Air Regulations

AIR REGULATIONS 1. An Indian Pilot with an Indian license is stationed in a country where there are no approved Medical authority to examine and pass fitness for renewal of his commercial license, his license expires on 12-1-94. Subject to production of a fitness certificate as per standards laid down, issued by a registered medical practitioner in modern medicine, his license can be renewed to a maximum of: (a) Three months (b) Two periods of three month each (c) 6 months 2. The route to be flown while operating a schedule flight shall not lie at such distance more than that which will allow a safe landing on the coast in the event of a complete power failure in the case of :(a) Single engine (b) Multi-engine (c) Twin-engine (d) All correct 3. While operating a schedule flight at night, an ac shall not be more than the distance specified below, from a lighted airport:(a) 100 miles (b) 150 miles (c) 600 miles (d) none correct 4. VTDXI an Indian registered ac flies over the USSR. The rules of USSR permit VFR flight to be conducted when visibility is at or above3 km. The ac will have to fly under IFR when the visibility inside the controlled airspace in USSR is:(a) Prohibited (b) permitted (c) to be one according to the conditions laid down by DGCA (d) none correct 5. When an AVRO ac flying on heading 075 deg its captain sees a glider on heading 020 at the same level, and there is danger of collision, the captain should :(a) Maintain Hdg (b) Alter course to the right (c) give way to glider 6. The towing of another ac or object is:(a) Prohibited (b) Permitted (c) to be done according to conditions laid down by DGCA (d) none correct 7. During night, an AVRO ac on a hdg 095 sees the tail light of a Tiger Moth on Hdg 115 at the same level, the PIC of AVRO should:(a) Alter course to the right (b) Keep out of the way of other ac (c) Have the right of way (d) None correct 8. Simulated instrument flying may be done in an ac provided fully functional dual controls are installed and a qualified pilot occupies the control seat, and in case he does not have adequate vision ;(a) SIF cannot be carried out (b) Another safety pilot is required(c) A competent observer in communication with the safety pilot should be on board (d) None correct 9. A flight plan is to be submitted to the appropriate ATS unit for (a) IFR flights (b) All controlled flights (c) All flights other than local flights (d) Flights which go more than 5 km from airfield 10. Vicinity of the aerodrome for a VFR/IFR flight is:(a) 5 mile around unto 3000 ft agl (b) 25 miles around, (c) (a) plus instrument holding and approach procedure paths 11. Routes over which a flight navigator has to be carried is specified in (a) Route Guides (b) Registration Certificates (c) Operating Manual (d) Aircraft Rules

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Collected & compiled by Sqn Ldr Vikram Savekar

12. Routes to be followed within a States territory by any International air service may be decided by:(a) State of registry of ac (b) Operator concerned (c) ICAO (d) State within territory of which the ac is flying. 13. Any ac from another contracting State being ac not engaged in schedule air service can make stops in India for non-traffic purposes:(a) Without any permission from India (b) With permission from any authority in India (c) With permission of State of registry of ac (d) With permission from DGCA 14. Any ac can be registered in :(a) Many countries (b) One country (c) Two Countries 15. Over high seas the rules of the air followed is as laid down by:(a) State of registry of ac (b) State nearest to high seas (c) ICAO 16. En route altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft terrain clearance within :(a) 5 nm (b) 10 km (c) 15 nm (d) 20 nm 17. Alerting posts Search & Rescue have been established at:(a) All operational Aerodromes (b) All rescue co-ord. Centres only (c) All aerodromes and railway stations 18. Rescue Co-ordination Centre at Bombay includes boundaries of:(a) Bombay Station (b) Bombay, Gujarat & MP (c) Bombay FIR (d) Bombay, Gujarat, MP & Orissa. 19. Each Rescue Coordination Centre has been placed under the charge of:(a) Local IAF commander (b) Local joint commander of IAF, Army & Navy (c) Jointly under local commanders of IAF, Army, Navy & DGCA rep 20. Indian Ac Rules will apply to ac registered in contracting state while they are in India in respect of:(a) Personnel licenses (b) Registration certificate (c) Log books (d) Airworthiness certificate (e) All other provisions except (a) to (d) Rules of Air only. 21. Provisions of IATA will be applicable with respect of ac used for:(a) Civil & military purposes (b) civil purposes (c) Military purposes 22. IATA grants every contracting state the privilege for its ac to:(a) To land and take on passengers from any other contracting state (b) To land and pick up passengers for particular state (c) Land and take on passengers destined for the territory of the contracting state whose nationality the ac possesses (d) To fly across the territory of another contracting state. 23. En route Flight Level is maintained by setting altimeter to:(a) APF (b) QMN (c) 1013.2 mbs (d) Radio altimeter reading 24. The Met conditions for a particular aerodrome shall be considered as below the minimum for that aerodrome when the cloud amount is greater than: (a) 3/8, 4/8, 6/8 in any one layer below the cloud ht specified by the operator concerned

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25. Minimum quantity of fuel required on board a propeller driven ac under IFR when no alternate is specified will be sufficient fuel to fly to aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter to fly for :(a) 45 mts plus 15% of flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hrs whichever is less (b) 1 hr (c) 2 hrs (d) 3 hrs 26. An ac having max permissible wt of < 15,000 kgs but above 2500 kgs shall have to be equipped with Radio apparatus capable of establishing two way communication with appropriate ATC unit :(a) Under all conditions (b) When 8 or more persons are carried in international air tpt (c) When 8 or more persons are carried in regular ac operating in India/ IFR. 27. Aircraft shall report its position under IFR on routes not defined by specified reporting points at intervals of:(a) 15 mts (b) 30 mts (c) 1 hr (d) 2 hrs 28. A pilot is to report to ATC unit with whom he has contact on AIRMISS by R/T, if he sees:(a) An ac coming from opposite direction (b) An ac is seen approaching from stbd side (c) Another ac in dangerously close proximity to his ac (d) Trainee ac is carrying out aerobatics on route but at low altitude 29. Aerobatics are permitted to be done below an altitude of 6000 ft at least at a distance of :(a) 2 miles from an aerodrome (b) 4 miles from the centre of the aerodrome (c) 2 miles from the nearest point of the perimeter of a/f (d) 4 miles from the nearest point of the perimeter of an aerodrome 30. One pilot shall be designated PIC of a public transport ac for each flight by:(a) The operator (b) DGCA (c) Flying control unit (d) None correct 31. In order to avoid discomfort to personnel from jet engines the minimum safety distance one should be from a jet outlet is :(a) 100 ft (b) 120 ft (c) 140 ft (d) 150 ft (e) 200 ft 32. A holder of SCPL cannot fly in command of an ac having AUW exceeding 5700 kgs unless he has also completed as co-pilot on that type of ac for not less than :(a) 10 hrs (b) 50 hrs (c) 100 hrs (d) 200 hrs N.B.:- Fresh SCPL has been stopped by DGCA wef Dec 2001. 33. A holder of SCPL cannot fly in command of a tpt ac unless he has satisfactorily completed proficiency checks within the preceding:(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 9 months (d) 12 months 34. A pilot can act as a PIC on public tpt ac carrying passengers on a route provided he has flown on that route as a co-pilot or as PIC without carrying passengers at least :(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Thrice (d) Four times 35. In case of Radio failure under IFR you will:ans: Proceed according to current flight plan. 36. Flight crew are required to keep their Log books after the last entry therein for a period of:(a) 2 years (b) 5 years (c) 3 years (d) 10 years 37. Rule 60 .... it may proceed on its onward journey if after the last entry therein for :(a) 8 hrs (b) 12 hrs & 2 days (c) 12 hrs & 4 Days (d) 16 hrs & 2days

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38. Any person at any time can enter inspect and search any ac for the purpose of securing compliance with any of the ac rules if he is:(a) An aerodrome officer (b) A customs officer (c) An AID officer authorised by the Central Govt. by a special or a general order in writing. 39. The holder of an SCPL shall not exercise the privilege of his license in the event of injury/incapacity for a period of at least, without a fresh medical examination:(a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 15 days (d) 20 days 40. No person acting as PIC or operating crew member shall have taken alcohol, narcotic or stimulants during the preceding:(a) 4 hrs (b) 8 hrs (c) 12 hrs (d) 24 hrs 41. Altitude in transition layer is maintained by setting altimeter to:(a) QFE (b) QNE (c) 1013.2 mbs (d) Radar altimeter reading 42. Flight over danger area is:(a) Prohibited altogether (b) Prohibited except under VFR (c) Permitted with due exercise of conditions (d) Permitted if permission of DGCA is granted 43. An ac can be flown in aerobatics:(a) Over any city (b) Over any aerodrome if it does not constitute any hazard to air traffic (c) At any ht elsewhere than over populated area (d) Flying over any meeting for public sports when request has been made in writing by the promoters of such meetings 44. Any suitable place can be used for:(a) Flying joy rides to public 45. In case of any notified accident when a committee of enquiry summons any person:(a) He may refuse to come (b) He may come after the date specified in question without any excuse (c) He should report as directed in the requisition (d) He may not turn up without any reasonable excuse. 46. A person can bring into India any human remains that have died of plague:(a) If enclosed in a wooden box (b) Cannot bring them 47. An ac will be retained as infected with Yellow Fever:(a) If there is a case of Yellow fever on board though all the disinfection precautions specified had been taken. 48. On 12-1-94 VTAXC Air Survey Company normally based at Madras took off for Hyderabad at 1900 hrs. At HYD it was held up from its onward flight to Bhopal due to bad wx. The ac was on aerial survey work near Nagpur. The ac could not be certified airworthy on 21-1-94. Could the ac be cleared for flight:(a) To Bhopal on 21-1-94 (b) to Madras on 21-1-94 (c) not cleared 49. A drunken person was found causing nuisance on the road leading to the aerodrome, and the road belongs to the Civil Aviation Dept, the Aerodrome officer could prosecute him under :(a) Aircraft Rules 1937, Rule 78 (b) Public nuisance Act (c) Hand him over to police for further action (d) None is correct.

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50. A person who damages street lighting on the approach road to the aerodrome, belonging to the govt, can:(a) Be prosecuted under Rule 65(2) (b) be prosecuted under Rule 29 (c) Handed over to police for wilful damage to public property (d) all are correct 51. A drunken passenger boards a flight and he is requested to alight. A relative co-passenger holding a valid ticket for travel in the same ac obstructs the flight from proceeding, stating that unless his relative also comes, he will not allow the ac to proceed; he can :(a) be prosecuted under Rule 24 read with sub section 12 of the Act (b) only be persuaded to be reasonable (c) be handed over to police for drunkenness (d) be forcibly evicted from the ac. 52. Aircraft VT-DXY is owned and registered by a foreign company and having C of A and head offices in India. It can with prior permission be allowed to:(a) Drop leaflets from ac in flight advertising its products (b) Transport its employees in lieu of giving them travel allowance (c) Do aerial survey (d) None of them is correct 53. Air France flight FSCRC is over the high seas and an Indian passenger on board is fully drunk. On arrival in India he can:(a) be prosecuted by Indian authorities (b) Air France can prosecute him (c) Only be warned (d) Air India can refuse to take him in future. 54. A pilot is about to board an ac for take-off. His license can be requested to be shown for inspection by:(a) A police officer (b) A District magistrate (c) Customs Officer (d) All of them are correct 55. A foreign tourist is travelling in India and has obtained permission to carry and take photographs of places of interest on ground, he can :(a) Carry his camera on his person while in flight (b) Carry it in a sealed bag kept with the PIC of ac (c) carry in a sealed bag with him (d) All are correct 56. VT-AXC owned by a private citizen is on a flight to Ceylon from Madras on sight seeing tour. It is required to carry amongst other things:(a) Journey Log Book (b) C of A (c) Pilots license (d) All correct 57. Advertisement leaflets can be dropped from the air by privately owned ac without C of A provided:(a) DM’s permission is obtained (b) DGCA’s permission is obtained (c) No permission is necessary (d) None of them is correct. 58. A certificate of registration is valid from the date of registration to:(a) 1 year (b) Till the ac is destroyed in an accident (c) Till it is cancelled by DGCA (d) When the owner dies. 59. When a person buys an ac registered in another’s name in India, he can fly the same after:(a) He has an application with DGCA (b) After obtaining permission from the DGCA (c) After it is inspected by the AID (d) All correct. 60. A mentally deranged person who is in a state of excitement, can be taken on board an ac after he is declared fit to travel by a registered medical practitioner, and he has not taken any alcohol 12 hours before flight provided :(a) DGCA’s permission is taken (b) An attendant is also on board (c) A registered medical practitioner is carried on board

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61. Carriage of Steward/Stewardess is necessary on all ac which can carry and caries passengers specified below:(a) 20 or more (b) more than 20 (c) 21 and more (d) none correct 62. A flight Navigator is required to be carried on public tpt ac on flights between two places if the distance is more than 600 nm and there are no navigational aids that the ac can use within: (a) 30 miles on either side (b) 10 miles on either side (c) 15 miles on either side (d) None is correct 63. VTAXC a DC3 equipped with Radio Compass only; is on a flight from Madras to Bombay, 602 nm. The following radio aids are available, Madras- Radio beacon/VOR etc, Bangalore 100 mile off track radio beacon, Bellary- Radio Beacon-40 miles off track. Belgaum 40 miles off-track VOR. The ac is required to carry:(a) Flight Navigator (b) No Flt Nav (c) both incorrect 64. A pilot meets with a road accident and his hand is fractured and is put in plaster for 10 days and then it is removed , his hand is fully functioning, he can resume his flying duties :(a) Immediately thereafter (b) After he is especially medically examined, found fit & his license is renewed (c) After he is declared fit (d) none are correct. 65. Passing of Technical examination in Air Regulations, Meteorology and test of skill only is necessary for renewal of license after it has remained invalid for a period of :(a) > 2 yrs (b) > 2 but < 3 yrs (c) > 3 yrs (d) None correct 66. As a pilot of an ac you have safely force landed with substantial damage only to ac at a place other than an aerodrome. No risk of fire or other further damage to ac is expected. Under these circumstances, before the arrival of the police, Magistrate or Civil Aviation officials, you are permitted to move :(a) Your personal belongings (b)Valuable consignments for safe custody (c) Any portion of the ac lying on public area (d) None is correct 67. As PIC of public ac you observe that the altimeter in the ac are unserviceable, you will :(a) Immediately force land (b) Land at the nearest aerodrome (c) Land at the next suitable aerodrome (d) Proceed with the flight as planned till you reach your base of maintenance 68. The total cross country experience required for issue of SCPL is:(a) 750 hrs (b) 150 hrs (c) 50 hrs during preceding one yr

[ out of syllabus]

69. The Instrument Flight Time required for issue of SCPL is:(a) 100 hrs (b) 50 hrs (c) 50 hrs out of which 25 hrs simulated in the ac in flight (d) at least 25 hrs 70. The Instrument time required for issue of SCPL is:(a) 100 hrs (b) 50 hrs (c) 50 hrs out of which 25 hrs should be the ac in flight (d) All are incorrect 71. A jet ac on normal take off flies low over private property and makes the owners cattle run helter-skelter, causing damage. The owner can:(a) Claim compensation for loss from the Airlines (b) Sue in civil court for damage (c) Not sue in any civil court (d) None is correct

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72. An aircraft belonging to a contracting state which has filed differences stating lower standards of Airworthiness than those prescribed by ICAO is on a flight over India. The Aircraft Rules under Part VI on Airworthiness will:(a) not apply to such ac (b) Apply to the ac (c) apply up to ICAO standards (d) none correct 73. An aerial work ac will include all ac that do flights for :(a) Remunerative purposes (b) Industrial or commercial purposes or any other remunerative purposes excluding public transport (c) Trg purposes (d) Hire or remuneration 74. An IA ac is on a flight from Madras to Hyderabad carrying company personnel, it is effecting:(a) Public transport (b) Ferry flight (c) Pvt flight (d) None 75. Instrument Time/ Instrument Flight Time means time spent in:(a) Flying an ac under IMC (b) Flying ground simulator (c) Flying an ac solely with reference to instruments (d) Both 76. An ac that is not yet registered cannot be flown :(a) Except with prior permission in writing of Central Govt. (b) Till DGCA has been advised of the purchase (c) Till it certified as Airworthy (d) None correct 77. An ac owned by Mr. X has valid C of A up to 31-12-89 is sold to Mr. Y on 3-3-89 and the DGCA has re-registered the ac in the latter’s name. Mr. Y wishes to carry fare paying passengers, he being a CPL holder and otherwise rated :(a) He can do so (b) He has to get the C of a renewed (c) He has to obtain prior permission of DGCA (d) None correct 78. A private ac registered in India wishes to leave India for a flight outside India. It requires:(a) DGCAs' permission (b) Custom/health immigration clearance (c) All relevant documents (d) C of A (e) abcd, bcd, b only, c only 79. A trainee pilot who is learning to fly may do so without a license ( or a certificate issued by CFI) provided that :(a) Provided that the weight of the ac is not more than 1500 kgs (b) The ac is fitted with dual controls (c) Prior notice is given to the Aerodrome Officer (d) No other person is carried on board (e) Two way communication R/T is on board (f) The pilot has an FRTO license ( j ) At all aerodromes :- (a) abcde (b) bcde (c) abcd (d) abde (ii) Within CTR's serving international aerodromes :- (a) abcdefg (b) bcdefg (c) abcdfg (d) abdef 80. A licensed pilot may fly an ac not included in his license if :(a) If he is qualifying for inclusion of such type in his license (b)Instructor is on board (c) He flies within 5 miles of the aerodrome (c) The aerodrome officer is informed (d) The ac is fitted with dual controls (i) acd (ii) acde (c) abcd (d) bcde 81. In the above case if the ac is fitted with R/T and operated:(a) He is required to have FRTO (b) At least one person should have FRTO (c) No FRTO is necessary (d) He should not operate R/T 82. A single seater private ac not fitted with Radio is on a flight from Madras to Calcutta. The ac is required to carry the following documents:(a) C of R (b) C of A (c) Journey Log book (d) Licences of pilots (e) Permitted to carry Radio and log book (f) Crew manifest (g) Passenger manifest (h) Freight list (i) stores list (j) working copies of engine, ac and propeller log books (k) Certificate of safety (l) Load sheet (m) working copies of Radio Log books (i) all the above (ii) abcdfg (iii) a to k (iv) a to l

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83. Cockpit check lists and emergency check list are required to be carried on all Indian registered ac when they are effecting :(a) public transport (b) aerial work (c) Both a & c (d) Any flight 84. If Arms, explosives or dangerous goods are to be carried in ac, the following conditions shall be fulfilled:(a) Central Govts' permission in writing (b) DGCA’s permission (c) Goods are packed and protected (d) The packages should not be accessible to passengers (e) Nature of goods should be clearly marked on the outside (f) The packages shall be kept with PIC (i) acde (ii) bcde (iii) acdef (iv) bcdef 85. Regular schedule stopovers by an ac on schedule flight and/or a series of landing for hire or reward may be made :(a) only at govt. aerodromes (b) only at licensed aerodromes (c) licensed aerodromes and aerodromes approved for use (d) any aerodrome provided it is suitable 86. While on flight you notice a series of projectiles at intervals of 10 secs and ATC bursting red and green light or stars, will indicate that you are flying over :(a) Prohibited Area (b) Restricted Area (c) Dander area (d) Either one is correct 87. The following class of ac are required to carry C of A:(a) All ac on International flight (b) Public Tpt ac (c) Aerial work ac (d) Aircraft flying free joy rides (e) Flying Club ac (i) abcde (ii) bcd (iii) abc (iv) abce 88. Smoking in Indian registered ac is only permitted under the following conditions:(a) Aircraft should have C of A (b) Smoking should be restricted to those portions mentioned in C of A (c) Notice shall be displayed stating conditions of smoking (d) Persons smoking shall comply with those conditions (i) abcd (ii) bcd (iii) abc (iv) acd 89. While refuelling is in progress no person other than the staff of the operator of fuelling company, officials of CAD, customs and police are permitted within the following distance from the ac :(a) 25 metres (b) 15 metres (c) 30 metres (d) 13 metres 90. When a jet ac is approaching another ac being refuelled and the jet is likely to come within the distance specified below, the refuelling shall be stopped :(a) 30 m (b) 43 m (c) 45 m (d) 50 m 91. Separate sheets of paper containing advertisement pamphlets or a commercial matter can be dropped from an ac provided :(a) DGCAs' permission is obtained (b) DMs' or Police Commissioners permission is obtained (c) The ac has C of A (d) The ac must be registered under Cat A of the Aircraft Rules (i) abcd (ii) acd (iii) abc (iv) bc 92. No pilot of flying machine shall fly for more than the number of hrs specified below during any period of 30 consecutive days :(a) 120 hrs (b0 125 hrs (c) 130 hrs (d) 140 hrs 93. The minimum distance at which vehicles which are not flame proof or of a type approved by the Inspector of Explosives can be positioned from an ac during refuelling in the case of Dakota/ Avro/ B-737 is :(a) 45 m (b) 30 m (c) 15 m (d) 6 m

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94. The log book of an ac involved in damage beyond economical repairs shall be preserved for a period of :(a) 1 year (b) 18 months (c) 2 years (d) 5 years 95. Engine and propeller log books shall be preserved for a period specified below after they have been withdrawn permanently from use:(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 18 months (d) 5 years 96. An Indian national arrives from London at Bombay by Air India flight terminating at Bombay on 20-1-94. His next connecting flight to his destination Colombo is on 21-1-94, by Air Ceylon flight :(a) He has to pay passenger service fee (b) He need not pay (c) He has to pay half the fee (d) none correct 97. The Operational Manual of the airlines shall contain the Guide to :(a) Instructions regarding the responsibilities of personnel (b) The flight crew for each segment of the flight (c) In flight procedures (d) Communications/ Nav facilities and list of aerodromes en-route (e) Instrument letdown procedures at each aerodrome en-route (f) Emergency flight procedures (g) Minimum en-route altitude (h) Instructions for computation of fuel in emergencies (i) abcg (ii) abcfg (iii) abec (iv) bcdg (v) degh 98. Cross country flights for the purpose of issue of SCPL should be a flight which reaches a point at least the distance specified below :(a) 100 nm (b) 150 nm (c) 75 nm (d) 40 nm 99. A barograph is required to be carried on flying test done on :(a) Gliders (b) helicopters (c) single engine ac (d) all correct 100. Technical examination for issue of license should have been completed within the period specified below prior to date of application :(a) 1 year (b) Six months (c) 2 years (d) 3 years 101. Privilege of SCPL holder includes acting as PIC of a passenger ac with AUW not exceeding, provided he has completed 1250 hours :(a) 21000 kgs (b) 5700 kgs (c) 15000 kgs (d) 7500 kgs 102. Aerobatic flight shall, if flying within 2 nm of the boundary of an aerodrome, be carried out at a height not less than :(a) 1000 ft (b) 1000 ft above the highest obstruction within 2000 ft (c) 2000 ft (d) 6000 ft 103. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for a VFR flight over congested areas or elsewhere shall not in any case be less than :(a) 500 ft (b) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2000 ft (c) 2000 ft (d) 6000 ft 104. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for a VFR flight within controlled space is:(a) 1000 ft (b) 500 ft (c) 1000 m (d) 500 m 105. Minimum horizontal distance from clouds for a VFR flight within controlled airspace is:(a) 3 km (b) 1.5 km (c) 5 km (d) 8 km 106. Minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight within controlled airspace (i) at or below 3000 ft agl (ii) above 3000 ft agl is :(a) 3 km (b) 5 km (c) 8 km (d) 1.5 km

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107. Minimum flight visibility for a VFR flight outside controlled airspace (i) at or below 3000 ft agl (ii) above 3000 ft agl is :(a) 3 km (b) 5 km (c) 8 km (d) 1.5 km 108. IFR flight within controlled airspace shall immediately report any deviations from flight plan resulting in :(a) Variation of TAS by 5 % (b) Change in EST over reporting point by more than 3 minutes (c) change in current flight plan in emergency (d) All above are correct 109. When radio contact is lost an IFR flight in VMC should:(a) Continue in VMC and land at nearest suitable aerodrome (b) Continue as per current flight plan (c) divert to alternate a/f (d) Force land at nearest aerodrome 110. VTDUO ETA VOHY 0735 ETA given 0737. Radio contact lost at 0715 (i) he should leave his cruising level at:(a) 0715 (b) 0725 (c) 0737 (d) 0700 (ii) he should land latest by :(a) 0745 (b) 0755 (c) 0807 (d) 30 minutes after actual arrival overhead 111. Semicircular levels are applicable in India (i) at all times at and above (ii) between 1500 and 2400 hrs :(a) FL 290 (b) FL 280 (c) FL 285 (d) FL 200 112. You are on a flight from Bombay to Bangkok. Over Vizak you are maintaining FL 175. On entering Rangoon FIR you will:(a) Descend to FL 170 (b) Climb to FL 190 (c) Maintain level (d) Maintain FL 180 113. When R/T is U/S and you are required to make an immediate landing but do not require immediate assistance you will:(a) Switch on and off landing lights (b) Fire a red verey flare (c) Fire a succession of white pyro-lights (d) both a & c 114. A horizontal yellow diagonal placed on a red square panel indicates:(a) Special precautions is to be taken when approaching to land (b) Landing area is U/S (c) Check R/W in use (d) Use only R/W 115. A white dumbbell (i) with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft (ii) indicates that you should use only:(a) Runways (b) Runways and taxi ways (c) R/W for landing & Take off (d) Grass runway is U/S 116. You are making the first landing in India from abroad with a B-737 all up weight 49,442 kgs (i) you will be required to pay landing charges of :(a) Rs 112/- (b) Rs 580/- (c) Rs 584/- (d) Rs 365/(ii) You arrived on 27-1-72 at 1700 hrs and departed on 28-1-72 at 0700 hrs you will be required to pay parking charges of :(a) Rs 423/- (b) Rs 211.50 (c) Rs 210/- (d) Rs 425/[ N. B. Examinees are advised to refer to the latest copy book of ‘Indian Aircraft Act 1934/ Rules 1937’ for the amendments in these fees.] 117. Test flights during day about which prior intimation is given to ATC:(a) You are exempted from landing charges (b) are charged at full rates (c) are charged at half rates (d) are charged at double rates

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118. Proficiency checks for (i) all pilots (ii) PIC of licences air transport services with multi engine aircraft shall :(a) be carried out every three months (b) 180 deg turns with 30 deg bank to port and starboard, variation in height not exceeding 200 ft (c) recovery from unusual attitudes (d) Six T/O, circuits and landings with at least one with max weight (e) Stalls with wheels and flaps up or down in normal/asymmetric configuration (f) Asymmetric flights and landings (i) bcd (ii) abc (iii) abcd (iv) (i) abcdef (ii) bcdf (iii) bcde (iv) acdf 119. Inbound from Aden to Bombay you are forced to land at (I) Goa (II) a licensed private aerodrome (III) in a jungle due to weather; you are required to :(a) report the place the departure to the aerodrome officer (b) shall not permit passengers or crew to leave the aerodrome (c) shall not permit goods to be off loaded (d) shall forthwith report to the Customs collector/Police officer (e) Make an entry in the journey log book (f) Make full report to the nearest collector of customs Aerodrome Officer I (i) abc (ii) acd (iii) bcdf (iv) cde II (i) abcd (ii) abcdf (iii) bcdf (iv) acde III (i) ef (ii) cdf (iii) cdef (iv) bcdef 120. The period of incubation for the following diseases (i) Yellow fever (ii) Cholera (iii) Small Pox and Typhus (iv) Relapsing fever are :(a) 6 days (b) 5 days (c) 14 days (d) 8 days 121. Before arrival in India a health report is to be sent (I) if equipped with wireless (II) if not equipped with wireless :(a) before take off (b) 7 days prior to arrival (c) 2 hrs before arrival (d) 5 hours before arrival 122. The incubation period for the following infectious diseases (I) Chicken Pox (II) Cerebral Meningitis (III) Diphtheria (IV) Internenzal Pneumonia are :(a) 14 days (b) 10 days (c) 7 days (d) 5 days 123. The first port of entry for an Yellow Fever infected ac arriving from the West and whose AUW is (i) 5,670 kgs (ii) exceeding 5,670 kgs is :(a) Bombay (b) Calcutta (c) Delhi (d) Madras 124. The last place of departure from India for picking up passengers when ac is bound for (i) East (ii) South is :(a) Bombay or Delhi (b) Calcutta (c) Madras or Trichinapalli (d) Delhi 125. The first port of entry for an ac carrying passengers to India, coming from (i) Singapore (ii) East is:(a) Calcutta (b) Madras (c) both b & c (d) Bombay 126. High contracting party means:(a) a state which has signed the Warsaw Convention 1929 (b) a state which adheres to the above convention (c) a member state of ICAO (d) a member of ICAO council 127. The Warsaw convention of 1929 applies to carriage of persons or cargo by:(a) All international flights (b) All international flights through states of high contracting parties (c) All flights through state of High Contracting Parties (d) All Flights all over the world 128. A passenger travelling by Air India flight from Aden to Bombay lost his registered baggage weighing 20 kgs. He can claim a maximum of :(a) 1000 francs (b) 10,000 francs (c) 5000 francs (d) 250 francs

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129. A family consisting of four adult passengers lost their unregistered baggage weighing 20 kgs in an accident. They can claim a maximum of :(a) 20,000 fr (b) 15,000 fr (c) 10,000 fr (d) Nil 130. On a flight from Madras to Hyderabad, you force land at Cuddapah an unused airfield due to heavy engine vibrations. No damage to ac or injury to passengers occurs :(a) This is a notifiable accident (b) You are required to notify ATC and AID (c) Notifiable accidents and such other accidents as ordered by the DGCA (d) Only special cases 131. The minimum hours of experience (I) cross country flight (II) Flight by night (III) Instrument time for issue of SCPL are :(a) 250 hrs (b) 50 hrs (c) 150 hrs (c) 25 hrs (a) 250 hrs (b) 50 hrs (c) 150 hrs (c) 25 hrs (a) 250 hrs (b) 50 hrs (c) 150 hrs (c) 25 hrs 133. A SCPL holder was medically examined on 23-12-71. His licence expires on 27-1-72. His licence will be renewed up to :(a) 22-6-72 (b) 26-7-72 (c) 22-12-72 (d) 26-1-1973 134. VT-DUP is registered under normal category sub-division (b) Mail Machine, by Air Transport Undertaking, it can be used to carry :(a) Passengers (b) Mail (c) Freight (d) Both b & c 135. In Public Transport flying machines which operate more than 10 miles from the nearest land the following additional items of equipment are required to be carried :(a) Landing lights (b) Two days supply of water & food (c) Life belts (d) Navigators table and equipment 136. For operation of schedule flights over water at greater distances from land than that which will enable the ac to reach in the event of complete power failure, the following are to be carried:(a) Retractable landing gear (b) Emergency exits (c) Life Belts (d) Apparatus for making distress signals (e) Radio (f) Navigator (i) abcd (ii) acdef (iii) acdf (iv) acde 137. While carrying out figure of 8 turns instrument check for public transport pilots, the variation in height should not exceed :(a) 200 ft (b) 500 ft (c) 100 ft (d) 250 ft 138. While recovering from unusual attitudes for instrument checks the loss of height shall not exceed:(a) 500 ft (b) 1000 ft (c) 1500 ft (d) 2000 ft 139. While carrying out an instrument let down the variation in speed should not exceed beyond:(a) 5 mph (b) 10 mph (c) 15 kts (d) 3 mph 140. If an ac imported into India is exported within a period specified below the custom duty will be refunded :(a) 3 months (b) 6 months (c) 4 months (d) 1 year 141. PRABC a private owned foreign ac arrived in India on 1-1-72. Custom duty will have to be paid if the ac leaves India on:(a) 1-4-72 (b) 1-5-72 (c) 1-6-72 (d) 1-7-72

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143. The Health Officer of an Airport of entry shall be given at least the minimum notice specified below, before importing a dead body/human remains or ashes into India :(a) 7 days (b) 48 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 2 hours 144. An Indian Air Transport Dakota on a freight scheme meets with an accident and the investigation officer finds that the cause of the accident is due to overload. The liability of the carrier is limited to:(a) Rs 80/- per kilo (b) Rs 150/- per kilo (c) No limit (d) Liability to be fixed by Court of Law 145. A boy aged 11 years is killed in an accident in India. The liability of the carrier is limited to:(a) Rs. 21,000 (b) Rs 42,000 (c) Rs 20,000 (d) Rs 40,000 146. A registered baggage is lost in carriage by air by IA. The liability of the corporation per kg of the baggage is limited to :(a) Rs 80/- (b) Rs 100/- (c) Rs 250/- (d) None correct 147. For unregistered baggage taken by the passenger and lost in an accident the liabilities per passenger are :(a) Rs 250/- (b) Rs 500/- (c) Rs 1000/- (d) None correct 148. When a passenger is injured in an accident and is prevented from attending his usual business, he is entitled to for the period of disability:(a) Rs 40/- per day or Rs 8000, whichever is less (b) Rs. 40/- per day (c) Rs 8000/(d) Rs 21,000/149. An ac which has not reported his position in 30 minutes of its becoming due is considered to be in:(a) Uncertainty phase (b) Alert phase (c) Distress phase 150. A ground engineer on test flight is killed in an accident, the liability is:(a) Rs 42,000/- (b) Rs 84,000/- (c) Rs 21,000/- (d) Not fixed 151. An ac which is cleared to land fails to land and no R/T contact is established, is considered to be in :(a) Uncertainty phase (b) Alert phase (c) Distress phase 152. When the fuel is considered to be insufficient to enable the ac to reach safely, it is considered to be in :(a) Uncertainty phase (b) Alert phase (c) Distress phase 153. An IFR flight is from Palam to HYA and weather over HYA is and expected to be VMC. The nearest suitable aerodrome is Bangalore F/T Palam HYA 0320 F/T HYA Bangalore 0110. The minimum endurance is:(a) 0405 (b) 0515 (c) 0545 (d) 0520 154. In the above question if the ac is required to make an Instrument Approach, due to wx at HYA, what is the correct answer? 155. An ac is maintaining FL 150 from HYA to NGP F/T 0115. The time spent above 13,000 ft is 0050 minutes. The Oxygen supply in the ac should be sufficient to cater for:(a) Crew for 0115 and for passengers for 0050 min (b) All for 0050 (c) Crew and 10% of passengers for 50 min (d) none correct

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156. While taxiing out for take off for a runway 10,000 ft long. You observe the temporary displaced threshold marking at a distance of 2500 ft from the beginning of the runway. The available take off length will be:(a) 7500 ft (b) 7300 ft (c) 10,000 ft (d) 7700 ft 157. The holding pattern for VOR at an aerodrome specifies 288 deg radial 1 min right hand race track. You are supposed to:(a) Approach VOR on radial 288 (b) leave VOR on radial 288 (c) Fly to VOR parallel radial 288 (d) none correct 158. In the above question you will adjust flight so that the ac is:(a) on radial 288 to VOR for 1 min (b) on track parallel to 288 from VOR for 1 min (d) on radial 288 from VOR 1 min 159. Your operator has specified a decision height of 200 ft for ILS at Bombay. The Met minimum for the aerodrome prescribed is 180 ft. OCL is 160 ft, you may continue your approach to land till usual reference is established at:(a) 200 ft (b) 180 ft (c) 160 ft (d) 220 ft 160. In the above question if you are established on VASI and Approach/ lights are visible, you may continue your approach below :(a) 200 ft (b) 180 ft (c) 160 ft (d) 220 ft 161. At an Aerodrome your operator has specified the minima as 500 ft and RVR 1000 m, marginal conditions exist when the reported cloud as visually observed by flight officer is :(a) 960 m (b) 800 m (c) 850 m (d) None correct 162. Your operator has specified minimum en-route altitude as 5000 ft between Aurangabad and Bombay. QVTT at Bombay is 1010.2 mbs. During night you will leave level FL 55 after obtaining the clearance:(a) When you have established positively within 25 miles by Radio fix (b) When you estimate 25 miles (c) When you have sighted Aerodrome (d) None correct 163. The initial approach altitude for ILS at Bombay is 4200 ft, the height of highest obstruction within 25 miles is 2000 ft. The aerodrome elevation is 50 ft. The transition altitude for Bombay will be:(a) 4200 ft (b) 3100 ft (c) 2050 ft (d) None Correct 164. In the above case if the QNH for Bombay is 1000.2 mbs, the transition level will be:(a) FL 450 (b) FL 255 (c) FL 50 (d) FL 60 165. On take off from Santa Cruz in the above case, you will set your altimeter to 1013.2 mbs:(a) On ground (b) passing 4200 ft (c) Passing FL 50 (d) Passing FL 60 166. While at FL 100 you are cleared by ATC in the above case to descend to 4200 ft. You will change to QNH:(a) Immediately (b) Passing FL 55 (c) FL 60 (d) Reading 4200 ft 167. While carrying out ILS approach over OM you are in ground contact you may:(a) ask ATC permission for visual approach (b) break off ILS and come for landing (c) descend keeping the ground in sight (d) None correct

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168. You are on IFR flight during night. Around Bombay you have Santa Cruz in sight:(a) Weather being VMC you may cancel your IFR flt plan (b) ask for visual approach (c) ask for VMC approach (d) None correct 169. In the above case if the flight is during day what is the correct answer? 170. While making a visual approach:(a) ATC provides standard separation (b) You are to look out for other ac (c) ATC will only give essential traffic and you are to look out (d) None correct 171. If you are making a VMC approach what is the correct answer in the above case? 172. Prior coordination being difficult you are cleared from HYA to leave CTR Votty at your existing level. You will contact NGP:(a) 10 min before entering his CTA (b) While entering CTA (c) Immediately after entering CTA (d) carry on your flight as planned 173. Radar separation between two identified ac is:(a) 5 nm (b) 3 nm (c) 8 nm (d) 10 miles 174 The width of adjoining mts. over India is:(a) 10 nm on either side (b) 15 nm on either side (c) 20 nm on either side (d) 40 nm on either side 175. The JOR in Bombay has search ac which will be engaged in search for missing ac from coast :(a) 100 nm (b) 150 nm (c) 250 nm (d) 500 nm 176. An ac is missing over sea about 20 miles west of Cochin, the responsibility for search and rescue consideration is:(a) RCC Bombay (b) RCC Madras (c) RCC Cochin (d) All together 177. The various units responsible for search and rescue are informed as soon as an ac is considered to be in:(a) Uncertainty phase (b) Alert phase (c) Distress phase (d) All correct 178. An ac accident should be notified to DGCA :(a) only if the ac is carrying passengers (b) only if the ac is substantially damaged (c) only if the accident occurs at an uncontrolled aerodrome (d) all accidents must be reported to DGCA 179. In the event of force landing at an uncontrolled aerodrome, the ac:(a) the ac may take off after giving report to the DM/Police (b) may take off if the force landing was not due to any factor affecting the safe operation of the ac (c) must not T/O till permission is obtained from DGCA 180. Aerobatics over an aerodrome must be performed at a height greater than:(a) 6000 ft (b) 5000 ft (c) 2000 ft (c) 1500 ft above the highest obstruction within 5 miles of the estimated position of the ac 181. Flight plan must be filed: (a) For all flights (b) For schedule flights only (c) For training flights only. (d) For IFR flights proposed to be conducted in controlled airspace only.

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182. The holder is a PPL cannot fly IFR unless: (a) Specially permitted by DGCA (b) Specially permitted by control tower. (c) He has Instrument Rating (d) He has R/T on board. 183. VFR flights outside controlled airspace above 3000 MSL can be conducted provided: (a) Provided flight visibility is 1 mile (1.5 km) (b) Provided flight visibility is 2 miles (3 kms). (c) Provided flight visibility is 3 miles (5 kms) (d) provided flight visibility is 5 miles (8 kms). 184. Aircraft intending to fly in formation: (a) Cannot fly (b) Can fly during day time (c) Can fly with permission from DGCA. (d) Can fly with prior arrangement. 185. The pilot of a chipmunk aircraft shall: (a) Give way to helicopter at all times. (b) Give way to helicopter only at night. (c) Give way to helicopter if it is at a higher altitude. (d) Give way to helicopter if it to his right. 186. The starboard navigation light of an aircraft is visible over an arc of: (a) 70 degrees. (b) 140 degrees. (c) 110 degrees. (d) 220 degrees. 187. Whilst following the quadrantal rule, if the magnetic track to be flown is 345˚, the pilot should fly : a) Odd thousands of feet. b) Odd thousands plus 500 feet. c) Even thousands of feet. d) Even thousands plus 500 feet. 188. A prohibited area means an area over which: a) Flight within 2 miles is prohibited. b) Flight of aircraft is totally prohibited. c) Low flying is prohibited. d) Only Instrument Flying practice can be done. 189. The two red bulbs hoisted on a mast near the signal area means: a) Cross wind landing in progress - pilots to exercise caution. b) Extreme danger - aerodrome closed. c) All local flying suspended. d) Glider flying in progress. 190. An aircraft not fitted with navigation lights cannot be flown: a) At any time. b) During hours of night. c) Without permission of Aerodrome Officer I/C. d) Without permission from the DGCA. 191. When two aircraft are on crossing track so as to involve risk of collision the following will give way: (a) The one which has the other on its starboard side. (b) The one which has the other on its portside. (c) The bigger aircraft (d) the faster aircraft.

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192. A horizontal white dumbbells displayed in signal area means: a) Pilot to exercise caution due bad state of the manoeuvring area. b) Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxi ways only. c) Aircraft are required to land/take off on runways only but may use grass areas for taxiing. d) Aerodrome closed. 193. Red pyrotechnical lights fired from Control Tower when aircraft is on final approach means a) Aerodrome is closed. b) Give way to another aircraft. c) Aerodrome is unsafe. d) Disregard previous instructions; do not land for the time being. 194. Series of white flashes directed towards an off the ground by Control Tower means: a) Taxi clear of landing area in use. b) Return to starting area in use. c) Exercise caution while taxiing. d) Has no meaning. 195. Series of green flashes directed towards an aircraft in circuit from Flying Control means: a) Runway is clear. b) Continue circling. c) Clear to land. d) Return for landing. 196. The holder of a Private Pilot's Licence can fly any aircraft: (a) Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs. (b) Provided its all-up weight does not exceed 1500 kgs and the pilot has completed at least 150 hours of flight time. (c) Provided the owner has no objection. (d) Which is endorsed on his licence 197. The period of validity of a Private Pilot's Licence for a person below 30 years of age is: a) 36 months. b) 24 months. c) 12 months. d) 5 months. 198. An open Rating for all conventional types of aeroplanes having an all-up weight not exceeding 1500 kgs may be granted to a P.P.L. holder if he has completed not less than : (a) 500 hours of flight time as Pilot-in-Command and has at least 6 different types of aeroplanes entered on his licence (b) 500 hours of flight time as Pilot-in-Command and has at least 5 different types of aeroplanes entered on his licence. (c) 250 hours of flight time as Pilot-in-Command and has at least 4 different types of aeroplanes entered on his licence. (d) 250 hours of flight time as Pilot-in-Command and has at least 3 different types of aeroplanes entered on his licence. 199. A pilot may fly in an aircraft for the purposes of qualifying for inclusion of such aircraft rating on this licence: (a) Such flight is carried out within 3 nautical miles of a licenced aerodrome of Government aerodrome. (b) Such flight is carried out within 5 nautical miles of a licenced aerodrome or Government aerodrome. (c) Such flight is carried out within 10 nautical miles. (d) Such flight is carried out only during day time.

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200. To obtain a night rating on a Private Pilot's Licence, the pilot must have done at least : (a) 5 landings and 5 take offs by night in the proceeding 12 months. (b) 5 landings and 5 take offs by night in the proceeding 6 months. (c) 3 landings and 3 take offs by night in the proceeding 6 months. (d) 3 landings and 3 take offs by night in the proceeding 12 months. 201. For purposes of issue of Private Pilot's Licence solo gliding experience towards solo flying experience requirements as follows: a) 100% of solo gliding experience subject to a max of 20 hours. b) 100% of solo gliding experience subject to a max of 10 hours. c) 50% of solo gliding experience subject to a max of 10 hours. d) 50% of solo gliding experience subject to a max of 5 hours.

shall

count

202. Minimum age for qualifying for Private Pilot's Licence is : (a) 20 years (b) 19 years (c) 18 years (d) 17 years. 203. For the purpose of Private Pilot's Licence, the cross-country flight means, a flight from the aerodrome of departure to a point beyond a radius of : (a) 20 nautical miles (b) 40 nautical miles (c) 50 nautical miles (d) 100 nautical miles. 204. For the issue of Private Pilot's Licence, the total flight time required is : a) 100 hours out of which 40 hours will be solo. b) 40 hours out of which 20 hours will be solo. c) 20 hours out of which 10 hours will be solo. d) 6 hours within proceeding 12 months. 205. Aerial work aircraft means: a) Aircraft used for industrial or commercial purposes or any other remunerative purpose but does not include aircraft used for public transport. b) Aircraft used for demonstration and test flights. c) Aircraft used for public transport on scheduled services. d) All aircraft used for hire and reward. 206. A pilot who is forced by weather to fly low can be sued for trespass: (a) Cannot be sued (b) By persons over whose property he flies. (c) By the Municipal Corporation (d) By the State Government. 207. Aircraft should be refuelled: (a) Inside a hanger. (b) Inside a hanger or building under supervision after taking adequate fire precautions. (c) In the open (d) wherever adequate facility exists. 208. Landing and housing charges are payable by private aircraft according to: (a) Seating capacity of the aircraft. (b) Number of passengers on board the aircraft. (c) All-up weight of the aircraft. (d) No changes are levied, if free passengers are carried. 209. Smoking on a private aircraft is permitted: a) Provided the owner has no objection. b) Provided permitted by the aerodrome officer or Chief Pilot Instructor. c) Without restrictions if no passengers are carried. d) Only if the certificate of Airworthiness of the aircraft permits.

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210. A passenger on a private aircraft: a) Should not have taken on alcoholic drink within the preceding twelve hours. b) Should not have taken any alcoholic drink at all. c) Is free to drink without any restriction. d) Should not be in an intoxicated state. 211. The restriction regarding 125 hours of total flying during any 30 consecutive days as pilotin-command applies to : (a) Airline pilots only (b) Commercial pilots only. (c) Trainee pilots only (d) All pilots. 212. Cockpit check list is required to be carried: a) Only when the aircraft is being flown by a trainee pilot. b) Only when the aircraft is fitted with more than one engine. c) Only when the aircraft is on a test flight. d) For all flights. 213. Daily inspection and certificate of safety by by a Licensed Engineer is required: a) For all aircraft. b) For aircraft used by the flying clubs. c) Only for aircraft being test flown. d) Only for private aircraft. 214. A private aircraft must pass a certificate of airworthiness: a) If it is engaged in carrying passengers. b) If it is engaged in night flying. c) It is required to fly in Instrument Met conditions. d) At all times. 215. A journey log book is required to be carried on a private aircraft: a) On all flights except when the aircraft does not leave the vicinity of its starting place and returned without landing elsewhere. b) Only when carrying passengers. c) Only when proceeding on a long journey, d) only when flying in controlled air space. 216. An aircraft without registration markings can be flown only: a) If the sale deed is not yet completed. b) For purposes of test flight only, prior to purchase. c) If it is used for Government work. d) If specially permitted in writing by the central Government. 217. Whenever wilfully files an aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or any property shall be punishable with: a) Imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees or with both. b) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs.1000/- or both. c) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs. 500/- or both. d) Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to Rs. 1000/- or both. 218. Fill in the blanks:(a) DETRESFA is code to designate.. Distress phase

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(b) VMC is defined as ..Met conditions expressed in terms of visibility and distance from clouds and ceiling equal to or better than the minima laid down (c) Elements contained in a position report are:Section I : Position Report (i) Aircraft registration or identification call sign (ii) Position of ac (Lat, Long or Fix) (iii) Time of position (iv) FL/ Altitude (v) Estimated time next reporting point Section II : Operational (i) Endurance (ii) ETA Section III : Meteorological Observations (d) On routes not defined by designated significant points, position reports shall be made as ... immediately after take off, thereafter :(i) Every 30 min interval if in IMC or 1 hr interval if in VMC (ii) When crossing FIR boundaries (e) LCN stands for.. Load Classification Number (f) For operators who have not filed Met minima for aerodromes equipped with Radio Nav aids and two way Radio communication, take shall be permitted only when the ceiling is ... 90 m above highest obstacle within radius of .. 8 kms and/or RVR or ground visibility of 2.7kms (g) In semicircular system of cruising level, FL 145 shall be kept vacant to allow for Buffer airspace between Quadrantal & Semicircular system (h) An ac maintaining FL125 on Mag Track of 275 shall descend by 500 ft in order to change over from Quadrantal to Semicircular system while leaving for adjoining FIR where semicircular system is in force. (j) A VFR flight shall not commence till available Met conditions indicate that conditions of vis and distance from clouds is equal to or greater than those specified for VMC (k) AIP ( Aircraft Information Publication) essential for air navigation

contains information of a lasting nature

(l) A foreign ac intending to enter or transiting across Indian Territory while operating an unscheduled flight shall be required to give a notice of 72 hours to DGCA to seek clearance from the DGCA. (m) Aircraft operating through controlled airspace shall obtain ATC clearance from the appropriate ATS unit at least 10 minutes before ac is estimating to enter into controlled airspace if it is direct contact with the ATS unit concerned otherwise it is to obtain clearance through other stations within 20 minutes before ac is estimating to enter the controlled airspace (n) While passing through the transition layer the vertical position of the ac is expressed in terms of QNH while descending: and in terms of FL with altimeter set to 1013.2 Hpa while ascending (o) An IFR flight intending to fly above FL 150 on Mag Trk 300M shall maintain ..FL 160 or 180 or 200....280 i.e. even thousand if below FL 310, while following the semicircular system of cruising level.

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(p) Special VFR flights may be authorised to operate within aerodrome traffic circuit when the ground visibility is not less than 1.5 kms provided that:(i) ac is equipped with a functioning Radio Receiver and pilot has agreed to guard the appropriate communication frequency; or (ii) if ac is not equipped with a functioning Radio Receiver, adequate arrangements have been made for termination of flight (q) A pilot who has flown 65 hrs as co-pilot, can fly ..73 hrs as PIC during the remaining period of 30 consecutive days (65 x .8 =52 ; 125-52 = 73) (r) No person other than those authorised shall be permitted within 15 m when ac is being refuelled. (s) For purposes of Instrument Rating a pilot shall have150 hrs as PIC and 40 hrs of Instrument flying which shall include not more than 20 hrs of synthetic (simulator) Instrument flying. 219. Define Airmiss and state information contained in an Aimiss Report ? 220. Uncertainty Phase is ...... 221. State the minimum fuel requirements (endurance) in respect of ac fitted with turbo jet engines for which alternate is required ? 222. Differentiate between:(a) "State ac" and military ac (b) "Type Rating" & Rating (c) "Expected Approach Time" & "ETA" 223. What do you understand by the following:(a) Runway Visual Range (b) Obstacle Clearance Limit (c) Procedure Turn (d) Sigmet Information (e) Distress Phase (f) Alert Phase 224. State if the following statements are correct or incorrect:(a) Under no circumstances shall an ac be flown aerobatically over a meeting, public sports or public assembly (b) VFR flight can be conducted within a CTR when ground visibility < 5km and ceiling < 300 m (c) Right hand arrow in white colour in the signal area points towards a place where reports concerning Air Traffic Services are to be made (d) Warsaw Convention applies to International carriage of baggage or goods, performed by ac for hire and reward (e) Irrespective of state of registry of ac, Indian Aircraft Rules 1937 are applicable to all ac flying in or over Indian Territory. 225. What do you understand by the following terms under the Indian Aircraft Rules 1937:(a) Private ac: - means all ac other than Aerial work or public transport ac (b) Instrument Time: - means the instrument flight time or instrument ground time (c) Dangerous Goods: - means any goods whether explosives or not which by reasons of their nature are likely to endanger the safety of ac or persons or things on board of ac (d) Type Rating: - means a rating for each type of ac (e) Cabotage Traffic: - means traffic (carriage of persons, mail or goods) operated by a foreign national carrier between two points located in the territory of a contracting state. 226. Two white crosses, each one displayed on both sides of runway ends, means:(a) R/W is closed (b) Aircraft to land beyond these crosses while executing a landing

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227. Series of green flashes to ac on circuit from control tower means :(a) Continue circling (b) Return for landing 228.Series of white flashes to ac on circuit from control tower means :(a) Continue circling (b) Do not land at this aerodrome (c) Land at this aerodrome and after landing proceed to the apron 229.A letter "C" displayed in black against yellow background indicates :(a) Place to report in connection with communication (b) Place to report in connection with Aeronautical Inspection services (c) Place to report in connection with Air Traffic services 230. A horizontal white dumbbell with a black bar placed perpendicular to shaft, across each circular portion of dumbbell indicates that:(a) Use only runways and taxiways for landings and taxiing (b) Aircraft are required to land and take off on runway only and other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways 231. Runways at an aerodrome are. 08/26 & 13/31 surface wind is 270/10 kts You will use R/W:(a) 26 (b) 08 (c) 31 (d) 13 232. The age for issue of PPL is:(a) 17 yrs (b) 18 yrs (c) 19 yrs (d) 20 yrs 233. The age for issue of CPL is : (a) 17 yrs (b) 18 yrs (c) 19 yrs (d) 20 yrs 234. For PPL renewal, minimum flying experience required is :(a) 5 hrs as PIC during preceding 6 months (b) 5 hrs as PIC during preceding 12 months (c) 10 hrs as PIC during preceding 6 months (d) 10 hrs as PIC during preceding 12 months 235. Smoking is permitted in ac:(a) If it is a private ac (b) If it is a public tpt ac (c) if it is an Aerial work ac (d) On all ac 236. The passenger on board an ac may take alcoholic drinks:(a) To whatever extent he may like without any restriction (b) should not be in an inebriated state 237. A flight plan is submitted in respect of:(a) Private flights (b) Public transport flights (c) All flights 238. In accordance with the General Rules of Air, an ac flying over towns or populated areas shall maintain at least.... 1000 ft above highest obstacle within a radius of 2000 ft. 239. Photography at an aerodrome can be done with prior permission in writing from:(a) Aerodrome Officer (b) DGCA (c) Central Govt. 240. The mail can be carried by air with prior permission from:a) DGCA (b) DG P&T (c) Aerodrome Officer 241 An operating member of crew can operate R/T, if:(a) it is a pvt ac (b) it is a flying club ac (c) if holder of FRTO

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242. The minimum Met conditions for VFR flight at a level, 3000 ft a msl are a) Vis: 8km, dist from clouds: Hor 1.5 kms, Vert 300 m b) Vis: 5km, ................ " ..................... 243. On a flight from Delhi to Calcutta Track 120 (M) you shall select:(a) FL 70 (b) FL 75 (c) FL 80 (d) FL 85 244. A PPL holder can fly:(a) Single engine ac only (b) Ac whose AUW does not exceed 1500 kgs (c) Any ac which is endorsed in his license 245. A PPL holder can fly an ac at night provided he has completed:a) 10 ldgs and 10 T/O's within preceding six months b) 05 ...."... 05....... " ...................... (c)...................... " ........... “ twelve months 246. PPL holder is deemed to have night rating if he has completed:(a) 10 ldgs and 10 T/O's within preceding six months (b) 05 ...."... 05....... " ...................... (c)...................... " ........... twelve months 247. When flying from high to low the altimeter reads:(a) Too high (b) too low 248. Flight by night is to comply with IFR if:(a) Vis is < 8 km (b) Vis is < 5 kms (c) Wx is cloudy (d) Met conditions are IMC (e) irrespective of Wx conditions 249. When two power driven ac are crossing courses the responsibility of avoiding collision rests with:(a) Heavier ac (b) Lighter ac (c) The ac who has the other ac to the right (d) The ac who has the other ac to the left 250. Two red balls suspended from a mast one above the other means ...gliding in progress. 251. When ac switches its navigation lights on and off it indicates:(a) Ac has some sick person on board (b) its one engine has failed (c) Wishes to give notice of the difficulties which compel it to land without requiring any assistance 252. An ac is said to be in distress if:(a) Its one engine has failed (b) when threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance 253. An ac without navigation lights:(a) can fly at night (b) cannot fly at night 254. Total flight time of an ac means;(a) Total flight time from the moment the ac first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment the moment it comes to rest at the end of flight. (b) Total flight time from the moment the ac first sets course to destination until it reaches over the destination.

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255. Total fuel carried by Chipmunk ac on a flight when alternate is not required is:(a) Sufficient to fly to destination + 2 hrs (b) .................."............. + 45 minutes 256. Total fuel carried by Chipmunk ac on a flight when alternate is required but not available is:(a) Sufficient to fly to destination + 2 hrs (b) .................."............. + 45 minutes 257. If a PPL holder is 30 yrs old his license can be renewed for a period of:(a) One year (b) Six months (c) Two years 258. A prohibited area means:(a) Low flying is prohibited (b) Total flying is prohibited 259._While refuelling is in progress no naked light be brought within (a) 35 m (b) 30 m (c) 100 m (d) 43 m 260. Landing and Housing charges are payable by an ac on basis of:(a) Seating capacity of the ac (b) Tare weight of the ac 261. A VFR flight shall not take off or land at an aerodrome if:(a) Ground vis is < 5 km and ceiling is < 300 m (b) Ground vis is < 8 km and ceiling is < 300 m 262.For the purpose of flying test towards issue or renewal of licence, flight by night means (a) between half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise (b) Flight after sunset and before sunrise 263. A private ac can land on a private aerodrome for purposes of joy rides, after:(a) Permission from Central Govt. (b) Permission from DGCA (c) No restrictions 264.The ac approaching to land at an aerodrome changes its altimeter subscale setting to QNH setting while crossing :(a) Transition Altitude (b) Transition Level 265. The width of a Transition Layer is:(a) 500 feet (b) 1500 feet (c) 1000 to 1499 feet 266. Aircraft accident is an accident which ....... and it is notified to DGCA..... 267. In the event of force landing at an uncontrolled airfield, the ac shall not take off till permission is........... 268. Aerobatics shall not be performed over ...... , elsewhere if performed shall be concluded at ..... ft, but when performed at aerodromes shall be concluded at .... ft. 269. Flight Plan shall be filed at least........... Before ETD in respect of……………….... 270. Holder of PPL cannot fly at night unless....... 271. VFR flights outside the controlled airspace can be conducted above 3000 feet if the flight visibility is..... kms and the distance from clouds horizontally is ....... and vertically is .......

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272. Starboard Navigation light is ........in colour and is visible over an arc of ....... degrees 273. Port Navigation light is ........in colour and is visible over an arc of ....... degrees 274. Rear Navigation light is ........in colour and is visible over an arc of ....... degrees 275. Prohibited Area means....... 276. Restricted Area means....... 277. Danger Area means......... 278. The signals to indicate Prohibited/Restricted/Danger Areas is........ 279. Two Red balls one above the other suspended from a mast at Control Tower means...... 280. Two white crosses in the Signal area at an aerodrome means....... 281. Aircraft not fitted with navigation lights ......... during hours of darkness 282. Two power driven ac are on crossing courses, which of the two has the right of way............. 283. Horizontal white dumbbell displayed in signal area means ........ 284. A black ball suspended from a mast means...... 285. Red pyrotechnical light fired from the control tower, when ac is on final approach means.... 286. Period of validity of PPL is.....if age is..... and.... if age is.. 287. Period of validity of CPL is..... if age is ... and .... if age is .._ _ 288. Period of validity of SCPL is ... and ALTP is.... 289. A person who is not holder of any flying licence can fly an ac for the purpose of obtaining a licence, provided (a)... (b)... (c)... (d)... (e)... 290. To obtain a night rating on PPL, the pilot must have at least.... Landings and ....take offs by night during the last ... months. 291. For the purpose of issue of PPL, solo flying experience,.....% of solo gliding experience subjected to maximum of ....hrs shall be counted. 292. For purposes of issue of PPL, cross country flying means.....nms 293. For purposes of issue of CPL, cross country flying means.....nms. 294. A pilot who is forced to fly low ......... be sued by persons over the........... the ac flies (cannot, vicinity) 295. Landing and Housing charges are payable by private ac according to.... 296. Smoking in ac is permitted if.....

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297. Cockpit checklist is required to be carried by....... 298.A white dumbbell with two black bars in the centre portion means ... 299. Alternate Aerodrome means...... 300. Minimum age for issue of PPL is.... 301. Aerial photography is....... 302. While flying VFR minimum height of ac shall be...... 303. Aircraft carrying passengers on hire and reward ......... series of landing and departure....... 304. Even if smoking is permitted in ac, but during ............of ac there should............ 305. The privilege of Instrument Rating is.......... 306. Steady Red to an ac in flight means....... 307. Landing area means......... 308. Aerodrome means..... 309. Two ac approaching to land, which of the two has priority to land... 310. Certificate of Airworthiness is valid for........ 311. Flight Plan is to be filled by......... 312. Distress Signal is on (a).......

(b).........

313. Signal to indicate prohibited area to ac in flight is.... 314. A series of projectiles fired at intervals of ten seconds, each showing a bursting of Red and Green lights or stars, indicates to an ac in flight that it is over ............... area. 315. Aircraft flying a track of 296 (M) should fly at:(a) FL 70 (b) FL 75 (c) FL 80 (d) FL 85 316. Switching on and off its landing lights by ac means......... 317. Green flashes to ac in flight means.... 318. For the purpose of flying test `Night' means............ 319. Night Rating means..... 320. Validity of PPL is........ 321. Flying experience for issue of PPL is..... 322. Differentiate between:(a) Type Rating & Rating (b) EAT & ETA (c) Military ac & State ac

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323. Define: - (a) Contracting State (b) Procedure Turn (d) OCL (e) Instrument Flying Time (f) RVR

(c) Prohibited Area

324. Differentiate between Landing Area & Manoeuvring Area 325. Differentiate between: - (a) IMC & VMC (b) IFR flight & VFR flight (c) VMC & IMC (d) IFR & VFR (e) NOTAM Class I & Class II distribution 326. What do abbreviations LCN, ACN/PCN stand for 327. State VMC minima (a) within controlled air space (b) outside controlled air space 328. When you are on IFR flight plan, in flight ac experiences two way communication failure, what action as PIC you will take if (a) Weather conditions are VMC (b) Weather continues to be IMC 329. The number of hours a PIC can fly during 30 consecutive days is.... 330. Co-pilot ..............."...............

......

331. What are rules for carriage of minimum fuel in respect of turbo jet ac if alternate aerodrome is specified? 332. What do you understand by (a) INCERFA (b) ALERFA (c) DETRESFA? 333. What information is contained in AIP? [Aeronautical Information Publication: Refer Guide for RTR(A)] 334. What is the procedure for operating a non-schedule flight by a Foreign Civil Aircraft to India? 335. Give detailed transiting procedure for ac on IFR flight when transiting from:(a) Quadrantal to Semi-circular system on Mag Tr (i) 090-179,270-359 (b) Semi-circular to Quadrantal system on Mag Tr (i) .."... (ii) ..".. 336. If an ac is flown by a trainee it should not go beyond:(a) 01 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 5 nm (c) 7 nm 337. No passenger of private ac can take alcoholic drinks within:(a) 12 hours (b) 6 hrs (c) 10 hrs (d) should not be in intoxicated state 338. While refuelling an ac, no naked flame or source of light capable of providing spark should be brought near the ac within:(a) 15 m (b) 43m (c) 30 m 339. Flight Navigator is to be carried by a private ac if :(a) Beyond 500 nms along with ac and no navigational aids within 50 nms of the route (b) Beyond 100 nms along with ac & no navigational aids within 10 nms (c) Beyond 400nms and no aid within 30 nms

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340. A PIC cannot fly more than...... hrs during consecutive 30 days 341. A personal Log Book must be maintained for.... years after the date of last entry. 342. The flights will be IFR if the visibility is less than:(a) 5 km (b) 1.5 km (c) 10 km (d) Irrespective of the visibility 343. To cross an obstacle an ac must fly:(a) 5000 ft above it, within a radius of 1000 ft (b) 1000 ft above it, within a radius of 2000 ft (c) 500 ft above it, within a radius of 500 ft (d) 100 ft above it, within a radius of 100 ft 344. Aerobatics may be concluded at:(a) 2000 ft over cities (b) 6000 ft any where (c) 1000 ft any where 345. Validity for PPL for those whose age is less than 38 years is :(a) 12 months (b) 6 months (c) 24 months 346. During Distress Phase an ac:(a) Switches on and off its landing lights (b) speaks MAY DAY on R/T(c) Speaks PAN on R/T 347. Switching on and off its landing lights by an ac indicates:(a) Emergency phase (b) Distress phase (c) Urgency phase 348. Steady Red light from Control Tower to ac in flight indicates:(a) Clear to Land (b) Stop (c) Continue circling and give way to ac 350.Series of White light from Control Tower to ac in flight indicates :(a) Return for landing and proceed to apron (b) Return to starting point (c) Stop (d) Return for landing 351. RED Pyrotechnical Light fro Tower to ac in flight indicates:(a) Nothing (b) Stop (c) Notwithstanding any previous instruction (d) Do Not Land for the time being 352. A Red Square panel with two yellow diagonals indicate:(a) Prohibited to land (b) Aerodrome unsafe (c) Take precaution while and before landing 353. A Red Square panel with one yellow diagonal indicate:(a) Prohibited to land (b) Aerodrome unsafe (c) Take precaution while and before landing 354. `C’ alphabet written on a board any where on the aerodrome indicates:(a) Prohibited Area (b) Restricted Area (c) Report for Air Traffic Control Services 355. ICAO refers to.... (International Civil Aviation Organisation) 356. Outside the controlled Airspace at or above 3000ft VMC comply when:(a) Vis is beyond 1.5 km (b) Vis is beyond 5 km (c) Vis is beyond 8 km (d) Vis is beyond 300 m 357. For propeller driven ac fuel required when alternate is required is :(a) To fly to destination + 45 min (b) To fly to destination + Alternate + 30 min (c) To fly to destination + Alternate (d) To fly to Alternate via any pre-determined point + 45 min, provided this shall not be less than the amount required to destination + there after for 45 min + 15% of flight time at cruising level or 2 hrs, whichever is less.

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358. Angle of coverage of left navigation light is:(a) 70 degrees (b) 240 degrees (c) 110 degrees (d) 140 degrees 359. Aircraft flying on course 178 (T), variation 2 deg W, it will choose:(a) FL 80 (b) FL 90 (c) FL 100 (d) FL 70 360. A Distress Phase is a phase:(a) When the ac and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance. (b) When uncertainty exists as to the safety of the ac and its occupants. (c) When apprehension exists as to the safety of the ac and its occupants. 361. Petroleum in bulk means when:(a) Petroleum capacity is 900 litres but fuel is just 10 litres (b) Petroleum contained in a receptacle exceeds 900 L in capacity. (c) Petroleum contained in a receptacle exceeds 1000 L in capacity. 362. Routes over which a Flight Navigator is to be carried on board an ac are specified in:(a) Route Guides (b) Registration Certificate (c) Operation Manual (d) Aircraft Rules 363.Routes to be followed within a States Territory by any International air service may be decided by :(a) State of registry of ac (b) Operator concerned (c) State within which the ac is flying (d) ICAO 364. Over high seas the rules of the air that will be followed is as laid down by:(a) State of registry of ac (b) State nearest to high seas (c) ICAO 365. En-route altitude will be determined for each stage of the route by taking 1000 ft terrain clearance within:(a) 5 nm (b) 10 nm (c) 15 nm (d) 20 nm 366. Alerting posts Search & Rescue have been established at:(a) All operational aerodromes (b) All rescue coordination centres (c) All aerodromes and railway stations 367. Provisions of IATA will be applicable with respect of airports used for:(a) Civil or Military purposes (b) Civil purposes (c) Military purposes 368. IATA grants every contracting state the privilege for its ac to (a) To land and take on passengers from any other contracting state. (b) To land and pick up any passenger of a particular state. (c) To land and take on passengers destined for the territory of the C.S. whose nationality the ac possesses. (d) To fly across the territory of another contracting state 369. The Met conditions for a particular aerodrome shall be considered as below minima for that aerodrome when the cloud amount is greater than:(a) 2/8 (b) 4/8 (c) 6/8 ... …in any one layer below the cloud height specified by the operator concerned

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370.Minimum quantity of fuel required on board a propeller driven ac under IFR flight, when no alternate is specified will be sufficient fuel to fly to aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter fly for :(a) 45 minutes plus 15% of flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours, whichever is less, (b) 1 hr (c) 2 hrs (d) 3 hrs 371. Rule 60 ...it may proceed on its onward journey if after the commencement of journey it has not flown for a period of:(a) 8 hrs (b) 12 hrs & 2 Days (c) 12 hrs & 4 Days (d) 16 hrs & 2 Days 372. You are the holder of SCPL with appropriate Rating for the ac flown. A flight consisting of 2hrs in which you served as a co-pilot has just been completed. How much of the flight time you may log:(a) None (b) 1/2 hr (c) 1 hr (d) 2 hrs 373. Indian Aircraft Act 1934 applies to........ 374. Indian Aircraft Rules 1937 apply to...... 375. When ac registered in India over flies the territory of another state, it:(a) Doesn’t follows the law of that state (b) Does not comply with the laws of India (c) Non compliance of laws of that state will be viewed seriously by Govt. of India 376. After filing of IFR flight plan, submission of fresh flight plan is necessary if flight is delayed by......... 377. Aircraft on an IFR flight plan is required to send position report to ATC immediately after take off, thereafter......... 378. When flying at FL 150 in VMC by PIC having open Rating, the flight shall be flown according to:(a) IFR (b) VFR (c) Either 379. When flying over sea at FL 100 in VMC during day at more than 100 nms from coast, flight shall be flown according to:(a) IFR (b) VFR (c) Either 380. Flying at night in VMC, flight shall be flown as :(a) IFR (b) VFR (c) Either 381. When on Track 179 (M), the ac flying according to Quadrantal Rules will select:(a) FL 75 (b) FL 80 (c) FL 85 (d) FL 90 382. When flying on Track 090 (M), on Semi-circular Rules, you will select: (a) FL 330 (b) FL 310 (c) FL 280 (d) FL 320 383. ICAO Annexure 14 contains........ 384. Aeronautical information of lasting nature is contained in.... 385. When Met minima not filed with DGCA, then following minima will apply: (a) For T/O ceiling 90 m, visibility 2.7 km (b) For T/O ceiling 110 m visibility 3.7 km (c) For T/O ceiling 120 m, visibility 4.7 km

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386. Flying for inclusion of Rating in the licence, the flight should operate within :(a) 10 nms (b) 5 nms (c) 12 kms (d) 5 kms 387. A person cannot fly a Public Transport/ Aerial Work ac unless he possesses a ......... 388. On issue of SCPL, PPL has to:(a) Be surrendered (b) need not be surrendered, but no privileges (c) Need not be surrendered and privileges exercised 389. For issue of Instrument Rating, a person should have at least .... hrs of instrument flying in the last .... months. 390. When intercepted by fighter ac, action by PIC is ........... 391. Coordinated Universal Time is:(a) > GMT (b) = GMT (c) < GMT 392. Penalty for dangerous flying is ....... 393. Aircraft leaving India for a place outside India must depart from ... 394. The operation of ac either in flight or manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall be in compliance with ......( General Rules of Air, and in addition when in flight with VFR or IFR ) 395. CABOTAGE means ....(Traffic [passengers, mail or goods] operated by foreign International carriers between two points of another contracting state. N.B. Must know! 396. Certificate of safety and drug inspection is required in respect of__________________.

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Air Regulations

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