AB6 OPC Questionnares_Technical_REV 2 Last Update 04 May 2011ByFCSomsakP

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

que s1.

1

Which areas of the aircraft are not pressurized? a. Bulk cargo compartments, Air conditioning compartments, Nose gear bay b. Avionics compartments, Wheel wells, Nose radome c. Aft cargo compartments, Nose radome, Nose gear bay Ans. d

d. Nose radome, Wheel wells, Air conditioning compartments The fuselage has a circular cross section and is pressurized in all areas except:

2.

-

Nose radome

-

Wheel wells

-

Air conditioning compartments

-

Tail cone

AOM 1.1/1 P4

When will CABIN PRESSURE PRESSURE light at each each door illuminates illuminates? ? (TAN-Z) (TAN-Z) a.

On ground, ground, select select door door control control handle handle to open with with door mode mode selector selector in in ARM positio position n and the evacuation system not activated.

b.

On ground, ground, select select door mode mode to ARMED ARMED when cabin cabin differential differential pressur pressure e is above 2.5 Mb Mb (0.036psi) (0.036psi)

c.

On ground, ground, select select door door mode to to DISARMED DISARMED when cabin cabin different differential ial pressure pressure is above 2.5 2.5 Mb (0.036psi)

d.

On ground, ground, select select door door control control handle handle to open with with door mode mode selector selector in in ARM positio position n when cabin cabin pressure is above 2.5 Mb (0.036psi)

Ans. c

Cabin pressure light flash red when :

3.

-

Aircraft is on ground, and

-

Door mode is in DISARMED position, and

-

Cabin pressure is above 2.5 Mb (0.036psi)

AOM 1.1/3 P3

If the electri electrical cal power power to the pack pack valve valve is lost, lost, what what is the the position position of the valve? valve? a.

Open, Open, beca because use the valve valve is is fail fail safe safe open open

b.

Closed, Closed, becaus because e the the valve valve is controlled controlled electrical electrically ly

c.

Open Open or close closed d depend depending ing on the the pneum pneumati atic c supply supply

d. Closed, because because the valve is spring loaded to closed

Ans. c

In the absence of air pressure, and independently of any electrical supply, the pack valve is spring-loaded closed. It remains open in the absence of electrical supply, provided it is pneumatically supplied. AOM 1.2 P1 4.

How to operat operate e packs, packs, engines engines and wing wing anti-ice anti-ice during during volcani volcanic c ash encount encountered? ered? a.

Engine and wing wing anti-ice anti-ice on. on. All packs packs high flow flow to increa increase se stall stall margin. margin.

b.

Engine and wing anti-ic anti-ice e on. All packs packs off off to prevent prevent volcani volcanic c dust in in aircraft. aircraft.

c.

Engine and wing wing anti-ice anti-ice off. All All packs packs off off to gain more more thrust. thrust.

d.

Engine and wing anti-ice off. All packs as required.

Ans. a

Flight Deck Crew Training Department Last Update on 09 March 2011 By Capt. Somsak P.

Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

5.

-

Turn on engine and wing anti-ice system and place all air conditioning packs to high flow to further improve engine stall margin by increasing bleed air flow.

-

It may be possible to stabilize one or more engines at idle thrust setting where the EGT will remain within limits. An attempt should be made to keep at least one engine operating at idle and within limits to provide electrical power and bleed air for cabin pressurization until clear of the volcanic dust.

AOM VOL2 3.3/10 p2

What What will will happen happen ifif the Max Max Cool Cool P/B P/B is sele selecte cted d to ON? ON? a.

Temp control control valve valve fully fully closed closed and and cooling cooling air modulating modulating flap flap fully fully closed closed

b.

Temp control control valve valve fully fully open open and cooling cooling air air modulati modulating ng flap fully fully open open

c.

Temp control control valve valve fully fully closed closed and and cooling cooling air modulating modulating flap flap fully fully open open

d.

Temp control valve fully open an and cooling air modulating flap fully closed

Ans.c

Max cooling is obtained by fully closing the temperature control valve and fully opening the heat exchanger cooling air-modulating flap. 6.

2

AOM 1.2 P2

How is is the tempe temperat rature ure in each each cabin cabin zone zone cont control rolled led? ? a.

By the the pack pack controlle controllerr adjusting adjusting the pack pack discha discharge rge temper temperature ature

b.

By openin opening g or closin closing g the the hot hot air air valv valve e

c.

By modulati modulating ng the trim trim air air valve valve to mix mix the hot air with cold cold air from the the pack pack

d.

By modulating modulating the pack temperature temperature control control valve

Ans.c Ans. c

Individual zone temperature control is achieved by mixing the hot trim air with cold air from the packs. The controller received signals from pack outlet temperature, compartment ambient temperature and required temperature selected with the COMP TEMP selectors. The trim air valve is then modulated by the controller to mix hot trim air from the hot air manifold with cooled air from the pack to obtain required temperature for each compartment (zone). The hot air manifold is supplied from pneumatic manifold downstream of pack valves through one hot air supply valve that regulates the supply pressure at 4 PSI above cabin pressure. 7.

AOM 1.2 P2

Which Which case case causes causes the pack pack valve valve to close close by by pneumati pneumatic c pressur pressure? e? a.

An overheat overheat occur occurs s at the the compress compressor or temperatu temperature re outlet outlet or turbine turbine inlet

b.

Pneuma Pneumatic tic press pressure ure is is not not suppl supply y to the the Pack Pack

c.

Engi Engine ne fire fire han handl dle e is is pul pulle led d

d.

Engine start selector selector is at CRANK, CRANK, START START A or START START B

Ans.a Ans. a


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

3

Pack valve P/B in auto mode, the valve will close when: -

The ENG fire handle is pulled

-

Outflow valve P/Bs are selected OFF

-

ENG START selector is at CONT RELIGHT position and one of the two start valves is open

-

ENG START selector is at CRANK, START A or START B position

-

Over temperature occurs at compressor outlet or turbine inlet (pack valve closes pneumatically)

The valve is closed by spring force if not pneumatically supplied The valve is closed by pneumatic pressure when overheat occurs at compressor outlet or turbine inlet of the pack. AOM 1.2 P14

8.

Which Which statement statement is true true after setting setting PACK PACK mode SEL SEL P/B to MAN and and setting setting the PACK MAN MAN CTL switch switch toward cold? a.

Trim Trim air air valve valve moves moves towa toward rd clos close e positi position on

b.

Pack temperatur temperature e control control valve valve moves moves toward toward closed closed position position

c.

Pack Pack valve valve moves moves toward toward closed closed positi position on

d.

Hot Hot air air valv valve e clo close ses s

Ans. b

PACK MODE SEL P/B

9.

-

Auto (push button in), Pack discharge temperature is automatically controlled depending on control from the APU and pack temperature demand controller

-

MAN (push button out, white MAN light on), pack discharge temperature is manually controlled by adjusting the temperature control valve through MAN CTL switch

AOM 1.2 P14

What will will happen if the the COMPARTM COMPARTMENT ENT TEMP TEMP selector selector is set to MAN MAN (bottom (bottom quadrant) quadrant) and moment momentarily arily turned toward COLD position? a.

Trim Trim air valve valve move moves s toward toward clos closed ed positi position on

b.

Trim Trim air air valve valve moves moves towa toward rd open open posit position ion

c.

Pack temperatur temperature e control control valve valve moves moves toward toward closed closed position position

d.

Pack temperatur temperature e control control valve valve moves moves toward toward open open position position

Ans. a

COMPARTMENT COMPARTMENT TEMP selector (4) -

AUTO, the associated compartment temperature is controlled automatically. The pack discharge temperature is controlled via APU and pack temperature demand controller

-

MAN, when the selector is turned to the bottom quadrant, it is springloaded to the center position. The temperature of the respective zone is controlled manually by momentarily turns the selector to COLD or HOT position COLD Trim air valve moves moves toward toward closed position. HOT

Trim air valve moves toward open position. AOM 1.2 P15


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

10.

4

What will will caused caused the the cargo cargo compartm compartment ent ISOL ISOL valve valve to close close automatica automatically? lly? a.

Trim Trim air over overhe heat at cond conditi ition on

b.

A disagree disagreement ment between between P/B and the the actual actual ISOL ISOL valve valve positi position on

c.

Smoke Smoke is dete detecte cted d in a cargo cargo compar compartme tment nt

d.

Fan for air extraction extraction in the cargo compartm compartment ent has stopped stopped

Ans.c Ans.c

ISOL VALVE P/B (2) -

ON (P/B in). The valve is opened and fan runs. If smoke is detected in a cargo compartment, the associates isolation valve and the trim air valves will close and the fan stops automatically.

-

OFFR (P/B out, white OFF light on). The isolation valve closes and the fan stops. The smoke detection circuit is reset.

-

FAULT (amber). Indicates disagreement between P/B selection and actual valve position. AOM 1.2 P15

11.

What What is the the funct function ion of of the the RAM air inlet inlet valve valve? ? a.

To allo allow w air air suppl supply y to the cold cold air air manif manifold old

b.

To allo allow w air air suppl supply y to the hot air manifo manifold ld

c.

To allow allow air air direct direct into into the the cabin cabin to aid aid the pressuriz pressurization ation syste system m

d.

To allow air direct direct to the avionics avionics compartme compartment nt to aid the ventilation ventilation system system

Ans.a Ans.a

RAM AIR P/B (guarded)

12.

-

ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ram inlet opens to allow ram air supply to the cold air manifold.

-

OPEN (green). Illuminates when the ram air inlet is fully open. The FWD and AFT outflow valves open simultaneously to permit unrestricted ventilation.

-

OFF (P/B out). The ram air inlet closes. The FWD and AFT valves return to normal regulation.

AOM 1.2 P14

What is is the autom automatic atic function function after select selecting ing the ram air air inlet to open? open? a.

Both Both pac packs ks wil willl shut shutof off f

b.

Both Both out outfl flow ow val valve ves s wil willl clos close e

c.

Both Both outf outflo low w val valve ves s wil willl open open

d.

Nothin Nothing g happen happens s automa automatic tically ally

Ans. Ans. c

An emergency ram air inlet, which is located forward of the air conditioning pack 1 cooling air inlet, provides for ventilation of the pressurized fuselage with ram air. The opening of the ram air inlet is only authorized in flight when the cabin differential pressure is lower than 1 psi. When cabin pressure is in AUTO mode, the FWD and AFT outflow valves will open simultaneously to permit unrestricted ventilation. AOM 1.2 P2, 14


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

13.

5

Where does does the airflow airflow for for cooling cooling and ventila ventilating ting of the the avionics avionics equipme equipment nt come come from? a.

Coolin Cooling g air air distr distribu ibute te duct duct in the the cock cockpit pit

b.

Air Air in the the avi avion onic ics s comp compar artm tmen ent t

c.

Air from outside outside the the aircraft aircraft which which is drawn by the the blower blower

d.

a. and and b. are are corr correc ectt

Ans. Ans. d

Airflow for cooling and ventilation of avionics equipment is either from cooling air distribute duct in the cockpit or drawn from air in the avionics compartment by the blower. The air is directed to the circuit breaker panels, all panels in the cockpit and all equipment in the avionics compartment. After cooling all equipment, air is directed towards either three positions overboard valve or the inboard valve which discharges air to forward cargo under floor area. 14.

AOM 1.2 P4

What are the the positions positions of the inboard inboard and overboa overboard rd valve while while aircraft aircraft is on ground ground and ENG ENG stopped? stopped? a.

Inboar Inboard d and and overbo overboard ard valve valve closed closed

b.

Inboar Inboard d valve valve open opened ed and over overboa board rd valve valve clos closed ed

c.

Inboar Inboard d valve valve clos closed ed and and overbo overboard ard valv valve e opened opened

d. Inboard valve opened and overboard valve partially opened

Ans.c Ans.c

The operating condition of the two valves depending on flight phase as follows: On ground with one engine stopped -

Overboard valve is fully opened

-

Inboard valve is closed

In flight, or on ground with both engines running

15.

-

Overboard valve is fully closed

-

Inboard valve is opened

-

If the cooling of the avionics compartment is found insufficient, the overboard valve can be partially opened.

AOM 1.2 P18

When When does does the the grou groundnd-coo coolin ling g unit unit oper operate ate? ? a.

Both Both packs packs are are off, off, both both ENG ENG fuel fuel lever levers s are are off

b. Both packs are off, both ENG fuel are off and outlet temperature of the unit exceeds 25 o C c.

Both packs packs operati operating, ng, both ENG ENG fuel fuel levers levers are off off and GND COOL OVRD P/B is select selected ed ON Ans. d

d. Both b. and c. are correct correct


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

6

GND COOL CTL P/B -

AUTO (P/B in). If both packs are off and both ENG FUEL levers are off, the outflow valves of the ground cooling unit is open. The fan runs when the outflow is fully open. The ground cooling unit operates if the outlet temperature of the unit exceeds 25o C.

-

FAULT (amber). Illuminates if a failure is detected at ground cooling unit system.

-

OFF (P/B out, white OFF light on). Outflow valve closed, fan and cooling unit stopped.

PACK OVRD P/B -

NORMAL (P/B out). Ground cooling system operates according to CTL P/B function.

-

ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ground cooling unit operates with packs operating if both ENG FUEL levers selected OFF AOM 1.2 P18

16.

Which Which pneumatic pneumatic source source is not recommend recommended ed for air air conditioni conditioning ng system systems? s? a.

Low Low pres pressu sure re gro groun und d conne connect ctio ion n

b.

High High pres pressur sure e grou ground nd air air supply supply unit unit

c.

Ram air inlet inlet when air conditi conditioning oning system system is not not operating operating Ans. b

d. Engine compressors The require bleed air for the air conditioning system is supplied either by engine compressors or APU or a high pressure ground air supply unit (it is recommended not to use external HP air for conditioning due to possible refrigeration pack contamination) Condition air can also be supplied directly to the cabin air distribution system by a low-pressure ground. A ram air inlet is also provided for fresh air ventilation in flight when the air conditioning systems are not operating.

AOM 1.2 P1 17. 17.

How How does does out outfl flow ow val valve ves s opera operate te? ? a.

By 3 electr electric ic motors, motors, which which are are controlled controlled by one of the two two automati automatic c system system or the manual manual syste system m

b.

By 3 electr electric ic motors, motors, which which are are control controlled led by the two automatic automatic system system

c.

By 2 electric electric motors, motors, which which are contro controlled lled by one one of the two two automatic automatic syste system m or the manual manual system system

d. By 2 electric electric motors, which which are controlled controlled by the two automatic automatic system

Ans. a

OUTFLOW VALVES One is located in forward of the air conditioning bay, the other aft of the bulk cargo compartment. Each valve is actuated by three electric motors, which are independently controlled by one of two automatic systems or the manual system.

AOM 1.2 P5

Each outflow valve can be closed from overhead panel, where its position is di splayed. 18.

Condit Condition ion:: A/C is on grou ground nd and and both both engine engines s stop stop

Ans. Ans. b

If you found the cabin pressure system 1 green triangle illuminated, which system will operate in flight? a.

System 1

b. System 2 Flight Deck Crew Training Department Last Update on 09 March 2011 By Capt. Somsak P.

Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

7

The transfer from 1 system to the other is automatic:

19.

-

At every second engine start

-

If the associated REG P/B switch is selected to off

-

If the associated REG FAULT light i lluminates.

AOM 1.2 P16

Which Which statement statement is true true if you select select the cabin pressu pressurizat rization ion system system to MAN MAN PRESS PRESS CTL? a.....Cabin V/S CTL switch is no longer available b.

CAB PRESS on ECAM SD page is still available

c.

Cabin pressure warning is no longer available

d.

Both outflow valves will close

Ans. c

MAN PRESS P/B ON (P/B in, white ON light on). The ON light illuminates associated with amber arrow light to indicate that the V/S CTL switch is operative and controls the manual operation of the outflow valve. OFF (P/B out). The V/S CTL switch is inoperative as long as the amber arrow light is not on ⇐ (Amber).

The arrow illuminates when:

-

Both OFF light integrated into REG 1 and REG 2 P/B are ON, or

-

The MAN PRESS P/B is selected ON

The V/S CTL is operative In this configuration, no cabin pressure warning and no cabin pressure indication on ECAM display is available. 20.

Regarding the “ON GROUND EMERGENCY” EMERGENCY” procedure, why do you need to check that ∆ P is zero if CAB MAN PRESS is selected? a.

To fac facili ilita tate te the the cab cabin in doo doors rs ope openin ning g

b.

To ens ensur ure e the the outf outflo low w valv valves es ope openi ning ng

c.

To ens ensur ure e the the ram ram air air inle inlett valv valve e is ope opene ned d

d.

To prevent prevent rapid decompress decompression ion of the cabin during cabin doors emergency emergency opening opening

Ans. d

Ram air is selected ON is to facilitate the cabin doors opening but in case of CAB MAN PRESS is selected in flight, to avoid to decompression the aircraft rapidly, the procedure is called for set CAB V/S up until∆ P read zero. 21.

AOM 1.2 P16

AOM Vol2 4.1/220

What occur occurs s after after selectin selecting g both OUTFL OUTFLOW OW P/B P/B (guarded) (guarded) switc switches hes to OFF? OFF? a.

Both Both outf outflo low w val valve ves s are are clos closed ed

b.

Both Both outflo outflow w valves valves,, and the the two two pack pack valves valves are clos closed ed

c.

Both outflow outflow valves, valves, two two pack valves, valves, and and the overboa overboard rd extract extract valve valve are are closed closed

d.

Both outflow outflow valves, valves, two pack pack valves, valves, the overbo overboard ard extrac extractt valve valve and the ram ram air air inlet inlet valve valve are closed closed

Ans. d

OUTFLOW (guarded) (2) The P/B are used to close the related outflow valves. When both P/B are selected to OFF (when ditching), Both outflow valves, two pack valves, the overboard extract valve and the ram air inlet valve are closed.

AOM 1.2 P17


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

22.

8

When When will will over over pres pressur sure e safet safety y valve valves s open? open? a.

cabin cabin diffe differen rentia tiall pressu pressure re excee exceeds ds 8.4 8.4 psi

b.

cabin cabin diffe differen rentia tiall pressu pressure re excee exceeds ds 8.85 8.85 psi psi

c.

negati negative ve diffe differen rentia tiall pressur pressure e exceed exceeds s 0.5 psi

d.

both b and c

Ans. Ans. d

OVER PRESSURE SAFETY VALVES Two fully mechanical safety valves are installed forward or the air conditioning bay. Normally, these valves are closed but they will provides safety relief protection in case the cabin differential pressure exceeds 8.85 psi or negative differential pressure exceeds 0.5 psi. AOM1.2 P6 23.

When landing landing elevati elevation on is higher higher than the the theoretica theoreticall cabin altitud altitude, e, which which cabin rate rate of change change will will be used? a.

500 ft/min

b.

RATE ATE the theor oret etic ical al

c.

RATE RATE limit limit (sele (selecte cted d on the the RATE RATE LIMIT LIMIT sele selecto ctor) r)

d.

The lowest lowest of of RATE theoretical theoretical or or RATE RATE limit limit (selecte (selected d on the RATE RATE LIMIT LIMIT select selector) or)

Ans. Ans. c

Generally, the cabin altitude is regulated towards the theoretical cabin pressure altitude determined by the controller, or to the landing field elevation, which is the higher. The ∆ P increases with the increase of pressure altitude up to the operating ceiling. When the theoretical altitude is higher than the landing elevation, the rate of changes is the lowest of the two following values: -

RATE theoretical

-

RATE limit (selected on the RATE LIMIT selector)

When the landing elevation is higher than the theoretical altitude, the rate of change is the RATE limit. 24.

AOM 1.2 P5

What causes causes the AIR COND ECAM page to display display magent magenta a XX on one zone zone temperatu temperature? re? a.

That That compar compartm tment ent tempe temperat rature ure sele selecto ctorr is set set to manu manual al

b.

COMP COMP / DUCT DUCT TEMP TEMP DISPLA DISPLAY Y selector selector is is set to the anothe anotherr position position other other than than CRT

c.

The The zone zone temp temper erat atur ure e indic indicat ator or fail failur ure e

d. That compartment was overheated

Ans. Ans. b

COMP / DUCT TEMPERATURE DISPLAY SELECTOR Selects the zone for which COMP and DUCT temperature reading is desired on COMP / DUCT indicator. At CRT position, indications are displayed on ECAM. When any other position is selected, temperature indication of the selected zone is replaced by magenta XX on the CRT. AOM 1.2 P15 25.

What is the procedur procedure e for turning turning the packs packs ON ON again when when taking taking off with with both both packs OFF? a.

Turn Turn both both pack packs s on when when conve convenie nient nt after after airbor airborne ne

b.

Turn Turn one pack pack on on after after set set climb climb thrus thrust, t, the the other other as desire desired d

c.

Turn one pack pack on on after after set climb climb thrust, thrust, the the remaining remaining one after after slat slat retract retraction ion

d.

Turn both packs on after thrust reduction

Ans. Ans. c


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

9

AIR CONDITION……………………..SET When taking off with both packs off:

26.

-

For passenger’s comfort, after setting climb thrust, set one pack on.

-

After slats are retracted, set the remaining pack on.

-

Check flow bars in line and all air conditioning indicates are normal.

When taking off with both supplied by APU:

AOM VOL2

-

3.2/2 p9

Set APU bleed switch to off after setting climb thrust.

What is the the procedure procedure for turning turning the packs packs ON again again when taking taking off with with both packs packs supplied supplied by APU? APU? a.

set APU APU bleed bleed swit switch ch OFF OFF after after setting setting clim climb b thrust thrust

b.

set APU APU blee bleed d Switch Switch OFF OFF after after slat slat retr retract action ion

c.

set APU bleed switch switch OFF OFF when when perform perform climb climb checkl checklist ist

d.

set APU bleed switch OFF at any time after airborne

Ans. a

AIR CONDITION……………………..SET When taking off with both packs off: -

For passenger’s comfort, after setting climb thrust, set one pack on.

-

After slats are retracted, set the remaining pack on.

-

Check flow bars in line and all air conditioning indicates are normal.

When taking off with both supplied by APU: -

Set APU bleed switch to off after setting climb thrust.

AOM VOL 2 3.2/2 p9

ECON flow may be selected ON if required. Approx. 68% airflow is provided. 27.

During During flight, if yaw yaw damper damper 1and pitch pitch trim 1 dropped dropped together together with speed speed limit limit flag displayed displayed on on PFD. Which system has failed? a.

Yaw damper damper and and pitch pitch trim trim comput computer er chan channel nel 1

b.

Flight Flight augme augmenta ntatio tion n compu computer ter channe channell 1

c.

Gree Green n hydr hydrau auli lic c syst system em

d. ADC 1

Ans. Ans. b

FLIGHT AUGMENTATION COMPUTERS (FAC) Two FAC’s are installed in the avionics compartment. The computer design is based on digital and analog technology. The computer consists of circuits required for yaw damping, pitch trimming, flight envelope protection and maneuvering speed computation. The yaw damper as well as pitch trim system consists of two independent computing channels: a command channel and a monitor channel. When a failure is detected by comparison of channels, the corresponding yaw damper or pitch trim lever trips to off. The FAC provides yaw command to the rudder and a trim command to the horizon stabilizer. AOM 1.3P9 28.

Which Which stat stateme ement nt is not not a funct function ion of the the yaw yaw damper damper? ? a.

Yaw ass assist ist duri during ng manua manuall takeoff takeoff and and engine engine failu failure re

b.

Yaw assist assist during automatic automatic go-around go-around and engine failure failure

c.

Turn Turn coor coordin dinate ate during during manual manual flying flying

Ans. Ans. a

d. Dutch roll damping damping during during manual manual flying flying


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

10

YAW DAMPER This system provides the following functions:

29.

-

Dutch roll damping, which is armed during the whole phases of flight. This function is activated if the IRS detects a yaw rate.

-

Turn coordination, which is armed if no autopilot is engaged in CMD. This function is activated if the EFCU detects a roll control wheel deflection, which is above a predetermined threshold.

-

Autopilot assistance in case of an engine failure. This function is activated if the IRS detects a lateral acceleration, which is above a predetermined threshold when AP is engaged in CMD with SRS or G/A MODE.

AOM 1.9/4 P1

If you fly the the aircraft aircraft with high high nose up attitude attitude and found found the pitch pitch trim moving, moving, which which part of the pitch pitch trim system is working? a.

Electric trim

b.

Auto trim

c.

Mach trim

d. Alpha trim

Ans. d

PITCH TRIM This system provides the following functions: -

Electric trim: - This basic trim function provides pitch axis stabilization and enables cancellation of the load on the control column by means of the pitch trim control switches (rocking lever) on the control wheel.

-

Automatic trim or autotrim: - This function, which is armed at AP engagement in CMD or CWS. The rocking levers are deactivated in this mode and the electrical control signals come from the FCC.

-

Mach / VC trim: - This function improves the l ongitudinal static aircraft stability as a function of mach number or VC (IAS). Mach trim is active in clean configuration.

-

Angle of attack trim (alpha trim): - The purpose of this function is to counter any Nose up tendency at high mach number when no AP is engaged and speed brakes are not extended.

-

30.

Excessive angle of attack at low speed (greater than 19o).

AOM 1.9/5 P1

If you fly the the aircraft aircraft with high high nose up attitude attitude and found found the throttle throttle moving moving to full thrust. thrust. Which Which part part of the Ans. Ans. d FAC system is engaged? a.

Spee Speed d lim limit pro prote tect ctio ion n

b.

Stal Stalll warn warnin ing g prot protec ecti tion on

c.

Alph Alpha a tri trim m pro prote tect ctio ion n

d.

Alph Alpha a floo floorr prot protec ecti tion on


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

11

FLIGHT ENVELOPE PROTECTION The following signals are generated in the FAC: -

Stick shaker speed (VSS)

-

Max selectable speed ( VMAX)

-

Lowest selectable speed (VLS)

-

Min speed for flap and slat retraction ( F and S speed)

-

Engine out operating speed in clean configuration ( green dot speed)

-

VC trend, which is the predicted speed in arrow trend and the aircraft, would reach that speed in 10 second.

-

Alpha floor protection Alpha floor function is active above 100 ft provided ATS is armed. When the FAC detects a too high angle of attack, it engages THRUST LATCH (THR L) mode (with thrust corresponding to the selected mode on the TRP) in TCC.

31.

AOM 1.3P5

When does does the the SRS command command bar allow A/C A/C nose nose up attitude attitude of as much much as 21.5O instead of the normal pitch attitude? a.

Wind Windsh shea earr prot protec ecti tion on eng engag aged ed

b.

Stal Stalll prot protec ecti tion on enga engage ged d

c.

Both Both pit pitch ch tri trim m leve levers rs dro dropp pped ed off off

d. Alpha floor protection engaged

Ans. a

Windshear guidance principle In windshear conditions and when windshear intensity becomes close to the aircraft limits. The SRS l aw will progressively adapt its control to a survival strategy: -

Control airspeed (VSEL + 10 Kt) as long as positive vertical speed is maintained.

-

Control attitude as long as speed is above stick shaker speed.

-

Control speed above stick shaker speed as long as needed.

This control law maintains the survival strategy whatever the longitudinal or vertical windshear in takeoff or go-around conditions. The maximum pitch attitude reaches as much as 21.5O instead of the normal pitch attitude. This control law is available on the flight director whether flown manually, in control wheel steering or autopilot in command. In all cases, pitch attitude is limited by a stall protection. AOM 1.3P6 32.

Regarding Regarding the the AP syste system, m, what what does the Fail Fail Operation Operational al capability capability mean?

Ans. Ans. c

a.

If the disagreem disagreement ent occurs occurs between between the two two AFS computer computers, s, the affected affected computer computer is disabled disabled before before it may affect the A/C guidance

b.

If the disagreem disagreement ent occurs occurs between between the two two AFS computer computers, s, both system system will will disengage disengage before before it may affect the A/C guidance

c.

If the activ active e system system fails, fails, the the second second system system takes over automatica automatically lly

d.

If the active active system system fails, fails, this system system is is still still engaging engaging


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

12

AFS computer redundancy The computations performed by the command and monitor channels are permanently compared. In case of disagreement between the two channels, the affected system is disabled before it may affect the aircraft guidance. A self-monitored system is referred to as being Fail Passive capability. If the active system fails, the second system takes over automatically. In operational terms, this system redundancy provides a Fail operational capability. 33.

AOM 1.3P7

What will will cause cause the LOC LOC scale scale and FD roll roll bar to flash flash on both both PFD when when in the capture capture or or tracking tracking phase? phase? a.

Both Both LLZ LLZ rece receiv iver er fail fails s

b.

One One ILS ILS rece receiv iver er fail fails s

c.

Both Both VOR/N VOR/NAV/ AV/ILS ILS swit switch ch is not in in the ILS ILS positi position on

d.

Localizer signal is NCD or invalid

Ans. d

LOC mode Engagement and operation Note 3 If one ILS receiver fails while in the arming phase, the LOC mode disarms in the affected side. If one ILS receiver fails while in the capture or tracking phase, the on- side AP/FD disengages (if previously engaged). Note 4 If localizer signal is NCD or invalid while in the capture or tracking phase, the LOC scale and FD roll bar flash on both PFD. 34.

AOM 1.3P39

When takeof takeofff with 1 engine engine inoperativ inoperative, e, which which speed speed does does SRS command? command? a.

The FCU select selected ed speed +10 +10 or the existing existing speed speed at the time time of the engine failure, failure, whiche whichever ver is higher higher

b.

The FCU selected selected speed speed or the existin existing g speed at at the time time of the engine engine failure, failure, whichev whichever er is higher higher

c.

The FCU PRESET PRESET speed speed or the existin existing g speed at at the time time of the engine engine failure, failure, whichev whichever er is higher higher

d.

Speed is maintai maintain n slightly slightly above Vss Vss or the existing existing speed speed at the time of the the engine failure, failure, whichev whichever er is higher Ans. b

In pitch axis, speed reference system (SRS) mode is engaged. The SRS mode acquires and maintains: -

With 2 engines operating: The FCU selected speed +10 kt (the selected speed is V2 at takeoff and Vapp in Go-around)

-

With 1 engines inoperative: The FCU selected speed or the existing speed at the time of the engine failure, whichever is higher

35.

What What does does it mean mean if THR THR L flash flashes es on on the FMA? FMA? a.

Go lever levers s are trig trigger gered ed while while slat slats s retrac retracted ted

b.

A/C encoun encounter ters s with with alpha alpha floor floor condit condition ion

c.

A/C leaves leaves the alpha alpha floor floor condit condition ion

AOM 1.3 p31 Ans. Ans. d

d. a. and c. are correct


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

13

Thrust latch (green THR L on FMA) mode: If one ATS lever is armed, the THR L mode automatically engages if: -

The alpha floor protection is activated, or

-

The go-levers are triggered in flight, with slats retracted.

THR L is green and steady if THR L is engaged by the alpha floor protection, and flashes when the aircraft exists the alpha floor condition. THR L is green and flashing if THR L is engaged by the in-flight activation of go-levers with slats retracted. AOM 1.3P25 36.

Condit Condition ion:: A/C on ILS ILS RW21L RW21L in LAND LAND mode mode at 600 600 ft AGL AGL If the clearance is changed to land on RW 21R instead, can we change the ILS frequency window? a.

No, below below 700 700 ft AGL AGL ILS frequenc frequency y and course course selector selector knob knob are inhibit inhibited ed

b.

Yes, ILS ILS frequenc frequency y and course course selector selector knob knob are inhibite inhibited d when below 500 ft AGL AGL

c.

Yes, ILS ILS frequenc frequency y and course course selector selector knob knob are inhibite inhibited d when below 200 ft AGL AGL

d.

No, below 1000 ft AGL ILS frequency and course selector knob are inhibited

Ans. a

Engagement and Operation Once LAND mode has been armed; both AP can be engaged iin n CMD. Note 1 With LAND mode arm and one AP engaged in CMD, the DC bus tie contractor automatically opens in order to assure an independent electrical power supplies for the AP/FD1 and 2 In case of DC bus tie contractor failure to open the landing capability does not change from CAT2 to CAT3 after the engagement of the second AP and no alert provided Note 2 Below 700 ft AGL, the ILS frequency and course selector knobs are i nhibited. Note 3 If FPV is used for the approach, FD bars automatically replace the FPV when FLARE mode engages or if a go-around is initiated. AOM 1.3 p41 If LAND is deselected by pressing the pushbutton a second time, the FD bars flash during 10 sec. 37.

Which Which state statemen mentt is true, true, regard regarding ing the the AP yaw yaw contro control? l?

Ans. Ans. c

a.

AP cont control rols s the rudd rudder er for for the whol whole e phase phase of flig flight, ht, ifif engage engaged d

b.

AP cont control rols s the rudder rudder only only when when slat slats s are retrac retracted ted

c.

AP cont control rols s the rudder rudder only only when when slat slats s are extend extended ed

d.

If the engine engine failure failure occurs occurs during during AP engaged engaged,, AP will stabili stabilize ze the A/C A/C with the the rudder rudder without without any crew action


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

14

Yaw control: In CMD, the AP controls the rudder only when the slats are extended. In straight flight, the AP commands the rudder deflection to obtain and maintain a zero aileron deflection. At slats retraction, the rudder is smoothly returned to neutral (in 10 sec, then the AP yaw actuators declutches). In case of engine failure, with SRS or GO AROUND mode engaged, the yaw damper immediately reacts to compensate the lateral asymmetry. The AP yaw actuator takes over to achieve a zero aileron deflection. If the engine failure occurs with AP engaged (the rudder trim is normally set at 0), the AP stabilizes the aircraft with rudder. At slat retraction, the crew must maintain the rudder deflection and trim the aircraft manually with the rudder trim. AOM 1.3P29 38.

When When can both both auto autopil pilots ots be be engage engaged d at the the same same time? time? a.

CWS mode

b.

Land mode

c.

Go around mode

d.

Both b and c

Ans. d

In CWS, only one AP can be engaged at a time. In CMD, two AP’s can be engaged in approach (after selection of LAND mode) and in go-around. If one AP is engaged, the engagement of the second AP disengages the first engaged AP (except in CMD after selection of LAND mode or in GO AROUND mode). 39.

AOM 1.3P28

What causes causes the the V/S mode to automat automatically ically change change to LVL/CH LVL/CH mode? a.

ATS ATS rea reach ches es full full or idle idle thru thrust st

b.

V LS LS + 5 or V MAX MAX is reached during climb or descent

c.

Preset Preset speed speed is reache reached d durin during g climb climb or desc descent ent

d.

New altitude is set during ALT* engaged

Ans. b

Mode reversion To maintain the selected v/s, the speed may: -

Decrease down to VLs+5 kt, in climb, or

-

Increase up to Vmax, in descent.

If Vls+5 (in climb) or Vmax (in descent) is reached, an automatic mode reversion from V/S to LVL/CH occurs. The mode reversion is indicated by:

40.

-

The FMA annunciation,

-

The illumination of the LVL/CH pushbutton, and

-

The V/S window which becomes ”-“

AOM 1.3P33

Will the autopilo autopilott disconnect disconnect after after you applied applied a constant constant countera counteracting cting force force on the control control column? column? a.

Yes, Yes, in LAND LAND or GO AROU AROUND ND mode mode

b.

Yes, Yes, at any any time time regard regardles less s of altit altitude ude or or autopi autopilot lot mode mode

c.

Yes, at any time but only only by by applying applying the push push or pull force force on on the contro controll column column

d.

No, the autopil autopilot ot can only only be disconne disconnected cted by the the engage/dis engage/disengage engage switc switches hes or instinc instinctive tive discon disconnect nect switches on the control wheels Ans. Ans. c Flight Deck Crew Training Department

Last Update on 09 March 2011 By Capt. Somsak P.

Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

15

Supervisory control wheel operation: operation: The supervisory control wheel operation enables the crew to manually assist the autopilot in capturing a LOC or GS beam or in capturing or tracking a VOR radial. The supervisory control wheel operation combines the orders and characteristics of the CWS and CMD modes. By smooth inputs on the control column and control wheel, the crew can temporarily adjust the flight path of the aircraft. AP actuator override: override: The AP roll or yaw actuator is overridden if a force is greater than the given value is applied on the control wheel or the rudder pedals. Overriding the AP pitch actuator is not possible. Any attempt to override the AP in pitch results in the automatic disengagement of the AP. AP automatic disengagement: disengagement: The AP automatically disengages if a force greater than the given value is applied in pitch on the control column. The AP also automatically disengages if the pitch trim motion is stopped by holding the pitch trim wheel. 41.

AOM 1.3P30

What What can can caus cause e the the FD FD bars bars to flas flash? h? a.

A fail failur ure e of the the res respe pect ctiv ive e FD syst system em

b.

ALT* ALT* condi conditio tion n is lost lost during during a new altitu altitude de setti setting ng

c.

The The resp respec ecti tive ve com comma mand nd is is inva invali lid d

d.

The comman command d is not compat compatibl ible e with with the autopi autopilot lot mode mode

Ans. b

FD ROLL & PITCH COMMAND BARS Blanked when: -

The respective command is invalid.

-

The command is not compatible with the engaged autopilot.

Flash when: -

Return to basic mode.

-

LAND mode disengages.

42.

ALT* condition is lost during a new altitude setting. setting.

AOM 1.3P18

What is the the maxim maximum um intercept intercept angle angle for for capturi capturing ng localiz localizer? er? a.

115

b.

120

c.

125

d.

130

Ans. a

Note 2 The maximum intercept angle for capturing a localizer is115°. AOM 1.3P39 43.

When will RETARD RETARD mode disengage disengage and and thrott throttles les declutch? declutch? a.

V/S mode is selec electe ted d

b.

Throttles retard to idle (5 O ) in profile mode

c.

Throttles retard to idle (5 O ) in LVL/CH mode

d.

FLAR FLARE E mode mode enga engage ged d duri during ng auto auto land land

Ans Ans. c


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

16

RETARD mode engagement -

In LVL/CH mode

-

During landing when aircraft descent through 30 ft radio height

-

In PROFILE mode (P DES) when throttles are fully retracted

RETARD mode disengagement In LVL/CH mode -

At each time A/THR function disengages.

-

When throttle levers retard to idle (5O) position in any AP/FD mode except PROFILE.

-

When throttle levers are stopped manually during throttle reduction to obtain the desire thrust.

AOM 2.3/2P6

Note: In PROFILE descent, RETARD green remains displayed as long as idle thrust is required. When RETARD is engaged with LVL/CH or PROFILE, the throttles can be manually stopped at any intermediate position. When the throttle levers reach idl e, or if levers are manually stopped while retarding, RETARD mode disengages and the ATS declutches (A/THR blue on the FMA). 44.

AOM 1.3P24

What is the speed limit for using the autopilot to capture the LOC and GS? GS? a.

210 and 200 kt

b.

200 and 210 kt

c.

200 kt

d.

210 kt

Ans. a

AOM 2.3/3P1 45.

If your your rate of descent descent is is 1500 ft/min, ft/min, when when will you expect expect the the ALT* engage? engage? a.

At 100 100 ft befo before re sele select cted ed alti altitu tude de

b.


c.


d.

At 700 ft before selected altitude

Ans. c

ALTITUDE ACQUIRE ALT ACQ mode is armed automatically when the AP/FD is engaged in V/S, LVL/CH, TAKEOFF (SRS), or GO-AROUND mode. ALT (blue) ¡ ALT* when ALTITUDE selected – ALTITUDE aircraft = vertical speed / 3

AOM 2.3 P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

46.

17

When When will will the the V/S mode mode autom automati atical cally ly enga engage? ge? a.

When a new altitude altitude is selected selected on on the FCU during altitude altitude captur capture e phase phase

b.

When When pulli pulling ng SPD SPD knob knob during during P CLB CLB or P DES DES mode mode

c.

When pushing pushing LVL/CH LVL/CH button twice twice during during A/C A/C desce descending nding in LVL/CH LVL/CH mode

d.

When When pushin pushing g HDG HDG SEL or NAV NAV button button during during G/A

Ans. a

V/S mode engage automatically:

47.

-

On the ground, at the AFS power up,

-

When on FD is selected ON while no AP is engaged or no FD is displayed,

-

If an AP is engage in CMD while its associated FD is not displayed or not operative,

-

If any engaged vertical mode (ALT HLD, LVL/CH, PROFILE) is disengaged by pressing its associated pushbutton a second time.

-

If the target altitude is changed during altitude capture (ALT* green) and the new target altitude is beyond the capture range.

-

If LAND mode is deselected, between GS* and LAND green on FMA, or

-

When the AP/FD re-engages following an AP/FD temporary disengagement (both FD bars flash for 10 seconds). AOM 1.3 p32

After go-aro go-around und with with both AP engaged engaged,, which which statement statement is true true about AP AP 2 disengagem disengagement? ent? a.

Diseng Disengage age by by manua manually lly enga engage ge other other pitc pitch h mode mode

b.

Diseng Disengage age by by manua manually lly enga engage ge othe otherr roll roll mode mode

c.

Disengage Disengage automatica automatically lly when the aircraft aircraft capture capture the go-around go-around altitude altitude

d.

All of above

Ans. d

Mode Transitions An automatic mode transition occurs when the aircraft reaches the go-around altitude, altitude capture (ALT*) and HDG mode engage. When go-around mode disengages, AP2 disengages if both AP were engaged. A manual mode transition occurs if another pitch mode is engaged (V/S. ALT, LVL/CH, ALT* or PROFILE when in NAV). The SRS mode is annunciated on the FMA. A manual mode transition occurs if another roll mode is engaged (HDG SEL, NAV). The SRS mode is annunciated on the FMA. Note The V/L and LAND modes must not be used to manually disengage the go-around mode. 48.

AOM 1.3 p45

What action action you must must perform perform if you you wish the aircraft aircraft to descen descentt automatical automatically ly with PROFILE PROFILE mode mode at T/D point? a.

Set the altitu altitude de select selector or to new altitu altitude de

b.

Set the the altitu altitude de selec selector tor to to new altit altitude ude and and pull befo before re T/D T/D point point

c.

Set the the altitude altitude select selector or to new altitud altitude e and push push the the IMM IMM DES DES prompt prompt at at CDU RLSK

d.

Set the altitude altitude selector selector to new new altitude altitude and push push the knob at T/D T/D point point

Ans. Ans. b


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

18

Descent is required at T/D point in PROFILE mode

49.

-

Set altitude selector to the new altitude and pull

-

P DES is armed. AP/FD holds the CRZ altitude until T/D is reached. At 30 sec before T/D, P DES will flash to indicate that the descent will be initiated without further action.

-

IMM DES prompt appears on the FMS CDU F-PLN page.

-

Throttles start to retard and A/C starts to descend on the computed path and level off when new altitude is reached.

-

Vertical deviation scale appears on ND/MAP and the VDEV value is displayed on the FMS PROG page in line 1R. The VDEV indicates the vertical distance between A/C position and the computed descent path. AOM 1.3 P46

When will the yaw yaw bar bar disappear disappear if you you take take off from an ILS R/W? a.

At 30 30 ft ft rad radio io heig height ht

b.

At 100 100 ft radio adio heig height ht

c.

Afte Afterr sel selec ecti ting ng gear gears s up

d.

Afte Afterr retr retrac acti ting ng slat slats s

Ans Ans. a

RWY mode (runway) RWY mode is available if the departure runway ILS/LOC frequency and course are selected and signals are valid. The RWY mode engages if the aircraft heading is less than 10O away from the selected ILS/LOC course when the go-levers are triggered. In RWY mode, a yaw bar replaces the FD roll bar allowing A/C to be maintained on the localizer beam. At 30 ft, RWY mode automatically disengages and HDG/S or NAV mode engages if previously armed. Otherwise, HDG mode engages. FD roll bar displays in view instead of yaw bar. The RWY mode also disengages if the A/C heading departs by more than 40O from the selected ILS/LOC course. HDG/S and HDG mode If ILS/LOC frequency and course have not been selected, the HDG/S mode engages if previously selected. Otherwise, HDG mode engages. If HDG mode is engaged for takeoff, the FD roll bar remains center while on ground. After lift-off, the FD roll bar provides guidance to maintain existing A/C heading. AOM 1.3 P32 50.

If engin engine e trim is is inoper inoperati ative, ve, do do not use use ATS for for takeof takeoff. f. a.

true

b.

false

Ans. a

2.1. TAKEOFF ROLL Taxi into takeoff position at the end of the runway or at an approved takeoff point. Align the aircraft on or close to the runway center line. Caution The use of autothrottle is prohibited during takeoff if ENG TRIM/EPR MODE is inoperative

AOM Vol. 2 3.3/2 P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

51.

19

With regard regards s to AUTOLA AUTOLAND ND warning warning light, light, which which statem statement ent is not correct correct? ? a.

Flashes Flashes below below 200 ft, if exces excessive sive LOC LOC or GS beam beam deviation deviation warning warning is activa activated ted

b.

Radio altime altimeter ter 1&2 1&2 reading reading differ differ by more than than 10 ft during during 1 sec sec (in LAND LAND track track phase) phase)

c.

Flare Flare durat duration ion (sta (starti rting ng at 50 50 ft) is is greate greaterr than than 13.5 13.5 sec. sec.

d.

Manu Manual al disc discon onne nect ct of auto autopi pilo lott

Ans Ans. d

LAND mode engages at 400 ft AGL or below provided GS and LOC modes are engaged in tracking phase. The guidance in LAND green mode is similar to GS green and LOC green. Once engaged, LAND mode cannot be disengaged except by engaging the GO AROUND mode. LAND mode engagement is indicated on the FMA only (LAND green). FLARE mode typically engages at 50 ft RA. Engagement is adjusted as a function of the aircraft vertical seed. Engagement is indicated on the FMA (FLARE green). In manual landing, at 30 ft RA, the FD roll bar is replaced by the yaw bar. Rollout mode engages at main landing gear touchdown and is annunciated on the FMA. When roll-out mode engages, the A/THR disengages (MAN THR on FMA) 52.

53.

AOM 1.3P42

With regards regards to the AUTOLA AUTOLAND ND function function (both (both AP engaged engaged), ), which which statement statement is is not true? true? a.

At 400 ft., ft., land track track phase phase engages engages provide provided d LOC and and GS track track have have been engaged engaged for more than than 10 sec.

b.

At 50 ft., ft., flar flare e mod mode e eng engag ages es

c.

At 30 ft., ft., yaw yaw bar bar come comes s in in vie view w

d.

At touch down, retard retard mode and A/THR A/THR function function disengage, disengage, ROLLOUT ROLLOUT phase engages engages

Ans. c

-

Engage second AP when stabilized on the GS beam, GS track phase engages automatically.

-

At 400 ft, land track phase engages provided LOC and GS track have been engaged in tracking phase.

-

At 50 ft, flare mode engages.

-

At 30 ft, align maneuver starts (the yaw bar comes in view if no AP is in CMD), ATS also retards the throttle levers to idle (5o).

-

At touch down, retard mode and A/THR function disengage ROLLOUT phase engages.

AOM 1.3P41-42

What does does it mean, mean, if you you see the the LOC deviation deviation index index and scale scale flashing flashing on the PFD? PFD? a.

LOC LOC dev devia iate te mor more e than than 0.3 0.3 dot dot

b.

LOC LOC devi deviat ate e more more tha than n half half ful fulll scal scale e

c.

LOC LOC dev devia iate te more ore tha than n 1 dot dot

d.

LOC failure

Ans. a

LOC DEVIATION WARNING DISPLAY Index and scale FLASH. Indicates excessive LOC beam deviation (> 1/3 dot) if LAND mode selected and LOC track engaged with CAT 2 or CAT 3 landing capability indicated on FMA. Inhibited below 15-ft radio height.

AOM 1.3P18 Flight Deck Crew Training Department


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

54.

20

What is the the limitat limitation ion of of APU APU starter starter motor duty cycle? cycle? a.

After 3-duty 3-duty cycles cycles of 70 second seconds s each, separate separated d by one minute minute cool-down, cool-down, 60 min. min. must must be allowed allowed for cool-down.

b.

After 3-duty 3-duty cycles cycles of 30 second seconds s each, separate separated d by one minute minute cool-down, cool-down, 60 min. min. must must be allowed allowed for cool-down.

c.

After 3-duty 3-duty cycles cycles of 70 second seconds s each, separate separated d by one minute minute cool-down, cool-down, 120 120 min. must must be allowed allowed for cool-down.

d.

After 3-duty 3-duty cycles cycles of 30 second seconds s each, separate separated d by one minute minute cool-down, cool-down, 120 120 min. must must be allowed allowed for cool-down. Ans. a

1.7 STARTER MOTOR DUTY CYCLE

After 3-duty cycles of 70 seconds each, separated by one minute cool-down, 60 min must be allowed for cool-down. 55.

AOM 2.4 p2

How does the APU APU control control the consta constant nt speed speed of its its turbine turbine? ? a.

By varyin varying g air air flow flow throug through h the the comp compres ressor sor

b.

By vary varying ing pneum pneumati atic c load by by modula modulatin ting g Inlet Inlet Guide Guide Vanes Vanes..

c.

By varyin varying g fuel flow flow by Fuel Contro Controll Unit (FCU) (FCU) and the Electr Electric ic Control Control Box Box (ECB) (ECB)

d.

By varyin varying g speed speed of the access accessory ory gear gear box

Ans. Ans. c

The APU engine is composed of three main components:

56.

-

The power section has a two-stage centrifugal compressor driven by a three-stage axial turbine governed to a constant speed by variation of fuel flow which is controlled by the fuel control unit (FCU) and the electric control box (ECB).

-

The load compressor has a single-stage centrifugal compressor directly driven by the power section and delivers bleed air to the aircraft pneumatic system, controlled by modulating Inlet Guide Vanes (IGV).

-

The accessory gearbox is directly driven by the power section and carries the fuel control unit, lubrication pump, AC generator, cooling air fan and starter motor.

AOM 1.4P1

What What is the functi function on of of APU APU surg surge e valve valve? ? a.

To open open or or close close APU air blee bleed d to the the pneum pneumati atic c syste system m

b.

To ensure ensure sufficien sufficientt air bleed bleed from the the APU to the the pneumatic pneumatic syste system m and maintain maintain an an adequate adequate surge margin

c.

To cont contro roll the the APU APU exha exhaus ustt gas gas

d.

To control that APU RPM increases during engine start and anti-ice operation

Ans. b

APU BLEED AIR SYSTEM The bleed air, delivered by the APU load compressor, is ducted to the aircraft pneumatic system via the APU bleed valve which can be controlled by the APU bleed switch on the overhead panel if the APU is running more 95% RPM. A surge valve, installed between the compressor and the APU load control valve, ensures that sufficient air is diverted from the load compressor to maintain an adequate surge margin. When no bleed air is required (APU bleed valve closed), the air is route via the surge valve to the APU exhaust. If bleed air is required, the surge valve is closed or modulates depending on the bleed demand. For extension bleed air demand during engine start and anti-ice operation, the APU RPM is increase.

AOM 1.4P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

57.

21

When can you you read read the after landing landing checklis checklistt “APU……. “APU……..STAR .STARTED” TED”? ? a.

The ON white white ligh lightt on on the the START START p/b comes comes on

b.

The The blu blue e ACC ACCEL EL light light come comes s on

c.

The The blu blue e AVA AVAIL IL ligh lightt com comes es on

d.

The blue blue ACCEL ACCEL light light goes goes off and the blue blue AVAIL AVAIL light light comes comes on

Ans. d

The APU is started by a DC starter motor, which is fed by DC ESS bus. The APU can be started after the fuel pump LOW PR light has gone out. Selecting the master switch to ON arms the starting circuit. When the START p/b is pushed, the automatic start sequence being as follows:

58.

-

The white ON light in the START p/b comes on.

-

The blue ACCEL light comes on after air intake flap has fully opened and the starter is engaged.

-

At 7% RPM, the ignition is initiated and fuel is supplied.

-

At 50% RPM, the starter disengages and the white ON light in the START p/b goes off.

-

At 95% RPM, the ignition is terminated, the blue ACCEL light goes off and the blue AVAIL light comes on. AOM 1.4P2

What What will will cause cause the the APU RPM to incre increase ase to to 102.5% 102.5%? ? a.

START TART p/b p/b sel selec ecte ted d on on

b.

APU APU blee bleed d swi switc tch h sele select cted ed on

c. APU bleed switch selected on and OAT > 35 O C d.

Wing Wing anti anti-ic -ice e supp supply ly p/b p/b sele select cted ed on

Ans Ans. d

The electronic control box (ECB) is primarily a full authority digital el electronic ectronic APU controller that performs the bulk of the APU system logic for all modes of engine operation including self-testing, shutdown protection and continuous monitoring of essential APU parameters as follows: -

Sequence of starting and shutdown

-

Monitoring of starting, RPM, EGT and bleed air

-

Automatic shutdown

Speed is monitoring according to bleed air demand.

59.



APU BLEED SW OFF

= 100 %RPM



START P/B selected on

= 101.4 %RPM



APU BLEED SW ON (OAT< 32o) = 100 %RPM



APU BLEED SW ON (OAT> 35o) = 101.4 %RPM



Wing anti-ice supply selected ON = 102.5 %RPM

AOM 1.4P3

Which Which statemen statementt is not true true when when an APU APU fire fire is detected detected on on ground? ground? a.

Fire Fire exting extinguis uisher her bottl bottle e is disc dischar harged ged imm immedi ediate ately ly

b.

The The cock cockpi pitt APU APU fire fire handl handle e illum illumin inat ated ed

c.

The APU APU fire fire shut shutoff off valv valve e and the the isola isolatio tion n valve valve clos closed ed

d.

Red light light on the nose nose gear gear illumina illuminated ted and and the horn is is activat activated ed simultane simultaneously ously

Ans. Ans. a


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

22

To permit APU ground operation without constant supervision, the normal automatic shutdown system is complemented by an automatic fire extinguishing system. If an APU fire is detected by the fire detection circuits, the cockpit APU fire warning a red light on the nose gear bay and the horn are activated simultaneously. At the same time an automatic APU shutdown is initiated. The fuel fire shutoff valve and the isolation valve close. After a ten second delay, the fire extinguisher bottle is discharged. 60.

AOM 1.4P3

When selecte selected d the APU MASTER MASTER SW to to OFF, after after a time delay, delay, you will will notice the the EGT rises rises above above 585O C momentarily before APU shutdown. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a

APU EGT INDICATION (on ECAM APU page) Normally green, but flashes if EGT exceeds 540 O C and turns amber if EGT exceeds 585 O C. An overlimit is displayed during APU shutdown when the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, independent of the real EGT value. AOM 1.4P12 61.

What is is the altitud altitude e limit limit for APU APU start start during during flight flight with with engine engine generator generator? ? a.

15000 ft

b.

20000 ft

c.

25000 ft

d.

40000 ft Ans. Ans. d

AOM 2.4P1 62.

What is the altitude altitude limit limit for APU APU to supply supply one pack pack with with the wing wing anti-ice anti-ice and to to supply supply both packs? packs? a.

15000 ft ft / 20000 ft ft

b.

20000 ft ft / 25000 ft ft

c.

1500 15000 0 ft ft in in bot both h cas cases es

d.

20000 ft in both cases

Ans. a


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

23

AOM 2.4P1 63.

What What the minim minimum um oil oil quant quantity ity for for APU APU operat operation ion? ? a.

1/4

b.

1/3

c.

1/2

d.

3/4

Ans. a

AOM 2.4P1 64.

How do you you set the air conditio condition n system system before before takeoff takeoff if you desired desired to use APU APU bleed to supply supply pack pack together with wing anti-ice? a.

APU bleed ON

b.

APU APU blee bleed d and and wing wing anti anti-i -ice ce ON

c.

APU bleed bleed and and wing wing anti-i anti-ice ce ON, one pack pack OFF OFF

d.

APU bleed bleed and wing wing anti-i anti-ice ce ON, both both pack pack OFF

Ans. c

APU is capable of supplying electrical power simultaneously with both packs or one pack + wing anti-ice AOM 2.4P1 AIR CONDITIONING…………………..SET If FLX TO temp is 40O C or less, select both packs off. APU may be used to supply the packs. If APU bleed AOM VOL 2 is used and wing anti-ice is required, one pack must be selected off. 3.2/2 p9 65.

Which Which statement statement is correct correct in regards regards to the the PARKING PARKING checkli checklist st “BATTERI “BATTERIES….S ES….SET”? ET”? a.

Set Set batt batter ery y swi switc tche hes s to to OFF OFF

b.

Leav Leaves es batt batter ery y swi switc tche hes s to to ON ON

c.

Set batt battery ery swit switche ches s to OFF OFF only only if the the fligh flightt is termi terminat nated ed

d.

Set battery battery switches switches to OFF if the flight is terminated terminated and the APU is shutdown shutdown

Ans. d

PARKING CHECKLIST 18. BATTERIES………SET BATTERIES………SET

AOM VOL 2

Set battery switches to OFF provided APU is shutdown.

3.2/2 p13


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

66.

24

Which Which statem statement ent is not true regarding regarding HF communica communication? tion? a.

Both Both receiv receivers ers are able able to to operat operate e simult simultane aneous ously ly

b.

Both Both HF sys system tems s are able able to to transm transmit it simul simultan taneou eously sly

c.

There There is is only only one antenn antenna a for for both both HF HF sys system tems s

d.

HF can be operated operated in amplitude amplitude modulation modulation (AM) and single single side band (SSB) (SSB)

Ans. b

Two HF systems allow a two-way long-range communication. The use of duplicated coupler in the tuning system permits simultaneous operation of both receivers, although only one transmitter can be operated at a time and both receivers will be muted. The two HF transceivers are located in the avionics compartment. Two antenna couplers and one antenna are all located in the leading edge of the vertical stabilizer. AOM 1.5/1P1 67.

Do not tune tune or transmit transmit on an HF system system during during fueling fueling since fire fire and/or person personnel nel injury injury may result. result. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a

AOM 2.5P1 68.

For an aircraft aircraft equipped equipped with with the operational operational ACARS ACARS system system,, VHF COM 3 cannot be used used for voice voice communication. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a

AOM 2.5P1 69.

What What does does the ACAR ACARS S mess message age “NO “NO COMM COMM”” mean? mean? a.

VHF COM 3 fa failure

b.

ACARS failure

c.

ACARS ACARS is unable unable to send send the downli downlink nk mass massage age

d.

Ground station does not acknowledge the downlink message

Ans. d

DOWNLINK Downlinks require the ground acknowledgement, which is generated by the ground station upon receipt of an error-free downlink. The MU retransmits the message if it does not receive the acknowledgement within 15-25 sec. If the MU does not receive any response after 5 retransmission (6 downlinks total), the MU will enter “NO COMM” condition and provides an alert to the flight crew. The message may be saved for transmission at a later time. The MU will not attempt to transmit further downlinks, except for link test, until it exists the “NO COMM” condition. On receipt of the acknowledgement, the MU clears the message from its memory.

AOM 1.5/8P3


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

70.

25

On the ACARS ACARS main main menu, menu, what is is the purpos purpose e of the SITUATIO SITUATION N prompt? prompt? a.

To reque request st for for the groun ground d assist assistanc ance e due to A/C A/C malfu malfunct nction ion

b.

To be used used when when A/C A/C is is hihi-jac jacke ked d

c.

To be use used d whe when n A/C A/C has has an an emer emerge genc ncy y

d.

To commun communica icate te with with the dispat dispatch ch office office

Ans. b

ACARS SITUATION REPORT page The situation report downlink message is formatted and encoded as hi-jack message. Thus, this report can be sent if only the aircraft is hi-jacked. The downlink message may cause an alarm to the network controller and the airline dispatch. AOM 1.5/8P23 71.

On the OOOI (out-off-o (out-off-on-in) n-in) STATU STATUS, S, when when does the OUT OUT event event occur? occur? a.

A/C movement

b.

A/C sta starts rts to to tax taxin ing g

c.

Firs Firstt engi engine ne is star starte ted d

d.

A/C A/C beco become mes s airb airbor orne ne

Ans Ans. a

ACARS OOOI STATUS OUT: Time displayed when the A/C has left the terminal but not yet airborne. (i.e. first aircraft movement and all doors closed) OFF: Time displayed when the A/C becomes airborne. (i.e. strut switch = air) ON: Time displayed when the A/C has landed. (i.e. strut switch = ground) IN: Time displayed when the A/C is at the terminal. (i.e. at least one door opened) 72. 72.

AOM 1.5/8P24

What What is the the pur purpo pose se of ICS ICSD? D? a.

Contro Controls ls the the AC gener generato atorr to produ produce ce the the consta constant nt volta voltage ge

b.

Converts Converts the variabl variable e engine engine RPM RPM to produce produce output at a constant constant speed

c.

Converts Converts the variabl variable e engine engine RPM RPM to produce produce output output at at a consta constant nt AC voltage voltage

d.

To connect connect or discon disconnect nect the the correspon corresponding ding generator generator from from the the electrical electrical system system by means means of IDG disconnect P/B

Ans. Ans. b

INTEGRATED CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE (IDG) The ICSD converts the variable engine accessory gearbox speed (about 4500 to 9075 RPM) to provide a constant AC generator rotation speed (12000 RPM). Generator frequency is, therefore, maintained at 400± 4 HZ. A disconnect mechanism permits disconnection of the ICSD from the engine at any time. Reengagement is possible on ground only when the engine is stopped. Oil temperature in the ICSD is monitored through ECAM. AOM 1.6P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

73.

26

Which Which stat stateme ement nt is true true regard regarding ing the the ICSD? ICSD? a.

To discon disconnect nect the the ICSD, ICSD, push push the the IDG IDG disconne disconnect ct P/B P/B for more than 3 sec

a.

ICSD ICSD is separa separate te from from engine engine driven driven genera generator tor

b.

ICSD ICSD is not not a part part of APU APU gen gener erat ator or

c.

ICSD temperature indicates amber on ECAM when temperature > 100 O C

Ans. Ans. c

APU drives an identical generator kept at constant speed by the APU speed control system AOM 1.6P1 74.

What does not happen happen autom automatica atically lly as a conseque consequence nce of of GEN fault? a.

The transf transfer er cont contrac ractor tor 1 and/o and/orr 2 are closed closed

b.

The fault fault gener generato ator’s r’s line line contr contract actor or is is opene opened d

c.

ECAM ac activated

d.

GCU reset the faulty generator and returns the generator to normal operation

Ans. d

GEN P/B The P/B switch controls: -

The operation of the generator field and the generator line contractor closure.

-

The rearming of the protection system after failure.

FAULT (amber): The fault light comes on in the event of: -

A protection trip initiated by the associated generator control unit (GCU). The line contractor automatically opens.

-

An opening of a line contractor except after one of the following manual actions: 

GEN P/B switch selected OFFR.



Both OVRD SUPPLY 1 and 2 P/B switches selected ON.

Illumination of the FAULT light is accompanies by ECAM activation. The failed generator field is deenergized and the corresponding line contractor is opened. The transfer contractor 1 and/or 2 are closed and the affected AC BUS is automatically supplied by the APU generator if operating or the remaining generator. AOM 1.6P8 75.

Condit Condition ion:: Engin Engine e No. 2 and APU are runnin running. g. Which generator supplies AC BUS 1? a.

GEN 1

b.

GEN 2

c.

APU GEN

d.

GEN GEN 2 or APU GEN whiche whichever ver comes comes first first on the transf transfer er line line

Ans. c

When both APU generator and external power are available, the external power has priority. The main generators have priority over the APU generator or external power for the associated bus, but have less priority on the opposite bus.

AOM 1.6P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

76.

27

Condition: Condition: Extern External al power power is connecte connected d to the aircraft aircraft and and the AVAIL AVAIL light light illuminates illuminates.. How can you turn on the cabin lighting without operating any aircraft avionics system? a.

Press Press the the exter external nal powe powerr P/B P/B on the the over overhea head d panel panel to ON

b.

Press Press the externa externall power power P/B on on the overhe overhead ad panel panel to ON, ON, switch switch off off AC BUS BUS 1 and 2

c.

Turn Turn on the the main mainte tena nanc nce e bus bus swit switch ch

d.

It is not possible possible to operate operate the cabin lighting lighting separately separately from the A/C system system

Ans. c

When external power is connected to the aircraft (AVAIL light on) but not supplying the aircraft (ON light off), the service buses can be supplied by selecting the MAINT BUS switch located on the forward cabin circuit breaker panel to ON. The switch is magnetically latched if the external power electrical parameters are normal (as long as the AVAIL light is on in the EXT PWR P/B). -

AC GROUND / FLIGHT BUS and AC GROUND BUS are directly supplied.

-

DC GROUND / FLIGHT BUS and DC GROUND BUS are supplied through TR 2.

AOM 1.6P2

Lighting, cargo doors operation, cargo loading, and refueling are operative. 77.

AOM 1.6P11

In flight flight and one generat generator or fails, fails, which which the AC BUS BUS supplies supplies the the main and and secondary secondary galley? galley? a.

Main galley galley is supplied supplied by AC BUS BUS 1 and 2, 2, secondar secondary y galley galley is supplie supplied d by AC BUS 1

b.

Main galley is supplied supplied by AC AC BUS BUS 1, secondary secondary is is supplied supplied by AC BUS 2

c.

Main galley is supplied supplied by AC AC BUS BUS 1 and and 2, second secondary ary is is automat automatically ically shed

d.

Main galley is automatically shed, secondary galley is supplied by AC BUS 1

Ans. d

GALLEY P/B If the external power is not available: -

When two generators are operating, the main galley is supplied by the AC BUS 1 and 2; the secondary galley is supplied by the AC BUS 1 only

-

When both transfer contractor 1 and 2 close, which occurs if only one generator supplies the whole electrical network, the main galley is automatically shed and only the secondary galley i s supplied by the AC BUS 1.

If an overload is detected after the automatic shedding of the main galley: -

In flight, the secondary galley electrical supply remains on.

-

On ground, the secondary galley is no longer electrically supplied.

If the external power is available and coupled: -

78.

Both transfer contractor 1 and 2 are closed but the main galley and secondary galley are electrically supplied.

What should should you you do if the GEN GEN HI light light (amber) (amber) on the the GALLEY GALLEY P/B illumi illuminates nates during during the the flight? flight?

AOM 1.6P8 Ans. Ans. a

a.

Manual Manually ly shed shed the gall galley ey by mome momenta ntaril rily y pushin pushing g the GALLE GALLEY Y P/B

b.

Manually Manually shed shed the galley galley by moment momentarily arily pushin pushing g the GALLEY GALLEY P/B, P/B, but the second secondary ary galley galley will will never never shed, only the main galley does

c.

Nothin Nothing g to do beca because use both both galle galley y will will autom automati atical cally ly shed shed

d.

Inform Inform the cabi cabin n crew crew to shut shut down down the gall galley ey equi equipme pment nt


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

28

GALLEY P/B SHED: The light comes on when the main galley and the secondary galley are no longer supplied. The shedding may be performed: -

Manually by action on the galley P/B.

-

Automatically on ground any time the load of any generator is above the white arc on the AC load indicator.

GEN HI (amber): The light comes on when the load of any generator is above the white arc on the AC load indicator. This may occur when only one generator is supplying the entire electrical load of the aircraft and the automatic shedding of the main galley has failed. 79.

80.

AOM 1.6P8

In flight, flight, if AC BUS BUS 1 off light light comes comes on along along with with AC ESS OFF light, light, what what action action should should you do to recov recover er AC ESS BUS? a.

Switch Switch off all equi equipme pment nt that that are are affect affected ed by AC BUS BUS 1

b.

If GEN GEN 1 is avai availab lable, le, sele select ct the the OVRD OVRD SUPPL SUPPLY Y 1 P/B to ON

c.

Switch Switch off GEN 1, so that the the GEN GEN 2 will take take over over and recover recover the AC AC BUS BUS 1

d.

Nothing, because it would be only sub bus of AC BUS 1 failure

Ans. b

-

AC BUS 1 normally supplied by GEN 1

-

AC BUS 2 normally supplied by GEN 2

-

AC ESS BUS normally supplied by AC BUS 1 through the essential transfer contractor 1 and can be connected upstream of the line contractor to the engine driven generator 1 or 2, via essential transfer contractors using AC ESS BUS OVRD SUPPLY P/B switches in case of BUS 1 or 2 failure.

AOM 1.6P4

Which Which is correc correctt proced procedure ure for for discon disconnec nectt IDG(TAK-Z) IDG (TAK-Z)? ? a.

Push Push to to disc discon onne nect ct IDG IDG for for 3 sec sec..

b.

Push Push to disc disconn onnect ect IDG not more more than than 3 sec. sec.

c.

Push Push to discon disconnec nectt IDG IDG for for more more than than 3 sec sec

d.

Release disconnect push button as soon as the GEN FAULT light illuminates

Ans. d

IDG……………………..DISCONNECT -

The PUSH TO DISC IDG push button switch must be released as soon as the GEN FAULT light illuminates.

NOTE -

81.

If the DISC position is maintained for more than 3 seconds, damage to the disconnect solenoid may occur.

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 6.21

Which Which stateme statement nt is true regarding regarding the the OVRD OVRD SUPPLY SUPPLY P/B? P/B? a.

Connects Connects AC AC ESS BUS to to the respec respective tive GEN GEN when when one of the two two P/B’s P/B’s is press pressed ed

b.

When OVRD OVRD SUPPLY SUPPLY P/B P/B is pressed pressed,, AC ESS ESS BUS and and AC BUS BUS 2 are supplied supplied directl directly y by GEN GEN 2

c.

When both OVRD OVRD SUPPLY SUPPLY P/B’s P/B’s are are presse pressed, d, AC ESS BUS is supplied supplied by GEN GEN 2

d.

When both both OVRD OVRD SUPPLY SUPPLY P/B’s P/B’s are presse pressed, d, AC ESS ESS BUS is is supplied supplied by GEN GEN 1 in case case of GEN GEN 2 failure

Ans. a Ans.


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

29

OVRD SUPPLY P/B These P/B switches have two functions When one of the two P/B’s is pressed:

-





-

The ON light illuminates white and the flow bar is visible to indicate connection between the AC ESS BUS and respective GEN. This configuration is used when automatic supply of AC ESS BUS is inoperative.

When both P/B’s are pressed in simultaneously: 

Both ON lights come on white



The AC ESS BUS is directly supplied by GEN 1 and both line contractors 1 and 2 are open.



Switching over to GEN 2 is automatic if the supply from GEN 1 becomes inoperative. AOM 1.6P9

82.

Since Since there is no warning warning light light on the overhea overhead d panel that that indicates indicates the the lost of AC AC EMER EMER BUS, BUS, how do you you confirm that AC EMER BUS is lost? (for TAC-TAZ) a.

By righ rightt ECA ECAM M ind indic icat atio ion n

b.

By the master master cautio caution n ligh lightt illum illumina inating ting

c.

By the the illuminat illumination ion of CAB PRESS PRESS REG REG 1 FAULT FAULT together together with with SLAT SLAT SYS 2 FAULT FAULT

d.

By the lost of LP PFD

-

The ELEC/AC page on right ECAM CRT will not appear atomically.

-

The AC EMER BUS failure can be identified by the illumination of CAB PRESS REG 1 FAULT light and SLAT SYS 2 FAULT light

-

If these two lights are not illuminating together, check if AC BUS 2 OFF light is illuminated (which indicates failure of AC BUS 2). If AC BUS 2 OFF light is not illuminated, the warning comes from the failure of one FWC.

-

83.

Ans. c

The AC EMER BUS OFF warning may be caused by a failure in a sub- BUS.

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 6.10

What conditions conditions cause cause the STBY GEN to start start automa automaticall tically? y? (600R) (600R) a.

DC NORM NORM BUS BUS OFF OFF and and DC ESS ESS ON ON BAT BAT..

b.

DC NORM NORM BUS BUS OFF, OFF, DC ESS ESS ON ON BAT, BAT, and and GREEN GREEN HYD HYD is availa available ble

c.

DC NORM NORM BUS BUS OFF, OFF, DC ESS ON ON BAT, BAT, the line line contract contractor or 2 open, open, and GREEN GREEN HYD is is available available

d.

DC NORM NORM BUS BUS OFF, DC DC ESS ON ON BAT, the the line contrac contractor tor 2 open, open, GREEN GREEN HYD is available available,, and aircraft in flight

Ans. Ans. d

STANDBY GENERATOR AC/DC standby generator is achieved by a generator, driven at a constant speed by a hydraulic motor powered by green system. The standby generator will operate automatically only in flight when DC ESS BUS is on BAT, DC NORM BUS is OFF and line contractor 2 is opened provide the green hydraulic is available. 84.

AOM 1.6P7

What part part of AC BUS would would the standby standby generator generator supply supply to, if the the standby standby generator generator were running? running? (600R) (600R) Ans. Ans. c a.

AC ESS BUS

b.

AC ESS BUS 1

c.

AC ESS BUS 2

d.

AC EMER BUS Flight Deck Crew Training Department


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

30

For aircraft with standby generator, the AC ESS BUS is divided into two parts: the AC ESS BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS 2. The AC ESS BUS 1 is supplied normally by AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS 2 by AC ESS BUS 1. But in standby generator mode, the AC ESS BUS 2 will be switched to connect to the standby generator. AOM 1.6P4 85.

What will will happen happen if you you push the STBY STBY GEN GEN to OVRD OVRD (P/B (P/B in) in) on ground? ground? (600R) (600R) a.

STBY STBY GEN GEN will will run run for for 2 minute minutes s (gro (ground und test) test)

b.

STBY STBY GEN GEN will will run run for for the the rest rest of the the flight flight

c.

STBY STBY GEN GEN is armed armed and and will will operat operate e in flight flight

d.

STBY GEN will not operate on ground

Ans. a

STBY GEN P/B AUTO: Automatic starting is activated when these conditions are met: -

DC NORM BUS OFF

-

The line contractor 2 open

-

BAT OVRD P/B not ON

-

Green hydraulic power available

-

DC ESS ON BAT, and

-

Aircraft in flight

OVRD: The STBY GEN is forced to run as soon as the foll owing conditions are met: -

BAT OVRD P/B is not on

-

Green hydraulic power available

If forced starting has been initiated:

86.

-

In flight, STBY GEN will continue to run to after landing

-

On ground, STBY GEN will run for 2 minutes (ground test)

AOM 1.6P11

How can can you you confir confirm m the opera operation tion of of STBY STBY GEN? GEN? (600R) (600R) a.

DC NORM NORM BUS BUS OFF OFF exti exting ngui uish shed ed

b.

DC ESS ESS ON ON BAT BAT and and AC EMER EMER ON INV INV ligh lights ts illu illumin minate ated d

c.

DC ESS ESS ON ON BAT BAT and and AC EMER EMER ON INV INV ligh lights ts exti extingu nguish ished ed

d.

STBY GEN ON light illuminated

Ans. c

STBY GEN operation confirm by:

87. 87.

AOM VOL 2

-

DC ESS ON BAT………………………………………Extinguished

EM Checklist

-

AC EMER ON INV…………………………………….Extinguished

6.2,6.3

Cond Condit itio ion: n: STB STBY Y GEN GEN oper operat ates es..

Ans. Ans. d

During APU starts sequence, what is the electrical source supplying the DC ESS BUS? (600R) a.

STBY TBY GE GEN DC DC chann hannel el

b.

DC ESS BUS

c.

DC NORM BUS

d.

BATTERIES


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

Check of APU MASTER switch to OFF is requested to confirm operation of standby generator (performed by checking that DC ESS BUS ON BAT and AC EMER ON INV lights are extinguished). Indeed with APU MASTER switch set to ON and APU N < 60% during STBY GEN operation, DC ESS BUS is supplied by batteries and therefore DC ESS ON BAT light is illuminated. 88.

31

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 6.2,6.3

When land land mode mode armed on on FCU and and Both AP engaged engaged which ELEC ELEC source source supply supply DC DC ESS BUS? BUS? a.

DC NO NORM BUS

b.

Battery

c.

AC ESS ESS BUS BUS via via ESS ESS TR

d.

Both b. and c. are correct

Ans. d

With LAND mode armed on FCU and both AP engaged, connects the batteries to the DC ESS BUS to increase the reliability of the autopilot ‘s power supply for CAT 3 operations.

AOM 1.6 p2

With LAND mode armed and both AP engaged in CMD, the DC bus tie contractor automatically opens in order to assure an independent electrical power supplies for the AP/FD 1and2 In case of DC bus tie contractor failure to open, the landing capability does not change form CAT 2 to CAT 3 after the engagement of the second AP and no alert provided. AOM 1.3 p41 89.

What What does not not cause cause the the DC BUS BUS TIE TIE contra contracto ctorr to open? open? a.

DC ESS ESS BUS BUS lose loses s powe power r

b.

DC NORM NORM BUS BUS los loses es powe power r

c.

Both Both AP engage engaged d in CMD CMD and and LAND LAND mode mode is select selected ed

d.

Reverse current from DC ESS BUS to DC NORM BUS

Ans. a

The DC BUS TIE contractor control is fully automatic and will open according to the following logic:

90.

-

Loss of electrical supplies to the DC NORM BUS, from both AC BUS 1 and 2.

-

When both AP engaged in CMD and LAND mode is selected.

-

When reverse current is detected in the direction DC ESS BUS / DC NORM BUS (DC ESS BUS supplying DC NORM BUS) is more than 60 A.

AOM 1.6P5

What action action will will cause cause the the batteries batteries to connect connect to the DC ESS ESS BUS? BUS? a.

APU st starting

b.

BATT BATT OVRD OVRD P/B P/B is is sel selec ecte ted d to to ON ON

c.

Both Both AP AP in CMD CMD and and LAND LAND mod mode e is sel selec ecte ted d

d.

All of above

Ans. d

The batteries will be connected to the DC ESS BUS under these conditions: -

For APU starting

-

As a back up power when the DC ESS voltage drops below 25 V

-

For battery charging if the battery voltage drops

-

When both autopilots are engaged and LAND mode is selected

AOM 1.6P9


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

91.

32

Which Which statemen statementt is true after select selecting ing BATT BATT OVRD OVRD P/B to to ON? ON? a.

Batt Batter erie ies s flo flow w bar bar are are inv invis isibl ible e

b.

The batter battery y over overhea heatt dete detecti ction on is inhibi inhibited ted

c.

Batter Batteries ies are isolat isolated ed from from the the DC ESS BUS

d.

DC BUS TIE contractor is closed

Ans. b

BATT OVRD P/B The P/B allows overriding the battery charge controller unit by forcing al l battery line contractors to close. The battery charge controllers are overridden and all battery line contractors are closed. The battery overheat detection is inhibited. 92.

AOM 1.6P10

Which Which statement statement is not the function function of the charge charge controller controller unit unit (CCU)? (CCU)? a.

Restor Restore e the DC DC ESS BUS in case case norma normall supply supply has has failed failed

b.

Cont Contro roll bat batte tery ry char chargi ging ng

c.

Dete Detect ct the the bat batte tery ry over over curr curren ent t

d.

Dete Detect ct the the batt batter ery y over overhe heat at

Ans Ans. c

During normal operation, the batteries are constantly charged by the Charge Controller Unit (CCU). The CCU automatically opens or closed the associated battery contractor in such a manner as to keep the battery charged for its function as back up power for the DC ESS BUS. The main functions of the CCU are to:

93.

-

Automatically restore the essential DC network when normal supply has failed, by closure of the three battery contractors.

-

Control battery charging.

-

Detect overheat of battery.

AOM 1.6P2

How do you you know which which battery triggered triggered the BAT BAT OVHT OVHT light on the the overhead overhead panel? panel? a.

By ECAM ECAM acti activ vatio ation n

b.

By seeing seeing whic which h batte batter’s r’s flow flow bar bar is invisi invisible ble

c.

By turnin turning g of all batt batteri eries es and and turn turn them them on one by one one

d.

By checki checking ng the DC volt volt indica indicator tor on the overhe overhead ad panel panel

Ans. b

BAT OVHT activation is an indication that an excess charge rate has been detected by the battery charge limiter which, if not corrected, could lead to an increase in battery temperature. The affected battery is automatically disconnected and the corresponding flow bar is extinguished. 94.

Clock time ba bases

b.

The The refu refuel elin ing g syst system em in in batt batter ery y mod mode e

c.

The exting extinguis uisher her cart cartrid ridges ges (engin (engines es and and carg cargo) o)

d.

The The APU APU fire fire prot protec ecti tion on

EM Checklist 6.13

Which Which equipment equipment is not not operative operative when when all battery battery P/B P/B switches switches are are selected selected to OFF? OFF? a.

AOM VOL 2

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

33

With battery P/B switches OFF, the following equipment is still powered;

95.

-

Clock time bases

-

The extinguisher cartridges (engines and cargo)

-

The refueling system in battery mode

-

IRS 1, 2 and 3

AOM1.6 p2

Which Which equipment equipment is still still operative operative after after ESS & EMER EMER BUS P/B switch switch is select selected ed in SHED? SHED? (TAA-TAF) (TAA-TAF) a.

The The min minim imum um equi equipm pmen entt bay bay

b.

Only Only the the equip equipmen mentt conne connecte cted d to the AC ESS ESS BUS BUS

c.

Only Only the the equip equipmen mentt conne connecte cted d to the AC EMER EMER BUS

d. On Only the equipment connected to the DC ESS BUS

Ans. a

SMOKE DRILL If smoke from an electrical source is detected, the procedure is to shed all bus and retain only some of the essential loads. With OVRD SUPPLY 1 and 2 P/B’s ON. The AC ESS BUS will be connected directly to the generator 1 with generator 2 standing by and all AC BUS 1 and 2, DC NORM BUS power supply will be cut off. With ESS & EMER BUS P/B switch in SHED, AC ESS BUS, AC EMER BUS and DC ESS BUS supply only a small part of their equipment installed in the smoke proof box in the minimum equipment bay is still operative. AOM 1.6P6 96.

How long long can the batteries batteries supply supply the DC DC ESS BUS (DC (DC ESS ON ON BAT light light illuminated) illuminated)? ? (TAA-TAF) (TAA-TAF) a.

26 min

b.

38 min

c.

45 min

d.

1:45 hrs

Ans. c

NORM BAT ENDURANCE: 45 MIN

AOM VOL 2

Battery endurance is based on batteries supplying the DC ESS BUS only (AC EMER BUS remains supplied EM Checklist from AC ESS BUS). 6.18 97.

How long can can the batteries batteries supply supply the whole whole aircra aircraft ft system system? ? a.

26 min min with with 2 APU APU star startt att attem empt pts s

b.

38 min min with with 2 APU APU star startt att attem empt pts s

c.

38 min min withou withoutt APU start, start, 26 26 min with with 2 APU APU star startt attem attempts pts

d.

45 min

Ans. c

AOM 2.6P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

98.

34

How do you you restore restore some some parts parts of DC NORM NORM BUS BUS in case case DC NORM NORM BUS BUS OFF OFF light came came on? on? a.

Pull Pull out all all CB’s CB’s in the the minimu minimum m equip equipmen mentt bay (sha (shade de area) area)

b.

Sele Select ct LAN LAND D RECO RECOVE VERY RY P/B P/B swi switc tch h to on on

c.

Sele Select ct ESS ESS & EMER EMER BUS BUS P/B P/B swit switch ch to to SHED SHED

d.

Select BAT OVRD to on

Ans. b

LAND RECOVERY P/B Allows restoring electrical supply to some equipment which had been isolated by:

99.

-

action on both OVRD SUPPLY P/B, or

-

Loss of all normal electrical supply (battery only configuration)

AOM 1.6P10

At what what altitude altitude are are the oxygen oxygen masks masks automatica automatically lly present presented ed in the the cabin? cabin? a.

9500 ft

b.

9500 ± 350 ft

c.

11000 ft

d.

1400 14000f 0ftt (+ 0, - 500f 500ft) t)

Ans Ans. d

PASSENGER OXYGEN SYSTEM The oxygen masks rest unsecured on the inside of the module door and free fall when the door is opened. The user shall position the mask to cover mouth and nose to breathe. The oxygen masks are automatically presented whenever cabin altitude exceeds 14000ft (+ 0, - 500ft). The flight deck crew can override the automatic control. AOM1.7/1P1 100. How can you confirm that the oxygen oxygen masks have already dropped in the cabin in case case of decompression? decompression? a.

By the the ECA ECAM M SD SD (PR (PRES ESS) S) page page

b.

By the the ECA ECAM ME MEMO pag page e

c.

By the the illuminat illumination ion of the OXYGE OXYGEN N SYS ACTUATED ACTUATED light on the the overhead overhead panel

d.

By checking with the cabin attendant

Ans. c

Passenger oxygen masks drop automatically and OXYGEN SYS ACTUATED light illuminates green when AOM VOL 2 cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft. EM Checklist Confirm system activation by selecting the OXYGEN PASSENGER PASSENGER guarded switch to MAN OVRD. 2.1 101. What is the normal setting position for the quick donning mask (for cockpit cockpit crew) dilute demand regulator? Ans. Ans. b a.

N (normal)

b.

100%

c.

N or 100% 100% as des desire ired

d.

Emer Emerge genc ncy y pres pressu sure re posi positi tion on


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

35

N / 100% SELECTOR The mask delivers 100% oxygen. The system is automatically locked in this position. The mask delivers diluted oxygen when cabin altitude is below 35000 ft and 100% oxygen above 35000 ft. This configuration is obtained by pressing simultaneously UNLOCK lever and N / 100% selector. EMERGENCY PRESSURE SELECTOR When pressed, a momentarily overpressure is generated. When turned in the arrow direction, a permanent overpressure generated.

AOM1.7/1P5

Set N / 100% manual control to 100%

AOM VOL 2 3.2/2 p4

102. Which light in the cockpit cockpit will remain remain illuminated if only the batteries are supplying the aircraft systems? systems? a.

Cock ockpit pit dom dome ligh light t

b.

Aft Aft rig right ht cock cockpi pitt dome dome light light only only

c.

Storm lilight

d.

Over Overhe head ad pane panels ls ligh lightt

Ans Ans. b

FLIGHT DECK EMERGENCY LIGHTING SYSTEM The captain and center instrument panels use the same lights powered by DC ESS BUS. This emergency lighting is automatically activated in case of a complete normal AC power loss. The intensity of these lights is then no more adjustable. The aft right DOME light is available when aircraft batteries only supply el ectrical power.

AOM1.7/2P1

103. Conditions: A/C’s A/C’s electrical electrical system system is normal, EMER EMER EXIT EXIT LT SELECTOR in DISARM position. After you enter the A/C, you found the floor path markings were illuminated, why? a.

EMER EMER P/B P/B on on the the purse purserr pane panell is pre press ssed ed

b.

DC ESS BU BUS is is lost

c.

Emer Emerge genc ncy y ligh lighti ting ng sys syste tem m has has faile failed d

d.

It is the normal normal condit condition ion while while A/C is on ground ground

Ans. a

The electrical power for this system is supplied from DC ESS BUS or from integral batteries in emergency power supply units. Batteries are charged from AC NORM BUS. The battery capacity provides approx 12 minutes of illumination. Cabin ceiling lights exit signs and floor path markings automatically illuminate when: -

EMER EXIT LT selector is selected to ON

-

Automatically if EMER EXIT LT selector is at ARM and the DC power supply fails

-

EMER P/B on the purser panel is pressed

-

The cabin is in excessive decompression. decompression.

AOM1.7/2P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

36

104. After you you enter the A/C, you you found the EXIT signs signs do not illuminate, illuminate, which which switch in the cockpit cockpit do you suspect to be OFF? a.

EMER EXIT XIT LT LT sel selec ecto tor r

b.

FAST FASTEN EN SEAT SEAT BELT BELT swit switch ch

c.

NO SMO SMOKIN KING switc witch h

d.

Batte attery ry switc itch

Ans Ans. c

Exit signs automatically illuminates when no smoking switch is ON or AUTO with landing gear extended.

AOM1.7/2P1

105. How “Emerge “Emergency ncy oxygen” oxygen” operatio operation n duration duration calculates calculates from? from? a.

Decompres Decompression sion at Fl Fl 350, one minute minute delay, delay, desce descent nt to Fl 100 in 9 min then then continuation continuation of of flight at at Fl 100.

b.

Decompres Decompression sion at high high altitude, altitude, one minute minute delay, delay, descent descent to Fl 100 in 9 min then continu continuation ation of flight flight at Fl 100.

c.

Decompres Decompression sion at Fl Fl 350, one minute minute delay, delay, desce descent nt to Fl 140 in 9 min then then continuation continuation of of flight at at Fl 100.

d.

Decompres Decompression sion at Fl Fl 350, one minute minute delay, delay, desce descent nt to Fl 140 in 9 min then then continuation continuation of of flight at at Fl 100

Ans. b

AOM 2.7 p1 106. Which Which cabin doors have have no pneumatic pneumatic assist assist for opening opening in emergency emergency mode mode (slide armed)? armed)? a.

Door 1 L and R

b.

Door 2 L and R

c.

Door 3 L and R

d.

Door 4 L and R

Ans. c

CABIN DOORS There are six passenger doors (type A) and two emergency exit doors (type 1). The doors can be operated from inside or outside. NORMAL mode The doors are opened and closed manually. EMERGENCY mode Emergency mode is selected by placing SLIDE ARMING LEVER to ARMED position. In this mode, the doors are opened pneumatically (type A doors) or manually (type 1 doors). An escape slide or slide/raft installed in each door is automatically deployed and inflated when the door is opened. The type A doors are equipped with dual lane escape slides/rafts, type 1 with single lane escape slides. 107. After ditchin ditching, g, do the slides/ra slides/rafts fts inflate inflate if the water water is at the same same level as the the doorsill? doorsill? a.

Yes

b.

No

AOM1.7/5P2 Ans. Ans. b


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

37

A slide/raft pack must drop down a min of 15 cm to actuate automatic inflation. The slide/raft may not inflate automatically if the pack falls on the water, which has the same level with the doorsill. For this case, a manual inflation handle must be pulled when the slide/raft pack has dropped below the door threshold. AOM1.7/5P5 108. How many many HALON HALON and WATER WATER fire extingui extinguisher shers s are there in the the cabin? a.

3 and and 2 res respe pec ctiv tively ely

b.


c.

5 and and 3 res respec pectiv tively ely

d.


Ans. Ans. a

AOM1.7/4P1,2 109. How many many fire fire extinguish extinguisher er bottles bottles are there there for the the engines engines and APU? APU? a.

Two bottle bottles s for for each each engine, engine, one bottle bottle for APU

b.

Two bottle bottles s for for both both engi engines nes,, one one bottle bottle for APU

c.

Two bottle bottles s for for each each engi engine, ne, and two two bott bottles les for APU

d.

Two bottles for both engines, and two bottles for APU

Ans. a

Each engine and APU are equipped with two independent fire detection loops, which respond to temperature change. Two fire extinguisher bottles are provided for each engine, one bottle is provided for the APU.

AOM1.8P1

110. What conditi condition on will will not cause cause the the fire warnin warning g to activat activate? e? a.

A fir fire e sig signa nall on on bot both h loo loop p A and and B

b.

A fire fire signal signal on one one loop, loop, whil while e the othe otherr loop loop select selected ed off off

c.

A faul faultt sig signa nall on on one one loop loop

d.

A fault fault signal signal on both both loops loops within within a time time limit limit

Ans. c

A fire warning is activated when: -

A fire signal is generated from both loop A and loop B.

-

A fire signal is generated from one loop if the other loop is selected off.

-

A fault signal is generated by both loops.

AOM1.8P1

111. The engine engine fire warning warning can can be generated generated with with both loops loops select selected ed off. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

38

LOOP A AND B P/B ON:

The fire detection unit of the related loop is activated for fire detection.

OFF:

The fire detection unit of the related loop is deactivated, accompanied by ECAM.

LOOP A/B : Light comes on, accompanied accompanied by ECAM , when -

The loop is engaged (on) and a fire overheat is detected.

-

A loop test is performed to indicate a successful test.

-

The control unit detects a fault signal.

Light goes out when the respective ENG FIRE handle is pulled. The engine fire warning is also activated when both loop A and B are selected OFF and the fire detection control unit generates a fire or a fault signal related to both LOOP A and LOOP B.

AOM1.8P10

112. Which Which statement statement is true true after you pulled pulled the ENG ENG fire handle handle and a fire still still persists? persists? a.

The The aur aural al warn warning ing is acti activa vate ted d

b.

The The loo loop p lig light hts s are are illu illumi mina nate ted d

c.

The The ENG ENG FIRE FIRE han handl dle e light light is is illu illumi mina nate ted d

d.

If the fuel lever is still on, the light is extinguished

Ans. c

Pulling the ENG FIRE handle will shut off fuel and hydraulic fluid supply, close the appropriate bleed air valves, deactivate engine generator, silence aural warning, extinguish LOOP lights, illuminate SQUIB lights and arm the corresponding AGENT P/B. The ENG FIRE handle light and ECAM warning remain on as long as fire warning persists. The fuel lever HP VALVE light remains on until the lever is selected off or the fire warning disappears.

AOM1.8P2

113. Which valve valve is not electrically closed, closed, with regards to the pneumatic pneumatic system, system, after pulling the ENG FIRE handle? a.

ENG blee leed valve

b.

Pneuma Pneumatic tic high high pres pressur sure e (HP (HP)) blee bleed d valv valve e

c.

Wing Wing anti anti-ic -ice e val valve ve (if (if eng engag aged ed))

d.

Both Both ENG ENG anti anti-i -ice ce valv valve e

Ans Ans. d

Pulling the ENG FIRE handle electrically closes the associated: -

Engine fuel LP valve.

-

Hydraulic fire shutoff valve.

-

Pneumatic high pressure (HP) valve, bleed valve and cross feed valve.

-

Wing anti-ice valve (When engaged)

-

Air conditioning pack valve

In addition, it deactivates the generator, silences the aural warning, reset the LOOP lights, illuminates the associated SQUIB lights and arms the AGENT discharge P/B’s. The engine anti-ice valve will be closed due to loss of pneumatic supply.

AOM1.8P10


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

39

114. Which Which source source will will not cause cause AVIONI AVIONIC C SMOKE SMOKE light to to illuminates illuminates? ? a.

Flig Flight ht dec deck k inst instru rume ment nt pan panel els s

b.

Overhe erhead ad pane panel. l.

c.

Weat Weathe herr rad radar ar tran transc scei eive ver r

d.

IRS 1

Ans. d

AVIONICS SMOKE LIGHT Comes on, when smoke is detected in ventilation duct from: -

Flight deck instrument panels,

-

Overhead panel,

-

Circuit breakers panel,

-

Weather radar transceiver,

-

Electronic Racks,

-

IRS 2

-

Under floor area equipment.

Illumination of this light is accompanied by ECAM activation

AOM 1.8 p12

115. When will DISCH DISCH AGENT AGENT 2 light light illumin illuminate? ate? a.

When When agent agent 1 bottl bottle e press pressure ure drop drops s to a prese presett value value

b.

When When agent agent 2 bottl bottle e press pressure ure drop drops s to a prese presett value value

c.

60 minu minutes tes after after agen agentt 1 has has been been discha discharge rged d

d.

60 minutes after agent 2 has been discharged

Ans. c

Agent 1 will be discharged first. After 60 minutes the DISCH AGENT2 light comes on. This reminds the crew to discharge AGENT 2 in order to maintain the required concentration of extinguisher agent if the remaining flight time exceeds 60 minutes after AGENT 1 has been discharged. AOM1.8 p3 116. 1ST AGENT can be discharged immediately after pulling the ENG FIRE handle in case engine fire on ground. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a

PARKING BRK……………………………..SET FUEL LEVER……………………………….OFF FIRE HANDLE………………………………PULL

AOM VOL 2

1ST AGENT…………………………………..DISCHARGE

EM Checklist

The 10-sec delay before discharging agent is not required on ground.

8.5

117. What is not the automati automatic c action in case case of APU automatical automatically ly shutdown shutdown due to fire on ground? ground? a.

The APU APU will will auto automat matica ically lly shut shutdow down n with with a time time delay delay of 3 sec sec

b.

The fire fire extinguishe extinguisherr will automat automaticall ically y discharge discharge into into the APU APU 10 sec after the fire is detect detected ed

c.

The APU APU FIRE FIRE light light on the nose nose gear gear interpho interphone ne panel panel will will automatic automatically ally exting extinguish uish

d.

The APU fuel fuel isolat isolate e valve valve will will close close automa automatic ticall ally y

Ans. Ans. c


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

40

If an APU fire is detected on ground, the APU will automatically shutdown with 3 sec time delay. The fire extinguisher will discharge 10 sec after the detection. The external warning is silenced or can be silenced by pressing APU SHUTOFF P/B on the nose gear i nterphone panel, or the APU EMERGENCY EMERGENCY SHUTDOWN P/B on the refuel / defuel panel. Action on the APU FIRE handle initiates an automatic APU shutdown, isolates fuel supply, closes the bleed valve, deactivated the generator, silences the aural warning, extinguishes LOOP lights, illuminates the SQUIB light and arms the AGENT discharge P/B. APU FIRE light on the nose wheel interphone panel and APU FIRE handle remain on as long as the fire warning persists.

AOM1.8P2

118. Which Which statement statement is true, regarding regarding the cargo cargo compartm compartment ent smoke smoke detection? detection? a.

There There is one one detec detection tion circui circuitt in each each cargo cargo comp compart artmen ment t

b.

There are are two detector detectors s in each each cargo cargo compartme compartment nt and the smok smoke e warning warning will come come on only only when when both detect smoke

c.

There are are two detector detectors s in each each cargo cargo compartme compartment nt and the smok smoke e warning warning will come come on when when either either or both detectors detect the smoke

d.

There is no automatic action in case of cargo smoke detection

Ans. c

The cargo compartment fire detection system consists of two smoke detectors in each FWD, AFT and BULK cargo compartment. When either or both detectors detect a smoke signal, the corresponding SMOKE light comes on, accompanied by ECAM activation. As soon as a smoke warning is given, the air conditioning system in the endangered cargo compartment is automatically switched off. AOM1.8P2 119. Which Which statement statement is true, true, regarding regarding the cargo cargo fire extingui extinguishing shing system system? ? a.

There is one one fire fire exting extinguishe uisherr bottle bottle and and equipped equipped with only one squib squib

b.

There There is one one fire fire exting extinguis uisher her bott bottle le and equi equippe pped d with with two squib squibs s

c.

There are two fire extinguish extinguisher er bottles bottles and equippe equipped d with with only only one one squib squib

d.

There are two fire extinguisher bottles and equipped with two squibs

Ans. d

Two identical fire extinguisher bottles are provided. Each bottle has two discharge heads with two squibs, one squib for the FWD and the other for the AFT and BULK cargo compartments. The compartment is selected by the appropriate AGENT switch. AGENT 1 will be discharged first. After a time limit, the DISC AGENT 2 light comes on. This reminds the crew to discharge AGENT 2 in order to maintain the required concentration of extinguisher agent. 120. Which Which statement statement is true, true, regarding regarding to the cargo cargo smoke smoke warning warning light? a.

After After discha dischargi rging ng AGENT AGENT 1, 1, the DISH DISH 2 light light will will not illum illumina inate te

b.

Expec Expectt the smoke smoke warn warning ing to rema remain in after after AGEN AGENT T has disc dischar harged ged

c.

The smoke smoke warn warning ing goes goes out after after disc dischar harge ge AGENT AGENT 1

d.

The smoke smoke warn warning ing goes goes out after after disc dischar harge ge AGENT AGENT 2

AOM1.8P3 Ans. Ans. b


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

41

Smoke warning activation automatically closed the ISOL and TEMP CONTROL valves. Note: Expect SMOKE warning to remain after AGENT discharge, even if the smoke source is eliminated. Gases from smoke source are not evacuated and smoke detectors are sensitive to extinguishing agent as well.

AOM VOL 2

EM Checklist Once the ISOL and TEMP CONTROL valves are closed, the cargo i s not ventilated and cargo temperature is no longer reliable. 8.3 121. Where is the minimu minimum m equipment equipment bay smoke smoke light located located and how can you confirm confirm the smoke? smoke? a.

On the the minimum minimum equipment equipment circui circuitt breakers breakers panel, and by the sniffer sniffer fan

b.

On the the minimum minimum equipment equipment circui circuitt breakers breakers panel, and by ECAM activation activation

c.

On the electr electrica icall panel panel,, and and by the sniffe snifferr fan fan

d.

On the electr electrica icall panel, panel, and by ECAM ECAM activa activatio tion n

Ans. a

The electrical smoke detection system has three smoke detectors installed on the ventilation duct to detect the presence of any combustion gases. Each detector triggers a SMOKE light on the ELEC PWR panel and ECAM. The SMOKE light for the minimum equipment bay is located on the minimum equipment bay circuit breakers panel on the aft part of the overhead panel. A fan installed in the avionics compartment provides the confirmation of smoke via a sniffer located at the RP’s side console.

AOM1.8P3

122. Where do you suspect the smoke smoke come from, from, if you found AVIONICS SMOKE, SMOKE, MIN EQPT BAY SMOKE or BAT SMOKE warning was triggered simultaneously? a.

From From the the ven venti tila lati tion on duct duct

b.

From From the the avi avion onic ics s com compa part rtme ment nt

c.

From From the the air air cond condit itio ioni ning ng syst system em

d.

From the cabin

Ans. c

If several smoke warning activated: AIR CONDITIONING SMOKE……………………………..SUSPECT As a result of contamination within the air conditioning system, AVIONICS AVIONICS SMOKE, MIN EQPT BAY SMOKE or BATT SMOKE warnings may be triggered simultaneously Apply AIR COND SMOKE procedure only if visible smoke or strong odor is encountered.

Spoi Spoile lers rs and and spe speed ed brak brakes es

b.

Rudd Rudder er and and ail ailer eron on trim trims s

c.

Slats and flflaps

d.

Elev Elevat ator or and and hori horizo zont ntal al sta stabi biliz lizer er

EM Checklist 8.6, 8.7, 8.8

123. Which Which control control surfaces surfaces are are not control controlled led electrica electrically? lly? a.

AOM VOL 2

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

42

The flight controls are divided into two groups: -

Primary flight controls consisting of elevators, ailerons, roll spoilers, rudder and trimmable horizontal stabilizer.

-

Secondary flight controls consisting of flaps, slats, Kruger flaps, notch flaps, speed brakes and ground spoilers.

All control surfaces are actuated by hydraulic servo control actuator, which are controlled by mechanical linkages except for the lift damper surfaces (spoilers and speed brakes), yaw and roll trims, flaps and slats which are electrically controlled. AOM1.9/1P1 124. What is the the purpose purpose of the servo servo shut shut off valves? valves? a.

To give priorit priority y to the compo components nents downs downstream tream of of the valves valves in case case of hydrauli hydraulic c low pressu pressure re

b.

To give give priority priority to the compone components nts downst downstream ream of of the valves valves in case case of hydraulic hydraulic fluid lost lost

c.

To isolate isolate the respec respective tive hydraulic hydraulic syste system m in case case of of the servo servo actuator actuator jam

d.

To stop stop the movemen movementt of the control control surfac surfaces es downstre downstream am of the the valves valves in case case of control control surface surface runaway

Ans. c Ans.

Three servo shutoff valves, one installed on each servo manifold, control supply of hydraulic power to all flight control servo actuators. In the event of servo actuator jamming, isolation of the respective hydraulic servo manifold is possible by means of the servo shutoff valve that can be manually controlled from the cockpit. This allows the flight controls to be powered by the remaining servo manifolds.

AOM1.9/1P2

125. What will will happen happen when we we select select all 3 servo servo shutoff shutoff valves valves to off? off? a.

Green servo servo shutof shutofff valve valve will be open open to avoid avoid complete complete loss loss of power power to flight flight controls controls

b.

All 3 servo servo shutof shutofff valve valves s will will be be opened opened

c.

All 3 servo servo shutof shutofff valve valves s will will be be close closed d

d.

All 3 servo servo shutoff shutoff valves valves will be opened opened or close close depends depends on hydraulics hydraulics pressure pressure

Ans. b

To avoid complete loss of power to flight controls due to inadvertent selection of all servo shutoff valves to off, an automatic protection is provided such that all servo shutoff valves will be open when all three selectors are selected off.

AOM 1.9/1 p2

126. What will will happen happen if you you select select flap flap full with with speed speed above above VFE for flap full? a.

Flaps Flaps will will exte extend nd not not more more than than 25 degree degrees s

b.

Flap Flaps s wil willl ext exten end d to to ful full l

c.

Flaps Flaps will will exten extend d to full but but over over speed speed warni warning ng will will be gener generate ated d

d.

Flap light will illuminate on SFPI

Ans. a

A load relief system is provided to minimize the design loads on the flap support structure and the flapjacks. Load relief function can only be engaged when the slat/flap control lever is in full. The load relief system receives CAS from the ADC and will: -

Retract flaps from full to 25 degrees when the speed exceeds178 Kt.

-

Extend flaps from 25 degrees to full when the speed is below 173 Kt.

AOM1.9/2P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

43

127. After a go around, around, if you retract retract slat/flap slat/flap handle to 0/0 degree degree while A/C is maintain maintaining ing high pitch attitude attitude O (Angle of attack more than 7.5 ), What will occur? a.

Slats Slats / Flaps Flaps will will remai remain n at go arou around nd flap flaps s

b.

Flaps will retract retract to 0 degree, degree, while slats will retract retract to 15 degrees degrees

c.

Slat Slats s / fla flaps ps will will retr retrac actt to 15 15 degr degree ees s

d.

Slats / flaps will retract to 0 degree

Ans. b

When aircraft angle of attack is greater than 7.5O, retraction of slats below 15O is inhibited. This function is called α - lock. If the slat/flap control lever is move to 0 O, slats will be retracted and stop at 15O and the Kruger flaps, Notch flaps, and Aileron droop remain extended until the angle of attack is reduced to below 7.5O where the α - lock function is no more valid. The slats will then follow the command of the handle to 0O. The α - lock function is not activate when speed less than 60 Kt.

AOM1.9/2P2

128. What does does it mean, mean, if both slats syste system m 1 & 2 and flaps system system 1 & 2 fault lights lights come come on overhead overhead panel? panel? a.

Slat Slat or flap flap sys syste tem m jam jamme med d

b.

Slat Slat or flap flap motor otor fail failur ure e

c.

Slat Slat or flap flap mech mechan anic ical al failu failure re

d.

Slat / flap handle is held between gates

Ans. d

SLAT / FLAP fault light Each fault light comes on when the associated hydraulic motor is inoperative. Both SLAT (or FLAP) FAULT lights will come on simultaneously if the slats (or flaps) stop due to system jam. Reverse selection is possible and the surfaces will move to the selected position if jamming is released. If the above warning is associated with SLAT (or FLAP) light on SFPI, it indicates a mechanic failure of the system. In such a case, the system is deactivated for the rest of the flight. Activation of FAULT light is accompanied by ECAM activation. If the lever is held between the gates, the system drives to the last demanded position and after 10 seconds all the slats and flaps FAULT warnings illuminate. AOM1.9/2P1,5 129. What is is the maxim maximum um altitude altitude for for slat slat / flap operation? operation? a.

10,000 Ft

b.

15,000 Ft

c.

20,000 Ft

d.

25,000 Ft

Ans. c

AOM2.9P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

44

130. In case of overw overweight eight landing, landing, how can can you extend extend slats slats or flaps to next next step if VLS is higher than VFE?

a.

Select slat/flap to the next step, disregard the V LS

b.

Set speed to below V LS LS then select slats / flaps when speed reaching V FE next

c.

Set slats / flaps to the next step while reduce speed to follow the V LS

d.

Land at this configuration as you are unable to extend slats / flaps any further

Ans. c

In case of overweight landing :

AOM VOL 2

If VFE next is lower than VLS, the slats / flaps lever can be set one notch further extended while the speed is decreased to follow VLS reduction as surfaces extend. The over speed warning should not be triggered. In this case, disconnect the A/THR. A/THR can be reengage when the landing configuration is obtained.

EM Checklist 9.11

131. What is the duty of Electronic Electronic Flight Flight Control Control Unit Unit (EFCU)? (EFCU)? a.

To cont contro roll the the mov movem emen entt of aile ailero ron n

b.

To contro controll the the move movemen mentt of of roll roll spoile spoilers rs

c.

To control the aileron droop of 10 O after slats are extended

d.

To cont contro roll the the aile ailero ron n trim trim

Ans Ans. b

Two computers - Electronic Flight Control Unit (EFCU) electrically control the roll spoilers, without mechanic backup (fly by wire technique). The spoiler control law is such that they are not usually used unless the control wheel is moved enough. Control and monitoring of the spoiler channels is done by means of P/B switches on the overhead panel.

AOM1.9/3P1

132. What is true, true, regarding regarding the roll spoilers, spoilers, if one aileron aileron control control cable becomes becomes jammed? jammed? a.

Roll Roll spoil spoilers ers are are able able to to operat operate e as spee speedbr dbrake ake only only

b.

Roll Roll spoi spoile lers rs oper operat ate e norm normal al

c.

Roll Roll spoi spoile lers rs are are not not ava availa ilable ble

d.

Roll Roll spoile spoilers rs operat operate e but with with downgr downgrade aded d operat operation ion

Ans. d

AILERONS The control input is transmitted to the ailerons by dual cable runs providing fail-safe operation. In each wing, the input is transmitted to a differential unit receiving additional inputs from: -

Artificial feel unit

-

Aileron droop signal

-

Trim srewjack

In case of jamming of one control cable, the interconnected spring can be overcome to permit control of the other wing. Spoiler control in this case is still available but downgrade. Roll spoiler control is degraded, so that: -

If Crew member (CM1) control run jams, CM2 controls roll spoilers 4 and 6.

-

If CM2 control run jams, CM1 controls roll spoilers 3, 5 and 7.

AOM1.9/3P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

45

133. By how much much is the fuel fuel consumpti consumption on increased increased if Kruger Kruger flaps do do not retract? retract? a.

10%

b.

12%

c.

15%

d.

18%

Ans. b

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 9.10 134. How much much is the fuel consumption increased if slats or flaps cannot be retracted respectively? a.

Mult Multip ipli lied ed by by 1.7 1.7 and and 2.2 2.2 resp respec ecti tive vely ly

b.


c.


d. Multiplied by 1.0 and 2.0 respectively

Ans. a

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 9.22,9.23,9.8 135. What statem statement ent is true, regarding regarding the rudder rudder system? system? a.

Rudder Rudder travel travel reduces reduces the the rudder rudder deflectio deflection n as the the function function of increasing increasing airspeed airspeed

b.

When both both channels channels of rudder rudder travel travel are engaged, engaged, SYS 1 is active active and and SYS 2 is on standby standby

c.

Rudd Rudder er trim trim is is elec electr tric ical ally ly con contr trol olle led d

d.

All above

Ans. d

RUDDER The trim actuator is electrically signaled and driven by an electrical motor. The rudder travel limiter reduces the pedals and rudder deflection from ± 30O at speed below 165 Kt to ± 5O at 310 Kt or above. The travel limit is calculated by two independent rudder travel channels in the Feel and Limitation Computers that receive inputs from ADC and SFCC. In normal operation, RUD TRAVEL SYS 1 i s active, and SYS 2 is in standby. Yaw damper command is transmitted via a differential unit with no feedback to the rudder pedals.

AOM1.9/4P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

46

136. Which Which statement statement is not a correct correct procedur procedure e for trimming trimming the rudder rudder in flight? flight? a.

Ensu Ensure re thru thrust st set setti ting ng is sym symme metr tric ical al

b.

Trimming Trimming the the rudder can can be done done when the aircra aircraft ft maintains maintains cruisi cruising ng level level with ALT ALT hold mode mode or PROF mode

c.

Trimm Trimming ing the the rudde rudderr can be be done done while while autop autopilo ilott is engag engaged ed

d.

Trimming the rudder until control column deflection is zero

Ans. b

TRIM PROCEDURE The minimum drag for cruise flight is obtained when the control wheel is neutral. This condition is obtained by the following procedure: -

Ensure symmetrical thrust. Disengage auto thrust if required.

-

Ensure symmetrical fuel loading.

-

With autopilot engaged in ALT hold mode, note the direction of control column’s lateral deflection. Trim the rudder in the direction of the deflection until the control column is centered. Rudder trim between 1.5O L and 1.5O R is typical normal range. Any deflection in the control column will cause the roll spoilers to raise thus increasing drag.

-

Verify that the bank angle is not too large for passengers comfort (1.5O appears to be reasonable value)

-

Check again the lateral trim conditions and retrims of necessary when there is a noticeable change in flight conditions.

AOM VOL 2

Reengage PROF mode as required once the trimming is completed.

3.3/4 p2

-

137. 137. What What doe does s it mean mean ifif OFF OFFR light and FAULT light of both rudder travel systems come on simultaneously? a.

Both Both rud rudde derr trav travel el sys syste tems ms are are OFF OFF

b.

Both Both rudder rudder travel travel sys system tems s are in in low speed speed conf configu igurat ration ion

c.

Both Both rudder rudder trav travel el syste systems ms are are in high high spee speed d config configura uratio tion n

d.

Both rudder travel systems are faulty

Ans. c

RUD TRAVEL SYS P/B FAULT (Amber): Light active when P/B in, comes on when a failure is detected in the respective system. The FAULT light is accompanies by ECAM activation. The light goes off when the P/B is selected OFF. However, if FAULT lights remain on with both P/B’s in OFF, it indicates a rudder disagree warning, i.e. variable stop lever is not in low speed position when flaps are 20O or more. 138. What is not correct correct proced procedure ure for no flaps flaps and and no slats landing? landing?

AOM1.9/4P4 Ans. Ans. a

a.

Before Before commencin commencing g the approach, approach, keep keep A/THR A/THR on and and select select GPWS GPWS to FLAP OVRD. OVRD.

b.

Early Early gear gear exten extensio sion n will aid aid in speed speed stab stabili ilizat zation ion

c.

At approxim approximately ately 200 200 ft retard retard the throttle throttles s so as to to reduce reduce approach approach speed speed by 15 kt kt at touchdown touchdown

d. Fly on to the runway aiming at V A -15 kt touchdown speed at aiming point and lower the nose wheel without delay.


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

47

NO FLAPS AND NO SLATS LOANDING Check speed for abnormal conditions from Em checklist Before commencing the approach, disconnect A/THR and select GPWS to FLAP OVRD Early gear extension will aid in speed stabilization. Speed stabilization in level flight is a must before starting the final approach, using a normal glide path angle maintaining green dot speed. Deceleration will be slow and acceleration rapid. At approximately 200-ft retard the throttles so as to reduce approach speed by 15 kt at touchdown. Over the threshold, retard the throttles to idle and use a slight flare (elevator effectiveness is very high). Fly onto the runway aiming at VA-15 kt touchdown speed at aiming point and lower the nose wheel without delay. Use reverse thrust immediately and maximum braking, if required. AOM3.3/7P6 139. What is not not the correct correct procedure procedure for jamme jammed d or inoperative inoperative stabiliz stabilizer? er? a.

Reduce Reduce spee speed d as soon soon as as possib possible le to aid aid the airc aircraf raftt contro control l

b.

Select Select both both pitch pitch feel feel sys system tems s to OFF OFF before before reduci reducing ng speed speed

c.

The The use use of ATS ATS is is not not reco recomm mmen end d

d.

Extend slats, flaps and gears as normal

Ans. a

LANDING WITH JAMMED OR INOPERATIVE STABILIZER If stabilizer becomes inoperative during flight, high sink rates body angles must be avoided particularity during approach and landing. Improper techniques could result in insufficient elevator control if large changes in pitch are required at low airspeed. Control of descent and pitch must be accomplished by coordinated use of thrust and elevator. The use of ATS is not recommended. Trimmed speed should be kept as long as possible before starting initial approach. Before reducing speed, switch off both Pitch Feel systems. Large control input shall be avoided. Extend slats, flaps and gears in normal manner with normal pattern and approach speed.

AOM VOL 2 3.3/7 P5

140. Which Which statement statement is true, regardi regarding ng to the pitch-u pitch-uncou ncoupling pling unit? unit? a.

Unco Uncoup uple led d when when aircr aircraf aftt is sta stati tion onar ary y

b.

Locked Locked during during airc aircraf raftt is taxi taxiing ing and and spee speed d below below 30 30 Kt

c.

Uncoup Uncoupled led when when airc aircraf raftt spee speed d is above above 195 Kt

d.

Locked when aircraft speed is between 30 and 195 Kt

Ans. b

PITCH UNCOUPLING UNIT The unit consists of a locking rod and a solenoid. It prevents accidental asymmetrical deflection of the elevators during flight (left and right controls connected together) and allows uncoupling of the RH and LH control systems during takeoff. The coupling / uncoupling logic is: -

Locked at speed lower than 30 Kt or higher than 195Kt

-

Uncoupled at speed between 30 and 195 Kt

AOM1.9/5P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

48

141. Which Which statement statement is true, true, regarding regarding the the pitch pitch feel unit? unit? a.

Pitch Pitch feel feel syste system m is conne connecte cted d to the left left contr control ol linkag linkage e only

b.

When both both Pitch Pitch feel switche switches s are selecte selected d to OFF, that that system system actuat actuators ors will will retract retract to low speed configuration

c.

Both Pitch feel switches switches are selected selected ON, only one syste system m is active active

d.

All above

Ans. d

ATRIFICIAL FEEL UNIT The elevator artificial feel unit is connected to the left control linkage only and will be provided by the associated action of: -

A double action spring loaded rod.

-

A torsion bar driven by a variable gain mechanism which generates a variable stiffness in the control.

The variable gain mechanism is actuated by either of the two electrohydraulic actuators. Each actuator is controlled by an independent pitch feel channel, each one is included in a Feel and Limitation Computer (FLC). The artificial feel unit provides increasing pitch control feel above 125 Kt. Below 125 Kt, the artificial feel unit is a constant spring force. The stiffness of the pitch feel varies with airspeed, mach number and stabilizer position. In case of failure of the both control systems, the mechanism returns to the low speed configuration. AOM1.9/6P1 142. At what altitude altitude and which which flaps that is recomm recommended ended to select select if elevator become becomes s jammed? jammed? a.

Flap Flaps s 15 15 and and alt altit itud ude e abo above ve 2000 2000 ft

b.


c.


d.

Flap Flaps s 20 and and alti altitu tude de abov above e 3000 3000 ft

Ans Ans. c

ELEVATOR JAM or HIGH PITCH FORCE procedure For approach, normal slats and flaps configuration applies. However, flaps should be selected 15 above 3000 ft, when slats 15 / S-speed is established. During approach Flaps 15 must be selected above 3000 ft, since this initial flap extension requires rapid trim adjustment and may lead to slight deviation from the flight path. The trim changes with further fl ap extension are much smaller.

The The “ai “airc rcra raft ft on grou ground nd sign signal” al”

b.

Both Both thro thrott ttle les s are are at idle idle

c.

Thrust Thrust revers reverser er is select selected ed on one engine engine

d.

SPEEDBRA SPEEDBRAKE KE control control lever lever must must be pulled upwards upwards only to extend extend ground ground spoiler spoilers s

EM Checklist 9.7

143. Which Which condition condition is not necessary necessary to extend extend the ground spoiler spoiler after after touchdown touchdown if the speed brake brake handle was not pulled upwards beforehand? a.

AOM VOL 2

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

49

GROUND SPOILERS Speed brake and roll spoiler panels are used on ground as ground spoilers. Deflection angle is 50O (maximum deflection) for all surfaces. The control of all panels is computerized by means of two EFCU ’s. The logic is such that the ground spoilers will extend when the following conditions are fulfilled. -

SPEEDBRAKE control lever is pulled upwards (when it is in RET position) or thrust reverser selected on one engine, and

-

Both engine throttle levers are idle, and

-

The “aircraft on ground” signal is received

AOM1.9/7P1

144. What is not the “aircraft “aircraft ground signal” that is used used to extend the ground spoilers spoilers after aircraft aircraft touchdown? a.

Two main main landi landing ng gear gear aft aft wheel wheel speed speeds s are high higher er than than 85 Kt Kt

b.

Main Main landin landing g gear gear shock shock absorb absorbers ers are are comp compres ressed sed

c.

Radi Radio o alt altim imet eter er is less less than than 5 ft ft

d.

Bogie beam movement is detected

Ans. b

The “aircraft on ground” signal is received when: -

During takeoff or landing, two main landing gear aft wheel speeds are higher than 85 Kt, or

-

At landing only, if the ground spoiler preselection has been made by speed brake control lever selection: 

Radio altimeter is less than 5 ft, and



Bogie beam movement is detected.

This signal is inhibited 3 sec after shock absorber compression. Automatic extension is also activated for an aborted takeoff when the above conditions are fulfilled. 145. 145. What What is Thet Theta a tri trim? m?

AOM1.9/7P1 Ans. Ans. d

a.

Nose up order order to optimiz optimize e the longitudi longitudinal nal stabilit stability y and handling handling qualities qualities

b.

Nose down down order to to increase increase the pull-up pull-up stick force force and prevent prevent reaching reaching an excess excessive ive angle angle of attack

c.

Nose Nose down down order order to to assist assist the stal stalll recove recovery ry

d.

Nose down down order order to ease ease the control control of the the pitch pitch rate and attitud attitude e and prevent prevent pitch pitch form excee exceeding ding 30


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

50

Pitch trim is provided by the THS Mechanical stops are set at 3 nose down and 14 nose up. The THS is operated by two independent hydraulic motors (green and yellow hydraulic systems) The THS can be commanded: -

By the electric trim using either trim switches (rocking lever) on the control wheels, or

-

Manually, by turning either trim wheel on the center pedestal, or

-

Automatically, by AP (Auto-trim function) or,

-

Automatically, by the FAC: Speed trim (active above 200 kt) and Mach trim (active above M 0.7): -

Nose up order to optimize the longitudinal stability and handling qualities.

-

The speed/Mach trim is available with AP off, in CWS or in CMD

-

Alpha trim

-

Stall trim

-

Theta trim (active at high pitch rate and low speed): Nose down order to ease the control of the pitch rate and attitude and prevent pitch from exceeding 30 (Especially during go around). The theta trim is available with AP off, pitch above 10 and speed below 180 kts. / M 0.37

AOM 1.9/5 p1

146. What will will happen if we override override the electric electric trim and Auto-tri Auto-trim m by using the pitch pitch trim control control wheel? wheel? a.

Trim Trimmi ming ng act actio ion n sto stops ps

b.

Electric Electric trim and Auto-t Auto-trim rim have priority priority over over pitch trim control control wheel wheel

c.

Both Both pit pitch ch tri trim m leve levers rs tri trip p to OFF OFF

d.

Electric Electric and automat automatic ic pitch pitch trim commands commands can can be override override by pitch pitch trim control control wheel wheel any time without any effects to the pitch trim system

Ans. Ans. c

Electric and automatic pitch trim commands can be overridden manually using the pitch trim controls wheel. Overriding the electric trim and Auto-trim by using the pitch trim control wheel results in the automatic disengagement of both pitch trim systems. systems. Both PITCH TRIM levers levers trip to OFF Each electric trim rocking lever actuates two switches. If switches provide contradictory orders, both pitch trim systems disengage Pitch Trim lever can be engaged if; -

Power supply is available,

-

Associated FAC is operative,

-

Associated ADC is operative, if flaps are retracted,

-

Associated THS motor is operative.

For in-flight re-engagement, in addition to the above conditions and if slats are retracted, at least two angleof-attack sensors must be operative If any pitch trim engagement condition is lost, the corresponding Pitch Trim lever trips to OFF. ECAM warming is activated. The remaining pitch trim system continues to operate normally.

AOM1.9/5P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

51

147. Which Which statemen statementt is true, regarding regarding to fuel tank? tank? a.

Normally Normally fuel fuel is used from inner tanks, tanks, center center tank tank and and then then outer outer tanks tanks

b.

Fuel Fuel can can be tran transfe sferre rred d betwe between en tank tanks s at any time time

c.

The engine engines s and and APU APU fuel fuel can can be be used used from from any tank tank

d.

Refuel Refueling ing / defuel defueling ing can be achiev achieved ed from from left left wing wing only only

Ans. c

The wing tanks supply the engines on their respective side. The center tank supplies both engines simultaneously. APU fuel is supplied from the left side of the cross feed manifold. The engines and APU may be used from any tanks by mean of cross feed. Wing loading and center of gravity consideration require fuel to be used in the following order: -

Center tank, then

-

Inner tanks, and then

-

Outer tanks

Fuel transfer between main tanks (wing tanks and center tank) is possible on ground only. Refueling / defueling is achieved from each wing and controlled from refuel / defuel panel located underneath the fuselage.

AOM1.10P1

148. Which Which statement statement is not the purpose purpose of of fuel tank tank vent vent system? system? a.

To prev prevent ent tank tank from from overp overpres ressur sure e during during refu refueli eling ng

b.

To prov provide ide spac space e for for therm thermal al expa expansi nsion on of of the the fuel fuel

c.

To allo allow w air air to ente enterr the the fuel fuel tank tanks s

d.

To provide additional fuel for the outer tanks

Ans. d

The fuel vent system ensures that the pressure within the fuel tanks is kept within limit, e.g. preventing tank overpressure during refueling. The vent surge tanks also provide additional thermal expansion space for fuel from the tanks. Each fuel tank is vented via an individual vent duct and a vent float valve to a vent surge tank which is vented to atmosphere by flush NACA intake located at the wing tip. The vent float valve allows air, but not fuel, to vent during flight maneuvers. Center tank, LH inner and outer tanks are vented to a vent surge tank on the LH wing. RH inner and outer tanks are vented to a vent surge tank on RH wing. AOM1.10P1 149. Where does the fuel fuel in the vent vent surge surge tank, tank, if any, go to? a.

The The ass assoc ociat iated ed inne innerr win wing g tan tank k

b.

The The ass assoc ociat iated ed oute outerr wing wing tank tank

c.

Over Overbo boar ard d if vent vent sur surge ge tan tank k is is ful full l

d.

Both a. and c.

Ans. d

Fuel in the vent surge tank siphons back to the associated inner wing tank when the fuel level in this tank drops. However, fuel may be vented overboard when the vent surge tank is full.

AOM1.10P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

52

150. What conditio condition n does not cause cause the refuel refuel / defuel defuel valve to close close during during refueling? refueling? a.

Automa Automatic ticall ally y closes closes when when the the preset preset quan quantity tity is is reache reached d

b.

Manually Manually closes closes by selecting selecting the refuel refuel / defuel defuel valve valve switche switches s at refuel refuel / defuel defuel panel to shut shut

c.

Automa Automatic ticall ally y closes closes when when fuel fuel reach reaches es high high level level in each each tank tank

d.

Automa Automatic ticall ally y closes closes when when overfl overflow ow sensor sensor is activa activated ted

Ans. d

Refueling or defueling is controlled from the refuel / defuel panel located on the lower right side of the fuselage near the air-conditioning pack outlet. The desired quantity of fuel can be selected by the fuel quantity pre-selector on the refuel / defuel panel. The automatic logic loading sequence is so that the outer tanks are normally completely filled while simultaneously the remaining fuel load is distributed to each inner and center tank depending on the fuel load required. If the automatic system fails, refueling can be manually controlled by the refuel / defuel valve switches. Tank refueling is automatically stopped by the Fuel Quantity Indicating (FQI) when the preset quantity is reached. High level sensors are installed in each tank to signal the associated refuel / defuel valve to close when maximum allowance fuel volume is obtained. Overflow sensors are installed in each surge vent tanks to detect fuel overflow during refueling. Complete main tank refueling approximately 25 min depending on refuel pressure. Maximum fuel pressure is 50 psi. AOM1.10P2 151. How can can the defueli defueling ng be perform performed ed by using using fuel fuel tank pumps pumps? a.

Turn Turn on the tank tank pump pump that that requ require ires s defue defueling ling

b.

Turn Turn on tank tank the pump pump that that requi requires res defue defueling ling and and cross cross feed feed valv valve e

c.

Turn on the the tank pump pump that require requires s defueling defueling (and (and cross cross feed valve valve if necess necessary) ary),, and select select the transfer valve on refuel / defuel panel to open

d.

Defueling Defueling can be performed performed by suction suction pressure pressure through through the refuel / defuel defuel couplings couplings only

Ans. c

Defueling can be performed by suction pressure applied at the refuel / defuel couplings and / or using the fuel pumps with the transfer valve open.

AOM1.10P2

152. How can you you refuel the aircraft aircraft to the maximum maximum capacit capacity y (until overflow overflow light light illuminated) illuminated)? ? a.

Open the the refuel / defuel defuel valve valve switc switches hes in order order to refuel refuel each tank, tank, the valves valves will shut shut automatic automatically ally when the overflow light illuminates

b.

Open the the refuel / defuel defuel valve valve switc switches hes and manuall manually y refuel refuel until the high high level level light illumi illuminates nates then then manually shut off the valve

c.

Open the the refuel / defuel defuel valve valve switc switches hes and manuall manually y refuel refuel until the overf overflow low light light illuminates illuminates then then manually shut off the valve

d.

Open the the refuel / defuel defuel valve valve switc switches hes and manuall manually y refuel refuel until the high high level level light illumi illuminates nates then then select mode selector switch to defuel and continue refueling until overflow light illuminates

Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

53

HIGH LEVEL INDICATOR LIGHTS Come on when the max fuel quantity in the corresponding tank is reached. The appropriate refuel / defuel valve closes automatically. Selecting the MODE SELECTOR to DEFUEL position can reopen the valve. MAXIMUM CAPACITY FUELING 1. Refuel /defuel valve switches -

OPEN for receiving tank

-

SHUT for other tank

SET

2. Mode selector switch

REFUEL

3. Monitor fueling until the corresponding HIGH LEVEL lights come on 4. Mode selector switch

OFF

5. Refuel / defuel valve switches (5)

SHUT

6. Mode selector switch

DEFUEL

-

Switch in DEFUEL will bypass the high level restriction

7. Refuel / defuel valve switches

OPEN / SHUT

-

OPEN for tank to be filled. When required volume supplied, set to SHUT.

-

If OVERFLOW light comes on, set switch to SHUT immediately.

AOM VOL 2 8.1/1 p6

153. Will the engines engines flame flame out if you takeof takeofff but forgot forgot to turn on any fuel fuel tank pump pump except except R INR pump 1 and and cross feed valve which using them to supply the APU at that time? a.

No, No, fue fuell can can be grav gravit ity y fed fed

b.

No, one one pump alone is is sufficie sufficient nt to supply supply fuel fuel to both both engines engines at at maximum maximum thrust thrust

c.

Yes, Yes, but but onl only y engi engine ne No. No.1 1 may may flam flame e out out

d.

Yes, Yes, both both engi engine nes s may may flam flame e out out

Ans Ans. b

Each fuel tank is equipped with two centrifugal pumps to supply fuel to the engines. All pumps are identical and the capacity of each pump is sufficient to supply both engines at maximum thrust. In the event of total loss of tank pumps, fuel is fed to the engine by gravity. AOM1.10P2 154. If we want to use use fuel from one one wing in order order to balance balance fuel load by select select both both inner tank tank pump on one wing OFF, does automatic fuel feed mode remain active? a.

Yes, auto-f auto-feed eed mode remain remain active active as long long as at at least one INR INR TK PUMP PUMP and and one CTR TK TK PUMP PUMP are on

b.

Yes, auto-feed auto-feed mode remain remain active active as long as at least least one CTR TK PUMP on

c.

No, at least one pump pump in each each INR TK TK and one one pump pump in CTR TK must must be on

d.

No, at least one pump in each INR TK must be on

Ans. a

Once Auto mode is activated, Auto-feed mode remains active as long as at least one INR TK PUMP and one CTR TK PUMP are selected. This enables the application of the FUEL X-FEED in flight procedure (For fuel balancing or in case of single engine operation) without deactivating the fuel Auto-feed mode. To disengage the automatic fuel feed mode (when it is once engaged) both center tank pumps or all inner wing tank pumps must be selected off. The automatic fuel feed mode can be reset by switching at least one center tank pump and at least one pump on each inner wing tank to ON. AOM1.10P3


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

54

155. 155. When When will will fuel fuel LO LVL LVL lights lights come come on? a.

Fuel quantit quantity y in related related inner inner tank tank drops drops to approxima approximately tely 900 900 kg

b.

Fuel quantity quantity in related related outer tank drops to approx approximate imately ly 900 kg

c.

Fuel quantity quantity in related related inner inner or outer outer tank tank drops drops to approx approximate imately ly 900 kg kg

d.

Total Total fuel fuel quanti quantity ty drops drops to approx approxima imatel tely y 900 kg

Ans. b

LO LVL warning lights Low level lights come on amber when the remaining fuel quantity in the related outer tank drops to approximately 900 kg. The ECAM system is activated. During pitch attitude changes, or in case of deceleration, the LO LVL lights may illuminate at a higher fuel quantity.

AOM1.10P15

156. Which Which statement statement is not true, true, regarding regarding the automat automatic ic fuel feed sequenc sequence? e? a.

After first first engine engine has started, started, CTR TK pumps pumps (if not not empty) empty) will run run for 3 min min before before INR TK pumps pumps stars

b.

After After airbo airborne rne,, CTR TK TK will will start start feed feeding ing (if (if not not empty empty))

c.

If CTR CTR TK low low level level is is reache reached, d, the the CTR TK pumps pumps are stop stopped ped

d.

If CTR TK is not empty, empty, CTR TK pumps pumps will stop after slats are extended extended for over 3 min

Ans. b

At first engine start, if the CTR TK contains fuel, the CTR TK pumps are activated to feed the engine for 3 min then switch to INR TK. After takeoff and slat retracted, CTR TK feeds again until the fuel level uncovers the sensor then INR TK pumps are activated. 3 min after reaching the INR TK low level, INR TK pumps are stopped and CTR TK feeds. In case of a landing with fuel in the center tank and inner tanks, feeding will be transferred to inner tank 3 min after slats extension until engine shutdown.

AOM1.10P3

157. What is the logic logic for transfe transferr of fuel feeding feeding between between OUTR OUTR and and INR TK? TK? a.

By usin using g OUT OUTR R TK TK shu shuto toff ff valv valves es

b.

By usin using g INR INR TK shut shutof offf val valve ve

c.

By reduci reducing ng OUTR OUTR TK pumps pressure pressure to below below the INR TK pumps pumps pressure pressure

d.

By using automatic fuel feeding which has the same logic as INR TK and CTR TK

Ans. c

The outer tank pumps are normally in continuous operation. However, each pump is equipped with sequence valve, which reduces the delivery pressure to 17 psi. The center and i nner tank pumps produce 40 psi delivery pressure. This results in priority flow from inner or center tank pumps. When manifold pressure is below 17 psi, outer tank pumps then take over fuel feeding. 158. What does it mean, mean, if two center center tank pump P/B FAULT FAULT lights lights come on when the center center tank is empty? empty? a.

Any Any cent center er tank tank pum pump p is sti still ll ener energi gize zed d

b.

Both Both cent center er tank tank pump pumps s are are not energi energized zed

c.

Both Both cen cente terr tank tank pump pumps s fau fault lt

d.

Any Any inn inner er tan tank k pum pump p is is ene energ rgiz ized ed

AOM1.10P3 Ans. Ans. a


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

55

In automatic mode, the two center tank pump P/B FAULT lights come on when the center tank is empty and: -

Any center tank pump is still energized, or

-

Both pumps of the left or right inner tank are not energized with fuel in the respective tank.

AOM1.10P3

159. What does it mean mean if four inner tank pump pump P/B FAULT FAULT lights come come on when the center center tank is not empty? empty? a.

Any Any cent center er tank tank pum pump p is sti still ll ener energi gize zed d

b.

Both pumps pumps of the left left or right right inner inner tank are not not energized energized with with fuel fuel in the respectiv respective e tank

c.

Both Both cen cente terr tank tank pum pumps ps are are not not ene energ rgiz ized ed

d.

All four inner tank pumps fault

Ans. c

All four FAULT lights of both inner tank pump P/B’s come on when the center tank is not empty and: -

Both center tank pumps are not energized, or

-

Any inner tank pump is energized

AOM1.10P3

160. Which Which statement statement is not the functio function n of the Fuel Quantity Quantity Indicat Indicator or (FQI)? (FQI)? a.

Provides Provides the the fuel indica indication tion in each fuel fuel tank tank on the the overhead overhead panel panel ,refuel ,refuel / defuel defuel panel panel and and ECAM display

b.

Provides Provides the closin closing g signal signal for refuel refuel / defuel defuel valve valve during refueling refueling

c.

Provid Provides es the the low low leve levell warni warning ng for for each each outer outer tank tank

d.

Provid Provides es the overfl overflow ow light light on the refuel refuel /defue /defuell panel panel

Ans. d

The fuel quantity in each tank is indicated in kilograms on the FUEL QTY indicator on the overhead panel, through the ECAM system and by the indicators on the refuel / defuel panel. During refueling, the fuel quantity indicating system provides the closing signal to the refuel / defuel valve when the respective tank reaches the selected fuel level. A low level warning system is provided for each outer tank. The LO LVL light located on the fuel QTY indicator on the overhead panel illuminates accompanied by the ECAM activation when the fuel level of the corresponding tank drops below 900 kg. AOM1.10P4 161. Which Which statement statement is the function function of Center of Gravity Gravity Control Control Computer Computer (CGCC)? (CGCC)? (600R) (600R) a.

Disp Displa lay y GW GW and and CG on ECAM ECAM

b.

Main Mainta tain inin ing g A/C A/C CG targ target et

c.

Contro Controll the fuel fuel tran transfe sferri rring ng to and from from the trim trim tank tank

d.

All of above

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

56

CENTER OF GRAVITY CONTROL SYSTEM To maintain the CG target, fuel is transferred aft from the center or inner tanks to the trim tank, or forward from the trim tank to the center tank. Aft transfer is controlled by the CGCC, forward transfer is controlled by the CGCC or manually selected on the fuel panel. The CGCC has 3 main functions: -

Computing the aircraft CG and gross weight (GW) which are displayed on the ECAM,

-

Monitoring the aircraft CG and maintaining the CG target,

-

Controlling fuel transfer to and from the trim tank in order to maintain the CG target.

The CGCC is active when: -

The TRIM TK MODE P/B is at AUTO.

-

At least one TRIM TK PUMP pushbutton switch is selected ON.

AOM1.10P4

162. Which Which statement statement is not true, true, regarding regarding the CGCC CGCC in normal normal mode? (600R) (600R) a.

TRIM TK ISOL ISOL valve valve automatica automatically lly opens when A/C is above above FL 205 205

b.

Fuel automatica automatically lly transf transfers ers forward forward and and aft aft when when A/C A/C is above FL 205 205

c.

CGCC CGCC initiates initiates a fast fast forward forward transfe transferr when when A/C is descen descending ding below below FL FL 205

d.

CGCC CGCC maint maintain ains s the CG 0.5% 0.5% forwar forward d of the CG target target..

Ans. a

For CG control, the calculated CG target will be used under the following conditions: -

When the slats are retracted after takeoff, the TRIM TK ISOL valve automatically opens to allow fuel transfer to and from the trim tank.

-

In climb below FL 205, forward transfer occurs if the CG moves beyond the aft target due to fuel burn.

-

Above FL 205, automatic forward and aft transfers are controlled by CGCC. The CG is maintained 0.5% forward of the CG target. If the CG moves aft of the target by more than 0.1%, a fast FWD is initiated until CG is 0.5% forward of the target. Then CG control is remained.

-

In descent crossing FL 205, the CGCC initiates a fast forward transfer in order to empty the trim tank. If the forward CG limit is reached or the center tank is full, forward transfer is suspended. AOM1.10P5

163. How do you you know that that the CGCC is is now entering entering the alternat alternate e mode? (600R) (600R) a.

Fuel will will fast fast forward forward transfer transfer form trim trim tank tank to center center tank until trim trim tank tank is depleted depleted

b.

By ECAM ECAM messag message e “TRIM “TRIM TANK TANK AFT XFR NOT AVAIL” AVAIL”

c.

By ECAM ECAM mess messag age e “TRI “TRIM M TK SYS SYS FAUL FAULT” T”

d.

It is an internal failure and the system will not inform the crew

Ans. b

ALTERNATE MODE A discrepancy between the command and monitor channels in the CGCC will indicate partial failure of the system and will switch the CGCC to enter the alternate mode, which only controls on forward transfer to ensure that the CG is maintained within safe limit and that CTR tank is not overfilled. Note: -

Fuel is automatically transferred forward from the trim tank in steps. No crew action is required.

-

The message “TRIM TANK AFT XFR NOT AVAIL” is displayed on the left ECAM CTR.

AOM1.10P5


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

57

164. What is not a condition condition that caused caused the CGCC CGCC to shifted the control control target target from 0.5% 0.5% forward forward of the CG target to 1.5% more forward? (600R) a.

Manual Manual FWD FWD transf transfer er in flig flight ht conti continuo nuousl usly y more more than than 10 sec sec

b.

The The accu accura racy cy of of FQI FQI data data is is degr degrad aded ed

c.

When When ECAM ECAM mess message age “EXC “EXCESS ESS AFT AFT CG“ CG“ is displ displaye ayed d on ECAM ECAM

d.

AFT CG reache reaches s 37.8% 37.8% MAC MAC for the first first time time

Ans. c

The calculated CG target is shifted 1.5% more forward if: -

MANUAL FWD transfer in flight is more than 10 sec., or

-

The accuracy of FQI data is degraded.

If the AFT CG target reaches 37.8% MAC, the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will be automatically shifted forward 1.5% MAC by a normal forward transfer. AOM1.10P6 165. When will will the message message “CG “CG TARGET TARGET SHIFTED SHIFTED FWD” FWD” be displayed displayed? ? (600R) a.

After After manu manually ally FWD transf transfer er in flight flight more more than than 10 sec sec

b.

When When the CGCC CGCC shift shifted ed CG CG targe targett forwar forward d to 1.5% 1.5% MAC

c.

When When the CGCC CGCC shift shifted ed CG CG targe targett forwar forward d to 2.3% 2.3% MAC

d.

When When the the AFT AFT CG reac reache hes s 38.8 38.8% % MAC MAC

Ans Ans. c

In case of undetected failure of CGCC, an aft CG limit monitoring is provided. The calculation is independent of the CGCC by considering the position of the stabilizer and airspeed. If the AFT CG reaches 37.8% MAC, the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will be automatically shifted forward 1.5% MAC by a normal forward transfer. During flight, if the AFT CG is detected again (the second time), the FWC will send a signal to the CGCC then the CG target will be automatically shifted forward further 2.3% MAC by a fast forward transfer, and ECAM status will display “CG TARGET SHIFTED FWD”. If the AFT CG reaches 38.8% MAC, “EXCESS AFT CG” is displayed, and the flight crew must follow the EXCESS AFT CG procedure.

AOM1.10P6

166. After fuel is transferred forward forward to CTR TANK, the CGCC controls controls the CTR CTR tank fuel quantity to be between 500 – 1700 kg until the trim tank is empty. (600R) a.

True

b.

False

Ans. Ans. a

AOM1.10P5 167. When would would you consider consider using fuel fuel from outer tanks tanks first, first, then followed followed by inner tanks tanks and center tank tank respectively? (600R) a.

When When the there re is is a fue fuell leak leak fro from m the the engi engine ne

b.

When When trim trim tank tank fuel fuel is unus unusab able le

c.

When When inne innerr tan tank k pum pumps ps faul fault t

d.

Never, Never, fuel fuel must be used used in the following following sequence sequence:: CTR tank, tank, INNER INNER tanks tanks and OUTR OUTR tanks tanks

Ans. Ans. b


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

58

OUTR TK ISOL VALVES………………………………………………CHECK IN LINE OUTR TK PUMPS………………………………………………………CHECK ON INR TK PUMPS (4)……………………………………………………..OFF AOM VOL 2

CTR TK PUMPS (2)…………………………………………………….OFF 

EM Checklist

Tanks must be emptied in the following sequence, to reduce the probability of center of gravity exceeding the aft limit, OUTER tanks, INNER tanks and CENTER tank.

10.10

168. Is the trim trim tank tank fuel still still usable usable if both both trim tank tank pumps pumps failed? failed? (600R) (600R) a.

Yes, Yes, by grav gravit ity y fee feed d onl only y

b.

Yes, Yes, by sele select ct TRIM TRIM TK TK MODE MODE swit switch ch to to FWD FWD posit position ion

c.

No, and TRIM TRIM TK ISOL VALVE VALVE switc switch h must be be selected selected to OFF OFF to prevent prevent fuel transf transfer er more more to trim tank

d.

No, and fuel fuel in trim trim tank tank must must consid consider er as unusab unusable le fuel fuel

Ans. a

FORWARD TRANSFER Forward transfer is only possible from trim tank to CTR tank. To perform forward transfer, the CGCC activates the trim tank pumps and opens normal forward transfer valve, plus auxiliary transfer valve in case of fast forward transfer. Manual forward transfer is possible by selecting manually FWD on the MODE P/B. In this case the trim tank pumps are activated and both (normal and auxiliary) forward transfer valves are open (fast forward transfer). Forward transfer can also be performed by gravity, should both trim tank pumps fail.

AOM1.10P7

169. How much much fuel is trapped trapped in each each inner tank tank if fuel is gravity gravity feeding feeding in flight? flight? a.

1000 1000 kg eac each h inn inner er tan tank

b.


c.


d.

4000 kg each inner tank

Ans. b

TAA – TAZ FUEL GRAVITY FEED If INR TK QTY above 2000 kg MAX ………………………………………………………………..FL 200 /MEA / MORA INR TK ISOL VALVE……………………………………………..CHECK IN LINE OUTR TK ISOL VALVE…………………………………………..OFF When INR TK QTY below 2000 kg If an INR TK is affected, the respective OUTR TK must be isolated to prevent OUTR TK feeding. AOM VOL 2

INR TK must be stopped, when the level reaches 2000 kg. Below this level, the non-return valve in the CTR TK feed line may not remain closed, resulting in fuel surges and possible air suction. Consequence the OUTR TK must be used.

EM Checklist 10.6

170. Which Which case will will cause last last digit of fuel fuel quantity quantity indicator indicator to displayed displayed dash dash (-)? a.

Prob Probe e com compe pens nsat ator or fail failur ure e

b.

Atti Attitu tude de sens sensor or fail failur ure e

c.

Pitch Pitch angl angle e great greater er than than 15 for more more than than 4 min. min.

d.

All above

Ans. d Flight Deck Crew Training Department


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

59

Fuel quantity in each tank is displayed in a window in kg x 1000 (+/- 10 kg per tank) Last digit at each indicator may be replaced by a dash (-) in case of : -

Probe compensator failure

-

Cadensicon failure

-

Attitude sensor failure

-

Inadequate refueling procedure

-

Pitch angle greater than 15 for more than 4 min.

This dash indicates that the quantity indication accuracy is degrading to +/-100 kg of the associated tank capacity.

AOM1.10P15

171. What is the correct correct maxim maximum um allowanc allowance e for fuel unbalan unbalanced? ced? a.

Inne Innerr tank tank 200 2000 0 kg and and oute outerr tank tank 900 900 kg kg

b.

Inne Innerr tank tank 400 4000 0 kg and and oute outerr tank tank 900 900 kg kg

c.

Inner Inner tank tank 2000 2000 kg at at T/O, T/O, 4000 4000 kg at L/D, L/D, and and outer outer tank tank 900 kg kg at L/D L/D

d.

Inner tank 4000 kg at T/O, 2000 kg at L/D, and outer tank 900 kg at L/D

Ans. c

AOM 2.10 p2 172. Which Which hydraulic hydraulic pump pump does not use use the YELLOW YELLOW hydraulic hydraulic fluid fluid to operate? operate? a.

A hand pump

b.

A YELL YELLOW OW Pow Power er Tra Trans nsfe ferr Unit Unit (PT (PTU) U)

c.

A Ram Ram Air Air Tur Turbi bine ne (RAT (RAT))

d.

An electrical pump which is used to pressurize the brake accumulators

Ans. b

Two non-reversible Power Transfer Units (PTU) provide power transfer from the pressurized GREEN system to the BLUE or the Yellow system without fluid exchange. If the engine driven pumps are not available, hydraulic power may generated by: -

Two electrical hydraulic pumps in the GREEN system, principally used for maintenance and checklist purpose.

-

One electrical hydraulic pump in the YELLOW system, used to pressurize the brake accumulators or to operate the main cargo compartment doors.

-

One Ram Air Turbine (RAT) driven pump i n the YELLOW system to supply emergency hydraulic power.

-

One hand pump in the YELLOW system, used to operate the main cargo doors when the YELLOW electric pump is not available.

AOM1.11P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

60

173. 173. Which Which stat stateme ement nt is correc correct? t? a.

Hydraulic Hydraulic power power is supplied supplied to a/c various various systems systems via via servo servo control control manifold manifold only. only.

b.

Servo Servo control control manifold manifold supplies supplies the primary primary flight flight controls controls and spoilers spoilers..

c.

Priority Priority valve valve will will isolate isolate the servo servo control control manifol manifold d in the low-pres low-pressure sure conditi condition. on.

d.

Servo Servo control selecto selectorr valve is used to increas increase e hydraulic hydraulic pressure pressure to the respectiv respective e hydraulic hydraulic system system in the event of a control surface jam or fluid loss Ans. b

The priority valve isolates the slats, flaps, krugers, landing gears and nose wheel steering (which supplied by high-pressure manifold) when the pressure has dropped below 1885 PSI to give priority to the primary flight controls.

AOM1.11P2

174. What will will occur ifif you push hydrauli hydraulic c ENG PUMP PUMP P/B switch switch on the overhea overhead d panel to OFF? OFF? a.

Hydr Hydrau auli lic c shut shutof offf valv valve e will will clos close e

b.

Pump will depres depressuriz surize, e, the lubricatio lubrication n and cooling cooling of that that pump pump will discontinu discontinue e

c.

Pump will depres depressuriz surize e but the the lubrica lubrication tion and and cooling cooling of of that that pump will continue continue

d.

The ENG pump pump P/B LO PR light light will will illumi illuminat nate e

Ans. c

ENG PUMP P/B (4) ON

(P/B in). Dump valve solenoid is de-energized, pump set for power generation

OFF

(P/B out, white OFF light on). Engine pump is deactivated. deactivated. Power generation stops due to pump depressurization. Lubrication and cooling of pump will continue. An OFF selection activates on ECAM.

LO PR (Amber). Light comes on, accompanied by ECAM ECAM activation if; with the respective PUMP P/B pressed (ON), pump delivery pressure decreases below 1800 psi. The li ght goes out when the pressure increases above 2200 psi.

AOM1.11P6

175. What is the automati automatic c function, function, if YELLOW reserv reservoir oir quantity quantity indicator indicator drops to red red dot? a.

YELL YELLOW OW ENG ENG driv driven en pum pump p will will tur turn n off off

b.

YELLOW YELLOW FIRE FIRE SHU SHUTOF TOFF F valv valve e will will turn turn off off

c.

YELL YELLOW OW dump dump valv valve e wil willl tur turn n on on

d.

YELL YELLOW OW elec electr tric ic pump pump will will turn turn on

Ans Ans. b

Hydraulic fire shutoff valves, which are shutoff the suction of each engine driven pump, isolate the hydraulic fluid supply to the pump when the respective ENG FIRE handle is pulled. For YELLOW system, the fire shutoff valve will close automatically if the fluid quantity drops below 5 liters to stop fluid loss and reserve the remaining for RAT operation. AOM1.11P3 176. When you turn the GREEN GREEN electrical electrical pump P/B P/B switch to ON, both both electrical pumps pumps will run simultaneously. simultaneously. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. b

ELEC PUMPS P/B ON (P/B in, white ON light on). Both electric pumps are activated. One pump operates immediately, the other starts with 3-sec delay.

AOM1.11P6


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

61

177. Conditions Conditions:: A/C is is on ground ground and both engines engines stopped stopped.. What does it mean, if you are in the cockpit and observe that the brake accumulator pressure indicator is rising to fully charge without any crew action? a.

The main main carg cargo o compar compartme tment nt door door is bein being g opened opened or or closed closed

b.

The hand hand pump pump is being used to to open or close close the the main main cargo cargo compart compartment ment door

c.

The green green elec electri trical cal pumps pumps are being being oper operate ated d

d.

The brake pedals are depressed

Ans. a

Pressurization of the complete YELLOW system by the electric pump is prevented by manifold check valves. When the PARKING BRAKE ACCU press P/B is operated, the two brake accumulators only are pressurized. When an OPEN/CLOSE selector is operated, the corresponding main cargo compartment door operation circuit and the brake accumulators are pressurized. AOM1.11P2 178. What does the the green arc duplicate duplicated d of the hydraulic hydraulic reservoir reservoir quantity quantity indicator indicator mean? mean? a.

Hydra Hydrauli ulic c flui fluid d over over servic serviced ed indica indicatio tion n

b.

Normal Normal usable usable range range of hydraulic hydraulic fluid fluid on on ground ground after after the the engine engine has been starte started d

c.

Norma Normall usabl usable e range range of hydrau hydraulic lic fluid fluid in in fligh flight t

d.

Normal Normal usable usable range of hydraulic hydraulic fluid on ground ground when engine is shutdown shutdown but the the tank is pressurize pressurized d

Ans. d

RESERVOIR QUANTITY INDICATOR (3) GREEN ARC

Normal usable range of hydraulic fluid.

UPPER SMALL GREEN ARC On ground, with reservoir pneumatically pressurized and hydraulic system depressurized. Pointe Pointerr within within sma small ll green green arc arc indica indicates tes norm normal al fluid fluid leve levell in reservoir Pointe Pointerr at max max limi limitt of uppe upperr small small gree green n arc arc indic indicate ates s max max normal fluid level in reservoir Pointe Pointerr at min min limit limit of upper upper smal smalll green green arc arc indi indicat cates es min min normal fluid level in reservoir YELLOW ARC

Fluid in reservoir is low.

RED DOT

Remaining fluid is 5 liters, the ECAM system is activated.

AOM1.11P6

179. Can we use use the YELLOW YELLOW system, system, which which is being being pressurize pressurized d by RAT, until until landing? landing? a.

Yes, Yes, RAT RAT is guaran guarantee teed d to use use in in all all phase phase of flig flight ht

b.

Yes, Yes, RAT RAT can can be be used used unt until il tax taxii spe speed ed

c.

No, RAT cannot cannot be be guara guarante nteed ed when when spee speed d is belo below w 140 140 kt

d.

No, due to low flow of YELLOW YELLOW system, system, RAT can be used in flight only

Ans. c

RAT should be extended if YELLOW circuit is lost provided YELLOW tank is not empty, if the YELLOW circuit is powered by the RAT, YELLOW hydraulic pressure cannot be guaranteed below 140 kt and therefore will not be available for landing.

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 11.1 / 11.2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

62

180. In what case case of hydraulic system system failure can can you restore restore the system system back to ON during approach? a.

Syst System em is lost lost by RSVR RSVR LO AIR AIR PR PR

b.

Syst System em is lost lost by RSVR RSVR OVHT OVHT

c.

Syste System m is lost lost by RSVR RSVR OVHT OVHT and OVHT OVHT light light is extin extingui guishe shed d

d.

Both a. and c.

Ans. d

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 11.7 181. Can you use the PTU to restore restore BLUE and/or YELLOW system system in case of DUAL B + Y HYD SYS SYS LO PR? a.

No, becaus because e it may may decreas decrease e the reliability reliability of of the remaining remaining GREEN GREEN system system

b.

Yes, Yes, both both PTU can can be used used to to restor restore e both both the fail failure ure sys system tems s

c.

Yes, Yes, but but lim limit ited ed to one one PTU PTU only only

d.

Yes, Yes, but you must must turn turn on the GREEN GREEN electr electrica icall pumps pumps

Ans. a

DUAL B + Y HYD SYS LO PR (GREEN REMAINING) Avoid using PTU -

-

It is recommended to avoid using PTU in order not to decrease the reliability of the remaining GREEN AOM VOL 2 hydraulic system. EM Checklist If the PTU was used to repressurize the first affected HYD system, it is recommended to select the PTU to OFF to maintain GREEN system full capability and integrity. 11.2

182. Hydraulic Hydraulic pressure pressure cannot cannot be guaranteed guaranteed by? a.

EDP of the the respecti respective ve engine engine in case case of that that engine engine failure failure

b.

PTU in in case case of the the respec respectiv tive e system system flui fluid d loss. loss.

c.

Yellow EDP in case case of yellow yellow fluid loss to a certain certain level. level.

Ans. Ans. d

d.

All of of ab above.

AOM 1.11

183. How many many wing wing anti-ice anti-ice valves valves are there in in each wing? a.

One no normal va valve

b.

Two no normal va valves

c.

One One norm normal al val valve ve and and one one alte altern rnat ate e valv valve e

d.

One normal normal valve valve and two altern alternate ate valves valves

Ans. c

Ice protection for each wing is provided b heating the leading edges of the slat No. 2 (outer half section) and slat No. 3 (full length) with hot air. Each wing is equipped with two parallel, electrically controlled, pneumatic operated wing anti-ice valves, used for NORMAL and ALTERNATE operation.

AOM1.12p2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

63

184. When will the four wing anti-ice valves (normal and alternate valves of each wing) wing) open simultaneously? simultaneously? a.

Turn Turn on wing wing antianti-ice ice sys system tem with with the the engin engine e bleed bleed air air supply supply

b.

Turn Turn on wing wing antianti-ice ice sys system tem with with the the APU APU bleed bleed air supply supply

c.

Turn Turn on wing wing anti anti-ic -ice e syste system m and and the faul faultt light light come comes s on

d.

Turn on wing wing anti-ice anti-ice syste system m with engine engine bleed bleed air supply supply and and MODE MODE SEL P/B P/B switch switch is select selected ed to ALTN

Ans. b

WING ANTI-ICE SUPPLY P/B ON

(P/B in, blue ON light comes comes on). Wing Wing anti-ice anti-ice valves valves open. With engine bleed air supply: - Two normal valves open, open, when MODE SEL P/B in NORM. - Two alternate valves open, when MODE MODE SEL P/B in ALTN. ALTN. With APU bleed air supply: - Four valves valves open, regardless of MODE SEL P/B. The indication “WING ANTI-ICE ON” is displayed on ECAM memo page.

AOM1.12P10

185. What signal signal will not not cause the the wing anti-ice anti-ice valve valve to close close automatica automatically? lly? a.

Landin Landing g gear gear shoc shock k abso absorbe rbers rs are are compre compress ssed ed

b.

ENG FIRE FIRE hand handle le is pulled pulled with with the the CROSS CROSS BLEED BLEED valv valve e is closed closed

c.

APU blee bleed d sw switc itch is is ON ON

d.

Bleed Bleed air supply supply pressu pressure re is below below 10 psi

Ans. c

All wing anti-ice valves close automatically if main landing gear shock absorbers are compressed or if an ENG FIRE handle is pulled while the AIR BLEED X-FEED valve is closed or when bleed air supply pressure less than 10 psi. On ground, if wing anti-ice system is selected ON, overheating of slat is prevented by means of a time delay relay, which limits the valve opening time to 10 seconds during the test operation. AOM1.12P2 186. Condition: Condition: Aircraft Aircraft is in in flight and and both engine engine and wing wing anti-ice anti-ice valves valves are turned turned ON. What anti-ice valves will remain open in case of electrical system loss? a.

Wing anti-ice anti-ice valves valves will close, close, engine anti-ice anti-ice valves valves will remain remain open

b.

Wing anti-ice anti-ice valves valves will remain remain open, engine anti-ice anti-ice valves valves will close close

c.

Both Both wing wing and and engine engine anti anti-ic -ice e valves valves will will remain remain open open

d.

Both wing and engine anti-ice valves will close

Ans. a

WING ANTI-ICE SYSTEM Incase of electrical or pneumatic power loss, the valves are springloaded closed. ENGINE ANTI-ICE Each engine has its own anti-ice system, independent from the A/C pneumatic system. It is provided by heating the nose cowl leading edge with hot air from high pressure compressor (GE : 11TH stage, PW 15 PW 15TH stage) through an electric controlled, pneumatic operated engine anti-ice valve. When an engine anti-ice valve is opened, a signal is passed to the thrust control computer, which decreases the thrust limit relative to the ambient conditions, engine conditions and anti-ice bleed load. If the electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve circuit fails, the valve opens. AOM1.12P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

64

187. What is the fuel consum consumption ption increase increase in the case case that both wing and engine engine anti-ice anti-ice are used during during the flight? a.

1% incr increa ease se in fuel fuel burn burn

b.


c.


d.

5% increase in fuel burn

Ans. b

Ice protection will reduce range or increase fuel consumption by: -

1% when using engine ice protection

AOM VOL 2

-

2% when using engine + wing ice protection

7.2/1P1

188. When would would you you consider consider using engine anti-ice anti-ice on ground? ground?

a.

OAT is below + 8 O C

b.

OAT is below + 8 O C and moisture is visible

c.

OAT and dewpoint are within 3O C

d.

Both b. and c.

Ans. d

ENGINE ANTI-ICE OPERATION ON GROUND If OAT is below + 8O C and either moisture is visible or dewpoint and OAT are within 3O C of each other. IN FLIGHT If TAT is below + 8O C and there is visible moisture in the air. In general, the higher the temperature is, the higher the cloud liquid content is and hence, the more severe are the icing conditions. At the temperature below – 20O C, icing conditions can be expected to be less severe. Signs of ice build up on unheated portions of the aircraft are visible from the cockpit (window frame, windshield wipers, etc.). 189. Which Which statement statement is correct correct regardin regarding g “Operation “Operation in icing icing condition”? condition”? a.

Wing anti–ic anti–ice e must must be used used for ice ice removal removal not not for prevent prevent ice forma formation tion

b.

It is possib possible le to heat heat TAT TAT probe probes s on grou ground. nd.

AOM2.12P2 Ans. Ans. c

c. If wing anti-ice is inoperative and ice accumulation is detected, increase V L s in clean configuration by

15 Kt. d.

If wing wing anti-ice anti-ice supply supply by APU, APU, both packs packs are able able to operate operate normal normally. ly.


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

65

Wing anti-ice Wing anti-ice may be used either to prevent ice formation or to remove an ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. Wing anti-ice supply should be selected ON whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exists. This can be evidenced by ice accumulation around the flight deck windows or on the flight deck windshield wipers. Wing anti-ice supply by the APU is possible up to 15000 ft, providing one air conditioning pack only is used In case of suspected significant ice accumulation on non de-iced parts, increase the minimum approach speed by 5 kt and multiply landing distance by 1.1 Note Electrical power supply failure will cause the wing anti-ice valves to close, independently of control selector position. THR LIMIT corrections and performance penalties are applicable only when wing anti-ice system is supplied by engine bleed air. If wing anti-ice is inoperative and ice accumulation is detected, increase VLS in clean configuration by 15 kt, increase VLS when surfaces are extended by 10 kt and multiply landing distance by 1.2

AOM VOL 2 8.3/2 P2

190. What does does it mean, mean, if “TAT IN ICING ICING RANGE” RANGE” comes comes on ECAM ECAM memo memo page? a.

A/C A/C is enc encou ount nter erin ing g icin icing g cond condit itio ions ns

b.

TAT is below + 8 O C

c.

TAT is between + 5 O C and -15 O C

Ans. Ans. c

d.

TAT is below 0 O C

AOM1.19/1P8

191. What is the limitatio limitation n for ice accum accumulatio ulation n on the wing wing surface? surface? a.

Uppe Upperr surf surfac ace e of win wing g must must be be free free of of ice ice

b.

Ice on the the upper upper surf surface ace of wing wing must must not exce exceed ed 1.5 1.5 mm mm

c.

Unde Underr surf surfac ace e of of win wing g mus mustt be be fre free e of of ice ice

d.

Both wing surfaces must be free of ice

Ans. a

SURFACE ICING and / or FROST ACCUMULATION ACCUMULATION -

Upper surface and vertical fin must be free of ice, snow and frost.

-

Under surface of wing, frost and ice are permitted at takeoff, provided the depth does not exceed 1.5 mm.

192. What action action must you you perform if the aircraft aircraft is sprayed sprayed with with de-icing de-icing fluid while engines engines are running? running? a.

Clos Close e the the engin engine e ble bleed ed valv valves es

b.

Clos lose the the pack pack valv alves

c.

Close Close the the engin engine e bleed bleed valves valves and the pack pack valv valves es

d.

Noth Nothin ing g nee needs ds to be perf perfor orme med d

AOM2.12P1 Ans. Ans. c


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

66

The following sentences summarizes the crew action associated with each de-icing option: If APU running, -

Close APU bleed valve (before start spraying).

-

Close PACK valves.

If ENG running, -

Close ENG bleed valves (before start spraying).

-

Close PACK valves.

Upon completion of spraying operation, -

Restore APU / ENG bleed, as required.

AOM VOL 2

-

Set PACK valves ON.

8.3/3P2

193. Which Which statement statement is not true, true, regarding regarding the window window heating heating syste system? m? a.

Side Side window windows s heati heating ng have have no no temper temperatu ature re cont control roller ler

b.

Side windows windows have two two heating heating levels levels while while front front windshie windshields lds have have only one heating heating level level

c.

Side windows windows heating heating level is the same as front front windsh windshields ields heating heating in low low level level

d.

Front Front windsh windshiel ields ds high high heatin heating g level level is provid provided ed only only in flight flight

Ans. b

The front windshields are heated on two heating power levels. Low heating power is used on ground, high heating power level is provided in flight. Two windshield anti-ice regulators control the front windshield temperature to 35O C or 42O C. A temperature sensor in each windshield signals the actual temperature to the related regulator, which activates or deactivates the heating power supply from regulator control to the heating elements. The side windows are heated on one heating power level only, without temperature control, corresponding to the front windshield low heating power level. AOM1.12P2 194. 194. Which Which stat stateme ement nt is correc correct? t? a.

There There are are 2 pitot pitot ports, ports, 2 stati static c ports ports and and 2 alpha alpha probes probes

b.

Capt.’ Capt.’s s pitot pitot & stati static c pressu pressure re suppl supply y the ADC ADC 2

c.

When select select CAPT CAPT ADC INST INST P/B to SYS SYS 2, Capt.’s Capt.’s altimeter altimeter read out out is controlled controlled by Capt.’s Capt.’s altimet altimeter er as normal

d. We can synchronize only from Captain’s clock to F/O’s clock

Ans. Ans. d

GMT and DATE selector SYN- Synchronization of captain’s clock ; -

Holding the switch on F/O’s clock has no effect on any clock.

-

Holding the switch on Capt.’s clock for 2 sec recopies both time and date of the F/O’s clock. During this time, output to FMC 1 is lost AOM1.13/4P3

195. 195. Which Which is not true true rega regardi rding ng the the ADC? ADC?

Ans. Ans. c

a.

There are are 2 ADCs, ADCs, if one fail, fail, the other other can can supply supply both Capt. Capt. & F/O F/O instrumen instruments. ts.

b.

ADC receives receives raw raw data from from various various systems systems,, computes computes and supplie supplies s ADC data to flight flight crew’s crew’s instruments and several systems.

c.

STBY air data data system system is processed processed by both both ADCs ADCs and use use as a back up source. source.

d.

We can share share the other other pilot’s ADC ADC & FAC data by pushin pushing g the opposite opposite primary primary source source of ADC ADC INST P/B. Flight Deck Crew Training Department


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

67

STBY air data system information is not processed by any ADC. The STBY airspeed indicators and altimeters are directly pitot-static instruments. Electrical power is not required for standby flight instruments' operation. AOM1.13/2P1 196. How long does does the Cockpit Cockpit Voice Recorder Recorder (CVR) (CVR) record record communic communication ation for? a.

30 min

b.

1 hour

c.

2 hours

d.

4 hours

Ans. c

A solid state cockpit voice recorder (SSCVR), using electronic solid state technology has been installed. It is designed to record the last 120 minutes or 2 hours of radio communication, aural warning sounds, crew conversations and announcements into solid state memory. AOM1.13/5P1 197. 197. What What is not not recor recorded ded on on the CVR? CVR? a.

LP audi audio o sel selec ecto torr pane panel l

b.

PA handset

c.

Area microphone

d.

First observer selector panel

Ans. d

The recorder is done in four channels. The four recording channels are connected to the LP and RP audio selector panels, the PA handset and the area microphone.

AOM1.13/5P1

198. Why are are the batteries batteries switched switched OFF OFF during during on ground ground emergency emergency? ? a.

To pre preve vent nt the the batte batteri ries es fro from m depl deplet etio ion n

a.

To sto stop p the CVR CVR and and pre preve vent nt tap tape e eras erasur ure e

b.

To ensure ensure that that the the emergen emergency cy exit exit lights lights are are illuminat illuminated ed by their own batteri batteries es

c.

To protec protectt the batter batteries ies from from fire fire or smoke smoke

Ans. b

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 20.12 199. Which Which system system must must be dispatched dispatched on every every aircraf aircraft? t? a.

Digi Digita tall Flig Flight ht Dat Data a Reco Record rder er (DF (DFDR DR))

b.

Digita Digitall Fligh Flightt Data Data Acqu Acquisi isitio tion n Unit Unit (DFDAU (DFDAU))

c.

Cock Cockpi pitt Voic Voice e Reco Record rder er (CVR (CVR))

d.

Either CV CVR or or DF DFDR

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

68

DIGITAL FLIGHT DATA RECORDER (DFDR) The DFDR is an electric component consisting of the circuitry for the recording and the recording medium, which is a solid state memory, enclosed in a crash and fireproof container. The recording can hold information for approx. 25 flight hours (50 hours for HS-TAT – Z). After that, the oldest data is erased and new data entered on a freed part. This process is continuous which means that the memory holds data from the last 25 flight hours.

AOM1.13/6P1 DFDR (repair (repair interval CAT B) B) May be inoperative provided the flight deck voice recorder is operative. CVR (repair (repair interval CAT A) A)

AOM VOL 2

May be inoperative provided the flight recorder is operative.

3.1/1P62

200. What is is the prima primary ry source source of of vertical vertical speed speed indica indicator tor ? a.

ADC

b.

IRS

c.

Capt Capt.. and and F/O F/O sta stati tic c sys syste tem m

d. Both A&C

Ans. Ans. b

The primary source of Vertical speed (V/S) indication i s the IRS. An automatic switch over to ADC occurs when an anomaly is detected on the Inertial Vertical Speed (IVS). In normal operation, the VSI repeats the IVS data provided by the IRS. However, the IRS inputs are filtered by a barometric information for the stabilization of V/S indication. If IRS input is lost, the VSI will continuously operate on ADC only (the indicated vertical speed then has a time lag). If ADC data is lost, the VSI will operate on IRS data for only 30 seconds.

AOM1.13/3P1

201. What is the the tolerance tolerance between between ALT 1 and ALT 2 vs. vs. ground, ground, and STBY ALT ALT vs. ground? ground?

a.

±

30 ft both primary and standby ALT vs. ground

b.

±

50 ft both primary and standby ALT vs. ground

c.

±

25 ft for primary ALT vs. ground and ± 80 for standby ALT vs. ground

d.

±

30 ft for primary ALT vs. ground and ± 50 for standby ALT vs. ground

Ans. Ans. c

AOM2.13/3P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

69

202. What is the the tolerance tolerance between between ALT 1 vs. ALT ALT 2 and STBY ALT ALT vs. ALT 1 or ALT ALT 2? (TAG - TAZ) TAZ) a.

ALT 1 vs. vs. ALT ALT 2 = 50 ft, ALT ALT 1 or or ALT ALT 2 vs. vs. STBY STBY ALT ALT = 100 100 ft

b.


c.


Ans. Ans. a

d.


AOM2.13/3P1

AOM2.13/3P1 203. Which Which of the following following interlock interlock circuit circuit conditions conditions does not prevent prevent the selectio selection n of L/D gear to UP? a.

Main Main gear gear shock shock strut strut not fully fully extend extended ed

b.

Bogie Bogie beam beam displa displaced ced from from neut neutral ral positi position on

c.

Land Landin ing g gea gearr doo doorr not not open open

d.

Nose gear not centered

Ans. c

LANDING GEAR OPERATION Normal retraction and extension is electrically controlled by signals from the landing gear control lever on the center instrument penal. The gear is normally powered by GREEN hydraulic system. The retraction and extension cycles are hydro mechanically sequenced. The gear lever has a neutral position between UP and DOWN. When the lever is set in this position, hydraulic pressure is removed from the system. This is the normal fl ight operation. An internal interlock prevents selection of gear UP under any one of the following circumstances: circumstances: -

Main gear shock strut not fully extended

-

Bogie beam displaced from neutral position

-

Nose gear not centered

The interlock system is duplicated for safety reasons and if one system is unserviceable, the other may be selected by a switch. AOM1.14P2 204. How do do the L/D L/D gears gears down lock after gravit gravity y extensio extension? n?

Ans. Ans. d

a.

Both Both main main and and nose nose L/D gears gears down down lock lock by spri spring ng forc force e

b.

Both Both main main and nose nose L/D L/D gears gears down down lock lock by aerod aerodyna ynamic mic force force

c.

Main L/D L/D gears gears down down lock by aerodyna aerodynamic mic force force and and nose nose L/D gear gear down down locks locks by spring spring force

d.

Main L/D L/D gears down lock lock by spring spring force force and nose nose L/D gear down down locks locks by aerodyna aerodynamic mic force force


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

70

GRAVITY EXTENSION The gear may be extended mechanically by using a hand crank in the cockpit if the normal extension is not available due to loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure or electrical supply. GREEN pressure line is isolated and the gear actuators are connected to the return lines. Door up locks released and doors open. The gears then fall down by gravity and down locked by aerodynamic force for nose gear and spring force for main gears. The doors remain open.

AOM1.14P2

205. Which Which statement statement is true true regarding regarding the nose wheel wheel steering steering system system? ?

a.

Rudder pedals can steer the A/C up to 65 O

b.

Moving Moving the the rudder rudder pedals will drive the nose nose wheel steering steering handle handle

c.

Rudder Rudder pedal pedals s have have priorit priority y over over nose nose wheel wheel steer steering ing handl handle e

d.

If towing pin is inserted in the nose gear interphone box, the maximum nose gear steering angle is± 65 O

Ans. Ans. b

NOSE WHEEL STEERING Hydraulic pressure is available for the nose wheel steering via an electro valve if the following conditions are met: -

Landing gears are down locked.

-

Nose and main L/D gear shock absorbers are compressed.

Steering is controlled by either: -

Each handle on each side console (LH and RH), which permits nose wheel deflections up to 65O in either direction and is intended for steering at low speed only,

-

Rudder pedals for steering at high speed. The nose wheel deflection is limited to 6O in either direction.

The rudder pedals are mechanically linked to the steering control linkages in such a manner that moving the pedals will drive the steering handle but the handle will not move the pedals. The steering actuators also act as shimmy dampers. A towing lever on the nose gear interphone box is secured with a pin in the towing position, cutting off hydraulic power. The lever automatically returns to normal operating position when the towing pin is removed. When towing, the maximum nose gear steering angle is ± 95O.

AOM1.14P2,3

206. What is the maximum maximum taxi speed speed during during taxing taxing in a straight straight line? line? a.

15 kt

b.

20 kt

c.

25 kt

d.

30 kt

Ans. d

Taxiway centerline should appear 2 cm right of autoland warning light on LP side when taxiing in a straight line. The normal taxi speed shall not exceed 30 kt. When taxi speed trends to over 30kt at idle thrust, smoothly apply the brakes to slowdown the aircraft to approx. 10 – 20 kt then release the brakes smoothly. This will cause less brake wear.

AOM VOL 2

Slow down to less than 15 kt ground speed before making a turn.

3.3/1 P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

71

207 What is the the proper rotation rotation techniq technique ue to prevent prevent tail strikes strikes the runway runway? ?

a. Aim an attitude not higher than 12.0 O NU until the aircraft leaves the runway b.

O Smoothly rotation and the aircraft will lift off when pitch attitude reaches 10 NU

c. Avoid rotation rate exceeds 3O / sec d. All of above

Ans. Ans. d

ROTATE Initially aim at an attitude not higher than 12.0O NU until the aircraft leaves the runway, confirming by an increase in radio altimeter, then follow the FD bar. (If proper rotation rate is used, the aircraft should lift off when the pitch attitude reaches 10O NU). Check that the required speed of V2 + 10 kt is maintained but do not exceed 18O NU. Tail strike may occur if rotation rate exceeds 3O / sec or aircraft attitude higher than 12.8O NU when on ground.

AOM VOL 2 3.3/2 P3

208. Which Which statement statement is correct correct regarding regarding the the operation operation of brake brake fan? fan? a.

Alwa Always ys taxi taxi with with brak brake e fan fan OFF OFF

b.

O Delayed the takeoff if brake fan is ON and brake temperature is above 150 C

c.

O When flight is terminated (night stop), leave brake to ON if brake temp is above 100 C

d.

At transit transit station, station, set brake brake fan to OFF regardless regardless of next takeoff takeoff time

Ans. b

TAXI CHECKLIST 7.

Brake Brake temp temp & fan…… fan………… …………… ……………… …………… …………… ……….CH .CHECK ECKED ED & OFF OFF If brake fans are ON and indicated temperature is above 150O C, the takeoff must be delayed. Continue brake fan operation until indicated temperature drops below 150O C.

-

NOTE Brake fans ON, a temperature indication of 150O C is equivalent to an actual temperature of 300O C. Takeoff is only permitted with actual brake temperature below 300O C

-

If brake fans are OFF, takeoff may be continued unless BRAKE TEMP HI caution appears, which is activated at 300O C

PARKING CHECKLIST

9. Brake temp & fan…………………………….__ O / OFF / ON Check brake temperature on SYSTEM display:

-

-

-

If below 100O C with brake fan operation, set brake fan OFF

-

If above 100O C, leave brake fan on

AOM VOL 2

If time delay for next take off is more than 2 hours, select BRK FAN OFF regardless of temperature 3.3/2 P9, 13

209. What should should you you do if the brakes brakes are found found inoperativ inoperative e during L/D L/D roll? roll?

Ans. Ans. a

a.

Selects Selects the BRK BRK – A/SKID A/SKID switch switch to ALTN ALTN / OFF OFF immediat immediately ely and uses uses brake brake pressure pressure at or or below 1000 psi

b.

Selects Selects the BRK BRK – A/SKID A/SKID switch switch to ALTN ALTN / ON ON immediate immediately ly and uses uses normal normal brake brake pressure pressure

c.

Recycles Recycles the BRK BRK – A/SKID A/SKID switch switch between between NORM / ON and ALTN ALTN / ON

d.

Uses Uses the the Par Parki king ng brak brake e


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

72

If brakes are found inoperative, switch immediately BRK – A/SKID to ALTN / OFF and modulate brake pressure as required at or below 1000 psi. Brake pedals should be released when the A/SKID is switch to off. Otherwise the pedal braking orders will be taken into account and the aircraft will react strongly.

AOM VOL 2 3.3/7 P3

210. During During A/C is on ground, how can can you ensure ensure that the GREEN GREEN hydraulic hydraulic has been used used for the normal normal brake system? a.

Release Release parking parking brake brake before before taxi out and and check check the brake brake pressure pressure triple triple indicat indicator or drops drops to zero

b.

Release Release parking parking brake brake before before taxi out while while brake brake pedals pedals are depress depressed ed and check check the the brake press pressure ure triple indicator drops to zero

c.

Brake Brake the A/C A/C during during taxi taxi and check check that the the brake brake pressure pressure triple triple indicat indicator or remains remains zero zero

d.

Set the parking parking brake and check check the brake pressure pressure triple indicator indicator indicates indicates 1500 psi

Ans. b

BRAKING Brake check can be performed once the aircraft i s moving or while stopped. To check the brakes while stopped, depress both brake pedals with the parking brake SET. Then release the parking brake and check that the yellow hydraulic pressure on the brake pressure triple indicator drops to zero (or below 130 psi). AOM VOL 2 The main purpose of the brake check is to check that GREEN pressure has taken over and that YELLOW pressure has been cut off. 3.3/1 P1 211. Which Which statement statement is not true true regarding regarding the brakes brakes / anti-skid anti-skid syste system? m? a.

BRK – A/SKID A/SKID switc switch h position position in NORM NORM / ON, ON, the GREEN GREEN pressur pressure e is used used with YELLOW YELLOW press pressure ure is backup

b.

BRK – A/SKID A/SKID switch switch positi position on in ALTN ALTN / ON, ON, the YELLOW YELLOW pressure pressure is used with with YELLOW YELLOW accumulator pressure is backup

c.

The park parking ing brake brake uses uses YELL YELLOW OW accum accumula ulator tor press pressure ure only only

d.

The YELLOW YELLOW accumulat accumulator or is standing standing by for all modes of braking braking system system

Ans. c

There are four braking modes: -

Normal braking uses GREEN hydraulic pressure and includes an anti-skid system. It is electrically controlled. The BRK – A/SKID switch is i n NORM / ON position.

-

Alternate braking with anti-skid uses YELLOW pressure. It is hydraulic controlled. The BRK – A/SKID switch is in ALTN / ON position. If the BRK – A/SKID switch is in NORM / ON position and GREEN pressure is not available or drops during braking, this mode is automatically selected.

-

Alternate braking without anti-skid uses the same hydraulic lines as the alternate system. It is automatically selected if both GREEN and YELLOW hydraulic system fail, or if the BRK – A/SKID switch is moved to ALT / OFF. In the first case, power is supplied by two accumulators in the YELLOW system which are charged by an electric pump and which contain sufficient fluid for seven full brake applications. In the second case, normal YELLOW system pressure is utilized, backed up by the accumulators. The anti-skid protection is not available.

-

The parking brake uses YELLOW hydraulic pressure or YELLOW accumulator pressure.

AOM1.14P3

212. Condition: Condition: Auto Auto brake is armed armed in flight flight according according to the Approac Approach h checklist. checklist. When will the auto brake be activated after touchdown? a.

Main Main whee wheell shock shock absorb absorbers ers are compre compress ssed ed

b.

Nose Nose whee wheell is is on grou ground nd

c.

One One engi engine ne thr thrus ustt reve revers rser er is is sele select cted ed

d.

Ground spoilers are extended

Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

73

AUTOBRAKE SYSTEM The system is armed by selecting the LO, MED or MAX mode provided all the following arming conditions are met: -

Landing gear lever is DOWN

-

BRK – A/SKID selector is at NORM / ON or parking brake selected ON

-

BRK FAIL light off

-

Green pressure available

-

No failure on the auto brake system

-

Pressure transceivers and master valves normally operating

The system is initiated by ground spoiler extension command, i.e. whenever the ground spoiler is activated the auto brake will function in the mode selected – LO, MED or MAX AOM1.14P3 213. Which Which statement statement is not true true regarding regarding the anti-sk anti-skid id system? system? a.

Eight Eight normal normal antianti-sk skid id valves valves are are suppl supplied ied by GREEN GREEN hydr hydraul aulic ic

b.

The anti-sk anti-skid id in alternat alternate e mode uses the the same same servo servo valves valves as normal normal mode used

c.

Anti-skid Anti-skid system system uses uses the rotation rotation speed speed of the the nose nose wheel wheel and one of the eight main main wheels wheels for for comparison

d.

Rele Releas ase e sig signa nall of of the the anti anti-s -ski kid d sys syste tem m is show shown n as as rel relea ease se bars bars on the the whe wheel el page page of the the ECA ECAM M

Ans Ans. b

There are two sets of the anti-skid regulator valves, one for normal system consisting of eight normal servo valves, supplied by the GREEN hydraulic system, the other for al ternate system consisting of four alternate servo valves, one for two wheels, supplied by the YELLOW hydraulic system. The anti-skid system is based on a comparison between a reference signal by the nose wheel and the rotation speed of each of the eight wheels of the main landing gear. When the two signals differ, a release signal is sent to the affected brake. Release indication is shown as release bars on the wheel page of the ECAM. 214. 214. Can we taxi taxi with with deflat deflated ed tires tires? ?

Ans. Ans. c

a.

Yes, with maximum maximum of 2 deflated deflated tires tires on on each each main main wheel. wheel.

b.

No, No, a/c a/c has has to to be be tow towed ed only only..

c. d.

AOM1.14P4

Yes, with with maximum maximum of up to 4 deflated deflated tires tires on each each main main wheel but but nose wheel wheel steering steering is not permitted. No, a/c a/c canno cannott be moved moved withou withoutt deflate deflated d tire chan changed ged..


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

74

Taxi with deflated tires : If tire damage is suspected after landing, an inspection of the tires is required before taxiing. If tires are deflated but not damaged, taxi can be done at low speed with the following limitations : 





Maximum of 2 deflated tires on each each main gear (one per an axle) and /or one deflated tires on the nose LDG -

Nose gear steering angle less than 20°

-

Speed limited to 20 kt.

Three deflated tires on the same main gear :

-

Nose gear steering angle limited to ± 50°

-

Speed limited to 10 kt.

Four deflated tires on the same main gear : - Nose wheel steering steering not permitted.

AOM2.14 P1

215. Which Which causes the the red L/D down arrow light light illuminated illuminated with with red master master warning light light and CRC? a.

One engi engine ne at idle idle,, altitu altitude de below below 1500 1500 ft, ft, and and L/D gear gear not not down down

b.

One engi engine ne at idle idle,, altitu altitude de below below 1000 1000 ft, ft, and and L/D gear gear not not down down

c.

Engine Engine not in takeof takeofff power, power, slats/fl slats/flaps aps 15/20, 15/20, altitude altitude below below 1000 1000 ft, and L/D gear not not down

d.

Slat Slats/ s/fl flap aps s 30/4 30/40, 0, L/D L/D gear gear not not down down

Ans Ans. d

L/D gear not down – Approach -

L/D gear not down, and

-

One engine at flight idle and the other not at T/O thrust, and

-

Altitude below 750 ft.

( Able to cancel by using normal cancel switch) L/D gear not down – Landing -

L/D not down, and slats/flaps is 15/20

-

Engine not in T/O thrust

-

Altitude below 750 ft.

L/D gear not down – Landing -

L/D not down and slats/flaps is 30/40

AOM1.14P15

216. After extendin extending g the L/D gear by gravity, gravity, normally normally we will not turn turn the hand crank back back in order to reset reset the Ans. Ans. a free fall system, but there are some cases that the checklist called for resetting the free fall system, what are those cases and why? a.

Landing Landing with nose or main main L/D gear unsafe unsafe in order order to close close the L/D L/D gear gear doors doors

b.

Landing Landing with dual dual hydraulic hydraulic syste system m failure failure (GREEN (GREEN remaining remaining)) in order to to steer the the A/C on on ground ground

c.

Whenever Whenever made made the overwei overweight ght L/D togethe togetherr with L/D L/D gear gravit gravity y extension extension in order order to resum resume e the normal braking system

d.

None of of ab above


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

75

LANDING WITH NOSE, ONE MAIN, or BOTH MAIN L/G ABNORMAL GRAVITY EXTENSION hand crank………………………………BACK TO NORM

AOM VOL 2

-

EM Checklist

Rotating the GRAVITY EXT hand crank to normal position may result in landing gear door(s) closure, and under certain failure conditions pressurize the landing gear actuators.

14.9/10/11

217. By how much much is the fuel consumptio consumption n increased increased if flying with L/D gear gear door not close close and with L/D gear extended? a.

Fuel consumpti consumption on is increased increased by 30% 30% / fuel fuel consum consumption ption is multipl multiplied ied by 3.3

b.


c.


d.


Ans. Ans. b

AOM VOL 2 EM Checklist 14.3/4 14.6/7 218. What is the the speed speed limit limit for the L/D gear extens extension? ion? a.

240 / .53

b.

250 / .53

c.

270 / .59

d.

300 / .65

Ans. Ans. c


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

76

Speed limits for gear operations: -

Extension……………………………… Extension…………………………………………………..270 …………………..270 / .59

-

Extended……………………………………………………270 / .65

-

Retraction………………………………… Retraction…………… ……………………………………..240 ………………..240 / .53

AOM2.14P1

219. 219. What What is the the corr correct ect meanin meaning g of VC trend speed (yellow arrow extend up or down from the actual speed symbol)? a.

Spee Speed d that that will will be be achi achiev eved ed in in next next 10 10 sec sec

b.

Spee Speed d that that will will be be achi achiev eved ed in in next next 15 15 sec sec

c.

Speed increasing increasing or decrea decreasing sing by 10 10 kt depending depending on the thrust thrust setting setting

d.

Indicator Indicator of increasing increasing or decreasing decreasing of speed in order to remind remind the the pilot to reduce reduce or advance advance thrust thrust

Ans. a

SPEED TREND Presented by an arrow from the actual speed symbol. Trend for the next 10 sec.

AOM1.15/1P4

220. What is the roll angle angle and and nose up attitude attitude that that the FD will will disappear? disappear?

a.

Bank angle exceeds 30 O and pitch attitude exceeds 25 O

b.


c.


d.


Ans. Ans. b

ROLL INDEX AND SCALE If the bank angle exceeds 45O, the following information only remains displayed: -

Pitch and roll attitudes

-

Speed

-

Heading

-

FPV (if selected)

All other information is cleared from the display. The PFD display returns to normal when the bank angle decreases below 40O. PITCH SCALE If the pitch attitude exceeds 25O nose up or 13O nose down, the following information only remains displayed: -

Pitch and roll attitudes

-

Speed

-

Heading

-

FPV (if selected)

All other information is cleared from the display. The PFD display returns to normal when the pitch attitude decreases below 22O nose up or increases above 10O nose down.

AOM1.15/1P4


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

77

221. What does does it mean, mean, if ILS is flashing flashing on the lower lower right corner corner of the corres correspondin ponding g PFD? a.

The ILS ILS sig sign nal has los lost

b.

The The LAND LAND capa capabi bili lity ty is down downgr grad aded ed

c.

The LAND LAND mode mode is selected selected but but NAV-ILS NAV-ILS-VOR -VOR switch switch is not in ILS positi position on

d.

The ILS signal is available but the LAND mode is not selected

Ans. c

ILS REMINDER ILS flashes if LAND mode is selected and NAV – ILS – VOR switch is not in ILS position.

AOM1.15/1P5

222. What should should you perform perform if the PFD informatio information n lost (PFD displays displays blanking blanking with with white diagonal diagonal line or complete blanking)? a.

Sele Select ct the the PFD PFD / ND XFR XFR (af (affe fect cted ed sid side) e)

b.

Sele Select ct the the EFI EFIS S SGU SGU to usin using g syst system em 3

c.

Turn Turn off off the the affec affected ted side side PFD PFD brig brightn htness ess knob knob

d. Unable to recover the loss PFD

Ans. c

LOSS OF PFD DISPLAY (TAA – TAZ) 

If loss of CRT is suspected (CRT is blank) or when PFD information required PFD brightness knob (affected side)………………………………… side)……………………………………OFF …OFF -



PFD information is recovered on the l ower CRT (replacing ND information) by switching failed PFD off using PFD brightness knob. If ND information required

AOM VOL 2

PFD / ND XFR (affected side)………………………………………ON

EM Checklist

-

ND information can be recovered on the lower CRT by using PFD / ND XFR pushbutton.

15.7

223. If VOR 1 receiver receiver failed, failed, the marker marker receiv receiver er is also inoperat inoperative. ive. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a

VOR SYSTEM Two independent VOR/Marker receivers are installed using a common VOR antenna located on the top of the vertical stabilizer. Each system is tuned together with the DME either automatically by the FMS or manually by the frequency selector on the VOR control panel. MARKER SYSTEM The marker receiver is an integrated part of the VOR/Marker receiver no.1 using an antenna located on the bottom of the fuselage. The receiver is activated simultaneously with VOR 1. There is no control for the receiver except for the volume control and the dimming of the marker light. AOM1.15/3P1 224. What is the the meaning meaning of the RA (red) (red) displays displays on the PFD PFD instead instead of the radio height height readout? readout? a.

The The corr corres espo pond nding ing RA sys syste tem m fail fails s

b.

Both oth RA RA sy system tems fai fails ls

c.

DH indica indicatio tion n (on (on EFIS EFIS contro controll pane panel) l) fails fails

d.

Both a. and b.

Ans. b

RA 1 height is normally displayed on PFD 1 and RA 2 height on PFD 2. In case of failure of one system, the other system automatically supplies the RA height to the affected side PFD. AOM1.15/7P1 When both RA’s fail, RA (red) is displayed in place of radio height readout.

AOM1.15/7P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

78

225. 225. What What is the defi definit nition ion of gree green n dot speed speed? ? a.

The best best climb climb gradi gradient ent speed speed in clean clean confi configur gurati ation. on.

b.

The recomme recommended nded speed speed for holding holding because because itit is very very close close to the Max Max Enduranc Endurance e speed. speed.

c.

The mane maneuve uverin ring g speed speed in clea clean n config configura uratio tion. n.

d. All of the above.

Ans. Ans. d

GREEN DOT DEFINITION The green dot speed is defined to give the best climb gradient capability in clean configuration (close to the best lift to drag ratio). It is used for different purposes: t For the ENGINE OUT CONFIGURATION, it represents : -

The FINAL FINAL TAKEO TAKEOFF FF SPEED SPEED and thus thus the the opti optimum mum climb climb speed speed

-

The DRIFT DRIFT DOWN SPEED SPEED that that provides provides the best best descen descentt flight flight path path and thus thus ensure ensures s the best obstacle clearance.

2.1 With ALL ENGINES ENGINES OPERATING, OPERATING, it indicates the speed allowing the best climb gradient. For example, it represents the target speed in LVL/CH mode or PROF (MAX CLB), when during climb and the ATC requests to expedite through a given FL.

The GREEN DOT SPEED is very close to the MAX ENDURANCE SPEED; it is, therefore, used as : -

Recomm Recommend ended ed speed speed for holdin holding g patt pattern ern in clean clean config configura uratio tion n

-

Lowe Lowerr lim limit it for for ECO ECON N SPD SPD targ target et..

The GREEN DOT SPEED is finally the recommended MANEUVERING SPEED in clean configuration, AOM Bulletin which provides adequate margin relative to Vs (between 1.4 Vs and 1.5 Vs), for example, to follow a circuit for approach or for holding pattern. No. 27 226. If you plan to to takeoff takeoff with NAV mode mode to follow follow a cleared cleared SID, which which page of ND and and VOR selecto selectorr you should set? a.

PF’s PF’s ND set MAP MAP mode mode and and PF’s PF’s VOR VOR sele selecto ctorr to VOR VOR

b.

PF’s PF’s ND set set ROSE/ ROSE/ARC ARC mode mode and PF’s PF’s VOR VOR sele selecto ctorr to VOR VOR

c.

PF’s PF’s ND set set ROSE/ ROSE/ARC ARC mode mode and PF’s PF’s VOR VOR sele selecto ctorr to NAV NAV

d.

PF’s PF’s ND set MAP MAP mode mode and PF’s PF’s VOR VOR select selector or to NAV

Ans. d

USE OF FMS & NAV If no SID is published or ATC clearance includes an interception of radial, PF’s ND should be set to ROSE or ARC mode. The VOR selector on PF’s side must be selected in VOR position. If the climb out is according to SID and is included in the FMS NAV database, entered the cleared SID in FMS and check that all waypoints are according to published. PF shall monitor the aircraft track by selecting MAP mode on ND and CTSR mode on EFIS control panel. In this case it is recommended to select PF’s VOR selector to NAV position and remote tune the station used during departure in FMS if required. PNF’s ND should be set as appropriate in order to best monitor the aircraft track. PF and PNF’s FMS should be selected to PROG and TAKEOFF page respectively. The two pages may be selected in reverse if PIC deems necessary.

AOM VOL 2 3.3/2 P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

79

227. What is the recomm recommended ended tilt tilt angle of weather weather radar during during takeof takeoff? f?

a.

4O up

b.

4O - 7 O up

c.

5 O up

d.

3O - 5 O up

Ans. Ans. b

For departure with weather along the departure route, scan the departure area during taxi-out or initial runway alignment for the smoothest track. Set the range to 15 – 30 nm and the tilt to about 4O - 7O up to give the best picture of the departure weather with minimum ground clutter. If the level off is required shortly after takeoff, lower tilt to about 3O - 5O up or until ground clutter interferes with the picture clarity. When aircraft is cleared up and on initial climb, extend the range to 30 – 60 and set the tilt to 3O - 5O up. When on the normal climb speed schedule between 10000-20000 ft, set the range to 60 – 120 and the tilt to 2O - 3O up. As the aircraft climbs to cruising altitude, the range and tilt can be adjusted for best reception of interested targets. For medium altitude cruise (around 20000 ft), the tilt will normally be about 0O and varied according to range selected to show traces of ground clutter in the top of the picture. For descents, use normal cruise procedures. If there is extensive weather in the area, check the different ranges. Below 10000 ft, use 2O - 3O up-tilt for targets out of 40 miles. This will eliminate tilt adjustment during AOM Bulletin approach. If there is extensive weather in the terminal area, adjust the tilt control to pick up light ground clutter on the top of the screen, so no cells will go undetected. No. 25 228. Conditions Conditions:: You found found the the weather weather cell cell when when radar tilted 4O down and 50 nm ahead, and the cell disappeared when adjust the tilt angle up to 2O down. What is the clearance between aircraft and the top of the cell? a.

5000 ft

b.

8000 ft

c.

10000 ft

d.

12000 ft

Ans. c

For normal cruise altitudes, it will be difficult to detect cells lower than the cruise altitude inside of the 40 miles range due to ground clutter, particularly over land. For this reason, diversion tactics should be initiated at least 40 miles from the target cell. Low level targets will not visible beyond the line of sight due to the earth’s curvature. To determine the clearance between the aircraft and the top of the cell, slowly tilt the antenna up until the target return disappears. The clearance in feet will be 100 times the distance to the cell times the degrees the antenna is tilted down, i.e., a 55 mile target is lost at 2O down. Clearance will be (100) AOM Bulletin (55) (2) = 11000 ft. Keep in mind that the top of the precipitation level is not necessary a safe level to penetrate. There could be considerable turbulence above the cell. No. 25 229. What is the limitatio limitation n of the weather weather radar radar operation operation on ground ground? ? a.

Do not operate operate while while aircraft aircraft is refueling/d refueling/defueli efueling ng or nearby nearby 300 300 ft of the aircraft aircraft being refueled/defueled

b.

Do not not opera operate te with within in 50 ft of person personnel nel in in the beam beam area area

c.

Do not operate operate within within 300 ft ft of a large large metal metal object object in a 180 degrees degrees sector sector in front front of the the aircraft aircraft

d.

All of above

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

80

AOM2.15/5P1 230. What is the the scale of the the TCAS traffic traffic displaye displayed d in front, abeam, abeam, and behind behind of the VSI? VSI? a.

6.5, 6.5, 4, 2.5 2.5 nm nm res respe pect ctiv ivel ely y

b.

5, 4, 3 nm nm re respe spectiv ctivel ely y

c.

6.5, 6.5, 2.5 2.5,, 2.5 2.5 nm resp respec ecti tive vely ly

d.

A radius of 6 nm

Ans. a

A white aircraft symbol is displayed in the lower center of the VSI representing TCAS equipped aircraft. A white range ring made up of 12 marks, each corresponding to a normal clock position, is included. The range ring surrounds the aircraft with a radius of 2 nm and is intended to assist in interpreting TCAS traffic information. The scale of the VSI display is 6.5nm to the top display edge of the VSI (ahead of the aircraft), 4nm to the left and right edges, and 2.5nm to the bottom (rear of the aircraft).

AOM1.15/6P3

231. What is the vertical altitude of the TCAS Other Traffic (symbol ◊)?

a.

± 1200

ft

b.

± 1200

ft and in 6 nm range

c.

± 2700

ft and in 6 nm range

d.

± 2700

ft or ± 9900 ft and in 6 nm range

Ans. Ans. d

Symbol for the TA/RA displays is as follow: -

Resolution advisory

(filled red square)

Represents intruder aircraft entering the warning area, 15-35 sec from the collision area. -

Traffic advisory

(filled yellow circle)

Represents intruder aircraft entering the caution area, 20-48 sec from the collision area. -

Proximate traffic x (filled cyan diamond) Represents aircraft within 6nm and ± 2700 ft vertically. Proximate traffic is shown to improve situation awareness in the event of a potential conflict with higher priority RA or TA aircraft.

-

Other traffic ◊ (unfilled cyan diamond) Represents any transponder replying traffic not classified as an intruder or proximate traffic within ft and ± 9900 ft vertically at 6nm range.

± 2700

Data tag which is made up of a two digit number, a + (plus) or – (minus) sign and vertical trend arrow appears either above or below the intruder aircraft symbol. The data tag appears in the same color as the advisory symbols.

AOM1.15/6P4


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

81

232. Does the TCAS TCAS display display traffic traffic that entered entered the caution or warning warning zone but is outside outside the range range of the display? a.

Yes, but the symbol symbol will will not not move move until until the traffic traffic comes comes within within range range

b.

Yes, Yes, but displ display ay as a half half symbo symboll at the the edge edge of the the displa display y area area

c.

No, TCA TCAS S is unable unable to disp display lay traff traffic ic outsi outside de the displ display ay range range

d.

No, TCAS is unable to detect detect traffic traffic outside outside of the display display range

Ans. b

In the event of off-scale traffic advisory, i.e., TCAS tracks an intruder that is outside the range of the display but has entered the caution areas, one-half of the appropriate symbol will appear at the appropriate bearing at the edge of the display area. The symbol will appear in its proper color and have its data tag displayed if there is room. AOM1.15/6P4 233. What is the priority priority sequence sequence of the environm environment ent alert systems systems? ? (list from highest highest priority priority)) a.

Stal Stall, l, GPWS GPWS,, TCA TCAS S and and Wind Windsh shea ear r

b.

GPWS GPWS,, Sta Stall ll,, Win Winds dshe hear ar and and TCAS TCAS

c.

Wind Windsh shea ear, r, TCAS TCAS,, GPW GPWS S and and Stal Stall l

d.

Wind Windsh shea ear, r, Stal Stall, l, GPWS GPWS and and TCAS TCAS

Ans Ans. d

TCAS is an environmental system similar to the GPWS and the Windshear Alert System. Higher alert rates are expected for TCAS TA&RA as compared to the other systems on the aircraft. For this reason, TCAS alerts and advisory are independent on the normal aircraft warning system. The priority of the environmental alerts are listed in the priority sequence as follows: -

Windshear

-

Stall

-

GPWS

-

TCAS

When TCAS is inhibited by Windshear, Stall or GPWS, TCAS will revert to the TA only mode. Voice alerts will be inhibited.

AOM1.15/6P1

234. How does does the crossing crossing aircraf aircraft, t, 6000 ft higher, higher, display display on the TCAS/VS TCAS/VSI? I? a.

Traffic Traffic is always always display display as the Other Other traffic traffic symbol symbol on the the VSI if it is within within range

b.

TCAS is unable to display the traffic outside ± 2700 ft vertically

c.

By sele select ctin ing g the the mode mode sel selec ecto torr to ABV ABV

d.

By selecting the mode selector to THRT

Ans. c

TCAS TRAFFIC DISPLAY MODE SELECTOR THRT The TCAS traffic display is in “Threat traffic” configuration and has the following results: -

The Other and Proximity traffic can be shown only in case TA or RA are also present

ALL

The TCAS TCAS traffic displays is in “All traffic” traffic” configuration. configuration. All the intruders are presented, presented, even if no TA or RA is present.

ABV

The TCAS TCAS traffic display is vertically extend to – 2700 ft and + 9900 ft.

BLW

The TCAS traffic display is vertically vertically extend to – 9900 ft and + 2700 ft.

AOM1.15/6P7

235. It is important important that pilots must follow the TCAS RA even when there is an opposite avoiding instruction given by the controller. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a Flight Deck Crew Training Department


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

82

It is important that pilots follow all RA’s even when there is: -

An opposite avoiding instruction by the controller If the RA is not followed, it can adversely affect safety when the other aircraft responds to a coordinated RA.

-

Conflict close to the top of the operating envelop If a “Climb” RA is generated, it may be possible to climb at least a little but do not descent, opposite to the RA.

-

Traffic information from the controller The slower update rate of the radar display means that the vertical situation seen by the controller may be inaccurate, particularly when aircraft are rapidly climbing or descending.

-

Visual acquisition The wrong aircraft could be identified and the situation may be wrongly assessed.

It is recognized that the workload is often high during a TCAS RA encounter, nonetheless crew shall notify ATC as soon as possible using the standard phraseology (e.g. “(call sign) TCAS CLIMB”)

AOM Bulletin No. 44

236. Which Which statement statement is not true true regarding regarding the Inertial Inertial Referenc Reference e Unit (IRU)? (IRU)? a.

All three three IRU IRU’s ’s have have thei theirr own own batter batteries ies

b.

IRU 1 can can be supp supplied lied by batt batteri eries es for for at leas leastt 30 min min

c.

IRU 2&3 can can be suppli supplied ed by batter batteries ies for for 30 sec then then shed shed

d.

IRU 3 can be supplied supplied by batteries batteries for at least 30 min in case of IRU 1 failure failure

Ans. a

In the event of 115 V AC primary power loss, the three IRU’s are automatically supplied by batteries, which are also A/C batteries. With regard to electrical loads balance, only IRU 1 remain supplied until 28 V DC battery power supply is not available (at least 30 min). IRU 2 and IRU 3, which are also supplied by the 28 V DC batteries, are load sheds after 30-sec delay. If IRU 3 is previously selected (in case of IRU 1 failure), only IRU 3 remains supplied by 28 V DC batteries. AOM1.15/8P1 237. What is the differenc difference e between IRS WARN WARN light on the Mode Mode Selector Selector Unit (MSU) (MSU) illuminated illuminated steady steady and flashing? a.

Steady Steady when when IRS IRS is internal internal failure failure,, flashing flashing when IRS power is failed failed

b.

Steady Steady when when IRS IRS navigat navigation ion signal signal is lost, lost, flashing flashing when when IRS IRS is failed failed

c.

Steady Steady when when IRS IRS is failed, failed, flashing flashing when IRS navigation navigation signal signal is lost

d.

Steady when IRS is failed, flashing when IRS detects an error in present position loaded

Ans. c

The system contains a number of reasonableness checks to prevent errors in present position loading. If an error exceeds 3 + 3T nm (where T is time in NAV in hour), the ALIGN mode light flashes. The system also contains a fault monitoring circuit that detects any system malfunction. The IRS WARN light flashes if the navigation signal is lost and ATT must be selected. In case of IRS failure, IRS WARN light comes on steady and the system must be shutdown. AOM1.15/8P2 238. Which Which FMS data data does not not clear clear after A/C A/C on ground ground an engine engine shutdown shutdown? ? a.

All All vari variab able les s usin using g defa defaul ultt val value ues s

b.

All All var varia iabl bles es ente entere red d by by the the crew crew

c.

All variab variables les entere entered d as as a result result by the FMS FMS

d.

All vari variabl ables es conc concern erning ing the the seco seconda ndary ry fligh flightt plan plan

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

83

Automatic clearing of data On ground at the end of flight with both fuel flow indications < 200 kg/h: -

All variables using default values will be reset to these values.

-

All variables entered by the crew or entered as a result by the FMS are cleared.

AOM1.15/9

-

Variables concerning the secondary flight plan are not cleared.

P11

239. How can can we check check the radial radial error error rate rate of each each IRU? IRU?

a. Update FMC present position on PROG page by the Ramp position. b. Check IRS 1/2/3 position from ISDU and insert each position at RLSK opposite BRG/DIST and compare BRG/DIST of each IRS 1/2/3 to the ramp position (radial errors)

c. Compute radial error rates to be within 2.4 N.M./hr, otherwise enter in a/c Log. d. All of the above.

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

84

AOM2.15/9 P22 240. 240. Where Where does does the the COST COST INDEX INDEX come come from? from? a.

Cost Cost of fuel fuel / cos costt of of tim time e

b.

Cost Cost of time time / cos costt of of fue fuel l

c.

(60) (60) * (cos (costt of time time (1 sec) sec) / cost cost of of fuel fuel (1 (1 kg)) kg))

d.

(60) * (cost of fuel (1 kg) / cost of time (1 sec))

Ans. c

AOM1.15/9 P18


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

85

241. When is the the FMS FMS automati automatically cally updated updated on ground? ground? a.

NAVAI AVAIDS DS is rec receiv eived

b.

RWY RWY thresh threshold old posit position ion is prov provide ided d and GO leve levers rs are are pressed pressed

c.

Aircraft is is mo moved

d.

The FMS can be updated only in the air and after receiving of NAVAIDS

Ans. b

An automatic updating of the FMS navigation on the RWY threshold coordinates (corrected with TO. SHIFT if inserted) is provided at T/O when GO levers are pressed. This automatic updating can occur only if a RWY has previously been entered into F – PLN (through SID page)

AOM1.15/9 P31B

242. The required required navigation navigation accuracy accuracy on the FMS FMS PROG page page can be manually manually modified. modified. a.

True

b. False

Ans. Ans. a

Estimated Position Error The EPE is a value, which represents an estimation of the FMS position accuracy. The EPE depends on the current navigation mode. It is permanently computed by the FMS. -

When in pure Inertial navigation mode, the EPE increases continuously according to the IRS drift model.

-

When in Radio / Inertial navigation mode, the FMS computes an EPE which represents the achievable accuracy according to the radio beacons which are tuned.

-

If the aircraft position is invalid, either in flight or on the ground, the EPE is set at 17 N.M.

EPE initialization -

At power up, the EPE is initialized at 17 N.M.

-

After IRS alignment, manual update on the ground or takeoff update, the EPE is set to 0.28 N.M.

-

After a manual update in flight, the EPE is set to 4 N.M.

Required navigation accuracy Depending on the flight area over flown (en route, terminal or approach), the FMS computes a default value the required navigation accuracy. This value can be manually modified. The default values are: -

En route area: 3.41 N.M.

-

Terminal area: 2.07 N.M.

-

Approach area: 0.36 N.M. (DME (DME / DME update)

AOM1.15/9

0.61 N.M. (VOR / DME update)

P31C

243. Since Since only 20 waypoints waypoints can can be inserted inserted in the FMS DEFINE DEFINED D WAYPOINT WAYPOINT page, page, if 21st WPT is entered, the first one is deleted, unless it belongs to the F–PLN. In this case the second one is deleted. a.

True

b.

False

Ans. a

AOM1.15/9 P39B Flight Deck Crew Training Department Last Update on 09 March 2011 By Capt. Somsak P.

Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

86

244. By what distance will FMS shift the threshold position position after you press TO SHIFT prompt prompt on the FMS TAKEOFF page during the intersection takeoff? a.

300 ft

b.

600 m

c.

970 ft

d.

970 m

Ans. Ans. d

Insertion of a 970 m. shift from the runway threshold position during preflight by pressing RLS key adjacent AOM1.15/9 to the TO SHIFT select prompt is replaced by the TO SHIFT active prompt. Pressing the same key second time removes the 970-feet shift. P34 245. How can can you clear clear the alterna alternate te airport airport from the FMS (in flight)? flight)? a.

Delete Delete the ALTN ALTN FLT FLT PLAN PLAN from from the the F–PLN F–PLN page page

b.

By the the ALTN ALTN airport airport prompt prompt which which is branching branching from from the the FUEL FUEL PRED PRED page page

c.

By clear clear the the ALTN ALTN airpor airportt from from the the F-PL F-PLN N INIT INIT page page A

d.

By the NO ALTN prompt on the HOLD page which is branching from the LAT REV page

Ans. d

AOM1.15/9 P28 246. In flight, VOR VOR selector is recommended recommended to set in NAV position in order to improve NAV accuracy. accuracy. a.

True

b.

False Ans. Ans. a

USE OF FMS & NAV During cruise both VORs should be tuned to cross check the aircraft position. However, when the VOR selector is in VOR, the FMS automatic update function will be downgraded. Therefore, it is recommended to leave the VOR selector in NAV and remote/auto tune. The VOR selection may be used to check radial at interval stages if required. PF’s CDU should preferably be set on PROG page but the other pages such as F–PLN may be selected if necessary. PNF’s CDU should preferably be set on F–PLN page.

AOM VOL 2 3.3/4 P1

247. What is the the validit validity y of the NAV NAV databas database? e? a.

As the date date shown shown on the the Active Active database database from from the A/C A/C STATU STATUS S page page

b.

As the the date shown shown on on the Activ Active e database database from from the A/C STATU STATUS S page and can be extended extended for for 2 days (+ 2 days)

c.

As the the date shown shown on on the Activ Active e database database from from the A/C STATU STATUS S page and can be expired expired 2 days days before (- 2 days)

d. As the date shown on the Active database from the A/C STATUS page and can be extended for 2 days or expired 2 days before ( ± ± 2 days)

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

87

AOM2.15/9P1 248. What is the maximum difference limit of using NAV mode until MDA MDA or LOC LOC capture if NAV accuracy accuracy on FMS PROG showed “I” or “LOW”? a.

Difference Difference between between remote remote tune tune VOR/DM VOR/DME E and FMS BRG/DIST BRG/DIST less than 1 nm

b.


c.


d.

Difference Difference between between remote remote tune VOR/DME VOR/DME and FMS BRG/DIST BRG/DIST less than 4 nm

Ans. a

The arrival route/STAR may be flown by promulgated navigation aids or using the FMS if it is defined and checked on the FMS flight plan page and “RI” or “HIGH” accuracy is shown in NAV mode of PROG page. If “I” (IRS only) or “LOW” accuracy is displayed on PROG page then the FMS position must be checked by the following procedure before using FMS arrival routes. -

Insert a VOR/DME ident in the FMS BRG/DIST TO function.

-

Remote tunes the same VOR/DME on PROG page.

-

Compare the DME distance from VOR and distance from PROG page. If the difference is less than limit, FMS position is considered reliable. 

3 nm (or RNP requirement) en route



2 nm in TMA (50nm)



1 nm on approach (15 nm)

If the distance is more than limit then FMS position is not reliable and the navigation must be based on raw data.

AOM VOL 2 3.3/6 P1

249. Which Which A/C system system is direct direct supplied supplied by ENG bleed air separate separately ly from pneumatic pneumatic system system? ?

a. Engine starting b. Wing anti-ice c. Hydraulic tank pressurization d. Thrust reverser

Ans. Ans. d

The pneumatics system supplies high pressure air for : -

Air Air cond condit ition ioning ing /Pre /Press ssur uriz izat atio ion, n,

-

Engine starting,

-

Wing an anti-ice,

-

Hydr Hydrau auli lic c tank tank pres pressu suri riza zati tion on,, and and

-

Pota Potable ble wate waterr tank tank pres pressu suri riza zati tion on..

Separate systems are used for : -

Engi Engine ne air air int intak ake e ant antii-ic icin ing g , and and

-

Thrust reverser.

AOM1.16P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

88

250. 250. What What is the func functio tion n of the bleed bleed valv valve? e? a.

A shutoff valve

b.

A flo flow w con contr trol ol valv alve

c.

A pre press ssur ure e reg regul ulat ate e val valve ve

d.

A shutof shutofff valve valve and a press pressure ure regula regulate te valve valve

Ans. d

ENGINE BLEED AIR Air is generally bled from intermediate stage of the engine HP compressor (IP stage). During low engine speed, when the pressure from IP stage is low, air is automatically bled from the last compressor stage (HP stage). The bleed valve is installed downstream of the IP / HP ducting and acts as a shutoff and a pressure regulator valve. When upstream pressure is sufficient, downstream pressure is regulated at 46 psi.

AOM1.16P2

251. It is not not recomme recommend nd to use use ground ground pneumati pneumatic c power power for?

a. Engine starting. b. Hydraulic reservoir pressurization. c. Supply air conditioning packs. d. Pressurize potable water system.

Ans. Ans. c

Ground pneumatic power source On the ground, the A/C bleed system can be supplied by HP ground air supply units. This allows : Supp Supply ly to the the air air cond condit itio ioni ning ng pack packs s (no (nott rec recom omme mend nded ed due due to to pos possi sibl ble e pac pack k contamination). -

Engine starting

-

Hydraulic reservoir pressurization.

(Normally, potable tanks are pressurized by bleed air tapped from the left pneumatic duct-AOM 1.18 P1)

AOM1.16P3

252. If HP VALVE VALVE P/B is in AUTO AUTO (P/B in), in), which which condition condition will cause cause the HP valves valves to to open? a.

Engi Engine ne is is set set in high high thru thrust st

b.

Bleed leed valv alve P/B P/B is OFF

c.

The valve upstream temperature is exceeds 393O C

d.

Wing Wing anti-ic anti-ice e syste system m has been been turned turned on

Ans. d

HP VALVE P/B (2) AUTO (P/B (P/B in)

The valve is automatically opened provided the related BLEED VALVE P/B is selected in AUTO The HP valve remains opened when: - The HP stage pressure is below 86 PSI, provided ANTI-ICE P/B is selected OFF. OFF. - The HP stage pressure is below 141 PSI, provided ANTI-ICE P/B is selected ON.

- The HP temperature is below 393O C (GE), 378O C (PW), and pressure below 73 PSI

AOM1.16P8


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

89

253. Which Which statement statement is not true, true, regarding regarding the APU APU bleed bleed valve? valve? a.

When APU bleed valve valve switch switch is ON, both ENG ENG bleed bleed valves valves will close close

b.

When APU APU bleed bleed valve switc switch h is ON, the the X-FEED X-FEED valve valve will will open provided provided that that the mode mode selector selector switch is at AUTO

c.

APU bleed valve valve will will close close automatica automatically lly ifif right right wing wing leak leak is detected detected

d.

APU bleed valve valve will close automatica automatically lly if APU or the left wing LEAK is activated activated

Ans. c

APU BLLED AIR The APU bleed valve is pneumatically operated, electrically controlled butterfly valve. The valve is automatically closed when: -

APU APU com compr pres esso sorr spe speed ed belo below w 95% 95%

-

Reverse Reverse flow flow in APU APU air bleed is sensed sensed by an an airflow airflow sensor sensor assoc associated iated with a built built in press pressure ure switch switch

-

An APU APU blee bleed d leak leak or LH ble bleed ed lea leak k is is det detec ecte ted d

When the APU bleed valve is open, the engine bleed valves are automatically closed. In normal automatic operation, the crossfeed valve is controlled to the same position as the APU bleed valve.

AOM1.16P2

254. Which Which state is not not true regarding regarding the pneumat pneumatic ic manifold manifold failure failure detection? detection? a.

Single Single detec detectio tion n loop loop is insta installe lled d in APU APU and pylo pylon n ducts ducts

b.

Dual detection detection loops loops are installed installed in in each each wing wing and and center center fuselage fuselage ducts ducts

c.

There There are are 3 leak leak lights lights on the overhe overhead ad panel panel

d.

The LEAK light will disappear disappear after the correspon corresponding ding switch switch is set to OFF

Ans. d

MANIFOLD FAILURE DETECTION Single detection loops are installed along the pylon and APU ducts. Dual detection loops are installed in the center fuselage and in each wing around pneumatic and anti-ice ducts. The warning system is divided into 3 zones; the right wing and pylon, the left wing and pylon, and the mid/aft fuselage section. An overheat is indicated by corresponding LEAK light on the overhead panel and by ECAM activation. The LEAK warning lights remain on as long as the overheat condition exist. When the overheat condition has disappeared, the circuit must be reset to reopen the valves. 255. When does does the the engine engine bleed valve valve close close automatica automatically? lly? a.

APU bleed bleed swit switch ch is ON with with APU APU availa available ble

b.

Ambie Ambient nt overhe overheat at of the the pylon, pylon, wing wing or fuse fuselag lage e duct duct is detect detected ed

c.

The The ENG ENG FIRE FIRE hand handle le is is pul pulle led d

d.

All of above

AOM1.16P4 Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

90

The bleed valve close automatically in the following cases: -

Pneumatic controller fault.

-

Overheat at the precooler outlet.

-

Bleed leak detection.

-

Failure of pressure regulator.

-

Failure of temperature regulator at the precooler outlet

-

Actuation of the associated ENG FIRE handle

-

APU bleed valve open

AOM1.16P2

256. Which Which statement statement is not true true regarding regarding the pneumati pneumatic c manifold manifold air leak detecti detection? on?

a. There are 3 areas of overheat detection, which are engine pylon, wing & fuselage center section, fuselage aft section and APU.

b. Some area is detected by single loop and some by double loop. c. The LEAK light remains ‘ON’ as long as the overheat condition prevails. d. When the overheat condition has disappeared the affected valve will be reopen automatically.

Ans. Ans. d

In the event of overheat, the corresponding amber LEAK light on the overhead panel comes on and the ECAM system is activated. This light remains on as long as the overheat condition prevails. But the valves affected by the overheat are spring-loaded closed and the circuits must be reset to open the valves when the overheat condition has disappeared. AOM1.16P4 257. During During engine restart restart in flight with with ignition at ‘CONT ‘CONT RELIGHT’ RELIGHT’ and START START P/B selected selected ON, which which statement is correct?

Ans. Ans. b

a. This configuration can be maintained at all time b. This configuration can be maintained at short time to prevent in flight decompression c. The packs valve will not be re-opened automatically when N 2 reach 45 % d. Both ignition circuits will be energized even the fuel lever is ‘OFF’


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

91

e. Engine restart in flight . . If restart unsuccessful Fuel Lever………………………………OFF After any starter assisted restart attempt START P/B……………………………...Release P/B……………………………...Release START OPEN LIGHT …………………CHECK Extinguished PACK VALVES ………………………..CHECK OPENED (IF restart is unsuccessful after a STARTER ASSISTED attempt, allow pack valves re-opening (START pushbutton switch released–out), for maintaining aircraft pressurization, before proceeding with a new start attempt)

SECOND RESTART ATTEMPT………………..CONSIDER .

AOM VOL 2, 4.1/2-17 P15-17

. END

[Both air conditioning systems are deactivated if an engine is started with the ENG START selector in CONT AOM 1.17 (GE) RELIGHT Position] P 17, PW P 20 258. GE engine: If one HP valve is closed, what should you perform to ensure that the thrust reverser reverser on the affected side will deploy after L/D? a.

Star Startt APU APU and and use use APU APU ble bleed ed

b.

Open pen the the X-FE X-FEE ED val valve ve

c.

Open Open the the X-FEE X-FEED D valv valve e and and sele select ct one pack pack OFF OFF

d.

Clos Close e the the X-FE X-FEED ED valv valve e manu manual ally ly

Ans Ans. c

TAA - TAH BLEED HP VALVE FAULT FOR LANDING AIR X-FEED………………………………………….MAN AIR X-FEED………………………………………….IN LINE ONE PACK…………………………………………..OFF

AOM VOL 2 With the bleed HP valve closed, reverser on affected side may not deploy due to insufficient air pressure EM Checklist from IP bleed. In order to ensure reverser deployment, it is recommended to open the air X-FEED valve and select one pack OFF for landing. 16.4 259. Where does the EPR EPR signal signal come come from? from? (PW)

Ans. Ans. b

a.

The ratio ratio between between turbine turbine discharg discharge e pressure pressure and input input pressure pressure of of high pressur pressure e compress compressor or

b.

The ratio between between turbine turbine discharge discharge pressure pressure and and fan fan inlet inlet pressu pressure re

c.

The ratio ratio between between output output press pressure ure of high high pressur pressure e compress compressor or and fan fan inlet inlet pressure pressure

d.

The ratio ratio between between output output pressure pressure of high high pressure pressure turbine turbine against against input pressu pressure re of low press pressure ure turbine


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

92

EPR The primary parameter for engine thrust control is the actual Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). It is the ratio of turbine discharge total pressure (PT4.95) to fan inlet total pressure (PT2). There are two PT 4.95 probes that sense PT 4.95 at two different locations. They join together to give average pressure.

AOM1.17PW

At the fan inlet, a combine PT2/TT2 probe measures the fan inlet total pressure (PT2).

P7

260. Which Which signal is used used to control Variable Variable Bypass Bypass Valve Valve (VBV) and Variable Variable Stator Stator Vane (VSV)? (VSV)? (GE) a.

Electr Electrica icall signal signal from from Mean Mean Engin Engine e Contr Control ol (MEC) (MEC)

b.

Fuel Fuel pres pressu sure re from from MEC MEC

c.

Hydra Hydrauli ulic c pres pressur sure e from from GREEN GREEN hydrau hydraulic lic syste system m

d.

Elec Electr tric ical al sign signal al from from FADE FADEC C

Ans Ans. b

VARIABLE BYPASS VALVE AND VARIABLE STATOR VANE Twelve Variable Bypass Valves (VBV) bypass part of primary airflow before entering high pressure compressor into the fan stream to achieve correct airflow matching between the low and high pressure compressors and reduce possibility of engines stall at all phases of engine operation. The VBV’s are operated by two hydraulic actuators controlled by fuel pressure from the MEC. The inlet guide vane and first five stages of HP compressor stator vanes are variable (VSV). They control airflow through the HP compressor performance and good stall margin over the whole operating range. The AOM1.17GE VSV are operated by two hydraulic actuators through levers and linkages. The actuators are controlled by fuel pressure from MEC. P4 261. What is the main main purpose purpose of Power Power Manageme Management nt Control Control (PMC)? (PMC)? (GE) (GE) a.

To tri trims ms (dow (downw nwar ard d only only)) the the fuel fuel flo flow w

b.

To cont contro roll mos mostt of of the the fuel fuel flow flow

c.

To meas measure ure the the mass mass fuel fuel flow flow and and displ displays ays on on FF/FU FF/FU indic indicato ator r

d.

To distri distribut bute e fuel fuel to fuel fuel nozzle nozzles s in combus combustio tion n chambe chamberr

Ans. a

MAIN ENGINE CONTROL (MEC) The MEC is a hydromechanical system. It provides for complete basic operation of the engine and controls most of the fuel flow. POWER MANAGEMENT CONTROL (PMC) The PMC is an electronic system. It controls more finely than MEC, a little part of the fuel flow. Via a torque motor, it trims (downward only) the fuel flow so that when it is operating, the max T/O and the max CL N1 are obtained for fixed position of the throttle lever, despite changes in flight or environmental conditions. AOM1.17GE The authority band allocated for down trim is sufficiently wide to accommodate all environmental conditions, but is limited to minimize thrust change under failure conditions. P2 262. Where does the main power supply for the Full Authority Digital Engine Control Control (FADEC) (FADEC) come from? (PW) Ans. Ans. c a.

A/C batteries

b.

The The FAD FADEC EC’s ’s own own bat batte teri ries es

c.

The The Perma Permane nent nt Mag Magne nett Alter Alterna nato torr (PMA) (PMA)

d.

The The A/C A/C elec electr tric ical al sys syste tem m


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

93

PW 4158 engine is controlled solely by an electronic unit called FADEC with no mechanical linkage between the engine and throttle lever in the flight deck. The FADEC, mounted at the fan case, consists of two independent control channels A and B. Each channel has its own inputs, outputs and power supply, but the data is crosstalked between the two channels for comparison and redundancy. The electronic circuits of both channels are supplied by a dedicated dual-output Permanent Magnet ALTERNATOR (PMA) (PMA) mounted on the accessory gearbox. In addition, 28 V DC aircraft electrical power also supplies to both channels to power various solenoids and FADEC for ground test purpose. AOM1.17PW FADEC is able to work without any aircraft system. It does not require electrical supply from aircraft network. Only throttle position is needed to modulate the thrust. P7-8 263. When does the Fuel Used Used (FU) counter counter reset? reset? a.

After After the the resp respect ective ive engine engine has been been shut shutdow down n

b.

After After selec selected ted the the ignition ignition swit switch ch to A or B for for engine engine star startin ting g

c.

Afte Afterr both both eng engin ines es have have been been sta start rted ed

d.

During During the respec respectiv tive e engine engine starts starts

Ans. d

FU COUNTER

AOM1.17

Displays fuel used. The reset of the FU indicator is automatic on ground during the respective engine start.

GE/P12 PW/P17

264. 264. Condit Condition ions: s: Thrus Thrustt is reduced reduced to idle. idle. Which condition is not considered as a ground idle? a.

During ta taxiing

b.

During During L/D roll roll with with thru thrust st reve reverse rserr deplo deployed yed

c.

In flig flight, ht, during during descen descentt with with slats slats retrac retracted ted

d.

In flight flight withou withoutt any anti-i anti-ice ce syste system m in use

Ans. b

Ground idle is possible both on ground and in flight according to these conditions: On ground -

When the reversers are stowed

In flight -

When the slats are retracted

-

When the engine anti-ice is off

AOM1.17GE

This is to obtain ground idle during descent for less fuel consumption.

P3

265 Which statement is not true regarding the engine oil cooling system? a.

The oil from the the oil tank is cooled by passing passing through air/oil cooler (PW)

b.

The oil from the the oil tank is cooled by passing passing through fuel/oil heat exchanger (PW)

c.

The oil from the the oil tank is cooled by passing passing through air/oil cooler (GE)

d.

The oil is cooled cooled by fuel/oil heat exchanger before returning to the oil tank (GE)

Ans.. c Ans


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

94

The pumped oil then supplies the four engine bearings and the accessory gearboxes. After passing through all lubricated component, the oil is pumped back to the reservoir by five scavenge pumps through filters and a magnetic chip detectors installed upstream of each pump. The scavenged oil then passes through master magnetic chip detector, the scavenge filter and the fuel/oil heat exchanger. The scavenge filter is bypassed when differential pressure reaches 40 psi (bypassed when the differential pressure reaches 85 psi) An oil clog warning is triggered when the pressure drop across the filter reaches 31 PSI AOM1.17GE P3 From oil tank, a single stage oil pressure pump supplies oil through oil main filter. If the pressure drop across the filter exceeds 50 psi, the oil clog warning is activated. The oil bypasses the filter if pressure drop exceeds 90 psi. The oil is then passes through an air/oil cooler and through a fuel/oil heat exchanger. Pressure tapping at fuel/oil heat exchanger outlet is used to detect high or low oil pressure conditions. Acceptable limits for high oil temperature are between 163 and 177O C for less than 20 min, or 177O C in transient conditions. Limit of AOM1.17PW low oil temperature is 50O C. The FADEC commands the temperature bypass valve, which causes the engine oil to bypass the fuel/oil heat exchanger. P4 266. What is the maximum oil temperature / minimum oil pressure at idle thrust? (GE)

a.

160 O C / 10 psi

b.

160 O C / 15-25 psi

c.

175 O C / 15-25 psi

d.

175 O C / 10 psi

Ans.. d Ans

OIL PRESSURE -

Normal pressure for ground and flight idle……. Min 10 psi / normal 15-25 psi

-

For other operating conditions…………………..Normal 45-55 psi / max 90 psi

OIL TEMPERATURE -

Takeoff………………………………… Takeoff……………… ……………………………..Normal …………..Normal 65-160O C / max 175O C

-

During transient operation, the oil temperature mat exceed 160O C but not exceed 175O C for a period of max 15 min. Whenever either these limits are exceeded, the engine should be shut down.

AOM2.17GE P2

267. What is the the minimu minimum m oil oil pressu pressure? re? (PW) (PW) a.

10 psi

b.

15 psi

c.

25 psi

d.

70 psi

Ans. d AOM2.17PW P1

268. What is the minimum oil quantity for GE and PW engine before flight? a.

14 QT + estimated estimated consumption consumption / 9 QT QT + estimated consumption respectively

b.


c.

8 QT QT + estimated estimated consumption consumption / 12 QT + estimated estimated consumption respectively

d.


Ans.. a Ans


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

95

(Flight Deck Preparation checklist item 19) GE Check that oil quantity indicators show minimum 14 QT + estimated consumption (max 0.55 QT/hr) and set white bug.

-

PW -

Check that oil quantity indicators show minimum 9 QT + estimated consumption (max 0.55 QT/hr) and set white bug.

AOM VOL 2 3.2/2P3

269. What is the the difference difference between between ignition ignition switch switch at position position A or B and CONT CONT RELIGHT? RELIGHT? a.

Ignition Ignition in position position A or B operates operates on ground, ground, ignition ignition in CONT CONT RELIGH RELIGHT T position position operates operates in flight flight

b.

Ignition in position A or B operates when fuel levers ON and N 2 < 45%, ignition in CONT RELIGHT position operates whenever fuel levers ON only

c.

Ignition Ignition in position position A or B operat operates es when when start start pushbutto pushbutton n is pushed, pushed, ignitio ignition n in CONT CONT RELIGH RELIGHT T position operates when fuel levers are selected to ON

d.

Both operation operation are the same, same, except except ignition ignition CONT RELIGHT RELIGHT is inhibited inhibited on ground ground

Ans. b

ENGINE IGNITION SYSTEM The system consists of two separate identical circuits A and B, and is controlled through the ignition selector on the ENG panel. When start A (or B) is selected, A (or B) system for engine 1 and 2 is activated provided that the corresponding HP FUEL lever is in ON position and N2 is below 45%.

AOM1.17

GE/P4 When CONT RELIGHT is selected, both A&B systems for engine 1 and 2 are activated provided that the HP FUEL lever is in ON position. They are not automatically deenergized when N2 reaches 45%. PW/P5 270. Which Which condition condition is not true, true, regarding regarding the ignition ignition and starting starting syste system? m? a.

The star startt valve valve opens opens when when the the relat related ed START START P/B is is press pressed ed

b.

When ignitio ignition n switch switch is selected selected to A, B or CRANK, CRANK, the pack pack valves valves are closed closed

c.

When ignition ignition switch switch is selected selected to CONT CONT RELIG RELIGHT, HT, the the pack pack valves valves are closed closed

d.

The start valve is closed when N 2 2 reaches 45%

Ans. Ans. c

The start valve is opened and air supplied to starter when the related START P/B is depressed, provided that the ignition selector has been set. The blue open light in the related START P/B indicates the start valve open position. When FUEL lever is selected ON, ignition and fuel flow will be initiated and the engine will accelerate provided that the ignition selector position is in A, B or CONT RELIGHT. When N2 reaches 45%, the starter valve will close and the starter disengaged. As long as the ENG START selector’s position is A, B or CRANK, the pack valves are closed. This situation AOM1.17 is indicated to the crew by the ARM lights, which extinguish during starting sequence but illuminate again when both engine N2 are above 45%. GE/P5 If the selector position is CONT RELIGHT, latching of one of the two START P/B closes the pack valves.

PW/P6

271. Which Which is not the the correct correct procedur procedure e for engine engine start start with battery? battery?

a. Ignition switch must be selected to ‘Start B’ only. b. Engine 2 may be start first. c. Fuel lever will be select ‘ON’ after 20 sec. d. Engine start P/B must be ‘released’ after GEN FAULT light extinguished.

Ans. Ans. b


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

96

BATTERY ENGINE START Caution: Ensure chocks are in place. Before Start GEN1…………………………………………………..ON When cleared to start



APU bleed or External Pneumatic Power………….ON IGNITION …………….…………….…………… …………….…………….………………..START …..START B [Fuel cross feed valve will be locked in actual (last) position. When electrical power is cut off (AOM1.16 P.3)] 

Engine 1 Start ENG 1 START P/B ………………………………….PRE ………………………………….PRESS SS & HOLD -

Confirm starter operation by observing control column movement.

CLOCK…………………………………………………START ENG 1 FUEL LEVER…………………………………ON after 20 sec. 

When GEN1 FAULT light extinguishes ENG 1 START P/B……………………………………RELEASE



After engine 1 Start

AOM2.17

COCKPIT PREPARATION…………………………..COMPLETE

GE/P11

ENGINE 2……………………………………………...START

PW/P9

272. What is the purpose purpose of the the ignition ignition transfer transfer switch switch? ? (TAT – TAZ) TAZ) a.

Transfer Transfer ignition ignition syste system m A to ignition ignition system system B in case case of syste system m B fails fails

b.

Transfer Transfer ignition ignition syste system m B to ignition ignition system system A in case case of syste system m A fails fails

c.

Switching Switching the ignitio ignition n system system A to use use the power power from AC EMER EMER bus in in case of of ignition ignition system system B fails fails

d.

Switching Switching the ignitio ignition n system system B to use the power power from AC EMER EMER bus in case case of ignition ignition system system A fails fails

Ans. c

To provide the starting system in case of ignition system B failure, an ignition transfer switch can be used to AOM1.17PW energize the ignition system A from the emergency bus bar. P6 273. What is the engine “light up” time for GE and PW? a.

20 sec. on both GE and PW

b.

25 sec. on both GE and PW

c.

20 sec. for GE and 25 sec. for PW

d.

25 sec. for GE and 20 sec. for PW

Ans.. d Ans

GE Monitor EGT when it rises…………… rises………………………………… ……………………….LP ….LP If no EGT rises within 25 sec after “FUEL ON”, move fuel lever to OFF. PW Monitor EGT when it rises…………… rises………………………………… ……………………….LP ….LP

AOM VOL 2

If no EGT rises within 20 sec after “FUEL ON”, move fuel lever to OFF.

3.2/2P7


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

97

274. What is the EGT limit during engine starting? (GE)

a.

750 O C for 40 sec

b.

750 O – 870 O C for 40 sec

c.

820 O – 870 O C for 40 sec

d.

750 O – 870 O C for 40 sec / above 870 O C with no time delay

Ans.. d Ans

EGT During starting, 40 sec time limit………………………………..750 limit………………………………..750 – 870O C During starting, no time limit…………………………………….750 limit…………………………………….750O C AOM2.17GE Any starting EGT above 750O C must be recorded in aircraft log. Any starting EGT in the range 820 - 870O C requires maintenance action before next flight (intended flight may be completed). P1 275. What is the EGT EGT limit during during engine start start on ground, and what is the conditio condition n that indicates indicates the possibility possibility of ENG hot start? (PW )

a.

535 O C and if EGT reaches 400 O C before N 2 2 has reached 30%, an engine hot start might occur

b.

535 O C and if EGT reaches 400 O C before N 2 2 has reached idle, an engine hot start might occur

c.

650 O C and if EGT reaches 400 O C before N 2 2 has reached 30%, an engine hot start might occur

d.

650 O C and if EGT reaches 400 O C before N 2 2 has reached idle, an engine hot start might occur

Ans. Ans. a

EGT -

During start, on ground………………………………..535 ground………………………………..535O C

-

During start, in flight……………………………………650 flight……………………………………650O C

For in-flight start, if EGT exceeds 535O C, the maximum temperature and duration must be recorded for maintenance action. HOT START (TAK – TAZ)

AOM2.17PW P1 AOM VOL 2

If EGT reaches 400O C before N2 has reached 30%, anticipate a possible hot start and be prepared to select EM Checklist FUEL lever to OFF to prevent a hot start. 17.47 276. What should should you perform perform first first after after notice notice that the start start valve valve fails to close close when N2 > 45% during ENG starting? a.

FUEL lever OFF, and after after 30 30 sec then select select ENG START START selecto selectorr to OFF OFF

b.

Select Select ENG START START selector selector to OFF OFF and check check OPEN OPEN light light is extinguish extinguished ed

c.

Shutdown Shutdown the pneumatic pneumatic in in used (APU (APU bleed, bleed, exter external nal pneumati pneumatic, c, or X-FEE X-FEED D from the other other ENG) ENG)

d.

Call maintenanc maintenance e personnel personnel to close close the start start valve valve manually manually

Ans. b

START VALVE FAILS TO CLOSE (TAA – TAZ) AOM VOL 2

ENG START selector

EM Checklist 17.56


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

98

277. At which which speed that that you need to reduce reduce revers reverse e thrust to idle idle reverse reverse during during L/D roll? a.

80 kt kt gr ground sp speed

b.

60 kt kt gr ground sp speed

c.

80 kt IAS

d.

60 kt IAS

Ans. c

The following thrust settings shall be used for normal reverse. At speed above 80 kt IAS: -

As required up to reverse stop but never more than 95% N1 (90% N1 if OAT below 30O C). When landing on long, dry runway, it is recommended to use idle reverse only on both engines throughout the landing roll in the interest of passenger comfort and noise abatement.

At 80 kt IAS (PNF calls out “EIGHTY”) -

Start reverse thrust reduction so as to reaches the idle reverse at approx. 60 kt IAS.

At 60 kt IAS (PNF calls out “SIXTY”) -

AOM VOL 2

Both engines at idle reverse. Do not unreverse if retardation is still required.

3.3/7 P2

278. What is the most probable caused if you found found that the oil quantity is increasing in-flight during steady state of engine operation? (GE) a.

Oil Oil was was over over ser servi vice ced d befo before re fli fligh ght t

b.

Fuel Fuel leak leak into into oil from from fuel fuel / oil heat heat excha exchange nger r

c.

Oil temp tempera eratur ture e is risin rising g and caus caused ed oil oil to expan expand d in volum volume e

d.

Oil pressure is dropping and caused oil to expand in volume

Ans. b

ENG OIL QTY ABNORMAL INCREASE (TAA – TAH)

AOM VOL 2

Oil quantity increase is caused by fuel entering the oil system.

EM Checklist

Whatever the source of the fuel leak, fuel enters the oil system because of the fuel pressure is always higher than the oil pressure at the respective interface.

17.14

NOTE: Maintenance action is required before next flight.


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

99

PROCEDURE So as to allow the early detection of rapidly developing fuel leaks into oil system and the timely initiation of required maintenance actions, it is recommend that the flight crew monitor the oil quantity during steady state engine operation as follows: Before ENG start -

Oil QTY bugs……………………………………..SET

At least 30 sec after the ENG reaches stabilized idle -

Oil QTY………………………………………… QTY……………………………………………Check …Check below bug or below 20 quarts

After top of climb -

Oil QTY bugs……………………………………..RESET

During steady state ENG operation -

Oil QTY……………………………………………MONOTOR

Oil QTY increasing during steady state ENG operation or oil QTY approaching full -

NORMAL ENG OPERATION…………………..CONTINUE

AOM Bulletin

-

OIL QTY…………………………………………..Record QTY…………………………………………..Record increase for maintenance

No. 38

279. 279. Which Which source source drives drives the N1 or EPR command pointer (black and white needle on the N1 or EPR indicator)? a.

Thru Thrust st Cont Contro roll Com Compu pute terr (TC (TCC) C)

b.

Throttle le lever

c.

Auto Auto Thro Thrott ttle le Sys Syste tem m (AT (ATS) S)

d.

PMC or FADEC

Ans. d

N1 COMMAND POINTER POINTER (black and white) (GE)

AOM1.17GE

Indicates the N1 command computed by the PMC.

P11

N1 COMMAND POINTER POINTER (black and white) (PW)

AOM1.17PW

Indicates the N1 command computed by the FADEC.

P15

280. The engines engines must must be stabilized stabilized at idle approx approx.. 3 min before shutdow shutdown.(PW n.(PW)) a.

True

b.

False

Ans. b

Arrival - Shut down engines after operation at, or near idle for, at least a 5 minutes cooling after landing. Note

AOM 2.17 (PW) If the time for taxiing to the parking gate is less than 5 minutes, the engine may be shut down at gate arrvial P.4

RP shall start his stop watch when LP selects forward idle on both engines in order to note landing and engine thermo-stabilization times

AOM VOL 2.0 3.3/7 P2


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

100

281. With both engines engines flameout flameout with unreliabl unreliable e airspeed airspeed (i.e. Volcanic Volcanic ash encounte encounter), r), what is the target target to aim?

a. - 1° for best lift/drag ratio. b. - 3° for best glide angle. c. Optimum speed of 260 kt or green dot speed if available d. - 2.5° (add +0.5° / 10 T above 100 T)

Ans. Ans. d

BOTH ENGINES FLAMOUT

IGNITION……………………………….CONT RELIGHT RAT………………………………………ON

THROTTLES………………………………..IDLE FUEL SUPPLY……………………………..CHECK CREW OXY MASKS……………………….CONSIDER/ON OPTIMUM SPEED…………………………260 KT IAS (Use green dot speed if available) If unreliable or lost airspeed indication (Volcanic ash encounter) PITCH ATTITUDE……….. ATTITUDE……….. ………………-2.5O (add 0.5O per 10 T above 100T) USE ELEVATOR AND RUDDER WITH CARE ABOVE SPEED 170 KT IAS COMMUNICATIONS……………………….VHF1/ATC1 RELIGHT………………………. ……………MONITOR

.







AOM VOL 2

END

4.1/2-17 P1-5

282. What are the correct correct actions actions you you should perform perform if you found that that the EPR is different different during climb climb out (below 14200 ft)? (PW) a.

Disconnec Disconnectt the auto auto throttle throttle and adjust adjust the throttle throttle manually manually until until both both EPR is equivalen equivalentt then reengage the auto throttle

b.

Disconnec Disconnectt the auto auto throttle throttle and reduce reduce thrust thrust manually manually then reengage reengage the the auto throttle throttle

c.

Advanc Advancing ing both both thrott throttles les by by at least least 2 degree degrees s then then releasi releasing ng them them

d.

Reducing both throttles by at least 2 degrees then releasing them

Ans. c

For PW engines, a difference in EPR between the two engines may be observed during climb up to approximately 14200 ft. This difference has a negligible effect on the aircraft handling. However, the EPR difference may be corrected by advancing both throttle levers by at least 2 degrees and then releasing AOM VOL 2 them, returning the thrust control to the A/THR. This action is sufficient to ensure that both FADEC have switched over from takeoff phase to the flight phase and, thus, provide consistent EPR CMD computations. 3.2/3 P1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

101

283. What is the EGT limitation for T/O, MCT, Climb and Cruise? (GE)

a.

960 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 890, 835 O C respective

b.


Ans.. a Ans

c.

935 (for 5 min or 10 min if ENG failure), 925, 890, 835 C respective

AOM2.17GE

d.


P2

O

284. What is is the EGT EGT limitatio limitation n for T/O, T/O, and and MCT? (PW)

a.

650 (max 5 min), 625 (max 10 min if ENG failure), 625 O C respective

b.


c.


d.


Ans. Ans. b

AOM2.17PW P1 285. Which failure is displayed on the LH ECAM as underlining of system system title and preceded by an asterisk? a.

Primary failure

b.

Secon econda dary ry fail failur ure e

c.

Inde Indep pende endent nt fail failur ure e

d.

Advisory alert warning

Ans. b

TYPE OF FAILURE Failures causing warnings are divided into 3 types: Primary failure This is a failure of a system or component, which affects other systems or components. It is recognized by the failure title written in a box on the WD and the warning lights on the pilot instrument panels. Secondary failure This is a system or component failure as a result of another system or component failure. It is recognized by the underline system title and preceded by an asterisk. The warning lights related to failure on the pilot instrument panels remain on. Independent failure This is a failure that is not caused by a failure of another system or component. Instead, it is an isolated failure and does not affect other systems or components. It is recognized by the underlined system title and the warning lights on the pilot instrument panels. AOM1.19/1P2 Flight Deck Crew Training Department Last Update on 09 March 2011 By Capt. Somsak P.

Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

102

286. Which Which statement statement is not true true regarding regarding the ECAM ECAM SD SD (RH ECAM) ECAM)? ? a.

When warning warning is detected detected,, the SD will display display the appropri appropriate ate system system automatica automatically lly

b.

The manual manual mode mode can be select selected ed by the P/B P/B on the ECAM ECAM control control panel panel to display display the the correspond corresponding ing system

c.

The advisory advisory automa automatic tic mode mode can can be displayed displayed in all all phases phases of flight flight

d.

The failur failure e relate related d automa automatic tic mode mode has the highes highestt priori priority ty

Ans. c

SYSTEM DISPLAY (SD) The right ECAM is normally called System Display (SD) and can be described into 4 modes as follow: -

Failure related automatic mode. As soon as a warning is detected, the appropriate system page is automatically displayed. The system page is cleared by means of the CLR P/B or if the failure conditions have disappeared. This mode has priority over all others but can be overridden if a system page is called manually.

-

Advisory automatic mode. When a parameter drifts out of normal range, the relevant system page is automatically displayed to attract the crew’s attention. This mode is only active in cruise.

-

Manual mode. This mode can be selected any time through the P/B on the ECAM control panel. Automatic mode has priority and will disengage manual mode.

-

Flight phase related automatic mode. This mode is automatically engaged if the other modes are not engaged. This mode displayed eight system pages related to twelve flight phases.

AOM1.19/1P4

287. 287. When When will will the wheel wheel page page be displa displayed yed? ? a.

From From pushin pushing g back back till till T/O and and from from L/D L/D until until ENG ENG shutdo shutdown wn

b.

From From ENG ENG start starting ing till till T/O T/O and from from L/D unti untill ENG shutdo shutdown wn

c.

From pushing pushing back back till till T/O T/O and and from from L/D L/D gear gear down down until until ENG shutdown shutdown

d.

From ENG starting starting till T/O and from L/D gear down until ENG shutdown shutdown

Ans. d

Flight phase related automatic mode DOOR

Displays from power on until second ENG start and from first ENG shutdown.

WHEEL

Displays from second ENG start till T/O and from L/D gear down till first

ENGINE

Displays from T/O till slats retraction.

CRUISE

Displays from slats retraction until L/D gear down.

ENG shutdown.

ENG START Displays when ENG start selector selector in START A, START B or CRANK. APU

Displays when APU master switch in ON position until APU RPM > 95% for 15 sec.

AOM1.19/1P6

288. The EGPWS EGPWS provides provides a preventi prevention on of a potential potential terrain conflic conflicting ting by?

a. Computes the terrain caution and warning envelopes from its terrain database against a/c ground

Ans. Ans. d

speed and turn rate.

b. It provides visual and voice warning to alert flight crew about potential of terrain conflict. c. It provides pitch attitude guidance to escape from conflicted terrain. d. a. and b. are correct


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

103

The EGPWS provides visual and audio synthetic voice warning to alert the flight crew about potential terrain conflicts. The enhanced functions are: - A Terrain Terrain Awarenes Awareness s Display Display (TAD) (TAD) function function which which can can predict predict a potential potential conflic conflictt with terrain terrain ahead of the A/C and display terrain data on ND - A Terrain Terrain Clearanc Clearance e Floor (TCF) (TCF) function function which which alerts alerts the the flight crew crew of exces excessive sive terrai terrain n closure closure ahead Visual alerts: -

TAD: red red GPWS GPWS light illumin illuminate ate and the the appropriate appropriate color color is display displayed ed on ND

AOM1.19/2

-

TCF: TCF: both both red red GPWS GPWS and ambe amberr G/S illu illumin minate ate

P1A-1C

289. Which Which statement statement is not true true regarding regarding the Flight Flight Warning Warning Computer Computer (FWC)? (FWC)? a.

If one of of the two two FWC’s FWC’s fails, fails, all red warning warnings s (Master (Master warning warning light) are still still availabl available e

b.

If one of of the two two FWC’s FWC’s fails, fails, all amber amber cautions cautions (Master (Master caution caution light) light) are still availa available ble

c.

If one of of the two two FWC’s FWC’s fails, fails, the local warning warnings s (Overhead (Overhead panel) panel) are still still availabl available e

d.

If both FWC fail, all red warning warning and amber amber caution caution are not available available

Ans. b

FLIGHT WARNING COMPUTERS Two FWC’s acquire aircraft system data to process warnings, cautions and status functions. The critical failure signals, mainly red warnings, are fed to both FWC’s. The other signals, mainly amber cautions, are split between the two FWC’s.

AOM1.19/1P4

SINGLE FWS FAULT -

Red warning are not affected.

-

Amber cautions processed by the affected FWS are lost, but local warnings are available.

AOM VOL 2

DUAL FWS FAULT -

EM Checklist

All red warnings and amber cautions are lost, but local warnings are available.

19.2

290. Which Which statement statement is not correc correctt regarding regarding the terrain terrain display display for EGPWS? EGPWS?

Ans. Ans. d

a. The 50% red on ND means the threatening terrain is +200ft. b. The 50 % yellow on ND means the threatening terrain is +1000 ft. c. The 12.5 % green on ND means the threatening terrain is -1000 ft. d. The 100 % black on ND mean no terrain data.


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

104

The terrain is displayed independently on each ND if: -

The on on side side TERR TERR ON ND ND pushb pushbutt utton on is press pressed ed in the ON ON ND positi position on

-

A cau cauti tion on or warn warnin ing g ale alert rt is acti activa vate ted d

The terrain data is displayed on the ND with reference to a code of colors and textures, which indicated the threat in a color as: 50% RED

=

A/C altitude is below terrain 2000 ft or more

50% Yellow

=

A/C altitude is below terrain between 1000 ft and 2000 ft

25% Yellow

=

A/C altitude is below terrain 1000 ft or above terrain 500 ft

25% GREEN

=

A/C altitude is above terrain between 250 ft or 500 ft to1000 ft

12.5% GREEN =

A/C altitude is above terrain between 1000 ft to 2000 ft

100% BLACK =

A/C altitude is above terrain more than 2000 ft

AOM1.19/2

The margenta represents the unknown terrain.

P1D

291. What is the the correct correct pull up procedure procedure if GPWS GPWS “TERRAI “TERRAIN” N” warning warning generated? generated? a.

Wait for 10 sec, if “TERRAI “TERRAIN” N” warning warning does not stop, stop, make make an an immediate immediate pull up

b.

Go-around Go-around immediate immediately ly by following following the normal normal go-arou go-around nd proced procedure ure

c.

Pulling up by manually pitch up 20 O NU initially and set throttles to full thrust, retract flaps and L/D gear (if extended) immediately

d.

Pulling up by manually pitch up 20 O NU initially with wing level and set throttles manually to full thrust, retract only speed brakes (if extended)

Ans. Ans. d

GPWS ALERTS A go-around shall be initiated if the cause of the warning cannot be identified immediately. During daylight VMC conditions when positive verification is made that no hazard exists, the warning may be considered cautionary. Simultaneously Pitch attitude…………………… attitude……………………………………… …………………………….INITIALLY ………….INITIALLY 20O NU -

Use Stick Shaker boundary as upper limit pitch

Throttles……………………………………………………….FULL FORWARD Autopilot……………………………………………………….DISCONNECT A/THR………………………………………………………… DISCONNECT BANK…………………………………………………………..WINGS LEVEL Speed brakes lever…………………………………………..CHECK RETRACTE When flight path is safe and GPWS warning ceases -

Decrease pitch attitude and accelerate

AOM VOL 2

When speed above VLS and V/S positive -

EM Checklist

Clean up aircraft as required

19.1


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

105

292. In which which condition condition can can the GPWS GPWS warnings warnings be cance cancelled lled or inhibited inhibited? ? a.

A flaps flaps or L/D gear warning warning which which related related to the exist existed ed malfunc malfunction tion

b.

Glides Glideslop lope e warnin warning g when when makin making g a locali localizer zer appr approac oach h

c.

Both a. and b.

d.

After After GPWS GPWS warnin warning g occurr occurred, ed, nothin nothing g can be inhibit inhibited ed

Ans. c

When SINK RATE, TERRAIN, DON’T SINK, TOO LOW GEAR, TOO LOW FLAPS, or GLIDESLOPE warning occurs, action shall be taken to correct flight path or aircraft configuration. The warning above may be cancelled or inhibited by use of the inhibit or override switch for these conditions: -

-

Glide slope warning when making localizer approach, when conditions require deliberate approach below glide slope or when glide slope signal is unreliable.

AOM VOL 2

Flaps and gear warning when a malfunction exists as stated in the checklist.

3.3/10 P1

293. What is the correct correct proced procedure ure of the stall stall recover recovery y during during flight? a.

Appl Apply y TOGA TOGA and and red reduc uce e pitc pitch h atti attitu tude de

b.

Apply TOGA, TOGA, reduce reduce pitch pitch attitude attitude and and retracts retracts slats/ slats/flaps flaps as soon soon as possi possible ble

c. Apply TOGA and reduce pitch attitude to 0 O d. Apply TOGA and reduce pitch attitude to 5 O NU then extends the slats

Ans. Ans. a

Recovery procedure Whenever a stall warning (i.e. Sticker shaker activation) is experienced at low altitude, this should be considered as an immediate threat to maintaining a safe flight path. At lift off: Thrust levers………………………………………………….TOGA Pitch attitude…………………… attitude……………………………………… …………………………….12.5 ………….12.5O NU During any other flight phases after lift off: Thrust levers…………………………………………………..TOGA Pitch attitude…………………………………………………..REDUCE Slats/flaps……………………………… Slats/flaps…………………………………………………… ……………………..Do ..Do not retract After initial recovery: Maintain the speed close to the stick shaker speed until it is safe to accelerate (closely monitor both the speed and the speed trend arrow) Bank angle………………… angle……………………………………… ………………………………….Wing …………….Wing levels Speed brakes…………………………………………………Check retracted In clean configuration and below 20000 ft: Slats……………………………………………………………Extend When out of stall and if no threat of ground contact: Landing gear (if down)……………………………………….Up down)……………………………………….Up

AOM VOL 2

Recover normal speed and select flaps as required

3.3/10 P4


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

106

294. What is the correct correct procedur procedure e of the upset recovery recovery from the A/C nose nose high attitude attitude and high bank angle? angle? a.

Apply Apply nose nose down down elevato elevatorr simult simultane aneous ously ly with with roll roll wing to to level level

b.

Apply nose down down elevator elevator until approa approaches ches the the horizont horizontal al attitude attitude and then roll roll wing wing to level level

c.

Apply Apply full full thru thrust st firs firstt in orde orderr to reco recover very y the the speed speed

d.

Roll Roll wing wing to level level then then apply apply nose nose down down elevat elevator or

Ans. b

Recovery from nose high, high bank angle: Pilots must apply nose down elevator but maintain bank angle in order to quickly reduce pitch attitude. As the nose approaches the horizon, bank angle should be reduced to zero and pitch attitude adjusted to recover normal airspeed.

AOM VOL 2

By the other hand: PITCH and THRUST then BANK.

3.3/10 P5

295. What is the correct procedure of the upset recovery recovery from the A/C nose nose down attitude attitude and high bank angle? a.

Apply Apply nose nose up eleva elevator tor simu simulta ltaneo neousl usly y with roll roll wing wing to level level

b.

Apply nose up elevator elevator until until approach approaches es the horizontal horizontal attitude attitude and then then roll wing to level

c.

Reduce Reduce thru thrust st firs firstt in orde orderr to prev prevent ent the the over over spee speed d

d.

Reduce Reduce thrust thrust and roll wing to level simultaneo simultaneously usly,, then apply nose up elevator elevator

Ans. d

Recovery from nose down, high bank angle: The nose down, high bank angle upset requires prompt action from the pilot since attitude is rapidly exchanged for speed. Airspeed in that situation can rapidly increase beyond airplane limits. It is important to roll the aircraft to wing level before applying nose up elevator, especially if bank angle exceeds 90 degrees. Simultaneous application of roll control and thrust reduction may be necessary. The pilot should also extend the speed brakes as necessary.

AOM VOL 2

By the other hand: BANK and THRUST then PITCH.

3.3/10 P6

296. Which Which condition condition does not generate generate the T/O CONFIG CONFIG warning warning when T/O thrust thrust is applied? applied? a.

Stab Stabil iliz izer er set setti ting ng is is not not in T/O T/O ran range ge

b.

Slats/ Slats/fla flaps ps are not in T/O config configura uratio tion n

c.

Park arking ing br brake ake is is set set

d.

Spee Speed d bra brake ke hand handle le is not not arm armed ed

Ans. Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

107

TAKEOFF WARNING SYSTEM The system provides aural warning (CRC) through the cockpit speakers and the warning display when aircraft is not in takeoff configuration and: -

Takeoff thrust is applied, or

-

T/O CONFIG TEST button is pushed

Takeoff warning function is processed in FWC 1 and FWC 2. The computer will activate the warnings under any one of the following conditions: -

Horizontal stabilizer not in takeoff range

-

Slats/flaps not in takeoff configuration

-

Speed brakes or ground spoilers extended

-

Parking brake on

-

Door not closed

-

Brake temperature out of limit

-

Any probe heat off

If the above parameters are correct, the display will be “NORM FOR T.O”.

AOM1.19/6P1

297. Which Which statement statement is not true regarding regarding the flight flight procedure procedure chapter chapter “Cruising” “Cruising”? ?

a.

Bank angle limiter should be set to 15 O when altitude is above 20000 ft

b.

Bank angle limiter should be set to 15 O when cruising altitude is above optimum flight level

c. d.

Cruising Cruising altitude altitude within within 2000 2000 ft of the optimum optimum level, fuel burn burn will will be within within 1.5% 1.5% of the the optimum optimum performance Cruising Cruising altitude altitude 4000 ft below or above the optimum optimum level, level, fuel burn may increase increase about 4%

Ans. a

FLIGHT LEVEL SELECTION The cruising level should be maintained as near as possible to the OPTIMUM level in order to obtain best fuel economy. If cruising level is within 2000 ft of the optimum level, the fuel burn will be within 1.5% of the optimum performance. But if 4000 ft below optimum cruising level is maintained, an increase of about 4% in burn can be expected. Conversely, if cruising level in above optimum (up to ceiling) is contemplated, the increase in burn may also reach 4%. STABILITY AT HIGH ALTITUDE When cruising close to maximum FL and particularly above the optimum level, the bank angle limiter should AOM VOL 2 be set to 15O. A bank angle of 25O will increase the wing load by approximately 17% therefore increasing the stall speed and reduce the stall margin. At lower altitude the bank angle limiter should be in NORM. 3.3/4 P1 298. Condition: Condition: L/D L/D at BKK R/W 21R, 21R, wind 120/15G 120/15G25, 25, A/THR A/THR is in used. used.

Ans. Ans. c

What is the correct approach speed?

a.

V LS LS

b.

V LS LS + 5

c.

V LS LS + 10

d.

V LS LS + 15


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

108

Normal approach speed will be VLS + wind correction The wind correction = 1/3 WIND SPEED or GUST VALUE whichever is higher. -

Maximum wind correction is 15 kt

-

Wind speed is the value reported by tower or ATIS. Gust value is the difference of maximum and average wind speed, e.g. for a wind of 20 kt gusting 30 kt, then the gust value is 10 kt.

-

Apply wind correction only if there is no tail wind component.

-

If A/THR is used or when significant ice accretion is suspected, minimum wind correction is 5 kt.

-

In case of malfunction and VREF correction < 20 kt then maximum wind correction = 20 kt - VREF correction.

AOM VOL 2

If VREF correction > 20 kt then do not apply any wind correction.

3.3/6 P2

-

299. Which Which statement statement is not correc correctt regarding regarding the crosswin crosswind d landing? landing?

a. The upwind wheels will touchdown first. b. To maintain zero drift, some bank angle into the wind is required. c. Precipitation in crosswind condition may create false impression of a/c drift or no drift. d. To improve directional control stability, always touch down with wing-level

Ans. Ans. d

CROSSWIND LANDING GENERAL In crosswind condition, fly the aircraft on the extended runway centerline with wings level and crabbing into the wind until approaching threshold. At approximately 100 ft smoothly bank into the wind and use opposite rudder for alignment with the runway. Keeps in mind the high roll rate capability and use only enough cross control to stop the drift. The initial touch down should, without floating, be on the upwind wheels first with bank angles as required to maintain zero drift. At 27 kt. crosswind component landing with zero drift will require a bank angle of maximum 6°. The wing tip will touch the ground at a bank angle of 15°. As during takeoff, keep banking the control column into the direction of the wind until taxi speed. As the pedals affect both rudder and nose wheel on the ground, only small corrections should be made during the entire landing roll. Do not oscillate the rudder. Control and aerodynamic stability are greatly improved when landing gear is firmly on the ground and spoilers extended.

AOM3.3/7 P.4

300. Which Which is not true true regarding regarding the the unreliable unreliable airspeed airspeed indicat indication? ion? a.

The airspeed airspeed may may increas increase e during during climb climb if the the pitot pitot probe probe is is blocke blocked d

b.

The airspeed airspeed may may decrea decrease se during during descent descent ifif the pitot probe is block blocked ed

c.

During During climb out, the altitud altitude e indicators indicators may may remain remain at the field elevatio elevation n if the static static port port is blocked blocked

d.

The stall stall warning warning and stick stick shaker shaker is unreliable unreliable and and may may be ignored ignored if the the airspeed airspeed fluctuates fluctuates and suspects that the pitot probe is blocked

Ans. d


Issue

02

OPC QUESTIONNAIRES

AB6 Page

TECHNICAL

109

The Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is a direct function of the difference between the Total Pressure (Pt) measured by pitot probe and the Ambient / Static Pressure (Ps) measured by the static ports. IAS = f (Pt – Ps) Whenever a pitot probe i s blocked, two scenarios can be considered: -

The pitot probe is blocked and the pitot probe drain holes are free. The IAS may fluctuate or drop quickly towards the stick shaker speed.

-

The pitot probe is blocked and the pitot drain holes are also blocked. The trapped Pt remains constant. -

In level flight (constant Ps), the IAS is constant and the pitot condition may go undetected.

-

In climb, the IAS increase (with decreasing Ps), possibly resulting in the activation of the overspeed warning.

-

In descent, the IAS decreases (with increasing Ps).

In the same manner, should the static ports be blocked, the ambient pressure is trapped and Ps remains constant. -

During T/O roll, the IAS indication is normal.

-

After lift-off, the static pressure is trapped and remains frozen at the airfield elevation: -

The indicated altitude remains also equal to the airfield elevation.

-

The IAS decreases as the Pt decreases with increasing altitude (at constant actual airspeed).

The stall warning and the stick shaker activation shaker activation are solely based on defined angle-of-attack thresholds. The activation of these warning is therefore not linked in any manner to the pitot-static system. The activation of the stall warning and the stick shaker shall be trusted at all times.

AOM VOL 2

Conversely, the overspeed warning may be untimely activated in case of unreliable airspeed indication.

8.3/1P1-3


Issue

02

AB6 OPC Questionnares_Technical_REV 2 Last Update 04 May 2011ByFCSomsakP

Recommend Documents