Cricket became a popular sport with upper classes in __________________ A. the eighteen century B. the nineteenth century C. the twentieth century II. Listen and answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR NUMBER for each answer. 1
1. What percentage of the students are mature?
……………………
2. What percentage of the students are from abroad?
……………………
3. How are the suburbs described?
……………………..
4. How many students does the university have?
……………………..
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. 5. Newtown is England’s ___________ city. 6, The ____________ is at Salt Lane. 7. A relatively high proportion of students decide to ______________ in Newtown after graduating. Complete the notes on using the university accommodation services, using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each gap. 8. The university accommodation services office is in the __________________. 9. The university accommodation services have a ________________that students can look through online. 10. The website also has responses to ________________. PART II: PHONETICS: (5p) I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the others: (2.5p) 1. A. surgical
B. surround
C. surrender
D. survival
2. A. opportunity
B. menu
C. attitude
D. muscular
3. A. physical
B. mythology
C. rhythm
D. psychology
4. A. apartheid
B. thorough
C. cathedral
D. ethnic
5. A. exhausted
B. cheetah
C. rhinoceros
D. alcoholic
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. ( 2.5 pts) 1.A.ingenuity
B. bacterium
2.A.misinterpret
B. advantageous
C. phenomenon
D. pneumonia
C. adolescent
contributory 3.A.marmalade
B. infamous
C. coincide
D. diagram
4.A.compromise
B. correspond
C. interview
D. innocent
5. A. antecedent
B. magnificent
C. benevolent
D. sobriety
2
D.
PART III: GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY: (30p) I. Choose the best answer to each sentence bellow. (5p) 1. I am aware of the honour bestowed ____ me. A. of
B. to
C. on
D. for
2. When he died, he left his family well provides ____. A. with
B. by
C. for
D. on
3. What chemical is this? It is ____ a horrible smell. A. giving out
B. giving away
C. giving off
D. giving up
4. It’s not fair the way my sister is always ____ for special treatments. A. singled out
B. picked off
C. taken on
D. laid aside
5. Let’s find a place where we can ____ the storm. A. wait out
B. wear off
C. shrug off
D. pull through
6. My cousin was in a car accident last week. Fortunately, he ____ it with only minor injuries. A. put off
B. cane through
C. take off
D. get out
C. edge out
D. hit on
7. You don’t ____ all this nonsense, do you? A. cordon off
B. buy into
8. I’m not sufficiently versed ____ computers to understand what you’re saying. A. to
B. into
C. about
D. in
9. After our busy day, we both sat and ____ in front of the TV. A. nodded off
B. slipped out
C. flaked off
D. knock off
10. The aim of the popular uprising was to ___ the government. A. knock down
B. bring down
C. take down
D. back down
11. You ___ the umbrella. Don’t you think it silly to carry an umbrella on such a nice day? A. mustn’t have brought
B. didn’t have to bring
C. needn’t have brought
D. didn’t need to bring
12. Will three people be enough? – Another three ____. A. will be
B. will do
C. can do
D. must be
13. – We hardly have any food in the house. – We’ll have to ____ what we have. A. make it do with B. make do with
C. make do with it 3
D. make do it
14. I think Ms. Copper is fit for her job as a secretary, ____? A. isn’t she
B. do I
C. is she
D. don’t I
15. We had intended to go out last night, but we were so tired that we didn’t ____ it and we stayed at home at last. A. fight off
B. try it out
C. feel up to
D. get through
16. Higher and higher ____ and then it was out of sight. A. flew it
B. it flew
C. did it fly
D. was it flying
17. One can’t think of Africa without thinking of Egypt, ____ of Egypt without the Nile. A. and
B. either
C. too
D. nor
18. Before they go to the university, most senior high school graduates have ____ idea of what college life is like. A. no less
B. no least
C. not less
D. not the least
19. The new chief executive moves that a daring innovation ____. A. will be considered B. is considered
C. be considered
D. was considered
20. After climbing the ____ of steps, the old man felt quite exhausted. A. hail
B. collection
C. flight
D. clump
II. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (5p)
There are 10 errors in 10 lines in the following passage. Identify and correct them. The first has been done for you.
4
Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything that is offering them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly cooked.
(0) healthy (41)_____
The way the meal is cooked and served is most important and an attractive served meal will often improve a child’s appetite. Never ask a child whether
(42)_________
he likes and dislikes a food and never discuss likes and dislikes in front of
(43)______
him or allow nobody else to do so. If the father says he hates fat meat or
(44)_______
the mother refuses vegetables under the child’s hearing he is likely to copy this procedure. Take it for grant that he likes everything and he probably
(45)________
a
(46)________
supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to give a child a small
(47)________
will. Nothing healthful should be omitted out the meal because of
portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give him as much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk to much to the child during
(48)________
the meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do not allow him to
(49)_______
leave the table immediately after a meal or he will soon learn to swallow his
(50)________
food so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no circumstance must a child be coaxed and forced to eat.
III. Complete the following sentences with the appropriate prepositions: (5p) 1. The new law on dropping litter comes ………. force next month 2. People who eat an unhealthy diet are susceptible ………. all kind of illnesses and diseases. 3. Damage to the building resulted ………. an unusually high wind. 4. My cousin talked ………. length about his recent holiday and bored everyone to death! 5. I applied for a part-time job at the supermarket. They’re going to take me ………. 6. When I was younger I wanted to be an air pilot but I soon went ………. the idea when I realized I hated flying. 7. Anna: This problem’s driving me crazy! Joe: Well, have you tried standing ………. from the situation and evaluating it objectively? 8. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ………. for a lot of criticism from freedom groups. 9. I was ………. the impression that you like Indian food. 10. This is one of the exceptions………. the rule. 5
11. British Leyland is aiming to push _____ its share of UK car sales to 25% over the next two years. 12. The factory paid _____ nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the explosion. 13. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were _____ the dole. 14. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut _____ teaching. 15. I have always looked _____ my older brother for his courage and honesty. 16. I can’t cancel my arrangements _____ such short notice. 17. All the police’s efforts to find him were _____ vain. 18. We were _____ tenterhooks all morning waiting for the phone to ring. 19. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely _____ the beaten track. 20. She’s gone and this time it’s _____ good. IV. Put each verb in parentheses into an appropriate form. (5p) Employees protesting at the planned closure of the Magnet electronics factory have begun a protest outside the factory in Brook Road. It ..(1)…………………....(reveal) last week
that
production
at
the
factory,
where
over
3000
local
people
...(2)…………………….(employ), ...(3)………………………...(transfer) to the Magnet plant in Lution next month. “Why ...(4)………………………....(we not inform) about this earlier?” We ...(5)……………………...(only tell) about this two days ago,’ said Marjory Calder, representing the workforce. “It’s about time companies such as this ...(6)………………...
(start)
thinking
about
how
local
communities
...(7)
……………………... (affect) by their policies. Most people here are buying houses. How ...(8) ……………………….... (their mortgage payments keep up)? And how are we going to find jobs? I wish I ...(9) …………………………….... (know).” Reg Reynolds of Magnet ...(10) ………………………...(ask) what ...(11)…………………………..(do) to help those who ...(12)…………………………..(make) redundant. “The majority of our employees ...(13)…………………...(offer) work at our plant in Luton,” he told our reporter, “and every effort ...(14) …………………………..(make) over the past month to offer early retirement to those who qualify.” When he ...(15) 6
………………………………...(question)
about
why
the
workers
...(16)
………………………...(not tell) about the closure earlier, he revealed that the company ...(17) ………………………………….. (promise) a government loan to keep the factory open, but that at the last minute it ...(18) ………………………...(decide) not to provide the loan after all. “So don’t blame the company, we’ve done our best.” Local MP Brenda Stone ...(19) …………………………... (ask) to raise the matter in the House of Commons, and told us that a letter ...(20) ………………………....(send) to the Minister responsible within the next few days. V. Complete the following passage with the correct forms of given words. OXYGEN
NEGLECT
INDICATE (X 2)
PURSUE
NATAL
AFFLICT
EXCEED
MOUNT
PROOF
Mineral, vitamin, and (1) _____ health supplements make up a multi-billion-dollar industry in the United States alone, but do they really work? Evidence suggests supplementation is clearly indicated in special circumstances, but can actually be harmful in others. For the general population, however, supplements have (2) ______ or no impact on the prevention of common cancers, cardiovascular diseases, cognitive decline, mortality, or any other major (3) _____ of health. In (4) _____ of a longer, happier and healthier, there are certainly better investments for most people than a tube of vitamin supplements. Particular sub-groups of the population can gain a (5) ______ benefit from supplementation. Folic acid has long been indicated as a (6) ______ supplement due to its assistance in foetal cell division and corresponding ability to prevent neural tube birth defects. The elderly may also benefit from extra vitamin D; calcium can help prevent bone fractures, and zinc can maintain vision while deflecting macular degeneration in people who would otherwise be likely to develop this (7) _______. There is (8) ______ evidence, however, for many people to steer clear or multivitamins. The prime example is (9) ___________ vitamin A has been proven to increase women’s
7
risk of a hip fracture and vitamin E was (10) ______ in a study that demonstrated higher rates of congestive heart failure among such vitamin users. VI. Fill in the missing word or words: Some famous places are disappointing: dirty, cramped, and a bit of a cliché. But there are others which even (1) ________ you've seen every television programme ever made about it, are every bit as wonderful as you'd imagined. The Grand Canyon is one of these and so, (2) ______________ being next door to a main road, is Stonehenge. Another is Venice which, in its entirety, (3) ___________ a great work of art, each decaying aspect revealing an (4) ____________ glimpse of water or startling. architecture, individual building or piazza (5) ________ an exquisite sense of proportion. I return to Venice every so (6) __________ in the course of my work and on each of these occasions 1 have found something new to marvel at. Alarm cries about how (7) __________ this can last are sounded every now and then each time the water levels rise. But the fact that this city is (8) __________ into the sea seems to add to its romantic atmosphere. ( 9)___________ serious is the depopulation, for it seems that just about every week another family leaves. Since 1945 more than half the population of Venice has moved to the mainland. The rich own the great palazzos along the Grand Canal and visit every once in a while but leave the windows dark for the rest of the time. Mass tourism threatens (10)_______very structure of the city. It is a sad victim of its own success.
PART IV: READING: (20p) I. Read the passage below carefully, and complete it with the appropriate words provided:
VIETNAM TO HOLD TRADITIONAL KITCHEN GOD CEREMONY IN HANOI Last updated: Friday, February 01, 2013 04:00:00 Vietnam will hold its first-ever large-scale Ong Tao (the (1)_______) ceremony in the capital city of Hanoi on February 3, the 23rd day of the last lunar month, one week before Tet, or Lunar New Year. The festival has been organized by the Ministry of Culture, Sports and Tourism and Hanoi (2)_______, The Thao & Van Hoa newspaper reported February 1. 8
The ceremony will begin early in the morning in the famous (3)_______ village of Bat Trang with a parade including a 1.2-meter tall ceramic Kitchen God and a 3.5-meter-long carp crafted by local artists, along with 12 trays of fruits and traditional cakes, through historic areas of Hanoi, which will (4)_______ up at the Centre for Art and Cultural Exhibition on Hoa Lu Street. There, a live carp will be placed in a pond, symbolizing the ascension of the Kitchen God to the Heavenly (5)_______. Then the procession will move on to the Ly Thai To statue, where the 12 trays of food will be placed on its (6)_______, before visiting the Ngoc Son temple, and Thang Long imperial citadel. In traditional Vietnamese culture, on every 23rd day of the last month in the Lunar Calendar, people from every household bid farewell to Ong Tao,thanking him for watching over their kitchen for another year. Then, the Kitchen God is believed to visit Ngoc Hoang (the (7)_______) in heaven. The release of the strong-swimming carp into local ponds, rivers and lakes, is believed to transport the Kitchen God to heaven. (8)_______ delivering the God, the carp transforms into a dragon. It is said that the God will then report to the Jade Emperor on the life of homeowners and pray for luck, happiness and (9)_______ for all members of the house in the coming year. The Kitchen God returns to Earth on New Year’s Eve (February 9 this year) and (10)_______ his duties as the caretaker of Vietnamese kitchens. 1. A. Kitchen God
B. God Kitchen
C. Mr. Apple
D. Sir Apple
2. A. governments
B. governors
C. authorities
D. organizers
3. A. glass
B. brick
C. mud
D. pottery
4. A. go
B. come
C. wind
D. sit
9
5. A. House
B. Palace
C. Villa
D. Building
6. A. table
B. desk
C. altar
D. statue
7. A God King
B. King God
C. Jade Emperor
D. Heaven Emperor
8. A. Before
B. After
C. While
D. During
9. A. longevity
B. money
C. health
D. prosperity
10. A. resume
B. take
C. consider
D. make
II. Fill in each gap with one suitable word. RELAXATION True relaxation is most certainly not a matter of flopping down in front of the television with a welcome drink. Nor is it about drifting (1)……………..an exhausted sleep. Useful though these responses to tension and over-tiredness (2)…………be, we should distinguish between them and conscious relaxation in (3)……………..of quality and effect. (4)………………..of the level of tiredness, real relaxation is a state of alert yet at the same time passive awareness, in which our bodies are at rest while our minds are awake. Moreover, it is as natural (5)………………a healthy person to be relaxed when moving as resting. Being relaxed in action means we bring the appropriate energy to everything we do, (6)……………as to have a feeling of healthy tiredness by the end of the day, rather than one of exhaustion. Unfortunately, as a (7)…………….of living in today’s competitive world, we are under constant strain and have difficulty in coping, (8)……………..alone nurturing our body’s abilities. (9)…………………needs to be rediscovered is conscious relaxation. With that in mind we must apply ourselves to understanding stress and the nature of its causes, (10)……………….. deep-seated.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best option to complete the blank or answer the question. ‘CLIP CULTURE’ 10
Could the short films on video-sharing sites such as YouTube ever rival films at the cinema? In parallel with its own exponential growth, my fascination with YouTube has galloped into a raging obsession. Whole evenings, theoretically dedicated to writing, have been hijacked by a terrible need to click away from YouTube is inevitable. What’s not to be fascinated by? However slick of however rickety, the best of these mini-movies have an unmediated quality, a found-object realness that is completely lacking in anything available in the cinema or on TV. For a growing number of people, time spent surfing the web exceeds the time spent watching TV, so who knows if this way of making and watching movies might not become a huge and serious rival to the mainstream .Many contemporary films-makers have become fascinated by the video aesthetic, and by camera work with a deadpan surveillance feel, which has risen in parallel to this Internet revolution. The cinema, though, does have something in common with the confessional, video blog aspect of YouTube. The popularity of the horror film The Blair Witch Project was inflamed by a vast, grassroots Internet campaign which mischievously suggested that the film’s horrors were real. Plus there’s a cousin to this blurring of fact and fiction in YouTube – confessional blogs which turn out to be faked by ingenious actors. In the past, some documentaries that you could see on TV or at the cinema had YouTube qualities, in that the footage was shot by the participants themselves, although they needed a professional cinema practitioner to bring it to light. If the unhappy heroes of these films were making their videos now, they would probably bypass these directors and take them straight to YouTube. Where straight cinema and YouTube come more closely into parallel is the use of the continuous shot: the persistent, unjudging, almost uncomprehending gaze; an edited, deepfocus scene in which our attention as audience is not coerced or directed. The true YouTube gems are not the digitally carpentered mini-features. The most gripping material is raw, unedited footage in one continuous take. Outstanding examples range from domestic events in the home to windows on international events. Watching these, and going through the events in real time, is riveting yet disturbing at the same time.
11
Many film directors have tried exploiting the eerie, disquieting quality of videosurveillance footage. But they should look further as they might all be fascinated by, and even learn something from, what I think of as YouTube’s comedy genre: bizarre things captured more by accident than design, which often have a sublime quality. One such clip of a woman falling down a hole was captured by CCTV; the camera is apparently fixed above a bar in a busy pub. Someone opens up a trap door directly behind a woman serving drinks, with results that Buster Keaton himself would have admired. The scene is shot and framed with unshowy formal perfection; a professional director and crew could work for months on a slapstick scene and not get is as right as this. It’s something in the way the woman disappears so utterly from view. Unlike the cinema, where we have to wait for reviews, you can get your material reviewed on YouTube instantly since there is a ratings and comments section for each video. Just as the videos are more real than films, this type of reviewing is also more honest. Cinema reviews may comment on the predictable elements, such as plot, setting, actors, etc.. but YouTube reviews are boiled down to the essence of entertainment appeal. Are you interested enough to watch it to the end? Would you recommend it to your friends? Do you go back in and watch it again? The cinema of YouTube has, as its best, an appealing amateurism, un restricted by the conventions of narrative interest of good taste. It is a quality to be savoured, and quite different from documentary of the attempts at realism in feature films. What makes it so involving is that the viewers extend this amateur process in choosing, playing and sharing the files. Consequently, they supplement production with a new type of distribution. It’s this that makes YouTube so addictive and unless the cinema learns from it, it may be outclassed. 1.What does the writer say about his interest in YouTube? A. He enjoys watching YouTube while he is writing. B. He prefers the short films on YouTube to the cinema. C. He finds it hard to resist watching YouTube films. D. He likes the fact that the films on YouTube are short. 2. The writer suggests YouTube will become more popular because A. the films in it capture people when they are unaware. 12
B. people have changed how they use their leisure time. C. people no longer have time to watch full-length films. D. the films on it mimic real life with real people. 3. The word “unmediated” is closet meaning to A. direct
B. surreal
C. of high standard
D. mesmerizing
4. In this third paragraph, the writer says the similarity between YouTube videos and commercial films is that A. they both produce realistic horror films. B. they both have directors who are also actors. C. they both depend on the Internet for publicity. D. they are both effective at faking reality. 5. The word “coerced” is closet in meaning to A. pressed
B. terrorized
C. forced
D. bullied
6. The word “eerie” is closet in meaning to A. awesome
B. strange
C. obliging
D. dominant
7. What does the writer say is the appeal of the continuous shot? A. that nobody is managing the events on screen B. that it can be used effectively in any setting C. that we can see things we wouldn’t otherwise see D. that the camera acts as our eyes on the event 8. In the fifth paragraph, the writers uses the example of the woman falling to show that A. YouTube uses a range of sources for its films. B. it is difficult to replicate real-life comedy. C. YouTube has funnier films than those at the cinema. D. it is better when participants are unaware they are being filmed. 9. Why does the writer use questions at the end of the sixth paragraph? A. to suggest what questions cinema reviews should address B. to illustrate how YouTube reviews have a single focus C. to guide the reader about what a review should contain D. to show the board range of views on YouTube 10. The writer concludes that YouTube is addictive because 13
A. it has so many potential viewers. B. it offers films which have unique qualities. C. it shows better films than those available commercially. D. it has become part of the process of making films.
IV. Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow: TRANSLATION: FROM THE SUBLIME TO THE RIDICULOUS?
According to the Oxford Dictionary, ‘to translate’ is ‘to express the sense in or into another language’. But what is 'the sense' really? Translating’ a piece of writing is not just a question of picking up the foreign language dictionary and substitution of a set of words from one lexicon for those from another, it is ultimately a form of communication, concerned, as Peter Newmark says, with transmitting culture and truth. For this reason, a translation should only be attempted after the translator has carefully studied the whole text, and asked herself a number of questions. Firstly, it is important that she consider the purpose of the said text,. Insofar as all writing is a form of communication, does this particular text aim- user instructions for a household appliance, for example- simply to transmit information to a would-be user? Or does it strive – an advertisement or hotel brochure or any other piece of publicity material – to arouse interest so that the reader will want to buy the product, or to stay in the hotel? Or is its purpose – like that of a piece of literature, or a film – to stimulate the imagination, to inspire and to entertain – as well as, perhaps, to instruct? Once she has ascertained the purpose o the text, the translator needs to consider who the readers of the translated text will be. The readers of the translation will, of necessity, comprise a different group from the readers of the original – but they are likely to share certain characteristics. If the original text was aimed at a wide audience- the ‘man in the street’ anxious to get to grips with his new coffee-maker, for example- then the reader of the translated text is likely to fall into the same category and have the same expectations. But perhaps the original was aimed at a more discrete and well-defined group, perhaps by its style and content it has defined its readership.
14
Will the reader of the translation be someone with a good knowledge of the culture from which the original has sprung, or will he be someone with a very sparse knowledge of it? It has been said that everything is translatable ‘on condition that the two languages belong to cultures that have reached a comparable degree of development’; how up-to-date will he be with the requisite technical knowledge? Balancing the expectations of the potential readers with those of the writer is, in this way, part of the tightrope which the translator treads; it will dictate, for example, the extent to which annotations and footnotes will be needed in the translation, and the way in which culturally-specific references and items of specialist vocabulary are (or are not) translated. The style and register of the translated text should, for reasons of integrity and coherence, mirror that of the original. It would be misleading if the translator of a text written in a discursive and amusing style were to render it ponderous in translation; just as it would be wrong for a translator to over-simplify what was originally an erudite piece of prose. However, this is not to ignore the fact that there might well be instances in which a text – awkwardly written in the original- could be made more accessible by the translator. It is a question of judgement. The style in which something is written often represents a large part of what the writer is trying to convey, and this is particularly likely to be the case with a work of literature, such as a poem or novel: it is not only what the writer is saying, but how she says it which is important. Allusions, deliberate ambiguity, humour, parody, and language which contains alliteration and assonance, are likely to be features of such a text, and to represent problems which the translator needs to solve appropriately. To piece of advertising, for example – may well contain subliminal messages to which the translator will need to be alert – as to any kind of ‘sub-text’. Much translation is, by default, given to those with an Inadequate grasp of either the source or target language – and often both. It is frequently overlooked that the successful translator needs an excellent knowledge of the source language and a perfect mastery of the target language in its technical and colloquial aspects. The target language, for the best results, should be her mother-tongue but, as Peter Newmark says, many translator who translate out of their own language ‘contribute greatly to many people’s hilarity in the process.’ 15
Complete the sentences below with information from the reading passage. You may use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 1. Translating a text is more than merely ………………………. ………………. for others. 2. Each text whether informative, stimulating or instructive has …………………………………….. that the translator needs to take into account. 3. The reader of the translation may have only a ……………………………….. knowledge of the culture from which the original comes. Choose the right option A, B, C or D for the following questions: 4. Anything can be translated, provided that ………………………… . A. the two languages are equally developed. B. the two languages have similar levels of cultural development. C. the translator is up-to-date. D. the translator has the same expectations as the reader. 5. According to the writer, it is sometimes possible to make a translation ………… . A. clearer than the original.
B. overly simple
C. humorous
D. ponderous
6. When translating a literary text , which one of the following is important for the translator? A. the way in which a writer says something as much as the content. B. Subliminal messages. C. Allusions. D. Jigsaw puzzles in texts. Questions 7-10: The writer mentions a number of judgements that need to be made by the translator. Which four of the judgements below are mentioned? List of judgements
A. Weighing up why a writer says what he says. B. Determining the importance of poetry. C. Making a decision as to how far to stick to the original. D. Judging who the target audience of a translation will be. E. Whether translating is best done from the mother tongue. 16
F. Deciding how many explanations, footnotes and comments on vocabulary to include. G. Deciding on which information to use from dictionaries. H. Whether to oversimplify a text.
PART V: WRITING: (30p) I. For each of the following sentences, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the origin sentence, but using the word given in capital letters. These words must not be altered in any way. 1. In her new job, Alison determined to impress everyone from the start. ..........................................................................................................................MARK 2. I felt vaguely that something was wrong, but what was it? ...........................................................................................................................BACK 3. He had made no effort to conceal his dislike for me eversince I was promoted over him. ..........................................................................................................................GRUDGE 4. From my position, I could see quite clearly what was happening. ..................................................................................................................STANDING 5. When they broke the news, she stayed perfectly calm and controlled. ............................................................................................................................HAIR 6. The builders don’t think they will still be doing the renovations at the end of next week. ............................................................................................................................HOPE 7. Sometimes I have got a bad memory, so most importantly I need regular practice. ....................................................................................................................... SIEVE 8. Although we sent a message, there was no reply. ...........................................................................................................................TRIED 9. He seems to be more active because he has won a scholarship to study overseas. .......................................................................................................................... LEASE 10. You must take notice of the school rules. ....................................................................................................................IGNORED
17
II. The following pie charts and the table show how three countries (USA, UK and
Malaysia) deal with dangerous waste. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. (10 points) You should write at least 150 words.
Amount of waste generated in three countries in year 2000:
mt = million tons
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 18
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… …………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
III. Write about the following topic: Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have a knowledge of history in order to understand the present. Discuss both points of view and give your own opinion. Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.
19
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 20
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
The end!
21
SỞ GD& ĐT NINH BÌNH
SUGGESTED ANSWERS
TRƯƠNG THPT CHUYÊN
( Chọn HSG khu vực Duyên Hải –đồng bằng Băc Bộ lần thứ VII)
LƯƠNG VĂN TỤY
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11
Part 1. Listening: 15p I. Section 1: (5p = 1p x 5) 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C II. Section 2: (10p = 1p x 10) 1. 13% 2. 9% 6. third campus 7. live and work 9. private housing database
5. B 3. leafy 4. 28,000 5. greenest 8. Student Union Building 10. frequently asked questions
Part 2. Phonology (5p) I. Different sound: (2.5p = 0.5p x 5) 1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A II. Different stress pattern: (2.5p = 0.5p x 5) 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. B
5. D 5. A
Part 3. Grammar & Vocabulary: (30p) I. Vocab& structure: 5p = 0.25p x20 1. C 2. C. 3. C 4. A 5.A 11.C 12.B 13.B 14.C 15.C
6.B 7.B 8.D 16.B 17.D 18.D
II. Error correction: 5p = 0.5p x 10
22
9.A 19.C
10. B 20.C
Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything
(1) healthy
that is offering them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly cooked. The way the meal is cooked and served is most important and an attractive served meal will often improve a child’s appetite. Never ask a
(41)_offered_ (42)_attractively
child whether he likes and dislikes a food and never discuss likes and dislikes in front of him or allow nobody else to do so. If the father says he
(43)_or
hates fat meat or the mother refuses vegetables under the child’s hearing he is likely to copy this procedure. Take it for grant that he likes everything and he probably will. Nothing healthful should be omitted out the meal
(44)_anybody_ (45)_in/ within_
because of a supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to give a child a small portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give him as much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk to much to the child during the meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do not allow him to leave the table immediately after a meal or he will soon
(46)_granted_ (47)_from _ (48)_supposed
learn to swallow his food so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no (49)_rather _
circumstance must a child be coaxed and forced to eat.
(50) circumstances
III. Prepositions: 5p = 0.25p x20 1. into 2. to 3. from 6. off 7. back 8. in 11. up 12. out 13. on 16. at 17. in 18. on
4. at 9. under 14. out for 19. off
5. on 10. to 15. up to 20. for
IV. Verb form: 5p = 0.25p x20 1. was revealed 2. are employed
3. is being transferred
4. were we not informed 5. were only told
6. started
8. are they going to keep up their mortgage payment
7. are affected 9. knew
10. was asked
11. was being done
12. had /have been made
13. have been offered
14. has been made
15. was questioned
16. had not been told
17. had been promised
18. had been decided
19. has been asked
20. would be sent
V. Word form: 5p = 0.25p x20 1. antioxidant 2. negligible
3. indicators 23
4. pursuit
5. proven
6. prenatal
7. affliction
8. mounting
9. excessive 10. contraindicated
VI. Gap filling: 5p = 0.5p x 10 1. though 2. despite
3. remains
4. unexpected
5. displaying
6. often
8. sinking
9. Far more
10. the
7. long
Part IV: Reading 20p I. Cloze test: 5p = 0.5 p x 10 1. A
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. D
10. A
4. Regardless/ Irrespective
II. Open- cloze test: 5p = 0.5 p x 10 1. into
2. may/ might/ can
3. terms
5. for
6. so
7. result/ consequence
8. let
9. what
10. however
III. Reading: 5p = 0.5 p x 10 1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. B
10. D
IV. 5p = 0.5 p x 10 1. substituting (some words) 2. a purpose 3. (very) sparse 4. B
5. A
6. A
7-10: A – C – D - F Part 5: Writing: 30p I. Rewrite: 5 p = 0.5p x 10 1. In her new job, Alison determined to make her mark from the start. 2. I felt at the back of my mind that something was wrong, but what was it? 3. He has had a grudge against me eversince I was …….. . 4. From where I was standing, I could see quite clear what was happening. 5. When they broke the news, she didn’t turn a hair. 6. The builder hope to have finished the renovations by/ before the end of the next week. 24
7. First and foremost I need regular practice because sometimes I have (got) a memory (mind) like a sieve. 8. Although we tried sending a message, there was no reply . 9. That he has won a scholarship to study overseas gives (has given ) him a new lease of life. 10. The school rules must not be ignored / are not to be ignored. II. Graph writing: 10p 1. Content: a. Providing main ideas and details. (summarizing the information, reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant) b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively. 2. Organization and presentation: a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity. b. The paragraph is well-structured. 3. Language: a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures. b. Good use of grammatical structures. 4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: a. Intelligible handwriting. b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant. (10 points)
5.0
1.0 2.5
1.5
III. Essay writing: 15p Write an essay (250 300 words) to express your opinion. (15 points)
1. Content: a. Providing main ideas and details. b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively. 2. Organization and presentation: a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity. b. The paragraph is well-structured. 3. Language: a. Variety of appropriate vocabulary and structures. b. Good use of grammatical structures. 4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: a. Intelligible handwriting. b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
NGƯỜI RA ĐỀ Nguyễn Thị Thu Thương
25
8p 5p
1p 1p
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI
THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DH-BB
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH -11 Ngày thi:
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
tháng
năm 2014
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm 27 trang
I. LISTENING (15 points) Part 1: You will hear an interview with Maria Stefanovich, co-founder of a creativity group which organises workshops far executives. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear (5 points) 1. Corporations appreciate mask-making workshops because … A. no one wants negative faces at the office. B unhappy employees won’t come to work. C. they realise how their employees see them. D. their employees change their approach. 2. Companies are turning to creative workshops because they have acknowledged that A. unproductive employees are a financial burden. B. the traditional work environment has its limitations. C. there is an increase in absenteeism. D. employees are working too hard without enjoying it. 3. The employees at the firm ‘Play’ A. change positions frequently to lessen boredom. B. have business cards indicating their jobs. C. dress up like comic book characters. D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs. 4.
The companies that show most interest in creative workshops are suprising
because 1
A. they usually have creative employees to begin with. B. their employees are the ones who have to present regularly. C. there are many other exciting workshops they would prefer. D. their employees should be used to being funny. 5. Maria mentions the traditional companies that have held workshops in order to A. boast about the clients her company has helped. B. show that they have a narrow list of clients. C. downplay the serious reputations of the firms. D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: You will hear a report on how English has become a global language. For questions1-10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (10 points) The spread of English around the globe means it is now termed a (1)_________ English first started to spread when explorers made (2)________ to the other side of the world. The influence of Britain in the past and the influence of American businesses are the (3)____________ which give English its present significance. The number of people whose (4)___________is English is significantly greater in the USA than in the (5)_________. It is difficult to (6)__________
the communicative functions of English in some
countries. It is sometimes suggested that English is (7)______ superior to other languages. People tend to judge languages using subjective rather than (8)___________ English sentence structure is (9)__________ Language success is (10)________ on a variety of different things. Your answers: 1.
6. 2
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (2.5 points) 1. A. seasonality
B. conservatory
C. honorable
D. discordant
2. A. rejection
B. regardless
C. represent
D. religiously
3. A. assessment
B. passages
C. passionate
D. pessimism
4. A. essentially
B. gradually
C. metalized
D. unpunctually
5. A. saffron
B. sacrament
C. saddlery
D. sabbatical
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2.5 points)
1. A. amicable
B. agreeable
C. admirable
D. arguable
2. A. foliage
B. dislocate
C. typifying
D. personel
3. A. irrevocably
B. unconditional
C. impartially
D. descendent
4. A. empowerment
B. omnisciently
C. ludicrousness
D. momentum
5. A. morbidly
B. crossbreds
C. southernmost
D. journalese 3
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (5 points) 1.
Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came
to a______ A. delay
B. stand
C. brake
D. halt
2. John refused to put his career in ______by opposing his boss. A. jeopardy
B. hazard
C. risk
D. stake
3. Angela’s work was praised for its ______attention to detail. A. meticulous
B. significant
C. subtle
D. concentrated
4. Motorists should ______well in advance of changing lanes. A. sign
B. signal
C. flare
D. flicker
5. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _______ him over until the end of term. A. last
B. tend
C. keep
D. tide
6. The climbers sought ________from the storm. A. escape
B. refuge
C. solace
D. defence
7. The tour guide had a brightly-colored company badge pinned to the _______of her jacket. A. lapel
B. border
C. edge
D. hem
4
8. It was her first conference as partly leader, and she was determined to _______her authority on the proceedings. A. press
B. thrust
C. stamp
D. mark
9. It was ______of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job. A. rather
B. something
C. quite
D. much
10. The last bus had gone so we were ______ with the problem of how to get home that night. A. affronted
B. caught
C. trapped
D. faced
11. I don’t want to go into all the details about why I left; _______it to say that had a better offer from another company. A. take
B. grant
C. give
D. suffice
12. Finish your meal with a cup of our delicious freshly ________coffee. A. grated
B. ground
C. shredded
D. minced
13. At the most important stage of the reason, the footballer was troubled by the ______of an old injury. A. recurrence
B. renewal
C. restart
D. resumption.
14. The pianist played beautifully, showing a real _______for the music. A. sense
B. understanding C. sentiment
D. feeling
15. Rachel painted a gloomy _____ of life as a student. A. image
B. picture
C. drawing
D. illustration
16. With its engine disabled, the finishing vessel was at the _______of the storm. A. whim
B. mercy
C. control
D. grip
17. The more expensive carpet is a good choice ______it will last longer. 5
A. by means of
B. due to
C. in that
D. in view of
18. Money was short and people survived by _______and saving. A. scrimping
B. scavenging
C. scouring
D. scrounging
19. The company had severe problems and the board decided to ______it up. A. fold
B. close
C. wind
D. put
20. It is with _______regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship had been withdrawn. A. heavy
B. somber
C. deep
D. high
Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 2: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (5 points) Thirty years ago, the TV series UFO envisions 1999 as an era when space fighters were launched from submarines, the world was in threat from alien invaders -and everyone carried a slide rule in a holster on their belts. Even as the programme was being made, pocket calculators were coming onto the market. There was a lesson about the future: it will overtake your wildest imaginings. If you focus on what existing technologies will develop, you miss the real changes - and threats. This autumn sees the changeover between keyboards and mice to using the human voice to dictate directly onto the screen, and to command the computer. Wonderful, you may think. A cure for repetitive strain injure 6
(RSI), caused by repeated physical actions. Except that it will not be. It will transfer RSI from the wrist to the throat. The voice box is a very delicate instrument and we are not used to speak all the time. Even 200 words (taking a little over a minute to say) leaves us clearing our throats and sipping a drink. There will be catastrophes unless we learn how to use our voices safe. Students who get up on the morning of an essay deadline to compose 4,000 words on a voice -operated computer could permanently damage their voices. Each new technological development tends to bring problems with it. Nobody had heard of RSI until word processors exploded onto the market. Long hours spent stare into a computer monitor led to complaints of eyestrain, backache and even worries about radiation leaks from the screen. Repetitive computer related tasks are such a common features of modern work that many companies are calling in ergonomic consultants to recommend ways to avoid RSI conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, a wrist condition commonly found in people who use keyboards. Companies found that by following their advices, claims for injury or illnesses suffered by employees were greatly diminished.
Your answers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 3: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points) 1. I can't understand what you are talking about with this design. Can we GO______ it again? 2. Stop slouching in the chair like that. SIT_______!! 7
3. She didn't manage to PICK_____ anyone from the line-up as she had forgotten completely what the mugger looked like. 4. Candles usually BURN _______ after about four hours. 5. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soon BLOW ________. 6. It's been raining for three hours now and it doesn't look like it will LET_____ today. 7. With that accent of his, he could PASS ______ a Frenchman I think. 8. I was so tired last night that I DROPPED _______ in front of the TV. 9. The Americans PULLED _______ of the 1980 Moscow Olympics after the invasion of Afghanistan. 10.The corruption scandal caused the resignation of three minister and eventually, even the prime minister STOOD _______. 11.I have a splitting headache and I certainly don't FEEL ______ to going to watch a concert. 12. Don't get him worried about money. If I were you, I'd PLAY _____the importance of getting the loan or he will panic. 13.The two brothers GOT ________ over a beer in a local bar and resolved their differences. 14. My brother hurt himself while he was SHOWING _______ on his new bike. 15.We were so close to finalizing the contract, but it FELL ______ at the last minute due to the customer having financial concerns. 16.I know you don't intend do, Roger, but you COME ______ as very aggressive in the meetings. You need to be more diplomatic when you speak. 17.Sue has very low blood pressure. When she stands up too quickly, she can PASS _______. 18.I had a lisp when I was younger and some of the other kids would PICK _______me at school. 8
19.The police in the west of the town BLOCKED ______ four blocks to prevent the public getting too close to the fire. 20.The group leader stayed calm when the weather got bad and told everyone to MAKE _____ the red light they could see on the horizon. Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 4: Complete following sentences with the correct form of the verbs (5 points) The statistics on the safety of flying (1- be) ___________immensely comforting. It (2-seem) __________that the chances of being involved in an accident (3-be) __________a million to one – the equivalent of flying safely every day for 95 years. Try telling that to the white-faced, petrified aerophobic, who (4-see) _________every frown on a stewardess’ face as a portent of disaster. For some years now, psychologist Henry Jones (5-try) _________to tell them, and he (6-do)________ a lot more besides. He (7- develop) ________both a theory and practice for treating air travel anxiety. Apparently, it (8-be) _________a widespread phobia. One American survey (9- put) _________it as the fourth most common fear, preceded only by snakes, heights and storms. Jones (10- have) ___________nearly 500 clients during the last decade. Before they (11-come)__________to him, some of his clients (12-never fly)___________, others (13-have)___________just one bad experience after years of flying. One man(14- take)__________over 200 flights a year for five years and (15never worry) _________up till then. Then, one day on a flight to Chicago the pilot 9
(16-announce) __________that they (17- go)________to turn back because of an engine fault. The man (18-have) ___________a panic attack and (19-try) ________to get off the plane in mid-air. After Jones’s course, the man (20-overcome) ___________his fears and managed to fly again.
Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces provided. (5 points) Pop Musicals Lord Andrew Lloyd Webber, a man whose (0)
compositions, eclectic rock
based works, helped (1) VITAL______ British and American (2) MUSIC_____ theatre in the late 20th century. As a student at Oxford University, a (3) PARTNER_______ was founded between Webber and Timothy Rice to put on dramatic productions. Their first (4) NOTE ________ successful venture was ‘Joseph and The Amazing Technicolor Dreamcoat’, a pop oratorio for children that earned world-wide acclaim. It was followed by the rock opera, ‘Jesus Christ Superstar’, an extremely popular,
though (5) CONTROVERSY ___________work that blended classical
forms to tell the story of Jesus’ life. This show ran longer than any other similar show in British (6) THEATRE ________history.
Lloyd Webber’s last (7) 10
ART________ collaboration with Rice was on ‘Evita’.
‘Cats’ was his next major
production, in which he set to music verses from a children’ book by T.S. Eliot. With two (8) LYRIC _______ Charles Hart and Richard Stilgoe, he then composed a hugely successful version of ‘The Phantom of the Opera’. Lloyd Webber’s best works were flashy spectacles that featured vivid melodies and forceful
and
dramatic
staging.
He was able to blend such varied and (9)
SIMILAR_______genres as rock and roll, English music-hall song, and (10) OPERA_______ forms into music that had a wide mass appeal.
Your answers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 6: Read the text. Complete the text with the phrase (A-K) that best fits each gap. There is one phrase you do not need. (5 points)
A FAMOUS DREAM
Although Albraham Lincoln is today one of America's best loved presidents, that was not always so. During the American Civil War he was hated by Southerners for abolishing slavery, and (1)________that he fully expected to be murdered by his political opponents, and had resigned himself to his fate. According to a close friend of his, three days prior to his assassination, Lincoln recounted a dream he'd had to his wife and acquaintances, (2) _________. In the dream, he was lying in bed in the 11
White house in Washington, and there seemed to be a death-like stillness around him. Then he began to hear quiet sobbing, (3)__________. He got out of bed and wandered downstairs. There the silence was broken by the same pitiful sobbing, but he couldn't see who was making the noise. He went from room to room but they were all deserted, (4)_______. It was light in all the rooms and every object was familiar to him; but where, Lincoln wondered, were all the people (5)_________? He was both puzzled and alarmed. What could be the meaning of all this? Determined to find the cause, he kept on walking (6)_______, which he entered. There he met with a sickening surprise. Before him was a platform, (7)________. Around it was stationed soldiers who were acting as guards; and there was a crowd of people, some gazing mournfully upon the coffin, others crying bitterly. 'Who has died in the White House?' Lincoln demanded of one of the soldiers. 'The President,' came the answer. 'He was killed by an assassin.' Then there was a loud exclamation of grief from the crowd, (8)______. Some people have ascribed a powerful meaning to his dream, claiming that (9)_______. Others point out that, given the fact that he fully expected that someone would try to assassinate him, (10)________.
A. although the same mournful sounds of distress met him as he walked along B. as if a number of people were crying C. in which he foresaw his own death D. it is hardly surprising that he dreamt of his own death E. Lincoln knew that he was about to die F. on which rested a coffin G. such was their antipathy towards him H. he had had the dream before I. until he arrived at the East room J. which awoke him from his dream K. who were grieving as if their hearts would break 12
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. READING (25 points) Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that best fits the blank. (7.5 points) From the moment they leave the security of their accustomed environment, travellers are at risk. (1) ……..arise not just from strange diseases they meet on their travels but from other factors too: seemingly uninspiring home (2) …………..such as safe water (3) …………, sanittion and public hygiene controls, legal safety standards for motor vehicles and road (4) ……….., are easily taken for granted, but simply do not exist in many
countries.
Environmental
factors
such
as
arduous
conditions,
(5)…………….climate, and high altitude may constitute a danger; and so may travellers’ own behaviour, free from the (6) ……………of the daily routine, and determined to have good time with scant (7) …….for the consequences. When illness or injury occur abroad, travellers are again at a disadvantage – from (8) …………to communicate with a doctor on account of language or cultural difficulties, or being unable to find a doctor owing to (9) ……….of the (10)………..medical system. There may be a complete (11) ………….of skilled medical care, or of medical facilities of a (12) …………..acceptable to travellers from technologically sophisticated countries. When symtoms of an illness (13) …………..abroad do not appear until after return home a final hazard becomes apparent: the symptoms may be (14) …………….., may pass (15) ……………, and the correct diagnosis may not be considered until it is too late. 1.A. Questions
B. Changes
C. Hazards
D. Complications
2.A. comforts
B. helps
C. cares
D. aids 13
3.A. stores
B. collection
C. levels
D. supplies
4.A. correction
B. maintenance
C. improvement
D. quality
5.A. worsening
B. unusual
C. sudden
D. adverse
6.A. restraints
B. assurances
C. certainties
D. regulations
7.A. knowledge
B. awareness
C. regard
C. need
8.A. inability
B. difficulty
C. inflexibility
D. timidity
9.A. misuse
B. doubt
C. ignorance
D. disbelief
10.A. local
B. district
C. neighborhood
D. area
11. breakdown
B. failure
C. disruption
D. absence
12.A. type
B. design
C. standard
D. degree
13.A. received
B. formed
C. gained
D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar
B. unlikely
C. unpleasant
D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized
B. unknown
C. unforeseen
D. unearthed
Part 2: Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (7.5 points) IQ TESTS Psychologists have long been interested in (1)________ we judge intelligence in strangers. Now scientists have designed tests (2) _________ try to discover which cues help
people to judge
IQ accurately, and
which
cause
them
to
get
(3)_________wrong. High school pupils were videotaped answering thoughtprovoking questions and the videos were (4)________ shown to groups of ‘judges’ who were asked to assess the students’ physical type and monitor a variety of behavioural cues. Next the judges were asked to rate the students’ intelligence. At the (5) _________ time, each student was (6) __________ required to sit a standard IQ test. Certain cues matched the (7)________ of the IQ tests more closely than
others.
(8)________
speaking quickly, using a lot of words or
displaying ease (9)_______ understanding caused the judges to rate the students’ intelligence highly, (10)_________ was reflected in the IQ tests, 14
(11)_________cues seemed to give the judges an entirely
false
impression of
intelligence (12)_________ measured by the IQ test. (13)________the cues that led judges to assess students as dull were factors (14)______ as using halting speech or slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright included talking loudly and using proper English. (15)_____ of these traits correlated with measured IQ, however. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 3: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points) The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” –the exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs, sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect. The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne” style – a Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops. 15
The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply “classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was amore conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression. Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission to transform the
domestic environment
through well-designed furniture and household accessories. 1. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss? A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco C. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s D. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California 2. The word “encompass” is closest in meaning to A. separate
B. include
C. replace
D. enhance
3. The phrase “The first” refers to A. the term “art deco”
B. design trends 16
C. the 1920’s and 1930’s
D.skyscrapers
4. The author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to A. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles C. emphasize the extent of architectural advances D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design 5. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A. animal motifs
B. flat roofs
C. round windows
D. “speed stripes”
6. The phrase “came to the forefront” is closest in meaning to A. grew in complexity
B. went through a process
C. changed its approach
D. became important
7. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between art deco and art nouveau? A. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the Depression era. B. They were essentially the same art form. C. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it. D. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England. 8. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would most probably have been designed in the style of A. zigzag moderne 17
B. streamlined moderne C. classical moderne D. the Arts and Crafts Movement 9. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than one name? A. Zigzag moderne
B. Streamlined moderne
C. International stripped classicism
D. Arts and Crafts Movement
10. The passage is primarily developed as A. the historical chronology of a movement B. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual beauty C. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement D. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points) A For over 200 years, there has been an interest in the way children learn to speak and understand their first language. Scholars carried out several small-scale studies, especially towards the end of the 19th century, using data they recorded in parental diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin until the middle decades of the 20th century, when the tape recorder came into routine use. This made it 18
possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts could listen repeatedly to obscure extracts, and thus produce a detailed and accurate description. Since then, the subject has attracted enormous multi-disciplinary interest, notably from linguists and psychologists, who have used a variety of observational and experimental techniques to study the process of language acquisition in depth. B Central to the success of this rapidly emerging field lies the ability of researchers to devise satisfactory methods for eliciting linguistic data from children. The problems that have to be faced are quite different from those encountered when working with adults. Many of the linguist’s routine techniques of enquiry cannot be used with children. It is not possible to carry out certain kinds of experiments, because aspects of children’s cognitive development – such as their ability to pay attention, or to remember instructions – may not be sufficiently advanced. Nor is it easy to get children to make systematic judgments about language, a task that is virtually impossible below the age of three. And anyone who has tried to obtain even the most basic kind of data – a tape recording of a representative sample of a child’s speech – knows how frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed to switch off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on. C Since the 1960s, however, several sophisticated recording techniques and experimental designs have been devised. Children can be observed and recorded through one-way-vision windows or using radio microphones, so that the effects of having an investigator in the same room as the child can be eliminated. Large-scale sampling programmes have been carried out, with children sometimes being recorded for several years. Particular attention has been paid to devising experimental techniques that fall well within a child’s intellectual level and social experience. Even pre-linguistic infants have been brought into the research: acoustic techniques are 19
used to analyse their vocalisations, and their ability to perceive the world around them is monitored using special recording equipment. The result has been a growing body of reliable data on the stages of language acquisition from birth until puberty. D There is no single way of studying children’s language. Linguistics and psychology have each brought their own approach to the subject, and many variations have been introduced to cope with the variety of activities in which children engage, and the great age range that they present. Two main research paradigms are found. E One of these is known as ‘naturalistic sampling’. A sample of a child’s spontaneous use of language is recorded in familiar and comfortable surroundings. One of the best places to make the recording is in the child’s own home, but it is not always easy to maintain good acoustic quality, and the presence of the researcher or the recording equipment can be a distraction (especially if the proceedings are being filmed). Alternatively, the recording can be made in a research centre, where the child is allowed to play freely with toys while talking to parents or other children, and the observers and their equipment are unobtrusive. F A good quality, representative, naturalistic sample is generally considered an ideal datum for child language study. However, the method has several limitations. These samples are informative about speech production, but they give little guidance about children’s comprehension of what they hear around them. Moreover, samples cannot contain everything, and they can easily miss some important features of a child’s linguistic ability. They may also not provide enough instances of a developing feature to enable the analyst to make a decision about the way the child is learning. For such
20
reasons, the description of samples of child speech has to be supplemented by other methods. G The other main approach is through experimentation, and the methods of experimental psychology have been widely applied to child language research. The investigator formulates a specific hypothesis about children’s ability to use or understand an aspect of language, and devises a relevant task for a group of subjects to undertake. A statistical analysis is made of the subjects’ behaviour, and the results provide evidence that supports or falsifies the original hypothesis. H Using this approach, as well as other methods of controlled observation, researchers have come up with many detailed findings about the production and comprehension of groups of children. However, it is not easy to generalise the findings of these studies. What may obtain in a carefully controlled setting may not apply in the rush of daily interaction. Different kinds of subjects, experimental situations, and statistical procedures may produce different results or interpretations. Experimental research is therefore a slow, painstaking business; it may take years before researchers are convinced that all variables have been considered and a finding is genuine.
The passage has eight paragraphs, A-H. Which paragraphs contains the following information? Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.
1 the possibility of carrying out research on children before they start talking 2 the difficulties in deducing theories from systematic experiments 3 the differences between analysing children’s and adults’ language 21
In boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet, write TRUE
if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE
if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN
if there is no information on this
4. In the 19th century, researchers studied their own children’s language. 5. Attempts to elicit very young children’s opinions about language are likely to fail. 6. Radio microphones are used because they enable researchers to communicate with a number of children in different rooms. 7. Many children enjoy the interaction with the researcher.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.
Ways of investigating children’s language
One method of carrying out research is to record children’s spontaneous language use. This can be done in their homes, where, however, it may be difficult to ensure that the recording is of acceptable (8)_______Another venue which is often used is a (9)_________where the researcher can avoid distracting the child. A drawback of this method is that it does not allow children to demonstrate their comprehension. 22
An alternative approach is to use methodology from the field of experimental psychology. In this case, a number of children are asked to carry out a task, and the results are subjected to a (10)________. Your anwers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
V. WRITING (25 points) Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one using between 3 and 6 words including the word given. (5 points) 1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me. lent Had _____________ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house. 2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish. obligation You are _____________ and see the new house if you don't wish. 3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see you. supposed You _____________ boss when you arrived. 4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me. might You _____________ she was married! 23
5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday. not I need _____________ into work but I did anyway. 6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year. awarded The _____________ a prize by the headmaster. 7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery. suspicion Johnson was detained _____________ in the robbery. 8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October. effect The new tax laws _____________. 9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware. knowledge To _____________________ no formal qualifications. 10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning. blue This morning's test _____________________ for every one of us.
Part 2 The graph below compares the number of visits to two new music sites on the web. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words.
24
.......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... 25
.......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................
Part 3 Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has destroyed communication among friends and family. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... 26
.......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... ..........................................................................................................................................
27
Hướng dẫn chấm I. LISTENING (15 points) Part 1: 5.0 1. D. their employees change their approach. 2. B. the traditional work environment has its limitations. 3. D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs. 4. A. they usually have creative employees to begin with. 5. D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches. 1.D
2.B
3.D
4.A
5.D
3.C
4.A
5.D
3.B
4.C
5.D
Part 2: 10 1. world language 2. voyages of discovery 3. two factors 4. mother tongue 5. the UK 6. determine 7. inherently 8. objective standards 9. complex 10.dependent II. PHONETICS (5 points) Part 1: (2.5 points) 1.A
2. C
Part 2: (2.5 points) 1.B
2.D
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) 28
Part 1: 5.0 1.D
6.B
11.D
16.B
2.A
7.A
12.B
17.C
3.A
8.C
13.A
18.A
4.B
9.B
14.D
19.C
5.D
10.D
15.B
20.C
Part 2: 5.0 1. envisions envisioned
6. speak speaking
2. in under
7. safe safely
3. what how
8. stare staring
4. between from
9. features feature
5. injure injury
10. advices advice
Part 3: 5.0 1. over
6. up
11. up
16. across
2. up
7. for
12. down
17. out
3. out
8.off
13. together
18. on
4.out
9. out
14. off
19. off
5. over
10. down
15. through
20. for
Part 4: 5.0 1. are 2. seems 3. are 29
4. sees 5. has been trying 6. has done/ has been doing 7. developed/ has developed 8. is 9. has puts/ puts 10. has had 11. came 12. had never flown 13 had had 14. took 15. never worried 16. announced 17. were going 18. had/ had had 19. had tried/ tried 20. overcame Part 5: 5.0 1. revitalize
6. theatrical
2. musical
7. artistic
3. partnership
8. lyricists
4. notable
9. dissimilar
5. controversial
10. operatic
Part 6: 5.0 1.G
2.C
3.B
4.A
5.K
6.I
7.F
8.J
9.E
10.D
IV. READING (25 points) Part 1: 7.5 1.A. Questions
B. Changes
C. Hazards
D. Complications
2.A. comforts
B. helps
C. cares
D. aids 30
3.A. stores
B. collection
C. levels
D. supplies
4.A. correction
B. maintenance
C. improvement
D. quality
5.A. worsening
B. unusual
C. sudden
D. adverse
6.A. restraints
B. assurances
C. certainties
D. regulations
7.A. knowledge
B. awareness
C. regard
C. need
8.A. inability
B. difficulty
C. inflexibility
D. timidity
9.A. misuse
B. doubt
C. ignorance
D. disbelief
10.A. local
B. district
C. neighborhood
D. area
11. breakdown
B. failure
C. disruption
D. absence
12.A. type
B. design
C. standard
D. degree
13.A. received
B. formed
C. gained
D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar
B. unlikely
C. unpleasant
D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized
B. unknown
C. unforeseen
D. unearthed
1C
2A
3D
4B
5D
6A
7C
8A
9C
10A
11D 12C 13D 14A 15A
Part 2: 7.5 1. how
2. that/which
3. it
4. then
5. same
6. also
7. results
8. while
9. of
10. and
11. other
12. as
13.
among/ 14. such
15. none
amongst
Part 3: 5.0 1. C 6.D
2.B 7.C
3.B 8.D
4.A 9.C
5.A 10.C
Part 4: 5.0 31
1. C
2. H
4. T
5. T
8. acoustic quality
3. B 6. F
7. NG 9. research centre/center
10. statistical analysis
V. WRITING (25 points) Part 1: 5.0 1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me. lent Had __YOU NOT LENT ME THE__ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house. 2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish. obligation You are __UNDER NO OBLIGATION TO COME__ and see the new house if you don't wish. 3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see you. supposed You __WERE SUPPOSED TO SEE__ boss when you arrived. 4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me. might You __MIGHT HAVE TOLD ME__ she was married! 5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday. not I need __NOT HAVE GONE__ into work but I did anyway. 6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year. awarded The __TOP STUDENT WILL BE AWARDED__ a prize by the headmaster. 7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery. suspicion Johnson was detained __ON SUSPICION OF INVOLVEMENT/BEING INVOLVED__ in the robbery. 8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October. effect The new tax laws __DON'T TAKE EFFECT TILL OCTOBER__. 32
9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware. knowledge To __MY KNOWLEDGE, JANET HAS__ no formal qualifications. 10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning. blue This morning's test __CAME OUT OF THE BLUE__ for every one of us. Part 2: 10 1. Content:
50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language:
30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation:
20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Part 3: 15 1. Content:
50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language:
30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation:
20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
33
Tapescript: Part 1:
34
Part 2:
35
36
ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI DUYÊN HẢI BẮC BỘ 2014 (Môn Tiếng Anh - Đề đề xuất) PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION I. Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: A, B, or C, to complete the statements about the recording. 1. Paula's friend says that A. she has been ill. B. Paula doesn't look very well. C. she's pleased to see Paula. 2. Before the trip, Paula A. was enthusiastic about It. B. wanted to go to the Lake District. C. didn't tell anybody she was going. 3. Before Mark and Paula went to Paris, A. Mark's boss didn't want him to go. B. Paula arranged for somebody to look after the hamster. C. Paula's sister promised to look after the children. 4. The journey across the Channel A. was very smooth. B. was unpleasant for Paula. C. lasted eight hours. 5. The return trip from Paris was A. disturbed by a flood. B. an enjoyable experience. C. earlier than planned. II. Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F). 1. The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society. 2. One of the main points of the talk is to save money. 3. She thinks students should do more housework. 4. She argues that plastic containers won't biodegrade quickly. 5. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.
III. Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words and/or a number each answer. The congestion charging zone covers anywhere within London's inner (1) _________ The signs telling motorists when they are entering the zone show a white letter C on a (2) __________ The congestion charging system recognizes British and European car (3) _________ Alternatives to driving include buses, trains, taxis, and (4) ____________ Public transport in London is now improving because there are fewer (5) _____________
PART 2: PHONETICS I. Pick out the word whose stress syllable is different from those of the other words 1. A. medieval B. humanity C. psychology D. familiarize 2. A. flamingo B. predator C. technical D. masterpiece 3. A. overpopulated B. responsibility C. originality D. incomprehensible 4. A. arithmetic B. mausoleum C. omnivorous D. receptionist 5. A. oversimplify B. multinational C. illiteracy D. undersecretary II. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words 1. A. famine B. examine C. determine D. coalmine 2. A. brotherhood B. proof C. wood D. bookbinder 3. A. teenage B. message C. advantage D. postage 4. A. sneezed B. whirled C. remained D. packed 5. A. thrash B. length C. birthmark D. breathe PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. Choose the best word from A, B, C or D that fits each blank 1. It isn’t that woman’s turn. Don’t let her push _______. A. in B. through C. into D. up 2. We heard her _________ in agony as she dropped the saucepan on her toe. A. boil over B. cry out C. let off D. ring out 3. Tom won’t buy that old car because it has too much ________ on it. A. ups and downs B. odds and ends C. wear and tear D. white lie 4. His English teacher recommends that he _______ a regular degree program. A. begin B. begins C. will begin D. is beginning 5. As a citizen, it is natural to _______ to the laws and rules made by the society. A. conform B. resist C. hinder D. obey
6. The inconsiderate driver was _______ for parking his vehicle in the wrong place. A. inflicted B. condemned C. harassed D. fined 7. Look, will you stop _______ in and let me finish my sentence! A. moving B. pushing C. butting D. plugging 8. It’s the ________ of stupidity to go walking in the mountains in this weather. A. height B. depth C. source D. matter 9. Tax ________ deprives the state of several million pounds as a year. A. retention B. desertion C. escapism D. evasion 10. The university might accept you, ________ of your disappointing exam results. A. irrespective B. pending C. expectant D. dependent 11. I really need a new watch. This one doesn’t _________ very good time. A. show B. record C. indicate D. keep 12. They decided to _______ the meeting as the director was away. A. put up B. put forth C. call down D. call off 13. You ________ to have a lot of new friends at the summer camp. A. are surely B. are certainly C. are bound D. make sure 14. At school he had a good academic record, and also __________ at sports. A. prevailed B. achieved C. surpassed D. excelled 15. The car burst into ________ but the driver managed to escape. A. heat B. flames C. fire D. burning 16. No one is opposed to ________ taxes. A. reducing B. reduce C. be reduced D. reduced 17. According to a recent survey, most people are on good _________ with their neighbors. A. relations B. acquaintance C. relationships D. terms 18. Even after I washed the coat, it still had some _______ marks on it. A. thin B. weak C. faint D. uncertain 19. I always get ________ in my stomach before visiting the dentist. A. worms B. butterflies C. crabs D. hedgehogs 20. Those second-hand Walkmans are selling like _________. If you want one, you’d better buy one now before they’re all gone. A. shooting stars B. fresh bread C. hot cakes D. wild oats II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. Crime preventing is as crucial in the workplace as it is in the home or neighborhood. Reducing crime is as much a part of good management as prompt delivery, good staff relations, and other acceptable management functions. Losses from shops through shoplifting are extremely high and ultimately, those losses are payment for by all of us in high prices. There are many opportunities for shopkeepers themselves to reduce shoplifting. As
(1) __________ (2) __________ (3) __________ (4) __________
with all types of criminal, prevention is better than cure. The best deterrent is the present of staff properly trained in how to identify potential shoplifters. There are also many secure devices now available. Video camera surveillance is a popular system, even with quite small retailers. In clothes shopping, magnetic tag marking systems that set off an alarm if they are taken out of the shop have proved their worthless. However, there are many simpler measures that retailers should consider. Better lighting and ceiling-hung mirrors can help staff to watch all parts of the display area. Similarly, simply arrangement shelves and display units to allow clear fields of visible is a good deterrent.
(5) __________ (6) __________ (7) __________ (8) __________ (9) __________ (10) _________
III. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles 1. I wonder if this dress fits. I’ll try it _______ and see. 2. “Did you enjoy the concert last night with Liz?” “We didn’t go. I waited an hour, but Liz didn’t turn ___________.” 3. Don’t spend the money you won. Why don’t you put it ________ until you have enough to buy something you really want? 4. I was ill for two weeks, so I’ve fallen ________ with my work. 5. This painting can’t possibly be an original. I think we’ve been taken _________. 6. I won’t be able to go out tonight because a problem has just cropped ________. 7. After he was knocked out, it took a long time to bring him ________. 8. Don’t worry. The pain should wear _______ fairly soon. 9. Violence flared ________ and a lot of people were injured. 10.The changes were phased ________ gradually so that everyone could get used to them. IV. Put one suitable preposition in the blank of each sentence 1. My cousin George is obsessed ________ keeping fit. 2. Many frozen foods are deficient __________ vitamins. 3. They say that there is an exception ___________ every rule. 4. It was very good ________ Sue to drive us to the airport. 5. Breaking his leg a second time put Peter’s football career _______ jeopardy. 6. Don’t worry, the whole situation is __________ control. 7. The same rule applies, irrespective __________ how much you have paid. 8. With complete disregard __________ her own safety, Ann jumped into the sea to rescue the dog. 9. I’m afraid you are not eligible ________ a pension until you are 65. 10.There were no ripe apples _______ reach, so I moved the ladder. V. Put each verb in parentheses into an appropriate form Ask hundreds of people what they (1) ___________ (do) on a certain day in August next year, or the year after, and there (2) _________ (be) only one reply. Provided of course
that the people you (3) ________ (ask) (4) _________ (belong) to the Elvis Presley Fan Club. Although the King of Rock and Roll (5) __________ (die) nearly two decades ago, his fans (6) ________ (meet) every year since then outside his home in Memphis, Tennessee, to show respect for the singer they (7) ________ (love) so much. Fans like Jean Thomas, from Catford in South London. Jean (8) ________ (visit) Graceland, the house where Elvis (9) ________ (suffer) his fatal heart attack, twice in the past five years. “The first time I (10) ________ (borrow) the money from my Mum, as I (11) ________ (not work) then. But two years ago, I (12) ________ (get) married and since then I (13) __________ (work) in my husband Chris’s garage. Chris and I (14) _______ (go) together last year, and we (15) __________ (think) of spending two or three months in the USA next year. I (16) ___________ (always want) to visit some of the places where Elvis (17) _______ (perform). Like Las Vegas for example.” Jean says that Elvis (18) _________ (be) her obsession ever since she (19) ________ (be) ten years old, and she (20) ________ (own) every single one of his records, good and bad. VI. Write the correct form of the word given We’ve all felt anger at sometime, whether as faint (0) annoyance or blind rage. Anger is a normal, sometimes useful human emotion, but uncontrolled outbursts of temper can be (1) ___________. “People who give free rein to their anger, (2) __________ of the offence this may cause, haven’t learned to express themselves constructively”, says Martin Smolik, who runs weekend (3) _______ courses in anger management. “It is important to maintain your (4) __________ and put your case in an assertive, not aggressive, manner without hurting others. Being assertive doesn’t mean being pushy or demanding; it means being (5) __________ of yourself and other people.” He adds that people who are (6) _______ angered are intolerant of frustration, (7) _________ or irritation and, not surprisingly, find (8) ________ to other people very difficult. But what causes people to behave like this? It seems there is evidence to support the idea that some children may be born (9) __________ and prone to anger and this tendency is sometimes apparent from a very early age. However, research also suggests that a person’s family (10) ________ may have an influence. Very often, people who are quick-tempered come from disorganized and disruptive families who find it difficult to express their emotions.
(0) ANNOY (1) DESTROY (2) REGRAD (3) RESIDENCE (4) COMPOSE (5) RESPECT (6) EASY (7) CONVENIENT (8) RELATE
(9) IRRITATE (10) GROUND VII. Select a suitable word from the box to fill each blank in the passage changed, mysterious, problematic, transmit, but, in, as view, unless, sending, complicated, that, different, fear The Modern Office One it was possible to get an office job just by knowing how to type. The typewriter and the telephone were the most (1) _________ machines in the office. Now, however, things are very (2) __________. The typewriter has all (3) _____________ disappeared. (4) ___________ its place is a new device, the computer. Even the telephone has (5) ____________. It no longer is just for talking to people outside the office. Now it is used to (6) _________ letters and other documents across town or around the world. A smart worker will not (7) ___________ computers as a problem when looking for office work. There is nothing very (8) _________ about them. Think of a computer (9) __________ you would a car. Only a few people know how they work, but nearly everyone can drive. So (10) _________ you plan to do your own maintenance, you can probably learn about computers very quickly. PART 4. READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the text and fill each gap with ONE suitable word. GETTING ENOUGH EXERCISE While most people (1)___________ to have a toned healthy body, not everyone enjoys(2)_________ out at the gym. In fact, many of us (3)_____________ sooner avoid any kind of vigorous exercise altogether, and may not even feel it is necessary. Over the years, various health experts have assured us that keeping (4)__________ simply requires a total of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days of the week. Many people believe that a walk to the shops or some light housework constitutes moderate activity, but it turns (5)____________this may not be the case. According to the British Association of Sport and Exercise, it is high (6)____________more specific advice (7)__________given about what actually constitutes moderate activity. Housework, it seems, does not fall into this category. Anyone who devotes a great deal of time every day to dusting and vacuuming no doubt wishes that it (8)____________, but research has shown that women who spend over eight hours a day (9)___________ housework actually tend to be slightly more overweight than (10)___________ who do none whatsoever. The association, therefore, would prefer (11)__________ if the public were instructed as to exactly what (12)_____________ of physical activity to aim for.
But setting such guidelines is not easy (13)____________ individual fitness levels and exercise requirements vary. For instance, while walking at a fast pace (14)_____________ generally beneficial for women, it may not be physically challenging enough for men. For this reason, the association would rather this section of the population took up jogging (15)____________ relied on walking as a form of exercise. | III.
Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each blank Gerard Mercator: The Man Who Mapped the Planet
When Gerard Mercatorwas was born in 1512, the geography of the globe still remained a mystery. It was unclear whether America was part of Asia, if there was a vast (1) __________ of sea at the top of the world or if Australia was (2) __________ to Antarctica. Mercator's childhood was spent chiefly in Rupelmonde, a Flemish trading town on the river, and it was here that his geographical imagination was (3) __________ by the ships which passed to and from the rest of the world. Alongside imagination, he developed two very different skills. The first was the ability to gather, (4) __________ and coordinate the geographical information (5) __________explorers and sailors who frequented the margins of the known. He also had to be able to imagine himself (6)__________from the heavens, to achieve the visionary (7) ____________of gods in the skies, (8) ____________down on the world. The main reason why Mercator's name is (9) ___________ to us is because of the Mercator Projection: the solution he (10) ___________ to represent the spheroidal surface of the globe on a two-dimensional plane. It is less well known that Mercator was the first man to conceive of mapping the (11)___________ surface of the planet or that he (12) ___________the idea of multiple maps being presented in bound books, to which he gave the name 'Atlas'. It is difficult for us now to be surprised by maps, so many are there, and of such detail and coverage, but we should (13) ___________ in mind that Mercator lived at a time when such knowledge was far from (14) ____________ He was the man who (15)____________ our worldview forever. 1. A. territory
B. distance
C. range
D. expanse
2. A. connected
B. coupled
C. united
D. integrated
3. A. raise
B. reared
C. supplied
D. nourished
4. A. congregate
B. amass
C. assimilate
D. construct
5. A. granted
B. conferred
C. contributed
D. provided
6. A. suspended
B. located
C. situated
D. attached
7. A. inspection
B. observation
C. perspective
D. assessment
8. A. glimpsing
B. scrutinizing
C. watching
D. gazing
9. A. familiar
B. famous
C. memorable
D. recognizable
10. A. invented
B. contrived
C. devised
D. schemed
11. A. sheer
B. full
C. entire
D. utter
12. A. pioneered
B. initiated
C. lead
D. prepared
13. A. carry
B. hold
C. take
D. bear
14. A. typical
B. common
C. routine
D. normal
15. A. converted
B. substituted
C. distorted
D. altered
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. No longer is asthma considered a condition with isolated, acute episodes of bronchospasm. Rather, asthma is now understood to be a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways—that is, inflammation makes the iirways chronically sensitive. When these hyperresponsive airways are irritated, airflow is limited, and attacks of coughing, wheezing, chest tightness and breathing difficulty occur. Asthma involves complex interactions among inflammatory cells, mediators, and the cells and tissues in the airways. The interactions result in airflow limitation from acute bronchoconstriction, swelling of the airway wall, increased mucus secretion, and airway remodeling. The inflammation also causes an increase in airway responsiveness. During an asthma attack, the patient attempts to compensate by breathing at a higher lung volume in order to keep the air flowing through the constricted airways, and the greater the airway limitation, the higher the lung volume must be to keep airways open. The morphologic changes that occur in asthma include bronchial infiltration by inflammatory cells. Key effector cells in the inflammatory response are the mast cells, T lymphocytes, and eosinophils. Mast cells and eosinophils are also significant participants in allergic responses, hence the similarities between allergic reactions and asthma attacks. Other changes include mucus plugging of the airways, interstitial edema, and microvascular leakage. Destruction of bronchial epithelium and thickening of the subbasement membrane is also characteristic. In addition, there may be hypertrophy and hyperplasia of airway smooth muscle, increase in goblet cell number, and enlargement of submucous glands. Although causes of the initial tendency toward inflammation in the airways of patients with asthma are not yet certain to date the strongest identified risk factor is atopy. This inherited familial tendency to have allergic reactions includes increased sensitivity to allergens that are risk factors for developing asthma. Some of these allergens include domestic dust mites, animals with fur, cockroaches, pollens, and molds. Additionally, asthma may be triggered by viral respiratory infections, especially in children. By avoiding these allergens and triggers, a person with asthma lowers his or her risk of irritating sensitive airways. A few avoidance techniques include: keeping the home clean and well ventilated, using an air conditioner in the summer months when pollen and mold counts are high, and getting an annual influenza vaccination. Of course, asthma sufferers should avoid tobacco smoke altogether. Cigar, cigarette, or pipe smoke is a
trigger whether the patient smokes or inhales the smoke from others. Smoke increases the risk of allergic sensitization in children, increases the severity of symptoms, and may be fatal in children who already have asthma. Many of the risk factors for developing asthma may also provoke asthma attacks, and people with asthma may have one or more triggers, which vary from individual to individual. The risk can be further reduced by taking medications that decrease airway inflammation. Most exacerbations can be prevented by the combination of avoiding triggers and taking anti-inflammatory medications. An exception is physical activity, which is a common trigger of exacerbations in asthma patients. However, asthma patients should not necessarily avoid all physical exertion, because some types of activity have been proven to reduce symptoms. Rather, they should work in conjunction with a doctor to design a proper training regimen, which includes the use of medication. In order to diagnose asthma, a healthcare professional must appreciate the underlying disorder that leads to asthma symptoms and understand how to recognize the condition through information gathered from the patient's history, physical examination, measurements of lung function, and allergic status. Because asthma symptoms vary throughout the day, the respiratory system may appear normal during physical examination. Clinical signs are more likely to be present when a patient is experiencing symptoms; however, the absence of symptoms upon examination does not exclude the diagnosis of asthma. 1. According to the passage, what is the name for the familial inclination to have hypersensitivity to certain allergens? A. interstitial edema B. hyperplasia C. hypertrophy D. atopy 2. Why does a person suffering from an asthma attack attempt to inhale more air? A. to prevent the loss of consciousness B. to keep air flowing through shrunken air passageways C. to prevent hyperplasia D. to compensate for weakened mast cells, T lymphocytes, and eosinophils 3. The word triggered is closest in meaning to A. caused B. taken place C. eliminated D. cured 4. The passage suggests that in the past, asthma was regarded as which of the following?
A. a result of the overuse of tobacco products B. a hysterical condition C. mysterious, unrelated attacks affecting the lungs D. a chronic condition 5. Which of the following would be the best replacement for the underlined word exacerbations in this passage? A. allergies B. attacks C. triggers D. allergens 6. The passage mentions all of the following bodily changes during an asthma attack except A. Severe cramping in the chest. B. Heavy breathing. C. Airways blocked by fluids. D. constricted airways. 7. Although it is surprising, which of the following triggers is mentioned in the passage as possibly reducing the symptoms of asthma in some patients? A. using a fan instead of an air conditioner in summer months B. exposure to second-hand cigarette smoke C. the love of a family pet D. performing physical exercise 8. Why might a patient with asthma have an apparently normal respiratory system during an examination by a doctor? A. Asthma symptoms come and go throughout the day. B. Severe asthma occurs only after strenuous physical exertion. C. Doctor's offices are smoke free and very clean. D. The pollen and mold count may be low that day. 9. Who might be the most logical audience for this passage? A. Researchers studying the respiratory system B. healthcare professionals C. A mother whose child has been diagnosed with asthma D. An antismoking activist
10. What is the reason given in this article for why passive smoke should be avoided by children? A. A smoke-filled room is a breeding ground for viral respiratory B. Smoke can stunt an asthmatic child's growth. C. Smoke can heighten the intensity of asthma symptoms. D. Smoke can lead to a fatal asthma attack. IV. Read the passage and complete the text below, which is a summary of the writer’s opinion on a classical education. Use one word only from the text to complete each blank space. You may use each word once only. Classical and modern In the United Kingdom at university level, the decline in the study of Latin and Greek, the classics, has been reversed. As a result of renewed interest in reading classical literature and history, more and more students are enrolling on classical studies courses. The purists may deplore this development - 'it is yet another example of the 'dumbing down' of tertiary education with students studying classical literature and history in English rather than the original languages'. And, I must admit, they do have a point. But the situation is surely not as dire as the ultimate demise of classics as an intellectual discipline. A classical education is a boon and should be encouraged. But, before looking at the advantages of studying the classics, which appear, incidentally, more indirect and less tangible than other disciplines, let us examine the criticisms that are often leveled against studying Latin and Greek. The decline in the teaching of classics The 60s with their trendy ideas in education are blamed for the steady decline in studying the classics. But the rot had set in much earlier, when Latin and Greek were no longer required for university entrance. With the introduction of the National Curriculum in secondary schools came the biggest blow. Schools came under pressure to devote more time to core subjects like English, mathematics, the sciences, history and geography. This left scant room for the more 'peripheral' subject areas like the classics. There was a further squeeze with the rush into teaching IT and computing skills. As schools could no longer choose what they wanted to teach, so subjects like the classics were further marginalized. Take Latin. In 1997, 11,694 pupils took Latin GCSE, while, in 1988, the number was 17,000. Comprehensive schools now supply 40% fewer Latin candidates, whereas grammar schools have seen a 20% decline. Latin candidates from Independent schools have fallen by only 5%. As a consequence, classics has been relegated to the 'better' grammar or comprehensive schools, and the minor and great public schools. Only one third of Latin GCSE entries come from the state sector. It can, therefore, be of no surprise to anyone when the pursuit of a classical education is attacked as elitist.
Tainted by this misconception, the classics are then further damned as being irrelevant in the modem world. Having been pushed into such a tight comer, it is difficult to fight free. A classical education is so unlike, say, business studies or accountancy where young people can go directly into a profession and find a job easily. For classicists, this is not an option. Other than teaching, there is no specific professional route after leaving university. And, with the pressure in the present climate to have a job, it is less easy than previously for young people to resist the pressure from the world outside academia, and from their families, to study something else that will make them money. The relevancy argument is a hard nut to crack. The pertinence of a classical education Latin and Greek have been damned as dead languages that offer us nothing. The response to this criticism is, in fact, straightforward. Most European languages are a development of the classical continuum. And so having even a rudimentary knowledge prepares pupils for understanding other modem European languages. As for pertinence in the modem world, learning Latin and Greek are highly relevant. The study of these languages, develops analytical skills that have to a large extent, been lost. They teach discipline and thinking and open up the whole of Western civilization just as the discovery of the classical world did during the Renaissance. Latin has also been called food for the brain. It gives students a grounding in the allusions in much of European literature and thought. Modem writers do not use these allusions themselves, first, because they do not know them, and, second, because their audience does not know them either. Sadly, most people no longer have the ability to interpret the allusions in art and the same has happened with the classics vis-à-vis literature. The danger to Western and world culture is great if the classical tradition is lost. The spiral of decline is not just restricted to the United Kingdom. Other European countries face the same loss to their heritage. If we abandon the classics, we will not be able to interpret our past and to know where we have come from. A common refrain in modem society is the lack of thinking ability among even the best graduates. They enter work, perhaps as bright as any of their predecessors. But without the necessary skills they run around trying to reinvent the wheel. As Ecclesiastes says: nihil novum sub sole est. But help is at hand. Concerned by the fact that fewer and fewer teenagers have access to a range of foreign languages, the government is harnessing the power of the Internet to introduce a distance-learning programme, where pupils will study Latin and other minority languages at their own pace. Initially piloted in 60 schools from autumn 2000, the internet-based courses will enable pupils to .access advice from specialists by e-mail. Summary: Latin and Greek are known as the (1) __________. The writer considers a classical education to be a (2) _________. He believes that, in secondary school, the teaching of
classics has been (3) __________ by the introduction of the National Curriculum. This has further led to the studying of the classics being attacked as (4) __________. In addition, studying Latin and Greek, is wrongly (5) _________ as being (6) __________, because classicists have no specific (7) _________ route to follow. As young people are pressured to make money, the writer feels that the relevancy (8) __________ is difficult to counter. In spite of the criticisms leveled at a classical education, the writer feels that learning Latin and Greek is highly (9) ________. And he fears that there is a danger that the classics as a discipline will be (10) ___________. But help is at hand from a new Internet-based distance-learning programme being piloted in 60 schools from autumn 2000. The pilot study will allow pupils to study Latin at their own pace. PART 5. WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three to eight words, including the word given. 1. Adrian was the only person who didn’t enjoy the party. WITH Everyone enjoyed the party _________________________________________ Adrian. 2. Sam said that the situation at work was like a family argument. LIKENED Sam __________________________________________________ a family argument. 3. I always find chess problems like that quite impossible. DEFEAT Chess problems ____________________________________________________ me. 4. I thought I could count on your support at the meeting. UP I had hoped ______________________________________________ at the meeting. 5. Please read the instructions carefully before you use this appliance. MAKING Before ________________________________, please read the instructions carefully. 6. Only the usual, everyday things happen here. OUT Nothing _________________________________________________________ here. 7. He did everything possible to save his marriage. POWER He did ________________________________________________ save his marriage. 8. I promised her that the situation would not be repeated in the future. WORD I __________________________________ no repetition of the situation in the future. 9. No matter what happens, Jane will never forgive Mark for what he did. EVER
Under _____________________________________________ Mark for what he did. 10. They were never aware at any moment that something was wrong. TIME At ____________________________________________ that something was wrong. II. Statistics describing The charts below show the percentage of their food budget the average family spent on restaurant meals in different years. The graph shows the number of meals eaten in fast food restaurants and sit-down restaurants. You should write at least 150 words. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
III.
Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic Increasing the price of petrol is the best way to solve growing traffic and pollution problems.
To what extent do you agree or disagree? What other measures do you think might be effective? Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.
ANSWER KEY PART 1: LISTENING COMPREHENSION I. Read the sentences below. You are going to hear two women talking about a holiday in France. Read the sentences, and choose the best option: a, b, or c, to complete the statements about the recording. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
C A B B C
Tapescripts: Paula Hi Meg! Meg Paula! It's great to see you! You look fantastic! Paula Oh. do I? That's strange. I should be looking awful. Meg Why? Have you been ill? Paula No. Not that. It's just that trip to Paris. It was a nightmare'. Meg Really? You must be joking! Don't tell me you didn't have a good time. When you told me you were going I was green with envy. Paula No wonder, I was so excited I just couldn't wait to go. Now I wish we'd gone to the Lake District or even just stayed at home. Meg But what was so bad about it? Paula Well, in the beginning everything looked all right. Mark's boss gave him two weeks off without too much trouble, the children went to stay with Mark's mother, and Sheila - you know, my younger sister-promised to come over to our place to feed the hamster. So we packed our suitcases and set off. Meg Sounds all right so far. Paula Yes, but in Dover it turned out that the ferry terminal workers had gone on strike, and we had to wait over eight hours before we could board a ferry. Meg Oh no! Paula And that was just the beg inning. During the passage the weather turned stormy, and I was terribly sea-sick all the way across the Channel. Meg Oh, poor you! Paula Yeah, it was horrid. Then, when we arrived in Calais, it was so late that we had to look for somewhere to spend the night. Meg Oh dear! Paula Yes, but that's not all! On the way to Paris the next day we had a puncture, so Mark had to change the tyre, the hotel where we'd booked a room turned out to be terribly noisy, it was pouring with rain most of the time, and some of the galleries I wanted to visit were closed.
Meg Oh no! So what did you do, then? Paula Well, I ended up shopping for clothes. That's about the only thing I can't complain about, but, obviously, it wasn't cheap, so Mark go t furious. Meg No surprise there! Paula Hmmm so in the end we decided to shorten our stay and left after just ten days. You can imagine our return trip - I was unhappy. Mark was mad at me because of the money, and," when we got home, the flat was flooded. Meg Flooded? Paula Yes, we couldn't believe it! When we were away, Sheila let the hamster out of the cage for a while, and the horrid creature bit through the fridge cable. Of course, she didn't even notice, but when we got back, there was water all over the kitchen floor and all the food in the fridge had gone off. Meg What a nightmare! II. Read the statements and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F). 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
F T F T F
Tapescripts: A talk from a member of the conservation Society about 'green cleaning' Good morning everyone. It's a pleasure to be here as a representative of the Conservation Society, to talk to you about "Green Cleaning", in other words about ways you can help to save the environment at the same time as saving money. I'll start with saving money - as we're all interested in that, especially students who are living on a tight budget. Probably none of you has sat down and calculated how much you spend on cleaning products each year everything from dishwashing detergent, window cleaners and so on through to shampoos and conditioners for your hair, and then those disasters products to get stains out of carpets, or to rescue burnt saucepans. I can see some nods of agreement, even if you don't spend a lot of time on housework you'd end up spending quite a lot of money over a period of time, wouldn't you? We can save money on products and also use products which are cheap, biodegradable and harmless to the environment - these I will call 'green' products. Unfortunately most cleaning products on sale commercially are none of these, and many of our waterways and oceans are polluted with bleach, dioxins, phosphates and artificial colourings and perfumes. Also think how many plastic bottles each household throws away over a year -they'll still be around in land-fill when you are grandparents! So we often feel there's nothing we can do to make a difference, but we can. The actual 'recipes' are on handouts you can take at the end of the talk: The sorts of ingredients I'm referring to are things like bicarbonate of soda, eucalyptus oil, ammonia, vinegar, lemons, pure soap. Lastly many people find they're
allergic to modem products, so for all you asthma sufferers keep listening. Nothing in these recipes should cause you any problems, an end to itching and wheezing! So let’s start with spills and stains. Soda water is wonderful as an immediate stain remover: mop up the excess spill don't rub but apply soda water immediately - it's great for tea coffee wine beer and milk - as is salt or bicarbonate of soda, which will absorb the stain - then vacuum when dry and shampoo if necessary. While we are talking about disasters lets quickly look at some others that can be avoided. Bicarbonate of soda is wonderful for removing smells, especially in the fridge - an open box in the fridge will eliminate smells for up to three months. And those terrible burnt saucepans? Either sprinkle with our good friend bicarb again and leave it to stand, or cover with vinegar and a layer of cooking salt. Bring it to the boil and simmer for ten minutes, then wash when cool. Much cheaper than a new saucepan! Then there are heat rings on wooden furniture. Simply rub with a mixture of salt and olive oil, or for scratched furniture use olive oil and vinegar. Now let's look at general cleaning - first the floors. If your floor covering is made of slate, cork or ceramic tiles or lino it probably only needs a mop or a scrub with vinegar in a bucket of water. Carpets can be shampooed using a combination of pure soap washing soda, cloudy ammonia and some boiling water. You put a small amount of this mixture onto the mark on the carpet, rub with a cloth until it lathers and then wipe off the excess. A smelly carpet can be deodorized by sprinkling bicarbonate of soda on the surface, leaving overnight and vacuuming off the next day. Cleaning in the kitchen, bathroom and toilet is the next section.... III. Complete the sentences below. Write no more than three words and/or a number each answer. 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Ring road Read background Registration plates (the) underground Private vehicles
Tapescripts: Ok, on to the area itself. The congestion charging zone is everywhere inside London's inner ring road. For those of you not familiar with London's road system, this includes the City of London, that's the main financial district, and the West End, the commercial and entertainment centre. If you're still not sure, there are very clear signs on all roads which indicate when you are entering the area. These are round and have a white letter “C” on a red background. The scheme is policed, by cameras which photograph all cars entering the area and send them to a computer which can recognize all British and European car registration plates. If you pay the eight pound charge, you'll find London a little easier to drive round than it was before the charge was introduced. But if it's all too much trouble, and you decide to leave your car at home, then you are left with public transport: that's trains, buses, taxis or the underground. Some of the money from the congestion charging scheme is being used to upgrade public transport, so you should see improvements there. And because of reductions in the number of private vehicles on London's roads brought about by congestion charging, buses and taxis are providing a
quicker, more efficient service than they did in the past. OK, I've covered the main details that you need to know. PART 2: PHONETICS I. Pick out the word whose stress syllable is different from those of the other words 1. A 2. A 3. A 4. B 5.C II. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5.D PART 3: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY I. Choose the best word from A, B, C or D that fits each blank 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. C 14.D
15. B
16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. C
II. The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. 1. preventing prevention 2. acceptable accepted 3. payment paid 4. criminal crime 5. present presence 6. secure security 7. shopping shops 8. worthless worth 9. arrangement arranging 10. visible vision/visibility III.
Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable particles 1. on 2. up 3. aside 4. behind 5. in 6. up 7. round 8. off 9. up 10. in IV.Put one suitable preposition in the blank of each sentence 1. with 2. in 3. to 4. of 5. in
6. under 7. of 8. for 9. for 10. within V. Put each verb in parentheses into an appropriate form 1. will be doing
6. have met
2. will be
7. love
11. was working
3. ask
8. has visited
12.
4. belong
9. suffered
5. died
10.
13. have worked / 19. have been working 20. 14. went
borrowed
15.
not 16.
got
have always wanted
17.
performed
18.
has been was owns
are thinking
VI.Write the correct form of the word given 1. destructive 2. regardless 3. residential 4. composure 5. respectful 6. easily 7. inconvenience 8. relating 9. irritable 10. background VII. Select a suitable word from the box to fill each blank in the passage 1. complicated 2. different 3. but 4. In 5. changed 6. transmit 7. view 8. mysterious 9. as 10. unless PART 4. READING COMPREHENSION I. Read the text and fill each gap with ONE suitable word. 1. Wish/want 2. Working
3. Would 4. Fit 5. Out 6. Time 7. Was 8. Did 9. On/doing 10. Those/ women 11. It 12. Kind 13. As/since/because 14. Is 15. Than II. Read the text below and then decide which word best fits each blank 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. D III.
Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
1. D 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. A 9. B 10. D IV.
Read the passage and complete the text below, which is a summary of the writer’s opinion on a classical education. Use one word only from the text to complete each blank space. You may use each word once only.
1. Classic 2. Boon 3. Marginalized 4. Elitist 5. Damned 6. Irrelevant 7. Professional 8. Argument 9. Relevant/ pertinent 10. Lost PART 5. WRITING I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three to eight words, including the word given. 1. ... with the exception of .... 2. ... likened the situation at work to ... 3. ... like that (always) defeat ... 4. ... you would back me up ... 5. ... making use of this appliance ... 6. ... out of the ordinary (ever) happens ... 7. ... everything in his power to ... 8. ... gave her my word (that) there would be ... 9. ... no circumstances will Jane ever forgive ... 10. ... no time were they (ever) aware .... II & III. - Content: 50% of total mark a provision of all main ideas and details as appreciate - Language: 30% total mark a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students - Presentation: 20% of total mark coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students
REFERENCES Part 1: Listening Câu 1-5: trang 165 & 166, exercise A, sách tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013 Câu 6-10: trang 55, exercise A, sách tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013 Câu 11-15: trang 14, exercise B, sách tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013 Part 2: Phonetics Câu 1-5: trang 9-13, sách 2430 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm Tiếng Anh, Nguyễn Thị Chi & Nguyễn Hữu Cương, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2009 Câu 6-10: trang 6-8, sách 2430 câu hỏi trắc nghiệm Tiếng Anh, Nguyễn Thị Chi & Nguyễn Hữu Cương, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2009 Part 3: Grammar and vocabulary I. Choose the best answer Câu 1-6: trang 5 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013 Câu 7-9: trang 6 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013 Câu 10-14 trang 15 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013
Câu 15-18, trang 8 Tuyển tập đề thi Olympic 30 tháng 4, lần XII - 2006 Tiếng Anh, NXB giáo dục, 2006 Câu 19-20: trang 11, Bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 12, Nguyễn Phú Thọ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2008 II. Mistake identification: trang 146, sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN 2013 III. Preposition: trang 43 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN 2013 IV. Preposition: trang 50, sách Bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 11, Nguyễn Phú Thọ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2007 V. Verb tense: trang 50-51, sách Bồi dưỡng học sinh giỏi Tiếng Anh 11, Nguyễn Phú Thọ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2007 VI. Word form: trang 145 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013 VII. Complete the passage: trang 34, Tuyển tập đề thi Olympic 30 tháng 4, lần XII - 2006 Tiếng Anh, NXB giáo dục, 2006 Part 4: Reading I.Gap-filling: trang 17, sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013. II.Gap-filling with selections: trang 24&25, sách “CAE Testbuilder”, Amanda French, 2003.
III.Multiple choice questions: trang 79-80, sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN, 2013. IV.Completing the summary of the text with a suitable word: trang 90-92, sách “IELTS Reading Tests”, McCarter & Ash, 2000. Part 5: Writing I. Rewrite sentences with the same meaning: trang 123 sách “Tài liệu bồi dưỡng Tiếng Anh 11”, Hoàng Thị Lệ, NXB ĐHQGHN 2013 II & III. - Content: 50% of total mark a provision of all main ideas and details as appreciate - Language: 30% total mark a variety vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students - Presentation: 20% of total mark coherence, cohesion and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted school students
SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO LÀO CAI
THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG CHUYÊN DH-BB
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH -11 Ngày thi:
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT
tháng
năm 2014
(Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi gồm 27 trang
I. LISTENING (15 points) Part 1: You will hear an interview with Maria Stefanovich, co-founder of a creativity group which organises workshops far executives. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear (5 points) 1. Corporations appreciate mask-making workshops because … A. no one wants negative faces at the office. B unhappy employees won’t come to work. C. they realise how their employees see them. D. their employees change their approach. 2. Companies are turning to creative workshops because they have acknowledged that A. unproductive employees are a financial burden. B. the traditional work environment has its limitations. C. there is an increase in absenteeism. D. employees are working too hard without enjoying it. 3. The employees at the firm ‘Play’ A. change positions frequently to lessen boredom. B. have business cards indicating their jobs. C. dress up like comic book characters. D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs. 4.
The companies that show most interest in creative workshops are suprising
because 1
A. they usually have creative employees to begin with. B. their employees are the ones who have to present regularly. C. there are many other exciting workshops they would prefer. D. their employees should be used to being funny. 5. Maria mentions the traditional companies that have held workshops in order to A. boast about the clients her company has helped. B. show that they have a narrow list of clients. C. downplay the serious reputations of the firms. D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: You will hear a report on how English has become a global language. For questions1-10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase. (10 points) The spread of English around the globe means it is now termed a (1)_________ English first started to spread when explorers made (2)________ to the other side of the world. The influence of Britain in the past and the influence of American businesses are the (3)____________ which give English its present significance. The number of people whose (4)___________is English is significantly greater in the USA than in the (5)_________. It is difficult to (6)__________
the communicative functions of English in some
countries. It is sometimes suggested that English is (7)______ superior to other languages. People tend to judge languages using subjective rather than (8)___________ English sentence structure is (9)__________ Language success is (10)________ on a variety of different things. Your answers: 1.
6. 2
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
II. PHONETICS (5 points)
Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose the underline part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. (2.5 points) 1. A. seasonality
B. conservatory
C. honorable
D. discordant
2. A. rejection
B. regardless
C. represent
D. religiously
3. A. assessment
B. passages
C. passionate
D. pessimism
4. A. essentially
B. gradually
C. metalized
D. unpunctually
5. A. saffron
B. sacrament
C. saddlery
D. sabbatical
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Part 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. (2.5 points)
1. A. amicable
B. agreeable
C. admirable
D. arguable
2. A. foliage
B. dislocate
C. typifying
D. personel
3. A. irrevocably
B. unconditional
C. impartially
D. descendent
4. A. empowerment
B. omnisciently
C. ludicrousness
D. momentum
5. A. morbidly
B. crossbreds
C. southernmost
D. journalese 3
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) Part 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. (5 points) 1.
Several passengers received minor injuries when the train unexpectedly came
to a______ A. delay
B. stand
C. brake
D. halt
2. John refused to put his career in ______by opposing his boss. A. jeopardy
B. hazard
C. risk
D. stake
3. Angela’s work was praised for its ______attention to detail. A. meticulous
B. significant
C. subtle
D. concentrated
4. Motorists should ______well in advance of changing lanes. A. sign
B. signal
C. flare
D. flicker
5. The students had no money left and took out a loan to _______ him over until the end of term. A. last
B. tend
C. keep
D. tide
6. The climbers sought ________from the storm. A. escape
B. refuge
C. solace
D. defence
7. The tour guide had a brightly-colored company badge pinned to the _______of her jacket. A. lapel
B. border
C. edge
D. hem
4
8. It was her first conference as partly leader, and she was determined to _______her authority on the proceedings. A. press
B. thrust
C. stamp
D. mark
9. It was ______of a surprise to Andrew that he got the job. A. rather
B. something
C. quite
D. much
10. The last bus had gone so we were ______ with the problem of how to get home that night. A. affronted
B. caught
C. trapped
D. faced
11. I don’t want to go into all the details about why I left; _______it to say that had a better offer from another company. A. take
B. grant
C. give
D. suffice
12. Finish your meal with a cup of our delicious freshly ________coffee. A. grated
B. ground
C. shredded
D. minced
13. At the most important stage of the reason, the footballer was troubled by the ______of an old injury. A. recurrence
B. renewal
C. restart
D. resumption.
14. The pianist played beautifully, showing a real _______for the music. A. sense
B. understanding C. sentiment
D. feeling
15. Rachel painted a gloomy _____ of life as a student. A. image
B. picture
C. drawing
D. illustration
16. With its engine disabled, the finishing vessel was at the _______of the storm. A. whim
B. mercy
C. control
D. grip
17. The more expensive carpet is a good choice ______it will last longer. 5
A. by means of
B. due to
C. in that
D. in view of
18. Money was short and people survived by _______and saving. A. scrimping
B. scavenging
C. scouring
D. scrounging
19. The company had severe problems and the board decided to ______it up. A. fold
B. close
C. wind
D. put
20. It is with _______regret that we have to inform you that your scholarship had been withdrawn. A. heavy
B. somber
C. deep
D. high
Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 2: Read the text, find the mistakes and correct them (5 points) Thirty years ago, the TV series UFO envisions 1999 as an era when space fighters were launched from submarines, the world was in threat from alien invaders -and everyone carried a slide rule in a holster on their belts. Even as the programme was being made, pocket calculators were coming onto the market. There was a lesson about the future: it will overtake your wildest imaginings. If you focus on what existing technologies will develop, you miss the real changes - and threats. This autumn sees the changeover between keyboards and mice to using the human voice to dictate directly onto the screen, and to command the computer. Wonderful, you may think. A cure for repetitive strain injure 6
(RSI), caused by repeated physical actions. Except that it will not be. It will transfer RSI from the wrist to the throat. The voice box is a very delicate instrument and we are not used to speak all the time. Even 200 words (taking a little over a minute to say) leaves us clearing our throats and sipping a drink. There will be catastrophes unless we learn how to use our voices safe. Students who get up on the morning of an essay deadline to compose 4,000 words on a voice -operated computer could permanently damage their voices. Each new technological development tends to bring problems with it. Nobody had heard of RSI until word processors exploded onto the market. Long hours spent stare into a computer monitor led to complaints of eyestrain, backache and even worries about radiation leaks from the screen. Repetitive computer related tasks are such a common features of modern work that many companies are calling in ergonomic consultants to recommend ways to avoid RSI conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome, a wrist condition commonly found in people who use keyboards. Companies found that by following their advices, claims for injury or illnesses suffered by employees were greatly diminished.
Your answers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 3: Fill in the blank with suitable prepositions or particles. (5 points) 1. I can't understand what you are talking about with this design. Can we GO______ it again? 2. Stop slouching in the chair like that. SIT_______!! 7
3. She didn't manage to PICK_____ anyone from the line-up as she had forgotten completely what the mugger looked like. 4. Candles usually BURN _______ after about four hours. 5. Don't worry about the argument you had with your sister. It will soon BLOW ________. 6. It's been raining for three hours now and it doesn't look like it will LET_____ today. 7. With that accent of his, he could PASS ______ a Frenchman I think. 8. I was so tired last night that I DROPPED _______ in front of the TV. 9. The Americans PULLED _______ of the 1980 Moscow Olympics after the invasion of Afghanistan. 10.The corruption scandal caused the resignation of three minister and eventually, even the prime minister STOOD _______. 11.I have a splitting headache and I certainly don't FEEL ______ to going to watch a concert. 12. Don't get him worried about money. If I were you, I'd PLAY _____the importance of getting the loan or he will panic. 13.The two brothers GOT ________ over a beer in a local bar and resolved their differences. 14. My brother hurt himself while he was SHOWING _______ on his new bike. 15.We were so close to finalizing the contract, but it FELL ______ at the last minute due to the customer having financial concerns. 16.I know you don't intend do, Roger, but you COME ______ as very aggressive in the meetings. You need to be more diplomatic when you speak. 17.Sue has very low blood pressure. When she stands up too quickly, she can PASS _______. 18.I had a lisp when I was younger and some of the other kids would PICK _______me at school. 8
19.The police in the west of the town BLOCKED ______ four blocks to prevent the public getting too close to the fire. 20.The group leader stayed calm when the weather got bad and told everyone to MAKE _____ the red light they could see on the horizon. Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 4: Complete following sentences with the correct form of the verbs (5 points) The statistics on the safety of flying (1- be) ___________immensely comforting. It (2-seem) __________that the chances of being involved in an accident (3-be) __________a million to one – the equivalent of flying safely every day for 95 years. Try telling that to the white-faced, petrified aerophobic, who (4-see) _________every frown on a stewardess’ face as a portent of disaster. For some years now, psychologist Henry Jones (5-try) _________to tell them, and he (6-do)________ a lot more besides. He (7- develop) ________both a theory and practice for treating air travel anxiety. Apparently, it (8-be) _________a widespread phobia. One American survey (9- put) _________it as the fourth most common fear, preceded only by snakes, heights and storms. Jones (10- have) ___________nearly 500 clients during the last decade. Before they (11-come)__________to him, some of his clients (12-never fly)___________, others (13-have)___________just one bad experience after years of flying. One man(14- take)__________over 200 flights a year for five years and (15never worry) _________up till then. Then, one day on a flight to Chicago the pilot 9
(16-announce) __________that they (17- go)________to turn back because of an engine fault. The man (18-have) ___________a panic attack and (19-try) ________to get off the plane in mid-air. After Jones’s course, the man (20-overcome) ___________his fears and managed to fly again.
Your answers: 1.
6.
11.
16.
2.
7.
12.
17.
3.
8.
13.
18.
4.
9.
14.
19.
5.
10.
15.
20.
Part 5: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed words in the numbered spaces provided. (5 points) Pop Musicals Lord Andrew Lloyd Webber, a man whose (0)
compositions, eclectic rock
based works, helped (1) VITAL______ British and American (2) MUSIC_____ theatre in the late 20th century. As a student at Oxford University, a (3) PARTNER_______ was founded between Webber and Timothy Rice to put on dramatic productions. Their first (4) NOTE ________ successful venture was ‘Joseph and The Amazing Technicolor Dreamcoat’, a pop oratorio for children that earned world-wide acclaim. It was followed by the rock opera, ‘Jesus Christ Superstar’, an extremely popular,
though (5) CONTROVERSY ___________work that blended classical
forms to tell the story of Jesus’ life. This show ran longer than any other similar show in British (6) THEATRE ________history.
Lloyd Webber’s last (7) 10
ART________ collaboration with Rice was on ‘Evita’.
‘Cats’ was his next major
production, in which he set to music verses from a children’ book by T.S. Eliot. With two (8) LYRIC _______ Charles Hart and Richard Stilgoe, he then composed a hugely successful version of ‘The Phantom of the Opera’. Lloyd Webber’s best works were flashy spectacles that featured vivid melodies and forceful
and
dramatic
staging.
He was able to blend such varied and (9)
SIMILAR_______genres as rock and roll, English music-hall song, and (10) OPERA_______ forms into music that had a wide mass appeal.
Your answers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Part 6: Read the text. Complete the text with the phrase (A-K) that best fits each gap. There is one phrase you do not need. (5 points)
A FAMOUS DREAM
Although Albraham Lincoln is today one of America's best loved presidents, that was not always so. During the American Civil War he was hated by Southerners for abolishing slavery, and (1)________that he fully expected to be murdered by his political opponents, and had resigned himself to his fate. According to a close friend of his, three days prior to his assassination, Lincoln recounted a dream he'd had to his wife and acquaintances, (2) _________. In the dream, he was lying in bed in the 11
White house in Washington, and there seemed to be a death-like stillness around him. Then he began to hear quiet sobbing, (3)__________. He got out of bed and wandered downstairs. There the silence was broken by the same pitiful sobbing, but he couldn't see who was making the noise. He went from room to room but they were all deserted, (4)_______. It was light in all the rooms and every object was familiar to him; but where, Lincoln wondered, were all the people (5)_________? He was both puzzled and alarmed. What could be the meaning of all this? Determined to find the cause, he kept on walking (6)_______, which he entered. There he met with a sickening surprise. Before him was a platform, (7)________. Around it was stationed soldiers who were acting as guards; and there was a crowd of people, some gazing mournfully upon the coffin, others crying bitterly. 'Who has died in the White House?' Lincoln demanded of one of the soldiers. 'The President,' came the answer. 'He was killed by an assassin.' Then there was a loud exclamation of grief from the crowd, (8)______. Some people have ascribed a powerful meaning to his dream, claiming that (9)_______. Others point out that, given the fact that he fully expected that someone would try to assassinate him, (10)________.
A. although the same mournful sounds of distress met him as he walked along B. as if a number of people were crying C. in which he foresaw his own death D. it is hardly surprising that he dreamt of his own death E. Lincoln knew that he was about to die F. on which rested a coffin G. such was their antipathy towards him H. he had had the dream before I. until he arrived at the East room J. which awoke him from his dream K. who were grieving as if their hearts would break 12
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
IV. READING (25 points) Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) that best fits the blank. (7.5 points) From the moment they leave the security of their accustomed environment, travellers are at risk. (1) ……..arise not just from strange diseases they meet on their travels but from other factors too: seemingly uninspiring home (2) …………..such as safe water (3) …………, sanittion and public hygiene controls, legal safety standards for motor vehicles and road (4) ……….., are easily taken for granted, but simply do not exist in many
countries.
Environmental
factors
such
as
arduous
conditions,
(5)…………….climate, and high altitude may constitute a danger; and so may travellers’ own behaviour, free from the (6) ……………of the daily routine, and determined to have good time with scant (7) …….for the consequences. When illness or injury occur abroad, travellers are again at a disadvantage – from (8) …………to communicate with a doctor on account of language or cultural difficulties, or being unable to find a doctor owing to (9) ……….of the (10)………..medical system. There may be a complete (11) ………….of skilled medical care, or of medical facilities of a (12) …………..acceptable to travellers from technologically sophisticated countries. When symtoms of an illness (13) …………..abroad do not appear until after return home a final hazard becomes apparent: the symptoms may be (14) …………….., may pass (15) ……………, and the correct diagnosis may not be considered until it is too late. 1.A. Questions
B. Changes
C. Hazards
D. Complications
2.A. comforts
B. helps
C. cares
D. aids 13
3.A. stores
B. collection
C. levels
D. supplies
4.A. correction
B. maintenance
C. improvement
D. quality
5.A. worsening
B. unusual
C. sudden
D. adverse
6.A. restraints
B. assurances
C. certainties
D. regulations
7.A. knowledge
B. awareness
C. regard
C. need
8.A. inability
B. difficulty
C. inflexibility
D. timidity
9.A. misuse
B. doubt
C. ignorance
D. disbelief
10.A. local
B. district
C. neighborhood
D. area
11. breakdown
B. failure
C. disruption
D. absence
12.A. type
B. design
C. standard
D. degree
13.A. received
B. formed
C. gained
D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar
B. unlikely
C. unpleasant
D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized
B. unknown
C. unforeseen
D. unearthed
Part 2: Fill in each blank with one suitable word. (7.5 points) IQ TESTS Psychologists have long been interested in (1)________ we judge intelligence in strangers. Now scientists have designed tests (2) _________ try to discover which cues help
people to judge
IQ accurately, and
which
cause
them
to
get
(3)_________wrong. High school pupils were videotaped answering thoughtprovoking questions and the videos were (4)________ shown to groups of ‘judges’ who were asked to assess the students’ physical type and monitor a variety of behavioural cues. Next the judges were asked to rate the students’ intelligence. At the (5) _________ time, each student was (6) __________ required to sit a standard IQ test. Certain cues matched the (7)________ of the IQ tests more closely than
others.
(8)________
speaking quickly, using a lot of words or
displaying ease (9)_______ understanding caused the judges to rate the students’ intelligence highly, (10)_________ was reflected in the IQ tests, 14
(11)_________cues seemed to give the judges an entirely
false
impression of
intelligence (12)_________ measured by the IQ test. (13)________the cues that led judges to assess students as dull were factors (14)______ as using halting speech or slang. Cues that led judges to view students as bright included talking loudly and using proper English. (15)_____ of these traits correlated with measured IQ, however. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Part 3: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points) The term “art deco” has come to encompass three distinct but related design trends of the 1920’s and 1930’s. The first was what is frequently referred to as “zigzag moderne” –the exotically ornamental style of such skyscrapers as the Chrysler Building in New York City and related structures such as the Paramount Theater in Oakland, California The word “zigzag” alludes to the geometric and stylized ornamentation of zigzags, angular patterns, abstracted plant and animal motifs, sunbursts, astrological imagery, formalized fountains, and related themes that were applied in mosaic relief and mural form to the exterior and interior of the buildings. Many of these buildings were shaped in the ziggurat form, a design resembling an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower that recedes in progressively smaller stages to the summit, creating a staircase-like effect. The second manifestation of art deco was the 1930’s streamlined moderne” style – a Futuristic-looking aerodynamic style of rounded corners and horizontal bands known as “speed stripes.” In architecture, these elements were frequently accompanied by round windows, extensive use of glass block, and flat rooftops. 15
The third style, referred to as cither “international stripped classicism,” or simply “classical moderne,” also came to the forefront during the Depression, a period of severe economic difficult in the 1930’s. This was amore conservative style, blending a simplified modernistic style with a more austere form of geometric and stylized relief sculpture and other ornament, including interior murals. May buildings in this style were erected nationwide through government programs during the Depression. Although art deco in its many forms was largely perceived as thoroughly modern, it was strongly influenced by the decorative arts movements that immediately preceded it. For example, like “art nouveau” (1890-1910), art deco also used plant motifs, but regularized the forms into abstracted repetitive patterns rather than presenting them as flowing, asymmetrical foliage, Like the Viennese craftspeople of the Wiener Werkstatte, art deco designers worked with exotic materials, geometricized shapes, and colorfully ornate patterns. Furthermore, like the artisans of the Arts and Crafts Movement in England and the United States, art deep practitioners considered it their mission to transform the
domestic environment
through well-designed furniture and household accessories. 1. What aspect of art deco does the passage mainly discuss? A. The influence of art deco on the design of furniture and household accessories B. Ways in which government programs encouraged the development of art deco C. Architectural manifestations of art deco during the 1920’s and 1930’s D. Reasons for the popularity of art deco in New York and California 2. The word “encompass” is closest in meaning to A. separate
B. include
C. replace
D. enhance
3. The phrase “The first” refers to A. the term “art deco”
B. design trends 16
C. the 1920’s and 1930’s
D.skyscrapers
4. The author mentions “an ancient Mesopotamian temple tower” in order to A. describe the exterior shape of certain “art deco” buildings B. explain the differences between ancient and modern architectural steles C. emphasize the extent of architectural advances D. argue for a return to more traditional architectural design 5. The streamlined moderne style is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT A. animal motifs
B. flat roofs
C. round windows
D. “speed stripes”
6. The phrase “came to the forefront” is closest in meaning to A. grew in complexity
B. went through a process
C. changed its approach
D. became important
7. According to the passage, which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between art deco and art nouveau? A. They were art forms that competed with each other for government support during the Depression era. B. They were essentially the same art form. C. Art nouveau preceded art deco and influenced it. D. Art deco became important in the United States while art nouveau became popular in England. 8. According to the passage, a building having an especially ornate appearance would most probably have been designed in the style of A. zigzag moderne 17
B. streamlined moderne C. classical moderne D. the Arts and Crafts Movement 9. According to the passage, which of the following design trends is known by more than one name? A. Zigzag moderne
B. Streamlined moderne
C. International stripped classicism
D. Arts and Crafts Movement
10. The passage is primarily developed as A. the historical chronology of a movement B. a description of specific buildings that became famous for their unusual beauty C. an analysis of various trends within an artistic movement D. an argument of the advantages of one artistic form over another Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Part 4: Read the text and answer the following questions (5 points) A For over 200 years, there has been an interest in the way children learn to speak and understand their first language. Scholars carried out several small-scale studies, especially towards the end of the 19th century, using data they recorded in parental diaries. But detailed, systematic investigation did not begin until the middle decades of the 20th century, when the tape recorder came into routine use. This made it 18
possible to keep a permanent record of samples of child speech, so that analysts could listen repeatedly to obscure extracts, and thus produce a detailed and accurate description. Since then, the subject has attracted enormous multi-disciplinary interest, notably from linguists and psychologists, who have used a variety of observational and experimental techniques to study the process of language acquisition in depth. B Central to the success of this rapidly emerging field lies the ability of researchers to devise satisfactory methods for eliciting linguistic data from children. The problems that have to be faced are quite different from those encountered when working with adults. Many of the linguist’s routine techniques of enquiry cannot be used with children. It is not possible to carry out certain kinds of experiments, because aspects of children’s cognitive development – such as their ability to pay attention, or to remember instructions – may not be sufficiently advanced. Nor is it easy to get children to make systematic judgments about language, a task that is virtually impossible below the age of three. And anyone who has tried to obtain even the most basic kind of data – a tape recording of a representative sample of a child’s speech – knows how frustrating this can be. Some children, it seems, are innately programmed to switch off as soon as they notice a tape recorder being switched on. C Since the 1960s, however, several sophisticated recording techniques and experimental designs have been devised. Children can be observed and recorded through one-way-vision windows or using radio microphones, so that the effects of having an investigator in the same room as the child can be eliminated. Large-scale sampling programmes have been carried out, with children sometimes being recorded for several years. Particular attention has been paid to devising experimental techniques that fall well within a child’s intellectual level and social experience. Even pre-linguistic infants have been brought into the research: acoustic techniques are 19
used to analyse their vocalisations, and their ability to perceive the world around them is monitored using special recording equipment. The result has been a growing body of reliable data on the stages of language acquisition from birth until puberty. D There is no single way of studying children’s language. Linguistics and psychology have each brought their own approach to the subject, and many variations have been introduced to cope with the variety of activities in which children engage, and the great age range that they present. Two main research paradigms are found. E One of these is known as ‘naturalistic sampling’. A sample of a child’s spontaneous use of language is recorded in familiar and comfortable surroundings. One of the best places to make the recording is in the child’s own home, but it is not always easy to maintain good acoustic quality, and the presence of the researcher or the recording equipment can be a distraction (especially if the proceedings are being filmed). Alternatively, the recording can be made in a research centre, where the child is allowed to play freely with toys while talking to parents or other children, and the observers and their equipment are unobtrusive. F A good quality, representative, naturalistic sample is generally considered an ideal datum for child language study. However, the method has several limitations. These samples are informative about speech production, but they give little guidance about children’s comprehension of what they hear around them. Moreover, samples cannot contain everything, and they can easily miss some important features of a child’s linguistic ability. They may also not provide enough instances of a developing feature to enable the analyst to make a decision about the way the child is learning. For such
20
reasons, the description of samples of child speech has to be supplemented by other methods. G The other main approach is through experimentation, and the methods of experimental psychology have been widely applied to child language research. The investigator formulates a specific hypothesis about children’s ability to use or understand an aspect of language, and devises a relevant task for a group of subjects to undertake. A statistical analysis is made of the subjects’ behaviour, and the results provide evidence that supports or falsifies the original hypothesis. H Using this approach, as well as other methods of controlled observation, researchers have come up with many detailed findings about the production and comprehension of groups of children. However, it is not easy to generalise the findings of these studies. What may obtain in a carefully controlled setting may not apply in the rush of daily interaction. Different kinds of subjects, experimental situations, and statistical procedures may produce different results or interpretations. Experimental research is therefore a slow, painstaking business; it may take years before researchers are convinced that all variables have been considered and a finding is genuine.
The passage has eight paragraphs, A-H. Which paragraphs contains the following information? Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.
1 the possibility of carrying out research on children before they start talking 2 the difficulties in deducing theories from systematic experiments 3 the differences between analysing children’s and adults’ language 21
In boxes 4-7 on your answer sheet, write TRUE
if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE
if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN
if there is no information on this
4. In the 19th century, researchers studied their own children’s language. 5. Attempts to elicit very young children’s opinions about language are likely to fail. 6. Radio microphones are used because they enable researchers to communicate with a number of children in different rooms. 7. Many children enjoy the interaction with the researcher.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.
Ways of investigating children’s language
One method of carrying out research is to record children’s spontaneous language use. This can be done in their homes, where, however, it may be difficult to ensure that the recording is of acceptable (8)_______Another venue which is often used is a (9)_________where the researcher can avoid distracting the child. A drawback of this method is that it does not allow children to demonstrate their comprehension. 22
An alternative approach is to use methodology from the field of experimental psychology. In this case, a number of children are asked to carry out a task, and the results are subjected to a (10)________. Your anwers: 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
V. WRITING (25 points) Part 1: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one using between 3 and 6 words including the word given. (5 points) 1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me. lent Had _____________ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house. 2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish. obligation You are _____________ and see the new house if you don't wish. 3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see you. supposed You _____________ boss when you arrived. 4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me. might You _____________ she was married! 23
5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday. not I need _____________ into work but I did anyway. 6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year. awarded The _____________ a prize by the headmaster. 7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery. suspicion Johnson was detained _____________ in the robbery. 8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October. effect The new tax laws _____________. 9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware. knowledge To _____________________ no formal qualifications. 10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning. blue This morning's test _____________________ for every one of us.
Part 2 The graph below compares the number of visits to two new music sites on the web. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information shown below. You should write at least 150 words.
24
.......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... 25
.......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... ........................................................................................................
Part 3 Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Television has destroyed communication among friends and family. Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... 26
.......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... .......................................................................................................................................... ..........................................................................................................................................
27
Hướng dẫn chấm I. LISTENING (15 points) Part 1: 5.0 1. D. their employees change their approach. 2. B. the traditional work environment has its limitations. 3. D. do not have stereotyped ideas about their jobs. 4. A. they usually have creative employees to begin with. 5. D. point out the diversity of those trying different approaches. 1.D
2.B
3.D
4.A
5.D
3.C
4.A
5.D
3.B
4.C
5.D
Part 2: 10 1. world language 2. voyages of discovery 3. two factors 4. mother tongue 5. the UK 6. determine 7. inherently 8. objective standards 9. complex 10.dependent II. PHONETICS (5 points) Part 1: (2.5 points) 1.A
2. C
Part 2: (2.5 points) 1.B
2.D
III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points) 28
Part 1: 5.0 1.D
6.B
11.D
16.B
2.A
7.A
12.B
17.C
3.A
8.C
13.A
18.A
4.B
9.B
14.D
19.C
5.D
10.D
15.B
20.C
Part 2: 5.0 1. envisions envisioned
6. speak speaking
2. in under
7. safe safely
3. what how
8. stare staring
4. between from
9. features feature
5. injure injury
10. advices advice
Part 3: 5.0 1. over
6. up
11. up
16. across
2. up
7. for
12. down
17. out
3. out
8.off
13. together
18. on
4.out
9. out
14. off
19. off
5. over
10. down
15. through
20. for
Part 4: 5.0 1. are 2. seems 3. are 29
4. sees 5. has been trying 6. has done/ has been doing 7. developed/ has developed 8. is 9. has puts/ puts 10. has had 11. came 12. had never flown 13 had had 14. took 15. never worried 16. announced 17. were going 18. had/ had had 19. had tried/ tried 20. overcame Part 5: 5.0 1. revitalize
6. theatrical
2. musical
7. artistic
3. partnership
8. lyricists
4. notable
9. dissimilar
5. controversial
10. operatic
Part 6: 5.0 1.G
2.C
3.B
4.A
5.K
6.I
7.F
8.J
9.E
10.D
IV. READING (25 points) Part 1: 7.5 1.A. Questions
B. Changes
C. Hazards
D. Complications
2.A. comforts
B. helps
C. cares
D. aids 30
3.A. stores
B. collection
C. levels
D. supplies
4.A. correction
B. maintenance
C. improvement
D. quality
5.A. worsening
B. unusual
C. sudden
D. adverse
6.A. restraints
B. assurances
C. certainties
D. regulations
7.A. knowledge
B. awareness
C. regard
C. need
8.A. inability
B. difficulty
C. inflexibility
D. timidity
9.A. misuse
B. doubt
C. ignorance
D. disbelief
10.A. local
B. district
C. neighborhood
D. area
11. breakdown
B. failure
C. disruption
D. absence
12.A. type
B. design
C. standard
D. degree
13.A. received
B. formed
C. gained
D. acquired
14.A. unfamiliar
B. unlikely
C. unpleasant
D. uncovered
15.A. unrecognized
B. unknown
C. unforeseen
D. unearthed
1C
2A
3D
4B
5D
6A
7C
8A
9C
10A
11D 12C 13D 14A 15A
Part 2: 7.5 1. how
2. that/which
3. it
4. then
5. same
6. also
7. results
8. while
9. of
10. and
11. other
12. as
13.
among/ 14. such
15. none
amongst
Part 3: 5.0 1. C 6.D
2.B 7.C
3.B 8.D
4.A 9.C
5.A 10.C
Part 4: 5.0 31
1. C
2. H
4. T
5. T
8. acoustic quality
3. B 6. F
7. NG 9. research centre/center
10. statistical analysis
V. WRITING (25 points) Part 1: 5.0 1. I could only afford that house because of the loan you gave me. lent Had __YOU NOT LENT ME THE__ money, I wouldn't have been able to afford the house. 2. You don't have to come and see the new house if you don't wish. obligation You are __UNDER NO OBLIGATION TO COME__ and see the new house if you don't wish. 3. You should have seen the boss as soon as you arrived. You knew he wanted to see you. supposed You __WERE SUPPOSED TO SEE__ boss when you arrived. 4. She is already married and you knew! I wish you had told me. might You __MIGHT HAVE TOLD ME__ she was married! 5. I went in to work for an hour even though I knew it was a holiday. not I need __NOT HAVE GONE__ into work but I did anyway. 6. The headmaster will give a prize to the top student of the year. awarded The __TOP STUDENT WILL BE AWARDED__ a prize by the headmaster. 7. Police arrested Johnson because they think he was involved in the robbery. suspicion Johnson was detained __ON SUSPICION OF INVOLVEMENT/BEING INVOLVED__ in the robbery. 8. You don't need to concern yourself with the new tax laws till October. effect The new tax laws __DON'T TAKE EFFECT TILL OCTOBER__. 32
9. Janet has never passed any exams, as far as I'm aware. knowledge To __MY KNOWLEDGE, JANET HAS__ no formal qualifications. 10. None of us was expecting to have a test this morning. blue This morning's test __CAME OUT OF THE BLUE__ for every one of us. Part 2: 10 1. Content:
50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language:
30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation:
20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Part 3: 15 1. Content:
50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language:
30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation:
20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to
the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
33
Tapescript: Part 1:
34
Part 2:
35
36
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO
ĐỀ GIỚI THIỆU THI HSG
TRƯỜNG PT VÙNG CAO VIỆT BẮC
KHU VỰC DH & ĐBBB 2014 MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11
PART I: LISTENING Question 1: You are going to hear a talk about the Women’s Conference. And then, circle the correct answer. (5p) 1. How many meetings are going to be held from August to September in Beijing? A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
2. When will the Non-governmental Organization Forum on Women be held? A. From August 13 to September 8, 1995. B. From August 30 to September 8, 1995. C. From September 4 to September 15, 1995. D. From September 4 to September 16, 1995. 3. Where was the Third World Conference on Women held? A. In Beijing
B. In Mexico City
C. In Copenhagen
D. In Nairobi
4. How many people are expected to attend the Fourth World Conference on Women? A. 30,000
B. 184
C. About 6,000
D. About 60,000
5. How many years has it taken to prepare for the Fourth World Conference in Beijing? A. 13 years
B. 10 years
C. 5 years
D. 3 years
Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 2: You are going to listen to a talk about Cambridge. As you listen, fill in the gaps with the relevant in the notes below and indicate whether the following statements are true or false. (10p) The university town of Cambridge, just one hour (1)……………….. of London, has been one of the world’s most important centres of learning for (2)……………….
years. Its academic vitality and beauty create the perfect (3)……………..in which to study. Like other students here, you will enjoy (4) ……………….. unique to the Cambridge way of (5)…………………. During your free time you might like to (6)………………… along the “Backs”, or try your (7) ………………… at “punting” on the river. Indicate whether the following statements are true or not by writing T
for a statement which is true;
F
for a statement which is false.
8. Cambridge is home to some famous museums. 9. The city has extensive sporting facilities. 10. The university has many excellent restaurants. Your answers: 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
PART II: PHONETICS Question 1. Circle the letter before the word in each group that has underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (2.5 p) 1. A. awful
B. awesome
C. awkward
D. awry
2. A. wicked
B. rugged
C. dogged
D. used
3. A. manure
B. pasture
C. adventure
D. measure
4. A. odour
B. honour
C. pour
D. vapour
5. A. paint
B. reclaim
C. drainage
D. certain
Your answer 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Question 2. The stressed syllables of the three words in each group are in the same position counting from the beginning of the words. In each group, find the word which has the stressed syllable in a different position. (2.5 p)
1. A. commune
B. momentary
C. elaborate
D. modesty
2. A. environment
B. pneumonia
C. publication
D. equality
3. A. kangaroo
B. involvement
C. biologist
D. accelerate
4. A. parrot
B. reserve
C. vertical
D. master
5. A. traveler
B. prevail
C. society
D. successful
Your answer 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
PART III : LEXICO- GRAMMAR Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (5p) 1. If noone will ...................misbehaving, all pupils will be kept in after school. A. admit off
B. admit in
C. own up in
D. own up to
2. When facing problems, it is important to keep a sense of............................ A. proportion
B. introspection
C. relativity
D. comparison
3. At the scene of the disaster the Prince said some comforting words to the ..................... relatives. A. lamenting
B. waiting
C. complaining
D. grieving
4. I would appreciate.........................it a secret. A. you to keep
B. your keeping
C. that you keep
D. that you will keep
5. ......................with the size of the whole earth, the highest mountains do not seem high at all. A. When compared
B. Compare them
C. If you compare
D. A comparison
6. Centuries of erosion have exposed ................. rock surfaces in the Painted Desert of Northern Arizona. A. in colors of the rainbow
B. colored like a rainbow
C. rainbow – colored
D. a rainbow’s coloring
7. You shouldn’t have criticized him in front of his friends. It was extremely ................ of you.
A. unfortunate
B. insensitive
C. insensible
D. unconscious
8. Two days passed during which we did not ........................ a single word. A. changed
B. exchanged
C. snapped
D. converted
9. He escaped by.................................... A. a hair’s breadth
B. the hair’s breadth
C. the breadth of a hair
D. a breadth of a hair
10. “Did Jane pass her exam?” “Yes, but only just. It was .................... The pass mark was forty – five percent and she got forty – six”. A. a narrow escape
B. a tight spot
C. a clear cut
D. a close thing
11. The ceiling fans were on, but unfortunately they only ……… the hot, humid air. A. stirred up
B. cut back
C. turned into
D. poured through
12. The brother and sister were ……………..over who would get to inherit the beach house. A. at large
B. at odds
C. at a standstill
D. at a loose end
13. After congratulating his team, the coach left, allowing the players to let their …………….down for a while. A. hair
B. heads
C. hearts
D. souls
14. Grandma says there wasn’t a ………….of truth in that story. Granddad told last night about being a war hero. A. speak
B. crumb
C. dot
D. grain
15. The manager told his assistant to ……………. the mistake immediately. A. rectify
B. maltreat
C. sanction
D. banish
16. Good restaurants serving traditional English food are very hard to ………………. A. come into
B. get in
C. come by
D. go through
17. Once he decided what he wanted, he would ………….it with single mindedness. A. go out of
B. go on with
C. go after
D. go ahead of
18. When the funds finally ……………, they had to abandon the scheme. A. faded away
B. clamped down
C. petered out
D. fobbed off
19. She expressed her ……………….for certain kinds of cheaply produced movies. A. disapproval
B. distaste
C. dissatisfaction D. disloyalty
20. People of all countries are expected to ……………….the principles of the United Nations. A. uphold
B. inspect
C. exaggerate
D. integrate
Your answer 1.
3.
5.
7.
9.
11.
13.
15.
17.
19.
2.
4.
6.
8.
10.
12.
14.
16.
18.
20.
Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) One area of paleoanthropological study involves the eating and dietary habits of hominids, erect bipedal primates including early humans. It is clear that at some stages of history, humans began to carry their food to central places, calling home bases, where it was shared and consumed by the young and other adults. The use of home bases is a fundamental component of human society behavior; the common meal served at a common hearth is a powerful symbol, a mark of social unity. Home base behavior does not occur among nonhuman primates and is rare among mammals. It is unclear that humans began to use home bases, what kind of communications and social relations are involved, and what the ecological and foodchoice contexts of the shift were. Work with early tools, surveys of paleoanthropological sites, development and test of broad ecological theories, and advances in comparative primatology are contributing to knowledge about this central chapter in human prehistoric. Your answer Mistake
Correction
Mistake
1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Correction
Question 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 1. The ship was bound ……………..Japan when it ran into typhoon. 2. You need to show that picture …………….a dark background. 3. I turned ……………..at the meeting but the others didn’t come. 4. Inside your passport, you should write the name of your next……………..kin. 5. We walked out of the room ……………..tiptoe, so as not to disturb the sleeping baby. 6. After the war, several people were tired for crimes …………….humanity. 7. I hate people who give………………the end of a film that you haven’t seen. 8. Everyone approved of the scheme but when we asked for volunteers they all hung ………………… 9. As nobody seems to know what to do next, may I put …………… a proposal? 10. Queen Victoria reigned ……………..Britain and Ireland for over sixty years. 11. The government was finally brought ……………… by a minor scandal. 12. The murderer turned himself ……………….to the police one week after the crime. 13. We saw Ron’s mom lay ………………..him when he came home late last night. 14. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding ……………….in his chair. 15. Her husband promised to mend the broken wheel soon………………fail. 16. His business is growing so fast that he must take …………………more workers. 17. Who’ll compensate me ……………… my loss? 18. Her uncle was given the award ………………recognition of his services to the factory. 19. I must ask you not to allude …………….my past indiscretions. 20. John has grown …………………his habit of playing truant. Your answer 1.
5.
9.
13.
17.
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
3.
7.
11.
15.
19.
4.
8.
12.
16.
20.
Question 4. Give the correct form of the verb in parentheses. Write your answers in the space provided (5p.) My parents hardly (1. seat) ………..in the Brimlows’ kitchen, and my father (2. wonder)…………… how to open the unpleasant business, when the sound of the front door (3. hear)………….. Luther was not alone. He (4. come) …………….. into the kitchen pale and (5. tremble)……………, and with him was a tall, well-dressed man. Luther (6. lick) …………… his lips and (7. explain) …………….. that this was Mr. Armroyd, the stockbroker who (8. employ) ……………. him. Without preliminary Mr. Armroyd began: “I (9. save) ………….. the police a job by (10. bring) …………… your son along myself, Mrs. Brimlow.” Luther immediately began to babble: “I can explain everything, Mother. It’s all a mistake. I (11. not steal) ……….. It was nothing but (12. borrow) ………….. Mrs. Brimlow’s cunning face (13. sharpen) ……………, and she said, “I think your husband ought to leave us, Mrs. Pentecost. And you, too.” My father answered her sharply. “I’m not so sure about that, Mrs. Brimlow.” And (14. turn) …………..to Mr. Armroyd, he added: “My wife and I – we live next door – we just (15. come) …………in here to settle some matters that (16. concern) …………….. this young man. They may (17. relate) ………………to what you have to say, and if we have your permission we shall stay.” Mrs. Brimlow, (18. sniff) ……………….danger, cried, “I (19. not have) ………………..it! This is my house, and who (20. stay) ……………….in it is my business – not Mr. Armroyd’s or anyone else’s.” Your answer 1.
5.
9.
13.
17.
2.
6.
10.
14.
18.
3.
7.
11.
15.
19.
4.
8.
12.
16.
20.
Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p.)
Responding to (1. PROVOKE) ……………….insults that have been thrown at you is a wonderful way of honing your sense of humour. The great (2. PLAY) ………………George Bernard Shaw was a (3. CONTEMPORANEOUS)……………of Winston Churchill’s. George Bernard Shaw thoughtfully invited Churchill to the first night of one of his plays, (4. CLOSE) ………………two tickets with a note which said, “One for yourself and one for a friend – if you have one.” Churchill lost no time in writing back, saying that unfortunately, due to pressure of work, he would be (5. ABLE) …………….to come, but could he have tickets for the second night – if there is one.” This joke was (6. DATE) ……………….more recently by a (7. PROMINENCE) ………………politician in the labour party, when speaking to a colleague and (8. TERM) ……………….rival of his. The two men found themselves in the same meeting, despite being (9. SWEAR) ……………….enemies. The colleague apparently rose to excuse himself, saying that he had arranged to phone some friends, where upon the statesman immediately handed him a small coin (enough for a brief local call) and said (10. WIT)…………….., “There you are. Go ahead and phone them all.” Your answer 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
Question 6. Fill in each blank with the correct form of one appropriate word in the box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example. (5 p) edit
sense
circulate
censor
entertain
head
correspond
politics
view
advertise
agent
A newspaper makes its money from the price people pay for it and also from the (0) ……………….it carries. A popular newspaper with a (1) ………………of over five million daily makes a lot of money. Less serious newspapers are probably read just for
(2)…………………. They have big (3)……………….above the news stories, funny cartoons to look at and (4)……………….photos of violence. The gossip columns are full of stories of private lives of famous people. No one takes the (5)……………….views of such papers seriously. On the other hand, in a free country where there is no (6)…………., serious papers are mostly read for their news, sent to them by their (7)……………..round the world and by the big news (8)………………… People also read these papers for their (9)………………..of new books, films and plays and for their (10)……………….., which represent the opinion of the newspaper itself about the important events and current issues. Your answer 0. advertise → advertising 1.
6.
2.
7.
3.
8.
4.
9.
5.
10.
PART IV:
READING COMPREHENSION
Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.) Parents spending more quality time Working parents are devoting more quality time to their children than previous generations, despite time-consuming (1) ………………, research has shown. The findings of this study go against the (2)……………..that modern parents, especially working mothers, spend less time with their children. The study found that parents devote more than twice as much time on the (3)……………..of their children than they did 30 years ago. Full-time working parents were found to spend more time with their children than their part-time and non-working counterparts. This time is spent talking to children and enjoying planned (4)…………..activities, (5)………….. swimming and trips to museum together. The results of the research (6)……………… that parents devote an average of 85 minutes a day to each child. This compares with 25 minutes a day in the
(7)…………….. 1970s. And it is predicted that the figure will (8)……………… to 100 minutes a day by 2010. The study highlighted a new concept of “positive parenting”, where mothers and fathers are (9)……………….. committed to working hard to be good parents and providing the best material and emotional support for their children. The findings suggest that the “new man” is not a myth. Today’s fathers were found to be more involved in their children’s lives than their own fathers or grandfathers were. More fathers are said to be equal (10)……………….in parenting. During the study, three generations of families were (11)……………….on their (12)……………….to parenting. What is clear is that parents desire an increase in creative involvement with children, and for family democracy. (13)……………., this increase in parental involvement also (14)……………….an increase in the stress (15)……………….being a parent. In the future, parenting classes could become as commonplace as antenatal classes are today. 1. A. jobs
B. work
C. positions
D. occupations
2. A. saying
B. thought
C. statement
D. claim
3. A. education
B. upbringing
C. training
D. instruction
4. A. amusement
B. free
C. leisure
D. pleasure
5. A. instead of
B. on one hand
C. as well as
D. such as
6. A. show
B. say
C. display
D. appear
7. A. mid
B. middle
C. medium
D. halfway
8. A. arise
B. arouse
C. rise
D. raise
9. A. equally
B. hardly
C. similar
D. nearly
10. A. couples
B. partners
C. colleagues
D. mates
11. A. questioned
B. answered
C. asked
D. requested
12. A. thinkings
B. opinions
C. agreements
D. attitudes
13. A. However
B. Therefore
C. Although
D. Despite
14. A. says
B. suggests
C. estates
D. hints
15. A. for
B. of
C. in
D. to
Your answer 1.
4.
7.
10.
13.
2.
5.
8.
11.
14.
3.
6.
9.
12.
15.
Question 2. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (7.5p.) Egyptian Antiquities at Risk Egypt’s prehistoric sites are at risk from tourism. UNESCO and the European Commission have been asked for funds to save them. Experts believe that (1)…………….. urgent measures are taken, no prehistoric sites in Egypt will (2)…………….. left unharmed. Many prehistoric sites in the desert (3)…………….. already been lost to development projects. Now (4)……………… are destroying the country’s remaining prehistoric sites faster (5)………………. Scientists can save them. In the far south-west of the desert is Wadi Sura or the ‘Valley of Pictures’. Two main caves in the valley, (6)………………were featured in the film ‘The English Patient’, contain hundreds of paintings that date (7)…………….. between 7000 and 5000 Be. (8)……………… to archaeologists, tourists are pouring water over the figures to make (9)………….. more easily visible. (10)…………. Draws up salts to the surface and causes the surface to flake (11)……………….. ‘The paintings are (12)…………….. destroyed’, says one expert. Elsewhere in the desert, four-wheel drive (13)……………… are scattering artefacts at thousands of unexcavated (14)……………. Zahi Hawass, Egyptian under-secretary of sate for the Giza monuments, says: ‘The desert is (15)…………….. threat. This area has to be conserved.’ Your answer 1.
6.
11.
2.
7.
12.
3.
8.
13.
4.
9.
14.
5.
10.
15.
Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) Lichens, of which more than twenty thousand species have been named, are complex associations between certain fungi and certain algae. The lichen itself is not an organism; rather it is the morphological and biochemical product of the association. Neither a fungus nor an alga alone can produce a lichen. The intimate relationship between these two living components of a lichen was once erroneously thought to represent mutualism. In mutualistic relationships, both participants benefit. With lichens, however, it appears the fungus actually parasitizes the algae. This is one of the conclusions drawn from experiments in which the two components of lichens were separated and grown apart. In nature, lichen fungi may encounter and grow around several kinds of algae. Some types of algae the fungi may kill; other types it may reject. Lichen algae are autotrophic, meaning they make their own food through photosynthesis. Lichen fungi are heterotrophic, meaning they depend upon the algae within the lichen to supply their food. Up to ninety percent of the food made by the green algal cells is transferred to the fungus. What, if anything, the fungus contributes to the association is not well understood. Lichens are hardy. They grow in many habitats and are often pioneers in hostile environments where few other organisms can flourish. They have been known to grow endolithically, having been discovered thriving inside of rocks in Antarctica. Lichens help reduce erosion by stabilizing soil. Several kinds of insects glue lichens to their exoskeleton for camouflage. Many species of birds use lichens as building materials for nests. Humans have used lichens for dyes and antibiotics. 1. Which of the following best describes the lichen association? A. Simple plants made of two different autotrophic organisms B. A mutualistic association between fungus and an alga. C. A parasitic association between two fungi, one autotrophic, the second heterotrophic. D. A union between a parasitic fungus and an autotrophic alga. 2. The word “hardy” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. tender
B. durable
C. armed
D. beneficial
3. In biology, mutualism occurs when two different organisms live close together and A. one organism parasitizes the other B. both organisms benefit from the association C. both organisms are harmed by the association D. one organism benefits while the other does not or is harmed by the association 4. In paragraph 2, the word “intimate” is nearest in meaning to A. living
B. extraordinary
C. biological
D. close
5. Lichens serve as camouflage for which of the following? A. Insects
B. Birds
C. Reptiles
D. Mammals
6. The true nature of the relationship between the lichen components was clarified by A. examining lichens with a microscope B. observing lichens placed in the dark C. observing the lichen components when grown apart D. decreasing the amount of nutrients available to the lichens 7. In paragraph 4, the word “hostile” is closest meaning to A. unusual
B. cool
C. untraveled
D. inhospitable
8. An endolithic lichen is one that A. grows in the canopies of trees B. grows inside rocks C. grows at very high altitudes D. grows inside other organisms, including other lichens 9. Many lichens contribute to the communities they inhabit by A. removing pollutants from the air
C. slowing the spread of viruses
B. controlling wood-rotting fungi
D. reducing soil erosion
10. In what part of the passage does the author indicate that scientists have changed their previous position on the makeup of lichens? A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Your answer 1. C
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A
Question 4. The reading passage has eleven paragraphs A-K. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-K from the list of headings below. There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xiv) in the spaces provided. (10p.) List of Headings (i)
Commercial companies have cashed in
(ii)
A business coveted by commercial companies
(iii)
A new regulation enforced by European weatherman
(iv)
A profitable market
(v)
Complaints made by private companies
(vi)
Commercial companies enjoyed unfair advantages
(vii)
Value brought by accurate forecasts
(viii)
How scientists get accurate forecasts
(ix)
The situation will be changed soon
(x)
Improved weather forecasts
(xi)
The history of weather forecasting
(xii)
How people avoid complying with the rule
(xiii)
Damages caused by the hurricane
(xiv)
Little profit made from a profitable market
It Never Rains A
Weather forecasts on Hurricane Floyd, which has just hit North Carolina,
persuaded state governors along the southeastern seaboard to urge more than 2 billion people to evacuate island. Since 1854, when state-sponsored meteorology was born, weather forecasting has always been recognized as a valuable business – one dollar invested in meteorology is said to yield about 15$ in terms of casualties avoided, harvest saved and so on. But now that the Internet has made selling weather information so easy, the market is being fought over as never before. B
Weather forecasts have become much more accurate over the past 20 years.
Today’s three-day forecasts are as good as one-day forecasts were in 1981. Ten-day forecasts are fast becoming the standard.
C
The more accurate the forecasts, the more they are worth. Sales of iced tea
multiply by five each time the thermometer above 15°C. With a three-day forecast, retailers can send their orders to their sunniest outlets and soft-drinks companies can adjust their rate of production. Movie audiences, medicine consumption and toll receipts all vary according to the sky. In winter, power companies can save up to 100,000$ a day if they know in advance how high users will turn up their heating. D
Throughout most of its history, weather forecasting has been done by
national governments, although, since any rain forecast for London incorporates data collected from as far away as Fiji, they have to cooperate. The World Meteorological Organization (WMO), part of the United Nations, organizes the free exchange of data among 185 member states. But the more accurate – and therefore valuable – the weather forecasts become, the more commercial companies want to get into the business. E
By some estimate, Europe’s weather forecasting market is currently worth
$150m and it may soon be worth $700m. The state-owned weather forecasters are keen to cash in, but they remain heavily dependent on their governments. Britain’s meteorological office earns more in commercial revenues than any of its European counterparts, but it brings in only £24m of its £155m budget. F
One reason is that commercial companies have been taking an increasing
slice of the weather business in Europe. Over the past five years, global companies, such as Japan’s Weathernews, or national forecaster, such as the Netherlands’ Meteo Consult, have captured 20% of the market from government weather services. Accuweather, an American company, has been courting European media, businessmen, mariners and mountain-climbing fanatics. G
Europe’s state-owned weather services complaint that the commercial
companies have unfair advantages. Unlike them, the American Weather Service – which, according to the rules that govern it, is not allowed to sell information – passes on without charge the data it receives from the WMO to private companies. Thus, private forecaster can stock up on free American data and resell it to other markets without investing in costly satellites or super-computers.
In 1995, European weathermen, supported by the South Americans, made
H
the WMO adopt a new rule – Regulation 40 – that identifies two categories of products. Raw data needed by meteorologists all over the world remain at everybody’s disposal. But weather services may not sell the data that have the greatest economic value – forecasts for a particular city, for instance – outside their national markets. So naturally everybody sets about circumventing Regulation 40.
I
Universities, which still enjoy free access to all weather data, are under suspicion, but the main way around the rules is to use the Internet, where the notion of national markets, used by Regulation 40, simply does not apply. Private companies have also complained about government weather
J
services to the European Commission, claiming that the absence of competition between them proves collusion. And they say that those services dump weather data. In France, for example, the government weather service, Meteo France, gets FFr 2m a year from selling forecasts to TF1, the biggest commercial television station. TF1, meanwhile, gets FFr 1.7 billion in revenue from advertising spots around the weather report. So far, the commission has turned a deaf ear and the WMO has managed to
K
persuade its members to take a united stand. Too much competition from the private sector would jeopardize the free exchange of data that allows any country to formulate forecasts. But the amounts at stake may soon change this.
Your answer Paragraph
Answer
Paragraph
1.
B
6.
G
2.
C
7.
H
3.
D
8.
I
4.
E
9.
J
5.
F
10.
K
Answer
PART IV: WRITING Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2.5p.) 1. There has been a time when the English language was not in a state of change. At no time …………………………………………………………………… 2. The President clearly felt the ministers he sacked had not acted swiftly enough. The ministers sacked ………………………………………………………… 3. The climber nearly died when they founder him. The climber was on ………………………………………………………… 4. The brochure gives hardly any useful information. Precious ………………………………………………………………………. 5. Our son is looking forward to going to Disney world. Our son is excited …………………………………………………………… Question 2. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (2.5p.) 1. At first the new computer made me feel a bit afraid. (AWE) ……………………………………………………………………………….... 2. If things go wrong, James, whatever you do, do not panic. (HEAD) ………………………………………………………………………………… 3. A government official leaked the story to the world press. (WIND) …………………………………………………………………………………. 4. The police arrived as the thieves were committing the crime. (RED-HANDED) ……………………………………………………………………… 5. He liked the new job straight away. (DUCK) ………………………………………………………………………………… Question 3: The following table gives statistics showing the aspects of quality of life in five countries. Write a report describing the information in the table below. (10p) You should write at least 150 words.
Country
GNP per head
Daily calorie
Life
Infant
(1992: US
supply
expectancy at
mortality rates
dollars)
Per head
birth (years)
(per 1000 live births)
Bangladesh
140
1877
40
132
Bolivia
570
2086
50
124
Egypt
690
2950
56
97
Indonesia
580
2296
49
87
13 160
3652
74
12
USA
Question 4: In many countries, an increase in crime has been blamed on violent images on television and in computer and video games. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion? (15p) Give reason for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge of experience. Write at least 250 words. ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________
-THE END-
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO TRƯỜNG PT VÙNG CAO VIỆT BẮC
KỲ THI HSG KHU VƯC DH $ ĐBBB 2013 - 2014 MÔN TIẾNG ANH KHỐI 11
Hướng dẫn chấm PART I: LISTENING Question 1: You are going to hear a talk about the Women’s Conference. And then, circle the correct answer. 1. A
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. D
Tapescript There will be two meetings held in Beijing, and they will overlap. One – the NGO (Non-governmental Organization) Forum on Women will be held in Beijing from August 30 to September 8, 1995. The other one – the Fourth World Conference on Women (FWCW) of the United Nation will be held in Beijing from September 4 to 15, 1995. Why is the UN (United Nation) holding these meetings? The UN has noticed that discrimination against women has been increasing. The UN definition of discriminations – any distinction, exclusion or restriction made on the basis of sex, which has the purpose of deciding or not allowing the full recognition of a woman on a basis of equality between male and female, human rights, freedom in political, economic, social, cultural or other fields. Women are discriminated against in every country of the world. The UN has issued policies to deal with the discrimination. The UN has also placed the improvement of women’s status position high on the global agenda. The world is getting smaller. We are becoming a global family that shares problems and difficulties. We can learn from one another, help one another and share ideas and information. There have been three precious world conferences on women. First in Mexico City in 1975, second in Copenhagen in 1980 and third was in Nairobi in 1985. During the first conference held in Mexico City in 1975, which was during the “International Women’s Year”, one outcome was the declaration by the UN General Assembly for “Decade for Women” (1976 – 1985). In Copenhagen in 1980
the participants adopted a “Program of Action” for the second half of the UN Decade for Women. The 1985 Nairobi Conference was held at the end of the UN Decade for Women and the results were published in a book called the Forward Looking Strategies, which provided a framework for action at the international, national and regional levels of government and groups to promote greater equality and opportunities for women. The slogan for the UN Decade for Women was equality, development and peace. This year from the end of August until the middle of September, Beijing will hold two conferences. They are separate conferences but related. The NGO Forum ’95 from August 30 to September 8 about 30,000 participants, both women and men, are expected to attend. It will be about women, their lives and their perspectives. This will provide women around the world with an opportunity to discuss and develop ideas, perspectives, plans and strategies and share information, to celebrate women’s achievement and contributions in society, and to draw attention to and develop solutions to the discrimination facing women worldwide. Who can participate in the NGO Forum ’95? Any individuals or groups who fill in an application form and send 50USD to NGO Forum, New York, by April 30, 1995. Who will attend the Fourth World Conference? Each member state of the UN will send and official delegation. There are 184 member states in the UN. Also any person that represents and organization which has received accreditation. This had to be done by January 13, 1995. Six thousand people are expected to attend this Conference. There has been over three years of preparations for this Conference in Beijing, at the international, national and regional levels in all the participating countries. The Preparation Committee has organized all the issues into ten categories. The Conference in Beijing will discuss all these issues. At the end of the Conference the UN will issue a “Platform for Action”. The Platform for Action will address the following critical areas of concern…
Question 2: You are going to listen to a talk about Cambridge. As you listen, fill in the gaps with the relevant in the notes below and indicate whether the following statements are true or false. (10p) 1. north
2. 700/seven hundred 3. atmosphere
4. privileges
5. life
6. wander
7. hand
9. T
10. F
8. T
Tapescript Just one hour north of London lies the university city of Cambridge, which, for seven hundred years, has been one of the world’s most important centres of learning. The academic vitality of the city and its sheer physical beauty combine to produce the perfect atmosphere in which to study. Like the other students here, you will enjoy privileges which are unique to the Cambridge way of life. During your free time, you might like to wander along the “Backs” – the lawns which slope gently down to the River Calm – or try your hand at “punting” on the river itself. Equally relaxing is a cycle ride through the town centre: here you can practice your English in the charming old market place, meet other students in a traditional English pub or pay a visit to one of the city’s world-renowned museums. Afterwards, if you are still feeling energetic, there are facilities for every kind of sport. Although London is only a short journey away, Cambridge will tempt you with entertainments of its own. You can watch Britain’s finest actors and musicians in performance, see the latest films, or dine in one of Cambridge’s excellent restaurants. In addition, the university social functions provide the perfect chance to make new friends and improve your English at the same time. PART II: PHONETICS Question 1. Circle the letter before the word in each group that has underlined part pronounced differently from the rest. (2.5 p) 1. D
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
Question 2. The stressed syllables of the three words in each group are in the same position counting from the beginning of the words. In each group, find the word which has the stressed syllable in a different position. (2.5 p)
1. C
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A
PART II : LEXICO- GRAMMAR Question 1. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in the space provided under this part. (5p) 1. D
3. D 5. A 7. B
9. A
11. A
13. A
15. A 17. C
19. B
2. A
4. B 6. C 8. B
10. D
12. B
14. D
16. C
20. A
18. C
Question 2. There are TEN mistakes in this paragraph. Write them down & give the correction. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) Mistake
Correction
Mistake
Correction
1. stages
stage
6. are
were
2. calling
called
7. contexts
context
3. by
with
8. with
on
4. society
social
9. test
testing
5. that
when
10. prehistoric
prehistory
Question 3. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 1. for
5. on
9. forward
13. into
17. for
2. against
6. against
10. over
14. off
18. in
3. up
7. away
11. down
15. without
19. to
4. of
8. back
12. in
16. on
20. out of
Question 4. Give the correct form of the verb in parentheses. Write your answers in the space provided (5p.) 1. were hardly seated
6. licked
11. wasn’t stealing
16. concern
2. was wondering
7. explained
12. borrowing
17. be related
3. was heard
8. employed
13. sharpened
18. sniffing
4. came
9. am saving
14. turning
19. won’t have
5. was trembling
10. bringing
15. have just come
20. stays
Question 5. Use the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered space. Write your answers in the space provided. (5 p.) 1. unprovoked
6. updated
2. playwright
7. prominent
3. contemporary
8. long-term
4. enclosing
9. sworn
5. unable
10. wittily
Question 6. Fill in each blank with the correct form of one appropriate word in the box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example. (5 p) 1. circulation
6. censorship
2. entertainment
7. correspondents
3. headlines
8. agencies
4. sensational
9. reviews
5. political
10. editorials
PART IV:
READING COMPREHENSION
Question 1. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Write your answers in the space provided. (7.5p.) 1. A
4. C
7. A
10. B
13. A
2. D
5. D
8. C
11. A
14. B
3. B
6. A
9. A
12. D
15. B
Question 2. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (7.5p.)
1. unless
4. tourists
7. from
10. This/ Water
13. vehicles
2. be
5. than
8. according
11. off
14. sites
3. have
6. which
9. them
12. being
15. under
Question 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer A, B, C or D for each question. Write your answers in the space provided. (5p.) 1. D
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. D
8. B
9. D
10. B
Question 4. The reading passage has eleven paragraphs A-K. Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-K from the list of headings below. There are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them. Write the appropriate numbers (i-xiv) in the spaces provided. (10p.) Paragraph
Answer
Paragraph
Answer
1.
B
x
6.
G
vi
2.
C
vii
7.
H
iii
3.
D
ii
8.
I
xii
4.
E
xiv
9.
J
v
5.
F
i
10.
K
ix
PART IV: WRITING Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (2.5p.) 1. At no time has the English language been in a state of change. 2. The minister sacked were clearly felt by the president not to have acted swiftly enough. 3. The climber was on the point of death when they found him. 4. Precious little useful information is given in the brochure. 5. Our son is excited at the thought of going to Disney world.
Question 2. For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (2.5p.) 1. At first I was a bit in awe of the new computer. 2. If things go wrong, James, do not lose your head. 3. The world press got wind of the story from a government official. 4. The police caught the thieves red-handed. 5. He took to the new job like duck to water. Question 3: 10 points Question 4: 15 points Notes: The mark given to question 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
-THE END-
